NEET

National Eligibility Entrance Test

Test Series Full Test - 1

Time: - 3 Hours Max. Marks:- 720

INSTRUCTIONS

1 . Answers are to be given on Response Sheet provided at the end of this paper. You can tear this Response
Sheet along the cut marks provided. Fill in the particulars carefully in the Response Sheet provided.

2 .
The test is of 3 hours duration.

3 . The Test Booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.

4 . There are four sections in the question paper.

The distribution of marks subjectwise in each section is as under for each correct response.

Section 1 - Physics (180 Marks) - 45 Questions

Section 2 - Chemistry {180 Marks) - 45 Questions

Section 3 - Botany (180 Marks) -45 Questions

Section 4 - Zoology (180 Marks) - 45 Questions

5 . You will be awarded 4 Marks if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer
and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (- 1) mark will be awarded.

6 . Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on the Response Sheet.

Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

7. You are advised to create an actual examination hall condition at your home before appearing in the
test.

8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only,

9. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Response Sheet.

10. Once you have evaluated the marks in the test, you should assess it thoroughly with the help of the 'Test
Assessment and Analysis sheet' given at the back of the response sheet.

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FULL 1 EM 1

SECTION 1-PHYSICS

A force is given by F = at + bt2, where t is time,

the dimensions of a and b are respectively
t 6|
(a) [MLTÿ landtMLT-1]
velocity ÿ
(b) [M L T_1] and [M L T°] ms

(c) [M L T_3] and [M L Tÿ]

(d) [M L T~3] and [M L T°] 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Time (s)
Which of the following time-displacement graph
is not possible in nature?

t+
(a) - (f> i
2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 3
* s
ÿ

The work function of aluminium is 4.2 eV. If two

photons each of energy 3.5 eV strike an electron
of aluminium, then emission of electron will
(c) (d) (a) depend upon the density of the surface
-*-

s (b) possible
(c) not possible
A particle undergoes simple harmonic motion
(d) None of these
having time period T. The time taken in 3/8th
oscillation is
If a capacitor of capacitance 'C' is connected in
series with an inductor of inductance L, then the
angular frequency will be
(a) (b) |t
5 7 t», 'Ilc (b)
(c) -T (d) -T
w 12 w 12
(c) LC (d) VlC
4 .
The angular velocity of a body changes from C0j Two wires A and B of the same material, having
to co, without applying torque but by changing
moment of inertia. The ratio of initial radius of
radii in the ratio 1 : 2 and carry currents in the
ratio 4:1. The ratio of drift speed of electrons in
gyration to the final radius of gyration is
A and B is
2 2
(a) WtIco, (b) co2 : «>i (a) 16:1 (b) 1:16
(c) 1:4 (d) 4:1
(C) 7ÿ2 : V® 1 (d) l/co2:l/(i>] A stone is thrown with a velocity u making an
5
. For the velocity time graph shown in the figure angle 0 with the horizontal. The horizontal
below the distance covered by the body in the distance covered by its fall to ground is maximum
last two seconds of its motion is what fraction when the angle 0 is equal to
of the total distance travelled by it in all the seven (a) 0° (b) 30°
seconds? (c) 45° (d) 90°

CONCEPTREE Learning (An IIT Alumini Initiative) Page 2 of 17

4 Target NEET

K
14. Einstein's work on photoelectric effect provided
10. If for a gas, - = 0 67, this gas is made up of
. support for the equation
Cy (a) E=hv (b) E=me
molecules which are
Rhc
-

2
(a) diatomic (c) E= (d) KE
. .
= -mv
2
(b) mixture of diatomic and polyatomic
molecules 15. A metallic bar is heated from 0°C to 100°C. The
coeif cient of linear expansion is 10 5 K"1 What
~

(c) monoatomic .

(d) polyatomic will be the percentage increase in length?

11. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges +q are (a) 0.01% (b) 0.1%
placed at each corner as shown in fig. The electric (c) 1% (d) 10%
intensity at centre O will be
16. A rough vertical board has an acceleration a
along the horizontal so that a block of mass M
+q A pressing against it does not fall. The coefficient
of friction between block and the board is

-ÿa

JjJ

q
(a) (b) 4 tt e o g
4tter r
r (a) (b)

1 3q
(c) 471 G o r
(d) zero g
(O =- (d)
12. g
Photoelectric current from a given photocell will
17. What should be the minimum value of refractive
depend upon
(a) number of photons striking per second index of the material of the prism for the
(b) frequency of incident photon reflections to take place as shown in the figure?
(c) material of the target
(d) None of these
13. A circular disc A of radius r is made from an iron
plate of thickness t and another circular disc B
of radius 4r is made from an iron plate of
thickness t/4. The relation between the moments
of inertia IA and IB is
(a) 1A>1B
(b)
(c) 1A<1B
1/ (a) 17
. (b) 14
.

(d) depends on the actual value of t and r (c) 12

. (d) 27
.

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FULL TEST 1 5

18. Electric lines of force about a negative point

charge are
(a) circular, anti-clockwise
00 T+
2n ,
« tH .

