19/05/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 5 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Topics covered :
Physics : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments, Wave Optics, Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation, Atoms
and Nuclei, Semiconductor devices.
Chemistry : Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers, Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic
Acids, Amines (Organic Compound containing Nitrogen), Biomolecules, Polymers, Chemistry in
Everyday Life.
Botany : Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, Microbes in Human Welfare, Organisms and
Population, Ecosystem, Biodiversity and Conservation and Environmental Issues.
Zoology : Human Health and Disease, Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, Biotechnology :
Principles and Process and Biotechnology and its application

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

1. An air bubble is inside the water (µwater = 4/3).
Which of the following is correct?
(1) It will behave like a divergent lens
(2) It cannot form a real image of any point
object in water
(3) It can produce real image of virtual object
(4) All of these
2. A light ray is incident at an angle of 60° at one
face of a prism. If emergent ray makes an angle
of 30° with the incident ray, then correct
statement is (Angle of prism is given as 30°)
(1) Final emergent ray is parallel to second face
of the prism and refractive index of the prism
is 2
(2) Final emergent ray is perpendicular to the
second face and refractive index of the prism
is 2
(3) Final emergent ray will make an angle of
30° with second face and refractive index is
3
(4) Final emergent ray is normal to second
surface and refractive index is 3

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Test-5 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

3. An astronomical telescope in normal adjustment 7. A marginal ray falls upon a concave mirror of
receives light from a distant source S. The tube radius of curvature 20 cm as shown in figure.
length is now decreased slightly, then Find distance CM (in cm).
(1) A virtual image of S will be formed at a finite
distance
(2) No image will be formed
(3) A small, real image of S will be formed
behind the eyepiece and close to it
(4) A large, real image of S will be formed behind
the eyepiece and far away from it
4. Ratio of intensities of coherent waves in YDSE is
9 : 4. Ratio of intensities of minima to the maxima
produced is (1) 10 (2) 16
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 4 : 9 20
(3) (4) 10 3
(3) 1 : 16 (4) 1 : 25 3
5. It is given that µ1 > µ2 > µ3. Find angle made by 8. The coordinate of a point where parallel rays are
the ray of light with the normal in medium of focussed by the thin convex lens is [where focal
refractive index (µ3). length of convex lens is 10 cm and it is placed
along y-axis]

(1) (10, –10) cm (2) (10, –20) cm

−1  sin i

(1) i (2) sin   (3) (20, –10) cm (4) (20, –20) cm
 µ1  9. A convex lens forms an image at a distance
10 cm when a parallel beam of light is incident on
−1  sin i  −1  sin i 
(3) sin   (4) sin   it. Find the position(s) of a concave mirror of
 µ2   µ3  radius of curvature 5 cm such that the final image
is formed at infinity
6. An object O is moving towards the surface
of water with a speed of 2 ms–1 and fish F is (1) At a distance of 10 cm from the lens
moving towards the surface with a speed of (2) At a distance of 15 cm from the lens
5 ms–1. Find the speed of the object O as seen by (3) At a distance of 5 cm from the lens
fish. (4) Both (1) and (2)
10. An astronomical telescope has magnification
8 for normal adjustment. A person using this
telescope finds that when distance between
objective and eyepiece is made 40 cm, the final
image is formed at infinity. Select the correct pair
of focal lengths of objective and eyepiece
respectively.
40 320
(1) fo = cm, fe = cm
9 9
(1) 6.33 ms–1 (2) fo = 10 cm, fe = 30 cm
(2) 7 ms–1 320 40
(3) fo = cm, fe = cm
(3) 5.26 ms–1 9 9
(4) 4.75 ms–1 (4) fo = 30 cm, fe = 10 cm

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-5 (Code-A)

11. An unpolarised beam of light is made to incident 16. It is observed that when electromagnetic radiation
on an arrangement of four polarising sheets of two frequencies 4 × 1015 Hz and 8 × 1015 Hz is
arranged in such a way that the characteristic allowed to fall on the same plate, the maximum
direction of each polarising sheet makes an angle kinetic energy ratio of electrons in photoelectric
of 45° with that of preceding sheet. What fraction emission is 1 : 5. The work function for the metal
of incident unpolarised light will be transmitted will be (h = Planck’s constant)
finally? (1) h × 1015 (2) 2h × 1015
1 1 (3) 3h × 1015 (4) 4h × 1015
(1) (2)
2 4 17. A proton and an alpha particle are accelerated
1 1 from rest by same potential difference. Ratio of
(3) (4) their de-Broglie wavelength is
8 16
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
12. In YDSE, when a thin transparent sheet of
thickness t and refractive index µ = 1.5 is placed (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 2 : 1
just in front of upper slit, the central bright 18. In a container 2 kg of water is placed at 30°C.
fringe shifts to nth bright fringe. Then n is A light beam of frequency 2 × 1010 Hz is allowed
(λ = Wavelength of light in air) to fall on the water and all the energy of photons
is used to heat the water. What will be required
t λ
(1) (2) number of photons to heat water from 30°C to
2λ 2t 31°C?
λ 2λ (Take h = 7 × 10–34 J s)
(3) (4)
t t (1) 6 × 1026 (2) 7 × 1025
13. If intensity of principal maximum in Fraunhofer (3) 6 × 1024 (4) 8.2 × 1026
single slit diffraction is I0. Then, intensity of 19. A light of frequency 1010 Hz is incident on a
second order secondary maxima is photosensitive material. The given frequency is
2.5 times of Threshold frequency. If above
I0 I0 incident frequency is made one-third and intensity
(1) (2)
62.5 22.5 made five times, the photocurrent becomes
I0 (1) Five times the initial photocurrent
(3) (4) I0 (2) One-third the initial photocurrent
4
14. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle moving (3) Three times the initial photocurrent
with a velocity of 2 × 108 ms–1 is equal to the (4) Zero
wave length of photon. What will be ratio of 20. Two blocks are hanging by massless strings. A
kinetic energy of the moving particle to that of beam of light is allowed to fall as shown in figure.
energy of a photon? Assuming that lower surface of lower block is
1 2 perfectly reflecting and light incident normal to the
(1) (2) surface. Energy falling on lower block is w every
3 3 second. Find tension in upper string AB (Assume
1 no light energy falls on upper block)
(3) (4) 1
4
15. Consider a monochromatic linear source of light
which is placed at a distance of r from a very
small metal plate. Due to photoelectric effect
electrons are ejected at rate N per second and it
is found that maximum kinetic energy of
photoelectron is K. If source is brought closer to a
r
distance , the rate of emission and the
3
maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron
become nearly
N 2w w
(1) , 3K (2) 3N, 3K (1) m1g − m2 g − (2) m1g + m2 g −
3 c c
K 2w w
(3) 3N, K (4) 3N, (3) m1g + m2 g − (4) + m2 g − m1g
3 c c
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Test-5 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

