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Direction (1-5): Answer the questions based on the D.T
information given below. E.Y
Nine persons viz. R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are
sitting on a straight line and all of them are facing 3)What is the position of U with respect to W?
north, but not necessarily in the same order. A. Fourth to the right
W sits second from one of the ends and is five B. Immediate right
persons away from V. Z sits second to the right of C. Fourth to the left
V. Only three persons sit between Z and T Who sits D. Immediate left
to the immediate left of X. Y sits to the immediate E. Third to the left
right of R. U sits at one of the ends and is to the left
of S. 4)How many persons sit between Y and Z?
1) Who among the following sits third to the right of A. None
T? B. One
A.V C. More than three
B.U D. Three
C.S E. Two
D.Z
E. No such person 5)Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and hence form a group. Find the one that
2) Who among the following persons sits exactly in doesn’t belong to that group.
the middle of R and Z? A.WT
A.X B.YV
B.V C.RX
C.S D.ST
Page 2 of 29
E.ZU 7)Who among the following sits third to the right of
T?
Direction (6-10): Answer the questions based on A.V
the information given below. B.X
Nine persons viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are C.Q
sitting on a bench and all of them are facing north, D.W

but not necessarily in the same order. The E. No such person
consecutive alphabetically named person doesn’t
sit adjacent to each other. 8)What is the position of S with respect to P?
There are only five persons who sit between U and A. Fourth to the right
W where neither of them sits at any of the ends. Q B. Immediate right
sits to the immediate right of U. T sits to the right of C. Fourth to the left
P, who sits at the middle of the bench, but not at the D. Immediate left
immediate right. Only one person sits between X E. Third to the left
and V who sits third to the left of T. R neither sits at
any of the ends nor to the left of V. 9)How many persons sit between Q and W?
6)Four of the following five are alike in a certain A. None
way and hence form a group. Find the one that B.1
doesn’t belong to that group. C. More than three
A.SU D.3
B.WT E.2
C.PV
D.RW 10)Who among the following persons sits exactly in

E.XQ the middle of Q and T?
Page 3 of 29
A.P C.S, R
B.V D.P, R
C.R E. None of these
D.X
E.W 12)What is the position of T with respect to S?
A. Immediate right
Direction (11-15): Answer the questions based on B. Fourth to the right
the information given below. C. Second to the left
Nine persons viz. M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are D. Third to the right
standing in a straight line such that all of them are E. Seventh to the right
facing towards north, but not necessarily in the
same order. 13)The number of persons to the left of U is one
U stands fifth to the right of N who doesn’t stand at more than the number of persons to the right of ___.
the ends. Only one person stands between N and A.Q
Q. P stands third to the left of Q. The number of B.T
persons to the left of N is one more than the C.O
number of persons to the right of R. As many D.M
persons stand between P and Q as between N and E. None of these
S. The number of persons between O and M is one
less than the number of persons between M and T. 14)How many persons stand between N and M?
11)Who among the following person stand at the A. One
extreme ends? B. None
A.S, U C. Two
B.U, P D. More than three
Page 4 of 29
E. Three 16)Who among the following person sits to the
immediate right of K?
15)Who among the following persons stands third A. The one who sits to the immediate right of B.
to the left of O? B.G
A.M C. The one who sits third to the right of Q
B.S D.W
C.Q E. None of these
D. No one
E. None of these 17)Which of the following pair sits at the end of the
row?
Direction (16-20): Study the following information A.BT
carefully and answer the below questions. B.ZW
Nine persons namely – B, G, H, K, Q, R, T, W, and C.HZ
Z are sitting in a row facing south but not D.GH
necessarily in the same order. B sits third from the E. None of these.
right end and sits four persons away from Q.
Neither B nor Q sits adjacent to K, who sits third to 18)What is the position of B with respect to the one
the right of T. A person sitting adjacent to K sits four who sits second to the right of R?
places away from H. Neither Q nor R sits adjacent A. Second to the left
to H. The number of persons sitting between H and B. Fourth to the left
R is one less than the number of persons between C. Immediate left
Z and G. Neither G nor R sits at the end of the row. D. Third to the right
At most one person sits between B and R. E. None of these
Page 5 of 29
19)How many persons are sitting between G and person adjacent to B sits four places away from L.
the person sits to the immediate right of Z? Neither B nor L sits adjacent to T, who sits third to
A.As many as sitting between B and G the left of P. S sits immediate left of H, who sits
B. Three three places away from D.
C.As many as sitting between W and H. 21)What is the position of P with respect to B?
D. Five A. Second to the right

E. None of these B. Fourth to the left
C. Immediate right
20)Which of the following statement is/are not true? D. Third to the left
I. B sits fourth to the right of G. E. None of these
II. Three persons are sitting between Q and the
person sits to the immediate left of H. 22)How many persons are sitting between T and L?
III. Two persons are sitting between W and R. A.As many persons are sitting between H and B
A. Both II and III B. Two
B. Only III C.As many persons are sitting to the left of D
C. Only I D. Either A or B
D. Both I and II E. Both A and C
E. None of these
23)The number of persons sitting between M and P
Direction (21-25): Study the following information is ____?
carefully and answer the below questions. I. the same as between L and H.
Eight persons namely – B, D, H, L, M, P, S, and T II. the same as persons sitting to the left of B.
are sitting in a row facing north but not necessarily III. the same as persons sitting to the right of S.
in the same order. B sits third from the left end. A A. Only III
Page 6 of 29
B. Both I and II Direction (26-30): Answer the questions based on
C. Both I and III the information given below.
D. All I, II, and III Nine persons viz. R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are
E. None of these standing in a straight line such that all of them are
facing towards north, but not necessarily in the
24)Who among the following person sits immediate same order. The consecutive alphabetically named
left of L? persons don’t stand adjacent to each other.
A.H W stands fourth from one of the ends and three
B.S persons away from Z who doesn’t stand at any of
C.P the ends. R stands second to the right of Z. Only
D.M two persons stand between R and Y. The number
E. None of these of persons standing to the left of Y is the same as
the number of persons standing to the right of T
25)Which of the following statement is/are true? who sits to the left of Z. The number of persons
I. Two persons are sitting between P and S. standing between S and V is one less than the
II. A person sitting immediate left of D sits third to number of persons standing between S and U.
the left of S. 26)Who among the following person stands at the
III. Three persons are sitting between M and D. extreme ends?
A. Only III A.U, V
B. Both I and II B.X, U
C. Only I C.X, V
D. Both II and III D.U, S
E. None of these E. None of these
Page 7 of 29
27)Find which of the following option will replace E. No such person or none of these
the question mark. 30)What is the position of S with respect to Y?
XZ:RY::VS: ? A. Second to the right
A.WY B. Immediate right
B.RT C. Fifth to the right
C.RX D. Immediate left

D.TU E. None of these
E. None of these
Direction (31-35): Study the following information
28)If all the persons are made to stand in carefully and answer the below questions.
alphabetical order from left to right, then how many Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting
persons remain unchanged in their position? in the stadium facing the ground which is north of
A. None the persons. All the information is not necessarily in
B.1 the same order.
C.2 C sits fourth to the left of D. H does not sit adjacent
D.3 to A. F is neither adjacent to C nor D. The number
E. More than three of persons sitting between A and B is the same as
between B and G. E sits adjacent to C. G is the only
29)Who among the following person stands second neighbour of F. Not more than one person sits
to the left of R? between H and G. Neither C nor D sits end of the
A. The one who sits to the immediate right of T row.
B. The one who sits third to the right of X 31)Who among the following person sits exactly
C. The one who sits second from the left end between B and F?
D. The one who sits to the immediate left of Z A.H
Page 8 of 29
B. The person who sits third to the right of C 34)What is the position of H from the extreme right
C.C end?
D. The person who sits immediate left of G A. Fourth
E. No one B. Third
C. Second
32)Who among the following person sits to the right D. Sixth

of G? E. Fifth
I) F
II) D 35)If A and E interchanged their position, and then
III) H B and D interchanged their position, then what is
A. Only (I) and (II) the position of D with respect to E?
B. Only (I) A. Third to the left
C. Only (I) and (III) B. Second to the right
D. Only (II) C. Third to the right
E. All (I), (II) and (III) D. Fourth to the right
E. Second to the left
33)How many persons are sitting between H and
A? Direction (36-40): Study the following information
A.3 carefully and answer the below questions.
B.4 Seven persons-I, J, K, L, M, N, and O are sitting in
C.2 the linear row having eight seats and facing north
D.1 but not necessarily in the same order. One of the
E. None seats is vacant.
Page 9 of 29
J sits third from one of the ends. Only two seats are D. Only (II)
there between J and O.M and O have only one E. All (I), (II), and (III)
neighbor. I sits to the right of O. The number of
persons sitting to the left of N is the same as to the 38)How many persons are between N and K?
right of I. M sits adjacent to J. The number of A.3
persons sitting between O and J are the same as B.4

between J and L. K is not an immediate neighbor of C.2
N. D.1
36)Who among the following person sits exactly E. None
between N and M?
A.I 39)What is the position of J from the extreme right
B. The one who sits immediate right of O end?
C. The one who sits third to the left of I A. Fourth
D. The one who sits second to the left of Vacant B. Seventh
E. No one C. Second
D. Sixth
37)Who among the following person sits to the left E. Fifth
of M?
I) L 40)If N and M interchanged their position, and then
II) N M and K interchanged their position, then what is
III) K the position of K from the left end?
A. Both (I) and (II) A. First
B. Only (I) B. Second

C. Both (I) and (III) C. Third
Page 10 of 29
D. Fourth B.A
E. Fifth C. The person who exactly sits between B and D.
D.F
Direction (41-45): Answer the questions based on E. None of these
the information given below.
Nine persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, and I are sitting 43) Who among the following person sits to the
in a straight line. All of them are facing the north immediate left of D?
direction but not necessarily in the same order. A.E
G sits second to the left of C, who is adjacent to H. B. The one who sits third from the left end
B sits to the immediate right of I. A is adjacent to C, C.C
who sits third to the right of B. One person sits D. The one who sits third from the right end.
between H and D. At least four persons sit between E. None of these
A and E.
41) Who among the following person sits at the 44) The number of persons sits to the right of __ is
extreme left end? the same as the number of persons sits to the left
A.E of __ respectively.
B. The one who sits third to the left of A. A.B, A
C.G B.H,E
D. The one who sits second to the right of F. C.F, G
E. None of these D.I, C
E. None of these
42) Who among the following person sits in the
middle of the row? 45) How many persons sit between G and D?
A. The person who exactly sits between H and E. A. Two
Page 11 of 29
B. Five C. The fruit which is kept second to the right of
C. One Banana
D. Four D. The fruit which is kept immediate right of Grapes
E. None of these E. None of those give as an option
Direction (46-50): Study the following information 47) Which of the following fruits are kept to the left
carefully and answer the below questions. of Kiwi?
Eight fruits- Apple, Orange, Grapes, Pineapple, I) Apple
Papaya, Kiwi, Mango, and Banana are kept in the II) Mango
linear row facing towards the north but not III) Pine Apple
necessarily in the same order. A. Only (II) and (III)
Apple is kept at one of the ends. Only three fruits B. Only (I)
are kept between Apple and Mango. The number of C. Only (I) and (III)
fruits kept to the left of mango is the same as to the D. Only (II)
right of Kiwi. Orange is kept second to the right of E. All (I), (II), and (III)
Papaya. The number of fruits kept between Mango
and Grapes is the same as between Apple and 48) As many fruits kept to the left of Banana as to
Banana. Pineapple is not kept to the right of the right of ____?
Grapes. A. Grapes
46) Which of the following fruit is kept third to the B. Apple
right of Mango? C. Orange
A. Kiwi D. Papaya
B. Pineapple E. None of these
Page 12 of 29
49) Four of the five among the following are similar C. Three
in such a way to form a group, which one of the D. None
following doesn’t belong to the group? E. More than three
A. The fruit which is kept immediate left of Mango
B. Pineapple 52) If the letters are arranged in the reverse
C. The fruit which is kept immediate right of Grapes alphabetical order within the given words then how
D. Kiwi many words can be starting with consonants?
E. Papaya A. Two
B. Three
50) What is the position of Kiwi from the left end? C. Four
A. Sixth D. Five
B. Second E. None
C. Third
D. Fourth 53) If the position of the first and the last letters of
E. Fifth each word are interchanged, then how many
meaningful words are formed?
Direction (51-55): Study the following information A.1
carefully and answer the below questions: B.2
CAT PUT LET BUN WIN C.3
51) How many meaningful English words can be D.4
formed if we replace the first alphabet of each word E. None
with “S”?
A. One 54) If all the vowels are dropped and the remaining
B. Two letters are written continuously from the left end to
Page 13 of 29
right end as it is, then which of the following letter is 56) If all the words are arranged in dictionary order
fourth from the right end? from right to left, then how many words remain
A.C unchanged in their position?
B.L A. One
C.N B. Two
D.B C. Three
E.T D. More than three
E. None
55)All the words are arranged in dictionary order
from left to the right end, then how many letters are 57) How many letters are there according to the
between the second letter of the second word from English alphabetical series between the third letter
the left end and the second letter of the third word of the first word from the left end and the first letter
from the right end according to English alphabetical of the second word from the right end?
series? A. Ten
A. 1 B. Twelve
B. None C. Eleven
C. 2 D. Nine
D. 3 E. More than twelve
E. More than three
58) If all the letters are arranged in alphabetical
Direction (56-60): Answer the question based on order from left to right within the word and then
the information given below. arranged in dictionary order from right to left, then
TIP BOT CUP SKY DAY NET which of the following letter is the second letter of
the third word from the left end?
Page 14 of 29
A.E Directions (61-65): Study the following information
B.N carefully and answer the question below.
C.P BIG VAT SUM MET PER
D.T 61) If all the words are arranged in reverse
E. None of these alphabetical order from left to right then which of
the following is 3rd letter (from left end ) of 2nd word

59) If the position of first and third letters are from the right end?
interchanged within the word, then how many A.R
words thus formed are meaningful? B.T
A. Three C.E
B. More than three D.P
C. None E. None of these
D. Two
E. One 62) How many letters are there between 2nd letter of
3rdword from the left end and 1st letter of 2nd word
60) If in each word all the consonant letters are from the right end according to the English
changed to their preceding letter in the alphabetical alphabetical series?
order, then how many words have no vowel ? A. Seven
A. None B. Five
B. One C. Eight
C. Two D. Six
D. Three E. Four
E. None of these
Page 15 of 29
63) If all the consonants of each word are replaced C.4
by its immediate preceding letter then how many D.1
words have at least two vowels? E. None
A. Two Directions (66-70): Study the following information
B. One carefully and answer the below questions:
C. Three SDTRYUKLINGYDAWQECXIYRGL
D. None 66) Which of the following letter will be seventh to
E. Four the left of the eighth letter from the right end?
A.G
64) What is the difference between the place value B.N
of 2ndletter of 1st word from the right end and the C.Y
place value of 1st letter of 2nd word from the left end D.I
in the given arrangement? E.L
A.19
B.18 67) If all the vowels are arranged after the letter
C.15 which is third from the right end (following the same
D.11 order from left to right) then which of the following
E.17 will be the sixth letter from the right end?
A.E
65) If all the letters of every word are replaced with B.A
an immediate succeeding letter then how many C.I
words have three consonants? D.U
A.3 E.R
B.2 68) Find the odd one out?
Page 16 of 29
A.SRY D. Five
B.LGY E. More than five
C.DQE
D.YGL 70) How many vowels are there in the above
E.KNG arrangement each of which is immediately
preceded by vowels?
69) How many consonants are there in the above A. Two
arrangement each of which is immediately B. Three
preceding vowels? C. Four
A. Two D. Five
B. Three E. None
C. Four
Answer with Detail Explanation
Direction (1-5):
1) W sits second from one of the ends and is five
persons away from V. Z sits second to the right of

2) Only three persons sit between Z and T Who sits
V.
to the immediate left of X. Y sits to the immediate
right of R.
Page 17 of 29
3) U sits at one of the ends and is to the left of S. 2. T sits to the right of P, who sits at the middle of
Hence, case 1 gets eliminated. the bench, but not at the immediate right.
3. Only one person sits between X and V who sits
third to the left of T.
1) Answer: C
2) Answer: A
3) Answer: D
4) Answer: C
5) Answer: E
4. R neither sits at any of the ends nor to the left of
V. Hence, case 1 and 2 get eliminated.

Direction (6-10):
1. There are only five persons who sit between
U and W where neither of them sits at any of

the ends. Q sits to the immediate right of U.
Page 18 of 29
6) Answer: E
7) Answer: E
2. The number of persons to the left of N is one
8) Answer: C
more than the number of persons to the right of R.
9) Answer: C
Hence, case 2 getseliminated. As many persons
10) Answer: B
stand between P and Q as between N and S.
Direction (11-15):
1. U stands fifth to the right of N who doesn’t
stand at the ends. Only one person stands
between N and Q.P stands third to the left of
Q.
3. The number of persons between O and M is one
less than the number of persons between M and T.
Hence, case 3 gets eliminated.
Page 19 of 29
• Neither Q nor R sits adjacent to H.
That means, in case (2) H sits second from the right
end, case (1) is not valid.
Based on the above-given information we have:
11) Answer: D
12) Answer: C
13) Answer: A Case (1) is not valid as H and Q are not sitting
14) Answer: E together.
15) Answer: B Again, we have:
• The number of persons sitting between H
Direction (16-20): and R is one less than the number of
persons between Z and G.
• Neither G nor R sits at the end of the row.
• At most one person sits between B and R.
We have: That means, Z sits at the left end of the row, and R
• B sits third from the right end and sits four sits immediate right of K.
persons away from Q. Based on the above-given information we have the
• Neither B nor Q sits adjacent to K, who sits final arrangement as follows:
third to the right of T.
That means, in case (1) K sits at the right end, in
case (2) K sits second to the right of Q.
• A person sitting adjacent to K sits four places 16) Answer: C
away from H. 17) Answer: B
Page 20 of 29
18) Answer: C
19) Answer: E
20) Answer: C
Direction (21-25):
We have:
Again, we have:
• B sits third from the left end.
• S sits immediate left of H, who sits three
• A person adjacent to B sits four places away
places away from D.
from L.
That means, in case (1) H sits at the right end, case
That means, in case (1) L sits third from the right
(2) is not valid.
end, in case (2) L sits at the right end.
• Neither B nor L sits adjacent to T, who sits
third to the left of P.
That means, in case (1) & case (2) T sits at the left
end.
Page 21 of 29
Case (2) is not valid S sits immediate left of H, who right of T who sits to the left of Z. Hence, case 1
sits three places away from D. gets eliminated.
21) Answer: C
22) Answer: E
23) Answer: C
24) Answer: E
25) Answer: B 3. The number of persons standing between S and
V is one less than the number of persons standing

Direction (26-30): between S and U.
1. W stands fourth from one of the ends and

26) Answer: C
three persons away from Z who doesn’t
27) Answer: B
stand at any of the ends. R stands second to
28) Answer: D
the right of Z.
29) Answer: A
30) Answer: D
Direction (31-35):
2. Only two persons stand between R and Y. The
number of persons standing to the left of Y is the
same as the number of persons standing to the

C sits fourth to the left of D.
Page 22 of 29
Neither C nor D sits end of the row.
From the above condition, there are two
possibilities.
F is neither adjacent to C nor D.

The number of persons sitting between A and B is
G is the only neighbour of F.
the same as between B and G.
H does not sit adjacent to A.
From the above condition, case1 gets eliminated.
E sits adjacent to C.
From the above condition, there are three
possibilities.
Not more than one person sits between H and G.
Page 23 of 29
From the above condition, case2 gets eliminated,
case1a shows the final arrangement.
4. M and O have only one neighbor. M sits adjacent
to J.
31) Answer: D
32) Answer: B
33) Answer: A
34) Answer: A
35) Answer: C
Direction (36-40): 5. The number of persons sitting between O and J
arethe same as between J and L.
1. J sits third from one of the ends.
2. Only two seats are there between J and O.
3. From the above condition, there are two
possibilities.
Page 24 of 29
6. The number of persons sitting left of N is the 2. A sits adjacent to C, who sits third to the right
same as to the right of I. of B.
7. K is not an immediate neighbor of N. 3. B sits to the immediate right of I.
8. I sit right of O.
9. From the above condition, case2 gets eliminated.
case1 shows the final arrangement.
4. One person sits between H and D.
5. At least four persons sit between A and E.
6. Hence, case 2 gets eliminated.
36) Answer: D
37) Answer: A
38) Answer: B
39) Answer: D
41) Answer: B
40) Answer: B
42) Answer: C
43) Answer: D
Direction (41-45):
44) Answer: C
45) Answer: D
1. G sits second to the left of C, who is adjacent
to H.
Page 25 of 29
Direction (46-50):
Apple is kept at one of the ends.
Only three fruits are kept between Apple and
Mango.
The number of fruits kept between Mango and
Grapes is the same as between Apple and Banana.
possibilities.
Pineapple is not kept to the right of Grapes.
Case1 shows the final arrangement.
The number of fruits kept to the left of mango is the
same as to the right of Kiwi. 46) Answer: D
Orange is kept second to the right of Papaya. 47) Answer: C
48) Answer: D
49) Answer: C
50) Answer: D
Page 26 of 29
Direction (51-55): Given Series
51) Answer: E CAT PUT LET BUN WIN
“S” replaced the first alphabet Words are arranged according to the dictionary in
SAT SUT SET SUN SIN alphabetical order:
BUN CAT LET PUT WIN
52) Answer: B Three letters between A and E are ( B, C and D)

Given Series
CAT PUT LET BUN WIN Direction (56-60):
Reverse alphabetical order 56) Answer: A
TCA UTP TLE UNB WNI TIP BOT CUP SKY DAY NET
TIP SKY NET DAY CUP BOT
53) Answer: B Hence, option A is correct.
Given Series
CAT PUT LET BUN WIN 57) Answer: C
The first and last letters are interchanged TIP BOT CUP SKY DAY NET
TAC TUP TEL NUB NIW DE F G H I J K L M N O P
Hence, option C is correct.
54) Answer: D
Given Series 58) Answer: B
CAT PUT LET BUN WIN TIP BOT CUP SKY DAY NET
Vowels are dropped IPT BOT CPU KSY ADY ENT
CTPTLTBNWN KSY IPT ENT CPU BOT ADY
Hence, option B is correct.

55) Answer: D
Page 27 of 29
59) Answer: D V=22, E=5
TIP BOT CUP SKY DAY NET 22-5= 17
PIT TOB PUC YKS YAD TEN
Hence, option D is correct. 65) Answer: A
60) Answer: B
TIP BOT CUP SKY DAY NET
Direction (66-70):
consonant letters are changed to their preceding
66) Answer: B
letter
SDTRYUKLINGYDAWQECXIYRGL
SIO AOS BUO RJX CAX MES
Hence, option B is correct.

67) Answer: C
S D T R Y K L N G Y D W Q C X Y R U I A EI G L
Direction (61-65):
61) Answer: B
68) Answer: D
All elements are arranged in S (+3) R (+1) Y form

62) Answer: A except YGL
69) Answer: D
63) Answer: C
70) Answer: E
64) Answer: E
Page 28 of 29
Page 29 of 29
Studyniti Banking PDF Course 2021 – All Subjects Combined (Day-2/ 50) – (Eng)
Page 1 of 78
Reasoning Ability
Direction (1-5): Answer the questions based on the

information given below. 3) What is the position of P with respect to M?
Seven persons viz. M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are A. Second to the right
standing in a straight line such that some persons B. Immediate left
are facing north while some are facing south, but C. Second to the left
not necessarily in the same order. The adjacent D. Immediate right
persons face opposite directions whereas the E. None of these
number of persons facing north is the highest.
R stands fourth to the left of M who stands to the 4) If all the persons are made to stand in
immediate right of O. Only two persons stand alphabetical order from left to right (consider all
between S and O. P stands second to the left of N persons are facing north), then the positions of how
who doesn’t stand at the extreme ends. Q is not many persons remain unchanged?
adjacent to R. A. One
1) Who among the following person stands second B. Two
to the right of M? C. Three
A.R D. More than three
B.N E. None
C.P
D.Q 5) Four of the following five are alike in a certain
E.O way and hence form a group. Find the one that
doesn’t belong to that group.
2) How many persons stand between R and Q? A.R
A. One B.M
B. Two C.P
C. Three D.Q
D. More than three E.S
E. None
Page 2 of 78
Direction (6-10): Study the following information C. Three

carefully and answer the below questions: D. More than three
Eight persons viz. O, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are E. None
standing in a straight line such that some of them
are facing north while some are facing south, but 8) Which of the following pairs of persons stand at
not necessarily in the same order. Not more than the extreme ends of the line?
two adjacent persons face the same direction. A.O, S
Q stands third from one of the ends and B.T, S
immediately adjacent to both U and V.S stands to C.T, R
the immediate right of V but faces opposite direction D.O, R
to V and four persons away from R who faces the E. None of these
same direction as V. Only one person stands
between O and T who doesn’t sit adjacent to S but 9) What is the position of P with respect to S?
faces the same direction as S. The immediate A. Second to the left
neighbours of O face the same direction but O B. Second to the right
doesn’t face north. The number of persons to the C. Sixth to the right
left of both P and U are the same. D. Sixth to the left
6) Who among the following stands third to the right E. Cannot be determined
of P?
A.U 10) Which of the following statement is/are true with
B.V respect to the final arrangement?
C.S I. Only three persons stand between V and R.
D.Q II. Both O and U face the same directions.
E. None of these III. More than two persons stand between Q and T.
A. Only II
7) How many persons stand between O and R? B. Only III
A. One C. Both I and II
B. Two D. Both II and III
Page 3 of 78
E. All are true E.UX

Direction (11-15): Study the following information 12) Who among the following sits at the end of the
carefully and answer the below questions. row?
Nine persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are A. The person who sits immediate right of S
sitting in the straight line and some of them are B.W
facing north while some of them are facing south. C. The person who sits second to the right of V
Not more than two persons are sitting together are D.U
facing the same direction. All the information is not E.T
necessarily in the same order.
V sits third to the right of X, both are facing the 13)If S is related to V and X is related to Q in a
opposite direction. T sits immediate left of X. Only certain way. Then, who among the following is
one person sits to the right of T. The number of related to R?
persons sits to the right of T is the same as the A. The one who sits immediate right of W
persons to the right of S. S and R are immediate B.V
neighbours facing the same direction. R does not sit C.P
at the end of the row. The persons who are sitting D. The one who sits second to the right of T
at an end face the same direction. Q sits adjacent E. None of the above
to T. W is neither sitting adjacent to V nor S. The
immediate neighbours of W are facing the opposite 14) Four of the five among the following are similar
directions. U is facing north direction. The number in such a way to form a group, who among the
of persons sits to the left of U is one more than the following doesn’t belong to that group?
persons to the left of W. A.P
11) Who among the following persons are facing B.V
the same direction? C.U
A.SR D. The one who sits second to the left of W
B.PX E.X
C.QW
D.VR 15) What is the position of R with respect to X?
Page 4 of 78
A. Second to the right A. Three

B. Second to the left B. Four
C. Third to the left C. Same as towards right of Kitu
D. Fourth to the right D. Same as between Nick and Paul
E. Fourth to the left E. Six
Direction (16-20): Study the following information 17) What is the position of Rashu with respect to
carefully and answer the question below. Paul?
Eight persons Jass, Nick, Paul, Tanu, Rashu, Kitu, A.3rd to the left
Kanu and Noni are standing in a straight horizontal B.5th to the right
row but not necessarily in the same order. Some of C. Immediate right
them face north while other faces south. Not more D.4th to the right
than two persons standing adjacent to each other E. Immediate left
faces the same direction.
Two persons stand between Tanu and Paul who 18) Which of the following statement is true
stands towards the right of Tanu. Either Tanu or regarding Nick?
Paul stands at one of the extreme ends. Both Paul A. Immediate neighbour of Kanu
and Tanu face in the same direction. Nick stands B. One person stands towards the right of Nick
towards the right of Noni who faces south. Jass C. Rashu stands towards the left of Nick
stands 3rd left of Noni and faces North. Kitu stands D. Two persons stand between Kitu and Nick
immediate right of Noni and vice versa. Neither E. None is true
Kitu nor Jass is an immediate neighbour of Paul
and Rashu. Rashu faces the opposite direction as 19)Number of persons standing between Noni and
Tanu faces. Kanu stands adjacent to Jass and Kanu is the same as standing between____?
faces the same direction as Kitu faces. A.Rashu and Nick
B.Jass and Kitu
16 ) How many persons stand towards the left of C.Nick and Paul
Kanu? D.Tanu and Jass
Page 5 of 78
E.Kitu and Paul 21) How many persons sit between M and A?
20) Who among the following stands 3rdto the left of A.Two
Paul? B.Five
A.Jass C.Four
B.Person who stands immediate left of Kanu D.One
C.Kitu E.None
D.Rashu
E.Tanu 22)Who among the following person sits second to
the left of K?
Direction (21-25): Study the information carefully A.P
and answers the following questions given below: B.M
There are seven persons of a family i.e. A, J, K, L, C.A
M, O and P who sit in a straight line. Some of them D.L
are facing the north and some of them are facing E.None of these
the south. All the information is not necessarily in
the same order. 23)Who among the following person sits to the
J sits second to the right of O. J sits fourth to the immediate right of A?
right of P. Two persons sit between K and P, who A.No-one
does not sit at extreme ends. A sits second to the B.M
right of L. L sits immediate left of O. M sits C.P
immediate left of either A or J. M does not face D.L
south direction. More than two persons sit between E.K
L and M, who faces the opposite direction to L.
Immediate neighbours of J face the same 24) How many persons sit between L and M?
directions. Persons who sit at the extreme ends are A.One
facing the opposite direction to each other. A faces B.Four
the same direction as J. C.Five
D.Two
Page 6 of 78
E.None of these C.K

25)Who among the following person sits fifth to the D.H
left of A? E.None of these
A.J
B.K 27)How many persons sit to the right of G?
C.M A.1
D.O B.2
E. None of these C.5
D.4
Direction (26-30): Study the following information E.3
carefully and answer the question below.
Seven persons E, F, G, H, I, J and K are seating on 28)Who among the following sits 2nd left of F?
a linear-shaped bench. Some of them are facing to A.G
the North while some of them are facing south B.E
direction but not necessarily in the order. C.J
H sits second to the left of E who sits at the extreme D.H
end. Both J and H sit immediate left to each other. E.I
Persons sit at extreme ends facing the same
direction. I sits two places away to the left of J. F 29)Find the odd one out?
faces south but sits 2nd right of K. E sits to the right A.H
of K but not adjacent to F. G faces North. E sits to B.E
the right of G but not adjacent to I. Both I and E are C.G
facing the opposite direction with respect to each D.K
other. E.J
26)Who among the following sits immediate right of
I? 30) How many persons face in the South direction?
A.F A.4
B.G B.3
Page 7 of 78
C.2 A.1
D.5 B.2
E. Can’t be determined C.3
D.4
Direction (31-35): Study the following information E.None of these
carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons i.e., D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K are 33)Who among the following sits third to the left of
sitting in a linear row. Some of them are facing the F?
North and some are facing the south direction. No A.I
two persons sitting together face in the same B.H
direction. All the information is not necessarily in the C.F
same order. D.J
D sits third to the right of I. F sits second to the left E.No one
of D. F doesn’t sit adjacent to I. H is an immediate
neighbour of I. One person sits between H and J. K 34)Which of the following statement is true
sits fourth to the left of G. E faces in the North regarding J?
direction. The number of persons sits to the right of A.J sits to the immediate left of I
J is the same as the number of persons sitting to B.J sits at one of the extreme ends
the right of E. G doesn’t sit at the extreme end. C.J sits to the immediate right of I
31) Who among the following sits to the immediate D.J sits to the immediate left of D
left of G? E.Both (A. and (D.
A.H
B.I 35) Four of the following five are alike in a certain
C.F way based on a group, find the one that does not
D.J belong to that group?
E.None of these A.E
B.K
32)How many persons sit between D and J? C.F
Page 8 of 78
D.G 37)How many persons sit between F and the one

E.I who sits second to the right of G?
A.None
Direction (36-40): Study the following information B.1
carefully and answer the below questions C.3
Seven persons namely- A, B, C, D, E, F and G are D.4
sitting in a linear row. Some of them facing north E.None of these
while some of them facing south but not necessarily
in the same direction. 38)Who among the following sits second to the right
C sits third to the left of B, who sits at one of the of the one who sits fourth to the right of E?
extreme ends. Two persons sit between F and the A.D
one who sits to the immediate left of C. Neither F B.B
nor A sits next to B. E sits third to the right of A. C.C
Persons sit at both ends facing the opposite D.A
direction to each other. Immediate neighbours of A E.None of these
faces the opposite direction to each other. G sits
third from of F. G faces north and both the 39)Four of the following five are alike in a certain
immediate neighbours of G facing the opposite way and hence form a group. Which of the following
direction to G. one does not belong to the group?
36)Who among the following one sits fourth to the A.F
left of D? B.B
A.C C.A
B.B D.G
C.E E.D
D.G
E.None of these 40)In which of the following statement third person
doesn’t sit exactly in the middle of the first and
second persons as per the final arrangement?
Page 9 of 78
I.GDA 41) Who sits fifth to the right of R?

II.AGB A. The one who sits third to the left of Q
III.FEC B.W
A.Only II C.P
B.Both I and III D. The one who sits immediate right of V
C.Only III E. None of these
D.All I, II and III
E. Other than the given option 42) Who among the following person sits to the left
of U?
Direction (41-45): Study the following information I) Q
carefully and answer the below questions. II) W
Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting III) V
in the linear row but not necessarily in the same A. Both (II) and (III)
order. Some of them are facing north and some of B. Only (I)
them are facing south. Not more than two persons C. Both (I) and (III)
sitting together are facing the same direction. D. Only (II)
T sits second to the right of Q. Only two persons E. All (I), (II), and (III)
are sitting between Q and S. S sits adjacent to V
who sits at the end of the row. Only three persons 43) If one neighbour of U is Q, who is the second
are sitting between T and R. W sits adjacent to T. one?
The persons sitting at the ends are facing the A.S
opposite direction. Q is facing the north direction. B. The one who sits second to the left of V
The immediate neighbours of T and Q are facing C.T
the same direction. The number of persons sitting D. The one who sits third to the right of W
between R and W is the same as between U and T. E. None of these
R and U are facing the opposite direction. P and U
sit second to the right of each other. V faces the
opposite direction of Q.
Page 10 of 78
44) Four of the following five are similar in such a the left of F and faces opposite to F. I stands
way that they form a group, which one of the adjacent to both B and G where both B and G face
following doesn’t belong to the group? the same direction but opposite to I.D faces towards
A.PR the north and not stands at any ends. E stands to
B.UW the right of D and faces the same direction as A.
C.TV 46) Who among the following person stands fourth
D.SV to the left of I?
E.QT A. C
B. A
45) What is the position of T with respect to V? C. F
A. Immediate right D. E
B. Second to the right E. None of these
C. Third to the right
D. Third to the left 47) If A is related to H and C is related to B in a
E. Second to the left certain way, then who among the following is
related to E?
Direction (46-50): Study the following information A.I
carefully and answer the questions given below. B.G
Nine persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are C.E
standing in a linear row such that some of them are D. No such person
facing towards north while some are facing towards E. None of these
south, but not necessarily in the same order. Not
more than two adjacent persons face the same 48) What is the position of H with respect to I?
direction. The consecutive alphabetically named A. Second to the right
person doesn’t stand adjacent to each other. B. Second to the left
Only five persons stand between F and C where C. Immediate right
both of them face the same direction but neither of D. Immediate left
them stands at any of the ends. H stands second to E. None of these
Page 11 of 78
Step2: Interchange the letters that are at a position

49) Four of the following five are alike in a certain of multiples of 3 from the left end with the letters
way and hence form a group. Find the one that which are immediately preceding them.
doesn’t belong to that group. Step3: Replace the letters which are in the same
A.FB position as in the original series given above with
B.IE their immediate next alphabet as in the alphabetical
C.DA series.
D.CI Step4: Compare the series obtained after step1
E.HA with the series obtained after step 3. If there are
any letters in the same position, then replace them
50) The number of persons standing to the left of with the alphabet immediate preceding them as in
___ is one more than the number of persons the alphabetical series.
standing to the left of G. Note: Step 1 is followed by step 2 which is followed
A.D by step 3 and so on… and step4 is the final step.
B.C 51) How many letters are immediately preceded or
C.H immediately followed by a vowel in the final series?
D.A A.3
E. None of these B. 4
C. 5
Direction (51-55): Study the following information D. 6
carefully and answer the questions given below. E. None of these
VUBADGKMPQZOLSFERTYHI
Step1: Arrange the letters which are in between the 52) Which of the following letter is 10th to the right
second vowel and fourth vowel from the left end in of 4th from the left end in the series obtained in
alphabetical order. And the positions of the step 3?
remaining letters remain the same. A. Z
B. Q
C. P
Page 12 of 78
D. S E. None of these
E. None of these Direction (56-60): Study the following information
53) If all letters which are immediately followed by a carefully and answer the questions given below.
vowel and the vowels present in the series are JAFLNBPODKVXCTEZHMWIGSQU
dropped from the series obtained in step3, then R
how many letters are left in that series? Step1: Interchange the vowels which are
A.14 immediately followed by consonants with the letters
B.15 immediately preceding them.
C. 16 Step2: Reverse the series and interchange the
D. 17 consonants which are immediately followed by
E. None of these vowels with the letters immediately preceding them.
Step3: Start from the left and interchange every
54) How many letters are there in the series letter with the letter which is third to the right of it,
obtained in step 3 are in the same position as in the but don't interchange the already interchanged
series obtained in step 2? letter.
A. 12 Example: A B C D E F G H I J K L. Here D, E, F
B. 16 should not be interchanged twice. The above series
C. 13 after applying step3 is D E F A B C J K L G H I
D. 15 Note: Step 1 is followed by step 2 which is followed
E. None of these by step 3 and step 3 is the final step.
56) Which of the following is fifth to the right of the
55) If the final series is written in reverse order, twelfth letter from the right end of the final series?
then which letter will be 5th to the right of 16th letter A. V
from the right end? B. L
A. Q C. J
B. L D. X
C. O E. None of these
D. P
Page 13 of 78
57) Which of the following letter is eighth to the right 60) How many consonants in the series obtained in
of the second vowel from the left end of the final step 2 are immediately followed by a vowel?
series? A. 3
A. V B. 4
B. X C. 5
C. L D. 6
D. C E. None of these
E. None of these
58) S U G. T H E. ? LNF carefully and answer the questions given below.
As per the final series, which of the following come ZWDHKHLSRCOPZQYBEGKMULN
in place of ? in the expression given above? TVA
A. K L C STEP1: Starting from the left end, replace every
B. P V C second letter with its immediate next alphabet as in
C. K X D the alphabetical series.
D. K V D STEP2: Consonants which are immediately
E. None of these preceded by a vowel are arranged at the end of the
series in alphabetical order.
59) How many letters in the final series are STEP3: Reverse the series and interchange the
immediately followed by their immediate vowel which is an odd position from the left end with
succeeding alphabet as in the alphabetical series? its immediately succeeding letter in the series.
A. 1 Note: Step 1 is followed by step 2 which is followed
B. 2 by step 3 and step 3 is the final step.
C. 3 61) How many letters appear twice in the final
D. None series?
E. None of these A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
Page 14 of 78
D. 4 D. 3
62) As per the final series, four of the following are 65) V K M ? YDZ IZI
alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Find As per the final series, which of the following come
out the one that does not belong to that group? in place of ? in the expression given above?
A. V-L-Q A. U C U
B. H-N-B B. B K U
C. Z-D-T C. U K U
D. E-Z-Y D. U C N
E. L-B-K E. None of these
63) Which of the following letter is tenth to the left of
the third vowel from the right end of the final series?
A. N
B. U
C. K
D. B
E. None of these
64) How many such letters are there in the final

series which are in the same position as in the
original series?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
Page 15 of 78
Directions (1-5):
1. From the given statements, R stands fourth to 1. Q stands third from one of the ends and
the left of M who stands to the immediate right of O. immediately adjacent to both U and V. S stands to
So, we have two possible cases i.e. case 1 and the immediate right of V but faces opposite direction
case 2. Only two persons stand between S and O. to V and four persons away from R who faces the
same direction as V.
2. P stands second to the left of N who doesn’t

stand at the extreme ends. Q is not adjacent to R.
2. Only one person stands between O and T who

doesn’t sit adjacent to S but faces the same
1) Answer: D direction as S. The immediate neighbours of O face
2) Answer: D the same direction but O doesn’t face north. Hence,
3) Answer: B case 1 gets eliminated because not more than two
4) Answer: B adjacent persons face the same direction.
5) Answer: C
Directions (6-10):
Page 16 of 78
Directions (11-15):
V sits third to the right of X, both are facing the

opposite directions.
T sits immediate left of X.
3. The number of persons to the left of both P and possibilities.
U are the same. Hence, cases 2 and 3 get
eliminated.
6) Answer: B
7) Answer: D
8) Answer: C Only one person sits to the right of T.
9) Answer: A The number of persons sits to the right of T is same
10) Answer: D as the persons to the right of S.
Page 17 of 78
The immediate neighbours of W are facing opposite

directions. Not more than two persons sitting
together are facing the same direction
S and R are immediate neighbours facing the same

direction.
R does not sit at the end of the row.
U is facing north direction.
The persons who are sitting at an end face the
The number of persons sits to the left of U is one
same direction. Not more than two persons are
more than the persons to the left of W.
sitting together are facing the same direction
Q sits adjacent to T.
W is neither sitting adjacent to V nor S.
11) Answer: A
12) Answer: A
Page 18 of 78
13) Answer: A persons standing adjacent to each other faces the

14) Answer: E same direction.
15) Answer: D
Directions (16-20):
Two persons stand between Tanu and Paul who

stands towards the right of Tanu. Either Tanu or
Paul stands at one of the extreme ends. Both Paul
and Tanu face in the same direction.
Here we get four possibilities.
We cannot fix the position of Noni in case (1) and
case (2). So these cases are eliminated.
Kanu stands adjacent to Jass and faces the same
direction as Kitu faces. Rashu faces the opposite
direction as Tanu faces.
Nicks stands towards the right of Noni who faces

south. Jass stands 3rd left of Noni and faces north
direction. Kitu stands immediate right of Noni and
We cannot fix the direction of Kanu in case (3). So
vice versa. Neither Kitu nor Jass is an immediate
this case is eliminated.
neighbor of Paul and Rashu. Not more than two
Page 19 of 78
16) Answer: C continued. Immediate neighbours of J face the

17) Answer: D same directions.
18) Answer: B Persons sit at the extreme ends are facing opposite
19) Answer: E direction to each other.
20) Answer: E
Directions (21-25):
From the given conditions, J sits second to the right
of O. J sits fourth to the right of P. Two persons sit
between K and P, who does not sit at extreme
ends. A faces the same direction as J. From that line
case-1 will be eliminated.
So, the final arrangement will be-
Now, A sit second to the right of L. L sits immediate

left of O. M sits immediate left of either A or J. M
does not face south direction.
21) Answer: B
22) Answer: D
23) Answer: A
24) Answer: E
25) Answer: A
More than two persons sit between L and M, who

faces opposite direction to L. from that line case-1a Directions (26-30):
and case-2 will be eliminated. Rest of the cases are Explanation
Page 20 of 78
F faces south but sits 2nd right of K. E sits to the

right of K but not adjacent to F. H sits second to the
left of E who sits at the extreme end. Both J and H
sit immediate left of each other. I sits two places
away to the left of J. Persons sit at extreme ends
26) Answer: A
facing the same direction.
27) Answer: C
Here we get only two possibilities.
28) Answer: D
29) Answer: A
30) Answer: B
Directions (31-35):
As it is given that, D sits third to the right of I. F sits
second to the left of D. F doesn’t sit adjacent to I.
G faces north and E sits to the right of G but not Here we have two possible cases i.e., Case 1 and
adjacent to I. So, case 2 gets eliminated. I sits to Case 2.
the left of J and both J and H sit immediate left to
each other. I and E are facing the opposite direction
with respect to each other.
H is the immediate neighbor of I. One person sits

between H and J. K sits fourth to the left of G. G
doesn’t sit at the extreme end. Here there are two
more possible cases i.e., Case 1a and Case 2a.
Page 21 of 78
Two persons sit between F and the one who sits to

the immediate left of C.
E faces in North direction. Here Case 2 and Case Neither F nor A sits next to B.
2a are eliminated. The number of persons sits to
the right of J is the same as the number of persons
sits to the right of E. Here Case 1a is eliminated. So
the final arrangement will be,
E sits third to the right of A who doesn’t next to B.
Persons sit at both the ends facing the opposite
direction to each other.
31) Answer: A
32) Answer: C
33) Answer: E
34) Answer: A
35) Answer: C
Immediate neighbours of A faces the opposite
direction to each other. G sits third from F.
Directions (36-40):
From the given statements, C sits third to the left of

B, who sits at one of the extreme ends. So, we G faces north and both the immediate neighbours
have two possible cases i.e. case 1 and case 2: of G facing the opposite direction to G. By this
condition, case 1 is eliminated.
Page 22 of 78
Directions (41-45):
S sits adjacent to V who sits at the end of the row.
V faces the opposite direction of Q.
The persons sitting at the ends are facing the
opposite direction.
T sits second to the right of Q.
Q is facing the north direction.
Only two persons are sitting between Q and S.
possibilities.
W sits adjacent to T.
Page 23 of 78

possibilities.
The immediate neighbours of T and Q are facing

Only three persons are sitting between T and R.
the same direction.
P and U sit second to the right of each other.
Not more than two persons sitting together are
From the above condition, case1a gets eliminated.
Page 24 of 78
1.Only five persons stand between F and C where

both of them face the same direction but neither of
them stands at any of the ends. H stands second to
the left of F and faces opposite to F.
The number of persons sitting between R and W is

the same as between U and T.
R and U are facing the opposite direction. 2. I stands adjacent to both B and G where both B
From the above condition, case2 shows the final and G face the same direction but opposite to I. D
arrangement. faces towards the north and not stands at any ends.
3. E stands to the right of D and faces the same

41) Answer: D direction as A. The consecutive alphabetically
42) Answer: E named person doesn’t stand adjacent to each
43) Answer: D other. Hence, case 1 gets eliminated.
44) Answer: C
45) Answer: B
Directions (46-50):
46) Answer: C
47) Answer: A
Page 25 of 78
48) Answer: B are replaced by their immediate preceding letters as

49) Answer: D in the alphabetical series. So the final series is:
50) Answer: C WBUBFDFLKLPOPZSFTRZIH
51) Answer: D
Directions (51-55): 52) Answer: A
VUBADGK MPQZOLS FERTYHI 53) Answer: D
Step1: 54) Answer: B
Letters which are in between second vowel(A) and 55) Answer: D
fourth vowel(E) from left end are
D,G,K,M,P,Q,Z,O,L,S,F. Now by arranging these Directions (56-60):
letters in alphabetical order we get the series below. JAFLNBPO DKVXCTEZ HMWIGSQ
VUBADFGKLMOPQS ZERTYHI U R
Step2: STEP1:
Letters that are at a position of multiples of 3 from Vowels which are immediately followed by
the left end are B, F, L, P, Z, T, I. Now interchange consonants are A, O, E, I, U. Interchange these
them with their immediately preceding letters which letters with the letters immediately preceding them.
are U, D, K, O, S, R and H respectively. AJFLNBOP DKVXCETZHMIWGSUQ
V B U A F DG L K M P O Q Z S E T R Y I H R
Step3: STEP2:
Letters that are in the same position as in the Reverse the series.
original series given above are V, A, O, E, Y. Now RQUSGWIMHZTECXVKDPOBNLFJ
replace them with the immediate next alphabet as A
in alphabetical series W, B, P, F, Z respectively. Now interchange the consonants which are
W B U B F D GL K M P P Q Z S F T R Z I H immediately followed by vowels (R, G, Z, D, F) with
Step 4: the letters immediately preceding them.
The letters in series after step 3 which are in the QRUSWGIMHTZECXVKPDOBNLJF
same position as in step 1 are G, M, P, Q so they A
Page 26 of 78
Step3: Start from the left and interchange every ZXDIITRDOZRYCEKNUNUBHKLM

letter with the letter which is third to the right of it, QV
but don't interchange the already interchanged Step3:
letter. Reverse the series
SWGQRU TZEIMHKPDCXV LJFOB VQMLKHBUNUNKE CYRZODRTIID
NA XZ
56) Answer: B Now interchange the vowel which is an odd position
57) Answer: B from the left end with its immediately succeeding
58) Answer: D letter in the series.
59) Answer: A Vowels which are at the odd position from the left
60) Answer: C end are -----E, I.
VQMLKHBUNUNKC EYRZODRTIDI
Directions (61-65): X Z -----------Final series
ZWDHKHLSRCOPZQYBEGKMULN Letters which appear twice in the final series (K, N,
TVA U, R, D, Z, I) are highlighted below.
Step1: V Q M L K H B U N U NK C E Y RZ O D R T I D I X
Replace every second letter from the left end with Z
its immediate next alphabet as in alphabetical
series 61) Answer: C
ZXDIKILTRDOQZRYCEHKNUMNU 62) Answer: C
VB 63) Answer: B
Step2: 64) Answer: D
Consonants which are immediately preceded by a 65) Answer: C
vowel are K, L, Q, H, M, V. Arrange them at the end
of the series in alphabetical order.
Page 27 of 78
Quantitative Aptitude
1) Out of 2250 people in a colony, the ratio of C.89%

graduates and undergraduates is 5:4. Out of D.83.33%
graduates, 40% are from engineering and the rest E.None of these
from non – engineering graduates. 60% of total
students have maths as their one of the subjects. 3) The price of a doll is decreased by 5% in 2018
30% of non – engineering graduates have maths from 2017. In 2019, it is increased by 10% from
as their one of the subjects. If 80% of 2018 and in 2020 it is further decreased by 16%
undergraduates have maths as one of the from 2019, then the price of the doll in 2020 is how
subjects, find the number of students that are from much percent less/more than that of in 2017?
engineering graduates and also have maths as A.12.22% less
one of the subjects. B.12.22% more
A.254 C.18.23% less
B.325 D.18.23% more
C.456 E.None of these
D.145
E.854 4) The population of a town decreases at the rate
of 10% for the first year and it increases at the rate
2) In a colony, 60% of the total population of the of 10% for the second year and so on. If the
colony is women and 12% of the total population of present population of the town is 356400, find the
the colony is literate. If 20% of the men in the population of the town 3 years ago.
particular colony are literate, then find the number A.5 lakh
of illiterate women in the colony is what percentage B.3 lakh
of the total number of women in the colony? C.3.5 lakh
(Assume that every person in the colony is either D.4 lakh
literate or illiterate.) E.None of these
A.93.33%
B.70%
Page 28 of 78
5) Renu spends 65% of his salary on House Rent 7) Malar gives 30 % of her salary to her mother
and Education fees in the ratio of 2:3 and the and 40 % of the remaining salary is invested by her
remaining amount spends on Shopping, Transport in two different schemes A and B, which is in the
and Savings in the ratio of 7:6:4. If the difference ratio of 3: 2 and she keeps the remaining salary in
between the amount spend on Shopping and her bank account. If the difference between the
Savings is Rs.1050, then find the amount spends amount she gives to her mother and that she
on House Rent? invests in scheme A is Rs. 5280. Find the salary of
A.Rs.3250 Malar?
B.Rs.4580 A.Rs. 30000
C.Rs.4420 B.Rs. 50000
D.Rs.3850 C.Rs. 40000
E.None of these D.Rs. 45000
E.None of these
6) There are 15000 peoples in the village and each
of them like one of the three languages Tamil, 8) In a village, two contestants A and B are
English and Telugu. Half of the people do not like contesting in an election. 70% of the registered
Telugu and 30% of the total number of people like voters cast their votes in the election and A wins
only Telugu. The number of people who like both the election by 400 votes. If A had received 12.5%
Tamil and English but not Telugu is 750. Find the less votes, A’s votes would have been equal to B’s
total number of people who like more than one votes. How many registered voters are there in the
language? village?
A.3550 A.4200
B.3650 B.4400
C.3580 C.4600
D.3750 D.4000
E.None of these E.None of these
Page 29 of 78
9) Total number of students in the school is 2500 11) A certain number of employees in the
and 30% of the total students has participated in company, which has two departments IT and HR.
sports competition. Out of the students who 70% of the IT department employees is 50 more
participated in sports competitions, 36% of them than the 60% of the HR department employees
are girls and out of these girls, 60% of them got and 80% of the HR department employees are 80
medals. The overall percentage of the number of more than 40% of the IT department employees.
students who got medal is 40%. The number of What is the total number of IT department
girls who not get a medal is what percent of the employees in the company?
number of boys did not get a medal? A.275
A.31.57% B.265
B.33.45% C.245
C.45.21% D.Cannot be determined
D.39.98% E.None of these
E.41.41%
12) A fruit seller had some oranges and apples. He
10) In an examination of a bank, the number of sold 20% of oranges to A, 40% of the remaining to
passed candidates was five times the number of B and 48 oranges had left. Similarly, he sold 40%
failed candidates. If there had been 40 less of apples to A, 100 apples to B and 10% of apples
candidates appeared and 20 more candidates had had left. Find the total number of apples and
failed, then the ratio of the passed and failed oranges that the shopkeeper had initially.
candidates would have been 3: 1. Then, find the A.200
total number of failed candidates? B.250
A.70 C.300
B.60 D.350
C.50 E.400
D.300
E.None of these 13) Out of their respective monthly salaries, Sonal
and Tanya spend 76% and 68% on various
Page 30 of 78
household expenses. The sum of the remaining C.Rs.10000

salary with Sonal and Tanya together is Rs 18560. D.Rs.4000
If Tanya’s salary is 30% less than that of Sonal. E.None of these
What is Tanya’s monthly salary?
A.Rs 28000 15) The bag contains a certain number of red,
B.Rs 32000 yellow, orange and blue balls. The number of red
C.Rs 34000 balls is equal to 120% of the number of blue balls
D.Rs 30000 and the number of yellow balls is 50% of the
E.None of these number of red balls. If 40% of the orange balls is
equal to 60% of the blue balls and the difference
14) The respective ratio of the income of Devas between the number of orange and red balls is 15,
and Kajal is 7: 6 and the respective ratio of their then find the total number of balls.
expenditures are 5: 4. Devas saves Rs.26000 and A.200
Kajal saves Rs.24000. Malti saves Rs.22000 and B.210
her expenditure is Rs.2000 more than the C.215
expenditure of Devas. Find the difference between D.220
the incomes of Malti and Kajal. E.None of these
A.Rs.6000
B.Rs.8000
Directions (16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
The given table shows the per month salary of four different persons in four different years.
Page 31 of 78
16) What is the ratio of the percentage increase in C.38450

the per month salary of Seenu from 2016 to 2017 D.39550
to that of from Bigil from 2016 to 2017? E.35550
A.2:3
B.3:2 19) What is the difference between the average
C.4:5 per month salary of all the persons together in
D.5:4 2018 and 2016?
E.5:6 A.12150
B.12240
17) The difference between the per month salary of C.12160
Seenu in 2018 and 2019 is what percent of the D.12250
difference between the per month salary of Divya E.12350
in 2017 and 2016?
A.200% 20) If the per month salary of Divya in all the years
B.225% together is approximately what percent of the per
C.180% month salary of Seenu in all the years together?
D.195% A.65%
E.235% B.67%
C.63%
18) What is the average per month salary of Arun D.61%
in all the years together? E.69%
A.36980
B.37850
The given table shows the total population in 2017 and 2018 and the ratio of male to female in 2017 and
2018 in five different cities.
Page 32 of 78
21) What is the ratio of the male population in B.48.5%

Delhi, Mumbai and Pune together in 2017 to the C.43.7%
total number of population in Chennai and D.62.5%
Bangalore together in 2018? E.33.33%
A.33:40
B.34:45 24) The ratio of the number of literate to illiterate
C.32:43 population in Bangalore in 2017 is 3:1 and the ratio
D.31:39 of the male literate to the illiterate population in
E.None of these Bangalore in 2017 is 3:1, then what is the
difference between the female literate and illiterate
22) What is the difference between the average population in Bangalore in 2017?
female population in all the cities together in 2017 A.500
and 2018? B.600
A.120 C.700
B.150 D.800
D.200
E.220 25) What is the average male population in all the
cities together in 2018?
23) The number of the male population in Chennai A.3290
in 2017 is what percent of the number of the male B.3380
population in Bangalore in 2018? C.3480
A.50% D.3280
Page 33 of 78
E.3260
Directions (26-30): Study the following table chart carefully and answer the questions given below?
The following table shows the number of students in four branches- Mechanical, CS, Automobile and EEE.
Each branch has boys and girls students, out of which, some are passed and some are failed.
26) If the number of failed girls in the Mechanical B.1952

branch is 4 more than the half of the number of C.2374
passed girls in the same branch, then find the D.2176
difference between the failed boys in Mechanical E.2272
branch and failed girls in Mechanical branch?
A.178 28) The number of girls in Automobile is 294 more
B.195 than the number of girls in Mechanical. If the sum
C.257 of passed boys and passed girls in Automobile is
D.213 230, then find the sum of failed boys and failed
E.246 girls in Automobile?
A.784
27) The number of the failed boys in the CS branch B.842
is 52 more than the number of passed boys in the C.576
same branch. The numbers of failed boys are more D.760
than failed girls in the CS branch by 244. Find the E.648
total number of students in the CS branch?
A.1658
Page 34 of 78
29) If in Mechanical branch, the total number of 30) The number of passed girls and failed girls in
students is 40% more than that of the Automobile EEE are equal. If the number of passed boys in
branch and the ratio between the number of failed EEE is 10 more than the number of passed girls in
girls in EEE to the total number of students in EEE, then find the difference between failed boys
Automobile is 1: 18, then find the total number of and failed girls in EEE?
passed girls in EEE? A.170
A.104 B.190
B.94 C.110
C.85 D.176
D.95 E.272
E.105
Directions (31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
The given table shows the number of employees in four different companies and the percentage of male,
ratio of the male to female employees in IT department. The companies have two different departments IT
and HR.
31) What is the average number of male B.1400

employees in all the companies together? C.1500
A.1200 D.1300
Page 35 of 78
E.1100 35) What is the average number of female

employees in the IT department in all the
32) What is the ratio of the total number of male to companies together?
female in HR department employees in D?
A.440
A.4:3
B.470
B.6:1
C.460
C.7:2
D.480
D.8:3
E.None of these
E.None of these
Directions (36-43) : What value should come in the

33) The number of male employees in the IT
place of (?) in the following questions?
department in C is approximately what percent of
the total number of employees in the HR
department in D? 36)
A.43%
B.50% A.– 453
C.53% B.– 353
D.77% C.– 383
E.63% D.– 473
E. None of these
34) What is the difference between the male to
female employees in the HR department in all the 37) (8)2.8 * (2)1.6 *(?) = (16)3/2/(64)1/2
companies together? A.29
A.1460 B.1/27
B.1680 C.1/2-7
C.1720 D.1/29
D.Cannot be determine E.None of these
E.None of these
Page 36 of 78
38) 17*15 +? – 33(1/3) % * 729 = 81*11 42) 125 x 625 ÷ 25 = 5(13 - ?)

A.1331 A.7
B.1728 B.8
C.1111 C.9
D.1122 D.5
E.None of these E.6
39) 14.5 * 5.5 ÷ 11 – 303 ÷ 6 + 725 =? 43) (6 + 66 + 666 + 6666 + 66666) – [22 + {2320 –
A.960.75 (256)1/2}1/2] =?
B.681.75 A.64000
C.1024.50 B.44000
D.675.75 C.72000
E.None of these D.84000
E.74000
40) (9786 + 549) ÷ 65 + 362 + (1/4) of 1680 =?
A.1675 Directions (44-50) : What approximate value
B.1275 should come in the place of (?) in the following
C.1875 questions?
D.3692 44) 110% of 520.1809 + 10.12% of 1584.72 = ?
E.1636 A.451
B.651
41) 18 1/2 % of 9800 + 23 1/3 % of 8700 = (5/9) of C.731
810 + ? D.891
A.3093 E.961
B.3193
C.2793 45) 359.99 * 14.10 ÷ 3.002 + 24.88 = ?
D.3293 A.1390
E.3393 B.1405
Page 37 of 78
C.1705 49) 0.912 * 8.932 * 5.123 * 0.93 + 9.121 * 0.813 +

D.1910 97.89 – 22.12 =?
E.2345 A.130
B.170
46) 31.89 % of 250.12 + 14.98 * √65 + 1480.11 ÷ C.190
√1370 =? D.250
A.230 E.290
B.220
C.240 50) 9.19 + 999.91 + 19.199 + 919.919 =?
D.210 A.1948
E.200 B.1960
C.1978
47) 14.92 % of 320.01 + 1027.12 ÷ 12.981 =? + D.1990
10.98 * √50 E.1988
A.45
B.50 Directions (51-55) : Find out the missing number in
C.40 the following number series.
D.70 51) 31, 51, 76, 111, 163, ?
E.60 A.249
B.241
48) 2/7 of 1280.12 * 6.992 = 32.151% of ? C.271
A.4000 D.281
B.8000 E.None of these
C.1200
D.1500 52) 7, 13, 21, 31, 43,?
E.1800 A.48
B.54
C.57
Page 38 of 78
D.49 B.50
E.51 C.122
D.312.5
53) 35, 38, 42, 48, 58,? E.None of these
A.63
B.68 57) 5, 7, 13, 25, 45, 70
C.72 A.7
D.76 B.13
E.80 C.25
D.45
54) 2190, 2736, 3366, 4086,?, 5820 E.70
A.4109
B.4516 58) 298, 294, 433, 850, 2080, 6215
C.4782 A.6215
D.4771 B.2080
E.4902 C.850
D.433
55) 11, 23, 59, 119, 203, ? E.None of these
A.308
B.311 59) 10, 30, 68, 130, 220, 350, 520
C.314 A.30
D.321 B.10
E.301 C.68
D.350
Directions (56-60) : Find out the wrong number in E.220
the following number series.
56) 8, 20, 50, 122, 312.5, 781.25 60) 7, 14, 23, 36, 55, 94, 163
A.20 A.7
Page 39 of 78
B.25 E.x ≤ y
C.14
63)
D.55
E.94
I) 2x2 – 50x + 300 = 0
II) y2 – 30y + 224 = 0
Directions (61-70): In each of the following
A.x > y
questions, two equations are given. You have to
B.x ≥ y
solve both the equations to find the relation
C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
between x and y.
D.x < y
61)
E.x ≤ y
I: 3x2+2x - 1 = 0
II: 11y2 + 18y + 7 = 0
A.If x < y
64)
B.If x > y
C.If x ≤ y
I) 2x2 + 24x + 54 =0
D.If x ≥ y
II) 3y2 - 21y+ 36 = 0
E.If relationship between x and y cannot be
a) If x > y
determined
b) If x ≥ y
c) If x = y or relationship cannot be determined.
d) If x < y
62) e) If x ≤ y
I) x2 + 17x - 84 = 0
II) y2 – 22y + 21 = 0
65)
A.x > y
B.x ≥ y
I) 1/x2 × √x = 1/(2)3
C.x = y or relationship cannot be determined.
II) y2 – 7y + 12 = 0
D.x < y
a) If x > y
Page 40 of 78
b) If x ≥ y C.x = y or relationship cannot be determined.

c) If x = y or relationship cannot be determined. D.x < y
d) If x < y E.x ≤ y
e) If x ≤ y 69)
I) 2x2 – 13x + 18 = 0
66) II) 3y2 + 4y - 15 = 0
I) x2 – 3x + 2 = 0 a) If x > y
II) y2 – 4y + 4 = 0 b) If x ≥ y
A.x > y c) If x < y
B.x ≥ y d) If x ≤ y
C.x = y or relationship cannot be determined. e) If x = y or no relation can be established
D.x < y between x and y
E.x ≤ y
70)
67) I) 4x2 + 14x + 12 = 0
I) x2 – 8x – 240 = 0 II) 3y2 + 18y + 27 = 0
II) y2 + 25y + 156 = 0 a) If x > y
A.x > y b) If x ≥ y
B.x ≥ y c) If x < y
C.x = y or relationship cannot be determined. d) If x ≤ y
D.x < y e) If x = y or no relation can be established
E.x ≤ y between x and y
68)
I) x2 – 32x + 252 = 0
II) y2 – 26y + 168 = 0
A.x > y
B.x ≥ y
Page 41 of 78
1) Answer: B And, 4% of the total population of women is literate

Number of graduates = 5/9 x 2250 = 1250 in the colony.
Number of undergraduates = 2250 – 1250 = 1000 So, according to the question,
Number of graduates with engineering = 40% x = (60% – 4%)/60% × 100
1250 = 500 = 93.33% of the women are illiterate.
Number of graduates with non – engineering =
1250 – 500 = 750 3) Answer: A
Number of students have maths as one of the Let the price of a doll in 2017 = 100x
subjects = 60% of 2250 = 1350 Price in 2018 = 95% of 100x = 95x
Number of non – engineering graduates have Price in 2019 = 110% of 95x = 104.5x
maths as one of the subjects = 30% of 750 = 225 Price in 2020 = 84% of 104.5x = 87.78x
Number of undergraduates have maths as one of Required % = (100x – 87.78x)/100x * 100 =
the subjects = 80% of 1000 = 800 12.22% less
So, number of students from an engineering
background have maths = 1350 – (800 + 225) = 4) Answer: D
325 The required population
Hence, the answer is option B = (356400 x 100 x 100 x 100)/ ((100 – 10) x (100 +
10) x (100 – 10))
2) Answer: A = (356400 x 100 x 100 x 100)/ (90 x 110 x 90)
60% Women = 400000 = 4 lakh
40% men
20% of the men are literate. 5) Answer: C
So, 40% of 20% = 8% of the total population is Difference of amounts spends on Savings and
literate in men. Transport = Rs.1050
Now, the total number of literate population = 12% 7x – 4x = 1050
x = 350
Page 42 of 78
35% of the salary = 17 * 350 = Rs.5950 (87.5/100) x = y + (12.5/100)x ………………..

65% of the salary = 65/35 * 5950 = Rs.11050 2 (The votes lost by A would go into B’s
House rent = 2/5 * 11050 = Rs.4420 account)
y = (87.5/100 - 12.5/100)x
6) Answer: D y = (75/100)x
The number of people does not like Telugu = y = (3/4)x …………………….. 3
50/100 * 15000 = 7500 By using (3) we will solve (1)
The number of people like only Telugu = 30/100 * x - (3/4)x = 400
15000 = 4500 (4x - 3x)/4 = 400
Number of people who like both Tamil and English x/4 = 400
but not Telugu = 750 x = 1600
The number of students like only Tamil and English So, y = 1200
= 7500 – 750 = 6750 Total casted votes = 1600 + 1200 = 2800
Required total = 15000 – 6750 – 4500 = 3750 Let the total registered voters in the village be Z,
Therefore, 70Z/100 = 2800
7) Answer: C Z = 2800 × 100/70
Let the salary be x Z = 4000
Given, Hence, total registered voters = 4000.
x * (30/100) - x * (70/100) * (40/100) * (3/5) = 5280
(30x/100) - (84x/500) = 5280 9) Answer: A
66x = 5280 * 500 Total students = 2500
x = (5280 * 500) / 66 = Rs. 40000 Number of students who participated in the sports
event = 2500 * 30/100 = 750
8) Answer: D Number of girls in sports event = 36/100 * 750 =
Let the votes received by A be x and by B be y. 270
Now as per the question Number of girls got medal = 270 * 60/100 = 162
x – y = 400 ……….. 1 Number of girls did not got medal = 270 – 162 =
108
Page 43 of 78
Total number of students got the medal = 750 * 11) Answer: A

40/100 = 300 Total number of employees = x
Number of boys got medal = 300 – 162 = 138 Number of IT department employees = y
Total number of boys = 750 – 270 = 480 Number of HR department employee = (x – y)
Number of boys did not get medal = 480 – 138 = 70/100 * y = 60/100 * (x – y) + 50
342 70y = 60x – 60y + 5000
Required percentage = 108/342 * 100 60x – 130y + 5000 = 0 ----------- (1)
= 31.57% 80/100 * (x – y) = 40/100 * (y) + 80
80x – 80y = 40y + 8000
10) Answer: B 80x – 120y – 8000 = 0 ----------- (2)
Let the number of failed candidates = X. Number of (1) * 4 – (2) * 3
passed candidates = 5X. -160y = - 44000
Total candidates = X+5X =6X. y = 275
If 40 less candidates appeared, then the total The total number of IT department employees in
number of candidates = 6X - 40. If 20 more the company=275
candidates failed, the number of failed candidates
= X+20. 12) Answer: C
Number of passed candidates = (6X - 40) - (X+20) Let 'a' and 'b' are the number of oranges and
= 5X - 60 apples respectively.
According to the question, Oranges sold to A = 20/100 * a = 0.2 a
Number of passed/Number of failed = 3: 1 Oranges sold to B = (a – 0.2a) * 40/100 = 0.32 a
(5X – 60)/(X+20) = 3: 1 Remaining number of oranges = a – (0.2a + 0.32
5X – 60 = 3X + 60 a) = 0.48 a
2X = 120 => 48 = 0.48 a
X = 60 => 100 = a
Therefore, the total number of failed candidates= Apples sold to A = 40/100 * b = 0.4 b
60 Apples sold to B = 100
Remaining number of Apples = 10/100 * b =0.1 b
Page 44 of 78
=> 100 = b – (0.4 b + 0.1 b) Therefore, the salary of Tanya will be Rs 70

=> 100 = 0.5 b Remaining salary = 24 + 22.4 = Rs 46.4
=> 200 = b Now Rs 46.4 is left when the salary of Tanya is Rs
Total number of apples and oranges = a + b = 100 70
+ 200 = 300 Therefore, Rs.18560 left when Tina’s salary will be
Or 70/46.4 × 18560 = Rs 28000.
Short cut: 14) Answer: A
Let 'a' and 'b' are number of oranges and apples Let, the income of Devas and Kajal are Rs.7k and
respectively. Rs.6k respectively.
48 = (100 - 20) % of 60% of a (7k – 26000)/ (6k – 24000) = 5/4
a = 100 => 28k – 104000 = 30k – 120000
100 = (100 - 40 - 10) % of b => 30k – 28k = 120000 – 104000
b = 200 => 2k = 16000
Total number of apples and oranges = 100 + 200 = => k = 16000/2
300 => k = 8000
Income of Devas = 7 x 8000 = Rs.56000
13) Answer: A Income of Kajal = 6 x 8000 = Rs.48000
1st method: Expenditure of Devas = 56000 – 26000 =
Let, the salary of Sonal be Rs x Rs.30000
Therefore, the salary of Tanya will be x * 70/100 = Expenditure of Malti = 30000 + 2000 = Rs.32000
7x/10 Income of Malti = 32000 + 22000 = Rs.54000
According to the question, Required difference = 54000 – 48000 = Rs.6000
24x/100 + 32/100 × 7x/10 = 18560
=> x = 40000 15) Answer: C
Therefore, the Tanya’s monthly salary = 40000 × Let Blue balls = x
70/100 = Rs 28000. Red balls = x * 120/100 = 6x/5
2nd method: x* 60/100 = 40/100 *Orange balls
Let, the salary of Sonal be Rs 100 Orange balls = 3x/2
Page 45 of 78
Yellow balls = 3x/5

3x/2 – 6x/5 = 15 18) Answer: C
15x – 12x = 150 Required average = (32000 + 33600 + 42000 +
x = 50 46200)/4
Total number of balls = x + 6x/5 + 3x/2 + 3x/5 = 153800/4
= 50+60+75+30 = 38450
= 215
19) Answer: A
16) Answer: D Required difference = (42000 + 40600 + 54000 +
Required ratio = ((45000 – 36000)/36000 * 33000)/4 – (32000 + 29000 + 36000 + 24000)/4
100):((34800 – 29000)/29000 * 100) = (169600/4) – (121000/4)
= (9000/36000) * 100 : (5800/29000) * 100 = 42400 – 30250
= 25:20 = 12150
= 5:4
20) Answer: B
17) Answer: B Required percentage = (24000 + 26400 + 33000 +
Required percentage = (54000 – 48600)/(26400 – 39600)/(36000 + 45000 + 54000 + 48600) * 100
24000) * 100 = (123000/183600) * 100
= (5400/2400) * 100 = 67%(approx)
= 225%
Directions (21-25):
Page 46 of 78
21) Answer: A Number of female literate population in Bangalore

Required ratio = (2700 + 3200 + 4000):(4400 + in 2017 = 2100 – 1200 = 900
7600) Number of female illiterate population in Bangalore
= 9900:12000 in 2017 = 700 – 400 = 300
= 33:40 Difference = 900 – 300 = 600
22) Answer: C 25) Answer: D

Average of Female population in 2017 = (2400 + Required average = (2400 + 4800 + 3000 + 4000 +
1200 + 900 + 3000 + 3000)/5 2200)/5 = 3280
= 2100
Average of female population in 2018 = (2000 + Directions (26-30):
2800 + 1800 + 3200 + 1600)/5 26) Answer: E
= 2280 Total number of girls in Mechanical = 1512 – 1052
Difference = 2280 – 2100 = 180 = 460
Let, the number of passed girls be x
23) Answer: D
Required percentage = 3000/4800 * 100 = 62.5%
24) Answer: B
Number of literate population in Bangalore in 2017
= 3/4 * 2800 = 2100
= > passed girl = 304
Number of illiterate population in Bangalore in
Therefore failed girls = 460 – 304 = 156
2017 = ¼ * 2800 = 700
Number of male literate population in Bangalore in
Failed boys = Total boys – Passed boys = 1052 –
2017 = 3/4 * 1600 = 1200
650 = 402
Number of male illiterate population in Bangalore in
Therefore required difference = 402 – 156 = 246
2017 = 1/4 * 1600 = 400
27) Answer: A
Page 47 of 78
Total number of failed boys in CS = (430 + 52) = Total number of students in Mechanical = 1512
482 Therefore Total number of students in Automobile
Total number of failed girls in CS = (482 – 244) =
238
Total number of boys in CS branch = (passed +
failed) = (430 + 482) = 912
Total number of girls in CS = (passed + failed) =
(508 + 238) = 746
Therefore Total number of students in CS branch
= (boys + girls)
= (912 + 746) = 1658
28) Answer: B
Number of girls in Mechanical = (1512 – 1052) = 30) Answer: C
460 Passed girls in EEE = Failed girls in EEE
Number of girls in Automobile = (460 + 294) = 754
Number of boys in Automobile = 318 (given)
Hence Number of passed boys in EEE = (82 + 10)
Total number of students in Automobile = 754 +
= 92
318 = 1072
Therefore Number of Failed boys in EEE = (284 –
Given that passed (boys + girls) in Automobile
92) = 192
branch = 230
Therefore required difference = (192 – 82) = 110
Therefore failed (boys + girls) = total students -
passed (boys + girls)
Directions (31-35):
= (1072 – 230) = 842
29) Answer: A
Page 48 of 78
31) Answer: C HR department male employees=6000 –

Average=(1200 + 1800 + 900 + 2100)/4 3200=2800
=1500 HR department female employees=3000 –
1880=1120
32) Answer: B Difference=2800 – 1120=1680
HR male in D=2100 – 900=1200 35) Answer: B
HR female in D=700 – 500=200 Average = (600 + 300 + 480 + 500)/4=470
Required ratio=1200: 200
= 6:1 Directions (36-43):
36) Answer: B
33) Answer: A = 15/8 * 256 – 17/7 *343
Required percentage=600/1400 * 100=42.85% = 15*32 – 17*49
= 480 – 833 = -353
34) Answer: B
Total male employees=1200 + 1800 + 900 + 37) Answer: B
2100=6000 (23)2.8 * (2)1.6 * (?) = (24)3/2/(26)1/2
Total female employees=800 + 600 + 900 + => (2)8.4 * (2)1.6 * (?) = (2)4*3/2/(2)6*1/2
700=3000 => (2)8.4+1.6 *(?) = (2)6/(2)3
IT department male employees=800 + 900 + 600 + ? = 23/210 = 2-7
900=3200
IT department female employees=600 + 300 + 480 38) Answer: E
+ 500=1880 17*15 +? – 33(1/3) % * 729 = 81*11
Page 49 of 78
? = 81*11 + 1/3 * 729 – 17*15 ? = 74070 - 70 = 74000

= 891 + 243 - 255
= 879 Directions (44-50):
44) Answer: C
39) Answer: B 110% of 520.1809 + 10.12% of 1584.72 = ?
14.5 * 5.5 ÷ 11 – 303 ÷ 6 + 725 =? => 110% of 520 + 10% of 1585 = ?
= 14.5 * 0.5 – 50.5 +725 => 572 + 159 = ?
= 681.75 => 731
40) Answer: C 45) Answer: C

?= (10335/65) + 1296 + 420 359.99 * 14.10 ÷ 3.002 + 24.88 = ?
?= 159 + 1296 + 420 => 360 * (14/3) + 25 = ?
?= 1875 => 120 * 14 + 25 = ?
=> 1705
41) Answer: E
(37/200) x 9800 + (70/300) x 8700 = (5/9) x 810 +? 46) Answer: C
? = 1813 + 2030 – 450 31.89 % of 250.12 + 14.98 * √65 + 1480.11 ÷
= 3393 √1370 =?
32/100 * 250 + 15 * √64 + 1480/√1369 =?
42) Answer: B 80 + 120 + 40 =?
53 x 54 ÷ 52 = 5(13 - ?) 240 =?
7 – 2 = 13 - ?
?=8 47) Answer: B
14.92 % of 320.01 + 1027.12 ÷ 12.981 =? + 10.98 *
43) Answer: E √50
? = 6(1 + 11 + 111 + 1111 + 11111) – (22 + {2320 – 15/100 * 320 + 1027/13 =? + 11 * √49
16)1/2} 48 + 79 =? + 77
? = 6(12345) – (22 + 48) ? = 50
Page 50 of 78
42 + 5 = 21
48) Answer: B 52 + 6 = 31
2/7 of 1280.12 * 6.992 = 32.151% of ? 62 + 7 = 43
=> 2/7 * 1280 * 7 = 32% * ? 72 + 8 = 57
=> 8000 53) Answer: D
35 + 20 + 2 = 38
49) Answer: A 38 + 21 + 2 = 42
0.912 * 8.932 * 5.123 * 0.93 + 9.121 * 0.813 + 97.89 42 + 22 + 2 = 48
– 22.12 =? 48 + 23 + 2 = 58
=> (1 * 9 * 5 * 1) + (9 * 1) + 98 – 22 =? 58 + 24 + 2 = 76
=> 45 + 9 + 98 – 22 =?
=> 130 54) Answer: E
133 – 7 = 2190
50) Answer: A 143 – 8 = 2736
9.19 + 999.91 + 19.199 + 919.919 =? 153 – 9 = 3366
1948 =? 163 – 10 = 4086
173 – 11 = 4902
Directions (51-55): 183 – 12 = 5820
51) Answer: B
55) Answer: B
11 + (12 * 1) = 23
23 + (12 * 3) = 59
59 + (12 * 5) = 119
119 + (12 * 7) = 203
203 + (12 * 9) = 311
52) Answer: C
22 + 3 = 7
Directions (56-60):
32 + 4 = 13
56) Answer: C
Page 51 of 78
8 * 2.5 = 20 60) Answer: D

20 * 2.5 = 50 10 x 1/2 + 21 = 7
50 * 2.5 = 125 (not 122) 20 x 1/2 + 22 = 14
125 * 2.5 = 312.5 30 x 1/2 + 23 = 23
312.5 * 2.5 = 781.25 40 x 1/2 + 24 = 36
57) Answer: E 50 x 1/2 + 25 = 57 (not 55)
5+1+1=7 60 x 1/2 + 26 = 94
7 + 4 + 2 = 13 70 x 1/2 + 27 = 163
13 + 9 + 3 = 25
25 + 16 + 4 = 45 Directions (61-70):
45 + 25 + 5 = 75 (not 70) 61) Answer: E

From I =>3x2 + 2x - 1 = 0
58) Answer: B => 3x(x + 1) – (x + 1) = 0
298 * 1 – 4 = 294 => x = 1/3, -1
294 * 1.5 – 8 = 433 From II =>11y2 + 18y + 7 = 0
433 * 2 – 16 = 850 => 11y(y + 1) + 7(y + 1) = 0
850 * 2.5 – 32 = 2093 (not 2080) => y = -7/11, -1
2093 * 3 – 64 = 6215 Hence, relationship between x and y cannot be
determined.
59) Answer: E
2 x 22 + 2 = 10 62) Answer: C
3 x 32 + 3 = 30 x2 + 17x - 84 = 0
4 x 42 + 4 = 68 x2 + 21x - 4x - 84 = 0
5 x 52 + 5 = 130 x(x + 21) - 4(x + 21) = 0
6 x 62 + 6 = 222 (not 220) (x - 4)(x + 21) = 0
7 x 72 + 7 = 350 x = 4, -21
8 x 82 + 8 = 520 y2 – 22y + 21 = 0
y2 – 21y – y + 21 = 0
Page 52 of 78
y(y – 21) – 1(y – 21) = 0 (3y - 9)(y - 4) = 0

(y – 1)(y – 21) = 0 Roots, y = 4, 3
y = 1, 21 Hence, x < y
Relationship between x and y cannot be
established. 65) Answer: B
1/x2 × √x = 1/(2)3
63) Answer: C x-2 × x1/2 = 1/(√4)3
2x2 – 50x + 300 = 0 x-3/2 = 1/(41/2)3
2x2 – 20x – 30x + 300 = 0 x-3/2 = 1/(4)3/2
2x(x – 10) – 30(x – 10) = 0 x-3/2 = (4)-3/2
(2x – 30)(x – 10) = 0 x=4
x = 15, 10 y2 – 7y + 12 = 0
y2 – 30y + 224 = 0 y2 - 4y - 3y + 12 = 0
y2 – 16y – 14y + 224 = 0 y(y - 4) - 3 (y - 4) =0
y(y – 16) – 14(y – 16) = 0 (y - 4)(y - 3) = 0
(y – 14)(y – 16) = 0 Roots, y = 4, 3
y = 14, 16 Hence, x ≥ y
Relationship between x and y cannot be 66) Answer: E
established.
x2 – 3x + 2 = 0
64) Answer: D x2 – 2x – x + 2 = 0
2x2 + 18x + 6x + 54 =0 x(x – 2) – 1(x – 2) = 0
2x(x + 9) + 6 (x + 9) = 0 (x – 1)(x – 2) = 0
(2x + 6)(x + 9) = 0 x = 1, 2
Roots, x = - 9, -3 y2 – 4y + 4 = 0
3y2 - 21y + 36 = 0 y2 – 2y – 2y + 4 = 0
3y2 - 12y - 9y + 36 = 0 y(y – 2) – 2(y – 2) = 0
3y (y - 4) – 9(y- 4) = 0 (y – 2)(y – 2) = 0
Page 53 of 78
y = 2, 2 x≥y
x≤y
69) Answer: A
67) Answer: B I) 2x2 – 13x + 18 = 0
x2 – 8x – 240 = 0 2x2 – 4x - 9x + 18 = 0
x2 – 20x + 12x – 240 = 0 2x (x – 2) -9 (x – 2) = 0
x(x – 20) + 12(x – 20) = 0 (2x – 9) (x – 2) = 0
(x+ 12)(x – 20) = 0 X = 9/2, 2 = 4.5, 2
x = -12, 20 II) 3y2 + 4y - 15 = 0
y2 + 25y + 156 = 0 3y2 + 9y – 5y - 15 = 0
y2 + 12y + 13y + 156 = 0 3y (y + 3) - 5 (y + 3) = 0
y(y + 12) + 13(y + 12) = 0 (3y – 5) (y + 3) = 0
(y + 13)(y + 12) = 0 Y = 5/3, -3 = 1.667, -3
y = -13, -12 x>y
x≥y
70) Answer: A
68) Answer: B I) 4x2 + 14x + 12 = 0
x2 – 32x + 252 = 0 4x2 + 8x + 6x + 12 = 0
x2 – 14x – 18x + 252 = 0 4x (x + 2) + 6(x + 2) = 0
x(x – 14) – 18(x – 14) = 0 (4x + 6) (x + 2) = 0
(x – 18)(x – 14) = 0 X = -6/4, -2 = -1.5, -2
x = 18, 14 II) 3y2 + 18y + 27 = 0
y2 – 26y + 168 = 0 3y2 + 9y + 9y + 27 = 0
y2 – 14y – 12y + 168 = 0 3y (y + 3) + 9 (y + 3) = 0
y(y – 14) – 12(y – 14) = 0 (3y + 9) (y + 3) = 0
(y – 12)(y – 14) = 0 Y = -9/3, -3 = -3, -3
y = 12, 14 x>y
Page 54 of 78
English Language
Directions-(1-5): In the questions given below, there

is a sentence in which one part is given in bold. The 3. There is no plan to privatizing Indian Railways as
part given in bold may or may not be grammatically it belong to the people of the country, Railways
correct. Choose the best alternative among the four Minister Piyush Goyal said in Rajya Sabha on
given which can replace the part in bold to make Tuesday
the sentence grammatically correct. If the part given A. Was no plan to privatize Indian Railways as it
in bold is already correct choose option (E), i.e. “No belong to
replacement required” as your answer B. Is no plan to privatize Indian Railways as it
1. The Maharashtra government on Wednesday belongs to
appointed Hemant Nagrale as the new Mumbai C. Is no plan for privatize Indian Railways as it
police commissioner, shunting Param Bir Singh, belongings to
who has now been made the Director General of D. Is no planning to privatize Indian Railways as it
Home Guards. belongs with
A. Who had now been made the E. No correction required
B. Who has now been make the
C. Who would now been made the 4. Booming investments and expansion by the
D. Who has now becoming made the public sector have had a major role to play in the
E. No correction required development and growth apart from other factors
especially innovation and modernization in
2. All members of the spy team were kindly technologies.
requested to appear in the meeting before heading A. Has have a major role to
out for the secret mission. B. Have had a major role to
A. Were requested to appear C. Had have a major role to
B. Would requested for appear D. Has had a major role to
C. Are kindly requested for appearing E. No correction required
D. Are requesting to appear
E. No correction required
Page 55 of 78
5. S Jaishankar said in Rajya Sabha on Wednesday

that the supply of vaccines abroad is based on the A. Only(II)
assessment of adequate availability at home, which B. Only (I)
is continue monitored by taking in account the C. Only (III)
requirement of the domestic vaccination D. Both (I) and (III)
programme as it unfolds in different phases. E. All are correct
A. Which has been continuously monitoring by
taking into account 7.
B. Which is continuously monitored by take in (A) The Indian government confirmed to hold a
account high-committee meeting earlier this month.
C. Which is continuously monitored by taking into (B) Mr.Modi set a record for appearing in for the
account 12th consecutive time.
D. Which was continue monitored by taking into (i). With the Indian government’s confirmation…
account (ii). In an attempt to confirm a high-committee…
E. No correction required (iii). In spite of the fact that Mr. Modi…
Directions-(6-10): Select the phrase/connector A. Only (i)

(STARTERS) from the given three options which B. Only (ii)
can be used to form a single sentence from the two C. Both (ii) & (iii)
sentences given below, implying the same meaning D. All (i), (ii) & (iii)
as expressed in the statement sentences. E. None of these
6.
(A) Pardon is not easy to practice. 8.
(B) We cannot forget that it is the only track to a (A) The productive role of markets in distributing
healing and a happy soul. dearth resources and benefits between agents,
(i). While pardon is not easy………………. buyers and sellers in a specific society has been
(ii). Pardoning that it is the only…………. analyzed.
(iii). Even though pardon is not easy……….
Page 56 of 78
(B) The analysis involves the use of models to B. Only (i)

describe the relationship of any one aspect of the C. Both (ii) & (iii)
agent-buyer relationship, assuming other factors to D. All (i), (ii) &(iii)
be constant. E. None of these
(i). The productive role analysis of markets… 10.
(ii). The analysis of the productive role… A) The board members discussed alternatives to
(iii) Analyzing the productive role… conventional agriculture for meeting world food
requirements in the coming century.
A. Only (i) (B) Crops, mainly barley, rice, millets, wheat and
B. Only (ii) green crops, are, however, grown on clearings in
C. Both (i) &(ii) the forest, though the yield is below par.
D. Both (ii)& (iii) (i). While the board members……….
E. All are correct (ii). Whereas the board members………
(iii). However crops mainly barely…………
9. A. Only (ii)
(A) The Education minister charged institutions and B. Only (i)
faculty with the task of improving the quality of C. Both (ii) &(iii)
medical and science education while addressing D. All (i),(ii)&(iii)
the nation E. None of these
(B) He also deplored the fact that of the 10 lakh
medical graduates that India produced; quite a few Directions-(11-15): In the following questions, below
did not possess the right sets of skills and practices. one word is highlighted, and you are required to
(i). Addressing the nation………. check which sentence has incorrect use of the
(ii). The education minister deplored the fact……… highlighted word, and then mark that as your
(iii). Charging institutions and faculty……….. answer.
11. Summon
A. Only (ii)
Page 57 of 78
(i). The Bengal Police on Wednesday summoned (iv). Heartless thieves have stolen gifts and costly
three journalists for questioning for publishing false items meant for the discrepancy and vulnerability,
articles. delivered by Global Gift of the Givers (GOTG).
(ii). Summoning allegations that the release of the (v). All are correct
final voter list had been delayed, the election A. Only (i& iii)
commission released the polling %. B. Only (iii & ii)
(iii). Income Tax department officials from Mumbai C. Only (iv)
have summoned the auditors of several D. Only (ii)
entrepreneurs. E. All are correct
(iv). Radha has been summoned by the I-T
department to give clarification regarding her 13. Exalt
income for the previous year. (i). Her behavior has exalted the power and prestige
(v). All are correct. of her office.
A. Only (i) (ii). The brief essay exalts the divine beauty of the
B. Only (iii) country.
C. Only (ii) & (iv) (iii). Physicists exalt the beauty and elegance of
D. Only (ii) Newton’s law of gravitational attraction and of the
E. All are correct Schrödinger equation.
(iv). Radha was becoming exalted with all the
12. Discrepancy questions they were asking.
(i). Oxfam revealed some crisp facts about global (v). All are correct
wealth and gender discrepancy in a recent report. A. Only (i& iii)
(ii). Rules for developing and developed countries B. Only (iii & ii)
have high levels of discrepancy C. Only (ii)
(iii). Various reports on economic discrepancy D. Only (iv)
indicate the highly unequal distribution of wealth E. All are correct
among people in India.
14. Exasperated
Page 58 of 78
(i). The president was clearly exasperated by the (v). Outwardly calm, he masks his feelings behind a
whole saga. demeanor of indifference and spoken confidence.
(ii). He was becoming exasperated with the A. Only (i)
immature behavior of his daughter B. Only (iii & ii)
(iii). He's probably the most exasperating man I've C. Only (ii)
ever met. D. Only (iv)
(iv). It is so exasperating when he won't listen to a E. All are correct
word that I say.
(v). All are correct Directions-(16-20): Rearrange the following six
A. Only (i& iii) sentences A, B, C, D and E in the proper sequence
B. Only (iii & ii) after to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer
C. Only (ii) the questions given below them.
D. Only (iv) A.Nagpur-based, Nagrale has also served in the
E. All are correct city earlier as additional commissioner, joint
commissioner and, briefly in 2014, as Mumbai
15. Demeanor police commissioner as additional charge.
(i). Children demeanor two to three respiratory B.”Mumbai Police is in turmoil. However, we will
diseases a year, and one third suffer from non- regain the glory and pride of Mumbai Police. People
specific allergies. of Mumbai and Maharashtra will be proud of
(ii). There was certain cockiness in her demeanor, Mumbai Police once again,” Nagrale said.
as if she were quite aware that she was of a special C.Taking charge of Mumbai Police amid a crisis,
breed. new Commissioner of Police Hemant Nagrale has
(iii). Their demeanor grew more serious the said he will work to “restore the glory and pride” of
following night as we camped on a peninsula above the force.
the lake. D. While assuming the charge of the 50,000-strong
(iv). With his expensive clothes, elite education, and police force, whose image has been hit with the
distinguished demeanor, he was different from the arrest of former police officer Sachin Waze in the
rustic and plain Avon folk. Ambani security scare case.
Page 59 of 78
E. The 1987-batch IPS officer, who has been A. A

holding the charge of state Director General of B. B
Police since January, on Wednesday replaced C. C
Parambir Singh, who was transferred as DGP D. D
Home Guards after the Waze controversy. E. E
16. Which of the following should be the FIRST
sentence after rearrangement? 19. Which of the following should be the FORTH
A. A sentence after rearrangement?
B. B A. A
C. C B. B
D. D C. C
E. E D. D
E. E
17. Which of the following should be the SECOND
sentence after rearrangement? 20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH
A. A sentence after rearrangement?
B. B A. A
C. C B. B
D. D C. C
E. E D. D
E. E
18. Which of the following should be the THIRD
sentence after rearrangement?
Directions-(1-5): 2. Answer: A
1. Answer: E 3. Answer: B
Page 60 of 78
4. Answer: D technologies.
5. Answer: C
1. Answer: E Replace ‘have had major role to’ with ‘has had a
No correction is required as the given sentence is major role to’.
grammatically correct.
5. Answer: C
2. Answer: A S Jaishankar said in Rajya Sabha on Wednesday
All members of the spy team were requested to that the supply of vaccines abroad is based on the
appear in the meeting before heading out for the assessment of adequate availability at home, which
secret mission. is continuously monitored by taking into account the
In order to make the sentence correct, we will requirement of the domestic vaccination
remove ‘kindly’ because it makes the sentence programme as it unfolds in different phases.
‘superfluous’ and ‘requested’ is used in the passive Replace “which is continuously monitored by taking
form. in account“ with “which is continuously monitored by
No correction is required as the given sentence is taking into account”.
grammatically correct.
Directions-(6-10):
3. Answer: B 6. Answer: D
There is no plan to privatize Indian Railways as it Both the starters (I) and (III) can be used to frame
belongs to the people of the country, Railways meaningful sentences without changing the
Minister Piyush Goyal said in Rajya Sabha on meaning of the given sentences.
Tuesday
(I) While pardon is not easy to practice, we cannot
4. Answer: D forget that it is the only track to a healing and a
Booming investments and expansion by the public happy soul.
sector has had a major role to play in the (III) Even though pardon is not easy to practice, we
development and growth apart from other factors cannot forget that it is the only track to a healing
especially innovation and modernization in and a happy soul.
Page 61 of 78
9. Answer- D
7. Answer: A
Only the starter first can be used to frame the All the three starters can be used to frame a
meaningful sentence combining the above two meaningful sentence without changing the meaning
statements. of the given sentences.
(I) With the Indian government’s confirmation to (i) Addressing the nation, the education minister
hold a high-committee meeting earlier this month, charged institutions and faculty with the task of
Mr. Modi set a record for appearing in for the 12th improving the quality of medical and science
consecutive time education, deploring the fact that of the 10 lakh
medical graduates that India produced; quite a few
8. Answer: D did not possess the right sets of skills and practices.
Both the starters (ii) and (iii) can be used to frame a
meaningful sentence without changing the meaning (ii) The education minister deplored the fact that of
of the given sentences. the 10 lakh medical graduates that India produced,
(i) The analysis of the productive role of markets in quite a few did not possess the right sets of skills
distributing dearth resources and benefits between and practices and charged the institutions and
agents, buyers and sellers in a specific society faculty with the task of improving the quality of
involves the use of models to describe the medical and science education while addressing
relationship of any one aspect of the agent-buyer the nation.
relationship, assuming other factors to be constant.
(iii) Charging institutions and faculty with the task of
(ii) Analyzing the productive role of markets in improving the quality of medical and science
distributing dearth resources and benefits between education, the education minister, while addressing
agents, buyers and sellers in a specific society the nation, deplored the fact that of the 10 lakh
involves the use of models to describe the medical graduates that India produced, quite a few
relationship of any one aspect of the agent-buyer did not possess the right sets of skills and practices.
relationship, assuming other factors to be constant.
Page 62 of 78
10. Answer: E Option A is contextually incorrect

None of the above starters can be used to form a
contextually meaningful and grammatically correct Directions-(16-20):
sentence The passage given above discusses Hemant
Nagrale. Here, apart from, statement (C), none of
Directions-(11-15): the given statements is independent and will
11. Answer: D therefore be the first statement in the logical
Summon - order (someone) to be present. sequence which states about new joining of
Option D is contextually incorrect Hemant Nagrale as a Mumbai high commissioner.
Further, statement (C) will follow statement (E)
12. Answer: C which mentions the position and transfer of two
Discrepancy – a difference police officers. Statement (A) supports statement
Option C is contextually incorrect (E), where it states history Hemant Nagrale.
Further, statement (B) will be an appropriate
13. Answer: D statement to follow statement (A). Further,
Exalt means to make somebody rise to a higher statement (D) will conclude the given passage as it
rank. ends with the speech given by police after joining
Option D is contextually incorrect the new post.
Correct sequence of the passage is CEABD
14. Answer: E 16. Answer: C
Exasperate – to make somebody angry; to annoy 17. Answer: E
somebody very much. 18. Answer: A
19. Answer: B
15. Answer: A 20. Answer: D
Demeanor- the way a person behaves, dresses,
speaks, looks etc. that show what their character is
like
Page 63 of 78
General Awareness
1. Who among the following will head the 51st B) Madhya Pradesh
IFFI''s International Jury? C) Chhattisgarh
A) Quentin Tarantino D) Haryana
B) Smriti Irani E) Uttar Pradesh
C) Anupam Kher Answer: E
D) Shekar Kapur On January 6, 2021, Uttar Pradesh CM Yogi
E) Pablo Cesar Adityanath's government will launch an initiative
Answer: E named ‘Kisan Kalyan Mission’
The 51st edition of International Film Festival of This is mainly for double the income of farmers of
India (IFFI) will be held in Goa from January 16 to the state.
January 24, 2021. The 3-week long campaign for the welfare of
The Information and Broadcasting Ministry stated farmers will be organised in every development
that the Jury will comprise Pablo Cesar of Argentina block of all 75 districts.
as Chairman, Prasanna Vithanage of Sri Lanka, Under the mission to be launched by the Uttar
Abu Bakr Shawky of Austria, Priyadarshan of India Pradesh government, many departments of the
and Rubaiyat Hossain of Bangladesh. state government such as Horticulture, Mandi
IFFI takes place in Goa from November 20-28 Parishad, animal husbandry, sugarcane food and
every year, but has been postponed due to the supply, fisheries, and Panchayati Raj will be
Covid-19. working together.
It will help the farmers in getting benefit from the
2. The government of which state has launched the various schemes of the centre such as PM Kisan
'Kisan Kalyan Mission' to Double Farmers' Income? Samman Nidhi, Kisan Credit Cards, and PM Fasal
A) Bihar Bima Yojana.
Page 64 of 78
contribute to the growth of the state’s logistics
3. World Bank has signed a _____ million project to sector.
improve waterways in West Bengal. The project will cover the five most populous
A) 125 districts of southern West Bengal, including its
B) 120 urban agglomeration the Kolkata Metropolitan Area
C) 115 (KMA) where around 30 million people or one-third
D) 105 of West Bengal’s population live.
E) 110
Answer: D 4. Who among the following has been elected as
The Government of India and the Government of chairman of GJC?
West Bengal and the World Bank signed a $105 A) Praksh Tiwari
million project to improve the inland water transport B) Surender Singh
infrastructure in Kolkata, West Bengal. C) Anand Raj
The $105 million loan from the International Bank D) Sanjay Mehra
for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), has a E) Ashish Pethe
maturity of 17 years, including a grace period of 7 Answer: E
years. The All India Gem and Jewellery Domestic Council

The West Bengal Inland Water Transport, Logistics (GJC), the national apex body of the gems and
and Spatial Development Project will facilitate jewellery industry, has announced the appointment
passenger and freight movement across the of Ashish Pethe as chairman and Saiyam Mehra as
Hooghly river; undertake spatial planning to vice chairman for a period of two years.
improve accessibility in the Kolkata Metropolitan The entire e-Voting election process was conducted
Area; enhance the quality of life of its residents; and by an authorised independent person (Chief
Page 65 of 78
Election Authority), and the voting platform was Raja in a close contest. Kapoor received 33 votes
created by a digital agency, both appointed by GJC. as against 31 of Raja.
The voting process was for 5 days starting from Chauhan beat Ravindra Dongre 35-29.
23rd to 27th December, 2020. The results were Naresh Sharma, belonging to the Chauhan faction,
declared on 29thDecember, 2020. was elected as treasurer, beating Kishore Bandekar
GJC represents over 6,00,000 players comprising 34-30.
manufacturers, wholesalers, retailers, distributors, Apart from the president, secretary and treasurer,
laboratories, gemologists, designers, and allied six vice-presidents and six joint secretaries were
services to the domestic gems and jewellery also elected.
industry.
6. The Chief Minister of which state has launched
5. Who among the following has been elected All the Krishi Sanjeevani vans to test soil, water &
India Chess Federation president? suggest remedies for pest control?
A) Kishore Bandekar A) Chhattisgarh
B) Naresh Sharma B) Maharashtra
C) Sanjay Kapoor C) Karnataka
D) Bharat Chauhan D) Kerala

E) Ravindra Kumar E) Bihar
Answer: C Answer: C
Sanjay Kapoor was elected president of the All On January 07, 2021, Karnataka Chief Minister B.S.
India Chess Federation (AICF) while Bharat Singh Yediyurappa launched Krishi Sanjeevani vans in
Chauhan retained the secretary's post . Bengaluru.
Kapoor, representing Uttar Pradesh Chess This is Mainly for to help farmers in their own
Association, defeated incumbent PR Venketrama backyards.
Page 66 of 78
As part of this scheme, 40 mobile agro clinics were A) 4
rolled from outside the Vidhana Soudha. B) 2.5
The main objective of this project is to reduce the C) 2
cost of production. D) 3.5
In addition to that to provide farmers with accurate E) 3
information on improved agriculture production Answer: E
technologies, supply of quality agricultural tools and Central govt. has said that over three crore new
adequate use of recommended fertilisers, pest and connections have been provided under Jal Jeevan
disease management, and nutrients available in the Mission.
soil. On reviewing a Flagship programme of jal jeevan
This initiative is part of the National Agricultural mission, Minister of State for Jal Shakti, Rattanlal
Development Scheme 2020-21. These labs will also Kataria informed that since Independence till
help the government conduct surveys at all stages August 2019, a total of 3.23 Crore rural households
of crop production and inform the farmers about the out of 18.93 crore rural households had tap water
possible pest attacks, disease and weed connections.
management practices. Jal Jeevan mission has set an ambitious yet
The state government has rolled out 40 labs, each achievable target of giving piped water connections
lab for 31 districts, while some big districts like to each and every rural household with an approach
Mysuru, Bengaluru Rural and Shivamogga will get ensuring - ‘No one is left out’.
two labs. Mr Kataria informed that Goa is the first State to
provide 100 per cent piped connection.
7. The Central government has mentioned that over He said, so far 27 Districts, 458 blocks, 33,516
______ crore new connections have been provided Gram Panchayats, 66,210 villages have been
under Jal Jeevan Mission. declared to have achieved ‘Har Ghar Jal’.
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Recently, Kurukshetra became the 27th District in The panels are: Counter-Terrorism Committee (for
India and 3rd in Haryana to have achieved this 2022), Taliban Sanctions Committee, and Libya
target. Sanctions committee.
Telangana, Gujarat, Haryana, and Puducherry are India will chair the Counter-Terrorism Committee of
close to achieving 100 per cent coverage. UNSC in 2022.
He credited the success primarily to the people of Mr Tirumurti said, chairing of this committee has a
these villages, Gram Panchayats, Paani Samitis, special resonance for India which has not only been
public health authorities and other stakeholders, at the forefront of fighting terrorism especially cross
Uttarakhand, Manipur, Mizoram, UT of Andaman border terrorism but has also been one of its
and Nicobar. biggest victims.
He said, Taliban Sanctions Committee has always
8. Who among the following will chair three-key been a high priority for India keeping in minds its
subsidiary committees of UNSC? strong interest and commitment to peace, security,
A) Israel development, and progress of Afghanistan.
B) Bangladesh Mr Tirumurti said, India will be assuming the chair
C) China of the Libya Sanctions Committee at a critical
D) India juncture when there is an international focus on

E) Uzbekistan Libya and on the peace process.
Answer: D
Permanent Representative of India at the United 9. Sagarmala Seaplane Project Services have
Nations Security Council, TS Tirumurti announced, commenced in various islands. Which of the
India will be chairing three-key subsidiary bodies of following is not among the proposed destinations?
the United Nations Security Council (UNSC). A) Yamuna Riverfront
B) Guwahati Riverfront
Page 68 of 78
C) Lakshadweep One such Seaplane Service is already in operation
D) Andaman & Nicobar between Kevadia and Sabarmati Riverfront in
E) Brahmaputra Riverfront Ahmedabad, which was inaugurated by Prime
Answer: E Minister Narendra Modi on October 31, 2020.
The Union Ports, Shipping and Waterways has
recently started the operations of the seaplane 10. Who among the following has been ranked as
services, on several routes. the world's wealthiest person?
It is being implemented under a Special Purpose A) Carlos Slim
Vehicle (SPV) framework through prospective B) Steve Balmer
airline operators. C) Jeff Bezos
The implementation and execution of the D) Elon Musk
"Sagarmala Seaplane Services (SSPS)" would be E) Bill Gates
through the SPV with the Sagarmala Development Answer: D
Company Ltd, SDCL, under the control of the US media reported that Tesla CEO Elon Musk now
Ministry of Shipping. world's wealthiest person.
The proposed Origin-Destination pairs under Hub Elon Musk, the outspoken and envelope-pushing
and Spoke model include various islands of chief executive of Tesla, overtook Amazon boss
Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep, the Jeff Bezos to become the world's wealthiest person,
Guwahati Riverfront & Umranso Reservoir in US media reported.
Assam, Yamuna Riverfront/Delhi (as Hub) to Musk is a major shareholder of the electric car
Ayodhaya, Tehri, Srinagar (Uttrakhand), company and has benefited from Tesla's surging
Chandigarh and many other tourist places of share price over the last year.
Punjab and Himachal Pradesh. CNBC estimated Musk's wealth at $185 billion.
Page 69 of 78
11. Rastriya Kamdhenu Aayog has announced the It was set up by the Centre in February 2019, and is
Kamdhenu Gau-Vigyan Prachar-Prasar Exam. The aimed at “conservation, protection and development
exam will be held in _____ languages. of cows and their progeny”.
A) 15
B) 11 12. Who among the following has unveiled the
C) 12 Mobile Application 'Satark Nagrik' and
D) 13 Departmental Vigilance Officers Portal?
E) 14 A) Venkiah Naidu
Answer: C B) Narendra Modi
Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog (RKA), the government C) Manoj Sinha
body set up for cow welfare has announced that it D) Anurag Thakur
will hold a countrywide online examination on ‘gau E) Prahlad Patel
vigyan’ (cow science) on February 25. Answer: C
There will be no fee for the examination. In Jammu and Kashmir, LG, Manoj Sinha launched
The exam will be held in 12 regional languages Mobile Application ‘Satark Nagrik’ and
apart from Hindi and English. Departmental Vigilance Officers Portal of J&K Anti
The duration will be one hour and there will be 4 Corruption Bureau at Civil Secretariat, Jammu.
categories : Speaking on the occasion, the LG observed that UT
Primary level up to 8th standard, Government is taking comprehensive measures for
Secondary level from class 9th to class 12th, ensuring transparent, accountable and responsive
College level after 12th+ governance.
For the general public. The mobile application has been developed with a
RKA comes under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal purpose to facilitate seamless flow of information
Husbandry and Dairying.
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about corruption and enable citizens to submit their Telangana has become the 3rd State in the country
grievances with ease and mobility. to successfully undertake Urban Local Bodies, ULB
The LG remarked that the most effective antidote to reform stipulated by the Department of Expenditure,
corruption is an active, involved, and empowered Ministry of Finance.
citizenry. The State has become eligible to mobilize
The Departmental Vigilance Officers (DVO) Portal additional financial resources of Rs 2,508 crore
has been designed to enable an online through Open Market Borrowings.
communication channel with the DVOs of various Permission for the same was issued by the
departments and the portal will help in quick Department of Expenditure.
disposal of complaints and will help to redress Telangana has now joined the two other States
grievances in a systematic manner by enabling Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh, who have
monitoring of the status of DVO matters and completed this reform.
Citizens Grievances assigned to DVOs at ACB On completion of urban local bodies reform, these
Central Office. three States have been granted additional
borrowing permission of Rs 7,406 crore.
13. Which state has become the 3rd State to
complete ULB reform? 14. J&K LG has declared _______ crores mega
A) Haryana Industrial Development Package.
B) Telangana A) 21,400
C) Bihar B) 22,400
D) Madhya Pradesh C) 28,400
E) Uttar Pradesh D) 25,400
Answer: B E) 23,400
Answer: C
Page 71 of 78
In the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, Answer: C
Lieutenant Governor Manoj Sinha announced the Punjab National Bank (PNB), the country’s second
Government of India's approval for a mega largest public sector bank, has announced an
Industrial Development Package worth Rs.28,400 alliance with the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT),
crore. Kanpur and FIRST (Foundation for Innovation &
While addressing a press conference in Jammu, the Research in Science & Technology), to jointly
LG Sinha said that the Union Cabinet sanctioned establish the Punjab National Bank - IIT Kanpur
the huge Industrial Development Package-2021 for Innovation Centre at the IIT campus.
J&K’s industrial sector that has been craving for the An MoU for this purpose was signed at the PNB
strong support from the Centre. Headquarters, Dwarka, New Delhi, in the presence
The LG said that the package aims at providing a of CH S S Mallikarjuna Rao, MD & CEO of PNB
huge boost to the existing industrial sector, setting and top officials from the Bank, IIT Kanpur &
up new units, creating 4.5 lakh jobs and at least FIRST.
investments of Rs.20,000 crore. Under this partnership, PNB and IIT-Kanpur will set
The package will remain in force for 17 years i.e. till up a “Fintech Innovation Centre (FIC)” as a vehicle
2037. to research and develop technological solutions to
explore opportunities in the BFSI space.

15. Which bank has collaborated with IIT Kanpur to
set up Fintech Innovation Centre? 16. Who among the following has been appointed
A) Axis as the CMD of MTNL?
B) HDFC A) Dinesh Singh
C) PNB B) Anand Mishra
D) SBI C) PK Purwar
E) ICICI D) Nita Singha
Page 72 of 78
E) Ramesh Gupta C) Shailla Cannie
Answer: C D) Shruti Mishra
The Board of Directors of state-run Mahanagar E) Anand Ramani
Telephone Nigam Ltd (MTNL) has re-appointed PK Answer: C
Purwar as Chairman & Managing Director (CMD) of In Jammu and Kashmir, Dr Shailla Cannie,
the telecom PSU. Principal, Shri Mata Vaishno Devi College of
Purwar is currently CMD of Bharat Sanchar Nigam Nursing, has been selected for the prestigious
Ltd (BSNL). National Florence Nightingale Award 2020, to be
He assumed additional charge as CMD of MTNL in conferred by President of India.
April 2020. Lt Governor Manoj Sinha has congratulated Dr.
MTNL was merged with BSNL and turned into a Shailla for being selected for the prestigious award.
wholly-owned subsidiary of the company as part of Pertinently, the National Florence Nightingale
the revival plan announced by the government for Award is given to outstanding nursing personnel
BSNL. employed in Central, State/UTs, Private, Missionary
This is the fourth time Purwar has been given and Voluntary Organizations.
charge of the post of MTNL's CMD in the last six It is the highest national distinction awarded to
years. nurses or nursing aides, which consists of a cash

The decision was taken in the board meeting held amount of Rs 50,000, a certificate and a medal.
on December 31, 2020.
18. Who among the following has authored A book
17. Who has been selected for the National on India’s tours Down Under?
Florence Nightingale Award 2020? A) Rakesh Gupta
A) Vasu Vashisht B) Manoj Mehta
B) Shivani Chauhan C) R. Kaushik
Page 73 of 78
D) Satish Mishra Information and Broadcasting Minister Prakash
E) Anand Raj Javadekar launched the Government's Digital
Answer: C Calendar and Diary App in New Delhi.
On Jan 07, 2021, a book titled ‘India’s 71-Year Mr Javadekar said, paperless governance has
Test: The Journey to Triumph in Australia’ and one come to offices and files are now moving as e-files.
which reflects on India’s previous 12 tours Down The digital calendar inaugurated and available in
Under, was launched. Hindi and English, but it will be available in 11
The book, a Bradman Museum initiative, is languages from 15th January 2021.
authored by senior cricket scribe R. Kaushik, and it He said, the calendar has a theme for every month
chronicles a rivalry that has given a fillip to Test and it will also have all information of 100
cricket. revolutionary programmes of the government.
Introducing the tome from the Sydney Cricket The GOI Calendar and the Diary App is available
Ground, India’s coach and former all-rounder Ravi for download on both Google Play store and iOS
Shastri said that the next two Tests of the current App Store.
series will be fiercely competitive. The app has been designed and developed by the
Bureau of Outreach and Communication, Ministry of
19. I&B Minister has launched which of the Information and Broadcasting.
following app in New Delhi recently? The app will do away with the need for a new
A) Digital Office App calendar every year.
B) Digital Diary App
C) Digital Broadcast App 20. Centre has merged the cadre of officers from
D) Diary App which state/UT with AGMUT?
E) Digital Calendar App A) Kerala
Answer: D B) J&K
Page 74 of 78
C) Ladakh 21. Which country has successfully test Fired an
D) Puducherry Indigenously Developed Rocket System : Fatah-1?
E) Andaman & Nicobar A) Iraq
Answer: B B) Iran
In the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, the C) Oman
Central govt. has merged J&K cadre for all India D) Pakistan
Services - IAS, IPS and IFS officers with that of E) China
Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, Mizoram and Union Answer: D
Territory (AGMUT), also called the Union Territory The Pakistan Army successfully conducted the test
cadre, through an ordinance. flight of an indigenously developed Guided Multi
It says officers “so borne or allocated” on AGMUT Launch Rocket System, Fatah-1.
cadre shall function in accordance with rules framed The Fatah-1 weapon system can hit targets up to a
by the Centre. range of 140 km.
Sub-Section (2) of Section 88 of the Act stated that The Weapon System will give Pakistan Army
members of IAS, IPS and IFS cadres “for the capability of precision target engagement deep in
existing State of Jammu and Kashmir, on and from enemy territory.
the appointed day, shall continue to function on the

existing cadres.” 22. Which company has announced that it will offer
The ordinance has also made an addition in Section free Internationalized Domain Name?
13, inserting the words “or any other article A) HostGator
containing reference to elected members of the B) Black Rock
Legislative Assembly of the State” after “in Article C) NIXI
239A”. D) Whois
E) GoDaddy
Page 75 of 78
Answer: C Answer: B
The National Internet Exchange of India, NIXI has Indian-American Dr Raj Iyer has taken over as the
announced that it will offer a free Internationalized first Chief Information Officer of the US Army, after
Domain Name, IDN in any of the preferred 22 the Pentagon created the position in July 2020.
official Indian language along with every IN domain Currently Iyer serves as the principal advisor to the
booked by the registrant. Secretary of the Army.
Applicant will also get a free email in local Iyer will direct the execution of policies and
language. programmes to modernise the US Army to achieve
This offer has been created to stimulate the digital overmatch against near peer adversaries
adoption of IDN domain name and proliferation of such as China and Russia.
local language content. Iyer will supervise an annual budget of USD 16
This offer is valid for new .in users who register up billion for the US Army's IT operations and over
to 31st of January. 15,000 civilians and military personnel in over 100
This offer is also extended to those existing in users countries.
who renew their domain in the month of January
2021. 24. Who among the following has been appointed
as DG of CISF?
23. Which Indian-American has become the US A) Anand Mittal
Army's first Chief Information Officer? B) Subodh Jaiswal
A) Ankit Dhingra C) Anshul Mehta
B) Raj Iyer D) Deepak Kataria
C) Mukesh Raina E) Rajana Desai
D) Anant Singh Answer: B
E) Sushil Patel
Page 76 of 78
Former DGP of Maharashtra Subodh Kumar C) N Sriniwasan
Jaiswal has taken over the charge as the new D) JC Daniel
Director General (DG) of the Central Industrial E) R Giridharan
Security Force (CISF). Answer: E
Jaiswal is set to retire from service in September, A general manager at RBI, R Giridharan has
2022. authored his debut book ”Right Under our Nose.
He is the 28th Director General of CISF. In "Right Under Your Nose", a murderer eliminates
Maharashtra DGP Hemant Nagrale (left) takes scientists right under the nose of the police and
charge from outgoing DGP Subodh Jaiswal. leaves forensics baffled. In response, the chief
minister calls upon Vijay, who is given an
25. Who among the following has penned the ‘Right impossible deadline to solve the case before
Under our Nose’? Parliament resumes in a week.
A) Gopi Thakkar The book has been published by Rupa
B) Neeraj Mittal Publications.
Page 77 of 78
Page 78 of 78
Page 1 of 75
Reasoning Ability
Direction (1-5): Study the following information a) The one who stands to the immediate right of H
carefully and answer the questions given below. b) The one who stands second to the left of G
Eight persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are c) The one who stands third from the right end
standing in a straight line such that all of them are d) The one who stands sixth from the left end
facing towards the south, but not necessarily in the e) None of these
same order. Each person has different token
numbers which are in the multiples of 6 between 70 2) Who among the following person stands second
and 115. to the right of E?
H stands third from one of the ends and is two a) The one with the token number 78
persons away from the one with the highest token b) C
number. Only two persons stand between the one c) The one with the token number 108
with the highest token number and F, who doesn’t d) D
stand at the ends. The number of persons to the left e) None of these
of F is one more than the number of persons to the
right of the one with the least token number. C 3) How many persons stand between G and the
stands to the immediate left of the one with the one with the token number 90?
least token number and is four persons away from a) One
B, who stands adjacent to the one with the token b) Two
number 90. Only three persons stand between the c) Three
one with the token number 90 and A, who stands to d) More than three
the immediate left of the one with the token number e) None
84. D who has the token number 102 stands to the
immediate right of G. C has a lower token number 4) Four of the following five are alike in a certain
than H but higher than F who doesn’t have the least way and hence form a group. Find the one that
token number. doesn’t belong to that group.
1) Who among the following person has token a) F – 114
number 96? b) D – 96
Page 2 of 75
c) H – 72 between the weight of P and R, where P’s weight is

d) A – 108 more than R and less than M. Difference between
e) C – 90 the weight of Q and O is 20, where Q’s weight is
more than O’s weight. One of the person's weight is
5) If A is related to 102 and E is related to 78 in a 63 kg, who is neither adjacent to M nor sits at the
certain way, then H is related to which of the extreme left end.
following?
a) 72 6) What is the difference between the weights of
b) 114 the persons who are sitting at extreme ends?
c) 84 A.3Kg
d) 96 B.23kg
e) None of these C.13kg
D.17kg
Direction (6-10): Study the following information E.20kg
Six persons are sitting in a linear row and all having 7) Who sits immediate left of R?
different weights and they are facing the north I). The one whose weight is 20kg more than N
direction. II). The one who sits third to the right of Q
M sits third to the left of N, whose weight is the III). The one who sits second to the left of N
lowest and one of them is at extreme ends. R sits A. Both I and III
adjacent to N. The One whose weight is 65 kg is B. Both II and III
immediate left of R. Q and O are adjacent to each C. Both I and II
other. P and Q are not at any extreme ends. The D. All I, II and III
sum of the weight of P and N is 110kg. The E. None of these
difference between the weight of M and R is
1.5times the difference between the weight of P and 8) Which of the following statement is true?
N. Weight of M is more than R. Difference between A.M sits immediate right of Q
the weight of P and M is equal to the difference B.Q’s weight is the second highest.
Page 3 of 75
C.M sits second to the left of R Heena sits third to the left of Kajal and neither of
D.O’s weight is 2kg more than P’s weight them sits at the end of the row. Ganga has twice
E. None is true. the number of shoes of Jeevi. The difference
between the number of shoes of Jeevi and Kajal is
9) Which of the following is the odd one out? equal to Janu. Jeevi neither has 12 shoes nor 14
A.N, 83 shoes. Janu neither sits adjacent to Heena nor
B.R, 45 Kajal. Leena has ten shoes and sits second to the
C.M, 65 right of Heena. The number of shoes with Heena is
D.N, 63 one less than one-third of the number of shoes with
E.P, 50 Ganga. Krish sits second to the left of the one who
has 12 shoes. Ganga sits at the end of the row and
10) What is the position of N? has a maximum number of shoes which is divisible
I). Second to the right of P by three. The one who has 14 shoes does not sit
II). Second to the left of Q fourth from either the left end or right end.
III). Second to the left of the one whose weight is
83kg. 11) Who among the following person sits exactly
A. Only I between Krish and the one who has a minimum
B. Both I and II number of shoes?
C. Both II and III A. Heena
D. Only II B. The one who sits second to the right of Ganga
E. All I, II and III C. Leena
D. The one who has 12 shoes
Direction (11-15): Study the following information E. No one
Seven persons are sitting in a linear row facing the 12) Who among the following person sits to the
north direction and have different number of shoes. right of Leena?
The one who has the maximum number of shoes I) Jeevi
have less than twenty shoes. II) Janu
Page 4 of 75
III) Heena D.40

A. Both (I) and (II) E.36
B. Only (I) Direction (16-20): Study the following information
C. Both(I) and (III) carefully and answer the given questions:
D. Only (II) Eight persons i.e. Tarun, Karan, Boni, Aditya, Avi,
E. All (I), (II), and (III) Sam, Farhan and Amir are sitting in a linear row.
Some of them are facing north and some are facing
13) How many persons are sitting between Ganga South. Each of them has a different profession i.e.
and the one who sits third to the right of Heena? C.A., Engineer, Doctor, Teacher, PO, Clerk, Pilot
A. Three and Singer but not necessarily in the same order.
B. Four The number of persons facing the north direction is
C. Two equal to the number of persons facing the south
D. One direction. Aditya sits second to the left of both Amir
E. None and Boni. Neither Amir nor Boni sits at the end of
the row. Not more than three persons are sitting to
14) How many shoes does Jeevi and Heena have the right of the Singer who faces south and Singer
respectively? does not sit at the end of the row. Boni is not a
A.3, 9 Singer. Aditya is not an Engineer. Two persons sit
B.5, 10 between Engineer and Singer. Farhan who is a
C.9, 5 Doctor sits third to the left of Tarun who is a
D.5, 9 Teacher and both are facing in the north direction.
E.10, 5 The person who is Pilot and the person who is C.A.
are sitting to the immediate right of each other. C.A.
15) What is the sum of the shoes with Ganga, is not an immediate neighbour of a singer. Sam sits
Kajal, and Krish? three places away from the Clerk. Sam is not CA.
A.48 Karan sits next to the clerk but doesn’t sit adjacent
B.46 to Boni.
C.44
Page 5 of 75
16) Amir sits _____ to the left of Farhan and his B. Boni sits exactly between Aditya and the person
profession is_____ who is C.A.
A. Third, Clerk C. Clerk and Singer sit adjacent to each other.
B. Second, Doctor D. Both A and B
C. Third, Pilot E. None of these
D. Second, Clerk
E. None of the Above 20) What is the profession of the person who sits
fourth from the left of the one who is a clerk?
17) Which among the following person sit to the A.PO
immediate left of Aditya? B. Singer
A. The person who is a doctor C. Teacher
B. The Person who is a Pilot D. Engineer
C. Farhan E. None of These
D. Both A and C
E. Both A and B Direction (21-25): Answer the questions based on
the information given below
18) Who among the following sits to the immediate Nine persons are sitting in a row. Some of them are
right of Karan? facing towards the north direction while some of
A. Amir them are facing the south direction. They belong to
B. Person who is a Teacher different cities viz. Chennai, Delhi, Hyderabad,
C. Avi Mumbai, Kolkata, Lucknow, Bangalore, Pune and
D. Person who is an Engineer Bhopal but not necessarily in the same order.
E. None of these Note: Person facing the same direction means if
one faces north then the other person
19) Which among the following statement is/are not also facing north and vice versa.
true? G who is from Hyderabad sits second from one of
A. Aditya and Amir faces the same direction the ends. The person who is from Pune sits sixth to
the left of G. Two people sit between the person
Page 6 of 75
who is from Pune and J who is from Lucknow. G D.K

and J faces the same direction. Persons sitting at E. None of these
both ends face North direction. D sits fourth to the
right of J. A who is from Kolkata sits second to the 23) How many persons sit between the persons
right of D. F who is from Bangalore is an immediate from Chennai and Bhopal?
neighbour of the one who is from Pune. F neither A.3
sits at an end nor adjacent to M. E sits third to the B.4
left of F. M is not from Pune. A and E face the same C.5
direction as F faces. B and K face the same D. More than 5
direction as J faces. B who is from Mumbai sits E. None of these
between G and M. As many people sitting to the
right of the person who is from Chennai as to the 24) Who among the following person is from Delhi?
left of the person who is from Bhopal. The one who A.K
is from Bhopal is not an immediate neighbour of the B.M
one who sits second to the left of E. C.E
21) How many people are facing the south D.D
direction? E. None of these
A.2
B.3 25) Which of the following statement is true as per
C.4 the given information?
D.5 A. The person who is from Delhi sits at one of the
E. None of these ends
B. The person who is from Chennai faces south
22) Who among the following person sits second to direction
the right of the person who is from Mumbai? C.K sits fourth to the right of E
A.A D. The one who is from Kolkata is an immediate
B.J neighbour of the person who is from Chennai.
C.E E. None of the above statement is true
Page 7 of 75
27) How many persons stand between L and the

Direction (26-30): Study the following information one who is from the 9th standard?
carefully and answer the below questions: A. One
Seven persons viz. J, K, L, M, N, O and P from B. Two
different standards from 6th to 12th are standing in a C. Three
straight line such that all of them are facing towards D. More than three
north, but not necessarily in the same order. E. None
At least three persons stand to the right of the one
who is from 8th. Only two persons stand between 28) P is from which of the following standards?
the one who is from 8th and P who stands to the A.11th
immediate right of N. The number of persons to the B.7th
right of P is the same as the number of persons to C.9th
the left of M, who is from 12th. The one who stands D.8th
fourth to the right of M is immediately junior to M. E. None of these
The one who is from 7th stands second to the left of
the one who is from 11th. K is from 6th but doesn’t 29) If all the persons stand in increasing order of
stand adjacent to P. More than four persons stand their standards from left to right, then who among
between K and O. J is neither from 8th nor 9th. the following person stands third from the right
Neither the one who is from 9th nor the one who is end?
from 10th stand at any of the ends. A.P
26) Who among the following person is from the B.N
10th standard? C.M
A.N D.J
B.O E. None of these
C.J
D.L 30) Four of the following five are alike in a certain
E. None of these way and hence form a group. Find the one who
Page 8 of 75
A.L 31) What is the total number of pens that R5 and

B.J R2 have?
C.K A.41
D.M B.39
E.O C.37
D.33
Direction (31-35): Study the following information E.31
Six persons are sitting in a row and an equal 32) Which of the following pair is the odd one out?
number of persons are facing north and south and A.R1 R3 R6
they have different number of pens- 15, 16, 18, 19, B.R5 R4 R6
20, and 21 C.R1 R2 R6
R6 is sitting at one of the extreme ends. Persons D.R1 R3 R5
sitting at extreme ends face the opposite direction E.R4 R2 R6
and no person sits to the left of R6. The one who is
second to the right of R4 is facing north and having 33) What is the position of R5 with respect to R2?
20 pens, but it is not R6. Adjacent neighbours of R2 A. Immediate left
are facing south direction. Two persons are sitting B. Immediate right
between R6 and R2. The difference between the C. Second to the left
number of pens with R6 and R5 is 4, which is equal D. Second to the right
to the difference between the number of pens with E. Third to the left
R2 and R4. R6 has lesser pens than R5. R3 and R1
are facing in opposite direction and R1 is not 34) What is the sum of pens that R4 and R6 have?
adjacent to R6 and R5. R1 does not have an even A.38
number of pens. The one who is immediate right of B.37
R2 is not having 21 pens. R1 does not sit adjacent C.31
to R3. D.27
E.36
Page 9 of 75
B.2
35) Which of the following statements is/are true? C.3
I). Only one person is sitting between R1 and R5 D.4
II). R2 is facing south E. None
III). R4 is sitting at the extreme end of the row.
A. Both I and II 38) If the vowels of all the words are changed to its
B. Only I next letter and the consonant of all the words are
C. Only III changed to its previous letter as per the English
D. Only II alphabetical series, then how many words will have
E. Both I and III at least one vowel?
A. None
Direction (36-40): Study the following information B.1
carefully and answer the below questions. C.2
MET FAT TAP CUB PAY D.3
36) If all the letters in each of the words are E.4
arranged in alphabetical order (within the word),
then how many letters of the words will remain 39) If all the letters in each word are arranged in
unchanged in their position? reverse alphabetical order from left to right then
A.3 arrange all the words in alphabetical order from left
B.4 to right, which of the following word is second from
C.1 the left end after the rearrangement?
D.2 A.MET
E. None B.FAT
C.TAP
37) If the position of the first and the last letters of D.CUB
all the words are interchanged then how many E.PAY
words will form a meaningful English word?
A.1
Page 10 of 75
40) If all the letters from the words are arranged third word from the left end and the first letter of the
alphabetically from left to right in a continuous second word from the left end?
manner then which letter is third to the left of the A. One
second letter from the right end? B. Two
A. T C. Three
B. C D. Four
C. B E. Zero
D. F
E. Y 43) If all the words are written together (left to right)
without any spaces, thus formed series of letters
Direction (41-45): There are five 3-letter words as then the letters are arranged in alphabetical order
given below. Answer the following questions based from left to right then, how many letters remain in
on these words. the same position after rearrangement?
CAT RAT DAT MAT PET A. Five
41) If the letters of the word are arranged in B. Six
alphabetical order (within the word) from left to right C. Seven
and words thus formed are arranged as they D. Three
appear in the English dictionary from the left end E. Four
then, which of the following word will be placed third
in the dictionary from the left end? 44) If we add E at the end of each word then find
A.CAT how many words are become meaningful?
B.RAT A. Three
C.DAT B. Four
D.MAT C. Two
E.PET D. One
E. None
42) How many letters are there (according to
alphabetical series) between the third letter of the
Page 11 of 75
45) If we change all the letters within the word with D.CAKE
their succeeding letters then, how many total E.PICK
consonants are there in the given words series?
A. Eight 48) If the vowels in the words are changed to the
B. Eleven next letter and consonants are changed to the
C. Nine previous letter as per alphabetical order then how
D. Ten many words have more than one vowel?
E. Seven A.four
B.two
Direction (46-50): Study the following information C.three
carefully and answer the questions given below it. D.One
GROW PICK DIAL CAKE GATE E.None
46) If all the letters in each of the words are
arranged in alphabetical order (within the word) 49) If the third alphabet in the given words is
then how many meaningful words can be made? changed to the previous alphabet in the English
A.one alphabetical order, then how many words having no
B.two vowels will be formed?
C.three A.one
D.four B.two
E.none C.three
D.four
47) If the given words are arranged in the order as E.None of these
they would appear in the English dictionary from
right to left, then which of the following is the fourth 50) How many letters are there in the English
word from the left end? alphabetical series between the third letter of the
A.GROW word which is fourth from the left end and the third
B.DIAL letter of the word which is fourth from the right end
C.GATE of the given words?
Page 12 of 75
A.one 53) If all the vowels are dropped then which of the
B.two following is the third to the right of the fourteenth
C.three letter from the left end of the above arrangement?
D.four A.P
E.none of these B.J
Direction (51-55): Study the following alphabet C.D
series carefully and answer the below questions. D.V
ZVFCBEKINQTAXSGRHVJDPMUY E.M
OL
51) How many such vowels are there in the above 54) How many letters are there between the letters
arrangement each of which is immediately which are tenth from the left end and fourteenth
preceded by a consonant and immediately followed from the right end according to alphabetical wise?
by a consonant? A.6
A.Two B.2
B.Five C.22
C.Three D.3
D.One E.26
E.Four
55) How many such consonants are there in the
52) Which of the following is the eighth to the left of above arrangement each of which is immediately
the seventeenth from the left end of the above preceded by a vowel and immediately followed by a
arrangement? consonant?
A.N A.Three
B.I B.One
C.Q C.Four
D.T D.Two
E.K E.More than four
Page 13 of 75

Direction (1-5): 2. The number of persons to the left of F is one
more than the number of persons to the right of
the one with the least token number. C stands
to the immediate left of the one with the least
The possible numbers which are multiples of 6
token number and is four persons away from B,
between 70 and 115 are – 72, 78, 84, 90, 96, 102,
who stands adjacent to the one with the token
108 and 114.
number 90. Hence, cases 1 and 3 get
1. H stands third from one of the ends and is two
eliminated.
persons away from the one with the highest
token number. Only two persons stand between
the one with the highest token number and F,
who doesn’t stand at the ends.
3. Only three persons stand between the one with

the token number 90 and A, who stands to the
immediate left of the one with the token number
Page 14 of 75
84. D who has the token number 102 stands to We have,

the immediate right of G. • M sits third to the left of N, whose weight is
lowest and one of them is at extreme ends.
• R sits adjacent to N.
• One whose weight is 65 kg is immediate left
of R.
4. C has lower token number than H but higher

than F who doesn’t have the least token
number. Hence, case 4 gets eliminated.
Again we have,
1) Answer: B • Q and O are adjacent to each other.
2) Answer: A • P and Q are not at any extreme ends.
3) Answer: D • The sum of the weight of P and N is 110kg.
4) Answer: C
5) Answer: D
Direction (6-10):
Page 15 of 75
So, by this, we can conclude that M’s weight is

80kg and R’s weight is 50kg.
Again, we have
• The difference between the weight of Q and
O is 20, where Q’s weight is more than O’s
weight.
• One of the person's weight is 63 kg, who is
neither adjacent to M nor sit at the extreme
left end.
Case I(b) gets eliminated because Q and O are

adjacent to each other and no space left for P.
P’s weight is 65 kg.
So, N’s weight is 110-65=45kg, because N’s weight
is the lowest.
Again we have,
• The difference between the weight of M and
R is 1.5 times the difference between the
weight of P and N. Weight of M is more than
R. Case-I (a) (ii) gets eliminated because N has the
P-N =65-45=20kg; So, M-R= lowest weight.
1.5*20=30kg Case-II gets eliminated because the one whose
• The difference between the weight of P and weight is 63kg cannot sit at the extreme left end nor
M is equal to the difference between the adjacent to M.
weight of P and R, where P’s weight is more 6) Answer: D
than R and less than M. 7) Answer: A
M-P =P-R; 8) Answer: C
Page 16 of 75
9) Answer: D
Except (e), in all options second person is to the
immediate right of the first person.
10) Answer: A
Direction (11-15):
Final Arrangement:
Again we have,
• Leena has ten shoes and sits second to the
right of Heena
We have,
• Heena sits third to the left of Kajal and
neither of them sits at the end of the row.
• Janu neither sits adjacent to Heena nor
Kajal.
possibilities.
Again we have,
• Ganga sits at the end of row
• Krish sits second to the left of the one who
has 12 shoes.
• Jeevi neither has 12 shoes nor 14 shoes.
Page 17 of 75
Again we have,
Again we have,
• The difference between the number of shoes
• Ganga sits at the end of the row and has a
of Jeevi and Kajal is equal to Janu.
maximum number of shoes which is divisible
by three.
• The one who has 14 shoes does not sit
• The number of shoes with Heena is one less
fourth from either the left end or right end.
than one-third of the number of shoes of
Ganga.
• Ganga has twice the number of shoes of
Jeevi.
From the above condition, Ganga has more than 10
shoes and less than 20 shoes. Only 12, 15, and 18
is divisibly by 3.
Ganga/2=Jeevi -->12/2=6, 18/2=9 From this
condition, 15 get eliminated.
Ganga has two possibilities either 12 or 18. Already
Kajal has 12 shoes so Ganga has 18 shoes.
Heena=(1/3)*18-1-->5
Page 18 of 75
11) Answer: D As per these statements, CASE II will get split into
12) Answer: A one more case and the arrangement will look like
13) Answer: A this:
14) Answer: C
15) Answer: C
Direction (16-20):
STEP I: The number of persons facing the north
direction is equal to the number of persons facing
the south direction. Aditya sits second to the left of
both Amir and Boni.
As per these statements, there will be two cases
getting framed and they are as follows:
STEP III: Farhan who is a Doctor sits third to the left

of Tarun who is a Teacher and both are facing in
STEP-II: Neither Amir nor Boni sits at the end of the
the north direction.
row. Not more than three persons are sitting to the
So, from the above conditions case I (A) and case II
right of the Singer who faces south and Singer does
(A) get eliminated:
not sit at the end of the row. Boni is not a Singer.
Aditya is not an Engineer. Two persons sit between
Engineer and Singer.
Page 19 of 75
STEP V: Sam sits three places away from the

Clerk. Sam is not CA. Karan sits next to the clerk
but doesn’t sit adjacent to Boni. So, case I gets
eliminated
As per this statement, the final arrangement will
look like this:
STEP IV: The person who is the Pilot and the

person who is C.A. are sitting to the immediate right
of each other. C.A. is not an immediate neighbour
of a singer.
16) Answer: C
As per these statements, the arrangement will look
17) Answer: D
like this:
18) Answer: A
19) Answer: B
20) Answer: C
Page 20 of 75
Direction (21-25): Then F must face North direction.