(b) circular, clockwise 2711 A n

(c) radial, inwards (C) -

<|> (d) $+-

2n , X 2
(d) radial, outwards
19. Ohm's law is not obeyed by
26. The diagram shows the energy levels for an
electron in a certain atom. Which transition
(a) electrolytes (b) discharge tube
(c) vacuum tubes (d) all of the above shown represents the emission of a photon
20. The temperature of an iron block is MOT. Its with the most energy?
temperature on the Celsius scale is n = 4
(a) 60° (b) 160° _ _
4,_ n = 3
(c) 140° (d) 132°
\f
21. A gun if res two bullets at 60° and 30° with n = 2
horizontal. The bullets strike at some horizontal
distance. The ratio of maximum height for the
two bullets is in the ratio of \
n =1
(a) 2:1 (b) 3:1 I II III IV
(c) 4:1 (d) 1:1 (a) IV (b) fl
22. A generator has an e.m.f. of440 Volt and inten
r al (c) II (d) I
resistance of 400 Ohm. Its terminals are 27. The direction of propagation of electromagnetic
connected to a load of 4000 Ohm the voltage waves is given by the direction of
across the load is
(a) Vector E (b) Vector B
(a) 220 volt (b) 440 volt
(c) 200 volt (d) 400 volt (c) Vector (E x B) (d) None of these
23. Electric i
f eld inside a copper wire of length 10 28. A body of mass 10 kg and velocity 10 m/s collides
metres, resistance 2 ohm connected to a 10 volt with a stationary body of mass 5 kg. After
battery is collision both bodies stick to each other, velocity
(a) IVm-, (b) 0.5 Vn
r ") of the bodies after collision will be
(c) lOVnr1 (d) 5 Vm"'
24. The radius vector (a) - m/s (b) ]8 m/s
drawn from the sun to a planet,
,
10 3
sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time.
This is the statement of 20
(b) - m/s (d) m/s
(a) Kepler's if rst law (b) Kepler>s second aw 20 3
(c) Newton,s irst law (d) Kepler>s third law
25. The path difference between the two waves :
29. Two particles of mass nij and m2 (mj > m2)
attract each other with a force inversely
r proportional to the square of the distance
y\
] sinÿcot-
ÿ a
between them. If the particles are initially held at
2nx
rest and then released, the centre of mass will
and Y2 =a2sin tot - + <!> will be (a) move towards mj (b) move towards m2
(c) remain at rest (d) Nothing can be said

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6 Target NEET

30. Which of the following graphs represent the 35. If ve and v0 represent the escape velocity and
variation of thermo emf (£) of a thermocouple
orbital velocity of a satellite corresponding to a
with temperature 0 of hot junction (the cold circular orbit of radius R, then
junction being kept at 0°C)
(a) ve = v0
(b) = V2v 0

(a)
(c) = (1/V2) v 0

(d) ve and v0 are not related

36. At 0°K which of the following properties of a
gas will be zero?
(c) (d)
(a) Kinetic energy
(b) Potential energy
(c) Vibrational energy
(d) Density
31. The r.m.s. velocity of oxygen molecule at 16°C is 37. A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 15Q and
474 m/sec. The r.m.s. velocity in m/s of hydrogen gives full scale deflection for a current of 4 mA.
molecule at 127°C is To convert it to an ammeter of range 0 to 6 A
(a) 1603 (b) 1896 (a) 10 mQ resistance is to be conncected in
(c) 2230.59 (d) 2730 parallel to the galvanometer
32. To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference, (b) 10 mQ esistance is to be connected in series
we require two sources which emit radiation with the galvanometer
-

{a) of the same frequency (c) 0.1 Q resistance is to be connected in

(b) of different wavelengths
(c) of the same r
f equency and having a definite
phase relationship
(d) of nearly the same frequency
33. The oscillating electric and magnetic field vectors
parallel to the galvanometer
(d) 0.1 Q resistance is to be connected in series
with the galvanometer
38. A uniform rod of mass m, length £, area of cross-
section A has Young s modulus Y. If it is hanged
'

of electromagnetic wave are oriented along vertically, elongation under its own weight will
(a) the same direction and in phase be
(b) the same direction but have a phase
difference of 90° mgl 2mgf
(a) (b)
2AY AY
(c) mutually perpendicular directions and are
in phase mg£ mgY
(d) mutually perpendicular directions but has (c) (d)
ÿ '

°
AY A£
a phase difference of 90
39. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When
34. A uniform spherical shell gradually shrinks
it is adjusted for parallel rays, the distance
maintaining its shape. The gravitational potential
between the objective and the eye piece is found
at the centre
to be 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are
(a) increases (b) decreases (a) 18 cm, 2 cm (b) 11 cm, 9 cm
(c) remains constant (d) oscillates (c) 10cm, 10cm (d) 15cm,5cm