21. In photoelectric experiment graph of stopping 26. For nuclear stability consider the reaction of a
1 nucleus, Z X A → Z −1Y A + +1 e0 + ν. If MX and
potential versus is drawn. Nature
Wavelength MY are the masses of the atoms X and Y, the
and reciprocal of slope of graph will be reaction name and Q value will be respectively
hc
(1) Straight line, (1) Negative β-decay, Q = (M X − MY + me )c 2
e
e (2) Positive β-decay, Q = (M X − MY + me )c 2
(2) Rectangular hyperbola,
hc (3) Negative β-decay, Q = (M X − MY − 2me )c 2
c
(3) Straight line, (4) Positive β-decay, Q = (M X − MY − 2me )c 2
e
27. Consider a radioactive substance which decays,
e
(4) Straight line, following the law of disintegration. At an instant t1
hc
1
22. Which of the following statements is/are correct its activity is R and at time t2 it becomes . Find
R
regarding X-ray tube?
the average life of radioactive substance, if t2 > t1.
(1) Continuous X-rays are produced due to
transition of an electron from higher energy (t2 − t1)
(1) ln(R ) (2) 2ln(R )(t2 − t1 )
levels to vacant lower energy level 2
(2) The shortest wavelength produced in an (t2 − t1 ) 2(t2 − t1 )
X-ray tube dependent only on the target (3) (4)
material
2ln(R ) ln(R )
(3) On increasing potential difference between 28. The mean lives of a radioactive substances are
the filament and target, frequency of 2000 years and 400 years for α and β emission
continuous X-rays increases respectively. What will be the time (in years) after
which 5/6th of the given sample will decay if it is
(4) All of these
decaying by both α and β emission together?
23. In Davisson and Germer experiment for wave [In 6 = 1.79]
nature of electron if voltage between filament and
that of anode is increased by five percent, the (1) 297
new wavelength corresponding to electron as (2) 397
wave becomes (3) 597
1 (4) 533
(1) 5 times (2) times
5 29. Select incorrect statement about strong nuclear
20 21 forces
(3) times (4) times
21 22 (1) Short ranged
24. Which of the following parameters is same for (2) Strongest fundamental force
electron in all hydrogen like atoms and ions in (3) Independent of charge
their ground states?
(4) Always attractive
Radius Speed 30. Select correct graph representing number of
(1) (2)
Speed Energy nuclei decayed (N) vs time(t) in case of
radioactive decay.
(3) Energy of atom (4) (Speed) (Radius)
25. Consider a hydrogen like atom in Bohr’s model. It
is given that difference between (n + 1)th Bohr’s
radius and nth Bohr’s radius is equal to (n – 1)th
Bohr’s radius, then the energy of nth state (in eV) (1) (2)
is [Z = atomic number]
(1) –0.85 Z2
(2) –1.5 Z2
(3) –13.6 Z2 (3) (4)
(4) –3.4 Z2

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-5 (Code-A)