The person who is from Pune sits sixth to the left of B who is from Mumbai sits between G and M.
G. A and E face the same direction as F faces.
G who is from Hyderabad sits second from one of B and K face the same direction as J faces.
the ends.
Two people sit between the person who is from
Pune and J who is from Lucknow.
G and J face the same direction.
D sits fourth to the right of J. As many people sitting to the right of the person
who is from Chennai as to the left of the person
who is from Bhopal. And the only place left is Delhi
hence E is from Delhi.
The one who is from Bhopal is not an immediate
neighbour of the one who sits second to the left of
E.
Hence M is from Bhopal and D is from Chennai.
Persons sitting at both the ends face North
direction.
A who is from Kolkata sits second to the right of D.
Since D faces north and A sits 2nd to the right of D,
21) Answer: C
case 2 becomes invalid.
22) Answer: C
Case 1:
23) Answer: D
24) Answer: C
25) Answer: C
F who is from Bangalore is an immediate neighbour

of the one who is from Pune.
F neither sits at an end nor adjacent to M.
E sits third to the left of F.
Page 21 of 75
Direction (26-30):
1. At least three persons stand to the right of

the one who is from 8th. Only two persons
stand between the one who is from 8th and P
who stands to the immediate right of N.
3. The one who is from 7th stands second to the left

of the one who is from 11th. K is from 6th but doesn’t
stand adjacent to P. More than four persons stand
between K and O. Hence, case 1 gets eliminated.
2. The number of persons to the right of P is the

same as the number of persons to the left of M,
who is from 12th. The one who stands fourth to the
right of M is immediate junior to M. Hence, case 4
gets eliminated.
Page 22 of 75
Direction (31-35):
We have,
• R6 is sitting at one of the extreme ends.
Persons sitting at extreme ends face
opposite direction and no person is sitting left
of R6.
• Two persons are sitting between R6 and R2.
4. J is neither from 8th nor 9th. Neither the one who • Adjacent neighbors of R2 are facing south
is from 9th nor the one who is from 10th stand at any direction.
of the ends. Hence, case 2 gets eliminated.
Again we have,
• The one who is second to the right of R4 is
facing north and having 20 pens, but it is not
26) Answer: C R6.
27) Answer: A • R3 and R1 are facing in opposite direction
28) Answer: B and R1 is not adjacent to R6 and R5.
29) Answer: D • . R1 does not sit adjacent to R3.
30) Answer: E
Page 23 of 75
Case-II (a) gets eliminated because the one who

has 21 pens cannot sit immediate right of R2.
31) Answer: B
Case-II (b) gets eliminated because R3 and R1
32) Answer: E
should face in opposite direction.
In all the options first and third persons are facing in
Again we have,
the south direction and second person is facing the
• Difference between the number of pens with
north direction.
R6 and R5 is 4, which is equal to the
33) Answer: B
difference between the number of pens with
34) Answer: C
R2 and R4. R6 has lesser pens than R5.
35) Answer: E
• R1 does not have even number of pens.
• The one who is immediate right of R2 is not
Direction (36-40):
having 21 pens.
36) Answer: A
R2-R4= R5-R6=4
Given series
So, R4= 16 and R5 = 19, R6 =15;
MET FAT TAP CUB PAY
After arrangement
EMT AFT APT BCU APY
37) Answer: B
Given series
MET FAT TAP CUB PAY
Page 24 of 75
After interchanged After arranging the word in the form of the

TEM TAF PAT BUC YAP dictionary we get,
ACT ADT AMT ART EPT
38) Answer: E Thus, AMT is placed third which belongs to MAT.
Given series
MET FAT TAP CUB PAY 42) Answer: A
After the changes CAT RAT DAT MAT PET
LFS EBS SBO BVA OBX Between R and T there is only one letter.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
39) Answer: A
Given series 43) Answer: D
MET FAT TAP CUB PAY After placing all letters together we get,
After arranged in reverse order CATRATDATMATPET
TME TFA TPA UCB YPA AAAACDEMPRTTTTT (After rearranging letters
Arranged in alphabetical order of the word in alphabetical order)
TFA TME TPA UCB YPA Hence, there are three letters.
40) Answer: A 44) Answer: B

Given series Given words,
MET FAT TAP CUB PAY CAT RAT DAT MAT PET
After arrangement, After placing E at the end,
AAABCEFMPPTTTUY CATE RATE DATE MATE PETE
Meaningful words are Four
Direction (41-45): CATE RATE DATE MATE
41) Answer: D Hence, option (b) is correct.
After rearranging the words in alphabetical order we
get: 45) Answer: C
ACT ART ADT AMT EPT Given words,
Page 25 of 75
CAT RAT DAT MAT PET Z V F C B E K I N Q T A X S G R H V J

After changing to the succeeding letter D P M U Y O L
DBU SBU EBU NBU QFU Five (BEK, KIN, TAX, MUY, YOL) vowels are there
Total consonants are nine. in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a consonant and
Direction (46-50): immediately followed by a consonant.
46) Answer: E
GORW, CIKP, ADIL, ACEK, AEGT 52) Answer: A
The eighth to the left of the seventeenth from the
47) Answer: B left end of the above arrangement is N.
PICK, GROW, GATE, DIAL, CAKE
53) Answer: C
48) Answer: E If all the vowels are dropped then the third to the
FQPV, OJBJ, CJBK, BBJF, FBSF right of the fourteenth from the left end of the above
arrangement is D.
49) Answer: A
GRNW 54) Answer: A
The letters which are tenth from the left end and
50) Answer: E fourteenth from the right end as in alphabetical
The third letter of the word which is fourth from the series are X and Q respectively. There are six
left is K and the third letter of the word which is letters between them.
fourth from the right is C. So there is a seven-letter
between C and K. 55) Answer: D
Two (AXS, INQ) consonant
Direction (51-55):
51) Answer: B
Page 26 of 75
1) The number of students from class A is 50% 3) Sam spends 60% of his salary on education
more than the number of students from class B and fees, 20% on shopping and the remaining amount
the number of students from C is 60% more than on transport. If next month he spends on education
the number of students from D. If the number of fee and shopping is decreased by 10% compared
students from class D is 40 less than the number of to the previous month, then in how much
students from class B and the average number of percentage should the salary he spends on
students from class C and A is 123, then find the transport is increased, if the salary is the same and
total number of students from all the classes also he didn’t save any amount in both the months?
together? A.70%
A.102 B.40%
B.98 C.60%
C.108 D.50%
D.112 E.None of these
E.406
4) In a village, the total number of males is 50 more
2) A sum of Rs.x is distributed among three than that of females. In the village, 60% of the total
persons Vidya, Vino and Vimal. Vidya and Vino number of males and 40% of the total number of
together received 20% more than Vidya and Vimal the female are educated. If the sum of the total
together. If Vino received Rs.5000 more than Vimal number of educated males and that of an
and Vidya received Rs.23000, and then find the uneducated female is 210, then the number of
value of x? educated females is what percent of that of the
A.Rs.28000 uneducated male?
B.Rs.30000 A.75%
C.Rs.32000 B.85%
D.Rs.36000 C.55%
E.None of these D.95%
E.65%
Page 27 of 75
5) There are three sections I, II and III in a college. 7) The ratio of the total number of Pink marbles and
Ratio of the total number of students in sections I, II black marbles in a bag is 6:7 and the number of
and III is 4: 5: 7. In section III, ratio of the number of green marbles in a bag is 18.75% less than the
boys to girls is 13: 12. In section I, 40% of the total number of yellow marbles in a bag. If the number of
students are boys. In section II, the number of boys pink marbles in a bag is 12 less than the number of
is 66.66% less than the number of girls in section II. yellow marbles in a bag and the sum of black
Find the total number of boys is what percentage marbles and green marbles in a bag is 936, then
more or less than the total number of girls in all the find the total number of marbles in a bag?
sections together? (Approximately) A.1874
A.58% less B.2512
B.45% more C.1256
C.32% less D.1884
D.28% more E. None of these
E. None of these
8) There are three-person X, Y and Z working as a
6) There is a certain number of players in two freelancer in two companies A and B. total earning
teams A and B in January. In February, 12.5% of of X is 25% less than that of Y and the respective
players of team A joined team B and 25% players ratio of total earning of Z to the earning of Z from
of team B joined team A and the number of players company A is 5:2. Earning of Z from company A is
in team B becomes 60% of that in team A. Find the Rs. 12400 less than earning of Y from the same
ratio of the number of players in team A to that in company and earning of Z from company B is Rs.
team B initially? 26400. Earning of Y from company B is 66.66%
A.5: 3 more than his earnings from company A. Find
B.6: 5 earning of X from company A is how much % of
C.4: 3 total earning of Y, if earning of X from company A is
D.3: 2 8.33% more than his earning from company B?
E.5: 4 A.39%
B.42%
Page 28 of 75
C.35% C.Rs. 6400

D.45% D.Rs. 7800
E.None of these E.Can’t be determined
9) Per month salary of B is Rs.6000 more than that 11) The number of students in class A and C in the
of A and per month expenditure of A is Rs.3000 ratio of 3:5 and the number of students in class B is
more than that of B. 120% of per month savings of 40% more than the number of students in C. If 70
A is equal to 60% of that of B. If the sum of A’s per students are increased in each class, then the
month salary and B’s per month expenditure is number of students in class C is 40% more than
200% more than the difference between A’s per class A. The number of students in class D is 80%
month salary and B’s per month expenditure, then more than the average of the initial number of
A’s per month salary is what percent of B’s per students in all the classes A, B, and C together.
month salary? Find the number of students in class D?
A.60% A.297
B.90% B.300
C.75% C.308
D.70% D.315
E.80% E.299
10) A person spends Rs. 18000 for a household in 12) Samar spends 25% of his income on Education
June. In June he spends 25% more amount than and 50% of the rest on food. The respective ratio of
the previous month. Expenditure in June is 50% the amount spent by Samar on travel and his
more than that of March. The average expenditure savings is 5:1 and his savings are approx. 5.2631%
of March and April together is Rs. 9500. Find the of his total income. Finally, he spends on shopping
difference between the expenditure of the person in is Rs. 13500. Find the difference between the
April and May? amount he spends on Education and food.
A.Rs. 7400 A.Rs. 32500
B.Rs. 7600 B.Rs. 27500
Page 29 of 75
C.Rs. 28500 B.95%

D.Rs. 31500 C.91%
E.None of these D.94%
E.92%
13) Manju spent 20 % of his monthly salary on
food, 18 % on children’s education, 12 % on 15) In a company one-fifth of the employees likes
insurance and X % on other expenses. If the cricket, 50% of the remaining employees like
difference between the amount spent on children’s Football and 30% of the remaining employees like
education and insurance is Rs. 4500 and the saving both Hockey and Golf but the remaining 70
is Rs. 22500, then find the value of X? employees like Tennis. Find the total number of
A.25 % employees in the company?
B.20 % A.100
C.35 % B.150
D.30 % C.200
E. None of these
14) Jai joined a course fee of which is Rs. 100000
which he asked from his parents. His father gave Direction (16-20): Study the following information
him only 30% of the total fees while his mother carefully and answer the questions given below.
withdraws 20% of the total fees from her funds but
gave only 20% of the remaining fees amount. His
brother helped him by giving 25% of the total fees.
40% of remaining he arranged from a loan. For the
rest amount, he started working at a restaurant.
What percent of the amount had he got from the
restaurant as compared to the amount withdrawn
by his mother actually?
A.93%
Page 30 of 75
18) What is the difference between the average

number of good orange from all the boxes together
and the average number of damaged fruits in all the
boxes together?
A.189
B.234
C.248
D.256
E.None of these
16) What is the average number of damaged 19) The number of good fruits in box D is
apples in all the boxes together? approximately what percent of the total number of
A.560 fruits from B?
B.580 A.44.44%
C.640 B.72.51%
D.620 C.83.33%
E.None of these D.64.72%
E.None of these
17) What is the ratio of the number of good orange
in box D to the number of damaged apples in box 20) What is the ratio of the good fruits from B to the
B? number of good apples from C?
A.6:5 A.19:14
B.7:3 B.20:11
C.9:4 C.21:10
D.10:7 D.22:9
Page 31 of 75
Direction (21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
The given table shows the number of mobile and laptops manufactured in 5 different companies.
21) What is the average number of Sold Sony A.2100

laptops in all the companies together? B.2200
A.302 C.2300
B.304 D.2400
C.306 E.2500
D.308
E.None of these 23) If the ratio of the number of sold to unsold apple
laptops in A is 2:3 and the rate of apple laptops and
22) What is the difference between the total number Sony laptops is Rs.2000 and Rs.1500 respectively,
of sold Apple mobile in A, B and C together and the then what is the difference between the revenue
total number of Apple laptops in D and E together?
Page 32 of 75
collected from apple laptops and Sony laptops in Direction (26 - 33): What value should come in
A? place of the question mark in the following
A.Rs.2000 questions?
B.Rs.3000 26) 32% of 150 * 12.5% of 184 = ?% of 270 + 564
C.Rs.4000 A.100
D.Rs.5000 B.200
E.None of these C.300
D.50
24) The average number of unsold apple mobile in E.None of these
all the companies together is what percent of the
average number of apple laptops in all the 27) (?)2 - 64 = 391 ÷ 23 + 928 ÷ 29 – 192 ÷ 3
companies together? A.8
A.15% B.6
B.20% C.7
C.25% D.5
D.30% E.None of these
E.35%
28) 125 % of 140 – 493 ÷ √289 + ? = 18 * 12
25) The total number of unsold Sony laptops in all A.80
the companies together is approximately what B.70
percent of the total number of Sony mobile in C, D C.60
and E together? D.40
A.12.9% E.50
B.13.5%
C.14.8% 29) (5 / 9) * 351 + 60 % of 150 + 45 * 8=? * 15
D.15.5% A.43
E.11.9% B.47
C.41
Page 33 of 75
D.44 D.1972.88
E.49 E.2172.98
30) √729/√? * 64 = √256/52 * 108 Direction (34-40): What is the approximate value
A.525 that should come in place of the question mark in
B.125 the following questions?
C.625 34) 39.912 % of 79.908 + √3970.12 * 4.897 –
D.25 12.190 * 7.198=?
E.None of these A.263
B.267
31) 5 (5/24) – 8 (1/6) +4 (2/12) = 9 (7/12) - ? C.271
A.16 (1/8) D.277
B.16 (5/8) E.281
C.8 (3/8)
D.8 (7/8) 35) 83.339 % of 102.198 + 45.4545 % of 186.978 +
E.None of these ? =49.912 * 3.189
A.-10
32) (0.2)48 ÷ (0.04)16 * (0.008)2 = (0.2)? B.-15
A.18 C.-20
B.22 D.-5
C.20 E.-25
D.24
E.27 36) 174.879 + ? * 43.134 = 194.972 % of 199.894
A.2
33) 200.1 × 9.9 – 25 × 62.5 + 12 × 144 = ? – 26.49 B.5
A.1627.98 C.8
B.1842.28 D.11
C.1958.8 E.0
Page 34 of 75
37) 7625.33 * 16.232 = 61.05*? * √26.06 E.-60

A.6400
B.5400 Direction (41-45): Find out the missing number in
C.7400 the following number series.
D.5220 41) 343, 8119, 8744, ?, 8817, 8819
E.6220 A.8848
B.8798
38) (100.10/4) % of 11201 =? * 56.11/4.32 * 20 C.8788
A.10 D.8828
B.0 E.8808
C.100
D.1 42) 768, 576, 1008, 2772, 10395, ?
E.200 A.49546.25
B.49376.25
39) 28.105 % of 199.902 + 13.120 * 18.112 + ? = C.49736.25
419.902 D.49456.25
A.130 E.48766.25
B.100
C.120 43) 11, 34, 103, 310, ?, 2794
D.140 A.931
E.150 B.782
C.670
40) 54.54 % of 65.982 + 72.721 % of 32.892 = ? + D.530
30.12 * 3.901 E.670
A.–30
B.-50 44) 547, 563, 584, 611, ? , 687
C.–70 A.623
D.-90 B.648
Page 35 of 75
C.626 48) 156 155 154 152 146

D.645 118
E.666 A.143
B.118
45) 16, 40, 140, 630, ?, 22522.5 C.154
A.3485 D.152
B.3380 E.156
C.3930
D.3465 49)1, 5, 40, 200, 1920, 9600
E.3845 A.9600
B.1920
Direction (46-50): Find out the wrong number in the C.200
following number series. D.40
46) 3780, 840, 240, 96, 64, 32 E.5
A.64
B.32 50) 91, 102, 89, 106, 80, 110
C.840 A.89
D.240 B.80
E.96 C.106
D.110
47) 100, 40, 200, 40, 400, 80 E.102
A.40
B.200 Direction (51-62): In each of the following
C.400 questions, two equations are given. You have to
D.100 solve both the equations to find the relation
E.80 between x and y.
51)
I). √36X + √16Y = 8
Page 36 of 75
II) √81X + √256Y = 19.5 A.x < y

A.X > Y B.x > y
B.X < Y C.x = y or relationship cannot be established.
C.X ≥ Y D.x ≥ y
D.X ≤ Y E.x ≤ y
E.X = Y or No relation
55)
52) I) 2x2 + 3x - 20 = 0
I) x2 + 6√7x + 56 = 0 II) 2y2 - 13y + 20 = 0
II) y2+ 8√7y + 105 = 0 A.If x < y
A.x < y B.If x > y
B.x > y C.If x ≤ y
C.x = y or relationship cannot be established. D.If x ≥ y
D.x ≥ y E.If relationship between x and y cannot be
E.x ≤ y determined
53) 56)
I). X² - 36X + 308 = 0 I) x4/3 = 2401
II). Y² - 24X + 140 = 0 II) y3/4=1331
A.X > Y A.x > y
B.X < Y B.x ≥ y
C.X = Y or No relation C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
D.X ≥ Y D.x < y
E.X ≤ Y E.x ≤ y
54) 57)
I). 9x2 + 29x + 22 = 0 I) x2-91 =6x,
II). 5y2 + 29y + 42 = 0 II) y3=49y2
Page 37 of 75
A.x > y A.x > y

B.x ≥ y B.x ≥ y
C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined. C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
D.x < y D.x < y
E.x ≤ y E.x ≤ y
58) 61)
I) x2 - 12x - 133 = 0 I) 3x2 + 19x + 30 = 0
II) y2 + 17y + 72 = 0 II) 2y2 + 25y + 72 = 0
A.x > y A.If x < y
B.x ≥ y B.If x > y
C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined. C.If x ≤ y
D.x < y D.If x ≥ y
E.x ≤ y E.If relationship between x and y cannot be
determined
59)
I) (92/x5/8) – (11/x5/8) = x11/8 62)
II) 2y2 + 32y + 128 = 0 I) 3x2 – 7x – 20 = 0
A.x < y II) 3y2 – 4y – 32 = 0
B.x > y A.If x < y
C.x = y or relationship cannot be established. B.If x > y
D.x ≥ y C.If x ≤ y
E.x ≤ y D.If x ≥ y
60) determined
I) 3x2 – 14x + 15 = 0
II) 3y2 - 18y + 27 = 0
Page 38 of 75

1) Answer: E 5 Vino – 6Vimal = 23000 -------- (1)
Number of students from class B = x Vino – Vimal = 5000 --------- (2)
Number of students from class A = x * 150/100 = (2) * 5 – (1)
3x/2 Vimal = 2000
Number of students from class D = y Vino = 5000 + 2000 = 7000
Number of students from class C = y * 160/100 = X = 7000 + 2000 + 23000 = 32000
8y/5
x – y = 40 ---------- (1) 3) Answer: B
3x/2 + 8y/5 = 123 * 2 = 246 Salary = 100x
15x + 16y = 2460 -------- (2) Education fee = 100x * 60/100 = 60x
(2) – (1) * 15 Shopping = 100x * 20/100 = 20x
31y = 2460 - 600 Transport = 100x – 60x – 20x = 20x
y= 60 Next month education fee = 60x * 90/100 = 54x
x= 40 + 60 = 100 Shopping = 20x * 90/100 = 18x
Number of students from class A = 150/100 * 100 Remaining salary = 100x – 54x – 18x = 28x
= 150
Number of students from class C = 60 * 160/100 =
96
4) Answer: A
Required total = (96 + 150 + 100 + 60) = 406
Let, the total number of female in the village = x
So, the total number of male in the village = (x +
2) Answer: C
50)
Sum = x
Total number of educated male in the village =
Vidya = 23000
60% of (x + 50) = 3(x + 50)/5
Vidya + Vino = 120/100 * (Vidya + Vimal)
Total number of uneducated female in the village =
5Vidya + 5Vino = 6Vidya + 6Vimal
60% of x = 3x/5
5Vino = Vidya + 6Vimal
From the question:
5Vino = 23000 + 6Vimal
Page 39 of 75
Now, the total number of boys in all sections =

364x + 160x + 125x = 649x
x + 50 + x = 350 And the total number of girls in all sections = 336x
2x = 300 + 240x + 375x = 951x
x = 150 So, the required percentage is = (951x –
Total number of educated female in the village = 649x)/951x × 100
40% of 150 = 60 = 302x/951x × 100 ≈ 32%less
Total number of uneducated male in the village =
40% of (150 + 50) = 80 6) Answer: D
Required percentage = (60/80) * 100 = 75% Let, the number of players in team A in Jan = a
And the number of players in team B in Jan = b
5) Answer: C So, the number of players in team A in Feb
Let, the number of students in sections I, II and III
is = 400x, 500x and 700x respectively.
So, And the number of players in team B in Feb
Boys in section III = 700x × 13/25 = 364x

Girls in section III = 700 × 12/25 = 336x
From the question:
In section I, number of boys = 400x × 40/100 =
160x
So, the number of girls is = 400x – 160x = 240x
Let, the number of girls in section II is = x
So, according to the question,
= x/3 + x = 500x
= 4x/3 = 500x
= x = 375x
So, number of boys in section II = 500x – 375x =
2a = 3b
125x
a: b = 3: 2
Page 40 of 75
7) Answer: D Earning of Y from company B = 166.66% of 30000

Let, the number of black and pink marbles in a bag = 5/3 x 30000 = Rs. 50000
is 7a and 6a respectively. Total earning of Y = Rs. 30000 + Rs. 50000 = Rs.
Number of yellow marbles in bag = 6a + 12 80000
Number of green marbles in Bag = (100% - Total earning of X = 75% of 80000 = 60000
18.75%) of (6a + 12) Ratio of earning of X from company A and B
= 13/16 x (6a + 12) respectively = 13:12
According to question, Earning of X from company A = 13/25 x 60000 =
7a + (13/16) x (6a + 12) = 936 Rs. 31,200
112a + 78a + 156 = 936 x 16 Required % = 31200/80000 x 100 = 39%
190a = 14820
So, value of a = 78 9) Answer: E
Total balls in the bag = 7 x 78 + 6 x 78 + (6 x 78 + Let, per month salary of A = ‘x’ rupees
12) + 13/16 x (6x78 + 12) So, per month salary of B = (x + 6000) rupees
= 546 + 468 + 480 + 390 Let per month expenditure of B = ‘y’ rupees
= 1884 So, per month expenditure of A = (y + 3000)
rupees
8) Answer: A From the question:
Let, total earning of Z = 5a (x – y – 3000)*120/100= (x + 6000 – y)*60/100
Earning of Z from company A = 2a 2x – 2y – 6000 = x – y + 6000
Earning of Z from company B = 5a – 2a = 3a x – y = 12000 ------------- (1)
Also, 3a = 26400 So, sum of A’s per month salary and B’s per month
So, a = 8800 expenditure:
Earning of Z from company A = 8800 x 2 = 17600 x + y = 12000 * (300/100) = 36000 ------------- (2)
Earning of Z from company B = 26400 From equations (1) and (2):
Earning of Y from company from company A = x = 24000
17600 + 12400 = 30000 Per month salary of A = Rs.24000
Per month salary of B = 24000 + 6000 = Rs.30000
Page 41 of 75
Required percentage = (24000/30000) * 100 = So, his savings = 19a x 5.2631% = 1/19 x 19a = a
80% Amount spent on travel = 5 x a = 5a
Amount spent on Education = 25% of 19a = 4.75a
10) Answer: A Amount spent on food = 50% of 75% of 19a =
Expenditure in June = 18000 7.125a
Expenditure in May = 18000/125 x 100 = 14400 Amount spent on Shopping = 19a – (a + 5a + 4.75a
Expenditure in month of March = 18000/150 x 100 + 7.125a) = 1.125a
= 12000 So, 1.125a = 13500
Expenditure in month of March and April together = So, value of a = 12000
9500 x 2 = 19000 Required difference = (7.125a – 4.75a) = 2.375a =
Expenditure in month of April = 19000 – 12000 = 2.375 x 12000 = Rs. 28500
7000
Required difference = 14400 – 7000 = Rs. 7400 13) Answer: B
According to the question,
11) Answer: D (18 % - 12 %) of salary = 4500
Initial number of students in A = 3x 6 % of salary = 4500
Initial number of students in C = 5x Total salary = 4500 * (100/6) = Rs. 75000 = 100 %
Initial number of students in B = 140/100 * 5x = 7x Savings % = (22500/75000) * 100 = 30 %
(5x + 70) = 140/100 * (3x + 70) Total salary (100 %) = Expense (70 %) + Savings
5x + 70 = 7/5 * (3x + 70) (30 %)
25x + 350 = 21x + 490 Given,
x = 35 Expense = 70 %
Total initial number of students in A, B and C = 15 * 70 % = (20 % + 18 % + 12 % + X %)
35 = 525 X % = 70 % - 50 % = 20 %
Number of students in D = 525/3 * 180/100 = 315
14) Answer: A
12) Answer: C Let his total fees amount be Rs. ‘100x’
Let, the income of Samar = 19a Amount given by Father = 30/100 × 100 x = Rs.30x
Page 42 of 75
Amount withdrawn by his Mother = 20/100 × 100x Direction (16-20):

= Rs.20x
Amount given by his Mother = 20/100 × (100x -
30x) = Rs.14x
Amount given by his Brother = 25/100 × 100x =
Rs.25x
Remaining fees amount = 100x - (30x + 14x + 25x)
= Rs.31x
Amount arranged from loan = 40/100 × 31x =
Rs.12.4x
Amount he arranged by working at restaurant = 31
x - 12.4x = Rs.18.6x 16) Answer: C
Required percentage = (18.6x/20x) × 100 = 93% Average = (600 + 800 + 500 + 900 + 400)/5 = 640
(NOTE: there is no need to calculate exact amount
unless asked) 17) Answer: C
Required ratio = 1800:800
15) Answer: D =9:4
Number of employees like cricket = x/5
Number of employee like Football = 4x/5 * 50/100 18) Answer: D
= 2x/5 Average good orange = (600 + 1200 + 1980 +
Number of employee like Hockey and Golf = 4x/5 * 1800 + 2400)/5 = 1596
50/100 * 30/100 = 3x/25 Average number of damaged fruits = (1600 + 1200
Number of employees like Tennis = 70 + 1100 + 1800 + 1000)/5 = 1340
x – x/5 – 2x/5 – 3x/25 = 70 Difference = 1596 – 1340 = 256
25x – 5x – 10x – 3x = 70 * 25
7x = 70 * 25 19) Answer: C
x = 250 Required percentage = 3000/3600 * 100 = 83.33%
Page 43 of 75
20) Answer: B =20:11

Required ratio = 2400:1320
Direction (21-25):

Required Average = (270 + 340 + 560 + 210 + Number of sold apple laptops in A = 2/5 * 500 = 200
150)/5 = 306 Total revenue collected from sold apple laptops =
200 * 2000 = 400000
22) Answer: E Number of sold Sony laptops = 270
Number of sold apple mobile in A, B and C = 560 + Total revenue collected from sold Sony laptops =
1440 + 1700 = 3700 270 * 1500 = 405000
Number of apple laptops in D and E = 900 + 300 = Difference = 400000 – 405000 = 5000
1200
Difference = 3700 – 1200 = 2500 24) Answer: D
Page 44 of 75
Average number of unsold apple mobile = (140 + ? = 70

160 + 300 + 300 + 30)/5 = 186
Average number of apple laptops = (500 + 600 + 29) Answer: A
800 + 900 + 300)/ 5 = 620 (5 / 9) * 351 + 60 % of 150 + 45 * 8 = ? * 15
Required percentage = 186/620 * 100 = 30% 195 + 90 + 360 = ? * 15
?= 43
25) Answer: C
Total number of unsold Sony laptops = 30 + 60 + 30) Answer: C
140 + 90 + 50 = 370 √729/√x * 64 = √256/52 * 108
Number of Sony mobile in C, D and E = 1500 + 800 27/√x * 64 = 16/25 * 108
+ 200 = 2500 = > x = 625
Required percentage = 370/2500 * 100 = 14.8%
31) Answer: C
Direction (26 - 33): x = - 5 (5/24) + 8 (1/6) - 4 (2/12) + 9 (7/12)
26) Answer: B x = 8 ((-5 + 4 – 4 + 14)/24)
32% of 150 * 12.5% of 184 = ?% of 270 + 564 x = 8 (9/24) = 8 (3/8)
48 * 23 = ?% of 270 + 564
540 = ?% of 270 32) Answer: B
? = 200 (0.2)48 ÷ (0.04)16 * (0.008)2 = (0.2)?
(0.2)48 /(0.2)32 * (0.2)3 * 2 = (0.2)?
27) Answer: C (0.2)48 – 32 + 6 = (0.2)?
(?)2 - 64 = 391 ÷ 23 + 928 ÷ 29 – 192 ÷ 3 ? = 22
?2- 64 = 17 + 32 - 64
?=7 33) Answer: E
1980.99-1562.5+1728=?-26.49
28) Answer: B 3735.48-1562.5=?
125 % of 140 – 493 ÷ √289 + ? = 18 * 12 2172.98=?
175 – 29 + ? =216 Direction (34-40):
Page 45 of 75
34) Answer: A x = 11200/(56 * 20) =10

39.912 % of 79.908 + √3970.12 * 4.897 – 12.190 *
7.198=? 39) Answer: A
40% of 80 + √3969 * 5 – 12 * 7 = ? 28.105 % of 199.902 + 13.120 * 18.112 + ? =
32 + 315 – 84=? 419.902
263=? 28% of 200 + 13 * 18 + ? = 420
56 + 234 + ? = 420
35) Answer: C ? = 130
83.339 % of 102.198 + 45.4545 % of 186.978 + ?
=49.912 * 3.189 40) Answer: E
5/6 * 102 + 5/11 * 187 + ? = 50 * 3 54.54 % of 65.982 + 72.721 % of 32.892 = ? +
85 + 85 + ? =150 30.12 * 3.901
?=- 20 (6/11) * 66 + 8/11 * 33 = ? + 120
36 + 24 = ? + 120
36) Answer: B ? = -60
174.879 + ? * 43.134 = 194.972 % of 199.894
175 + ? * 43 = 195% of 200 Direction (41-45):
175 + ? * 43=390 41) Answer: E
?=5 343 8119 8744 ? 8817 8819
7776 625 64 9 2
37) Answer: A 65 54 43 32 21
7625.33 * 16.232 = 61.05 *? * √26.06 Therefore, 8744+64=8808
7625 * 256/(61 * 5) = ?
? =6400

(100.10/4) % of 11201 =? * 56.11/4.32 * 20 768 576 1008 2772 10395 ?
25/100 * 11200 = x * 56/4 * 20 *0.75 *1.75 *2.75 *3.75 *4.75
Page 46 of 75
Therefore, 10395*4.75 = 49376.25 96 ÷ 1.5 = 64

64 ÷ 0.5 = 128
43) Answer: A 47) Answer: A
11 * 3 + 1 = 34 100 ÷ 5 = 20 (not 40)
34 * 3 + 1 = 103 20 * 10 = 200
103 * 3 + 1 = 310 200 ÷ 5 = 40
310 * 3 + 1 = 931 40 * 10 = 400
931 * 3 + 1 = 2794 400 ÷ 5 = 80
44) Answer: D 48) Answer: B

547+16 =563 156 – 0! = 155
563+21 =584 155 – 1! = 154
584+27 =611 154 – 2! = 152
611+34 =645 152 – 3! = 146
645+42 =687 146 – 4! = 122
45) Answer: D 49) Answer: C

16 * 2.5 = 40 1*5*1=5
40 * 3.5 = 140 5 * 4 * 2 = 40
140 * 4.5 = 630 40 * 3 * 3 = 360 (not 200)
630 * 5.5 = 3465 240 * 2 * 4 = 1920
3465 * 6.5 = 22522.5 1920 * 1 * 5 = 9600
Direction (46-50): 50) Answer: B

46) Answer: B 91 + 11 = 102
3780 ÷ 4.5 = 840 102 – 13 = 89
840 ÷ 3.5 = 240 89 + 17 = 106
240 ÷ 2.5 = 96 106 – 19 = 87 (not 80)
Page 47 of 75
87 + 23 = 110. = y = –5√7, –3√7

Hence, relationship cannot be established.
Direction (51-62):
51) Answer: A 53) Answer: D
6X + 4Y = 8 I). X² - 14X – 22X + 308 = 0
9X + 16Y = 19.5 (X – 22)(X – 14) = 0
Multiply equation I with 4 and then subtract both X = 22, 14
equations II). Y² - 10Y – 14Y + 140 = 0
(24X – 9X) = 32 – 19.5 (Y – 14)(Y – 10) = 0
15X = 12.5 Y = 14, 10
X = 125/150 = 5/6
Put value of X in any of equation we get
6 x 5/6 + 4Y = 8
Y = 3/4
X>Y
X≥Y
52) Answer: C
54) Answer: B
From I.
From I.
x2+ 6√7x + 56 = 0
9x2 + 29x + 22 = 0
= x2 + 4√7x + 2√7x + 56 = 0
= 9x2 + 18x + 11x + 22 = 0
= x (x + 4√7) + 2√7 (x + 4√7) = 0
= 9x (x + 2) + 11 (x + 2) = 0
= (x + 4√7) (x + 2√7)= 0
= (x + 2) (9x + 11)
= x = –4√7, –2√7
= x = –2, –11/9
From II.
From II.
y2 + 8√7y + 105 = 0
5y2 + 29y + 42 = 0
= y2 + 5√7y + 3√7y + 105 = 0
= 5y2 + 15y + 14y + 42 = 0
= y (y + 5√7) + 3√7 (y + 5√7) = 0
= 5y (y + 3) + 14 (y + 3) = 0
= (y + 5√7) (y + 3√7)= 0
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= (y + 3) (5y + 14) = 0 x(x-13) +7(x-13) =0

= y = – 3, –14/5 (x-13) (x+7)=0
Hence x > y. x=13, -7
y3 = 49y2
55) Answer: C y3-49y2=0
From I =>2x2 + 3x - 20 = 0 y2(y-49)=0
=> 2x(x + 4) – 5(x + 4) = 0 y=0, 49
=> (2x – 5) (x + 4) = 0 Therefore, relationship can’t be established
=> x = 5/2, -4
From II =>2y2 - 13y + 20 = 0 58) Answer: A
=> 2y(y – 4) – 5(y– 4) = 0 x2 - 12x - 133 = 0
=> (2y – 5) (y – 4) = 0 x2 – 19x + 7x – 133 = 0
=> y= 5/2, 4 x(x – 19) + 7(x – 19) = 0
Hence, x ≤ y (x + 7)(x – 19) = 0
x = -7, 19
56) Answer: D y2 + 17y + 72 = 0
x4/3 = 2401 y2 + 8y + 9y + 72 = 0
x1/3=7 y(y + 8) + 9(y + 8) = 0
x=73 =343 (y + 9)(y + 8) = 0
y3/4=1331 y = -9, -8
y1/4= 11 x>y
y=14641
Therefore x < y 59) Answer: C
From I.
57) Answer: C (92/x5/8) – (11/x5/8) = x11/8
x2-91 =6x = (92 – 11)/x5/8 = x11/8
x2-6x-91=0 = 81 = x11/8 + 5/8
x2-13x+7x-91=0 = 81 = x16/8
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= 81 = x2 From I =>
= x = 9, –9 3x2 + 19x + 30 = 0
From II. => (3x + 10) (x + 3) = 0
2y2 + 32y + 128 = 0 => x = -10/3, -3
= 2y2 + 16y + 16y + 128 = 0 From II =>
= 2y (y + 8) + 16 (y + 8) = 0 2y2 + 25y + 72 = 0
= (y + 8) (2y + 16) = 0 => (2y + 9) (y + 8) = 0
= y = – 8, –16/2 => y = -9/2, -8
= y = –8, –8 Hence, x > y
Therefore, relationship can’t be established
62) Answer: E
60) Answer: E From I =>
3x2 – 14x + 15 = 0 3x2 – 7x – 20 = 0
3x2 – 9x – 5x + 15 = 0 => (3x + 5) (x – 4) = 0
3x(x – 3) – 5(x – 3) = 0 => x = -5/3, 4
(3x – 5)(x – 3) = 0 From II =>
x = 3, 5/3 3y2 – 4y – 32 = 0
3y2 - 18y + 27 = 0 => (3y + 8) (y – 4) = 0
3y2 – 9y – 9y + 27 = 0 => y = 4, -8/3
3y(y – 3) – 9(y – 3) = 0 Hence, relationship between x and y cannot be
(3y – 9)(y – 3) = 0 determined.
y = 3, 3
Hence, x ≤ y
61) Answer: B
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English Language
Direction (1-8): Read the passage carefully and With the increasing popularity of blogs, it makes
answer the questions based on the passage. Some sense that they should be adapted by teachers to
of the words have been given in bold to locate the make the classroom experience even more
answer for given questions. meaningful for students. The good news is that
It was estimated that in January 2017, there were teachers seem to be receptive to embracing digital
more than 1.8 billion websites. And as most of us resources to propel student learning. Blogging is
know already, a website can be a personal, not just simply writing a blog post and learning
commercial, governmental website, or a non-profit Word Press; there is psychology behind it. An
organization. Websites are typically dedicated to a emerging subfield in psychology that focuses on the
particular topic or purpose, ranging from application of psychological principles and research
entertainment and social networking, to providing in order to optimize the benefits that readers can
news and education. Blogs are essentially another derive from consuming blogs is known as blog
form of website. More particularly, as defined by the psychology. A recently published article in the
Australian Psychological Society, blogs are ‘shared Psychreg Journal of Psychology explored the
online websites written in the form of journals by theoretical adulterations of blog psychology such as
individuals, groups, or corporations about any topic readers’ perception, cognition, and humanistic
or issue they want.’ It is generally recognized that components in regards to their experience of
blogging started in 1994, with Links.net considered reading blogs.
to be the first ever blog. Blogging has come a long Furthermore, Laura Gurak from the University of
way from being interactive, online forms of the Minnesota and Smiljana Antonijevic explained the
traditional personal diary to becoming a repository psychology behind blogging. According to them, ‘by
of valuable information. What makes blogging even using blogging as a lens, researchers can see that
more incredible is that anyone can start their own. many predictions and findings of early internet
As a result, blogs have now become ubiquitous, so research on social and psychological features of
much so that there are blogs on every (I) computer-mediated communication have held true,
____________ topic, discipline, and niche. whereas others are not as true, and that the
psychology of the internet is very much a sense of
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the one and the many, the individual and the connection between what they learn from the class
collective, the personal and the political. Blogs and the different aspects of their lives, and
illustrate the fusion of key elements of human ultimately realize that reflective writing (through
desire (to express one’s identity, create community, blogging) is a worthwhile skill in any field.
structure one’s past and present experiences) with 1) Which of the following has not been a part of
the main technological features of 21st century psychology behind blogging, as portrayed by Laura
digital communication. Blogs can serve as a lens to Gurak and Smiljana Antonijevic?
observe the way in which people currently use (a) Researchers can see that many predictions and
digital technologies and, in return, transform some findings of early internet research on social and
of the traditional cultural norms – such as those psychological features of computer-mediated
between the public and the private.’ communication have held true.
(b) There are many predictions and findings of
Let’s point out some of the benefits of blogging in social and psychological features of computer-
education such as: allowing students to articulate mediated communication that are not as true as
their views. It is more engaging than simply reading they were believed to be.
a textbook; and, it increases extroverts’ satisfaction (c) Blogs are somewhat similar to a lens to see how
in the classroom, and has a host of other classroom people are using digital technologies.
benefits. Indeed, it is remarkable that many (d) When you don’t understand a certain student’s
teachers today are implementing digital technology behaviour, it is useful for the teacher to ask them to
in the classroom such as blogging and it is blog as it will also develop their emotional
undeniably opening doors to new ways of learning. intelligence.
Teachers who are looking to adopt digital (e) All are correct.
technology should not dismiss the power of the blog
to revolutionize learning inside the classroom. 2) The author is in line with which of the following
Whether it is used for a class website or as stand- statements?
alone student projects, blogging in the classroom (a) With a classroom blog, a teacher can be in
can easily connect students, parents, and teachers. complete control for publishing blog posts to share
Encouraging students to blog helps them see the with the class or even the general public.
Page 52 of 75
(b) The emerging field of blog psychology tells us (d) None is correct.
that blogging brings a host of mental health (e) All are correct.
benefits, and it offers us opportunities to expand our
knowledge. 4) Which of the following advantages of
(c) Blogging had started as an interactive online encouraging learning through blogging has not
form of personal diary but is now used as a been mentioned in the given passage?
storehouse of information. (A) This form of learning is more engaging for
(d) Blogging can enhance education through students than learning from textbooks and
reflective practice and can help you to look at your increases the satisfaction of the extrovert students.
own experiences to improve the way you work. (B) It will build a special rapport that gives your
(e) All are correct. students the confidence to ask questions, adds
value to your class, and encourages everybody to
3) Identify the incorrect statement in context of the stay focused on their work.
given passage. (C) Students can learn to establish a connection
(A) Websites are usually for a particular topic, which between what they learn from the classroom and
can range between anything from entertainment the different aspects of life.
and education. (a) Only (B)
(B) Teachers who are willing to adopt technology (b) Only (C)
for enhancing the learning of their students should (c) Only (A)
not underestimate the power of learning through (d) Both (A) and (C)
blogging. (e) All are correct.
(C) Blog psychology focuses on the application of
psychological principles and research in order to 5) Which of the following words is synonymous with
optimize the benefits that readers can derive from “UBIQUITOUS”, as highlighted in the given
consuming blogs passage?
(a) Only (C) (a) Ominous
(b) Only (B) (b) Gullible
(c) Only (A) (c) Tentative
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(d) Pervasive 8) A word has been highlighted and underlined in

(e) Atrocious the given passage. It may or may not be correct in
context of the given sentence. Identify the most
6) How have the teachers responded towards suitable word from the given options that could
adopting technology as a part of learning? replace the highlighted and underlined word to
(a) Teachers have acknowledged such ways of make the sentence correct and meaningful.
learning but are not accustomed to these till now. (a) Advent
(b) Teachers have helped students reinforce the (b) Underpinnings
beliefs that we too possess the capabilities to (c) Dawn
master the activities needed for success by (d) Compress
adopting digital resources. (e) No replacement is required.
(c) Teachers believe that excellent sources of self-
efficacy come from vicarious experiences, Direction (9-13): In each of the questions given
especially when students observe people whom below, a statement is divided into several parts with
they consider as role models. some parts given in bold. The part(s) given in bold
(d) Teachers have been welcoming towards is/ are free from any error. In other parts there may
adopting new digital trends for learning to support be some grammatical errors. Identify the part(s) of
the learning abilities of students. the statement which are grammatically incorrect.
(e) None of these. 9) France's Health Minister Olivier (A)/ Veran says
that "people (B)/ are not in a danger" if they have
7) Which of the following words could fit in the blank received (C)/ AstraZeneca vaccine, saying (D)/ he
marked (I) to make the sentence grammatically himself has also had the jab. (E)
correct and meaningful?
(a) Unfettered (a) Only (B) and (C)
(b) Ducky (b) Only (C)
(c) Bewitching (c) Only (C) and (E)
(d) Nefarious (d) Only (B), (C), (D)
(e) Conceivable (e) All are correct.
Page 54 of 75
10) Meghalaya Chief Minister Conrad K Sangma expected, and this (D)/ supply difficulty is more
(A)/ took a dig over the Opposition party over (B)/ significant (E)/ then earlier ones, the BBC reported
criticisms relating to the power crisis in the (C)/ on Wednesday. (F)
State and asked Congress to (D)/ consider (a) Only (F)
changing its leadership "lest it doesn’t (E)/ wants to (b) Both (C) and (D)
go through the same mess that MeECL is going (c) Both (A) and (F)
through". (F) (d) Both (C) and (F)
(a) Both (E) and (F) (e) Both (A) and (D)
(b) Both (B) and (C)
(c) Only (C), (E), (F) 13) Having started his Regenerative (A)/ Agriculture
(d) Both (B) and (E) journey back in 2009 (B)/ by concentrating on soil
(e) All are correct. health, Tim (C)/ is now overseeing a complete
system (D)/ change based on biology, which(E)/
11) Prospects for marijuana legalization (A)/ in the occasionally needs a helping hand. (F)
new year aren't likely to benefit Charlotte's (B)/ Web (a) Both (E) and (F)
much, because the easy it (C)/ gets to buy "real" (b) Both (B) and (C)
marijuana, the lesser (D)/ interested I'd expect (c) Only (C), (E), (F)
consumers (E)/ to be in buying "marijuana-lite" (d) Both (B) and (E)
products like CBD. (F) (e) All are correct.
(a) Only (B)
(b) Only (A) and (D) Direction (14-18): In each of the questions given
(c) Only (C) below, a phrasal verb has been highlighted for
(d) Only (E) and (F) which possible meanings have been suggested in
(e) Only (A), (C), (F) the options following the statement. Identify the
most suitable meaning of the highlighted phrase.
12) Britain faces a reduction in the (A)/ amount of 14) His company is preparing to shut down in the
COVID-19 vaccines because there (B)/ are even event that their water supply is cut off.
less AstraZeneca shots (C)/ available than was (a) Discontinued
Page 55 of 75
(b) Discarded
(c) Curtailed 18) They’ve clearly shrugged off the disappointment
(d) Distressed of last week’s defeat.
(e) Abandoned (a) Internalized
(b) Be much affected by something
15) There was a look about John, as if he'd recently (c) Dealt with the situation easily
returned from the Front. (d) Forgotten
(a) Be careful (e) None of these.
(b) On the watch
(c) Being despised Direction (19-23): In each of the questions given
(d) To take care of someone below, a passage has been given which is either
(e) None of these. situational based or describes a scenario. Mark out
the correct inference that can be drawn regarding
16) The holdup happened at 8 p.m. Monday at The the person/ situation as your answer.
Korner Kupboard on Lawson Road. 19) ___________ individuals often believe that they
(a) Robbery have nothing to learn from others, so they act like
(b) Giving charge know-it-alls. They fight tooth and nail to be right and
(c) Oath Taking to show that others are wrong. As a result, they
(d) Scrutiny don't listen to other people's views. It is
(e) None of these. characterized by having an exaggerated sense of
our importance or abilities.
17) He was reprimanded for not staying in line, as Which of the following words could fit in the given
he would often drop back through the hallway. blank?
(a) Be reluctant to follow rules (a) Reliable
(b) Loiter (b) Biased
(c) Be slow to disappear (c) Valiant
(d) Get left behind (d) Bossy
(e) Leave silently (e) Arrogant
Page 56 of 75
20) Young children don’t yet realize how their own 22) Mrs.Y respects deadlines, and makes every
behavior can affect others. They may not effort to meet them. Meeting deadlines is
understand that their actions have consequences accomplished through proper planning and using
beyond their immediate wants. This might include work hours effectively. Management is more likely
running into the street without checking traffic or to give important projects to her because
jumping into a pool even though they can’t swim. management knows that the job will get done if she
Such kind of behavior can be termed __________? has accepted the responsibility. Mrs.Y even goes
(a) Stingy above and beyond the call of duty. She is a
(b) Conceited ____________ employee for the company.
(c) Pompous (a) Diplomatic
(d) Picky (b) Dependable
(e) Impulsive (c) Captivating
(d) Eloquent
21) J. K Rowling was nearly penniless, severely (e) Empathetic
depressed, divorced, and a single mom, who went
to school while writing Harry Potter. Rowling went 23) Katherine loves Tom. One day, she meets Tom
from needing government assistance to being one and he tells her unicorns live in New York City.
of the richest women in the world in a 5-year span. Without searching to find out if fairy tales have
She has set a perfect example of being sprung to life in midtown Manhattan, she believes it
____________. to be true. This can be termed ___________.
(a) Observant (a) Spiteful
(b) Gregarious (b) Fallacy
(c) Persistent (c) Nonchalant
(d) Reliable (d) Quarrelsome
(e) Sociable (e) None of these.
Page 57 of 75

Direction (1-8): 3) Answer: E
1) Answer: D All the given statements are correct in context of the
Refer to the third paragraph- “researchers can see given passage. These statements can be validated
that many predictions and findings of early internet from the texts quoted below:
research on social and psychological features of Statement (A) [Paragraph 1]: “Websites are
computer-mediated communication have held true, typically dedicated to a particular topic or purpose,
whereas others are not as true, and that the ranging from entertainment and social networking,
psychology of the internet is very much a sense of to providing news and education.”
the one and the many, the individual and the Statement (B) [Paragraph 4]: “Teachers who are
collective, the personal and the political; Blogs can looking to adopt digital technology should not
serve as a lens to observe the way in which people dismiss the power of the blog to revolutionize
currently use digital technologies and, in return, learning inside the classroom.”
transform some of the traditional cultural norms – Statement (C) [Paragraph 2]: “… subfield in
such as those between the public and the private.” psychology that focuses on the application of
Among the given statements, only the statement (d) psychological principles and research in order to
does not find any reference in the given passage. optimize the benefits that readers can derive from
Hence, option (d) is the most suitable answer consuming blogs is known as blog psychology.”
choice.
4) Answer: A
2) Answer: C Refer to the last paragraph- “It is more engaging
Refer to the first paragraph- “Blogging has come a than simply reading a textbook; and, it increases
long way from being interactive, online forms of the extroverts’ satisfaction in the classroom, and has a
traditional personal diary to becoming a repository host of other classroom benefits; Encouraging
of valuable information.” Referring to the quoted students to blog helps them see connection
text, we can infer that the statement given in option between what they learn from the class and the
(c) is the most suitable answer choice. different aspects of their lives, and ultimately realize
that reflective writing (through blogging) is a
Page 58 of 75
worthwhile skill in any field.” Referring to the quoted Hence, option (d) is the most suitable answer
text, only statement (B) does not find any reference choice.
in the given passage.
Hence, option (a) is the most suitable answer 7) Answer: E
choice. Among the given set of words, the most suitable
word to fill in the given blank is ‘conceivable’.
5) Answer: D Hence, option (e) is the most suitable answer
Among the given set of words, ‘pervasive’ is similar choice.
in meaning with ‘ubiquitous’. Hence, option (d) is Conceivable- capable of being imagined or grasped
the most suitable answer choice. mentally.
Ubiquitous- constantly encountered. Nefarious- (typically of an action or activity) wicked
Pervasive- present or noticeable in every part of a or criminal.
thing or place. Bewitching- enchanting or delightful.
Ominous- giving the worrying impression that Ducky- charming; delightful.
something bad is going to happen/ threateningly Unfettered- not confined or restricted.
inauspicious.
Gullible- easily persuaded to believe something; 8) Answer: B
credulous. Among the given set of words, ‘underpinnings’ will
Tentative- not certain or fixed; provisional. replace ‘adulteration’. A theory cannot be
Atrocious- horrifyingly wicked. adulterated but can have several underpinnings.
Adulteration- the action of making something
6) Answer: D poorer in quality by the addition of another
Refer to the second paragraph- “The good news is substance.
that teachers seem to be receptive to embracing Underpinnings- a set of ideas, motives, or devices
digital resources to propel student learning.” which justify or form the basis for something.
Referring to the quoted text, we can infer that the Compress- expresses in a shorter form/ a bridge.
statement given in option (d) is correct in context of Dawn- the beginning of a phenomenon or period of
the given question. time, especially one considered favorable.
Page 59 of 75
Advent- the fact of an event happening, an interested]. Hence, option (c) is the most suitable
invention being made, or a person arriving. answer choice.
Direction (9-13): 12) Answer: D

9) Answer: B In part (C) of the given statement ‘even less’ will be
In the given statement, the error is only in part (C) replaced with ‘fewer’. Fewer means “not as many”,
where 'in a danger' is the incorrect phrase and must therefore, we use fewer with countable nouns
be replaced with ‘in danger’. like cookies. ‘Less’ means “not as much.” We use
Hence, option (b) is the most suitable answer ‘less’ with uncountable nouns like milk.
choice. Also, in part (F), ‘then’ will be replaced with ‘than’.
Hence, option (d) is the most suitable answer
10) Answer: D choice.
In part (B), ‘dig over’ will be replaced with ‘dig at’.
The phrase ‘take a dig at someone’ means ‘a 13) Answer: E
remark that is intended to criticize, embarrass, or All the given parts of the statement are
make a joke about someone’. grammatically correct and do not require any
Also, in part (E) of the statement, we will eliminate improvements. Hence, option (e) is the most
‘doesn’t’ because “unless/ until/ lest” itself conveys suitable answer choice.
negative meaning (used to introduce the case in
which a statement being made is not true or valid). Direction (14-18):
Therefore, they will not be followed by ‘not’. 14) Answer: A
Hence, option (d) is the most suitable answer To cut off a supply of something means to stop
choice. providing it or stop it being provided. Among the
given set of options,
11) Answer: C The most suitable meaning has been mentioned in
In the given statement, the error is in part (C) option (a).
because here, ‘easy it gets’ will be replaced with
‘easier it gets’ so as to establish parallelism [lesser 15) Answer: B
Page 60 of 75
Look about (for someone or something): to try to The given passage illustrates a negative character
locate someone or something. Among the given set trait. ‘Arrogance’ is an attitude of superiority
of options, manifested in an overbearing manner or in
The most suitable meaning has been mentioned in presumptuous claims or assumptions. This is the
option (b). most suitable word to fit in the blank.
Hence, option (e) is the correct answer choice.
16) Answer: A Reliable- consistently good in quality or
Hold up- delay/ to stop in order to rob performance; able to be trusted.
Among the given set of options, Biased- unfairly prejudiced for or against someone
The most suitable meaning has been mentioned in or something.
option (a). Valiant- possessing or showing courage or
determination.
17) Answer: D Bossy- fond of giving people orders;
Drop back- fall back or get left behind. domineering.
Among the given set of options,
The most suitable meaning has been mentioned in 20) Answer: E
option (d). Stingy- mean; ungenerous.
Conceited- excessively proud of oneself / vain.
18) Answer: C Pompous- affectedly grand, solemn, or self-
Shrugs Off: (i) to show that something does not important.
worry or upset you. Picky- fussy and hard to please.
(ii) To deal with something easily and successfully. Impulsive- acting or done without forethought.
Among the given set of options,
The most suitable meaning has been mentioned in 21) Answer: C
option (c). Observant- quick to notice or perceive things.
Gregarious- (of a person) fond of company;
Direction (19-23): sociable.
19) Answer: E
Page 61 of 75
Persistent- continuing firmly or obstinately in an Empathetic- showing an ability to understand and

opinion or course of action in spite of difficulty or share the feelings of another.
opposition.
Reliable- consistently good in quality or 23) Answer: B
performance; able to be trusted. Spiteful- showing or caused by malice.
Sociable- willing to talk and engage in activities with Fallacy- a failure in reasoning which renders an
other people; friendly. argument invalid.
Nonchalant- (of a person or manner) feeling or
22) Answer: B appearing casually calm and relaxed; not displaying
Diplomatic- of or concerning diplomacy. anxiety, interest, or enthusiasm.
Dependable- trustworthy and reliable. Quarrelsome- given to or characterized by
Captivating- capable of attracting and holding quarrelling.
interest; charming.
Eloquent- fluent or persuasive in speaking or
writing.
General Awareness
1. World Hindi Day is observed on which date? Vishwa Hindi Divas commemorates the anniversary of
A) January 11 the first World Hindi Conference held in Nagpur on
B) January 12 January 10, 1975.

C) January 10 The conference was inaugurated by the then prime
D) January 13 minister Indira Gandhi in Nagpur.
E) January 15 World Hindi Day was first celebrated in 2006 by former

Answer: C Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.
World Hindi Day is celebrated every year on January 10. The aim of the conference was to promote Hindi
language worldwide.
Page 62 of 75
National Hindi Divas which is celebrated annually on Roopa Ganguly, Lok Sabha MP Parvesh Sahib Singh
September 14. and eminent journalist Prafulla Ketkar.
2. Who will address the National Youth Parliament 3. India has now become the ______ largest
Festival 2021? manufacturer of PPE kits and suits.

A) Rajnath Singh A) 6th
B) Venkiah Naidu B) 2nd
C) Anurag Thakur C) 3rd

D) Ram Nath Kovind D) 4th
E) Narendra Modi E) 5th
Answer: E Answer: B
National Youth Parliament Festival, 2021 will be held in Union Minister for textile and women and child
the Central Hall of Parliament. development Smriti Irani has said that India has become
Prime Minister Narendra Modi will address the the second largest manufacturer of PPE kits and suits in
Valedictory Function of second National Youth the world in record three months’ time during the corona
Parliament Festival, 2021 through video conferencing. virus induced lockdown in March 2020.
The first three winners will get an opportunity to speak She was speaking after inaugurating - Surat
before the Prime Minister. International Textile Expo -SITEX at Surat, the Gujarat’s
The Prime Minister will also interact with the youth on first physical exhibition after Covid19.
the occasion. Speaking on this occasion, the Union Minister of state
84 winners from States and Union Territories will get an for women and child welfare Debasree Chaudhuri has
opportunity to be present in the Central Hall of said that industrial revolution can be brought in West
Parliament before the Lok Sabha Speaker, Deputy Bengal, if it follows the Gujarat model.
Chairman of Rajya Sabha along with Youth Affairs and
Sports Minister Kiren Rijiju and other dignitaries. 4. Indian Railways has attained a train speed of ______
29 National winners will get an opportunity to speak kmph on Golden Quadrilateral - Golden Diagonal route.
before the National Jury comprising of Rajya Sabha MP A) 150
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B) 145 Answer: D
C) 130 The Education Ministry has issued guidelines for
D) 125 identification, admission and continued education of
E) 140 migrant children.
Answer: C The guidelines highlight the continuation of non-

Indian Railways has started the New Year by achieving residential training for identified out of school children
a landmark to enhance the maximum speed to 130 through volunteers, local teachers and community
kmph for 1,280 km length out of 1,612 Km in Golden participation.

Quadrilateral - Golden Diagonal route. States and UTs to carry out proper identification of
This covers the entire GQ-GD route over South Central OoSC for 6 to 18 years age group through a
Railway, except Vijayawada - Duvvada section, where comprehensive door to door survey and prepare action
signaling up gradation work is in progress. plan for their enrolment.
This included heavier rails, laying of 260 meters long It also stressed to undertake awareness generation
welded rail panels, improvement of curves and gradients among parents and community for enrolling and
among others. attendance of children.
Piyush Goyal is the Union minister for Railways and The main features of the guidelines are identifying out of
Minister of Railways and Minister of Commerce & school children, continued education for out of school
Industry in the Government of India. children (OoSC) and children with special needs and
enrolment drives and awareness generation.

5. The Centre has provided guidelines for Migrant
Children, asking states to carry out proper identification 6. World's largest Floating Solar Plant will be
for children of age group ______. constructed at Omkareshwar Dam in which state?
A) 8 to 18 A) Karnataka
B) 7 to 18 B) Kerala
C) 4 to 18 C) Madhya Pradesh
D) 6 to 18 D) Haryana
E) 5 to 15 E) Chhattisgarh
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Answer: C E) Axis
The World's largest Floating solar energy project is to be Answer: B
constructed at Omkareshwar dam on Narmada river and Central Bank of India (CBoI) and
will be operational by 2023 and an estimated cost of NABFOUNDATION,entered into a Memorandum of
INR30 billion ($409.8m). Understanding (MoU), whereby working capital will be

About the Solar Plant : provided by the bank to all self-help groups (SHGs)
It would be a 600 MW plant based on utilising solar which have an account with it and undertake the
energy Nabard-sponsored ‘My Pad My Right’ project.

The plant would be located on Omkareshwar dam in NABFOUNDATION, which is a wholly-owned subsidiary
Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
The project is likely to begin generation of power by Development (Nabard).

2022-23 This cheap, collateral-free credit support is just what the
That electricity will be produced by installing solar panels rural women will need as they take up manufacturing on
in a 2,000 hectares area of water. a regular basis.

The International Finance Corporation, World Bank and The project would see Nabard providing a total support
Power Grid have agreed in principle to support the of nearly ₹50 crore over the next three years.
project development.
The Madhya Pradesh power management company has 8. Which bank along with Indian Oil will launch a
signed an agreement to buy 400MW power from the contactless RuPay debit card?
project. A) PayTM
B) Bandhan
7. Which bank has tied up with NABFOUNDATION to C) SBI

Provide loans to Self - help groups? D) ICICI
A) SBI E) Axis
B) Central Bank of India Answer: C

C) Oriental Bank of Commerce
D) Bandhan
Page 65 of 75
State Bank of India (SBI) and Indian Oil Corporation D) RS Sharma

(IOC) launched a co-branded contactless RuPay debit E) Ramesh Chand
card. Answer: D
This Debit Card was launched by Mr. Dinesh Kumar The Union government has appointed RS Sharma,
Khara, Chairman, SBI and Mr. Shrikant Madhav Vaidya, former TRAI chief, as the chairperson of an empowered
Chairman, IndianOil, in a virtual ceremony . committee for administration of Covid-19 vaccine.
The features of the card are: This has come days ahead of the mega vaccination
6X Reward Points for every Rs. 200/- spent at IndianOil drive to start in India.
fuel stations A ten member team has been constituted to be headed
Fuel benefits – Cardholder earns loyalty points worth by Sharma.
0.75% against purchase of fuel at IndianOil fuel stations The panel can invite eminent persons as and when
Pay with a tap (contactless card) for a single transaction required to ensure delivery of the vaccine through the
of upto Rs. 5000/- Co-Win technology platform
Earn Reward Points on spends on dining, movies, It must be noted that Sharma is also a member of the
grocery and utility bills National Expert Group on Vaccine Administration of
Redeem Reward Points for dining, movies, grocery and Covid-19 that was formed in August 2020 and is headed
paying utility bills by Niti Aayog member, VK Paul.
No monthly limit for purchasing fuel Sharma was the first person to officially initiate a
SBI-IndianOil Co-branded RuPay Debit Card can be discussion on vaccination delivery in the government in
issued anywhere in India the summer of 2020 when Covid-19 cases peaked.
Apply for a card by visiting SBI’s home branch.
10. National Youth Day 2021 is observed on which of

9. Who will head the empowered panel for Covid-19 the following date?
vaccine? A) January 11
A) Amitabh Kant B) January 14

B) VK Saraswat C) January 16
C) VK Paul D) January 17
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E) January 12 D) Anurag Thakur

Answer: E E) Narendra Modi
The National Youth Day is observed all over India on 12 Answer: B
January. Union Home Minister Amit Shah launched the 'Single
Theme for National Youth Day 2021 is ‘Channelizing Window Clearance System', an online platform to obtain
Youth Power for Nation Building clearances for smooth operationalisation of coal mines.
Since 1984, the birthday of Swami Vivekananda It will be an online platform to obtain clearances for
(January 12) is celebrated as National Youth Day across smooth operationalisation of coal mines.
the country. The Coal Sector has the potential to be the biggest
The day was chosen to honour one of India’s greatest contributor towards Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s
spiritual and social leaders, Swami Vivekananda. Vision of making India a 5 trillion dollar economy by
It is also commonly known as Yuva Diwas. 2024.
One of the main objectives of National Youth Day is to This will give the states an estimated revenue of about
promote rational thinking among the youth, who are the Rs 6500 crore per year and will also create more than
future of the country. 70,000 Jobs.
National Youth Day which aims to discuss the lectures,
thoughts and writings of Swami Vivekananda. Several
competitions on essay writing, debates and poetry also 12. Which country will be the focus country at the 51st
mark the day. International Film Festival of India?

In 2021, we are observing the 158th birth anniversary of A) Singapore
Swami Vivekanand (12 January 1863). B) Thailand
C) Vietnam
11. Who among the following has launched a 'Single D) Sri Lanka
Window Clearance System' for coal mines? E) Bangladesh
A) Suresh Prabhu Answer: E

B) Amit Shah
C) Prahlad Patrel
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Bangladesh has been chosen as the ‘Country in Focus’ D) Amit Shah

for the 51st International Film Festival of India (IFFI) E) Harsh Vardhan
starting at Goa on January 16. Answer: E
The country of focus section will include Jibandhuli Union Minister of Earth Sciences, Dr Harsh Vardhan on
directed by Tanvir Mokammel, Meghmallar directed by January 09 inaugurated Coastal Research Vessel (CRV)
Zahidur Rahman Anjan, Under Construction by Rubaiyat 'Sagar Anveshika' at Chennai Port Trust.
Hossain and Sincerely Yours, Dhaka by Nuhash It will be used for research purposes by the National
Humanyun, Syed Ahmed Shawki and 9 other individual Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) and has been built
directors. by Titagarh Wagons, Kolkata, West Bengal.
The International Film Festival of India (IFFI), founded in The vehicle will be used to carry out environment
1952, is one of the most significant film festivals in Asia. indexing and bathymetric (mapping underwater features)
The festival aims at providing a common platform for the in both coastal and offshore waters.
cinemas of the world to project the excellence of the film NIOT already has 6 Research Vessels – Sagar Kanya,
art, contributing to the understanding and appreciation of Sagar Sampada, Sagar Nidhi, Sagar Manusha, & Sagar
film cultures of different nations in the context of their Tara.
social and cultural ethos, and promoting friendship and
cooperation among people of the world. 14. RBI has cancelled the licence of which bank
The festival is conducted jointly by the Directorate of recently?
Film Festivals (under the Ministry of Information and A) Apna Sahakari Bank.
Broadcasting) and the state Government of Goa B) Adarsh Co-operative Bank
The festival will conclude on 24th January. C) Abhyudaya Co-op. Bank
D) Vasantdada Nagari Sahakari Bank

13. Who among the following has inaugurated the E) Karad Sahakari Bank
Coastal Research Vessel 'Sagar Anveshika'? Answer: D
A) Venkiah Naidu The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has cancelled the
B) Narendra Modi licence of Vasantdada Nagari Sahakari Bank Ltd.,
C) Rajnath Singh
Page 68 of 75
Osmanabad, Maharashtra to carry on banking business, BCCI secretary Jay Shah is all set to be named as
with effect from the close of business on January 11. India's representative in the ICC Board.
The Bank has failed to comply with the requirements of He will replace BCCI president Sourav Ganguly, was the
Section 11(1) read with Section 56 of BR Act and thus person going on behalf of India to any meetings or
would be unable to pay its present depositors in full in its interactions of the ICC Board, but he had recently
current financial position. suffered a heart condition on January 2 and was
The Commissioner for Cooperation and Registrar of subsequently admitted to a hospital in his home town in
Cooperative Societies (RCS), Maharashtra has also Kolkata where he underwent primary angioplasty.
been requested to issue an order for winding up the
bank and appoint a liquidator for the bank. 16. Which country will host the 4th One Planet Summit
With the cancellation of licence and commencement of in cooperation with UN and World Bank?
liquidation proceedings, the process of paying the A) China
depositors of Vasantdada Nagari Sahakari Bank as per B) US
the DICGC Act will be set in motion. C) Israel

D) Germany
15. Who has been named as BCCI's representative on E) France
ICC Board? Answer: E
A) Ranjit Kapoor The Government of France, in cooperation with the UN
B) Nisha Gupta and the World Bank, the 'One Planet Summit' for
C) Jay Shah biodiversity on January 11 aims to advance the
D) Arun Kumar protection of nature.
E) Umesh Sinha French President Emmanuel Macron, UN Secretary-

Answer: C General Antonio Guterres, and World Bank Group
On Jan 10, 2021, Jay Shah was named as the official President David Malpass are organising the fourth 'One
representative of Board of Control for Cricket in India Planet Summit' which will focus on biodiversity to
(BCCI) for the International Cricket Council (ICC) Board mobilise commitments to protect ecosystems and make
meetings. links to human health.
Page 69 of 75
The theme of the Summit was “Let’s act together for entrepreneur Venkatrangam Sreeram are on the board
nature!” of the India unit, Tesla India Motors and Energy Pvt Ltd.
The summit programme will focus on The total paid up capital of the company is Rs 1,00,000
Biodiversity preservation and authorised share capital is Rs 15 lakhs.
The protection of terrestrial and marine ecosystems

The promotion of agroecology, 18. Who among the following has unveiled India’s first
The mobilisation of funding for biodiversity indigenously developed driverless metro car?
The link between deforestation, species and human A) Prahlad Patel

health. B) Venkiah Naidu
The event will be in a hybrid format with the participation C) Harsh Vardhan
of leaders in person in Paris and via video-tele- D) Rajnath Singh

conferencing. It will be live-streamed on webtv.un.org. E) Narendra Modi
Answer: D
17. Tesla will set up India’s subsidiary in which city? Defence Minister Rajnath Singh unveiled the country’s
A) Raipur first indigenously designed and developed Driverless
B) Chandigarh Metro Car at the BEML manufacturing facility in
C) Puducherry Bengaluru.
D) Bengaluru The indigenously designed & developed state-of-the-art
E) Chennai Driverless Metro trains are being manufactured at BEML

Answer: D Bangalore manufacturing facility, for Mumbai
Elon Musk-owned electric vehicle (EV) company Tesla Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA).
has registered a fully-owned subsidiary in Bengaluru, BEML bagged a total order of 576 cars for Mumbai
Karnataka. Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA)’s
The firm is looking at setting up an R&D facility and MRS1 project and the supply is scheduled progressively
eventually an assembly plant. up to January 2024.

Tesla’s global senior director David Jon Feinstein, chief
accounting officer Vaibhav Taneja and Bengaluru-based
Page 70 of 75
BEML recently opened its Depot office at Charkop Metro D) Kerala

Depot, MMRDA, Mumbai for commissioning, testing and E) Odisha
round-the-clock services for Driverless Metro cars. Answer: E
Odisha Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik inaugurated the
19. Indian Army Day is being Observed On which date? ‘Fire Park’, a first of its kind initiative in the country, to
A) January 11 bring awareness on fire safety measures.
B) January 15 This Will Facilitate Demonstrations on use of first aid
C) January 13 fire-fighting equipment, rescue and disaster operations,

D) January 16 visit to exhibition hall, screening of films and distribution
E) January 17 of leaflets on fire safety will be part of the activities.
Answer: B Students from schools and colleges will be the focus

Army Day is celebrated on January 15 every year to group.
honor the soldiers of the country, who have set the He also launched a dynamic online portal,
greatest example of selfless service and brotherhood ‘AgnishamaSeva’ of Odisha Fire Service on virtual
and more than anything the love for the country. platform.
In 2021 Marks India's 73rd Army Day.
Army Day is celebrated every year at all Army 21. ICT Grand Challenge for development of ‘smart
Command headquarters. water supply measurement and monitoring system’ is
On the occasion of the 73rd Indian Army Day, the Indian being held by which ministry?
Army will organise a marathon 'Vijay Run' to A) Ministry of Earth Sciences
commemorate Swarnim Vijay Varsh celebrations of B) Ministry of Education
India's resounding victory over Pakistan in 1971. C) Ministry of Human Resource Development
D) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
20. India’s first Fire Park will come up in which state? E) Ministry of
A) Punjab Answer: D
B) Karnataka
C) Maharashtra
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An ICT Grand Challenge for development of a ‘smart C) Vikram Mehta

water supply measurement and monitoring system’ is D) P Vasudevan
underway. E) Manoranjan Mishra
It was launched on the 15th of September, 2020 by Answer: B
National Jal Jeevan Mission in partnership with the The Reserve Bank of India has set up a working group
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. to study digital lending activities of the regulated and
Jal Jeevan Mission would be the user agent of the unregulated players.
Grand Challenge and C-DAC, Bangalore is the The group will suggest steps to regulate digital lending
implementing agency, providing technical support for the including online lending platform and mobile lending.
challenge. The six-member panel comprised of four RBI internal
Currently, 10 applicants which were selected are and two external members
developing prototypes. Chairman : Jayant Kumar Dash, Executive Director,
They will be evaluated in the last week of January Ajay Kumar Choudhary, Chief General Manager-in-
wherein best four techno-economically viable prototypes Charge, Department of Supervision,

will be selected for product development. P Vasudevan, Chief General Manager, Department of
Jal Jeevan Mission is a flagship programme of the Union Payment and Settlement Systems, RBI
Government which aims to provide tap water connection Manoranjan Mishra, Chief General Manager,
to every rural household by 2024. Announced by the Department of Regulation.
Prime Minister on 15th August 2019, the Mission so far The two external members are
has provided 3.13 crore household tap connections in Vikram Mehta, Co-founder, Monexo Fintech and Rahul
rural areas. Sasi,
Cyber Security Expert & Founder of CloudSEK.

22. RBI forms 6 Member working group to study digital This Group will submit its report within 3 months.
lending activities of the regulated and unregulated The group will evaluate digital lending activities and
players, the panel headed by? assess the penetration and standards of outsourced
A) Ajay Kumar Choudhary digital lending activities in RBI regulated entities.
B) Jayant Kumar Dash
Page 72 of 75
23. Who among the following has won the presidency of D) Japan
Kyrgyzstan? E) Sweden
A) Almazbek Atambayev Answer: D
B) Sadyr Japarov India and Japan signed a memorandum of
C) Rustam Japarov understanding (MoU) to enhance cooperation in the field

D) Dastan Japarov of Information and Communications Technology (ICT),
E) Aigul Japarova including 5G standardisation.
Answer: B The MoU was signed between Ravi Shankar Prasad,

Nationalist politician Sadyr Japarov won a landslide Minister for Communications, Electronics and IT and the
victory in Kyrgyzstan's snap presidential election, which Japanese Minister for Internal Affairs and
was triggered by the collapse of the previous Communications Takeda Ryota, through a video
government. conference.
Japarov has won almost 80% of the vote in the Central As per the agreement, both the countries will enhance
Asian nation which is closely allied with Russia, mutual cooperation in the field of 5G technologies,
preliminary results cited by Kyrgyzstan's Central Election telecom security, submarine optical fibre cable system to
Commission. islands of India, spectrum management, smart cities,
Kyrgyzstan has been in crisis since parliamentary high-altitude platform for broadband in unconnected
elections last October. areas, disaster management and public safety.
The results of those elections were disputed, leading to The new agreement will bring the cooperation between
protests and the resignation of then-President Japan and India in the field of ICT to another level,
Sooronbay Jeenbekov. which has already been close under the Japan-India ICT
Comprehensive Cooperation Framework of 2014

24. India has inked a MoU with which country to
Enhance Cooperation in the Field of ICT? 25. Indian Army has signed a $______ million contract
A) Netherlands with ideaForge to buy SWITCH drones.

B) France A) 30
C) Germany B) 26
Page 73 of 75
C) 24 The contract marks a strategic shift in the Indian defence

D) 22 procurement process as the Indian Army goes on an
E) 20 aggressive modernization drive. It has also cemented
Answer: E ideaForge's position as India's largest manufacturer of
The Indian Army has signed an approximately $20 drones for defence, homeland security and industrial
million contract for undisclosed quantities of a high- applications.
altitude variant of ideaForge's SWITCH UAV which will
be delivered over a period of 1 year.

IdeaForge has been awarded this contract after it
emerged as the only vendor that qualified the
operational requirements in an evaluation done in real-

world conditions, for a fast-track procurement.
Page 74 of 75
Page 75 of 75
Page 1 of 101
Reasoning Ability
Direction (1-5): Study the following information c) Three

carefully and answer the below questions. d) None
LHIORDEJQOMLTIZEIHPS e) More than three
Step 1: Consider the above series, all the
consonants are changed to the third succeeding 2) If all the vowels in the series formed in step 3 are
letter, and all the vowels are changed to the dropped then, which of the following element is
immediate preceding letter as in the English ninth from the left end?
alphabetical series. a) T
Step 2: After completing step 1, every fourth letter is b) P
changed to its immediate succeeding letter as in the c) D
English alphabetical series from the left end. d) W
Step 3: After completing step 2, every sixth letter is e) None of these
changed to the immediate preceding letter of the
English alphabetical series from the left end. 3) How many letters are there according to the
Step 4: After completing step 3, every four letters English alphabetical series between the sixth letter
(from the left end) in a consecutive manner are kept from the left end and the ninth letter from the right
together in such a way that to form five meaningful end in the series thus formed in step 3?
words. The first four letters can be rearranged a) Eight
among themselves, similarly, the next four letters b) Thirteen
can be re-arranged and so on to form meaningful c) Five
words. If no meaningful word is formed then the d) Three
letters in the words are written in a consecutive e) None of these
manner.
1) How many meaningful words can be formed in 4) How many such consonants are there in the
step 4? series thus formed in step 3, which is/are
a) Two immediately preceded by vowels and immediately
b) One followed by a consonant?
Page 2 of 101
a) One the vowels (as in English alphabetical series)in step

b) Five 1 are arranged from left to right.
c) Four Step 3: After completing step 2, the letters with its
d) Three corresponding numerical value which is the multiple
e) None of these of 6 as per the English alphabetical series was
shifted at the starting of the series in reverse
5) If a three-letter meaningful word can be formed alphabetical order.
by using the first, ninth and eleventh letters from the Step 4: After completing step 3, If any letter is
left end in step 1 then which of the following letter is repeated more than twice, then remove the letter
the last letter of the newly formed meaningful word? from the arrangement and replaced all the letters
If no such word is formed, mark as “$” else if more with its immediately succeeding letter except (Z) as
than one word is formed, mark as “@”. per the English alphabetical series.
a) C Step 4 is the last and final step and the outcome in
b) W this step is the final series. As per the steps given
c) E above, find out the final alphabet series and answer
d) @ the following questions given below.
e) $ 6) How many letters are there in Step 3?
a) 24
Direction (6-10): Study the following information b) 25
carefully and answer the questions given below. c) 26
IDIOSYNCRATIXY d) 23
Step 1: Consider the word given above and e) None of these
interchange every two letters of the word.
Step 2: The immediate preceding letter of all the 7) If a four-letter meaningful word is formed using
consonants (as in English alphabetical series) in the letters 1st, 3rd, 4th, and 6th from the left end of
step 1 are arranged from left to right just after X the series in step 4, then what will be the third letter
without replacing step 1 and in the same order of that word? If no such word is formed, mark as ‘$’
followed by the immediate succeeding letter of all
Page 3 of 101
else if more than one meaningful word is formed 10) If all the letters are arranged in alphabetical
mark as ‘@’. order from left to right in step 1, then how many
a) M letters remain unchanged in their position?
b) A a) One
c) D b) Two
d) $ c) Three
e) @ d) More than three
e) None
8) How many vowels are immediately preceded by
the consonants which are present in the first half of Direction (11-15): Study the following information
the English alphabetical series in Step 2? carefully and answer the questions given below.
a) 1 QGWNQBMIVFCPWQLPWBJA
b) 3 Step 1: Consider the above series. All the letters in
c) 2 the series are changed to the third succeeding letter
d) None as per the English alphabetical series.
e) Cannot be determined Step 2: After completing step 1, every fourth letter
from the left end is changed to its immediate next
9) Which of the following letter is third to the left of letter in the English alphabetical series whereas the
the thirteenth letter from the right end in the final letters in the prime numbered position from the left
step? end are changed to its immediate previous letter in
a) M the English alphabetical series.
b) C Step 3: After completing step 2, the letter which has
c) S its corresponding number as the least composite
d) P number in the English alphabetical series is added
e) None of these at every fifth position in the series from the left end.
Step 4: After completing step 3, every five letters
are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right
within themselves to form five-letter words.
Page 4 of 101
Step 4 is the last and final step and the outcome in c) O

this step is the final series. As per the steps given d) E
above, find out the final alphabet series and answer e) None of these
the following questions given below. 14) If all the vowels are placed in alphabetical order
11) How many meaningful words are formed from at the end of the series, then which of the following
the given series? is sixth to the right of the twelfth letter from the left
a) Two end?
b) Three a) I
c) More than three b) L
d) One c) Y
e) No such words d) E
e) None of these
12) If a four-letter meaningful word is formed using
the letters in the word which is second from the 15) How many letters are there according to the
right end, then what will be the first letter of the English alphabetical series between the letters
word newly formed? If no such word is formed, which are fifth from the right end and thirteenth from
mark as ‘$’ else if more than two words are formed the left end in the series?
mark as ‘@’. a) 6
a) T b) 4
b) D c) 5
c) O d) 7
d) $ e) None
e) @
13) Which of the following letter is sixth to the left of carefully and answer the questions given below.
the sixteenth from the left end in the final series? Seven persons viz. M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are
a) S seated in a linear row such that all of them are
b) D facing towards the south, but not necessarily in the
Page 5 of 101
same order. Each person wears different coloured b) The one who sits second to the left of M
dress viz. Black, Blue, Brown, Green, Purple, Red c) The one who wears Brown colour dress
and Yellow. Also, each person is from different d) The one who sits to the immediate right of S
place viz. Erode, Gaya, Jhansi, Noida, Rajkot, e) None of these
Solapur and Thane.
Atleast three persons sit to the left of the one who 17) How many persons sit between P and the one
wears Green colour dress but doesn’t sit at any of who is from Noida?
the ends. R sits third to the left of the one who a) One
wears Green colour dress who sits to the immediate b) Two
right of the one who is from Solapur. The number of c) Three
persons to the right of the one who is from Solapur d) More than three
is the same as the number of persons to the left of e) None
the one who wears Purple colour dress. Q sits
second to the right of the one who wears Purple 18) Four of the following five are alike in a certain
colour dress. Only three persons sit between Q and way and hence form a group. Find the one that
the one who wears Brown colour dress, who sits to doesn’t belong to that group.
the immediate left of N.The number of persons to a) Brown – R – Noida
the left of N is the same as the number of persons b) Black – M – Thane
to the right of the one who is from Rajkot. The one c) Red – O – Solapur
who wears Blue colour dress is from Thane and sits d) Purple – O – Solapur
at the right end whereas the one who is from Erode e) Purple – Q – Rajkot
sits at the left end. O wears Black colour dress and
third to the left of P.S sits to the immediate left of 19) Which of the following colour dress worn by the
the one who is from Gaya, who doesn’t wear Yellow person from Erode?
colour dress. Neither R nor N is from Noida. a) Purple
16) Who among the following person is from b) Black
Jhansi? c) Brown
a) The one who wears Purple colour dress d) Red
Page 6 of 101
e) None of these of F, who is not adjacent to the one who is topper in

Civics. Only two persons stand between F and G,
20) Which of the following place does the person who is a topper in Maths but faces opposite to F. C
wearing the Yellow color belong to? got third-highest mark and stands second to the
a) Rajkot right of G whereas D got the second-highest mark
b) Jhansi but neither in Civics nor stands at any of the ends.
c) Noida The immediate neighbors of D face opposite
d) Solapur direction i.e. if one faces north, then the other faces
e) None of these south and vice versa. The one who is topper in
History stands second to the right of H, who got 92
Direction (21-25): Study the following information marks. H is not adjacent to G. The one who is
carefully and answer the questions given below. topper in Tamil stands to the immediate left of the
Eight persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are one who got the maximum highest mark, who is
standing in a straight line such that some of them fourth to the left of A. The one who is topper in
are facing north while some are facing south, but Botany stands exactly between the one who is
not necessarily in the same order. The number of topper in Zoology and Physics. The person who is
persons facing north is more than the number of topper in physics doesn’t get 98 marks. The one
persons facing south. Each person is topper in who is topper in English doesn’t stand adjacent to
different subjects viz. Botany, Civics, English, the one who got the third-lowest mark.
History, Maths, Physics, Tamil and Zoology. They 21) Who among the following person is topper in
got different marks which is a whole number Tamil?
between 90 and 100. No two persons are topper in a) The one who got 94 marks
the same subject and got the same marks. b) The one who stands to the immediate left of G
None of them got the mark in a prime number. E c) The one who stands third to the right of C
stands fifth to the right of the one who is topper in d) E
Civics where both face towards the south. The one e) None of these
who got the least marks stands second to the right
of the one who is topper in Civics but immediate left
Page 7 of 101
22) How many persons stand between A and the c) Physics

one who is topper in Botany? d) Tamil
a) One e) None of these
b) Two Direction (26-30): Study the following information
c) Three carefully and answer the questions given below.
d) More than three Eight persons namely – S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z
e) None are sitting in a row facing north. Each person has
different ID numbers viz. 12, 16, 18, 19, 21, 27, 36
23) What is the average marks got by F and the and 39. The distance between two adjacent
one who stands second to the right of E? persons is a consecutive multiple of 6m from the left
a) 93 end. All the information is not necessarily in the
b) 96 same order.
c) 94 The distance between the adjacent persons is
d) 95 neither more than 72m nor less than 12m. Three
e) None of these persons sit between W and the one who has ID
number 21. Three persons sit between T and the
24) How much mark does the person standing one who has ID number 16. Z sits 108m to the left
second to the left of C got? of V, who has ID number 27. The number of
a) Four marks higher than F persons who sit between W and Y is the same as
b) Two marks higher than D the number of persons sit between U and S. The
c) Three marks lower than E sum of the ID numbers of V and U is equal to the ID
d) One mark higher than B number of W. Only one person sits between the
e) None of these one who has the perfect cube ID number and the
one who has the ID number 21. At most four
25) In which of the following subject does B got the persons sit between V and Z. The one who has the
top mark? ID number 18 sits 54m to the left of the one who
a) History has the ID number 39. W neither sits adjacent to Z
b) English nor adjacent to Y. U doesn’t have the ID number
Page 8 of 101
21, but sits to the immediate left of X. Y has the ID b) 108m

number 19 and sits at any of the position to the left c) 54m
of T, but doesn’t sit at the end of the row. d) 78m
26) What is the position of X with respect to the one e) None of these
who has ID number 16?
a) 42m to the left 29) What is the position of Y with respect to the one
b) Second to the right who has the ID number 18?
c) 18m to the right a) Second to the right
d) Immediate left b) Third to the left
e) None of these c) Immediate right
d) Fourth to the left
27) Which of the following statement is/are not true e) None of these
with respect to the final arrangement?
I. T sits 126m to the right of the one who has the ID 30) Four of the following five are alike in a certain
number 21. way and hence form a group. Find the one that
II. Two persons sit between the one who has the ID doesn’t belong to that group.
number 39 and the one who has the ID number 19. a) TYS
III. X sits 24m to the left of the one who has the ID b) WVY
number 21. c) YZX
a) Only I d) SZX
b) Only II and III e) VSZ
c) Only III
d) Only I and III Direction (31-35): Study the following information
e) None of these carefully and answer the below questions.
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting
28) What is the distance between the one who has in the linear row facing the north. They are wearing
ID number 12 and S? different color shirts- Green, Red, Black, Yellow,
a) 72m Orange, Blue, Pink, and White. And they are
Page 9 of 101
wearing different brand shirts- Arrow, Peter color. The one who wears the Parx brand sits
England, Zodiac, Park Avenue, Code, Louis second to the left of the one who wears the Black
Phillipe, Allen Solly and Parx but not necessarily in color shirt. E does not wear a code-brand shirt.
the same order. 31) Who among the following person wears a Parx
D sits third to the left of the one who sits fourth to brand shirt?
the right of the one who wears the Green color shirt. a) F
The one who wears a green shirt sits fourth to the b) The one who sits second to the right of the one
left G. At least two persons are sitting to the right of who wears the Blue color shirt
G. F who wears Allen Solly sits to the right of G but c) The one who sits second to the left of H
does not sit at end of the row. The number of d) The one who sits immediate left of the one who
persons seated to the right of F is the same as to wears code brand
the left of the one who wears Peter England. H sits e) E
immediate left of A, neither of them sits end of the
row. E sits third to the right of the one who sits 32) Who among the following person sits to the left
immediate right of A. The number of persons who of the one who wears a Pink shirt?
sit to the left E is the same as to the right of the one I) The one who wears Peter England brand
who wears Arrow brand shirt. C neither wear green II) The one who wears Arrow brand
shirt nor Blue shirt. The number of persons sitting III) The one who wears the white color shirt
between A and C is the same as between the one a) Only (I) and (II)
who wears a blue shirt and the Park Avenue brand. b) Only (I)
The one who wears a blue shirt sits to the left of the c) Only (I) and (III)
one who wears a Park Avenue shirt which is pink in d) Only (II)
color. Neither H nor A wears the Blue color shirt. E e) All (I), (II), and (III)
wears red color. The one who is wearing the Zodiac
brand is in orange color. The one who wears 33) Which of the following combination is true?
orange color shirts sits to the left of the one who a) Red -Code
wears Pink color. The one who wears Black color b) Black- Allen Solly
sits immediate right of the one who wears yellow c) Blue- Arrow
Page 10 of 101
d) B- Yellow four of them are facing south. They are having

e) A- White different chocolates- Dairy Milk, KitKat, Munch,
Milkybar, Bar one, Perk, 5 stars, and Fuse but not
34) What is the position of the one who wears the necessarily in the same order. They are having a
Code brand with respect to the one who wears a different number of chocolates. The maximum
Pink shirt? number of chocolates is 25.
a) Third to the right Note: Not more than two persons are facing the
b) Second to the right same direction and the person whose name starts
c) Second to the left with consecutive letters in the English alphabetical
d) Third to the left series are not sitting together (ie., A is not sitting
e) Fourth to the right with B, B is not sitting with A and C and So on.,).
The one who has Perk chocolates sits third to the
35) Which of the following statement is true? right of the one who sits second to the left of S. S
I) The one who wears a Black shirt is an immediate sits second from either right end or left end. The
neighbor of the one who wears a Red Shirt one who has Perk does not sit at the end of the
II) H wears Peter England brand row. The one who has 5 stars sits second to the
III) G sits third to the right of the one who wears a right of the one who has a perk. V has Kitkat sits at
blue shirt the right end of the row facing the opposite direction
a) Only (I) and (II) of S. The one who has Dairy milk sits adjacent to S.
b) Only (I) Only two children are sitting between V and P. The
c) Only (I) and (III) number of children seated to the left of P is the
d) Only (II) same as to the left of W. P is facing the same
e) All (I), (II), and (III) direction of V. The immediate neighbor of W are
facing the same direction. The children seated at
Directions (36-40): Study the following information end of the row are facing the opposite direction. Q
carefully and answer the below questions. sits second to the right of R, vice versa. U sits to the
Eight children- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting left of Q. The one who has Munch is sitting second
in the linear row. Four of them are facing north and to the right of the one who has Fuse. One of them
Page 11 of 101
has 12 Milkybar chocolates. Neither P nor R has e) All (I), (II), and (III)
Milkybar. The Munch chocolate is twice of Bar one. 38) What is the sum of the chocolates with the one
The one who has the maximum number of who has Perk, U, and the one who sits immediate
chocolate sits immediate right of the one who has right of S?
Milkybar. The one who has Munch is 3 chocolates a) 48
less than V. The sum of Fuse and Bar one is two b) 44
less than Munch. The one who has 17 chocolates c) 62
sit second to the right of the one who sits second to d) 60
the right of the one who has 18 chocolates. The one e) 55
who has 16 chocolate sits immediate left of the one
who has fuse chocolate. 39) Four of the five among the following are similar
36) Who sits third to the left of the one who has 11 in such a way to form a group, which one of the
chocolates? following doesn’t belong to the group?
a) The one who has Dairy Milk a) The one who has Fuse
b) The one who has Munch b) The one who has 25 chocolates
c) S c) The one who has Munch
d) The one who has 25 chocolates d) The one who has Dairy Milk
e) None of those give in option e) Q
37) Who among the following children has more 40) Which of the following combination is true?
chocolates than the one who has 5 stars? I) T- Perk-18
I) The one who sits immediate right of W II) R- Munch- 16
II) The one who has Dairy Milk III) U-17-Dairy Milk
III) The one who has Perk a) Only (II) and (III)
a) Only (II) and (III) b) Only (I)
b) Only (I) c) Only (I) and (III)
c) Only (I) and (III) d) Only (II)
d) Only (II) e) All (I), (II), and (III)
Page 12 of 101

Direction (1-5): HOOK FUND TNPO CHEW HJSW
We have: 1) Answer: C
LHIORDEJQOMLTIZEIHPS 2) Answer: D
Step 1: Consider the above series, all the 3) Answer: A
consonants are changed to the third succeeding 4) Answer: C
letter, and all the vowels are changed to the 5) Answer: D
immediate preceding letter as in the English
alphabetical series. Direction (6-10):
OKHNUGDMTNPOWHCDHKSV IDIOSYNCRATIXY
Step 2: After completing step 1, every fourth letter is Step 1: D I O I Y S C N A R I T Y X
changed to its immediate succeeding letter as in the Step 2: D I O I Y S C N A R I T Y X C X R B M Q S
English alphabetical series from the left end. XWJPJBJ
OKHOUGDNTNPPWHCEHKSW Step 3: X X X R R D I O I Y S C N A I T Y C B M Q
Step 3: After completing step 2, every sixth letter is SWJPJBJ
changed to the immediate preceding letter as in the Step 4: S S E P Z T D O B U Z D C N R T X Q C
English alphabetical series from the left end. 6) Answer: E
OKHOUFDNTNPOWHCEHJSW 7) Answer: E
Step 4: After completing step 3, every four letters pest, pets, sept, step
(from the left end) in a consecutive manner are 8) Answer: A
taken together in such a way that to form five 9) Answer: D
meaningful words. (first four letters can be 10) Answer: B
rearranged among themselves, similarly the next
four letters can be re-arranged and so on to form Direction (11-15):
meaningful words. If no meaningful word is formed Given: Q G W N Q B M I V F C P W Q L P W B J A
letters in the words are written in a consecutive Step 1: T J Z Q T E P L Y I F S Z T O S Z E M D
manner) Step 2: T I Y R S E O M Y I E T Y T O T Y E L E
Page 13 of 101
Step 3: T I Y R D S E O M D Y I E T D Y T O T D Y
ELED
Step 4: DIRTY DEMOS DEITY DOTTY DEELY
11) Answer: C More than three
12) Answer: E @ (DOTY, TODY)
13) Answer: A S
14) Answer: D E
15) Answer: B 4
Direction (16-20):
2. The number of persons to the right of the one

who is from Solapur is the same as the number
of persons to the left of the one who wears
1. Atleast three persons sit to the left of the one Purple colour dress. Q sits second to the right
who wears Green colour dress but doesn’t sit at of the one who wears Purple colour dress.
any of the ends. R sits third to the left of the
one who wears Green colour dress who sits to
the immediate right of the one who is from
Solapur.
3. Only three persons sit between Q and the one

who wears Brown colour dress, who sits to the
immediate left of N. The number of persons to
the left of N is the same as the number of
Page 14 of 101
persons to the right of the one who is from 5. S sits to the immediate left of the one who is
Rajkot. from Gaya, who doesn’t wear Yellow colour
dress. Neither R nor N is from Noida. Hence,
cases 1 and 2 get eliminated.
4. The one who wears Blue colour dress is from

Thane and sits at the right end whereas the
one who is from Erode sits at the left end. O
wears Black colour dress and third to the left
of P.
16) Answer: A
17) Answer: B
18) Answer: D (adjacent persons)
19) Answer: C
20) Answer: D
Direction (21-25):
Page 15 of 101
1. They got different marks which is a whole mark but neither in Civics nor stands at any of
number between 90 and 100. No two persons the ends. Hence, case 3 gets eliminated.
are topper in the same subject and got the
same mark. None of them got the mark in a
prime number. Hence, the possible marks are
91, 92, 93, 94, 95, 96, 98 and 99.
2. E stands fifth to the right of the one who is
topper in Civics where both face towards the
south. The one who got the least marks stands
second to the right of the one who is topper in
Civics but immediate left of F, who is not
adjacent to the one who is topper in Civics.
4. The immediate neighbors of D face opposite

direction i.e. if one faces north, then the other
faces south and vice versa. The one who is
topper in History stands second to the right of
H, who got 92 marks. H is not adjacent to G.
3. Only two persons stand between F and G, who

is topper in Maths but faces opposite to F. C got
third-highest mark and stands second to the 5. The one who is topper in Tamil stands to the
right of G whereas D got the second-highest immediate left of the one who got the maximum
highest mark, who is fourth to the left of A. The
Page 16 of 101
one who is topper in Botany got 95 marks and

stands exactly between the one who is topper
in Zoology and Physics. The person who is Direction (26-30):
topper in physics doesn’t get 98 marks. Hence,
case 2 gets eliminated.
We have:
• Z sits 108m to the left of V, who has ID number
27.
• At most four persons sit between V and Z.
• The distance between the adjacent persons is
neither more than 72m nor less than 12m.
6. The one who is topper in English doesn’t stand
Since, the distance between two adjacent
adjacent to the one who got the third-lowest
persons is a consecutive multiple of 6m the
marks. The number of persons facing north is
from the left end.
one more than the number of persons facing
south.
We have different possible cases:

Case (1): One person sits between Z and V.
Then, X + (X + 6) = 108
X = 51, but X = 51 is not an integral multiple of
21) Answer: B 6m.
22) Answer: E Case (2): Two persons sit between Z and V.
23) Answer: C Then, X + (X + 6) + (X + 12) = 108
24) Answer: A X = 30, thus consecutive numbers between Z
25) Answer: D and V are 30, 36 & 42.

Case (3): Three persons sit between Z and V.
Page 17 of 101
Then, X + (X + 6) + (X + 12) + (X + 18) = 108 • The number of persons who sit between W
X = 18, thus consecutive multiples are: 18, 24, and Y is the same as the number of persons
30 & 36. who sit between U and S.
Case (4): Four persons sit between Z and V. • U doesn’t have the ID number 21, but sits to
Then, X + (X + 6) + (X + 12) + (X + 18) + (X + the immediate left of X.
24) = 108 • Y has the ID number 19 and sits at any of
X = 9.6, thus consecutive multiples are not the position to the left of T, but doesn’t sit at
integral multiple of 6m. the end of the row.
• Only one person sits between the one who has Based on above given information we have:
the perfect cube ID number and the one who
has the ID number 21.
Based on the above given information, we
have:
Again, we have:
• Three persons sit between T and the one
who has ID number 16.
Again, we have:
• The one who has ID number 18 sits 54m to
• Three persons sit between W and the one
the left of the one who has the ID number 39.
who has ID number 21.
• The sum of the ID numbers of V and U is
• W neither sits adjacent to Z nor adjacent to
equal to the ID number of W.
Y.
Based on the above-given information we have a
final arrangement as follows:
Page 18 of 101

possibilities.
26) Answer: D
27) Answer: C
28) Answer: A
29) Answer: E
30) Answer: D
Direction (31-35):
Final arrangement
Again we have,
• F who wears Allen Solly sits to the right of G
but does not sit at end of the row.
• The number of persons seated to the right of
F is the same as to the left of the one who
wears Peter England.
Common Explanation From the above condition, there are three
We have, possibilities.
• D sits third to the left of the one who sits
fourth to the right of the one who wears the
Green color shirt.
• The one who wears a green shirt sits fourth
to the left G.
• At least two persons are sitting to the right of
G.
Page 19 of 101
Again we have,
Again we have,
• C neither wear green shirt nor Blue shirt.
• H sits immediate left of A, neither of them
• The number of persons sitting between A
sits end of the row.
and C is the same as between the one who
• E sits third to the right of the one who sits
wears a blue shirt and the Park Avenue
immediate right of A.
brand.
• The number of persons who sit to the left E
• The one who wears a blue shirt sits to the
is the same as to the right of the one who
left of the one who wears a Park Avenue
wears Arrow brand shirt.
shirt which is pink in color.
• Neither H nor A wears the Blue color shirt.
• E wears red color.
Page 20 of 101
Again we have,
Again we have,
• The one who is wearing the Zodiac brand is
• E does not wear a code-brand shirt.
in orange color.
From the above condition, case2a shows the final
• The one who wears orange color shirts sits
arrangement.
to the left of the one who wears Pink color.
• The one who wears Black color sits
immediate right of the one who wears yellow
color.
• The one who wears the Parx brand sits
second to the left of the one who wears the
Black color shirt.
From the above condition, case2 gets eliminated. Linear seating Arrangement (Bi-directional, 3
variables)
31) Answer: D
32) Answer: A
33) Answer: B
34) Answer: B
Page 21 of 101
35) Answer: C
Direction (36-40):
Final Arrangement
We have, Again we have,

• The one who has Perk chocolates sits third • The one who has 5 stars sits second to the
to the right of the one who sits second to the right of the one who has a perk.
left of S. • V who is having Kitkat sits at the right end of
• S sits second from either the right end or left the row facing the opposite direction of S.
end. • The one who has Dairy milk sits adjacent to
• The one who has Perk does not sit at the S.
end of the row. From the above condition, there are three
From the above condition, there are two possibilities.
possibilities.
Page 22 of 101
Again we have,
• Only two children are sitting between V and Again we have,
P. • Q sits second to the right of R, vice versa.
• The number of children seated to the left of P • U sits to the left of Q.
is the same as to the left of W. From the above condition, case2 and case2a get
• P is facing the same direction as V. eliminated.
• The immediate neighbor of W is facing the

same direction.
• The children seated at end of the row are
facing the opposite direction.
Page 23 of 101
Again we have,
• The Munch chocolate is twice of Bar one.
• The one who has the maximum number of
chocolate sits immediate right of the one who
Again we have, has Milkybar.
• The one who has Munch is sitting second to • The one who has Munch is 3 chocolates less
the right of the one who has Fuse. than V.
• One of them has 12 Milkybar chocolates. • The sum of Fuse and Bar one is two less
• Neither P nor R has Milkybar. than Munch.
From the above condition, case1 has one more • The one who has 17 chocolates sit second to
possibility. the right of the one who sits second to the
right of the one who has 18 chocolates.
Page 24 of 101
36) Answer: D
Again we have, 37) Answer: A
• The one who has 16 chocolate sits 38) Answer: D
immediate left of the one who has fuse 39) Answer: C
chocolate. 40) Answer: C
1) Rajeev spent 15 % of his monthly salary on food, B.20 %

20 % on children’s education, 10 % on insurance C.35 %
and X % on other expenses. If the difference D.30 %
between the amount spent on food and insurance is E.None of these
Rs. 4000 and the saving is Rs. 20000, then find the
value of X? 2) Raghav spent 20% of his monthly income on
A.25 % household, 10% of the rest on education, 25% of
Page 25 of 101
the rest on entertainment and 20% of the rest on added to the box, then the number of red balls is
other expenditures. He saves Rs.____________. increased by 20% and the number of blue balls
Amount spent by Raghav on entertainment is increased by 9 and then the total number of balls in
Rs._____________. the box is increased by 23%. What is the ratio of
Which of the following option/options satisfies the the initial number of red to blue balls in the box?
given condition? A.17: 3
A.10800, 4500 B.3: 2
B.13500, 5625 C.13: 12
C.18900, 7875 D.3: 1
D.All of the above E.None of these
E.None of the above
5) In a college presidential election, only 60% of the
3) The bag contains a certain number of red, students cast their votes and only two candidates A
yellow, orange and blue balls. The number of red and B contested the election. A won the election by
balls is equal to 120% of the number of blue balls 200 votes. If A received 100 less than votes, the
and the number of yellow balls is 50% of the result will be tie, then find the number of students in
number of red balls. If 40% of the orange balls is the college?
equal to 60% of the blue balls and the difference A.800
between the number of orange and red balls is 15, B.900
then find the total number of balls. C.600
A.200 D.Cannot be determined
C.215
D.220 6) The marks obtained by a student in four subjects
E.None of these are in the ratio 2:5:4:2. The students scored an
overall aggregate of 65% in the exam. If the
4) Total number of Red and Blue balls in a box is maximum marks in each subject are the same, in
100. If a certain number of red and blue balls are
Page 26 of 101
how many subjects did the students score more C.Rs.6400

than 75% marks? D.Rs.7000
A.0 E.None of these
B.1
C.2 9) Vignesh spent 25% of his monthly salary on
D.3 food, 18% on children’s education, 7% on
E.Cannot be determined. insurance and X% on other expenses. If the
difference between the amount spent on food and
7) Out of the total monthly salary of Mahi, he insurance is Rs. 10800 and the saving is Rs.
spends 15 % on Rent, 10 % of his monthly salary 15000, then find the value of X?
on travelling expenses and 20 % on other A.25 %
expenses. 25 % of the remaining salary on food B.20 %
then the remaining salary is saved which is equal to C.35 %
Rs. 49500. Then find his expenditure on rent? D.30 %
A.Rs. 22000 E.None of these
B.Rs. 24000 10) If Renu has one laptop worth Rs.18000, 2
C.Rs. 18000 mobiles worth Rs.30000 and one car worth Rs.4
D.Rs. 26000 lakh. In next year, the cost of the car decreased by
E.None of these 20%, the price of the laptop is increased by 10%
and the cost of mobiles is decreased by 5%, then
8) Rajesh spends 30% of his salary on education what is the percentage change in the net worth of
fees, 20% of his salary on house rent, 20% of the Renu?
remaining on Loan, he spends Rs. x on transport A.20% decreases
and he saves Rs.1600 which is 20% of the B.19.7% decreases
remaining before he spends the salary on transport. C.18.4% decreases
Find the value of x? D.17.8% decreases
A.Rs.5600 E.None of these
B.Rs.7500
Page 27 of 101
11) Rajeev scored 412 marks in an exam and given order. The salary of X and Y is the same and
Sanjay got 75 % marks in the same exam which is the difference of their donations is Rs.102. The
8 marks more than Rajeev. If the minimum passing donation of Z is Rs.816. Then find the percentage
mark in the exam is 35 %, then how much more of the three donations to the total salary?
marks did Rajeev score than the minimum passing A.15.55%
marks? B.8.625%
A.185 C.12.50%
B.172 D.10.875%
D.198
E.223 14) Harsh goes to the furniture shop to buy a Chair
and a table. He bargains for a 20% discount on the
12) The number of male employees in the company table and a 30% discount on the Chair. However,
is 50% more than the number of female employees. the shopkeeper, by mistake, interchanged the
If 40% of the female employees work in the IT discount percentage figures while making the bill
department and 60% of male employees work in and Harsh paid accordingly then what percentage
the HR department. The difference between the did Harsh pay extra?
number of IT female employees and HR male A.9%
employees in the company is 45, then find the total B.7.50%
number of employees? C.10%
A.200 D.5.25%
C.250
D.275 15) Out of the total monthly salary Arvind spends
E.300 28% on his grocery items. Out of the remaining
salary he spends 12.5% on mobile, 17.5% on
13) Three friends X, Y, and Z donate 10%,11%, laptop, 25% on health and 5% on miscellaneous.
and 12% of their salary to a charitable trust in the
Page 28 of 101
Then find the monthly salary of Arvind if he is left A.20

with Rs. 14774.4? B.60
A.Rs. 37,630 C.50
B.Rs. 51,300 D.80
C.Rs. 32,820 E.40
D.Rs. 47,920
E.None of these 17) If the average of the total number of HR
employees in C is 240 which is 60% of the total
Directions (16-20): Study the following information number of male HR employees in B, then the total
carefully and answer the questions given below. number of employees in C is what percent of the
The given table shows the ratio of the number of total number of employees in B?
male to female employees and the ratio of the male A.52%
employees in IT and HR departments, female B.54%
employees in IT and HR departments in six different C.56%
companies. D.58%
E.None of these
18) If the total number of IT employees in C is equal

to the total number of IT employees in F, then what
is the ratio of the total number of employees in C to
F?
A.27:32
16) If the total number of HR employees in D is 90 B.33:37
more than the total number of female HR C.26:31
employees in D, then what is the difference D.15:16
between the total number of male IT employees E.Cannot be determined
and the total number of female HR employees in
D?
Page 29 of 101
19) If the total number of male IT employees in A is The given table shows the five persons to cover the
280 and the total number of employees in B is 25% distance and total time taken by the journey.
more than the total number of employees in A, then
what is the sum of the total number of female IT
employees in B and the total number of female HR
employees in B?
A.300
B.350 21) If the total journey is 2960 km and the ratio of
C.400 the distance travelled by Bala to Divya is 3:4 and
D.450 the speed of Bala is 25% more than the speed of
E.None of these Divya, then find the time taken by Bala to cover the
distance?
20) If the total number of male HR employees in D A.12 hours
is 140 more than the total number of male HR B.15 hours
employees in B and the total number of female IT C.18 hours
employees in B is 240 more than the total number D.20 hours
of female IT employees in D, then what is the E.None of these
difference between the total number of employees 22) If the speed of Bala and Divya in the ratio of 6:7
in B and D? and the time taken by Arul to cover the distance is
A.180 20% more than the time taken by Sharu. The ratio
B.190 of the time taken by Sharu and Bala is 2:3 and the
C.150 ratio of the time taken by Bala and Esai is 5:6. If the
D.200 ratio of the speed of Divya to Arul is 6:5, then what
E.100 is the average speed of the whole journey in all the
persons together?
Directions (21- 25): Study the following information A.33.6 kmph
carefully and answer the questions given below. B.35.8 kmph
C.32.8 kmph
Page 30 of 101
D.31.5 kmph ratio of the speed of Sharu to Arul is 5:7, then find
E.None of these the total time taken by all the persons together?
A.80 hours
23) If the distance covered by Divya is 450 km and B.72 hours
the time taken by Sharu to covers the distance is 7 C.75 hours
hours less than Arul, then the speed of Divya is D.84 hours
what percent of the speed of Sharu? E.None of these
A.54%
B.48% Directions (26-33): What value should come in the
C.36% place of (?) in the following questions?
D.24% 26) 27 x (390 / 13) – 40% of 760 + 4³ = (?)
B.530
24) If the speed of Bala and Divya is 40 kmph and C.570
60 kmph respectively and the time taken by Bala to D.430
covers the distance is 3 hours less than Esai and E.None of these
the speed of Esai is 30 kmph, then what is the
average of the distance covered by Bala and 27) (10 * 10 + 8 * 8 – 10 * 8)/(1000 + 512) =?
Divya? A.1/12
A.1050 km B.1/16
B.1450 km C.1/18
C.1250 km D.1/20
D.1150 km E. None of these
E.None of these
28)
25) If the ratio of the distance covered by Sharu,
Bala and Divya is in the ratio of 5:6:15 and the ratio
of the speed of Divya, Bala and Esai is 3:2:6. If the
Page 31 of 101
A.50 32) 40 % of 290 + √1225 * √256 - 60 % of 650 = ?

B.49 A.286
C.47 B.296
D.41 C.276
E.48 D.218
E.264
29) (132×15) +
33) 136% of 650 – 60% of 360+65% of 480=?
A.2500
A.1080
B.2200
B.980
C.2300
C.1010
D.2400
D.998
E.2600
E.1000
30) 13331 + 1221 + 13113 + 121212 + 33311 = ?