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FULL TEST 1 7

40. If two soap bubbles of different radii are

connected by a tube. Then (c) Y

(a) air flows from the smaller bubble to the

bigger (d) None of these
(b) air flows from bigger bubble to the smaller 45. In a transistor
bubble till the sizes are interchanged (a) both emitter and collector have same length
(c) air flows from the bigger bubble to the
(b) length of emitter is greater than that of
smaller bubble till the sizes become equal collector
(d) there is no flow of air.
41. An object undergoing SHM takes 0.5 s to travel (c) length of collector is greater than that of
emitter
from one point of zero velocity to the next such
point. The distance between those points is 50 (d) any one of emitter and collector can have
cm. The period, frequency and amplitude of the greater length
motion is
SEC HON 2 - CHEMISTRY
(a) Is, 1 Hz,25 cm (b) 2s, 1 Hz,50cm
(c) ls,2Hz,25cm (d) 2s,2Hz, 50 cm 46. Fluorine is more electronegative than either
42. A plane wave of wavelength 6250 A is incident boron or phosphorus. What conclusion can be
normally on a slit of width 2 x 10 2 cm. The width
"

drawn from the fact that BF3 has no dipole

of the principal maximum on a screen distant 50
cm will be
moment but PF3 does ?
(a) 312.5x 10~3cm (b) 312.5xl0-5m (a) BF-, is not spherically symmetrical but PF3 is
spherically symmetrical.
(c) 312.5 x 10~3m (d) 312m
43. In a p-type semi-conductor germanium is doped
(b) BF3 molecule must be linear
with (c) The atomic radius of P is larger than that of B
(a) aluminium (b) boron (d) The BF3 molecule must be planar triangular
(c) gallium (d) all of these 47. At 298 K, equal volumes of S02, CH4 and 02 are
44. The table given below represents the truth table mixed in empty container. The total pressure
for which of the following combinations of logic exerted is 2.1 atm. The partial pressure of CH4 in
gates? mixture is:

(a) 0.6 atm. (b) 1.2 atm

A B Y
(c) 2.4 atm (d) 3.6 atm.
0 0 1

0 1 0 conc. HNOÿ+conc. H2SO4

48. Heat
1 0 1

1 1 0 CI2/FeCl3
X -
*Y

A« The product Y is
(a)
fT!
> -
.Y
(a) p-chloronitrobenzene
A«
(b) m-chloronitrobenzene
(b) B * > Y (c) o-chloronitrobenzene
(d) o-/7-dichloronitrobenzene

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8 Target NEET

49. In the extraction of Cu, the metal is formed in the 54. The major product formed in the following
bessemer converter due to the reaction : reaction is:

(a) CU2S + 2C112O-> 6C11+SO2 CH3

(b) Cu2S--> 2Cu + S CH3-C-CH2Br C"3° >
(c) Fe + Cu20-> 2Cu + FeO | CH3OH
H
(d) 2Cu20 --» 4Cu + 02
50. An example of electrophilic substitution reaction CH3
is I
(a) Chlorination of methane (a) CHj-C- CH2OCH3
(b) Conversion of methyl chloride to methyl H
alcohol
(c) Nitration of benzene (b) CH3-CH -CH2CH3
(d) Formation of ethylene from ethyl alcohol. OCH3
51. Which of the following molecules is most
suitable to disperse benzene in water ? CH3
!
(c) CH3-C=CH2
CH3
(d) CH3- C- CH3
OCH3
55. The electrons, identified by quantum numbers n
and 1 (i) n-4,1 - 1 (ii)n = 4,l = 0(iii)n = 3,l = 2
(iv)n=3,I-1 can be placed in order of increasing
energy, from the lowest to highest, as
(a) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i)
(b) (ii) < (iv) < (I) < (iii)
(c) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv)
52. Ozone hole refers to
(d) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii)
(a) Increase in concentration of ozone 56. In an adiabatic process which of the fol lowing is
(b) Hole in ozone layer true?
(c) Reduction in thickness of ozone layer in (a) q = + w (b) q = 0
troposphere (c) AE = q (d) PAV = 0
(d) Reduction in thickness of ozone layer in 57. In which of the following cases, the stability of
stratsophere two oxidation states is correctly represented
53. Which of the following does not represent the (a) Ti3+>Ti4+ (b) Mn2+> Mn3+
correct order of the properties indicated (c) Fe2+>Fe3+ (d) Cu+>Cu2+
(a) Ni2+>Cr2+>Fe2+>Mn2+(size) 58. Which is not the disproportionation reaction ?
(b) Sc > Ti > Cr > Mn (size)
(c) Mn2+ > Ni2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+ (a) 3H3P02-» 2II3PO2 + PH3
(unpaired electron) (b) HCHO + OH"-> HCOO~ + CH3OH
(d) Fe2' > Co2* > Ni2t > Cu2< (c) NH4NO3->N20 + 2H20
~