31. Consider an unstable nucleus of mass M initially (1) Only a and b are correct
M (2) Only a is correct
at rest, emits an element of mass . The Q
50 (3) Only c and d are correct
value of this nuclear reaction is E. What will be (4) Only a, b and d are correct
kinetic energy of emitted element in this process? 36. In the circuit given below, neglecting base emitter
E 49E voltage (VBE), find the collector current.
(1) (2)
50 50
E 50
(3) (4) E
49 51
32. It is given that angular momentum of an electron
in a particular orbit of hydrogen like atom of
atomic number Z, is L. Assuming Bohr’s model
and angular momentum quantisation to be true,
what will be magnitude of total energy of electron
(1) 0.78 mA (2) 0.96 mA
for this particular orbit?
(3) 1.28 mA (4) 2.20 mA
mZ 2e 4 mZ 2e3 37. The minimum deviation produced by a hollow
(1) (2)
32π2ε02L2 8π2ε02L2 prism filled with a certain liquid is found to be
30°. The angle of refraction is also found to be
mZ 2e 4 m2Z 2e 4 30° at first surface. The refractive index of liquid
(3) (4) is
8π2ε02L2 8π2ε02L2
(1) 2 (2) 3
33. Consider a silicon transistor with input resistance
2 kΩ. It was found that, if base current is changed 3 3
(3) (4)
by 50 µA, it changes the collector current by 2 2
1.5 mA. This transistor is used as common 38. Light is incident normally on face AB of a prism
emitter amplifier with output resistance (Load) as shown in figure. A liquid of refractive index µ is
4 kΩ. Find the ac voltage gain of such amplifier. placed on face AC of the prism, the prism is
(1) 10 (2) 30 3
made of glass of refractive index . The limit of
(3) 60 (4) 80 2
µ for which total internal reflection takes place on
34. Select the correct option about pn-junction diode face AC is
(1) Potential barrier developed across a
pn-junction supports the movement of
minority charge carriers
(2) Light emitting diodes (LED) is a pn-junction in
forward bias
(3) Photodiodes is a pn-junction in reverse bias
(4) All of these
35. Some statements are given about semi- 3 3 3
conductors (1) µ > (2) µ <
4 4
a. Semi-conductor materials have crystalline
7 3
structure and their atoms are bound together (3) µ > 3 (4) µ <
by covalent bonds 4
39. A light has amplitude A after passing through the
b. On adding suitable impurity even in small
polariser. Angle between analyser and polariser
amounts, conductivity of semi-conductors
being 60°. Light transmitted by analyser has
increases appreciably.
amplitude
c. Semi-conductor materials have sharply A
defined energy-levels for any electron (1) A 2 (2)
belonging to a particular orbit. 2
d. Semi-conductors have negative temperature 3A A
(3) (4)
coefficient of resistance. 2 2
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Test-5 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

40. In photoelectric effect if the intensity of light 43. The activity of a sample of a radioactive material
is doubled keeping frequency same, then is A1 at time t1 and A2 at time t2 (t2 > t1). If its
maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons will mean life is T, then
become (1) A1t1 = A2t2 (2) A1 – A2 = t2 – t1
(1) Double (2) Half
(3) A2 = A1e( t1 −t2 ) T (4) A2 = A1e( t1 t2 )T
(3) Four times (4) No change
44. If T is the half-life of a radioactive material, then
41. Which of the following is not correct about
X-rays? T
the fraction that would remain after a time is
2
(1) It is used to study crystal structure
1 3
(2) They have high penetrating power and are (1) (2)
used in radiographs 2 4
1 2 −1
(3) When they pass through gases, they produce (3) (4)
ionisation 2 2
(4) They get deflected by electric or magnetic 45. The current through an ideal PN-junction diode
field shown in the following circuit diagram will be
42. The first line in the Lyman series has wavelength
λ. The wavelength of the first line in Balmer
series is
2 9
(1) λ (2) λ
9 2
5 27 (1) Zero (2) 1 mA
(3) λ (4) λ
27 5 (3) 10 mA (4) 30 mA

CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide? 48. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing
(1) Glucose (2) Maltose order of their reactivity towards nucleophilic
(3) Ribose (4) Fructose substitution reactions.

47.

Product (D) in above reaction series is

(1) IV > III > II > I (2) II > III > I > IV
(3) II > III > IV > I (4) IV > III > I > II
(1)
49. Common example of Antihistamines is
(1) Brompheniramine (2) Valium
(2)
(3) Penicillin (4) Veronal
50. Which of the following isomerism is shown by the
product formed in the given reaction?
(3)

(4) (1) Metamerism (2) Tautomerism

(3) Chain isomerism (4) Position isomerism

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-5 (Code-A)
Mg CO
56. C6H5Cl →
dry ether
(A) → 2
dry ether
(B)
51. H+ /H O

2
→ (C)
Product (B) is Compound (C) is
(1) C6H5CH2OH (2) C6H5COOC6H5
(3) C6H5COOH (4) C6H5OH
(1) (2)
57. Which keto acid shown will not undergo
decarboxylation easily on heating?

(3) (4)
(1)
52. Which of the following amino acids is not optically
active?
(1) Tyrosine (2) Alanine (2)
(3) Glycine (4) Proline

53.
(3)

(4)
Products A and B are differentiated by
(1) 2, 4-DNP (2) Tollen’s reagent
58.
(3) Sodium (4) Sodium bisulphite

54.

The product A is

(1) (2) Products (A) and (B) are respectively (at

moderate conditions)

(1)

(3) (4)

55. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Phenols are oxidised in air to dark coloured (2) No reaction,
mixtures
(2) Reimer-Tiemann reaction is example of
electrophilic substitution reaction
(3) Lucas test is used to identify 1°, 2° and 3° (3) , no reaction
alcohols
(4) o-Methylphenol is more acidic than phenol
due to ortho effect (4) No reaction, no reaction

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Test-5 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

59. Arrange the following in decreasing order of 64. The major product of the following reaction is
acidic nature.
F3 CCH2OH (CH3 )3 CCH2OH FCH2CH2CH2OH
(i) (ii) (iii) Major product
(1) i > ii > iii (2) ii > iii > i
(3) iii > ii > i (4) i > iii > ii
Electrolytic reduction
60. Nitrobenzene  → (A)
Strong acidic medium (1) (2)
NaNO2 H3PO2

HCl
→ (B) 
H2O
→ (C)

Compound (C) is
(1) Benzene (3) (4)