Directions (34-40): What approximate value should
A.180188
come in the place of (?) in the following questions?
B.181188
34) (29.09) * (33.23) – 117.18 =? * 11.903
C.188178
A.30
D.181288
B.40
E.182188
C.50
D.60
31) (√81 + 616)1/2 + 15 x 3/5 + 15 x? = 64
E.70
A.1
B.3
35) (2.31)4 + (8.12)2 -? = 14.99% of 219.78
C.4
A.47
D.2
B.15
E.5
C.81
D.27
Page 32 of 101
E.35 A.6
B.13
36) (47.86% of 5201.34) – (33.76% of 1680.103) = C.24
?2 D.38
A. +18 E.54
B.-36
C.-44 40) ? × 15.27 + (29.99)2 – (16.19)2 + 411.77 =
D.+22 (30.99)2 + (11.88)3
E.-27 A.111
B.109
37) {(11220 / 97.99) + 26.98 * 18.79 – (6640 / C.123
122.99)} = (?) D.131
A.527 E.120
B.578
C.567 Directions (41 - 45): The questions below are based
D.564 on the given Series-I. The Series II satisfy a certain
E.574 pattern, follow the same pattern in Series-II and
answer the questions given below.
38) (1349 – 89.99% of 199) ÷ 3 – (340.01 - 22.99) + 41)
{24.99² - (17.89 x 24.99)} / 24.88 = (?)² I) 5, 14, 39, 88, 187, 330
A.11 II) 23…..205. If 205 is the nth term find the value of
B.9 n
C.7 A.4
D.8 B.5
E.6 C.6
D.7
39) 17.35% of 8.31% of ? = 5.14% of 6.71% of E.3
49.82
Page 33 of 101
42) E.7
I) 15, 125, 262, 426, 619
II) 89…500. If 500 is the nth term find the value of 45)
n I) 2, 1, 9, 0, 64, 39
A.4 II) 152…214. If 214 is the nth term find the value of
B.5 n
C.3 A.3
D.6 B.6
E.7 C.4
D.5
43) E.2
I) 12, 24, 48, 84, 132
II) 218…398. If 398 is the nth term find the value of Directions (46 - 50): Find the wrong number in the
n given series and give the correct number as your
A.3 answer.
B.6 46) 18, 162, 1134, 5670, 17010, 18240
C.5 A.18240
D.7 B.17010
E.4 C.17012
D.17015
44) E.16215
I) 52, 112, 202, 328
II) 500…1316. If 1316 is the nth term find the value 47) 12, 15, 22, 41, 79, 157
of n A.20
A.5 B.21
B.4 C.23
C.6 D.24
D.3 E.Series is right
Page 34 of 101
II) y2 – 25y + 154 = 0

48) 1200, 720, 360, 144, 40.2, 8.64 A.x > y
A.43.2 B.x ≥ y
B.42.4 C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
C.41.8 D.x < y
D.44.6 E.x ≤ y
E.None will replace the wrong number
52)
49) 18.6, 101, 142.2, 162.8, 172.4, 178.25 I) x2 + 13x + 36 = 0
A.168.5 II) y2 + 19y + 90 = 0
B.170.4 A.x > y
C.173.1 B.x ≥ y
D.178.6 C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
E.174.3 D.x < y
E.x ≤ y
50) 36, 124, 201, 267, 320, 366
A.280 53)
B.308 I) x2 – x – 72 = 0
C.314 II) y2 – 20y + 99 = 0
D.322 A.x > y
E.348 B.x ≥ y
Directions (51-63): Following question contains two D.x < y
equations as I and II. You have to solve both E.x ≤ y
equations and determine the relationship between
them and give answer as, 54)
51) I: 5x2 – 26x + 33 = 0
I) x2 – 17x + 42 =0 II: 7y2 – 54y + 99 = 0
Page 35 of 101
A.If x < y II: y2+ 11y + 24 = 0

B.If x > y A.If x < y
C.If x ≤ y B.If x > y
D.If x ≥ y C.If x ≤ y
E.If relationship between x and y cannot be D.If x ≥ y
determined E.If relationship between x and y cannot be
determined
55)
I: 3x2 – 23x + 40 = 0 58)
II: 15y2 – 34y + 15 = 0 I: 3x2 – 25x + 52 = 0
A.If x ≤ y II: 2y2 – 19y + 35 = 0
B.If x ≥ y A.If relationship between x and y cannot be
C.If relationship between x and y cannot be determined
determined B.If x > y
D.If x < y C.If x < y
E.If x > y D.If x ≤ y
56) E.If x ≥ y
I: 8x2 - 22x + 15 = 0
II: 3y2 + 14y + 15 = 0 59)
A.If x > y I) x2 – 9x - 90 = 0
B.If x < y II) y2 – 14y + 48 = 0
C.If x ≤ y A.x > y
D.If relationship between x and y cannot be B.x ≥ y
determined C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
E.If x ≥ y D.x < y
E.x ≤ y
57)
I: 3x2 + 17x + 24 = 0 60)
Page 36 of 101
I) x2 – 28x + 75 = 0 I). 2x² + 7x + 5 = 0

II) y2 – 27y + 72 = 0 II). 3y² + 12y + 9 = 0
A.x = y or relationship can’t be determined. A.x ≤ y
B.x > y B.x ≥ y
C.x < y C.x = y or relationship cannot be determined
D.x ≥ y D.x < y
E.x ≤ y E.x > y
61) 63)
I) x2 – 15x + 14 = 0 I). x² – 17x + 72 = 0
II) 2y2 + 16y – 18 = 0 II). y² – 27y + 180 = 0
A.x > y A.x > y
B.x ≥ y B.x = y or relationship cannot be determined
C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined. C.x < y
D.x < y D.x ≤ y
E.x ≤ y E.x ≥ y
62)

1) Answer: D 75 % = (15 % + 20 % + 10 % + X %)
According to the question, X % = 75 % – 45 % = 30 %
(15 % – 10 %) of salary = 4000
5 % of salary = 4000 2) Answer: D
Total salary = 4000*(100/5) = Rs. 80000 = 100 % Let, total income of Raghav be Rs. P
Savings % = (20000/80000)*100 = 25 % (a)
Total salary (100 %) = Expense (75 %) + Savings (100 – 20)/100 x (100 – 10)/100 x (100 – 25)/100 x
(25 %) (100 – 20)/100 x P = 10800
Page 37 of 101
=> 80/100 x 90/100 x 75/100 x 80/100 x P = 10800 3) Answer: C

=> P = 10800 x 100/80 x 100/90 x 100/75 x 100/80 Let Blue balls = x
=> P = Rs.25000 Red balls = x * 120/100 = 6x/5
Amount spent by Raghav on entertainment x* 60/100 = 40/100 *Orange balls
= 80/100 x 90/100 x 25/100 x 25000 Orange balls = 3x/2
= Rs.4500 = 4500 Yellow balls = 3x/5
=> Satisfies the given condition. 3x/2 – 6x/5 = 15
(b) 15x – 12x = 150
100 – 20)/100 x (100 – 10)/100 x (100 – 25)/100 x x = 50
(100 – 20)/100 x P = 13500 Total number of balls = x + 6x/5 + 3x/2 + 3x/5
=> 80/100 x 90/100 x 75/100 x 80/100 x P = 13500 = 50+60+75+30
=> P = 13500 x 100/80 x 100/90 x 100/75 x 100/80 = 215
=> P = Rs.31250
Amount spent by Raghav on entertainment 4) Answer: E
= 80/100 x 90/100 x 25/100 x 31250 Number of red balls = x
= Rs.5625 = 5625 Number of blue balls = 100 – x
=> Satisfies the given condition. x * 120/100 + (100 – x + 9) = 100 * 123/100
(c) 6x/5 + 109 – x = 123
100 – 20)/100 x (100 – 10)/100 x (100 – 25)/100 x 6x + 545 – 5x = 123 * 5
(100 – 20)/100 x P = 18900 x = 70
=> 80/100 x 90/100 x 75/100 x 80/100 x P = 18900 Number of blue balls = 100 – 70 = 30
=> P = 18900 x 100/80 x 100/90 x 100/75 x 100/80 Required ratio = 7: 3
=> P = Rs.43750
Amount spent by Raghav on entertainment 5) Answer: D
= 80/100 x 90/100 x 25/100 x 43750 Total votes be 100x
= Rs.7875 = 7875 Casted votes = 60x
=> Satisfies the given condition Votes casted for A = a + 200
Given that,
Page 38 of 101
a + 100 = 30x According to the question,

From this we can’t find the number of students in (33x/80) = 49500
the college. x = Rs. 120000
Expenditure on rent = 120000*(15/100) = Rs. 18000
6) Answer: C
Let the maximum marks in each subject be 100 8) Answer: C
Total marks scored by student = 65% of Let Rajesh salary = 100a
(100+100+100+100) = 65% of 400 Education fee = 30a
= 260 House rent = 20a
Let the marks scored in subjects are 2x, 5x, 4x and Remaining = 50a
2x Loan = 50a * 20/100 = 10a
2x+5x+4x+2x = 260 After the remaining = 100a - 50a – 10a = 40a
13x = 260 Savings = 40a * 20/100 = 8a
x = 20 8a = 1600
Marks scored are 2*20, 5*20, 4*20, 2*20 a = 200
Marks scored are 40, 100, 80 and 40 Transport x = 40x - 8x = 32 x
The student scored more than 75% marks in 2 x = 32 * 200 = 6400
subjects (100 and 80)
9) Answer: A
7) Answer: C According to the question,
Let the monthly salary of Mahi be x, (25 % - 7 %) of salary = 10800
Expenditure on rent, travelling and other expenses 18 % of salary = 10800
= > x*(45/100) = 9x/20 Total salary = 10800 * (100/18) = Rs. 60000 = 100
Remaining = x - 9x/20 = 11x/20 %
Expenditure on food = (11x/20)*(25/100) = 11x/80 Savings % = (15000/60000) * 100 = 25 %
Remaining salary Total salary (100 %) = Expense (75 %) + Savings
= > x - (9x/20 + 11x/80) (25 %)
= > x – (47x/80) = 33x/80 75 % = (25 % + 18 % + 7 % + X %)
Page 39 of 101
X % = 75 % - 50 % = 25 % Male employees = x * 150/100 = 3x/2

Female employees in IT department = x * 40/100 =
10) Answer: D 2x/5
Total costs of all the properties = 18000 + 30000 + Male employees in HR department = 3x/2 * 60/100
400000 = 448000 =9x/10
New worth of the Renu properties 9x/10 – 2x/5 = 45
= ((18000 * 110/100) + (30000 * 95/100) + (400000 5x = 450
* 80/100)) x = 90
= 19800 + 28500 + 320000 Total number of employees = x + 3x/2
= 368300 = 90 + (3 * 90/2)
Required percentage = (448000 – 368300)/448000 = 225
* 100
= 17.8% decreases 13) Answer: D
Let the salary of X and Y is = Rs. x
11) Answer: C And the salary of Z is = y
Let x be the total mark in that exam, then So, according to the question,
Rajeev’s score = 412 marks, Sanjay = 75 % = = 11x/100 – 10x/100 = 102
Rajeev’s score – 8 = x/100 = 102 => x = Rs. 10,200
Sanjay = 412 + 8 = 420 = 75 % of total marks So, the salary of X is = Rs. 10,200
(75/100) * x = 420 And the salary of Y is = Rs. 10,200
x = 420 * (100/75) = 560 Now,
Minimum passing marks = 35 % of total marks = 12y/100 = 816 => y = Rs. 6800
= > (35/100) * 560 = 196 So, the salary of Z is = Rs. 6800
Rajeev scored 216 marks more than the passing Then, total salary of X, Y and Z is = 10,200 +
marks. 10,200 + 6800 = Rs. 27,200
Now, the donation of X is = 10,200 × 10/100 = 1020
12) Answer: B Donation of Y is = 10,200 × 11/100 = Rs. 1122
Female employees = x Donation of Z is = 6800 × 12/100 = 816
Page 40 of 101
Total donation of X, Y and Z is = 1020 + 1122 + 816 Now, 17.5% spent on laptop = 72 × 17.5/100 =>Rs.
= Rs. 2958 12.6
So, the required percentage is = 2958/27,200 × 100 Now, 25% spent on health = 72 × 25/100 =>Rs. 18
= 10.875% Now, 5% spent on miscellaneous = 72 × 5/100
Hence, the required answer is = 10.875%. =>Rs. 3.6
So, the remaining amount he had = 72 – (9 + 12.6 +
14) Answer: B 18 + 3.6)
Let the cost of the chair = Rs. 100 72 – 43.2 => Rs. 28.8
So the price of the table is = Rs. 30 So, the required income of Arvind is =
Now, the bargaining price for Harsh. (14774.4/28.8) × 100 => Rs. 51,300
Cost of the chair is = 100 × 70/100 = Rs. 70 Hence, the required answer is = Rs. 51,300.
Cost of the table is = 30 × 80/100 = Rs. 24
So, the bargaining value for Harsh is = 70 + 24 = 16) Answer: B
Rs. 94 Total number of employees in D = 10x
But he pays in reality. Number of male employees in D = 7/10 * 10x = 7x
Cost of the chair is = 100 × 80/100 = Rs. 80 Number of female employees in D = 3/10 * 10x = 3x
Cost of the table is = 30 × 70/100 = Rs. 21 Number of male IT employees in D = 7x * 4/7 = 4x
So, the amount paid is = 80 + 21 = Rs. 101 Number of male HR employees in D = 7x * 3/7 = 3x
Thus, the required percentage is = (101 – 94)/94 × Number of female IT employees in D = 3x * 1/3 = x
100 ≈ 7.50% Number of female HR employees in D = 3x * 2/3 =
He, the required answer is = 7.50% (approx.) 2x
5x – 2x = 90
15) Answer: B x =30
Let, the total salary of Arvind is = Rs. 100 Required difference = 4 * 30 – 2 * 30 = 60
After 28% spent, remaining amount = 100 – (100 ×
28/100) => Rs. 72 17) Answer: B
Now, 12.5% spent on mobile = 72 × 12.5/100 => Total number of employees in C = 2x
Rs. 9
Page 41 of 101
Total number of male HR employees in C = 2/3 * ½ Total number of male IT employees in A = 7/12 *
* 2x = 2x/3 3/5 * 5x = 7x/4
Total number of female HR employees in C = 2/9 * 7x/4 = 280
½ * 2x = 2x/9 x = 160
(2x/3 + 2x/9)/2 = 240 Total number of employees in B = 125/100 * 5 * 160
8x = 480 * 9 = 1000
x = 540 Total number of female IT employees in B = 3/5 *
Total number of employees in C = 540 * 2 = 1080 7/20 * 1000 = 210
Total number of employees in B = 20y Total number of female HR employees in B = 2/5 *
Total number of male HR employees in B = 4/13 * 7/20 * 1000 = 140
13/20 * 20y = 4y Required sum = 210 + 140 = 350
4y = 240 * 100/60
y = 100 20) Answer: D
Total number of employees in B = 100 * 20 = 2000 Total number of employees in B = x
Required percentage = 1080/2000 * 100 = 54% Total number of the employees in D = y
Total number of male HR employees in B = 4/13 *
18) Answer: A 13/20 * x = x/5
Total number of employees in C = x Total number of male HR employees in D = 7/10 *
Total number of employees in F = y 3/7 * y = 3y/10
Total number of IT employees in C = (1/3 * ½ * x) + 3y/10 – x/5 = 140
(7/9 * ½ * x) = 5x/9 3y – 2x = 1400 ------(1)
Total number of IT employees in F = (3/8 * ¾ * y) + Total number of female IT employees in B = 3/5 *
(3/4 * ¼ * y) = 15y/32 7/20 * x = 21x/100
5x/9 = 15y/32 Total number of female IT employees in D = 1/3 *
x/y = 27/32 3/10 * y = y/10
21x/100 – y/10 = 240
19) Answer: B 21x – 10y = 24000 ------(2)
Total number of employees in A = 5x (1) * 10 + (2) * 3
Page 42 of 101
43x = 86000 Time taken by Sharu = 12 – 7 = 5 hours

x = 2000 Speed of Sharu = 250/5 = 50 kmph
y = 1800 Required percentage = 18/50 * 100 = 36%
Required difference = 2000 – 1800 = 200
24) Answer: A
21) Answer: B Distance covered by Divya = 25 * 60 = 1500 km
Distance covered by Bala and Divya = 2960 – 420 – Time taken by Esai = 540/30 = 18 hours
250 – 540 = 1750 Time taken by Bala = 18 – 3 = 15 hours
Distance covered by Divya = 1750 * 4/7 = 1000 km Distance covered by Bala = 15 * 40 = 600 km
Distance covered by Bala = 1750 * 3/7 = 750 km Average distance = (600 + 1500)/2
Speed of Divya = 1000/25 = 40 kmph = 1050 km
Speed of Bala = 40 * 125/100 = 50 kmph
Required time = 750/50 = 15 hours 25) Answer: E
22) Answer: A Distance covered by Bala = 6/5 * 250 = 300 km
Time taken by Arul = 12 hours Distance covered by Divya = 15/5 * 250 = 750 km
Time taken by Sharu = 100/120 * 12 = 10 hours Speed of Divya = 750/25 = 30 kmph
Time taken by Bala = 3/2 * 10 = 15 hours Speed of Bala = 2/3 * 30 = 20 kmph
Time taken by Esai = 6/5 * 15 = 18 hours Speed of Esai = 6/3 * 30 = 60 kmph
Speed of Arul = 420/12 = 35 kmph Speed of Sharu = 5/7 * (420/12) = 25 kmph
Speed of Divya = 6/5 * 35 = 42 kmph Time taken by Bala = 300/20 =15 hours
Speed of Bala = 6/7 * 42 = 36 kmph Time taken by Sharu = 250/25 = 10 hours
Speed of Sharu = 250/10 = 25 kmph Time taken by Esai = 540/60 = 9 hours
Speed of Esai = 540/18 = 30 kmph Required total = (12 + 15 + 10 + 25 + 9) = 71
Average speed = (35 + 42 + 36 + 25 + 30)/5
= 33.6 kmph 26) Answer: C
(?) = 27 x 30 – 304 + 64
23) Answer: C (?) = 810 – 240
Speed of Divya = 450/25 = 18 kmph (?) = 570
Page 43 of 101
13331 + 1221 + 13113 + 121212 + 33311 =?

27) Answer: C 182188 =?
(10 * 10 + 8 * 8 – 10 * 8)/(1000 + 512) =?
=> (10 * 10 + 8 * 8 – 10 * 8)/(103 + 83) =? 31) Answer: D
(a2 + b2 – ab)/(a3 + b3) = 1/(a + b) √(9 + 616) + 15 x 3/5 + 15 x ? = 64
=> (10 * 10 + 8 * 8 – 10 * 8)/(103 + 83) = 1/(10 + 8) √625 + 9 + 15 x ? = 64
=> 1/18 25 + 9 + 15 x ? = 64
15 x ? = 64 – 34 = 30
28) Answer: B ? =30/15
?=2
32) Answer: A
40 % of 290 + √1225 * √256 - 60 % of 650 = ?
116 + 560 – 390 = ?
? = 286
33) Answer: B
136% of 650 – 60% of 360 + 65% of 480 = ?
√2401 =? 884 – 216 + 312 =?
49 =? 980 =?
29) Answer: C 34) Answer: E

(29.09) * (33.23) – 117.18 = ? * 11.903
(132×15) + 957 – 117 =? * 12
1980 + 320 =? ? = 70
2300 =?
35) Answer: A
30) Answer: E (2.31)4 + (8.12)2 - ? = 14.99% of 219.78
Page 44 of 101
=> 24 + 82 - ? = 15% of 220 => 13

=> 16 + 64 - ? = 33
=> 47 40) Answer: B
? × 15.27 + (29.99)2 – (16.19)2 + 411.77 = (30.99)2 +
36) Answer: C (11.88)3
(47.86% of 5201.34) – (33.76% of 1680.103) = ?2 ? × 15 + (30)2 – (16)2 + 412 = (31)2 + (12)3
48% of 5200 – 33.33% of 1680 =?2 ? × 15 + 900 –256 + 412 = 961 + 1728
2496 – 560 = ?2 ? × 15 + 1312 – 256 = 961 + 1728
1936 =?2 ? × 15 + 1056 = 2689
±44 = ? ? × 15 = 2689 – 1056
? × 15 = 1633
37) Answer: E ? = 1633/15
114.5 + 513 – 54 = (?) ?= 109
114.5 + 459 = (?)
573.5 = (?) 41) Answer: B
574 = (?) Series I,
5 + (3 * 3) = 14
38) Answer: B 14 + (5 * 5) = 39
((1350 – 180) / 3) – 317 + ((625 – 450) / 25) = (?)² 39 + (7 * 7) = 88
390 – 317 + 7 = (?)² 88 + (9 * 11) = 187
(?)² = 80 187 + (11 * 13) = 330
(?) = 9 Series II,
23 is the 1st term.
39) Answer: B 23 + (3 * 3) = 32
17.35% of 8.31% of ? = 5.14% of 6.71% of 49.82 32 + (5 * 5) = 57
=> 17% of 8% of ? = 5% of 7% of 50 57 + (7 * 7) = 106
=> 136 * ? = 35 * 50 106 + (9 * 11) = 205
=> 1750/136 205 is 5th term
Page 45 of 101

Series I , Series I,
15 + (112 - 11) = 125 43 – 12 = 52
125 + (122 - 7) = 262 53 – 13 = 112
262 + (132 - 5) = 426 63 – 14 = 202
426 + (142 - 3) = 619 73 – 15 = 328
Series II, Series II,
89 is 1st term. 500 is 1st term
89 + (112 - 11) = 199 83 – 12 = 500
199 + (122 - 7) = 336 93 – 13 = 716
336 + (132 - 5) = 500 103 – 14 = 986
500 is 4th term 113 – 15 = 1316
1316 is 4th term.
43) Answer: B
Series I, 45) Answer: D
12 + (4 * 3) = 24 Series I,
24 + (8 * 3) = 48 2 – 12 = 1
48 + (12 * 3) = 84 1 + 23 = 9
84 + (16 * 3) = 132 9 – 32 = 0
Series II, 0 + 43 = 64
218 is 1st term. 64 – 52 = 39
218 + (4 * 3) = 230 Series II,
230 + (8 * 3) = 254 152 is 1st term.
254 + (12 * 3) = 290 152 – 12 = 151
290 + (16 * 3) = 338 151 + 23 = 159
338 + (20 * 3) = 398 159 – 32 = 150
398 is 6th term. 150 + 43 = 214
Page 46 of 101
214 is 5th term. 101 + 41.2=142.2

142.2 + 20.6=162.8
46) Answer: B 162.8 + 10.3=173.1
The pattern is, 173.1 + 5.15=178.25
18 * 9=162 The wrong number is 172.4
162 * 7=1134
1134 * 5=5670 50) Answer: D
5670 * 3=17010 36 + 88=124
17010 * 1=17010 124 + 77=201
201 + 66=267
47) Answer: C 267 + 55=322
12 * 2 – 9=15 322 + 44=366
15 * 2 – 7=23 The wrong number is 320
23 * 2 – 5=41
41 * 2 – 3=79 51) Answer: C
79 * 2 – 1=157 x2 – 17x + 42 =0
The wrong number is 22 x2 – 14x – 3x + 42 = 0
x(x – 14) – 3(x – 14) = 0
48) Answer: A x = 14, 3
1200 * 0.6=720 y2 – 25y + 154 = 0
720 * 0.5=360 y2 – 14y – 11y + 154 = 0
360 * 0.4=144 y(y – 14) – 11(y – 14) = 0
144 * 0.3= 43.2 (y – 11)(y – 14) = 0
43.2 * 0.2=8.64 y = 11, 14
The wrong number is 40.2 Relationship between x and y cannot be
established
49) Answer: C
18.6 + 82.4=101 52) Answer: B
Page 47 of 101
x2 + 13x + 36 = 0 => 5x2 – 15x – 11x + 33 = 0

x2 + 4x + 9x + 36 = 0 => 5x(x – 3) – 11(x – 3) = 0
x(x + 4) + 9(x + 4) = 0 => (x – 3) (5x – 11) = 0
(x + 9)(x + 4) = 0 => x = 3, 11/5
x = -9, -4 From II
y2 + 19y + 90 = 0 => 7y2 – 54y + 99 = 0
y2 + 9y + 10y + 90 = 0 => 7y2 – 21y – 33y + 99 = 0
y(y + 9) + 10(y + 9) = 0 => 7y(y – 3) – 33(y – 3) = 0
(y + 10)(y + 9) = 0 => (y – 3) (7y – 33) = 0
y = - 9, -10 => y = 3, 33/7
x≥y Hence, x ≤ y
53) Answer: E 55) Answer: E

x2 – x – 72 = 0 From I
x2 – 9x + 8x – 72 = 0 => 3x2 – 23x + 40 = 0
x(x – 9) + 8(x – 9) = 0 => 3x2 – 15x – 8x + 40 = 0
(x + 8)(x – 9) = 0 => 3x(x – 5) – 8(x – 5) = 0
x = -8, 9 => (3x – 8) (x – 5) = 0
y2 – 20y + 99 = 0 => x = 5, 8/3
y2 – 11y – 9y + 99 = 0 From II
y(y – 11) – 9(y – 11) = 0 => 15y2 – 34y + 15 = 0
(y – 9)(y – 11) = 0 => 15y2 – 9y – 25y + 15 = 0
y = 9, 11 => 3y (5y – 3) - 5 (5y – 3) = 0
x≤y => (3y – 5) (5y – 3) = 0
=> y = 5/3, 3/5
54) Answer: C Hence, x > y
From I
=> 5x2 – 26x + 33 = 0 56) Answer: A
Page 48 of 101
From I 58) Answer: A

=> 8x2 - 22x + 15 = 0 From I
=> 8x2 – 12x – 10x + 15 = 0 => 3x2 – 25x + 52 = 0
=> 4x (2x – 3) – 5(2x – 3) = 0 => 3x2 – 12x – 13x + 52 = 0
=> (4x – 5) (2x – 3) = 0 => 3x(x – 4) – 13(x – 4) = 0
=> x = 5/4, 3/2 => (3x – 13) (x – 4) = 0
From II => x = 13/3, 4
=> 3y2 + 14y + 15 = 0 From II
=> 3y2 + 9y + 5y + 15 = 0 => 2y2 – 19y + 35 = 0
=> 3y(y + 3) + 5(y + 3) = 0 => 2y2 – 14y – 5y + 35 = 0
=> (y + 3) (3y + 5) = 0 => 2y(y – 7) -5(y – 7) = 0
=> y = -3, -5/3 => (2y – 5) (y – 7) = 0
Hence, x > y => y = 5/2, 7
Relationship between x and y cannot be determined
57) Answer: D
From I 59) Answer: C
=> 3x2 + 17x + 24 = 0 I) x2 – 9x - 90 = 0
=> 3x2 + 9x + 8x + 24 = 0 (x + 6) (x – 15) = 0
=> 3x(x + 3) + 8(x + 3) = 0 x = -6, 15
=> (x + 3) (3x + 8) = 0 II) y2 – 14y + 48 = 0
=> x = -3, -8/3 (y – 8) (y – 6) = 0
From II y = 8, 6
=> y2+ 11y + 24 = 0 Relationship between x and y cannot be
=> y2 + 3y + 8y + 24 = 0 established.
=> (y + 3) (y + 8) = 0
=> y = -3, -8 60) Answer: A
Hence, x ≥ y I) x2 – 28x + 75 = 0
(x – 3) (x – 25) = 0
Page 49 of 101
x = 3, 25 So, x = – 5/2 , – 1
II) y2 – 27y + 72 = 0 From II.
(y – 3) (y – 24) = 0 3y² + 12y + 9 = 0
y = 3, 24 3y² + 9y + 3y + 9 = 0
Relationship between x and y cannot be 3y (y + 3) +3 (y + 3) = 0
established. (3y + 3) (y + 3) = 0
So, y = –1, – 3
61) Answer: B Hence, relationship cannot be determined.
I) x2 – 15x + 14 = 0
(x – 1) (x – 14) = 0 63) Answer: C
x = 1, 14 From I,
II) 2y2 + 16y – 18 = 0 x² – 17x + 72 = 0
2y2 + 18y – 2y – 18 = 0 x² – 9x – 8x + 72 = 0
2y(y + 9) – 2(y + 9) = 0 x(x – 9) – 8 (x – 9) = 0
(2y – 2) (y + 9) = 0 (x – 8) (x – 9) = 0
y = 1, -9 So, x = 8, 9
Hence, x ≥ y From II,
y² – 27y + 180 = 0
62) Answer: C y² – 12y – 15y + 180 = 0
From I. y(y – 12) – 15 (y – 12) = 0
2x² + 7x + 5 = 0 (y – 15) (y – 12) = 0
2x² + 2x + 5x + 5 = 0 y = 15, 12
2x (x + 1) + 5 (x + 1) = 0 Hence, x < y
(2x + 5) (x + 1) = 0
Page 50 of 101
English Language
Direction (1-7): Read the passage and answer the system. More so, if the commercial banking system
following questions. Some of the words highlighted in a country (I) is considering to be fragility.
to locate you for answering below given questions. “The public can convert their CASA (current
account savings account) deposits with banks into
The Reserve Bank of India sees a central bank- CBDC, thereby raising the cost of bank-based
backed digital currency as a mixed blessing—such financial intermediation with implications for growth
virtual tokens can take away low-costs deposits and financial stability,” the regulator said in its
from banks with implications for the economy, while report. In countries with large credit markets, it said,
also increasing financial inclusion and banks may lose their primacy as the major conduits
transparency. “CBDC can be designed to promote of monetary policy. To limit disintermediation, a
non-anonymity at the individual level, monitor proposed solution is to introduce a two-tier
transactions, promote financial inclusion by direct remuneration system for CBDCs—transaction
benefit fiscal transfer, pumping central bank balance held by an individual remains interest-free
‘helicopter money’ and even direct public and is subject to a ceiling; while CBDC balances
consumption to a select basket of goods and over and above the ceiling are subject to a penal
services to increase aggregate demand and social negative interest rate.
welfare,” the RBI said in its report on currency and Since CBDCs provide anonymity, they may also
finance published on Feb. 26. have implications for cross-border transactions. To
Interest-bearing digital fiat can also increase the curb this, appropriate safeguards would need to be
economy’s response to changes in the policy rate, laid down under existing anti-money laundering and
the RBI said. In emerging markets facing large combating financial terrorism laws. The central
scale-capital inflows, such a currency can act as an bank’s views on CBDCs come a day after RBI
instrument of sterilisation, alleviating the constraint Governor Shaktikanta Das said broad guidelines on
that a finite stock of government securities in the issuing central bank digital currencies would come
central bank balance sheet poses, it said. On the out soon. While addressing members of the
downside, central-bank backed digital currencies Bombay Chamber of Commerce and Industry on
pose a risk of disintermediation of the banking Thursday, Das said a lot of work had been going on
Page 51 of 101
at RBI on central bank digital currencies and that it (ii) Digital currency will sterilize the markets
was “resolving some issues”. experiencing low scale capital inflow
1) Which of the following statement/s can be (iii) It can alleviate the constraint posed by the
inferred from the given passage? limited government securities stock
(I) Digital currency can implicate economy (iv) With digital currency, there will not any risk of
(II) Transparency and financial inclusion can be disintermediation of the banking system
boosted with digital currency A. Both i and ii
(III) Digital currency cannot be regulated by the B. Only iii
government of India C. Both ii and iii
A. Only II D. Both ii and iv
B. Only III E. Only iv
C. Both I and II
D. Both II and III 4) What are the steps taken to diminish the
E. All of the above disintermediation?
2) What are the roles the CBDC can play for A. There will be no interest on the transaction
increasing aggregate demand and social welfare? balance
A. Promote non-anonymity of individuals B. The transaction balance will be subjected to a
B. Transaction monitoring and boosting financial ceiling
inclusion via DBT C. Both A and B
C. Driving direct public consumption to particular D. CBDC balances will be penalized in case of
goods and services positive interest rate
D. Promoting central bank’s helicopter money E. Banks will gain prominence with monetary policy
E. All of the above
5) How the implications of cross-border should be
3) Which of the following statement/s cannot be tackled according to the author of the given
inferred from the given passage? passage?
(i) Changes in policy rates can become bearable (I) Lay down appropriate safeguards under current
with interest bearing digital fiat anti-money laundering laws
Page 52 of 101
(II) Including safeguards under the current laws to Direction (8-12): In the following questions a
combat financial terrorism paragraph is given with three blanks. The
(III) Putting great efforts to promote digital paragraph is then provided with five options which
currencies consist of the words that can fill the given blanks.
A. Both I and II Choose that option as your answer which can fill
B. Both II and III the given blanks in the exact order as given in the
C. Only I option. If none of the given options fills the given
D. Both I and III blanks then choose option (e), ‘None of these’ as
E. Only II your answer.
8) The advantages of going back to in-person work
6) Which of the following is the correct meaning of will be relatively ___________the pay-offs from face-
the idiom ‘Mixed blessing’ as highlighted in the to-face communication, the ___________ that can
passage? come from unscheduled interactions, the
A. Giving blessing with mixed emotions ___________ of urban life.
B. A situation with positive and negative results A. Accretion, Animosity, Problems
C. A disadvantage situation with no chances of B. Negotiated, Peace, Implications
improvement C. Bonding, Treaty, Advent
D. A fortunate occurrence with mixed reactions D. Subtle, Serendipity, Amenities
E. Good and bad elements in a person E. Mark, Landscape, Society
7) Which of the following phrases can replace the 9) With the ___________ of social media platforms
(I) phrase to make the sentence grammatically and improvements in targeting algorithms,
correct and contextually meaningful? advertisers have ___________ reasons to prefer
A. is considers to be fragile advertising digitally through advertising services
B. is considers to be fragility offered by these platforms as opposed to
C. is consider to be fragile ___________ publishers individually.
D. is considered to be fragile A. Emergence, Obvious, Engaging
E. is consider to be fragility B. Entry, Solvent, Amalgamation
Page 53 of 101
C. Forced, Quarantine, Estimated 12) What is often __________________ over in

D.Vitiated,Errors,Proclaimed conversations around climate change among the
E. Ablution, Havoc, Endangered new ___________ of experts and in the ___________
of power is the politics at the local level.
10) It is the long ___________ of private investment A. Look, Seats, Argumentative
that the government is trying to ___________ awake B. Glossed, Aristocracy, Corridors
through change in direction, a transformed attitude, C. Tumultuous, Subtle, Illogical
and an altogether different view about the D. Democracy, Gainsaying, Unhealthy
___________ roles of the public and the private E. Laziness, Fiscal, Enhanced
sectors in the economy.
A. Caused, Penury, Effect Direction (13-17): In each of the questions, there
B. Saddle, Whip, Assimilate are five sentences. Identify the sentence/s that
C. Slumber, Jolt, Respective is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage and
D. Approve, Prevented, Edge choose the correct sentence accordingly.
E. Pain, Refused, Argued 13)
(I)There is clear desperate to sell government
11) The government ___________ these lives only in assets and raise money and the entire exercise is
the form of 3800 crucial voters and is not keen to ironically couched in terms of “atmanirbharta” (self-
___________ them on the off-chance that such a reliance).
move will unsettle its already ___________ vote (II)Television news has gone through a
bank. transformation since the early 1990s, with India’s
A. Impact, Negligible, Unfolding first public service broadcaster, Doordarshan,
B. Routine, Riveting, Booked paving the way for dozens of private channels.
C. Inane, Profound, Formidable (III)One of the studio guests brazenly demanded to
D. Values, Rehabilitate, Tenuous know why the boy had not used the hand pump
E. Charge, Imminent, Available outside the gate of the temple to quench his thirst.
(IV)Advertising and marketing departments may be
wed to the concept of flooding prime time with
Page 54 of 101
gladiatorial studio debates, the more tasteless the (V)In a multicultural society, respecting the
better. sentiments of others is laudable but respect cannot
(V)Afghanistan’s government has backtrack on an come with the threat of mass violence on an entire
attempt to ban schoolgirls over the age of 12 from community.
reciting poems or singing at public events. A. II and V
A. I and II B. II and III
B. III and V C. I and III
C. II and III D. I and IV
D. I and IV E. II and IV
E. V and IV
15)
14) (I)If we are really keen to make India what our
(I)Foreign donors have poured billions of dollars parents in 1947 had so fondly wanted it to be then,
into the country in the last two decades to helped we must address those unholy efforts to fanning the
create a more open and equal society there. communal flames.
(II)We will be told that he has not given any reason (II)Homemakers will get their due recognition
for his resignation and there is nothing to suggest through payment for their work at home which
that there is political pressure behind it but only hitherto have been unrecognised and unmonetised,
naive people will accept this argument. thus raising the dignity of our womenfolk
(III)The education ministry originally defended the (III)The report said that disruption in sexual,
measure on the grounds that parents have asked reproductive, maternal, neonatal and child health
for their daughters to be excluded from public services due to COVID-19 is expected to have had
performances. a substantial impact on maternal and child mortality.
(IV)Academic exercises turn into real intellectual (IV) Both the WHO and the European Medicines
exercises only when they start asking you to look at Agency, which is Europe’s drug-controller body,
your world and understands it, meaning also have recommended that health bodies and the
understand your role in it. people continue to use the vaccine even as they
investigate the reports.
Page 55 of 101
(V)The average boy spend more time on leisure chances of disrupting the chain of infection grow
and learning than his sisters, while the average girl that much more.
spends more time on household work than her A. I and III
brothers. B. I and V
A. I and II C. II and V
B. II and III D. III and IV
C. IV and III E. II and V
D. V and IV
E. I and IV 17)
(I) Wigderson’s ideas and techniques are becoming
16) increasingly relevant in the information economy,
(I) Innovation is often attribute to the research and and are crucial to certifying digital currencies like
development departments of corporate firms, bitcoins and personal identities.
academic institutions and other private and public (II) The Orissa high court has directed the state
sector research laboratories. government to enforce a prohibition on fish
(II)Maker Spaces are community-based workshops activities by trawlers near the mouth of Devi river
where people can access machines and tools and along the coast to protect olive ridley turtles.
required to design or make things. (III) Spectacular advances in genetic technology in
(III) The Hindi language even has a popular term for the past couple of decades has revolutionised our
Making, ‘jugaad‘, denoted a smart yet frugal way of understanding of how different parts of the globe
devising a low-cost solution to an everyday came to be occupied by Homo sapiens.
problem. (IV) India and Bangladesh have agreed to expand
(IV) Social inequalities that prevent access and cooperation across the entire gamut of water
participation is often ignored and the privilege or resources issues, including framework for sharing
domination of some groups of people remain of river waters.
unchecked. (V) The UPA government was seriously considering
(V) Any reduction in wastage means that you end a proposal to make it mandatory for men to share a
up inoculating more people and therefore the
Page 56 of 101
certain percentage of there income with their wives B. Only i &iv

for doing household chores. C. Only iii & v
A. I and II D. Only i & ii
B. III and V E. Only ii &iv
C. II and III
D. I and IV 19) Supercilious
E. II and IV (i) She has an authoritative manner that at times is
almost arrogant.
Directions (18-22): In the given question, a word (ii) I remember when I moved to Mumbai, people
has been mentioned and there are five sentences were always talking about what a perfectionist he is,
in which the word has been used in either similar or how humble and amazing he is.
different ways. You are required to check which of (iii) North American steel and aluminium executives
the sentences have the opposite meaning of the expect modest growth in demand for the next three
highlighted word, and mark that as your answer. to five years.
18) Criticism (iv)He said that the party supported the president,
(i) Novavas recently completed its final analyses instead of providing proper explanation when
and will seek FDA and international approval in the approached by the democratically elected members
coming weeks. and the villagers, showed haughty behaviour.
(ii) They registered their disapproval by refusing to (v) Kishan, known for his attacking batting, made a
give Sneader a second term. formidable England attack look ordinary with his
(iii) This turbulent year has already seen its share of disdainful hitting.
calls for censure of politicians for various reasons. A. Only ii & iii
(iv) The announcement of the bill prompted B. Only i &iv
applause to erupt from Democratic side of the C. Only iii & v
Senate Chamber. D. Only i & ii
(v)The committee issued separate letters of E. Only ii &iv
reproval to two of her employees.
A. Only ii & iii 20) Perverse
Page 57 of 101
(i) China urged the US to remove unreasonable (iii) Hydrate your skin with moisturisers that will
curbs on cooperation as soon as possible and work give you flawless finish throughout this summer
together on different issues. season.
(ii) Rajasthan has been very accommodating and (iv) Minicoy island is a perfect blend for relaxation
understanding of players’ situations. and activity offering clear waters that are rich in
(iii)The uncooperative and selfish attitude toward marine rife, pristine coral reefs and shipwrecks.
vaccines adopted by some developed countries has (v) The health department’s initial response in the
caused headwinds for the COVID-19 pandemic early days of the pandemic was an absolute total
containment. disaster.
(iv) Security was a fundamental element for the A. Only ii & iii
company with emphasis on cooperative security B. Only i &iv
and collective action. C. Only iii & v
(v) The recent new highs scaled by the market D. Only i & ii
could be driven by irrational exuberance. E. Only ii &iv
A. Only ii &iii
B. Only i &iv 22) Rivalry
C. Only iii & v (i) Their contention was that clearances which were
D. Only i & ii being done via video conference calls gave little
E. Only ii &iv time for the projects to be assigned.
(ii) The bee boxes are set up in the passageways of
21) Seamless human-elephant conflict zones to block the
(i) The ministry has issued rules for mandatory entrance of elephants to human habitations.
recall of defective vehicles by manufacturers. (iii) They assume leadership of various sections of
(ii) While some reservations to the Code are well- society but this power should be balanced with
founded, it would be premature to treat them as humility.
flawed. (iv) Opposition party severely criticized the ruling
government for concentrating their efforts in
‘privatising’ the Railways.
Page 58 of 101
(v) Ashwini recommends adopting a more holistic C. Only iii & v

lifestyle that is in harmony with nature. D. Only i & ii
A. Only ii & iii E. Only ii & iv
B. Only i & iv

3) Answer: D
1) Answer: B
Refer to the second paragraph, the hint can be
Refer to the first paragraph, the hint can be drawn
drawn from the lines, Interest-bearing digital fiat can
from the lines, The Reserve Bank of India sees a
also increase the economy’s response to changes
central bank-backed digital currency as a mixed
in the policy rate, the RBI said. In emerging markets
blessing—such virtual tokens can take away low-
facing large scale-capital inflows, such a currency
costs deposits from banks with implications for the
can act as an instrument of sterilization, alleviating
economy, while also increasing financial inclusion
the constraint that a finite stock of government
and transparency.
securities in the central bank balance sheet poses,
Hence, option B is the right answer choice.
it said. On the downside, central-bank backed
digital currencies pose a risk of disintermediation of
2) Answer: E
the banking system.
Refer to the first paragraph, the hint can be drawn
Hence, option D is the right answer choice.
from the lines,
CBDC can be designed to promote non-anonymity
4) Answer: C
at the individual level, monitor transactions,
Refer to the third paragraph, the hint can be drawn
promote financial inclusion by direct benefit fiscal
from the lines, In countries with large credit
transfer, pumping central bank ‘helicopter money’
markets, it said, banks may lose their primacy as
and even direct public consumption to a select
the major conduits of monetary policy. To limit
basket of goods and services to increase aggregate
disintermediation, a proposed solution is to
demand and social welfare.
introduce a two-tier remuneration system for
Hence, option E is the right answer choice.
CBDCs—transaction balance held by an individual
Page 59 of 101
remains interest-free and is subject to a ceiling; D can fill the given blanks in the exact order as
while CBDC balances over and above the ceiling given in the option. In the first blank ‘subtle’ will
are subject to a penal negative interest rate. come, in the second blank ‘serendipity’ will come
Hence, option C is the right answer choice. and in the third blank ‘amenities’ will come to make
the sentence grammatically correct and contextually
5) Answer: A correct.
Refer to the last paragraph, the hint can be drawn Hence, option D is the right answer choice.
from the lines, Since CBDCs provide anonymity,
they may also have implications for cross-border 9) Answer: A
transactions. To curb this, appropriate safeguards A can fill the given blanks in the exact order as
would need to be laid down under existing anti- given in the option. In the first blank ‘emergence’
money laundering and combating financial terrorism will come, in the second blank ‘obvious’ will come
laws. and in the third blank ‘engaging’ will come to make
Hence, option A is the right answer choice. the sentence grammatically correct and contextually
correct.
6) Answer: B Hence, option A is the right answer choice.
A mixed blessing: A situation or circumstance that
has both positive and negative results. 10) Answer: C
Hence, option B is the right answer choice. C can fill the given blanks in the exact order as
given in the option. In the first blank ‘slumber’ will
7) Answer: D come, in the second blank ‘jolt’ will come and in the
Here, D phrase will replace the (I) phrase to make third blank ‘respective’ will come to make the
the sentence grammatically correct and contextually sentence grammatically correct and contextually
meaningful. Hence, option D is the right answer correct.
choice. Hence, option C is the right answer choice.
8) Answer D 11) Answer: D
Page 60 of 101
Sol. D can fill the given blanks in the exact order as I: Use “help” instead of “helped”
given in the option. In the first blank ‘values’ will III: Use “had” instead of “have” as the sentence is in
come, in the second blank ‘rehabilitate’ will come past tense.
and in the third blank ‘tenuous’ will come to make IV: Use “understand” instead of “understands”.
the sentence grammatically correct and contextually Hence, option A is the right answer choice.
correct.
Hence, option D is the right answer choice. 15) Answer: C
Only III and IV statements are correct. Rest of the
12) Answer: B statements are erroneous.
B can fill the given blanks in the exact order as I: Use ‘Fan’ instead of ‘fanning”
given in the option. In the first blank ‘glossed’ will II: Use “has” instead of “have” as “work” is singular
come, in the second blank ‘aristocracy’ will come here.
and in the third blank ‘corridors’ will come to make V: Use “spends” instead of “spend” as “boy” is
the sentence grammatically correct and contextually singular here.
correct. Hence, option C is the right answer choice.
Hence, option B is the right answer choice.
16) Answer: E
13) Answer: C Sol. Only II and V statements are correct. Rest of
Only II and III statements are correct. Rest of the the statements are erroneous.
statements are erroneous. I: Use “attributed” instead of “attribute”
I: Use “Desperation” instead of “Desperate” III: Use “Denoting” instead of “Denoted”
IV: Use “wedded” instead of “wed’ IV: Use “are” instead of “is” as “inequalities” is plural
V: Use “Backtracked” instead of “Backtrack” in number.
Hence, option C is the right answer choice. Hence, option E is the right answer choice.

Only II and V statements are correct. Rest of the Only I and IV statements are correct. Rest of the
statements are erroneous. statements are erroneous.
Page 61 of 101
II: Use “fishing” instead of “fish” Perverse: showing a deliberate and obstinate desire
III: Use “have” instead of “has” as “advances” is in to behave in a way that is unreasonable or
plural number. unacceptable. Unreasonable, Uncooperative
V: Use ‘their’ instead of ‘there’ -contrary to the accepted or expected standard or
Hence, option D is the right answer choice. practice: Irrational
Antonyms: Accommodating, Cooperative, Rational
18) Answer: B Hence, option E is the right answer choice.
Criticism: The expression of disapproval of
someone or something on the basis of perceived 21) Answer: D
faults or mistakes. Sol. Seamless: having no awkward transitions,
Censure, Reproval, Condemnation, Denunciation, interruptions, or indications of disparity: Perfect,
Disapproval, Critique, Examen Flawless, Absolute, Ideal
Antonyms: Applause, Approbation, Approval, Antonyms: amiss, bad, censurable, defective,
Commendation faulty, flawed, imperfect, reproachable
Hence, option B is the right answer choice. Hence, option D is the right answer choice.
19) Answer: A 22) Answer: C

Supercilious: behaving or looking as though one Sol. Rivalry: competition for the same objective or
thinks one is superior to others.Arrogant, Haughty, for superiority in the same field.
Conceited, Disdainful, Overbearing, Pompous Similar: competitiveness, competition, contention,
Antonyms: Humble, Modest vying, opposition, conflict
Hence, option A is the right answer choice. Antonyms: cooperation, indifference, satisfaction,
humility, carelessness, accord, harmony, calm,
20) Answer: E contentment, peace, agreement, concord.
Hence, option C is the right answer choice.
Page 62 of 101
General Awareness
1. Navy and which organization has conducted a SAHAYAK-NG container was developed by two
maiden trial of 1st indigenous air-droppable DRDO laboratories i.e. NSTL, Visakhapatnam and
container? ADRDE, Agra along with Avantel for GPS
A) BEL integration.
B) BHEL
C) BDL 2. Which bank has introduced a one-stop integrated
D) DRDO travel marketplace Travel Now?
E) ISRO A) Axis
Answer: D B) Yes
Defence Research and Development Organisation C) ICICI
(DRDO) along with the Indian Navy conducted the D) SBI
successful maiden test trial of 'SAHAYAK-NG' E) DBS
India's first indigenously designed and developed Answer: E
Air Dropped Container from IL 38SD aircraft (Indian DBS Bank India introduced a one-stop travel
Navy) off the coast of Goa. marketplace within the digibank app.
The trial was conducted by the Indian Navy to Named as Travel Now, the platform enables
enhance its operational logistics capabilities and customers to browse and book flights, bus tickets
provide critical engineering stores to ships that are and hotels across hundreds of destinations both
deployed more than 2000 kilometers from the within and outside of India.
coast. With the help of this new platform customers will
SAHAYAK-NG is an advanced version of now be able opt for travel insurance, offered by
SAHAYAK Mk I. Bharti AXA General Insurance, with an automated
The newly developed GPS aided air dropped claims process for flight cancellation, and flight
container is having the capability to carry a payload departure and arrival delays of more than 60
that weighs up to 50 kilograms and can be dropped minutes.
from heavy aircraft.
Page 63 of 101
3. India’s First Testbed for Autonomous Navigation 4. Which institution has developed a plaque therapy
Systems has been launched at which institution? successfully used on eye cancer patients in AIIMS?
A) IIT Roorkee A) BHEL
B) IIT Bombay B) BDL
C) IIT Delhi C) BARC
D) IIT Hyderabad D) ISRO
E) IIT Madras E) DRDO
Answer: D Answer: C
Union Minister of Education Ramesh Pokhriyal The Bhabha Atomic Research Centre in Mumbai
Nishank virtually laid the foundation stone of has developed an eye cancer therapy in the form of
'TiHAN-IIT Hyderabad, India's first Testbed for the first indigenous Ruthenium 106 Plaque for the
Autonomous Navigation Systems (Terrestrial and treatment of ocular tumours.
Aerial) at IIT Hyderabad. The handling of plaque is very convenient for
The Department of Science and Technology (DST), surgeons and it has been acknowledged to be at
Government of India, has sanctioned Rs. 135 par with international standards.
crores to IIT Hyderabad under the National Mission About Ocular Tumours:
on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM- Ocular tumors are tumors inside the eye.
ICPS) to set up a Technology Innovation Hub on They are collections of cells that grow and multiply
Autonomous Navigation and Data Acquisition abnormally and form masses.
Systems. They can be benign or malignant. In adults the most
The Technology Innovation Hub on Autonomous common type is metastatic, from another part of the
Navigation Systems for Unmanned Aerial Vehicles body (lung, breast, prostate, etc).
and Remotely Operated Vehicles at IIT Hyderabad, About Ruthenium-106:
known as 'TiHAN Foundation' has been Ruthenium-106 is a radioactive form of the rare
incorporated as a Section-8 company by the heavy metal ruthenium, which is a "platinum group"
institute in June 2020. metal similar to platinum.
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5. ISRO chairman K Sivan has received a _______

year extension as Department of Space secretary. 6. Indian Army Chief MM Naravane receives Guard
A) 3 of Honour at Army Headquarters of which country?
B) 2.5 A) Israel
C) 1.5 B) France
D) 1 C) South Korea
E) 2 D) Nepal
Answer: D E) Bhutan
The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet has Answer: C
approved the extension of tenure of K Sivan, Chief of Army Staff General MM Naravane has
secretary, Department of Space and chairman, received a Guard of Honour at Republic of Korea
Space Commission, for a period of one-year Army Headquarters at Gyeryong, South Korea.
beyond January 14, 2021, that is up to January 14, He called on General Nam Yeong shin, Chief of
2022. Staff of Korean Army and discussed issues of
Sivan is also Chairman of Indian Space Research bilateral defence cooperation.
Organisation (ISRO). The Army chief visited the Demilitarized Zone
Sivan joined Isro in 1982 and was inducted into the (DMZ) near the border with North Korea. General
PSLV Project. Naravane visited the 30th Armoured Brigade and
He took over as Isro chairman in January 2018. DMZ.
Under his chairmanship, the space agency During his three day visit, he met senior military and
launched various important projects, including civilian leadership of the Republic of Korea and
Chandrayaan 2, the second mission to the moon, discussed avenues for enhancing defence relations
on July 22 last year and currently working on the between the two countries.
human spaceflight mission.
He was the chief architect of 6D trajectory 7. Petroleum Minister has launched missed call
simulation software, SITARA, which is the facility for LPG consumers in which city?
backbone of the real-time and non-real-time A) Chandigarh
trajectory simulations of all Isro launch vehicles. B) Delhi
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C) Kolkata IndianOil will play a crucial role in making LPG

D) Bhubaneswar more easily accessible.
E) Indore
Answer: D 8. India is all set to begin its ______year tenure as a
Union Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas and non-permanent member in UNSC.
Steel Dharmendra Pradhan launched the missed A) 6
call facility for LPG consumers in Bhubaneswar. B) 1
Indian Oil LPG customers can now give a missed C) 2
call to 8454955555 for refill booking for all India and D) 3
for new connection for Bhubaneswar city. E) 4
The Minister also rolled out the second phase of the Answer: C
world class octane 100 premium grade petrol, India will begin its two-year tenure as a non-
under the brand XP 100. permanent member of the United Nations Security
The Petroleum Minister said that while about 13 Council (UNSC).
crore people were given LPG connection between India will sit in the 15-nation UNSC for the 2021-22
1955 and 2014, now it is about to reach 30 crore, term as a non-permanent member — the eighth
representing a quantum jump there by empowering time that the country has had a seat on the powerful
Indian women. horseshoe table.
Rolling out the Indian Oil's branded XP 100 to On January 1, India, Norway, Kenya, Ireland and
seven more cities including Bhubaneswar, Mr Mexico will join non-permanent members Estonia,
Pradhan said it epitomizes the Prime Minister's Niger, Saint Vincent and the Grenadines, Tunisia
vision of Purvoday. and Vietnam and the five permanent members
"In the line Modi’s vision for a Digital India, the China, France, Russia, U.K. and the U.S.
missed call facility will play a crucial role in making India will be UNSC President in August 2021 and
LPG more easily accessible to the consumers. will preside over the council again for a month in
The Petroleum Ministry has always strived to 2022.
improve customer convenience and this facility by
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9. India and ADB have signed USD _____ million C) SBI

loan to augment electricity generation capacity in D) RBL
Assam. E) HDFC
A) 260 Answer: D
B) 245 National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
C) 231 announced that RuPay has partnered with RBL
D) 250 Bank to launch an innovative payment solution for
E) 247 Indian merchants – RuPay PoS in association with
Answer: C PayNearby.
India and Asian Development Bank (ADB) have The RuPay PoS will transform smartphones into
signed a USD 231 million loan to augment merchant Point of Sale (PoS) terminals for the
electricity generation capacity in the State of Assam retailers.
through construction of a 120 MegaWatts Merchants will now be able to accept contactless
hydroelectric power plant that will enhance payments of up to INR 5000 through a simple tap
availability of electricity for households. and pay mechanism on his NFC enabled mobile
This is the third tranche loan for the ongoing Assam phones.
Power Sector Investment Programme that was Customers using RuPay cards or have tokenized
approved by the ADB Board in July 2014. their RuPay Cards, can carry out contactless
The programme, including its two previous payments for their regular purchases.
tranches, focuses on enhancing capacity and The introduction of RuPay PoS to digitally empower
efficiency of the energy generation and distribution merchants by turning their smartphones into a PoS
systems in Assam to improve electricity service to machine
end users. RuPay PoS will provide cost effective acceptance
infrastructure to retailers at no additional capital
10. RuPay partners with which Bank to introduce cost.
‘RuPay PoS’? This unique phenomena will proliferate digital
A) Axis payments acceptance among millions of
B) ICICI underserved Indian MSMEs.
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A) 14
11. Who among the following has been appointed B) 13
Deputy Election Commissioner? C) 10
A) Naveen Gupta D) 11
B) Sumit Singh E) 12
C) Umesh Sinha Answer: C
D) Manoj Kumar The Asian Development Bank (ADB) and the
E) Anand Raj Government of India on 30th December 2020
Answer: C signed a $10 million project readiness financing
Umesh Sinha has been appointed as the deputy (PRF).
election commissioner in the Election Commission Mainly to help finance piloting activities, and design
of India, according to a Personnel Ministry order. and capacity building for an ensuing project that
Sinha, a 1986-batch IAS officer (retired) of the Uttar aims to expand horticulture production and farm
Pradesh cadre, is at present the secretary general household income in the hill state of Himachal
in the commission. Pradesh.
The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet has The PRF project aims to ensure implementation
approved extension in the term of reemployment of readiness with prior testing of new production
Sinha as deputy election commissioner on contract technologies and marketing systems so that the
basis for a period of six months beyond December ensuing project is cost-effective and gets completed
31, 2020, that is up to June 30, 2021, it said. in a timely manner to enhance farm profitability.
Sinha is a part of a committee set up by the
Election Commission to look into the issue of 13. World Braille Day Observed is observed on
revising the election expenditure of candidates which date?
during campaigning. A) January 1
B) January 14
12. ADB and India have signed a _____million loan C) January 4
to support project preparation to expand horticulture D) January 15
in Himachal Pradesh. E) January 12
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Answer: C The RBI-DPI comprises 5 broad parameters that

World Braille Day is observed every year on 4 enable measurement of deepening and penetration
January to celebrate the importance of braille, a of digital payments in the country over different time
form of communication and written language for periods.
people who are blind and visually challenged. These parameters are
The day commemorates the birth anniversary of Payment Enablers (weight 25%),
Louis Braille, the man who invented braille in the Payment Infrastructure – Demand-side factors
year 1809. (10%),
Aim of the day : The day aims to raise awareness Payment Infrastructure – Supply-side factors (15%),
about braille language and other forms of Payment Performance (45%) and
communication, As many establishments such as Consumer Centricity (5%).
banks, restaurants, hospitals still don't offer braille The RBI-DPI has been constructed with March
versions of their printed materials, the day serves 2018 as the base period, i.e. DPI score for March
as a reminder of the importance of accessibility and 2018 is set at 100. The DPI for March 2019 and
independence for people who are visually impaired. March 2020 work out to 153.47 and 207.84
respectively, indicating appreciable growth.
14. RBI has recently introduced the Digital RBI-DPI shall be published on RBI’s website on a
Payments Index with the base year as _____. semi-annual basis from March 2021 onwards with a
A) 2019 lag of 4 months.
B) 2018 The base period for RBI-DPI is March 2018.
C) 2017 This means that the DPI score for March 2018 is
D) 2016 set at 100.
E) 2015
Answer: B 15. Which company has signed a contract with
The Reserve Bank of India has constructed a Indian Navy for Initial Supply of indigenously
composite Digital Payments Index (DPI) to capture developed Laser Dazzlers?
the extent of digitisation of payments across the A) ISRO
country. B) BEL
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C) DRDO India has been chosen as the IUCN-supported Asia

D) BDL Protected Areas Partnership (APAP) for 3 years
E) GRSE and it could, on this capability, help different Asian
Answer: B nations in managing their protected areas.
Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) has signed a About APAP :
contract with Indian Navy for initially supplying 20 The APAP is a regional platform to assist
Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of governments and different stakeholders to
Radiation Dazlers (Laser Dazzlers) in New Delhi. collaborate for more practical administration of
The BEL had earlier this month won the contract protected areas (PA) within the region.
beating global Original Equipment Manufacturers The APAP presently consists of 21 members from
(OEMs) in the global category. 17 nations together with China, Japan, South
These would be manufactured by BEL, Pune plant. Korea, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.
Laser dazzler technology was developed by The APAP, formally launched at the IUCN World
Defence Research and Development Organisation Parks Congress in Australia in 2014, is chaired by
(DRDO). IUCN Asia and co-chaired by an APAP nation
This unique product is indigenously designed and member.
developed for the first time for the Armed Forces. India will substitute South Korea which held this
place for 3 years until November, 2020.
16. Which country will be a co-chair of a regional Currently there are 21 members from 17
forum to conserve wildlife habitats - Asia Protected international locations.
Areas Partnership (APAP)?
A) Thailand 17. Leon Mendonca has become India's ______
B) China chess Grandmaster.
C) Russia A) 63rd
D) India B) 64th
E) Qatar C) 65th
Answer: D D) 66th
E) 67th
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Answer: E Indian Railways' South Western Railway zone will

Goa’s 14-year-old Leon Mendonca has become start operating train services from Bengaluru city
India’s 67th chess GrandMaster (GM) by winning station to the newly built KIA, Devanahalli Railway
the third and final norm at a tournament in Italy. halt station.
Mendonca, who achieved the feat at 14 years, 9 According to South Western Railway, three pairs of
months and 17 days, is the second GM from the DEMU services would be introduced from the
Coastal State. Bengaluru area to the Kempegowda International
The All India Chess Federation (AICF) Airport (KIAD) Halt Station from January 4. The new
acknowledged the development. Leon is the second railway halt station is bound to benefit thousands of
Indian to become GM this year after G. Akash. commuters daily
He achieved his first GM norm at the Rigo Chess
GM Round Robin in October while the second 19. India has recently begun its _______Scientific
came at the first Saturday in Budapest in Expedition to Antarctica.
November. His final GM norm came at the Vergani A) 36th
Cup in Italy that ended on December 30. B) 37th
GM is a title awarded by FIDE ( International Chess C) 40th
Federation ). It is the highest title a chess player D) 39th
can obtain apart from World Champion. E) 38th
Answer: C
18. Which division of the Indian Railways will start a India launched the 40th Scientific Expedition to
train service connecting international airport? Antarctica.
A) Western This Indian expedition marks four decades of the
B) South Central country's scientific endeavour to the southern white
C) Northern continent.
D) South Western The 40th expedition journey will be flagged off from
E) Eastern Goa with 43 members onboard.
Answer: D
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The chartered ice-class vessel MV Vasiliy Golovnin Later, he was transferred to Punjab and Haryana
will make this journey and will reach Antarctica in High Court on March 6, 2020.
30 days.
After leaving behind a team of 40 members, it 21. US Congress passes 'Malala Yousafzai
would return to India in April. Scholarship Act' for women of which country?
On return, it will also bring back the winter team of A) Turkmenistan
the preceding trip. B) Kazakhstan
C) Uzbekistan
20. Justice S Muralidhar has taken Oath as Chief D) Pakistan
Justice of which High Court? E) Afghanistan
A) Punjab Answer: D
B) Madras The US Congress has passed the Malala Yousafzai
C) Mumbai Scholarship Act which will expand the number of
D) Haryana scholarships available to Pakistani women to
E) Odisha receive higher education under a merit and needs-
Answer: E based programme.
On January 04, Justice S Muralidhar took oath as The bill was passed by the United States Senate by
the 32nd Chief Justice of Orissa High Court. a voice vote on January 1.
Governor of Odisha Prof.Ganeshi Lal administered The bill now heads to the White House for US
the oath of office at Raj Bhawan in Bhubaneswar in President Donald Trump to sign into law.
a simple ceremony. About the bill :
Justice S Muralidhar succeeds Justice Mohammad The bill requires the US Agency for International
Rafiq as the new chief justice of the Orissa High Development to award at least 50 percent of
Court. scholarships under a Pakistan-based higher
S Muralidhar was appointed as an Additional Judge education scholarship programme to Pakistani
of Delhi High Court on May 29, 2006, and as women, from 2020 to 2022, across a range of
Permanent Judge on August 29, 2007. academic disciplines and in accordance with
existing eligibility criteria.
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The bill also requires USAID to consult with and An amount of Rs 6 lakh will be provided by the
leverage investments by the Pakistani private Women and Child Development Department for the
sector and Pakistani diaspora in the United States installation of each launch pad.
to improve and expand access to education These launch pads will be operated through non-
programmes in Pakistan. governmental organizations.
22. Which state government has introduced the 23. Who among the following has launched IAF e-
'Launch Pad Scheme' for unemployed youths? Governance (e-Office) portal in New Delhi?
A) Bihar A) Prahlad Patel
B) Chhattisgarh B) Venkiah Naidu
C) Uttar Pradesh C) Anurag Thakur
D) Haryana D) Narendra Modi
E) Madhya Pradesh E) RKS Bhadauria
Answer: E Answer: E
In Madhya Pradesh, 'Launch Pad Scheme' is being Indian Air Force Chief, Air Marshal R K S Bhadauria
started for boys and girls coming out of child care formally launched the IAF e-Governance (e-Office)
institutions and having completed 18 years of age. portal in Vayu Bhavan, New Delhi.
Objective: Women and Child Development The launch of the portal is part of Digital India and
Department is to provide such a platform to these e-governance initiative that will transform the entire
youth, through which they will be able to become Indian Air Force into a paperless office workflow.
self-reliant by continuing their education and The platform will ensure enhanced transparency,
training. improved efficiency, increased accountability,
Under the launch pad scheme, 52 districts of the assured data integrity and rapidly accessible
state have been divided into 5 clusters. archives along with a major reduction in the use of
Five divisional headquarters are being started in paper.
Indore, Sagar, Gwalior, Jabalpur and Bhopal.
24. Which company has become the World's Most
Valuable Two-Wheeler Company?
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A) TVS While keeping up with his schooling for a diploma in

B) Bajaj business administration at Singapore Polytechnic,
C) Hero Harsh Dalal, as CEO, has built 120-employee Team
D) KTM Labs’ business across eight cities.
E) Royal Enfield The software development company’s clients
Answer: B include the Coca-Cola Company, Google and
Bajaj Auto has become the first two-wheeler Hilton, featuring Dalal among young entrepreneurs
company in the world to cross a market shaping Singapore into a smart nation and for
capitalization of Rs 1 lakh crore, making it the most running a USD 25 million tech startup under “On
valuable two-wheeler maker. The Red Dot” finds out programme.
The company’s share price closed at Rs 3,479 per He picked up coding at the age of 11 by spending
share on the NSE on January 1, 2021, making its hours watching YouTube tutorials and went on to
market capitalisation Rs 1,00,670.76 crore at this jailbreak a cast-off iPhone 4, a gift from his mother,
price. a business journalist.
25. Indian student Harsh Dalal's startup has won 26. Who among the following will head the 51st
recognition in which country? IFFI''s International Jury?

A) Vietnam A) Quentin Tarantino
B) Thailand B) Smriti Irani
C) Singapore
C) Anupam Kher
D) France
D) Shekar Kapur
E) Israel
E) Pablo Cesar
Answer: C
A 19-year-old Indian student in Singapore is Answer: E
keeping his options open on a startup named The 51st edition of International Film Festival of
“TEAMLABS” he has built with four applications in India (IFFI) will be held in Goa from January 16 to
his teenage while schooling. January 24, 2021.
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The Information and Broadcasting Ministry stated The 3-week long campaign for the welfare of
that the Jury will comprise Pablo Cesar of Argentina farmers will be organised in every development
as Chairman, Prasanna Vithanage of Sri Lanka, block of all 75 districts.
Abu Bakr Shawky of Austria, Priyadarshan of India Under the mission to be launched by the Uttar
and Rubaiyat Hossain of Bangladesh. Pradesh government, many departments of the
IFFI takes place in Goa from November 20-28 state government such as Horticulture, Mandi
every year, but has been postponed due to the Parishad, animal husbandry, sugarcane food and
Covid-19. supply, fisheries, and Panchayati Raj will be
working together.
27. The government of which state has launched It will help the farmers in getting benefit from the
the 'Kisan Kalyan Mission' to Double Farmers' various schemes of the centre such as PM Kisan
Income? Samman Nidhi, Kisan Credit Cards, and PM Fasal
A) Bihar Bima Yojana.
B) Madhya Pradesh
C) Chhattisgarh 28. World Bank has signed a _____ million project
D) Haryana to improve waterways in West Bengal.
E) Uttar Pradesh A) 125

Answer: E B) 120
On January 6, 2021, Uttar Pradesh CM Yogi C) 115
Adityanath's government will launch an initiative D) 105
named ‘Kisan Kalyan Mission’ E) 110
This is mainly for double the income of farmers of Answer: D
the state. The Government of India and the Government of
West Bengal and the World Bank signed a $105
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million project to improve the inland water transport C) Anand Raj
infrastructure in Kolkata, West Bengal. D) Sanjay Mehra
The $105 million loan from the International Bank E) Ashish Pethe
for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), has a Answer: E
maturity of 17 years, including a grace period of 7 The All India Gem and Jewellery Domestic Council
years. (GJC), the national apex body of the gems and
The West Bengal Inland Water Transport, Logistics jewellery industry, has announced the appointment
and Spatial Development Project will facilitate of Ashish Pethe as chairman and Saiyam Mehra as
passenger and freight movement across the vice chairman for a period of two years.
Hooghly river; undertake spatial planning to The entire e-Voting election process was conducted
improve accessibility in the Kolkata Metropolitan by an authorised independent person (Chief
Area; enhance the quality of life of its residents; and Election Authority), and the voting platform was
contribute to the growth of the state’s logistics created by a digital agency, both appointed by GJC.
sector. The voting process was for 5 days starting from
The project will cover the five most populous 23rd to 27th December, 2020. The results were
districts of southern West Bengal, including its declared on 29thDecember, 2020.
urban agglomeration the Kolkata Metropolitan Area GJC represents over 6,00,000 players comprising
(KMA) where around 30 million people or one-third manufacturers, wholesalers, retailers, distributors,
of West Bengal’s population live. laboratories, gemologists, designers, and allied
services to the domestic gems and jewellery
29. Who among the following has been elected as industry.
chairman of GJC?
A) Praksh Tiwari 30. Who among the following has been elected All
B) Surender Singh India Chess Federation president?
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A) Kishore Bandekar A) Chhattisgarh
B) Naresh Sharma B) Maharashtra
C) Sanjay Kapoor C) Karnataka
D) Bharat Chauhan D) Kerala
E) Ravindra Kumar E) Bihar
Answer: C Answer: C
Sanjay Kapoor was elected president of the All On January 07, 2021, Karnataka Chief Minister B.S.
India Chess Federation (AICF) while Bharat Singh Yediyurappa launched Krishi Sanjeevani vans in
Chauhan retained the secretary's post . Bengaluru.
Kapoor, representing Uttar Pradesh Chess This is Mainly for to help farmers in their own
Association, defeated incumbent PR Venketrama backyards.
Raja in a close contest. Kapoor received 33 votes As part of this scheme, 40 mobile agro clinics were
as against 31 of Raja. rolled from outside the Vidhana Soudha.
Chauhan beat Ravindra Dongre 35-29. The main objective of this project is to reduce the
Naresh Sharma, belonging to the Chauhan faction, cost of production.
was elected as treasurer, beating Kishore Bandekar In addition to that to provide farmers with accurate
34-30. information on improved agriculture production

Apart from the president, secretary and treasurer, technologies, supply of quality agricultural tools and
six vice-presidents and six joint secretaries were adequate use of recommended fertilisers, pest and
also elected. disease management, and nutrients available in the
soil.
31. The Chief Minister of which state has launched This initiative is part of the National Agricultural
the Krishi Sanjeevani vans to test soil, water & Development Scheme 2020-21. These labs will also
suggest remedies for pest control? help the government conduct surveys at all stages
Page 77 of 101
of crop production and inform the farmers about the out of 18.93 crore rural households had tap water
possible pest attacks, disease and weed connections.
management practices. Jal Jeevan mission has set an ambitious yet
The state government has rolled out 40 labs, each achievable target of giving piped water connections
lab for 31 districts, while some big districts like to each and every rural household with an approach
Mysuru, Bengaluru Rural and Shivamogga will get ensuring - ‘No one is left out’.
two labs. Mr Kataria informed that Goa is the first State to
provide 100 per cent piped connection.
32. The Central government has mentioned that He said, so far 27 Districts, 458 blocks, 33,516
over ______ crore new connections have been Gram Panchayats, 66,210 villages have been
provided under Jal Jeevan Mission. declared to have achieved ‘Har Ghar Jal’.
A) 4 Recently, Kurukshetra became the 27th District in
B) 2.5 India and 3rd in Haryana to have achieved this
C) 2 target.
D) 3.5 Telangana, Gujarat, Haryana, and Puducherry are
E) 3 close to achieving 100 per cent coverage.
Answer: E He credited the success primarily to the people of

Central govt. has said that over three crore new these villages, Gram Panchayats, Paani Samitis,
connections have been provided under Jal Jeevan public health authorities and other stakeholders,
Mission. Uttarakhand, Manipur, Mizoram, UT of Andaman
On reviewing a Flagship programme of jal jeevan and Nicobar.
mission, Minister of State for Jal Shakti, Rattanlal
Kataria informed that since Independence till 33. Who among the following will chair three-key
August 2019, a total of 3.23 Crore rural households subsidiary committees of UNSC?
Page 78 of 101
A) Israel Mr Tirumurti said, India will be assuming the chair
B) Bangladesh of the Libya Sanctions Committee at a critical
C) China juncture when there is an international focus on
D) India Libya and on the peace process.
E) Uzbekistan 34. Sagarmala Seaplane Project Services have
Answer: D commenced in various islands. Which of the
Permanent Representative of India at the United following is not among the proposed destinations?
Nations Security Council, TS Tirumurti announced, A) Yamuna Riverfront
India will be chairing three-key subsidiary bodies of B) Guwahati Riverfront
the United Nations Security Council (UNSC). C) Lakshadweep
The panels are: Counter-Terrorism Committee (for D) Andaman & Nicobar
2022), Taliban Sanctions Committee, and Libya E) Brahmaputra Riverfront
Sanctions committee. Answer: E
India will chair the Counter-Terrorism Committee of The Union Ports, Shipping and Waterways has
UNSC in 2022. recently started the operations of the seaplane
Mr Tirumurti said, chairing of this committee has a services, on several routes.
special resonance for India which has not only been It is being implemented under a Special Purpose
at the forefront of fighting terrorism especially cross Vehicle (SPV) framework through prospective
border terrorism but has also been one of its airline operators.
biggest victims. The implementation and execution of the
He said, Taliban Sanctions Committee has always "Sagarmala Seaplane Services (SSPS)" would be
been a high priority for India keeping in minds its through the SPV with the Sagarmala Development
strong interest and commitment to peace, security, Company Ltd, SDCL, under the control of the
development, and progress of Afghanistan. Ministry of Shipping.
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The proposed Origin-Destination pairs under Hub Elon Musk, the outspoken and envelope-pushing
and Spoke model include various islands of chief executive of Tesla, overtook Amazon boss
Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep, the Jeff Bezos to become the world's wealthiest person,
Guwahati Riverfront & Umranso Reservoir in US media reported.
Assam, Yamuna Riverfront/Delhi (as Hub) to Musk is a major shareholder of the electric car
Ayodhaya, Tehri, Srinagar (Uttrakhand), company and has benefited from Tesla's surging
Chandigarh and many other tourist places of share price over the last year.
Punjab and Himachal Pradesh. CNBC estimated Musk's wealth at $185 billion.
One such Seaplane Service is already in operation
between Kevadia and Sabarmati Riverfront in 36. Rastriya Kamdhenu Aayog has announced the
Ahmedabad, which was inaugurated by Prime Kamdhenu Gau-Vigyan Prachar-Prasar Exam. The
Minister Narendra Modi on October 31, 2020. exam will be held in _____ languages.
A) 15
35. Who among the following has been ranked as B) 11
the world's wealthiest person? C) 12
A) Carlos Slim D) 13
B) Steve Balmer E) 14
C) Jeff Bezos Answer: C
D) Elon Musk Rashtriya Kamdhenu Aayog (RKA), the government
E) Bill Gates body set up for cow welfare has announced that it
Answer: D will hold a countrywide online examination on ‘gau
US media reported that Tesla CEO Elon Musk now vigyan’ (cow science) on February 25.
world's wealthiest person. There will be no fee for the examination.
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The exam will be held in 12 regional languages In Jammu and Kashmir, LG, Manoj Sinha launched
apart from Hindi and English. Mobile Application ‘Satark Nagrik’ and
The duration will be one hour and there will be 4 Departmental Vigilance Officers Portal of J&K Anti
categories : Corruption Bureau at Civil Secretariat, Jammu.
Primary level up to 8th standard, Speaking on the occasion, the LG observed that UT
Secondary level from class 9th to class 12th, Government is taking comprehensive measures for
College level after 12th+ ensuring transparent, accountable and responsive
For the general public. governance.
RKA comes under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal The mobile application has been developed with a
Husbandry and Dairying. purpose to facilitate seamless flow of information
It was set up by the Centre in February 2019, and is about corruption and enable citizens to submit their
aimed at “conservation, protection and development grievances with ease and mobility.
of cows and their progeny”. The LG remarked that the most effective antidote to
corruption is an active, involved, and empowered
37. Who among the following has unveiled the citizenry.
Mobile Application 'Satark Nagrik' and The Departmental Vigilance Officers (DVO) Portal
Departmental Vigilance Officers Portal? has been designed to enable an online

A) Venkiah Naidu communication channel with the DVOs of various
B) Narendra Modi departments and the portal will help in quick
C) Manoj Sinha disposal of complaints and will help to redress
D) Anurag Thakur grievances in a systematic manner by enabling
E) Prahlad Patel monitoring of the status of DVO matters and
Answer: C Citizens Grievances assigned to DVOs at ACB
Central Office.
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38. Which state has become the 3rd State to 39. J&K LG has declared _______ crores mega
complete ULB reform? Industrial Development Package.
A) Haryana A) 21,400
B) Telangana B) 22,400
C) Bihar C) 28,400
D) Madhya Pradesh D) 25,400
E) Uttar Pradesh E) 23,400
Answer: B Answer: C
Telangana has become the 3rd State in the country In the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir,
to successfully undertake Urban Local Bodies, ULB Lieutenant Governor Manoj Sinha announced the
reform stipulated by the Department of Expenditure, Government of India's approval for a mega
Ministry of Finance. Industrial Development Package worth Rs.28,400
The State has become eligible to mobilize crore.
additional financial resources of Rs 2,508 crore While addressing a press conference in Jammu, the
through Open Market Borrowings. LG Sinha said that the Union Cabinet sanctioned
Permission for the same was issued by the the huge Industrial Development Package-2021 for
Department of Expenditure. J&K’s industrial sector that has been craving for the
Telangana has now joined the two other States strong support from the Centre.
Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh, who have The LG said that the package aims at providing a
completed this reform. huge boost to the existing industrial sector, setting
On completion of urban local bodies reform, these up new units, creating 4.5 lakh jobs and at least
three States have been granted additional investments of Rs.20,000 crore.
borrowing permission of Rs 7,406 crore. The package will remain in force for 17 years i.e. till
2037.
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to research and develop technological solutions to
40. Which bank has collaborated with IIT Kanpur to explore opportunities in the BFSI space.
set up Fintech Innovation Centre? 41. Who among the following has been appointed
A) Axis as the CMD of MTNL?
B) HDFC A) Dinesh Singh
C) PNB B) Anand Mishra
D) SBI C) PK Purwar
E) ICICI D) Nita Singha
Answer: C E) Ramesh Gupta
Punjab National Bank (PNB), the country’s second Answer: C
largest public sector bank, has announced an The Board of Directors of state-run Mahanagar
alliance with the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Telephone Nigam Ltd (MTNL) has re-appointed PK
Kanpur and FIRST (Foundation for Innovation & Purwar as Chairman & Managing Director (CMD) of
Research in Science & Technology), to jointly the telecom PSU.
establish the Punjab National Bank - IIT Kanpur Purwar is currently CMD of Bharat Sanchar Nigam
Innovation Centre at the IIT campus. Ltd (BSNL).
An MoU for this purpose was signed at the PNB He assumed additional charge as CMD of MTNL in
Headquarters, Dwarka, New Delhi, in the presence April 2020.
of CH S S Mallikarjuna Rao, MD & CEO of PNB MTNL was merged with BSNL and turned into a
and top officials from the Bank, IIT Kanpur & wholly-owned subsidiary of the company as part of
FIRST. the revival plan announced by the government for
Under this partnership, PNB and IIT-Kanpur will set BSNL.
up a “Fintech Innovation Centre (FIC)” as a vehicle
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This is the fourth time Purwar has been given employed in Central, State/UTs, Private, Missionary
charge of the post of MTNL's CMD in the last six and Voluntary Organizations.
years. It is the highest national distinction awarded to
The decision was taken in the board meeting held nurses or nursing aides, which consists of a cash
on December 31, 2020. amount of Rs 50,000, a certificate and a medal.
42. Who has been selected for the National 43. Who among the following has authored A book
Florence Nightingale Award 2020? on India’s tours Down Under?
A) Vasu Vashisht A) Rakesh Gupta
B) Shivani Chauhan B) Manoj Mehta
C) Shailla Cannie C) R. Kaushik
D) Shruti Mishra D) Satish Mishra
E) Anand Ramani E) Anand Raj
Answer: C Answer: C
In Jammu and Kashmir, Dr Shailla Cannie, On Jan 07, 2021, a book titled ‘India’s 71-Year
Principal, Shri Mata Vaishno Devi College of Test: The Journey to Triumph in Australia’ and one
Nursing, has been selected for the prestigious which reflects on India’s previous 12 tours Down
National Florence Nightingale Award 2020, to be Under, was launched.
conferred by President of India. The book, a Bradman Museum initiative, is
Lt Governor Manoj Sinha has congratulated Dr. authored by senior cricket scribe R. Kaushik, and it
Shailla for being selected for the prestigious award. chronicles a rivalry that has given a fillip to Test
Pertinently, the National Florence Nightingale cricket.
Award is given to outstanding nursing personnel Introducing the tome from the Sydney Cricket
Ground, India’s coach and former all-rounder Ravi
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Shastri said that the next two Tests of the current The app has been designed and developed by the
series will be fiercely competitive. Bureau of Outreach and Communication, Ministry of
44. I&B Minister has launched which of the Information and Broadcasting.
following app in New Delhi recently? The app will do away with the need for a new
A) Digital Office App calendar every year.
B) Digital Diary App
C) Digital Broadcast App 45. Centre has merged the cadre of officers from
D) Diary App which state/UT with AGMUT?
E) Digital Calendar App A) Kerala
Answer: D B) J&K
Information and Broadcasting Minister Prakash C) Ladakh
Javadekar launched the Government's Digital D) Puducherry
Calendar and Diary App in New Delhi. E) Andaman & Nicobar
Mr Javadekar said, paperless governance has Answer: B
come to offices and files are now moving as e-files. In the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, the
The digital calendar inaugurated and available in Central govt. has merged J&K cadre for all India
Hindi and English, but it will be available in 11 Services - IAS, IPS and IFS officers with that of
languages from 15th January 2021. Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, Mizoram and Union
He said, the calendar has a theme for every month Territory (AGMUT), also called the Union Territory
and it will also have all information of 100 cadre, through an ordinance.
revolutionary programmes of the government. It says officers “so borne or allocated” on AGMUT
The GOI Calendar and the Diary App is available cadre shall function in accordance with rules framed
for download on both Google Play store and iOS by the Centre.
App Store.
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Sub-Section (2) of Section 88 of the Act stated that The Weapon System will give Pakistan Army
members of IAS, IPS and IFS cadres “for the capability of precision target engagement deep in
existing State of Jammu and Kashmir, on and from enemy territory.
the appointed day, shall continue to function on the
existing cadres.” 47. Which company has announced that it will offer
The ordinance has also made an addition in Section free Internationalized Domain Name?
13, inserting the words “or any other article A) HostGator
containing reference to elected members of the B) Black Rock
Legislative Assembly of the State” after “in Article C) NIXI
239A”. D) Whois
E) GoDaddy
46. Which country has successfully test Fired an Answer: C
Indigenously Developed Rocket System : Fatah-1? The National Internet Exchange of India, NIXI has
A) Iraq announced that it will offer a free Internationalized
B) Iran Domain Name, IDN in any of the preferred 22
C) Oman official Indian language along with every IN domain
D) Pakistan booked by the registrant.

E) China Applicant will also get a free email in local
Answer: D language.
The Pakistan Army successfully conducted the test This offer has been created to stimulate the
flight of an indigenously developed Guided Multi adoption of IDN domain name and proliferation of
Launch Rocket System, Fatah-1. local language content.
The Fatah-1 weapon system can hit targets up to a This offer is valid for new .in users who register up
range of 140 km. to 31st of January.
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This offer is also extended to those existing in users 15,000 civilians and military personnel in over 100
who renew their domain in the month of January countries.
2021.
49. Who among the following has been appointed
48. Which Indian-American has become the US as DG of CISF?
Army's first Chief Information Officer? A) Anand Mittal
A) Ankit Dhingra B) Subodh Jaiswal
B) Raj Iyer C) Anshul Mehta
C) Mukesh Raina D) Deepak Kataria
D) Anant Singh E) Rajana Desai
E) Sushil Patel Answer: B
Answer: B Former DGP of Maharashtra Subodh Kumar
Indian-American Dr Raj Iyer has taken over as the Jaiswal has taken over the charge as the new
first Chief Information Officer of the US Army, after Director General (DG) of the Central Industrial
the Pentagon created the position in July 2020. Security Force (CISF).
Currently Iyer serves as the principal advisor to the Jaiswal is set to retire from service in September,
Secretary of the Army. 2022.

Iyer will direct the execution of policies and He is the 28th Director General of CISF.
programmes to modernise the US Army to achieve Maharashtra DGP Hemant Nagrale (left) takes
digital overmatch against near peer adversaries charge from outgoing DGP Subodh Jaiswal.
such as China and Russia.
Iyer will supervise an annual budget of USD 16 50. Who among the following has penned the ‘Right
billion for the US Army's IT operations and over Under our Nose’?
A) Gopi Thakkar
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B) Neeraj Mittal Vishwa Hindi Divas commemorates the anniversary
C) N Sriniwasan of the first World Hindi Conference held in Nagpur

on January 10, 1975.
D) JC Daniel
The conference was inaugurated by the then prime
E) R Giridharan
minister Indira Gandhi in Nagpur.
Answer: E
World Hindi Day was first celebrated in 2006 by
A general manager at RBI, R Giridharan has former Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.
authored his debut book ”Right Under our Nose. The aim of the conference was to promote Hindi
In "Right Under Your Nose", a murderer eliminates language worldwide.
scientists right under the nose of the police and National Hindi Divas which is celebrated annually
on September 14.
leaves forensics baffled. In response, the chief
minister calls upon Vijay, who is given an

52. Who will address the National Youth Parliament
impossible deadline to solve the case before
Festival 2021?
Parliament resumes in a week. A) Rajnath Singh
The book has been published by Rupa B) Venkiah Naidu
Publications. C) Anurag Thakur
D) Ram Nath Kovind
51. World Hindi Day is observed on which date? E) Narendra Modi
A) January 11 Answer: E
B) January 12 National Youth Parliament Festival, 2021 will be
C) January 10 held in the Central Hall of Parliament.
D) January 13 Prime Minister Narendra Modi will address the
E) January 15 Valedictory Function of second National Youth
Answer: C Parliament Festival, 2021 through video
World Hindi Day is celebrated every year on conferencing.
January 10. The first three winners will get an opportunity to
speak before the Prime Minister.
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The Prime Minister will also interact with the youth She was speaking after inaugurating - Surat
on the occasion. International Textile Expo -SITEX at Surat, the
84 winners from States and Union Territories will Gujarat’s first physical exhibition after Covid19.
get an opportunity to be present in the Central Hall Speaking on this occasion, the Union Minister of
of Parliament before the Lok Sabha Speaker, state for women and child welfare Debasree
Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha along with Youth Chaudhuri has said that industrial revolution can be
Affairs and Sports Minister Kiren Rijiju and other brought in West Bengal, if it follows the Gujarat
dignitaries. model.
29 National winners will get an opportunity to speak
before the National Jury comprising of Rajya Sabha 54. Indian Railways has attained a train speed of
MP Roopa Ganguly, Lok Sabha MP Parvesh Sahib ______ kmph on Golden Quadrilateral - Golden
Singh and eminent journalist Prafulla Ketkar. Diagonal route.
A) 150
53. India has now become the ______ largest B) 145
manufacturer of PPE kits and suits. C) 130
A) 6th D) 125
B) 2nd E) 140
C) 3rd Answer: C
D) 4th Indian Railways has started the New Year by
E) 5th achieving a landmark to enhance the maximum
Answer: B speed to 130 kmph for 1,280 km length out of 1,612
Union Minister for textile and women and child Km in Golden Quadrilateral - Golden Diagonal
development Smriti Irani has said that India has route.
become the second largest manufacturer of PPE This covers the entire GQ-GD route over South
kits and suits in the world in record three months’ Central Railway, except Vijayawada - Duvvada
time during the corona virus induced lockdown in section, where signaling up gradation work is in
March 2020. progress.
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This included heavier rails, laying of 260 meters It also stressed to undertake awareness generation
long welded rail panels, improvement of curves and among parents and community for enrolling and
gradients among others. attendance of children.
Piyush Goyal is the Union minister for Railways and The main features of the guidelines are identifying
Minister of Railways and Minister of Commerce & out of school children, continued education for out
Industry in the Government of India. of school children (OoSC) and children with special
needs and enrolment drives and awareness
55. The Centre has provided guidelines for Migrant generation.
Children, asking states to carry out proper
identification for children of age group ______. 56. World's largest Floating Solar Plant will be
A) 8 to 18 constructed at Omkareshwar Dam in which state?
B) 7 to 18 A) Karnataka
C) 4 to 18 B) Kerala
D) 6 to 18 C) Madhya Pradesh
E) 5 to 15 D) Haryana
Answer: D E) Chhattisgarh
The Education Ministry has issued guidelines for Answer: C
identification, admission and continued education of The World's largest Floating solar energy project is
migrant children. to be constructed at Omkareshwar dam on
The guidelines highlight the continuation of non- Narmada river and will be operational by 2023 and
residential training for identified out of school an estimated cost of INR30 billion ($409.8m).
children through volunteers, local teachers and About the Solar Plant :
community participation. It would be a 600 MW plant based on utilising solar
States and UTs to carry out proper identification of energy
OoSC for 6 to 18 years age group through a The plant would be located on Omkareshwar dam
comprehensive door to door survey and prepare in Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh
action plan for their enrolment. The project is likely to begin generation of power by
2022-23
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That electricity will be produced by installing solar This cheap, collateral-free credit support is just
panels in a 2,000 hectares area of water. what the rural women will need as they take up
The International Finance Corporation, World Bank manufacturing on a regular basis.
and Power Grid have agreed in principle to support The project would see Nabard providing a total
the project development. support of nearly ₹50 crore over the next three
The Madhya Pradesh power management company years.
has signed an agreement to buy 400MW power
from the project. 58. Which bank along with Indian Oil will launch a
contactless RuPay debit card?
57. Which bank has tied up with A) PayTM
NABFOUNDATION to Provide loans to Self - help B) Bandhan
groups? C) SBI
A) SBI D) ICICI
B) Central Bank of India E) Axis
C) Oriental Bank of Commerce Answer: C
D) Bandhan State Bank of India (SBI) and Indian Oil Corporation
E) Axis (IOC) launched a co-branded contactless RuPay
Answer: B debit card.
Central Bank of India (CBoI) and This Debit Card was launched by Mr. Dinesh Kumar
NABFOUNDATION,entered into a Memorandum of Khara, Chairman, SBI and Mr. Shrikant Madhav
Understanding (MoU), whereby working capital will Vaidya, Chairman, IndianOil, in a virtual ceremony .
be provided by the bank to all self-help groups The features of the card are:
(SHGs) which have an account with it and 6X Reward Points for every Rs. 200/- spent at
undertake the Nabard-sponsored ‘My Pad My Right’ IndianOil fuel stations
project. Fuel benefits – Cardholder earns loyalty points
NABFOUNDATION, which is a wholly-owned worth 0.75% against purchase of fuel at IndianOil
subsidiary of the National Bank for Agriculture and fuel stations
Rural Development (Nabard).
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Pay with a tap (contactless card) for a single The panel can invite eminent persons as and when
transaction of upto Rs. 5000/- required to ensure delivery of the vaccine through
Earn Reward Points on spends on dining, movies, the Co-Win technology platform
grocery and utility bills It must be noted that Sharma is also a member of
Redeem Reward Points for dining, movies, grocery the National Expert Group on Vaccine
and paying utility bills Administration of Covid-19 that was formed in
No monthly limit for purchasing fuel August 2020 and is headed by Niti Aayog member,
SBI-IndianOil Co-branded RuPay Debit Card can VK Paul.
be issued anywhere in India Sharma was the first person to officially initiate a
Apply for a card by visiting SBI’s home branch. discussion on vaccination delivery in the
government in the summer of 2020 when Covid-19
59. Who will head the empowered panel for Covid- cases peaked.
19 vaccine?
A) Amitabh Kant 60. National Youth Day 2021 is observed on which
B) VK Saraswat of the following date?
C) VK Paul A) January 11
D) RS Sharma B) January 14
E) Ramesh Chand C) January 16
Answer: D D) January 17
The Union government has appointed RS Sharma, E) January 12
former TRAI chief, as the chairperson of an Answer: E
empowered committee for administration of Covid- The National Youth Day is observed all over India
19 vaccine. on 12 January.
This has come days ahead of the mega vaccination Theme for National Youth Day 2021 is
drive to start in India. ‘Channelizing Youth Power for Nation Building
A ten member team has been constituted to be Since 1984, the birthday of Swami Vivekananda
headed by Sharma. (January 12) is celebrated as National Youth Day
across the country.
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The day was chosen to honour one of India’s It will be an online platform to obtain clearances for
greatest spiritual and social leaders, Swami smooth operationalisation of coal mines.
Vivekananda. The Coal Sector has the potential to be the biggest
It is also commonly known as Yuva Diwas. contributor towards Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s
One of the main objectives of National Youth Day is Vision of making India a 5 trillion dollar economy by
to promote rational thinking among the youth, who 2024.
are the future of the country. This will give the states an estimated revenue of
National Youth Day which aims to discuss the about Rs 6500 crore per year and will also create
lectures, thoughts and writings of Swami more than 70,000 Jobs.
Vivekananda. Several competitions on essay
writing, debates and poetry also mark the day. 62. Which country will be the focus country at the
In 2021, we are observing the 158th birth 51st International Film Festival of India?
anniversary of Swami Vivekanand (12 January A) Singapore
1863). B) Thailand
C) Vietnam
61. Who among the following has launched a D) Sri Lanka
'Single Window Clearance System' for coal mines? E) Bangladesh
A) Suresh Prabhu Answer: E
B) Amit Shah Bangladesh has been chosen as the ‘Country in
C) Prahlad Patrel Focus’ for the 51st International Film Festival of
D) Anurag Thakur India (IFFI) starting at Goa on January 16.
E) Narendra Modi The country of focus section will include Jibandhuli
Answer: B directed by Tanvir Mokammel, Meghmallar directed
Union Home Minister Amit Shah launched the by Zahidur Rahman Anjan, Under Construction by
'Single Window Clearance System', an online Rubaiyat Hossain and Sincerely Yours, Dhaka by
platform to obtain clearances for smooth Nuhash Humanyun, Syed Ahmed Shawki and 9
operationalisation of coal mines. other individual directors.
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The International Film Festival of India (IFFI), It will be used for research purposes by the National
founded in 1952, is one of the most significant film Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) and has been
festivals in Asia. built by Titagarh Wagons, Kolkata, West Bengal.
The festival aims at providing a common platform The vehicle will be used to carry out environment
for the cinemas of the world to project the indexing and bathymetric (mapping underwater
excellence of the film art, contributing to the features) in both coastal and offshore waters.
understanding and appreciation of film cultures of NIOT already has 6 Research Vessels – Sagar
different nations in the context of their social and Kanya, Sagar Sampada, Sagar Nidhi, Sagar
cultural ethos, and promoting friendship and Manusha, & Sagar Tara.
cooperation among people of the world.
The festival is conducted jointly by the Directorate 64. RBI has cancelled the licence of which bank
of Film Festivals (under the Ministry of Information recently?
and Broadcasting) and the state Government of A) Apna Sahakari Bank.
Goa B) Adarsh Co-operative Bank
The festival will conclude on 24th January. C) Abhyudaya Co-op. Bank
D) Vasantdada Nagari Sahakari Bank
63. Who among the following has inaugurated the E) Karad Sahakari Bank
Coastal Research Vessel 'Sagar Anveshika'? Answer: D
A) Venkiah Naidu The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has cancelled the
B) Narendra Modi licence of Vasantdada Nagari Sahakari Bank Ltd.,
C) Rajnath Singh Osmanabad, Maharashtra to carry on banking
D) Amit Shah business, with effect from the close of business on
E) Harsh Vardhan January 11.
Answer: E The Bank has failed to comply with the
Union Minister of Earth Sciences, Dr Harsh requirements of Section 11(1) read with Section 56
Vardhan on January 09 inaugurated Coastal of BR Act and thus would be unable to pay its
Research Vessel (CRV) 'Sagar Anveshika' at present depositors in full in its current financial
Chennai Port Trust. position.
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The Commissioner for Cooperation and Registrar of 2 and was subsequently admitted to a hospital in
Cooperative Societies (RCS), Maharashtra has also his home town in Kolkata where he underwent
been requested to issue an order for winding up the primary angioplasty.
bank and appoint a liquidator for the bank.
With the cancellation of licence and 66. Which country will host the 4th One Planet
commencement of liquidation proceedings, the Summit in cooperation with UN and World Bank?
process of paying the depositors of Vasantdada A) China
Nagari Sahakari Bank as per the DICGC Act will be B) US
set in motion. C) Israel
D) Germany
65. Who has been named as BCCI's representative E) France
on ICC Board? Answer: E
A) Ranjit Kapoor The Government of France, in cooperation with the
B) Nisha Gupta UN and the World Bank, the 'One Planet Summit'
C) Jay Shah for biodiversity on January 11 aims to advance the
D) Arun Kumar protection of nature.
E) Umesh Sinha French President Emmanuel Macron, UN
Answer: C Secretary-General Antonio Guterres, and World
On Jan 10, 2021, Jay Shah was named as the Bank Group President David Malpass are
official representative of Board of Control for Cricket organising the fourth 'One Planet Summit' which will
in India (BCCI) for the International Cricket Council focus on biodiversity to mobilise commitments to
(ICC) Board meetings. protect ecosystems and make links to human
BCCI secretary Jay Shah is all set to be named as health.
India's representative in the ICC Board. The theme of the Summit was “Let’s act together for
He will replace BCCI president Sourav Ganguly, nature!”
was the person going on behalf of India to any The summit programme will focus on
meetings or interactions of the ICC Board, but he Biodiversity preservation
had recently suffered a heart condition on January The protection of terrestrial and marine ecosystems
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The promotion of agroecology, The total paid up capital of the company is Rs

The mobilisation of funding for biodiversity 1,00,000 and authorised share capital is Rs 15
The link between deforestation, species and human lakhs.
health.
The event will be in a hybrid format with the 68. Who among the following has unveiled India’s
participation of leaders in person in Paris and via first indigenously developed driverless metro car?
video-tele-conferencing. It will be live-streamed on A) Prahlad Patel
webtv.un.org. B) Venkiah Naidu
C) Harsh Vardhan
67. Tesla will set up India’s subsidiary in which city? D) Rajnath Singh
A) Raipur E) Narendra Modi
B) Chandigarh Answer: D
C) Puducherry Defence Minister Rajnath Singh unveiled the
D) Bengaluru country’s first indigenously designed and developed
E) Chennai Driverless Metro Car at the BEML manufacturing
Answer: D facility in Bengaluru.
Elon Musk-owned electric vehicle (EV) company The indigenously designed & developed state-of-
Tesla has registered a fully-owned subsidiary in the-art Driverless Metro trains are being
Bengaluru, Karnataka. manufactured at BEML Bangalore manufacturing
The firm is looking at setting up an R&D facility and facility, for Mumbai Metropolitan Region
eventually an assembly plant. Development Authority (MMRDA).
Tesla’s global senior director David Jon Feinstein, BEML bagged a total order of 576 cars for Mumbai
chief accounting officer Vaibhav Taneja and Metropolitan Region Development Authority
Bengaluru-based entrepreneur Venkatrangam (MMRDA)’s MRS1 project and the supply is
Sreeram are on the board of the India unit, Tesla scheduled progressively up to January 2024.
India Motors and Energy Pvt Ltd. BEML recently opened its Depot office at Charkop
Metro Depot, MMRDA, Mumbai for commissioning,
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testing and round-the-clock services for Driverless C) Maharashtra

Metro cars. D) Kerala
E) Odisha
69. Indian Army Day is being Observed On which Answer: E
date? Odisha Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik inaugurated
A) January 11 the ‘Fire Park’, a first of its kind initiative in the
B) January 15 country, to bring awareness on fire safety
C) January 13 measures.
D) January 16 This Will Facilitate Demonstrations on use of first
E) January 17 aid fire-fighting equipment, rescue and disaster
Answer: B operations, visit to exhibition hall, screening of films
Army Day is celebrated on January 15 every year to and distribution of leaflets on fire safety will be part
honor the soldiers of the country, who have set the of the activities. Students from schools and colleges
greatest example of selfless service and will be the focus group.
brotherhood and more than anything the love for He also launched a dynamic online portal,
the country. ‘AgnishamaSeva’ of Odisha Fire Service on virtual
In 2021 Marks India's 73rd Army Day. platform.
Army Day is celebrated every year at all Army
Command headquarters. 71. ICT Grand Challenge for development of ‘smart
On the occasion of the 73rd Indian Army Day, the water supply measurement and monitoring system’
Indian Army will organise a marathon 'Vijay Run' to is being held by which ministry?
commemorate Swarnim Vijay Varsh celebrations of A) Ministry of Earth Sciences
India's resounding victory over Pakistan in 1971. B) Ministry of Education
C) Ministry of Human Resource Development
70. India’s first Fire Park will come up in which D) Ministry of Electronics and Information
state? Technology
A) Punjab E) Ministry of
B) Karnataka Answer: D
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An ICT Grand Challenge for development of a C) Vikram Mehta

‘smart water supply measurement and monitoring D) P Vasudevan
system’ is underway. E) Manoranjan Mishra
It was launched on the 15th of September, 2020 by Answer: B
National Jal Jeevan Mission in partnership with the The Reserve Bank of India has set up a working
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. group to study digital lending activities of the
Jal Jeevan Mission would be the user agent of the regulated and unregulated players.
Grand Challenge and C-DAC, Bangalore is the The group will suggest steps to regulate digital
implementing agency, providing technical support lending including online lending platform and mobile
for the challenge. lending.
Currently, 10 applicants which were selected are The six-member panel comprised of four RBI
developing prototypes. internal and two external members
They will be evaluated in the last week of January Chairman : Jayant Kumar Dash, Executive Director,
wherein best four techno-economically viable Ajay Kumar Choudhary, Chief General Manager-in-
prototypes will be selected for product Charge, Department of Supervision,
development. P Vasudevan, Chief General Manager, Department
Jal Jeevan Mission is a flagship programme of the of Payment and Settlement Systems, RBI
Union Government which aims to provide tap water Manoranjan Mishra, Chief General Manager,
connection to every rural household by 2024. Department of Regulation.
Announced by the Prime Minister on 15th August The two external members are
2019, the Mission so far has provided 3.13 crore Vikram Mehta, Co-founder, Monexo Fintech and
household tap connections in rural areas. Rahul Sasi,
Cyber Security Expert & Founder of CloudSEK.
72. RBI forms 6 Member working group to study This Group will submit its report within 3 months.
digital lending activities of the regulated and The group will evaluate digital lending activities and
unregulated players, the panel headed by? assess the penetration and standards of outsourced
A) Ajay Kumar Choudhary digital lending activities in RBI regulated entities.
B) Jayant Kumar Dash
Page 98 of 101
73. Who among the following has won the E) Sweden

presidency of Kyrgyzstan? Answer: D
A) Almazbek Atambayev India and Japan signed a memorandum of
B) Sadyr Japarov understanding (MoU) to enhance cooperation in the
C) Rustam Japarov field of Information and Communications
D) Dastan Japarov Technology (ICT), including 5G standardisation.
E) Aigul Japarova The MoU was signed between Ravi Shankar
Answer: B Prasad, Minister for Communications, Electronics
Nationalist politician Sadyr Japarov won a landslide and IT and the Japanese Minister for Internal Affairs
victory in Kyrgyzstan's snap presidential election, and Communications Takeda Ryota, through a
which was triggered by the collapse of the previous video conference.
government. As per the agreement, both the countries will
Japarov has won almost 80% of the vote in the enhance mutual cooperation in the field of 5G
Central Asian nation which is closely allied with technologies, telecom security, submarine optical
Russia, preliminary results cited by Kyrgyzstan's fibre cable system to islands of India, spectrum
Central Election Commission. management, smart cities, high-altitude platform for
Kyrgyzstan has been in crisis since parliamentary broadband in unconnected areas, disaster
elections last October. management and public safety.
The results of those elections were disputed, The new agreement will bring the cooperation
leading to protests and the resignation of then- between Japan and India in the field of ICT to
President Sooronbay Jeenbekov. another level, which has already been close under
the Japan-India ICT Comprehensive Cooperation
74. India has inked a MoU with which country to Framework of 2014
Enhance Cooperation in the Field of ICT?
A) Netherlands 75. Indian Army has signed a $______ million
B) France contract with ideaForge to buy SWITCH drones.
C) Germany A) 30
D) Japan B) 26
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C) 24 operational requirements in an evaluation done in

D) 22 real-world conditions, for a fast-track procurement.
E) 20 The contract marks a strategic shift in the Indian
Answer: E defence procurement process as the Indian Army
The Indian Army has signed an approximately $20 goes on an aggressive modernization drive. It has
million contract for undisclosed quantities of a high- also cemented ideaForge's position as India's
altitude variant of ideaForge's SWITCH UAV which largest manufacturer of drones for defence,
will be delivered over a period of 1 year. homeland security and industrial applications.
IdeaForge has been awarded this contract after it
emerged as the only vendor that qualified the
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Page 101 of 101

Page 1 of 69
Reasoning Ability
Directions (1-2): Study the following information X (185cm)> V > T > R > P (145cm)
carefully and answer the below questions. 3. Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G have
There are Five students- P, R, T, V, and X with different weights but not necessarily in the same
different heights but not necessarily in the same order. Box B is heavier than box A and box C. Box
order. R is taller than P. Two persons are in E is lighter than only box F. Box G is lighter than
between V and P. T is not taller than X. At least one box D and box A. Number of boxes heavier than
person is taller than V. R is neither the tallest box B is equal to the number of boxes lighter than
person nor taller than T. The height of the shortest box C. Which of the following box is the lightest?
person is 145cm. The height of X is 185cm. A.F
1. How many persons are taller than R? B.E
A.1 C.G
B.2 D.D
C.3 E.A
D.4 Answer: C
E. None F > E > B > D/A > C > A/D > G
Answer: C
Directions (4-6): Study the following information
2. If the sum of the heights of T and P is 305cm, carefully and answer the question below.
then what is the height of T? Six persons M, N, O, P, Q and R have a different
A.160 cm number of children but not necessarily in the same
B.155 cm order. No one has the same number of children. Q
C.170 cm has more children than N but less than O. M has
D.190 cm two children less than Q but more children than P
E.157 cm who has three children. N has more number of
Answer: A children than only R. M doesn’t have an even
number of children.
Directions (1-2): 4. How many persons have less children than M?
Page 2 of 69
A.Three
B.One
C.None
D.Four
E.Two
Answer: A
5. Who among the following has less number of

children than M but more number of children than
carefully and answer the below questions.
N?
There are six persons- G, I, K, L, O, and X have
A.R
different weights but not necessarily in the same
B.P
order. Two persons are weighted in between L and
C.Q
G. The number of persons heavier than G is the
D.Either P or R
same as lighter than O. At least three persons are
E.Can’t be determined
heavier than G. X is not the heaviest person and X
Answer: B
is lighter than L. K is heavier than I and lighter than
X.
6. If O has 9 children then what is the possible
7. How many persons are heavier than O?
number of children does M have?
A.Two
A.7
B.One
B.5
C.Three
C.6
D.Four
D.Either 7 or 5
E.None
E.4
Answer: A
Answer: B
Explanation
8. If the weight of K=35kg, then what may be the
weight of I?
A.38 kg
Page 3 of 69
B.37 kg more number of chocolates than J. I doesn’t have

C.32 kg more chocolates than G. The person with the
D.40 kg second least number of chocolates has 18
E. 36kg chocolates whereas the person with the second-
Answer: C highest number of chocolates has 26 chocolates. H
does not have 26 chocolates.
9. As many persons are heavier than L is the same 10. Who among the following person has the third-
as lighter than __? highest number of chocolates?
A.G A.J
B.K B.I
C.I C.F
D.O D.K
E.None E.None of these
Answer: C Answer: D
Directions (7-9): 11. How many possible chocolates does H has?

L>X>O>G>K>I A.26
B.32
Directions (10-13): Answer the question based on C.18
the information given below. D.12
Seven students viz. E, F, G, H, I, J and K are E. 10
having a different number of chocolates with them, Answer: B
but not necessarily in the same order. E has less
number of chocolates than K but more number of 12. Who among the following person has just the
chocolates than G. J has more number of highest chocolates than G?
chocolates than F. Not more than two persons have A.F
less number of chocolate than E. F has less B.E
number of chocolates than K but more than E.H has C.K
Page 4 of 69
D.J Dhoni. Jadhav scored more than Rayudu. Jadeja

E.None of these scored more than only one player. Rayudu does not
Answer: A score more runs than Bravo. The second-highest
score of the match is 55runs.
13. How many persons have less number of 14. How many players have scored more runs than
chocolates than J? Dhoni?
A. One A.1
B. Four B.2
C. Five C.3
D. Three D.4
Answer: C Answer: D
Directions (10-13): 15. If the runs scored by Bravo and Rayudu are 85,
From the given information, the following and the runs scored by Jadeja and Rayudu are 55
arrangements were made. then what is the score of Jadeja?
A.35
B.20
C.25
D.15
E.None of the above
Answer: C
Directions (14-15):
Five CSK players- Bravo, Rayudu, Jadeja, Dhoni,
Jadhav > Bravo(55) > Rayudu > Jadeja > Dhoni
and Jadhav are played IPL 2020 and scored
different runs but not necessarily in the same order.
Two players are scored in between Bravo and
Page 5 of 69
There are six persons- P, Q, R, S, T, and U belong C.155cm

to a different height but not necessarily in the same D.165cm
order. P is taller than Q. U is taller than S. Three E. None of the above
persons are between Q and P. The number of Answer: C
persons taller than S is the same as shorter than R. Directions (16-18):
U is neither the tallest nor the shortest one. The P > U(165cm) > S/R > S/R > Q > T
second tallest person’s height is 165cm.
16. What may be the height of P? Directions (19-20): Study the following information
A.162cm carefully and answer the question below.
B.160cm Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U get different ranks
C.164cm in maths competition and standing in a row
D.168cm according to their rank in descending order but not
E. 161cm necessarily in the same order.
Answer: D R gets higher rank than P. Only U gets lower rank
than Q. S gets lower rank than P. R doesn’t get the
17. How many persons are taller than S? highest rank.
A. One 19. How many persons get a higher rank than R?
B. Two A. Two
C. Three B. Four
D. Four C. One
E. Can’t be determined D. Three
Answer: E E. None of these
Answer: C
18. If the sum of the height of U and S is 325 cm,
and the sum of the height of S and R is 315 cm 20. Who among the following gets the 4th lowest
then what is the height of R? rank?
A.160cm A.P
B.145cm B.U
Page 6 of 69
C.S 22. What is the position of D with respect A?

D.T A.Second to the right
E.Q B.Third to the right
Answer: A C.Second to the left
D.Third to the left
Directions (19-20): E.None of these
T>R>P>S>Q>U Answer: C
Directions (21-25): Study the following information 23. How many persons are there between H and E
carefully and answer the below questions. when counted from the right of E?
Nine persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are A. One
standing on a circular line such that all of them are B. Two
facing towards the centre, but not necessarily in the C. Three
same order. The consecutive alphabetically named D. More than three
persons don’t stand adjacent to each other. E. None
E stands four persons away from B who stands Answer: D
second to the left of D. G stands third to the right of
B. H stands fourth to the right of I. A stands third to 24. If all the persons are made to stand in
the left of C. alphabetical order in a clockwise direction with
21. Who among the following person stands to the respect to A, then how many persons remain
immediate left of B? unchanged in their position, excluding A?
A.H A. One
B.C B. Two
C.I C. Three
D.A D. More than three
E.None of these E. None
Answer: E Answer: A
Page 7 of 69
25. Who among the following person stands fourth 2. H stands fourth to the right of I. A stands third to
to the left of I? the left of C. The consecutive alphabetically named
A.B persons don’t stand adjacent to each other. Hence,
B.A case 2 gets eliminated.
C.D
D.G
E.H
Answer: C
Directions (21-25):

Eight persons-I, J, K, L, M, N, O and P are sitting on
the circular table facing centre but not necessarily in
the same order.
L sits second to the left of the one who sits opposite
1. E stands four persons away from B who stands
to P. Only two persons sit between L and the one
second to the left of D. G stands third to the right
who sits immediate right of N. O is an immediate
of B.
neighbour of P. The person who sits immediate
right of M and the person who sits second to the left
of K are opposite to each other. N is not an
immediate neighbour of J. O faces K. M does not
face L.
26. Who among the following person sits between I
and L when counted from the right of I?
I) N
Page 8 of 69
II) M A.The one who sits immediate left of J

III) K B.The one who sits second to the right of K
A.Both (II) and (III) C. None of these
B.All (I), (II) and (III) D.O
C.Both (I) and (III) E.J
D.Only (II) Answer: E
E.Only (I)
Answer: E 30. Who among the following person sits adjacent
to each other?
27. Who among the following person sits third to A.IK
the left of K? B.MN
A.J C.ON
B.The one who sits immediate right of O D.LP
C.L E.PI
D.The one who sits second to the left of I Answer: C
E.None of the above
Answer: B
28. What is the position of N with respect to P?

A.Immediate right
B.Second to the right Directions (26-30):
C.Second to the left
D.Third to the right
E.Immediate left
Answer: C
29. If N is related to L, M is related to P then who

among the following person is related to I?
Page 9 of 69
The person who sits immediate right of M and the

person who sits second to the left of K are opposite
to each other. O faces K.
L sits second to the left of the one who sits opposite

N is not an immediate neighbour of J. M does not
P.
face L. So case-2 is eliminated. From the above
Only two persons sit between L and the one who
condition, case1 shows the final arrangement.
sits immediate right of N.
possibilities.
Direction (31-35): Answer the questions based on

O is an immediate neighbour of P. the information given below.
Ten persons viz. Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z
are sitting on a circular table such that all of them
Page 10 of 69
are facing away from the centre, but not necessarily A. Immediate right
in the same order. B. Immediate left
V sits three persons away from X who sits second C. Fourth to the right
to the right of Y. X sits exactly in the middle of V D. Fourth to the left
and U who sits second to the right of W. The E. Second to the right
number of persons between W and Y is the same Answer: E
as the number of persons between V and S. Z sits
to the immediate right of T who sits third to the left 34. Who among the following person sits exactly
of R. between W and Q?
31. Who among the following person sits to the A.S
immediate left of X? B.T
A.T C.Z
B.S D.Y
C.Z E. V
D.Q Answer: C
E.None of these
Answer: D 35. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
32. How many persons sit between S and R when doesn’t belong to that group.
counted from the right of R? A.WU
A. One B.SV
B. Two C.ZR
C. Three D.QT
D. More than three E. YX
E. None of these Answer: B
Answer: A
33. What is the position of V with respect to T?
Page 11 of 69
Directions (31-35):

1. V sits three persons away from X who sits the information given below.
second to the right of Y. X sits exactly in the Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting
middle of V and U who sits second to the right of around a circular table facing away from the centre
W. but not necessarily in the same order. All the
persons are sitting at an equal distance between
them.
Q sits third to the left of the one who sits opposite to
S, who sits second to the right of P. Two persons sit
between V and R. U sits second to the left of R. P
doesn’t sit adjacent to U. The number of persons
sits between W and S is same as the number of
persons sits between S and T, who doesn’t sit
immediate left of R.
2. The number of persons between W and Y is the 36. How many persons sit between T and V when
same as the number of persons between V and S. counted from the left of T?
Z sits to the immediate right of T who sits third to A. None
the left of R. Hence, case 1 gets eliminated. B.1
C.6
D.5
Page 12 of 69
E. None of these 40. What is the position of U with respect to T?

Answer: D A. Fifth to the left
B. Third to the right
37. Which of the following statement/statements C. Third to the left
is/are not true? D. Fourth to the right
A.Two persons sit between S and W when counted E. None of these
from the right of S. Answer: C
B.Q sits third to the left of R
C.T sits immediate right of P Directions (36-40):
D.Both (a) and (b)
E.Both (b) and (c)
Answer: C
38. Who sits third to the right of W?

A.The one who sits opposite to U.
B.Q
C.The one who sits immediate right of V
D.V
E.None of these
Answer: A • Q sits third to the left of the one who sits
opposite to S, who sits second to the right of
39. Who among the following sits opposite to Q? P.
A.The one who sits to the immediate left of P • Two persons sit between V and R.
B.S
C.R
D.T
E.Both(a) and (d)
Answer: E
Page 13 of 69
persons are sitting at an equal distance between

them.
V and P sit opposite to each other. R sits third to
the right of U, who neither sits adjacent to P nor V.
T sits immediate right of W. S doesn’t sit adjacent to
the person who sits adjacent to R. Both W and R
are immediate neighbours. P doesn’t sit adjacent to
• U sits second to the left of R. Q.
• P doesn’t sit adjacent to U. 41. How many persons sit between T and V, when
• The number of persons sits between W and counted from the right of T?
S is same as the number of persons sits A.None
between S and T, who doesn’t sit immediate B.Six
left of R. C.Three
• So the final arrangement becomes: D.Four
E.None of these
Answer: D
42. Which of the following statement/statements

is/are not true?
A. Two persons sit between S and W when counted
from the left of S
B.Q sits second to the left of R
C.T sits adjacent to U
D. Both (a) and (b)
E. Both (b) and (c)
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting
Answer: C
around a circular table facing away from the centre
but not necessarily in the same order. All the
43. Who sits third to the right of W?
Page 14 of 69
A.S • S doesn’t sit adjacent to the person who sits

B.Q adjacent to R.
C.P • Both W and R are immediate neighbours.
D.V
E.None of these
Answer: A
44. Who among the following sits opposite to Q?

A.P
B. The one who sits third to the left of V.
C.R
D. The one who sits immediate right of W.
E. None of these • P doesn’t sit adjacent to Q. So, case 2 gets
Answer: D eliminated.
• So, the final arrangement becomes:
45. What is the position of P with respect to W?

A. Second to the left
B. Third to the left
C. Second to the right
D. Immediate right
E. None of these
Answer: C

Directions (41-45):
• V and P sit opposite to each other.
• R sits third to the right of U, who neither sits
at the circular table at an equidistant distance from
adjacent to P nor V.
• T sits an immediate right of W.
Page 15 of 69
each other facing the centre but not necessarily in

the same order. 48. How many persons are sitting between A and
Only two persons are sitting between C and H. E H?
sits second to the right of C. D sits neither adjacent A.One
to C nor H. F sits immediate left of G. B and C are B.Two
not immediate neighbors. The number of persons C.Three
sits between D and A when counting from the left of D.Four
D is the same as between B and F when counting E.Either b or d
from the right of B. Answer: C
46. If all the persons are sitting in alphabetical order
starting from A in clockwise direction then how 49. What is the position of D with respect to F?
many persons remain unchanged in their position A.Second to the left
(excluding A)? B.Second to the Right
A.2 C.Third to the left
B.3 D.Fourth to the right
C.1 E.Immediate left
D. No one Answer: C
E.4
Answer: D 50. Who among the following person sits third to
the right of C?
47. If E is related to C and G is related to H in a A.H
certain way. Then who among the following is B.A
related to B? C. The one who sits immediate left of B
A.F D. The one who sits third to the right of E
B. The one who sits opposite to A E. None of the above
C.D Answer: C
D. The one who sits second to the left of G
Answer: A
Page 16 of 69
Directions (46-50):
F sits immediate left of G.

B and C are not immediate neighbors.
From the above conditions, case 1 gets eliminated.
Only two persons are sitting between C and H.

E sits second to the right of C.
possibilities. The number of persons sits between D and A when
counting from left of D is the same as between B
and F when counting from right of B.
Direction (51-55): Answer the question based on

Eight friends viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are
D sits neither adjacent to C nor H. sitting on a circular table such that all of them are
From the above condition, there are three facing towards the centre, but not necessarily in the
possibilities. same order. The consecutive alphabetically named
person doesn’t sit adjacent to each other.
Page 17 of 69
Only two persons sit between W and U who sits to B.US

the immediate right of Q.R sits second to the left of C.VU
T who doesn’t sit adjacent to W. More than two D.SP
persons sit between V and S (both on the left and E.PT
right side of V). P doesn’t sit adjacent to S. Answer: E
51. Who amongst the following sits exactly between
U and V when counted from the left of U? 54. Who among the following person sits third to
A.S the right of P?
B.W A.R
C.Q B.Q
D.T C.U
E.P D.V
Answer: B E.S
Answer: B
52. How many people are seated between P and R
when counted clockwise from P? 55. Who among the following person sits opposite
A.Two to V?
B.Four A.T
C.None B.S
D.One C.W
E.Three D.R
Answer: A E.Q
Answer: B
53. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way, based on their arrangement and hence form a
group. Find the one that doesn’t belong to that
group.
A.WT
Page 18 of 69
Directions (51-55): Direction (56-60): Study the following information

Nine persons namely – E, G, K, L, N, Q, T, V, and Z
are sitting around a circular table facing away from
the table but not necessarily in the same order.
Q sits three places away from the one who sits
immediate left of L. A person sitting third to the right
of L sits third to the left of N. Neither Q nor G is
sitting adjacent to N. Neither Z nor E sits adjacent
1. Only two persons sit between W and U who sits to N. G sits fourth to the right of Z, who sits third to
to the immediate right of Q. R sits second to the the right of E. V sits four places away from K, who
left of T who doesn’t sit adjacent to W. is not sitting adjacent to G.
56. Who among the following person sits immediate
left of Q?
A.L
B.The one who sits third to the left of V
C.T
D.The one who sits immediate right of L
E.None of these
2. More than two persons sit between V and S (both Answer: D
on the left and right side of V). P doesn’t sit
adjacent to S. Hence, case 2 gets eliminated. 57. What is the position of K with respect to N?
A.Third to the left
B.Second to the right
C.Immediate left
D.Fourth to the right
E.None of these.
Answer: A
Page 19 of 69
B.Only I
58. How many persons are sitting between V and E C.Only II
when counted to the right of V? D.Both I and II
A.One E.None of these
B.As many as between T and Q when counted from Answer: B
the left of T
C.Three Directions (56-60):
D.As many as between G and N.
E.None of these
Answer: B
59. Find the odd out of all the five?

A.KZ
B.TN
C.LE
D.VG
We have:
E.ZE
• Q sits three places away from the one who
Answer: E
sits immediate left of L.
That means, in case (1) L sits second to the left of
60. Which of the following statement is/are not
Q, in case (2) L sits fourth to the right of Q.
true?
• A person sitting third to the right of L sits
I. Two persons are sitting between V and the
third to the left of N.
person sits to the immediate left of E.
• Neither Q nor G is sitting adjacent to N.
II. Z sits fifth to the right of G.
That means, in case (1) N sits fourth to the right of
III. One person sits between G and the person sits
Q, case (2) is not valid.
to the immediate left of V when counted to the left
of G.
A.Both II and III
Page 20 of 69
Case (2) is not valid as Q and N are not sitting

together.
Again, we have:
• Neither Z nor E sits adjacent to N.
• G sits fourth to the right of Z, who sits third to
the right of E.
That means, E sits immediate left of Q.
• V sits four places away from K, who is not
at the circular table at an equidistant and facing
sitting adjacent to G.
outside but not necessarily in the same order.
That means, K sits immediate right of Q, and V sits
C sits third to the left of E. Only one person sits
immediate left of G.
between E and F. G sits immediate right of H. H
Based on the above-given information we have the
neither sits opposite to C nor F. The numbers of
persons sitting between F and G are the same as
between E and A. B does not sit adjacent to A. D
sits second to the right of B.
61. Who among the following person sits as an
immediate neighbor of F?
A. The one who sits immediate left of D
B.B
C. The one who sits second to the left of B
D.A
Page 21 of 69
E. Both b and c B. The one who sits immediate right of B

Answer: E C. The one who sits immediate left of F
D.D
62. Four of the following five are alike in a certain E. Both (b) and (d)
way based on their positions in the seating Answer: D
arrangement and so form a group. Who among the
one does not belong to that group? 65. Which of the following pair of persons are sitting
A.DE opposite to each other?
B.BF A.HE
C.CH B.AB
D.AD C.GF
E.GH D.DC
Answer: C E.EF
Answer: D
63. Starting from A’s position, if all the persons are
arranged in alphabetical order in the clockwise Directions (61-65):
direction, the seating position of how many
members (excluding A) would not change?
A.3
B.2
C.1
D.4
E. None
Answer: E
64. Who among the following person sits second to C sits third to the left of E.
the left of H? Only one person sits between E and F.
A.E
Page 22 of 69

possibilities.