(unpaired electron) (d) 3C12+60H >5Cr+C10J + 3H20

-

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FULL TEST 1 9

59. The major organic product in the reaction, (a) NH4 and NH2
CH3 - O-CH(CH3)2 + HI -> Product is
(a) ICH2OCH(CH3)2 (b) CHJ and CHj
(b) CH3OC(CH3)2 (c) SO4~, PO4"" and [BF4 ]
I (d) NH4 and NH3
(c) CH3I+(CH3)2CHOH 65. When dihydroxyacetone reacts with HI04, the
(d) CH3OH+(CH3)2CHI product is/are :
60. For the reaction H2(g) +Br2(g) ÿ2HBr, (a) HCHO (b) HCOOH
ÿ- (g),

the rate law is rate = k[H2][Br2]1'2 Which of

.
(c) HCHO and HCOOH(d) HCHO and C02
66. Hard water when passed through ion exchange
the following statement is true about this '
resin containing R COOH groups, becomes free
reaction
from:
(a) The reaction is of second order.
(b) Molecularity of the reaction is 3/2 (a) CP (b) so;j~
(c) The unit of k is s"1 (c) H30+ (d) Ca2+
(d) Molecularity of the reaction is 2
67. A certain compound (X) when treated with
61. The correct order of solubility in water for He,
copper sulphate solution yields a brown,.
Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe is
precipitate. On adding hypo solution, the
(a) He>Ne>Ar>Kr>Xe
precipitate turns white. The compound is
(b) Xe>Kr>Ar>Ne>He
(c) Ne>Ar>Kr>He>Xe
(a) IÿCOj (b) KI
(c) KBr (d) K3P04
(d) Ar > Ne > He > Kr > Xe
68. Consider the following reactions:
62. If uncertainty in position and velocity are equal
then uncertainty in momentum will be (0 H+(aq) + 0H-(aq) = H20(1),
AH=-X, kJ mol~,
(a) -
2 \ Jim 00 H2(g)+-02(g) = H20(l),
AH = -X2kJ mol"1
(c) JL
47im
. (d) H*
4n 0") C02(g) + H2( ) = C0(g) + H20,
63. The correct IUPAC name for
AH = - X3 kJ mol 1
(iv) C2H2(g)+|o2(g) = 2C02(g) + H20(I),
AH= + 4X4 kJ mol"1
Enthalpy of formation of H20 m is
(a) +X3kJmor, (b) -X4 kJ mor'
(c) + X j kJ mol~) (d) - X2 kJ mol",
(a) 5-methyl -4-( 1 '-2'-demethy Ipropy 1) heptane 69. Which of the following possesses a sp-carbon
(b) 3-methyl-4-(l',2'-dimethylpropyl) heptane in its structure ?
(c) 2,3,5-trimethyl-4-propylheptane (a) CH2=CCI-CH = CH2
(d) 4-propyl-2,3,5-trimethylpeptane (b) CC12 = CC12
64. Which of the following shows iso-structural (c) ci-i2=c = ch2
species? ÿ
(d) CH2 = CH-CH = CH2.

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10 Target NEET

70. A balloon has maximum capacity of 20 L. At one (b) Spectroscopic analysis shows planar
atmospheric pressure 10 L of air is filled in the structure of the -C- NH - group
balloon. It will burst when pressure is (assuming II
O
isothermal condition)
(a) >0.5atm (b) <0.5 atm (c) C - N bond length in proteins is smaller
(c) =0.5 atm (d) >0.5 atm than usual bond length of the C-N bond
71. Which one of the following complexes will have (d) None of the above
four different isomers ?
76. Vapour pressure ofbenzene at 30°C is 121.8mm.
(a) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
When 15 g of a non volatile solute is dissolved
(b) [Co(en)(NH 3 )C12 ]C1 in 250 g of benzene its vapour pressure
(c) [Co(PPh3)2Cl2]Cl decreased to 120.2 mm. The molecular weight of
(d) [Co(en)3 ]C13 the solute (Mo. wt. of solvent = 78)
72. Solubility product of a salt AB is 1 * 10~8 in a (a) 3562 (b) 456.8
solution in which the concentration of A+ ions (c) 530.1 (d) 656.7
is 10~3 M. The salt will precipitate when the 77. In nitrogen family, the H-M-H bond angle in the
concentration of ET ions is kept hydrides gradually becomes closer to 90° on
(a) between 10~8 M to 10~7 M going rf om N to Sb. This shows that gradually
(b) between 10"7 Mto 10~8 M
(c) > 10~5 M (a) The basic strength of the hydrides
increases
(d) <10~8M
73. Sucrose in water is dextro-rotatory, [a]D=+66.4°. (b) Almost pure /;-orbitals are used for M-H
When boiled with dilute HC1, the solution bonding
becomes leavo-rotatory, [a]D= -20°. In this (c) The bond energies of M-H bonds increase
process the sucrose molecule breaks into (d) The bond pairs of electrons become nearer
v-, -glucose + D-fructose
to the central atom
(b) L-glucose + L-t f uctose
(c) D-glucose + D-fructose 78. For reaction aA -> xP, when [A] =2.2 mM, the
(d) D-glucose + L-r f uctose rate was found to be 2.4 mMs On reducing
"

Select correct statement(s). concentration of A to half, the rate changes to

(a) Cyanamide ion (CN22~) is isoelectronic with 0 6 nuv*s"]. The order of reaction with respect to
.

