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Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions M.M. : 300
for
JEE (MAIN)-2021 (Online) Phase-1
(Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS :
(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.
(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
(3) There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.
(i) Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) Section-II : This section contains 10 questions. In Section-II, attempt any five questions out of
10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks
for correct answer and there is no negative marking for wrong answer.
1
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (25-02-2021)-E
PART–A : PHYSICS
(c) Transformer (iii) Used to remove any
SECTION - I
ripple in the
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains rectified output
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has voltage
(d) Filter (iv) Used for constant
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE
output voltage even
is correct. when the input
voltage or load
Choose the correct answer : current change
1. The truth table for the following logic circuit is Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
A
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Y (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
2
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (25-02-2021)-E
3
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (25-02-2021)-E
9. The wavelength of the photon emitted by a At B particle is going toward mean position
hydrogen atom when an electron makes a negative x-direction
transition from n = 2 to n = 1 state is
5
(1) 490.7 nm (2) 121.8 nm
6
(3) 913.3 nm (4) 194.8 nm
12. The stopping potential for electrons emitted
Answer (2)
from a photosensitive surface illuminated by
1 1 1 light of wavelength 491 nm is 0.710 V. When the
Sol. R 2 2
1 2 incident wavelength is changed to a new value,
the stopping potential is 1.43 V. The new
3 wavelength is :
R
4 (1) 329 nm (2) 400 nm
4 4
(3) 382 nm (4) 309 nm
3R 3 1.09 107
Answer (3)
= 121.8 nm
10. For extrinsic semiconductors; when doping hc
Sol. eV
level is increased;
(1) Fermi-level of p-type semiconductors will
hc hc
go downward and Fermi-level of n-type eV1 eV2
semiconductor will go upward. 1 2
(2) Fermi-level of p and n-type semiconductors 1240 1240
will not be affected. 0.71 1.43
491 2
(3) Fermi-level of both p-type and n-type
semiconductors will go upward for T > TF K 1240 1240
and downward for T < T F K, where T F is 0.72
2 491
Fermi temperature.
(4) Fermi-level of p-type semiconductor will go 2 = 382 nm
upward and Fermi-level of n-type 13. If a message signal of frequency ‘f m ’ is
semiconductors will go downward. amplitude modulated with a carrier signal of
Answer (1) frequency ‘fc’ and radiated through an antenna,
Sol. Fermi-level of p type semiconductor goes down the wavelength of the corresponding signal in
whereas it goes up for n-type semiconductor. air is:
11. Y = Asin(t + 0 ) is the time-displacement c c
equation of a SHM. At t = 0 the displacement of (1) (2)
fc fm
A
the particle is Y and it is moving along c c
2 (3) (4)
negative x-direction. Then the initial phase fc fm fc fm
angle 0 will be:
Answer (1)
2
(1) (2) Sol. In amplitude modulated wave, wave is
6 3 transmitted at frequency of carrier wave
5
(3)
6
(4)
3
c
Answer (3) fc
Sol. Draw phasor : 14. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : In a diatomic molecule, the
rotational energy at a given
temperature obeys Maxwell’s
B A
distribution.
/6 /6
Statement II : In a diatomic molecule, the
rotational energy at a given
temperature equals the
translational kinetic energy for
each molecule.
4
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (25-02-2021)-E
In the light of the above statements, choose the Sol. v1cos = v2cos
correct answer from the options given below:
K1 v12 cos2
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
K2 v22 cos2
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. v2
5
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (25-02-2021)-E
19. A sphere of radius ‘a’ and mass ‘m’ rolls along 1. The wavelength of an X-ray beam is 10 Å. The
a horizontal plane with constant speed v0. It mass of a fictitious particle having the same
encounters an inclined plane at angle and x
climbs upward. Assuming that it rolls without energy as that of the X-ray photons is h kg .
3
slipping, how far up the sphere will travel? The value of x is _______.
(h = Planck’s constant)
Answer (10)
hc
Sol. E mc2
0
a h h 10
m = h kg
v20 v20 c 10 10 3 10
–10 8 3
(1) (2) 2. Two identical conducting spheres with
5g sin 2g sin
negligible volume have 2.1 nC and –0.1 nC
10 v20 2 v20 charges, respectively. They are brought into
(3) (4) contact and then separated by a distance of
7g sin 5 g sin
0.5 m. The electrostatic force acting between
Answer (3) the spheres is ________ × 10–9 N.