G sits immediate right of H. the information given below.
H neither sits opposite to C nor F. Eight persons viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are
sitting on a circular table such that all of them are
facing towards the centre, but not necessarily in the
same order.
Q sits two persons away from P who sits third to the
left of R. P sits exactly in the middle of S and U. T
sits third to the right of S and is not adjacent to U.
At least two persons sit between V and W when
counted from both sides of W. W is not adjacent to
The number of persons sitting between F and G is T.
the same as between E and A. 66. Who among the following person sits second to
D sits second to the right of B. the right of R?
B does not sit adjacent to A. A.U
From the above condition, case1 gets eliminated. B.S
case2 shows the final arrangement. C.W
D.V
E.None of these
Page 23 of 69
Answer: D 70. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical

order in a clockwise direction with respect to P,
67. Find the odd one out. then how many persons remain unchanged in their
A.QS position, excluding P?
B.RP A. None
C.TU B. One
D.VP C. Two
E.WV D. Three
Answer: B E. More than three
Answer: B
68. Which of the following statement is true with
respect to the final arrangement? Directions (66-70):
A.T sits to the immediate left of W
B.R sits to the immediate right of Q
C.U sits second to the right of W
D.V faces towards U
E.None of these
Answer: E
69. As many persons sit from the right of V to P as

from the left of _____? 1. Q sits two persons away from P who sits
A.W to U third to the left of R. P sits exactly in the
B.Q to T middle of S and U.
C.V to R
D.S to T
E. None of these
Answer: A
Page 24 of 69
2. T sits third to the right of S and is not adjacent to

U. At least two persons sit between V and W when
counted from the both sides of W. W is not adjacent
to T. Hence, case 2 gets eliminated.
1) The average weight of 80 students in a class is New weight = (80*70) – 74 – 58 - 66 + 66 + 62 + 56

70 kg. The weights of three students were wrongly = > (80*70) - 14
entered as 74 kg, 58 kg and 66 kg instead of 66 kg, New average = (5600 – 14)/80 = 69.825 kg
62 kg and 56 kg respectively. Find the corrected (Or)
average weight of the class? Increased weight = (74 + 58 + 66) – (66 + 62 + 56)
A.69.825 kg = 198 – 184 = 14
B.69.5 kg Required answer = 70 – (14/80) = 70 – 0.175 =
C.68.675 kg 69.825 kg
D.68.25 kg
E.None of these 2) The average weight of the class (both boys and
Answer: A girls) is 30 kg. If the total number of girls is 12 and
Total weight of 80 students = 80*70 the average weight of girls is 28 kg. If the average
Page 25 of 69
weight of the boys in the class is 34, then find the C.166
number of boys in the class? D.182
A. 4 E.174
B.6 Answer: D
C.12 Total mobiles sold in a year = 152 * 12 = 1824
D.8 Number of mobiles sold by a shopkeeper from Jan
E. None of these to July = 158 * 7 = 1106
Answer: B Number of mobiles sold by shopkeeper from July to
Dec = 150 * 6 =900
Number of mobiles sold in July = 1106 + 900 –
1824 = 182
4) The school contains 30 students and the ratio of

the boys to girls in the school is 3:2. If the ratio of
the average weight of boys to girls is 3:8 and the
average weight of all the students in the school is
15 kg, what is the average weight of the boys in the
=2:1
school?
Number of boys=1/2 * 12=6
A.10 kg
B.9 kg
3) A shopkeeper sold an average of 152 mobiles in
C.8 kg
a month in a particular year. If the average number
D.6 kg
of mobile sold by a shopkeeper from January to
E.None of these
July was 158 and the average number of mobiles
Answer: B
sold by a shopkeeper from July to December was
Number of boys = 30 * 3/5 = 18
150. Then find the number of mobiles sold in July.
Number of girls = 30 * 2/5 = 12
A.152
The ratio of the average weight of boys to girls = 3:
B.170
8
Page 26 of 69
The ratio of the weight of boys to girls = 54:96 A.100

The weight of all the students in the school B.140
=15*30=450 C.150
Average weight of the boy= ((54/150)*450)/18 D.120
Average age of the boys = 3 * 3 = 9 kg E.130
Answer: D
5) The average rate of 20 apples is 17 and the Let, the total number of employees = n
average rate of 23 oranges is 19. If both oranges Total monthly income of all employees = 20000n
and apples are put in a bag, find the average rate of Total monthly income of 80 workers = 80 * 18000 =
fruits in the bag. 1440000
A.12 (7/43) Total monthly income of remaining employees = (n
B. 18 (3/43) - 80) * 24000
C. 20 (17/43) = 24000n - 1920000
D. 19 (13/43) Then,
E.18 (19/43) 20000n = 1440000 + 24000n – 1920000
Answer: B n = 120
The average rate of 20 apples = 17
The total rate of 20 apples = 17 * 20 = 340 7) The average age of 11 daughters of a family is
The average rate of 23 oranges = 19 12 years. Average age of the daughters together
The total rate of 23 oranges = 19 * 23 = 437 with their parents (Father and Mother) is 17 years.
Required average = (340 + 437)/43 = 18 (3/43) If the mother is 15 years younger than the father.
Then find the father's age
6) The average monthly income of all the A.72 years
employees in a company is Rs.20000. The average B.52 years
monthly income of 80 workers is Rs.18000 and the C.68 years
average monthly income of the remaining D.70 years
employees is Rs.24000. How many employees are E.None
there in the company? Answer: B
Page 27 of 69
Total age of 11 daughters of a family = 11*12 = 132 Required difference = 2x = 2 * 21 = 42

Father age = 15 +mother age
Total age of the family 9) The ratio of the weight of girl to boy is 2:3. After
(11 daughters + father + mother) is, one-year boy’s weight is increased by 25% and the
132+mother +15+ mother = 17 * 13 = 221 girl’s weight is increased by 5 kg, then the ratio of
2Mother = 74 = > Mother = 37 the weight of the boys to girls becomes 5:3. What is
Father age = 15+37 = 52 years the average weight of a boy and girl initially?
A.45 kg
8) The average age of 30 students in the class is 20 B.48 kg
years and then two new students joined the class, C.50 kg
the average age of the class is increased by 4 D.54 kg
years. If the ratio of the ages of two new students is E.None of these
3: 5, then find the difference between the ages of Answer: C
the two new students? (3x * 125/100)/(2x + 5) = 5/3
A.40 years 10x + 25 = 45x/4
B.44 years 40x + 100 = 45x
C.42 years 5x = 100
D.84 years x = 20
E.None of these Weight of a girl = 2 * 20 = 40 kg
Answer: C Weight of a boy = 3 * 20 = 60 kg
Initial total age of the class = 20 * 30 = 600 Average weight = (40 + 60)/2 = 50 kg
Total age of the class after including two new
students = 24 * 32 = 768 10) There are 4 consecutive odd and 5 consecutive
Sum of the ages of two new students = 768 – 600 = even numbers. The average of four consecutive
168 odd numbers is 24. The lowest even number is
5x + 3x = 168 twice the highest odd number. Find the difference
8x = 168 between the sum of the five consecutive even
x = 21 years numbers to the four consecutive odd numbers?
Page 28 of 69
A.194 Answer: D
B.216 Let the number of clerks in the company be x,
C.182 800*30 + 240*x = 300(30 + x)
D.258 24000 + 240x = 9000 + 300x
E.None of these 15000 = 60x
Answer: A X = 15000/60 = 250
The average of four consecutive odd numbers = 24 Total number of clerks in the company = 250
x + x + 2 + x + 4 + x + 6 = 24*4 Shortcuts:
4x + 12 = 96
4x = 96 – 12
4x = 84
x = 21
The highest odd number = x + 6 = 27
The lowest even number = 2*27 = 54
The sum of 5 consecutive even number = 54 + 56 +
= > 3: 25
58 + 60 + 62 = 290
3’s = 30
1’s = 10
Total number of clerks in the company = 25’s = 250
11) The average salary of the whole employees in a
company is Rs. 300 per day. The average salary of
12) The average weight of the class is 48 kg. If 3
officers is Rs. 800 per day and that of clerks is Rs.
new students joined the class, then the average of
240 per day. If the number of officers is 30, then
the class is increased by 2 kg and the total number
find the number of clerks in the company?
of students from the class becomes 15. Find the
A.180
average age of the three new students?
B.160
A.58 kg
C.220
B.60 kg
D.250
C.63 kg
E.None of these
D.66 kg
Page 29 of 69
E. None of these kg and Sunil is 24 kg heavier than Esai, then what

Answer: A is the average weight of Sam and Esai?
Initial weight of the class = 12 * 48 = 576 A.20 kg
After adding new students, the weight of the class = B.25 kg
(48 + 2) * 15 = 750 C.30 kg
Weight of new students = 750 – 576 = 174 D.35 kg
Required average = 174/3 = 58 kg E.None of these
Answer: C
13) If the average weight of 8 sacks of Rava is 40 Sam = 6 * 6 = 36 kg
kg. The weight of one sack is 55 kg which is leaked. Rahul = 5 * 6 = 30 kg
Due to the leakage, a new sealed 39 kg weight Sunil = (38 * 3) – (30 + 36) = 48 kg
sack is replaced, then find the new average weight Esai = 48 – 24 = 24 kg
of 8 sack of Rava? Average weight of Sam and Esai = (36 + 24)/2 = 30
A.38 kg kg
B.34 kg
C.36 kg 15) Navin guesses his weight is greater than 70 kg
D.39 kg but less than 80kg. His brother Shajan doesn’t
E.None of these agree with Navin and he guesses that Navin’s
Answer: A weight is greater than 65 kg but less than 75 kg. His
Total weight of eight sacks = 8 * 40 sister Venicia’s opinion is that his weight cannot be
= 320 kg greater than 74 kg. If everyone’s view is correct,
Total weight after sack 1 replaced = 320 - 55 + 39 = what is the average of different possible weights of
304 kg Navin?
So new average weight = 304/8 = 38 kg A.72.5
B.75
14) The ratio of the weight of Sam and Rahul is 6: 5 C.82.5
and the weight of Rahul is 6 kg lighter than Sam. If D.85
the average weight of Sunil, Sam and Rahul is 38 E.None of these
Page 30 of 69
Answer: A A.27.27% less

Let the Navin’s weight be x kg. B.28.57%more
According to Navin, 70 < x< 80 C.42.86% less
According to Shajan, 65 < x < 75 D.36.36% more
According to Venicia, x ≤ 74 E.none of these
The value satisfies all the above conditions are 71, Answer: C
72, 73, 74
Required average = (71 + 72 + 73 + 74)/4 = 72.5 Required percentage = ×100 =
42.86% less
Directions (16-20): Read the information carefully
and answer the following questions 17) In the year 2021, Government planned to
The following line graph shows the number of WLS develop IT park by destroying 20% of total WLS in
in various states in different years Rajasthan, 40% of total WLS in Kerala and 30% of
total WLS in Gujarat, then find the total number of
WLS in the year 2021?
A.664
B.644
C.624
D.646
E.642
Answer: A
Total no. of WLS in Rajasthan in the year 2021
= 80% of (40+60+75) = 140
16) Find the sum of the number of WLS in
Total no. of WLS in Kerala in the year 2021
Rajasthan in 2000 and number of WLS in Gujarat in
= 60% of (65+80+100)
2010 together is what percentage more/ less than
= 147
the sum of number of WLS in Rajasthan in 2010
Total no. of WLS in Gujarat in the year 2021
and Gujarat in 2000?
= 70% of (80+40+30)
Page 31 of 69
= 105 E.Kerala & Rajasthan

Total number of WLS in 2021 from all the states Answer: E
together If percentage increase be positive, then the no. of
= 140+147+105+ (28+52+39) + (51+68+34) WLS in particular state will be more when
= 664 compared to the previous decade.
Therefore,
18) Find the ratio of average no. of WLS in 2020 to In Kerala and Rajasthan, the number of WLS is
the average no. of total WLS in West Bengal? more when compared to previous year
A.255:269
B.278:269 20) Find the average number of WLS in the year
C.278:271 2010?
D.278:255 A.65
E.269:255 B.60
Explanation C.75
Answer: D D.70
Required ratio is E.80
Answer: B
Total number of WLS in the year 2010 =
52+60+68+80+40 = 300
Required average = 300/5 =60
278:255
19) In which state percentage increase of WLS carefully and answer the questions given below.
from previous year is always positive? The given line graph shows the number of students
A.Andhra pradesh like three different subjects from five different
B.Gujarat classes.
C.Rajasthan
D.Gujarat&West Bengal
Page 32 of 69
22) What is the difference between the number of

students like Biology and Chemistry in B, C and D
together?
A.30
B.40
C.50
D.35
E.45
Answer: B
Number of students like biology in B, C and D = 52
+ 48 + 36 = 136
Number of students like Chemistry in B, C and D =
36 + 28 + 32 = 96
21) The total number of students like all the three Difference = 136 – 96 = 40
subjects in A is what percent more than the total
number of students like all the three subjects in D? 23) The total number of students like biology in all
A.17.54% the classes together is what percent of the total
B.19.48% number of students like Physics in all the classes
C.12.67% together?
D.20.05% A.85.8%
E.14.98% B.84.5%
Answer: A C.83.6%
Required percentage = {[(34 + 46 + 54) – (32 + 36 + D.82.3%
46)]/(32 + 36 + 46)} * 100 E.80.9%
= 17.54% Answer: D
Required percentage = [(46 + 52 + 48 + 36 +
32)/(54 + 58 + 54 + 46 + 48)] * 100
= 82.3%
Page 33 of 69
= 49:156
24) If the ratio of the number of boys to girls in B
and E is 45:28 and 19:10 respectively, then what is Directions (26-30): Study the following information
the difference between the number of boys in B and carefully and answer the given questions:
E? The given line graph shows the number of apple
A.12 and the number of apple sold in five different shops.
B.13
C.14
D.10
E.16
Answer: C
Number of boys in B = 45/73 * (52 + 58 + 36) = 90
Number of boys in E = 19/29 * (32+48 + 36) = 76
Difference = 90 – 76 = 14
25) What is the ratio of the number of students like

Chemistry in A, B and C together to the number of
students like Biology and physics together in A, B
and C together? 26) What is the ratio of the number sold apples
A.49:151 from A and B together to the number of sold apples
B.43:156 from D and E together?
C.47:155 A.21:23
D.45:151 B.26:27
E.None of these C.29:30
Answer: E D.25:29
Required ratio = (34 + 36 + 28):(46 + 52 + 48 + 54 E.None of these
+ 58 + 54) Answer: C
= 98:312 Required ratio = (180 + 400): (250 + 350)
Page 34 of 69
= 580: 600 Unsold apple in E = 400 – 350 = 50

= 29: 30 Required average = (20 + 50 + 30 + 50 + 50)/5
= 40
27) The number of sold apples from C is
approximately what percent of the number of 29) What is the ratio of the number of apples from
apples from D? shop E to number of apples sold from B?
A.20% A. 2:1
B.30% B.3:2
C.40% C.4:3
D.50% D.5:6
Explanation Answer: E
Answer: C Required ratio = 400: 400
Required percentage = 120/300 * 100 = 1: 1
= 40%
30) What is the total number of apples from all the
28) What is the average number of unsold apples in shops together?
all the shops together? A.1200
A.30 B.1400
B.40 C.1500
C.25 D.1800
E.None of these Answer: C
Answer: B Required total=200 + 450 + 150 + 300 + 400
Unsold apple in A = 200 – 180 = 20 =1500
Unsold apple in B = 450 – 400 = 50
Unsold apple in C = 150 – 120 = 30 Directions (31-35): Study the following information
Unsold apple in D = 300 – 250 = 50 carefully and answer the given questions:
Page 35 of 69
The given line graph shows number of students in number of students from B, C and E together in
five different schools in three different departments. EEE?
A.19:21
B.20:23
C.21:25
D.22:27
E.17:22
Answer: B
CSE department in B, C and E=250 + 450 +
300=1000
EEE department in B, C and E =400 + 300 +
450=1150
Required ratio=1000:1150
31) Total number of students from A is =20:23
approximately what percent of the total number of

students from D? 33) Total number students in ECE department in all
A.113% the colleges together is approximately what percent
B.117% of the total number of students from CSE
C.121% department in all the colleges together?
D.127% A.72%
E.131% B.76%
Answer: B C.80%
Required percentage=(450 + 250 + 350)/(350 + 400 D.84%
+ 150) * 100 E.88%
=117% Answer: A
Required percentage= [(350 + 200 + 250 + 150 +
32) What is the ratio of the number of students from 350)/(450 + 250 + 450 + 350 + 300)] * 100
B, C and E together in CSE department to the = (1300/1800) * 100
Page 36 of 69
=72% number of students from B and C in EEE

department together?
34) If the ratio of the number of boys to girls in EEE A.60%
department from E is 4:5 and the ratio of the B.64%
number of boys to girls in ECE department from C C.68%
is 3:2. What is the difference between the number D.72%
of boys from E and C together in EEE and ECE E.76%
department respectively and the number of girls Answer: B
from E and C together in EEE and ECE department Required percentage=450/(400 + 300) * 100=64%
respectively?
A.0 Directions (36-43): What will come in place of
B.50 question mark (?) in the following questions.
C.20 36. 7872 + 6997 + 3420 = ?
D.30 A.18298
E.40 B.18289
Answer: A C.18890
Number of boys in EEE department from E=450 * D.18829
4/9=200 E.None of these
Number of girls in EEE department from E=450 * Answer: B
5/9=250 7872 + 6997 + 3420 = ?
Number of boys in ECE department from C=3/5 * ⇒ ? = 18289
250=150
Number of girls in ECE department from C=2/5 * 37) (6160 + 12320) ÷ ? = 660
250=100 A.35
Required difference= (250 + 100) - (200 + 150)=0 B.22
C.25.5
35) The number of students from A in CSE D.32.4
department is approximately what percent of the E.28
Page 37 of 69
Answer: E B.25000
(6160 + 12320) ÷ ? = 660 C.50000
(6160 + 12320) / 660 = 18480/660 = 28 D.30000
E.60000
38) (3/8) of 112 =? ÷ (2*10% of 10) Answer: C
A.56 357.67+53724.46+35.56+3256.86=7374.55+?
B.72 57364.55-7374.55=?
C.96 50000=?
D.84
E.44 41) 50% of 25% of 4/5 of? = 640
Answer: D A.6540
(3/8) × 112 = x/2 B.6600
42*2 = x C.6400
x= 84 D.5220
E.4280
39) √x = (1248 + 52) ÷ 100 – 8 Answer: C
A.45 50% of 25% of 4/5 of? = 640
B.15 640*2*4*5/(4) = ?
C.30 6400 =?
D.25
E.40 42) 42÷7+62+10-(80-13)÷5=?
Answer: D A.75.3
√x = (1300/100) – 8 B.63.4
√x = 13 -8 =5 C.64.6
x= 25 D.73.9
E.78.3
40) 357.67+53724.46+35.56+3256.86=7374.55+? Answer: C
A.40000 6+72-67/5=?
Page 38 of 69
78-13.4=?
?=64.6 45) 80.04% of 150.16 + 60.02% of 50.07 = ?
A.150
43) [(185)2 ÷ 25 x 15] =? B.125
A.25035 C.210
B.25305 D.175
C.20535 E.213
D.24035 Answer: A
E.26035 80.04% of 150.16 + 60.02% of 50.07 = ?
Answer: C (80/100)x150 + (60/100)x50 =?
[1369 x 15] =? 120+30 =?
20535 =? ? =150
Directions (44-50): What approximate value should 46) 18.05 x 8.99 - 52.02 =?
come in place of the question mark (?) in the A.140
following questions? B.75
44) 90.05 + 281 ÷ 4 - 151.06 = 3√? C.160
A.27 D.110
B.343 E.150
C.216 Answer: D
D.729 18.05 x 8.99 - 52.02 =?
E.176 18 x9 - 52 =?
Answer: D 162 -52 =?
90.05 + 281 ÷ 4 - 151.06 = 3√? ? = 110
90 + (280/4) - 151= 3√?
90 + 70 - 151= 3√? 47) 45.04 ÷ 4.97 = ? ÷ 12.99
3√? =9 A.104
? = 729 B.91
Page 39 of 69
C.120 ? = 9 * 3136/30 = 940

D.117
E.143 50) (37685 + 29452 – 41897) / 250 =?
Answer: D A.50
45.04 ÷ 4.97 = ? ÷ 12.99 B.300
45 /5 = ?/13 C.150
9 x 13 = ? D.100
? = 117 E.250
Answer: D
48) 5457.01+4643.01+13131.01-3532.01=?- ? = (67137 – 41897)/250
4674.01 = 25240/250 = 100
A.23633
B.23265 Directions (51-55): What will come in place of
C.22595 question-mark (?) in the following question?
D.22590 51) 32, 49, 75, 112, 162, ?
E.24373 A.184
Answer: E B.217
5457+4643+13131-3532=?-4674 C.227
?=24373 D.235
E.248
49) 2.882 * 56.022 / 29.99 =? Answer: C
A.515 32 + 42 + 1 = 49
B.640 49 + 52 + 1 = 75
C.1059 75 + 62 + 1 = 112
D.875 112 + 72 + 1 = 162
E.940 162 + 82 + 1 = 227
Answer: E
32 * 562 / 30 =? 52) 17, 8.5, 8.5, 12.75, 25.5, ?
Page 40 of 69
A.73.75 C.3476
B.35.25 D.5678
C.57.5 E.None of these
D.63.75 Answer: A
E. None of these 805000÷5 =161000
Answer: D 161000÷5 =32200
17*0.5= 8.5 32200÷5 =6440
8.5*1= 8.5 6440÷5= 1288
8.5*1.5=12.75
12.75*2= 25.5 55) 7, 9, 15, 49, ?, 961
25.5*2.5=63.75 A.175
B.194
53) 11, 24, 75, 304, 1525,? C.191
A.7685 D.205
C.7548 Answer: C
D.9156 7*1+2=9
E. None of these 9*2-3=15
Answer: D 15*3+4=49
11*2+2= 24 49*4-5=191
24*3+3= 75 191*5+6=961
75*4+4= 304
304*5+5=1525 Directions (56-60): Find the wrong term in the
1525*6+6=9156 following series
56) 1788, 892, 444, 220, 112, 52, 24
54) 805000, 161000, 32200, 6440, ? A.52
A.1288 B.112
B.5472 C.220
Page 41 of 69
D.444 91*7+7 =644

E.None of these 644*7+7 = 4515
Answer: B 4515*7+7 = 31612
The pattern is as follows
59) 20, 14, 12, 12, 10
A.20
B.12
C.10
57) 642, 762, 893, 1036, 1192, 1362, D.14
1542 E.None of these
A.1362 Answer: C
B.762 (20/2)+4=14
C.1036 (14/2)+5=12
D.893 (12/2)+6=12
E.1542 (12/2)+7=13
Answer: E
642, 762, 893, 1036, 1192, 1362, 1547 60) 100, 50, 50, 75, 140, 375
120 131 143 156 170 185 A.140
11 12 13 14 15 B.100
C.75
58) 12, 91, 644, 4515, 31614 D.150
A.31614 E.None
B.4515 Answer: A
C.644 100*0.5=50
D.91 50*1= 50
E.12 50*1.5 =75
Answer: A 75 *2=150
12*7+7 = 91 150*2.5=375
Page 42 of 69
C. x = y or relationship cannot be determined.

Directions (61-74): In each question two equations D. x < y
are given, find x and y and give the answer E. x ≤ y
61) Answer: E
I) x2 + 13x + 22 = 0 From I: x2 – 12x + 32 = 0
II) y2 + 15y + 26 = 0 x2 – 8x – 4x + 32 = 0
A.x > y x(x – 8) – 4(x – 8) = 0
B.x ≥ y (x – 4)(x – 8) = 0
C.x = y or relationship cannot be determined x = 4, 8
D.x < y From II: y2 – 17y + 72 = 0
E.x ≤ y y2 – 8y – 9y + 72 = 0
Answer: C y(y – 8) – 9(y – 8) = 0
From I: x2 + 13x + 22 = 0 (y – 9)(y – 8) = 0
x2 + 11x + 2x + 22 = 0 y = 9, 8
x(x + 11) + 2(x + 11) = 0 Hence,x ≤ y
(x + 2)(x + 11) = 0
x = -2, -11 63)
From II: y2 + 15y + 26 = 0 I) x2 – 6x + 8 = 0
y2 + 13y + 2y + 26 = 0 II) y2 + y – 6 = 0
y(y + 13) + 2(y + 13) = 0 A.x > y
(y + 2)(y + 13) = 0 B.x ≥ y
y = -2, -13 C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
D.x < y
62) E.x ≤ y
I) x2 – 12x + 32 = 0 Answer: B
II) y2 – 17y + 72 = 0 From I: x2 – 6x + 8 = 0
A. x > y x2 – 4x – 2x + 8 = 0
B. x ≥ y x(x – 4) – 2(x – 4) = 0
Page 43 of 69
(x – 2)(x – 4) = 0 => y (y – 1) -4(y – 1) = 0

x = 2, 4 => (y – 1) (y – 4) = 0
From II: y2 + y – 6 = 0 => y = 1, 4
y2 + 3y – 2y – 6 = 0 Hence, x < y
y(y + 3) – 2(y + 3) = 0
(y – 2)(y + 3) = 0 65)
y = 2, -3 I) x2 + x - 20 = 0
Hence,x ≥ y II) y = √2025
A.If x < y
64) B.If x > y
I) 3x2 + 15x + 18 = 0 C.If x ≤ y
II) 2y2 - 10y + 8 = 0 D.If x ≥ y
A.If x < y E.If relationship between x and y cannot be
B.If x > y determined
C.If x ≤ y Answer: A
D.If x ≥ y From I =>x2 + x - 20 = 0
E.If relationship between x and y cannot be =>x2 + 5x -4x - 20 = 0
determined => x(x + 5) -4(x + 5) = 0
Answer: A => (x – 4) (x + 5) = 0
From I =>3x2 + 15x + 18 = 0 => x = 4, -5
=> x2 + 5x + 6 = 0 From II =>y = √2025
=> x2 + 2x + 3x + 6 = 0 => y = 45
=> x (x +2) + 3 (x + 2) = 0 Hence, x < y
=> (x +2) (x + 3) = 0
=> x = -2, -3 66)
From II =>2y2 - 10y + 8 = 0 I) 2x + 4y = 68
=> y2 - 5y + 4 = 0 II) 5x – 2y = 32
=> y2 - 1y - 4y + 4 = 0 A.x > y
Page 44 of 69
B.x ≥ y
C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined. 68)
D.x < y I) 3x2-7x+4=0
E.x ≤ y II) 2y2-9y+10=0
Answer: D A.x > y
2x + 4y = 68 ----(1) B.x ≥ y
5x – 2y = 32 ----(2) C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
12x = 132 D.x < y
x = 11 E.x ≤ y
y = 11.5 Answer: D
x<y 3x2-7x+4=0
3x2-3x-4x+4=0
67) 3x(x-1) -4(x-1)=0
I) x2-20x+96=0 (x-1) (3x-4) =0
II) y2=64 x= 1, 1.33
A.x > y 2y2-9y+10=0
B.x = y or relationship can’t be determined. 2y2-4y-5y+10=0
C.x ≥ y 2y(y-2) -5(y-2)=0
D.x < y (y-2) (2y-5)=0
E.x ≤ y y=2, 2.5
Answer: C Therefore x < y
x2-20x+96=0
x2-12x-8x+96=0
(x-8) (x-12) =0 69)
x= 8,12 I) x2+ 25x + 144 = 0
y2=64 II) y2 - 18y + 77 = 0
y = ±8 A.If x < y
Therefore, x ≥ y B.If x > y
Page 45 of 69
C.If x ≤ y From II =>5y2 - 14y + 8 = 0

D.If x ≥ y =>5y2 - 10y -4y + 8 = 0
E.If relationship between x and y cannot be =>5y(y – 2) -4(y – 2) = 0
determined => (5y – 4) (y – 2) = 0
Answer: A => y = 4/5, 2
From I =>x2 + 25x + 144 = 0 Hence, x ≥ y
=> (x + 16) (x + 9) = 0
=> x = -16, -9 71)
From II =>y2 - 18y + 77 = 0 I) x2 – 27x + 152 = 0
=> (y – 7) (y – 11) = 0 II) y2 – 39y + 380 = 0
=> y = 7, 11 A.If x < y
Hence, x < y B.If x > y
C.If x ≤ y
70) D.If x ≥ y
I) 2x2- 9x + 10 = 0 E.If relationship between x and y cannot be
II) 5y2 -14y + 8 = 0 determined
A.If x < y Answer: C
B.If x > y From I: x2 – 27x + 152 = 0
C.If x ≤ y x2 – 19x – 8x + 152 = 0
D.If x ≥ y x(x – 19) – 8(x – 19) = 0
E.If relationship between x and y cannot be (x – 8)(x – 19) = 0
determined x = 8, 19
Answer: D From II: y2 – 39y + 380 = 0
From I =>2x2 - 9x + 10 = 0 y2 – 20y – 19y + 380 = 0
=> 2x2 - 4x -5x+ 10 = 0 y(y – 20) – 19(y – 20) = 0
=>2x(x – 2) -5(x – 2) = 0 (y – 19)(y – 20) = 0
=> (2x – 5) (x – 2) = 0 y = 19, 20
=> x = 5/2, 2 Hence, x ≤ y
Page 46 of 69
B.If x > y
72) C.If x ≤ y
I) x2 – x - 72 = 0 D.If x ≥ y
II) y2 - y - 110 = 0 E.If relationship between x and y cannot be
A.If x < y determined
B.If x > y Answer: D
C.If x ≤ y
D.If x ≥ y
determined
Answer: E
From I: x2 – x - 72 = 0
x2 – 9x + 8x – 72 = 0
x(x – 9) + 8(x – 9) = 0
(x + 8)(x – 9) = 0
x = -8, 9
From II: y2 - y - 110 = 0
y2 – 11y + 10y – 110 = 0
y(y – 11) + 10(y – 11) = 0
(y + 10)(y – 11) = 0
y = -10, 11
determined Hence, X ≥ Y
73) 74)
I). 6X2 -19X +15 = 0 I) 2x2 - 9x + 10 = 0
II). 10Y2 -29Y +21 =0 II) y2 – 7y + 12 = 0
A.If x < y A.If x < y
Page 47 of 69
B.If x > y x = 2, 2.5

C.If x ≤ y From II: y2 – 7y + 12 = 0
D.If x ≥ y y2 – 3y – 4y + 12 = 0
E.If relationship between x and y cannot be y(y – 3) – 4(y – 3) = 0
determined (y – 4)(y – 3) = 0
Answer: A y = 4, 3
From I: 2x2 - 9x + 10 = 0 Hence, x < y
2x2 – 5x - 4x + 10 = 0
2x(x – 2) - 5(x – 2) = 0
English Language
Directions (1-5): In the following passage, some of said that they left two minutes early to ------ (B) an
the words have been left out, each of which is earlier bus home.
indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from The counselor, in-charge of attendance
the options given against each number and fill up management, was disciplined for ------ (C)
the blanks with appropriate words to make the timecards, which recorded departure times as 5:15
paragraph meaningfully complete. pm. Apart from other staff members, the counselor
Employees of a government office in Japan were also left from work at 5:13 pm to catch the bus.
punished earlier in March for leaving work two Apart from the counselor, the director and an
minutes before the scheduled exit time and were --- elderly woman also received written ------ (D) for
--- (A) with a pay cut. Several staff members were leaving work early. Four other staff members were
disciplined for leaving office two minutes early, the given stern cautions.
Funabashi City Board of Education in Chiba As per the report published in Japan Today, the
Prefecture announced on March 10.The Board of counselor was penalized with a one-tenth reduction
Education found 316 cases of early departures from in salary for three months. Offering an ------ (E) for
May 2019 to January 2021, involving seven staff leaving two minutes early, the employees said that
members, Japan Today reports. The employees they "wanted to go home early." If they missed the
Page 48 of 69
bus at 5:17 pm, the next bus wouldn't arrive until 30 E. Submitted
minutes later, at 5:47 pm. Answer: B
1. Which of the following words fill the blank given Defrauding- Cheating, fooling, and deceiving.
(A)?
A. Bounty 4. Which of the following words fill the blank given
B. Leave (D)?
C. Appreciated A. Reprimanding
D. Penalized B. Permitting
E. Sustain C. Admonition
Answer: D D. Rebuked
Penalized- Punished, disciplined. E. Confirmation
Answer: C
2. Which of the following words fill the blank given Admonition (Noun) - scolding, criticism and
(B)? reprimands.
A. Board
B. Caught 5. Which of the following words fill the blank given
C. Broad (E)?
D. Getting A. Reason
E. Reach B. Simplify
Answer: A C. Honor
Board (verb) - catch, get on or into, and embus. D. Explanation
E. Justification
3. Which of the following words fill the blank given Answer: D
(C)? Explanation- Justification, clarification.
A. Play ‘Explanation’ will be the correct usage preceded by
B. Defrauding ‘an’.
C. Fool
D. Assist
Page 49 of 69
Directions (6-10): Some phrasal verbs in a 8. The phone company cut off our phone because
sentence are given below followed with five we didn't pay the bill.
options- (A), (B), (C), (D) & (E). Find the suitable A. Do not pay attention to the problem
meaning of the phrase and mark the correct option B. To remove
as your answer. C. To stop providing
6. There was no one nearby who might see him D. Take revenge
trying to break into the house. E. Make something free
A. Get in a wrong place Answer: C
B. To take rest instead of working Cut off- To stop providing something.
C. To start suddenly
D. Wishing someone good luck 9. The child ran away from home and has been
E. To enter forcibly missing for three days.
Answer: E A. Meet unexpectedly
Break into something- To enter a place forcibly with B. Meet with an accident
an aim of theft or robbery. C. To review
D. To punish the culprit
7. Ayushmann’s Bala movie has all the hair loss tips E. Escaped
we have ever come across on the Internet. 9. Answer: E
A. Meet unexpectedly Run away- To escape from a place/ leave home.
B. A point to remember
C. Helpful suggestion 10. I am going to wind down in the country this
D. To get public weekend and doing nothing.
E. Raised for discussion A. Plan a terrorist attack
7. Answer: A B. Close the business
Come across- Meet someone unexpectedly/by C. To increase someone’s stress level
chance. D. being in relaxed mind
E. Stop being stupid
Answer: D
Page 50 of 69
Wind down- To relax. (i)The Finance Minister’s statement that the

Government is privatizing only two public sector
Directions (11-15): Two sentences have been given banks is _____.
with a word omitted in each sentence. These (ii)He gave ______illustrations of the absurdity and
sentences are followed by five options (A), (B), (C), poverty of the current pulpit oratory of his day,
(D) & (E). Choose the correct option which fits into some of them being taken from the sermons of his
the blank and mark it as your answer. own father.
11. A. Amusing
(i)Being the largest democracy in the world, it is the B. Fun
responsibility of India to support any _____ to C. Difficult
protect and uphold democratic rights and principles. D. Vaguest
(ii)He could easily overpower her in a ______ or E. Various
outlast her in a chase. Answer: A
A. War (i)The Finance Minister’s statement that the
B. Struggle Government is privatizing only two public sector
C. Chances banks is amusing.
D. Action (ii)He gave amusing illustrations of the absurdity
E. Examination and poverty of the current pulpit oratory of his day,
Answer: B some of them being taken from the sermons of his
(i)Being the largest democracy in the world, it is the own father.
responsibility of India to support any struggle to Amusing- Funny, causing me to laugh or smile.
protect and uphold democratic rights and principles.
(ii)He could easily overpower her in a struggle or 13.
outlast her in a chase. (i) Markets of Old Delhi’s Shahjahanabad will be
Struggle- something that is difficult to achieve. _____to turn plastic-free, beginning this week.
(ii)The State government had said that it had
12. ______ the phones in the interest of
Public safety and order.
Page 51 of 69
A. Declared (i)The worst pandemic in a hundred years has

B. Ordered demonstrated the importance of healthcare and
C. Tapped public health in times of a health crisis.
D. Switched (ii)The healthcare is science based
E. Recreation was convincingly demonstrated.
Answer: C Demonstrated- something that shows clearly that
(i)Markets of Old Delhi’s Shahjahanabad will be something exists or is true
tapped to turn plastic-free, beginning this week.
(ii)The State government had said that it had 15.
tapped the phones in the interest of (i)The feeling is growing among people ______ in th
public safety and order. e matter that the Madras School of Arts has fallen
Tapped- monitoring of telephone and Internet- upon evil days.
based conversations by a third party/ marked (ii)Ravaged by the COVID19 pandemic, many
countries which are ______in the BrahMos would
14. find it difficult to purchase it.
(i)The worst pandemic in a hundred years has A. Enable
______the importance of healthcare and public B. Interested
health in times of a health crisis. C. Struck
(ii) The healthcare is science based was D. Working
convincingly ______. E. Entertained
A. Destruct Answer: B
B. Given (i)The feeling is growing among people interested in
C. Statement the matter that the Madras School of Arts has
D. Unreal fallen upon evil days.
E. Demonstrated (ii)Ravaged by the COVID19 pandemic, many
Answer: E countries which are interested in the BrahMos
would find it difficult to purchase it.
Page 52 of 69
Interested- wanting to know or hear more about be joined to form a grammatically and contextually
correct sentence. If none the options given forms a
correct sentence after combination, mark option
COLUMN I COLUMN II
(E), i.e. “None of these” is your answer.
A. The Government of D. External affairs are
Ceylon has declared an meddling according
to their free will in a
domestic affair.
B. The Air strike by E. Perform in the
Russia on Syria is major leagues.
another example that
C. Black athletes were F. state of emergency
not allowed to with effect from
midnight to- night.
16.
something/ involved in or affected by something; in
a position to gain from something.
A. C-D & B-F
B. C-E
Directions (16-20): In the following questions two
C. A-F & B-D
columns are given containing three
D. B-D & C-E
Sentences/phrases each. In the first column,
E. None of these.
sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the
Answer: D
second column the sentences/phrases are D, E and
B-D: The Air strike by Russia on Syria is another
F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or
example that External affairs are meddling
may not connect with another sentence/phrase
according to their free will in a domestic affair.
from the second column to make a grammatically
C-E: Black athletes were not allowed to perform in
and contextually correct sentence. Each question
the major leagues.
has five options, four of which display the
sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can
Page 53 of 69
18.
17.
COLUMN I COLUMN II
COLUMN I COLUMN II A. She said the family’s D. an urgent need to
A. The growing interest D. The less expensive ration card was maintain COVID-
among the new gruel than fruit juice. appropriate behavior.
Generation of Myanmar B. The Prime Minister E. especially in the
activists noted that there was wake of the pandemic,
B. Parents can teach E. In Gandhian non- Karnataka is set to
non-violence violence is not a new rope Incorporates in a
Phenomenon. big way.
C. Many people opted F. By controlling their
to consumption own tempers. C.To upgrade health and F. cancelled due
A. B-E medical education infrast Non linkage with
B. A-D ructure and services, Aadhaar.
C. A-E & B-F

D. A-E, C-D & B-F A. B-D
E. None of these. B. C-E
Answer: C C. A-F & B-E
A-E: D. A-F, C-E & B-D
The growing interest among the new Generation of E. None of these.
Myanmar activists In Gandhian non-violence is not 18. Answer: B
a new Phenomenon. C-E:
B-F: Parents can teach non-violence by controlling To upgrade health and medical education infrastruc
their own tempers. ture and services, especially in the wake of the
pandemic, Karnataka is set to rope incorporates in
a big way
Page 54 of 69
19. several arjitha sevas, including Sahasra

Kalasabhishekam and Vasanthotsavam, and
COLUMN I COLUMN II perform them only once a year.
A. The Tirumala Tirupati D. including Sahasra B-F: In those times panics were common, and few
Devasthanams Kalasabhishekam days passed without some city or other registering
(TTD) has and in its archives an event of this kind.
resolved to do away Vasanthotsavam,
with And 20.
several arjitha sevas, perform them only on
ce a year. COLUMN I COLUMN II
B. In those times panics E. And the Quad A. He causes a D. the memory of his
were common, and few summit is an example disturbance in your father, Henry IV.
days passed without of this. hostelry, which
some city B. The fact was that E. Respectable people
C. F. or other registering none of his servants, cannot match up with.
The U.S. has sought to b in its archives an none of the travelers
uild strength before event of this kind. present,
engaging China latter this C. He was the friend off F. could have gained
week the king, who honored anything buy being
highly, as everyone possessed of this
A. A-D knows, paper.
B. C-E
C. A-D & B-F A. B-F
D. A-D, C-E & B-F B. C-D
E. None of these. C. A-E, B-F & C-D
19. Answer: C D. A-E
A-D: The Tirumala Tirupati E. None of these.
Devasthanams (TTD) has resolved to do away with
Page 55 of 69
20. Answer: D
A-E: He causes a disturbance in your hostelry,

which respectable people cannot match up with.
General Awareness
1. Which institution has partnered with CBSE to National Informatics Centre, NIC, CBSE, and Atal
jointly launch CollabCAD Software? Innovation Mission will also jointly release a
A) Infosys comprehensive e-book on CollabCAD 3D modeling.
B) HCL
C) Dell 2. Dr. Harsh Vardhan has dedicated an Innovation
D) NIC Portal developed By _______.
E) Microsoft A) Ficci
Answer: D B) Assocham
National Informatics Centre and Central Board of C) Niti Aayog
Secondary Education, CBSE will jointly launch D) NIC
CollabCAD Software to provide a total engineering E) NIF
solution for students and Faculty of Engineering Answer: E
Graphics Curriculum. The Union Minister for Science & Technology, Earth
Aim : To provide a great platform to students across Sciences, Health & Family Welfare Dr. Harsh
the country to create and modify 3D digital designs Vardhan dedicated an Innovation Portal, developed
with a free flow of creativity and imagination. by National Innovation Foundation (NIF) India, an
This software will also enable students to autonomous body of the Department of Science
collaborate over designs across the network and and Technology (DST), Government of India, to the
concurrently access the same design data for nation, in New Delhi.
storage and visualization. The National Innovation Portal(NIP) is currently
home to about 1.15 lakh innovations scouted from
Page 56 of 69
common people of the country, covering The campaign through various pan-India activities
Engineering, Agriculture, Veterinary and Human such as cyclothon, farmer workshops, seminars,
Health. painting competition, CNG vehicle driving contest,
Innovation Portal is a step towards Atmanirbhar etc will spread awareness among masses about the
Bharat and an excellent resource for students, advantages of using clean fuels.
entrepreneurs, MSME’s, Technology Business The campaign will also spread awareness about 7
Incubators (TBI’s) and common people engaged in key drivers mentioned by Prime Minister Narendra
a variety of occupations. Modi, to help India move towards cleaner energy.
This Innovation Portal will help institutionalise new These are:
ideas by common people towards finding solutions moving towards a gas-based economy, cleaner use
to local problems. of fossil fuels, greater reliance on domestic sources
to drive biofuels, achieving renewable targets with
3. The Petroleum & Natural Gas Ministry has the set deadlines, increased use of electric vehicles
launched the ________ campaign to spread to decarbonize mobility, increased use of cleaner
awareness about green energy. fuels like Hydrogen, and digital innovation across all
A) PRATISHTA energy systems.
B) SHIKSHA A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was
C) SAKSHAM signed between PCRA and EESL for promotion of
D) NISHTHA Energy Efficient PNG Stove on the occasion.
E) SAHAKAR
Answer: C 4. Which company has collaborated with Niti Aayog
The Petroleum and Natural Gas Ministry launched a to enhance Women Entrepreneurship Platform?
month-long mass awareness campaign 'SAKSHAM' A) Jabong
to spread awareness about green and clean B) Amazon
energy. C) Flipkart
The Secretary Ministry of Petroleum and Natural D) Myntra
Gas and Chairman, PCRA Shri TarunKapoor E) Snapdeal
launched the campaign. Answer: C
Page 57 of 69
Walmart-owned Flipkart has partnered with Niti The expert committee will be headed by IRDAI
Aayog to launch the revamped Women Chairperson, Subhash Chandra Khuntia and will
Entrepreneurship Platform. have a Member (Non-Life) as the vice-chairperson.
The Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP) is a The committee, which has a term of one year.
first of its kind, unified access portal which brings Member of the committee include:
together women from different parts of India to Dr Nachiket Mor, PhD, Visiting Scientist, The
realize their entrepreneurial aspirations. Banyan Academy of Leadership in Mental Health
The idea of the platform was first mooted by Dr A.K. Chand, Professor and Neurosurgeon,
Amitabh Kant, CEO, NITI Aayog who announced Bangalore
the setting-up of a Women Entrepreneurship Dr B.K. Mohanti, Former Professor and Oncologist,
Platform in NITI Aayog at the conclusion of the 8th AIIMS
Global Entrepreneurship Summit (GES) held in Dr K. Hari Prasad, Anaesthetist, Hyderabad
Hyderabad in 2017, with an overarching theme of 6. Which bank has partnered with Aditya Birla
‘Women first, prosperity for all’. Wellness to launch wellness themed credit card?
A) HDFC
5. Who will head the IRDAI committee to Examine B) ICICI
health insurance products? C) SBI
A) BK Mohanti D) Yes Bank
B) Subash Chandra Khuntia E) Axis
C) Nachiket Mor Answer: D
D) AK Chand YES Bank in collaboration with Aditya Birla
E) Hari Prasad Wellness Private Limited has launched ‘YES BANK
Answer: B Wellness’ and ‘YES BANK Wellness Plus’ credit
Insurance Regulatory & Development Authority of cards with the aim of holistic health, self-care and
India (IRDAI) has set-up a committee to study wellness growth of the consumers.
health insurance products with the help of scientists Cardholders will be able to enjoy the complimentary
and doctors in the panel. health benefits by simply registering on the Aditya
Birla Multiply App.
Page 58 of 69
The app will allow consumers to avail This strategic partnership offers significant
complimentary benefits such as annual health opportunities to bring millions of unbanked
check-up, round the clock doctor or counsellor customers into the financial mainstream.
helpline, in-studio or home-based workout sessions, IPPB has been set up with the vision to build the
personalized diet plans, among others. most accessible, affordable, and trusted bank for
This credit card comes with a first year membership the common man in India to deliver banking at the
fee of Rs 1,999 plus taxes and renewal fee of Rs customer’s doorstep.
1,999 and taxes.
8. Who among the following has inaugurated the
7. FSS and which bank have collaborated to Road Safety Month?
promote AePS Partnership Advances Financial A) Piyush Goyal
Inclusion in India? B) Nitin Gadkari
A) HDFC C) Prahlad Patel
B) ICICI D) Narendra Modi
C) SBI E) Anurag Thakur
D) Paytm Answer: B
E) IPPB Union Minister of Road Transport and Highways,
Answer: E Nitin Gadkari, inaugurated Road Safety Month
FSS (Financial Software and Systems), a leading where he highlighted the Central Government's
global payment processor and provider of commitment towards safety.
integrated payment products, announced partnering National Road Safety Month to be held from
with India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) to promote January 18 to February 17, 2021 and India
financial inclusion among underserved and accounts for 11 percent of accident-related fatalities
unbanked segments. worldwide
As part of the collaboration, IPPB will use FSS’ The function was launched by Union Minister for
Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AePS) to Defence, Rajnath Singh and Union Minister for
deliver interoperable and affordable doorstep Road Transport and Highways & MSME, Nitin
banking services to customers across India. Gadkari. The Minister of State for RTH, Gen (Retd)
Page 59 of 69
VK Singh and CEO, NITI Aayog, Amitabh Kant also The United States has designated the United Arab
participated. Emirates (UAE) and Bahrain as its major strategic
The initiative aims to build awareness about road partners of the Country.
safety and reduce road accidents in the country. It The announcement was made by White House
will be held till 17 February 2021. Press Secretary Kayleigh McEnany here.
Globally India is one of the worst-hit nations when it A new level of partnership between the United
comes to road accidents. India accounts for about 5 States, the United Arab Emirates, and the Kingdom
lakh road accidents annually, one of the highest in Bahrain, and represents an enduring commitment
the world, in which about 1.5 lakh people die and to economic and security cooperation.
another 3 lakh become crippled. It also reflects their extraordinary courage,
Centre is also taking several measures to reduce determination, and leadership in entering into the
road accidents by Restructuring and Strengthening Abraham Accords.
4E’s of Road safety, which are: In addition to that, Both of the countries have been
Engineering designated for their commitment to countering
Education violent extremism across the region, exceptional
Enforcement security partnership and exemplified by their
Emergency care Services hosting thousands of US airmen, soldiers, marines
and sailors.
9. The US has designated which countries as its
‘major strategic partners’? 10. PM Narendra Modi has flagged off
A) Iraq and UAE _______trains to boost connectivity to the Statue of
B) Qatar and UAE Unity.
C) Qatar and Oman A) 4
D) Oman and UAE B) 5
E) UAE and Bahrain C) 6
Answer: E D) 8
E) 7
Answer: D
Page 60 of 69
On Jan 17, 2021, Prime Minister Narendra Modi

flagged off eight trains connecting different regions 11. Which space agency has targeted the final test
of the country to Kevadiya with an aim to facilitate of ‘world’s most powerful rocket’?
seamless connectivity to the Statue of Unity in A) JAXA
Gujarat. B) NASA
Gujarat chief minister Vijay Rupani and Union C) CNES
railways minister Piyush Goyal were also present D) ISRO
on the occasion. E) ROSCOMOS
These trains will connect Kevadia to Varanasi, Answer: B
Dadar, Ahmedabad, Hazrat Nizamuddin, Rewa, The National Aeronautics and Space Administration
Chennai and Pratapnagar. (NASA) is looking to carry out the eighth and final
PM Modi also inaugurated the Dabhoi Chandod test in its “Green Run” test series on January 17.
converted broad gauge railway line, Chandod This eighth stage, termed hot fire will bring to an
Kevadia new broad gauge rail line, newly electrified end a series of tests which, NASA says, will
Pratapnagar Kevadia section and the new station gradually bring together the core stage of the Space
buildings of Dabhoi, Chandod and Kevadia. Launch System (SLS) to life for the very first time.
Purpose : The core stage of the SLS will form the backbone of
This connectivity will be beneficial for tourists what NASA says will be the “most powerful rocket
coming to see the Statue of Unity but it will also in the world” and will power its next-generation
help in changing the lives of the tribal community of human Moon Missions
Kevadiya.
It will bring new opportunities for jobs and self- 12. Union Health Minister Dr. Harsh Vardhan has
employment. digitally chaired _______ the session of the
These trains will help boost tourism in the tribal Executive Board of WHO.
region and increase connectivity to the world's A) 144
tallest statue, the Statue of Unity, which he B) 145
inaugurated in October 2018 on the occasion of C) 146
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel's 143rd birth anniversary. D) 148
Page 61 of 69
E) 147 D) Germany
Answer: D E) Sweden
Union Health Minister Dr. Harsh Vardhan digitally Answer: B
chaired the 148th session of the Executive Board of India and Japan have signed a Memorandum of
the World Health Organization through video Cooperation (MoC) on a basic partnership
conference. framework for operation of the ‘specified skilled
Distinguished Members of the WHO Executive worker’ (SSW) system under which the Japanese
Board,Hon’ble Ministers, Excellencies & Member government accepts foreign nationals who have a
State representatives,WHO Director-General, certain level of expertise and skill.
Regional Director of WHO South-East Asia and The memorandum was signed by Japanese
Other Regional Directors,Heads & Representatives Ambassador to India Suzuki Satoki and Foreign
of UN Agencies and Partner Organizations Secretary Harsh Vardhan Shringla
The 148th session of the Executive Board has been There are 14 specified industry fields that fall under
organised from 18-26 January 2021. SSW and workers and professionals in those
In addition to that the WHO has declared the Year sectors could be eligible,
2021 as the Year of Global Solidarity and Survival. These are: nursing care (caregiving); building-
The meeting provides a platform to bring together cleaning management; machine parts and tooling
all member states to set the directions and agenda industries; industrial machinery industry; electric,
to continue striving for our objective of health as a electronics and information industries; construction
state of complete physical, mental and social well- industry; shipbuilding and ship machinery industry;
being. automobile repair and maintenance; aviation
industry; accommodation industry; agriculture,
13. India has signed an MoU with which country for fishery & aquaculture; manufacture of food and
Agreement to Promote movement of Skilled beverages; and food service industry.
Workers?
A) Israel 14. Which state will launch the ‘One school, One
B) Japan IAS’ programme?
C) France A) Uttar Pradesh
Page 62 of 69
B) Haryana E) 6th
C) Karnataka Answer: E
D) Madhya Pradesh President Yoweri Museveni won a sixth five-year
E) Kerala term, extending his rule to four decades, according
Answer: E to official results announced .
Kerala Governor Arif Mohammad Khan has Museveni received 58 percent of the vote to Wine's
launched Vedhik Erudite Foundation’s ambitious 34 percent, with a voter turnout of 52 percent.
scheme to provide free coaching for civil services The 76-year-old Museveni, in power since 1986 and
and other competitive examinations to 10,000 one of Africa’s longest-serving leaders and is one of
meritorious students. Africa’s longest-serving presidents.
This higher education platform will give children a
chance to completely redecorate their future plans 16. Axelsen And Marin has won Titles At Yonex
and broaden their horizons totally, rewriting their Open being held in ______.
value capital. A) Brunei
The Programme will be providing free training to the B) Malaysia
students who are economically backward but are C) Vietnam
academically brilliant aspirants of civil service and D) Singapore
other competitive exams. E) Thailand
The beneficiaries will be selected by a panel Answer: E
headed by the heads of respective educational Denmark's Viktor Axelsen and Spain's Carolina
institutions. Marin have won the men's and women's singles
titles at the Badminton World Federation (BWF)
15. Uganda's Museveni has won his ______ term Yonex Thailand in Bangkok, the first of three
extending his rule to four decades. competitions in the Thai capital.
A) 3rd It was held from 12 January 2021 to 17 January
B) 7th 2021.
C) 4th It was the first badminton tournament of 2021 by
D) 5th Badminton World Federation (BWF).
Page 63 of 69
Other Winners List : The announcement assumes significance ahead of

Men’s Double – Taiwan’s Lee Yang and Wang Chi- the West Bengal Assembly elections scheduled
Lin later this year.
Women’s Double – Indonesia’s Greysia Polii and Bose, a noted freedom fighter, had floated Azad
Apriyani Rahayu Hind Fauj to fight for India's independence.
Mixed Double – Thailand’s Dechapol
Puavaranukroh and Sapsiree Taerattanachai 18. Which institution has handed over MotorBike
Ambulance Rakshita to CRPF?
17. The Union Government has declared Netaji's A) BEL
birthday to be marked as _______ every year. B) HAL
A) Shakti Diwas C) BDL
B) Shiksha Diwas D) DRDO
C) Parakram Diwas E) ISRO
D) Vijay Diwas Answer: D
E) Azad Diwas Defence Research and Development Organisation
Answer: C handed over MotorBike Ambulance Rakshita to the
The Government of India has decided to celebrate Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF).
the birthday of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose that Director General of CRPF Dr A P Maheshwari
falls on January 23 as 'Parakram Diwas' from now flagged off the contingent of 21 bikes on the
on every year. occasion.
This day is Mainly for To honour and remember It is a bike-based casualty transport emergency
Netaji's indomitable spirit and selfless service to the vehicle.
nation. It was Developed by DRDO lab Institute of Nuclear
The Government of India has decided to celebrate Medicine and Allied Sciences (INMAS) in New
the 125th birth anniversary year of Netaji beginning Delhi.
from January 2021 in befitting manner at national Rakshita is fitted with a customized reclining
and international level. Casualty Evacuation Seat (CES), which can be
fitted in and taken out as per requirement.
Page 64 of 69
Other major features are the head immobilizer, Mahatma Gandhi's statue in Parliament Square in
safety harness jacket, hand and foot straps for London.
safety, adjustable footrest, physiological parameter New legal protections mean that historic statues
measuring equipment with wireless monitoring should be retained and explained for future
capability and auto warning system for the driver. generations and individuals who want to remove
Purpose : any historic statue, whether protected with a listed
The bike ambulance will help in overcoming the status or not, will now require listed building
problems faced by Indian security forces and consent or planning permission.
emergency health care providers. The bike
ambulances will provide life-saving aid for 20. Which state has signed an MoU with Madhya
evacuation of injured patients from low intensity Pradesh on Responsible Tourism?
conflict areas. A) Chhattisgarh
B) Assam
19. Which country has set out new laws to protect C) Haryana
historic statues, monuments? D) Kerala
A) Thailand E) Uttar Pradesh
B) UK Answer: D
C) France Madhya Pradesh signed a memorandum of
D) Germany understanding with Kerala for replicating the latter’s
E) Singapore pioneering Responsible Tourism (RT) initiative.
Answer: B The States signed a joint declaration underneath
The UK government unveiled new laws to protect which Kerala will prolong a sequence of companies
England's cultural and historic heritage in the form underneath a 16-point programme.
of statues and monuments to ensure they are not The MoU was exchanged by Tourism Minister
removed at a whim. Kadakampally Surendran and his Madhya Pradesh
The move comes in the wake of Black Lives Matter counterpart Usha Thakur.
protests in the country last year targeting several Next week, a 13-member staff from Bhopal, led by
historic monuments, including with graffiti on Ms Thakur, will tour totally different elements of
Page 65 of 69
Kerala to assemble first-hand information about RT 22. India is set to procure more MiG-29 and Sukhoi
within the State. fighter jets from which country?
A) Israel
21. The First bird fest at Mahananda sanctuary will B) France
open from February 20. It is located in which state? C) Germany
A) Haryana D) US
B) Mizoram E) Russia
C) West Bengal Answer: E
D) Assam The government is set to procure 21 MiG-29 and 12
E) Manipur Sukhoi-30MKI fighter aircraft from Russia.
Answer: C The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS)
First, a bird festival is being organised at the approved the purchase of 83 Light Combat Aircraft
Mahananda wildlife sanctuary in West Bengal to Tejas from Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
provide an opportunity to enthusiasts to explore the The Centre will also purchase the upgrades of the
forest and watch different birds. aircraft's existing fleets.
The Darjeeling Wildlife Division will be organising The Request for Proposal (RFP) will soon be issued
the 1st Mahananda Bird Festival from February 20 to Russian state-run defence export arm
to 23 Rosoboronexport.
Mahananda Wildlife Sanctuary is rich in fauna and The MiG-29s are expected to be acquired at
has more than 300 species of birds. "relatively lower prices" and will add to 59 such jets
The sanctuary has been designated as an already with the Indian Air Force (IAF).
'important bird area' due to its critical role in the Before this, the Union cabinet had approved Rs
conservation of birds and their habitat. 48000 crores acquisition of 83 LCA (Light Combat
The sanctuary is well known among the birding Aircraft) Tejas aircraft from Hindustan Aeronautics
community, and bird watchers flock to it for sighting Limited (HAL).
the Rufous-necked hornbill, among other birds. This will include 73 improved Tejas Light Combat
Aircraft Mk.1A fighters and ten LCA Mk.1 trainers.
Page 66 of 69
23. Which institution and IFFDC have inked MoU to 24.Indian and French air forces will conduct which
work together for tribal livelihood generation? of the following Exercise?
A) BHEL A) Sampriti
B) TRIFED B) Milan 2020
C) NAREDCO C) Sahyog Kaijin
D) NAFED D) Desert Knight-21
E) BEL E) Foal Eagle
Answer: B Answer: D
The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development The Indian Air Force (IAF) and French Air and
Federation of India (TRIFED) signed a Space Force are set to participate in Exercise
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Indian Desert Knight-21.
Farm Forestry Development Co-operative Ltd The bilateral air exercise will be held at Jodhpur Air
(IFFDC) to promote livelihood generation of tribal Force station in Rajasthan, India, from 20 to 24
people. January.
TRIFED is focusing its efforts on finding new ways Exercise Desert Knight-21 aims to improve
to improve the lives and the livelihoods of the tribal interoperability between the forces while
people. As a part of its continued efforts, TRIFED exchanging ‘ideas and best practices’ gained from
has been partnering with like-minded organisations operational experience.
to create synergies together. According to the Indian Ministry of Defence, the
The two organizations have agreed to partner with exercise will see the deployment of Rafale aircraft
each other to organise training programmes for by both countries.
tribal artisans in the area of entrepreneurship skill Both the air forces will deploy frontline fighter jets
and business development. as well as transport, and tanker aircraft in the
They will also collaborate further to identify and exercise.
implement CSR initiatives and tribal development
efforts 25. Who among the following has been conferred
with Quaide Milleth Award?
A) Raj Gupta
Page 67 of 69
B) Anand Mehta recipients by Navaid Hamid, President, All India

C) Naresh Singh Majlis e Mushawarat.
D) Suresh Kumar They are awarded for Probity in Political and Public
E) Bilkis Dadi Life at the India Islamic Cultural Centre, New Delhi.
Answer: E Both recipients had made a mark in public life with
Bilkis Dadi, and an eminent social activist and writer their determination and zeal to protect the secular
Harsh Mander of “Karwan -e- Mohabbat” were fabric of the country.
presented the Quaide Milleth Award.
The awards consist of a Shawl, citation and a cash
of Rs 2.5lakh rupees were presented to the
Page 68 of 69
Page 69 of 69
Page 1 of 78
Reasoning Ability
Direction (1-2): Study the following information B.A > E > C > B
carefully and answer the below questions. C.C > E > D > B
Five boxes namely –A, B, C, D, and E received in a D.D > E > C > B
parcel center. The height, weight, and Cost of each E. None of these
of the boxes are different. All the attributes (height,
weight, and cost) are given a number from 1 to 5 in 2) How many boxes are costlier than the box
decreasing order such that 1 denotes the highest whose order of height is 2?
value and 5 denotes the lowest value. None of the A. Three
boxes has the same of all three attributes. B. One
Note: If the order of height(or weight or cost) of A is C. Two
1 and the order of Height (or weight or cost) of B is D. Four
2 then the order of A is more than that of B. E. None of these.
The cost of box A is just less than C, whose weight
is less than only two boxes. Height of the box D is Direction (3-7): Answer the questions based on the
only more than box B. Order of all three attributes information given below.
of box C is in consecutive order. The order of the If,
height of box A is more than the order of cost of ‘A & (15) B’ means ‘A has 8 count more than B’
box D, whose cost is more than the cost of box B. ‘A # (21) B’ means ‘A has 28 count less than B’
Order of the height of box B and order of cost of ‘A @ (19) B’ means ‘A is 25kg more than B’
box A is the same. The cost of box E and the ‘A $ (23) B’ means ‘A is 17kg less than B’
weight of box B is the highest. weights of the box * means But
A, B, and C are in consecutive order not ! means And
necessarily in the same order. The weight of E is Seven fruits viz. Apple, Grapes, Orange, Berry,
more than D. Pineapple, Banana and Kiwi have different weights
1) Which of the following is true with respect to and are also in different counts.
height? Note: Count means the number of each type of
A.C > E > B > A fruit.
Page 2 of 78
Kiwi & (28) Banana *# (7) Grapes; 5) Four of the five are alike in a certain way and
Berry & (14) Grapes *$ (24) Apple; hence form a group. Which/Who among the
Banana @ (6) Orange *$ (24) Pineapple; following one does not belong to the group?
Kiwi $ (12) Orange * & (21) Pineapple; A. Berry
Apple # (0) Grapes !@ (6) Banana; B. Orange
Orange # (14) (grapes)!$ (24) Grapes; C. Banana
Pineapple & (14) Banana *# (0) orange D. Pineapple
Berry @ (0) orange E. Apple
The highest count and highest weight of the fruits
is 84. 6) What will be the difference between the count of
3) What will be the weight of the fruit which is the Berry and the weight of Grapes?
least in number? A.17
A.72 B.11
B.84 C.15
C.66 D.16
D.60 E. None of these
E. None of these
7) What is the weight of the fruit (in kg) which is the
4) Name the fruit which doesn’t have even number third least in counts?
differences between their count and their weight. A.54
A. Orange B.48
B. Kiwi C.84
C. Berry D.66
D. Apple E. None of these
E. None of these
Direction (8-10): Based on the given data answer
the following questions
A @ B means A is lighter than B
Page 3 of 78
A # B means A is heavier than B 8) How many persons are heavier than the one
A & B means A is taller than B who is the second shortest?
A $ B means A is shorter than B A.1
? Means not B.2
% Means but C.3
! Means and D. None
* Means who E. None of these
Note:
if ? is placed after any of the symbols mentioned 9) Who among the following is the second lightest
above then it will be considered as not case. person?
E.g. A?&B means A is not taller than B. A.E
if % is placed after any of the symbols mentioned B.C
above then it will be considered as but case. E.g. A C.A
@ B %?& C means A is lighter than B but not taller D.D
than C. E.G
Among seven persons – A, B, C, D, E, F and G
have different heights and weights such that the 10) Who among the following is taller than D?
tallest one is not the heaviest one. I) A
II) E
D&A%?#G. III) F
B #E%?&C. A. Only II
F#B!E%$C! B. B. Only I
D?&F. C. Both II and III
G?&A!?#E. D. Both I and II
A?@C *# B. E. All I, II & III
F @ C.
C is shorter than only one person. F is not the Direction (11-15): Study the information given
second heaviest. below and answer the questions that follow.
Page 4 of 78
i) Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo and Foxtrot D. Delta

are six spies in a country. Each of them has E. None of these
different heights and kills a different number of
animals. 13) Who kills the highest number of animals?
ii) Bravo and Echo are shorter than Foxtrot but kills A. Alpha
more than Charlie. B. Foxtrot
iii) Delta kills more than Bravo and shorter than C. Charlie
Bravo. D. Bravo or Echo
iv) Echo is shorter than both Bravo and Delta but E. None of these
taller than Alpha.
v) Foxtrot kills more than Delta. 14) Who is the tallest of all spies?
vi) Alpha is shorter than Echo but kills more than A. Alpha
Foxtrot. B. Foxtrot
vii) Echo is shorter than Charlie, who is shorter C. Charlie
than Delta. D. Bravo or Echo
11) Who is the Shortest of all spies? E. None of these
A. Alpha
B. Foxtrot 15) How many persons taller than Delta?
C. Charlie A.2
D. Bravo or Echo B.3
D.5
12) Who among the following is necessarily at the E. None of these
same position height-wise and killer-wise as per
final arrangement? Direction (16-20): Answer the questions based on
A. Alpha the information given below.
B. Foxtrot Seven persons viz. M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are
C. Charlie standing on a circular ring such that some of them
Page 5 of 78
are facing towards the center while some are persons remain unchanged in their position,
facing away from the center, but not necessarily in excluding M?
the same order. Not more than two adjacent A. One
persons face the same directions. B. Two
N stands second to the right of O and vice versa. P C. Three
stands third to the left of N and faces the same D. More than three
direction as N. One person stands between Q and E. None
S where none of them are adjacent to P. M stands
to the immediate left of Q but faces opposite to Q. 19) How many persons face away from the center?
R faces towards the center. A. Four
16) Who among the following person stands B. Two
adjacent to O? C. Three
A.P D. Five
B.Q E. Cannot be determined
C.M
D.R 20) Who among the following person stands fourth
E. None of these to the left of R?
A.N
17) What is the position of M with respect to R? B.M
A. Third to the right C.S
B. Second to the right D.O
C. Immediate right E.Q
D. Second to the left
E. None of these Direction (21-25): Study the following information
18) If all the persons are made to stand in Nine persons J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are
alphabetical order in an anticlockwise direction with sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in
respect to the position of M, then how many the same order. Some of them facing towards the
Page 6 of 78
centre while others are facing away from the centre 23) If P sits immediate left of K then who among
of the table but not necessarily in the same order. the following sits 2nd to the right of O?
Not more than two adjacent persons are facing the A.R
same direction. B.J
M sits 3rd to the left of N and 2nd to the right of J. C.K
Both J and N are facing the opposite directions to D.M
each other. P is sitting two places away from L. E.N
Neither M nor N is an immediate neighbour of P. Q
is an immediate neighbour of O and both are 24) Which of the following statements is /are
facing the same direction. K is sitting 4th to the right definitely true?
of R and vice versa. O is sitting 2nd to the left of P A.K sits 2nd left of N
who is facing outside the centre. B.J faces inside
21) Who among the following is sitting immediate C.M sits immediate left of O
right of N? D.M and P faces the same direction
A.J E.K is an immediate neighbour of L
B.L
C.K 25) How many persons are facing inside who are
D.M sitting between N and Q when counted from the
E.O left of N?
A. One
22) How many persons are sitting between Q and B. Three
J when counted from the right side of J? C. Two
A. Three D. None
B. Four E. None of these
C. Five
D. Two Direction (26-30): Answer the questions based on
E. None the information given below.
Page 7 of 78
Eight persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are B.C

standing on a circular line in such a way that some C.H
of them are facing towards the center while some D.B
are facing away from the center, but not E. None of these
necessarily in the same order. Not more than two
adjacent persons face the same direction. 28) What is the position of E with respect to D?
Note: Facing the same direction means, if one A. Third to the right
is facing center then the other also faces center B. Third to the left
and vice-versa. C. Second to the right
G stands second to the left of both B and E, and D. Second to the left
faces the same direction as E. F stands third to the E. None of these
left of G and is exactly opposite to A. D faces away
from the center and is second to the right of F.H 29) How many persons stand between C and G?
and C stand immediate left to each other. Both A A.1
and H doesn’t face towards the center. B.2
C.3
26) Four of the following five are alike in a certain D. More than three
way and hence form a group. Find the one who E. None
A. The one who stands second to the right of B 30) Who among the following stands to the
B.A immediate right of E?
C. The one who stands immediate left of G A.F
D.B B.C
E. The one who stands second to the left of A C. The one who stands second to the right of C
D.A
27) Who among the following stands third to the E. The one who stands second to the left of A
right of A?
A.F
Page 8 of 78
Direction (31-35): Answer the questions based on 32) What is the position of P with respect to T?
the information given below. A. Fourth to the right
Twelve persons viz. O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y B. Second to the left
and Z are seated in a circular table such that some C. Fifth to the right
of them faces towards the centre while some faces D. Fourth to the left
away from the centre, but not necessarily in the E. None of these
same order. Not more than three adjacent persons
face the same direction. 33) Who among the following person sits fourth to
One person sits between P and Y where both face the right of X?
the same direction. Y sits third to the left of Z and A.P
vice versa where Z doesn’t sit adjacent to P.X, who B.S
faces the same direction as Z, sits fourth to the C.V
right of Z and second to the left of W. One person D.Z
sits between Z and O who is neither adjacent to Y E. None of these
nor faces the same direction as Z. R sits second to
the right of V and vice versa where both are the 34) If O is related to T and R is related to Z in a
neighbours of O. Q sits third to the left of V and certain way, then who among the following person
faces opposite to V. T sits third to the right of S and is related to P?
faces towards U, who faces away from the centre. A.V
Both S and T face the same direction. B.R
31) How many persons sit between U and V when C.T
counted from the right of U? D.X
A. One E. None of these
B. Two
C. Three 35) Which of the following statement is/are true
D. More than three with respect to the final arrangement?
E. None A. Both R and U face different directions
Page 9 of 78
B.S neither sits adjacent to O nor faces the same E. All are false
direction as Z
C.V sits fourth to the right of Y and vice versa 37) Who among the following person sits third to
D. Three persons sit between W and O when the left of G?
counted from the left of W who doesn’t sit adjacent A.H
to T B. The one who is immediate left of D
E. Either none of these or all of these is true C.F
D. The one who is immediate right of E
Direction (36-40): Answer the questions based on E. None of these
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting 38) Who among the following person sits opposite
around a circular table, but not necessarily in the to C?
same order. Some of them face towards the centre A.B
while others face outside. Not more than two B. The one who sits immediate right of F
persons who face the same direction sit together. C.D
The person who sits third to the left of A faces D. The one who sits second to the right of A
outside. G sits adjacent to A and opposite to D, E. None of these
who faces towards the centre. E sits second to the
left of D. C sits to the immediate right of E. H sits 39) How many persons face outside the centre?
adjacent to F, who sits third to the left of C who A. Five
faces towards the centre. H doesn’t sit second to B. Three
the right of B, but both face the same direction. F C. Four
faces the opposite direction to that of G. D. Two
36) Which of the following statement is true? E. Six
A.D sits second to the right of C
B.A and B face the opposite direction to each other 40) How many persons sit between H and E, when
C.F sits opposite to E counted from the left of H?
D.H faces towards the centre A. Two
Page 10 of 78
B. Four the same direction. T is sitting third to the left of V.

C. Three T and S are not an immediate neighbours. S and R
D. Five are not facing opposite to the center.
E. None of these 41) Who sits immediate left of R?
A.Y
Direction (41-45): Study the given information B.T
carefully and answer the following question below. C.P
Ten people are sitting around a circular table. D.S
Some of them are facing centre and some of them E.X
facing opposite to the centre.
Note: 42) Who among them are facing opposite to the
Facing the same direction means if one person is center?
facing the centre then the other also faces the I) R
centre and if one is facing outward then the other II) Y
also faces outward. Facing the opposite directions III) W
means if one person is facing the centre then the A. Only (I)
other is facing outward and vice versa. B. Only (II)
X is sitting second to the right of W. Q is sitting C. Only (III)
opposite to P and is facing toward the same D. All (I), (II) and (III)
direction. T is facing opposite to the centre and is a E. All are facing center
neighbour of R. Both the immediate neighbours of
U are facing opposite to the centre. Q is sitting 43) Which of the following statements is/are
second to the left of Y. S is sitting third to the left of correct?
W. V is not facing the same direction as U and W. I) Number of persons sits between P and Y when
X and W are facing the same direction and none of counted from the right of P is the same as between
them are immediate neighbours of T. The one who V and Q when counted from the left of V.
sitting opposite to R is facing opposite to the II) S sits second to the left of U
centre. The immediate neighbours of V are facing III) Both T and U are sitting opposite to each other
Page 11 of 78
A. Only (I) and (II) are facing center and others are away from the
B. Only (II) and (III) center.
C. Only (III) Z is fourth to the right of W, who is not immediate
D. All statements are true neighbour of B and Y. Z is not Facing center. Two
E. All are false persons sit between Z and C, who is not immediate
neighbour of W. C is facing towards center. B is
44) Four of the five among the following are similar Fourth to the left of E. E's immediate neighbours
in such a way to form a group, which one of the are facing opposite directions to each other. B sits
following doesn’t belong to the group? exactly between W and Y. C and E are facing the
A.X, T same directions and are immediate neighbour.
B.S, R Both the immediate neighbour of X is facing the
C.V, P same direction as E and X is facing away from the
D.Q, W center. Two persons sits between E and A while
E.W, X counting from the right of E. D, A and B are facing
same direction as C and both the immediate
45) How many persons are facing away from the neighbours of A are facing away from the center
center? 46) How many persons sit between W and A from
A.3 the Right of A?
B.4 A. Two
C.5 B. Four
D.6 C. Three
E.7 D. More than four
E. One
carefully and answer the below questions. 47) How many persons are facing towards the
There are Nine persons namely-A, B, C, D, E, W, center?
X, Y, Z are sitting on a circular table. Some of them A.3
B.5
Page 12 of 78
C.4 Direction (51-52): Study the following information

D.6 carefully and answer the questions given below:
E.7 Nine persons are sitting around a circular table.
Some of them are facing centre and some of them
48) Who among the following is third to the right of are facing away from the centre.
D? Two persons sit between H and V. H and V faces
A.Z opposite direction to each other. L sits second to
B.A the right of V, who faces away from centre. One
C.C person sits between L and D. Z sits third to the left
D.E of Q. P sits immediate right of Z. Z and V are
E.B facing the same direction. Q and Z are facing the
same direction. Z and D are not immediate
49) Four of the five among the following are similar neighbours. Immediate neighbour of Q as well as
in such a way to form a group, which one of the H faces opposite direction. R sits second to the
following doesn’t belong to the group? right of T. H and T are not immediate neighbours.
A.D P and T faces opposite direction. Immediate
B.C neighbour of T faces the same direction.
C.E
D.X 51) How many persons are facing centre?
E.B A. One
B. Two
50) Which of the following statement is true? C. Three
A.D sits third to the right of Z D. Four
B.B and A face opposite directions E. None of these
C.Y is an immediate neighbor of Z
D.X face outside 52) Who sits third to the left of the one who sits to
E. All are true the immediate right of D?
A.H
Page 13 of 78
B.V
C.P Direction (56-60): Study the following information
D.L carefully and answer the questions given below.
E. None of these There are eight persons J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q
are sitting around a circular table with an equal
53) How many persons sit between Z and L, when distance. Four of them are facing centre and others
counted from left of Z? are facing outside from centre of the table. All the
A. One above information is not necessary in the same
B. Two order.
C. Three J sits second to the right of N and facing opposite
D. Four to the centre of the table. Immediate neighbours of
E. None of these N are facing the same direction. K sits to the
immediate left of M, who does not sit opposite to
54) Four of the following five are alike in a certain both J and N. M is facing centre on the table. P sits
way based on the group. Find the one who does third to the left of O and both of them are facing the
not belong to the group? same direction. O is not an immediate neighbor
A.V both of J and N. P is not an immediate neighbour
B.Q of J. K is not facing centre of the table. Q is not an
C.T immediate neighbour of N. M neither sits adjacent
D.L to J nor N.
E.Z
56) Who sits second to the left of L?
55) Which of the following statement is not true? A.M
A.V sits third to the right of L B.N
B.P is an immediate neighbor of L C.P
C.H and T face the same direction D.Q
D.H is an immediate neighbor of Q E. None of these
E. none is true
Page 14 of 78
57) What is the position of M with respect to J? D.Q

A. Third to the left E. None of these
C. Fourth to the left Direction (61-65): Study the following information
D. Fourth to the right carefully and answer the questions given below.
E. Immediate left Eight persons are sitting on a circular table. Some
of them are facing center and the rest are facing
58) Four of the following five are alike in a certain away from the centre. U, T and S are facing the
way based on the arrangement and thus form a same direction. S sits third to the right of P who is
group. Which one does not belong to that group? facing away from the centre. T and S are sitting
A.M opposite to each other. Q is an immediate neighbor
B.O of S. Q sits second to the right of V who faces the
C.P same direction as P. U and V are sitting opposite
D.L to each other. R and Q are facing the same
E.K direction but does not sit adjacent to each other.
Not More than two persons who are facing the
59) How many persons are sitting between J and same direction sit together. W is one among the
K? persons.
A. None 61) Who sits second to the left of S?
B. One A.W
C. Two B.U
D. Three C.R
E. None of these D.P
E.T
60) Who sits third to the right of P?
A.O 62) Which of the following statement is true?
B.M A.P and W are facing the opposite direction
C.K B.R and Q are sitting opposite to each other
Page 15 of 78
C.U sits third to the right of S A.Q

D.W is an immediate neighbor of Q B.R
E. None of these C.T
D.P
63) How many persons are sitting between U and E.U
W when counting from the right of U?
A.0 65) Who sits third to the right of the one who is
B.1 immediate right of W?
C.2 A.P
D.3 B.T
E. More than three C.S
D.U
64) Four of the five among the following are similar E.V
in such a way to form a group, which one of the
following doesn’t belong to the group?
Answer With Detail Explanation
Direction (1-2):
We have:
• The height of box D is only more than box B.
• The cost of box A is just less than C, whose
weight is less than only two boxes.
• The order of all three attributes of box C is in
consecutive order.
Again, we have:
Page 16 of 78
• The order of height of box B and order of

cost of box A is the same.
• The cost of box E and the weight of box B is
the highest.
• The weight of the box A, B, and C are in
consecutive order not necessarily in the ‘A & (15) B’ means ‘A has 8 count more than B’ –
same order. subtract 7 from the value in the bracket.
• The order of height of box A is more than the ‘A # (21) B’ means ‘A has 28 count less than B’ –
order cost of box D, whose cost is more than add 7 to the value in the bracket.
the cost of box B. ‘A @ (19) B’ means ‘A is 25kg more than B’ –add 6
• The weight of E is more than D. to the value in the bracket.
Based on the above-given information we have the ‘A $ (23) B’ means ‘A is 17kg less than B’ –subtract
final arrangement as follows: 6 from the value in the bracket.
1. Kiwi & (28) Banana *# (7) Grapes;
Kiwi is 21 count more than Banana but 14 count
less than Grapes.
2. Berry & (14) Grapes *$ (24) Apple;
Berry is 7 count more than Grapes but 18kg less
than Apple.
3. Banana @ (6) Orange *$ (24) Pineapple;
Banana is 12kg more than Orange but 18kg less
1) Answer: C than Pineapple.
2) Answer: A 4. Kiwi $ (12) Orange * & (21) Pineapple;
Kiwi is 6kg less than orange but 14 count more than
Direction (3-7): Pineapple.
5. Apple # (0) Grapes !@ (6) Banana;
Apple is 7 count less than Grapes and 12kg more
than Banana.
Page 17 of 78
6. Orange # (14)grapes !$ (24) Grapes; B #E%?&C ->B is heavier than E but not taller than
Orange has 21 count less and 18kg less than C
Grapes. F#B !E%$C! B-> F is heavier than B and E but
7. Pineapple & (14) Banana *# (0) orange shorter than C and B
Pineapple has 7 counts more than banana but 7 D?&F - >D is not taller than F
count less than orange. G?&A!?#E ->G is not taller than A and not heavier
8. Berry @ (0) orange than E
Berry is 6kg more than Orange. A?@C *# B ->A is not lighter than C who is heavier
The highest count and highest weight of the fruits is than B
84. F @ C ->F is lighter than C
Therefore, from the given information, the following C is shorter than only one person. F is not the
was determined. second heaviest.
B is heavier than E but not taller than C

F is heavier than B and E but shorter than C and B
Order of Weight: F > B > E+
3) Answer: C Order of Height: C > B > F
4) Answer: B D is taller than A but not heavier than G
5) Answer: D D is not taller than F
6) Answer: E G is not taller than A and not heavier than E
7) Answer: A Order of Weight: E > G > D
Order of Height: F > D > A > G
Directions: (8-10) Combining these results with the previous results,
Among seven persons – A, B, C, D, E, F and G we have:
have different heights and weights such that the Order of Weight: F > B > E > G > D
tallest one is not the heaviest one. Order of Height: C > B > F > D > A > G
D&A%?#G -> D is taller than A but not heavier than A is not lighter than C who is heavier than B
G F is lighter than C
Page 18 of 78
F is not the second heaviest.

Order of Weight: A > C > F > B > E > G > D
Order of Height: C > B > F > D > A > G
C is shorter than only one person.
Height -> E > C > B > F > D > A > G
Weight -> A > C > F > B > E > G > D
8) Answer: D
9) Answer: E 1. N stands second to the right of O and vice versa.
10) Answer: C P stands third to the left of N and faces the same
Height -> E > C > B > F > D > A > G direction as N.
Weight -> A > C > F > B > E > G > D
Direction (11-15):
Height: Foxtrot > Bravo > Delta > Charlie > Echo >
Alpha
Killer: Alpha > Foxtrot > Delta > Bravo, Echo >
Charlie
11) Answer: A
2. One person stands between Q and S where
12) Answer: D
none of them are adjacent to P. M stands to the
13) Answer: A
immediate left of Q but faces opposite to Q.R faces
14) Answer: B
towards the center. Hence, case 2 gets eliminated.
15) Answer: A
Direction (16-20):
Page 19 of 78
16) Answer: D O is sitting 2nd to the left of P who is facing outside

17) Answer: B the centre.
18) Answer: A
19) Answer: C
20) Answer: E
Direction (21-25):
Q is an immediate neighbor of O and both are

K is sitting 4th to the right of R and vice versa.
M is sitting 3rd to the left of N and 2nd to the right of

J. Both J and N are facing the opposite directions.
Here we get two possibilities.
We cannot fix the position of K and R in case (2).

So this case is eliminated.
21) Answer: B
22) Answer: A
P is sitting two places away from L. 23) Answer: A
Neither M nor N is an immediate neighbor of P. 24) Answer: D
Page 20 of 78
25) Answer: C
Direction (26-30):
5. Both A and H doesn’t face towards the center.

1. G stands second to the left of both B and E,

and faces the same direction as E.
2. F stands third to the left of G and is exactly
opposite to A.
26) Answer: A
27) Answer: D
28) Answer: B
29) Answer: C
3. D faces away from the center and is second to 30) Answer: E
the right of F.
4. H and C stand immediate left to each other. Direction (31-35):
Page 21 of 78
3. R sits second to the right of V and vice versa

where both are the neighbours of O. Q sits third to
the left of V and faces opposite to V.
1. One person sits between P and Y where both

face the same direction. Y sits third to the left of Z
and vice versa where Z doesn’t sit adjacent to P.
4. T sits third to the right of S and faces towards U,
who faces away from the centre. Both S and T face
the same direction. Hence, case 1 gets eliminated.
2. X, who faces the same direction as Z, sits fourth

to the right of Z and second to the left of W. One
person sits between Z and O who is neither
31) Answer: C
adjacent to Y nor faces the same direction as Z.
32) Answer: D
33) Answer: B
34) Answer: D
35) Answer: D
Direction (36-40):
Page 22 of 78
4. H doesn’t sit second to the right of B, but both

1. The person who sits third to the left of A face the same direction. F faces the opposite
faces outside. G sits adjacent to A and direction to that of G.
opposite to D who faces towards the centre.
2. E sits second to the left of D. C sits to the 36) Answer: C

immediate right of E. 37) Answer: B
38) Answer: D
39) Answer: A
40) Answer: B
Direction (41-45):
3. H sits adjacent to F, who sits third to the left of C

who faces towards the centre. Hence, case 1 gets
eliminated.
Page 23 of 78
• The immediate neighbours of V are facing

the same direction.
• The one who sitting opposite to R is facing
opposite to the centre.
• S is sitting third to the left of W. • T is an immediate neighbour of R.
• X is sitting second to the right of W. • Q is sitting opposite to P and is facing toward
• X and W are facing the same direction and the same direction.
none of them are immediate neighbours of T. • Q is sitting second to the left of Y. we cannot
fix the position of R, P and Q in case 2 , so
that case is eliminated.
• V is not facing the same direction as U and

W.
• T is sitting third to the left of V.
• T and S are not an immediate neighbours.
• T is facing opposite to the centre and is a • Both the immediate neighbours of U are
neighbour of R. facing opposite to the centre.
• S and R are not facing opposite to the
center. So the final arrangement is ,
Page 24 of 78
• Z is fourth to the right of W, who is not

immediate neighbour of B and Y. Z is not
Facing center.
• Two persons sit between Z and C, who is not
an immediate neighbour of W. C is facing
towards center.
41) Answer: A
42) Answer: C
43) Answer: B • B is Fourth to the left of E. E's immediate
44) Answer: C neighbour are facing opposite directions to
45) Answer: D each other. B sits exactly between W and Y.
• C and E are facing same directions and are
Direction (46-50): immediate neighbours.
Case II is not applicable for the instruction

statement. C and E are facing towards center. So,
the immediate neighbour of E are facing opposite
directions. So E is facing outside the center. In the
Page 25 of 78
result the statement Z is 4th to the right of W is

affected.
• Both the immediate neighbours of X is facing
the same direction as E and X is facing away
from the center.
• Two persons sit between E and A while
counting from the right of E.
• D, A and B are facing same direction as C
Two persons sit between H and V. L sits second to
and both the immediate neighbour of A
the right of V, who faces away from centre. H and V
facing away from the center
faces opposite direction.
46) Answer: B One person sits between L and D. Z sits third to the
47) Answer: B left of Q. P sits immediate right of Z. Z and V are
48) Answer: C facing same direction. Q and Z are facing same
49) Answer: D direction. Z and D are not immediate neighbours.
50) Answer: D
Direction (51-55):
Page 26 of 78
Immediate neighbour of Q as well as H faces J sits second to the right of N and facing opposite to
opposite direction. R sits second to the right of T. H the centre of the table. K sits to the immediate left
and T are not immediate neighbours. of M, who does not sit opposite to both J and N. M
is facing centre on the table. M neither sits adjacent
to J nor N.
Case 2 will be dropped because R sits second to

the right of T.
P and T faces opposite direction. Immediate P sits third to the left of O and both of them are
neighbour of T faces same direction. facing the same direction. O is not an immediate
So, the final arrangement is, neighbor both of J and N. P is not an immediate
neighbour of J. K is not facing centre of the table. Q
is not an immediate neighbour of N. Immediate
neighbours of N are facing the same direction.
51) Answer: E
52) Answer: B
In case 2 P and M is not an immediate
53) Answer: D
neighbor of J. so case 2 is rejected.
54) Answer: D
55) Answer: E
56) Answer: D
57) Answer: B
Direction (56-60):
58) Answer: E
Page 27 of 78
59) Answer: D
60) Answer: A
Direction (61-65):
• Q is an immediate neighbor of S.
• S sits third to the right of P who is facing

away from the centre. • Q sits second to the right of V who faces
same direction as P.
• T and S are sitting opposite to each other. • U and V are sitting opposite to each other.
Page 28 of 78
R and Q are facing same direction but does not sit

61) Answer: A
adjacent to each other. W is one among the
62) Answer: D
persons.
63) Answer: A
64) Answer: D
65) Answer: C
• Not More than two persons who are facing

the same direction sit together.
• U, T and S are facing the same direction.
Hence the final arrangement becomes,
1) The average of a set of five consecutive even

numbers is 56 and the average of a set of four
Page 29 of 78
consecutive odd numbers is 94. Find the product of Which of the following option satisfies the given
the smallest even number in the first set and the condition?
biggest odd number in the second set. A.50, 42
A.6654 B.40, 45
B.3066 C.60, 45
C.4032 D.46, 42
E.None of these Answer: C
Answer: D Let, number of boys = n
We know that, => Number of girls = n + 6
Average of n consecutive even/odd number = first Option (a)
number + (n – 1) Total number of students in the class = 50
56 = first number + (5 – 1) n + n + 6 = 50
=> first number = 56 – 4 => 2n = 50 – 6
=> first number = 52 => 2n = 44
Even number set: 52, 54, 56, 58, 60 => n = 22
94 = first number + (4 – 1) Boys = 22
=> first number = 94 – 3 Girls = 22 + 6 = 28
=> first number = 91 22 x 42 + 28 x 40 = 924 + 1120 = 2044 ≠ 50 x
Odd number set: 91, 93, 95, 97 42.25 = 2112.5
Required product = 52 x 97 = 5044 This does not satisfy the given condition.
Option (b)
2) In a class of _________ students, the number of Total number of students in the class = 40
girls in the class is 6 more than the number of boys n + n + 6 = 40
in the class. The average weight of all the students => 2n = 40 – 6
in the class is 42.25 Kg. The average weight of the => 2n = 34
boys is __________ Kg and the average weight of => n = 17
the girls is 40 Kg. Boys = 17
Page 30 of 78
Girls = 17 + 6 = 23 family got married and daughter-in-law came into

17 x 45 + 23 x 40 = 765 + 920 = 1685 ≠40 x 42.25 the family so their average age now decreased by
= 1690 1 year, then what is the age daughter-in-law?
This does not satisfy the given condition. A.15 years
Option (c) B.26 years
Total number of students in the class = 60 C.28 years
n + n + 6 = 60 D.20 years
=> 2n = 60 – 6 E.None of these
=> 2n = 54 Answer: A
=> n = 27 Total ages of 6 family members 3 years ago
Boys = 27 = 6*40= 240 years
Girls = 27 + 6 = 33 Total ages of the family at present including
27 x 45 + 33 x 40 = 1215 + 1320 = 2535 = 60 x daughter
42.25 = 2535 = 240+18= 258
This satisfies the given condition. Total ages of the family including daughter-in-law
Option (d) = 39*7
Total number of students in the class = 46 = 273 years
n + n + 6 = 46 So,
=> 2n = 46 – 6 Daughter-in-law’s age = 273-258= 15 years
=> 2n = 40
=> n = 20 4) The average salary of A, B and C is Rs. 21000
Boys = 20 per month and that of B, C and D is Rs. 23000 per
Girls = 20 + 6 = 26 month. If the total salary of A and D is Rs. 50000,
20 x 42 + 26 x 40 = 840 + 1040 = 1880 ≠46 x then the average salary of B and C is?
42.25 = 1943.5 A.Rs. 22500
This does not satisfy the given condition. B.Rs. 34000
3) The average age of 6 members in a family 3 C.Rs. 20500
years ago was 40 years. At present, the son of the D.Rs. 28000
Page 31 of 78
E.None of these
Answer: C
Total salary of A+B+C = 21000*3 = 63000 --> (1)
Total salary of B+C+D = 23000*3 = 69000 --> (2)
On subtracting (1) and (2), we get,
D – A = 6000 --> (3)
D + A = 50000 ----> (4)
Using the equation (3) and (4), we get,
D = 28000, A = 22000
Average salary of B and C = (63000 – 22000)/2 = =>1:5
Rs. 20500 1’s = 12
B और C का औसत वेतन = (63000 – 22000)/2 = 20500 Total employees in a company = 6’s = 12 * 6 = 72

रूपये
6) The average age of students of a class is 18
5) There is a certain number of officers and clerks years and when two new students of ages 22
in a company. The average monthly salary given to years and 19 years joined the class and one
the total employees in a company is Rs. 27500. student of age 15 years left the class, then the
The average monthly salary of officers and clerks average of the class is increased by 0.5 years,
is Rs. 40000 and Rs. 25000 respectively. Then find then what is the initial number of students in the
the total number of employees in a company, if 12 class?
officers are there in a company? A.25
A.84 B.15
B.66 C.20
C.72 D.10
D.60 E.None.
E.None of these Answer: B
Answer: C Let the initial number of students in the class = n
Sum of the ages of the class = 18n
Page 32 of 78
Sum of the ages of the class when two new Weight of block 3 = 1.4 x 300 = 420 kg
students of ages 22 years and 19 years joined, and Weight of block 4 = 600 kg
one student of age 15 years left = 18n + 22 + 19 - Weight of block 5 = 600 x 4/3 = 800 kg
15 = (18n + 26) Average weight of four heaviest – Average weight
New average age of the class = 18.5(n + 1) = 18n of four lightest = {(800+600+546+420) –
+ 26 (600+546+420+300)}/4
18.5n + 18.5 = 18n + 26 = 125 kg
0.5n = 7.5
n = 15 8) There is a total of 80 students in a class. The
Hence, initial number of students in the class = n = respective ratio of boys and girls among them is 3:
15 2. The average weight of all the boys in the class is
24 Kg and the average weight of all the girls in the
7) There is a total of five blocks. The weight of the class is 18Kg. If the weight of the class teacher is
first block is 300 kg and the weight of the second 54 Kg, find the average weight of the class
block is 30% higher than the weight of the third including the class teacher.
block, whose weight is 40% higher than the weight A.20 Kg
of the first block. The fourth block is 600 kg and is B.18 Kg
25% lighter than the fifth block. Find the difference C.24 Kg
of the average weight of the four heaviest and four D.22 Kg
lightest blocks. E.None of these
A.129 kg Answer: D
B.122 kg Number of boys = 3/5 x 80 = 48
C.125 kg Number of girls = 2/5 x 80 = 32
D.120 kg Required average = (48 x 24 + 32 x 18 + 54)/81
E.141 kg = (1152 + 576 + 54)/81
Answer: C = 1782/81
Weight of block 1 = 300 kg = 22 Kg
Weight of block 2 = 1.3 x 420 = 546 kg
Page 33 of 78
9) If the average weight of two students, a teacher E.None of these

and a headmaster in the school is 56 kg and the Answer: B
weight of the headmaster and teacher is in the Let the number of clerks in the company be x,
ratio of 6: 5. If the difference between the weight of 900 * 10 + 300 * x = 350 * (10 + x)
the teacher and headmaster is 10 kg, then what is 9000 + 300x = 3500 + 350x
the average weight of the students? 5500 = 50x
A.60 kg x = 5500 / 50 = 110
B.57 kg Total number of employees in the company = 10 +
C.54 kg x = 120
D.63 kg Shortcuts:
E.None of these
Answer: B
Weight of teacher = 5 * 10 = 50 kg
Weight of head master = 6 * 10 = 60 kg
Total weight of the school = 56 * 4 = 224
Total weight of the students = 224 – 60 – 50 = 114
Average weight of the students = 114/2 = 57 kg
10) The average salary of the whole employees in

a company is Rs. 350 per day. The average salary
of officers is Rs. 900 per day and that of clerks is
Rs. 300 per day. If the number of officers is 10, = > 1 : 11
then find the total number of employees in the 1’s = 10
company? Total number of employees in the company = 12’s
A.100 = 120
B.120
C.130 11) There are 28 students, one Teacher and one
D.140 Monitor in a class. If the weight of the Teacher and
Page 34 of 78
Monitor were excluded, then the average weight of C.49

the students is 3 kg less than the average weight D.47
of the whole class. Find the average weight of the E.45
whole class, if the weight of the Teacher and Answer: B
Monitor is 68 kg and 62 kg respectively. Initial number of students in the class = y
A.23 Average weight of the class = x
B.25 xy + 44 = (y + 1) * (x + 0.2)
C.27 xy + 44 = xy + 0.2y + x + 0.2
D.30 44 = 0.2y + x + 0.2
E.32 xy + 4 = (y + 1) * (x – 0.6)
Answer: A xy + 4 = xy – 0.6y + x – 0.6
Let the average weight of the whole class b x. 4 = x – 0.6y – 0.6
According to the question, x = 4 + 0.6y + 0.6
30x – (68 + 62) = 28(x – 3) 44 = 0.2y + 4 + 0.6y + 0.6 + 0.2
30x – 130 = 28x – 84 44 = 0.8y + 4.8
2x = 46 y = 49
x = 23 Total number of students in the class = 49 + 1 = 50
12) The average weight of the class is x kg. If one 13) There are 6 consecutive odd numbers in
new student joined the class whose weight is 44 increasing order. If the sum of the squares of the
kg, then the average weight of the class is first and last odd numbers is 442, find the average
increased by 0.2 kg. If the new student weight is of all the six numbers.
only 4 kg means then the average weight of the A.7
class is decreased by 0.6 kg, then what is the total B.14
number of students in the class after one new C.21
student joining? D.28
A.48 E.None of these
B.50 Answer: B
Page 35 of 78
Let the numbers be x, x + 2, x + 4, x + 6, x + 8, x +

10.
x2 + (x + 10)2 = 442
=> x = 9
The numbers are 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19
Required average = (9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + 17 + 19)/6 =>7:2
= 14 9’s = 45
1’s = 5
14) The Average marks obtained by 45 students in Total number of passed students = 7’s = 35
an examination are 12. If the average marks of
passed students are 14 and that of failed students 15) There are some teachers in a school with an
are 5. Then, find the number of students who average age of 45 years. The sum of maximum
passed the examination? and minimum age is 108 years and difference
A.35 between maximum age and the minimum age is 27
B.42 years. If fourteen teachers left the school with an
C.30 average age of 32.5 years and six new teachers
D.26 joined the school. Out of these six new teachers,
E. None of these the ages of each of 4 teachers are equal to the
Answer: A maximum age and each of two teacher’s age is
Let the number of passed students be x, equal to the minimum age of teacher. If the new
45*12 = 14x + (45 – x)*5
540 = 14x + 225 – 5x average becomes years, then find the number
540 – 225 = 9x of teachers initially?
9x = 315 A.32
x = 35 B.64
Total number of passed students = 35 C.68
D.67
E.None of these
Page 36 of 78
Answer: B N x 45 – 14 x 32.5 + 4 x 67.5 + 2 x 40.5 = (N-

Let, the total teachers in school initially be N.
14+6)
Let maximum age = a year
7(45N -455 +270 +81) = 347n – 2776
Minimum age = b year
315N -728 = 347N – 2776
32N = 2048
----------------(i)
-----------------(ii)
From (i) & (ii)
N= 64
2a = 135 year
a = 67.5 year
b = 40.5 year
Directions (16-20): Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions
The line graph given below shows the Total number of students studying from engineering and medical
colleges in various years.
Page 37 of 78
16) What is the average Number of students 18) In which year, total number of medical and
studying engineering colleges over all the years engineering students together is maximum?
together? A.2020
A.24800 B.2017
B.25800 C.2019
C.26800 D.2016
D.28500 E.2018
E.28400 Answer: C
Answer: B Total students in 2016 = 24000 +12800 = 36800
Average of engineering students= Total students in 2017 = 28000+32000 = 60000
Total students in 2018 = 22000+26000 = 48000
17) What is the difference between the number of In 2019, number of students is maximum i.e 67500
students studying medical college in 2016 & 2018

together to number of students studying 19) Find the ratio of difference between the
engineering college in 2017 & 2020 together? engineering & medical students in 2018 to the
A.14020 difference between the engineering & medical
B.12040 students in 2016.
C.12400 A.5:14
D.14200 B.5:11
E.14300 C.5:9
Answer: D D.10: 23
Number of medical students in 2016&2018 = E.10:27
12800+26000 = 38800 Answer: A
Number of engineering students in 2017&2020 = Difference between the number of engineering &
28000 +25000 = 53000 medical students in the year 2018
Required difference = 53000 – 38800 = 14200 = 26000 – 22000
Page 38 of 78
= 4000 then find the total students studying medical and

Difference between the number of engineering & engineering in 2021.
medical students in the year 2016 A.48000
= 24000 – 12800 B.72000
= 11200 C.75000
Required ratio is 4000 : 11200 i.e 5:14 D.45000
E.None of these
20) If the number of students studying engineering Answer: E
in 2021 is 20% more than the number of students Number of engineering students in 2021 = 120% of
studying medical in 2019 and also the number of 37500 = 45000
students studying medical in 2021 is 25% less than Number of medical students in 2021 = 75% of
number of students studying engineering in 2016, 24000 = 18000
Directions (21-25): Read the following Line graph carefully and answer the following questions based on
given information.
The line graph given below shows the number of matches played by four players of Indian Cricket Team in
year 2019.
Total matches played by a player = T-20 + One day + Test
Page 39 of 78
21) If total number of matches played by Ravindra 22) If Ravindra Jadeja Played 36.36% of T-20
Jadeja against South Africa is 41, and Rest matches, Ajinkya Rahane played 35% of Test
matches played by him is against West Indies and Matches, Vijay Shankar played 10/19 of T-20
England in the ratio of 4:3 respectively. Find the matches and Ambati Rayadu played 55% of one
matches played by Ravindra Jadeja against day matches against Australia, then find the total
England? number of Matches played by all the players
A.121 against Australia?
B.148 A.249
C.111 B.259
D.131 C.239
E.None of these
Directions (21-25): Answer: A
T-20 played by Ravindra Jadeja against Australia =
4/11 x 132 = 48
Test matches by Ajinkya Rahane against Australia
= 35% of 120= 42
T-20 matches played by Vijay Shankar against
Australia = 10/19 x 114 = 60
One day matches played by Ambati Rayadu against
Australia = 55% of 180 = 99
Total matches played against Australia = (48 + 42 +
60 + 99) = 249
Answer: C
Total matches played by Ravindra Jadeja = 300
23) If the difference between the average of T-20
Matches played against West Indies and England =
matches played by all players together and average
300 – 41 = 259
of one day matches together by all players is how
Matches played against England = 3/7 x 259 = 111
Page 40 of 78
much % less or more than the total number of test

matches played by all players together? 25) Find the respective ratio of total number of
A.10% less Matches played by Vijay Shankar and Ambati
B.90% less Rayadu together to total matches played by all
C.70% less players together?
D.30% less A.2:1
E.None of these B.3:8
Answer: B C.4:9
Average of T-20 matches = 542/4 = 135.5 D.7:12
Average of One day matches = 406/4 = 101.5 E.None of these
Difference of averages = 135.5 – 101.5 = 34 Answer: E
Required % change = (340 – 34)/340 x 100 = 90% Total required matches played by Vijay Shankar
less and Ambati Rayadu together = 248 + 396 = 644
Total matches played by all players together = 1288
24) Total one day and test matches together played Required ratio = 644: 1288 = 1:2
by Ajinkya Rahane is how much % of the total T-20
and one day matches played by Ambati Rayadu? Directions (26-30): Study the following information
A.56.75% carefully and answer the questions given below.
B.56.25% The following line graph shows the number of
C.58.25% peoples read various newspapers from different
D.58.75% states.
E.None of these
Answer: D
Total required matches of Ajinkya Rahane = 68 +
120 = 188
Total required matches by Ambati Rayadu = 140 +
180 = 320
Required % = (188/320) x 100 = 58.75%
Page 41 of 78
No. of peoples read newspaper in AP =

440+510+560 = 1510
In Gujarat as well as HP, the no. of newspapers
readers’ is minimum.
27) Find the difference between the number of

peoples read Hindu & Indian Express in UP is what
percentage of the difference between number of
peoples read the same in Gujarat?
A.111.11%
B.125%
C.110%
26) In which state, the total number of peoples read
D.120%
newspaper is minimum?
E.133.33%
A.HP
Answer: C
B.Gujarat
C.AP
Required percentage = ×100 = 110%
D.Both a and b
E.Both a and c
28) Find the average number of peoples read
Answer: D
Indian express newspaper?
No. of peoples read newspaper in Gujarat =
A.478
450+250+700= 1400
B.468
No. of peoples read newspaper in MP =
C.488
430+600+840 = 1870
D.498
No. of peoples read newspaper in HP =
E.458
660+400+340 = 1400
Answer: A
No. of peoples read newspaper in UP =
Total number of peoples read Indian express
850+630+550 = 2030
= 250+600+400+630+510 = 2390
Page 42 of 78
C.151: 147
Required average = =478 D.149:153

E.147:153
29) What is the difference between total persons 30) Answer: B
read Hindu newspaper from all the states together Total persons read Indian express newspaper from
and total persons read other newspapers from all MP, HP, AP
the states together? = 600+400+510
A.130 =1510
B.170 Total persons read Hindu newspaper from MP, HP,
C.150 AP
D.140 = 430+660+440
E.160 = 1530
Answer: E Required ratio 1510: 1530
Total persons read Hindu newspaper from all the i.e., 151:153
states together
= 450+430+660+850+440 Directions (31-35): Study the following information
=2830 carefully and answer the questions given below.
Total persons read other newspaper from all the The following line graph shows the percentage of
states together aspirants appearing in SBI PO pre examination
= 700+840+340+550+560 from different zones in two successive years. The
= 2990 total number of aspirants appearing in 2016 and
Required difference = 2990 – 2830 =160 2017 was 4 lakh and 4.5 lakh respectively.
30) Find the ratio of number of peoples read Indian

express from MP, HP, AP to the number of peoples
read Hindu from the same states together?
A.151:149
B.151:153
Page 43 of 78
32) For which of the following zones, the difference

between the number of aspirants appearing in 2016
and 2017 is maximum?
A.East Zone
B.West Zone
C.Central Zone
D.North East zone
E.None of these
32) Answer: A
We take only % value for calculation.
Difference in East zone = 18 x 4.5 – 4 x 10
31) If 12% of the number of aspirants qualify from = 81 – 40 = 41
central zone in 2016 for the mains exam, then the Difference in West zone = 15 x 4 – 4.5 x 10
total number of qualified aspirants from central = 60 – 45 = 15
zone is approximately what percent of the total Difference in Northeast zone = 4.5 x 8 – 4 x 5
number of appeared aspirants in that year? = 36 – 20 = 16
A.4% Difference in North zone = 20 x 4.5 – 30 x 4
B.5% =120 – 90 = 30
C.3% Difference in South zone = 15 x 4.5 -20 x 4
D.1% = 80 – 67.5 = 12.5
E.None of these Difference in central zone = 16 x 4.5 -10 x 4
Answer: D = 72 –40 = 32
Required percentage
33) What is the difference between the total number

of aspirants who appear from East zone in 2017
=
and the number of aspirants who appear from North
zone in 2016 in the exam?
= 1.2% =1% A.39000
Page 44 of 78
B.43000 = 48700
C.40000
D.45000 35) What is the percentage increase in the number
E.None of these of aspirants in the exam from the Central Zone in
33) Answer: A 2017 in comparison to the previous year from the
Required Difference same zone?
A.60%
B.75%
=
C.80%
= 120000 – 81000
D.95%
= 39000
E.None of these
Answer: C
34) What is the average number of aspirants who
Required percentage increase
appear from East, West and Central Zone together
in 2016 and Northeast and South Zone together in
2017?
=
A.47800
B.48700
C.45700
D.47500
E.None of these
= 80%
Answer: B
Directions (36-43): What value should come in the

36) 2390 + 3213 - ? =4901 - √2704
A.754
B.732
C.769
Page 45 of 78
D.742 A.128
E.778 B.130
Answer: A C.138
2390 + 3213 - ? =4901 - √2704 D.140
5603 - ?=4901 – 52 E.None of these
?=754 Answer: A
58% of 850 + ? = 1224 – 603
37) 2189 + 892 – 1207 - ? =210 % of 820 + √1444 * ? = 1224 – 603 – (58/100) × 850 = 621 – 493 = 128
4
A.0 40) 3/8 of 168 x 15 ÷ 5 + ? = 549 ÷ 9 + 235
B.4 A.189
C.2 B.107
D.1 C.174
E.-4 D.296
E.326
38) 57 * 45 + 58 *41 + 26 * 61 =? * 12+1 Answer: B
A.544 3/8 of 168 x 15 ÷ 5 + ? = 549 ÷ 9 + 235
B. 539 = 3/8 x 168 x15 x 1/5 + ? = 549 x 1/9 + 235
C.538 = 3 x 21 x 3 + ? = 61 + 235
D.551 = 296 – 189 = 107
E.540
Answer: A 41) 1189 - 1079 - 9589 + 3986 + 8924 - 4627 +
? * 12= 57 * 45+58 * 41 +26 * 61-1 6683 - 3195 = ?
? * 12 = 2565 + 2378 + 1586 - 1 A. 2122
? * 12 = 6528 B.1682
? = 6528/12 = 544 C. 2292
D.3452
39) 58% of 850 + ?= 1224 —603 E.2402
Page 46 of 78
Answer: C Directions (44-50): What approximate value should

? = (1189+3986+8924+6683) - come in the place of (?) in the following questions?
(1079+9589+4627+3195) 44) ? + (6.02)3 - 29.03 * 7.980 = 1.998 * 1.998
= 20782 - 18490 = 2292 A.30
B.20
42) 3/8 of 4/9 of 1092 + 4/13 of 5/7 of 2002 = ? C.40
A. 258 D.10
B.702 E.50
C.564
D.622 45) 840.98 ÷ 28.99 +? = 112.08
E.440 A.73
Answer: D B.83
= 3/8 * 4/9 * 1092 + 4/13 * 5/7 * 2002 C.53
= 182 + 440 = 622 D.63
E.43
43) √1849 + ? = 8(2/3) * √2304
A.373 46) (625)1/4 of (15.92)2 ÷ 2.12 + 302= ?
B.376 A.1100
C.378 B.1300
D. 381 C.1500
E.385 D.1700
Answer: A E.1800
√1849 + ? = 8(2/3) * √2304 Answer: C
43 + ? = 26/3 * 48 (625)1/4 of (15.92)2 ÷ 2.12 + 302= ?
43 + ? = 416 => 5 * 162 ÷ 2 + 900 = ?
? = 373 => 1280 ÷ 2 + 900 = ?
=> 1540
Page 47 of 78
47) 4134.12 ÷ 12.856 ÷? = 32.12 49) 16.99 * 24.908 - 239.899 + ? ÷ √1681.09 =

A.1 194.06
B.10 A.330
C.20 B.350
D.50 C.370
E.45 D.390
Answer: B E.None of these
4134.12 ÷ 12.856 ÷? = 32.12 Answer: C
=> 4134 ÷ 13 ÷? = 32 425 – 240 + ?/41 = 194
=> 318 ÷ ? = 32 370 =?
=> 318/32 = ?
=> 9.93 =? 50) 630.01 ÷ 18 * 27.27 = ? * 6.98
=>? ≈ 10 A.108
B.116
48) 4443.999 ÷ 40.007 = ? – 80.12 * 2.1 C.130
A.100 D.140
B.200 E.135
C.270 Answer: E
D.400 630.01 ÷ 18 * 27.27 = ? * 6.98
E.350 35 * 27 = ? * 7
Answer: C ? = 135
4443.999 ÷ 40.007 = ? – 80.12 * 2.1
=> 4444 ÷ 40 = ? – 80 * 2 Directions (50-55): What value should come in
=> 111 + 160 = ? place of (?) in the following number series?
=>?= 271 51) 160, 149, 135, 118, 98, ?
=> ? ≈ 270 A.45
B.75
C.55
Page 48 of 78
D.65 Answer: E
E.85 5 + (1 * 2) = 7
Answer: B 7 + (2 * 3) = 13
160 – 11 = 149 13 + (3 * 4) = 25
149 – 14 = 135 25 + (4 * 5) = 45
135 – 17 = 118 45 + (5 * 6) = 75
118 – 20 = 98
98 – 23 = 75 54) 18, 19, 28, 53,?, 183
A.100
52) 13, 37, 65, 95, 125, ? B.102
A.108 C.104
B.115 D.106
C.153 E.108
D.134 Answer: B
E.129 18 + 12 = 19
Answer: C 19 + 32 = 28
13 + (3 * 8) = 37 28 + 52 = 53
37 + (4 * 7) = 65 53 + 72 = 102
65 + (5 * 6) = 95 102 + 92 = 183
95 + (6 * 5) = 125
125 + (7 * 4) = 153 55) 11, 12, 26, ?, 328, 1645
A.41
53) 5, 7, 13, 25, 45, ? B.29
A.60 C.51
B.72 D.81
C.68 E.102
D.78 Answer: D
E.75 11 * 1 + 1 = 12
Page 49 of 78
12 * 2 + 2 = 26 32 + 33 = 36
26 * 3 + 3 = 81 42 + 43 = 80
81 * 4 + 4 = 328 52 + 53 = 150
328 * 5 + 5 = 1645
58) 112, 150, 356, 685, 1094, 1552, 2035
Directions (56-60): Find the wrong term in the A.1552
following number of series? B.2035
56) 14, 8, 14, 37, 137 C.685
A.14 D.356
B.137 E.1094
C.37 Answer: D
D.8
E.None of these
Answer: C
14 * 0.5 + 1 = 8
The difference of difference is, 132, 112, 92, 72,
8 * 1.5 +2 =14
52,….
14 * 2.5 +3 = 38
The wrong term is, 356
38 * 3.5 +4 =137
59) 15, 17, 37, 115, 467, 2331

57) 2, 12, 36, 80, 160
A.115
A.80
B.2331
B.36
C.467
C.160
D.37
D.2
E.17
E.None of these
Answer: C
Answer: C
15 * 1 + 2 = 17
12 + 1 3 = 2
17 * 2 + 3 = 37
22 + 23 = 12
Page 50 of 78
37 * 3 + 4 = 115 D.If x ≥ y
115 * 4 + 5 = 465 E.If relationship between x and y cannot be
465 * 5 + 6 = 2331 determined
The wrong term is, 467 Answer: E
From I =>x2 + 2x – 15 = 0
60) 52, 53, 114, 370, 1540, 7825 =>x(x + 5) – 3(x + 5) = 0
A.7825 => (x – 3) (x + 5) = 0
B.370 => x = 3, -5
C.1540 From II =>y2 + 8x + 15 = 0
D.53 => (y + 3) (y + 5) = 0
E.114 => y = -3, -5
Answer: B Hence, relationship between x and y cannot be
52 * 1 + 13 = 53 determined.
53 * 2 + 23 = 114
114 * 3 + 33 = 369 62)
369 * 4 + 43 = 1540 I: 3x2 + 2x - 1 = 0
1540 * 5 + 53 = 7825 II: y2 + 4y + 4 = 0
The wrong term is, 370 A.If x < y
B.If x > y
Directions (61-75): In the following questions, two C.If x ≤ y
equations I and II are given. You have to solve both D.If x ≥ y
the equations and give answer E.If relationship between x and y cannot be
61) determined
I: x2 + 2x – 15 = 0 Answer: B
II: y2 + 8x + 15 = 0 From I =>
A.If x < y 3x2 + 2x - 1 = 0
B.If x > y => 3x(x + 1) – (x + 1) = 0
C.If x ≤ y => (3x – 1) (x + 1) = 0
Page 51 of 78
=> x = 1/3, -1 64)

From II => I). x2 = 196
y2 + 4y + 4 = 0 II). y2 + 2y – 48 = 0
=>y(y + 2) +2(y +2) = 0 A.If x < y
=> (y + 2)2 = 0 B.If x > y
=> y = -2 C.If x ≤ y
Hence, x > y D.If x ≥ y
63) determined
I: x2 – 18x + 81 = 0 Answer: E
II: y2 – 9y + 20 = 0 I). x² = 196
A.If x < y => x = +14 , - 14
B.If x > y II). y2 + 2y – 48 = 0
C.If x ≤ y => y2 + 8y - 6y – 48 = 0
D.If x ≥ y => y (y + 8) - 6(y + 8) = 0
E.If relationship between x and y cannot be => (y – 6)(y + 8) = 0
determined => y = 6, -8
Answer: B Hence, relationship between x and y cannot be
From I => determined
x2 – 18x + 81 = 0
=> (x – 9)2 = 0 65)
=> x = 9 I) x2 + 520 = 641
From II => II) y = -√144
y2 – 9y + 20 = 0 A.If x = y or no relation can be established between
=> (y – 5) (y – 4) = 0 x and y
=> y = 5, 4 B.If x ≥ y
Hence, x > y C.If x < y
D.If x ≤ y
Page 52 of 78
E.If x > y Hence, x ≥ y

Answer: E 67)
I) x2 + 520 = 641 I) x2 + 9x + 20 = 0
x2 = 641 – 520 = 121 II) y2 + 13y + 42 = 0
x = 11, -11 A.x > y
II) y = -√144 B.x ≥ y
y= -12 C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
x>y D.x < y
E.x ≤ y
66) Answer: A
I) x2 – 22x – 48 = 0 x2 + 9x + 20 = 0
II) y2 + 21y + 38 = 0 x2 + 4x + 5x + 20 = 0
A.x > y x(x + 4) + 5(X + 4) = 0
B.x ≥ y (x + 5)(x + 4) = 0
C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined. x = -5, -4
D.x < y y2 + 13y + 42 = 0
E.x ≤ y y2 + 6y + 7y + 42 = 0
Answer: B y(y + 6) + 7(y + 6) = 0
x2 – 22x – 48 = 0 (y + 7)(y + 6) = 0
x2 – 24x + 2x – 48 = 0 y = -7, -6
x(x – 24) + 2(x – 24) = 0 x>y
(x + 2)(x – 24) = 0
x = -2, 24 68)
y2 + 21y + 38 = 0 I) x2 + 32x – 144 = 0
y2 + 19y + 2y + 38 = 0 II) y2 – 31y + 108 = 0
y(y + 19) + 2(y + 19) = 0 A.x > y
(y + 2)(y + 19) = 0 B.x ≥ y
y = -2, -19 C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined
Page 53 of 78
D.x < y x = 8, 9
E.x ≤ y y2 – 3y – 40 = 0
Answer: E y2 – 8y + 5y – 40 = 0
x2 + 32x – 144 = 0 y(y – 8) + 5(y – 8) = 0
x2 + 36x – 4x – 144 = 0 (y + 5)(y – 8) = 0
x(x + 36) – 4(x + 36) = 0 y = -5, 8
(x – 4)(x + 36) = 0 Hence, x ≥ y
x = 4, -36
y2 – 31y + 108 = 0 70)
y2 – 27y – 4y + 108 = 0 I) x2 – 9x – 360 = 0
y(y – 27) – 4(y – 27) = 0 II) y2 – 16y – 192 = 0
(y – 4)(y – 27) = 0 A.x > y
y = 4, 27 B.x ≥ y
x≤y C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
D.x < y
69) E.x ≤ y
I) x2 – 17x + 72 = 0 Answer: C
II) y2 – 3y – 40 = 0 x2 – 9x – 360 = 0
A.x > y x2 – 24x + 15x – 360 = 0
B.x ≥ y x(x – 24) + 15(x – 24) = 0
C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined. (x + 15)(x – 24) = 0
D.x < y x = - 15, 24
E.x ≤ y y2 – 16y – 192 = 0
Answer: B y2 – 24y + 8y – 192 = 0
x2 – 17x + 72 = 0 y(y – 24) + 8(y – 24) = 0
x2 – 8x - 9x + 72 = 0 (y – 24)(y + 8) = 0
x(x – 8) – 9(x – 8) = 0 y = 24, -8
(x – 9)(x – 8) = 0
Page 54 of 78
Relationship between x and y cannot be B.x ≥ y

established. C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
71) D.x < y
I) x2 – 32x + 240 = 0 E.x ≤ y
II) y2 – 27y + 180 = 0 Answer: B
A.x > y x2 – 7x + 12 = 0
B.x ≥ y x2 – 4x – 3x + 12 = 0
C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined. x(x – 4) – 3(x – 4) = 0
D.x < y (x – 4)(x – 3) = 0
E.x ≤ y x = 4, 3
Answer: C y2 + 4y – 21 = 0
x2 – 32x + 240 = 0 y2 + 7y – 3y – 21 = 0
x2 – 20x – 12x + 240 = 0 y(y + 7) – 3(y + 7) = 0
x(x – 20) – 12(x – 20) = 0 (y – 3)(y + 7) = 0
(x – 20)(x – 12) = 0 y = 3, -7
x = 20, 12 x≥y
y2 – 27y + 180 = 0
y2 – 15y – 12y + 180 = 0 73)
y(y – 15) – 12(y – 15) = 0 I) x2 + 266 = 410
(y – 12)(y – 15) = 0 II) 2y = 28
y = 12, 15 A.x > y
Relationship between x and y cannot be B.x ≥ y
established. C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
D.x < y
72) E.x ≤ y
I) x2 – 7x + 12 = 0 Answer: D
II) y2 + 4y – 21 = 0 x2 + 266 = 410
A.x > y x2 = 144
Page 55 of 78
x = 12, -12
2y = 28 75)
y = 14 I) x2 – 19x + 34 = 0
x<y II) y2 + 21y - 46 =0
A.x > y
74) B.x ≥ y
I) x2 - 10x - 119 = 0 C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
II) y2 - y - 42 = 0 D.x < y
A.x > y E.x ≤ y
B.x ≥ y Answer: B
C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined. x2 – 19x + 34 = 0
D.x < y x2 – 17x – 2x + 34 = 0
E.x ≤ y x(x – 17) – 2(x – 17) = 0
Answer: C (x – 2)(x – 17) = 0
x2 - 10x - 119 = 0 x = 2, 17
x2 – 17x + 7x – 119 = 0 y2 + 21y - 46 =0
x(x – 17) + 7(x – 17) = 0 y2 + 23y – 2y – 46 = 0
(x + 7)(x – 17) = 0 y(y + 23) – 2(y + 23) = 0
x = -7, 17 (y – 2)(y + 23) = 0
y2 - y - 42 = 0 y = 2, -23
y2 – 7y + 6y – 42 = 0 x≥y
y(y – 7) + 6(y – 7) = 0
(y + 6)(y – 7) = 0
y = -6, 7
established.
Page 56 of 78
English Language
Directions (1-6): In the following passage there are Australia over trade bans, aggression against
blanks, each of which has been numbered. These Japan in the Senkaku islands and even the PLA’s
numbers are printed below the passage and (5)__________ over the LAC, which China considers
against each, five options are given, four of which bilateral issues. Mr. Blinken prefaced the Alaska
have two words written against it. Find out the meet with visits to Seoul and Tokyo where he
appropriate set of words which fits the blank promised an American “pushback” to China, and he
appropriately. Both the words given in the option goes into the talks with the backing of the recent
must fit in the blank to make a grammatically and summit-level Quad conversations, with a
contextually correct sentence. (6)________ to ensuring a free Indo-Pacific. For its
As top diplomats from the U.S. and China begin part, China is seeking a reversal of Trump-era
their meeting in Alaska, there is no question that policies, and structured dialogue to take forward
their conversation will be a difficult one. The ties from the point they have reached, arguably
meeting, between U.S. Secretary of State Antony their lowest since the Nixon era. In particular, China
Blinken and Yang Jiechi, CCP Politburo member wants an end to the U.S.’s trade sanctions,
and Director, Central Foreign Affairs Commission, restrictions on American firms manufacturing in
(1)_________ by U.S. NSA Jake Sullivan and China and visa bans, and a reopening of its
Chinese Foreign Minister and State Councillor consulate in Houston.
Wang Yi, comes on the back of tensions that 1. Which of the following words could fit in the blank
(2)________ during the Trump administration around numbered (1)?
trade tariffs, 5G telecommunication, tech (a) Abandoned, Assured
espionage, Chinese maritime actions and U.S. (b) Accompanied, Assisted
sanctions on China, and further (3)________ over (c) Amended, Averted
the pandemic, which Mr. Trump called the “China (d) Allowed, Asserted
virus”. Biden administration officials have said that (e) None of these.
they will bring up China’s crackdown in Xinjiang and 1. Answer: B
Hong Kong, Chinese (4)_________ against U.S. The given paragraph has elaborated the upcoming
allies and partners, in particular pressure on meeting between the American and Chinese
Page 57 of 78
diplomats. The part of the sentence preceding the Embolden- give (someone) the courage or
first blank mentions the delegates who will be the confidence to do something.
part of the meeting. Here, both ‘accompanied’ and
‘assisted’ can fit in the given blank. Hence, option 3. Which of the following words could fit in the blank
(b) is the most suitable answer choice. numbered (3)?
Accompany- go somewhere with (someone) as a (a) Attracted, projected
companion or escort. (b) Established, Originated
Assist- be present as a helper. (c) Exacerbated, Aggravated
Averted- prevent or ward off (an undesirable (d) Pretended, Refused
occurrence). (e) None of these.
3. Answer: C
2. Which of the following words could fit in the blank The sentence provides the hint that the blank will be
numbered (2)? filled in with the word that could indicate the
(a) Spiralled, Rocketed worsening of the relations between the countries
(b) Increased, Embolden due to terming the Coronavirus led pandemic as
(c) Encouraged, Dejected ‘China virus’. This has undeniably further distressed
(d) Strengthened, Prevented the situation. Among the given set of words,
(e) None of these. ‘exacerbated’ and ‘aggravated’ can fit in the given
2. Answer: A blank. Hence, option (c) is the most suitable answer
Here, the blank must be filled in a word that could choice.
indicate heightened tensions between the two Exacerbated- make (a problem, bad situation, or
countries under the Presidency of Trump. Among negative feeling) worse.
the given set of words, ‘spiraled’ and ‘rocketed’ can Aggravated- make (a problem, injury, or offence)
fit in the given blank. Hence, option (a) is the most worse or more serious.
suitable answer choice.
Spiraled- show a continuous and dramatic increase. 4. Which of the following words could fit in the blank
Rocketed- increase very rapidly and suddenly. numbered (4)?
(a) Project, Aggressive
Page 58 of 78
(b) Aggression, Hostility Attack- takes aggressive military action against (a

(c) Violence, Termination place or enemy forces) with weapons or armed
(d) Disregard, Violent force.
(e) None of these. Empathy- the ability to understand and share the
4. Answer: B feelings of another.
Among the given set of words, ‘aggression’ and Annihilation- complete destruction or obliteration.
‘hostility’ can fit in the given blank. Hence, option (b) Assertion- a confident and forceful statement of fact
is the most suitable answer choice. or belief.
Aggression- feelings of anger or antipathy resulting Pronouncement- a formal or authoritative
in hostile or violent behavior;readiness to attack or announcement or declaration.
confront.
Hostility- acts of warfare. 6. Which of the following words could fit in the blank
Termination- the action of terminating something or numbered (6)?
the fact of being terminated. (a) Substitution, Arrogance
(b) Distraction, Refusal
5. Which of the following words could fit in the blank (c) Commitment, Affirmation
numbered (5)? (d) Consolidation, Commemoration
(a) Kindness, Empathy (e) None of these.
(b) Annihilation, Negligence 6. Answer: C
(c) Assertion, Pronouncement Among the given set of words, ‘commitment’ and
(d) Incursions, Attacks ‘affirmation’ can fit in the given blank. Hence, option
(e) None of these. (c) is the most suitable answer choice.
5. Answer: D Commitment- an engagement or obligation that
Among the given set of words, ‘incursions’ and restricts freedom of action.
‘attacks’ can fit in the given blank. Hence, option (d) Affirmation- the action or process of affirming
is the most suitable answer choice. something.
Incursions- an invasion or attack, especially a Commemoration- the action or fact of
sudden or brief one. commemorating a dead person or past event.
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Consolidation- the action or process of making

something stronger or more solid. 8. The insulation of the Philippines becoming the
Substitution- the action of replacing someone or first country to import the BrahMos would be wide-
something with another person or thing. ranging and consequential in the Indo-Pacific.
(a) Institutions
Directions (7-11): In each of the questions given (b) Implications
below, a word has been highlighted which may be (c) Illustration
incorrect in context of the given sentence. In the (d) Imminent
options following the statement, possible (e) No replacement is required.
replacements for the highlighted words have been 8. Answer: B
suggested. Identify the most suitable word to Among the given set of words, ‘implications’ can
replace the highlighted word. successfully replace ‘insulation’ to make the
7. The vast majority of governments that have ever statement grammatically correct and meaningful.
evicted have enjoyed essentially unfettered power Insulation- the action of insulating something.
over their subjects. Implications- the conclusion that can be drawn from
(a) Envisioned something although it is not explicitly stated.
(b) Vision Imminent- about to happen.
(c) Victimized
(d) Existed 9. The Government of India has petrified making
(e) No replacement is required. the country ‘Atmanirbhar’ in the defence
7. Answer: D manufacturing sector and establishing itself as a
Among the given set of words, ‘existed’ can major defence exporter.
successfully replace ‘evicted’ to make the statement (a) Prioritised
grammatically correct and meaningful. (b) Propose
Evicted- expel (someone) from a property, (c) Impended
especially with the support of the law. (d) Resolved
Existed- occur or be found, especially in a particular (e) No replacement is required.
place or situation. 9. Answer: A
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Among the given set of words, ‘Prioritized’ can 11. History is replicated with instances of vaccines
successfully replace ‘Petrified’ to make the that have been taken off even years after approval
statement grammatically correct and meaningful. after a slight increase in untoward complications.
Here, ‘propose’ will not replace the highlighted (a) Referred
words as the statement is in past tense and (b) Rudiment
therefore only the verb given in past tense can (c) Recalled
replace the highlighted word. (d) Replete
Petrified- make (someone) so frightened that they (e) No replacement is required.
are unable to move. 11. Answer: D
Prioritized- designate or treat (something) as being Among the given set of words, ‘Replete’ can
very or most important. successfully replace ‘Replicate’ to make the
statement grammatically correct and meaningful.
10. A little over 392 million doses of vaccine have Replicate- make an exact copy of; reproduce.
been administered globally, according to the Replete- filled or well-supplied with something.
Bloomberg Vaccine Tracker, with India accounting Rudiment- the first principles of (a subject).
for around 9% of them.
(a) Allocated Directions (12-15): In each of the questions given
(b) Allotted below, several phrases have been given which are
(c) Assigned jumbled. One of the phrases may not fit in to form a
(d) Arrived grammatically correct and meaningful sentence.
(e) No replacement is required. Identify the most suitable rearrangement of the
10. Answer: E remaining parts given in the question.
The given highlighted word is correct in context of 12. efficiency or reduces associated risks (A)/ cited
the given sentence and does not require any as the reason for privatization, it is not (B)/ while
improvements. Hence, option (e) is the most improving efficiency has been (C)/ clear whether
suitable answer choice. privatization brings (D)/ private enterprises are the
epitome of efficiency (E)
(a) BEDA
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(b) CBDA The given sentence is in context of a Nobel laureate

(c) AEBD who ignored the sufferings of a community and is
(d) DCAE now under house arrest. Among the given set of
(e) No rearrangement is possible. phrases, (C) does not fit in after rearrangement.
12. Answer: B The correct rearrangement of the phrases will be
The given phrases are in context of the reasons BAED.
cited for privatization. Although all the phrases fall The correct statement thus formed will be:
under similar context, on rearranging the, (E) does It is ironic that 30 years later, the Nobel laureate,
not fit in after rearrangement. The correct who turned a blind eye to the suffering of the
rearrangement of the phrases will be CBDA. Rohingya Muslims in her country, is now back
The correct statement thus formed will be: under house arrest imposed by the military junta in
While improving efficiency has been cited as the Myanmar.
reason for privatization, it is not clear whether
privatization brings efficiency or reduces associated 14. central bank hunkers down to inflation targeting
risks. (A)/ PNB and YES Bank suggest that poor
management and malfeasance (B)/ NPAs have
13. who turned a blind eye to the suffering of the grown since 2016, and the cases of IL&FS, PMC
(A)/ it is ironical that 30 years later, the Nobel Bank, (C) / long been recognised that a central
laureate, (B)/ several weeks of non-violent bank focusing on inflation (D) / in the financial
demonstrations (C)/ under house arrest imposed by sector could escape scrutiny when the (E)
the military junta in Myanmar (D)/ Rohingya (a) BAEC
Muslims in her country, is now back (E) (b) BCDA
(a) DBAE (c) CBEA
(b) DAEB (d) CABD
(c) BAED (e) BCAD
(d) BCAD 14. Answer: C
(e) DCEB
13. Answer: C
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Among the given set of phrases, (D) does not fit in earned by the government’s zealous attention to
after rearrangement. The correct rearrangement of allaying concerns.
the phrases will be CBEA.
The correct statement thus formed will be: Directions (16-20): In each of the questions below,
NPAs have grown since 2016, and the cases of there is a word given in bold which is followed by
IL&FS, PMC Bank, PNB and YES Bank suggest five options. In each of the options, a pair of words
that poor management and malfeasance in the is given which are either the pair of synonyms or
financial sector could escape scrutiny when the antonyms or synonym & antonym of the word given
central bank hunkers down to inflation targeting. in bold. Choose that pair as your answer.
Q16. DISMANTLE
Q15. evidenced by the approval of vaccines (A) / (a) Construct, Assign
vaccination programmes and this can be (B)/ only (b) Disassemble, Rally
earned by the government’s (C)/ public trust is a (c) Muster, Exaggerate
key ingredient to successful (D) zealous attention (d) Destroy, Anticipate
to allaying concerns (E) (e) None of these.
(a) DBCE 16. Answer: B
(b) DCAB Among the given set of words, ‘disassemble’ is
(c) CEBD synonymous with ‘dismantle’ whereas ‘rally’ is its
(d) CDBA antonym. Hence, option (b) is the most suitable
(e) No rearrangement is possible. answer choice.
15. Answer: A Dismantle- take (a machine or structure) to pieces.
Among the given set of phrases, (A) does not fit in Disassemble- take (something) to pieces.
after rearrangement. The correct rearrangement of Rally- bring or come together in order to support a
the phrases will be DBCE. person or cause.
The correct statement thus formed will be: Anticipate- regard as probable; expect or predict.
Public trust is a key ingredient to successful
vaccination programmes and this can be only 17. PROSPER
(a) Collapse, Recognise
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(b) Fascinate, Respond Retain- continue to have (something); keep

(c) Thrive, Attain possession of.
(d) Subside, Flourish Renounce- formally declares one's abandonment of
(e) None of these. (a claim, right, or possession).
17. Answer: D Perpetuate- make (something) continue indefinitely.
Among the given set of words, ‘subside’ is the Cede- give up (power or territory).
antonym of ‘prosper’ whereas ‘flourish’ is its
synonym. Hence, option (d) is the most suitable Q19. DEPRIVE
answer choice. (a) Provoke, Thrive
Prosper- flourish physically; grow strong and (b) Deceive, Suspend
healthy. (c) Delay, Advance
Subside- lapse into silence or inactivity. (d) Strip, Dispossess
Flourish- develops rapidly and successfully. (e) None of these.
19. Answer: D
18. RELINQUISH Among the given set of words, ‘strip’ and
(a) Cede, Postpone ‘dispossess’ are synonyms of ‘deprive’. Hence,
(b) Renounce, Retain option (d) is the most suitable answer choice.
(c) Perpetuate, Yield Deprive- prevent (a person or place) from having or
(d) Conserve, Reschedule using something.
(e) None of these. Strip- deprives someone of (rank, power, or
18. Answer: B property).
Among the given set of words, ‘retain’ is the Dispossess- deprive (someone) of land, property, or
antonym of ‘relinquish’ whereas ‘renounce’ is its other possessions.
synonym. Hence, option (d) is the most suitable
answer choice. 20. LIABILITY
Relinquish- voluntarily cease to keep or claim; give (a) Debt, Violent
up. (b) Aggressive, Accountability
(c) Asset, Advantage
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(d) Charming, Cordial Asset- a useful or valuable thing or person.