C02 and has the same linear structure A is :

> Mg2C3 reacts with water to form propyne
(a) 1-5 "0
CaC? has NaCl type lattice
Ml of the above (c) 2.5 \
79. The tendency of BF3, BC1, % to behave
as Lewis acid decrease'
,
~e:
-
n

->tjde
00 BC13 > BF, - -.* m th>
(b) BB r > r* J
CL > Bp3
3 ÿBF3 > ÿ
&ci3
BC13
BBr,

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FULLTEST 1 11

80. If 'a' stands for the edge length of the cubic

(b) Pb(s) + Pb02(s) + 2H2S04(aq)_>
systems: simple cubic, body centred cubic and
face centred cubic, then the ratio of radii of the 2PbS04(s) + 2H20(/)
spheres in these systems will be respectively, (c) 2H2(g) + 02(g) _> 2H20(/j
1 VJ 1 1 rz 1 (d) 2Fe(s) + 02 (g) + 4 H+ (aq) -->
(&) 2a:Ta;ÿIa(f) 2&;ÿa:Wa 2Fe2+(aq) + 2H2O(0
86. Which does not exist ?
1 V3 ... r r
,
(c) -a:-a: -a (d) ia;V3a:V2a (a) [SiCl6]2- (b) [GeF6]2~
(c) [CC16]2- (d) [SnCl6]2"
81. Which of the following is correct order of acidity? 87. In which case, van't Hoff factor / remains
(a) HCOOH>CH3COOH>ClCH2COOH unchanged ?
>c
2h5cooh (a) PtCl4 reacts with aq, KC1
(b) ClCH2COOH>HCOOH>CH3COOH (b) aq. ZnCl2 reacts with aq. NH3
>c2h5cooh
(c) aq. FeCl3 reacts with aq, K4[Fe(CN)]6
(c) CH3COOH > HCOOH > ClCH2COOH (d) KMn04 reduced to Mn02 in alkaline
>c2h5cooh
medium
(d) C2H5COOH > CH3COOH > HCOOH 88. The unit of equivalent conductivity is
>cich2cooh
(a) S cm'2
82. Penicillin is:
(b) ohm cm2 (g - equivalent)
(a) analgesic (b) antipyretic (c) ohm cm
(c) antimalarial (d) antibiotic
(d) ohnT1cm2 (g equivalent)"1
83. For the reaction 2NO + Br2->2NOBr, 89. Perlon is
the following mechanism has been given (a) Terylene (b) Rubber
(c) Nylon-6 (d) Polyester
NO + Br2 faSt >NOBr2
90. Tertiary nitro compounds do not tautomerise
because
NOBr2 + NO S,0W ) 2N0Br
(a) there is no double bond
Hence, rate law is (b) there is no a-hydrogen
(a) k' [NO]2 [Br2] (b) k' [NO] [Br2] (c) oxygen is more electronegative than
(c) k' [NOBr2] [NO] (d) k,[NO][Br2]2 hydrogen
84. Which of the following reactions can produce (d) all of the above
aniline as main product? SECTION 3-BOTANY
(a) C6H5N02 + Zn/KOH 91. The hormone which controls cell division and
(b) C6H5N02 + Zn/NH4C1 cell differentiation is
(c) C6H5N02 + LiAlH4 (a) ABA (b) auxin
(d) C6H5N02 + Zn/HCl
85. Which of the following reactions is used to make (c) gibberellin (d) cytokinin
a fuel cell?
92. Respiratory Quotient (R.Q.) is defined as:
(a) vol. of 02/vol. of C02
(a) Cd(s) + 2Ni(OH)3 (s)_> CdO(s) (b) vol. ofC02/vol. of02
+ 2Ni(0II)2(s) + H20(/) (c) vol, of02/vol. ofN2
(d) vol, ofN2/vol. ofC02

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12 Target NEET
93. Which one of the following is a long day plant? 98. The enzyme used for joining two DNA fragments
(a) Bajra (b) Soyabean is called:
(c) Tobacco (d) Wheat (a) ligase
94. Choose the right option. (b) restriction endonuclease
(c) DNA polymerase
(d) gyrase
99. Thorn is a modii
f cation of
A VIM
(a) stem (b) leaf
(c) stipule (d) root
ill m 100. Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed from
bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary is
w H . .I
(a) Caryopsis (b) Cypsela
(c) Berry (d) Cremocarp
101. DDT residues are rapidly passed through food
chain causing biomagnification because DDT is
A BCD (a) moderately toxic
(b) non-toxic to aquatic animals
A B C D (c) water soluble
(a) Vol vox Chlamydo- Laminaria Chara (d) lipo soluble
monas
102. Deep black soil is productive due to high
(b) Chara Laminaria Volvox Chlamydo-
proportion of
monas
(a) sand and zinc (b) gravel and calcium
Chara
(c) clay and humus (d) silt and earthworm
(c) Laminaria Volvox Chlamyd-
omonas
103. Which the following shows the correct
(d) Chlamyd- Chara Laminaria Volvox explanation of the given figures?
omonas
Pure Water Very salty water Salty water
95. Connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs
(Cell) (CelT) @>
cycle is/before entering Krebs cycle pyruvate is A B c
changed to
(a) oxaloacetate (a) Cell "A" will lose H20, Cell "B" will gain
(b) phosphoenol pyruvate H20, Cell "C" neither gain nor loses H20.
(c) pyruvate (b) Cell "A" neither gain nor loses H20, Cell
" "
B" will gain H20, Cell C" will lose H20.
(d) acetyl CoA
(c) Cell "A" will gain water, Cell "B" neither
96. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by
gain nor loses H20, Cell C" lose H20.
"