1 7
Sol. KT mv20 1
2 5 [Given : 4 0 SI unit]
9 109
7
mv 20 mg sin Answer (36)
10
7v 20 Q1 Q 2
Sol. q1 = q2 = 1 nC
10gsin 2
1 q1 q2 10–9 10–9
10v 20 F . 2 9 109
given answer in official option is . 4 0 r (0.5)2
7g sin
= 36 × 10–9 N
20. If e is the electronic charge, c is the speed of
light in free space and h is Planck’s constant, 3. The percentage increase in the speed of
transverse waves produced in a stretched
1 | e |2 string if the tension is increased by 4% will be
the quantity has dimensions of :
4 0 c ________%.
(1) [M L T–1] (2) [M L T0] Answer (2)
(3) [L C–1] (4) [M0 L0 T0] T
Sol. v
Answer (4)
hc v 1 T
Sol. [E] 100 100 = 2%
v 2 T
e2 4. The peak electric field produced by the
[E] radiation coming from the 8 W bulb at a
4 0r
e2 x 0 c V
[M0L0 T 0 ] distance of 10 m is . The efficiency
4 0r hc 10 m
of the bulb is 10% and it is a point source. The
SECTION - II value of x is ________.
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section Answer (2)
contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five P 1
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a Sol. I 2
0E20 c
4 r 2
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
1
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, 2
P
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; E0
2 cr 2
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using 0
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad 2 c N
in the place designated to enter the answer.
10 C
6
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (25-02-2021)-E
5. If P Q Q P , the angle between P and Q is 0.16 × 0.20
(0° < < 360°). The value of ‘’ will be ______°. q2 =
9 × 1014 × 0.21
Answer (180)
0.4 × 10 –7 2
Sol. P Q Q P q= ×
3 21
PQ 0
4 2
= 0° or 180° q= × × 10–8 C = 0.88 × 10 –8 C
3 21
6. The initial velocity vi required to project a body
vertically upward from the surface of the earth a 18.50
to reach a height of 10R, where R is the radius
8. A reversible heat engine converts one-fourth of
of the earth, may be described in terms of
the heat input into work. When the temperature
x of the sink is reduced by 52 K, its efficiency is
escape velocity ve such that vi = × ve . The doubled. The temperature in Kelvin of the
y
source will be ________.
value of x will be ______.
Answer (208)
Answer (10)
W T 1 3
GMe m 1 GMe m Sol. = = 1 – L = TL = TH
Sol. – + mv2 = – Q TH 4 4
R 2 11R
TL – 52 1 1
20 6Me = 1– = TL = TH 52
v= TH 2 2
11 R
TH = 208 K
26Me
ve = 9. A current of 6 A enters one corner P of an
R
equilateral triangle PQR having 3 wires of
10 resistance 2 each and leaves by the corner
v= .Ve R. The currents i1 in ampere is ______.
11
7. Two small spheres each of mass 10 mg are 6A
suspended from a point by threads 0.5 m long.
They are equally charged and repel each other 2
to a distance of 0.20 m. The charge on each of P
i1 i2
a
the sphere is × 10–8 C . The value of ‘a’ will 2 2
21
be.
2
[Given g = 10 ms–2]
Q R
Answer (18.50) Answer (2)
Sol. T cos = mg
Sol. 2 Q 2
q2 6A
i1
R 6A
T sin =
4 0 (0.4) 2 i2
P 2
2
q 4i1 = 2i2 ... (i)
tan =
4 0 (0.4)2 mg i1 + i2 = 6 ... (ii)
i1 = 2 A
10. Two particles having masses 4 g and 16 g
m
0.5 m
5
0.20 q2 × 9 × 109 P1 m1 4 1
= =
0.21 2
(0.4) × 10 –5 P2 m2 16 2
7
JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(25-02-2021)-E
PART–B : CHEMISTRY
4. Which among the following species has
SECTION - I
unequal bond lengths?