(e) None of these. Advantage- a condition or circumstance that puts
20. Answer: C one in a favorable or superior position.
Among the given set of words, ‘asset’ and Cordial- warm and friendly.
‘advantage’ are antonyms of ‘liability’. Hence, option
(c) is the most suitable answer choice.
Liability- a person or thing whose presence or
behavior is likely to put one at a disadvantage.
General Awareness
1. India has signed a pact with which country on Rajnath Singh and his Singaporean counterpart Ng Eng
submarine rescue support? Hen conveyed their full support towards early conclusion
A) Brunei of agreements to "facilitate conduct of live firings and to
B) Vietnam establish reciprocal arrangements for the cross-
C) Thailand attendance of military courses"

D) Singapore
E) Malaysia 2. Who among the following is all set to become the 1st
Answer: D woman fighter pilot to take part in the Republic Day
India and Singapore signed an implementing agreement parade?
on submarine rescue support and cooperation between A) Anila Aggarwal
their navies during the 5th Defence Minister’s Dialogue B) Bhawana Kanth
held over video conference, C) Radha Sharma
Both ministers were pleased to witness the signing of D) Neelima Rao
the implementing agreement on submarine rescue E) Deeksha Gupta

support and cooperation between the two navies. Answer: B
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Flight lieutenant Bhawana Kanth is set to become the In Gujarat, Chief Minister Vijay Rupani announced the
first woman fighter pilot to take part in the Republic Day ‘Horticulture Development Mission’ (Bagayat Vikas
parade. Mission).
She will be a part of the Indian Air Force's (IAF's) Aim : this mission is to double the income of farmers
tableau that will showcase mock-ups of the light combat involved in medicinal and horticulture farming.
aircraft, light combat helicopter and the Sukhoi-30 fighter Under this mission, the waste land of the government
plane. will be given on 30-year lease for farming of horticulture
She is currently posted at an airbase in Rajasthan where and medicinal crops.

she flies the MiG-21 Bison fighter plane. As per an estimate, the government has about 50,000
Kanth is also one of the first women fighter pilots in the non-cultivated land waste lands. The government
IAF. intends to convert this land into cultivation.

She, along with Avani Chaturvedi and Mohana Singh, A list of land blocks for land allotment in transparent
was inducted into the IAF as the first women fighter manner will be released on I-Khedut portal. The
pilots in 2016. government will also offer priority assistance to lease

Ten women have been commissioned as fighter pilots owners for drip-sprinkler fountains.
after an experimental scheme for their induction into the Surendranagar, Patan, Sabarkantha and Banaskantha
IAF’s combat stream was introduced in 2015. districts in the first phase.
India's 2021 Republic Day parade
4. Kerala has become the _____ State to complete ease

3. The Chief Minister of which state has announced the of doing business reforms.
‘Horticulture Development Mission’? A) 4th
A) Madhya Pradesh B) 5th

B) Chhattisgarh C) 6th
C) Uttar Pradesh D) 8th
D) Haryana E) 7th
E) Gujarat Answer: D
Answer: E
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Kerala has become the 8th State in the country to help customers of any bank get ‘ICICI Bank Forex
successfully undertake Ease of Doing Business reform Prepaid Card’ swiftly.
stipulated by the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of The bank is the first in the country to offer such a facility
Finance. to money changers.
The State has become eligible to mobilise additional The app enables the authorised money changers, who
financial resources of Rs.2,373 crore through Open are partners of the Bank, to complete the KYC
Market Borrowings. verification and validation of customers digitally and on a
Permission for the same was issued by the Department real-time basis.
of Expenditure, on 12th January 2021, The ‘InstaFX’ app will enable the authorised money
Kerala has now joined the seven other States namely, changers, who are partners of the Bank, to complete the
Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, KYC verification and validation of customers digitally and
Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, and Telangana, who have on a real-time basis.
completed this reform. On completion of reforms The ‘ICICI Bank Forex Prepaid Card’ gets activated
facilitating ease of doing business, these eight States swiftly within a few hours, as against the industry
have been granted additional borrowing permission of practice of up to two-days, thus it will significantly
Rs 23,149 crore. improve customer convenience, even if they are not
customers of ICICI bank.
5. Which Bank has launched the ‘InstaFX’ mobile app to
help customers obtain Forex Prepaid Card swiftly? 6. Which edition of the India Digital Summit was held
A) Bandhan recently?
B) HDFC A) 11th
C) ICICI B) 15th
D) SBI C) 14th
E) IDBI D) 13th
Answer: C E) 12th
ICICI Bank on January 20 launched a new mobile Answer: B
application ‘InstaFX’ for authorised money changers to
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15th The India Digital Summit, the flagship event of the NITI Aayog Additional Secretary Dr K. Rajeswara Rao in
Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI) is one a virtual event.
of the biggest conferences for the digital industry The target of open-defecation-free, India has now
scheduled on January 19 and 20, 2021. moved towards becoming ODF+ and ODF++
Honourable Union Minister for Communications, This book provides a timely repository of FSSM best
Electronics & IT and Law & Justice, Shri Ravi Shankar practices that can be adapted and replicated
Prasad, who is the chief guest, will deliver the inaugural appropriately across the country.
address at the Summit.

8. Meghalaya, Manipur & Tripura observe the Statehood
7. Which institution has recently released a report on Day on which date?
faecal sludge and septage management in urban areas? A) January 11

A) AIIB B) January 14
B) ADB C) January 15
C) World Bank D) January 21

D) IMF E) January 18
E) Niti Aayog Answer: D
Answer: E President, Vice President and Prime Minister have
NITI Aayog released a book on faecal sludge and greeted the people of Meghalaya, Manipur and Tripura
septage management in urban areas. on the occasion of their Statehood Day on January 21,
It is Jointly developed with National Faecal Sludge and 2021.
Septage Management (NFSSM) Alliance. President Ram Nath Kovind said, blessed with immense
The book presents 27 case studies across 10 states and natural beauty, rich history and vibrant culture, these
various service and business models adopted by Indian states are fascinating.
cities while implementing faecal sludge and septage He extended his warm wishes as they continue to move
management (FSSM) initiatives. ahead on the path of multi-faceted development.

The book was released by NITI Aayog CEO Mr Amitabh
Kant, MoHUA Secretary Mr Durga Shankar Mishra, and
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Prime Minister Narendra Modi said, the culture and This was announced at the launch of the Chief Minister
warm-hearted nature of the people of Tripura is admired Horticulture Development Mission.
across India. The Horticulture Development Mission, a new scheme to
The state has achieved outstanding progress in various promote horticulture in the State’s unproductive land
fields. parcels.
He said, India is proud of Manipur’s contribution to
national development. 10. The Chief minister of which state has launched the
Manipur is a powerhouse of innovation and sporting first online youth radio station?
talent. A) Bihar
Mr Modi said, Meghalaya is known for its remarkable B) Chhattisgarh
kindness and spirit of brotherhood. C) Uttar Pradesh

Youngsters from Meghalaya are creative and D) Haryana
enterprising. E) Himachal Pradesh
Answer: E
9. The government of which state will rename dragon Chief Minister Jai Ram Thakur launched Himachal
fruit as kamalam? Pradesh''s first online youth radio station ''Radio Hills-
A) Uttar Pradesh Youngistan Ka Dil.
B) Bihar The chief minister appreciated the efforts of the young
C) Maharashtra entrepreneurs and said the online radio station would go

D) Gujarat a long way in promoting culture and traditions of the
E) Haryana state besides providing an opportunity to the youth to
Answer: D exhibit their talents.

Gujarat Chief Minister Vijay Rupani has proposed to Deepika and Saurabh, co-founders of the online radio
rename dragon fruit as ‘Kamalam. station, informed Thakur that it would also be available
The dragon fruit has been renamed Kamalam because on Apple and Android mobile phones.
of the shape of the fruit.
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Developers of the online radio station Karan, Radio The mobile vehicles were purchased at a cost of Rs 539
Jockeys Palak, Rahul and Nidhi were also present on crore and these vehicles were provided by the
the occasion. government at 60% subsidy to eligible beneficiaries
The online radio would go a long way in promoting the through various corporations under the Employment
culture and traditions of the state, besides providing an Guarantee Scheme for unemployed youth.
opportunity to the youth to exhibit their talents. The value of each vehicle is Rs 5,81,000, of which Rs
3,48,600 was provided as subsidy from various
11. The Chief Minister of which state has flagged off Corporations and Civil Supplies Corporation.
Door to door Delivery Vehicles?
A) Kerala 12. Which bank has recently donated books to children?
B) Andhra Pradesh A) BOB

C) Haryana B) HDFC
D) Bihar C) PNB
E) Chhattisgarh D) SBI
Answer: B E) ICICI
In Andhra Pradesh, Chief Minister Y. S. Jagan Mohan Answer: C
Reddy flagged off Mobile Dispensing Units/ Door to door Punjab National Bank, one of the leading nationalized
Delivery Vehicles in Vijayawada. banks of the country, established in 1895, and
As many as 9,260 of such vehicles will supply ration with completed 126 years of banking service.
quality rice at the door steps of ration card beneficiaries On the occasion, the Bank’s Zonal Manager, Ashutosh
across the state. Choudhury, visited Vijayawada circle and participated in
The State Government has come forward with the door the Corporate Social Responsibility activities.
delivery programme with a view to supply quality rice An industrial jumbo air cooler was donated to Sri Durga
and also other essential commodities. Malleswara Swamy Devasthanam.
As promised in his Padayatra, Mr Reddy has taken up Bank officials distributed bags, uniforms, books and
this initiative to supply quality rice to the BPL people. pens to orphans and needy children at SKCV Children's
trust.
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The bank has also donated the Armed Forces Flag Fund She was sworn in by Supreme Court Justice Sonia
to the Directorate of Sainik Welfare Association, Sotomayor
Vijayawada.
Further, a customer meet of all local branches was 14. The Chief minister of which state has inaugurated
conducted and many customers were honoured. the state’s first child-friendly police station?
A) Chhattisgarh
13. Joe Biden has taken oath as ______ US President. B) Uttar Pradesh
A) 49th C) Madhya Pradesh

B) 48th D) Uttarakhand
C) 47th E) Bihar
D) 45th Answer: D
E) 46th Uttarakhand Chief Minister Trivendra Singh Rawat
Answer: E inaugurated the state's first child friendly police station
Joe Biden took oath as the 46th President of the United describing it as a major reformative step by the police.
States of America at a scaled-back ceremony in the US Purpose : It is a new initiative and a major reformative
Capitol building in Washington. step towards protection of children by the state police,
78 year old Biden has become the oldest US President Rawat said after inaugurating the Bal Mitra police station
and only the second Roman Catholic president. in Dalanwala area here.
Biden, who was vice president under Barack Obama The child friendly police unit has been set up in the
and first ran for president in 1987, plans to kick off his Dalanwala police station with a budget of about Rs five
tenure with a flurry of 17 orders. lakhs on the recommendation of the Child Protection
His deputy Kamala Harris was also sworn in as 49th Committee of Uttarakhand.
Vice-President of the country. According to the chairperson of State Commission for
Kamala Harris made history as America's first woman Protection of Child Rights (SCPCR) Usha Negi, the
and first person with south Asian roots to take the office children who are either victims or need proper
of the Vice President. counselling or visit police stations due to other reasons
should be provided with a comfortable and intimidating
Page 71 of 78
environment rather than keeping them in a dull and B) 2011

scary atmosphere. C) 2015
To keep children at ease, the walls are painted in bright D) 2013
colours and cartoons and the police personnel will also E) 2014
be dressed in casual clothes rather than their uniforms. Answer: E

The RBI state-owned SBI, along with private sector
15. Who among the following has inaugurated the new lenders ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank continue to be
4-lane Thaltej-Shilaj-Rancharda railway overbridge in Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) or

Ahmedabad? institutions which are 'too big to fail'.
A) Nitin Patel SBIs are subjected to higher levels of supervision so as
B) Venkiah Naidu to prevent disruption in financial services in the event of

C) Anurag Thakur any failure.
D) Amit Shah The Reserve Bank had issued the framework for dealing
E) Narendra Modi with D-SIBs in July 2014.

Answer: D SBI, ICICI Bank, and HDFC Bank continue to be
The Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah inaugurated identified as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-
the new 4-lane Thaltej-Shilaj-Rancharda railway SIBs), under the same bucketing structure as in the
overbridge, in Ahmedabad city of Gujarat through video 2018 list of D-SIBs.
conferencing from New Delhi. The D-SIB framework requires the central to disclose the
It has been built at a cost of Rs 55 crore. names of banks designated as D-SIBs starting from
Several dignitaries including Gujarat Deputy Chief 2015 and place these lenders in appropriate buckets
Minister Shri Nitin Patel were present at the programme depending upon their Systemic Importance Scores
(SISs).
16. SBI, ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank remain The additional Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1)
systemically important banks. RBI has issued the requirement for D-SIBs was phased-in from April 1, 2016
framework for dealing with D-SIB in which year? and became fully effective from April 1, 2019. The
A) 2012
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additional CET1 requirement will be in addition to the According to the bank's website, the joining and annual
capital conservation buffer. fee for the card is Rs749. The finance charges will be
SIBs are seen as 'too big to fail (TBTF)', creating 3.4% a month or 49.36% a year.
expectations of government support for them in times of
financial distress. These banks also enjoy certain 18. The Global Risks Report 2021, 16th Edition was
advantages in funding markets. recently released by which organization?
A) WB
17. Which of the following Bank has unveiled the Aura B) AIIB
Credit Card with health, wellness solutions? C) ADB
A) PNB D) IMF
B) Axis E) WEF
C) SBI Answer: E
D) ICICI Infectious diseases topped the global risks chart,
E) Bandhan displacing climate change, in a report by the World

Answer: B Economic Forum (WEF).
Axis Bank has unveiled a credit ‘AURA’ exclusively In the Global Risks Report 2021, we share the results of
loaded with several health and wellness benefits for its the latest Global Risks Perception Survey (GRPS),
users at an affordable price. followed by analysis of growing social, economic and
The bank has also tied up with Decathlon. As part of the industrial divisions, their interconnections, and their
welcome benefit, cardholders get a Decathlon voucher implications on our ability to resolve major global risks
of Rs750. requiring societal cohesion and global cooperation.
It also offers up to four free online interactive fitness The report is being released before WEF upcoming
sessions per month powered by Fitternity, a health and virtual Davos Agenda scheduled to be held between
fitness platform. Cardholders also get access to 16 January 25 to 29, 2021.
recorded training sessions per month and can choose The Main objective behind the publishing of the report is
from various sessions such as yoga and cross-functional to enable better preparation by Government & other
training programmes. International Communities during the times of crisis.
Page 73 of 78
such as manufacturing, healthcare, agriculture, and

19. MeITY has announced the establishment of a aerospace engineering.
Quantum Computing Applications Lab in India in The Union Budget 2020-21 had proposed to spend Rs.
collaboration with ______. 8000 crores on the National Mission on Quantum
A) HCL Technologies and Applications.

B) Deloitte
C) Wipro 20. National Tourism Day 2021 is celebrated on which
D) Amazon date?
E) Infosys A) January 11
Answer: D B) January 14
The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology C) January 15

(MeitY) has announced the establishment of a Quantum D) January 25
Computing Applications Lab in partnership with Amazon E) January 17
Web Services (AWS). Answer: D

The move will give select researchers, scientists access Every year, January 25 is observed as National Tourism
to Amazon’s Braket cloud-based quantum computing Day in the country.
service. Significance of the day :
The Quantum Computing Application Lab in Owing to the diversity and the multiculturalism India has
collaboration with AWS is the first lab on AWS that’s to offer, this day is to highlight the importance of tourism
aligned to a government mission. having a positive impact on the country's economy.
It is to be implemented by the Department of Science It is to highlight the prominence of tourism in the country
and Technology operating under the Ministry of Science and how it impacts India's economic prospects.
and Technology. Theme of this year is 'Dekho Apna Desh'.
The MeitY Quantum Computing Applications Lab will This time, this day will be observed virtually. From
provide quantum computing as a service to government January 21 to February 22, the Ministry of Tourism has
ministries and departments, researchers, scientists, been organizing seminars pertaining to the theme. With
academia, and developers, to enable advances in areas
Page 74 of 78
that, they want to showcase the diverse culture of our

country. 22. National Girl Child Day is observed on which of the
following date?
21. What is the theme of the International Day of A) January 11
Education 2021? B) January 14

A) Indigenous Peoples' Right to Education C) January 24
B) Celebration of the role of education for peace and D) January 15
development E) January 17
C) Education: A Key Driver for Inclusion and Answer: C
Empowerment The National Girl Child Day is celebrated in India every
D) Recover and Revitalize Education for the COVID-19 year on January 24.
Generation It was started by the Ministry of Women and Child
E) Learning for people, planet, prosperity and peace Development and the Government of India in 2008, with
Answer: D the purpose to spread awareness among people about

On January 24, 2018, the United Nations General all the inequalities girls face in the Indian society.
Assembly adopted a resolution proclaiming this day as National Girl Child day 2021 is being celebrated across
International Day of Education in celebration of the role the country with the objective of raising awareness on
of education for peace and development. the issue of declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR).
The theme for International Education Day is ‘’Recover The celebrations will also mark the anniversary of Beti
and Revitalize Education for the COVID-19 Generation." Bachao, Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme.
About History of International Education Day 2021:
On January 24, the United Nations General Assembly 23. National Voters’ Day is observed on which of the
adopted a resolution proclaiming this day as following date?
International Day of Education on December 3, 2018. A) January 11
This day is also celebrated to promote the role of B) January 14

education and thus the International Day of Education C) January 13
came into existence. D) January 12
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E) January 25 E) Chandigarh
Answer: E Answer: B
In order to encourage more young voters to take part in Archery has always been a part of every Ladakhi
the political process, the Government of India has society.
decided to celebrate January 25 every year as "National Nowadays, Ladakhi youth are seen focusing more on
Voters' Day". modern archery along with traditional one.
President Ram Nath Kovind will be the Chief Guest at Under the Khelo India Ladakh Winter Games, the Union
the national function being organized in New Delhi. Territory Administration has organised the Opening
The theme for this year's NVD, 'Making Our Voters Ceremony of Archery Competition at Leh.
Empowered, Vigilant, Safe and informed', envisages Union Minister of State for Sports and Youth Affairs
active and participative voters during elections. Kiren Rijiju inaugurated the competition.
It has been started from January 26, 2011 to mark the In the Leh district of UT of Ladakh, Union Minister of
Commission's foundation day. State for Sports and Youth Affairs Kiren Rijiju
The National Voters' Day has been celebrated on inaugurated Archery Competition-2021 under First Khelo
January 25 every year since 2011, all across the country India Ladakh Winter Games at NDS Sports Stadium.
to mark the foundation day of Election Commission of
India, i.e. 25th January 1950. 25. How many IPS officers besides three junior cops
The main purpose of the NVD celebration is to have been selected this year to be awarded with the
encourage, facilitate and maximize enrolment, especially Internal Security Service Medals?
for the new voters. A) 7
B) 6
24. The administration of which state/UT has organised C) 3

the Opening Ceremony of Archery Competition? D) 4
A) Puducherry E) 5
B) Ladakh Answer: C
C) J&K Three officers of Indian Police Service (IPS), besides
D) Delhi three junior cops, have been selected this year also to
Page 76 of 78
be awarded with the Internal Security Service Medals Havaldar Bhogendra Mishra of Police Academy at Rajgir
and the Home Minister's Medals respectively for and constables Anuranjan Kumar and Vipin Kumar
outstanding services in duty. Singh of CTC at Nathnagar in Bhagalpur.
Rakesh Rathi, The Inspector General of Police of
Magadh range, present Lakhisarai SP Sushil Kumar and

Jamui ASP (operation) Sudhansu Kumar are the IPS .
officers, who would be awarded with the Internal
Security Service Medals.

The other three policemen selected for the Home
Minister Medal this year for outstanding services are
Page 77 of 78
Page 78 of 78
Page 1 of 83
Reasoning Ability
Direction (1-3): In each of the following questions,

the relationship between different elements is A. a
shown in the statements followed by two B. b
conclusions. Find the conclusion which is definitely C. c
true. D. d
Give answer: E. e
a) If only conclusion I follows.
b) If only conclusion II follows. 3) Statements:
c) If either conclusion I or II follows. D=E≤F<G≥H>I≥J
d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. Conclusions:
e) If both conclusions I and II follow. I). D > G
1) Statements: II). E ≤ G
W>X=Y<Z≤A=B<C<D A. a
Conclusions: B. b
I). D > Y C. c
II). Z < W D. d
A. a E. e
B. b
C. c Direction (4-6): In each of the following questions,
D. d the relationship between different elements is
E. e shown in the statements followed by two
conclusions. Find the conclusion which is definitely
2) Statements: true.
T ≤ U < V < W = X; X < R < S Give answer:
Conclusions: a) If only conclusion I follows.
I). W < S b) If only conclusion II follows.
II). X < T c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
Page 2 of 83
d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. II). B ≤ D

e) If both conclusions I and II follow. A. a
4) Statements: B. b
P <S=T<V ≤ W=X<Y<Z C. c
Conclusions: D. d
I). Z > V E. e
II). T < W
A. a Direction (7-9): In each of the following questions,
B. b the relationship between different elements is
C. c shown in the statements followed by two
D. d conclusions. Find the conclusion which is definitely
E. e true.
Give Answer:
5) Statements: a) If the Only conclusion I follow.
V ≤ W < X < Y = Z = Q; Y < R > S b) If Only conclusion II follows.
Conclusions: c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
I). V < S d) If Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
II). Q < R e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
A. a 7) Statements:
B. b B>D≥C=E<G≤F<H
C. c Conclusions:
D. d I). F > C
E. e II). H < C
A. a
6) Statements: B. b
A=B≤ C<D ≥ E>F ≥ G C. c
Conclusions: D. d
I). D > G E. e
Page 3 of 83
Give answer:
8) Statements: a) If only conclusion I follows.
P>S<W≤Q>M≥U b) If only conclusion II follows.
I). S < Q d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
II). U < Q e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
A. a 10) Statements:
B. b M<N≤O≤P>Q<R=S≤T G = J ≤ H; T < Q < N C. c
Conclusions: D. d
I). M > J E. e
II). Q < M
B. b G>H<I≤ J>K ≥ L=M
C. c Conclusions:
D. d I). G > L
E. e II). G ≤ L
A. a
Direction (10-13): In each of the following B. b
questions, the relationship between different C. c
elements is shown in the statements followed by D. d
two conclusions. Find the conclusion which is E. e
definitely true.
Page 4 of 83

K = L ≤ M > N ≥ O; P > O > R ≥ G b) If only conclusion II follows.
I). M > R d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
II). L ≥ P e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
B. b M≥S>F=Z<K≤N≥C>T<Q
C. c Conclusions:
D. d I) M ≥ Z
E. e II) K ≤ T
A. a
13) Statements: B. b
P=Q ≤ R<S<T>U>V≥W C. c
Conclusions: D. d
I). P < T E. e
II). T ≥ W
B. b U=H<O≤P>R<Y=W≤D<E
C. c Conclusions:
D. d I) U R
A. a
Direction (14-15): In each of the following B. b
questions, the relationship between different C. c
elements is shown in the statements followed by D. d
two conclusions. Find the conclusion which is E. e
definitely true.
Give answer:
Page 5 of 83
Direction (16-17):In each of the following questions, B. b

the relationship between different elements is C. c
shown in the statements followed by two D. d
conclusions. Find the conclusion which is definitely E. e
true.
Give answer: Direction (18-19): In each of the following
a) If only conclusion I follows. questions, the relationship between different
b) If only conclusion II follows. elements is shown in the statements followed by
c) If either conclusion I or II follows. two conclusions. Find the conclusion which is
d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. definitely true.
e) If both conclusions I and II follow. Give answer:
S ≥ N > O = K > Y ≤ Z; M ≥C=K≤T≥E b) If only conclusion II follows.
I) N > E d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
II) E ≥ N e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
B. b A>B=C>D≤E=F<H<G
C. c Conclusions:
D. d I) A > D
E. e II) D < G
A. a
17) Statements: B. b
P≥K>D≤F<I=Q<O<C>A C. c
Conclusions: D. d
I) P ≤ F E. e
II) Q < C
Page 6 of 83
G=H≤I<J≥K>L≥M=N C. c
Conclusions: D. d
I) G > M E. e
II) G ≤ N
A. a Directions (21-25): Answer the questions based on
B. b the information given below.
C. c Eight persons L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S are sitting
D. d at a circular table facing away from the centre. Each
E. e of them likes different banks viz. SBI, BOB, PNB,
BOM, BOI, UBI, OBC, and CBI. All the information
Direction (20): In each of the following questions, is not necessarily in the same order.
the relationship between different elements is The one who likes PNB sits second to the left of the
shown in the statements followed by two one who sits opposite to the one who likes CBI,
conclusions. Find the conclusion which is definitely who sits immediate right of L. One person sits
true. between L and S.P sits third to the left of O, who
Give answer: likes SBI. P likes neither CBI nor PNB. O is not
a) If only conclusion I follows. sitting adjacent to the one who likes CBI.Q sits
b) If only conclusion II follows. immediate left of N, who likes UBI. R sits second to
c) If either conclusion I or II follows. the left of M. The one who likes BOB sits adjacent
d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. to the one who likes BOI, none of them sits
e) If both conclusions I and II follow. adjacent to the one who likes SBI. S doesn’t like
20) Statements: BOM. The one who likes BOB doesn’t sit adjacent
J≤S>E<R=I>U>L>M to the one who likes OBC. The one who likes BOB
Conclusions: or BOI doesn’t sit either adjacent or opposite to the
I) M > R one who likes UBI.
II) M ≤ I 21) Which of the following statement/statements
A. a is/are true?
B. b A.O sits third to the right of the one who likes UBI
Page 7 of 83
B. The one who likes BOM sits second to the right D. Third to the right
of S E. Immediate left
C. The one who likes BOB sits immediate left of the
one who likes PNB 25) Who sits third to the left of M?
D. Both (b) and (c) A. The one who likes UBI
E. Both (a) and (b) B. The one who likes BOM
C. The one who likes CBI
22) Which among the following doesn’t form a D. The one who likes PNB
group? E. None of these
A.M- BOB
B.R- UBI Direction (26-30): Answer the questions based on
C.S- BOI the information given below.
D.Q- UBI Eight friends P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting
E.L- SBI around a circular table facing the center. Each
person likes different colors i.e. Green, White,
23) Who sits second to the left of the one who likes Black, Blue, Red, Brown, Violet, and Orange. All the
OBC? information is not necessarily in the same order.
A. The one who likes BOM P doesn’t like white color. Three persons sit
B.P between the one who likes Brown color and the one
C. The one who likes BOB who sits immediate right of P. R likes Red color and
D. Both (b) and (c) sits immediate left of T, who sits opposite to the one
E. Both (a) and (b) who likes Green color. Neither R nor T sits adjacent
to both P and the one who likes Brown color. Two
24) What is the position of Q with respect to the one persons sit between U and V, who likes Violet color,
who likes SBI? none of them sits adjacent to T. Q sits adjacent to
A. Immediate right W, who doesn’t like Brown color. The one who likes
B. Third to the left White color sits second to the right of the one who
C. Second to the right likes Violet color. The one who likes Blue colors sits
Page 8 of 83
opposite to the one who likes Black color. The one D. The one who likes Green color
who likes black sits second to the left of the one E. None of these
who likes orange.
26) Which of the following statement/statements 29) What is the position of P with respect to a
is/are true? person who likes Orange color?
A.T sits second to the right of the person who likes A. Second to the right
Brown color B. Immediate left
B. The one who likes Orange color sits immediate C. Second to the left
left of the one who likes Green color D. Third to the left
C.P sits third to the left of the one who likes White E. Immediate right
color
D. Both (b) and (c) 30) Who among the following person likes Green
E. Both (a) and (b) color?
A. The one who sits third to the right of R
27) Which of the following statement/statements B. The one who sits second to the right of V
is/are not true? C. The one who sits second to the right of T
A.V sits third to the right of U D. The one who sits third to the right of W
B. The one who likes Black color is not an E. None of these
immediate neighbor of T
C. The one who likes Violet color sits opposite to Q Direction (31-35): Study the following information
D. Both (a) and (b) carefully and answer the questions given below.
E. All are true A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and, H are sitting in a circular
table and faces inside. Each one of them likes
28) Who sits third to the right of the one who likes different subjects i.e. Physics, Chemistry, Maths,
Red color? Zoology, Botany, English, Computer, and
A. The one who likes Blue color Psychology but not necessarily in the same order.
B. The one who likes Brown color Two persons sit between E and the one who likes
C. The one who likes Black color Maths. The one who likes English sits second to the
Page 9 of 83
left of D. B sits third to the left of H, who likes A.A

Physics. Only three persons sit between the one B.B
who likes English and the one who likes Zoology. E C.C
is an immediate neighbour of B. Neither D nor E D.D
likes Botany. G is not an immediate neighbour of E. None of these
the one who likes physics and English. F, who likes 34) Which of the following statements is/are true?
chemistry, sits second to the right of G. A does not I. G likes Psychology
like Zoology. The one who likes Psychology is an II. A and D are the immediate neighbours of the one
immediate neighbour of the one who likes Maths. D who likes Physics
does not sit adjacent to F. III. F sits immediate left of C.
31) How many persons sit between E and the one A. Only I
who likes Chemistry? (When counted clockwise B. Only II
direction of E) C. Only III
A. None D. Only I & II
B.1 E. All of the above
C.2
D.3 35) C likes which one of the following subjects?
E. None of these A. Physics
B. Chemistry
32) What is the position of D with respect to the one C. Botany
who likes English? D. Zoology
A. Second to the right E. None of these
C. Third to the left Direction (36-40): Study the following information
D. Second to the left carefully and answer the below questions.
E. None of these Six persons-I, J, K, L, M, and N are sitting around
the circular table facing the centre. They like
33) Who among the following likes Botany? different brand mobile phones viz., Nokia,
Page 10 of 83
Samsung, Vivo, Apple, Honor, and Oppo. All the 38) Who among the following pair sits opposite to
information is not necessarily in the same order. each other?
M sits opposite to the one who sits immediate right A.L, The one who likes Vivo
of L. The one who likes Apple sits adjacent to M. B.N, J
The one who likes Honor sits either adjacent to L or C.K, The one who likes Samsung
M but not adjacent to both. The one who likes D.M, I
Samsung is neither an immediate neighbor of the E. The one who likes Oppo, L
one who likes Honor nor apple. J sits second to the
left of K. J neither likes apple nor Honor. I do not 39) How many persons are sitting between the one
like Honor. N either likes Oppo or Samsung. The who likes Vivo and N when counted to the right of
one who likes Vivo sits immediate right of I. The Vivo?
one who likes Nokia does not sit adjacent to I. A. Two
36) Who among the following likes Nokia? B. Three
A. The one who sits second to the right of J C. One
B. The one who sits immediate left of K D. No one
C.M E. Four
D.I
E. The one who sits opposite to L 40) Which of the following combination is true?
A.J-Nokia
37) Who among the following person sits second to B.L-Samsung
the left of the one who likes Vivo? C.K-Oppo
A.J D.N-Honor
B. The one who sits immediate right of K E.I-Apple
C. The one who sits immediate left of L
D. The one who sits opposite to K Direction (41-45): Answer the questions based on
E. None of the above the information given below.
Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting
around a circular table. Some of them are facing the
Page 11 of 83
center while some are facing away from the

center. All of them like different games viz. Football, 42) Which of the following statement/statements
Cricket, Polo, Basketball, Tennis, Chess, and is/are true?
Boxing. All the information is not necessarily in the A.B sits second to the right of the one who likes
same order. Not more than two persons facing the Football
same direction sit together. All the persons are B. The one who likes Basketball sits immediate left
sitting at an equal distance between them. of the one who likes Polo
The one who likes Boxing sits third to the left of B, C. The one who likes Chess sits second to the right
both are facing the same direction. Two persons sit of B
between C and D, who likes Chess. C who doesn’t D. The one who likes Cricket and the one who likes
like Boxing sits adjacent to neither B nor the one Tennis faces the same direction
who likes Boxing. E who likes Football sits E. All are false
immediate left of A, both are facing the opposite
direction to each other. F who doesn’t sit adjacent 43) What is the position of D with respect to the one
to C sits second to the right of G, both are facing who likes Polo?
the same direction. The one who likes Tennis sits A. Third to the left
second to the left of D. The one who likes Polo B. Immediate left
doesn’t sit adjacent to the one who likes Tennis. C. Second to the left
The one who likes Basketball sits second to the D. Third to the right
right of the one who likes Cricket. The one who E. Immediate right
likes Cricket doesn’t face the center.
41) Who sits second to the left of the one who likes 44) Who among the following persons likes
Cricket? Basketball?
A. The one who likes Basketball A.G
B.F B. The one who sits second to the left of G
C. The one who likes Football C. The one who sits immediate left of the one who
D. Both (a) and (b) likes Chess
E. Both (b) and (c) D.C
Page 12 of 83
E. None of these one who likes Triangle. Immediate neighbours of I

45) Four of the following five pairs are alike in a faces opposite direction of I. The one who likes
certain way based on the given arrangement and Ellipse sits third to the left of I. F and the one who
so form a group. Which of the following one does likes Hexagon are immediate neighbours to each
not belong to that group? other. Neither J nor the one who likes Star is an
A.A- Football immediate neighbour of E. One person sits between
B.D- Tennis J and H, who likes Square. The one who likes
C.C- Cricket Circle sits second to the right of M. Immediate
D.E- Boxing neighbours of H faces opposite direction of H, who
E. B-Basketball faces the centre. The one who likes Parallelogram
sits second to the left of F. E does not like Star.
Direction (46-50): Study the following information 46) Which of the following persons likes Star?
carefully and answer the questions given below. A.K
Nine persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M are B.F
seated in a circular table. Each person likes C.H
different shapes - Circle, Star, Square, Rectangle, D.G
Triangle, Hexagon, Ellipse, Rhombus and E. None of these
Parallelogram not necessarily in the same order.
Some persons face towards the centre while the 47) How many persons sit between H and the one
remaining persons face away from the centre such who likes Rectangle when counted from the left of
that the number of persons facing away from the H?
centre is greater than the number of persons facing A. None
the centre. B. One
The one who likes Triangle sits third to the C. Two
right of E. L, who likes Rectangle sits third to the left D. Three
of the one who likes Triangle. G likes Triangle. F E. More than three
and I are immediate neighbours of the one who
likes Rectangle. I faces the same direction as the
Page 13 of 83
48) Four of the following five are alike in a certain facing in both directions either towards the center or
way and hence form a group. Which of the following away from the center. They own different company
does not belong to the group? cars viz. Audi, Ford, Honda, Hyundai, Maruti,
A. The one who likes Rectangle Mahindra, Renault, Tata and Toyota but not
B. The one who likes Ellipse necessarily in the same order.
C.H Three persons sit between U and T. The one who
D. The one who likes Circle owns the Renault car sits second to the right of U.
E.E The one who owns the Hyundai car sits second to
the right of the one who owns the Renault car. U
49) Which of the following combination is true? does not own a Hyundai car. P owns Tata car and
A.J-Star sits immediate left of U. The one who owns
B.L-Triangle Mahindra car sits third to the left of P. R is an
C.E-Rhombus immediate neighbor of T and neither owns
D.F-Hexagon Mahindra car nor owns Hyundai car. N sits third to
E.I-Ellipse the right of R. V neither own a Hyundai car nor own
Renault car. S is an immediate neighbor of V. M sits
50) Who among the following sits third to the left of third right of V. M does not own a Hyundai car. Q
the one who sits immediate right of M? faces outside the center. R own Honda car. The
A.F one who owns the Toyota car is an immediate
B.H neighbor of the one who owns the Ford car. The
C.L one who owns the Tata car is an immediate
D.E neighbor of the one who owns the Audi car. N is not
E.I an immediate neighbor of the one who owns an
Audi car. The one who owns a Ford car is facing
Direction (51-55): Study the following information away from the center. N owns a Maruti car. The one
carefully and answer the questions given below it. who owns the Toyota car sits second to the left of
There are nine persons namely M, N, P, Q, R, S, T, M. Immediate neighbors of Q facing the same
U and V sitting around a circular table and they are
Page 14 of 83
direction. At least four people facing towards the C.V

center. D.Q
51) Who sits third to the left of V? E.None of these
A.T
B.Q 54) Who sits second to the left of the one who owns
C.N a Toyota car?
D.M A.N
E.None of these B.V
C.T
52) How many persons sit between Q and P when D.M
counted from the right of Q? E.None of these
A.Two
B.Three 55) How many persons are facing towards the
C.Four center?
D.Five A.Four
E.None of these B.Five
C.Six
53) Who owns an Audi car? D.Seven
A.M E.None of these
B.U
W>X=Y<Z≤A=B<C<D T ≤ U < V < W = X; X < R < S
I) D > Y (Y < Z ≤ A = B < C < D) --> True I) W < S (W = X < R < S) -->True
II) Z < W (W > X = Y < Z) --> False II) X < T (T ≤ U < V < W = X) --> False
So, only conclusion I follow. So, only conclusion I follow.
Page 15 of 83
3) Answer: D 8) Answer: E
D=E≤F<G≥H>I≥J I). S < Q (P > S < W ≤ Q > M ≥ U) True
I) D > G (D = E ≤ F < G) --> False II). U < Q (P > S < W ≤ Q > M ≥ U) True
II) E ≤ G (D = E ≤ F < G) --> False
So, neither conclusion I nor II follows. 9) Answer: A
I). M > J (M ≥ T > G = J ≤ H) True
4) Answer: E II). Q < M (M ≥ T < Q < N) False
P<S=T<V≤W=X<Y<Z
I) Z > V (V ≤ W = X < Y < Z)--> True 10) Answer: B
II) T < W (T < V ≤ W)-->True M<N≤O≤P>Q<R=S≤T Q)--> False
II) Q True
5) Answer: B So, only conclusion II follows.
V ≤ W < X < Y = Z = Q; Y < R > S
I) V< S (V ≤ W < X < Y< R > S )--> False 11) Answer: C
II) Q < R (R > Y = Z = Q)-->True G>H<I≤J>K≥L=M
So, only conclusion II follows. I) G > L (G > H K ≥ L)--> True/False
II) G ≤ L (G > H K ≥ L)--> True/False
6) Answer: A So, either conclusion I or II follows.
A=B≤ C<D ≥ E >F ≥ G
I) D > G (D ≥ E > F ≥ G)-->True 12) Answer: A
II) B ≤ D (B ≤ C < D)-->False K = L ≤ M > N ≥ O; P > O > R ≥ G
So, only conclusion I follows. I) M > R (M > N ≥ O > R)-->True
II) L ≥ P (L ≤ M > N ≥ O < P)-->False
7) Answer: A So, only conclusion I follow.
I). F > C (B > D ≥ C = E < G ≤ F < H) True
II). H < C (B > D ≥ C = E < G ≤ F < H) False 13) Answer: A
P=Q≤R<S<T>U>V≥W
Page 16 of 83
I) P < T (P = Q ≤ R < S < T)-->True 18) Answer: E

II) T ≥ W (T > U > V ≥ W)-->False A>B=C>D≤E=F<H<G
So, only conclusion I follow. I) A > D (A > B = C > D)--> True
II) D < G (D ≤ E = F < H < G)-->True
14) Answer: D So, conclusions both I and II follows.
M≥S>F=Z<K≤N≥C>T<Q
I) M ≥ Z (M ≥ S > F = Z)--> False 19) Answer: C
II) K ≤ T (K ≤ N ≥ C > T)--> False G=H≤I<J ≥ K>L≥M=N
So, neither conclusion I nor II follows. I) G > M (G = H ≤ I < J ≥ K > L ≥ M) -->True/False
II) G ≤ N (G = H ≤ I < J ≥ K > L ≥ M = N)--
15) Answer: E >True/False
U=H<O≤P>R<Y=W≤D<E So, conclusions either I or II follows.
I) U True
II) W > R(R < Y = W) --> True 20) Answer: C
So, both the conclusions I and II follows. J ≤ S>E<R=I>U>L>M
I) M > R (R = I > U > L>M)--> False
16) Answer: C II) M ≤ I (I > U > L > M)--> False
S ≥ N > O = K > Y ≤ Z; M≥C=K≤T≥E So, either conclusion I or II follows.
I) N > E (N > O = K ≤ T ≥ E) False
II) E ≥ N (N > O = K ≤ T ≥ E) false Directions (21-25):
So, either conclusion I or II follows. 21) Answer: B
22) Answer: D
17) Answer: B 23) Answer: D
P≥K>D≤F<I=Q<O<C>A 24) Answer: C
I) P ≤ F (P ≥ K > D ≤ F)--> False 25) Answer: A
II) Q < C (Q < O< C)--=>True
So, only conclusion II follows.
Page 17 of 83
• The one who likes BOB doesn’t sit adjacent

to the one who likes OBC.
• The one who likes BOB or BOI doesn’t sit
either adjacent or opposite to the one who
likes UBI.
• So the final arrangement becomes:
• The one who likes PNB sits second to the

left of the one who sits opposite to the one
who likes CBI, who sits immediate right of L.
• One person sits between L and S. Direction (26-30):
26) Answer: D
27) Answer: B
28) Answer: B
29) Answer: A
30) Answer: D
• P sits third to the left of O, who likes SBI.

• P likes neither CBI nor PNB. O is not sitting
adjacent to the one who likes CBI
• Q sits immediate left of N, who likes UBI.
• R sits second to the left of M.
• The one who likes BOB sits adjacent to the
one who likes BOI, none of them sits
adjacent to the one who likes SBI.
• S doesn’t like BOM.
Page 18 of 83
• Three persons sit between the one who likes

Brown color and the one who sits immediate
right of P.
• R likes Red color and sits immediately left of
T, who sits opposite to the one who likes
Green color.
• Neither R nor T sits adjacent to both P and
• The one who likes Blue color sits opposite to
the one who likes Brown color.
the one who likes Black color.
• Two persons sit between U and V, who likes
• The one who likes black sits second to the
Violet color, none of them sits adjacent to T.
left of the one who likes orange.
So we have two possible cases i.e. case-1
So the final arrangement becomes:
and case-2:
• Q sits adjacent to W, who doesn’t like Brown

color.
• The one who likes White color sits second to
Direction (31-35):
the right of the one who likes Violet color.
31) Answer: B
• P doesn’t like white color. So case-2 is
32) Answer: A
eliminated.
33) Answer: B
34) Answer: D
35) Answer: D
Page 19 of 83
B sits third to the left of H, who likes Physics.

E is an immediate neighbour of B.
F, who likes chemistry, sits second to the right of G.

G is not an immediate neighbour of the one who
likes physics and English.
Two persons sit between E and the one who likes

Maths.
Page 20 of 83
In case 2a and case 2b, F, who likes chemistry, sits And the final solution is Case 1a.
second to the right of G and G is not an immediate
neighbour of the one who likes physics, Direction (36-40):
These conditions are not satisfied so Case 2a and 36) Answer: B
Case 2b are rejected. 37) Answer: B
The one who likes Psychology is an immediate 38) Answer: B
neighbour of the one who likes Maths. 39) Answer: B
The one who likes English sits second to the left of 40) Answer: E
D.
Only three persons sit between the one who likes
English and the one who likes Zoology. D does not
sit adjacent to F.
Neither D nor E likes Botany.

M sits opposite to the one who sits immediate right
A does not like Zoology.
of L.
The one who likes Apple sits adjacent to M.
possibilities.
Incase 1b, Neither D nor E likes Botany, this

condition is not satisfied so case 1b is rejected.
Page 21 of 83
The one who likes Honor sits either adjacent to L or

M but not adjacent to both.
possibilities.
N either likes Oppo or Samsung.

I do not like Honor
The one who likes Samsung is neither an

immediate neighbor of the one who likes Honor nor
apple.
J sits second to the left of K.
J neither likes apple nor Honor.
Page 22 of 83
• Two persons sit between C and D, who likes

The one who likes Vivo sits immediate right of I.
Chess.
The one who likes Nokia does not sit adjacent to I.
• C who doesn’t like Boxing sits adjacent to
By this condition, case 2a gets eliminated.
neither B nor the one who likes Boxing.
• E who likes Football sits immediate left of A,
both are facing the opposite direction to each
other.
Direction (41-45):
41) Answer: C
42) Answer: E
43) Answer: D
44) Answer: C
45) Answer: B
• The one who likes Boxing sits third to the left • F who doesn’t sit adjacent to C sits second
of B, both are facing the same direction. to the right of G, both are facing the same
direction.
Page 23 of 83
• The one who likes Tennis sits second to the 46) Answer: B
left of D. 47) Answer: E
• The one who likes Polo doesn’t sit adjacent 48) Answer: B
to the one who likes Tennis. 49) Answer: C
• The one who likes Basketball sits second to 50) Answer: C
the right of the one who likes Cricket.
• The one who likes Cricket doesn’t face the

center.
The one who likes Triangle sits third to the right of
E. L, who likes Rectangle sits third to the left of the
one who likes Triangle. G likes Triangle.
Direction (46-50):
Page 24 of 83
J and H, who likes Square. The one who likes

Circle sits second to the right of M. Immediate
neighbours of H faces opposite direction of H, who
faces the centre.
F and I are immediate neighbours of the one who

likes Rectangle. I faces the same direction as the
one who likes Triangle. Immediate neighbours of I
faces opposite direction of I. The one who likes
Ellipse sits third to the left of I. F and the one who
likes Hexagon are immediate neighbours of each
other. So, Case 1b and Case 2a gets cancelled.
Since H faces inside, Case 2b gets cancelled.

The one who likes Parallelogram sits second to the
left of F. E does not like Star.
Neither J nor the one who likes Star is an

immediate neighbour of E. One person sits between
Page 25 of 83
• Three persons sit between U and T.

• The one who owns the Renault car sits
Since, the number of persons facing away from the second to the right of U.
centre is greater than the number of persons facing
the centre, J faces outside.
Direction (51-55):
51) Answer: B
52) Answer: C
53) Answer: A
54) Answer: D
55) Answer: B
• The one who owns the Hyundai car sits

second to the right of the one who owns the
Renault car.
• U does not own a Hyundai car.
Page 26 of 83
• P owns Tata car and sits immediate left of U.

• The one who owns the Mahindra car sits • V neither owns Hyundai car nor owns
third to the left of P. Renault car.

• S is an immediate neighbor of V.
• R is an immediate neighbor of T and neither

owns a Mahindra car nor owns Hyundai car.
• N sits third to the right of R.
• M sits third right of V.
Page 27 of 83
• M does not owns a Hyundai car.

• Q faces outside the center.
• R owns Honda car.
• The one who owns the Toyota car sits

second to the left of M. Here, Case-3 is
eliminated.
• The one who owns the Toyota car is an
• Immediate neighbors of Q facing the same
immediate neighbor of the one who owns the
direction.
Ford car.
At least four people facing towards the center.
• The one who owns the Tata car is an
immediate neighbor of the one who owns the
Audi car.
• N is not an immediate neighbor of the one
who owns an Audi car.
• The one who owns a Ford car facing away
from the center. • Hence, the Final solution is Case-2.
• N owns a Maruti car.

Here, Case-1 and Case-4 are eliminated.
Page 28 of 83
1) The average mark scored by Ragu in a certain ratio of the weight of B to that of D is 2:3, then find
examination is 75. If he got 15 more marks in the weight of D.
Science and 20 more marks in English, then the A.40 kg
average becomes 80. Find the total number of B.48 kg
subjects he studied? C.54 kg
A.6 D.60 kg
B.8 E.None of these
C.9
D.7 3) Four years ago, the average age of the class is
E.None of these 24 years. Two years ago, one student left the class
at age of 29 years and after one year, a new
2) The weight of A is 12 kg less than the weight of student joined the class at the age of 24 years. If
B and the weight of B is 18 kg more than the weight the initial number of students from the class is 16,
of C. The average weight of A, B, C is 26 kg. If the then find the present approximate average age of
the class?
Page 29 of 83
A.27.6 years 6) In a class of 19 students, Dinesh scored

B.28.8 years 12th rank by scoring 28. The average of the first 12
C.30.5 years students is 29 while the average of the last 8
D.22.9 years students is 21.75. Find the average of the class.
B.27.48
4) The weight of the boys in the class is 50% more C.26
than the weight of the girls. If boy’s weight is D.29
increased by 25% and the girl’s weight is increased E.25
by 5 kg, then the ratio of the weight of boys to girls
becomes 5:3. What is the total weight of the class 7) The average output of a machine of 55 outputs is
initially? x. The 56th output is 48 and by verifying one of the
A.60 kg previous outputs is wrongly taken as 148 instead of
B.80 kg 48. As a result, the average of 56 outputs is
C.100 kg reduced by 2. What is the correct average after 55
D.120 kg outputs?
B.60
5) The average weight of A, B and C is 36 kg and C.59.12
the ratio of the weight of A and B is 3: 2. If the D.58.18
weight of C is 20 kg lighter than A, then what is the E.59.5
average weight of B and C?
A.28 kg 8) In a company, 60% of the workers are an
B.30 kg apprentice. All the remaining workers are company
C.32 kg employees. The monthly income of each apprentice
D.34 kg is Rs.4000. The monthly income of each company
E.None of these employee is Rs.8000. What is the average monthly
income of all the workers in the company together?
Page 30 of 83
A.Rs.4000
B.Rs.4600 11) If the average weight of the class is 32 kg and
C.Rs.5000 the teacher and HM are included the average
D.Rs.5600 weight of the class is increased by 1 kg. If the ratio
E.None of these of the weight of teacher to HM is 4:5 and the
difference between the weight of teacher and HM is
9) In an exam of 100 marks, the average mark of a 9 kg, then find the initial number of students in the
class of 42 students is 77. If the top four scorers of class?
the class are left, then the average score falls by 1. A.12
If the other three toppers “except the highest B.14
scorer” not scored more than 84, then what is the C.18
minimum score the topper can score? D.20
B.95
C.94 12) The average age of the company is 48 years
D.93 and the total number of employees in the company
E.None of these is 30. If the ratio of the male to female employees in
the company is 3: 2 and the average age of the
10) In IPL, the average score of a group of 50 female employees in the company is 52.5 years,
batsmen is 32.5. If 10 batsmen left the group whose then what is the average age of the male
average score is 25 and 20 other batsmen joined employees in the company?
the group whose average score is 40, then find the A.40 years
average score of batsmen in the new group. B.42 years
A.33.25 C.45 years
B.38.25 D.48 years
C.36.75 E.None of these
D.35.25
E.36.25
Page 31 of 83
13) There are 3 consecutive odd numbers and 5 then the new average height of the students of the
consecutive even numbers. The sum of 3 class will be 132.4 cm. What is the value of x?
consecutive odd numbers is 99 and the lowest even A) 150 B) 140 C) 120
number is 3 more than the thrice of the average of D) 130
3 consecutive odd numbers. Find the ratio between A.Only A
the largest odd number to the highest even B.Only B
number? C.Only C
A.7: 22 D.Only D
B.13: 27 E.None of these
C.28: 39
D.16: 43 Direction (16-20): Study the following information
E.None of these carefully and answer the questions given below.
The below graph shows the marked price of two
14) The average age of a group of 20 persons is different calculators P and Q and the difference of
18.25 years. Some new persons with an average selling price of both calculators on five different
age of 16 years join the group. Now the average days. On Thursday and Friday, selling price of
age of the group becomes 17 years. Find the calculator Q was greater than the selling price of
number of persons who joined the group? calculator P and on remaining days selling price of
A.35 calculator Q was less than the selling price of
B.45 calculator P.
C.55
D.75
E.25
15) The average height of 25 students of a class is

(x + 2) cm. If 5 among them whose average height
is (x – 2) cm left the class and 5 new boys of the
average height of x cm are included in the class,
Page 32 of 83
B.54%
C.61%
D.72%
E.81%
18) Discount given on calculator P on Thursday

was Rs.100 and profit percent earned on calculator
P on Thursday was 60%. If cost price of calculator
Q on Thursday is Rs.700, then profit earned on
calculator P on Thursday is what percent of profit
16) Discount percent given on calculator P on earned on calculator Q on Thursday?(approx..)
Wednesday and Friday was 10% and 20% A.46%
respectively. Find the profit percent earned on B.71%
calculator Q on Friday, if the profit earned on C.87%
calculator Q on Wednesday is 70%. (Cost price of D.101%
calculator remains same on all days). E.145%
A.450%
B.580% 19) If Marked price of another calculator R on
C.600% Friday was Rs.200 more than the Marked price of
D.780% calculator Q on same day and calculator R was
E.None of these sold at 60% discount on same day then selling
price of calculator R on Friday was how much
17) If Cost price of calculator Q is Rs.500, then find more/less than marked price of calculator P on
the difference between the discount percent given Wednesday?
on calculator P and Q on Saturday, given that A.Rs.12 less
calculator Q was sold at 40% profit on B.Rs.12 more
Saturday.(Approx.) C.Rs.34 less
A.37% D.Rs.34 more
Page 33 of 83
E.None of these D.160 more

E.None of these
20) If marked price of another calculator A on
Thursday was Rs.350 more than the marked price Direction (21-25): Read the following information
of calculator P on same day and calculator A was carefully and answer the questions based on it.
sold at 70% discount on same day, then selling The line graph given below shows % of the number
price of calculator A on Thursday was how much of students those qualify the CAT 2019 Exam out of
more/less than marked price of calculator of Q on total number of students those gives the Exam in a
Wednesday? particular city and % of girl those qualify the exam
A.100 more out of total students those qualify the exam. All the
B.100 less values given in line graph is 400% of their actual
C.160 less values.
21) If number of boys those qualify the exam from students those not qualify the exam from city Z
city X is 3750 and number of girls those not qualify which is 60% are males. Find the difference
the exam from city Z is 9000. Out of total number of between total numbers of students those gives CAT
Page 34 of 83
2019 exam from City X and number of students B.1900

those gives exam from city Z? C.1950
A.25000 D.2050
C.5000
D.12500 24) If the difference between number of boys and
E.None of these girls those qualify the exam from city Y is 5400,
then find the number of students those not qualify
22) In city Z, if respective ratio of number of boys the exam from city Y?
those not qualify the exam to number of boys those A.21000
qualify the exam is 288:275 and difference between B.9000
number of boys and girls those gives the exam is C.12000
40550, then find the total number of students those D.18000
gives the exam from city Z? E.None of these
A.12500
B.375000 25) If total number of boys those qualify the exam
C.125000 from city B is 18000 and number of girls those not
D.25000 qualify the exam from city B is 27.27% more than
E.None of these number of boys those not qualify the exam from
same city. Find the total number of girls those not
23) If, Number of boys those qualify the exam in qualify the exam from city B?
city A is 18000 and number of girls who qualify the A.5600
exam in City Y is 40500. Percentage of boys who B.5200
didn’t qualify the exam in City A is 45% and in city Y C.4800
is 42%, out of total students who didn’t qualify the D.4200
exam. Find difference between number of girls E.None of these
those didn’t qualify the exams in city A and City Y?
A.1750
Page 35 of 83
Direction (26 - 33): What will come in place of E.13

question mark (?) in the following questions.
26) 2 (8/24) of 2688 + 2 5 /17 of 1921=x+320 30) (17/39*117/204) + (13/29*435/234) =?
A.19654 A.2 5/12
B.10359 B.1 1/12
C.78499 C.1 5/12
D.12224 D.2 7/12
E. None of these E.1 7/12
27) 14 × 627 ÷ √(1089) = (?)3 + 141 31) (27 ÷ 594) * (33 ÷ 405) * ? * 8 = √576
A.5√5 A.810
B.(125)3 B.820
C.25 C.830
D.5 D.850
E.None of these E.840
28) 25% of 45% of 5/17of 3/19 of 25840=? 32) 2580/25 * 55 + 485 – 350 = ?
A.125 A.5811
B.135 B.4820
C.115 C.6210
D.153 D.7250
E.123 E.None of these
29) √(75+√(594+√(933+√(436+348))))=? 33) (452 – 352) – (48 - 23)% of 380 =? - 493 ÷ 29

A.10 A.820
B.12 B.643
C.9 C.520
D.11 D.480
Page 36 of 83
E.722 A.201
B.210
Direction (34-40): What approximate value should C.250
come in the place of (?) in the following questions? D.235
34) 83.33 % of 299.891 + 59.92 % of 105.04= ? 2 – E.221
31.910 % of 149.91
A.19 38) √675 + ? = (8.91 ÷ 3.98) * 28.05
B.17 A.37
C.15 B.45
D.13 C.60
E.21 D.40
E.48
35) (359.911 ÷ 24.15) + 230.04 ÷ 1.91 = ? * √170
A.8 39) (909.98 ÷ √26) + (2432.08 ÷ 7.91) = ?
B.6 A.486
C.10 B.498
D.12 C.472
E.15 D.468
E.479
36) 32.052 + 18.912 – 29.912 = ?
A.492 40) (2 ÷ 3.98) of 29.978 +? ÷ 4.99 = 30.01 – 3.022
B.485 A.24.5
C.478 B.35
D.456 C.20
E.399 D.30
37) E. None of these
Page 37 of 83
Direction (41-45): Find out the missing number in E.13

41) 10, 16, 28, ?, 78, 120 45) 4913, 2197, ? , 343, 125, 27
A.36 A.1197
B.40 B.1331
C.44 C.216
D.48 D.1728
E.52 E.512
42) 1716, 2183, 2728, 3357, 4076, ? Direction (46-50): Find out the wrong number in the
A.4129 following number series.
B.4586 46) 343, 279, 247, 231, 223, 214
C.4762 A.214
D.4871 B.231
E.4891 C.247
D.279
43) 15, 16, 24, 51, 115, ? E.223
A.186
B.198 47) 1, 2, 8, 33, 148, 802
C.214 A.802
D.240 B.148
E.245 C.33
D.8
44) 286, 142, 70, 34, 16, ? E.None of these
A.7
B.9 48) 61, 134, 207, 300, 385, 500
C.11 A.207
D.5 B.300
Page 38 of 83
C.385 D.x < y

D.500 E.x ≤ y
E.None of these
52)
49) 48, 72, 144, 360, 1080, 3785 I) x2 – 30x - 64 = 0
A.360 II) y2 + 10y + 16 = 0
B.72 A.x > y
C.144 B.x ≥ y
D.1080 C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
E.3785 D.x < y
E.x ≤ y
50) 13, 52, 156, 624, 1872, 7484
A.7484 53)
B.1872 I) x2 + 35x + 304 = 0
C.156 II) y2 + 40y + 399 = 0
D.52 A.x > y
E.624 B.x ≥ y
Direction (51-65): In each of the following D.x < y
questions, two equations are given. You have to E.x ≤ y
between x and y. 54)
51) I: x2 - 32x + 255 = 0
I) 2x2 + 24 = 16x II: y2 -36y + 323 = 0
II) 2y2 = 2y + 24 A.If x < y
A.x > y B.If x > y
B.x ≥ y C.If x ≤ y
C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined. D.If x ≥ y
Page 39 of 83

determined
55)
i) x2 - 17x + 72 = 0 58)
ii) y2 - 15y + 56 = 0 I: x2 + 22x + 105 = 0
A.If x < y II: y2 – 33y + 270 = 0
B.If x > y A.If x < y
C.If x ≤ y B.If x > y
D.If x ≥ y C.If x ≤ y
determined
56)
I) x2 - x - 20 = 0 59)
II) y2 - 9y - 22 = 0 I: x3 – 5832 = 0
A.x > y II: y2 – 784 = 0
B.x ≥ y A.If x < y
C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined. B.If x > y
D.x< y C.If x ≤ y
E.x ≤ y D.If x ≥ y
57) determined
I: x2 + 13x + 40 = 0
II: y2+ 9y + 20 = 0 60)
A.If x < y I) x2 – 10x + 25 = 0
B.If x > y II) y2 + 5y – 50 = 0
C.If x ≤ y A.x > y
Page 40 of 83
B.x ≥ y C.If x ≤ y
C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined. D.If x ≥ y
D.x < y E.If relationship between x and y cannot be
E.x ≤ y determined
61) 64)
I). 2X² - 60X + 288 = 0 I: x2- 30x + 216 = 0
II). 2Y² - 32Y – 264 = 0 II: y2 - y - 132 = 0
A.X > Y A.If x < y
B.X < Y B.If x > y
C.X = Y or No relation C.If x ≤ y
D.X ≥ Y D.If x ≥ y
E.X ≤ Y E.If relationship between x and y cannot be
determined
62)
I). x2 + 3x – 304 = 0 65)
II). y2+ 4y – 285 = 0 I. x2 – 30x + 225 = 0
A.x < y II. y2– 37y + 342 = 0
B.x > y A.x < y
C.x = y or relationship cannot be established. B.x > y
D.x ≥ y C.x = y or relationship cannot be established.
E.x ≤ y D.x ≥ y
E.x ≤ y
63)
I: x2+ 26x + 168 = 0
II: y2 –52y + 667 = 0
A.If x < y
B.If x > y
Page 41 of 83
1) Answer: D Present age of all the students = 426 + 16 = 442

Let the total number of subjects be x, Average age= 442 / 16 = 27.625 years
= > (75x + 15 + 20) / x = 80
= > 75x + 35 = 80x 4) Answer: C
= > 5x = 35 Weight of girls = x
=>x=7 Weight of boys = x * 150/100 = 3x/2
Total number of subjects = 7 (3x/2 * 125/100)/(x + 5) = 5/3
5.625x = 5x + 25
2) Answer: C x = 40
A + B + C = 78 kg Weight of a boy = 3/2 * 40 = 60 kg
A = B - 12 Total weight of the class = 60 + 40 = 100 kg
B = C + 18
A = C + 18 – 12 = C + 6 5) Answer: B
C + 6 + C + 18 + C = 78 A + B + C = 36 * 3 = 108
3C = 54 A – 20 = C
C = 18 kg A/B = 3/2
B = 18 + 18 = 36 kg B = 2A/3
D = 3/2 * 36 = 54 kg A + 2A/3 + A – 20 = 108
3A + 2A + 3A = 384
3) Answer: A A = 48 kg
Four years ago, the total age of the class = 24 * 16 B = 2 * 48/3 = 32 kg
= 384 C = 28 kg
Two years ago, the total age of the class = 384 + 16 Average weight of C and B = (28 + 32)/2 = 30 kg
* 2 – 29 = 387
One year ago the total age of the class = 387 + 24 6) Answer: C
+ 15 = 426 Average of 12 students = 29
Page 42 of 83
Total marks of 12 students = 29*12 = 348 The monthly income of each apprentice is Rs.4000
Average of 8 students = 21.75 The monthly income of each employee is Rs.8000
Total marks of 8 students = 21.75*8 = 174 Hence, the total income of the workers = (0.6e ×
In this two, Dinesh is counted. So total = 348+174- 4000) + (0.4e × 8000)
28 = 494 = 2400e + 3200e = 5600e
Average = 494/19 = 26 Required average = Total income/Number of
workers = 5600e/e = Rs.5600
7) Answer: D
Average of 55 outputs = x 9) Answer: C
Total = 55x According to the question,
56th output = 48 Total score of 42 students= 42 * 77= 3234
Error = -148+48 = -100 Total score of top four scorers= 3234 – (38 * 76)=
Correct total = 55x+48-100 = 55x – 52 346
By data, average is x-2 Now,
56(x-2) = 55x – 52 For a minimum score of the topper, we have to
56x – 55x = 112 – 52 = 60 assume other three scores, the maximum marks=
x = 60 84
Correct average after 55 outputs = 55x – 100 = So, the top scorer scored= 346 - 84 * 3= 94 marks
3200
Average = 3200/55 = 58.18 10) Answer: E
Total score of 50 batsmen = 32.5*50= 1625
8) Answer: D Total score of 10 batsmen who left = 25*10 = 250
Let e be the number of workers. Total score of 20 batsmen who joined later = 40*20
60% of the workers are apprentice, 60/100×e = = 800
0.6e Now the batsmen in the group = 50-10+20 = 60
Number of company employees = (The number of Total score of new group = 1625-250+800 = 2175
workers) – (The number of apprentice) = e – 0.6e = Required average = (2175/60) = 36.25
0.4e
Page 43 of 83
11) Answer: E Required ratio = 35: 110 = 7: 22

Initial weight of class = 32x
After including teacher and HM = 33(x + 2) 14) Answer: E
32x + 36 + 45 = 33x + 66 Total age of 20 persons = 18.25 * 20 = 365
x = 15 And x persons average age is 16 year, then total
age = 16 * x
12) Answer: C When x persons join the group then
Total age of the company = 48 * 30 = 1440 16 * X + 365 = 17 (20 + X)
Number of male employees in the company = 3/5 * 16 * X + 365 = 340 + 17 * X
30 = 18 X = 25
Number of female employees in the company = 2/5
* 30 = 12 15) Answer: D
Total age of female employees = 52.5 * 12 = 630 Total height of 25 students = 25 * (x + 2) = 25x + 50
Total age of male = 1440 – 630 = 810 --- (i)
Average age of male employees = 810/18 = 45 Total decrease in the height = (x – 2) * 5 = 5x – 10 -
years -- (ii)
Total increase in the height = x * 5 = 5x --- (iii)
13) Answer: A Total new height of 25 students = 25x + 50 – (5x –
The sum of 3 consecutive odd numbers = 99 10) + 5x = 25x + 60
Average of 3 consecutive odd numbers = 99/3 = 33 New average = (25x + 60)/25 = 132.4
The average consecutive number/odd/even number 25x + 60 = 3310
is always the middle number. So, the 3 consecutive 25x = 3250
odd numbers, x = 130
= > 31, 33, 35 Hence, the required answer = 130 = Only D.
The lowest even number = 3 * 33 + 3 = 99 + 3 =
102 16) Answer: D
The 5 consecutive even numbers, SP of P on Wednesday = 0.90 * 300 = 270
= > 102, 104, 106, 108, 110 SP of P on Friday = 0.80 * 350 = 280
Page 44 of 83
SP of Q on Wednesday = 270 – 100 = 170 SP of R on Friday = (100 – 60)% of 780 = 312

SP of Q on Friday = 600 + 280 = 880 SP of R on Friday was (312 – 300) = Rs.12 more
CP of Q = 170/170 * 100 = 100 than the marked price of P on Wednesday.
Profit percent earned on calculator Q on Friday =
(880 – 100)/100 * 100 = 780% 20) Answer: C
MP of A on Thursday = 450 + 350 = 800
17) Answer: A SP of A on Thursday = 30% of 800 = 240
SP of Q on Saturday = 1.40 * 500 = 700 SP of A on Thursday was 400 – 240 = 160 less
SP of P on Saturday = 700 + 750 = 1450 than the marked price of Q on Wednesday.
Discount percent given on calculator P on Saturday
= (1600 – 1450)/1600 * 100 = (150/1600) * 100 = 21) Answer: D
9.375% % of girls from City X those qualify the exam =
Discount percent given on calculator Q on Saturday 300%/4 =75%
= (1300 – 700)/1300 * 100 = (600/1300) * 100 = So, % of boys those qualify the exam from city X =
46.15% 25%
Required difference = 46.15 – 9.375 = 37% According to question,
25% of (total number of students those qualify the
18) Answer: D exam from City X) = 3750
SP of P on Thursday = 450 – 100 = 350 Total number of students those qualify the exam
CP of P on Thursday = 350/1.60 = 218.75 from city X = 4 x 3750 = 15000
Profit earned on P on Thursday = 350 – 218.75 = % of students those qualify the exam = 160/4 =
131.25 40% of total students those gives exam from city X
SP of Q on Thursday = 350 + 480 = 830 Total number of students those gives exam from
Profit earned on Q on Thursday = 830 – 700 = 130 city X = (15000/40) = 37500
Required % = 131.25/130 * 100 ≈ 101% girls those not qualify the exam from city Z = % of
40% of tot total students hose not qualify the exam
19) Answer: B from city Z
MP of R on Friday = 580 + 200 = 780
Page 45 of 83
So, 9000 = 40% of tot total students hose not = 750a

qualify the exam from city Z Number of girls those not qualify the exam = 750a –
Number of students those not qualify the exam from 288a = 462a
city Z = (9000/40) x 100 = 22500 Difference between total number of boys and girls =
Total number of students those gives exam from 40550
city = 22500 / (100% - 220/4%) (462a + 1925a/3) – (275a + 288a) = 40550
= 22500 / 45% (3311a – 1689a) / 3 = 40550
= 50000 1622a = 3 x 40550
Required difference = 50000 – 37500 = 12500 So a = 75
So number of students those qualify the exam =
22) Answer: C (2750 x 75) / 3
According to question, So, total number of students those gives exam from
For city Z city Z = 100/55 x (2750 x 75) / 3
Number of boys those qualify the exam = 275a = 125000
Number of boys those not qualify the exam = 288a
% of girls those qualify the exam = 280/4% = 70% 23) Answer: B
% of boys those qualify the exam = (100% - 70%) = % of girls who qualify the exam out of total students
30% who qualify the exam in city A = 100% - 200/4%=
So, 30% = 275a 50%
Number of students those qualify the exam = According to given data
(275a/30) x 100 = 2750a/3 50% of (number of students those qualify the exam
Number of girls those qualify the exam = 70% of in city A) = 18000
2750a/3 = 1925a/3 Number of students those qualify the exam in city A
% of students those qualify the exam = 220/4 = = 18000/50% = 36000
55% % of students those qualify the exam out of total
So % of students those not qualify the exam = 45% students those gives the exam from city A = 180/4 =
Number of students those not qualify the exam = 45%
45/55 x (2750a/3)
Page 46 of 83
So, Total number of students those gives the exam % of students those qualify the exam = 240/4 =
in city A = 36000/45% = 80000 60%
Number of students those not qualify the exam in % of students those not qualify the exam = 40%
city A = 55% of 80000 = 44000 Required value = (27000/60) x 40 = 18000
So, number of girls those didn’t qualify the exam in
city A = (100% - 45%) x 44000 = 24200 25) Answer: A
Number of girls those qualify the exam in city Y = % of girls those qualify the exam from city B =
240%/4 = 60% of total students those qualify the 160/4 = 40%
exam in city Y % of boys those qualify the exam from city B =
Total number of students those qualify the exam in (100% - 40%) = 60%
city Y = 40500/60% = 67500 So, number of students those qualify the exam from
So, total number of students those didn’t qualify the city B = 18000/60% = 30000
exam in city Y = 40/60 x 67500 = 45000 % of students those not qualify the exam in city B =
Number of girls who didn’t qualify the exam in city Y 25%
= (100% - 42%) x 45000 = 26100 Number of students those not qualify the exam from
Required difference = 26100 – 24200 = 1900 city B = 30000 x 25%/75%
= 10000
24) Answer: D Number of girls those not qualify the exam from city
% of girls those qualify the exam from city Y = B = 14/25 x 10000 = 5600
240/4 = 60%
So, % of boys those qualify the exam from city Y = 26) Answer: B
40% 56/24 *2688 + 39/17 * 1921 = x+320
According to question, 56*112 + 39*113 = x+320
(60% - 40%) of total number of students those 6272 + 4407 =x+ 320
qualify the exam = 5400 X=10679 – 320 = 10359
Total number of students those qualify the exam =
5400/20% = 27000 27) Answer: D
(?)3 + 141 = 14 × 627 ÷ √(1089)
Page 47 of 83
= (14×627) / 33 = 14 × 19 = 266 2580/25 * 55 + 485 – 350 = ?

Or, (?)3 = 266 – 141 = 125 => 5676 + 485 – 350
? = 3√(5 × 5 × 5) = 5 => 5811
28) Answer: B
25/100*45/100*5/17*3/19*25840=? 33) Answer: E
1/4*9/20*5/17*3/19*25840=? ? - 17 = (2025 – 1225) – 25% of 380
9*5*3*1=? ? - 17 = 800 – 1/4 * 380
135=? ? = 800 – 95 + 17 = 800 – 78
? = 722
29) Answer: A
√(75+√(594+√(933+√(436+348))))=? 34) Answer: A
√(75+√(594+√(933+28)))=? 83.33 % of 299.891 + 59.92 % of 105.04 = ? 2 –
√(75+√(594+31))=? 31.910 % of 149.91
√(75+25)=? 5/6 * 300 + 63= ?2 – 48
10=? 250 + 63 + 48 = ?2
361=?2
30) Answer: B 19 = ?
(17/39*117/204)+(13/29*435/234)=?
(3/12)+(15/18)=? 35) Answer: C
13/12=? (359.911 ÷ 24.15) + 230.04 ÷ 1.91 = ? * √170
1 1/12=? 15 + 115 = ? * 13
? = 10
31) Answer: A
(27 ÷ 594) * (33 ÷ 405) * ?* 8 = √576 36) Answer: B
? * 8 = 6480 32.052 + 18.912 – 29.912 = ?
? = 810 1024 + 361 – 900 = ?
? = 485
32) Answer: A
Page 48 of 83
37) Answer: E 15 + x ÷ 5 = 21
x ÷5 = 6
x = 6×5 =30
41) Answer: D
10 + (2 * 3) = 16
16 + (3 * 4) = 28
28 + (4 * 5) = 48
48 + (5 * 6) = 78
78 + (6 * 7) = 120
42) Answer: E
123 – 12 = 1716
38) Answer: A 133 – 14 = 2183
√675 + ? = (8.91 ÷ 3.98) * 28.05 143 – 16 = 2728
26 + ? = (9/4) * 28 153 – 18 = 3357
26 + ? = (2.25) * 28 163 – 20 = 4076
? = 37 173 – 22 = 4891

(909.98 ÷ √26) + (2432.08 ÷ 7.91) = ? 15 + 13 = 16
910/5 + 2432/8 = ? 16 + 23 = 24
182 + 304 = ? 24 + 33 = 51
? = 486 51 + 43 = 115
115 + 53 = 240
40) Answer: D
(2÷4) of 30 + x ÷ 5 = 30 - 32 44) Answer: A
1/2 of 30 + x ÷ 5 = 30 – 9 (286 ÷ 2) – 1 = 142
Page 49 of 83
(142 ÷ 2) – 1 = 70 48) Answer: D

(70 ÷ 2) – 1 = 34 31 * 2 – 1 = 61
(34 ÷ 2) – 1 = 16 33 * 4 + 2 = 134
(16 ÷ 2) – 1 = 7 35 * 6 – 3 = 207
37 * 8 + 4 = 300
45) Answer: B 39 * 10 – 5 = 385
Cube of prime numbers 41 * 12 + 6 = 498
173 = 4913
133 = 2197 49) Answer: E
113 = 1331 48 * 1.5 = 72
73 = 343 72 * 2 = 144
53 = 125 144 * 2.5 = 360
33 = 27 360 * 3 = 1080
1080 * 3.5 = 3780
46) Answer: A
343 – 64 = 279 50) Answer: A
279 – 32 = 247 13 * 4 = 52
247 – 16 = 231 52 * 3 = 156
231 – 8 = 223 156 * 4 = 624
223 – 4 = 219 624 * 3 = 1872
1872 * 4 = 7488
47) Answer: A
1 * 1 + 12 = 2 51) Answer: C
2 * 2 + 22 = 8 2x2 + 24 = 16x
8 * 3 + 32 = 33 2x2 - 16x + 24 = 0
33 * 4 + 42 = 148 2x2 – 12x – 4x + 24 = 0
148 * 5 + 52 = 765 2x(x – 6) – 4(x – 6) = 0
(2x – 4)(x – 6) = 0
Page 50 of 83
x = 2, 6 y2 + 40y + 399 = 0
2y2 = 2y + 24 y2 + 21y + 19y + 399 = 0
2y2 - 2y – 24 = 0 y(y + 21) + 19(y + 21) = 0
2y2 – 8y + 6y – 24 = 0 (y + 19)(y + 21) = 0
2y(y – 4) + 6(y – 4) = 0 y = -19, -21
(2y + 6)(y – 4) = 0 x≥y
y = -3, 4
Relationship between x and y cannot established. 54) Answer: C
From I =>x2 - 32x + 255 = 0
52) Answer: B =>x2 - 17x -15x + 255 = 0
x2 – 30x - 64 = 0 =>x(x – 17) -15 (x – 17) = 0
x2 – 32x + 2x – 64 = 0 => (x – 17) (x – 15) = 0
x(x – 32) + 2(x – 32) = 0 => x = 17, 15
(x + 2)(x – 32) = 0 From II =>y2 - 36y + 323 = 0
x = - 2, 32 =>y2 - 17y – 19y+ 323 = 0
y2 + 10y + 16 = 0 =>y(y – 17) -19(y – 17) = 0
y2 + 8y + 2y + 16 = 0 => (y – 17) (y – 19) = 0
y(y + 8) + 2(y + 8) = 0 => y = 17, 19
(y + 2)(y + 8) = 0 Hence, x ≤ y
y = -2, -8
x≥y 55) Answer: D
From I =>x2 - 17x + 72 = 0
53) Answer: B =>x2 - 8x - 9x + 72 = 0
x2 + 35x + 304 = 0 =>x(x – 8) -9(x – 8) = 0
x2 + 19x + 16x + 304 = 0 => (x – 8) (x – 9) = 0
x(x + 19) + 16(x + 19) = 0 => x = 8, 9
(x + 16)(x + 19) = 0 From II =>y2 - 15y + 56 = 0
x = -16, -19 => y2 - 8y -7y + 56 = 0
Page 51 of 83
=>y(y – 8) -7(y – 8) = 0 Hence, x ≤ y

=> (y – 8) (y – 7) = 0
=> y = 7, 8 58) Answer: A
Hence, x ≥ y From I =>x2 + 15x+ 7x + 105 = 0
=>x(x + 7) + 15(x + 7) = 0
56) Answer: C => (x + 15) (x + 7) = 0
x2 - x - 20 = 0 => x = -15, -7
x2 - 5x + 4x - 20 = 0 From II =>y2 – 15y – 18y + 270 = 0
x(x - 5) + 4(x - 5) = 0 =>y(y – 15) – 18(y – 15) = 0
(x + 4)(x - 5) = 0 => (y – 15) (y – 18) = 0
x = -4, 5 => y = 15, 18
y2 - 9y - 22 = 0 Hence, x < y
y2 - 11y + 2y - 22 = 0
y(y - 11) + 2(y - 11) = 0 59) Answer: E
(y + 2)(y - 11) = 0 From I =>x3 – 5832 = 0
y = -2, 11 =>x3= 5832
Relationship between x and y cannot be => x = 18
established. From II =>y2 – 784 = 0
y = ± 28
57) Answer: C Hence, relationship between x and y cannot be
From I =>x2 + 5x + 8x + 40 = 0 determined
=>x(x + 5) + 8(x + 5) = 0
=> (x + 8) (x + 5) = 0 60) Answer: B
=> x = -8, -5 x2 – 10x + 25 = 0
From II =>y2 + 4y + 5y + 20 = 0 x2 – 5x – 5x + 25 = 0
=>y(y + 4) + 5(y + 4) = 0 x(x – 5) – 5(x – 5) = 0
=> (y + 5) (y + 4) = 0 (x – 5)(x – 5) = 0
=> y = -4, -5 x = 5, 5
Page 52 of 83
y2 + 5y – 50 = 0
y2 + 10y – 5y – 50 = 0 63) Answer: A
y(y + 10) – 5(y + 10) = 0 From I: x2 + 26x + 168 = 0
(y – 5)(y + 10) = 0 x2 + 12x + 14x + 168 = 0
y = 5, -10 x(x + 12) +14 (x + 12) = 0
x≥y (x + 12) (x + 14) = 0
x = - 12, - 14
61) Answer: C From II: y2 – 52y + 667 = 0
From I: 2X² - 48X – 12X + 288 = 0 y2 – 29y – 23y + 667 = 0
(2X – 48)(X – 6) = 0 y(y – 29) -23(y – 29) = 0
X = 6, X = 24 (y – 29) (y – 23) = 0
From II: 2Y² - 44Y + 12Y – 264 = 0 y = 29, 23
(2Y + 12)(Y – 22) = 0 Hence, x < y
Y = -6, 22
Relationship cannot be determined. 64) Answer: D
From I =>x2 - 30x + 216 = 0
62) Answer: C => (x – 18) (x – 12) = 0
From I: x2+ 3x – 304 = 0 => x = 12, 18
x2 + 19x – 16x + 304 = 0 From II =>y2 - y - 132 = 0
x (x + 19) – 16 (x + 19) = 0 => (y + 11) (y – 12) = 0
(x + 19) (x – 16) = 0 => y = -11, 12
x = –19, 16 Hence, x ≥ y
From II: y2 + 4y – 285 = 0
y2 + 19y – 15y + 285 = 0 65) Answer: A
y (y + 19) – 15 (y + 19) = 0 From I: x2– 30x + 225 = 0
(y + 19) (y – 15) = 0 x2– 15x – 15x + 225 = 0
y = –19, 15 x (x – 15) – 15 (x – 15) = 0
Hence relationship cannot be determined. (x – 15) (x – 15) = 0
Page 53 of 83
x = 15, 15 Hence, x < y

From II: y2 – 37y + 342 = 0
y2 – 19y – 18y + 342 = 0
y (y – 19) – 18 (y – 19) = 0
(y – 19) (y – 18) = 0
y = 19, 18
English Language
Directions-(1-5): Read the following sentence D) On Twitter, the security forces denounced
carefully and arrange the sentence meaningfully “attacks” led by “rioters” who had thrown stones and
and form a coherent paragraph. firecrackers at police.’
E) Protesters resumed blocking major highways on
A) Although protests had declined in size in recent Tuesday before anti-riot police armed with batons
weeks, demonstrations have been ongoing since and shields charged hundreds of demonstrators
mid-October, increasingly targeting banks and state outside the Lebanese central bank.
institutions blamed for driving Lebanon towards F) The civil defence said it had treated civilians and
collapse. members of the police for light injuries at the scene,
B) Lebanese demonstrators have taken to the without saying how many, while others who had
streets to demand an end to a months-long political been wounded were taken to hospital.
vacuum, with police firing tear gas at the start of 1) Which of the following will be the LAST
what protesters have billed a “week of wrath“. (SIXTH) sentence after the rearrangement?
C) The charge dispersed the crowd, some of whom A) E
smashed paving stones to hurl them at police while B) D
others distributed onions to ward off the effects of C) A
the tear gas. D) B
E) C
Page 54 of 83
2) Which of the following will be C) C

the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement? D) D
A) F E) F
B) B
C) C Directions: (6-10): In each of the questions given
D) D below, a sentence is given with three blanks. Below
E) E each sentence, six words are given out of which
three can fit into the sentence. Five options are
3) Which of the following will be provided with various combinations of these words.
the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement? You have to choose the combination with the
A) C correct set of words which can coherently fit into the
B) D given sentence.
C) F
D) B 6) The unique identification scheme has been in
E) A __________ for more than a decade and recent data
has __________that nearly 90% of India’s projected
4) Which of the following will be population has been __________the Aadhaar
the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement? number.
A) B i. Existence
B) D ii. Survival
C) E iii. Assigned
D) A iv. Demised
E) C v. Estimated
vi. Analysis
5) Which of the following will be A) ii, iii, and iv
the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement? B) i, v, and iii
A) A C) ii, iii, and i
B) B D) i, ii, and v
Page 55 of 83
E) i, ii, and iii v. Spurned

vi. Resolute
7) If Mr. Biden talks human rights to Saudi Arabia A) ii, iii, and iv
and ignores the rights __________by Israel, which is B) i, v, and iii
being investigated by the International Criminal C) ii, iii, and i
Court for __________war crimes in the occupied D) i, ii, and v
Palestinian territories, his policy would look E) i, ii, and iii
__________.
i. Abuses
ii. Alleged 9) The __________arrangement with Russia for the
iii. Hollow local production of Sputnik while the vaccine is
iv. Molests already __________clinical trials in India is an
v. Pleads excellent __________of using Indian companies to
vi. Toneless roll out other vaccines.
A) ii, iii, and iv i. Ongoing
B) i, v, and iii ii. Undergoing
C) ii, iii, and i iii. Happening
D) i, ii, and v iv. Facing
E) i, ii, and iii v. Template
vi. Distribute
8) On climate change, India has __________the A) ii, iii, and iv
return of the U.S. to the Paris accord, after former B) i, v, and iii
U.S. President Donald Trump __________to walk C) ii, iii, and i
out of American climate change __________. D) i, ii, and v
i. Commitments E) i, ii, and iii
ii. Welcomed
iii. Decided 10) The Afghanistan conflict is a __________one,
iv. Pledged with its primary __________being the government,
Page 56 of 83
the Taliban and the U.S. Others such as Russia, have estimated that the
China and India are worried about the conflict’s SARS-CoV-2 virus was
__________effects. likely circulating
i. Aspects undetected for at most
ii. Multifaceted two months
iii. Actors (B) Even if a user only (E) You shouldn’t hold
iv. Spillover owns ios-based devices, your breath, because it
v. Performs distribution is far from may be pushed back yet
vi. Consequential limited to the Apple App again.
A) ii, iii, and iv Store
B) i, v, and iii (C) The latest time frame (F) The first human
C) ii, iii, and i for its launch is cases of Covid-19 were
D) i, ii, and v sometime in the fourth described in Wuhan,
E) i, ii, and iii quarter of this year China in late December
2019
Directions (11-15): In a table given below divided
into two column (I and II). Sentence in column I
may or may not be connected with Column II using I) Because
the given connector. You have to choose possible II) Before
link between two columns by using given III) Although
connector. If there is no possible connections then
choose none of the above as answer. A) A-II-E, B-III-D, C-I-F
11) B) A-III-E, B-I-D, C-II-F
Column (I) Column (II) C) A-II-E, C-I-D, B-III-F
(A) Using molecular (D)Developers have D) C-III-E, B-I-D, A-II-F
dating tools and multiple alternative E) None of the above is correct match.
epidemiological channels to reach that
simulations, researchers user
Page 57 of 83
12) 13)
Column (I) Column (II) Column (I) Column (II)
(A) The child counts as (D)Someone mistook it (A) There is no fee for (D) you want to
the dependent of the for a fight the card and no interest outsource your cleaning
custodial parent, who is charged services to them
the child lived with for a (B) Here is what you (E) the account is
longer period of time should expect from an settled in full every
during the year excellent commercial month
(B) As each time he (E) Financial support cleaning services
would adopt a higher came from the other Toronto company
verbal strain, I would parent (C) A man who feared (F) people could peek
often look around being buried alive had a inside to check he was
furtively and walk away window fitted into his really dead
(C) The infection graph (F) It is rising again, the grave
rose, fell and panic has increased
instead of receding, said I) Supposing
a young woman in II) So that
Ghaziabad III) Provided that
I) Now that A) A-II-E, B-III-D, C-I-F

II) Even if B) A-III-E, B-I-D, C-II-F
III) Lest C) A-II-E, C-I-D, B-III-F
A) A-II-E, B-III-D, C-I-F D) C-III-E, B-I-D, A-II-F
B) A-III-E, B-I-D, C-II-F E) None of the above is correct match.
C) A-II-E, C-I-D, B-III-F
D) C-III-E, B-I-D, A-II-F
E) None of the above is correct match. 14)
Column (I) Column (II)
Page 58 of 83
(A) EMA researchers on (D) the duo met (A) The privacy policy (D)It did not involve
Thursday said they are superstar of the Indian mentions the either the deletion or
undertaking several silver screen, Rajnikanth involvement of third- addition of any
investigations to party service providers community in its ambit.
determine who may have access to
(B) He is still searching (E) the rare blood clots the data
for a new job might be linked with the (B) Minister for Social (E) the names of these
vaccine, or occurring by Justice and service providers and
chance Empowerment Thawar other associated details
Chand Gehlot said the have not been provided
(C) It was a big fan (F) he and his family change in nomenclature
moment for Amit Mishra make ends meet from was a long pending
and his wife Sudha his investments, that he demand of the
Mishra had to liquidate community
(C) This is considered a (F) it increases the risk
false economy of complications which
I) When will be difficult and
II) Whether expensive for the NHS
III) While to treat later
A) A-II-E, B-III-D, C-I-F I) And

B) A-III-E, B-I-D, C-II-F II) Since
C) A-II-E, C-I-D, B-III-F III) However
D) C-III-E, B-I-D, A-II-F
E) None of the above is correct match. A) A-II-E, B-III-D, C-I-F
B) A-III-E, B-I-D, C-II-F
15) C) A-II-E, C-I-D, B-III-F
Column (I) Column (II) D) C-III-E, B-I-D, A-II-F
Page 59 of 83
E) None of the above is correct match. (II) Wherever there are differences between the L-G
and the elected government, the former should
Direction (16-20): Select the phrase/connector refer the question to the President.
(STARTERS) from the given three options which (i) Though the ‘aid and.........
can be used to form a single sentence from the two (ii) Having the ‘aid and
sentences given below, implying the same meaning (iii) While the ‘aid and.........
as expressed in the statement sentences. A) Both (i) and (iii)
16) B) Both (ii) and (iii)
(I) The Centre’s Bill is seeking to amend the law C) Only (ii)
relating to the running of the National Capital D) Both (i) and (ii)
Territory of Delhi. E) All (i), (ii), (iii)
(II) It claims that it is aimed at giving effect to the
interpretation given by the Supreme Court 18)
judgments on Delhi’s governance structure. (I) Finance Minister admonished advanced
(i) Claiming that it is........ countries for failing to keep their financing
(ii) Seeking to amend...... commitments to help emerging economies cope
(iii) While claiming to aim....... with climate change.
A) Only (i) (II) The minister invoked the recent Uttarakhand
B) Both (ii) and (iii) disaster as an example of the vulnerabilities that
C) Only (ii) need to be addressed.
D) Both (i) and (ii) (i) Not only Finance Minister
E) All (i), (ii), (iii) (ii) Admonishing the advanced.........
(iii) Invoking the recent.........
17) A) Both (iii) and (ii)
(I)The ‘aid and advice’ clause pertains only to B) Both (i) and (iii)
matters on which the elected Assembly has powers C) Only (i)
under the State and Concurrent Lists. D) Only (ii)
E) All (i), (ii), (iii)
Page 60 of 83
(I)There are only a few more days left in this

19) financial year.
(I)Huge economic devastation is caused by the (II) There’s a last-minute rush to explore and invest
virus. in the various instruments that help limit tax outgo
(II) India’s agility in pivoting its resources to respond under the Income Tax Act.
to the crisis has made the country a global outlier.
(i) Being economically devastating.......... (i) Since only a few days are.............
(ii) Besides huge economic.......... (ii) With only a few days...........
(iii) Despite huge economic......... (iii) However there’s a last...........
A) Only (i)
B) Both (ii) and (iii) A) Both (i) and (ii)
C) Only (iii) B) Both (ii) and (iii)
D) Both (i) and (iii) C) Only (ii)
E) All (i), (ii), (iii) D) Both (i) and (iii)
E) All (i), (ii), (iii)
20)

1) Answer: C paving stones at police force so sentence C
Lebanese demonstrators protested regarding denotes the event.Civil defense organization
political vacuum so sentence B denotes the treated people who had been light injuries and
beginning of the statement. During protest major others were taken to hospital so sentence F
harmful events occurred and armed forces denotes that.Taking Lebanon people protests onto
deployed over there so sentence E denotes the social networking site. So sentence D denotes that
events that occurred during protest. Police forces event. Protesters increasingly targeted other public
trying to disperse the crowd and and protesters organization against political vacuum. So sentence
Page 61 of 83
A denotes that event. So the final arrangement will

be BECFDA. 2) Answer: E
The correct sequence of the paragraph should Lebanese demonstrators protested regarding
be BECFDA political vacuum so sentence B denotes the
B) Lebanese demonstrators have taken to the beginning of the statement. During protest major
streets to demand an end to a months-long political harmful events occurred and armed forces
vacuum, with police firing tear gas at the start of deployed over there so sentence E denotes the
what protesters have billed a “week of wrath“. events that occurred during protest. Police forces
E) Protesters resumed blocking major highways on trying to disperse the crowd and and protesters
Tuesday before anti-riot police armed with batons paving stones at police force so sentence C
and shields charged hundreds of demonstrators denotes the event. Civil defense organization
outside the Lebanese central bank. treated people who had been light injuries and
C) The charge dispersed the crowd, some of whom others were taken to hospital so sentence F
smashed paving stones to hurl them at police while denotes that. Taking Lebanon people protests onto
others distributed onions to ward off the effects of social networking site. So sentence D denotes that
the tear gas. event. Protesters increasingly targeted other public
F) The civil defense said it had treated civilians and organization against political vacuum. So sentence
members of the police for light injuries at the scene, A denotes that event. So the final arrangement will
without saying how many, while others who had be BECFDA.
been wounded were taken to hospital. The correct sequence of the paragraph should
D) On Twitter, the security forces denounced be BECFDA
“attacks” led by “rioters” who had thrown stones and B) Lebanese demonstrators have taken to the
firecrackers at police. streets to demand an end to a months-long political
A) Although protests had declined in size in recent vacuum, with police firing tear gas at the start of
weeks, demonstrations have been ongoing since what protesters have billed a “week of wrath“.
mid-October, increasingly targeting banks and state E) Protesters resumed blocking major highways on
institutions blamed for driving Lebanon towards Tuesday before anti-riot police armed with batons
collapse.
Page 62 of 83
and shields charged hundreds of demonstrators denotes the event. Civil defense organization
outside the Lebanese central bank. treated people who had been light injuries and
C) The charge dispersed the crowd, some of whom others were taken to hospital so sentence F
smashed paving stones to hurl them at police while denotes that. Taking Lebanon people protests onto
others distributed onions to ward off the effects of social networking site. So sentence D denotes that
the tear gas. event. Protesters increasingly targeted other public
F) The civil defense said it had treated civilians and organization against political vacuum. So sentence
members of the police for light injuries at the scene, A denotes that event. So the final arrangement will
without saying how many, while others who had be BECFDA.
been wounded were taken to hospital. The correct sequence of the paragraph should
D) On Twitter, the security forces denounced be BECFDA
“attacks” led by “rioters” who had thrown stones and B) Lebanese demonstrators have taken to the
firecrackers at police. streets to demand an end to a months-long political
A) Although protests had declined in size in recent vacuum, with police firing tear gas at the start of
weeks, demonstrations have been ongoing since what protesters have billed a “week of wrath“.
mid-October, increasingly targeting banks and state E) Protesters resumed blocking major highways on
institutions blamed for driving Lebanon towards Tuesday before anti-riot police armed with batons
collapse. and shields charged hundreds of demonstrators
outside the Lebanese central bank.
3) Answer: C C) The charge dispersed the crowd, some of whom
Lebanese demonstrators protested regarding smashed paving stones to hurl them at police while
political vacuum so sentence B denotes the others distributed onions to ward off the effects of
beginning of the statement. During protest major the tear gas.
harmful events occurred and armed forces F) The civil defence said it had treated civilians and
deployed over there so sentence E denotes the members of the police for light injuries at the scene,
events that occurred during protest. Police forces without saying how many, while others who had
trying to disperse the crowd and and protesters been wounded were taken to hospital.
paving stones at police force so sentence C
Page 63 of 83
D) On Twitter, the security forces denounced The correct sequence of the paragraph should
“attacks” led by “rioters” who had thrown stones and be BECFDA
firecrackers at police. B) Lebanese demonstrators have taken to the
A) Although protests had declined in size in recent streets to demand an end to a months-long political
weeks, demonstrations have been ongoing since vacuum, with police firing tear gas at the start of
mid-October, increasingly targeting banks and state what protesters have billed a “week of wrath“.
institutions blamed for driving Lebanon towards E) Protesters resumed blocking major highways on
collapse. Tuesday before anti-riot police armed with batons
and shields charged hundreds of demonstrators
4) Answer: A outside the Lebanese central bank.
Lebanese demonstrators protested regarding C) The charge dispersed the crowd, some of whom
political vacuum so sentence B denotes the smashed paving stones to hurl them at police while
beginning of the statement. During protest major others distributed onions to ward off the effects of
harmful events occurred and armed forces the tear gas.
deployed over there so sentence E denotes the F) The civil defense said it had treated civilians and
events that occurred during protest. Police forces members of the police for light injuries at the scene,
trying to disperse the crowd and and protesters without saying how many, while others who had
paving stones at police force so sentence C been wounded were taken to hospital.
denotes the event. Civil defense organization D) On Twitter, the security forces denounced
treated people who had been light injuries and “attacks” led by “rioters” who had thrown stones and
others were taken to hospital so sentence F firecrackers at police.
denotes that. Taking Lebanon people protests onto A) Although protests had declined in size in recent
social networking site. So sentence D denotes that weeks, demonstrations have been ongoing since
event. Protesters increasingly targeted other public mid-October, increasingly targeting banks and state
organization against political vacuum. So sentence institutions blamed for driving Lebanon towards
A denotes that event. So the final arrangement will collapse.
be BECFDA.
5) Answer: C
Page 64 of 83
Lebanese demonstrators protested regarding C) The charge dispersed the crowd, some of whom
political vacuum so sentence B denotes the smashed paving stones to hurl them at police while
beginning of the statement. During protest major others distributed onions to ward off the effects of
harmful events occurred and armed forces the tear gas.
deployed over there so sentence E denotes the F) The civil defense said it had treated civilians and
events that occurred during protest. Police forces members of the police for light injuries at the scene,
trying to disperse the crowd and and protesters without saying how many, while others who had
paving stones at police force so sentence C been wounded were taken to hospital.
denotes the event. Civil defense organization D) On Twitter, the security forces denounced
treated people who had been light injuries and “attacks” led by “rioters” who had thrown stones and
others were taken to hospital so sentence F firecrackers at police.
denotes that. Taking Lebanon people protests onto A) Although protests had declined in size in recent
social networking site. So sentence D denotes that weeks, demonstrations have been ongoing since
event. Protesters increasingly targeted other public mid-October, increasingly targeting banks and state
organization against political vacuum. So sentence institutions blamed for driving Lebanon towards
A denotes that event. So the final arrangement will collapse.
be BECFDA.
The correct sequence of the paragraph should 6) Answer: B
be BECFDA Option B is the combination with the correct set of
B) Lebanese demonstrators have taken to the words which can coherently fit into the given
streets to demand an end to a months-long political sentence. In the first blank, ‘existence’, in the
vacuum, with police firing tear gas at the start of second blank ‘estimated’ and in the third blank
what protesters have billed a “week of wrath“. ‘assigned’ will fit to make the sentence
E) Protesters resumed blocking major highways on grammatically correct and contextually meaningful.
Tuesday before anti-riot police armed with batons The final sentence is,
and shields charged hundreds of demonstrators The unique identification scheme has been in
outside the Lebanese central bank. existence for more than a decade and recent data
has estimated that nearly 90% of India’s projected
Page 65 of 83
population has been assigned the Aadhaar President Donald Trump decided to walk out of
number. American climate change commitments.
Hence, option B is the right answer choice. Hence, option C is the right answer choice.
7) Answer: E 9) Answer: D
Option E is the combination with the correct set of Option C is the combination with the correct set of
words which can coherently fit into the given words which can coherently fit into the given
sentence. In the first blank, ‘abuses’, in the second sentence. In the first blank, ‘ongoing’, in the second
blank ‘alleged’ and in the third blank ‘hollow’ will fit blank ‘undergoing’ and in the third blank ‘templates’
to make the sentence grammatically correct and will fit to make the sentence grammatically correct
contextually meaningful. The final sentence is, and contextually meaningful. The final sentence is,
If Mr. Biden talks human rights to Saudi Arabia and
ignores the rights abuses by Israel, which is being The ongoing arrangement with Russia for the local
investigated by the International Criminal Court for production of Sputnik while the vaccine is already
alleged war crimes in the occupied Palestinian undergoing clinical trials in India is an excellent
territories, his policy would look hollow. template of using Indian companies to roll out other
Hence, option E is the right answer choice. vaccines.
Hence, option D is the right answer choice.
8) Answer: C
Option C is the combination with the correct set of 10) Answer: A
words which can coherently fit into the given Option A is the combination with the correct set of
sentence. In the first blank, ‘welcomed’, in the words which can coherently fit into the given
second blank ‘decided’ and in the third blank sentence. In the first blank, ‘multifaceted’, in the
‘commitments’ will fit to make the sentence second blank ‘actors’ and in the third blank
grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. ‘spillover’ will fit to make the sentence
The final sentence is, grammatically correct and contextually meaningful.
On climate change, India has welcomed the return The final sentence is,
of the U.S. to the Paris accord, after former U.S.
Page 66 of 83
The Afghanistan conflict is a multifaceted one, with The correct match of the given sentences using the
its primary actors being the government, the connectors is A-II-E, B-III-D, and C-I-F. The
Taliban and the U.S. Others such as Russia, China sentences thus formed are:
and India are worried about the conflict’s spillover A-II-E: The child counts as the dependent of the
effects. custodial parent, who the child lived with for a
Hence, option A is the right answer choice. longer period of time during the year even if
financial support came
11) Answer: D from the other parent.
The correct match of the given sentences using the B-III-D: As each time he would adopt a higher
connectors is C-III-E, B-I-D, and A-II-F. The verbal strain, I would often look around furtively and
sentences thus formed are: walk away lest someone mistook it for a fight.
C-III-E: The latest time frame for its launch is C-I-F: The infection graph rose, fell now that it is
sometime in the fourth quarter of this year, although rising again, the panic has increased instead of
you shouldn’t hold your breath, because it may be receding, said a young woman in Ghaziabad.
pushed back yet again. Hence, option A is the right answer choice.
B-I-D: Even if a user only owns ios-based devices,
distribution is far from limited to the Apple App 13) Answer: B
Store because developers have multiple alternative The correct match of the given sentences using the
channels to reach that user. connectors is A-III-E, B-I-D, and C-II-F. The
A-II-F: Using molecular dating tools and sentences thus formed are:
epidemiological simulations, researchers have A-III-E: There is no fee for the card and no interest
estimated that the SARS-CoV-2 virus was likely is charged provided that the account is settled in full
circulating undetected for at most two months every month.
before the first human cases of Covid-19 were B-I-D: Here is what you should expect from an
described in Wuhan, China in late December 2019. excellent commercial cleaning services Toronto
Hence, option D is the right answer choice. company supposing you want to outsource your
cleaning services to them.
12) Answer: A
Page 67 of 83
C-II-F: A man who feared being buried alive had a providers who may have access to the data.
window fitted into his grave so that people could However, the names of these service
peek inside to check he was really dead. providers and other associated details have not
Hence, option B is the right answer choice. been provided.
B-I-D: Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment
14) Answer: C Thawar Chand Gehlot said the
The correct match of the given sentences using the change in nomenclature was a long pending
connectors is A-II-E, C-I- demand of the community and did not
D, and B-III-F. The sentences thus formed are: involve either the deletion or addition of any
A-II-E: EMA researchers on Thursday said they are community in its ambit.
undertaking several investigations to determine C-II-F: This is considered a false economy since it
whether the rare blood clots might be linked with increases the risk of complications which will be
the vaccine, or occurring by chance. difficult and expensive for the NHS to treat later.
C-I-D: It was a big fan moment for Amit Mishra and Hence, option B is the right answer choice.
his wife Sudha Mishra when
the duo met superstar of the Indian silver screen, 16) Answer: D
Rajnikanth. Both i and ii starters can be used to form a single
B-III-F: He is still searching for a new job, while he sentence from the two sentences given below,
and his family make ends implying the same meaning as expressed in the
meet from his investments, that he had to liquidate. statement sentences. The sentences thus formed
Hence, option C is the right answer choice. are:
(i)Claiming that it is aimed at giving effect to the
15) Answer: B interpretation given by the Supreme Court
The correct match of the given sentences using the judgments on Delhi’s governance structure, the
connectors is A-III-E, B-I- Centre’s Bill is seeking to amend the law relating to
D, and C-II-F. The sentences thus formed are: the running of the National Capital Territory of
A-III-E: The privacy policy mentions the involvement Delhi.
of third-party service
Page 68 of 83
(ii) Seeking to amend the law relating to the running Sol. Both ii and iii starters can be used to form a
of the National Capital Territory of Delhi, the single sentence from the two sentences given
Centre’s bill claims that it is aimed at giving effect to below, implying the same meaning as expressed in
the interpretation given by the Supreme Court the statement sentences. The sentences thus
judgments on Delhi’s governance structure. formed are:
Hence, option D is the right answer choice. (ii) Admonishing advanced countries for failing to
keep their financing commitments to help emerging
17) Answer: A economies cope with climate change, Finance
Both i and iii starters can be used to form a single Minister invoked the recent Uttarakhand disaster as
sentence from the two sentences given below, an example of the vulnerabilities that need to be
implying the same meaning as expressed in the addressed.
statement sentences. The sentences thus formed (iii)Invoking the recent Uttarakhand disaster as an
are: example of the vulnerabilities that need to be
(i) Though the ‘aid and advice’ clause pertains only addressed, Finance minister admonished advanced
to matters on which the elected Assembly has countries for failing to keep their financing
powers under the State and Concurrent Lists, commitments to help emerging economies cope
wherever there are differences between the L-G with climate change.
and the elected government, the former should Hence, option A is the right answer choice.
refer the question to the President.
(iii) While the ‘aid and advice’ clause pertains only 19) Answer: C
to matters on which the elected Assembly has Only iii starter can be used to form a single
powers under the State and Concurrent Lists, sentence from the two sentences given below,
wherever there are differences between the L-G implying the same meaning as expressed in the
and the elected government, the former should statement sentences. The sentence thus formed is:
refer the question to the President. (iii) Despite huge economic devastation caused by
Hence, option A is the right answer choice. the virus, India’s agility in pivoting its resources to
respond to the crisis has made the country a global
18) Answer: A outlier.
Page 69 of 83
Hence, option C is the right answer choice. invest in the various instruments that help limit tax
outgo under the Income Tax Act.
20) Answer: A
Both i and ii starters can be used to form a single (ii) With only a few more days left in this financial
sentence from the two sentences given below, year, there’s a last-minute rush to explore and
implying the same meaning as expressed in the invest in the various instruments that help limit tax
statement sentences. The sentences thus formed outgo under the Income Tax Act.
are: Hence, option A is the right answer choice.
(i) Since only a few days are left in this financial
year, there’s a last-minute rush to explore and
General Awareness
1. SpaceX has broken India’s record by launching E) CISF

______ satellites on a single rocket.
A) 95 3. In UP Yogi Adityanath has launched which app for

B) 126 youth to explore self-employment?
C) 117 A) Udyam Vikar
D) 143 B) Udyam Abhyas
E) 135 C) Udyam Sahayak

D) Udyam Sakshi
2. Which armed force has launched Operation ‘Sard E) Udyam Sarathi

Hawa’ at Rajasthan border?
A) RPF 4. Indian Navy has conducted which exercise with Army
B) RAF and Air Force?
C) BSF A) AMPHEX – 25
D) CRPF B) AMPHEX – 24
Page 70 of 83
C) AMPHEX – 23 E) Andaman
D) AMPHEX – 21
E) AMPHEX – 22 8. DRDO’s has successfully conducted a test flight of
which of the following Smart Anti Airfield Weapon?
5. Padma Awards 2021 have recently been announced A) KAVACH

and the government has approved ______ padma B) VAYU
awards this year. C) SAAW
A) 118 D) Astra
B) 119 E) Agni
C) 120
D) 121 9. Which of the following film has won the Golden

E) 122 Peacock Award for Best Film at 51st IFFI awards?
A) Country of Legends
6. Dhanlaxmi Bank has approved the appointment of B) Valentina

who among the following as MD and CEO? C) I Never Cry
A) Sudhir Mishra D) The Silent Forest
B) Ganesh Murthy E) Into the Darkness
C) Rahul Gupta
D) Anand Sharma 10. Who among the following has been selected as
E) JK Shivan Business Standard Banker of the Year?
A) Rajkiran Rai
7. Name the Indian Railways' longest freight train which B) AK Goel

has set a new record when it operated. C) Sunil Mehta
A) Ananya D) Shyam Srinivasan
B) Shatabdi E) S Krishnan
C) Vasuki
D) Garib Rath
Page 71 of 83
11. India has recently pledged _______for the UN A) Col. Anurag Singh
Peacebuilding Fund for 2021. B) Col. Rajesh Gupta
A) $170,000 C) Col. Santosh Babu
B) $180,000 D) Col. Anand Kumar
C) $200,000 E) Col. Suraj Vishnoi

D) $100,000
E) $150,000 15. What is India’s rank on the Climate risk Index?
A) 4th
12. Who among the following has recently chaired the B) 7th
meeting of PRAGATI, the ICT-based platform? C) 6th
A) Prahlad Patel D) 8th

B) Narendra Modi E) 9th
C) Amit Shah
D) Anurag Thakur 16. Who among the following has become Estonia’s
E) Nirmala Sitharaman first female prime minister?
A) Siim Kallas
13. Which state has been selected for Special Award B) Mailis Reps
for Information Technology applications in Elections by C) Martin Helme
the Election Commission of India? D) Kaja Kallas

A) Uttar Pradesh E) Kersti Kaljulaid
B) Karnataka
C) Meghalaya 17. Which of the following state has launched a jail

D) Kerala tourism initiative?
E) Assam A) Gujarat
B) Bihar
14. Who among the following has recently been C) Chhattisgarh
awarded the Maha Vir Chakra posthumously? D) Maharashtra
Page 72 of 83
E) Haryana 21. The government of which state will soon establish

India's first leather park?
18. Who among the following has launched the 'Work A) Kerala
from Anywhere' portal, Tejas Virtual Intelligence tool at B) Punjab
NICSI event? C) Chhattisgarh

A) Nirmala Sitharaman D) Uttar Pradesh
B) Narendra Modi E) Haryana
C) Prahlad Patel
D) Ravi Shankar Prasad 22. What is India’s rank on the corruption perception
E) Amit Shah index 2020?
A) 65th
19. Which state’s tableau has bagged the first prize on B) 86th
Republic Day? C) 80th
A) Karnataka D) 78th
B) Madhya Pradesh E) 76th
C) Haryana
D) Chhattisgarh 23. Which state government has put the pension
E) Uttar Pradesh payments on auto-pilot which is a first of its kind
initiative in the country?

20. What is the theme of the Economic Survey 2020- A) Chhattisgarh
2021? B) Punjab
A) Covid&Livelihood C) Karnataka
B) SavingLivesDuringPandemic D) Kerala
C) CovidResponse E) Haryana
D) VShapedRecovery
E) RecoveryFromCovid 24. What is India’s rank on the recently released Covid-
19 Response Index?
Page 73 of 83
A) 81 A) Best ICC Player of the Week

B) 82 B) Best ICC Player of the Month
C) 83 C) ICC Player of the Month
D) 86 D) ICC Player of the Week
E) 85 E) ICC Player of the Quarter
25. ICC has introduced which category of awards to
recognise best performances of cricketers?

1) Answer: D The 143 satellites included 133 commercial and
On 24 Jan 2021, SpaceX created a unique world record government satellites and 10 Starlink satellites of
of launching 143 satellites on a single vehicle. SpaceX
The firm broke the record previously held by the Indian
Space Research Organisation (ISRO), which launched 2) Answer: C

104 satellites in 2017. Border Security Force (BSF) launched Operation Sard
In this launch, SpaceX broke the record set by ISRO in Hawa on the western international border of Rajasthan.
February 2017 for deploying 104 satellites onboard It aims to increase security on the borders in Jaisalmer.
PSLV in a single mission. This operation will continue till January 27 with an aim
The US-based space company launched 143 satellites that there is no intrusion.
through its Falcon 9 rocket. It was launched on 21 January 2021, and will continue
The launch vehicle for the SpaceX record-breaking flight till 27 January 2021, keeping in view Republic Day of
was the Falcon 9 and the mission was designated as India.

Transporter-1.
With these satellites, SpaceX aims to provide near- 3) Answer: E
global broadband internet coverage all over the world by

2021.
Page 74 of 83
For the 71st foundation day of Uttar Pradesh, Chief A large-scale tri-service joint amphibious exercise
Minister Yogi Adityanath launched 'Udyam Sarathi' app AMPHEX – 21 was conducted in the Andaman &
to help youth to explore self-employment opportunities. Nicobar group of islands from 21 – 25 Jan 2021.
About the app : The exercise involved participation of Naval ships,
This application will provide all information related to amphibious troops of the Army and different types of
self-employment and the job industry at one click. aircraft from the Air force.
The app, prepared under the ODOP scheme and The exercise was aimed at validating India’s capabilities
considered to be a master-key for exploring self- to safeguard the territorial integrity of it’s island
employment opportunities to the youth. territories.
Through the Udyam Sarathi app, youth would easily be It also sought to enhance operational synergy and joint
able to get a varied range of business opportunities in warfighting capabilities amongst the three Services.
different departments and sectors of the state and the The exercise involved multi-faceted maritime operations
Central government. by synergised employment of amphibious assault ships,
Under the vision of 'Sabka Saath Sabka Vikas and surveillance platforms, execution of maritime air strikes
Sabka Vishwas', this App is poised to benefit the women and complex manoeuvres at sea.
and farmers looking for avenues of self-employment. Airborne insertion of Marine Commandos of Navy and
It has been launched under the One District One Special Forces of the Army, naval gunfire support,
Product (ODOP) scheme. amphibious landing of forces and follow-on operations
The Uttar Pradesh Day celebration will run from 24 also formed part of the exercise.
January to 26 January, 2021. Ex KAVACH for defence of Andaman & Nicobar Islands
The theme of Uttar Pradesh Day 2021 is ‘Respect for formed a part of AMPHEX – 21.
self-reliant Uttar Pradesh, women young farmers,

development of all’. 5) Answer: B
Uttar Pradesh was recognised as a state of India on The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) announced the
January 24, 1950. Padma Awards 2021 - one of the highest civilian Awards
of the country - on the eve of 72nd Republic Day.
4) Answer: D
Page 75 of 83
These awards are conferred by the President of India at Indian Railways' South Eastern Central Railway(SECR)
ceremonial functions which are held at Rashtrapati zone has created another record when it operated the
Bhawan usually around March/ April every year. longest freight train on the Indian Railways network.
This year the President has approved the conferment of The total length of the freight train was around 3.5
119 Padma Awards. kilometers after joining the five rakes and it was named
The list comprises 7 Padma Vibhushan, 10 Padma 'Vasuki'.
Bhushan and 102 Padma Shri Awards. The distance between Bhilai to Korba is 224 kilometers
29 of the awardees are women and the list also includes and the long-haul freight train named 'Vasuki' covered
10 persons from the category of the whole distance with five rakes of a freight train.
Foreigners/NRI/PIO/OCI, 16 Posthumous awardees and SECR on 22 January operated the long haul rake of five
one transgender awardee. freight trains named 'Vasuki' With the help of one loco
Former Japanese prime minister Shinzo Abe and singer pilot, one assistant loco pilot, and one guard.
SP Balasubramaniam were among the Padma The train took around seven hours to cover the distance
Vibhushan recipients. from Bhilai D cabin to Korba railway station.