(a) high gibberellin : cytokinin ratio (d) Cell "A" will gain H20, Cell "B" will lose
(b) high auxin : cytokinin ratio H20, Cell "C" neither gain nor loses H20.
(c) high cytokinin : auxin ratio 104, Female gametophyte of angiosperms is
(d) high gibberellin: auxin ratio represented by
97. An enzyme that can stimulate germination of (a) Ovule
barley seeds is (b) Megaspore mother cell
(a) lipase (b) protease (c) Embryo sac
(c) invertase (d) a-amylase (d) Nucellus

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FULLTEST1 13

105. Chasmogamy refers to the condition where 113. Consider the following statements concerning
(a) Flowers remains closed food chains :
(b) Flowers absent (i) Removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted
(c) Flowers open in greatly increased growth of vegetation
(d) Flowers gamopetalous (ii) Removal of most of the carnivores resulted
106. Today, concentration of green house gases is in an increased population of deers
high because of (iii) The length of food chains is generally
(a) Use of refrigerator limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy
(b) Increased combustion of oil and coal loss
(c) Deforestation (iv) The length of food chains may vary r
f om 2
(d) All the above to 8 trophic levels
107. Cross between AaBB and aaBB will form Which two of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 AaBB :1 aaBB (b) All AaBB (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) 3 AaBB: 1 aaBB (d) 1 AaBB: 3 aaBB (c) (i)and(iv) (d) (i)and(ii)
108. Which of the following is the most stable 114. The picture below shows three different types
ecosystem?
(a) Forest (b) Desert of plants (marked as P-I, P-II and P-I1I) which
(c) Mountain (d) Ocean flower on the basis of their critical photoperiod.
109. Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by Now identify these plants (P-I, II and III).
(a) treating the plants with low concentrations
of gibberellic acid and auxins
(b) raising the plants from vernalized seeds
(c) treating the plants with phenylmercuric
k Above
"

ft Above

acetate
(d) removing androecium of flowers before No flowering Critical SL
pollen grains are released
110. A gene pair hides the effect of another gene.
The phenomenon is
photo-
period
Flowering Critical
photo-
j S/
(a) epistasis (b) dominance w period

(c) mutation (d) None of the above * Below Below

111. A mutation at one base of the i

f rst codon, of a W
Flowering
gene, produces a non-functional protein. Such after vegetative
a mutation is called Flowering No flowering maturity

(a) nonsense mutation p-i p-ii p-m

(b) missense mutation (a) P-I = Long day plant; P-II = Short day plant;
(c) frameshift mutation P-III = Day
neutral plant
(d) reverse mutation
112. The rate at which light energy is converted to (b) P-I = Short day plant; P-II = Long day plant;
P-III = Day neutral
plant
the chemical energy of organic molecules in the
,

ecosystem s is (c) P-I = Short day plant; P-II = Short day plant;
(a) net primary productivity P-III = Day neutral plant
(b) gross primary productivity
(c) net secondary productivity (d) P-I =Long day plant; P-II = Long day plant;
(d) gross secondary productivity P-III = Day neutral plant
_

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14 Target NEET

115. B inomial nomenclature was introduced by 122. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Vessels are multicellular with narrow lumen.
(a) Carolus Linnaeus
(b) Tracheids are multicellular with narrow
(b) Charles Darwin lumen.
(c) Bentham and Hooker (c) Vessels are unicellular with wide lumen.
(d) Aristotle (d) Tracheids are unicellular with wide lumen.
123. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with
116. Pteridophytes differ from mosses/bryophyles in the plasmid vector became possible with
possessing (a) DNA ligase (b) Endonucleases
(a) independent gametophyte (c) DNA polymerase (d) Exonucleases
124. Which one of the following is not included
(b) well developed vascular system
under in-situ conservation ?
(c) archegonia structure (a) Botanical garden (b) Biosphere reserve
(d) flagellate spermatozoids (c) National park (d) Sanctuary
117. The cell organelle involved in glyco-sylation 125. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used
of protein is commercially in the production of:
(a) ribosome (a) ethanol
(b) peroxisome (b) streptokinase for removing clots from the
blood vessels.
(c) endoplasmic reticulum (c) Citric acid
(d) mitochondria (d) blood cholesterol lowering statins
118. Mycorrhizais 126. Gel electrophoresis is used for
(a) a symbiotic association of plant roots and (a) cutting of DNA into fragments
certain fungi, (b) separation of DNA fragments according to
(b) an association of algae with fungi. their size

(c) a fungus parasitising root system of higher (c) construction of recombinant DNA by
plants. joining with cloning vectors
(d) an association of Rhizobium with the roots (d) isolation of DNA molecule
of leguminous plants. 127. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive
molecule is called
119. Laminaria (kelp) and Fucus (rock weed) are the
(a) Vector (b) Probe
examples of
(c) Clone (d) Plasmid
(a) red algae
128. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot
(b) brown algae of biodiversity in India ?
(c) green algae (a) Indo-Gangetic Plain (b) Eastern Ghats
(d) golden brown algae (c) Aravalli Hills (d) Western Ghats
120. The outer layer of vacuole is called 129. Which one of the following is the correct
(a) cell wall (b) tonoplast matched pair of an endangered animal and
National Park ?
(c) plasmalayer (d) leucoplast
121. A narrow layer of thin walled cells found between (a) Rhinoceros - Kaziranga National Park
(b) Wild Ass - Dudhwa National Park
phloem/bark and wood of a dicot is
(c) Great Indian - Keoladeo National Park
(a) cork cambium (b) vascular cambium Bustard
(c) endodermis (d) pericycle (d) Lion - Corbett National Park _