(2) Phenol
(3) Aniline 65. A
(4) Phenylhydroxylamine The major product ‘A’ in above reaction is
Conc. HNO3 Sn/HCl
61. Benzene 
Conc. H2SO4
→ (A) 
→ (B)

Ac O Br
(1) (2)
→
2
(C) 
2
→ Major product
Major product of above reaction is (3) (4)

66. The major product of the following reaction is

(1) (2)

(1) A hemiacetal (2) An acetal

(3) An ether (4) An ester
(3) (4) 67. Which of the following give positive Tollen’s
reagent test?
(1) CH≡CH (2) HCOOH
62. Artificial sweetening agent which is most stable (3) HCHO (4) All of these
at cooking temperature is
68. In Cannizzaro reaction
(1) Aspartame (2) Sucralose −
OH
PhCHO  → PhCH2OH + PhCOO−
(3) Alitame (4) Sucrose
63. Consider the following reaction: The slowest step is
NaOH, ∆ (1) Attack of OH– at carbonyl group
CH3CHO + CH3CH2CHO → Products
(2) Transfer of H– to carbonyl group
Incorrect statement about above condensation (3) Abstraction of H+ from carboxylic acid
reaction is
(4) Deprotonation of PhCH2OH
(1) 4 different cross aldol condensation products
are possible 69. An amine reacts with C6H5SO2Cl and the product
is soluble in alkali. Amine is
(2) For cross aldol products, CH3CHO acts as
(1) 1° amine (2) 2° amine
preferably enolisable partner
(3) 3° amine (4) All of these
(3) All products formed can’t show geometrical
isomerism 70. α and β-glucose are called as
(4) Every product involves addition followed by (1) Functional isomers (2) Anomers
elimination process (3) Tautomers (4) Enantiomers

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-5 (Code-A)

71. Ziegler-Natta Catalyst is 78. A mixture of ortho-nitrophenol and para-

(1) [Rh(PPh3)3Cl] (2) (C2H5)3Al + TiCl4 nitrophenol can be separated by
(3) V2O5 (4) (C2H5)3B + TiCl2 (1) Sublimation
(2) Fractional distillation
72. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(3) Vaccum distillation
(1) Synthetic detergents are not soaps
(2) Cationic detergents have germicidal (4) Steam distillation
properties 79. Fehling solution does not give red precipitate with
(3) Bacteria can degrade the detergents (1) Glucose (2) Acrolein
containing highly branched chains (3) Acetaldehyde (4) Benzaldehyde
(4) Bithionol is added to soap to impart antiseptic 80. Glucose does not
properties (1) React with HNO3
73. The final product (C) in the following reaction is
(2) React with acetic anhydride
Na, Liq. NH
→ 3 NBS
(A)  → (B) (3) Give Schiff’s test
EtOH hν
(4) Reduce Tollen’s reagent
(i) Mg/ether
(ii) CH3I 81. Select the incorrect statement among the
→ (C)
following
(1) Teflon is used for making gaskets and
oil-seals
(1) (2) (2) PMMA is used in the manufacture of lenses
and aircraft windows
(3) Bakelite is used in the manufacture of cords
and climbing ropes
(3) (4)
(4) Glyptal is used for manufacture of paints and
lacquers
74. Identify the compound A, in the given reaction
sequence. 82. Identify the correct statement among the
following
(1) Salvarsan is an antacid
(i)O3 + CHCl3 (i) dil. KOH
A 
(ii) Zn+H2O
→ B (ii) ∆
→ (2) Penicillin G is a broad spectrum antibiotic
(3) Under cold conditions, aspartame is stable
artificial sweetener
(1) (2)
(4) Sulphonamides act as antiseptics
83. Identify the major product (C) in the given
reaction sequence
(3) (4)

(i) NaNO /HCl (0-5°C)

75. 1,1-dichloroethane on heating with KOH (aq.) →
2
(ii) H O
(A)
2
gives
Zn-dust Cl (excess)/hν
(1) Acetone (2) Acetaldehyde  → (B) 
2
→ (C)
(3) Glycol (4) Ethane
(1) Benzene hexachloride
76. Hydroperoxide rearrangement is used to prepare
(2) 1,4-Dichlorobenzene
(1) Phenol (2) Benzoic acid
(3) Hexachlorobenzene
(3) Benzaldehyde (4) Aniline
(4) Chlorobenzene
77. Which of the following chemical substance is
used for the treatment of malaria? 84. The Cannizzaro’s reaction is given by
(1) Bithional (2) Seconal (1) Acetaldehyde (2) Isobutanal
(3) Phenacetin (4) Quinine (3) Phenyl Acetaldehyde (4) Chloral

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Test-5 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

87. The major product B in the following sequence of

reaction is
KNH
85.  2
liquid NH
→ (A) (Major)
3

(1) C6H5CH2CDO
Major product (A) of the above reaction is
(2) C6H5– –CD3
(3) C6H5CH(OD)CH3
(1) (2) (4) C6H5CH2CH2OD
88. The number of aldol reaction(s) that occur in the
given transformation is/are

(3) (4)

(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4

Excess HI
86.  → (X) 89. The reaction, + Nu− → + X–
major product

is fastest when X is
(X) in this reaction is
(1) Cl (2) NH2

(1) (3) OC2H5 (4) OCOR

∆
90. OH¯  → Product(s)

(2)

The alkene formed as a major product in the

above elimination reaction is
(3)
(1) (2) CH2 = CH2

(4)
(3) CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2 (4)