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
(1) XeF4 (2) BF4
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE (3) SF4 (4) SiF4
CHO CH2
(1) (2) H2 SO4
CHO CH2
NO 2
CH – OH CH2OH
(3) (4)
CH2 CHO
Answer (2) (1)
O O
CH2 – OH HO – C CH2 – O – C
Sol. + NO 2
CH2 – OH HO – C CH2 – O – C
O (2)
O
210°C
NO 2
CH2
(major)
CH2 (3)
3. The major components of German Silver are:
(1) Cu, Zn and Ni (2) Zn, Ni and Ag NO 2
(3) Ge, Cu and Ag (4) Cu, Zn and Ag
Answer (1) (4)
Sol. German silver contains Cu (50%), Zn (30%),
Ni (20%) respectively. Answer (2)
8
JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(25-02-2021)-E
1270 K
C(s) + H 2O (g) CO (g) + H 2 (g)
NO 2
9. The correct order of bond dissociation enthalpy
of halogens is:
(1) Cl2 > Br2 > F2> I2
(Major)
(2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
7. In which of the following order the given
complex ions are arranged correctly with (3) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2
respect to their decreasing spin only magnetic
(4) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
moment?
Answer (1)
(i) [FeF6 ]3–
Sol. Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
(ii) [Co(NH3 )6 ]3
Bond dissociation enthalpy of F2 is lower than
Cl 2 and Br 2. It is done to presence of e – on
(iii) [NiCl4 ]2–
fluorine atom, which create greater repulsion
(iv) [Cu(NH3 )4 ]2 due to small size of fluorine.
10. The correct sequence of reagents used in the
(1) (iii) > (iv) > (ii) > (i)
preparation of 4-bromo-2-nitroethyl benzene
(2) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv) from benzene is:
(3) (i) > (iii) > (iv) > (ii) (1) CH 3 COCl/AlCl 3 , Zn-Hg/HCl, Br 2 /AlBr 3 ,
(4) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv) HNO3/H2SO4
Answer (3) (2) HNO 3 /H 2 SO 4 , Br 2 /AlCl 3 ,CH 3 COCl/AlCl 3 ,
–
Zn-Hg/HCl
Sol. Unpaired e (n)
(3) CH 3COCl/AlCl 3, Br 2/AlBr 3, HNO 3/H 2SO 4,
3– 3+
(i) FeF6 Fe (W.F.L) 5
Zn/HCl
3+ 3+
(ii) [Co(NH3)6] Co (S.F.L) 0 (4) Br 2/AlBr 3, CH 3COCl/AlCl 3, HNO 3/H 2SO 4,
2– 2+
2
Zn/HCl
(iii) [NiCl4) Ni (W.F.L)
Answer (1)
2+ 2+
(iv) [Cu(NH3)4] Cu 1
O
C2H 5
= n(n + 2) B.M
CH3 COCl Zn – Hg
So, correct order of spin only magnetic Sol. AlCl3 HCl
moment is
(ii) < (iv) < (iii) < (i)
Br2 /AlBr3
8. Water does not produce CO on reacting with:
C2H 5 C2H 5
(1) C
NO 2
(2) CH4
HNO 3/H2 SO4
(3) CO2
(4) C3H8
Answer (3) Br Br
9
JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(25-02-2021)-E
11. Which of the following is correct structure of Sol. Let s be the solubility of Ca(OH)2 in water
-anomer of maltose ?
Ca(OH)2 Ca 2 2OH
s 2s
CH2 OH CH2 OH Ksp = [Ca+2] [OH–]2
H O H H O OH
H H = s × (2s)2
(1) OH H OH H
O 5.5 × 10–6 = 4s3
HO H
H OH H OH
5.5
s3 106 1.375 106
4
CH2 OH CH2 OH 1
H O H H O H s (1.375 106 ) 3
H H
(2) H H H H = 1.11 × 10–2
O
HO OH
13. Which one of the following statements is FALSE
HO OH HO OH
for hydrophilic sols ?
(1) Their viscosity is of the order of that of H2O
CH2 OH CH2 OH
(2) They do not require electrolytes for stability
H O H H O OH
H H (3) These sols are reversible in nature
(3) H H H H
O (4) The sols cannot be easily coagulated
HO H
OH OH HO OH Answer (1)
Sol. The viscosity of the hydrophilic sols are much
CH2 OH CH2 OH higher than that of the dispersion medium.
H O H H O H 14. The major product of the following reaction is :
H H
(4) OH H OH H H /CO
HO
O
OH CH3CH2 CH CH2
2
Rh catalyst
H OH H OH
(1) CH3CH2 C CH2
Answer (4) CHO
Sol. Maltose is composed of two units of -D (2) CH3CH2CH2CHO
glucose which are joined through C 1 – C 4 (3) CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO
glycosidic linkage
(4) CH3CH2CH == CH — CHO
6 6 Answer (3)
CH2 OH CH2 OH
5 5 H /CO
O H O 2
Sol. CH3CH2 CH = CH2 Rh catalyst CH3 CH2CH2 – CH2 – CHO
H H H
H H
4 1 4 1
OH H O OH H 15. Given below are two statements :
HO OH
3 2 3 2
Statement I : The identification of Ni2+ is carried
H OH H OH
out by Dimethylglyoxime in the presence of
NH4OH.