The Vasuki, comprising 300 wagons of long haul rakes
6) Answer: E of five goods trains, ran with the help of one pilot, one
Board of Directors of Kerala-based Dhanlaxmi Bank assistant Loco pilot and a guard.
have given approval to appoint J K Shivan as managing
director and CEO of the Bank. 8) Answer: C

It may be recalled that the shareholders of the Kerala- The Defence Research and Development Organisation
based company had voted against MD & CEO Sunil (DRDO) conducted a successful trial of the indigenously
Gurbaxani On September 30, 2020. developed Smart Anti-Airfield Weapon (SAAW) off the
Then, in December that year, the lender appointed Odisha coast from the Hawk-I jet of Hindustan
Shivan as the new MD & CEO. Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
The smart weapon was successfully test fired from

7) Answer: C Indian Hawk-Mk132 of HAL.
Page 76 of 83
It was a text book launch, which met all mission Silver Peacock Award for Best Director – Chen-Nien Ko,
objectives. The Silent Forest
This was the ninth successful test of the system Best Debut Director Award – Cássio Pereira dos Santos,
conducted over the last five years. Valentina
SAAW is indigenously designed and developed by

DRDO’s Research Centre Imarat (RCI) Hyderabad. 10) Answer: D
This is a 125-kilogram class smart weapon, capable of Shyam Srinivasan, managing director and chief
engaging ground enemy airfield assets such as radars, executive officer (CEO) of Federal Bank, is the Business
bunkers, taxi tracks, and runways, up to a range of 100 Standard Banker of the Year for 2019-20.
kilometres. This award was given mainly for his bank’s consistent
healthy performance at a time when most of its peers

9) Answer: E witnessed large stress on asset quality, registered
The closing ceremony of the 51st edition of the losses, or even invited regulatory actions.
International Film Festival of India was held in the The unanimous decision was taken by a high-profile jury
Shyama Prasad Mookerjee Stadium in Goa. of five, chaired by former RBI deputy governor S S
Due to the COVID-19 the festival was held in hybrid Mundra. He was chosen for his bank’s consistent
mode, there was physical and virtual screening of 50 healthy performance at a time when most of its peers
films out of 224 films across various categories. witnessed losses or other issues.
Bangladesh was the country focus of the festival. Four

films of Bangladesh were included in the ‘country of 11) Answer: E
focus’ section. India has announced a pledge of $150,000 to activities
The winners of the IFFI awards are listed below of the Peacebuilding Fund this year and said that 2021
Golden Peacock Award for Best Film– Into the Darkness provides the international community with an opportunity
Silver Peacock Award for Best Actor – Male – Tzu- to look at peace-building in a more focused manner.
Chuan Liu, The Silent Forest India's Permanent Representative to the UN

Silver Peacock Award for Best Actor – Female – Zofia Ambassador T S Tirumurti.
Stafiej, I Never Cry
Page 77 of 83
The Peacebuilding Fund has put forth a comprehensive 13) Answer: C

scenario covering a horizon of five years. The Fund The Office of the Chief Electoral Officer, Meghalaya was
requires 1.5 billion dollars for 2020-2024. selected for a Special Award for Information Technology
The recently concluded 2020 review of the UN applications in Elections by the Election Commission of
peacebuilding architecture provides a framework to India (ECI), in the National Best Electoral Practices
strengthen peace building collectively. Awards-2020.
President Ram Nath Kovind virtually conferred the
12) Answer: B award to Meghalaya CEO F.R. Kharkongor at the

Prime Minister Narendra Modi chaired the meeting of National Voters' Day Award function held in New Delhi,
35th edition of PRAGATI, the ICT based multi-modal a statement from the CEO’s office informed.
platform for Pro-Active Governance and Timely

Implementation, involving Central and State 14) Answer: C
governments. President has approved awards of 455 Gallantry and
In the meeting, ten agenda items were taken for review other Defence decorations to Armed Forces personnel
including nine projects and one program. and others.
Among the nine projects, three projects were from the Galwan valley hero Colonel B Santosh Babu, the
Ministry of Railways, three from Ministry of Road Commanding Officer of 16 Bihar Regiment, who lost his
Transport and Highways and one project each from life during the Galwan Valley clash last year, will be
Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, posthumously awarded with Maha Vir Chakra.
Power Ministry and Ministry of External Affairs. Subedar Sanjiv Kumar of 4th Battalion Parachute
These nine projects have a cumulative cost of 54 Regiment, CRPF Inspector Pintu Kumar Singh, CRPF
thousand 675 crore rupees concerning the 15 States. Head Constable Shyam Narayan Singh Yadav, CRPF
The States are Odisha, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Constable Vinod Kumar will be posthumously awarded
Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Punjab, Jharkhand, Bihar, with Kirti Chakra.
Telangana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, West Bengal, Haryana,

Uttarakhand, and Uttar Pradesh. 15) Answer: B
Page 78 of 83
India is among the top 10 most affected countries in the 17) Answer: D
Global Climate Risk Index 2021 published by the Bonn- Maharashtra Chief Minister Uddhav Thackeray launched
based environmental think tank Germanwatch. a ‘jail tourism’ initiative of the state government from
India ranked as the Seventh worst hit country in terms of Pune’s Yerawada prison, in a move to help students
climate change in 2019. learn about historical experiences.

It is the 16th edition of the report and has taken into The initiative was launched on January 26 via video
account the data available for 2019 and from 2000 to conferencing.
2019. Yerawada jail is 150-years-old where several freedom

It caused catastrophic damage and a humanitarian fighters, including Mahatma Gandhi, Lokmanya Tilak,
crisis, making Mozambique and Zimbabwe the two most Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel,
affected countries in 2019. Sarojini Naidu and Subhas Chandra Bose had been
In the past 20 years (2000-2019), Puerto Rico, Myanmar imprisoned under the British rule.
and Haiti were the countries most affected by the The 'jail tourism' was started to make students aware of
impacts of such weather events. the history.

The jail has witnessed many historical events like the
16) Answer: D Pune-pact that was signed within the premises of this
Kaja Kallas, the leader of the Reform Party, has become jail.
Estonia’s first female prime minister. In recent times the accused of 26/11 Mumbai blasts
Estonia would thus currently become the only country in Ajmal Kasab was hanged here on November 21, 2012."
the world where both the president and the prime
minister are women. 18) Answer: D
Kaja Kallas was nominated to form the government by IT and Communications Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad
the Estonian president, Kersti Kaljulaid, on 14 January will launch virtual intelligence tool Tejas and 'Work from
The Reform Party, led by Kallas, won the 2019 Anywhere' portal.
parliamentary election in Estonia with 34 MPs in the The National Informatics Centre Services Inc (NICSI), a
country’s 101-seat parliament, Riigikogu. public sector enterprise under the National Informatics
Page 79 of 83
Centre (NIC), will celebrate 25 years of its establishment upcoming Ram Temple in Ayodhya made an
at an event. appearance.
Tejas, a virtual intelligence tool that extracts critical The tableau provided the glimpse of the temple that
information from data to make its meaningful information began its construction recently.
for policy decisions and improving efficiency in As for the setting of the tableau, it showcased Maharishi
government services and citizen delivery. Valmiki composing the Ramayana, followed by a model
It will also launch 'e-Auction India' to cater to electronic replica of the Ram temple that showed how it would look
forward and reverse auction requirements of the after its construction.

government organisations serving online 24x7. It is for the first time that the Uttar Pradesh tableau
Also launch 'Work from Anywhere' portal, a virtual showcased a glimpse of the Ram Temple that is being
environment that enables employees to "access routine built in Ayodhya.

applications like e-office, calendar, mail, and other The Tripura tableau won the second prize for the
departmental applications and communicate across Republic Day parade.
through VC ensuring safety during this pandemic with The third prize was received by Uttarakhand’s tableau
social distancing and work assurance from anywhere. which was themed around Kedarkhand.
19) Answer: E 20) Answer: D

The Ram Temple tableau of Uttar Pradesh that was on Union finance minister Nirmala Sitharaman presented
display during the Republic Day has bagged the first the Economic Survey, that details the state of the
prize among all tableaux. economy ahead of the government's budget for the
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh will be giving away the fiscal year beginning April 1, 2021.
first prize to Uttar Pradesh for its tableau. The Economic Survey 2020-2021, authored by a team
The Ram Temple tableau evoked strong reactions from led by chief economic adviser (CEA) Krishnamurthy V
the public. Subramanian, focused on the state of different sectors of
It is reported that the people present to witness the the economy, the effect of the coronavirus pandemic as
parade at the Rajpath applauded when the model of the well as reforms that need to be taken.
Page 80 of 83
The survey expects the Indian economy to grow by 11 It will also have fooding and lodging arrangements for
per cent during 2021-22 which is close to the growth the investors who will come here from all over the world.
forecast of 11.5 per cent made by the International
Monetary Fund (IMF). 22) Answer: B
This means that the Indian GDP in 2021-22 is expected India's rank has slipped six places to 86th among 180
to be at Rs.149.2 lakh crore. countries in corruption perception index (CPI) in 2020.
The Theme of Economic Survey 2020-21 : For 2020, Transparency International (TI)'s Corruption
#SavingLives&Livelihoods Perception Index (CPI) was released.

#VshapedRecovery The index, which ranks 180 countries and territories by
their perceived levels of public sector corruption
21) Answer: D according to experts and business people, uses a scale

Uttar Pradesh government will establish the first leather of 0 to 100, where 0 is highly corrupt and 100 is very
park of the country in Kanpur district. clean.
The park is expected to provide employment to 50 India's rank is 86 out of 180 nations with a score of 40.
thousand people directly and more than 1 lakh 50 This year, New Zealand and Denmark rank at first
thousand people indirectly. position with scores of 88. Somalia and South Sudan
The project will be established in 268 areas of land in rank lowest at 179th position with scores of 12.
Ramaipur village of Kanpur district and is expected to India is sharing its position jointly with Burkina Faso,
attract an investment of more than 5850 crores. Morocco, East Timor, Trinidad and Tobago and Turkey.
The leather park will also have an effluent treatment
plant of 20 million litre per day capacity so that it will not 23) Answer: C
pollute the Ganga river. The Karnataka government launched a first-of-its-kind

The establishment of leather park Kanpur City will be initiative in the country to automatically select
able to strengthen its position among the 10 big leather beneficiaries for old-age pensions that will be paid
manufacturing states of the country. through the direct benefit transfer (DBT) mode.
The leather park will have all the facilities for production
as well as exhibition of leather products.
Page 81 of 83
This model was piloted in Udupi and Ballari districts China was not included in the study because all of its
where officials enrolled beneficiaries for old-age testing rates are not publicly available.
pensions using the 'Navodaya' app.
All persons above 60 years will be automatically 25) Answer: C
selected as beneficiaries of old-age pension based on The International Cricket Council (ICC) on January 27,
their annual income. 2021 announced the 'ICC Player of the Month' awards to
The government will make use of the Aadhaar and recognise the best performances of male and female
income certificates database in selecting beneficiaries. cricketers across all three forms of international cricket.
Purpose : To enable beneficiaries to get the pension The ICC elaborated further by saying that an
without the need of middlemen. independent ICC Voting Academy comprising former
players, journalists and broadcasters from around the

24) Answer: D world will team up with fans to vote for the ICC Men's
India has ranked at 86th position among 98 countries in and Women's Player of the Month.
the new Coronavirus Performance Index. The awards will be conferred starting from this month
It was Released by Australia-based Lowy Institute. onwards.
According to the performance index New Zealand ICC stated that there have been some sensational
handled the pandemic more effectively than any other cricketing performances during January 2021, which will
country in the world, while Brazil sits at the bottom of the make an inaugural player of the month awards a highly
list. competitive affair.

The study measured a number of key indicators, January 2021 has seen some of the finest
including confirmed cases, deaths, cases per million performances, especially by young cricketers such as
people and deaths per million people. Washington Sundar (India), Rishabh Pant (India),
Countries were ranked based on the publicly available Mohammed Siraj (India) and T. Natarajan (India) and
and comparable data on Covid-19 response. China was established players including Steve Smith (Australia),
excluded from the list due to lack of publicly available Joe Root(England), Ravichandran Ashwin (India),
data. Nadine de Klerk (South Africa), Marizanne Kapp (South
Africa) and Nida Dar (Pakistan).
Page 82 of 83
Page 83 of 83
Page 1 of 99
Reasoning Ability
Direction (1): Some statements are followed by Direction (3-4): In each of the following questions,
some conclusions in each option. Choose the the relationship between different elements is
option in which the conclusion doesn’t follow the shown in the statements followed by some
given statement. conclusions. Find a conclusion which logically
1) Statement: follows.
B < H < J; L > F = G; H < F > T 3) Statement:
A. H < G P ≤ Y ≥ J ; L = U < O; I > L ≤ G = Y
B. L > T Conclusion:
C. J > F I). O > I
D. B < F II). G ≥ J
E. All follows III). U = Y
A. Only I follows
Direction (2): In each of the following questions, the B. Only II follows
relationship between different elements is shown in C. Only III follows
the statements followed by two conclusions. D. All follow
Choose the right answer. E. None follows
2) Statements:
4) Statement:
U≥H≥K<P=R≤B≤K
M < S < A < C ; O ≥ C = T ≥ B; K ≥ L > T > V
Conclusions:
Conclusion:
I) B ≥ H
I). K = B
II) H > B
II). A < L
A. Only I is true
III). K > B
B. Only II is true
A. Only II follows
C. Either I or II is true
B. Only III follows
D. Both I and II are true
C. Both II and III follow
E. Neither I nor II is true
D. Only II and either I or III follow
Page 2 of 99
E. None follows E. Both II and III follow

Direction (5-8): In the following questions, the 7) Statement:
relationship between different elements is shown in A ≤ B = K; J = N ≤ P = T ≥ O; K > N =Q
the statements. The statements are followed by Conclusion:
conclusions. Find the conclusion which logically I). J = Q
follows the given statements. II). A < N
5) Statement: III). J > O
G ≥ R = P < T ≤ Q; A < R < K = O; R ≤ U > B = J A. Only III follow
Conclusions: B. Only I follow
I). A > Q C. Both I and II follow
II). R ≤ T D. Both I and III follow
III). A < U E. Both II and III follow
A. Either I or II follows
8) Statement:
B. Only II and III follow
S ≤ T = M; I = G < L < N = K ≤ U; T < L =O
C. Only I and II fol
Conclusion:
D. Only III follows
I). O < U
E. Only I and III follow
II). I < K
6) Statement: III). M = I
R = O; P ≤ J ≤ N = Q = O < T; N = K ≥ S A. Both II and III follow
Conclusions: B. Only III follows
I). S ≤ R C. Both I and II follow
II). P ≤ K D. All follow
III). J = R E. None follows
A. Only I follow
B. Only II follows Direction (9-12): In each of the following questions,
C. Only III follows the relationship between different elements is
D. Both I and II follow
Page 3 of 99
shown in the statements followed by conclusions. I). F < H

Find the conclusion which is definitely true II). W ≤ G
9) Statements: III). D > H
H≥M≥G>K ≥V ≤ A ≥ R A. Only I is true
Conclusions: B. Both I and III are true
I) V < M C. Both II and III are true
II) A > V D. Both I and II are true
III) G>A E. None is true
A. Only I is true
12) Statement:
B. Only II is true
X = G > B ≥ O > P = I; U > G ≤ T ≤ K
C. Only III is true
Conclusion:
D. Both I and II are true
I). U N> K; Z < R < K; J > N ≤ U < S A. Only I is true
Conclusion: B. Both I and III are true
I). R < C C. Both II and III are true
II). Z ≤ S D. Both I and II are true
III). J > R E. None is true
A. Only III is true
B. Both I and III are true Direction (13-15): In each of the following
C. Both II and III are tru questions, the relationship between different
D. Both I and II are true elements is shown in the statements followed by
E. None is true conclusions. Find the conclusion which is definitely
true.
11) Statement:
13) Statement:
L > S = F > W; D < Y ≥ L; Y < G < H
K ≤ L < M < N; T = N > O > P; G R
Conclusion:
Page 4 of 99
Conclusion: B. Both I and III follow

I). R = N C. Both II and III follow
II). T > K D. Both I and II follow
III). N > R E. None follows
A. Both I and II follow
B. Both I and III follow Direction (16-20): In the questions below assume
C. Both II and III follow the given statements to be true and find which of
D. Only II and either I or III follows the following conclusions numbered as I and II
E. None follows is/are definitely true and the give your answer
accordingly.
14) Statements:
16) N > E = K; S < N ≥ I; O > K > G
S>T≥U≥Y=K<C>D≥P≥R
Conclusions: I. E < G II. N > G
Conclusions:
A. Only conclusion I is true
I) S < C
B. Only conclusion II is true
II) D ≥ R
C. Either conclusion I or II is true
III). U > C
D. Neither conclusion I nor II is true
A. Both I and II follow
E. Both conclusions I and II are true
B. Only III follow
C. Both II and III follow 17) S ≤ Z < A = D; D ≤ F < X > O; O > U ≥ M
D. Only II follow Conclusions: I. S < F II. X ≥ M
E. None follows A. Only conclusion II is true
B. Only conclusion I is true
15) Statement:
C. Either Conclusion I or II is true
N < M = O ≥ P ≥ Q = R; Q < S; T > S ≥ U
D. Both conclusion I and II are true
Conclusion:
E. Neither conclusion I nor II is true
I). R < T
II). O > U 18) A > Z < Q < O = I; V > P ≤ N = G < I; V < T ≥ B
III). S > N Conclusions: I. O > V II. V ≤ O
A. Only I follow A. Only conclusion I is true
Page 5 of 99
B. Only conclusion II is true Coimbatore. All the information is not necessarily in

C. Both conclusion I and II are true the same order.
D. Either conclusion I or II is true Note: The person whose name starts with
E. Neither conclusion I nor II are true consecutive letters in English alphabetical series
19) L > V < X < A; A ≥ B >U= N ≥ S > R; R < C are not sitting together (ie., A is not sitting with B, B
Conclusions: I. R < N II. V ≥ S is not sitting with A and C and So on.,).
A. Only conclusion I is true E sits third to the left of the one who sits second to
B. Only conclusion II is true the right of the one who lives in Erode. Two persons
C. Either conclusion I or II is true are sitting between E and the one who have an
D. Neither conclusion I nor II is true account in Indian Bank. The one who lives in Theni
E. Both conclusions I and II are true sits second to the right of the one who has an
account in an Indian bank. The number of persons
20) Y > W > V; I = Q ≥ U ≥ V; X ≤ B ≤ I < K
sitting between E and the one who lives in Theni is
Conclusions: I. V ≤ I II. K > B
the same as between E and A. A and the one who
A. Only conclusion I is true
has an account in SBI are immediate neighbors. E
B. Only conclusion II is true
does not have an account in SBI. D sits third to the
C. Both conclusions I and II are true
right of A. One person sits between C and A. B sits
D. Either conclusions I or II is true
opposite to the one who sits immediate right of the
E. Neither conclusions I nor II is true
one who has an account in BOI. Neither E nor D
has an account in BOI. F who lives in Chennai sits
immediate right of the one who lives in Coimbatore.
H neither has an account in an Indian bank nor SBI.
Eight people- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting
Either E or G has an account in Axis bank. The one
at the circular table facing the centre. They are
who has an account in BOB is living in Madurai.
having a bank account in different banks- BOI, SBI,
Neither E nor D lives in Salem. The one who lives in
BOB, PNB, Indian Bank, HDFC, Axis, and ICICI.
Madurai sits third to the left of the one who lives in
And they are living in different cities- Chennai,
Vellore. Neither C nor A has an account in PNB.
Erode, Salem, Madurai, Karur, Theni, Vellore, and
Page 6 of 99
The one who has an account in ICICI does not live E. All I, II, and III
in Theni.
21) Who among the following person lives in 24) If D is related to SBI and E is related to BOI in a
Salem? certain way. Then who among the following is
A. The one who sits second to the left of C related to Indian?
B. The one who has an account in ICICI bank A. The one who has an account in HDFC
C. The one who has an account in SBI B. The one who sits opposite to G
D. The one who sits immediate right of E C. The one who has an account in Axis bank
E. The one who has an account in Axis bank D. The one who sits third to the left of A
E. None of the above
22) How many persons are sitting between the one
who has an account in PNB and the one who lives 25) Which of the following combination is true?
in Theni when counted to the right of the one who A. C-HDFC-Vellore
lives in Theni? B. F-Indian-Chennai
A. One C. A-Erode-SBI
B. Two D. H-BOI-Coimbatore
C. Three E. G-Theni-PNB
D. Four
E. Either b or d Directions (26-30): Study the following information
23) Which of the following statement is/are false? Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting
I. E has an account in Axis bank at the circular table facing outside. They belong to
II. H lives in Vellore the different professions- Engineer, Scientist,
III. D has an account in SBI and lives in Coimbatore Nurse, Banker, Lawyer, Doctor, Teacher, and
A. Only I and III Businessman. And they like different fruits-
B. Only III Jackfruit, Mango, Banana, Apple, Guava, Grapes,
C. Only I and II Avocado and Figs. All the information is not
D. Only II necessarily in the same order.
Page 7 of 99
S sits opposite to the one who sits third to the left of E. Second to the left
the one who likes Mango. One person is sitting
between S and W. The one who likes grapes sits 27) In which of the following statement first person
second to the left of W. P sits second to the left of and the second person are sitting opposite to each
the one who sits immediate right of the one who other in the final arrangement?
likes Grapes. P and U are sitting adjacent to each I. R and the one who is Teacher
other. The doctor sits second to the left of W. The II. The one who likes Jackfruit and the one who is
one who is Nurse and Doctor are sitting opposite to Banker
each other. The one who likes Banana sits III. The one who likes Grapes and Q
immediate right of Q who is not a nurse. Q neither A. Only II
sits adjacent to P nor W. R who likes Guava sits B. Only I and II
opposite to the one who likes Avocado. V neither C. Only III
likes Grapes nor Banana. The one who likes D. All I, II, and III
Jackfruit sits third to the right of the one who likes E. None of these
Apple. The Engineer likes Jackfruit. The one who is
Banker neither sits adjacent to Nurse nor Doctor. 28) Four of the five among the following are similar
The one who is a Scientist sits second to the right in such a way to form a group, who among the
of the one who is a Lawyer. Either Lawyer or Nurse following doesn’t belong to the group?
likes Guava. The one who is the Teacher does not A. SQ
sit adjacent to T. The one who likes apple does not B. The one who is Teacher, The one who is Banker
sit adjacent to the one who likes mango C. P, The one who likes Grapes
D. The one who is Lawyer, W
26) What is the position of the one who likes Guava E. V, The one who likes Apple
with respect to the one who is a Scientist?
A. Immediate left 29) Who among the following person stands third to
B. Immediate right the left of the one who likes Figs?
C. Second to the right A. The one who sits immediate left of the one who
D. Third to the right is Banker
Page 8 of 99
B. The one who sits immediate right of the one who one who ordered Dosa. The one who wears Black
likes Grapes color shirt sits third to the right of the one who sits
C. U immediate right of the one who ordered Dosa. Two
D. The one who likes Jackfruit persons are sitting between P and the one who
E. The one who is Businessman ordered Upma. S and the one who ordered Upma
are opposite to each other. The one who wears a
30) Which of the following statement is/are false? Redshirt ordered Idli and sits third to the right of S.
I. S-Teacher- Figs The numbers of persons sitting between S and R
II. P-Banker-Apple are the same as between S and L. The one who
III. W- Engineer- Jackfruit ordered Chapathi sits second to the left of the one
A. Only I and III who ordered Adai. The one who ordered Adai sits
B. Only III immediate left of the one who ordered Dosa. N who
C. Only I and II wears a Yellow shirt neither sits adjacent to L nor R.
D. Only II The one who ordered Uthappam wears Green Shirt.
E. None of the statement is false The one who wears a Green shirt sits second to the
left of O. M neither ordered Appam nor Uthappam.
Directions (31-35): Study the following information Q does not wear a Black shirt. The one who wears
carefully and answer the below questions. a Blue shirt does not sit adjacent to M. Neither M
Eight persons- L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S are sitting nor R wears an Orange shirt. The one who wears a
at the circular table facing the centre in the hotel. White shirt sits immediate left of the one who sits
They ordered different food items- Upma, Dosa, opposite to Q. R doesn’t order appam
Uthappam, Adai, Poori, Chapathi, Idli, and Appam. 31) In which of the following statement, the persons
And they are wearing different color shirts-White, are sitting opposite to each other?
Pink, Blue, Orange, Black, Red, Green, and Yellow. I. The one who wears a White shirt and N
All the information is not necessarily in the same II. The one who ordered Idli and P
order. III OM
P sits second to the left of the one who sits opposite A. Only II
to R. Two persons are sitting between R and the B. Only I and II
Page 9 of 99
C. Only III 35) Which of the following combination is false?

D. All I, II, and III A. M-Poori-Pink
E. None of these B. R-Chapathi-White
C. Q-Uthappam-Green
32) How many persons are sitting between R and D. Blue-P-Adai
the one who ordered Appam? E. L-Idli-Red
A. One
B. Two Directions (36-40): Study the following information
C. Three carefully and answer the below questions.
D. Four Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting
E. Either b or d at the circular table. Four of them are facing inside
and four of them are facing outside. They bought
33) Who among the following person sits third to different nuts- Hazelnuts, Walnuts, Cashews,
the right of the one who ordered Poori? Peanuts, Almonds, Cherries, Apricot and Pistachio.
A. The one who ordered Appam And they spend different amounts. All the
B. The one who ordered Dosa information is not necessarily in the same order.
C. The one who sits second to the left of O Note: The person whose name starts with
D. P consecutive letters in English alphabetical series
E. L are not sitting together (ie., A is not sitting with B, B
is not sitting with A and C and So on.,). Not more
34) Who among the following persons ordered than 1200 rupees spend to buy nuts. Not more than
Appam and the one who wears Blue shirt two persons who are facing the same direction
respectively? sitting together.
A. O, S The one who bought Apricot sits third to the left of
B. N, The one who ordered Dosa G who faces the centre. Two persons are sitting
C. S, The one who ordered Poori between the one who bought Apricot and the one
D. L, R who spends 300rs. A sits second to the right of G
E. The one who wears a yellow shirt, Q and sits opposite to the one who bought Cherries. B
Page 10 of 99
sits second to the left of H, both are facing the 36) What is the position of the one who bought
same direction. B and G are facing the opposite Almonds with respect to the one who has spent
direction and sits adjacent to each other. The 1200rs?
immediate neighbors of the one who likes Apricot A. Immediate left
are facing the opposite direction to each other. The B. Immediate right
immediate neighbors of A are facing the same C. Fourth to the right
direction. E sits third to the left of F. The one who D. Third to the right
bought Cashew neither sits adjacent to E nor B. E. Second to the left
One person sits between A and the one who
spends 250rs. The one who bought Almonds sits 37) Four of the five among the following are similar
second to the right of the one who spends 250rs. in such a way to form a group, who among the
The one who bought Walnuts spends 700rs and following doesn’t belong to the group?
faces outside. The one who spends 250rs and the A. The one who bought Cashews
one who spends 700rs are immediate neighbors. B. The one who bought Peanuts
Neither E nor G bought Pistachio. The sum of the C. The one who spends 1200rs
cost of Walnuts and Almonds is 100 less than the D. The one who spends 750rs
cost of Pistachio. The one who bought Cashew E. The one who sits immediate left of F
spend twice the amount of Peanuts. The one who
sits opposite to B does not buy Peanut. The sum of 38) What is the sum of the amount (in rupees)
the cost of Cashew and Peanut is equal to the cost spent by the one who bought Pistachio, Apricot,
of Hazelnuts. The one who sits second to the right and the one who sits immediate left of the one who
of E spends thrice of the amount of the one who sits bought Walnut?
immediate left of E. The difference between the A. 2500
amount spent by H and D is 100rs more than the B. 2250
difference between the amount spent by F and H. F C. 2350
spends more than H. D. 2150
E. 1750
Page 11 of 99
39) Who among the following person sits third to Note: The persons who are facing the centre have
the left of the one who bought Hazelnuts? an even number of cookies and the person who is
A. F facing outside have an odd number of cookies. No
B. The one who bought Peanuts one has more than 32 cookies.
C. The one who bought Walnuts The one who likes Gingerbread sits second to the
D. The one who spends 500rs right of the one who sits opposite to the one who
E. The one who spends 300rs has 13 cookies. The one who likes Chocolate chip
sits as an immediate neighbor of the one who has
40) Which of the following statement is true? 13 cookies. The one who likes chocolate chips
A. F and C are immediate neighbors doesn’t sit adjacent to the one who likes
B. A bought Cashew gingerbread. Two persons are sitting between the
C. The one who bought Apricot spends 200rs less one who likes Chocolate chip and the one who likes
than C Biscotti. The one who likes Snicker Doodles neither
D. The one who bought Hazelnuts sits second to sits adjacent to the one who likes Biscotti nor
the left of B Chocolate chip. The immediate neighbors of the
E. F sits third to the left of G one who likes Snickerdoodle facing the opposite
direction. The immediate neighbors of the one who
Directions (41-45): Study the following information likes Gingerbread are facing the opposite direction.
carefully and answer the below questions. V sits immediate right of Gingerbread, both are
Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting facing the same direction. U sits third to the right of
at the circular table. Four of them are facing inside the one who sits second to the left of the one who
and four of them are facing outside. They like the likes Snicker Doodle. U and V are facing the
different cookies-Chocolate chip, Shortbread, opposite direction. The one who likes Shortbread
Biscotti, Sugar, Snickerdoodle, Fortune, Macaron, has 31 cookies. The one who likes chocolate chip is
and Gingerbread. And they have a different number facing centre. The one who likes shortbread sits
of cookies. All the information is not necessarily in second to the left of S. Q who likes Macaron sits
the same order. opposite to P. Neither V nor S likes Fortune. T
neither likes Chocolate chip nor Fortune. W sits
Page 12 of 99
second to the left of T, vice versa. V has more E. None of the statement is false
cookies than U. T has one-fourth of the cookies of
V. The one who has 22 cookies sits immediate left 43) Four of the five among the following are similar
of the one who has 19 cookies, vice versa. The in such a way to form a group, who among the
difference between the cookies having by V and Q following doesn’t belong to the group?
is the same as the difference between the cookies A. The one who likes Macaron
having by T and R. The sum of the cookies having B. The one who sits immediate left of S
by W and the one who likes Gingerbread is equal to C. The one who sits second to the left of the one
the cookies that P has. S does not sit immediate who likes Snickerdoodle
right of Q. D. R
41) How many cookies does the one who likes E. The one who likes Fortune
Biscotti?
A. 21 44) Who among the following person sits second to
B. 13 the right of the one who has 18 cookies?
C. 31 A. The one who sits second to the left of S
D. 19 B. The one who sits immediate left of the one who
E. 22 has 8 cookies
C. The one who has Biscotti
42) In which of the following statement, both D. The one who has 22 cookies
persons are facing the same direction? E. U
I. The one who likes Fortune, P
II. The one who likes Shortbread, The one who has 45) Which of the following statement is/are false?
32 cookies I. P and T are facing the opposite direction
III. The one who has 8 cookies, V II. R likes Chocolate chip
A. Only I and III III. W likes Fortune and has 13 cookies
B. Only III A. Only I and III
C. Only I and II B. Only III
D. Only II C. Only I and II
Page 13 of 99
D. Only II E. None of the statement is false
Direction (1):
1) Answer: C Direction (5-8):
a) H < G ; H<F=G (True) 5) Answer: D
b) L > T ; L>F>T (True) A > Q -> A < R = P < T ≤ Q -> False
c) J > F ; J>H<F (False) R ≤ T -> R = P < T -> False
d) B < F ; B<H<F (True) A A < R ≤ U -> True
Hence, option C is correct.
6) Answer: D
Direction (2): S ≤ R -> S ≤ K=N = Q = O = R-> True
2) Answer: C P ≤ K-> P ≤ J ≤ N= K-> True
I) B ≥ H (False) J= R-> J ≤ N = Q = O = R-> False
II) H > B (False)
7) Answer: B
J = Q -> J = N = Q -> True
Direction (3-4):
A < N -> A ≤ B = K> N -> False
3) Answer: B
J > O -> J = N ≤ P = T ≥ O -> False
I). O > I --> O > U = L False
II). G ≥ J --> G = Y ≥ J -->True
8) Answer: C
III). U = Y --> U = L ≤ G = Y -->False
O O = L < N = K ≤ U -> True
Hence, Option B is correct.
I < K -> I = G < L < N = K -> True
M = I -> M < L > G = I -> False
4) Answer: C
I). K = B --> K ≥ L > T ≥ B -->False
Direction (9-12):
II). A < L --> A < C = T < L -->True
9) Answer: A
III). K > B --> K ≥ L > T ≥ B -->True
I) V < M (True)
Hence, Option C is correct.
II) A > V (False)
Page 14 of 99
III) G>A (False) III) U > C (U ≥ Y = K < C) --> False

So, conclusion II only follows.
10) Answer: B
I). R < C --> R < K < N < A = C -->True 15) Answer: A
II). Z ≤ S -->Z < R < K < N ≤ U < S -->False I). R < T --> R = Q < S < T -->True
III). J > R --> J > N > K > R -->True II). O > U --> O ≥ P ≥ Q < S ≥ U -->False
III). S > N --> S > Q ≤ P ≤ O= M > N -->False
11) Answer: A
Hence, Option A is correct.
I). F < H --> F = S < L ≤ Y < G < H -->True
II). W ≤ G --> W < F = S < L ≤ Y < G -->False Direction (16-20):
III). D > H --> D < Y < G < H -->False 16) Answer: B
Hence, Option A is correct. I. E<G (false) (as I ≤ N > E = K > G)
II. N > G(true) (as I ≤ N > E = K > G, hence N > G)
12) Answer: C
Hence option b is correct.
I). U U > G > B ≥ O > P = I -->False
II). I < T --> I = P < O ≤ B < G ≤ T -->True 17) Answer: E
III). P < K --> P < O ≤ B < G ≤ T ≤ K -->True From the given statements,
Hence, Option C is correct. I. S<F (false ) (as S ≤ Z < A = D ≤ F)
II. X ≥ M (false) (as X > O > U ≥ M)
Direction (13-15): Hence option E is correct.
13) Answer: C
18) Answer: E
I). R = N --> R < Q ≤ P < O < N -->False
From the given statements,
II). T > K -->T = N > M > L ≥ K -->True
I. O > V (false) (as O = I > G = N ≥ P < V, hence no
III). N > R -->N > O > P ≥ Q > R -->True
direct relationship between O and V)
Hence, Option C is correct.
II. V ≤ O (false) (as O = I > G = N ≥ P < V, hence no
14) Answer: D
direct relationship between V and O)
S>T≥U≥Y=K<C>D≥P≥R
Hence option E is correct.
I) S < C (S > T ≥ U ≥ Y = K < C) --> False
II) D ≥ R (D ≥ P ≥ R) --> True
19) Answer: A
Page 15 of 99
From the given statements, From the above condition, there are two
R < N (true) (as N ≥ S > R, hence N > R) possibilities.
V ≥ S (false) (as V < X < A ≥ B > U = N ≥ S, hence
no direct relationship between V and S)
Hence option A is correct.
20) Answer: C
From the given statements,
I. V ≤ I (true)(as I = Q ≥ U ≥ V, hence V ≤ I)
II. K > B (true) (as X ≤ B ≤ I < K hence K > B) Again we have,
Hence option C is correct. • The one who lives in Theni sits second to the
right of the one who has an account in an
Directions (21-25): Indian bank.
Final Arrangement • The number of persons sitting between E
and the one who lives in Theni is the same
as between E and A.
• A and the one who has an account in SBI
are immediate neighbors.
• E does not have an account in SBI.
possibilities.
We have,
• E sits third to the left of the one who sits
second to the right of the one who lives in
Erode.
• Two persons are sitting between E and the
one who have an account in Indian Bank.
Page 16 of 99
Again we have,
• D sits third to the right of A.
• One person sits between C and A.
• B sits opposite to the one who sits immediate
right of the one who has an account in BOI.
• Neither E nor D has an account in BOI.
• The person whose name starts with
consecutive letters in English alphabetical
series are not sitting together Again we have,
From the above condition, case2a gets eliminated. • The one who has an account in BOB is living
in Madurai.
• Neither E nor D lives in Salem.
• The one who lives in Madurai sits third to the
left of the one who lives in Vellore.
Again we have,
• F who lives in Chennai sits immediate right
of the one who lives in Coimbatore.
• H neither has an account in Indian nor SBI
• Either E or G has an account in Axis bank.
Again we have,
• Neither C nor A has an account in PNB.
• The one who has an account in ICICI does
not live in Theni.
From the above condition, case1 shows the final
arrangement.
Page 17 of 99
• S sits opposite to the one who sits third to

the left of the one who likes Mango.
• One person is sitting between S and W.
possibilities.
21) Answer: C
22) Answer: D
23) Answer: B Again we have,
24) Answer: A • The one who likes grapes sits second to the
25) Answer: B left of W.
Directions (26-30): • P sits second to the left of the one who sits
Final Arrangement immediate right of the one who likes Grapes.
• P and U are sitting adjacent to each other.
possibilities.
We have,
Again we have,
Page 18 of 99
• The doctor sits second to the left of W. Again we have,

• The one who is Nurse and Doctor are sitting • The Engineer likes Jackfruit.
opposite to each other. • The one who is Banker neither sits adjacent
• The one who likes Banana sits immediate to Nurse nor Doctor.
right of Q who is not a nurse. • The one who is a Scientist sits second to the
• Q neither sits adjacent to P nor W. right of the one who is a Lawyer.
• Either Lawyer or Nurse likes Guava.
Again we have,
• R who likes Guava sits opposite to the one
who likes Avocado.
• V neither likes Grapes nor Banana. Again we have,
• The one who likes Jackfruit sits third to the • The one who is the Teacher does not sit
right of the one who likes Apple. adjacent to T.
• The one who likes apple does not sit From the above condition, case1 gets eliminated.
adjacent to the one who likes mango. Case1a shows the final arrangement.
Page 19 of 99
26) Answer: E
27) Answer: B
28) Answer: E
29) Answer: B
30) Answer: C
Directions (31-35):
Final Arrangement Again we have,
• The one who wears Black color shirt sits
third to the right of the one who sits
immediate right of the one who ordered
Dosa.
• Two persons are sitting between P and the
one who ordered Upma.
possibilities
We have,
• P sits second to the left of the one who sits
opposite to R.
• Two persons are sitting between R and the
one who ordered Dosa.
Again we have,
possibilities.
• S and the one who ordered Upma are
opposite to each other.
• The one who wears a Redshirt ordered Idli
and sits third to the right of S.
Page 20 of 99
• The number of persons sitting between S • The one who wears a Green shirt sits
and R is the same as between S and L. second to the left of O.
Again we have,
Again we have,
• The one who ordered Chapathi sits second
• M neither ordered Appam nor Uthappam.
to the left of the one who ordered Adai.
• Q does not wear a Black shirt.
• The one who ordered Adai sits immediate
• The one who wears a Blue shirt does not sit
left of the one who ordered Dosa.
adjacent to M.
• Neither M nor R wears an Orange shirt. R
doesn’t order appam.
• The one who wears a White shirt sits
immediate left of the one who sits opposite
Q.
Again we have,
• N who wears a Yellow shirt neither sits
adjacent to L nor R.
• The one who ordered Uthappam wears
Green Shirt.
Page 21 of 99
• Two persons are sitting between the one

who bought Apricot and the one who spends
300rs.
possibilities.
31) Answer: B
32) Answer: C
33) Answer: A
34) Answer: B
35) Answer: D Again we have,
• A sits second to the right of G and sits
Directions (36-40): opposite to the one who bought Cherries.
Final Arrangement • B sits second to the left of H, both are facing
the same direction.
• B and G are facing the opposite direction
and sits adjacent to each other.
We have,
• The one who bought Apricot sits third to the Again we have,
left of G who faces the centre.
Page 22 of 99
• The immediate neighbors of the one who

likes Apricot are facing the opposite direction
to each other.
• The immediate neighbors of A are facing the
same direction.
• E sits third to the left of F. Again we have,
• The one who bought Cashew neither sits • The one who bought Walnuts spends 700rs
adjacent to E nor B. and faces outside.
• Not more than two persons who are facing • The one who spends 250rs and the one who
the same direction sitting together. spends 700rs are immediate neighbors.
• Neither E nor G bought Pistachio
• The sum of the cost of Walnuts and Almonds
is 100 less than the cost of Pistachio.
From the above condition, case1 and case2a get
eliminated.
Again we have,
• One person sits between A and the one who
spends 250rs.
• The one who bought Almonds sits second to
Again we have,
the right of the one who spends 250rs.
• The one who bought Cashew spend twice
From the above Condition, there are three
the amount of Peanuts.
possibilities.
• The one who sits opposite to B does not buy
Peanut.
• The sum of the cost of Cashew and Peanut
is equal to the cost of Hazelnuts.
Page 23 of 99
• The one who sits second to the right of E

spends thrice of the amount of the one who
sits immediate left of E.
• The difference between the amount spent by
H and D is 100rs more than the difference
between the amount spent by F and H.
• F spends more amount than H.
From the above condition, case2 shows the final
arrangement.
We have,
• The one who likes Gingerbread sits second
to the right of the one who sits opposite to
the one who has 13 cookies.
possibilities.
36) Answer: C
37) Answer: E
38) Answer: B
39) Answer: B
40) Answer: C Again we have,
• The one who likes Chocolate chip sits as the
Directions (41-45): immediate neighbor of the one who has 13
Final Arrangement cookies. The one who likes chocolate chips
doesn’t sit adjacent to the one who likes
gingerbread.
Page 24 of 99

who likes Chocolate chip and the one who
likes Biscotti.
• The one who likes Snicker Doodles neither
sits adjacent to the one who likes Biscotti nor
Chocolate chip.
Again we have,
• U sits third to the right of the one who sits
second to the left of the one who likes
Snicker Doodle.
• U and V are facing the opposite direction.
The one who likes chocolate chip is facing
Again we have, centre.
likes Snickerdoodle are facing the opposite
direction.
likes Gingerbread are facing the opposite
direction.
• V sits immediate right of Gingerbread, both
are facing the same direction.
Again we have,
• The one who likes Shortbread has 31
cookies.
• The one who likes shortbread sits second to
the left of S.
• Q who likes Macaron sits opposite to P.
Page 25 of 99
• S does not sit immediate right of Q.

possibilities.
Again we have,
• Neither V nor S likes Fortune.
• T neither likes Chocolate chip nor Fortune Again we have,
• W sits second to the left of T, vice versa. • V has more cookies than U.
From the above condition, case2 and case2a get • T has one-fourth of the cookies of V.
eliminated. • The one who has 22 cookies sits immediate

left of the one who has 19 cookies, vice
versa.
• The difference between the cookies having
by V and Q is the same as the difference
between the cookies having by T and R.
• The sum of the cookies having by W and the
one who likes Gingerbread is equal to the
cookies that P has.
Page 26 of 99
From the above condition, case1 shows the final 42) Answer: A
arrangement 43) Answer: E
44) Answer: B
45) Answer: E
41) Answer: D
1. There are 18 students in the class. The average 2. In a class have 20 students. If the quarterly
weight of the class is increased by 1 kg when two exam, the average marks of the first 8 students is
new students A and B joined the class. If A only 200 less than the average marks scored by the last
joined the class the average weight of the class is 12 students and the half-yearly exam, the average
increased by 2 kg and the ratio of the weight of A marks scored by the last 12 students is decreased
to B is 11: 4, then find the average weight of the by 120 compared to the Quarterly exam average
class initially? but the average marks scored by all the students in
A.48 kg the class is increased by 80 compared Quarterly
B.50 kg exam average. Find the increased average marks
C.52 kg scored by the first 8 students in half-yearly exam?
D.54 kg A.120
E. None of these B.260
C.290
D.380
Page 27 of 99
E.420 80. The average number of correct is 45. Find the

3. A’s income is 50% of C’s income and C’s average number of not attended by both, if the
income is 50% more than B’s income. If the total number of is 90.
average income of A, B and C is Rs.2600 and the A.20
average of the income of A and B is equal to the B.30
D’s income, then what is the average income of D C.15
and C? D.22
A.Rs.2670 E.25
B.Rs.2760
C.Rs.2850 6. The ratio of the number of boys to girls in the
D.Rs.2980 class is 4: 3 and the average age of the boys is 2
E. None of these years more than the average age of girls. If the
difference between the number of boys and girls in
4. The average sale of Monday to Wednesday is the class is 4 and the total ages of the girls in the
25 lakhs and that of Tuesday to Thursday is 21 class is 120 years less than the total ages of the
lakhs. If the sale on Thursday is 4/5th of Monday, boys in the class, then what is the approximate
the sale on Thursday is? average age of the class?
A.36 lakhs A.20
B.60 lakhs B.23
C.12 lakhs C.25
D.48 lakhs D.28
E. None of these E.31
5. A quiz is attended by two students A and B. For 7. The average weight of class A is 45 kg and the
each correct answer, 2 marks are awarded, for a average weight of class B is 40.5 kg. The average
wrong answer 25% of the mark will be deducted, weight of the boys in class A is 48 kg and the
no mark will be deducted for not attending a average weight of girls in class B is 36 kg. If the
question. The average mark of the two students is total number of students in class A and B is 24 and
Page 28 of 99
20 respectively, then find the ratio between the than the average weight of the first three row
number of girls in class A and the number of boys students in the class. If the total weight of 4th row
in class B, if the average weight of girls in class A students is 24 kg less than the total weight of
and boys in class B is 40 kg and 42 kg 5th row students in the class, then find the weight of
respectively? fifth-row students in the class?
A.3: 4 A.66 kg
B.3: 5 B.77 kg
C.1: 2 C.88 kg
D.2: 3 D.99 kg
E. None of these E.108 kg
8. The average weight of the class is 50 kg and the 10. The Total number of students in class A and B
average weight of the boys in the class is 42 kg are same and the average number of boys in both
more than the average weight of the girls in the the classes 80 and the average number of girls in
class. If one student absent in the class, then the both the classes are 40. Boys in class A is ___
average weight of the class is decreased by 2 kg while the difference between the boys and girls in
and the total number of students in the class is 20, class B is ____ and the ratio of boys to girls in class
then find the weight of the girls in the class? A is 7: 5.
A.23 kg Which of the following value will fill the blanks
B.20 kg given in the question in the same order?
C.26 kg A: 80 and 70
D.28 kg B: 60 and 50
E. Can’t be determined C: 70 and 60
A. None
9. The average weight of 8-row students in the B. Only B
class is 60 kg. If the average weight of the first C. Only B and C
three row students is 48 kg and the average weight D. Only A and B
of last three row students in the class is 6 kg more E. Only C
Page 29 of 99
C. Neither I and II
11. The average weight of the first eight students is D. Both I and II
150kg, the average weight of the last ten students E. Either I and II
is 10 more than the average weight of the first
eight students. The average weight of the rest two 13. The average age of 7 member family is 53
students is 300 kg. The average weight of all the years. The difference between the age of the
students is ____Kg. Then the 40% of the weight of Eldest and second eldest person in the family is 6
all the students is ____Kg. years. If the average present age of the eldest
A.175 kg and 55 kg person in the family and the second eldest
B.172 kg and 60 kg person’s age after 6 years is 90 years and the ratio
C.164 kg and 79 kg of second and third youngest person and third and
D.170 kg and 68 kg fourth eldest person in the family is 7:9:14:13
E. None of these respectively and the age of the youngest person is
25 years. Find the average age of the second
12. The average weight of all members in a group eldest and second youngest in the family?
is 150 kg. If the weight of two members is A.52 years
decreased by 36 kg and 52 kg then the average B.56 years
weight of all members becomes 148 kg. If the C.51 years
average weight of all members is arranged in D.58 years
ascending order, then it becomes an arithmetic E.60 years
progression. The lowest weight in a group is
33.33% less than the highest weight. 14. Average age of A and B is 8 years less than C
Which of the following statement(s) is/are can be and the difference between the ages of A and B is
determined? 28 years. If the average age of A and C is 29.5
I). Highest weight in a group years and the average age of C and E is 22 years,
II). Total Members in a group then find the E’s age after 4 years?
A.I only A.12 years
B.II only B.16 years
Page 30 of 99
C.20 years investment of Seeta is more/less than that of

D. Cannot be determined Geeta and rate of interest per annum.
E. None of these
15. Average age of 6 friends is 43.5 years.

Difference between the age of eldest and youngest
member in the group is equal to the third youngest
person in the group. The age of third youngest
person is 12.5% more than the age of second
youngest person. The sum of the ages of second
eldest and fourth youngest person is 101 years
and the difference between the age of second 16. In bank 3, amount invested by Seeta is 20%
youngest and youngest person in the group is 4 more and that of Geeta is 20% less. Seeta
years. What is the sum of the ages of Eldest, third invested her amount under compound interest and
youngest and youngest person in the group? Geeta invested her amount under simple interest
A. 128 years then the difference between profits earned by both
B. 132 years in after 3 year is Rs. 4376.25. If Seeta invested his
C. 136 years actual amount at the rate of 12.5% per annum for 5
D. 130 years years under simple interest, find the interest
E. 124 years earned by Seeta?
A. Rs. 17525
Directions (16-19): B. Rs. 15650
Read the following information carefully and C. Rs. 15625
answer the based on it. D. Rs. 16250
There are two persons Seeta and Geeta those E. None of these
invested their amounts in compound interest or
Simple interest invested in five different banks. The 17. For Bank 5, if total amount invested by Seeta
line graph given below the percentage by which and Geeta is Rs. 98400 and Seeta earning simple
Page 31 of 99
interest for two years and Geeta earning Rs. 1850. If there is another person Neeta who
compound interest for three years. Find difference invested the money which is sum of sum invested
between amount received by Seeta and Geeta? by Seeta and Geeta in both banks, in Bank 4.
A. Rs. 1763 Neeta earning compound interest for 3 years from
B. Rs. 1783 bank 4. From interest earned by Neeta from bank
C. Rs. 1793 4, he gives 37.5% to her elder brother. Find the
D. Rs. 1743 amount received by elder brother of Neeta?
E. None of these A. Rs. 2460
B. Rs. 2467
18. If Seeta and Geeta started a new business, C. Rs. 2463
and they invested in the ratio same as they D. Rs. 2363
invested in Bank 2. Seeta invested his sum for 24 E. Rs. 2472
months and Geeta invested his sum for 30 months.
Total profit earned by them in business is Rs. Directions (20-24):
60480. Profit earned by Geeta invested in bank 2, Study the following information carefully and
earning compound interest for 3 years, and profit answer the given .
earned by Seeta invested in other scheme which The line graph shows the number of students in
offered simple interest @ 31.25% per annum for 2 three different classes (A, B and C).
years. Find the total approx. interest by Seeta from
Other Scheme and by Geeta from bank 2?
A. Rs. 40460
B. Rs. 40480
C. Rs. 40370
D. Rs. 40470
E. None of these
19. If difference between money invested by Seeta

and Geeta in Bank 1 and Bank 4 is Rs. 1250 and
Page 32 of 99
A teacher distributes five different stationary items 21. What is the ratio of the total pencil to total bags
viz. Note, Pen, Book, Pencil and Bag in each class distributed for all the schools together?
for each student. A. 7: 9
In class A, teacher distributes 3 notes, 1 pen, 5 B. 8: 11
books, x pencil and (x - 1) bag for each student. C. 12: 5
Total item distributed in the class A is 480. D. 6: 7
In class B, teacher distributes 4 notes, y pens, (y + E. 5: 4
4) books, (x + 1) pencils and (y - 1) bags for each
student. Total items distributed in the class B is 22. Total pen and pencil distributed for school B
twice the total item distributed in the class A. together is what percentage more/less than the
In class C, total notes distributed by teacher is 10 total note and pen distributed in class C together?
notes more than total notes distributed in class B A. 20% more
and the ratio of total books distributed in class A to B. 20% less
C is 2: 3. And then distributes (y + 1) pens, x C. 40% less
pencils and z bags for each student. D. 25% less
The teacher distributed a total of 2290 stationary E. 25% more
items to all the classes.
23. Which of the following stationary items
20. Quantity I: Find the average number of items distributed maximum for all the class together?
distributed in class A A. Pen
Quantity II: Find the average number of items B. Note
distributed in class B C. Books
A. Quantity I < Quantity II D. Pencil
B. Quantity I = Quantity II E. Bag
C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II 24. What is the difference between the number of
E. Quantity I > Quantity II Note, pen and bags distributed for all the class
Page 33 of 99
together to that of the remaining items distributed B. 1500

for all the class together? C. 1400
A.130 D. 1300
B.180 E. 1100
C.190
D.110 28. (√x-7)*(3375)1/ 3= (4540/80)+(22.75/7)
B. 516
Directions (25-32): C. 243
What value should come in place of question mark D. 351
in the following? E. 146
25. (882 ÷ 21) + 15 * 14=? + (245 ÷ 35) - 12
A.248 29. 2/7 of 3/8 of 5/9 of 8568/5 =? + 621 ÷ 23
B.239 A. 25
C.257 B. 54
D.229 C. 68
E.281 D. 75
E. 92
26. 80 % of 605 – 15 % of 420 + √1444 * √16 = ? *
√576 30. (3√2197 + √1849) - 1/8 of 392 + 377 ÷ 13 =?2
A. 42.152 A. 8
B. 26.045 B. 11
C. 28.891 C. 5
D. 30.432 D. 6
E. 23.875 E. 13
27. 12.5 % of 344 + 75 % of 228 + ? % of 18 = 520 31. (615 ÷ 41) × (217 ÷ 7) + 38% of 450 = ? × (22 ×
A. 1700 3)
Page 34 of 99
A. 89 C. 25
B. 53 D. 40
C. 46 E. 45
D. 69
E. 43 35. 180.01*1.998+450.01% of 890 - 1999.99 +
32. 13.8% of 2500 + 25.5% of 8200 + 30% of 1250 24.998*1.11 = ?
=? + 512 A. 2390
A. 390 B. 2480
B. 180 C. 2220
C. 210 D. 2440
D. 250 E. 2680
E. 340
36. √4760.09+√168.99*7=? + 19.905% of 209.90
Directions (33-39): A. 118
What is the approximate value should come in B. 128
place of question mark in the following? C. 138
33. 1899.981 ÷ √1444.12 - 119.910 % of 34.975 + D. 148
4.932 * 104.292=? E. None of these
A. 521
B. 528 37. 89.99% of 980.012-12.01*78+144.904*3.99=?
C. 537 A. 510
D. 533 B. 526
E. 546 C. 555
D. 545
34. (√1604) % of 500.02 – (√1224) % of 220.20= E. None of these
?% of615.01
A. 20 38. 12.5% of 80+83.33% of 960+16.078% of
B. 15 150=?+134.089
Page 35 of 99
A. 500 D. 1288
B. 600 E. 1073
C. 700
D. 800 42. 328 334 340 349 371 412 547
E. 900 A. 412
B. 547
39. 40.198 % of 279.879 + 60.082 % of 349.921 – C. 340
120.123 % of 450.192 = ? – 262.213 D. 371
A. 44 E. 334
B. 69
C. 56 43. 8, 18, 36, 64, 88, 118, 148
D. 25 A. 36
E. 31 B. 88
C. 64
Directions (40-44): D. 118
Find out the wrong number in the following number E. None of these
series.
40. 19, 40, 64, 89, 113, 132 44. 1527, 1185, 985, 865, 823, 817
A. 132 A. 985
B. 89 B. 865
C. 40 C. 823
D. 113 D. 817
E. 64 E. 1185
41. 852, 880, 945, 1073, 1288, 1632 Directions (45-49):

A. 852 What value should come in the place of (?) in the
B. 880 following number series?
C. 945 45. 82, 85, 46.5, 20.5, 11.125, ?
Page 36 of 99
A. 12.252 A. 673
B. 10.191 B. 675
C. 9.225 C. 677
D. 8.525 D. 679
E. 6.823 E. 681
46. 21, 45, 80, ?, 191, 271 Directions (50-64):

A. 128 In each of the following, two equations are given.
B. 138 You have to solve both the equations to find the
C. 148 relation between x and y.
D. 158 50.
E. 178 I) 20x2 – 67x + 56 = 0
II) 4y2 – 15y + 14 = 0
47. 12, 37, 110, 331, 992, 2977, ? A. If x < y
A. 8930 B. If x > y
B. 7890 C. If x ≤ y
C. 9830 D. If x ≥ y
D. 8790 E. If relationship between x and y cannot be
E. None of these determined
48. 7, 91, 1001, ?, 63063, 315315, 945945 51.

A. 9009 I) x2– 42x – 135 = 0
B. 8008 II) y2+ 42y + 117 = 0
C. 6006 A. x > y
D. 11011 B. x ≥ y
E. None of these C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined
D. x < y
49. 224, 289, 419, ?, 1199, 2239 E. x ≤ y
Page 37 of 99
55.
52. I) 2x2 – 44x + 240 = 0
I) x2– 32x + 247 = 0 II) 4y2 – 48y + 44 = 0
II) y2– 35y + 304 = 0 A. x > y
A. x > y B. x ≥ y
B. x ≥ y C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined D. x < y
D. x < y E. x ≤ y
E. x ≤ y
56.
53. I) x2-51x+644=0
I) x2+ x – 552 = 0 II) 3y2-22y+40=0
II) y2+ 51y + 650 = 0 A. x> y
A. x > y B. x< y
B. x ≥ y C. x ≤ y
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined D. x ≥y
D. x < y E. x = y Or cannot be determined
E. x ≤ y
57.
54. I) 12x2-113x+255=0
I) x2 + 31x + 238 = 0 II) 15y2-16y-15=0
II) 2y2 + 70y + 612 = 0 A. x > y
A. If x > y B. x< y
B. If x ≥ y C. x ≤ y
C. If x = y or relationship can’t be determined. D. x ≥y
D. If x < y E. x = y Or cannot be determined
E. If x ≤ y
58.
Page 38 of 99
I) x2 - 897 = 328 II) y2 - 25y + 126 = 0

II) y2 – 62y + 952 = 0 A. x > y
A. If x > y B. x ≥ y
B. If x ≥ y C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
C. If x = y or relationship can’t be determined. D. x < y
D. If x < y E. x ≤ y
E. If x ≤ y
62.
59. I) x2 – 8x – 660 = 0
I) X² - 37X + 322 = 0 II) y2 + 46y + 528 = 0
II) Y² - 27Y + 182 = 0 A. x > y
A. X < Y B. x ≥ y
B. X > Y C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
C. X ≥ Y D. x < y
D. X ≤ Y E. x ≤ y
E. X = Y or No relation
60.
I) 13.5X² + 27X – 24 = 0 63.
II) Y² + 23Y + 76 = 0 I) x2 – 40x + 391 = 0
A. X < Y II) y2 – 8y – 345 = 0
B. X > Y A. If x > y
C. X ≥ Y B. If x ≥ y
D. X ≤ Y C. If x < y
E. X = Y or No relation D. If x ≤ y
E. If x = y or the relation cannot be established.
61.
I) x2 - 31x + 150 = 0 64.
Page 39 of 99
I) 3x2 – 12x – 135 = 0 C. If x < y

II) y2 - 19y + 90 = 0 D. If x ≤ y
A. If x > y E. If x = y or the relation cannot be established.
B. If x ≥ y

1. Answer: B Average mark scored by first 8 students = x
Total weight of the class initially = 18x Total mark scored by first 8 students = 8x
Average weight after added A and B = x + 1 Average mark scored by last 12 students = y
Average weight of the class after added A = x + 2 Total mark scored by last 12 students = 12y
18x + A + B = 20 * (x + 1) Average marks by class = (8x + 12y)/20
18x + A + B = 20x + 20 y – x = 200
Half -yearly exam:
A + B = 2x + 20 Average marks scored by last 12 students = y – 120
18x + A = 19 * (x + 2) Average marks scored by all the students = (8x +
18x + A = 19x + 38 12y)/20 + 80 = (8x + 12y + 1600)/20
x + 38 = A Total marks scored by first 8 students = (8x + 12y +
x + 38 + B = 2x + 20 1600) – 12 * (y – 120) = 8x + 3040
x – 18 = B Average scored by first 8 students = (8x + 3040)/8
A/B = 11/4 = x + 380
4A = 11B Increased by = x + 380 – x = 380
4 (x + 38) = 11(x – 18)
4x + 152 = 11x – 198 3. Answer: C
7x = 350 A = 50/100 * C
x = 50 kg A = C/2
C = 150/100 * B = 3B/2
2. Answer: D 2A = 3B/2
Quarterly exam: 4A/3 = B
Page 40 of 99
A + B + C = 2600 * 3 = 7800 90*2 – 0.5*W = 160

A + 4A/3 + 2A = 7800 0.5W = 180 – 160 = 20
3A + 4A + 6A = 7800 * 3 W = 40
A = 1800 Number of not attended = 180 – 90 – 40 = 50
B = 4 * 1800/3 = 2400 Average number of not attended = 50/2 = 25
D = (1800 + 2400)/2 = 2100
C = 1800 * 2 = 3600 6. Answer: B
Average of C and D = (3600 + 2100)/2 = Rs.2850 Number of boys = 4 * 4 = 16
Number of girls = 3 * 4 = 12
4. Answer: D Average age of boys = x
m +t+w=75---1 Average age of girls = y
t+w+th=63---2 x – y = 2 ------(1)
1 & 2 => Total age of girls = y * 12
m – th=12 Total age of boys = x * 16
also, th=4/5*m x * 16 – y * 12 = 120
So, m- (4/5)m=12 4x – 3y = 30 ------------(2)
m=60 (1) * 4 – (2)
th=4/5*60 -y = -22
th = 48 lakhs y = 22
x = 24
5. Answer: E Required average = (24 * 16 + 22 * 12)/28
Number of = 90 = 23
Average of marks = 80
Total marks of A and B = 2*80 = 160 7. Answer: B
Average number of correct = 45 Total weight of the class A = 45 * 24 = 1080 kg
Total number of correct = 2*45 = 90 Total weight of the class B = 40.5 * 20 = 810 kg
Let W be the total number of wrong Number of boys in class A = x
For wrong = - 25% of 2 = -0.5 Number of girls in class A = 24 – x
Page 41 of 99
48x + 40 * (24 – x) = 1080 Total weight of fifth and fourth row = 480 – 144 –
48x + 960 – 40x = 1080 162 = 174 kg
8x = 120 Fifth row - Fourth row = 24 kg
x = 15 Weight of fifth row students = (174 + 24)/2 = 99 kg
Number of girls in class A = 24 – 15 = 9
Number of boys in class B = y 10. Answer: E
Number of girls in class B = 20 – y Let, the total number of students in class A and B is
42y + (20 – y) * 36 = 810 ‘12x’ each.
42y + 720 – 36y = 810 Boys in class A = 12x * (7/12) = 7x
6y = 90 Girls in class A = 12x * (5/12) = 5x
y = 15 Total boys in both the classes together = 80 * 2 =
Required ratio = 9: 15 = 3: 5 160
Total girls in both the classes together = 40 * 2 = 80
8. Answer: E Boys in class B = 160 – 7x
Average Weight of the boys = x Girls in class B = 80 – 5x
Average Weight of the girls = y Now,
Total weight of the class = 20 * 50 = 1000 kg (160 – 7x) + (80 – 5x) = 12x
Total weight of 19 students = 19 * 48 = 912 kg 240 = 24x
x – y = 42 x = 10
Weight of the absentees = 1000 – 912 = 88 Boys in class A = 7x = 70
We can’t find the answer. Girls in class A = 5x = 50
Boys in class B = 160 – 7x = 90
9. Answer: D Girls in class B = 80 – 5x = 30
Total weight of the class = 60 * 8 = 480 kg Difference between the boys and girls in class B =
Total weight of first three row = 3 * 48 = 144 kg 90 – 30 = 60
Total weight of last three row = 3 * (48 + 6) = 162 Hence, only statement C is TRUE.
kg
11. Answer: D
Page 42 of 99
Sum of the weight of the first eight students = 150 × 5b = 300

8 = 1200 So, value of b = 60
Sum of the weight of the last ten students = (150 + Highest weight = 60 x 3 = 180
10) × 10 This statement can be determined
= 160 × 10 = 1600 Statement II. Total members in a group = 44
Average weight of rest of two students = 300 This statement can be determined
So, the sum of the last two students = 300 × 2 =
600 13. Answer: B
So, the sum of weight of all students = 1200 + 1600 a>b>c>d>e>f>g
+ 600 = 3400 a + b + c + d + e +f + g = 53 * 7 = 371
So, the average weight of all the students = a–b=6
3400/20 = 170 kg b=a–6
Then the 40% weight of all students = 170 × 40/100 a + (a – 6 + 6) = 90 * 2
= 68 kg a = 90
b = 90 – 6 = 84
12. Answer: D e + f + c + d = 371 – 90 – 84 – 25 = 172
Let the number of persons in a family = a f = 7/43 * 172
Sum of weights of all members = 150a………. (1) = 28
When weight of two persons decreased, so average Required average = (84 + 28)/2
weight of all members = 112/2
Sum of weights of all members of a family = 148a + = 56 years
36 + 52 = 148a + 88…. (2)
Subtracting equation (2) from equation (1) 14. Answer: D
150a – 148a = 88 C - (A + B)/2 = 8
So value of a = 44 2C – A - B = 16
Statement I. let the highest weight = 3b A – B or B – A = 28
Lowest weight = 2b A + C = 59
So, (3b + 2b)/2 = 150 C + E = 44
Page 43 of 99
We cannot find the answer. Amount invested by Geeta = 80% of 50a = 40a
Compound interest earned by Seeta = 48a x 1.15 x
15. Answer: A 1.15 x 1.15 – 48a = 25.002a
A>B>C>D>E>F Simple interest earned by Geeta = 40a x 15% x 3 =
A + B + C + D + E + F = 43.5 * 6 = 261 18a
A–F=D Different of interest earned = 4376.25
D = 112.5/100 * E So, (25.002a – 18a) = 4376.25
B + C = 101 So, a = 4376.25/7.002 = 625
E–F=4 Amount invested by Seeta = 48 x 625 = 30000
A=D+F Actual amount invested by Seeta = (30000/120) x
A = 112.5/100 * E + E - 4 100 = Rs. 25000
101 + 112.5/100 * E + E + E – 4 + 112.5/100 * E + Simple interest earned by Seeta = 12.5% x 5 x
E – 4 = 261 25000 = Rs. 15625
10100 + 112.5E + 200E – 400 + 112.5E + 100E –
400 = 26100 17. Answer: A
E = 32 Ratio of investment of Seeta and Geeta = 7:5
F = 28 Amount invested by Seeta = 7/12 x 98400 = 57400
D = 112.5/100 * 32 = 36 Amount invested by Geeta = 5/12 x 98400 = 41000
A = 36 + 28 = 64 Total amount received by Seeta after 2 years
Required sum = 64 + 36 + 28 = 128 simple interest = 57400 + 57400 x 30% x 2 = 57400
+ 34400 = 91840
Directions (16-19): Total amount received by Geeta after 3 years
16. Answer: C Compound interest = 41000 x 1.3 x 1.3 x 1.3 =
Actual amount invested by Seeta is 20% less than 90077
Geeta, let the amount invested by Seeta and Geeta Required difference = 91840 – 90077 = Rs. 1763
be 40a and 50a.
According to question, 18. Answer: D
Amount of invested by Seeta = 120% of 40a = 48a Ratio of investment of Seeta and Geeta = 5:3
Page 44 of 99
Ratio of time period of investment = 24:30 = 4:5 Class A:

Ratio of profit = 5 x 4: 3 x 5 = 4:3 Total notes = 3 * 40 = 120
Profit share of Seeta = 4/7 x 60480 = Rs. 34560 Total pens = 40 * 1 = 40
Profit share of Geeta = 3/7 x 60480 = Rs. 25920 Total books = 40 * 5 = 200
Simple interest earned by Seeta @ 31.25% for 2 Total pencils = 40 * x
years = 34560 x 31.25% x 2 = Rs. 21600 Total bags = 40 * (x - 1)
Compound interest earned by Geeta @ 20% for 3 Total item = 120 + 40 + 200 + 40x + 40 (x - 1) = 480
years from Bank 2 = 25920 x 1.2 x 1.2 x 1.2 – 80x – 40 = 120
25920 = 18870 (approx.) = > 80x = 160 = > x = 2
Total interest earned = 21600 + 18870 = Rs. 40470 Total pencils = 40 * x = 80
Total bags = 40 * (x - 1) = 40
19. Answer: C Class B:
Ratio of investment of Seeta and Geeta in bank 1 = Total notes = 60 * 4 = 240
3:2 Total pens = 60 * y
Total money invested by (Seeta + Geeta) in bank 1 Total books = 60 * (y + 4)
= 5 x 1250 = Rs. 6250 Total pencils = 60 * (x + 1) = 60 * (2 + 1) = 180
Ratio of money invested by Seeta and Geeta in Total bags = 60 * (y - 1)
Bank 4 = 2:3 Total items = 480 * 2 = 960
Total money invested by (Seeta + Geeta) in bank 4 240 + 60y + 60y + 240 + 180 + 60y – 60 = 960
= 5 x 1850 = 9250 600 + 180y = 960
Total money invested by Neeta in bank 4 = 9250 + = > y = 360/180 = 2
6250 = 15500 Total pens = 60 * y = 120
Total interest earned by Neeta from bank 4 = 15500 Total books = 60 * (y + 4) = 360
x 9/8 x 9/8 x 9/8- 15500 = 6570 (approx.) Total bags = 60 * (y - 1) = 60
Amount given to elder brother of Neeta = 37.5% of Class C:
6570 = Rs. 2463 Total notes = 240 + 10 = 250
Total books = 200/2 * 3 = 300
Directions (20-24): Total pens = 50 * (y + 1) = 50 * (2 + 1) = 150
Page 45 of 99
Total pencils = 50 * x = 50x = 50 * 2 = 100

Total bags = 50 * z 23. Answer: C
Total items = 2290 – 480 – 960 = 850 Note = 610
250 + 300 + 150 + 100 + 50z = 850 Pen = 310
50z = 50 Books = 860
=>z=1 Pencil = 360
Total bags = 50 * 1 = 50 Bag = 150
24. Answer: E
Total Note, pen and bags distributed for all the
class together
= (610 + 310 + 150) = 1070
Remaining items = 2290 – 1070 = 1220
20. Answer: A
Quantity I: Directions (25-32):
Required average = 480/40 = 12 25. Answer: C
Quantity II: (882 ÷ 21) + 15 * 14 =? + (245 ÷ 35) - 12
Required average = 960/60 = 16 42 + 210 =? + 7 – 12
Hence, Quantity I < Quantity II ? = 257
26. Answer: E
21. Answer: C 80 % of 605 – 15 % of 420 + √1444 * √16 =? * √576
Required ratio = 360: 150 = 12: 5 484 – 63 + 152 =? * 24
?= 23.875
22. Answer: D
Required percentage = [(250 + 150) – (120 + 27. Answer: A
180)]/(150 + 250) * 100 12.5 % of 344 + 75 % of 228 + ? % of 18 = 520
= 100/400 * 100 = 25% less 43 + 171+ ? % of 18 = 520
Page 46 of 99
?= 1700 ? = 2811 – 2601 = 210
28. Answer: A Directions (33-39):

(√x-7)*(15) = 56.75+3.25 33. Answer: B
(√x-7)*15=60 1899.981 ÷ √1444.12 - 119.910 % of 34.975 +
(√x-7)=4 4.932 * 104.292=?
√x=11 1900 ÷ √1444 – 120% of 35 + 5 * 104 = ?
x=121 50 – 42 + 520=?
528=?
29. Answer: D
? + 621/23 = 1/7 * 1/4 * 5/3 * 8568/5 34. Answer: A
? + 27 = 102 40% of 500 - 35% of 220 = x% 615
? = 102 – 27 = 75 200 - 77 = x% 615
x = 12300/615 = 20
30. Answer: D
?2 = 13 + 43 - 392/8 + 377/13 35. Answer: A
?2 = 56 – 49 + 29 = 85 – 49 = 36 180.01*1.998+450.01% of 890-
?=6 1999.99+24.998*1.11=?
360+4005-2000+25=?
31. Answer: B 2390=?
? × (22 × 3) = 15 * 31+ 171
? * 12 = 465 + 171 = 636 36. Answer: A
? = 636 / 12 = 53 √4760.09+√168.99*7=?+19.905% of 209.90
69+91=?+42
32. Answer: C 160-42=?
13.8/100 * 2500 + 25.5/100 * 8200 + 30/100 * 1250 118=?
? + 51 * 51 = 345 + 2091 + 375 = 2811
? + 2601 = 2811 37. Answer: B
Page 47 of 99
89.99% of 980.012-12.01*78+144.904*3.99=? 852, 880, 945, 1071, 1288,

882-936+580=? 1632
526=? 28 65 126 217 344
33 + 1 43 + 1 53 + 1 63 + 1 73 + 1
38. Answer: C
12.5% of 80+83.33% of 960+16.078% of 42. Answer: D
150=?+134.089 328 + (12 × 0.5) = 328 +6 = 334
10+800+24=?+134 334 + (6 × 1) = 334 + 6 = 340
700=? 340 + (6 × 1.5) = 340 + 9 = 349
349 + (9 × 2) = 349 + 18 = 367
39. Answer: A 367 + (18 × 2.5) = 367 + 45 = 412
40.198 % of 279.879 + 60.082 % of 349.921 – 412 + (45 × 3) = 412 + 135 = 547
120.123 % of 450.192 = ? – 262.213
40 % of 280 + 60 % of 350 – 120 % of 450 = ? - 262 43. Answer: C
112 + 210 – 540 = ? - 262 8 + (1 x 10) = 18
? = 44 18 + (2 x 9) = 36
36 + (3 x 8) = 60
Directions (40-44): 60 + (4 x 7) = 88
40. Answer: A 88 + (5 x 6) = 118
19 +(7 * 3) = 40 118 + (6 x 5) = 148
40 + (6 * 4) = 64
64 + (5 * 5) = 89 44. Answer: A
89 + (4 * 6) = 113 1527 — (192 -19) = 1185,
113 + (3 * 7) = 134 1185 — (152 — 15) =975,
975— (112— 11) = 865,
41. Answer: E 865 — (72— 7) = 823,
The correct series is, 823 — (32 — 3) = 817
Page 48 of 99
Directions (45-49): 63063*5=315315

45. Answer: C 315315*3=945945
82/1 + 3 = 85
85/2 + 4 = 46.5 49. Answer: D
46.5/3 + 5 = 20.5 224 + (65 × 1) = 289
20.5/4 + 6 = 11.125 289 + (65 × 2) = 419
11.125/5 + 7 = 9.225 419 + (65 × 4) = 679
679 + (65 × 8) = 1199
46. Answer: A 1199 + (65 × 16) = 2239
21 + 42 + 8= 45
45 + 52 + 10= 80 Directions (50-64):
80 + 62 + 12= 128 50. Answer: C
128 + 72 + 14= 191 From I: 20x2 – 67x + 56 = 0
191 + 82 + 16= 271 20x2 – 35x-32x + 56 = 0
5x (4x – 7) – 8 (4x – 7) = 0
47. Answer: A (5x – 8) (4x – 7) = 0
12*3+1=37 x = 8/5, 7/4
37*3-1=110 From II: 4y2 – 15y + 14 = 0
110*3+1=331 4y(y – 2) – 7(y – 2) = 0
331*3-1=992 (4y – 7) (y – 2) = 0
992*3+1=2977 y = 2, 7/4
2977*3-1=8930 Hence, x ≤ y
48. Answer: A 51. Answer: B

7*13=91 From I: x2 – 42x – 135 = 0
91*11=1001 x2 – 45x + 3x – 135 = 0
1001*9=9009 x(x – 45) + 3(x – 45) = 0
9009*7=63063 (x + 3)(x – 45) = 0
Page 49 of 99
x = -3, 45 From II: y2 + 51y + 650 = 0

From II: y2 + 42y + 117 = 0 y2 + 25y + 26y + 650 = 0
y2 + 39y + 3y + 117 = 0 y(y + 25) + 26(y + 25) = 0
y(y + 39) + 3(y + 39) = 0 (y + 26)(y + 25) = 0
(y + 39)(y + 3) = 0 y = - 26, -25
y = - 39, -3 Hence, x > y
Hence, x ≥ y
54. Answer: B
52. Answer: C From I: x2 + 31x + 238 = 0
From I:x2 – 32x + 247 = 0 x2 + 17x + 14x + 238 = 0
x2 – 19x – 13x + 247 = 0 x(x + 17) + 14(x + 17) = 0
x(x – 19) – 13(x – 19) = 0 (x + 14) (x + 17) = 0
(x – 13)(x – 19) = 0 x = -14, -17
x = 13, 19 From II: 2y2 + 70y + 612 = 0
From II:y2 – 35y + 304 = 0 2y2 +36y + 34y + 612 = 0
y2 – 19y – 16y + 304 = 0 2y(y + 18) + 34(y + 18) = 0
y(y – 19) – 16( y – 19) = 0 (2y + 34) (y + 18) = 0
(y – 19)(y – 16) = 0 y = -17, -18
y = 19, 16 x≥y
established. 55. Answer: C
From I: 2x2 – 44x + 240 = 0
53. Answer: A 2x2 – 20x – 24x + 240 = 0
From I: x2 + x – 552 = 0 2x(x – 10) – 24(x – 10) = 0
x2 + 24x – 23x – 552 = 0 (2x – 24)(x – 10) = 0
x(x + 24) – 23(x + 24) = 0 x = 12, 10
(x – 23)(x + 24) = 0 From II: 4y2 – 48y + 44 = 0
x = 23, -24 4y2 – 44y – 4y + 44 = 0
Page 50 of 99
4y(y – 11) – 4(y – 11) = 0 From I: x2 - 897 = 328

(4y – 4)(y – 11) = 0 x2 = 1225
y = 1, 11 x = 35, -35
Relationship between x and y cannot be From II: y2 – 62y + 952 = 0
established. y2 – 34y – 28y + 952 = 0
y(y – 34) – 28(y – 34) = 0
56. Answer: A (y – 28)(y – 34) = 0
From I: x2-51x+644=0 y = 28, 34
x2-23x-28x+644=0 Relationship between x and y cannot be
(x-23)(x-28)=0 established.
x= 23 or 28
From II: 3y2-22y+40=0 59. Answer: C
3y2-10y-12y+40=0 From I: X² - 37X + 322 = 0
y=3.3 or 4 X² - 23X – 14X + 322 = 0
Hence x>y X(X – 23) – 14(X – 23) = 0
(X – 23)(X – 14) = 0
57. Answer: A X = 23, 14
From I: 12x2-113x+255=0 From II: Y² - 27Y + 182 = 0
12x2-45x-68x+255=0 Y² - 13Y – 14Y + 182 = 0
(4x-15)(3x-17)=0 Y(Y – 13) – 14(Y – 13) = 0
x=15/4 or 17/3 (Y – 13)(Y – 14) = 0
From II: 15y2-16y-15=0 Y = 13, 14
15y2-25y+9y-15=0 Hence, X ≥ Y
(5y+3)(3y-5)=0
y=-3/5 or 5/3 60. Answer: B
Hence x >y From I: 13.5X² + 27X – 24 = 0
13.5X² + 36X – 9X – 24 = 0
58. Answer: C 4.5x (3x+8) -3(3x+8) = 0
Page 51 of 99
(4.5X – 3)(3X + 8) = 0 x = -22, 30

X = 0.66, - 2.66 From II: y2 + 46y + 528 = 0
From II: Y² + 23Y + 76 = 0 y2 + 22y + 24y + 528 = 0
Y2 + 19Y + 4Y +76 = 0 y(y + 22) + 24(y + 22) = 0
(Y + 19)(Y + 4) = 0 (y + 22)(y + 24) = 0
Y = -19, - 4 y = -22, -24
Hence, X > Y Hence, x ≥ y
From I: x2 - 31x + 150 = 0
x2 – 25x – 6x + 150 = 0 63. Answer: E
x(x – 25) – 6(x – 25) = 0 From I: x2 – 40x + 391 = 0
(x – 6)(x – 25) = 0 x2 – 23x – 17x + 391 = 0
x = 6, 25 x(x – 23) – 17(x – 23) = 0
From II: y2 - 25y + 126 = 0 (x – 17)(x – 23) = 0
y2 – 18y – 7y x = 17, 23
From II: y2 – 8y – 345 = 0
61. Answer: C y2 – 23y + 15y – 345 = 0
+ 126 = 0 y(y – 23) + 15(y – 23) = 0
y(y – 18) – 7(y – 18) = 0 (y + 15)(y – 23) = 0
(y – 7)(y – 18) = 0 y = -15, 23
y = 7, 18 Relationship can’t be determined.
established. 64. Answer: D
From I: 3x2 – 12x – 135 = 0
62. Answer: B 3x2 – 27x + 15x – 135 = 0
From I: x2 – 8x – 660 = 0 3x(x – 9) + 15(x – 9) = 0
x2 – 30x + 22x – 660 =0 (3x + 15)(x – 9) = 0
x(x – 30) + 22(x – 30) = 0 x = -5, 9
(x – 30) (x + 22) = 0 From II: y2 - 19y + 90 = 0
Page 52 of 99
y2 – 9y – 10y + 90 = 0 Hence, x ≤ y
y(y – 9) – 10(y – 9) = 0
(y – 10)(y – 9) = 0
y = 10, 9
English Language
Directions (1-5): In the following given passage, inability to resist looking at our phones, and the
certain words are highlighted which may or may not chilling case of Cambridge Analytics — in which
be fit in the sentence either grammatically or such algorithms and big data were used to alter
contextually. Each word is numbered followed by voting decisions — should serve as a potent
four possible replacements. If none of the given warning of the individual and societal concerns
options could replace the highlighted word, mark resulting from current AI business models. In a
your answer, (e); “None of the above”. world where the algorithm is king, it reparation (4)
us to remember that it is still humans — with all our
AI also presents serious data privacy concerns. The biases and prejudices, conscious and unconscious
algorithm’s never-ending quest for data has led to — who are responsible for it. We shape the
our digital footprints being spurt (1) and sold without algorithms and it is our data they operate on.
our knowledge or informed consent. We are Remember that in 2016, it took less than a day for
constantly being profiled in service of Microsoft’s Twitter chat bot, christened “Tay”, to
customisation, putting us into echo chambers of start prevailing (5) egregious racist content, based
like-mindedness, diminishing exposure to varied on the material it encountered.
viewpoints and eroding common ground. Today, it
is no decree (2) to say that with all the discrete 1) Which of the following words would replace the
bytes of information floating about us online, the blank given in (1)
algorithms know us better than we know ourselves. A. Contained
They can extraneous (3) our behaviour without our B. Harvested
noticing. Our level of addiction to our devices, the C. Suggested
Page 53 of 99
D. Guaranteed 5) Which of the following words would replace the

E. None of the above blank given in (5)
A. Lessening
2) Which of the following words would replace the B. Heightening
blank given in (2) C. Spewing
A. Suggestion D. Cautioning
B. Materialistic E. None of the above
C. Diction
D. Exaggeration Directions (6-8): In each of the questions given
E. None of the above below, four words are given in bold. These four
words may or may not be in their correct position.
3) Which of the following words would replace the The sentence is then followed by options with the
blank given in (3) correct combination of words that should replace
A. Legal each other in order to make the sentence
B. Impair grammatically and contextually correct. Find the
C. Nudge correct combination of words that replace each
D. Restitute other. If the sentence is correct as it is, select ‘E’ as
E. None of the above your option.
6) Businesses assets (A) to a slump sale when an
4) Which of the following words would replace the entire cumbersome (B) is being sold and it is either
blank given in (4) too difficult or extremely undertaking (C) to fix
A. Behoves individual values to all the resort (D) that are being
B. Generously sold.
C. Inquires A. Only A-D
D. Discreet B. Both B-C and A-D
E. None of the above C. Only B-D
D. Both A-B and C-D
E. The sentence is correct
Page 54 of 99
spelled or inappropriate if any. The number of that

7) Developing a expand (A) number of airports word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold
remote (B) public-private partnership mode would are correctly spelled and also appropriate in the
greater (C) air connectivity to relatively through (D) context of the sentence, mark (5) "All are correct"
and far-flung areas. as your answer.
A. Both B-D and A-C 9) The Hague panel found (A) that a 2012 law
B. Only A-B passed (B) by the Indian Parliament was a new tax,
C. Only A-D not a clarification (C) of prior law that could be
D. Both B-C and A-D applied (D) to earlier years.
E. The sentence is correct A. Found
B. Passed
8) Fuel prices have risen threatened (A) since the C. Clarification
start of the year and dramatically (B) to top Rs 100 D. Applied
a litre in certain parts of the country, anger (C) E. All are correct
inflation and public stoking (D) against the 10) A resurgence (A) of Covid-19 cases in various
government. parts of the country and resultant restrictions have
A. Both A-D and B-C clearly made investors jittery (B) and it could
B. Only A-B continue to restricted (C) market performance in the
C. Only B-C near term unless the virus spread is controlled (D).
D. Both A-B and C-D A. Resurgence
E. The sentence is correct B. Jittery
C. Restricted
Direction (9-10): In each of these questions, a D. Controlled
sentence with four words printed in bold type is E. All are correct
given. These are numbered as A, B, C and D. One
of these four words printed in bold may be either Directions (11-15): In each of the questions below,
wrongly spelled or inappropriate in context of the a sentence is given with two blanks that indicate
sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly that some parts are missing. Identify the correct
Page 55 of 99
pair of words that fit in the sentence to make it D. Coexisting, Concurrently

grammatically and contextually correct. E. Dogged, Complying
11) The party needs to __________ itself, which it
seems to fail at yet again, leaving it facing the 14) The decade of 1970s was no different since
__________ of just a handful of seats, if pre-poll there were big global changes which __________
surveys are to be believed. India, a young nation struggling with poverty and
A. Objections, Unmanageable backwardness; having __________ from colonial
B. Agreeable, Clutter rule just 23 years before.
C. Reinvent, Probability A. Impacted, Emerged
D. Vociferous, Killing B. Unique, Anywhere
E. Conquest, Destroy C. Integrate, Pressurized
D. Willingness, Inclination
12) What I saw of the role of the police and E. Decadence, Hesitance
__________ made me more convinced than ever of
the __________ of class outlook and class rule. 15) India faced __________ at its borders with wars
A. Conservatory, Exterminate in 1962 and 1965 and this led to a rapid increase in
B. Misuse, Bankroll defence expenditures and massive import of arms
C. Rough, Consent which __________ the fight against poverty.
D. Compulsion, Refine A. Planned, Bring
E. Administration, Truths B. Inadvisable, Upswing
C. Underline, Aggressively
13) The __________ committed by the Pakistani D. Issues, Dented
army against the people of East Bengal were E. Ascent, Rise
horrifying and led to a massive __________ of
refugees into West Bengal. Directions (16-20): The given sentence has been
A. Curb, Disorder broken up into five different parts. The error, if any,
B. Incompetent, Articulate will be in one or more parts of the sentence. Select
C. Atrocities, Influx the option which contains the part/parts of the
Page 56 of 99
sentence which has/have an error (spelling, wrestle with the rude political economy – make
grammatical or contextual). If there is no error, sense of our work. (D)/ No Error (E)
choose option E. A. Only A and B
16) Freedom of speech and, more broadly, (A)/the B. Only A and C
fundamental conditions where faculty (B)/ and C. Only B and D
students can question, think and acts D. Only A and D
(B)/independently, will be (C)/ sacrificed at the altar E. No error
of investment and growth. (D)/ No Error (E)
A. Only B and C 19) The rural-urban divide continue to grow (A)/as
B. Only D and C more and more infrastructure came up in urban
C. Only A and C areas, and (B)/agriculture and rural areas continued
D. Only B and D to languish which was the (C)/result of the policy of
E. No error trickle down followed but Independence. (D)/ No
Error (E).
17) Speaking from a long-term perspectives, A. Only B and C
(A)/much like the subject of it’s (B)/ interrogation, B. Only D and C
women’s studies is sought (C) /to be consigned to C. Only A and D
the margins in present times. (D)/ No Error (E) D. Only B and D
A. Only A and B E. No error
B. Only A and D
C. Only B and C 20) Baking cake and baking bread was two different
D. Only B and D (A)/things, one where diligence and practice
E. No error (B)/could lead too some decent results, (C)/the
other was in the hands of the good lord. (D)/ No
18) Double vision seems to be a dubious faculty to Error (E)
take pride (A)/in, but I feel it is indeed what helps A. Only B and C
most of (B)/us academics – or for that matter, B. Only D and C
anyone who practises a vocation (C)/where ideals C. Only A and C
Page 57 of 99
D. Only B and D
E. No error
Directions (1-5): ‘Nudge’ will replace the highlighted word to make

1) Answer: B the sentence correct both grammatically and
‘Harvested’ will replace the highlighted word to contextually.
make the sentence correct both grammatically and Nudge: coax or gently encourage (someone) to do
contextually. something.
Harvested: collect or obtain (a resource) for future Extraneous: irrelevant or unrelated to the subject
use. being dealt with.
Spurt: gush out in a sudden and forceful stream.
4) Answer: A
2) Answer: D ‘Behoves’ will replace the highlighted word to make
‘Exaggeration’ will replace the highlighted word to the sentence correct both grammatically and
make the sentence correct both grammatically and contextually.
contextually. Behoves: it is a duty or responsibility for someone
Exaggeration: a statement that represents to do something.
something as better or worse than it really is. Reparation: the action of making amends for a
Decree: an official order that has the force of law. wrong one has done, by providing payment or other
assistance to those who have been wronged.
3) Answer: C
5) Answer: C
Page 58 of 99
‘Spewing’ will replace the highlighted word to make Hence, option A is the right answer choice.
the sentence correct both grammatically and
contextually. 8) Answer: D
Spewing: expel large quantities of (something) Both A-B and C-D will replace each other in order to
rapidly and forcibly. make the sentence grammatically and contextually
Prevailing: existing at a particular time; current. correct. The final sentence will be,
Fuel prices have risen dramatically (A) since the
Directions (6-8): start of the year and threatened (B) to top Rs 100 a
6) Answer: B litre in certain parts of the country, stoking (C)
Sol. Both B-C and A-D will replace each other in inflation and public anger (D) against the
order to make the sentence grammatically and government.
contextually correct. The final sentence will be, Hence, option D is the right answer choice.
Businesses resort (A) to a slump sale when an
entire undertaking (B) is being sold and it is either 9) Answer: E
too difficult or extremely cumbersome (C) to fix Sol. All the highlighted words are correct. Hence,
individual values to all the assets (D) that are being option E is the right answer choice.
sold.
Hence, option B is the right answer choice. 10) Answer: C
Sol. ‘Restrict’ will be used instead of ‘restricted’.
7) Answer: A Hence, option C is the right answer choice.
Sol. Both B-D and A-C will replace each other in
order to make the sentence grammatically and Directions (11-15):
contextually correct. The final sentence will be, 11) Answer C
‘Reinvent, Probability’ is the correct pair of words
Developing a greater (A) number of airports through that fit in the sentence to make it grammatically and
(B) public-private partnership mode would expand contextually correct.
(C) air connectivity to relatively remote (D) and far- Hence, option C is the right answer choice.
flung areas.
Page 59 of 99
12) Answer E In C, ‘act’ will be used instead of ‘acts’ as ‘students’

‘Administration, Truths’ is the correct pair of words is plural in number and thus the plural verb will be
that fit in the sentence to make it grammatically and used.
contextually correct. In D, ‘altar’ will be used instead of ‘alter’
Hence, option E is the right answer choice. Alter: a usually raised structure or place on which
sacrifices are offered or incense is burned in
13) Answer C worship —often used figuratively to describe a thing
‘Atrocities, Influx’ is the correct pair of words that fit given great or undue precedence or value
in the sentence to make it grammatically and especially at the cost of something else.
contextually correct. Alter: change in character or composition, typically
Hence, option C is the right answer choice. in a comparatively small but significant way.
14) Answer A 17) Answer: A

‘Impacted, Emerged’ is the correct pair of words Here, error is in part A and B of the sentence.
that fit in the sentence to make it grammatically and In A, ‘perspective’ will be used instead of
contextually correct. ‘perspectives’
Hence, option A is the right answer choice. In B, ‘its’ will be used instead of ‘it’s’
15) Answer D
‘Issues, Dented’ is the correct pair of words that fit 18) Answer: E
in the sentence to make it grammatically and The given sentence is correct and there is no error
contextually correct. in any of its parts. Hence, option E is the right
Hence, option D is the right answer choice. answer choice.
Directions (16-20): 19) Answer: C

16. Answer: B Here, error is in part A and D of the given sentence.
Here, error is in B and C part of the given sentence. In A, ‘continued’ will be used instead of ‘continue’
as the sentence is in past tense.
In D, ‘since’ will be used instead of ‘for’
Page 60 of 99
In C, ‘to’ will be used instead of ‘too’

20) Answer: C
Here, error is in part A and C of the sentence.
In A, ‘were’ will be used instead of ‘was’
General Awareness
1. Which institution has partnered with CBSE to C) SAKSHAM

jointly launch CollabCAD Software? D) NISHTHA
A) Infosys E) SAHAKAR
B) HCL
C) Dell
4. Which company has collaborated with Niti
D) NIC
Aayog to enhance Women Entrepreneurship
E) Microsoft
Platform?
A) Jabong
2. Dr. Harsh Vardhan has dedicated an Innovation
B) Amazon
Portal developed By _______.
C) Flipkart
A) Ficci
D) Myntra
B) Assocham
E) Snapdeal
C) Niti Aayog
D) NIC
5. Who will head the IRDAI committee to Examine
E) NIF
health insurance products?
A) BK Mohanti
3. The Petroleum & Natural Gas Ministry has
B) Subash Chandra Khuntia
launched the ________ campaign to spread
C) Nachiket Mor
awareness about green energy.
D) AK Chand
A) PRATISHTA
E) Hari Prasad
B) SHIKSHA
Page 61 of 99
A) Iraq and UAE

6. Which bank has partnered with Aditya Birla B) Qatar and UAE
Wellness to launch wellness themed credit card? C) Qatar and Oman
A) HDFC D) Oman and UAE
B) ICICI E) UAE and Bahrain
C) SBI
D) Yes Bank 10. PM Narendra Modi has flagged off
E) Axis _______trains to boost connectivity to the Statue of
Unity.
7. FSS and which bank have collaborated to A) 4
promote AePS Partnership Advances Financial B) 5
Inclusion in India? C) 6
A) HDFC D) 8
B) ICICI E) 7
C) SBI
D) Paytm 11. Which space agency has targeted the final test
E) IPPB of ‘world’s most powerful rocket’?
A) JAXA
8. Who among the following has inaugurated the B) NASA
Road Safety Month? C) CNES
A) Piyush Goyal D) ISRO
B) Nitin Gadkari E) ROSCOMOS
C) Prahlad Patel
D) Narendra Modi 12. Union Health Minister Dr. Harsh Vardhan has
E) Anurag Thakur digitally chaired _______ the session of the
Executive Board of WHO.
9. The US has designated which countries as its A) 144
‘major strategic partners’? B) 145
Page 62 of 99
C) 146 E) 6th
D) 148
E) 147 16. Axelsen And Marin has won Titles At Yonex
Open being held in ______.
13. India has signed an MoU with which country for A) Brunei
Agreement to Promote movement of Skilled B) Malaysia
Workers? C) Vietnam
A) Israel D) Singapore
B) Japan E) Thailand
C) France
D) Germany 17. The Union Government has declared Netaji's
E) Sweden birthday to be marked as _______ every year.
A) Shakti Diwas
B) Shiksha Diwas
14. Which state will launch the ‘One school, One
C) Parakram Diwas
IAS’ programme?
D) Vijay Diwas
A) Uttar Pradesh
E) Azad Diwas
B) Haryana
C) Karnataka
18. Which institution has handed over MotorBike
D) Madhya Pradesh
Ambulance Rakshita to CRPF?
E) Kerala
A) BEL
B) HAL
15. Uganda's Museveni has won his ______ term
C) BDL
extending his rule to four decades.
D) DRDO
A) 3rd
E) ISRO
B) 7th
C) 4th
19. Which country has set out new laws to protect
D) 5th
historic statues, monuments?
Page 63 of 99
A) Thailand C) Germany
B) UK D) US
C) France E) Russia
D) Germany
E) Singapore 23. Which institution and IFFDC have inked MoU
status or not, will now require listed building to work together for tribal livelihood generation?
consent or planning permission. A) BHEL
B) TRIFED
20. Which state has signed an MoU with Madhya C) NAREDCO
Pradesh on Responsible Tourism? D) NAFED
A) Chhattisgarh E) BEL
B) Assam
C) Haryana 24.Indian and French air forces will conduct which
D) Kerala of the following Exercise?
E) Uttar Pradesh A) Sampriti
B) Milan 2020
21. The First bird fest at Mahananda sanctuary will C) Sahyog Kaijin
open from February 20. It is located in which state? D) Desert Knight-21
A) Haryana E) Foal Eagle
B) Mizoram
C) West Bengal 25. Who among the following has been conferred
D) Assam with Quaide Milleth Award?
E) Manipur A) Raj Gupta
B) Anand Mehta
22. India is set to procure more MiG-29 and Sukhoi C) Naresh Singh
fighter jets from which country? D) Suresh Kumar
A) Israel E) Bilkis Dadi
B) France
Page 64 of 99
26. India has signed a pact with which country on 29. Kerala has become the _____ State to
submarine rescue support? complete ease of doing business reforms.
A) Brunei A) 4th
B) Vietnam B) 5th
C) Thailand C) 6th
D) Singapore D) 8th
E) Malaysia E) 7th
30. Which Bank has launched the ‘InstaFX’ mobile

27. Who among the following is all set to become
app to help customers obtain Forex Prepaid Card
the 1st woman fighter pilot to take part in the
swiftly?
Republic Day parade?
A) Bandhan
A) Anila Aggarwal
B) HDFC
B) Bhawana Kanth
C) ICICI
C) Radha Sharma
D) SBI
D) Neelima Rao
E) IDBI
E) Deeksha Gupta
31. Which edition of the India Digital Summit was

28. The Chief Minister of which state has
held recently?
announced the ‘Horticulture Development
A) 11th
Mission’?
B) 15th
A) Madhya Pradesh
C) 14th
B) Chhattisgarh
D) 13th
C) Uttar Pradesh
E) 12th
D) Haryana
E) Gujarat
32. Which institution has recently released a report
on faecal sludge and septage management in
urban areas?
Page 65 of 99
A) AIIB D) Haryana
B) ADB E) Himachal Pradesh
C) World Bank
D) IMF 36. The Chief Minister of which state has flagged
E) Niti Aayog off Door to door Delivery Vehicles?
A) Kerala
B) Andhra Pradesh
33. Meghalaya, Manipur & Tripura observe the
C) Haryana
Statehood Day on which date?
D) Bihar
A) January 11
E) Chhattisgarh
B) January 14
C) January 15
D) January 21 37. Which bank has recently donated books to
E) January 18 children?
A) BOB
34. The government of which state will rename B) HDFC
dragon fruit as kamalam? C) PNB
A) Uttar Pradesh D) SBI
B) Bihar E) ICICI
C) Maharashtra
D) Gujarat 38. Joe Biden has taken oath as ______ US
E) Haryana President.
A) 49th
35. The Chief minister of which state has launched B) 48th
the first online youth radio station? C) 47th
A) Bihar D) 45th
B) Chhattisgarh E) 46th
C) Uttar Pradesh
Page 66 of 99
39. The Chief minister of which state has 42. Which of the following Bank has unveiled the
inaugurated the state’s first child-friendly police Aura Credit Card with health, wellness solutions?
station? A) PNB
A) Chhattisgarh B) Axis
B) Uttar Pradesh C) SBI
C) Madhya Pradesh D) ICICI
D) Uttarakhand E) Bandhan
E) Bihar
40. Who among the following has inaugurated the 43. The Global Risks Report 2021, 16th Edition
new 4-lane Thaltej-Shilaj-Rancharda railway was recently released by which organization?
overbridge in Ahmedabad? A) WB
A) Nitin Patel B) AIIB
B) Venkiah Naidu C) ADB
C) Anurag Thakur D) IMF
D) Amit Shah E) WEF
E) Narendra Modi
44. MeITY has announced the establishment of a
41. SBI, ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank remain Quantum Computing Applications Lab in India in
systemically important banks. RBI has issued the collaboration with ______.
framework for dealing with D-SIB in which year? A) HCL
A) 2012 B) Deloitte
B) 2011 C) Wipro
C) 2015 D) Amazon
D) 2013 E) Infosys
E) 2014
45. National Tourism Day 2021 is celebrated on
which date?
Page 67 of 99
A) January 11 48. National Voters’ Day is observed on which of

B) January 14 the following date?
C) January 15 A) January 11
D) January 25 B) January 14
E) January 17 C) January 13
D) January 12
E) January 25
46. What is the theme of the International Day of
Education 2021?
49. The administration of which state/UT has
A) Indigenous Peoples' Right to Education
organised the Opening Ceremony of Archery
B) Celebration of the role of education for peace
Competition?
and development
A) Puducherry
C) Education: A Key Driver for Inclusion and
B) Ladakh
Empowerment
C) J&K
D) Recover and Revitalize Education for the
D) Delhi
COVID-19 Generation
E) Chandigarh
E) Learning for people, planet, prosperity and
peace
50. How many IPS officers besides three junior
cops have been selected this year to be awarded
47. National Girl Child Day is observed on which of with the Internal Security Service Medals?
the following date? A) 7
A) January 11 B) 6
B) January 14 C) 3
C) January 24 D) 4
D) January 15 E) 5
E) January 17
51. SpaceX has broken India’s record by launching
______ satellites on a single rocket.
Page 68 of 99
A) 95 E) AMPHEX – 22
B) 126
C) 117 55. Padma Awards 2021 have recently been
D) 143 announced and the government has approved ______
E) 135 padma awards this year.

A) 118
52. Which armed force has launched Operation ‘Sard B) 119
Hawa’ at Rajasthan border? C) 120

A) RPF D) 121
B) RAF E) 122
C) BSF
D) CRPF 56. Dhanlaxmi Bank has approved the appointment of
E) CISF who among the following as MD and CEO?
A) Sudhir Mishra
53. In UP Yogi Adityanath has launched which app for B) Ganesh Murthy
youth to explore self-employment? C) Rahul Gupta
A) Udyam Vikar D) Anand Sharma
B) Udyam Abhyas E) JK Shivan
C) Udyam Sahayak
D) Udyam Sakshi 57. Name the Indian Railways' longest freight train
E) Udyam Sarathi which has set a new record when it operated.
54. Indian Navy has conducted which exercise with A) Ananya

Army and Air Force? B) Shatabdi
A) AMPHEX – 25 C) Vasuki
B) AMPHEX – 24 D) Garib Rath

C) AMPHEX – 23 E) Andaman
D) AMPHEX – 21
Page 69 of 99
58. DRDO’s has successfully conducted a test flight of B) $180,000

which of the following Smart Anti Airfield Weapon? C) $200,000
A) KAVACH D) $100,000
B) VAYU E) $150,000
C) SAAW
D) Astra 62. Who among the following has recently chaired the
E) Agni meeting of PRAGATI, the ICT-based platform?
A) Prahlad Patel
59. Which of the following film has won the Golden B) Narendra Modi
Peacock Award for Best Film at 51st IFFI awards? C) Amit Shah
A) Country of Legends D) Anurag Thakur

B) Valentina E) Nirmala Sitharaman
C) I Never Cry
D) The Silent Forest 63. Which state has been selected for Special Award
E) Into the Darkness for Information Technology applications in Elections by
the Election Commission of India?
60. Who among the following has been selected as A) Uttar Pradesh
Business Standard Banker of the Year? B) Karnataka
A) Rajkiran Rai C) Meghalaya

B) AK Goel D) Kerala
C) Sunil Mehta E) Assam
D) Shyam Srinivasan 64. Who among the following has recently been
E) S Krishnan awarded the Maha Vir Chakra posthumously?
A) Col. Anurag Singh
61. India has recently pledged _______for the UN B) Col. Rajesh Gupta
Peacebuilding Fund for 2021. C) Col. Santosh Babu
A) $170,000 D) Col. Anand Kumar
Page 70 of 99
E) Col. Suraj Vishnoi 68. Who among the following has launched the 'Work
from Anywhere' portal, Tejas Virtual Intelligence tool at
65. What is India’s rank on the Climate risk Index? NICSI event?
A) 4th A) Nirmala Sitharaman
B) 7th B) Narendra Modi

C) 6th C) Prahlad Patel
D) 8th D) Ravi Shankar Prasad
E) 9th E) Amit Shah
66. Who among the following has become Estonia’s 69. Which state’s tableau has bagged the first prize on
first female prime minister? Republic Day?

A) Siim Kallas A) Karnataka
B) Mailis Reps B) Madhya Pradesh
C) Martin Helme C) Haryana

D) Kaja Kallas D) Chhattisgarh
E) Kersti Kaljulaid E) Uttar Pradesh
67. Which of the following state has launched a jail 70. What is the theme of the Economic Survey 2020-
tourism initiative? 2021?

A) Gujarat A) Covid&Livelihood
B) Bihar B) SavingLivesDuringPandemic
C) Chhattisgarh C) CovidResponse
D) Maharashtra D) VShapedRecovery
E) Haryana E) RecoveryFromCovid
71. The government of which state will soon establish

India's first leather park?
Page 71 of 99
A) Kerala D) Kerala
B) Punjab E) Haryana
C) Chhattisgarh
D) Uttar Pradesh 74. What is India’s rank on the recently released Covid-
E) Haryana 19 Response Index?

A) 81
72. What is India’s rank on the corruption perception B) 82
index 2020? C) 83
A) 65th D) 86
B) 86th E) 85
C) 80th
D) 78th 75. ICC has introduced which category of awards to
E) 76th recognise best performances of cricketers?
73. Which state government has put the pension A) Best ICC Player of the Week
payments on auto-pilot which is a first of its kind B) Best ICC Player of the Month
initiative in the country? C) ICC Player of the Month
A) Chhattisgarh D) ICC Player of the Week
B) Punjab E) ICC Player of the Quarter
C) Karnataka

1. Answer: D Aim : To provide a great platform to students across
National Informatics Centre and Central Board of the country to create and modify 3D digital designs
Secondary Education, CBSE will jointly launch with a free flow of creativity and imagination.
CollabCAD Software to provide a total engineering This software will also enable students to
solution for students and Faculty of Engineering collaborate over designs across the network and
Graphics Curriculum.
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concurrently access the same design data for 3. Answer: C

storage and visualization. The Petroleum and Natural Gas Ministry launched a
National Informatics Centre, NIC, CBSE, and Atal month-long mass awareness campaign 'SAKSHAM'
Innovation Mission will also jointly release a to spread awareness about green and clean
comprehensive e-book on CollabCAD 3D modeling. energy.
The Secretary Ministry of Petroleum and Natural
2. Answer: E Gas and Chairman, PCRA Shri TarunKapoor
The Union Minister for Science & Technology, Earth launched the campaign.
Sciences, Health & Family Welfare Dr. Harsh The campaign through various pan-India activities
Vardhan dedicated an Innovation Portal, developed such as cyclothon, farmer workshops, seminars,
by National Innovation Foundation (NIF) India, an painting competition, CNG vehicle driving contest,
autonomous body of the Department of Science etc will spread awareness among masses about the
and Technology (DST), Government of India, to the advantages of using clean fuels.
nation, in New Delhi. The campaign will also spread awareness about 7
The National Innovation Portal(NIP) is currently key drivers mentioned by Prime Minister Narendra
home to about 1.15 lakh innovations scouted from Modi, to help India move towards cleaner energy.
common people of the country, covering These are:
Engineering, Agriculture, Veterinary and Human moving towards a gas-based economy, cleaner use
Health. of fossil fuels, greater reliance on domestic sources
Innovation Portal is a step towards Atmanirbhar to drive biofuels, achieving renewable
Bharat and an excellent resource for students, targets with the set deadlines, increased use of
entrepreneurs, MSME’s, Technology Business electric vehicles to decarbonize mobility, increased
Incubators (TBI’s) and common people engaged in use of cleaner fuels like Hydrogen, and digital
a variety of occupations. innovation across all energy systems.
This Innovation Portal will help institutionalise new A Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was
ideas by common people towards finding solutions signed between PCRA and EESL for promotion of
to local problems. Energy Efficient PNG Stove on the occasion.
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4. Answer: C Dr A.K. Chand, Professor and Neurosurgeon,

Walmart-owned Flipkart has partnered with Niti Bangalore
Aayog to launch the revamped Women Dr B.K. Mohanti, Former Professor and Oncologist,
Entrepreneurship Platform. AIIMS
The Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP) is a Dr K. Hari Prasad, Anaesthetist, Hyderabad
first of its kind, unified access portal which brings
together women from different parts of India to 6. Answer: D
realize their entrepreneurial aspirations. YES Bank in collaboration with Aditya Birla
The idea of the platform was first mooted by Wellness Private Limited has launched ‘YES BANK
Amitabh Kant, CEO, NITI Aayog who announced Wellness’ and ‘YES BANK Wellness Plus’ credit
the setting-up of a Women Entrepreneurship cards with the aim of holistic health, self-care and
Platform in NITI Aayog at the conclusion of the 8th wellness growth of the consumers.
Global Entrepreneurship Summit (GES) held in Cardholders will be able to enjoy the complimentary
Hyderabad in 2017, with an overarching theme of health benefits by simply registering on the Aditya
‘Women first, prosperity for all’. Birla Multiply App.
The app will allow consumers to avail
5. Answer: B complimentary benefits such as annual health
Insurance Regulatory & Development Authority of check-up, round the clock doctor or counsellor
India (IRDAI) has set-up a committee to study helpline, in-studio or home-based workout sessions,
health insurance products with the help of scientists personalized diet plans, among others.
and doctors in the panel. This credit card comes with a first year membership
The expert committee will be headed by IRDAI fee of Rs 1,999 plus taxes and renewal fee of Rs
Chairperson, Subhash Chandra Khuntia and will 1,999 and taxes.
have a Member (Non-Life) as the vice-chairperson.
The committee, which has a term of one year. 7. Answer: E
Member of the committee include: FSS (Financial Software and Systems), a leading
Dr Nachiket Mor, PhD, Visiting Scientist, The global payment processor and provider of
Banyan Academy of Leadership in Mental Health integrated payment products, announced partnering
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with India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) to promote VK Singh and CEO, NITI Aayog, Amitabh Kant also
financial inclusion among underserved and participated.
unbanked segments. The initiative aims to build awareness about road
As part of the collaboration, IPPB will use FSS’ safety and reduce road accidents in the country. It
Aadhaar Enabled Payment System (AePS) to will be held till 17 February 2021.
deliver interoperable and affordable doorstep Globally India is one of the worst-hit nations when it
banking services to customers across India. comes to road accidents. India accounts for about 5
This strategic partnership offers significant lakh road accidents annually, one of the highest in
opportunities to bring millions of unbanked the world, in which about 1.5 lakh people die and
customers into the financial mainstream. another 3 lakh become crippled.
IPPB has been set up with the vision to build the Centre is also taking several measures to reduce
most accessible, affordable, and trusted bank for road accidents by Restructuring and Strengthening
the common man in India to deliver banking at the 4E’s of Road safety, which are:
customer’s doorstep. Engineering
Education
8. Answer: B Enforcement
Union Minister of Road Transport and Highways, Emergency care Services
Nitin Gadkari, inaugurated Road Safety Month
where he highlighted the Central Government's 9. Answer: E
commitment towards safety. The United States has designated the United Arab
National Road Safety Month to be held from Emirates (UAE) and Bahrain as its major strategic
January 18 to February 17, 2021 and India partners of the Country.
accounts for 11 percent of accident-related fatalities The announcement was made by White House
worldwide Press Secretary Kayleigh McEnany here.
The function was launched by Union Minister for A new level of partnership between the United
Defence, Rajnath Singh and Union Minister for States, the United Arab Emirates, and the Kingdom
Road Transport and Highways & MSME, Nitin Bahrain, and represents an enduring commitment
Gadkari. The Minister of State for RTH, Gen (Retd) to economic and security cooperation.
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It also reflects their extraordinary courage, This connectivity will be beneficial for tourists
determination, and leadership in entering into the coming to see the Statue of Unity but it will also
Abraham Accords. help in changing the lives of the tribal community of
In addition to that, Both of the countries have been Kevadiya.
designated for their commitment to countering It will bring new opportunities for jobs and self-
violent extremism across the region, exceptional employment.
security partnership and exemplified by their These trains will help boost tourism in the tribal
hosting thousands of US airmen, soldiers, marines region and increase connectivity to the world's
and sailors. tallest statue, the Statue of Unity, which he
inaugurated in October 2018 on the occasion of
10. Answer: D Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel's 143rd birth anniversary.
On Jan 17, 2021, Prime Minister Narendra Modi
flagged off eight trains connecting different regions 11. Answer: B
of the country to Kevadiya with an aim to facilitate The National Aeronautics and Space Administration
seamless connectivity to the Statue of Unity in (NASA) is looking to carry out the eighth and final
Gujarat. test in its “Green Run” test series on January 17.
Gujarat chief minister Vijay Rupani and Union This eighth stage, termed hot fire will bring to an
railways minister Piyush Goyal were also present end a series of tests which, NASA says, will
on the occasion. gradually bring together the core stage of the Space
These trains will connect Kevadia to Varanasi, Launch System (SLS) to life for the very first time.
Dadar, Ahmedabad, Hazrat Nizamuddin, Rewa, The core stage of the SLS will form the backbone of
Chennai and Pratapnagar. what NASA says will be the “most powerful rocket
PM Modi also inaugurated the Dabhoi Chandod in the world” and will power its next-generation
converted broad gauge railway line, Chandod human Moon Missions
Kevadia new broad gauge rail line, newly electrified
Pratapnagar Kevadia section and the new station 12. Answer: D
buildings of Dabhoi, Chandod and Kevadia. Union Health Minister Dr. Harsh Vardhan digitally
Purpose : chaired the 148th session of the Executive Board of
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the World Health Organization through video There are 14 specified industry fields that fall under
conference. SSW and workers and professionals in those
Distinguished Members of the WHO Executive sectors could be eligible,
Board,Hon’ble Ministers, Excellencies & Member These are: nursing care (caregiving); building-
State representatives,WHO Director-General, cleaning management; machine parts and tooling
Regional Director of WHO South-East Asia and industries; industrial machinery industry; electric,
Other Regional Directors,Heads & Representatives electronics and information industries; construction
of UN Agencies and Partner Organizations industry; shipbuilding and ship machinery industry;
The 148th session of the Executive Board has been automobile repair and maintenance; aviation
organised from 18-26 January 2021. industry; accommodation industry; agriculture,
In addition to that the WHO has declared the Year fishery & aquaculture; manufacture of food and
2021 as the Year of Global Solidarity and Survival. beverages; and food service industry.
The meeting provides a platform to bring together
all member states to set the directions and agenda 14. Answer: E
to continue striving for our objective of health as a Kerala Governor Arif Mohammad Khan has
state of complete physical, mental and social well- launched Vedhik Erudite Foundation’s ambitious
being. scheme to provide free coaching for civil services
and other competitive examinations to 10,000
13. Answer: B meritorious students.
India and Japan have signed a Memorandum of This higher education platform will give children a
Cooperation (MoC) on a basic partnership chance to completely redecorate their future plans
framework for operation of the ‘specified skilled and broaden their horizons totally, rewriting their
worker’ (SSW) system under which the Japanese value capital.
government accepts foreign nationals who have a The Programme will be providing free training to the
certain level of expertise and skill. students who are economically backward but are
The memorandum was signed by Japanese academically brilliant aspirants of civil service and
Ambassador to India Suzuki Satoki and Foreign other competitive exams.
Secretary Harsh Vardhan Shringla
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The beneficiaries will be selected by a panel Women’s Double – Indonesia’s Greysia Polii and
headed by the heads of respective educational Apriyani Rahayu
institutions. Mixed Double – Thailand’s Dechapol
Puavaranukroh and Sapsiree Taerattanachai
15. Answer: E
President Yoweri Museveni won a sixth five-year 17. Answer: C
term, extending his rule to four decades, according The Government of India has decided to celebrate
to official results announced . the birthday of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose that
Museveni received 58 percent of the vote to Wine's falls on January 23 as 'Parakram Diwas' from now
34 percent, with a voter turnout of 52 percent. on every year.
The 76-year-old Museveni, in power since 1986 and This day is Mainly for To honour and remember
one of Africa’s longest-serving leaders and is one of Netaji's indomitable spirit and selfless service to the
Africa’s longest-serving presidents. nation.
The Government of India has decided to celebrate
16. Answer: E the 125th birth anniversary year of Netaji beginning
Denmark's Viktor Axelsen and Spain's Carolina from January 2021 in befitting manner at national
Marin have won the men's and women's singles and international level.
titles at the Badminton World Federation (BWF) The announcement assumes significance ahead of
Yonex Thailand in Bangkok, the first of three the West Bengal Assembly elections scheduled
competitions in the Thai capital. later this year.
It was held from 12 January 2021 to 17 January Bose, a noted freedom fighter, had floated Azad
2021. Hind Fauj to fight for India's independence.
It was the first badminton tournament of 2021 by
Badminton World Federation (BWF). 18. Answer: D
Other Winners List : Defence Research and Development Organisation
Men’s Double – Taiwan’s Lee Yang and Wang Chi- handed over MotorBike Ambulance Rakshita to the
Lin Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF).
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Director General of CRPF Dr A P Maheshwari of statues and monuments to ensure they are not
flagged off the contingent of 21 bikes on the removed at a whim.
occasion. The move comes in the wake of Black Lives Matter
It is a bike-based casualty transport emergency protests in the country last year targeting several
vehicle. historic monuments, including with graffiti on
It was Developed by DRDO lab Institute of Nuclear Mahatma Gandhi's statue in Parliament Square in
Medicine and Allied Sciences (INMAS) in New London.
Delhi. New legal protections mean that historic statues
Rakshita is fitted with a customized reclining should be retained and explained for future
Casualty Evacuation Seat (CES), which can be generations and individuals who want to remove
fitted in and taken out as per requirement. any historic statue, whether protected with a listed
Other major features are the head immobilizer,
safety harness jacket, hand and foot straps for 20. Answer: D
safety, adjustable footrest, physiological parameter Madhya Pradesh signed a memorandum of
measuring equipment with wireless monitoring understanding with Kerala for replicating the latter’s
capability and auto warning system for the driver. pioneering Responsible Tourism (RT) initiative.
Purpose : The States signed a joint declaration underneath
The bike ambulance will help in overcoming the which Kerala will prolong a sequence of companies
problems faced by Indian security forces and underneath a 16-point programme.
emergency health care providers. The bike The MoU was exchanged by Tourism Minister
ambulances will provide life-saving aid for Kadakampally Surendran and his Madhya Pradesh
evacuation of injured patients from low intensity counterpart Usha Thakur.
conflict areas. Next week, a 13-member staff from Bhopal, led by
Ms Thakur, will tour totally different elements of
19. Answer: B Kerala to assemble first-hand information about RT
The UK government unveiled new laws to protect within the State.
England's cultural and historic heritage in the form
21. Answer: C
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First, a bird festival is being organised at the The MiG-29s are expected to be acquired at
Mahananda wildlife sanctuary in West Bengal to "relatively lower prices" and will add to 59 such jets
provide an opportunity to enthusiasts to explore the already with the Indian Air Force (IAF).
forest and watch different birds. Before this, the Union cabinet had approved Rs
The Darjeeling Wildlife Division will be organising 48000 crores acquisition of 83 LCA (Light Combat
the 1st Mahananda Bird Festival from February 20 Aircraft) Tejas aircraft from Hindustan Aeronautics
to 23 Limited (HAL).
Mahananda Wildlife Sanctuary is rich in fauna and This will include 73 improved Tejas Light Combat
has more than 300 species of birds. Aircraft Mk.1A fighters and ten LCA Mk.1 trainers.
The sanctuary has been designated as an
'important bird area' due to its critical role in the 23. Answer: B
conservation of birds and their habitat. The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development
The sanctuary is well known among the birding Federation of India (TRIFED) signed a
community, and bird watchers flock to it for sighting Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Indian
the Rufous-necked hornbill, among other birds. Farm Forestry Development Co-operative Ltd
(IFFDC) to promote livelihood generation of tribal
22. Answer: E people.
The government is set to procure 21 MiG-29 and 12 TRIFED is focusing its efforts on finding new ways
Sukhoi-30MKI fighter aircraft from Russia. to improve the lives and the livelihoods of the tribal
The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) people. As a part of its continued efforts, TRIFED
approved the purchase of 83 Light Combat Aircraft has been partnering with like-minded organisations
Tejas from Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). to create synergies together.
The Centre will also purchase the upgrades of the The two organizations have agreed to partner with
aircraft's existing fleets. each other to organise training programmes for
The Request for Proposal (RFP) will soon be issued tribal artisans in the area of entrepreneurship skill
to Russian state-run defence export arm and business development.
Rosoboronexport.
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They will also collaborate further to identify and recipients by Navaid Hamid, President, All India
implement CSR initiatives and tribal development Majlis e Mushawarat.
efforts They are awarded for Probity in Political and Public
Life at the India Islamic Cultural Centre, New Delhi.
24. Answer: D Both recipients had made a mark in public life with
The Indian Air Force (IAF) and French Air and their determination and zeal to protect the secular
Space Force are set to participate in Exercise fabric of the country.
Desert Knight-21.
The bilateral air exercise will be held at Jodhpur Air 26. Answer: D
Force station in Rajasthan, India, from 20 to 24 India and Singapore signed an implementing
January. agreement on submarine rescue support and
Exercise Desert Knight-21 aims to improve cooperation between their navies during the 5th
interoperability between the forces while Defence Minister’s Dialogue held over video
exchanging ‘ideas and best practices’ gained from conference,
operational experience. Both ministers were pleased to witness the signing
According to the Indian Ministry of Defence, the of the implementing agreement on submarine
exercise will see the deployment of Rafale aircraft rescue support and cooperation between the two
by both countries. navies.
Both the air forces will deploy frontline fighter jets Rajnath Singh and his Singaporean counterpart Ng
as well as transport, and tanker aircraft in the Eng Hen conveyed their full support towards early
exercise. conclusion of agreements to "facilitate conduct of
live firings and to establish reciprocal arrangements
25. Answer: E for the cross-attendance of military courses"
Bilkis Dadi, and an eminent social activist and writer
Harsh Mander of “Karwan -e- Mohabbat” were 27. Answer: B
presented the Quaide Milleth Award. Flight lieutenant Bhawana Kanth is set to become
The awards consist of a Shawl, citation and a cash the first woman fighter pilot to take part in the
of Rs 2.5lakh rupees were presented to the Republic Day parade.
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She will be a part of the Indian Air Force's (IAF's) As per an estimate, the government has about
tableau that will showcase mock-ups of the light 50,000 non-cultivated land waste lands. The
combat aircraft, light combat helicopter and the government intends to convert this land into
Sukhoi-30 fighter plane. cultivation.
She is currently posted at an airbase in Rajasthan A list of land blocks for land allotment in transparent
where she flies the MiG-21 Bison fighter plane. manner will be released on I-Khedut portal. The
Kanth is also one of the first women fighter pilots in government will also offer priority assistance to
the IAF. lease owners for drip-sprinkler fountains.
She, along with Avani Chaturvedi and Mohana Surendranagar, Patan, Sabarkantha and
Singh, was inducted into the IAF as the first women Banaskantha districts in the first phase.
fighter pilots in 2016.
Ten women have been commissioned as fighter 29. Answer: D
pilots after an experimental scheme for their Kerala has become the 8th State in the country to
induction into the IAF’s combat stream was successfully undertake Ease of Doing Business
introduced in 2015. reform stipulated by the Department of Expenditure,
India's 2021 Republic Day parade Ministry of Finance.
The State has become eligible to mobilise
28. Answer: E additional financial resources of Rs.2,373 crore
In Gujarat, Chief Minister Vijay Rupani announced through Open Market Borrowings.
the ‘Horticulture Development Mission’ (Bagayat Permission for the same was issued by the
Vikas Mission). Department of Expenditure, on 12th January 2021,
Aim : this mission is to double the income of Kerala has now joined the seven other States
farmers involved in medicinal and horticulture namely, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya
farming. Pradesh, Odisha, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, and
Under this mission, the waste land of the Telangana, who have completed this reform. On
government will be given on 30-year lease for completion of reforms facilitating ease of doing
farming of horticulture and medicinal crops. business, these eight States have been granted
additional borrowing permission of Rs 23,149 crore.
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30. Answer: C Shankar Prasad, who is the chief guest, will deliver
ICICI Bank on January 20 launched a new mobile the inaugural address at the Summit.
application ‘InstaFX’ for authorised money changers
to help customers of any bank get ‘ICICI Bank 32. Answer: E
Forex Prepaid Card’ swiftly. NITI Aayog released a book on faecal sludge and
The bank is the first in the country to offer such a septage management in urban areas.
facility to money changers. It is Jointly developed with National Faecal Sludge
The app enables the authorised money changers, and Septage Management (NFSSM) Alliance.
who are partners of the Bank, to complete the KYC The book presents 27 case studies across 10
verification and validation of customers digitally and states and various service and business models
on a real-time basis. adopted by Indian cities while implementing faecal
The ‘InstaFX’ app will enable the authorised money sludge and septage management (FSSM)
changers, who are partners of the Bank, to initiatives.
complete the KYC verification and validation of The book was released by NITI Aayog CEO Mr
customers digitally and on a real-time basis. Amitabh Kant, MoHUA Secretary Mr Durga
The ‘ICICI Bank Forex Prepaid Card’ gets activated Shankar Mishra, and NITI Aayog Additional
swiftly within a few hours, as against the industry Secretary Dr K. Rajeswara Rao in a virtual event.
practice of up to two-days, thus it will significantly The target of open-defecation-free, India has now
improve customer convenience, even if they are not moved towards becoming ODF+ and ODF++
customers of ICICI bank. This book provides a timely repository of FSSM
best practices that can be adapted and replicated
31. Answer: B appropriately across the country.
15th The India Digital Summit, the flagship event of
the Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI) 33. Answer: D
is one of the biggest conferences for the digital President, Vice President and Prime Minister have
industry scheduled on January 19 and 20, 2021. greeted the people of Meghalaya, Manipur and
Honourable Union Minister for Communications, Tripura on the occasion of their Statehood Day on
Electronics & IT and Law & Justice, Shri Ravi January 21, 2021.
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President Ram Nath Kovind said, blessed with The Horticulture Development Mission, a new
immense natural beauty, rich history and vibrant scheme to promote horticulture in the State’s
culture, these states are fascinating. unproductive land parcels.
He extended his warm wishes as they continue to
move ahead on the path of multi-faceted 35. Answer: E
development. Chief Minister Jai Ram Thakur launched Himachal
Prime Minister Narendra Modi said, the culture and Pradesh''s first online youth radio station ''Radio
warm-hearted nature of the people of Tripura is Hills-Youngistan Ka Dil.
admired across India. The chief minister appreciated the efforts of the
The state has achieved outstanding progress in young entrepreneurs and said the online radio
various fields. station would go a long way in promoting culture
He said, India is proud of Manipur’s contribution to and traditions of the state besides providing an
national development. opportunity to the youth to exhibit their talents.
Manipur is a powerhouse of innovation and sporting Deepika and Saurabh, co-founders of the online
talent. radio station, informed Thakur that it would also be
Mr Modi said, Meghalaya is known for its available on Apple and Android mobile phones.
remarkable kindness and spirit of brotherhood. Developers of the online radio station Karan, Radio
Youngsters from Meghalaya are creative and Jockeys Palak, Rahul and Nidhi were also present
enterprising. on the occasion.
The online radio would go a long way in promoting
34. Answer: D the culture and traditions of the state, besides
Gujarat Chief Minister Vijay Rupani has proposed to providing an opportunity to the youth to exhibit their
rename dragon fruit as ‘Kamalam. talents.
The dragon fruit has been renamed Kamalam
because of the shape of the fruit. 36. Answer: B
This was announced at the launch of the Chief In Andhra Pradesh, Chief Minister Y. S. Jagan
Minister Horticulture Development Mission. Mohan Reddy flagged off Mobile Dispensing Units/
Door to door Delivery Vehicles in Vijayawada.
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As many as 9,260 of such vehicles will supply ration An industrial jumbo air cooler was donated to Sri
with quality rice at the door steps of ration card Durga Malleswara Swamy Devasthanam.
beneficiaries across the state. Bank officials distributed bags, uniforms, books and
The State Government has come forward with the pens to orphans and needy children at SKCV
door delivery programme with a view to supply Children's trust.
quality rice and also other essential commodities. The bank has also donated the Armed Forces Flag
As promised in his Padayatra, Mr Reddy has taken Fund to the Directorate of Sainik Welfare
up this initiative to supply quality rice to the BPL Association, Vijayawada.
people. Further, a customer meet of all local branches was
The mobile vehicles were purchased at a cost of Rs conducted and many customers were honoured.
539 crore and these vehicles were provided by the
government at 60% subsidy to eligible beneficiaries 38. Answer: E
through various corporations under Joe Biden took oath as the 46th President of the
the Employment Guarantee Scheme for United States of America at a scaled-back
unemployed youth. ceremony in the US Capitol building in Washington.
The value of each vehicle is Rs 5,81,000, of which 78 year old Biden has become the oldest US
Rs 3,48,600 was provided as subsidy from various President and only the second Roman Catholic
Corporations and Civil Supplies Corporation. president.
Biden, who was vice president under Barack
37. Answer: C Obama and first ran for president in 1987, plans to
Punjab National Bank, one of the leading kick off his tenure with a flurry of 17 orders.
nationalized banks of the country, established in His deputy Kamala Harris was also sworn in as
1895, and completed 126 years of banking service. 49th Vice-President of the country.
On the occasion, the Bank’s Zonal Manager, Kamala Harris made history as America's first
Ashutosh Choudhury, visited Vijayawada circle and woman and first person with south Asian roots to
participated in the Corporate Social Responsibility take the office of the Vice President.
activities. She was sworn in by Supreme Court Justice Sonia
Sotomayor
Page 85 of 99
The Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah

39. Answer: D inaugurated the new 4-lane Thaltej-Shilaj-
Uttarakhand Chief Minister Trivendra Singh Rawat Rancharda railway overbridge, in Ahmedabad city
inaugurated the state's first child friendly police of Gujarat through video conferencing from New
station describing it as a major reformative step by Delhi.
the police. It has been built at a cost of Rs 55 crore.
Purpose : It is a new initiative and a major Several dignitaries including Gujarat Deputy Chief
reformative step towards protection of children by Minister Shri Nitin Patel were present at the
the state police, Rawat said after inaugurating the programme
Bal Mitra police station in Dalanwala area here.
The child friendly police unit has been set up in the 41. Answer: E
Dalanwala police station with a budget of about Rs The RBI state-owned SBI, along with private sector
five lakhs on the recommendation of the Child lenders ICICI Bank and HDFC Bank continue to be
Protection Committee of Uttarakhand. Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) or
According to the chairperson of State Commission institutions which are 'too big to fail'.
for Protection of Child Rights (SCPCR) Usha Negi, SBIs are subjected to higher levels of supervision
the children who are either victims or need proper so as to prevent disruption in financial services in
counselling or visit police stations due to other the event of any failure.
reasons should be provided with a comfortable and The Reserve Bank had issued the framework for
intimidating environment rather than keeping them dealing with D-SIBs in July 2014.
in a dull and scary atmosphere. SBI, ICICI Bank, and HDFC Bank continue to be
To keep children at ease, the walls are painted in identified as Domestic Systemically Important
bright colours and cartoons and the police Banks (D-SIBs), under the same bucketing
personnel will also be dressed in casual clothes structure as in the 2018 list of D-SIBs.
rather than their uniforms. The D-SIB framework requires the central to
disclose the names of banks designated as D-SIBs
40. Answer: D
Page 86 of 99
starting from 2015 and place these lenders in According to the bank's website, the joining and
appropriate buckets depending upon their Systemic annual fee for the card is Rs749. The finance
Importance Scores (SISs). charges will be 3.4% a month or 49.36% a year.
The additional Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1)
requirement for D-SIBs was phased-in from April 1, 43. Answer: E
2016 and became fully effective from April 1, 2019. Infectious diseases topped the global risks chart,
The additional CET1 requirement will be in addition displacing climate change, in a report by the World
to the capital conservation buffer. Economic Forum (WEF).
SIBs are seen as 'too big to fail (TBTF)', creating In the Global Risks Report 2021, we share the
expectations of government support for them in results of the latest Global Risks Perception Survey
times of financial distress. These banks also enjoy (GRPS), followed by analysis of growing social,
certain advantages in funding markets. economic and industrial divisions, their
interconnections, and their implications on our
42. Answer: B ability to resolve major global risks requiring
Axis Bank has unveiled a credit ‘AURA’ exclusively societal cohesion and global cooperation.
loaded with several health and wellness benefits for The report is being released before WEF upcoming
its users at an affordable price. virtual Davos Agenda scheduled to be held
The bank has also tied up with Decathlon. As part between January 25 to 29, 2021.
of the welcome benefit, cardholders get a The Main objective behind the publishing of the
Decathlon voucher of Rs750. report is to enable better preparation by
It also offers up to four free online interactive fitness Government & other International Communities
sessions per month powered by Fitternity, a health during the times of crisis.
and fitness platform. Cardholders also get access to
16 recorded training sessions per month and can 44. Answer: D
choose from various sessions such as yoga and The Ministry of Electronics and Information
cross-functional training programmes. Technology (MeitY) has announced the
establishment of a Quantum Computing
Page 87 of 99
Applications Lab in partnership with Amazon Web importance of tourism having a positive impact on
Services (AWS). the country's economy.
The move will give select researchers, scientists It is to highlight the prominence of tourism in the
access to Amazon’s Braket cloud-based quantum country and how it impacts India's economic
computing service. prospects.
The Quantum Computing Application Lab in Theme of this year is 'Dekho Apna Desh'.
collaboration with AWS is the first lab on AWS This time, this day will be observed virtually. From
that’s aligned to a government mission. January 21 to February 22, the Ministry of Tourism
It is to be implemented by the Department of has been organizing seminars pertaining to the
Science and Technology operating under the theme. With that, they want to showcase the
Ministry of Science and Technology. diverse culture of our country.
The MeitY Quantum Computing Applications Lab
will provide quantum computing as a service to 46. Answer: D
government ministries and departments, On January 24, 2018, the United Nations General
researchers, scientists, academia, and developers, Assembly adopted a resolution proclaiming this day
to enable advances in areas such as as International Day of Education in
manufacturing, healthcare, agriculture, and celebration of the role of education for peace and
aerospace engineering. development.
The Union Budget 2020-21 had proposed to spend The theme for International Education Day is
Rs. 8000 crores on the National Mission on ‘’Recover and Revitalize Education for the COVID-
Quantum Technologies and Applications. 19 Generation."
About History of International Education Day 2021:
45. Answer: D On January 24, the United Nations General
Every year, January 25 is observed as National Assembly adopted a resolution proclaiming this day
Tourism Day in the country. as International Day of Education on December 3,
Significance of the day : 2018.
Owing to the diversity and the multiculturalism India
has to offer, this day is to highlight the
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This day is also celebrated to promote the role of The theme for this year's NVD, 'Making Our Voters
education and thus the International Day of Empowered, Vigilant, Safe and informed',
Education came into existence. envisages active and participative voters during
elections.
47. Answer: C It has been started from January 26, 2011 to mark
The National Girl Child Day is celebrated in India the Commission's foundation day.
every year on January 24. The National Voters' Day has been celebrated on
It was started by the Ministry of Women and Child January 25 every year since 2011, all across the
Development and the Government of India in 2008, country to mark the foundation day of Election
with the purpose to spread awareness among Commission of India, i.e. 25th January 1950.
people about all the inequalities girls face in the The main purpose of the NVD celebration is to
Indian society. encourage, facilitate and maximize enrolment,
National Girl Child day 2021 is being celebrated especially for the new voters.
across the country with the objective of raising
awareness on the issue of declining Child Sex Ratio 49. Answer: B
(CSR). Archery has always been a part of every Ladakhi
The celebrations will also mark the anniversary of society.
Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme. Nowadays, Ladakhi youth are seen focusing more
on modern archery along with traditional one.
48. Answer: E Under the Khelo India Ladakh Winter Games, the
In order to encourage more young voters to take Union Territory Administration has organised the
part in the political process, the Government of Opening Ceremony of Archery Competition at Leh.
India has decided to celebrate January 25 every Union Minister of State for Sports and Youth Affairs
year as "National Voters' Day". Kiren Rijiju inaugurated the competition.
President Ram Nath Kovind will be the Chief Guest In the Leh district of UT of Ladakh, Union Minister
at the national function being organized in New of State for Sports and Youth Affairs Kiren Rijiju
Delhi. inaugurated Archery Competition-2021 under First
Page 89 of 99
Khelo India Ladakh Winter Games at NDS Sports In this launch, SpaceX broke the record set by ISRO in
Stadium. February 2017 for deploying 104 satellites onboard
PSLV in a single mission.
50. Answer: C The US-based space company launched 143 satellites
Three officers of Indian Police Service (IPS), through its Falcon 9 rocket.
besides three junior cops, have been selected this The launch vehicle for the SpaceX record-breaking flight
year also to be awarded with the Internal Security was the Falcon 9 and the mission was designated as
Service Medals and the Home Minister's Medals
Transporter-1.
respectively for outstanding services in duty.
With these satellites, SpaceX aims to provide near-
Rakesh Rathi, The Inspector General of Police of
global broadband internet coverage all over the world by
Magadh range, present Lakhisarai SP Sushil Kumar
2021.
and Jamui ASP (operation) Sudhansu Kumar are
The 143 satellites included 133 commercial and
the IPS officers, who would be awarded with the
government satellites and 10 Starlink satellites of
Internal Security Service Medals.
SpaceX
The other three policemen selected for the Home
Minister Medal this year for outstanding services
are Havaldar Bhogendra Mishra of Police 52. Answer: C
Academy at Rajgir and constables Anuranjan Border Security Force (BSF) launched Operation Sard
Kumar and Vipin Kumar Singh of CTC at Hawa on the western international border of Rajasthan.
Nathnagar in Bhagalpur. It aims to increase security on the borders in Jaisalmer.