BOTANY
91. How many of the following beverages are (1) Cyclosporin-A (2) Streptokinase
produced by distillation of the fermented broth? (3) Pectinase (4) Lipase

Whisky, Wine, Rum, Brandy, Beer 93. Full potential of Penicillin as an effective
antibiotic was established by
(1) 4 (2) 3 (1) S.A. Waksman
(3) 2 (4) 1 (2) A. Fleming
92. The bioactive molecule used in detergent (3) Ernest Chain and Howard Florey
formulation as dirt buster is (4) E. Jenner

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-5 (Code-A)

94. Read the following statements w.r.t. biological 99. In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus
treatment of sewage. and powdery mildew were
a. Involves removal of sewage through (1) Induced by mutations
sequential filteration. (2) Introduced by conventional breeding
b. BOD of waste water is directly proportional to
(3) Carried out by pure line selection
its polluting potential.
(4) Both (1) and (3)
c. Constant agitation of primary effluent is
carried out in large aeration tanks. 100. Source of resistance genes for developing
insect/pest resistant variety can be
Identify the incorrect statement(s)
(1) b and c (2) a and c a. Cultivated varieties
(3) Only a (4) Only b b. Wild relatives
95. In biogas plant c. Germplasm collections of the crop
(1) Digester tank is made 10-15 m deep inside (1) a and b only (2) b and c only
soil (3) a and c only (4) All a, b and c
(2) Floating cover keeps on rising due to 101. Choose the incorrect match
microbial activity
Variety Crop
(3) Monomers formed after decomposition
(1) Pusa sadabahar – Wheat
directly undergo methanogenesis
(4) Naturally occurring bacteria in dung are not (2) Pusa shubhra – Cauliflower
used to produce methane (3) Pusa swarnim – Brassica
96. Microbes as biocontrol agents are (4) Pusa komal – Cowpea
(1) Always narrow spectrum like Trichoderma 102. Plant breeding for improved food quality can
(2) Always broad spectrum like NPV perform
(3) Either narrow or broad spectrum depending (1) Incorporation of antinutritional factors
on their uses (2) Breeding of crops with higher level of
(4) Pathogens affecting aerial parts of the crop vitamins only
only (3) Elimination of higher protein and healthier
97. IPM fats
(1) Conserve beneficial insects (4) Enhancement of nutritional quality
(2) Economically harmful but ecologically 103. The final step in the tissue culture programme
beneficial before the new plants are taken out for cultivation
(3) Is desirable when ecologically sensitive area in the fields in known as
is being treated
(1) Micropropagation (2) Embryogenesis
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) Totipotency (4) Hardening
98. Select the incorrect statements
104. Which of the following induces fusion of
a. Indian agriculture accounts for approximately protoplasts?
62 percent of India’s GDP.
(1) Sodium chloride and potassium chloride
b. During the period 1960 and 2000, wheat and
rice production increased from 11 million (2) Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate
tonnes to 89.5 million tonnes (3) Pectinase and cellulase
c. Semi-dwarf rice varieties were derived from (4) Cellulase and cutinase
IR-8 and Taichung Native-1 105. 'Flocs' in STP include.
d. Saccharum officinarum was originally grown
(1) Filaments of anaerobic bacteria
in North India having high sugar content and
yield (2) Filaments of fungi and anaerobic bacteria
(1) a and c (2) b, c and d (3) Filaments of fungi and aerobic bacteria
(3) Only d (4) a, b and d (4) Filaments of anaerobic and aerobic bacteria

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Test-5 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

106. a. Bacteria are used in preparing idli, dosa and 111. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. predation
curdling of milk. (1) Herbivores have a greater advantage since
b. Yeast is used in making only distilled plants cannot run away to avoid predation
alcoholic beverages.
(2) If a predator is efficient and prudent, the prey
c. In biological treatment of waste water only population will become extinct
aerobic bacteria are used
(3) Predators help in maintaining species
The number of correct and incorrect statements
diversity
are respectively
(4) Predation keep prey population under control
(1) 3, 0 (2) 1, 2
(3) 2, 1 (4) 0, 3 112. If in a pond there are 80 lotus plants last year
and through reproduction 8 new plants are
107. Which of the following pairs are correctly
added, taking the current population to 88. The
matched?
value of birth rate will be
a. Amensalism – A population promotes the
growth of the other species (1) 11 (2) 0.1
by secreting chemicals (3) 0.9 (4) 1.1
b. Predation – A population is inhibited 113. One person proceeds from high altitude to low
whereas the other population altitude and high latitude to low latitude, then
remains unaffected identify the correct statement among the
c. Mutualism – Interaction confers benefits to following.
both interacting species (1) Species diversity decreases
(1) a, b and c (2) a and b (2) Producers are increasing but decomposers
(3) Only c (4) b and c are decreasing
108. In order to achieve ‘stable’ population growth in (3) Species diversity increases
human population which of the following must
occur? (4) Species diversity remains constant
(1) There must be more post-reproductive 114. Select incorrect statement for phosphorus cycle
individuals than reproductive individuals (1) Small amount of phosphates are always
(2) There must be more pre reproductive added to soil solution through weathering of
individuals than reproductive individuals rocks
(3) There must be only marginally more number (2) Similar to carbon cycle as it also has
of pre-reproductive individuals than the respiratory release
reproductive individuals (3) Gaseous exchanges of phosphorus between
(4) Both (1) and (2) organisms and environment are negligible
109. Verhulst-pearl logistic growth is described by (4) Rocks are natural reservoirs
(1) Nt = N0ert
115. Pioneer community in hydarch succession is
dN (1) Hydrilla
(2) = rN
dt
(2) Vallisneria
(3) Nt+1 = Nt + [B–I] – [D + E]
(3) Phytoplanktons
dN K −N
(4) = rN   (4) Typha
dt  K 
116. Humus is
110. Which statement stands true for an “Urn” shaped
pyramid? (1) Light coloured amorphous substance
(1) A low percentage of pre-reproductive (2) Totally decomposed organic matter in a soil
individuals (3) Highly resistant to microbial action and
(2) Positive growth in population undergoes decomposition at extremly slow
(3) High birth rate rate
(4) Growth rate becomes zero (4) Raw material for decomposition