12. The solubility of Ca(OH)2 in water is :
Statement II : The Dimethylglyoxime is a
[Given : The solubility product of Ca(OH)2 in bidentate neutral ligand.
water = 5.5 × 10–6] In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) 1.77 × 10–2 correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) 1.11 × 10–2
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) 1.77 × 10–6
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) 1.11 × 10–6 (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer (2) Answer (2)
10
JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(25-02-2021)-E
Sol. CH3 – C = N – OH +2 17. The method used for the purification of Indium
+ Ni
H3C – C = N – OH is :
Dimethylglyoxime NH4 OH
(1) Vapour phase refining
–
O H–O (2) Zone refining
CH3 – C = N +2
N = C – CH 3 +
Ni + 2H (3) Liquation
CH3 – C = N N = C – CH 3
O–H O– (4) van Arkel method
Ni(DMG) 2 Answer (2)
Identification of Ni+2 is carried out by dimethyl Sol. Indium is purified by zone refining method.
glyoxime in presence of NH4OH
NH 2
16. The correct order of acid character of the HNO 3 , H2SO 4
18.
following compounds is : 288 K
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. 1. The unit cell of copper corresponds to a face
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. centered cube of edge length 3.596 Å with one
copper atom at each lattice point. The
Answer (3) calculated density of copper in kg/m3 is _____.
Sol. pH of rain water is normally 5.6 due to [Molar mass of Cu : 63.54 g; Avogadro Number
presence of H+ formed by the reaction of water = 6.022 × 1023]
and CO2 present in atmosphere
Answer (9077)
H2 CO3 (aq)
CO2 (g) H2 O()
Sol. Copper crystallises is fcc unit cell with edge
H
H2CO3 (aq) (aq) HCO3 (aq) pH 5.6 length, a = 3.596Å
12
JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(25-02-2021)-E
(P )2 [Cu2 ]3 K2 Ea 1 1
0.059 Sol. log
6F (0.96 0.34) log NO 10 K1 2.303 R T1 T2
6 (x)
Ea 1 1
0.059 (P )2 [Cu2 ]3 log5
6F 0.62 log NO 10 2.303 8.314 300 325
6 x
[Cu2 ] 2.5
log 23.9 m 2.75 mol / kg 3
x2 1.75 0.52
13
JEE (MAIN)-2021 : Phase-1(25-02-2021)-E
14
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (25-02-2021)-E
PART–C : MATHEMATICS
1 5
Sequence is an A.P. Eccentricity e 2
I n 2 In 3
15
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (25-02-2021)-E
Semi-transverse axis a = 3 x x
6. The minimum value of f(x) aa a1a ,
25
b2 a2 (e2 1) 9 1 16
9 where a, x R and a > 0, is equal to :
Equation of Hyperbola
(1) a + 1 (2) 2 a
x 2 y2
1 1
9 16 (3) a (4) 2a
a
4. Let x denote the total number of one-one
functions from a set A with 3 elements to a set Answer (2)
B with 5 elements and y denote the total x a
number of one-one functions from the set A to Sol. f(x) aa x
the set A × B. Then : aa
∵
a a a ax . a
(3) y 273x (4) y 91x 2 aa
x
Answer (2)
f(x) 2 a
Sol. n(A) = 3, n(B) = 5
x = 5C3 × 3! = 5 × 4 × 3 f(x)min 2 a
n(A × B) = 15
7. If the curve x2 2y2 2 intersects the line
y = 15C3 × 3! = 15 × 14 × 13
x y 1 at two points P and Q, then the angle
y 15 14 13 91
subtended by the line segment PQ at the
x 5 43 2
origin is :
2y = 91x
1 1
tan1 tan1
5x (1)
2 4
(2)
2 3
5. A function f(x) is given by f(x) , then
5x 5
the sum of the series 1 1
(3) tan1 (4) tan1
2 3 2 4
1 2 3 39
f f f .... f 20 is equal to:
20 20 20 Answer (4)
19 Sol. y = 1 – x ...(i)
(1)
2 x2 + 2y2 =2 ...(ii)
29 x2 + 2 (1 – x)2 =2
(2)
2 3x2 – 4x = 0
49
(3)
2
B(0, 1)
39
(4)
2 (0, 0) 0
Answer (4)
A
52 x 5
Sol. f 2 x 2x
5 5 5 5x
So f(x) + f(2 – x) = 1
39
r 19
r r 4
f 20 f 20 f 2 20 f(1)