This operation will continue till January 27 with an aim
51. Answer: D that there is no intrusion.
On 24 Jan 2021, SpaceX created a unique world record It was launched on 21 January 2021, and will continue
of launching 143 satellites on a single vehicle. till 27 January 2021, keeping in view Republic Day of
The firm broke the record previously held by the Indian India.
Space Research Organisation (ISRO), which launched
104 satellites in 2017. 53. Answer: E
Page 90 of 99
For the 71st foundation day of Uttar Pradesh, Chief A large-scale tri-service joint amphibious exercise
Minister Yogi Adityanath launched 'Udyam Sarathi' app AMPHEX – 21 was conducted in the Andaman &
to help youth to explore self-employment opportunities. Nicobar group of islands from 21 – 25 Jan 2021.
About the app : The exercise involved participation of Naval ships,
This application will provide all information related to amphibious troops of the Army and different types of
self-employment and the job industry at one click. aircraft from the Air force.
The app, prepared under the ODOP scheme and The exercise was aimed at validating India’s capabilities
considered to be a master-key for exploring self- to safeguard the territorial integrity of it’s island
employment opportunities to the youth. territories.
Through the Udyam Sarathi app, youth would easily be It also sought to enhance operational synergy and joint
able to get a varied range of business opportunities in warfighting capabilities amongst the three Services.
different departments and sectors of the state and the The exercise involved multi-faceted maritime operations
Central government. by synergised employment of amphibious assault ships,
Under the vision of 'Sabka Saath Sabka Vikas and surveillance platforms, execution of maritime air strikes
Sabka Vishwas', this App is poised to benefit the women and complex manoeuvres at sea.
and farmers looking for avenues of self-employment. Airborne insertion of Marine Commandos of Navy and
It has been launched under the One District One Special Forces of the Army, naval gunfire support,
Product (ODOP) scheme. amphibious landing of forces and follow-on operations
The Uttar Pradesh Day celebration will run from 24 also formed part of the exercise.
January to 26 January, 2021. Ex KAVACH for defence of Andaman & Nicobar Islands
The theme of Uttar Pradesh Day 2021 is ‘Respect for formed a part of AMPHEX – 21.
self-reliant Uttar Pradesh, women young farmers,

development of all’. 55. Answer: B
Uttar Pradesh was recognised as a state of India on The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) announced the
January 24, 1950. Padma Awards 2021 - one of the highest civilian Awards
of the country - on the eve of 72nd Republic Day.
54. Answer: D
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These awards are conferred by the President of India at Indian Railways' South Eastern Central Railway(SECR)
ceremonial functions which are held at Rashtrapati zone has created another record when it operated the
Bhawan usually around March/ April every year. longest freight train on the Indian Railways network.
This year the President has approved the conferment of The total length of the freight train was around 3.5
119 Padma Awards. kilometers after joining the five rakes and it was named
The list comprises 7 Padma Vibhushan, 10 Padma 'Vasuki'.
Bhushan and 102 Padma Shri Awards. The distance between Bhilai to Korba is 224 kilometers
29 of the awardees are women and the list also includes and the long-haul freight train named 'Vasuki' covered
10 persons from the category of the whole distance with five rakes of a freight train.
Foreigners/NRI/PIO/OCI, 16 Posthumous awardees and SECR on 22 January operated the long haul rake of five
one transgender awardee. freight trains named 'Vasuki' With the help of one loco
Former Japanese prime minister Shinzo Abe and singer pilot, one assistant loco pilot, and one guard.
SP Balasubramaniam were among the Padma The train took around seven hours to cover the distance
Vibhushan recipients. from Bhilai D cabin to Korba railway station.

The Vasuki, comprising 300 wagons of long haul rakes
56. Answer: E of five goods trains, ran with the help of one pilot, one
Board of Directors of Kerala-based Dhanlaxmi Bank assistant Loco pilot and a guard.
have given approval to appoint J K Shivan as managing
director and CEO of the Bank. 58. Answer: C

It may be recalled that the shareholders of the Kerala- The Defence Research and Development Organisation
based company had voted against MD & CEO Sunil (DRDO) conducted a successful trial of the indigenously
Gurbaxani On September 30, 2020. developed Smart Anti-Airfield Weapon (SAAW) off the
Then, in December that year, the lender appointed Odisha coast from the Hawk-I jet of Hindustan
Shivan as the new MD & CEO. Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
The smart weapon was successfully test fired from

57. Answer: C Indian Hawk-Mk132 of HAL.
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It was a text book launch, which met all mission Silver Peacock Award for Best Director – Chen-Nien Ko,
objectives. The Silent Forest
This was the ninth successful test of the system Best Debut Director Award – Cássio Pereira dos Santos,
conducted over the last five years. Valentina
SAAW is indigenously designed and developed by

DRDO’s Research Centre Imarat (RCI) Hyderabad. 60. Answer: D
This is a 125-kilogram class smart weapon, capable of Shyam Srinivasan, managing director and chief
engaging ground enemy airfield assets such as radars, executive officer (CEO) of Federal Bank, is the Business
bunkers, taxi tracks, and runways, up to a range of 100 Standard Banker of the Year for 2019-20.
kilometres. This award was given mainly for his bank’s consistent
healthy performance at a time when most of its peers

59. Answer: E witnessed large stress on asset quality, registered
The closing ceremony of the 51st edition of the losses, or even invited regulatory actions.
International Film Festival of India was held in the The unanimous decision was taken by a high-profile jury
Shyama Prasad Mookerjee Stadium in Goa. of five, chaired by former RBI deputy governor S S
Due to the COVID-19 the festival was held in hybrid Mundra. He was chosen for his bank’s consistent
mode, there was physical and virtual screening of 50 healthy performance at a time when most of its peers
films out of 224 films across various categories. witnessed losses or other issues.
Bangladesh was the country focus of the festival. Four

films of Bangladesh were included in the ‘country of 61. Answer: E
focus’ section. India has announced a pledge of $150,000 to activities
The winners of the IFFI awards are listed below of the Peacebuilding Fund this year and said that 2021
Golden Peacock Award for Best Film– Into the Darkness provides the international community with an opportunity
Silver Peacock Award for Best Actor – Male – Tzu- to look at peace-building in a more focused manner.
Chuan Liu, The Silent Forest India's Permanent Representative to the UN

Silver Peacock Award for Best Actor – Female – Zofia Ambassador T S Tirumurti.
Stafiej, I Never Cry
Page 93 of 99
The Peacebuilding Fund has put forth a comprehensive 63. Answer: C

scenario covering a horizon of five years. The Fund The Office of the Chief Electoral Officer, Meghalaya was
requires 1.5 billion dollars for 2020-2024. selected for a Special Award for Information Technology
The recently concluded 2020 review of the UN applications in Elections by the Election Commission of
peacebuilding architecture provides a framework to India (ECI), in the National Best Electoral Practices
strengthen peace building collectively. Awards-2020.
President Ram Nath Kovind virtually conferred the
62. Answer: B award to Meghalaya CEO F.R. Kharkongor at the

Prime Minister Narendra Modi chaired the meeting of National Voters' Day Award function held in New Delhi,
35th edition of PRAGATI, the ICT based multi-modal a statement from the CEO’s office informed.
platform for Pro-Active Governance and Timely

Implementation, involving Central and State 64. Answer: C
governments. President has approved awards of 455 Gallantry and
In the meeting, ten agenda items were taken for review other Defence decorations to Armed Forces personnel
including nine projects and one program. and others.
Among the nine projects, three projects were from the Galwan valley hero Colonel B Santosh Babu, the
Ministry of Railways, three from Ministry of Road Commanding Officer of 16 Bihar Regiment, who lost his
Transport and Highways and one project each from life during the Galwan Valley clash last year, will be
Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, posthumously awarded with Maha Vir Chakra.
Power Ministry and Ministry of External Affairs. Subedar Sanjiv Kumar of 4th Battalion Parachute
These nine projects have a cumulative cost of 54 Regiment, CRPF Inspector Pintu Kumar Singh, CRPF
thousand 675 crore rupees concerning the 15 States. Head Constable Shyam Narayan Singh Yadav, CRPF
The States are Odisha, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Constable Vinod Kumar will be posthumously awarded
Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Punjab, Jharkhand, Bihar, with Kirti Chakra.
Telangana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, West Bengal, Haryana, 65. Answer: B

Uttarakhand, and Uttar Pradesh.
Page 94 of 99
India is among the top 10 most affected countries in the Maharashtra Chief Minister Uddhav Thackeray launched
Global Climate Risk Index 2021 published by the Bonn- a ‘jail tourism’ initiative of the state government from
based environmental think tank Germanwatch. Pune’s Yerawada prison, in a move to help students
India ranked as the Seventh worst hit country in terms of learn about historical experiences.
climate change in 2019. The initiative was launched on January 26 via video
It is the 16th edition of the report and has taken into conferencing.
account the data available for 2019 and from 2000 to Yerawada jail is 150-years-old where several freedom
2019. fighters, including Mahatma Gandhi, Lokmanya Tilak,

It caused catastrophic damage and a humanitarian Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel,
crisis, making Mozambique and Zimbabwe the two most Sarojini Naidu and Subhas Chandra Bose had been
affected countries in 2019. imprisoned under the British rule.

In the past 20 years (2000-2019), Puerto Rico, Myanmar The 'jail tourism' was started to make students aware of
and Haiti were the countries most affected by the the history.
impacts of such weather events. The jail has witnessed many historical events like the
Pune-pact that was signed within the premises of this
66. Answer: D jail.
Kaja Kallas, the leader of the Reform Party, has become In recent times the accused of 26/11 Mumbai blasts
Estonia’s first female prime minister. Ajmal Kasab was hanged here on November 21, 2012."
Estonia would thus currently become the only country in

the world where both the president and the prime 68. Answer: D
minister are women. IT and Communications Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad
Kaja Kallas was nominated to form the government by will launch virtual intelligence tool Tejas and 'Work from
the Estonian president, Kersti Kaljulaid, on 14 January Anywhere' portal.
The Reform Party, led by Kallas, won the 2019 The National Informatics Centre Services Inc (NICSI), a
parliamentary election in Estonia with 34 MPs in the public sector enterprise under the National Informatics
country’s 101-seat parliament, Riigikogu. Centre (NIC), will celebrate 25 years of its establishment
67. Answer: D at an event.
Page 95 of 99
Tejas, a virtual intelligence tool that extracts critical The tableau provided the glimpse of the temple that
information from data to make its meaningful information began its construction recently.
for policy decisions and improving efficiency in As for the setting of the tableau, it showcased Maharishi
government services and citizen delivery. Valmiki composing the Ramayana, followed by a model
It will also launch 'e-Auction India' to cater to electronic replica of the Ram temple that showed how it would look
forward and reverse auction requirements of the after its construction.
government organisations serving online 24x7. It is for the first time that the Uttar Pradesh tableau
Also launch 'Work from Anywhere' portal, a virtual showcased a glimpse of the Ram Temple that is being
environment that enables employees to "access routine built in Ayodhya.
applications like e-office, calendar, mail, and other The Tripura tableau won the second prize for the
departmental applications and communicate across Republic Day parade.

through VC ensuring safety during this pandemic with The third prize was received by Uttarakhand’s tableau
social distancing and work assurance from anywhere. which was themed around Kedarkhand.
69. Answer: E 70. Answer: D

The Ram Temple tableau of Uttar Pradesh that was on Union finance minister Nirmala Sitharaman presented
display during the Republic Day has bagged the first the Economic Survey, that details the state of the
prize among all tableaux. economy ahead of the government's budget for the
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh will be giving away the fiscal year beginning April 1, 2021.
first prize to Uttar Pradesh for its tableau. The Economic Survey 2020-2021, authored by a team
The Ram Temple tableau evoked strong reactions from led by chief economic adviser (CEA) Krishnamurthy V
the public. Subramanian, focused on the state of different sectors of

It is reported that the people present to witness the the economy, the effect of the coronavirus pandemic as
parade at the Rajpath applauded when the model of the well as reforms that need to be taken.
upcoming Ram Temple in Ayodhya made an The survey expects the Indian economy to grow by 11
appearance. per cent during 2021-22 which is close to the growth
Page 96 of 99
forecast of 11.5 per cent made by the International

Monetary Fund (IMF). 72. Answer: B
This means that the Indian GDP in 2021-22 is expected India's rank has slipped six places to 86th among 180
to be at Rs.149.2 lakh crore. countries in corruption perception index (CPI) in 2020.
The Theme of Economic Survey 2020-21 : For 2020, Transparency International (TI)'s Corruption
#SavingLives&Livelihoods Perception Index (CPI) was released.
#VshapedRecovery The index, which ranks 180 countries and territories by
their perceived levels of public sector corruption

71. Answer: D according to experts and business people, uses a scale
Uttar Pradesh government will establish the first leather of 0 to 100, where 0 is highly corrupt and 100 is very
park of the country in Kanpur district. clean.

The park is expected to provide employment to 50 India's rank is 86 out of 180 nations with a score of 40.
thousand people directly and more than 1 lakh 50 This year, New Zealand and Denmark rank at first
thousand people indirectly. position with scores of 88. Somalia and South Sudan
The project will be established in 268 areas of land in rank lowest at 179th position with scores of 12.
Ramaipur village of Kanpur district and is expected to India is sharing its position jointly with Burkina Faso,
attract an investment of more than 5850 crores. Morocco, East Timor, Trinidad and Tobago and Turkey.
The leather park will also have an effluent treatment
plant of 20 million litre per day capacity so that it will not 73. Answer: C
pollute the Ganga river. The Karnataka government launched a first-of-its-kind
The establishment of leather park Kanpur City will be initiative in the country to automatically select
able to strengthen its position among the 10 big leather beneficiaries for old-age pensions that will be paid
manufacturing states of the country. through the direct benefit transfer (DBT) mode.
The leather park will have all the facilities for production This model was piloted in Udupi and Ballari districts
as well as exhibition of leather products. where officials enrolled beneficiaries for old-age
It will also have fooding and lodging arrangements for pensions using the 'Navodaya' app.
the investors who will come here from all over the world.
Page 97 of 99
All persons above 60 years will be automatically The International Cricket Council (ICC) on January 27,
selected as beneficiaries of old-age pension based on 2021 announced the 'ICC Player of the Month' awards to
their annual income. recognise the best performances of male and female
The government will make use of the Aadhaar and cricketers across all three forms of international cricket.
income certificates database in selecting beneficiaries. The ICC elaborated further by saying that an
Purpose : To enable beneficiaries to get the pension independent ICC Voting Academy comprising former
without the need of middlemen. players, journalists and broadcasters from around the
world will team up with fans to vote for the ICC Men's
74. Answer: D and Women's Player of the Month.
India has ranked at 86th position among 98 countries in The awards will be conferred starting from this month
the new Coronavirus Performance Index. onwards.

It was Released by Australia-based Lowy Institute. ICC stated that there have been some sensational
According to the performance index New Zealand cricketing performances during January 2021, which will
handled the pandemic more effectively than any other make an inaugural player of the month awards a highly
country in the world, while Brazil sits at the bottom of the competitive affair.
list. January 2021 has seen some of the finest
The study measured a number of key indicators, performances, especially by young cricketers such
including confirmed cases, deaths, cases per million as Washington Sundar (India), Rishabh Pant
people and deaths per million people.
(India), Mohammed Siraj (India) and T. Natarajan
Countries were ranked based on the publicly available
(India) and established players including Steve
and comparable data on Covid-19 response. China was
Smith (Australia), Joe Root(England), Ravichandran
excluded from the list due to lack of publicly available
Ashwin (India), Nadine de Klerk (South Africa),
data.
Marizanne Kapp (South Africa) and Nida Dar
China was not included in the study because all of its
testing rates are not publicly available. (Pakistan).
75. Answer: C
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Page 99 of 99
Page 1 of 80
Reasoning Ability
Direction (1-2): In these questions, certain symbols C. If either conclusion I or II follows.

have been used to indicate relationships between D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
elements as follows: E. If both conclusions I and II follow
“A @ B” means “A is greater than B”
“A % B” means “A is not greater than B” Direction (3-5): Answer the questions based on the
“A # B” means “A is less than B” information given below.
“A &B” means “A is not less than B” 3. Statements:
“A ^ B” means “A is neither greater than nor less P > O ≤ Q; R < K = J; M ≥ P ≤ R
than B" Conclusions:
1. Statements: I.O < M
T%B#G@M; N@G%V^S; O^C&A#N II. K > P
Conclusions: III. J ≥ Q
I) S@A A. Only I follows
II) B#N B. Only III follows
A. If only conclusion I follow. C. Both I and II follows
B. If only conclusion II follows. D. Both II and III follows
C. If either conclusion I or II follows. E. None of these
D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
E. If both conclusions I and II follow 4. Statements:
A ≥ F = D; P = G < R; O > D ≤ G
2. Statements: Conclusions:
E%G#L^P; R#M^L@K; R&S@Z^X I. D < P
Conclusions: II. A ≤ R
I) P&X III. F = G
II) M@E A. Only I follows
A. If only conclusion I follow. B. Either I or III follows
B. If only conclusion II follows. C. Both I and II follows
Page 2 of 80
D. All of the above follows E. None follows

E. None follows
5. Statements: 7. Statement:
H < M = L; N ≤ F ≥ M; C > D = H C = A > N> K; Z < R < K; J > N ≤ U < S
Conclusions: Conclusion:
I. F > D I). R < C
II. L ≤ C II). Z ≤ S
III. N < H III). J > R
A. Only I follows A. Only III follows
B. Both I and III follows B. Both I and III follow
C. Both I and II follows C. Both II and III follow
D. All of the above follows D. Both I and II follow
E. None follows E. None follows
Direction (6-9): In each of the following questions, 8. Statement:

the relationship between different elements is L > S = F > W; D < Y ≥ L; Y < G < H
shown in the statements followed by conclusions. Conclusion:
Find the conclusion which is definitely true I). F < H
6. Statement: II). W ≤ G
W > E ≥ M = G; J = R > A ≤ D; E R III). D > H
Conclusion: A. Only I follows
I). W < A B. Both I and III follow
II). E > A C. Both II and III follow
III). M < R D. Both I and II follow
A. Only III follows E. None follows
B. Either I or II and III follows
C. Either I or II follows 9. Statement:
D. Both I and II follow X = G > B ≥ O > P = I; U > G ≤ T ≤ K
Page 3 of 80
Conclusion: D.B @ G
I). U < I E.G @ T
II). I < T 11. Statement:
III). P < K T $ K # L % M @ C; C & A @ B # D
A. Only I follows A.K @ C
B. Both I and III follow B.M & D
C. Both II and III follow C.L @ C
D. Both I and II follow D.T % B
E. None follows E.M @ A
Direction (10-13): Study the following information 12. Statement:

carefully and answer the following questions. P & Q @ R # S $ T % U; R & A $ M
In each of the following statements some symbols A.A @ P
are used i.e. %,$,#,& and @.Now assuming the B.P % A
given statements to be true, find which of the C. None follows
following conclusions follow and give answers D.M @ Q
accordingly. E.U % P
A%B means ‘A is smaller than B’
A$B means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B’ 13. Statement:
A#B means ‘A is equal to B’ A @ B & C @ D; K % L @ C # M
A&B means ‘A is greater than B’ A.C @ K
A@B means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B’ B.A % L
C.A & M
10. Statement: D.K % B
B@M@N#O&T; N%K$G E.M $ C
A.K & T
B.M @ G Direction (14-15): In each of the following
C.M & B questions, relationship between different elements
Page 4 of 80
are shown in the statement fo llowed by three sets Direction (16-20): Study the following information
of conclusion. Find the conclusion which is carefully and answer the below questions
definitely true. Eight things are arranged in the square table and
14. Statement: these things are kept facing outside of the table.
R ≥ H > T < M; H > W = U < Q; U = B > F = S Two things are arranged in each of the sides.
Conclusion: Dairy is kept second to the right of the Pencil which
I). Q > T is kept opposite to the thing which is immediately
II). R ≥ B left of the Newspaper. The book is kept on the
III). S < Q opposite side of the pencil. The pen is kept
A. Only I follows immediately right of the newspaper. The number of
B. Only II and III follows things kept between pen and charger is same as
C. Only I and III follows the number of things kept between charger and
D. Only III follows mobile. Laptop is one of the items kept in the table.
E. None follows One thing is kept between Charger and Mobile.
Mobile and newspaper are not kept opposite to
15. Statement: each other.
W < Z = Y; D > H ≤ W < U; H ≥ B = T < Q; B > S ≤ 16. Which of the following things is kept to the
F immediate right of Pen?
Conclusion: A. The thing which is kept immediate left of Book
I). D > S B. Diary
II). Y ≥ T C. The thing which is exactly between the Pencil
III). T < U and pen
A. Only I follows D. Charger
B. Only II and III follows E. The thing which is kept opposite to Mobile
C. Only I and III follows
D. Only III follows 17. How many things are kept between Pencil and
E. None follows Book?
A. Two
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B. Three B. Pen, Laptop

C. Either a or d C. Pencil, Charger
D. Four D. Diary, Mobile
E. None E. Pen, Pencil
18. Which of the following statements is/are True? Direction (21-25): Study the following information
I). Newspaper and Book are kept adjacent to each carefully and answer the below questions.
other Eight persons are sitting at the square table facing
II). Nothing is kept between Mobile and Pen the centre. Four of them are sitting in the middle of
III). Two things are kept between Pen and Mobile each side and four of them are sitting at the corner
A. Only I and III of the table.
B. Only III F sits second to the left of the one who faces H. E
C. Only I and II sits immediate left of G. The number of persons
D. Only I sitting between H and E is the same as between H
E. All I, II and III and F. Neither A nor B sits in the middle of the
table. E and C are adjacent to each other. Two
19. What is the position of Charger with respect to persons are sitting between H and C. A sits either
Diary? adjacent to F or D but not both.
A. Second to the right 21. Who among the following person sits second to
B. Third to the right the left of the one who sits immediate right of B?
C. Second to the left A.H
D. Third to the left B. The one who sits second to the right of E
E. None of the above C.C
D.D
20. Four of the following five things are alike in a E. The one who sits immediate right of A
certain way. Which of the following ones does not
belong to the group?
A. Books, Newspaper
Page 6 of 80
22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain III. C sits opposite to A
way thus forms a group. Find the odd one which A. Both I and III
does not belong to the group? B. Only III
A. The one who sits immediate right of F C. All I, II and III
B.G D. Only II
C. The one who sits second to the left of B E. None of these
D. The one who sits immediate right of D
E.E Direction (26-30): Study the following information
carefully and answer the below questions:
23. Who among the following person sits opposite Eight persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are
to E? seated on a square table such that all the persons
A.B are facing away from the centre, but not necessarily
B. The one who sits third to the right of H in the same order. Four persons are seated on the
C.A corners while four persons are seated on the middle
D. The one who sits immediate right of A of each side.
E.C G sits two persons away from F who sits to the
immediate right of C who doesn’t sit at any of the
24. Who among the following person sits between F corners. The number of persons from the right of F
and C when counted from the left of C? to G is the same as the number of persons from the
A.H left of A to C. Two persons sit between A and B.E
B. The one who sits immediate left of D sits to the immediate left of B. H sits to the
C. The one who sits second to the right of A immediate right of D but neither adjacent to A nor E.
D.G 26. Who among the following person sits to the
E. Both b and c immediate left of C?
A.G
25. Which of the following statement is/are true? B.H
I. F is the immediate neighbor of B C.B
II. Two persons are sitting between H and D D.D
Page 7 of 80
E. None of these B. Only III

C. Both II and III
27. If E is related to D and D is related to C in a D. Both I and III
certain way, then who among the following person E. None of these
is related to A?
A.B 30. What is the position of F with respect to D?
B.F A. Second to the right
C.G B. Third to the left
D.C C. Third to the right
E. None of these D. Second to the left
E. None of these
28. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical
order with respect to A in anti-clockwise direction, Direction (31-35): Study the following information
then how many persons remain unchanged in their carefully and answer the below questions.
position, excluding A? Eight persons- Devika, Devaki, Daya, Damini,
A. One Deeksha, Daksha, Deepali and Darpita are sitting
B. Two around a square table but not necessarily in the
C. Three same order and all are facing towards the center.
D. More than three Four of them are sitting at the corner and four of
E. None them are sitting in the middle of the table.
Both Daya and Devika are sitting either at the
29. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true corner or at the side of the table. Damini sits
with respect to the final arrangement? second to the right of the one who is facing Daya.
I. Equal number of persons sit between B and C Darpita is not an immediate neighbour of Devika.
and D and A The one who sits immediate left of Daksha, is
II. H sits second to the right of F. facing Damini. Deepali is immediate neighbour of
III. At least one person sits between A and E. neither Daya nor Devika. Daksha sits immediate left
A. Only I
Page 8 of 80
of Deeksha. Devika does not sit at middle of the 34. What is the position of Devaki with respect to
table. Deeksha?
31. Who among the following person sits opposite A. Second to the right
to Deeksha? B. Third to the right
A. Daya C. Second to the left
B. Damini D. Third to the left
C. Devika E. both a and d
D. Devaki
E. Daksha 35. Four of the five among the following are similar
in such a way to form a group, who among the
32. How many people sit between Devaki and following doesn’t belong to the group?
Damini? A. Deepali
A. Two B. Darpita
B. Three C. Devaki
C. Four D. Daksha
D. Either a or c E. Devika
E. No one
33. Which of the following statement is/are true? the information given below.
I). Devika and Daksha are immediate neighbours Ten persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are
II). Damini sits immediate left of Darpita sitting around a rectangular shaped table in such a
III). Devika and Damini are sitting opposite to each way that four of them sit at the corner and others sit
other. along the edge and all of them are facing the
A. Only I and III center. Two persons sit on each longer edge and
B. Only III one person sits on each shorter edge. All the above
C. Only I and II information is not necessarily in the same order.
D. Only II The one who sits adjacent to M sits third to the left
E. All I, II and III of P, who sits at the corner. Q sits second to the
Page 9 of 80
right of O, both Q and O sits adjacent to neither P 39. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
nor M. Both Q and O don’t sit at the corner. U sits way and hence form a group. Find the one that
fourth to the right of S who sits along the edge.R doesn’t belong to that group?
sits diagonally opposite to T and both of them A.SQ
adjacent to neither S nor M. N sits adjacent to P but B.VN
not R. C.NS
36. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false? D.OQ
A.R sits second to the right of S. E.QM
B.Q sits adjacent to U.
C.M sits fifth to the right of P. 40. How many persons sit between T and O, when
D. Two persons sit between N and O when counted counted from the right of T?
from the right of N. A. Two
E. All are true. B. Three
C. Four
37. Who sits third to the left of V? D. Five
A.P E. None of these
B.Q
C.R Direction (41-45): Study the following information
D.S carefully and answer the below questions
E. None of these Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting
around a rectangular table, with three persons at
38. Who among the following person sits diagonally each longer side and with one person at each
opposite to P? shorter side of the table. They all are facing centre
A.V but not necessarily in the same order.
B. The one who sits second to the right of T. F sits opposite to the one who sits second to the
C.Q right of G. G and H are sitting on the same side. H
D. The one who sits third to the left of T. sits second to the right of G. Two persons are
E. None of these sitting between H and C. F and D are adjacent to
Page 10 of 80
each other. Neither B nor A is sitting adjacent to 44. Who among the following person sits opposite
G.B doesn’t sit adjacent to D. E sits adjacent to G. to C?
At least one person sits between A and B when A. The one who sits second to the left of H
counted from both right and left of A. B.E
41. How many persons are sitting between D and C. The one who sits immediate right of D
E? D.F
A. Four E. The one who sits second to the right of E
B. Either a or c
C. Two 45. Which of the following pair of persons are
D. Five adjacent to each other?
E. Three I. AD
II. BE
42. Who among the following person sits second to III. CF
the left of B? A. Only II
A. The one who sits opposite F. B. Only I
B.D C. Both II and III
C.A D. All I, II, and III
D.C E. None of these
E. The one who sits immediate right of G
43. What is the position of A with respect to F? carefully and answer the question below.
A. Immediate right Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting
B. Third to the right around a rectangular table. Four of them are sitting
C. Second to the right at the corner as one person sits on each corner
D. Third to the left while others are sitting on longer side(Two on each
E. Immediate left side) of the table. All of them are facing outside the
table. All the information is not necessarily in the
same order.
Page 11 of 80
C is sitting at the longer side. G is sitting 2nd to the D. H

left of C. Two persons are sitting between G and F E. Person who sits exactly between C and G
who is sitting at the corner of the table. One person
is sitting between B and H but neither B nor H is an 49. Which of the following is definitely a true
immediate neighbour of G. A is sitting 3 rd to the statement?
right of H but doesn’t sit adjacent to C. D is not an A.D is an immediate neighbour of A
immediate neighbour of C. B.F sits 2nd to the right of D
46. How many persons sit between B and F when C.H sits at the side of the table
counted from the right side of F ? D.G sits opposite to A
A. Three E.A is an immediate neighbour of B
B. Two
C. Five 50. Who sits 2 ndto the right of the one who sits
D. One opposite to F ?
E. None A.C
B.B
47. What is the position of H with respect to D? C. The one who sits immediate left of B
A.2nd left D. The one who sits immediate right of G
B. Immediate right E. H
C. Immediate left
D.3rd right Direction (51-55): Study the following information
E.5th left carefully and answer the below questions
Eight persons are sitting on the rectangular-shaped
48. Four of the following five are alike in a certain sofa in the airport waiting hall. All are facing
way and form a group. Find the one which doesn’t outside. Four of them are sitting in each corner and
belong to the group? four of them are sitting on each edge of the sofa.
A.B P sits at the corner of the sofa sits third to the left of
B. Peron who sits immediate left of F R. Q sits opposite to the one who is immediate left
C. Person who sits 2ndto the left of A of U. W sits at the smaller side of the sofa. Y sits
Page 12 of 80
adjacent to S, is sitting diagonally opposite to U. 54. In which of the following statement 3rd person
Three persons are sitting between R and S. T is sits exactly between 1st and 2nd person in the final
one of the persons sitting in the sofa. arrangement?
51. Who among of the following person sits third to I). UTR
the left of the person who sits opposite to R? II). SQY
A.W III).WPS
B. The one who sits Immediate right of S A. Only II
C.P B. Only I and II
D. The one who sits Second to the left of Y C. Only III
E. None of these D. All I, II and III
E. None of these
52. Who among the following person sits exactly
between W and S, when counted from the right of 55. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
S? way thus forms a group.Find the odd one which
A. The one who sits Second to the right of Y does not belong to the group?
B.Q A.U
C. The one who sits Immediate right of R B.T
D.U C.P
E. None of the above D.S
E.Y
53. Which of the following statement is/are true?
A.U and W sit opposite to each other Direction (56-60): Study the following information
B. One person sits between R and T carefully and answer the questions given below
C.S sits exactly between P and Y There are twelve Friends- P, R, O, X, Z, U, V, Y, S,
D.Q and S are immediate neighbours Q, T, and W sitting in a hexagonal chair for a get-
E. None of these together, but not necessarily in the same order. All
are facing the centre. Six are sitting at each side
Page 13 of 80
and six are sitting at each corner of the table. All I). Z
are sitting at an equidistant to each other. II). The one who sits third to the left of R.
Three persons are sitting between W and Y, and III). U
both are sitting at the corner of the table. Two IV). The one who sits third to the right of S.
persons are sitting between Y and R, who is not A. Only II and III
adjacent to W. R sits just opposite to O, who is B. Only I, III, and IV
adjacent to T. S sits opposite to Z, and none of C. Only II, III, and IV
them is adjacent to T. X is adjacent to U. Two D. Only II and IV
persons sit between X and V when counted from E. All I, II, III, IV
the right of X. V does not sit adjacent to Z. T neither
sits opposite nor adjacent to Q. 59. Which of the following i s true about T?
56. How many persons there between W and S A. Sits to the immediate right to Y
when counted from the right of W? B. Sits to the immediate right to O
A. One C. Sits second to the left of Z
B. No one D. Sits second to the right of Y
C. six E. None is true
D. Five
E. Seven 60. What is the position of Q with respect to P?
A. Sixth to the right
57. Find the odd one out? B. Sixth to the left
A.QY C. Seventh to the right
B.OS D. Seventh to the left
C.WV E. Fourth to the right
D.XP
E.UT Direction (61-65): Answer the questions based on
58. Who among the following is/are sitting at the Twelve people viz. D, G, J, K, L, M, N, P, Q, R, S
corner of the table? and T are seated in a hexagonal table facing
Page 14 of 80
towards the center, but not necessarily in the same 63. The number of persons sitting between M and
order. Six persons sit at the corner of the table ___ is the same as the number of persons sits
while six persons sit at the middle of the sides of between L and ___, when counted from the left of
the table. both L and M.
J sits three persons away from the one who is A.Q, T
opposite to T and sits to the immediate right of D.J B.G, P
does not sit at the corner of the table. R sits fourth C.Q, P
to the left of D and third to the right of G. P faces G D.D, Q
who sits second to the right of N. L is the immediate E. None of these
neighbour of N and faces the one who sits to the
immediate left of M. K and Q are immediate 64. Who among the following person sits second to
neighbours of each other where Q doesn’t face J. the left of the one who sitssixth to the right of L?
S is not the immediate neighbour of P. A.Q
61. Who among the following person sits to the B.R
immediate left of G? C.K
A.T D.G
B.S E.T
C.N
D.Q 65. Four of the five are alike in a certain way and
E.K hence form a group. Find the one that does not
belong to the group.
62. How many persons sit between D and K when A.P
counted from the right of K? B.N
A. More than four C.G
B. Three D.M
C. Two E.R
D. Four
E. None
Page 15 of 80
Direction (1-2): I). W < A (W>ER>A) False

1. Answer: B II). E > A(ER>A) False
I) S@A (S=V≥G<N>A) False III). M < R(M≤ER) False
II) B#N (B<G<N) True
7. Answer: B
2. Answer: B I). R < C(C=A>N>K>R) True
I) P&X (P=L>R≥S<Z=X) False II). Z ≤ S (S>U≥N>K>R>Z) False
II) M@E (M=L>G≥E) True III). J > R (J>N>K>R)True
Direction (3-5): 8. Answer: A

3. Answer: C I). F < H (F<L≤Y<G<H) True
I.O < M (M≥P>O) True II). W ≤ G (G>Y≥L>S=F>W) False
II. K > P (K>R≥P) True III). D > H(H>G.Y>D)False
III. J ≥ Q(J=K>R≥P>O≤Q) False
9. Answer: C
4. Answer: B I). U < I(U>X=G>B≥O>P=I)False
I. D B≥O>P=I)True
II. A ≤ R(A≥F≤G=P<R) False III). P < K(K≥T≥X=G >B≥O >P)True
III. F = G(D=F≤G=P) False
Combining I and III condition is true. Direction (10-13):
5. Answer: A 10. Answer: A
I. F > D (F≥L=M>H=D) True A.K & T(K>N=O>T)True
II. L ≤ C(L=M>H<L) False B.M @ G(M≥N<K≤G)False
III. N < H(N≤F≥L=M>H) False C.M & B(B≥M) False
D.B @ G (B≥M≥N<K≤G)False
Direction (6-9): E.G @ T(G≥K>N=O>T)False
6. Answer: E
Page 16 of 80
11. Answer: B I). D > S(D>H≥B=T>S)True

A.K @ C(K=L<M≥C)False II). Y ≥ T(Y=Z>W≥H≥B=T)False
B.M & D(M≥C>A≥B=D)True III). T < U(T=B≤H≤W<U)True
C.L @ C(L<M≥C)False
D.T % B(T≤K=L<M≥C>A≥B)False Direction (16-20):
E.M @ A(M≥C>A)False
12. Answer: C
A.A @ P(A<R=S≤Q<P)False
B.P % A (A<R=S≤Q<P)False
D.M @ Q(M≥A<R=S≤Q) False
E.U % P(U>T≥R=S≤Q<P)False
13. Answer: C Dairy is kept second to the right of the Pencil which
A.C @ K(K<L≥C)False is kept opposite to the thing which is immediately
B.A % L(A≥B>C≤L)False left of the Newspaper.
C.A & M(A≥B>C=M)True From the above condition, there are two
D.K % B(K<L≥C<B)False possibilities.
E.M $ C(M=C)False
Direction (14-15):
14. Answer: D
I). Q > T(Q>W=U<H>T)False
II). R ≥ B (R≥H>W=U=B)False
III). S < Q (S=F<W=U<Q)True The book is kept on the opposite side of the pencil.
The pen is kept immediately right of the newspaper.
15. Answer: C
Page 17 of 80

possibilities.
Mobile and newspaper are not kept opposite to

each other.
From the above condition, case2 and case2a are
The number of things kept between pen and eliminated.
charger is same as the number of things kept Case1 shows the final arrangement.
between charger and mobile.
One thing is kept between Charger and Mobile.
Laptop is one of the items kept in the table.
16. Answer: E
Page 18 of 80
17. Answer: C E sits immediate left of G .E and C are adjacent to

18. Answer: D each other.
19. Answer: D
20. Answer: E
Direction (21-25):
F sits second to the left of the one who faces H.

Two persons are sitting between H and C.
From the above condition, there are four
Neither A nor B sits in the middle of the table.
possibilities.
eliminated.
Page 19 of 80
The number of persons sitting between H and E is Direction (26-30):

the same as between H and F. By this condition,
case 1a gets eliminated.
1. G sits two persons away from F who sits to the

immediate right of C who doesn’t sit at any of
A sits either adjacent to F or D but not both. the corners. The number of persons from the
From the above condition, case1 shows the final right of F to G is the same as the number of
arrangement. persons from the left of A to C.
2. Two persons sit between A and B. E sits to the

21. Answer: E
immediate left of B. H sits to the immediate right of
22. Answer: E
D but neither adjacent to A nor E. Hence, cases 1
23. Answer: D
and 2a gets eliminated.
24. Answer: E
25. Answer: A
Page 20 of 80
The one who sits immediate left of Daksha, is

facing Damini. Deepali is immediate neighbour of
neither Daya nor Devika.
26. Answer: B
27. Answer: D
28. Answer: A
29. Answer: B
30. Answer: C
Direction (31-35):
Both Daya and Devika are sitting either at the
corner or at the side of the table. Devika does not
sit at middle of the table. Damini sits second to the
right of one who is facing Daya. From the above
condition, there are two possibilities.
Darpita is not an immediate neighbour of Devika.

Daksha sits immediate left of Deeksha. From the
above condition case 1 and case 2 are eliminated.
Case 2a shows the final arrangement.
Page 21 of 80
31. Answer: A
32. Answer: D
33. Answer: E 2) Q sits second to the right of O, both Q and O sits
34. Answer: D adjacent to neither P nor M. Both Q and O don’t sit
35. Answer: E at the corner. Hence, case 2 gets eliminated.
Direction (36-40):
1) The one who sits adjacent to M sits third to the

left of P, who sits at the corner.
Page 22 of 80
3) U sits fourth to the right of S, who sits along the Direction (41-45):
edge. R sits diagonally opposite to T and both of
them adjacent to neither S nor M.N sits adjacent to
P but not R. Hence, cases 1, 4 and 4a get
eliminated.
F sits opposite the one who sits second to the right

of G.
G and H are sitting on the same side.
H sits second to the right of G.
Two persons are sitting between H and C.
possibilities.
36. Answer: C
37. Answer: B
38. Answer: D
39. Answer: A
40. Answer: B
F and D are adjacent to each other.

possibilities.
Page 23 of 80
B doesn’t sit adjacent to D.

41. Answer: E
Neither B nor A is sitting adjacent to G.
42. Answer: E
E sits adjacent to G.
43. Answer: C
44. Answer: E
45. Answer: B
Direction (46-50):
At least one person sits between A and B when

counted from both right and left of A.
From the above condition, case2a gets eliminated,
C is sitting at the longer side of the table.

G is sitting 2nd to the left of C.
Here we get two possibilities.
Page 24 of 80
Two persons are sitting between G and F who is

sitting at the corner of the table. We cannot fix the position of D in case (2). So this
case is eliminated.
46. Answer: B
47. Answer: C
48. Answer: D
49. Answer: E
50. Answer: D
One person is sitting between B and H but neither B
nor H is an immediate neighbor of G. Direction (51-55):
A is sitting 3rd to the right of H, but is not adjacent to

C. P sits at the corner of the sofa sits third to the left of
R.
D is not an immediate neighbour of C.
Three persons are sitting between R and S.
Page 25 of 80

possibilities.
51. Answer: D
52. Answer: A
Y sits adjacent to S, is sitting diagonally opposite to 53. Answer: C
U. 54. Answer: B
55. Answer: D
Direction (56-60):
Q sits opposite to the one who is immediate left of

U.
W sits at the smaller side of the sofa.
T is one of the persons sitting on the sofa.
We have,
• Three persons are sitting between W and Y,
and both are sitting at the corner of the table.
Page 26 of 80
• T neither sits opposite nor adjacent to Q.
• Two persons are sitting between Y and R, Case- II gets eliminated because V should be third
who is not adjacent to W. to the right of X and X and U are adjacent to each
• R sits just opposite to O, who is adjacent to other.
T. Based on the above information,
• S sits opposite to Z, and none of them is
adjacent to T.
56. Answer: C
• X is adjacent to U. Two persons sit between
57. Answer: B
X and V when counted from the right of X.
58. Answer: C
• V does not sit adjacent to Z.
Page 27 of 80
59. Answer: D
60. Answer: D
Direction (61-65):
3. L is the immediate neighbour of N and faces the

one who sits to the immediate left of M.
1. J sits three persons away from the one who is

opposite to T and sits to the immediate right of
D.J does not sit at the corner of the table.
4. K and Q are immediate neighbours of each other

where Q doesn’t face J. S is not the immediate
neighbour of P. Hence, case 2 gets eliminated.
2. R sits fourth to the left of D and third to the right

of G.P faces G who sits second to the right of N.
Page 28 of 80
61. Answer: B
62. Answer: D
63. Answer: C
64. Answer: A
65. Answer: E
1) Sathish bought a second hand bike and spent mobile phone of Sam is Rs.23000 more than the
Rs. 3000 on its repair and spare parts. Then he price of mobile phone of Anu. What is the price of
sold it to Rajesh at a profit of 15 % and Rajesh sold mobile phone of Sam?
it to Suresh at a loss of 10 %. Suresh finally sold it A. Rs.15000
for Rs. 22770 at a profit of 10%. How much B. Rs.45000
amount did Sathish initially pay for the bike? C. Rs.30000
A. Rs. 21000 D. Rs.40000
B. Rs. 17000 E. None of these
C. Rs. 23000
D. Rs. 19000 3) The ratio of the cost price of mobile to laptop is
E. None of these 5:9 and the ratio of the cost price of laptop to
computer is 3:2. If the computer sells at the profit
2) The average value of mobile phone price of of 20% and selling price of the computer is
Anu, Vimal and Sam is Rs.29000. The price of Rs.14400, then what is the difference between the
mobile phone of Anu is Rs.2000 more than the cost price of mobile and l aptop?
price of mobile phone of Vimal and the price of A. Rs.5000
Page 29 of 80
B. Rs.6000
C. Rs.7000 6) The shopkeeper marked 20% above the cost
D. Rs.8000 price of the article and also he gives 15% of the
E. None of these discount to his favourite customer. The customer
sold that article for his friend at the amount of
4) The shopkeeper offers a discount of 12.5% on Rs.5896. If the cost price of the article is Rs.4800,
marked price of laptop while he gets the profit of then what is the profit gained by customer?
40%. If he gives the discount of Rs.1200 on A. Rs.800
marked price of the laptop while he gets the profit B. Rs.2000
of 30%, find the cost price of the laptop? C. Rs.1000
A. Rs.4000 D. Rs.1500
B. Rs.4800 E. Cannot be determine
C. Rs.5000
D. Cannot be determine 7) In order to clear his stock of rice S uresh s tarts
E. None of these giving a 1.2 k g o f r i ce i nstead o f 1 k g r i ce. B ut
actually, he is using 800 gm weight instead of 1 k g
5) A shopkeeper marked the price of an article weight. What is the net profit/Loss of Suresh in this
60% more than the cost price of the article and transaction?
sold it to P after giving 15% discount on the A. Profit of 4%
marked price and P sold it to Q at profit of 40%. If B. Profit of 4.16%
the shopkeeper bought it at the cost price of Rs. C. Loss of 3.5%
127500, then at what price did P sold the article to D. No profit No Loss
Q? E. Loss of 2%
A. Rs.245200
B. Rs.242075 8) Praveen is the computer shop owner. He
C. Rs.232080 purchases the components o f a d e sktop fo r R s
D. Rs.242000 6200 and then he spends further Rs 2400 on
E. Rs.242760 labour charge to assemble the system. If h e s ells
Page 30 of 80
18 desktops for Rs 175000 then what is the A. Rs.24000

approximate profit percentage in this case? B. Rs.28000
A. 13% C. Rs.15000
B. 11.5% D. Rs.35000
C. 12.2% E. None of these
D. 14.35%
E. 8.9% 11) The Ratio of cost price of an article to marked
price of the article is x: 5. If the selling price of the
9) Mohit calculates his profit percentage on the article is Rs.4400 and the shopkeeper also offer
selling price w here as Soma calculates on her cost 20% of discount on marked price of the article,
price. They find that the difference of their profits is then marked price is what percent more than that
Rs. 195. If the selling price is same for both and of cost price if profit earned by shopkeeper is
Mohit earned 25% profit where as Soma earned 10%?
30% profit. Find the cost price of Mohit. A. 28.5%
A. Rs. 7805 B. 32.7%
B. Rs. 6335 C. 33.60%
C. Rs. 6405 D. 37.5%
D. Rs. 7505 E. None of these
E. Rs. 7605
12) The average age of 6 members i n a fa mily 3
10) Ratio of the marked price to selling price of the years ago was 40 years. At present, the son of th e
mobile is 6: 5. The marked price of the mobile is family got married and daughter-in-law c a me i nto
half of the marked price of the laptop. If the the family so their average age now decreased b y
shopkeeper offers a discount of 16.67% on laptop 1 year, then what is the age daughter-in-law?
and the difference between the selling price of A.15 years
mobile and laptop is Rs.10000 then what is the B.26 years
cost price of the laptop ( marked price of the laptop C.28 years
is 60% above the cost price)? D.20 years
Page 31 of 80
E.None of these 15) A man sold a mobile for Rs. 15000 and
incurred a loss. Had he sold the mobile for Rs.
13) Karan mixes 25 Kg of rice purchased at the 21000, his gain would have been equal to two
rate of Rs.12/Kg, 20 Kg of rice purchased at the times of the amount of loss that he incurred. At
rate of Rs.10/Kg and 30 Kg of rice purchased at what price should he sell the mobile to gain 25 %?
the rate of Rs.8/Kg. At what price/Kg should he sell A. Rs. 20500
the mixture to earn a profit of 20%? B. Rs. 21250
A. Rs.10.65 C. Rs. 22000
B. Rs.9.95 D. Rs. 23750
C. Rs.11.84 E. None of these
D. Rs.10.54
E. None of these Directions (16-20): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below.
14) Meeta bought an item for Rs.450. She marked The given pie chart shows the number of five
the price of the item at 20% above the cost price different products manufactured in 2018.
and sold it at a discount of 5% on the marked
price. She bought another item for Rs.600 and
marked the price of the item at 25% above the cost
price and sold it at a discount of 10% on marked
price. Find her approximate overall profit
percentage after selling both the items.
A. 11%
B. 15%
C. 13% 16) If the ratio of the number of sold to unsold
D. 17% Watch and TV is 7:8 and 3:2 respectively, then
E. 19% what is the difference between the number of sold
watch and TV together and unsold watch and TV
together?
Page 32 of 80
A. 238 A. 3206
B. 243 B. 3346
C. 256 C. 3118
D. 240 D. 3406
17) What is the difference between the number of 20) The number of defective laptop is 380 which is
Laptop and AC manufactured in 2018? 76% of the number of defective AC. What is the
A.340 difference between the number of defective and
B.450 non defective AC in 2018?
C.330 A. 800
D.350 B. 750
E.None of these C. 600
D. 700
18) If the number of non defective to defective E. 850
mobile, laptop and AC in the ratio of 5:4, 3:1 and Directions (21-25): Read the following pie chart
3:2 respectively, then find the sum of the number carefully and answer the following questions based
of defective mobile, laptop and AC together? on it.
A.1570 Pie chart given below shows the percentage
B. 1590 distribution of production of Sports Watch by five
C. 1610 companies A, B, C, D and E out of total production
D. 1620 of sports watch.
E. None of these
19) In 2019, the number of manufactured mobile

and TV is increased by 20% and 10% respectively,
then find the total number of mobile and TV
manufactured in 2019.
Page 33 of 80
number of sports watches produced by company D

and company E together.
A. 40
B. 30
C. 28
D. 56
E. None of these
21) If company C produce 200 sports watches

24) The ratio of production of Sports watches and
more than company D, then find total number of
formal watches by company B is in the ratio of 4:5
watches produced by company A and company B
respectively. Find the number of sports watches
together.
produced by company A, if number of formal
A. 175
watches produced by company B is 75.
B. 140
A. 150
C. 105
B. 375
D. 160
C. 175
E. None of these
D. 180
E. None of these
22) Total production of sports watches by company
C and E together is what % more than other three
25) If total production of formal watches by
companies together?
company E is 80 which is 20% of production of
A. 20%
formal watches all companies together which is
B. 33.33%
100 less than total number of sports watches
C. 60%
production by all companies together. Find the
D. 50%
number sports watches production by company E.
E. None of these
A. 120
B. 100
23) If total production by company A and company
C. 95
C together is 210 sports watches, find the average
Page 34 of 80
D. 85 B. Rs.25500
E. None of these C. Rs.25000
D. Rs.24500
Directions (26-30): Read the following instructions E. Rs.25400
carefully and answer the following questions
The following pie-chart shows the salary 28) Money spent on travel is what percentage
distribution of Mr.X on various expenses. more or less than the money spent on
Total salary of Mr.X = Rs.60000 entertainment?
A. 50%
B. 44.44%
C. 25%
D. 33.33%
E. 30%
29) What is the difference between money spent

on travel & entertainment together and food &
26) What is the ratio between money spent on food medicine together?
and travel together to money spent on rent and A. Rs.25050

medicine together? B. Rs.25400
A. 5:7 C. Rs.25500
B. 5:3 D. Rs.24050
C. 5:4 E. Rs.24500
D. 5:6
E. 7:5 30) If the salary of Mr.X is increased by 25% also
he increases expenditure on cloth by Rs.500, then
27) What is total money spent on cloth and food find the percentage of amount he spend to buy
together? cloth.
A. Rs.25050 A. 16.67%
Page 35 of 80
B. 12.5% B. 30
C. 10% C. 40
D. 11.66% D. 50
E. 10.67% E. None of these
32) If the number of HR employees in A is 50%

more than the IT employees in A and the number
of HR employees in A is 90, then what is the total
Directions (31-35): Study the following information number of IT employees in D and E together?
carefully and answer the questions given below. A.100
The given pie chart shows the percentage B.110
distribution of number of IT employees in five C.120
different companies. D.90
E.None of these
33) The number of IT employees in C and E

together is what percent more than the number of
IT employees in A, B and D together?
A. 45%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 55%
31) If the difference between total number of IT
E. None of these
employees in A and E is 60 and the number of HR
employees in B is 210, then what is the difference
34) If the sum of IT employees in A and C together
between the number of HR and IT employees in
is 198, then what is the average number of IT
B?
employees in B, D and E together?
A. 20
A. 51
Page 36 of 80
B. 52 B. 66
C. 54 C. 85
D. 56 D. 57
35) The number of HR employees in B is 80 which

38) 18 * 15 + 20% of 450 - √256 * 3=48% of ?
is 25% of the sum of the HR employees in all the
five companies together which is 80 less than that
A. 620
in IT employees, then what is the number of IT
B. 650
employees in B?
C. 670
A. 40
D. 680
B. 50
E. 700
C. 60
D. 80
39) 60% of 190 + √289 * 3 - ? * 17=131
E. None of these
A. 1
B. 4
Directions (36-42): What value should come in
C. 3
D. 2
36) 80% of 4500 + 25% of 1764 =?
E. 6
A. 4275
B. 5655
40) 513 ÷ 27+ ? = 55% of 780
C. 4041
A. 380
D. 6383
B. 400
E. None of these
C. 370
D. 410
E. 390
37) (18 × 49) ÷ 14 – 2720 ÷ 160 = 2 × ? - 52
A. 49 41) √4489 + √169 +? = 19 * 24

Page 37 of 80
A. 328 E. 335
B. 359
C. 364 45) 25.04 ÷ 4.99 × 9.899 - ? = 20.127
D. 376 A. 20
E. 386 B. 30
C. 15
42) 40% of 200 + 2800 ÷ 7 + ? = √625 * √576 D. 45
A. 110 E. 36
B. 120
C. 130 46) (676.03 ÷24.90) + 528.01 ÷ √255 = ?
D. 140 A. 30
E. 150 B. 50
C. 70
Directions (43-50): What value should come in D. 60
place of (?) in the following questions? E. 80
43) 17.982 + 4.05 x 90.11 ÷ 4.98 = ?

47) 49.98 * 22.98 – 13.13 * 21.99 = ?
A. 856
A. 396
B. 898
B. 336
C. 794
C. 242
D. 864
D. 423
E. 782
E. 816
48) √960 * 13.908 = ? + √530 * 17.992

44) 19.092 – 2196.98(1/3) + 49.07(1/2) = ?
A. 25
A. 345
B. 10
B. 355
C. 15
C. 336
D. 20
D. 340
Page 38 of 80
E. 7 B. 54
C. 57
49) 31.89 % of 150.12 + 39.92% of 129.98 = ? D. 49
A. 130 E. 51
B. 120
C. 100 53) 169, 171, 176, 186, 203, ?
D. 140 A.467
E. 150 B.345
C.229
50) √63.62 * 24.93 + 32.01 ÷ √16.08 = ? + 128.07 D.749
A. 50 E.None of these
B. 70
C. 60 54) 52, 274, 404, 472, 502, ?
D. 80 A.517
E. 90 B.522
C.512
Directions (51-55): What will come in place of D.532
question-mark (?) in the following question? E.412
51) 5, 20, 53, 112, 205, ?
A. 320 55) 60, 91,131, 182, 246, ?
B. 330 A. 325
C. 340 B. 623
D. 350 C. 123
E. None of these D. 645
E. None of these
Directions (56-60): Fine the wrong term in the
52) 7, 13, 21, 31, 43,?
series given below.
A. 48
Page 39 of 80
56) 51, 60, 79, 134, 215, 336 B.28

C.57
A.51
D.39
B.79
E.33
C.215
D.60
E.134 60) 38, 52, 94, 164, 268, 388
A.94
57) 151, 182, 251, 386, 605, 956 B.38
C.52
A.151
D.164
B.182
E.268
C.251
Directions (61-75): In the following questions, two
D.605
equations I and II a r e g iven. Y ou h ave to s olve
E.386
both the equations and give answer a s,(sbi c lerk
set-3)
a) If x > y
58) 2, 9, 60, 420, 3360, 30240
b) If x ≥ y
A.30240 c) If x < y
B.60 d) If x ≤ y
C.420 e) If x = y or the relation cannot be established
D.9
E.3360 61)
I) 5x – 6y = -3
II) 3x + 4y = -17
59) 24, 28, 33, 39, 51, 57
A.a
B.b
A.51
C.c
Page 40 of 80
D.d D.d
E.e E.e
62)
65)
I) 2x2 – 5x – 52 = 0
II) 3y2 + y – 44 = 0a
I) x2 – 22x + 105=0
A.a
II) y2 – 22y + 112=0
B.b
A.a
C.c
B.b
D.d
C.c
E.e
D.d
E.e
63)
I) x2 – 20x + 51 = 0
II) y2 – 13y + 42 = 0 66)
A.a
I) 12x2 – 41x + 34=0
B.b
II) 3y2 – 30y + 63=0
C.c
A.a
D.d
B.b
E.e
C.c
D.d
64) E.e
I) x2 – 34x + 289=0
II) 2y2 + 15y – 108=0 67)
A.a
I) x2 – 4x – 221=0
B.b
II) y2 – 26y + 153=0
C.c
Page 41 of 80
A.a B.b
B.b C.c
C.c D.d
D.d E.e
E.e
71)
68) I) x2 + 7x + 12=0
I) x2 – 31x + 238=0 II) 2y2 + 22y + 56=0
II) 2y2 – 26y + 84=0 A.a
A.a B.b
B.b C.c
C.c D.d
D.d E.e
E.e
72)
69) I) 3x2 – 21x + 36=0
I) x2 – 13x – 30=0 II) y2 – 5y – 84=0
II) y2 – 25y + 150=0 A.a
A.a B.b
B.b C.c
C.c D.d
D.d E.e
E.e
73)
70) I) x2 – 29x + 210=0
I) x2 + 8x - 273=0 II) y2 + 4y – 221=0
II) y2 – 29y + 208=0 A.a
A.a B.b
Page 42 of 80
C.c E.e
D.d
E.e 75)
I) 3x2 + 30x + 63 = 0
74) II) y2 – 4y – 21 = 0
I) x2 + 267=388 A.a
II) 2y2–46y + 264=0 B.b
A.a C.c
B.b D.d
C.c E.e
D.d
1) Answer: B Ratio of the cost price of mobile, laptop and

Let Sathish pay for the bike be Rs. x, computer = 5: 9: 6
(x + 3000)*(115/100)*(90/100)*(110/100) = 22770 Cost price of computer = 100/120 * 14400 = 12000
(x + 3000) = (22770*100*100*100)/(115*90*110) Cost price of mobile = 5/6 * 12000 = 10000
(x + 3000) = 20000 Cost price of laptop = 9/6 * 12000 = 18000
X = 17000 Difference = 18000 – 10000 = 8000
The initial amount paid by Sathish = Rs. 17000
4) Answer: A
3) Answer: B MP of laptop = x
Let the mobile phone price of Vimal be x. CP of laptop = y
29000 * 3 = x + x + 2000 + x + 2000 + 23000 x * 87.5/100 = y * 140/100
=> 29000 * 3 = 3x + 27000 87.5x = 140y
=> x = Rs.20000 5x = 8y
Required price = x + 2000 + 23000 = Rs.45000 (x – 1200) = y * 130/100
2) Answer: D (8y/5 – 1200) = 13y/10
Page 43 of 80
3y = 12000 Cost price of 1.2 kg of rice =(1000a/1000) * 960 =

y = 4000 Rs 960a
Profit% = 40/960 * 100 = 4.16%
5) Answer: E
Cost price of the article is Rs. 127500 8) Answer: A
Marked price of the article = 160/100 x 127500 = Total cost of one desktop = Rs (6200 + 2400) = Rs
204000 8600
S.P of the article = C.P of the article for P = 85/100 Selling price of one desktop = Rs (175000/18) = Rs
x 204000 = 173400 9722.2
the S.P of the article sold by P to Q = 173400 x Profit% = [(9722.2-8600)/8600] * 100 = 13%
140/100 (Approx)
Thus, the S.P of the article sold by P to Q is Rs
242760. 9) Answer: E
Let the SP be Rs. X
6) Answer: C CP of Mohit = X (100 – 25)/100 = 3X/4
MP of the article=4800 * 120/100=Rs.5760 CP of Soma = X (100/(100+30)) = 10X/13
SP of the article =5760 * 85/100=Rs.4896 Mohit’s profit = X – 3X/4 = X/4
CP of article for Customer=Rs.4896 Soma’s profit = X – 10X/13 = 3X/13
SP of the customer=Rs.5896 Now, difference of their profits = X/4 – 3X/13 = 195
Profit=5896 – 4896=1000 Or, X/52 = 195
Or, X = 195 x 52 = 10140
7) Answer: B Thus, CP of Mohit = 3/4 x 10140 = Rs. 7605
ATQ,
SP of 1.2 kg = SP of 1 kg 10) Answer: C
Let the selling price of 1 kg rice = Rs 1000a MP of mobile = 6x
ATQ, 1 kg = 800 grams SP of mobile = 5x
Hence, weight of 1.2 kg of rice = (800/1000 * 1200) MP of laptop = 12x
grams = 960 grams SP of laptop = 12x * 83.33/100 = 12x * 5/6 = 10x
Page 44 of 80
10x – 5x = 10000 Daughter-in-law’s age = 273-258= 15 years

= > 5x = 10000
= > x = 2000 13) Answer: C
Marked price of laptop = 2000 * 12 = 24000 Total cost price = 25 x 12 + 20 x 10 + 30 x 8
Cost price of laptop = 24000/160 * 100 = 300 + 200 + 240
= Rs.15000 = Rs.740
Total selling price = 740 x 120/100 = Rs.888
11) Answer: D Selling price/Kg = 888/(25 + 20 + 30)
MP = 5y = 888/75
CP = xy = Rs.11.84
Selling price = 5y * 80/100 = 4400
y = 1100 14) Answer: C
MP = 5 * 1100 = 5500 Total cost price = 450 + 600 = Rs.1050
4400 = C P * 110/100 Selling price of the first item = 450 x 120/100 x
CP = 4000 95/100 = Rs.513
Required percentage = (5500 – 4000)/4000 * 100 Selling price of the second item = 600 x 125/100 x
= 37.5% 90/100 = Rs.675
Total selling price = 513 + 675 = Rs.1188
12) Answer: A Profit percentage = (1188 – 1050)/1050 x 100
Total ages of 6 family members 3 years ago = 138/1050 x 100
= 6*40= 240 years = 13.14%
Total ages of the family at present including = 13% approx.
daughter
= 240+18= 258 15) Answer: B
Total ages of the family including daughter-in-law Loss = C.P – 15000
= 39*7 Profit = 21000 – CP
= 273 years Profit = 2 * Loss
So, 21000 – C.P = 2 * [C.P – 15000]
Page 45 of 80
21000 – C.P = 2C.P – 30000 Number of TV in 2019 = 22/100 * 7000 * 110/100 =

3C.P = 51000 1694
C.P = 17000 Required total = 1512 + 1694 = 3206
Selling price = 17000 * (125/100) = Rs. 21250
20) Answer: B
Directions (16-20): Total number of defective AC = 100/76 * 380 = 500
16) Answer: A Total number of AC manufactured in 2018 = 25/100
Number of sold Watch = 15/100 * 7000 * 7/15 = 490 * 7000 = 1750
Number of unsold watch = 15/100 * 7000 * 8/15 = Number of non defective AC = 1750 – 500 = 1250
560 Difference = 1250 – 500 = 750
Number of sold TV = 22/100 * 7000 * 3/5 = 924
Number of unsold TV = 22/100 * 7000 * 2/5 = 616 Directions (21-25):
Required difference = (490 + 924) – (560 + 616) = 21) Answer: A
238 Difference between company C and D production =
45% - 5% = 40%
17) Answer: D 40% = 200
Required ratio = 5/100 * 7000 = 350 1% = 5
Total production by A and B = 25% + 10% = 35%
18) Answer: C 35% = 5 x 35 = 175
Defective mobile = 18/100 * 7000 * 4/9 = 560
Defective Laptop = 20/100 * 7000 * ¼ = 350 22) Answer: D
Defective AC = 25/100 * 7000 * 2/5 = 700 Total production by C and E together = 45% + 15%
Required sum = 560 + 350 + 700 = 1610 = 60%
Total production by A, B and D together = 25% +
19) Answer: A 10% + 5% = 40%
Number of mobile in 2019 = 18/100 * 7000 * Required % change = (60 – 40)/40 x 100 = 50%
120/100 = 1512 More
Page 46 of 80
23) Answer: B Total money spent on cloth = 12.5% of 60000

Total production by A and C together = 25% + 45% =Rs.7500
= 70% Total money spent on food = 30% of 60000 =
70% = 210 Rs.18000
1% = 3 Required sum = 7500+18000 =Rs.25500
Average production by D and E together = (15% +
5%)/2 = 10% 28) Answer: A
= 10 x 3 = 30
Required percentage = ×100 = 50%

24) Answer: A
Number of sports watches produced by company B 29) Answer: C
= 4/5 x 75 = 60 Required difference = (30+25)% of 60000 –
Number of sports watches produced by company A (7.5+5)% of 60000
= 60/10 x 25 = 150 = 55% of 60000 – 12.5% of 60000
= 42.5% of 60000
25) Answer: E = Rs.25500
20% of total formal watches = 80
Total formal watches = 80 x 5 = 400 30) Answer: E
Total sports watches = 400 + 100 = 500 New salary of the person = 125% of 60000 =
Sports watches by company E = 15% of 500 = 75 Rs.75000
Expenditure on cloths = 12.5% of 60000 = Rs.7500
26) Answer: D New expenditure on cloths = 7500+500 = Rs.8000
Required ratio = (30+7.5)% of 60000 : (20+25)% of
60000 Percentage of expenditure on cloth = ×100
= 37.5: 45 = 10.67%
=5:6
Directions (31-35):
27) Answer: B
31) Answer: B
Page 47 of 80
Number of HR employees in B = 210 Directions (36-42):

Number of IT employees in B = 15/5 * 60 = 180 36) Answer: C
Difference = 210 – 180 = 30 80% of 4500 + 25% of 1764 =?
4/5 * 4500 + ¼ * 1764 =?
32) Answer: D 3600 + 441 =?
Number of IT employees in A = 100/150 * 90 = 60 4041 =?
Number of IT employees in D and E = 30/20 * 60 =
90 37) Answer: A
(18 × 49)/14 – 2720/160 = 2x - 52
33) Answer: B 63 – 17 + 52 = 2x
Required percentage = [(35 + 25) – (20 + 15 + 2x = 98
5)/(20 + 15 + 5)] * 100= 50% X = 49
34) Answer: C 38) Answer: B

Sum of the IT employees in A and C together = 198 18 * 15 + 20% of 450 - √256 * 3=48% of ?
Total number of IT employees in B, D and E 270 + 90 – 48 =48% of ?
together = 45/55 * 198 = 162 650=?
Required average = 162/3 = 54
39) Answer: D
35) Answer: C 60% of 190 + √289 * 3 - ? * 17=131
Number of HR employees in B = 80 114 + 51 - ? * 17=131
Number of HR employees in all the companies ?=2
together = 80 * 100/25 = 320
The number of IT employees in all the companies 40) Answer: D
together = 320 + 80 = 400 513 ÷ 27 + ? = 55% of 780
The number of IT employees in B = 15/100 * 400 = 19 + ? = 429
60 ? = 410
Page 48 of 80
41) Answer: D x = 50 -20

√4489 + √169 +? = 19 * 24 x = 30
67 + 13 +? = 456
? = 376 46) Answer: D
(676.03 ÷24.90) + 528.01 ÷ √255 = ?
42) Answer: B 27 + 33 = ?
40% of 200 + 2800 ÷ 7 + ? = √625 * √576 ? = 60
80 + 400 + ?=600
?=120 47) Answer: D
49.98 * 22.98 – 13.13 * 21.99 = ?
Directions (43-50): 1150 – 286 = ?
43) Answer: A ? = 864
17.982 + 4.05 x 90.114 ÷ 4.98 = ?
182 + 4 x (90/5) = ? 48) Answer: D
324 + 4 x 18 =? √960 * 13.908 = ? + √530 * 17.992
324+72 =? 434 = ? + 414
? = 396 ? = 20
44) Answer: B 49) Answer: C

19.092 – 2196.98(1/3) + 49.07(1/2) = ? 31.89 % of 150.12 + 39.92% of 129.98 = ?
192 – 2197(1/3) + 49(1/2) = ? 48 + 52 = ?
361 – 13 + 7 = ? 100 = ?
? = 355
50) Answer: D
45) Answer: B √63.62 * 24.93 + 32.01 ÷ √16.08 = ? + 128.07
25.04 ÷ 4.99 × 9.899 - x= 20.127 200 + 8 = ? + 128
25 ÷ 5 × 10 – x = 20 ? = 80
5 × 10 –x =20
Page 49 of 80
Directions: (51-55)
51) Answer: C Directions (56-60):
5 + (4^2 – 1) = 20 56) Answer: B
20 + (6^2 -3) = 53 The pattern is as follows: 51 + 32 = 60
53 + (8^2 -5) = 112 60 + 52 = 85
112 + (10^2 – 7) = 205 85 + 72 = 134
205 +(12^2 – 9) = 340 134 + 92 = 215
215 + 112 = 336
52) Answer: C
22 + 3 = 7 57) Answer: E
32 + 4 = 13 The pattern is as follows:
42 + 5 = 21
52 + 6 = 31
62 + 7 = 43
72 + 8 = 57
58) Answer: D
53) Answer: C
The pattern is as follows: 2*5=10
Difference: 12+1, 22+1, 32+1, 42+1, 52+1….
10 * 6 = 60
60 * 7 = 420
54) Answer: C
420 * 8 = 3360
52 + 63 + 6= 274
3360 * 9 = 30240
274 + 53 + 5 = 404
404 + 43 + 4 = 472
59) Answer: B
472 + 33 + 3 = 502
The next number is obtained by adding sum of
502 + 23 + 2 = 512
digits of the previous number
24 + 2 + 4 = 30
55) Answer: A
30 + 3 + 0 = 33
Difference of difference: 9, 11, 13, 15…
Page 50 of 80
33 + 3 + 3 = 39 3y (y + 4) – 11 (y + 4) = 0
39 + 3 + 9 = 51 (3y – 11) (y + 4) = 0
51 + 5 + 1 = 57 Y = 11/3, -4 = 3.667, -4
Can’t be determined
60) Answer: E
The pattern is as follows: 63) Answer: E
38 + 14 * 1 = 52 I) x2 – 20x + 51 = 0
52 + 14 * 3 = 94 (x – 13) (x – 7) = 0
94 + 14 * 5 = 164 X = 3, 17
164 + 14 * 7 = 262 II) y2 – 13y + 42 = 0
262 + 14 * 9 = 388 (y – 6) (y – 7) = 0
Y = 6, 7
Directions (61-75): Can’t be determined
61) Answer: C
5x – 6y = -3 ----> (1) 64) Answer: A
3x + 4y = -17 ---> (2) x2 – 34x + 289=0
By solving the equation (1) and (2), we get, x2 – 17x – 17x + 289=0
X = -3, y = -2 x(x – 17) – 17(x – 17)=0
X<y (x – 17)(x – 17)=0
x=17, 17
62) Answer: E 2y2 + 15y – 108=0
I) 2x2 – 5x – 52 = 0 2y2 + 24y – 9y – 108=0
2x2 + 8x – 13x – 52 = 0 2y(y + 12) – 9(y + 12)=0
2x (x + 4) – 13 (x + 4) = 0 (2y – 9)(y + 12)=0
(2x – 13) (x + 4) = 0 y=4.5, -12
X = 13/2, -4 = 6.5, -4 Hence x > y
II) 3y2 + y – 44 = 0
3y2 + 12y – 11y – 44 = 0 65) Answer: E
Page 51 of 80
x2 – 22x + 105=0 x2 – 17x + 13x – 221=0

x2 – 15x – 7x + 105=0 x(x – 17) + 13 (x – 17)=0
x(x – 15) – 7(x – 15)=0 (x + 13)(x – 17)=0
(x – 7)(x – 15)=0 x=-13, 17
x=7, 15 y2 – 26y + 153=0
y2 – 22y + 112=0 y2 – 17y – 9y + 153=0
y2 – 14y – 8y + 112=0 y(y – 17) – 9(y – 17)=0
y(y – 14) – 8( y – 14)=0 (y – 9)(y – 17)=0
(y – 8)(y – 14)=0 y=9, 17
y=8, 14 Relationship cannot be established between x and
Relationship cannot be established between x and y.
y.
68) Answer: A
66) Answer: C x2 – 31x + 238=0
12x2 – 41x + 34=0 x2 – 14x – 17x + 238=0
12x2 – 24x – 17x + 34=0 x(X – 14) – 17(x – 14)=0
12x(x – 2) – 17(x – 2)=0 (X – 17)(x – 14)=0
(12x – 17)(x – 2)=0 X=17, 14
x=17/12, 2 2y2 – 26y + 84=0
3y2 – 30y + 63=0 2y2 – 14y – 12y + 84=0
3y2 – 21y – 9y + 63=0 2y (y – 7) – 12(y – 7)=0
3y(y – 7) – 9(y – 7)=0 (2y – 12)(y – 7)=0
(3y – 9)(y – 7)=0 Y=6, 7
y=3, 7 x>y
Hence x < y
69) Answer: E
67) Answer: E x2 – 13x – 30=0
x2 – 4x – 221=0 x2 – 15x + 2x – 30=0
Page 52 of 80
x(x – 15) + 2(x – 15)=0 x =-4, -3

(x + 2)(x – 15)=0 2y2 + 22y + 56=0
X=-2, 15 2y2 + 14y + 8y + 56=0
y2 – 25y + 150=0 2y(y + 7) + 8(y + 7)=0
y2 – 10y – 15y + 150=0 (2y + 8)(y + 7)=0
y(y – 10)- 15(y – 10)=0 y =-4, -7
(y – 15)(y – 10)=0 x≥y
Y=15, 10
Relation cannot be established. 72) Answer: E
3x2 – 21x + 36=0
70) Answer: D 3x2 – 12x – 9x + 36=0
x2 + 8x - 273=0 3x(x – 4) – 9(x – 4)=0
x2 - 13x + 21x - 273=0 (3x – 9)(x – 4)=0
x(x - 13) + 21(x - 13)=0 x =3, 4
(x + 21)(x - 13)=0 y2 – 5y – 84=0
x =-21, 13 y2 – 12y + 7y – 84=0
y2 – 29y + 208=0 y(y – 12) + 7(y – 12)=0
y2 – 13y – 16y + 208=0 (y + 7) (y – 12)=0
y(y – 13) – 16( y – 13)=0 y =-7, 12
(y – 16)(y – 13)=0 Relationship between x and y cannot b e
y =16, 13 established.
x≤y
73) Answer: A
71) Answer: B x2 – 29x + 210 =0
x2 + 17x + 12=0 x2 – 15x - 14x + 210=0
x2 + 3x + 4x + 12=0 x(x – 15) - 14(x – 15)=0
x(x + 3) + 4(x + 3)=0 (x - 14) ( x- 15)=0
(x + 4)(x + 3)=0 x =14, 15
Page 53 of 80
y2 + 4y – 221=0 x≤y
y2 + 17y – 13y – 221=0
y(y + 17) – 13(y + 17)=0 75) Answer: D
(y – 13)(y + 17)=0 3x2 + 30x + 63 = 0
y =13, -17 3x2 + 21x + 9x + 63 = 0
x>y 3x(x + 7) + 9(x + 7) = 0
(3x + 9)(x + 7) = 0
74) Answer: D x = -3, -7
x2 + 267=388 y2 – 4y – 21 = 0
x2 =121 y2 – 7y + 3y – 21 = 0
x=-11, 11 y(y – 7) + 3(y – 7) = 0
2y2 – 46y + 264=0 (y – 7)(y + 3) = 0
2y2 – 22y – 24y + 264=0 y = 7, -3
2y(y – 11) – 24(y – 11)=0 x≤y
(2y – 24)(y – 11)=0
y =12, 11
English Language
Directions (1-5): Read the following passage traditional classroom based education system to an
carefully answer the following questions. Some of online based education system. The lockdown has
the words have been highlighted in the passage to given a good opportunity and ample amount of time
locate you answer for the following questions. for the young students to acquire new skills through
digital platforms, to learn moral and family values
The COVID-19 pandemicand lockdown measures through frequent family interactions and being more
throughout theworld and specifically in India have hygienic in addition to attending the online classes
several ramifications on the Education system. conducted by educational institutions. On the
There is a sudden unexpected shift from the contrary there are various challenges with online
Page 54 of 80
education system and closure of the educational Stress busters.

institutions.
Due to the lockdown & closure of educational A lot of learning happens through these activities.
institutions, students and teachers both are finding Competitive spirit, understanding levels and
it difficult to cope with the missing physical teaching individual personalities develop through such
classroom environment.Traditional classroom activities. Students simultaneously also improve
education involves a lot of interaction between their spoken, written and social skills while being at
students & teachers and students and their peers. the educational institutions and also during their
As teachers through years of acquiring the teaching interactions with their peers. So the all-round
skillset possess good classroom management skills development of the students is hindered to a large
like maintaining eye contact with the students extent due to the long stay at home during
during teaching as it effectively is the most proven lockdown, physical activities at educational
concentration fixating technique which draws the institutions with their peers is also a big miss for the
students to understand the subject in an easy way. students. Hence the student’s life being restricted
Also, in typical physical classroom setup if only to the family environment can cause a major
the students have any doubts on the subject, they impact onsocial skills for the students especially for
can inquire about it in the classroom right away and those who are already passive.
get them clarified. Teachers can also cite various
relevant examples for student’s clarity, based on As many of the teachers and students lack formal
mass understanding levels in accordance with the training about virtual/online teaching, the quality of
needs of the subject/topic. But during virtual online teaching and learning seems to be reduced. The
classes as there is limited time and teachers have problem of Teachers dealing with technical glitches
limited control over the students the above said is altogether another domain which needs a special
elements do not work with the same efficiency. The mention as they seem to be struggling to maintain
extra-curricular and co-curricular activities that take good quality audio, avoiding noise disturbance,
place inside educational institutions make the using mute/unmute features, using proper
students physically and emotionally, active and presentation modes, etc. While younger school
strong. These activities are also the students unable to maintain constant attention to
Page 55 of 80
the online classes is been another struggle of sorts. with existing stress and anxiety due to lack of
Also, it has been observed that even many college livelihood during this pandemic.
students are unable to work on the assignments As Covid-19 impacted education globally every
effectively or not putting much thought into them as student in the world is feeling the impact and slowly
much as they do during classroom training. the students do get adapted to the new situation.
To top it all, many of the students from under- Students have learnt lot of life lessons and values
privileged families do not have the opportunity to during this pandemic and lockdown. They learnt
utilize the online classes due to the costs involved being more hygienic, eating hygienic food that is
for necessary Laptops/Computer desktops/smart cooked at home and using limited resources
phones, Internet, etc. Some students also face effectively as new non essentials cannot be bought
imminent distractions during these online classes during the lockdown. They also learnt minimalism
as they are called for by their parents to help them and quickly understood the importance of time,
in agriculture and other occupational works etc. in family bonding, health, education, money and
order to meet their ends during the ongoing difficult survival needs. These values cannot be taught in
times of lockdown amidst covid-19 pandemic. such a short span of time at the educational
institutions. In future, the present generation
In Government schools & colleges, where food students as now are being forced to learn lives
benefits are usually provided towards extra most valuable lessons can withstand any crisis as
nourishment for students and since these this experience of pandemic and lockdown has
institutions are closed due to covid-19 pandemic, increased many moral and ethical values among
the students who are mostly under-privileged also the youth. These life lessons will definitely be useful
happen to miss their food benefits. This can lead to and will be passed on to the next generation.
malnutrition and reduction of immunity and in turn 1. Which of the word gives similar meaning for the
make them vulnerable to Covid-19 infection and word “ramifications” in the passage?
compensating the same by providing extra A. Repercussions
nourishment towards their children would bring B. Futility
more woes to the parents who are already dealing C. Feebleness
D. Impotence
Page 56 of 80
E. None of these 4. What are the problems faced during online

education?
2. What are the advantages in traditional (I) Teachers dealing with technical glitches is
education? another problem in which they seem to be
(I) It does not involves a lot of interaction between struggling to maintain good quality audio, avoiding
students and teachers and students and their noise disturbance, using mute/unmute features,
peers. using proper presentation modes, etc.
(II) Teaching skill set possess good classroom (II) While younger school students unable to
management skills like maintaining eye contact with maintain constant attention to the online classes is
the students. been another struggle of sorts.
(III) If the students have any doubts on the subject, (III) Teachers can also cite various relevant
they can inquire about it in the classroom right away examples for student’s clarity, based on mass
and get them clarified. understanding levels in accordance with the needs
A. Only I of the subject/topic.
B. Only I & II A. Only I
C. Only III B. Only I & II
D. Only II & III C. Only III
E. None of the above D. Only II & III
3. What are the learning happens through extra-
curricular and co-curricular activities? 5. What are the lessons learnt by students during
A. Competitive spirit pandemic and lock down?
B. understanding levels A. Teachers can also cite various relevant
C. individual personalities examples for student’s clarity, based on mass
D. All of the above understanding levels in accordance with the needs
E. None of these. of the subject/topic.
Page 57 of 80
B.They also learnt minimalism and quickly D. Curiculla

understood the importance of time, family bonding, E. All correct
health, education, money and survival needs
C. more hygienic, eating hygienic food that is 7. Kim Reynolds’s decision to sack (A)/Jerry
cooked at home and using limited resources Foxhoven after he sent the email to more than
effectively as new non essentials cannot be bought 4,000 staff in June (B)/set off an explotion of
during the lockdown national and international interest (C)/in Iowa’s
D. Both b & c usually unremarkable state administration(D)/
E. All of the above A. Sack
B. staff
Directions (6-10): In each question below, four C. Explotion
words printed in bold type are given. These are D. Unremarkable
numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One these words E. All correct
printed in bold might either be wrongly spelt or is
inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find 8. In a statement it described the building (A)/as
out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if "essentially a tall lift shaft with a bulge on top,"
any. The number of the word is your answer. If the (B)/adding that the proposal would have caused
words printed in bold are correctly spelt and "permanent and irreversible damage (C)/to the
appropriate in the context of the sentence then image and identity of the capital."(D)/
mark (E), i.e. 'All Correct', as your answer. A. Described
6. Missing in this lists arethe two elephants in the B. Bulge
room (A)/the hostile takeover of science and C. Permanent
society (B)/by competitive exams and coaching D. identity
classes, (C)/and the hijacking of curiculla and E. All are correct
research agenda by central agencies (D)/
A. lists 9. Analysts said the complexities of
B. Hostile domestic circumstances (A)/ in the US will bring
C. Competitive uncertainties for reaching an agreemant, (B)/ and
Page 58 of 80
Washington should be more sincere and work (C)/ from the second column to make a grammatically
with China in a responsible manner in their and contextually correct sentence. Each question
economic and trade talks (D)/ has five options, four of which display the
A. Circumstances sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can
B. Agreemant be joined to form a grammatically and contextually
C. Sincere correct sentence. If none of the options given forms
D. Responsible a correct sentence after combination, mark (e), i.e.
E. All are correct “None of these” as your answer.
11.
10. Researchers excauvated the remains of a
rectangular (A)/open-air mosque with a prayer
niche facing south (B)/toward Mecca The mosque,
they said, would be "a rare discovery (C)/anywhere
in the world" and was likely to have been used by
local farmers(D)/
A. Excauvated
B. Niche
C. Discovery
A.A-D, B-F
D. anywhere
B.B-E, C-D
E. All are correct
C.A-E, C-F
D.A-F, B-D
Directions (11-15): In the following questions two
E. None of these
columns are given containing three
Sentences/phrases each. In first column,
12.
Page 59 of 80
14.
A.A-D, B-E A. A-D, B-E

B.B-F, C-D B. B-F, C-D
C.B-D, C-F C. B-E, C-F
D.A-F, B-E D. A-F, B-D
13. 15.
A.A-D, B-E
B.B-F, C-D
C.B-E, C-F
A. A-D, B-F
D.A-F, B-D
B. B-F, C-D
E. None of these
C. B-E, C-F
D. A-F, B-D
Page 60 of 80
E. None of these 18. But equally, it should be made clear that there
is no escape for those who take justice to their own
Directions-(16-20): hand.
In a sentence given below some of the phrases A. Take justice onto own hands
have been highlighted which may or may not be B. Taken justice onto their own hand
correct grammatically and contextually. You have to C. Take justice into their own hands
choose suitable replacement for the given phrase D. Take justices into their own hands
from the options given below to make the sentence E. No correction required
contextually and meaningfully correct. If the given
sentence is grammatically correct you have to 19. Last year was a challenging one for industry
choose no arrangement required as answer. players across sectors from witnessing a lifestyle
16. Since Rahul did not want to be disturbed while change to adapting to the new normal.
studying, he left the phone of hooks. (I) Last year was a challenge one
A. Off the hook (II) Last year is a challenging one
B. Off hooking (III) The previous year had been challenged
C. For the hook A. Only III
D. Of hook B. Only I
E. No correction required C. Only I and II
D. All of the above
17. The politician wanted to strick balance between E. No correction required
withholding his position and getting into a rapid
exchange of opinions. 20. The Action Taken report on the Commission’s
A. strike a balance between recommendations was laid in Parliament on
B. striking balance among February 1, 2021, with of most of the
C. have stroked a balance between recommendations been accepted by the
D. having strike between government of India.
E. No correction required (I) of utmost every recommendation been
(II) Of most of the recommendations being
Page 61 of 80
(III) Of almost all the recommendations being D. All of the above

A. Only III E. No correction required
B. Only I and II
C. Only II and III

Directions (1-5):
Ramification – development The problem of Teachers dealing with technical
Futility – useless glitches is altogether another domain which needs a
Repercussions – outcome, development special mention as they seem to be struggling to
maintain good quality audio, avoiding noise
2. Answer: D disturbance, using mute/unmute features, using
Traditional classroom education involves a lot of proper presentation modes, etc. While younger
interaction between students & teachers and school students unable to maintain constant
students and their peers. As teachers through years attention to the online classes is been another
of acquiring the teaching skill set possess good struggle of sorts. Also, it has been observed that
classroom management skills like maintaining eye even many college students are unable to work on
contact with the students during teaching as it the assignments effectively or not putting much
effectively is the most proven concentration fixating thought into them as much as they do during
technique which draws the students to understand classroom training
the subject in an easy way
5. Answer: D
3. Answer: D They learnt being more hygienic, eating hygienic
A lot of learning happens through these activities. food that is cooked at home and using limited
Competitive spirit, understanding resources effectively as new non essentials cannot
levels and individual personalities develop through be bought during the lockdown. They also learnt
such activities minimalism and quickly understood the importance
Page 62 of 80
of time, family bonding, health, education, money Analysts said the complexities of domestic
and survival needs. circumstances in the US will bring uncertainties for
reaching an agreement, and Washington should be
Directions (6-10): more sincere and work with China in a responsible
6. Answer: D manner in their economic and trade talks.
Missing in this lists are the two elephants in the
roomthehostile takeover of science and society by 10. Answer: A
competitive exams and coaching classes, and the Researchers excavated the remains of a
hijacking of curricula and research agenda by rectangular open-air mosque with a prayer niche
central agencies. facing south toward Mecca The mosque, they said,
would be “a rare discovery anywhere in the world”
7. Answer: C and were likely to have been used by local farmers.
The word Explotion is spelt wrongly
and Explosion should be used instead. Directions (11-15):
Kim Reynolds’s decision to sack Jerry Foxhoven 11. Answer: A
after he sent the email to more than 4,000 From the given options only A-D, B-F is matched
staff in June set off an explosion of national and and make a meaningful sentence. The correct
international interest in Iowa’s answer after matching will be
usually unremarkable state administration(D)/ (A-D): A Royal Navy frigate, HMS Montrose, was
alerted and raced to intervene, as it did –
8. Answer: E successfully with another British-flagged tanker just
In a statement it described the building as over a week ago.
"essentially a tall lift shaft with a bulge on top," (B-F): Iran's state-run IRNA news agency said the
adding that the proposal would have caused tanker was captured after it collided with a fishing
"permanent and irreversible damage to the image boat and failed to respond to calls from the smaller
and identity of the capital." craft.
Option B: (B-E, C-D) is incorrect because it does
9. Answer: B not make any meaningful sentence.
Page 63 of 80
Option C: (A-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does (B-F): We constantly review our security
not make any meaningful sentence. arrangements at all our airports around the world,
Option D: (A-F, B-D) is incorrect because it does and have suspended flights to Cairo for seven days
not make any meaningful sentence as a precaution to allow for further assessment.
(C-D): Following the bomb explosion that destroyed
12. Answer: C a Russian airliner over Egypt's Sinai Peninsula in
From the given options only B-D, C-F is matched October 2015 after it had departed Sharm El Sheikh
and make a meaningful sentence. The correct Airport, the UK was one of a number of countries to
answer after matching will be temporarily suspend flights to and from the country.
(B-D): Afterwards, Mr. Hunt said MPs would be Option A: (A-D, B-E) is incorrect because it does
updated on Monday about what "further measures" not make any meaningful sentence.
the government would take, adding the threat level Option C: (B-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does
had been raised to the highest level of alert. not make any meaningful sentence.
(C-F): Tensions between the US and Iran have Option D: (A-F, B-D) is incorrect because it does
risen sharply since April, when the US tightened not make any meaningful sentence
sanction sit had reimposed on Iran after unilaterally
withdrawing from a 2015 nuclear deal. 14. Answer: D
Option A: (A-D, B-E) is incorrect because it does From the given options only A-F, B-D is matched
not make any meaningful sentence. and make a meaningful sentence. The correct
Option B: (B-F, C-D) is incorrect because it does answer after matching will be
not make any meaningful sentence. (A-F): MsOrlandi's family hopes the search at the
Option D: (A-F, B-E) is incorrect because it does Vatican's Pontifical Teutonic College holds the key
not make any meaningful sentence. to a mystery that has gripped Italy since 1983.
(B-D): The plot of land, located on the original site
13. Answer: B of the Emperor Nero circus, is tucked away behind
From the given options only B-F, C-D is matched high walls in the shadow of St Peter's Basilica.
and make a meaningful sentence. The correct Option A: (A-D, B-E) is incorrect because it does
answer after matching will be not make any meaningful sentence.
Page 64 of 80
Option B: (B-F, C-D) is incorrect because it does

not make any meaningful sentence. Directions-(16-20):
Option C: (B-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does 16. Answer: A
not make any meaningful sentence. The highlighted part must be replaced with “off the
hook” to make it a grammatically correct sentence.
15. Answer: C Off the hook-let off from trouble / escape or
From the given options only B-E, C-F is matched released from a tough situation
and make a meaningful sentence. The correct Since Rahul did not want to be disturbed while
answer after matching will be studying, he left the phone off the hook.
(B-E): The government is in discussions with
multiple foreign lenders, including Germany’s state- 17. Answer: A
owned development bank KfW Group, the World The highlighted part must be replaced with” strike a
Bank and some Canadian institutions to extend balance between” to make it a grammatically
lines of credit to small enterprises, one of the correct sentence.
officials, who did not want to be identified, told The politician wanted to strick a balance between
Reuters. withholding his position and getting into a rapid
(C-F): The official said the government plans to exchange of opinions.
source up to Rs.1 lakh crore of loans from foreign
institutions because Indian banks were not in a 18. Answer: C
position to provide enough capital for the small The highlighted part must be replaced with ”take
business sector, which is seen as critical to job justice into their own hands” to make it a
creation. grammatically correct sentence.
Option A: (A-D, B-F) is incorrect because it does Correct phrase is take justice into their own hands
not make any meaningful sentence. which means punish someone or do something to
Option B: (B-F, C-D) is incorrect because it does put a situation right, instead of waiting for the police
not make any meaningful sentence. or the legal system to take action
Option D: (A-F, B-D) is incorrect because it does
not make any meaningful sentence.
Page 65 of 80
But equally, it should be made clear that there is no The sentence can be written as:
escape for those who take justice into their own (II): The Action Taken report on the Commission’s
hand. recommendations was laid in Parliament on
February 1, 2021, with of most of the
recommendations being accepted by the
19. Answer: E government of India.
Sol. The sentence is correct and there is no (III) The Action Taken report on the Commission’s
correction required. Hence, option E is the right recommendations was laid in Parliament on
answer choice. February 1, 2021, with of almost all the
recommendations being accepted by the
20. Answer: C government of India.
Sol. The highlighted phrase is incorrect and it can
be replaced by both II and III phrase suggestions.
Hence, option C is the right answer choice.
General Awareness
1. What is the theme of the World Leprosy Day 2021? 2. India has signed a ______ million dollar loan for the
A) Zero cases of leprosy-related disabilities in children STARS program with the World Bank.
B) Beat Leprosy, End Stigma and advocate for Mental A) 200

Wellbeing B) 250
C) Ending discrimination, stigma and prejudice C) 400
D) Negative attitudes hamper efforts to stop the spread D) 450

of the disease E) 500
E) Zero disabilities in girls and boys

3. India’s First ‘Gender Park’ has recently been
inaugurated in which state?
Page 66 of 80
A) Chhattisgarh D) February 7
B) Telangana E) February 9
C) Kerala
D) Karnataka 7. Which of the following country has recently applied to
E) West Bengal join the Asia-Pacific free trade pact?
A) Switzerland
4. Who among the following has been chosen for the B) Germany
2021 Padma Awards? C) France

A) Dr Rajesh Kumar D) Sweden
B) Dr Arav Sen E) UK
C) Dr Mukesh Singh
D) Dr Sushil Gupta 8. Which country has decided to award hydropower
E) Dr Krishna Mohan Pathi project 679 mega watt Lower Arun Hydropower Project
to India's Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam (SJVN)?

5. Which company has launched the Taj M ahal inspired A) Madagascar
engineering hub in Noida? B) Maldives

A) HP C) Sri Lanka
B) Infosys D) Nepal
C) TCS E) Bhutan
D) Microsoft
E) HCL 9. M ilitary has seized power in which of the following

country and has announced a 1 year emergency?
6. Indian Coast Guard Day is observed on which of the A) Vietnam
following date? B) Myanmar

A) February 3 C) Brunei
B) February 5 D) Thailand
C) February 1 E) Singapore
Page 67 of 80
13. World Bank will provide _______ million to

10. SBI Card has appointed who among the following Bangladesh for improving Road and Digital
as MD & CEO for 2 years? Connectivity.

A) Rajesh Tanwar A) 200
B) Rama Mohan Rao Amara B) 350
C) Sudesh Gupta C) 300

D) Nitin Singh D) 500
E) Arjun Arora E) 450
11. Tax holiday for start ups has been extended for 14. In 2021 Budget, Government has proposed to
which of the following year? introduce single securities markets code. Who is the
A) 2025 current security m arket regulator?
B) 2024 A) IRDA
C) 2022 B) SEBI
D) 2023 C) RBI
E) 2021 D) NHB
E) NABARD
12. India has established its first Centre for Wetland
Conservation and Management in which city? 15. Who among the following has penned a new book
A) Surat ‘The Little Book of Encouragement’ ?
B) Pune A) Anurag Thakur

C) Delhi B) Anupam Kher
D) Chennai C) Dalai Lama
E) Chandigarh D) Narendra Modi

E) Amitabh Bachan
Page 68 of 80
16. World Cancer Day is observed on which of the C) Nitin Desai

following date? D) Gazal Alagh
A) February 1 E) Andy Jassy

B) February 3
C) February 4 20. India to emerge as the most resilient economy after
D) February 5 which country in 2021 as per the industry body

E) February 8 PHDCCI?
A) Israel
17. India's First Amputee Clinic has been Launched in B) Denmark
which city? C) Germany
A) Pune D) France
B) Delhi E) Sweden
C) Pune
D) Surat 21. The CM of which state has launched the 'Har Ghar
E) Chandigarh Pani, Har Ghar Safai' m ission?
A) Madhya Pradesh
18. Which of the following word has been named as B) Haryana
Oxford Hindi word of 2020? C) Uttar Pradesh
A) Samvidhaan D) Kerala
B) Atmanirbharta E) Punjab
C) Swadesh
D) Aadhar 22. RBI has unveiled risk-based internal audit
E) Shakti guidelines for select NBFCs, UCBs which will come into
19. Who among the following will replace Jeff Bezos as force from?
Am azon CEO? A) January 1, 2022
A) Arnould Renault B) March 31, 2022
B) Steve Micthell C) September 30, 2022

Page 69 of 80
D) August 31, 2021 B) ONGC

E) March 31, 2021 C) BDL
D) HAL
23. Who among the following has been re-elected as E) BEL
President of Boxing Federation of India?
A) Rajakumar 25. India ranked _____ in EIU's 2020 Democracy Index

B) Anant Gupta A) 57th
C) Suresh Kalmadi B) 98th

D) Ajay Singh C) 53rd
E) Nitin Rai D) 71st
E) 49th
24. Which institution has inked a deal with MIDHANI to
develop, manufacture composite raw materials?
A) DRDO

1) Answer: B It is celebrated with the aim of raising awareness and
knowledge about leprosy, the fact that it can be cured,
World Leprosy Day is observed on the last Sunday of
and changing attitudes that stigmatise and marginalise
January.
people affected by the disease.
The day was chosen by French humanitarian Raoul
Theme of 2021 is Beat Leprosy, End Stigma and
Follereau in 1953 to coincide with the anniversary of
advocate for Mental Wellbeing
Mahatma Gandhi’s death which happened on the last
Sunday of January 1948. 2) Answer: E
In 2021 World Leprosy Day is Observed 31 January The Government of India and the World Bank signed a
2021. 500-million US dollar Strengthening Teaching-Learning
Page 70 of 80
and Results for States Programme (STARS) to improve He will also lay the foundation of the International
the quality and governance of school education in six Women’s Trade and Research Centre (IWTRC) that
Indian states. envisages a secure and sustained ecosystem for women

entrepreneurs and a space for them to market products.
These include Himachal Pradesh, Kerala, Madhya
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, and Rajasthan. Along with this Park, a Gender Museum, Gender Library,
Convention Centre and an Amphitheatre will also be
Some 250 million students (between the age of six and
launched at the event.
17) in 1.5 million schools and over 10 million teachers
will benefit from the programme. 4) Answer: E
The STARS programme builds on the long partnership Dr Pathi is a noted orthopaedic surgeon who is known
between India and the World Bank (since 1994), for for his landmark work in tribal districts of the State.
strengthening public school education and to support the

Octogenarian Dr Krishna Mohan Pathi goes about giving
country’s goal of providing Education for All.
free treatment to poor patients on a daily basis in a
Prior to STARS, the Bank had provided a total village of Ganjam district.
assistance of more than three billion US dollars towards
For him, age is just a number as the 82-year-old doctor
this goal.
refuses to give up on helping the needy, a trait which
3) Answer: C has earned him the Padma Shri award this year.
The Kerala government’s Gender Park in Kozhikode will 5) Answer: D

become functional from next month, coinciding with the
Microsoft announced the launch of its new India
second edition of the International Conference on
Development Center (IDC) facility at NCR that will serve
Gender Equality (ICGE-II).
as a premier hub for driving cutting-edge engineering
Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan will inaugurate the and innovation.

February 11-13 IGCE-II and the Gender Park.
IDC NCR is Microsoft’s third Development Center in
India after Bengaluru and Hyderabad.
Page 71 of 80
The IDC NCR facility will collaborate with Microsoft The ICG has targeted force levels of 200 surface
teams globally to build products and services for driving platforms and 80 aircraft by 2025.
digital innovation.
Since its inception in 1977, the ICG has saved over
The center will provide opportunities for engineering 10,000 lives and apprehended around 14,000
talent in the areas of Business & Productivity tools, AI, miscreants, the agency said.
Cloud & Enterprise, Core Services, and the new Gaming
Director General, Indian Coast Guard K Natarajan
division.
7) Answer: E
The IDC NCR workspace architecture is inspired by the
Taj Mahal, one of the seven wonders of the world. The UK is applying to join a free trade area made up of
11 Asia and Pacific nations, under its post-Brexit plans.
The IDC in NCR will collaborate with Microsoft teams
worldwide to design and create products that drive The Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for
digital innovations. Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP).
6) Answer: C The trade agreement formed in 2018 which includes

Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia,
The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) will celebrate its 45th
Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore and Vietnam.
Raising Day on Feb 01.
In total, it covers a market of around 500 million people,
The ICG is an armed force of India that protects
generating more than 13% of the world's income.
maritime interests and enforces maritime law.
International Trade Secretary Liz Truss will make the
The ICG is headed by a Director-General, Vice-Admiral
request with negotiations expected in the spring.
rank of the Indian Navy.
8) Answer: D
With just seven surface platforms in 1978, the ICG has
grown into the fourth largest coast guard with 156 ships Nepal has decided to award the contract for construction
and 62 aircraft in its inventory. of 679 mega watt Lower Arun Hydropower Project to
India's Satluj Jal Vidyut Nigam (SJVN).
Page 72 of 80
This was decided at a meeting of the Investment Board Prior to this appointment, Amara, who started his
Nepal (IBN), chaired by Nepal Prime Minister KP banking career with SBI in 1991 as a probationary
Sharma Oli. officer, was the Chief General Manager of SBI Bhopal
circle.
The project was awarded to the SJVN under the Build,
Own, Operate and Transfer (BOOT) delivery method. Rao is a veteran banker, with a successful career
spanning over 29 years at SBI, the credit card company
Arun III hydel project, which will provide 21 per cent free
said in a release. Prior to taking charge at SBI Card, he
power to Nepal during the concession period.
was the Chief General Manager, SBI Bhopal Circle.
9) Answer: B
11) Answer: C
The Myanmar Military Tatmadaw has announced a one
To help India's startups amid the COVID-19 pandemic,
year state of emergency in the country.
tax holidays for these businesses have been extended
The Vice President Myint Swe has been made the acting by one year till March 31, 2022, said Finance Minister
President and all powers have been transferred to the Nirmala Sitharaman while presenting the Union Budget
Commander in Chief Min Aung Hlaing. 2021-22
The development follows early morning detention of the The government has also proposed to incentivise
State Counsellor Aung San Suu Kyi, President Win incorporation of one-person companies (OPCs). The
Myint and other senior leaders from the ruling party move is likely to help smaller startups and innovators.
National League for Democracy (NLD) by the military.
The Government has increased the FDI limit from 49 to
10) Answer: B 74 percent in Insurance Companies and allowed foreign
ownership and control with safeguards.

SBI Cards and Payment Services Ltd (SBI Card)
appointed Rama Mohan Rao Amara as its Managing The Government has proposed to infuse 20 thousand
Director and Chief Executive Officer for a period of two crore rupees to re-capitalized Public Sector Banks.
years.
12) Answer: D
It was effective from 30 January 2021.
Page 73 of 80
Sh. Babul Supriyo announced the establishment of a The project is expected to benefit over 20 million people
Centre for Wetland Conservation and Management in the western region of Bangladesh.
(CWCM), as a part of the National Centre for

The project will help upgrade the 48 kilometre two-lane
Sustainable Coastal Management(NCSCM), Chennai,
Jashore-Jhenaidah road to a modern 4-lane highway.
an institution under the Ministry.
It will also help improve 600 kilometre of connecting rural
On the occasion of the World Wetland Day and as a part
roads and build or develop new rural markets.
of its commitment towards conservation, restoration and
management of India’s wetlands, the Minister of State The project will finance installation of fiber-optic cables
for Environment, Forest and Climate Change. along the highway to ensure fast and reliable internet
service
The event was attended virtually by NCSCM, State
Wetland Authorities and the knowledge partners of the The project is the first of a multi-phased USD1.4 billion
Wetland Division. 10-year program to upgrade the existing 110 kilometre

two-lane highway, Bhomra-Satkhira-Navaron and
India has nearly 4.6% of its land as wetlands, covering
Jashore-Jhenaidah. In the current phase, the project will
an area of 15.26 million hectares and has 42 sites
be implemented in four districts namely Jashore,
designated as Wetlands of International Importance
Jhenaidah, Magura, and Chuadanga.
(Ramsar Sites), with a surface area of 1.08 million
hectares. 14) Answer: B
13) Answer: D The government proposed to introduce a unified

securities markets code, a move that will help in
World Bank to provide USD 500 million to Bangladesh
boosting the ease of doing business in the country's
for improving Road and Digital Connectivity. The
financial markets.
government of Bangladesh signed an agreement with
the World Bank for the upgradation of rural roads and The proposed move would help in cutting down
connectivity in the western region. compliance costs and reducing the friction between rules
Page 74 of 80
enacted by capital markets watchdog SEBI, depositories It deals with the new realities of the panic-stricken
and government world, combat rising extremism, polarity and climate
change besides Dalai Lama’s views on Tibet.

Finance Minister in her Budget speech for 2021-22
proposed to consolidate the provisions of SEBI Act, 16) Answer: C
Depositories Act, Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act

World Cancer Day 2021 Annually observed on February
and Government Securities Act into a rationalised single
4.
securities markets code.
World Cancer Day seeks to raise awareness and reduce
The proposal to create a unified securities market code
the stigma surrounding the disease that is the second
is very progressive as it aims to simplify and reduce the
leading cause of deaths globally.
friction between rules enacted by various acts of Sebi,
depositories. This international day is a ‘global uniting initiative’ led by
the Union of International Cancer Control (UICC) and is
SEBI Act - 1992
meant to encourage the prevention, detection, diagnosis
Depositories Act - 1996 and treatment of cancer as early as possible.
Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act - 1956 History of the day :
Government Securities Act - 2007 World Cancer Day was first established at the World
Cancer Summit Against Cancer for the New Millennium

15) Answer: C
held in Paris, on February 4, 2000.
Tibetan spiritual leader the Dalai Lama has come out
This day celebrates the anniversary of the signing of the
with his new book titled ‘The Little Book of
‘Charter of Paris Against Cancer’ by the General
Encouragement’, in which he has shared quotes and
Director of UNESCO, Kōichirō Matsuura and the French
words of wisdom to promote human happiness.
President Jacques Chirac.
"The Little Book of Encouragement", which has 130
In 2019, the theme ‘I Am and I Will’ was introduced and
quotes, is edited by Renuka Singh and published by
was to be carried on till 2021
Penguin Random House.
Page 75 of 80
17) Answer: E Indians who dealt with and survived the perils of a
pandemic”.
An 'amputee clinic', the first of its kind in India, with the
aim of improving amputation patient care by providing a The Oxford Hindi word of the year is a word or
collection of services under one roof with significant expression that is chosen to reflect the ethos, mood, or
coordination was launched in Chandigarh. preoccupations of the passing year, and have lasting
potential as a term of cultural significance.
The clinic was formally inaugurated by the Post
Graduate Institute of Medical Education and Research The usage of the word 'Aatmanirbharta' after Prime
(PGIMER) Director Prof Jagat Ram. Minister Modi's address has increased significantly.
The basic intent of this initiative is to bring an Amputee There was a massive increase in the usage of
as a near-normal functional human being in society. aatmanirbharta following the prime minister's address,
highlighting its increased prominence as a phrase and

This initiative will attempt to provide appropriate
concept in the public lexicon of India
management to amputees to guide them in their path to
rehabilitation in society and will support patients with Previous Hindi words of the year are Aadhar (2017),
counseling and medical facilities during their treatment Nari Shakti (2018) and Samvidhaan (2019).
and recovery.
19) Answer: E
18) Answer: B
Amazon Web Services (AWS) chief Andy Jassy will
Prime Minister Narendra Modi pushed for 'Atmanirbhar replace billionaire founder Jeff Bezos as Amazon.com's
Bharat' (self-reliant India) an Oxford panel has now next chief executive officer.
chosen 'Atmanirbharta' in Hindi word of 2020.

Bezos started the company 27 years ago, on 5 July
The advisory panel of language experts Kritika Agrawal, 1994, as an internet bookseller.
Poonam Nigam Sahay and Imogen Foxell stated that "it

He will assume the role of Executive Chairman of
validated the day-to-day achievements of the countless
Amazon.
Page 76 of 80
Meanwhile, it has also been announced that the head of Punjab Chief Minister Captain Amarinder Singh virtually
Amazon’s cloud services, Andy Jassy will take over as launched the 'Har Ghar Pani, Har Ghar Safai' mission as
the company's new CEO. part of the government's campaign to accomplish the
goal of 100 per cent potable piped water supply in all
20) Answer: C
rural households by March next year.
Germany ranks first in the PHDCCI International
The Chief Minister also inaugurated one Mega Surface
Economic Resilience (IER) Rank followed by India and
Water Supply Scheme covering 85 villages in the Moga
South Korea at second and third positions, respectively,
district, 144 new water supply schemes for 172 villages,
according to the report released by industry body
121 Arsenic, and Iron removal plants.
PHDCCI.
The scheme will benefit more than 1.6 lakh residents
It is based on analysis of five lead macroeconomic
from 155 villages in Amritsar, Tarn Taran, and
indicators reflecting a country's economic performance
Gurdaspur districts by helping replace groundwater with
including real GDP growth rate, merchandise export
surface water supply for drinking, besides resolving the
growth rate, current account balance (as percentage of
problem of arsenic affected habitations.
GDP), general government net lending/borrowing (as
percentage of GDP) gross debt-to-GDP ratio. The scheme is being funded by the World Bank, Jal
Jeewan Mission of GoI, NABARD, and State Budget.

India's IER Rank stands at second among the top-10
leading economies, indicating strong resilience of the The Chief Minister also formally launched 10 new large
Indian economy to the daunting pandemic of COVID-19, multi-village surface water supply schemes at a cost of
Rs.1,020 Crore. The scheme will cover 1,018 villages in
India's real GDP growth rate is projected to be the
the water quality affected areas of districts Patiala,
highest at 11.5% in the year 2021 among the top-10
Fatehgarh Sahib, Gurdaspur, Amritsar, and Tarn Taran.
leading economies in the world, according to the
industry body. 22) Answer: B
21) Answer: E
Page 77 of 80
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued guidelines on Ajay Singh has been re-elected as President of the
risk-based internal audit (RBIA) system for select non- Boxing Federation of India (BFI).
bank lenders and urban co-operative banks (UCBs).

Singh received 37 votes while Shelar, who has held
NBFCs and UCBs have grown in size and become many top positions in sport, including the role of
systemically important, prevalence of different audit President of Maharashtra Cricket Association and
systems/approaches in such entities has created certain Mumbai District Football Association, got 27 votes in the
inconsistency. BFI elections.
The entities have to implement the RBIA framework by Hemanta Kumar Kalita was elected secretary general
March 31, 2022 and Digvijay Singh treasurer.
This is mainly for Strengthen the quality and The elections were held in the presence of AIBA
effectiveness of the internal audit system of selected observer Yury Zaystsev and IOA observer Rakesh
entities. Gupta.
The regulator also specified that RBIA policy shall The six-time world champion boxer Mary Kom credited
clearly document the purpose, authority, and BFI President Ajay Singh for the remarkable
responsibility of the internal audit activity, with a clear performances of the boxers from the country at the
demarcation of the role and expectations from risk global stage in recent years.
management function and risk -based internal audit
24) Answer: D
function.
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) and Mishra Dhatu
RBI, in its monetary policy statement on December 4,
Nigam Limited (MIDHANI) have signed a Memorandum
2020, had announced that suitable guidelines would be
of Understanding (MoU) for development and production
issued to large UCBs and NBFCs for the adoption of
of composite raw materials during the Aero India 2021 in
RBIA to strengthen the internal audit function, which
Bengaluru on February 04, 2021
works as a third line of defence.
23) Answer: D
Page 78 of 80
This is the first time that such an MoU has been signed India slipped two places to 53rd position in the 2020
for composite raw materials. Democracy Index’s global ranking, according to The
Economist Intelligence Unit.