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FULL TEST 1 15
_

130. The movement of mineral ions into plant root SECTION 4 - ZOOLOGY
cells as a result of diffusion is called
136. Which ion is essential for muscle contraction?
(a) osmosis
(a) Na+ (b) K+
(b) active absorption (c) Ca3+ (d) CT
(c) passive absorption 137. Which one of the following organs in the human
(d) endocytosis body is most affected due to shortage of oxygen?
131. The rate of transpiration in plants is dependent (a) Intestine (b) Skin
upon (c) Kidney (d) Brain
(a) temperature and soil 138. Elbow joint is an example of
(b) light and temperature (a) hinge joint (b) gliding joint
(c) wind, temperature and light (c) ball and socket joint(d) pivot joint
139. Choose the correct names of the different bacteria
(d) light, temperature, atmospheric humidity
and wind according to their shapes.
132. Stomata open and close due to
is

(a) circadian rhythm X

(b) genetic clock .

(c) pressure of gases inside the leaves

(d) turgor pressure of guard cells
(a) A-Cocci, B-Bacilli, C-Spirilla, D-Vibrio
133. Which of the following statements about
(b) A- Bacilli, B - Cocci, C - Spirilla, D - Vibrio
nitrii
f cation is not true ?
(c) A- Spirilla, B - Bacilli, C -Cocci, D - Vibrio
(a) Nitrobacter oxidizes nitrite to nitrate.
(d) A- Spirilla, B - Vibrio, C - Cocci, D - Bacilli
(b) Nitrosomonas and Nitrosococcus convert
140. Match the source gland with respective
ammonium ions to nitrite.
hormone as well as the function correctly.
(c) Nitrification reactions are energy-
Source gland Hormone Function
producing (exergonic) reactions.
(a) Anterior Oxytocin Contraction of
(d) Heterotrophic plants are more directly
pituitary uterus muscles
dependent on the nitrifying bacteria for
during child
usable nitrogen than autotrophic plants.
birth
134. Grana are present inside the :
<b) Posterior Vasopressin Stimulates
(a) mitochondria
(b) chloroplast pituitary reabsorption
of water in the
(c) endoplasmic reticulum
distal tubules
(d) ribosome
135. Chemiosmotic hypothesis given by Peter in the nephron
Mitchell proposes the mechanism of 00 Corpus Estrogen Supports
luteum pregnancy
(a) synthesis of ATP
(b) synthesis of FADH2 (d) Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates
(c) synthesis of NADH blood calcium
(d) synthesis of NADPH level

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16 Target NEET
141. The nerve transmitter, produced at the synapse A B CD
and neuromuscular junction, is (a) FSH Progesterone LH Oestrogen
(a) GTP (b) ATP (b) LH Progesterone FSH Oestrogen
(c) acetylcholine (d) phosphokinase (c) FSH Oestrogen LH Progesterone
142. In the chemistry of vision in mammals, the (d) LH Oestrogen FSH Progesterone
photosensitive substance is called 148. Reproductive health in society can be improved
(a) sclerotin (b) retinol by-
(c) rhodopsin (d) melanin (i) Introduction of sex education in schools.
143. Emphysema developes mainly because of (ii) Increased medical assistance.
(a) Allergy or hypersensitisation (iii) Awareness about contraception and STDs.
(b) Spasm of the smooth muscles of (iv) Equal opportunities to male and female
bronchioles child.

(c) Cigarette smoking (v) Ban on aminocentesis.

(d) Inflammation of the alveoli (vi) Encouraging myths and misconceptions.
(a) All of these
144. Egg is liberated from ovary in
(b) (i), (ii), (iv) & (vi)
(a) secondary oocyte stage
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v)
(b) primary oocyte stage
(d) (ii) and (v)
(c) oogonial stage
149. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by
(d) mature ovum stage
(a) release oxytocin from pituitary
145. Animals that can tolerate a narrow range of
(b) fully developed foetus and placenta
salinity are
(c) differentiation of mammary glands
(a) stenohaline (b) euryhaline
(d) pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
(c) anadromous (d) catadromous
150. Natality is the characteristic of a population
146. The most important component of the oral which means
contraceptive pills is (a) the total number of individuals present per
(a) Progesterone unit area at a given time ,
(b) Growth hormone (b) the increase in number of individuals in a
(c) Thyroxine population under given environmental
(d) Luteinizing hormone conditions
147. The following graph of relative concentrations (c) loss of individuals due to death in a
of the four hormones present in the blood population under given environmental
plasma of a woman during her menstrual cycle. conditions
Identify the hormones. (d) the movement of individuals into and out
of population
151. In human female the blastocyst
(a) Forms placenta even before implantation
(b) Gets implanted into uterus 3 days after
ovulation
(c) Gets nutrition from uterine endometrial
secretion only at
f er implantation
i J » * i * 7 ii (smIjiTHij it ini itWirB u M is u xr ]
' ' ' ' > ' , ' '
(d) Gets implanted in endometrium by the
trophoblast cells