r 1 r 1
x 0,
3
1 39 1
19 y 1,
2 2 3
16
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (25-02-2021)-E
1 1 1 2 3iˆ ˆj kˆ
=
(3) 1 (4)
4 1 2 1
Answer (1)
OP 2iˆ ˆj kˆ
n 1
n
lim OP.n 6 1 1 8
Sol. n n r 2 sin
r 0
OP n 11. 6 66
n 1
1 1 64 1
= n
lim
n
2 cos 1
r 0 r 66 33
1
n 1 2
Projection = OP cos 6
1 dx 1
1
1 1 33 11
0 (1 x)2
1 x 0
– 1
2 2 e3loge 2x 5e2loge 2x
11. The integral e 4logex 5e3loge x 7e2loge x
dx,
9. Let A be a set of all 4-digit natural numbers
x > 0, is equal to :
whose exactly one digit is 7. Then the
probability that a randomly chosen element of (1) 4 loge x2 5x 7 c
A leaves remainder 2 when divided by 5 is :
2
(2) loge x 5x 7 c
2 97
(1) (2)
9 297 1
(3) loge x 2 5x 7 c
4
122 1
(3) (4)
297 5 (4) loge x2 5x 7 c
Answer (2) Answer (1)
Sol. Number having exactly one 7 can be
e3ln2x 5e2ln2x
(i) Having 7 at thousand’s place = 93 = 729 Sol. I dx
e 4 lnx 5e3lnx 7e2lnx
(ii) Not 7 at thousand’s place = 3 × 8 × 4 2
2x 3 5 2x 2 8x 20
= 1944 I dx dx
4 3 2 2
n(s) = 729 + 1944 = 2673 x 5x 7x x 5x 7
Let x2 + 5x – 7 = t
Favourable cases = having 7 at unit place or
having 2 at unit place. (2x + 5)dx = dt
i.e. = (9 × 9) + (8 × 9 × 2) + (8 × 9 × 9) = 873 dt
I 4 4 ln t c
t
873 97
Required probability = I 4 ln x2 5x 7 c
2673 297
17
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (25-02-2021)-E
1 T
15. If , R are such that 1 – 2i (here i2 = –1) is
12. If for the matrix, A = , AA = I2, then
a root of z2 + z 0 , then is equal
the value of 4 4 is :
to:
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) –3 (2) –7
(3) 4 (4) 3
(3) 7 (4) 3
Answer (1)
Answer (2)
1
Sol. A Sol. As , R roots are 1 – 2i and 1 + 2i
∵ AAT = I – = 2 = –2
P(E/A1) = 0.35, P(E/A2) = 0.2, P(E/A3) = 0.1 19. The shortest distance between the line
to find P(A1/E) x – y = 1 and the curve x2 = 2y is :
using Baye’s theorem we get 1 1
(1) (2)
P E / A1 P A1 2 2
P A1 / E
P E / A1 P A1 P E / A2 P A2 P E / A3 P A3
1
(3) 0 (4)
0.35 0.4 2 2
0.35 0.4 0.2 0.25 0.1 0.35 Answer (4)
140 140 28
Sol. Equation of line parallel to x – y = 1 is
x–y=c ...(i)
140 50 35 225 45
If line x – y = c is tangent to parabola x2 = 2y
3
18. If 0 < x, y < and cos x + cos y – cos (x + y) = , then x2 = 2 (x – c) has unique roots
2
then sin x + cos y is equal to : x2 – 2x + 2c = 0
D=04–4×1×2c=0
1 3 3
(1) (2) 1
2 2 c
2
1 1 3
(3) (4) 1
2 2 Tangent of parabola is x y
2
Answer (1) 1
1
Sol. LHS = cosx + cosy – cos(x + y) 2 1
Shortest distance units
2 2 2
xy xy 2 xy
2 cos cos 2 2 cos 2 1 20. Let A be a 3 × 3 matrix with det(A) = 4. Let Ri
2
denote the i th row of A. If a matrix B is
xy xy obtained by performing the operation R2 2R2
2 cos 2 cos2 1
2 2 + 5R3 on 2A, then det(B) is equal to :
2
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
3 x y 1 3 contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five
2 cos 2 2
2 2 questions out of 10. The answer to each question is
a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
3
But given that LHS correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
2 truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
xy xy 1 e.g. 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30)
cos 1 and cos using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric
2 2 2
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
2
x – y = 0 and x y 1. If the curve, y = y(x) represented by the
3
solution of the differential equation (2xy2 – y) dx
+ xdy = 0, passes through the intersection of
xy
3
the lines, 2x – 3y = 1 and 3x + 2y = 8, then y 1
3 1 is equal to ___________.