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-5 (Code-A)

117. Given below is a simplified model of 122. Poor aeration and high salinity problem in
phosphorous cycle in a terrestrial ecosystem with agricultural fields is due to
four blanks (A-D). Identify the blanks (1) Eutrophication
(2) Prolonged water logging
(3) Usage of pesticides
(4) Usage of fertilizers
123. In India, the Air (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act came into force in 1981, but was
amended in 1987 to include
(1) CO2 as an air pollutant
A B C D (2) DDT as a water pollutant
(1) Consumers Producers Detritus Decomposition (3) Noise as an air pollutant
(2) Weathering Producers Consumers Detritus (4) UV radiation as an air pollutant
(3) Producers Consumers Detritus Decomposition
124. Which of following is correct for the diagram
(4) Weathering Detritus Producers Consumers given below?
118. The abiotic factor promoting the process of
decomposition of detritus is
(1) Increase in temperature above 25°C
(2) Decreased moisture
(3) Chemical composition of detritus rich in
cellulose
(4) Water logging condition with poor aeration
119. Which one is incorrect w.r.t the trends in
succession towards the achievement of climax?
(1) Total biomass increases
(2) Niche becomes specialised
(3) Increase in species richness
(4) Net community productivity increases
120. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. organic (1) A - Fish kill and disappearance of clean
farming water organisms
(1) Cyclical and zero waste procedure B - Reappearance of clean water organisms
(2) Increases the efficiency of production C - Direction of flow
(3) Crop waste can not be used to generate (2) A - BOD
natural gas for the energy needs of the farm
B - Fish kill and disapperance of clean
(4) Ramesh Chandra Dagar in Sonipat is water organisms
associated with organic farming
C - Dissolved oxygen
121. Increase in concentration of DDT at higher
(3) A - Direction of flow
trophic levels in an aquatic food chain
B - BOD
(1) Can be generally metabolised
(2) Enhances growth rate of aquatic plants and C - Point of sewage flow
bloom-forming algae in natural water (4) A - Reappearance of clean water organisms
(3) Causes biomagnification in fish eating birds B - BOD
(4) Eventually favours bird population C - Dissolved oxygen

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Test-5 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

125. Mark the correct statement
(1) In human eye, cornea absorbs UV-A
radiation, and a high dose of UV-A causes
snow-blindness
(2) The thickness of the ozone in a column of air
is measured in terms of decibel (dB)
(3) High concentration of DDT in birds disturbs
the magnesium metabolism
(4) Montreal protocol is associated with control of
emission of ozone depleting substances
126. What is not related to an invisible threat known
as acid rain?
(1) Cocktail of H2SO4 and HNO3
(2) Always effective in the form of wet deposition
only
130. Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to
(1) Greater resistance to drought
(2) Decline in plant production
(3) Decreased variability in certain ecosystem
processes
(4) Decreased pest and disease cycles
131. Consider the following four statements (A–D)
regarding biodiversity in hot spot regions and
select the correct option stating them true (T) or
false (F)
A. Very high level of species richness
B. High degree of endemism
C. Accelerated habitat loss
D. Richest and most threatened reservoirs of
only plant life on the earth

(3) Causes leaching of essential minerals of soil A B C D

(4) Corrodes metals, marbles and stones (1) T T T T

(2) F F F T
127. Sustainable system for handling human excreta
using dry composting toilets is (3) F T F F

(1) FOAM (2) Incineration (4) T T T F

(3) Pyrolysis (4) Ecosanitation 132. Select the incorrect match.

(1) Khasi and Jaintia hills – Meghalaya
128. ______ can remove particulate matter most
effectively upto 99 per cent in the exhaust from a (2) Bastar – Rajasthan
thermal power plant? (3) Sarguja – Madhya Pradesh
(1) Scrubber (4) Western – Karnataka and
(2) Trickling filter ghats Maharashtra
133. “When we conserve and protect the whole
(3) Electrostatic precipitator
ecosystem, its biodiversity at all levels is
(4) Catalytic converters protected”. This approach includes all of the
129. Mentioned below is the representation of the following except
extent of global diversity of plants. What groups (1) Biosphere reserves
the four portions (A-D) represent respectively?
(2) Seed banks and wildlife safari parks
(3) National parks
(4) Sanctuaries
134. Given below is a representation of pyramid for

(1) Number of pyramid in grassland ecosystem

(2) Variation in biomass at different trophic levels
in pond ecosystem
(3) Energy at successive higher trophic levels
(4) A tree supports a number of herbivore birds
and Hawks as sc.