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FULL TEST 1 17

152. In humans, male XXY and female XXXX occur 159. Classification of Porifera is based on
due to (a) branching (b) spicules
(a) aneuploidy (c) reproduction (d) symmetry
(b) euploidy 160. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner
(c) autosomal syndrome walls of blood vessels is
(d) None of these (a) cuboidal epithelium
153. Which one of the following is an exotic Indian (b) columnar epithelium
fish ? (c) ciliated columnar epithelium
(a) Catla catla (d) squamous epithelium
(b) Heteropneastes fossilis 161. Myoglobin is present in
(c) Cyprinus carpio (a) all muscle fibres
(d) Labeo rohita (b) white muscle fibres only
154. Which of the following primate is the closest (c) red muscle fibres only
relative of humans?
(d) both white and red muscle fibres
(a) Rhesus monkey (b) Orangutan 162. Mast cells are associated with
(c) Gorilla (d) Gibbon (a) exocrine glands
155. Adaptive radiation refers to (b) endocrine glands
(a) evolution of different species from a (c) areolar connective tissue
common ancestor
(d) neural tissue
(b) migration of members of a species to
163. Which of the following animal is cold blooded
different geographical areas and has 4 - chambered heart?
(c) power of adaptation in an individual to a (a) Salamander (b) Ornithorhynchus
variety of environments
(c) Crocodile (d) Calotes
(d) adaptations due to geographical isolation.
164. Man, in the life cycle of Plasmodium, is
156. What was the most significant trend in evolution
(a) primary host (b) secondary host
of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his
ancestors ?
(c) intermediate host (d) None of these
(a) Upright posture
165. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are
(b) Shortening of jaws (a) neutrophils and monocytes
(c) Binocular vision (b) neutrophils and eosinophils
(d) Increasing brain capacity (c) lymphocytes and macrophages
157. Which of the following is a virai disease of (d) eosinophils and lymphocytes
poultry birds? 166. Human insulin is being commercially produced
(a) Anthrax (b) Ranikhet from a transgenic species of
(c) Coccidiosis (d) None of these (a) Escherichia (b) Mycobacterium
158. Which one of the followings breeding process (c) Rhisabium (d) Saccharomyces
increases homozygosity? 167. Obstacle to large scale transplantation of organs is
(a) Inbreeding (a) insufficiency of organ donors
(b) Out breeding (b) immunological rejection of foreign bodies
(c) Cross breeding (c) religious or ethnic considerations
(d) Inter-specific breeding (d) lack of effective surgical techniques

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1$ Target NEET

168. Which one of the following is an Indian 173. Which one of the following correctly represents
medicinal plant? the normal adult human dental formula ?

(a) Saccharum ofjicinarum 3 1 2 13 3

(a) (b)
2>?2 3
>

(b) Ranwolfia serpentina 2> 1

(c) Oryza saliva 2 12 3 3 13 3

(d) Solanum melongena (C) 2' l
,
2' 3 () ,
3 * 1 3* 3
169. Hypersensitivity to an allergen is associated with 174. Toxic substances are detoxified in human body in
(a) aberrant functioning of the immune (a) kidney (b) lungs
mechanism (c) liver (d) stomach
175. The function of rennin is
(b) increase in ambient temperature
(a)
vasodilation
(c) age of the individual (b)
reduce blood pressure
(d) food habits (c) degradation of angiotensinogen
170. Human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) has a (d) None of the above
protein coat and a genetic material which is 176. Heart is covered by
(a) Peritoneum (b) Pleural membrane
(a) single stranded DNA
(c) Pericardium (d) Visceral membrane
(b) double stranded DNA
177. Which of the following is incorrect?
(c) single stranded RNA (a) Iodine is needed for thyroxine formation.
(d) double stranded RNA (b) Calcium regulates the excitibility of nerve
i
f bres.
171. Dolly sheep was obtained by -
(c) Potassium plays an important role in the
(a) Cloning the udder cell (somatic cell) fused
regulation of acid base balance in cell.
with enucleated oocyte
(d) Phosphorus helps to maintain the osmotic
(b) Cloning of gametes pressure of the body fluids.
(c) Tissue culture 178. An adult human with average health has systolic
(d) None of the above and diastolic pressures as
(a) 80mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
172. Which of the following forms the basis of DNA
(b) 70 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg
fingerprinting?
(c) 120mmHgand 80mmHg
(a) The relative proportions of purines and (d) 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
pyrimidines in DNA. 179. Reabsorption of water in distal parts of kidney
(b) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated tubules/urine formation is controlled by
short DNA segments. (a) relaxin (b) calcitonin
(c) The relative difference in the DNA
(c) oxytocin (d) vasopressin
180. Dark purplish gland lying on the left side of
occurrence in blood, skin and saliva.
abdomen is called:
(d) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges (a) liver (b) spleen
and grooves of the fingerprints. (c) gallbladder (d) appendix

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