sinx cos y
2 Answer (01)
19
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (25-02-2021)-E
Sol. ∵ (2xy2 – y)dx + xdy = 0 The points in (–3, 3) where function is not
differentiable is x = –2, –1, 0, 1 and 2.
ydx xdy
2xdx = Total number of non differentiable points = 5
y2
2
x
2xdx = d
y
3. The value of
–2
3x2 – 3x – 6 dx is __________.
y(x)
2
x = 3 1
2
(x 2 x 2)dx
1
2
(2 x x 2 )dx
x 2
1 2
1 x3 x2 x2 x3
y(1) 1 = 3 2x 2x
1 2 3 2 2 2 3 1
y(1) 1
= 3 1 1 2 8 2 4
3 2 3
2. A function f is defined on [–3, 3] as
8 1 1
4 2 2
f x
min x ,2 – x2 , –2 x 2 3 2 3
2 x 3
x , = 19
where [x] denotes the greatest integer x. The 4. Let a i + aj + 3k and b 3i – aj + k . If the
number of points, where f is not differentiable
area of the parallelogram whose adjacent sides
in (–3, 3) is ___________.
are represented by the vectors a and b is
Answer (05 )
8 3 square units, then a . b is equal to
min x , 2 x2 , 2 x 2
Sol. f(x) ___________.
x , 2 x 3
Answer (2)
y
(–3, 3) (3, 3)
ˆi ˆj kˆ
3
2
Sol. a b 1 3 4 ˆi 8ˆj 4kˆ 4 ˆi 2ˆj kˆ
3 1
1
x
0
x ∵ 8 3 4 2 2 4 2
–3 –2 –1 1 2 3
a b 3 2 3 2
y 5. A line ‘l’ passing through origin is
3 , x 3 perpendicular to the lines
2 , 3 x 2 l1 : r = 3 t i + –1 2t j + 4 2t k
2
2 x , 2 x 1
l2 : r = 3 2s i + 3 2s j + 2 s k
x , 1 x 0
Now, f(x) If the co-ordinates of the point in the first
x , 0x1
2 octant on ‘l2” at a distance of 17 from the
2 x , 1 x 2
2 point of intersection of ‘l’ and ‘I1’ are (a, b, c)
, 2x3 then 18(a + b + c) is equal to ________.
3 , x3 Answer (44)
20
JEE (MAIN)-2021 Phase-1 (25-02-2021)-E
Hence 18 (a + b + c) = 44
9 9 9 x 0 a e 4x – 1
2
6. If the remainder when x is divided by 4 is 3, 1 4x 4x
then the remainder when (2020 + x) 2022 is a– ...
x 1 2
divided by 8 is __________. L lim
Answer (1) x 0 4x 4x 2
a ...
Sol. ∵ x = 4y + 3 1 2
then (2020 + x)2022 = (2023 + 4y)2022
Clearly, a – 4 = 0 a = 4
= (4 – 1)2022
–8 –1
= (162 – 8 + 1)2022 L b
16 2
= (8μ + 1)1011
So, a – 2b = 4 + 1 = 5
= 8 + 1 where , μ, N
10. If the curves x = y 4 and xy = k cut at right
7. A line is a common tangent to the circle angles, then (4k)6 is equal to _______.
(x – 3)2 + y2 = 9 and the parabola y2 = 4x. If the
Answer (4)
two points of contact (a, b) and (c, d) are
distinct and lie in the first quadrant, then Sol. C1 : y4 = x and C2 : xy = k
2(a + c) is equal to _________.
4 1
Answer (9) Point of intersection of C1 and C2 is k 5 ,k 5
Sol. Let equation of tangent to y2 = 4x as dy1 1 1
m1
1 dx 4y3 4k3 5
y mx
m dy2 k 1
If it is a common tangent, then m2 – 3
dx x2 k 5
1
3m 1 6
m 3m 1 ∵ m1 m2 –1 6
1 4k 5 1
1 m2 3 4k 5
(4k) = 4
6
21