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-5 (Code-A)

135. Consider the following statements and select the c. Rising of sea levels
correct set w.r.t. global warming. d. Snow blindness
a. EI Nino effect (1) Only a (2) b and c
b. Cooling of stratosphere and earth surface (3) a and b (4) a and c

ZOOLOGY
136. The use of alcohol during adolescence may lead 141. The genetic defect of adenosine deaminase
to all except (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by
(1) Heavy drinking in adulthood (1) Introducing ADA gene into bone marrow stem
(2) Damage to nervous system and liver cells at an early embryonic stage
(cirrhosis) (2) Enzyme replacement therapy
(3) Increased masculinisation and increased (3) Periodic infusion of genetically engineered
muscle mass lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA
(4) Gastritis (4) Administering adenosine deaminase
activators
137. Carcinoma refers to
142. There are reared species of honeybees which
(1) Malignant tumor of connective tissue can be revered. Of these the most common
(2) Malignant tumor of the skin or mucous species is
membrane (1) Rock bee (2) Apis indica
(3) Benign tumor of glial cells (3) Apis florea (4) Apis dorsata
(4) Benign tumor of muscles 143. All statements are correct w.r.t. inbreeding
138. The side effects of the use of anabolic steroids in except
males do not include (1) It refers to the mating of closely related
(1) Acne and increased aggressiveness individuals within the same breed for 4-6
generations
(2) Mood swings, depression and reduction of
the size of testicles (2) It increases homozygosity
(3) Deepening of voice and excess hair growth (3) Inbreeding does not expose harmful
on face and body recessive traits that can be eliminated by
selection process
(4) Breast enlargement
(4) It reduces fertility and even productivity
139. If the regular use of drugs/alcohol is abruptly
144. Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed by
discontinued, there will be occurrence of
crossing
withdrawal symptoms that include all of the
following except (1) Bikaneri rams and Marino ewes and it is an
example of out-crossing
(1) Anxiety
(2) Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams and it is an
(2) Shaking/trembling
example of out-crossing
(3) Nausea and sweating
(3) Bikaneri rams and Marino ewes and it is an
(4) Feeling of well being example of cross-breeding
140. Basmati rice is distinct for its unique aroma and (4) Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams and it is an
flavour. How many documented varieties of example of cross-breeding
Basmati are grown in our country? 145. In Bt-toxin, Bt represents
(1) 200 (1) Biopesticides
(2) 2,00,000 (2) Bleeding toxin
(3) 27 (3) Bacillus thuringiensis
(4) 127 (4) Biological toxin
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Test-5 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

146. Which of the following is an anticoagulant that 154. PCR is used for
has been synthesized from transgenic Brassica (1) Reverse transcribing RNA into DNA
napus?
(2) Amplifying DNA
(1) Heparin (2) α-1-antitrypsin
(3) Digesting DNA
(3) Hirudin (4) Interferons
(4) Separation of DNA fragments
147. The gene which encodes the protein to control
bollworms infection in cotton plants is 155. Agarose gel obtained from sea weeds is
(1) Cry II Ab and cry I Ac (2) Only cry I Ac particularly used in
(3) Cry II Ac (4) Only cry I Ba (1) Spectrophotometry (2) Radiography
148. Which organism is responsible for causing root- (3) PCR (4) Gel electrophoresis
knots in tobacco? 156. Which of the following statements is correct
(1) Nicotiana tabacum w.r.t. plasmid?
(2) Caenorhabditis elegans (1) It has a large size and very high cloning
(3) Ascaris lumbricoides capacity
(4) Meloidogyne incognitia (2) It has ability to replicate within bacterial cells
149. Proinsulin contains independent of the control of host’s
(1) Only two peptide chains chromosomal DNA
(2) Three peptide chains (3) It can not replicate inside host
(3) Four peptide chains (4) It contains genes for vital metabolic activities
(4) Only one peptide chain 157. The first restriction endonuclease enzyme to be
150. Which of the following interferes with the isolated was
transport of the neuro-transmitter dopamine and
(1) Eco RI (2) Bam HI
its excess dosage can cause hallucinations?
(1) Nicotine (2) Caffine (3) Hind II (4) Hind III
(3) Cocaine (4) Ethanol 158. Read the following statements and choose the
151. Which of the following can cause DNA damage correct option
leading to neoplastic transformation? A. Agrobacterium tumefaciens, a pathogen of
a. X-rays b. Gamma rays several dicot plants, is able to deliver a piece
c. UV rays of DNA known as ‘T-DNA’ into plant host
cells, transforming them.
(1) Only a (2) Only b
(3) Only a and b (4) a, b and c B. Non disarmed retroviruses are used to deliver
desirable genes into animal cells.
152. Which of the following statements is incorrect
w.r.t. detection and diagnosis of cancer? (1) Both statements are correct
(1) CT scan uses X-rays to generate a 3D image (2) Statement A is correct while statement B is
of internal organs incorrect
(2) MRI uses strong magnetic fields and ionising (3) Both statements are incorrect
radiations to detect physiological and (4) Statement A is incorrect while statement B is
pathological changes in living tissues correct
(3) In biopsy, suspected tissue is cut into thin
159. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
sections, stained and examined under
microscope (1) Ligase is used to join the two DNA segments
(4) Antibodies against cancer specific antigens (2) Endonucleases recognise a specific
are also used for detection of cancer palindromic nucleotide sequences in the DNA
153. Which of the following methods is used to obtain (3) Each restriction endonuclease functions by
the DNA precipitated by addition of chilled inspecting the length of a DNA sequence
ethanol during genome isolation step? (4) Eco RI enzyme cuts each of the two strands
(1) PCR (2) Elution of double helix at any random points not
(3) Gel electrophoresis (4) Spooling related to their recognition sequences

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-5 (Code-A)

160. Which of the following steps is/are catalysed by (1) Quinine

Taq polymerase in a PCR? (2) Penicillin
(1) Denaturation of template DNA (3) Zidovudine and nevirapine
(2) Extension of primer end on template DNA (4) Codeine
(3) Annealing of primers to template DNA 167. Which of the following statements is correct
(4) Renaturation of template DNA w.r.t. cancer?
161. From the given series of restriction enzymes how (1) It occurs when the normal cells of body lose
many enzymes provide non-cohesive ends? the property of contact inhibition
Bam HI, Eco RI, Pst I, Sal I, Sma I and Hind III (2) Benign tumors are not confined to their
(1) Two (2) Three original location
(3) One (4) Six (3) Neoplastic cells migrate from one tissue to
another and this property is called
162. All statements are true w.r.t. restriction enzymes
metagenesis
except
(4) Adenoma is the cancer of lymphatic system
(1) Restriction enzymes are obtained from
prokaryotes as well as eukaryotes 168. Which statement is incorrect for RNAi?
(2) They are the part of natural defense (1) RNAi mechanism is present in all eukaryotic
mechanism of prokaryotes against organisms as a method of cellular defense
bacteriophages (2) RNAi technique involves mRNA silencing
(3) They are used to determine the order of (3) It was used for the formation of transgenic
genes on a chromosome golden rice
(4) They can be used to create new (4) RNAi does not take place in prokaryotic cells
combinations of genes 169. In genetic engineering restriction endonuclease
163. A protein encoding gene expressed in a enzymes are used to make/start
heterologous host will produce a protein product (1) Bacterial cell competent
which will be called
(2) Recombinant DNA
(1) Native protein
(3) Transformation of bacterial cell
(2) Recombinant protein
(4) The replication of plasmid DNA
(3) Non-recombinant protein
170. Which of the following drugs is used for the
(4) Restriction enzyme
treatment of emphysema?
164. Genetic modification has
(1) α-lactalbumin (2) α-1-antitrypsin
(1) Made crop less tolerant to abiotic stress
(3) α-interferon (4) γ-interferon
(2) Increased reliance on chemical pesticides
171. Match the Column I with Column II
(3) Helped to reduce post harvest losses
Column-I Column-II
(4) Decreased efficiency of mineral usage by
plants a. Heroin (i) Alters thoughts,
feelings and
165. HIV positive person develops AIDS as the
perceptions
number of _______ decreases below 200/mm3 of
blood and _______ act as HIV factories in the b. Morphine (ii) Semi synthetic
body. Select the correct option w.r.t. the names opiate
of cells filling the blanks respectively. c. Valium (iii) Sedative and
(1) T-lymphocytes, B-lymphocytes painkiller, used in
(2) B-lymphocytes, macrophages patients who have
undergone surgery
(3) Macrophages, B-lymphocytes
d. Psilocybin (iv) Hypnotic and anti-
(4) Helper T-lymphocytes, macrophages
anxiety
166. Which of the following drugs are given to HIV
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
positive pregnant female to ensure that their
babies do not carry the infection? (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

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Test-5 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

172. All of the following drugs have clinical uses, 176. The antibiotic resistance genes are used in
except biotechnology
(1) Morphine (1) As selectable markers
(2) Barbiturates (2) To select only non transformant hosts
(3) Heroin (3) As sequences from where origin of replication
(4) Amphetamines of vectors occurs
173. B. thuringiensis forms protein crystal during a (4) To keep the cultures free from germs
particular phase of their growth. These produce a 177. Downstream processing in biotechnology refers
toxic inactivated protein. Why does this to
inactivated toxin kill the insect? (1) The cells harbouring cloned genes of interest
(1) It is converted into active form in forgut due to being grown on a small scale
presence of acidic pH (2) The culture of microbes in lab followed by
(2) It is converted into active form due to alkaline their microbes addition into fermentor with
pH of gut large quantities of culture medium
(3) It is converted into active form after (3) Large scale production of a product by using
absorption in blood through midgut bioreactors
(4) It is converted into active form in hind gut at (4) The process which includes separation and
acidic pH. purification of the products after the
174. Read the following statements w.r.t. PCR completion of the biosynthetic stage
a. It can be used for early diagnosis of 178. Through which method, a recombinant DNA is
pathogens. directly injected into the nucleus of an animal
host cell?
b. Used to detect mutations in genes in
suspected cancer patients. (1) Microinjection (2) Transformation
c. Denaturation, annealing and extension of (3) Electroporation (4) Gene gun
primers occur at same temperature. 179. Which enzyme can be called “The Molecular
d. Only thermostable polymerases are usable in Glue”?
PCR (1) DNA polymerase (2) Exonuclease
How many of the above statements are correct? (3) Endonuclease (4) DNA-ligase
(1) One (2) Three 180. This drug represented by the structure given
(3) Four (4) Two below adversely affects the cardiovascular
system of body and is obtained from
175. Select the option that includes characteristics
applicable to plasmids
a. Linear DNA.
b. Circular DNA.
c. Present in bacteria and some yeast cells.
d. Contain essential genes / vital genes. (1) Cannabis sativa
e. Extra chromosomal self replicating DNA. (2) Erythroxylum coca
(1) Only a and e (2) Only b, c and e (3) Atropa belladonna
(3) Only b, c, d and e (4) Only a (4) Papaver somniferum

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