The MoU was signed by Chairman and Managing
Director, HAL Shri R Madhavan and Chairman and India is ranked higher than most of its neighbouring
Managing Director, MIDHANI Dr S K Jha in the countries. India’s overall score fell from 6.9 in 2019 to
presence of other senior officials. 6.61 in the Index that provides a snapshot of the current
state of democracy worldwide for 167 countries.
Composites raw materials, mainly in the form of
prepregs used in platforms like Light Combat Aircraft Norway has topped the Index.Iceland, Sweden, New
(LCA), Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH), Light Combat Zealand and Canada are the top five countries in the list.
Helicopter (LCH) and Light Utility Helicopter (LUH) are
Out of 167 countries, the Democracy Index classifies 23
currently imported.
countries as full democracies, 52 as flawed
The usage of composites in aerospace is going to exist democracies, 35 as hybrid regimes and 57 as
and increase, particularly for fighter aircraft/helicopters authoritarian regimes. India has been classified as a
because of its inherent advantages over metallic raw ‘flawed democracy’ along with countries.
materials.
In addition, similar requirements exist for other

aerospace and defence programmes, including those of
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), Defence

Research Development Organisation (DRDO) and
National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL).
25) Answer: C
Page 79 of 80
Page 80 of 80
Page 1 of 81
Reasoning Ability
Direction (1-3): Answer the questions based on the 3. Statement: O > (E – C) ≥ G > M = (W + B) ≥ V
information given below. Conclusions:
In the questions given below, the statement based I. W = (O – B)
on the addition and subtraction denoted by ‘+’ and ‘- II. (E + B) > (M + C)
’ respectively is followed by two conclusions. Find A. Only I follows
which of the conclusion(s) satisfy the given B. Only II follows
statements. C. Both I and II follow
1. Statement: M ≤ (K +Z) ≤ U ≥ (R – S) > L ≥ A D. Either I or II follow
Conclusions: E. Neither I nor II follow
I. (M –Z) ≤ U
II. R > (A + S) Direction (4-5): In these questions, certain symbols
A.Only I follows have been used to indicate relationships between
B.Only II follows elements as follows:
C.Both I and II follow “P$Q” means “P is not less than Q”
D.Either I or II follow “P#Q” means “P is not greater than Q”
E.Neither I nor II follow “P@Q” means “P is neither less than nor equal to
Q”
2. Statement: G < F ≤ (R – K) < (J + T) ≥ H > L “P&Q” means “P is neither greater than nor equal to
Conclusions: Q”
I. (G + K) ≤ R “P%Q” means “P is neither greater than nor less
II. (F – T) < H than Q"
A.Only I follows 4. Statements:
B.Only II follows E$M&H@V; F$Q#P%H; Z$Y%X@F
C.Both I and II follow Conclusions:
D.Either I or II follow I) Q&Z
E.Neither I nor II follow II) E#P
A.If only conclusion I follow.
Page 2 of 81
B.If only conclusion II follows. 6. Statement: H & L ^ T # W; T & Q # Z % B; R ^ P

C.If either conclusion I or II follows. % D; Q ^ M @ R % G
D.If neither conclusion I nor II follows. Conclusion:
E.If both conclusions I and II follow I) L & P
II) Q # D
5. Statements: III) W @ R
L@M$H%T; P#G%K#T; V#E%P A.Only II and III follows
Conclusions: B.All I, II and II follows
I) T@P C.Only III follows
II) E%H D.Only I and II follows
A.If only conclusion I follow. E.None follows
B.If only conclusion II follows.
C.If either conclusion I or II follows. 7. Statement: S @ D ^ F % U; B % L # K ^ H; K &
D.If neither conclusion I nor II follows. W ^ S # G; H @ Z % Y ^ X
E.If both conclusions I and II follow Conclusion:
I) L # X
Direction (6-8): In each of the following questions II) F # H
relationship between different elements are given in III) U @ B
the statement followed by three set of conclusions. A.Only II and III follows
Study the following information carefully and decide B.Only II follows
which of the following conclusion follows logically. C.Only III follows
“P @ Q” means “P is greater than Q”. D.Only I and II follows
“P % Q” means “P is not greater than Q”. E.None follows
“P # Q” means “P is less than Q”.
“P & Q” means “P is not less than Q”. 8. Statement: A # W ^ M & H; W & T ^ Q % J; C & L
“P ^ Q” means “P is neither greater than nor less # P ^ N; T # B % G @ C
than Q”. Conclusion:
I) J ^ H
Page 3 of 81
II) T # N 10. In which of the following options, the expression

III) H # J ‘M * J’ holds definitely true and ‘P $ Q’ holds
A.Only III definitely false?
B.Only II and III follows A.L % J $ Q@ M * P
C.Either I or III follows B.M * P @ L % J * Q
D.Only II and either I or III follows C.Q@ L % J * M * P
E.None follows D.J $ Q% M@ L * P
E.None of the above
carefully and answer the questions given below. 11. Which of the following order of letters in the
‘A * B’ means ‘A is greater than B’ blanks makes the expression ‘A & B’ is definitely
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’ false?
‘A % B’ means ‘A is greater than or equal to B’ _$_@_%_*_
‘A & B’ means ‘A is smaller than or equal to B’ A.D, B, E, A, C
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is equal to B’ B.E, B, C, A, D
9. Which of the following symbols should be placed C.B, D, A, C, E
in the blank spaces respectively (in the same order D.E, B, D, A, C
from left to right) in order to complete the given E.None of the above
statement in such a manner that makes the
expressions K % P and J * N definitely true? Direction (12-14): Below question consists of some
O_P_J_K_N_L statements followed by some conclusions in two
A.&, *, %, @, $ columns. Study the following information carefully
B.%, *, $, @, & and decide which of the following combination of
C.*, $, &, %, @ conclusions matches.
D.$, &, @, *, % 12. Statement: B ≥ G = O; G > T = M; R < Q ≤ F; M
E.@, &, $, %, * ≤R=W
Conclusion:
Page 4 of 81
Conclusion:
A.Both CP and AQ
B.Only DQ A.Both CP and AS
C.Both BS and AS B.Only DQ
D.Only BR C.Both BR and AS
E.None of these D.Only BR
E.None of these
13. Statement: W ≥ Q = T < M; H ≤ D = F > B; T ≥ L
< H = G; G > K ≥ C 15. Which of the following would replace % and # in
Conclusion: the following expression so that W ≤ Z, Z >F holds
true?
A < S % T ≥ W = D; Z ≥ S # L = C > F
A.>, ≤
B.≥, <
C.≥, =
D.>, =
A.Both BS and AQ
E.None of these
B.Only DQ
C.Both BS and AR
D.Only CQ
E.None of these
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting
in a square table in which the persons sit at the
14. Statement: W = T < M ≤ Q; P ≤ R = E ≤ X; Z <
corners face towards the centre and the persons
P=L≥M
Page 5 of 81
sitting at the middle of each side of the table and D.BH

facing away from the centre, but not necessarily in E.EF
the same order. Four persons are sitting at the
corners and four persons are sitting in the middle of 18. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical
the sides with equal distance between each other. order starting from the place of A in the clockwise
The consecutive alphabetical name of the persons direction, how many persons remain unchanged in
doesn’t sit adjacent to each other. their position (Excluding A)?
F sits three persons away from the one who sits to A.2
the immediate left of A. Only two persons sit B.3
between A and C who doesn’t sit to the immediate C.1
left of F. H sits exactly opposite to C and is the D.4
immediate neighbor of D. The one who sits third to E.None
the left of G faces E. E sits to the immediate right of
G but doesn’t sit opposite to B. 19. What is the position of F with respect to G, if all
16. Who among the following person sits to the the persons turn for 180 degrees?
immediate right of D? A.Third to the right
A.F B.Second to the left
B. The one who sits opposite to B. C.Third to the left
C.H D.Second to the right
D. The one who sits opposite to G. E.None of these
E. Cannot be determined
20. How many persons sit between H and E when
17. Four of the following five are alike in a certain counted from the right of H?
way and hence form a group. Find the one that A.As many persons from the right of C to D
doesn’t belong to that group? B. Two
A.DG C.As many persons from the right of F to G
B.AE D. All (a), (b), and (C).
C.DF E. None of these
Page 6 of 81
22. How many persons sit between B and E when

Direction (21-25): Answer the questions based on counted to the right of E?
the information given below. A.One
Eight persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are B.Two
seated on a square table such that some of them C.Three
are facing inside while some are facing outside the D.More than three
table, but not necessarily in the same order. Four E.None
persons are seated at the corners while four
persons are seated at the middle of each side of the 23. Who among the following person sits fifth to the
table. Not more than two adjacent persons face the left of C?
same direction. A.D
H sits second to the right of F where neither of them B.A
sits at the corners. Only one person sits between B C.G
and H where both of them face the same direction D.B
but opposite to F.C sits third to the right of B as well E.None of these
as G. E, who faces away from the centre, sits two
persons away from C where D sits facing away 24. What is the position of H with respect to A?
from C. E doesn’t sit second to the right of D who A.Third to the left
doesn’t face centre. A doesn’t sit adjacent to B B.Third to the right
whereas both A and C face the same direction. C.Immediate right
21. Who among the following person sits to the D.Immediate left
immediate right of G? E.None of these
A.C
B.D 25. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical
C.E order in a clockwise direction with respect to A,
D.A then how many persons changed their position,
E.None of these excluding A?
A.Two
Page 7 of 81
B.Three E. More than one statement is true

C.Five
D.Four 27. How many persons are sitting between T and R
E.None when counted from the right of T?
A.None
Direction (26-30): Answer the questions based on B.Two
the information given below. C.One
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting D.More than three
around the square table. Four persons sit at the E.Three
corners and are facing the centre while four
persons sit at the middle of each side of the table 28. Who among the following sits opposite to V?
and facing away from the centre. All the information A.The one who sits immediate right of R
is not necessarily in the same order. B.The one who sits immediate left of S
The one who sits immediate right of T sits opposite C.The one who sits immediate left of R
to the one who sits second to the left of U. Two D.The one who sits immediate right of S
persons sit between Q, who doesn’t sit immediate E.None of these
left of T and the one who sits immediate left of U. R
sits immediate left of P and vice versa, none of 29. Who is sitting adjacent to V?
them sits adjacent to either U or T. Only one person A.T
sits between S and W, who doesn’t sit adjacent to B.Q
Q and P. V doesn’t face away from the centre. C.P
26. Which among the following statement/s is/are D.Both (a) and (b)
true? E.Both (a) and (c)
A. Only two persons sit between P and U when
counted from the right of P 30. What is the position of P with respect to Q?
B.S sits third to the right of V A.3rd to the left
C.W sits adjacent to the one who sits opposite to Q B.3rd to the right
D.R sits adjacent to Q C.5th to the right
Page 8 of 81
D.Either (a) or (c)

E.None of these 32. Which of the following statement is/are true?
I) R and O are immediate neighbors
Direction (31-35): Study the following information II) Two persons sit between L and M when counted
carefully and answer the questions given below: from the right of L
Eight persons namely L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S III) N and M are sitting opposite to each other
are sitting around a square table, four persons are A.Only I and III
sitting at the corner, and four persons sitting at the B.Only III
middle of each side of the table. Persons who are C.Only I and II
sitting at the corner facing centre and persons who D.Only I
are sitting at the middle of the sides are facing E.All I, II, and III
outside. All the information is not necessarily in the
same order. 33. What is the position of N with respect to S?
L sits second to the right of R. Only two persons are A.Fourth to the left
sitting between L and M who does not sit adjacent B.Third to the right
to R. P sits neither adjacent to R nor M. S sits C.Second to the right
second to the right of Q who either sits adjacent to D.Third to the left
M or L. The number of persons sitting between Q E.Either a or c
and O is the same as between N and S. N does not
face the outside of the table. O sits either adjacent 34. If one of the neighbors of L is P, then who is the
to S or M but not both. second one?
31. Who among the following person sits second to A.Q
the right of Q? B.M
A.The one who sits immediate left of M C.S
B.The one who sits second to the left of L D.N
C.P E. None of the above
D.Q
E.None of these
Page 9 of 81
35. Which of the following is not a correct neighbor sit adjacent to each other whereas both S and Q
pair? face the same direction.
I) RN 36. Who among the following person sits adjacent
II) MS to W?
III) LQ A.The one who sits to the immediate left of R
A.Only II B.T
B.Only I and II C.The one who sits to the immediate right of V
C.Only III D.V
D.All I, II, and III E.None of these
E.None of these
37. How many persons sit between S and R when
Direction (36-40): Answer the questions based on counted from the left of R?
the Information given below. A.Four
Ten people viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y are B.As many persons as from the right of P to W
seated in a rectangular table in such a way that four C.Three
persons are at the corners, two persons each on D.As many persons as from the left of Q to P
the longer side of the table and one person each on E.Two
the shorter side of the table, but not necessarily in
the same order. The persons seated on the corners 38. Who among the following person sits fourth to
are facing away from the centre whereas the the right of T?
persons seated on the sides are facing towards the A.R
centre. B.S
R sits third to the left of X who sits to the immediate C.V
right of U. Y sits fourth to the left of P who is the D.P
immediate neighbour of U. T is the immediate E.U
neighbour of R and faces the same direction as W
who doesn’t sit adjacent to P and X. Both S and V 39. If U is related to T and X is related to V in a
certain way, then Y is related to?
Page 10 of 81
A.W direction. A sits three persons away from J. F is

B.Q neither adjacent to D nor opposite to G.
C.P 41. Who among the following person sits to the
D.T immediate left of B?
E.V A. The one who sits immediate right of I.
B.A
40. What is the position of Q with respect to P? C. The one who sits second to the left of C.
A.Third to the right D.H
B.Third to the left E. None of these
C.Fourth to the right
D.Second to the right 42. How many persons sit between E and D when
E.Fourth to the left counted from the right of E?
A.1
Direction (41-45): Answer the questions based on B.2
the information given below. C.3
Ten persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, and J are D.4
seated in a rectangular table in such a way that E.More than four
three persons each are seated on the longer side
and faces towards the centre while two persons 43. Who among the following person sits exactly
each are seated on the shorter side and faces away opposite to the one who sits to the immediate right
from the centre, but not necessarily in the same of F?
order. A.B
E sits to the immediate left of G and vice versa. H B. The one who sits immediate left of D
sits third to the right of G and immediate right of D. I C.D
sits to the immediate left of the one who is exactly D. The one who sits immediate right of J
opposite to G and is two persons away from B who E.None of these
is not the immediate neighbor of E. Both J and C sit
adjacent to each other but don’t face the same
Page 11 of 81
44. Four of the following five are alike in a certain order. All the above information is not necessarily in
way and hence form a group. Find the one who the same order.
doesn’t belong to that group. G stands second to the left of A, both are facing to
A.G the centre. A and G are standing on the longer side
B.D and shorter side respectively. Three persons are
C.C standing between A and B. E and I are diagonally
D.H opposite to each other, both are standing on the
E.F long side. C stands the immediate right of I and vice
versa, both are standing on the same side. J and G
45. Who among the following person sits fourth to are facing the same direction. A is adjacent to
the left of G? neither C nor J. Immediate neighbours of H are
A.I facing the same direction. J sits second to the right
B.C of F.
C.F 46. What is the position of C with respect to B?
D. The one who sits opposite to A A.Immediate left
E. Both options (a) and (d) B.Immediate right
C.Second to the right
Direction (46-50): Study the following information D.Third to the right
carefully and answer the below questions E.Second to the left
Ten football players- A to J are standing on the
football ground. Three persons are standing on 47. In which of the following statement 3rd person
each longer side and two persons are standing on stands exactly between 1st and 2ndperson in the
each shorter side. Some of them are facing inside final arrangement?
and some of them are facing outside. Not more I) BJE
than two persons are facing the same direction II) DHA
standing together. No two persons are standing III) ICF
together according to the English alphabetical A.Only II
B.Only I and III
Page 12 of 81
C.Only III D.Only II

D.All I, II and III E.None of the statement is false
E.None of these
48. Four of the five among the following are similar the information given below.
in such a way to form a group, who among the Ten persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are
following doesn’t belong to the group? sitting around a rectangular table in such a way that
A.IE four of them sit at the corner facing outside and
B.FA others sit at the edges and facing towards the
C.EJ centre but not necessarily in the same order. Two
D.GJ persons sit on each longer edge and the remaining
E.DB one person sits on each shorter edge.
A sits third to the left of I. Both A and I either sit
49. Who among the following person stands third to along the edges or at the corners. J sits third to the
the left of H? right of I. Only one person sits between A and D,
A.The one who stands Immediate left of G who faces the centre. E sits to the immediate right
B.B of D. H sits fourth to the right of E. G sits to the
C.C immediate right of F, who faces the same direction
D.The one who stands Second to the right of C as E. G doesn’t sit adjacent to A. B doesn’t face the
E.D centre.
51. Who among the following person sits to the
50. Which of the following statement is/are false? immediate left to B?
I) I and F are facing the same direction A.F
II) A stands immediate left of D B.The one who sits third to the left of F
III) B and G are facing the opposite directions C.D
A.Only I and III D.The one who sits second to the right of J.
B.Only III E.None of these
C.Only I and II
Page 13 of 81
52. How many persons are sitting between J and F C.HJ

when counted from the right of F? D.FA
A.Two E.ED
B.Four
C.Six Direction (56-60): Answer the questions based on
D.Three the information given below.
E.None of these Twelve persons viz. M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W
and X are standing in a hexagonal shape, but not
53. Who among the following person is sitting 4th to necessarily in the same order. Six persons stand on
the right of D? each corner and face towards the centre whereas
A.J six persons stand on each side and face away from
B.G the centre.
C.F M is standing third to the right of R who stands
D.B three persons away from S. T stands exactly
E.None of these opposite to R and is the immediate left of Q. Only
one person sits between Q and the one who is an
54. What is the position of E with respect to A? immediate neighbour of X who doesn’t stand
A.Immediate left adjacent to M. V faces W who stands adjacent to O.
B.Immediate right P and U are standing immediate left to each other
C.9th to the right whereas N faces the same direction as U.
D.Either (a) or (c) 56. Who among the following persons stands fourth
E.None of these to the left of P?
A.T
55. Four of the following five are similar in such a B.Q
way to form a group, Which among the following C.O
doesn’t form a group? D.W
A.DI E.R
B.CB
Page 14 of 81
57. How many persons stand between U and T 60. Who among the following persons stands
when counted from the right of T? second to the right of the one who stands exactly
A. Four opposite to U?
B. Five A.X
C. Six B.M
D. Seven C.P
E. Three D.O
E.Q
58. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and hence form a group. Find the one that Direction (61-65): Study the following information
doesn’t belong to that group. carefully and answer the below questions.
A.S Twelve persons K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, J, T, U and
B.X V are sitting on the hexagon table. Six persons sit
C.Q at the corner and are facing outside the table and
D.N the remaining persons sit at the middle of each side
E.U and are facing inside the table.
Four persons sit between U and M who is facing
59. The following series are formed based on the inside of the table. O sits third to the right of M. L
final arrangement. Find the next element in the sits fifth to the left of O. Two persons sit between L
series. and P. T sits third to the left of P. K sits third to T
TM PO SR __ and is an immediate neighbour of both N and Q.
A.MT Three persons sit between N and V. As many
B.NW persons sit between L and R is same as between O
C.VN and V when counted from the right of both L and O.
D.PQ 61. Who sits fourth to the left of Q?
E.None of these A.O
B.T
C.M
Page 15 of 81
D.P 64. Four of the following five are alike in a certain

E.None of these way and hence from the group. Who among the
following one does not belongs to the group?
62. How many persons are sitting between K and P A.M
when counted from the right of P? B.N
A.Four C.O
B.Six D.V
C.Three E.L
D.Five
E.None of these 65. Number of persons sit between O and V are
one less than the number of persons sit between R
63. Who sits second to the right of the one who is and ____. When counted from the right of R and O?
immediate left of J? A.L
A.U B.U
B.P C.V
C.M D.J
D.S E.None of these
E.None of these
Directions (1-3): Hence, conclusion I follows.

1. Answer: C II. R > (A + S)
Statement: M ≤ (K + Z) ≤ U ≥ (R – S) > L ≥ A (R – S) > L ≥ A
Conclusions: (R – S) > A
I. (M – Z) ≤ U R > (A + S)
M ≤ (K + Z) ≤ U Hence, conclusion II follows.
(M – Z) ≤ K ≤ U 2. Answer: E
(M – Z) ≤ U Statement: G < F ≤ (R – K) < (J + T) ≥ H > L
Page 16 of 81
Conclusions: Directions (4-5):

I. (G + K) ≤ R 4. Answer: A
G < F ≤ (R – K) 5. Answer: C
G < (R – K)
(G + K) < R Directions (6-8):
Hence, conclusion I doesn’t follow. 6. Answer: C
II. (F – T) < H 7. Answer: B
F ≤ (R – K) < (J + T) ≥ H 8. Answer: E
F < (J + T) ≥ H
(F – T) < J ≥ H Directions (9-11):
Hence, conclusion II doesn’t follow. 9. Answer: D
10. Answer: B
3. Answer: B 11. Answer: C
Statement: O > (E – C) ≥ G > M = (W + B) ≥ V
Conclusions: Directions (12-14):
I. W = (O – B) 12. Answer: E
O > (E – C) ≥ G > M = (W + B) 13. Answer: C
O > (W + B) 14. Answer: A
(O – B) > W 15. Answer: C
Hence, conclusion I doesn’t follow.
II. (E + B) > (M + C)
(E – C) ≥ G > M = (W + B)
(E – C) > M = (W + B)
E > (M + C) = (W + B)
E > (M + C– B) = W
(E + B) > (M + C)
Hence, conclusion II follow. Directions (16-20):
Page 17 of 81
F sits three persons away from the one who sits to

the immediate left of A.
E sits to the immediate right of G but doesn’t sit

opposite to B.
The one who sits third to the left of G faces E.
Consecutive alphabetically named persons doesn’t
sit adjacent to each other. Hence, cases 1, 2 and 3
get eliminated.
Only two persons sit between A and C who doesn’t

sit to the immediate left of F.
H sits exactly opposite to C and is the immediate
neighbor of D.
Page 18 of 81
between B and H where both of them face the

same direction but opposite to F.
2. C sits third to the right of B as well as G. E, who

faces away from the centre, sits two persons away
from C where D sits facing away from C. Not more
16. Answer: D than two adjacent persons face the same direction.
17. Answer: A E doesn’t sit second to the right of D who doesn’t
18. Answer: C face centre.
19. Answer: C
20. Answer: D
Directions (21-25):
3. A doesn’t sit adjacent to B whereas both A and C

face the same direction. Hence, case 1 gets
eliminated.
1. H sits second to the right of F where neither of

them sits at the corners. Only one person sits
Page 19 of 81
• R sits immediate left of P and vice versa,

none of them sits adjacent to either U or T.
• Only one person sits between S and W, who
doesn’t sit adjacent to Q and P.
• V doesn’t face away from the centre.
21. Answer: D
22. Answer: E
23. Answer: C
24. Answer: A
25. Answer: C
Directions (26-30):
26. Answer: C
27. Answer: D
28. Answer: D
29. Answer: E
30. Answer: B
Directions (31-35):
• The one who sits immediate right of T sits

opposite to the one who sits second to the
left of U.
• Two persons sit between Q, who doesn’t sit
immediate left of T and the one who sits
immediate left of U.
Page 20 of 81
We have,
• L sits second to the right of R.
• Only two persons are sitting between L and
M who does not sit adjacent to R.
possibilities.
Again we have,
Again we have,
• The number of persons sitting between Q
• P sits neither adjacent to R nor M.
and O is the same as between N and S.
• S sits second to the right of Q who either sits
• N does not face the outside of the table.
adjacent to M or L.
eliminated.
possibilities.
Page 21 of 81
33. Answer: B
34. Answer: D
35. Answer: C
Directions (36-40):
1. R sits third to the left of X who sits to the

immediate right of U.
Again we have,
• O sits either adjacent to S or M but not both.
2. Y sits fourth to the left of P who is the immediate

neighbour of U.
31. Answer: A
32. Answer: E
Page 22 of 81
3. T is the immediate neighbour of R and faces the Directions (41-45):

same direction as W who doesn’t sit adjacent to P
and X. Hence, case 1 gets eliminated.
1. E sits to the immediate left of G and vice

versa. H sits third to the right of G and
4. Both S and V sit adjacent to each other whereas
immediate right of D.
both S and Q face the same direction. Hence, case
2 gets eliminated.
36. Answer: C
37. Answer: B
38. Answer: D
39. Answer: E
40. Answer: A
2. I sits to the immediate left of the one who is

exactly opposite to G and is two persons away from
B who is not the immediate neighbor of E. Hence,
Page 23 of 81
45. Answer: E
Directions (46-50):
G stands second to the left of A, both are facing to

the centre.
A and G are standing at the longer side and shorter
3. Both J and C sit adjacent to each other but don’t side respectively.
face the same direction. A sits three persons away From the above condition, there are two
from J. F is neither adjacent to D nor opposite to G. possibilities.
Three persons are standing between A and B.

41. Answer: C
42. Answer: E
43. Answer: B
44. Answer: D
Page 24 of 81
Not more than two persons are facing the same

E and I are diagonally opposite to each other, both direction standing together
are standing on the longer side. Immediate neighbours of H are facing the same
C stands the immediate right of I and vice versa, direction.
both are standing on the same side. J and G are facing the same direction. J sits second
A is adjacent to neither C nor J. to the right of F.
No two persons are standing together according to From the above condition, case2a shows the final
the English alphabetical order. arrangement.
From the above condition, all the cases are
eliminated except case2a.
46. Answer: E
Page 25 of 81
47. Answer: A
48. Answer: C
49. Answer: B
50. Answer: E
Directions (51-55): 7. G sits to the immediate right of F, who faces the

same direction as E.
8. G doesn’t sit adjacent to A.
9. B doesn’t face the centre.
10. Hence, both case 1 and 2 gets eliminated. Case
3 shows the final arrangement.
1. A sits third to the left of I.

2. Both A and I either sit along the edges or at the
corners.
51. Answer: D
52. Answer: A
53. Answer: B
3. J sits third to the right of I. 54. Answer: B
4. Only one person sits between A and D, who 55. Answer: C
faces the centre.
5. E sits to the immediate right of D.
6. H sits fourth to the right of E.
Page 26 of 81
Directions (56-60):
3. V faces W who stands adjacent to O. P and U

are standing immediate left to each other whereas
N faces the same direction as U. Hence, case 1
gets eliminated.
1. M is standing third to the right of R who
stands three persons away from S. T stands
exactly opposite to R and is the immediate
left of Q.
56. Answer: D
57. Answer: C
58. Answer: B
2. Only one person sits between Q and the one who
59. Answer: A
is an immediate neighbour of X who doesn’t stand
60. Answer: E
adjacent to M.
Page 27 of 81
Directions (61-65):
Three persons sit between N and V. As many

persons sit between L and R is the same as
between O and V when count right of both L and O.
Four persons sit between U and M who is

facing inside of the table. O sits third to the right of
M. L sits fifth to the left of O.
61. Answer: C
Two persons sit between L and P. T sits third to the 62. Answer: D
left of P. K sits third to T and is immediate 63. Answer: C
neighbour of both N and Q. 64. Answer: C
65. Answer: B
Page 28 of 81
1. Respective ratio of the cost prices of article A and percent profit earned after selling the article is
and article B is 2:3. The shopkeeper marked the y%. Cost price and Marked price of the article is
price of article A at 56% above the cost price and Rs.2850 and Rs.5000 Respectively.
article B at 17% above the cost price. While selling, A.15
he allowed a discount of p% on article A and a B.20
discount of (p + 10)% on article B such that selling C.25
price of both the articles are equal. If selling price D.30
of the articles is Rs.561.6, find the cost price of E.35
article B.
A.Rs.400 4. Reeta sold an article at a discount of
B.Rs.250 __________% on marked price, yet earned a profit
C.Rs.600 of 20% on cost price. Marked price of the article is
D.Rs.450 Rs.400. Cost price of the article is Rs.__________.
E. None of these Which of the following options satisfy the given
condition?
2. The initial cost price of the mobile is Rs.60x and I. 10%, 300
the selling price of the mobile is Rs.y. Ifshopkeeper II. 16%, 280
decreases the cost price by 20% and increases the III. 7%, 320
selling price by 40%, then what is the ratio of the A. Only I
initial profit percentage to new profit percentage? B. Only II
A.3:4 C. Only III
B.1:7 D. Both I and II
C.5:9 E. Both II and III
D.4:9
E. Cannot be determine 5. A seller defrauds both the dealer and the user
3. What is the value of y if an article is sold after by measuring the weights incorrectly. When he is
allowing two successive discounts of y% and 5% purchasing items from the dealer, he takes 15%
Page 29 of 81
more than the indicated weight and when he is Shopkeeper made a profit of 20% on selling article
selling them to the user, he gives 15% less than Q and found that its cost price is equal to selling
the indicated weight. If the price that the seller price of article P. Find the marked price of article Q
charges his user is the same as what the dealer when article P is sold for Rs 1944 at two
charges the seller, then what profit percentage
successive discounts of and 2X%?
does the seller make?
A.Rs.1200
A.35.29%
B.Rs.2400
B.42.24%
C.Rs.4800
C.56.24%
D.Rs.3600
D.40.29%
E. None of these
E. None of these
8. Harshit marks up all books in his shop 25%

6. An insurance agent sold two policies, X and Y.
more. And he gives 20% discount on 35% of the
Monthly premium of X is Rs. 150, and that on Y is
total number of books and 10% discount on 38% of
Rs. 26.5. If a person takes both, he gets a discount
the total number of books. If Harshit gets an overall
of Rs. 50 on policy X. In an office where everybody
profit of 8%, then find the percentage of discount
took at least one policy, 14 people took policy X,
(approximately) should be given by Harshit to a
and 8 people took policy Y, what is the minimum
customer on the remaining number of books?
monthly collection of the insurance agent?
A. 13%
A.Rs. 2064
B. 9%
B.Rs. 1750
C. 15%
C.Rs. 1834
D. 11%
D.Rs. 1912
E. 18
E. None of these
9. If marked price of the book is Rs.400 more than

7. Marked price of two articles P and Q is in the
its selling price and the cost price of the book is
ratio of 3:4. Shopkeeper sold article P and article Q
Rs.240 less than of its selling price. If the
at the discount of X% and (X+8)% respectively.
Page 30 of 81
shopkeeper offers a discount of x% on the marked B.Rs.6500

price of the book, then find the value of x? C.Rs.7500
A. 10% D.Rs.8000
B. 15% E.Rs.6000
C. 20%
D. Cannot be determine 12. The cost price of AC is 50% more than the cost
E. None of these price of TV and the cost price of laptop is 25% less
than the cost price of TV. If the shopkeeper sold
10. Ratio of the selling to marked price of the the TV at Rs.24000 while he gets the profit of 20%
article is 9: 10 and the profit percentage is double and the shopkeeper gets the profit of AC and
of discount percentage offered by shopkeeper. If Laptop is 10% and 15% respectively, then what is
the difference between marked to cost price of the the difference between the selling price of AC and
article is Rs.1000, then find the cost price of the laptop?
article? A.Rs.15550
A. Rs.3400 B.Rs.15500
B. Rs.3600 C.Rs.15750
C. Rs.3800 D.Rs.15250
D. Rs.3000 E. None of these
E. None of these
13. Ratio of the selling price of the cycle to bike is
11. The marked price of the AC is 25% more than 5:8 and the marked price of the bike is 25% more
the cost price of the AC. The shopkeeper offers than the cost price of the bike. Ratio of the cost
two different discounts for regular customer and price of cycle to bike is 1:2. If the shopkeeper
new customer. He offers the discount 15% for offers a discount of 12% on marked price of the
regular customer and 10% for new customer. If the bike while he gets the profit of Rs.2000, then find
both are bought a AC and paid the total amount is the profit of cycle?
Rs.17500, then find the cost price of the AC? A.Rs.3250
A.Rs.5000 B.Rs.3450
Page 31 of 81
C.Rs.3650 Study the following information carefully and

D.Rs.3750 answer the given questions?
E. None of these The following pie chart - 1 shows the percentage of
average age of 6 classes students (Boys + Girls) in
14. A sold SD card to B at 20% loss and B sold it a school and pie chart - 2 shows the degree of
to C at 50% profit and C again sold it to D at 15% average age of boys of those 6 classes in the
profit. If difference between SP of A & CP of D is school.
Rs.290, then find the difference between CP of A &
SP of D?
A.380
B.285
C.240
D.180
E.190
15. The sum of the cost price of mobile and laptop

is Rs.9900. If the shopkeeper sold the mobile at
10% profit and laptop at 8% loss and he found that
the loss incurred by selling laptop is equal to the
profit earned by selling mobile, then find the cost
price of mobile?
A.Rs.4000
B.Rs.4400 16. If the average age of girls in class A is 75 years
C.Rs.4800 and the number of students in the class A is 42,
D.Rs.5200 then find the total number of girls in the class A?
E. None of these A.25
B.26
Directions (16 - 20): C.28
Page 32 of 81
D.27 B.66
17. Find the difference between the total average D.72
age of students in class B and D together to that of E. None of these
the total average age of boys in class C and E
together? 20. The average age of boys in class D is what
A.80 years percentage of the average age of boys in class B?
B.75 years A.95 %
C.70 years B.80 %
D.85 years C.110 %
E. None of these D.125 %
E.140 %
18. Find the percentage of average age of boys in
class C, while comparing with the total average Directions (21 - 25): Study the following information
age of boys in all the classes? carefully and answer the questions given below.
A.35 % The given pie chart shows the percentage of
B.30 % students in college A in different departments.
C.20 %
D.25 %
E. None of these
19. If the average age of girls in class E and F is

60 and 47 years respectively and the total number
of students in class E is 60and the number of girls
in class F is 30, then find the sum of total number
of girls in class E and the total number of boys in
class F together?
A.64
Page 33 of 81
The given pie chart shows the percentage of the event in A is 1400 and the number of Civil
students in college B in different departments. students who participated the event in A is 750,
then find the total number of ECE students in B,
Civil students in A and EEE students in A together
who are all not participated the sports event?
A. 1500
B. 1800
C. 1000
D. 2200
E. 1200
23. The number of Mech students in A is what

percent of the number of Civil students in B?
21. If 20% of the CSE students in A are left the
A. 71.42%
college and the number of CSE students in A are
B. 74.64%
passed the semester exam is 2100, find the
C. 76.81%
number of CSE students from A are failed the
D. 77.94%
exam?
E. 79.34
A. 380
B. 320
24. If 40% of EEE students in B are boys, 20% of
C. 360
Mech students in B are boys and the number of
D. 300
ECE boys in A is 900, then what is the ratio of the
E. None of these
number of girls in EEE in B, Mech in B and ECE in
A?
22. If the number of ECE students who didn’t
A. 147: 140: 160
participated in sports event in B is 60% of the civil
B. 171: 163: 206
students A who not participated the sports event in
C. 191: 167: 201
A. If the number of EEE students who participated
D. 192: 160: 201
Page 34 of 81
E. None of these
25. The number of CSE students in B is what

percent of the number of ECE students in B?
A. 81.11%
B. 83.33%
C. 85.05%
D. 87.25%%
E. 89.45%
Directions (26 - 30): Read the following information

carefully and answer the following questions based 26. Total number of products sold by company A
on it. and C together is how much % of total number of
The given pie chart below shows the percentage type Y and type Z product together sold by
distribution of number of products sold by five company A and E?
companies A, B, C, D and E out of total products A.148%
sold by all companies together. The table given B.150%
below shows the number of type X and Type Y C.138%
products sold by the companies. Total products D.135%
sold by all companies together = 6000 E. None of these
Total products Sold = type X + Type Y + Type Z
27. If there is another company F, the total number
of products sold by company F is 250% more than
sum of type X product sold by company C and D
together. Total number of type Y product sold by
the company F is 1/7 of total products sold by the
company F and type X product sold F is 25% more
Page 35 of 81
than type Z product sold company F. Fins the 30. Find the difference between the average
number of type Z product sold by company F? number of type X products sold by company C and
A.1200 D together and the average number of type Y
B.1000 products sold by company D and E together?
C.800 A.20
D.600 B.10
D.30
28. If total number of products sold by company C E. None of these
is increased by 25% as compared to last year. Find
total number of products sold by company C last Directions (31 - 35): Study the following data
year is how much % of type X products sold by carefully and answer the questions:
company E in current years? There are two schemes P and Q, scheme P offers
A.120% compound interest which remains same for all the
B.180% persons and scheme Q offers simple interest which
C.150% also remains same for all the persons.
D.160% First pie chart given below shows the distribution
E. None of these (degree) of principle amount invested by six
persons A, B, C, D, E and F in scheme P while
29. Find the sum of type X and Y products sold by second pie chart shows the per cent distribution of
company A, B and D together is approx. how much total time for which six persons A, B, C, D, E and F
% of number of type Z products sold by company invested their capital in scheme Q.
C and E together?
A.710%
B.707%
C.703%
D.712%
E.715%
Page 36 of 81
C. 120%
D. 125%
E. None of these
32. Total amount invested by B in scheme Q is

87.5% more than his amount that he invested in
scheme P and rate of interest offered for scheme P
and Q is 25% and 20% respectively. If amount of
interest received by B from scheme P is 28.125%
more than his interest amount from scheme Q,
then for how much time did B invested his amount
in scheme P?
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 4 years
E. None of these
33. If person B and C invested their amount in

31. If scheme P offers 20% rate of interest while scheme P for 2 years each. Amount of interest
scheme Q offers 8% rate of interest and amount of received by B from scheme P is Rs.6160 more
interest received by A from scheme P after 3 years than the amount of interest received by C from that
is Rs.2336 more than the amount of interest scheme, then what is the difference between
received by him from scheme Q, then amount amount of interest received by persons B and C
invested in scheme P by A is what per cent of his from scheme P after 3 years?
amount invested in scheme Q? A. Rs.10192
A. 80% B. Rs.14080
B. 75% C. Rs.13104
Page 37 of 81
D. Rs.15402 B. 5: 3
E. None of these C. 3: 2
D. 4: 3
34. Scheme P offers 10% rate of interest while E. None of these
scheme Q offers 15% rate of interest. Interest
amount earned by person D after 3 years from Directions (36 - 40): What value should come in
scheme P is Rs.2380 less than the interest amount the place of (?) in the following number series?
earned by him from scheme Q, then total amount 36. 5 23 97 ? 1591 6377 25525
of interest earned by him from both the schemes A. 729
together is how much less than interest amount if B. 395
he invested his whole amount in scheme Q only for C. 411
4 years? D. 415
A. Rs.3240 E. 565
B. Rs.5380
C. Rs.4280 37. 6 9 24 90 432 ? 17280
D. Rs.6420 A. 2520
C. 1331
35. If person F invested his amount in scheme P D. 3124
for 2 years and person E invested Rs.21000 in E. 5675
scheme Q. If the ratio of interest amount earned by
E from scheme Q to the interest amount earned by 38. 21 33 85 ? 1359 7480 48626.5
F from scheme P is 45: 44 and difference between A. 196
them is Rs.140, then what is the ratio of numerical B. 256
value of rate of interest offered by scheme P to the C. 697
numerical value of rate of interest offered by D. 575
scheme Q? E. 301
A. 7: 4
Page 38 of 81
39. 20 24 40 76 140 240 ? E. 132

A. 286
B. 384 43. 21, 42, 70, 115, 147, 196
C. 240 A. 42
D. 259 B. 70
E. 230 C. 147
D. 196
40. 25 ? 793 3181 9553 19117 19129 E. 115
A. 329
B. 297 44. 1, 513, 852, 1072, 1197, 1261
C. 333 A. 1197
D. 157 B. 1261
E. 213 C. 1072
D. 852
Directions (41- 45):Find out the wrong number in E. 513
41. 9, 153, 274, 382, 455, 519 45. 9, 25, 45, 68, 97, 128
A. 153 A. 97
B. 274 B. 25
C. 519 C. 128
D. 455 D. 68
E. 382 E. 45
42. 145, 134, 146, 133, 148, 132 Directions (46 - 50): What approximate value
A. 134 should come in place of (?) in the following
B. 146 questions?
C. 148 46. ? × 5 = (1564.81 + 799.78) ÷ 11 + (25.92)2 +
D. 133 (2/7) of 846
Page 39 of 81
A. 318
B. 356 50. 56 % of 4249 + 12 % of ? = 2787.79 + (15.11)2
C. 434 A. 4500
D. 227 B. 3725
E. 295 C. 6050
D. 5275
47. (4/9) of (62/13) of 170 = 13 % of 799 + (2/5) of E. 5800
(?)
A. 650 Directions (51 - 55): What value should come at
B. 720 the place of question mark in the following
C. 780 questions?
D. 630 51. 480/8- 12 * 5 + 3√343 = ?
E. 560 A. 17
B. -3
48. (3564 ÷ 9.12) ÷ 3 × 11 + 13% of 499 – 17 % of C. 7
800.23 =? D. -9
A. 1452 E. 19
B. 1627
C. 1381 52. 902 * 28/11 – 96 * ³√512/3 =?
D. 1575 A. 1944
E. 1293 B. 2040
C. 2140
49. ∛4913 – ? ÷ √145 + (3/7) of 384 – 42 = 22 D. 2256
A. 1528 E. None of these
B. 1416
C. 1632 53. √729/√? * 64 = √256/52 * 108
D. 1344 A. 525
E. 1750 B. 125
Page 40 of 81
C. 625 D. x ≥ y
D. 25 E. x = y or relationship cannot be established
E. None of these
57.
54. 8885.5 + 885.5 – 58.5 – 88.8 =? + 555.7 I. x2 -3x -180 = 0
A. 9058 II. y2 +27y +180 = 0
B. 9758 A. x < y
C. 9858 B. x > y
D. 9068 C. x ≤ y
E. 9978 D. x ≥ y
E. x = y or relationship cannot be established
55. 8.33% of 5040 – 16.66% of 2160 =?% of 1200
A. 60 58.
B. 20 I. x2 +x -20 = 0
C. 5 II. y2 +20y +96 = 0
D. 50 A. x < y
E. None of these B. x > y
C. x ≤ y
Directions (56 - 70): In the following questions two D. x ≥ y
equations numbered I and II are given. You have E. x = y or relationship cannot be established
to solve both the equations and choose the correct
option. 59.
56. I. x2 -x -20 = 0
I. x2 +16x -57 = 0 II. y2 +21y +80 = 0
II. y2 -21y +54 = 0 A. x < y
A. x < y B. x > y
B. x > y C. x ≤ y
C. x ≤ y D. x ≥ y
Page 41 of 81
E. x = y or relationship cannot be established E. If x = y or relation between x and y cannot be

determined.
60.
I. x2 +4x -140 = 0 63.
II. y2 -29y +198 = 0 I. 4x2 + 12x + 9 = 0
A. x < y II. y² – 10y + 21 = 0
B. x > y A. If x > y
C. x ≤ y B. If x < y
D. x ≥ y C. If x ≥ y
E. x = y or relationship cannot be established D. If x ≤ y
E. If x = y or relation between x and y cannot be
61. determined.
I. 5x² – 16x + 11 = 0
II. 3y² + 19y + 30 = 0 64.
A. If x > y I. 3x² + 12x + 9 = 0
B. If x < y II. 2y2 – 7y + 6 = 0
C. If x ≥ y A. If x > y
D. If x ≤ y B. If x < y
E. If x = y or relation between x and y cannot be C. If x ≥ y
determined. D. If x ≤ y
E. If x = y or relation between x and y cannot be
62. determined.
I. 2x²+3x – 20=0
II. 5y2 – 3y – 2 = 0 65.
A. If x > y I. x2 – 52x + 667 = 0
B. If x < y II. 2y2 + 20y + 50 = 0
C. If x ≥ y A. If x > y
D. If x ≤ y B. If x < y
Page 42 of 81
C. If x ≥ y 68.
D. If x ≤ y I. x2-4x-437=0,
E. If x = y or relation between x and y cannot be II. y2+12y-589=0
determined. A. x> y
B. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
66. C. x ≥ y
I.3x-15√x+18=0, D. x< y
II. √y =22 E. x ≤ y
A. x> y
B. x ≥ y 69.
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined. I. x2-15x+56=0
D. x< y II. 2y2+11y+12=0
E. x ≤ y A. x < y
B. x ≥ y
67. C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
I. 5x-6y=11, D. x > y
II. 3x-4y=9 E. x ≤ y
A. x< y
B. x ≥ y 70.
C. x> y I. x2+x-8x=187-13x
D. x = y or relationship can’t be determined. II.y2-35y+306=0
E. x ≤ y A. x > y
B. x ≥ y
C. x < y
D. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
E. x ≤ y
Page 43 of 81

1. Answer: C 3. Answer: C
Let, cost prices of article A and article B be Rs.2k CP = 2850 Mp = 5000 Profit = y% Successive
and Rs.3k respectively. discounts = y%, 5%
2k x 156/100 x (100 – p)/100 = 3k x 117/100 x (100 ((100 - y)/100) * ((100 -5)/100) * 5000 =
– p – 10)/100 ((100+y)/100) * 2850
=> 2 x 156 x (100 – p) = 3 x 117 x (90 – p) [(100 - y)/100] * 95/100 * 5000 = (100 + y/100) *
=> 8 x (100 – p) = 9 x (90 – p) 2850
=> 800 – 8p = 810 – 9p (100 - y) = (100+y) * 3/5
=> 9p – 8p = 810 – 800 500 - 5y = 300 + 3y
=> p = 10 8y = 200
3k x 117/100 x (100 – 20)/100 = 561.6 y = 25
=> 3k x 117/100 x 80/100 = 561.6
=> k = 561.6/3 x 100/117 x 100/80 4. Answer: D
=> k = 200 We know that
Cost price of article B = 3k = 3 x 200 = Rs.600 MP x (100 - %D) = CP x (100 + %P)
I.
2. Answer: E LHS = 400 x (100 – 10) = 400 x 90 = 36000
CP = 60x RHS = 300 x (100 + 20) = 300 x 120 = 36000
SP = y LHS = RHS
Profit percentage = [(y – 60x) / 60x] * 100 = (5/3x) * This satisfies the given condition.
(y – 60x) II.
New CP = 60x/100 * 80 = 48x LHS = 400 x (100 – 16) = 400 x 84 = 33600
New SP = y * 140/100 = 7y/5 RHS = 280 x (100 + 20) = 280 x 120 = 33600
New Profit percentage = [(7y/5 – 48x) / (48x)] * 100 LHS = RHS
Required ratio = [5/3x * (y – 60x)]:[[(7y/5 – 48x) / This satisfies the given condition.
(48x)] * 100] III.
We cannot find the answer. LHS = 400 x (100 – 7) = 400 x 93 = 37200
Page 44 of 81
RHS = 320 x (100 + 20) = 320 x 120 = 38400 x = 20

LHS ≠ RHS Now,
This does not satisfy the given condition.
5. Answer: A
Let the dealer cost for 100 kg.
y = 1200
Seller buys goods worth = 1.15 * 100 = 115 kg
Marked price of article Q = 4y = 4 x 1200 = Rs.4800
Seller sells to customer goods worth = 100 * 85/100
= 85 kg
8. Answer: D
Profit = 115 – 85 = 30 kg
Let Harshit has 100 books.
Required % = 30 * 100/85 = 35.29%
And the cost price of each book is = Rs. 100
So, marked price of each book is = 100 × 125/100 =
6. Answer: D
Rs. 125
For the minimum amount, 8 people took both
And selling price of 100 books is = 100 × 100 ×
policies.
108/100 = Rs. 10,800
So, the minimum amount is,
Now, selling price of 35% of 100 = 35 books is = 35
= (14 × 150) + (8 × 26.5) – (8 × 50)
× 125 × 80/100 = Rs. 3500
= 2100 + 212 –400
Selling price of 38% of 100 = 38 books is = 38 ×
= 2312 – 400
125 × 90/100 = Rs. 4275
= Rs. 1912
Now,
Hence, the required answer is = Rs. 1912.
Let Harshit gave x% discount on remaining books =
(100 – 35 – 38) = 27 books
7. Answer: C
So, selling price of 27 books is = 27 × 125 × (100 –
Let the marked price of article P and Q be 3y and
x)/100
4y respectively.
= 3375 × (100 – x)/100
According to question,
Then, according to the question,
= 10,800 = 3500 + 4275 + 3375 × (100 – x)/100
Page 45 of 81
= 10,800 – 3500 – 4275 = 3375 × (100 – x)/100 SP for regular customer = 5x * 85/100 = 17x/4
= 3025/3375 = (100 – x)/100 9x/2 + 17x/4 = 17500
= 0.896 = (100 – x)/100 18x + 17x = 17500 * 4
= x = 100 – 89.6 = 10.4% x = 2000
CP of AC = 4 * 2000 = Rs.8000
9. Answer: D
MP – SP = 400 12. Answer: C
SP – CP = 240 CP of TV = 4x
We cannot find the answer. CP of AC = 4x * 150/100 = 6x
CP of Laptop = 75/100 * 4x = 3x
10. Answer: D SP of TV = 24000
SP of article = 9x CP of TV = 24000 * 100/120 = 20000
MP of article = 10x x = 20000/4 = 5000
Discount = y% CP of AC = 6 * 5000 = 30000
CP of Laptop = 3 * 5000 = 15000
SP of AC = 30000 * 110/100 = 33000
y = 10%
SP of Laptop = 15000 * 115/100 = 17250
Profit percentage = 2 * 10 = 20%
Difference = 33000 – 17250 = Rs.15750
CP * 120/100 = 9x
CP = 7.5x
13. Answer: D
10x – 7.5x = 1000
SP of cycle = 5x
2.5x = 1000
SP of bike = 8x
x = 400
CP of bike = y
CP of article = 400 * 7.5 = Rs.3000
MP of bike = y * 125/100 = 5y/4
5y/4 * 88/100 = y + 2000
11. Answer: D
440y = 400y + 2000 * 400
Let assume, CP of AC = 4x
y =Rs.20000
MP of AC = 4x * 125/100 = 5x
SP of bike = 20000 + 2000 = 22000
SP for new customer = 5x * 90/100 = 9x/2
Page 46 of 81
8x = 22000 x * 10/100 = (9900 – x) * 8/100

x = Rs.2750 10x = 79200 – 8x
SP of cycle = 5 * 2750 = Rs.13750 x = 4400
CP of cycle = 1/2 * 20000 = Rs.10000
Profit = 13750 – 10000 = Rs.3750 Directions (16 - 20):
16. Answer: C
14. Answer: E The average age of students in Class A = 400 *
Let cost price of (SD Card) A =100x (20/100) = 80 years
Selling price of A = Cost price of B =80% of 100x = The average age of boys in class A
80x = > (810 / (360 * 11)) * 440 = 90 years
Selling price of B = Cost price of C = 150% of 80x = The average age of girls in class A = 75 years
120x Boys Girls
Selling price of C = Cost price of D = 115% of 120x
= 138x
138x- 80x =290
58x = 290
x=5
Difference between CP of A and SP of C
= 138x – 100x
-5 : -10
= 38x
=>1:2
= 38*5
The number of students in the class A = 42
= Rs.190
3’s = 42
1’s = 14
15. Answer: B
Total number of girls in class A = 2’s = 28
CP of mobile = x
(Or)
CP of laptop = 9900 – x
Let the total number of girls in class A be x,
SP of laptop = (9900 – x) * 92/100
x * 75 + (42 – x) * 90 = 80 * 42
SP of mobile = x * 110/100
75x + 3780 – 90x = 3360
Page 47 of 81
3780 – 3360 = 15x The average age of girls in class E = 60 years

x = 420/15 = 28 Boys Girls
Total number of girls in class A = 28
17. Answer: A
The total average age of students in class B and D
together
= >400 *((15+10)/100) = 400 * (25/100) = 100 years
The total average age of boys in class C and E
together
=>2:3
= > 440 *[((630/11) + 90)/100] =440 * (1620 / (11 *
The number of students in the class E = 60
360)) = 180 years
5’s = 60
Required difference = 180 – 100 = 80 years
1’s = 12
Total number of girls in class E = 3’s = 36
18. Answer: D
Class F:
The average age of boys in class C
The average age of students in Class F = 400 *
= > (90 / 360) * 440 = 110 years
(14/100) = 56 years
Required % = (110 / 440) * 100 = 25 %
The average age of boys in class F
(Or)
= > (585 / (360 * 11)) * 440 = 65 years
Required Percentage
The average age of girls in class A = 47 years
= > (90 / 360) * 100 = 25 %
Boys Girls
19. Answer: B
Class E:
The average age of students in Class E = 400 *
(16/100) = 64 years
The average age of boys in class E
= > (630 / (360 * 11)) * 440 = 70 years
Page 48 of 81
Number of students who passes the exam = 2100

Number of students who written the exam = 3000 *
80/100 = 2400
Number of students who failed the exam = 2400 –
2100 = 300
22. Answer: C
=>1:1 Number of civil students in A = 10/100 * 10000
The number of girls in the class F = 30 =1000
1’s = 30 Number of civil students who is not participated the
Total number of boys in class F = 1’s = 30 sports event in A
Required sum = 36 + 30 = 66 = 1000 – 750

= 250
20. Answer: C Number of ECE students who not participated the
The average age of boys in class D event in B = 60/100 * 250 = 150
= > (45 / 360) * 440 = 55 years Total number of EEE students in A = 20/100 *
The average age of boys in class B 10000 = 2000
= > (450 / (360 * 11)) * 440 = 50 years Number of EEE students who is not participated the
Required % = (55 / 50) * 100 = 110 % sports event in A
(Or) = 2000 – 1400 = 600
Required % = [45 / (450/11)] * 100 = 110 % Required total = 250 + 150 + 600 = 1000
Directions (21 - 25): 23. Answer: A
21. Answer: D Mech students in A = 15/100 * 10000 = 1500
Total number of CSE students in A = 30/100 * Civil students in B = 15/100 * 14000 = 2100
10000 = 3000 Required percentage = 1500/2100 * 100 = 71.42%
Number of CSE students who left the college =

3000 * 20/100 = 600 24. Answer: A
Page 49 of 81
Number of EEE students in B = 17.5/100 * 14000 = Total number of type Y and type Z products sold by
2450 company (A + E) = (525 + 375 + 270 + 330) = 1500
Number of EEE girls in B = 2450 * 60/100 = 1470 Required % = 2220/1500 x 100 = 148%
Number of Mech students in B = 12.5/100 * 14000
= 1750 27. Answer: C
Number of Mech girls in B = 1750 * 80/100 = 1400 Total number of products sold by the company F =
Number of ECE students in A = 25/100 * 10000 = 350% of (225 + 375) = 2100
2500 Number of type Y products = 1/7 x 2100 = 300
Number of ECE girls in A = 2500 – 900 = 1600 Ratio of type X and type Z = 5:4
Required Ratio = 1470: 1400: 1600 Type Z products = 4/9 x (2100 – 300) = 800
= 147: 140: 160
28. Answer: D
25. Answer: B Total number of products sold by company C in
Required percentage = 25/30 * 100 = 83.33% current year = 720
Total number of product sold by company C in last
Directions (26 - 30): year = 720/125 x 100 = 576
For company A Type X products sold by company E = 360
Total products = 25% of 6000 = 1500 Required % = 576/360 x 100 = 160%
Type Z products sold = 1500 – (600 + 525) = 375
Similarly we can calculate for all companies 29. Answer: B
Sum of type X and type Y products sold by
company (A + B + D) = (600 + 740 + 375 + 525 +
640 + 300) = 3180
Sum of type Z products by company C and E = 120
26. Answer: A + 330 = 450
Total number of products sold by company (A + C) Required % = 3180/450 x 100 = 707%
= 1500 + 720 = 2220
30. Answer: E
Page 50 of 81
Average of type X products sold by company (C + Time for which person E invested his amount in
D) = (225 + 375)/2 = 300 scheme Q = 8% of 25 = 2 years
Average number of type Y products sold by Time for which person F invested his amount in
company (D + E) = (300 + 270)/2 = 285 scheme Q = 16% of 25 = 4 years
Required difference = (300 – 285) = 15
Persons Amount invested in Time for which
Directions (31 - 35): scheme P amount invested
Amount invested by person A in scheme P = in scheme Q
120000 * (36/360) = Rs.12000 A 12000 5
Amount invested by person B in scheme P = B 32000 3
120000 * (96/360) = Rs.32000 C 18000 7
Amount invested by person C in scheme P = D 20000 4
120000 * (54/360) = Rs.18000 E 24000 2
Amount invested by person D in scheme P = F 14000 4
120000 * (60/360) = Rs.20000
Amount invested by person E in scheme P = 31. Answer: B
120000 * (72/360) = Rs.24000 Let amount invested by A in scheme Q is ‘x’
Amount invested by person F in scheme P = respectively.
120000 * (42/360) = Rs.14000 Amount of interest received by A from scheme P
Time for which person A invested his amount in after 3 years = 12000 * [(1.2)3 – 1] = Rs.8736
scheme Q = 20% of 25 = 5 years Amount of interest received by A from scheme Q
Time for which person B invested his amount in after 5 years = (x * 8 * 5)/100 = 8736 – 2336
scheme Q = 12% of 25 = 3 years 0.4x = 6400
Time for which person C invested his amount in x = 16000
scheme Q = 28% of 25 = 7 years Required per cent = (12000/16000) * 100
Time for which person D invested his amount in = 75%
scheme Q = 16% of 25 = 4 years
Page 51 of 81
32. Answer: D Amount of interest received by B from scheme P

Amount invested by B in scheme Q = 187.5% of after 3 years = 32000 * [(1.2)3 – 1] = Rs.23296
32000 = Rs.60000 Amount of interest received by C from scheme P
Amount of interest received by B from scheme Q = after 3 years = 18000 * [(1.2)3 – 1] = Rs.13104
(60000 * 20 * 3)/100 = Rs.36000 Required difference = 23296 – 13104 = Rs.10192
Let time for which B invested his amount in scheme
P is ‘n’ years. 34. Answer: B
Amount of interest received by B from scheme P = Amount of interest earned by D from scheme P
32000 * [(1.25)n – 1] = 128.125% of 36000 = 46125 after 3 years = 20000 * [(1.1)3 – 1] = Rs.6620
(1.25)n – 1 = 46125/32000 = 369/256 Let amount invested by D in scheme Q is ‘x’.
(5/4)n = (369/256) + 1 Amount of interest earned by D from scheme Q
(5/4)n = (625/256) after 4 years = (x * 15 * 4)/100 = 6620 + 2380
(5/4)n = (5/4)4 0.6x = 9000
n = 4 years x = 15000
Total interest amount from both the schemes
33. Answer: A together = 6620 + 9000 = Rs.15620
Let rate of interest offered by scheme P is ‘R%’. Total interest amount if he invested whole amount
Amount of interest received by B from scheme P in scheme Q for 4 years = [(20000 + 15000) * 4 *
after 2 years = 32000 * [(1 + R/100)2 – 1] 15]/100 = Rs.21000
Amount of interest received by C from scheme P Required difference = 21000 – 15620 = Rs.5380
after 2 years = 18000 * [(1 + R/100)2 – 1]
Difference between interest amount = 32000 * [(1 + 35. Answer: D
R/100)2 – 1] – 18000 * [(1 + R/100)2 – 1] = 6160 Let rate of offered by scheme P and Q is ‘P%’ and
14000 * [(1 + R/100)2 – 1] = 6160 ‘Q%’ respectively.
[(1 + R/100)2 – 1] = 0.44 Amount of interest earned by E from scheme Q =
(1 + R/100)2 = 1.44 = (1.2)2 (21000 * Q * 2)/100 = 420Q = 140 * (45/1) = 6300
R/100 = 0.2 Q = 15%
R = 20%
Page 52 of 81
Amount of interest earned by F from scheme P = 33 × 2.5 + 2.5 = 85

14000 * [(1 + P/100)2 – 1] = (1.4P2 + 280P) = 140 * 85 × 3.5 + 3.5 = 301
(44/1) = 6160 301 × 4.5 + 4.5 = 1359
P2 + 200P – 4400 = 0 1359 × 5.5 + 5.5 = 7480
P = 20% and -220 (Not valid) 7480 × 6.5 + 6.5 = 48526.5
Required ratio = P: Q = 20: 15 = 4: 3 Hence, the required answer is = 301.
Directions (36 - 40): 39. Answer: B

36. Answer: B 20 + 22 = 24
5 × 4 + 3 = 23 24 + 42 = 40
23 × 4 + 5 = 97 40 + 62 = 76
97 × 4 + 7 = 395 76 + 82 = 140
395 × 4 + 11 = 1591 140 + 102 = 240
1591 × 4 + 13 = 6377 132 + 122 = 384
6377 × 4 + 17 = 25525 Hence, the required answer is = 384.
Hence, the required answer is = 395.
40. Answer: D
37. Answer: A 25 × 6 + 7 = 157
6 × 2 – (6 ÷ 3) = 9 157 × 5 + 8 = 793
9 × 3 – (9 ÷ 3) = 24 793 × 4 + 9 = 3181
24 × 4 – (24 ÷ 4) = 90 3181 × 3 + 10 = 9553
90 × 5 – (90 ÷ 5) = 432 9553 × 2 + 11 = 19117
432 × 6 – (432 ÷ 6) = 2520 19117 × 1 + 12 = 19129.
2520 × 7 – (2520 ÷ 7) = 17280 Hence, the required answer is = 157.
Hence, the required answer is = 2520.
Directions (41- 45):
38. Answer: E 41. Answer: E
21 × 1.5 + 1.5 = 33 9 + 122 = 153
Page 53 of 81
153 + 112 = 274 The wrong term is 852

274 + 102 = 374
374 + 92 = 455 45. Answer: B
455 + 82 = 519 9 + 17 = 26
The wrong term is 382 26 + 19 = 45
45 + 23 = 68
42. Answer: C 68 + 29 = 97
145 – 11 = 134 97 + 31 = 128
134 + 12 = 146 The wrong term is 25
146 – 13 = 133
133 + 14 = 147 Directions (46 - 50):
147 – 15 = 132 46. Answer: D
The wrong term is 148 5x = (1565 + 800) ÷ 11 + (26)2 + (2/7)*847
5x = (2365/11) + 676 + 242
43. Answer: E 5x = 215 + 676 + 242
21 + (3 * 7) = 42 5x = 1133
42 + (4 * 7) = 70 X = 1133/5
70 + (5 * 7) = 105 X = 227
105 + (6 * 7) = 147
147 + (7 * 7) = 196 47. Answer: A
The wrong term is 115 (4/9)*(63/13)*169 = 13 % of 800 + (2/5)*x
364 = (13/100)*800 = (2x/5)
44. Answer: D 364 – 104 = (2x/5)
1 + 83 = 513 260*(5/2) = x
513 + 73 = 856 x = 650
856 + 63 = 1072
1072 + 53 = 1197 48. Answer: C
1197 + 43 = 1261 (3564/9)/3 × 11 + (13/100)*500 – (17/100)*800 = x
Page 54 of 81
1452 + 65 – 136 = x 53. Answer: C

x = 1381 √729/√x * 64 = √256/52 * 108
27/√x * 64 = 16/25 * 108
49. Answer: B = > x = 625
17 – (x/12) + (3/7)*385 – 42 = 22
17 – (x/12) + 165 – 42 = 22 54. Answer: D
17 + 165 – 42 – 22 = (x/12) 8885.5 + 885.5 – 58.5 – 88.8 = x + 555.7
118 = (x/12) = > x = 9068
X = 118*12 = 1416
55. Answer: C
50. Answer: D 8.33% of 5040 – 16.66% of 2160 = 12x
56 % of 4250 + 12 % of x = 2788 + 152 1/12 * 5040 – 1/6 * 2160 = 12x
(56/100)*4250 + (12/100)*x = 2788 + 225 420 – 360 = 12x
(12/100)*x = 2788 + 225 – 2380 60 = 12x
(12/100)*x = 633 x=5
X = 633*(100/12) = 5275
Directions (56 - 70):
Directions (51 - 55): 56. Answer: B
51. Answer: C x2 – 0.64x + 0.1023 = 0
? = (480/8) - 12 * 5 + 3√343 x2 – 0.33x – 0.31x + 0.1023 = 0
= 60 – 60 + 7 =7 x(x – 0.33) – 0.31(x – 0.33) = 0
x = 0.31, 0.33
52. Answer: B y2 – 0.54y + 0.0644 = 0
902 * 28/11 – 96 * ∛512/3 =? y2 – 0.31y – 0.23y + 0.0713 = 0
82 * 28 – 32 * 8 =? y(y – 0.31) – 0.23(y – 0.31) = 0
2296 – 256 =? y = 0.31, 0.23
2040 =? x≥y
Page 55 of 81
57. Answer: E 60. Answer: A

x2 – x – 132 = 0 2x + y = 28 ---------(1)
x2 – 12x + 11x – 132 = 0 3x + 2y = 45 --------(2)
x(x – 12) + 11(x – 12) = 0 (1) * 2 – (2)
x = 12, -11 x = 11
y2 – 25y + 156 = 0 y = 28 – 22
y2 – 12y – 13y + 156 = 0 y=6
y(y – 12) – 13(y – 12) = 0 x>y
y = 12, 13
x≤y 61. Answer: A
I) 5x² – 16x + 11 = 0
58. Answer: B => 5x2 – 5x – 11x + 11 = 0
x = 92% => 5x(x – 1) – 11(x – 1) = 0
x = 0.92 => (5x – 11)(x – 1) = 0
y2 – 1.06y + 0.1288 = 0 => x = 11/5, 1
y2 – 0.92y – 0.14y + 0.1288 = 0 II) 3y² + 19y + 30 = 0
y(y - 0.92) – 0.14(y – 0.92) = 0 => 3y2 + 9y + 10y + 30 = 0
y = 0.14, 0.92 => 3y(y + 3) + 10(y + 3) = 0
x≥y => (3y + 10)(y + 3) = 0
=> y = -10/3, -3
59. Answer: E Hence, x > y
x3 = 729
x=9 62. Answer: E
y2 – 19y + 90 = 0 I) 2x²+3x – 20=0
y2 – 9y – 10y + 90 = 0 => 2x2 + 8x – 5x – 20 = 0
y(y – 9) – 10(y – 9) = 0 => 2x(x + 4) – 5(x + 4) = 0
y = 9, 10 => (2x – 5)(x + 4) = 0
x≤y => x = 5/2, -4
Page 56 of 81
II) 5y2 – 3y – 2 = 0 => 2y2 – 3y – 4y + 6 = 0

=> 5y2 – 5y + 2y – 2 = 0 =>y(2y – 3) – 2(2y – 3) = 0
=> 5y(y – 1) + 2(y – 1) = 0 => (y – 2)(2y – 3) = 0
=> (5y + 2)(y – 1) = 0 => y = 2, 3/2
=> y = -2/5, 1 Hence, x < y
Hence, relation between x and y cannot be
determined. 65. Answer: A
I) x2 – 52x + 667 = 0
63. Answer: B =>x2 – 23x – 29x + 667 = 0
I) 4x2 + 12x + 9 = 0 =>x(x – 23) – 29(x – 23) = 0
=> 4x2 + 6x + 6x + 9 = 0 => (x – 29)(x – 23) = 0
=>2x(2x + 3) + 3(2x + 3) = 0 => x = 29, 23
=> (2x + 3)(2x + 3) = 0 II) 2y2 + 20y + 50 = 0
=> x = -3/2, -3/2 => 2y2 + 10y + 10y + 50 = 0
II) y² – 10y + 21 = 0 => 2y(y + 5) + 10(y + 5) = 0
=> y2 – 3y – 7y + 21 = 0 => (2y + 10)(y + 5) = 0
=>y(y – 3) – 7(y – 3) = 0 => y = -5, -5
=> (y – 7)(y – 3) = 0 Hence, x > y
=> y = 7, 3
Hence, x < y 66. Answer: D
I->3x-15√x+18=0
64. Answer: B x-5√x +6 =0
I) 3x² + 12x + 9 = 0 x-3√x -2√x+6=0
=> 3x2 + 3x + 9x + 9 = 0 √x(√x-3) -2(√x – 3) =0
=> 3x(x + 1) + 9(x + 1) = 0 (√x-3) (√x-2) =0
=> (3x + 9)(x + 1) = 0 √x = 3,2
=> x = -3, -1 x= 9,4
II) 2y2 – 7y + 6 = 0 II->√y =22
Page 57 of 81
√y =4 From the value of x and y,

y = 16 Relationship can’t be established
From the values of x & y,
x <y 69. Answer: D
x2-15x+56=0
67. Answer: C x2-7x-8x+56=0
5x-6y=11, 3x-4y=9 x(x-7)-8(x-7)=0
By solving this equations we get, (x-7) (x-8)=0
15x – 18y = 33 ------ 1 X=7,8
15x – 20y = 45 -------- 2 2y2+11y+12=0
Subtracting 1 and 2, 2y2+3y+8y+12=0
2y = - 12 2y(y+4)+3(y+4)=0
y=-6 (y+4) (2y+3)=0
15x = 45 – 120 Y= -4, -1.5
x=-5 From the values of x&Y
Therefore x > y x>y

x2-4x-437=0 x2+x-8x=187-13x
x2-23x+19x-437=0 x2-7x-187+13x=0
x(x-23) +19(x-23)=0 x2+6x-187=0
(x-23) (x+19) =0 x2+17x-11x-187=0
x=23,-19 x(x+17)-11(x+17)=0
y2+12y-589=0 (x+17) (x-11)=0
y2+31y-19y-589=0 X=11, -17
y(y+31) -19(y+31)=0 y2-35y+306=0
(y+31) (y-19) =0 y2-17y-18y+306=0
y= -31,19 y(y-17)-18(y-17)=0
Page 58 of 81
(y-17) (y-18) =0 x<y

Y=17,18
From the values of x&y
English Language
Directions (1-5): In the following passage some of uncertainty, and smaller firms prioritized survival.
words are highlighted. Below the passage five Across the real economy, every single industry and
options are given for each blank given. Select services sector shrank with the solitary exception of
inappropriate word which is not suitable for the agriculture, which grew 3.4% and outpaced the year
sentence. earlier quarter’s 3% expansion. Construction
The inevitable has happened. India’s GDP suffered suffered the most, plunging 50%, followed by the
its steepest contraction on record in the April-June omnibus services category — trade, hotels,
quarter, as output shrank 23.9% from a year earlier, communication, transport and broadcasting —
provisional data show. It is evident that the stringent which shrank 47%, hit by the pandemic-linked
COVID-19 lockdowns in force through the first third restrictions. Manufacturing too took a severe
of the quarter, and substantially in May, beating, contracting 39% as demand for products
followed out demand. Private consumption deemed non-essential evaporated, and factories,
spending, which accounts for almost 60% of GDP, even after reopening, struggled to run amid
contracted 26.7% as consumers relinquished shortages of labour and added safety norms.
almost all discretionary spending. And exports, 1. Which of the following is inappropriate for the
which contribute to a fifth of GDP and reflect word “contraction”?
overseas demand for Indian goods and services, A.Diminution
shrank by nearly 20%. Investment activity was the B.Compression
worst-hit, collapsing 47% and shrinking in share of C.Augmentation
GDP to about 22% from 32% a year earlier as D.Squeeze
larger businesses conserved cash E.None of these
and abstained from any capital spending in the face
Page 59 of 81
2. Which of the following is inappropriate for the C.Stipulates

word “followed”? D.Designates
A. Fomented E.None of these
B. Culminated
C. Stemmed Directions (6-10): The sentences given below may
D. Propagated contain error(s) and arrange them with logical
E. None of these meaning. One of the given parts contains error. So
choose the correct arrangement of word and
3. Which of the following is inappropriate for the identify the error part from the options.
word “relinquished”? 6. Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation
A. Defended (GHMC) has been (A)/ The Urban Community
B. Renounced Development (UCD) wing in the (B)/ with shelter
C.Abandoned homes close by and provide them access to basic
D.Abdicated health services. (C)/ making efforts to map the
E.None of these homeless in the city D)
A. BADC, B
4. Which of the following is inappropriate for the B. BADC, A
word “abstained”? C. ABCD, B
A.Embraced D. ACBD, C
B.Constrained E. No error
C.Evaded
D.indulge 7.provide them with nutritious food and other
E.None of these facilities under the scheme(A)/ the process is on to
tag them to the (B)/ Integrated Child Development
5. Which of the following is inappropriate for the Services (ICDS) so as to (C)/ In case for homeless
word “demand”? mothers with children in tow(D)
A.Contracts A.BACD, C
B.Rebuttal B. DBCA, D
Page 60 of 81
C. ABDC, C to provide them (B)/ tagged with primary health

D.DCAB, B centres, urban primary health centres
E.No error and (C)/ besides, all the 118 homes has already
been (D)
8. 118 homes give shelter to more than(A)/ all A. DCBA, D
provide free services to the destitute (B)/ It have B. ABCD, B
emerged during the survey that these , (C)/ about C. DCBA, B
6,000 inmates, and except four or five (D) D. DCBA, B
A.CADB, C E.No error
B. CBDA, D
C. BACD, A Directions (11-15): In each question below, four
D. BCDA, B words printed in bold type are given. These are
E.No error numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D). Oneof these words
printed in bold might either be wrongly spelt or
9. in the city across the circles. Already, the inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find
functional shelter homes been(A)/ identified a total out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if
of 1,562 persons living on the streets (B)/ In a any. The number of the word is your answer. If the
recent conducted survey, the UCD wing freshly words printed in bold are correctly spelt and
(C)/ run under the GHMC are housing close to 500 appropriate in the context of the sentence then
homeless persons. (D) mark (E), i.e. 'All Correct', as your answer.
A. BCAD.C 11. China has lodged starn representations to the
B. BACD, B United States, (A)/ Foreign Ministry spokesman
C.CBAD, C Geng Shuang said at a daily
D. CABD, A news conference, (B)/ demanding the US respect
E. No error facts (C)/ and correctly view
China's religious policies (D)/
10. Access to basic healthcare services(A)/ Basti A. Starn
Dawakhanas (neighbourhood clinics) in the vicinity B. Conference
Page 61 of 81
C. Demanding 14. It must be considered that the zone is extremely

D. Religious difficult to access (A)/ and that it is an area of
E. All correct great richness of marine mammals, like whales and
dolphins, (B)/ which could see themselves seriously
12. Chinese people of all ethnic groups enjoy full affected in their habbitat given that (C)/ when
freedom of (A)/ religious belief in acordance with coming to the surface to breathe they could meet
the law, (B)/ Geng said, adding that the Chinese this layer of oil (D)
government also protects its A. Considered
citizens' freedom (C)/ of religious belief B. Richness
and related rights according to law (D)/ C. Habbitat
A. Ethnic D. Breathe
B. Acordance E. All correct
C. Freedom 15. The terror group says its aim is to impose
D. Related a stricter enforcement (A)/of Sharia law across
E. All correct Africa's most populist nation, (B)/which
is split between a majority Muslim north (C)/and
13.This is the second call between the two sides a mostly Christian south(D)/
since (A)/ the G20 Summit concluded in Japan in A. Stricter
late June, (B)/ during which time both China and the B. Populist
US agreed to restart economic (C)/ and C. Split
trade consultations based on equality and mutual D. Mostly
respect (D)/ E. All correct
A. between
B. Concluded Directions (16-20): Choose the option which when
C. Economic used to start a sentence combines both the given
D. Consultations sentence into meaningful single sentence without
E. All correct changing the conveyed meaning.
16.
Page 62 of 81
(1). Cost-Push inflation is touching 40 percent in (1) She was a young actress.
India. (2) She always had Hollywood film in her sights.
(2). The government will have to make strict (i) Even as a young actress …
monetary policies to prevent further surge. (ii) Even after a young actress …
i) Although Cost-Push inflation is………… (iii) Even now she is a young actress …
ii) With the making of strict monetary A. Only (i) is correct
policies………. B. Only (ii) is correct
iii) given that Cost-Push inflation…… C. Both (i) and (ii) are correct
A. Only i D. Both (i) and (iii) are correct
B. Only ii E. All are correct
C. Only iii
D. Both i and ii
E. Both ii and iii 19)
(1) She is a big star.
17. (2) She is very approachable.
(1) A team won the title. (i) Despite being a big star …
(2) Their last campaign ended in great (ii) Being a big star …
disappointment. (iii) As she is a big star…
(i) Despite winning the title … A. Only (i) is correct
(ii) Though a team won the title … B. Only (ii) is correct
(iii) Since a team won the title … C. Both (i) and (ii) are correct
A. Only (i) is correct D. Both (i) and (iii) are correct
B. Only (ii) is correct E. All are correct
C. Both (i) and (ii) are correct
D. Both (i) and (iii) are correct 20)
E. All are correct (1) Experts try to understand how mammoths
responded to their changing environment
18.
Page 63 of 81
(2) Experts hope to gain insight into why the giant C. Both (i) and (ii) are correct
mammals went extinct. D. Both (i) and (iii) are correct
(i) With the understanding of how mammoths … E. All are correct
(ii) By understanding how mammoths …
(iii) Though the understanding of how mammoths …
A. Only (i) is correct
B. Only (ii) is correct
Directions (1-5): Directions (6-10):

1. Answer: C 6. Answer: A
Compression, Diminution, Squeeze – Contraction Part B has an error. The correct form of preposition
Augmentation - increase to be used here should be ‘of’ instead of ‘in’.
The Urban Community Development (UCD) wing
2. Answer: B of the Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation
Culminated – ended (GHMC) has been making efforts to map the
Stemmed, propagated, Fomented -Followed homeless in the city with shelter homes close by
and provide them access to basic health services.
3. Answer: A
Renounced, abandoned, abdicated – relinquished 7. Answer: B
Defended - protect Part B has an error. The correct form of preposition
to be used here should be ‘of’ instead of ‘for’.
4. Answer: D In case for homeless mothers with children in
Constrained, Evaded- Abstained tow, the process is on to tag them to the Integrated
Child Development Services (ICDS) so as
5. Answer: B to provide them with nutritious food and other
Stipulate, Designate, Contracts – Demand facilities under the scheme, she said.
Rebuttal – denial
8. Answer: A
Page 64 of 81
Part C has an error. For a singular entity, ‘has’ 11. Answer: A

should be used instead of have’. China has lodged stern representations to the
It has emerged during the survey that these 118 United States, Foreign Ministry spokesman Geng
homes give shelter to more than about 6,000 Shuang said at a daily news conference,
inmates, and except four or five, all provide free demanding the US respect facts and correctly views
services to the destitute. China's religious policies.
9. Answer: C 12. Answer: B

Part C has an error. Use ‘recently’ instead of Chinese people of all ethnic groups enjoy full
‘recent’. freedom of religious belief in accordance with the
In a recently conducted survey, the UCD wing law, Geng said, adding that the Chinese
freshly identified a total of 1,562 persons living on government also protects its citizens' freedom of
the streets in the city across the circles. Already, religious belief and related rights according to law.
the functional shelter homes been run under the
GHMC are housing close to 500 homeless 13. Answer: E
persons. This is the second call between the two sides since
the G20 Summit concluded in Japan in late June,
10. Answer: A during which time both China and the US agreed to
Part D is the erroneous part of the sentence. For a restart economic and trade consultations based on
plural entity, uses ‘have been’ instead of ‘has been’. equality and mutual respect
Besides, all the 118 homes have already
been tagged with primary health centres, urban 14. Answer: C
primary health centres and BastiDawakhanas It must be considered that the zone is extremely
(neighbourhood clinics) in the vicinity to provide difficult to access and that it is an area of great
them access to basic healthcare services, the richness of marine mammals, like whales and
official informed. dolphins, which could see themselves seriously
affected in their habitat given that when coming to
Directions (11-15):
Page 65 of 81
the surface to breathe they could meet this layer of Though a team won the title, their last campaign
oil. ended in great disappointment
15. Answer: B 18) Answer: A

The terror group says its aim is to impose a stricter Only (i) is correct.
enforcement of Sharia law across Africa's Even as a young actress, she always had
most populous nation, which is split between a Hollywood firmly in her sights.
majority Muslim north and a mostly Christian south.
19) Answer: A
Directions (16-20): Only (i) is correct.
16) Answer- C Despite being a big star, she's very approachable.
Only starter third can be used to frame the
meaningful sentence. 20) Answer: C
iii) Given that Cost-Push inflation is touching 40 Both (i) and (ii) are correct
percent in India, the government will have to make By understanding/ with the understanding of how
strict monetary policies to prevent further surge. mammoths responded to their changing
environment, experts hope to gain insight to why
17) Answer: C the giant mammals went extinct
Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Despite winning the title, their last campaign ended
in great disappointment.
General Awareness
1. International Day of Zero Tolerance to Female B) February 3
Genital Mutilation is observed on which of the following C) February 6

date? D) February 15
A) February 1 E) February 11
Page 66 of 81
A) Mobikwik
2. Which of the following country will build the world's B) Cashfree
first energy island in the North Sea? C) Freecharge
A) Israel D) Paypal
B) France E) Razorpay
C) Germany
D) Sweden 6. The Government of which state has approved the
E) Denmark implementation of the Water Conservation Programme?

A) Bihar
3. Which of the following company will launch a fighter B) Maharashtra
jet? C) Kerala
A) BEML D) UP
B) HAL E) MP
C) BEL
D) BDL 7. Which of the following country will build the World’s
E) DRDO Largest Offshore Wind Farm?
A) Iceland
4. Which of the following state will get its first human B) Sweden
milk bank? C) Germany

A) Bihar D) France
B) Haryana E) South Korea
C) Gujarat
D) Kerala 8. Which state has launched the 'SAANS' campaign to
E) Madhya Pradesh reduce infant mortality?
A) Uttar Pradesh
5. Which company will shut its domestic payment B) Punjab
services in India from April 1? C) Bihar
Page 67 of 81
D) Madhya Pradesh 12. Who among the following has been Re-Appointed
E) Haryana as United Nations Climate Envoy?
A) Arnie Frank
9. RBI has decided to set up an expert committee for B) Stein Lockhardt
which of the following bank? C) Keller Mark

A) SCBs D) Ana Hana
B) RRBs E) Michael Bloomberg
C) Urban co-operatives
D) Small Finance 13. India-US joint military exercise ‘Yudh Abhyas 20’
E) Payment has recently commenced in which state?
A) Karnataka
10. Who among the following is set to Become W.T.O.’s B) Chhattisgarh
First Female Leader? C) Kerala
A) Charles Soludo D) Rajasthan

B) Uzodinma Iweala E) Gujarat
C) Ikemba Iweala
D) Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala 14. Budget 2021: What is the Agricultural credit target
E) Yoo Myung-hee set at Rs. _____ lakh crore for FY22.
A) 11.5
11. Which organization has decided to set up a 24x7 B) 16.5
helpline for digital payment services? C) 12.5
A) SEBI D) 14.5
B) SIDBI E) 13.5
C) ICICI
D) RBI 15. India's first geothermal power project will be

E) NABARD established at Puga village of which UT?
A) Chandigarh
Page 68 of 81
B) Puducherry E) Joe Root

C) Daman & Diu
D) Ladakh 19. Which team has won the 13th CEC Cup Ice Hockey
E) Delhi Championship?
A) Lal Bagh Blue

16. Which of the following has become the first State to B) Sonmarg Blue
implement e-cabinet? C) Drass Red
A) Uttar Pradesh D) Kargil Blue

B) Haryana E) Jammu Green
C) Punjab
D) Rajasthan 20. India’s First Thunderstorm Research Testbed will

E) Himachal Pradesh be established at Balasore in which state?
A) Haryana
17. Which state government has decided to set up B) Uttar Pradesh

Indian Institute of Skills? C) Karnataka
A) Nagaland D) Odisha
B) Assam E) Kerala
C) Gujarat
D) Haryana 21. The Government of which state has announced the

E) Kerala 16-Digit Unicode To Identify Landholdings?
A) Punjab
18. Who among the following has become the first B) Kerala
batsman to score 200 in 100th Test? C) Chhattisgarh
A) Time Paine D) Haryana
B) Steve Smith E) Uttar Pradesh

C) Rohit Sharma
D) Virat Kohli
Page 69 of 81
22. Which of the following armed forces has Inducted a A) Punjab

Women Commandos Into Elite Anti-Naxal CoBRA Unit? B) Chandigarh
A) ITBP C) Delhi
B) CRPF D) Kerala
C) CISF E) Uttar Pradesh

D) RPF
E) RAF 25. Who among the following has been voted ICC
Player of the Month for January 2021?

23. The chief minister of which state has launched A) Pat Cummins
organic products and Loumiconnect App? B) Meg Lanning
A) Punjab C) Georgia Wareham

B) Chhattisgarh D) Rishab Pant
C) Karnataka E) Virat Kohli
D) Manipur
E) Kerala
24. Which state/UT Cabinet has approved the

'Mukhyamantri Vigyan Pratibha Pariksha'' Scholarship
Scheme?

1) Answer: C It is a United Nations-sponsored annual awareness day
Every Year on Feb 06, International Day of Zero to eradicate female genital mutilation (FGM).
Tolerance for Female Genital Mutilation is Observed.
It was first held in 2003. 2) Answer: E
Theme of 2021is No time for global inaction: unite, fund The Denmark to build world's first energy island in the
and act to end FGM/C North Sea
Page 70 of 81
The €28 billion construction project is the biggest of its Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) unveiled a leap in
kind in Danish history. The government will hold a 51% technology of teaming up unmanned aircraft and
stake in the island, with the remainder held by the vehicles with manned jets similar to the US project of
private sector. skyborg.
In that Initial phase will be the size of 18 football fields, It will enhance Indian military strike capabilities
will be linked to hundreds of offshore wind turbines and The technology named Combined Air Teaming System
will supply both power to households and green (CATS) will have a mother ship, operating from faraway,
hydrogen for use in shipping, aviation, industry and and four autonomous unmanned aerial vehicles known
heavy transport. as CATS Warrior.
It will cost around 210 billion Danish crowns ($33.9 HAL is also developing a high-altitude satellite system. It
billion) to build, and is an important part of Denmark's will be solar energised.

legally binding target to cut greenhouse gas emissions This asset will be flying unmanned around 70,000 feet
by 70% by 2030 from 1990 levels, one of the world's height for around two to three months and will be taking
most ambitious. all the information.

The move came as the European Union unveiled plans HAL is also developing a high altitude asset with long
to transform its electricity system to rely mostly on endurance. It will be flying 50,000 feet for 24 hours and it
renewable energy within a decade and increase its is also part of CATS programme.
offshore wind energy capacity 25-fold by 2050.
The island, to be located 80 kilometres off Denmark's 4) Answer: D

west coast, and its surrounding wind turbines will have The southern state of Kerala will get its first human milk
an initial capacity of 3 gigawatt and be operational bank. The state-of-the-art facility will be inaugurated by
around 2033. health minister K K Shailaja at state-owned Ernakulam

Denmark also has plans for an energy island in the general hospital in Kochi.
Baltic Sea. The state will hold a controlling stake in both It is being set up in partnership with Rotary Club of
islands. Cochin Global.
3) Answer: B
Page 71 of 81
The facility will provide breast milk to newborn babies platform PayPal to facilitate international payments for
who are deprived of it because of various issues, small businesses and freelancers.
including the sickness of their mothers.
According to the state government, 3,600 babies are 6) Answer: B
born in the general hospital a year and out of those, 600 The Maharashtra Cabinet approved the implementation
to 1,000 sick babies are admitted into the Neonatal of the Chief Minister Water Conservation Programme,
intensive care unit (NICU). costing Rs.1,340.75 crore.
A similar milk bank - the Northeast's first - opened at Under the programme, water sources would be repaired,
Guwahati's Satribari Christian Hospital in December last which will enhance the State’s irrigation capacity.
year. The period of the programme is from April 2020 to
It was the 15th milk bank in the entire country March 2023,
The California-based global digital payment platform South Korea unveiled a 48.5 trillion won ($43.2 billion)
PayPal has announced that the company has decided to plan to build the world’s largest wind power plant by
wind down its domestic payment services in India with 2030 as part of efforts to foster an environmentally-
effect from April 01, 2021. friendly recovery from the COVID-19 pandemic.
The US-based company will instead focus on enabling The project is a major component of President Moon
more international sales for Indian businesses. Jae-in’s Green New Deal, initiated last year to curb
Moreover,the global customer will be able to pay Indian reliance on fossil fuels in Asia’s fourth-largest economy
merchants using Paypal. and make it carbon neutral by 2050
Paypal was one of the payment options on platforms like Moon attended a signing ceremony in the southwestern
ticketing services BookMyShow, MakeMyTrip, and food coastal town of Sinan for the plant, which will have a
delivery platform Swiggy. maximum capacity of 8.2 gigawatts.
Earlier in December 2020, Financial solutions provider The plan is part of the country’s Green New Deal that
Razorpay had partnered with global digital payments seeks to transition South Korea to a more sustainable
energy future.
Page 72 of 81
It is accelerating the eco-friendly energy transition and UNICEF, which will be used to enhance the skills of
moving more vigorously toward carbon neutrality. health workers, including doctors and paramedical staff
The estimated cost of the project is 48.5 trillion won
($43.2 billion). 9) Answer: C
The project would provide up to 5,600 jobs and help The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to set up
achieve a goal to boost the country’s wind power an expert committee on Urban Co-operative Banks
capacity to 16.5 GW by 2030 from 1.67 GW now. (UCBs) involving all stakeholders in order to provide a
Till date, the world’s largest offshore wind farm is medium-term road map to strengthen the sector, enable
Hornsea 1 in Britain, which has 1.12 GW capacity. faster rehabilitation/resolution of UCBs, as well as
examine other critical aspects relating to these entities.
8) Answer: D This follows the provisions of the Banking Regulation

The health department in Madhya Pradesh has (Amendment) Act, 2020 becoming applicable to Primary
launched the Social Awareness and Action to Neutralise (Urban) Co-operative Banks (UCBs) with effect from
Pneumonia Successfully (‘SAANS’) campaign with the June 26, 2020.

aim of reducing infant mortality due to pneumonia. The amendments have brought near parity in regulatory
Purpose : and supervisory powers between UCBs and commercial
To reduce the death rate due to pneumonia among banks in respect of regulatory powers, including those
infants a strategy is being chalked out under the Social related to governance, audit and resolution.
awareness campaign in which medical staff is being The constitution of the committee as well as the terms of
trained. reference will be notified separately by the RBI.
Training will be imparted at the community and primary
health centres. 10) Answer: D

Around 4,000 Health and Wellness Centres have been Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala, an economist and former finance
set up in Madhya Pradesh for this purpose. minister of Nigeria, appears set to become the next
The State government has also developed training director general of the World Trade Organization.
modules in partnership with PGIMER, Chandigarh, and She would be the first woman and the first African
national to lead the organization.
Page 73 of 81
Dr. Okonjo-Iweala served twice as Nigeria’s finance available grievance redress mechanisms by September
minister, spent 25 years at the World Bank as a 2021.
development economist and now is the chairwoman of RBI has decided to move beyond the aggregator model
the Center for Global Development, according to the and provide retail investors online access to the
center’s website. government securities market along with the facility to

She is the former finance minister of Nigeria, succeeding open their gilt securities account.
Roberto Azevedo, who stepped down in August 2020.
12) Answer: E
11) Answer: D United Nations Secretary-General Antonio Guterres re-
RBI has announced certain measures of protection of appointed Michael Bloomberg as his Special Envoy on
common bank account holders in the Monetary policy Climate Ambition and Solutions.
statement. About Bloomberg :
It includes setting up of 24*7 helpline for digital payment Bloomberg was first appointed UN special envoy on
services, integrated ombudsman scheme, CTS across cities and climate change in 2014 by UN Secretary-
all bank branches and allowing retail investors to open General Ban Ki-moon.
Gilt accounts with RBI. Bloomberg would work with governments, companies,
Reports that the government is encouraging various cities, and financial institutions to ensure they pledge to
modes of digital payments. cut emissions and commit to net-zero before 2050.
The helpline will, in addition to building trust and Bloomberg has previously been appointed to U.N.
confidence, also reduce expenditure on both financial climate envoy positions in 2014 and 2018.
and human resources, otherwise incurred for addressing Bloomberg will be global ambassador for the campaigns
queries and grievances. "Race to Zero" and "Race to Resilience," which rally
The major payment system operators would be required businesses, cities, and investors to mobilize climate
to facilitate setting-up of a centralised industry-wide 24x7 action.
helpline for addressing customer queries in respect of Bloomberg is the founder and owner of Bloomberg LP,
various digital payment products and give information on the parent company of Bloomberg News.
Page 74 of 81
He would also work to mobilise stronger and more

ambitious climate action in the lead-up to 2021 United 14) Answer: B
Nations Climate Change conference in Scotland in With the aim of doubling farmers’ income by 2022,
November 2021. Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced that
the agricultural credit target was set at Rs.16.5 lakh

13) Answer: D crore for FY22, during Union Budget 2021.
The India-US joint military exercise "Yudh Abhyas 20" It is an increase of 10 percent over the previous year Rs
commenced in Mahajan Field Firing Range of Bikaner 15 Lakh Crore

district in Rajasthan. She also announced that the micro irrigation fund would
This is the 16th edition of annual bilateral joint exercise be doubled by Rs.5,000 crore. Operation green scheme
of both the armies. will be expanded to include 22 perishable schemes.

It will continue till the 21st of this month. Agriculture infra fund to be increased to Rs.40,000 crore
The previous version of the joint exercise was held at and this will be available to APMCs.
Seattle in the United States. 1,000 more mandis will be integrated with the electronic
About 250 US and 250 Indian army soldiers are national market (e-NAM) to enhance the infrastructure of
participating in the exercise. Both the armies will share APMCs.
their war-related techniques, skills and experience with
each other during this exercise. 15) Answer: D
The exercise is one of the largest military training and India's first geothermal power project will be established
defense cooperation efforts between India and the at Puga village of eastern Ladakh. Puga has been
United States. identified as the hotspot of geothermal energy in the
This exercise is another step in the growing military country by the scientists.
cooperation between the two countries, which shows the In the first phase of the pilot project, one megawatt (MW)
growth in Indo-US relations. power generation capacity will be generated.
It is also a sign that both India and the US understand A tripartite Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for
the threat of terrorism and are standing shoulder to establishment and implementation of the first phase was
shoulder in combating the same. signed.
Page 75 of 81
India's first ever geothermal power project, known as The entire process from initiation of a cabinet memo,
Geothermal Field Development Project is planned to approval of the cabinet memo through concerned
commission by the end of 2022. The tripartite MOU was Secretary, Chief Secretary, concerned Minister and
signed between ONGC Energy, LAHDC, Leh and the finally by Chief Minister to place in the cabinet has been
Power Department of UT Ladakh. made online.

In the first phase, the pilot project implemented by the It will also be possible to monitor the status of
ONGC-OEC will explore within the depth of 500 metres implementation of cabinet decisions more effectively
and it is planned to supply 24 hours free power to 10 through this application.

neighbouring villages which are not connected with the The e-cabinet provides for generation of automatic s
northern grid for power supply. through SMS on real time basis for various stages
The second Phase is proposed for deeper and lateral involved in processing cabinet issues like receipt of
exploration of geothermal reservoirs by drilling optimal cabinet memo, finalization of cabinet meeting, advice
number of wells and setting up of a higher capacity received on cabinet memo for various levels like
demo plant in Ladakh. The second phase will be the Secretaries and Ministers.
Research and Development stage or demonstration of The e-cabinet application is also available as a Mobile
the project. App on android devices .
In the third phase, it is planned to promote joint ventures The new system will bring greater efficiency in the
and commercial projects. Puga is a place where it is overall process of conducting a cabinet meeting by
uncovered with a potential of more than 100 mw of removing dependencies which arise due to the physical
geothermal energies. movement of cabinet memos.
16) Answer: E 17) Answer: C

Himachal Pradesh has become the first State in the In Gujarat, the State Government has asked the Tata
country to make the end to end processing of the group to start the work on setting up Indian Institute of
cabinet paperless by implementing e-cabinet application. Skills- IIS.

Chief Minister Jai Ram Thakur inaugurated the first e-
cabinet at Shimla.
Page 76 of 81
This was conveyed during a meeting between the high individual score playing the 100th Test match of his
powered team from Tata Group and senior officials of career. Inzamam had hit 184 against India in a Test
Gujarat Government held in Gandhinagar. match in Bengaluru in 2005, which Pakistan had won by
IIS is being set up by the Labour and Employment 168 runs.
Department of Gujarat along with Tata Group at Nasmed His record stood for 15 years before being broken by
village of Gandhinagar. Root, who reached his double-century with a six off R
The State Government has allotted around 20 acres of Ashwin, the second time he hit the off-spinner over the
land for Tatas to start Indian Institute of Skills. ropes.

The foundation stone for the proposed IIS at Nasmed
was performed by Union Home Minister Amit Shah who 19) Answer: C
is also Lok Sabha Member from Gandhiagar In Kargil Ladakh, Drass Red has won the 13th CEC Cup
constituency in Gujarat. Proposed IIS at Nasmed is Ice Hockey Championship beating Hockey Club Chiktan
located in Gandhinagar Lok Sabha constituency. team in the Final match.
The institute is being developed on a Not-for-profit The 1st Women CEC Ice Hockey Cup 2021 was lifted by
Public Private Partnership mode by the Tata Group Shakar Chiktan Team defeating Wakha Mulbekh Team.
along with the state’s Labour and Employment 32 Men teams and 5 Women Teams participated in the
Department. tournament which was organized by the District Youth
Services & Sports.
18) Answer: E
Joe Root, the England captain, sent India on a leather 20) Answer: D
hunt, becoming the first player in history to score a Odisha's Balasore will get the country's first
double century in his 100th Test match. thunderstorm research testbed, the India Meteorological
Root, who was unbeaten on 128 overnight, batted on Department (IMD).
against India on Day 2 in Chennai and notched up the The objective of setting up the thunderstorm testbed is
fifth double century of his career – second in three Tests. to minimize human fatalities and loss of property due to
In the process, Root also surpassed former Pakistan lightning strikes.
captain Inzamam-Ul-Haq as the player with the highest
Page 77 of 81
The thunderstorm testbed will be established in a The work has started in most of the districts.
collaboration between the Ministry of Earth Sciences, Every piece of land in the state will have its own unique
IMD, Defence Research and Development Organisation identity from now onwards that would check cases of
(DRDO) and Indian Space Research Organisation land disputes and save people from falling into the trap
(ISRO). of fraudsters.
IMD Director-General Dr Mrutyunjay Mohapatra, while While the Unicode assessment for plots has started in all
speaking with a private television channel, also revealed revenue villages, the work of marking the disputed plots
that a first-of-its-kind monsoon testbed is also being in the computerised management system is being done
planned near Bhopal. by the revenue courts
21) Answer: E 22) Answer: B

The Uttar Pradesh government has introduced a system Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) inducted women
of issuing a unique 16-digit Unicode to mark all kinds of commandos in its anti-Naxal Commando Battalion for
landholdings in the state. Resolute Action (CoBRA) unit which will undergo
About the 16 Digit Unicode: training and then will be sent to Naxal-hit areas.
The Unicode number of the land will be 16 digits with the These 34 women personnel were inducted in the elite
first six digits based on the population of the land, the CoBRA wing during the 35th Raising Day of the force’s
next 4 digits determining the unique identity of the land. 88th Mahila Battalion, the first all-women battalion in the
The digits from 11 to 14 will be the number of the world.

division of the land. According to the CRPF, on the occasion of the 88th all-
The last 2 digits will have the details of the category, women battalion Raising Day, these women
through which, the agricultural, residential and commandos have been inducted along with the
commercial land will be identified. introduction of all Mahila brass bands which will make
Purpose of the Digit Unicode: CRPF the first force to have a women brass band.
The Unicode will put an end to fake registries of disputed The 34 women personnel from the 6 Mahila Battalions of
land and the scheme is being implemented across the CRPF who are joining the COBRA, will undergo a
state.
Page 78 of 81
strenuous CoBRA pre-induction training of 3 months, submitted a INR400 crore project proposal for bamboo
before being sent to Naxal-hit areas of the country. to the union government.
Taking another step towards women empowerment, the
88th Mahila battalion of CRPF has the distinction of 24) Answer: C
being the first all-Mahila battalion in the world. The Delhi cabinet approved ''Mukhyamantri Vigyan
Pratibha Pariksha'' in which Rs 5,000 will be provided to
23) Answer: D Rs 1,000 meritorious students of Class 9 in schools of
Manipur chief minister N Biren Singh launched a new Delhi as a science scholarship.
range of packaged organic products and Loumi Connect The scholarship will provide a boost to science
App apart from distributing Bolero Camper vehicles and education in secondary classes at the school level.
nurseries to seven Farmers Producer Companies According to the release, the students studying in Delhi
(FPCs). schools who have secured more than 60 percent in
A function organized jointly by Directorate of Horticulture Class 8 are eligible for the examination. Students
and Soil Conservation and Eastern Border Areas belonging to SC, ST, PH, or OBC category will be given
Development Authority (EBADA) at the Chief Minister’s a relaxation of up to 5 percent of marks.
Secretariat in Imphal. In Addition to that The cabinet approved procurement of
He also launched Loumi Connect App which would close to 1200 computers, multi-functional printers, and
enable connect farmers with Horticulture and Agriculture UPSs for all the schools, branch offices, and district
experts. offices under the education department.

The chief minister also released Illustrative guide
booklets on organic farming and Mission Organic Value 25) Answer: D
Chain Development for North Eastern Region The International Cricket Council (ICC) announced the
(MOVCDNER). winners of the inaugural ICC Player of the Month
The chief minister also informed that Food Park, Awards which recognise and celebrate the best
Nilakuthi, will have a packaging facility soon. He also performances from both male and female cricketers
informed that the state government has already across all forms of international cricket throughout the
year.
Page 79 of 81
India’s Rishabh Pant won the ICC Men’s Player of the Pant has been honored for his superlative performances
Month for January 2021 for his performances in the two in the two Tests against Australia in January 2020,
Tests against Australia where he scored a 97 at Sydney wherein he scored a 97 at Sydney and an unbeaten 89
and an unbeaten 89 at Brisbane that led India to a at Brisbane, leading India to an incredible series win.
historic series win against arch-rivals Australia.

South Africa’s Shabnim Ismail was named the ICC
Women’s Player of the Month for January 2021 for her
performances across three ODIs and two T20Is during

the month.
Ismail took seven wickets in the victorious ODI series
against Pakistan, before taking five wickets in the

second T20I against the same opposition.
Page 80 of 81
Page 81 of 81
Page 1 of 81
Reasoning Ability
Direction (1-4): Answer the questions based on the D.Southwest

information given below. E.None of these
A person regularly walks for a certain distance. He
3. If the person walks at 3m per minute, then when
initially starts his walk towards east and walks for
will he complete the journey if the person starts the
4m and then takes a left turn to walk for a distance
journey at 8.45 am?
of 5m. He then turns to his right and walks for
A. 9 am
double the distance he just walked previously and
B. 9.10 am
then takes a right turn again. He walks straight for
C. 9.07 am
15m and turns to his right again and walks 1m less
D. 9.05 am
than just his previous distance. Then he takes a
E.None of these
right turn and walks for 5m and again turns to his
right to walk for 2m more than just his previous
4. What is the approximate shortest distance
distance and stops.
between the initial and the final points?
1. What is the total distance covered by the
A.8m
person?
B.7m
A.58m
C.8.6m
B.60m
D.9.5m
C.64m
E. 6m
D.56m
E.None of these
2. If the person walks 8m towards the north at the
On one fine morning, a person stands in the ground
final point, then in which direction is he from the
at point L such that the shadow of the person falls
initial point?
to his left. He walks for 3m straight to reach point T
A.East
and turns to his right to walk for 6m to reach point
B.Northeast
Q. He then walks 4m to reach point M after taking a
C.Northwest
Page 2 of 81
left turn. At point M, he takes a left turn to walk for D.5m

10m to reach point O from where he takes a right E.8m
turn and walks 7m to reach point S. He then walks
8. In which of the following direction is point P with
8m to reach point R after taking a right turn and
respect to point Q?
then walks 9m towards his right to reach point P.
A. West
Finally he takes a left turn and walks for 5m to
B. Northwest
reach point N and stops.
C. Northeast
5. If the person starts his walk in the evening and
D. Southeast
follows the rest of the route, then in which of the
E. None of these
following direction is he facing at point N?
A.North
B.East
C.South
Eleven pillars are kept at some distance with each
D.West
other. O is 3m north of B, which is 1m west of A. D
E.Cannot be determined
is 2m west of F. H is 8m west of G, which is 5m
6. In which of the following direction does the south of F. C is 4m west of E, which is 5m south-
person starts the journey? east of A. I is 10m east of J, which is 6m south of H.
A.North E is 3m south of D.
B.East 9. What is the position of H with respect to A?
C.South A.South
D.West B.South-east
E.Cannot be determined C.South-west
D.West
E.North-west
between the points O and T?
A.4m 10. Find the odd one out?
B.7m A.BI
C.6m B.AI
Page 3 of 81
C.OC 13. What is the direction of point O with respect to

D.AG point L?
E.CE A.West
B.North-West
11. If the person walks 8m towards the north from
C.North-East
point I, then in which direction is he from point C?
D.South-West
A.East
E.South-east
B.Northeast
C.Northwest 14. What is the shortest distance of point S with
D.Southwest respect to point Z?
E.None of these A.18km
B.20km
12. What is the shortest distance between points G
C.15km
and I?
D.19km
A.4m
E.None of the above
B.2√10m
C.5√5m 15. Find the odd one out?
D.5m A.SK
E. None of these B.ZO
C.PM
Direction (13-16): Study the following information D.GA
carefully and answer the below questions E.GZ
Point K is 8km east of point L and 8km north of
16. What is the total distance covered from point P
Point M. Point A is west of point M and South of
to point Z?
point L. Point O is 4km west of point A and 4km
A.18km
south of point G which is west of point P. Point P is
B.17km
north of point A. Point Z is 5km south of point A.
C.14km
Point S is 6km north of Point L.
D.16km
Page 4 of 81
E.None of these C.9m

D.12m
Direction (17-20): Study the following information E.15m
19. From the final point, if the person runs back in
A person started running in a playground. Initially,
the same path for half of the total distance ran by
he started at point B and runs towards north for 3m
him, then how far is he from the initial point?
to reach point F from where he turns to his right and
A.6m
runs for 9m. Then he takes a right turn again and
B.15m
runs for 6m, after reaching point E. He then takes a
C.9m
right turn from point C to reach point H which is 3m
D.12m
apart. Now from point H, he runs towards the
direction in which he started the running initially and
runs for 1m more than the distance between points
20. If the person runs at 3m/s, then what is the time
H and C. Then he turns to his left at point G and
taken by the person to complete half of the
runs for 5m to reach point D and he stops finally.
journey?
17. If a tree is 6m to the east of the final point, then
A.5sec
in which of the direction is point E with respect to
B.4sec
the tree?
C.10sec
A.North
D.6sec
B.South
C.Northeast
D.Southwest
E.None of these
Eight persons viz. D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K are
seated on a square table such that all of them are
between points F and C?
facing towards the centre. Each person is from a
A.10m
different profession viz. Banker, Business, Doctor,
B.11m
Engineer, Pilot, Police, Software Professional and
Page 5 of 81
Teacher. All the information is not necessarily in the B. Two

same order. Not more than one person holds the C. Three
same profession. Four persons sit on four corners D. More than three
whereas four persons sit in the middle of four sides E. None
of the table.
Two persons sit between D and E who sits at one of 23.What is the profession of the one who sits to the
the corners and faces towards the one who is a immediate left of a Doctor?
Teacher. The one who is an Engineer sits adjacent A. Business
to the one who is a Teacher. G sits second to the B. Software professional
left of the one who is an Engineer. The one who is a C. Banker
Banker sits adjacent to D and faces towards the D. Doctor
one who does Business. K sits to the immediate left E. None of these
of the one who is a Doctor and second to the right
of I who is not a Banker. Neither E nor D is a 24.Who among the following person sits second to
Doctor. H sits to the immediate left of the one who the right of the one who is a Pilot?
is Software professional who is not G. The one who A.H
is a Pilot sits to the immediate left of J who is B.F
neither a Banker nor adjacent to the one who is the C. The one who is a Doctor
Police. D. The one who is a Teacher
21.Who among the following person is the Police? E. None of these
A.I
B.G 25.What is the position of I with respect to the one
C.D who is an Engineer?
D.J A. Second to the right
E.None of these B. Second to the left
22.How many persons sit between H and the one C. Immediate left
who is a Pilot when counted from the right of H? D. Immediate right
Page 6 of 81
A.SM
Direction (26-30): Study the following information B.ML
carefully and answer the below questions C.SQ
Eight students- L to S are sitting in the square table. D.QN
Four students are sitting in the middle of each side E.PR
of the table and four students are sitting at each
27.Four of the following five are alike in a certain
corner of the table. Four of them are males and
way and form a group. Who among the following
others are females. Some of them are facing inside
student does not belong to the group?
and some of them are facing outside. Not more
A.S
than two students sitting together are facing the
B.The one who sits immediate right of R
same direction. The same gender is not opposite to
C.The one who sits second to the right of S
each other. All the information is not necessarily in
D.O
the same order.
E.Q
Note: Facing the same direction means, if one
is facing centre then the other also faces centre and
28.Who among the following sits opposite to N?
vice-versa. Facing the opposite directions means, if
A.O
one is facing centre then the other faces away from
B.The one who sits second to the right of L
centre and vice-versa.
C.The one who sits second to the left of P
L is a male facing centre and sits at the corner of
D.The one who sits immediate left of M
the table. Two students are sitting between L and
E.All the above
M, both are facing the same direction. R is a female
sitting opposite to S who sits second to the right of 29.Who among the following student is female?
M. M and S are facing opposite directions. O is A. The one who sits immediate left of O
male and sits adjacent to neither S nor L. Two B.S
students are sitting between P and Q who sits C.L
immediate left of N. M is the opposite gender of N. D.O
R and O are facing the same direction. E. The one who sits third to the left of Q
26.Which of the following combinations is odd?
Page 7 of 81
30.Who among the following student sits opposite feet. The difference in the pole height of White and
to the one who is third to the left of M? Brown is the same as between Gray and Red. The
A. The one who sits immediate right of R number of poles between Yellow and Green is the
B.Q same as between Black and the pole which has 16
C.N feet. The yellow pole is taller than the green pole.
D. The one who sits immediate right of S 31.Which of the following combinations is odd?
E.O A.Gray, Black
B.Blue, White
Direction (31-35): Study the following information C.Red, Gray
carefully and answer the below questions D.Brown, Green
Eight different coloured flag poles- Red, Green, E.Yellow, Red
Blue, Yellow, Gray, Black, white, and Brown are
kept in the square-shaped ground facing outside
way and form a group. Which of the following pole
but not necessarily in the same order. Four of the
does not belong to the group?
poles are kept at each corner and four of the poles
A.The pole which is immediate right of Black pole
are kept in the middle of each side of the square.
B.Brown
Each of the poles has a different height measured
C.The pole which is second to the right of Blue pole
in feet Viz 10, 12, 14, 15, 16, 18, 19, and 22 but not
D.Yellow
E.Green
The red pole is 10 feet in height and is placed in the
middle of the edge. The pole which is placed
33.Which of the following poles is placed opposite
opposite to the green is placed second to the right
to Brown coloured pole?
of Red pole. Two poles are placed between the
A.White
Green and Gray pole which is opposite to the pole
B.The pole which is immediate left of Yellow pole
which has 18 feet of height. The blue pole is
C.The pole which is immediate left of Red pole
adjacent to neither the Green pole nor the Gray
D.The pole whose height is 12 feet
pole. The yellow pole is the immediate left of the
E.The pole whose height is 10 feet
white pole which is 19 feet. The Brown pole is 14
Page 8 of 81
34.What is the height of the Yellow pole? sitting on the same side. O sits on one of the
A.19 feet shorter sides. The one who likes Apple sits second
B.22 feet to the left of O.The one who likes Peach faces the
C.18 feet one who likes Mango who doesn’t sit adjacent to
D.10 feet the one who likes Grapes. R sits to the immediate
E.None of the above left of P. Q doesn’t like Grapes.
36.Who among the following person likes Peach?
35.What is the average height of the Grey and
A.P
White pole?
B.O
A.14 feet
C.R
B.20 feet
D.Q
C.12 feet
E.None of these
D.17 feet
E.16 feet 37.Who among the following person sits second to
the left of the one who likes Apple?
Direction (36-40): Study the following information A. The one who likes Grapes
carefully and answer the questions given below. B. M
Six persons viz. M, N, O, P, Q and R are seated on C. The one who likes Berry
a rectangular table such that two persons sit on D. R
each longer side while one person sits on each E. None of these
shorter side and all of them are facing towards the
38.The number of persons sits from the right of
centre. Each person like different fruits viz. Apple,
____ to the one who likes Apple is the same as the
Berry, Grapes, Mango, Peach and Pine. All the
number of persons sits from the left of _____ to the
information is not necessarily in the same order.
one who likes Berry respectively.
N sits second to the right of the one who likes
A.P, O
Grapes. The one who likes Pine is neither adjacent
B.O, N
to N nor the one who likes Grapes. M sits third to
C.R, Q
the left of the one who likes Pine. N and M are not
D.Q, P
Page 9 of 81
E.None of these All of the above information is not necessarily in the

same order.
39.Which of the following fruit was liked by N?
N and S are of the same genders. L is a male who
A. Berry
sits at the corner of the table. Two persons are
B. Apple
sitting between L and R. M and O are of the same
C. Mango
genders and either of them sits opposite to N. P is a
D. Pine
male who diagonally opposite to Q who does not
E. None of these
adjacent to R. R is adjacent to neither Q nor O. S
sits second to the left of the one who sits opposite
40.If R is related to Mango and M is related to
to N who sits immediate right of L. Q and R are of
Peach in a certain way, then who among the
the same gender but opposite to S’s gender.
following is related to Apple?
41.In which of the following combination both
A.Q
persons are sitting opposite to each other?
B.P
A.PQ
C.R
B.ON
D.M
C.ML
E. None of these
D.SR
E. All of the above.
carefully and answer the below questions
way and hence form a group. Who among the
Eight persons- L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting
following person does not belong to the group?
around a rectangular shaped table in the meeting
A.Q
hall. Four persons are sitting at the corner facing
B. Immediate right of P
inside and four persons are sitting at the middle of
C. Second to the right of L
the sides with an equal distance between each
D.R
other and facing outside of the table. Some of them
E.S
are female and some of them are male. Not more
than two persons of the same gender sit together.
43.Who among the following sits opposite to N?
Page 10 of 81
A.O and Karnataka. All the information is not necessarily

B. The person who sits second to the right of S in the same order.
C. The person who sits second to the left of R Q is the chief minister of Karnataka sits immediately
D. The person who sits immediate left of Q to the left of the one who faces P. Only one person
E. All of the above sits between T and the one who is the chief minister
of Telangana. The chief minister of Tamil Nadu sits
44.Who among the following person is Male?
adjacent to P. R sits immediate right of T who faces
A. The person who sits immediate left of L
the Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh. R is not the
B.S
CM of Tamilnadu. U neither belongs to Kerala nor
C.L
Tamil Nadu. T is not the Chief Minister of
D.M
Maharashtra. S sits adjacent to either P or R but not
E. The person who sits third to the left of L
adjacent to both.
46.Which of the following combination is true?
45.Who among the following person sits third to the
A.U-Kerala
left of M?
B.Q-Tamil Nadu
A. The person who sits immediate right of R
C.R-Maharashtra
B.S
D.U- Karnataka
C.O
E.S- Andhra Pradesh
D. The person who sits immediate right of L
E.Q
way and form a group. Who among the following
person does not belong to the group?
A.UR
B.QS
In the Chief Minister Meeting, six Chief Ministers
C.PU
namely- P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting at the
D.PQ
corners of the hexagonal shaped table facing the
E.RT
centre. They belong to different states- Tamil Nadu,
Kerala, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh,
Page 11 of 81
48.Who among the following person is the chief such that four of them are sitting at the corner of the
minister of Tamil Nadu? table and facing inside the table and four of them
A.T sitting at the middle of each side of the table and
B. The one who sits immediate left of U facing outside the table. All of them like different
C.R dishes i.e. Maggie, Pasta, Burger, Pizza, Pastry,
D. The one who sits immediate right of P Chowmin, Momos and Sandwich. All the
E. The one who sits second to the right of Q information is not necessarily in the same order.
Parul sits at the corner of the table. Two persons sit
49.What is the position of Q with respect to the between Parul and Riya who likes Burger. Priya sits
chief minister of Andhra Pradesh? to the immediate left of Riya and sits opposite to the
A. Immediate left person who likes Pasta. Only one person sits
B. Third to the left between Parul and Tejas. Ajay sits opposite to
C. Third to the right Bebo who likes Chowmin and Bebo sits to the
D. Second to the right immediate right of Priya. Anmol sits second to the
E. Second to the left right of the one who likes Pastry. Priya does not like
pastry and Anmol is not an immediate neighbour of
50.Who among the following person sits third to the Riya. The person who likes Maggie sits three
left of chief minister of Kerala? places away from the person who likes Chowmin.
A. The chief minister of Telangana Parul and the person who is immediate left of Riya
B.U do not like Maggie. The number of persons sits
C. The chief minister of Andhra Pradesh between the person who likes Chowmin and Burger
D.R when counted from the left of a burger is equal to
E.S the number of persons sits between the person who
likes Pastry and the person who likes Sandwich
Direction (51-55): Study the following information when counted from the right of pastry. Only one
carefully and answer the questions given below: person sits between the person who likes Pasta
Eight persons i.e. Riya, Bebo, Anmol, Priya, Parul, and the person who likes Momos. Tejas does not
Tejas, Ajay and Amit are sitting in a square table like Momos. The person who likes Pizza does not
Page 12 of 81
face Tejas. Amit does not like Maggie. Priya does C.3
not like Momos and Pasta. D.2
51.Which among the following pair likes Burger and E.1
Sandwich respectively?
A.Anmol and Riya 54.Who among the following sits third to the right of
B.Priya and Parul the person likes Pasta?
C.Riya and Anmol A.Person who sits opposite Anmol
D.Parul and Priya B.Person who likes Burger
E.None of These C.Person who is an immediate neighbour of both
Priya and Ajay
52.Which of the following statement is/are true D.Both A and B
regarding Bebo? E.Both A and C
A. She likes Chowmin
B. She sits opposite to the person who likes Pastry 55.Who among the following pair sits to the
C.She sits third to the left of the person likes immediate left of each other?
Maggie A. Bebo and the person likes Momos
D.All are True B. Person likes Pasta and Ajay
E.Both A and B are true C. Anmol and the person like Momos
53.How many persons are sitting between Priya D. Person likes Pizza and the person likes Burger
and Anmol when counted anticlockwise from E. Both A and D
Anmol?
A.5
B.4
Directions (1-4):
Page 13 of 81
1. Answer: B
2. Answer: B
3. Answer: D
9. Answer: C
4. Answer: C
10. Answer: E
11. Answer: A
Direction (5-8):
12. Answer: B
Directions (13-16):
5. Answer: D
13. Answer: D
6. Answer: A
14. Answer: D
7. Answer: C
15. Answer: B
8. Answer: B
16. Answer: B
Directions (9-12):
Page 14 of 81
Directions (17-20):
17. Answer: C
18. Answer: B
19. Answer: C 2. G sits second to the left of the one who is an
20. Answer: A Engineer. The one who is a Banker sits adjacent to
D and faces towards the one who does Business.
Directions (21-25): Hence, case 2 gets eliminated.
1. Two persons sit between D and E who sits at

one of the corners and faces towards the
one who is a Teacher. The one who is an
Engineer sits adjacent to the one who is a 3. K sits to the immediate left of the one who is a
Teacher. Doctor and second to the right of I who is not a
Page 15 of 81
Banker. Neither E nor D is a Doctor. H sits to the 21. Answer: C

immediate left of the one who is Software 22. Answer: A
professional who is not G. 23. Answer: C
24. Answer: B
25. Answer: D
Directions (26-30):
4. The one who is a Pilot sits to the immediate left
of J who is neither a Banker nor adjacent to the one
who is the Police. Hence, cases 1 and 2a get
eliminated.
L is a male facing centre and sits at the corner of

the table.
Two students are sitting between L and M, both are
possibilities.
Page 16 of 81
Two students are sitting between P and Q who sits

R is a female who sits opposite S who sits second immediate left of N.
to the right of M. From the above condition, case1 gets eliminated.
M and S are facing opposite directions.
M is the opposite gender of N.

O is male and sits adjacent to neither S nor L.
R and O are facing the same direction.
Not more than two students sitting together are
possibilities.
facing the same direction. The same gender is not
Same-gender is not opposite to each other.
opposite to each other.
From the above conditions, case1a gets eliminated.
From the above conditions, case2 shows the final
arrangement.
Page 17 of 81
The pole which is placed opposite to the green is

placed second to the right of Red pole.
From the above conditions, there is only one
possibility.
26. Answer: C
27. Answer: E
28. Answer: E
Two poles are placed between the Green and Gray
29. Answer: E
pole which is opposite to the pole which has 18 feet
30. Answer: D
of height.
Direction (31-35):
possibilities.
The red pole is 10 feet height and is placed in the

The blue pole is adjacent to neither the Green pole
middle of the edge.
nor the Gray pole.
Page 18 of 81
The yellow pole is the immediate left of the white

pole which is 19 feet.
The Brown pole is 14 feet.
Page 19 of 81
The difference in the pole height of White and

Brown is the same as between Gray and Red.
1. N sits second to the right of the one who likes

Grapes. The one who likes Pine is neither adjacent
to N nor the one who likes Grapes.
The number of poles between Yellow and Green is

the same as between Black and the pole which has
16 feet.
The yellow pole is taller than the green pole.
From the above condition, case1a was dropped.
Case 2 shows the final arrangement.
2. M sits third to the left of the one who likes Pine. N

and M are not sitting on the same side. O sits on
one of the shorter sides. The one who likes Apple
sits second to the left of O.
Directions (36-40):
Page 20 of 81
Directions (41-45):
L is a male who sits at the corner of the table.

Two persons are sitting between L and R.
3. The one who likes Peach faces the one who likes
Mango who doesn’t sit adjacent to the one who
possibilities.
likes Grapes. R sits to the immediate left of P. Q
doesn’t like Grapes. Hence, case 1 gets eliminated.
36. Answer: C
37. Answer: A S sits second to the left of the one who sits opposite
38. Answer: D to N who sits immediate right of L.
39. Answer: B
40. Answer: E
Page 21 of 81
P is a male who sits diagonally opposite to Q who

does not adjacent to R.
41. Answer: E
M and O are of the same gender and either of them
42. Answer: E
sits opposite to N.
43. Answer: E
44. Answer: C
45. Answer: D
Directions (46-50):
N and S are of the same gender.

R is adjacent to neither Q nor O. Q and R are of the
same gender but opposite to S’s gender.
Not more than two persons of the same-gender sit
Q is the chief minister of Karnataka sits immediately
together.
to the left of the one who faces P.
From the above condition, Case1 shows the final
The chief minister of Tamil Nadu sits adjacent to P.
arrangement.
Page 22 of 81

possibilities.
T is not a Chief Minister of Maharashtra.

R sits immediate right of T who faces the Chief
Minister of Andhra Pradesh. R is not the CM of
tamilnadu.
46. Answer: C
47. Answer: D
Only one person sits between T and the one who is
48. Answer: D
the chief minister of Telangana.
49. Answer: D
U neither belongs to Kerala nor belongs to Tamil
50. Answer: C
Nadu
S sits adjacent to either P or R but not adjacent to
Directions (51-55):
both.
Page 23 of 81
STEP I: Parul sits at the corner of the table. Two

persons sit between Parul and Riya who likes
Burger.
As per these statements, there will be two cases
getting framed and they will look like this:
STEP II: Priya sits to the immediate left of Riya.

As per this statement, the arrangement will look like
this:
Page 24 of 81
STEP III: Only one person sits between Parul and

Tejas.
As per this statement, CASE I will further get split
into one more case and the arrangement will look
like this:
Page 25 of 81
STEP IV: Ajay sits opposite to Bebo who likes

Chowmin and Bebo sits to the immediate right of
Priya.
As per this statement, the arrangement will be like
this:
STEP V: Anmol sits second to the right of the one

who likes Pastry. Priya does not like pastry and
Anmol is not an immediate neighbour of Riya
like this:
Page 26 of 81
STEP VI: Person who likes Maggie sits three places

away from the person who likes Chowmin. Parul
and the person who is immediate left of Riya do not
like Maggie.
Priya faces the person who likes Pasta.

like this:
Page 27 of 81
STEP VII: Number of persons sits between the

person likes Chowmin and Burger is equal to the
number of persons sits between the person who
likes Pastry and the person who likes Sandwich.
As per this statement, the arrangement will look like
this:
STEP VIII: Only one person sits between the

person likes Pasta and the person likes Momos.
Tejas does not like Momos. Person who likes Pizza
does not faces Tejas. Amit does not like Maggie.
Priya does not like Momos and Pasta.
As per these statements, CASE I (A) and CASE
II will get eliminated and the final arrangement will
look like this:
Page 28 of 81
54. Answer: D
55. Answer: E
51. Answer: C
52. Answer: E
53. Answer: B
Page 29 of 81
1. Ratio of the marked price to cost price of the C.Rs.24000
mobile is 11: 10 and the ratio of the marked price D.Rs.28000
to cost price of the laptop is 23: 20. The cost price E.None of these
of the mobile is half of the cost price of the laptop
and the selling price of the mobile is Rs.9000. If the Directions (3-4): Read the following information
selling price of the laptop is Rs.14000 more than carefully and answer the questions based on it.
that of the selling price of the mobile, then what is A shopkeeper have three articles X, Y and Z. Cost
the discount offered on mobile? price of all three articles together for Shopkeeper is
A.Rs.4900 Rs. 18000. He marked up all the articles by 40%
B.Rs.4500 and gives discount of 24%, 16% and 20%
C.Rs.4300 respectively. Marked price of item Y is Rs. 8400
D.Cannot be determine which is Rs. 1400 less than marked price of article
E.None of these X. Shopkeeper sells these three articles X, Y and Z
to three persons A, B and C respectively. After
2. Shopkeeper sells two different laptops – Sony some time they are not satisfied with the product
and Dell and the ratio of the marked price of the so they all sell their respective articles. A and B
Sony to Dell is 1:1. If Sony laptops sells at 20% of sold their items to same shopkeeper at 10% and
a discount and Dell laptops sold at 30% above of 15% loss and C spends Rs. 160 on repairing of
its marked price, then selling price of both the article at sell it at 25% loss.
laptops is Rs.21000. What is the sum of the 3. Find the difference between the losses incurred
marked price of the laptops (Sony and Dell)? by A and B when they sell their respective articles
A.Rs.18000 to the shopkeeper?
B.Rs.20000 A.Rs. 534.4
Page 30 of 81
B.Rs. 526.4
C.Rs. 524.4 6. A purchased an article and sold it to B at 33(1/3)
D.Rs. 514.4 % profit. B marked it up by 15% and sold it at a
E.None of these discount of Rs.184 on MP. If profit received by A is
Rs.504 more than that received by B, then profit
4. Find the respective ratio of prices at shopkeeper received by B is what per cent of that received by
sell the article Y and the price at which shopkeeper A?
sell article Z article? A.40%
A.441:590 B.29%
B.441:470 C.35%
C.541:490 D.37%
D.441:490 E.42%
E.None of these
7. A shopkeeper marked up an article by 25% and
5. A shopkeeper sold an article after two sold the article at two successive discounts of 5%
successive discounts of 2K%, 2.5K%, at Rs. and ‘d’% respectively. Find the value of ‘d’?
28798. If cost price of article is Rs. 28000 and I: Selling price of the article is Rs.1710.
Mark up % is 37.5%. Find the selling price of article II: If the shopkeeper had given a single discount of
when same article sold at (25K/6) % discount? 12%, he would have gained Rs.50 more.
A.Rs. 28500 A.Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
B.Rs. 32500 question but the statement II alone is not sufficient.
C.Rs. 28850 B.Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
D.Rs. 32500 question but the statement I alone is not sufficient.
E.None of these
Page 31 of 81
C.Both statements I and II together are needed to profit earned on selling B is Rs. 12 less than that of
answer the question. C. Cost prices of D is Rs. 30 less than that of
D.Either statement I alone or statement II alone is article A and difference between marked price of E
sufficient to answer the question. and C is Rs. 48 and Cost price of A is 37.5% less
E.Both the statements together are not sufficient to than MRP of Article A. Ratio of MRP of A, B, C, E
answer the question. and D is 11:9:10:12:8.
Which of the following statement(s) can be
8. A shopkeeper purchased an article and marked determined related to the above given information.
up this article by 33(1/3) %. He gave a certain I). Discount % on article E
discount on this article and sold the article at a loss II). Profit % on article A
of Rs.8. If the marked up per cent were 60% and III). Profit on article C
discount per cent were same, there would be no IV). Profit % on article B
profit and no loss. Find the initial loss per cent, A.II and III only
occurred on that article? B.II, III, IV only
A.16.67% C.I, II and III only
B.9.09% D.III, IV and II only
C.11.1% E.None of the above

D.33.33%
E.18.23% 10. The ratio of cost price of three types of Pen
Tablets X, Y and Z for a shopkeeper is 9:8:5. He
9. A shopkeeper sell five articles A, B, C, D and E. mark-up the products X, Z and Y by 60%, 50%,
Article E sell at Rs. 270 which is 100% more than and 62.5% and gives discounts of 35%, 30% and
selling price of article D. Shopkeeper calculate the 27% respectively. On selling two pen tablets of
profit of C on selling price which is 16.666% and type X and three pen tables of type Z to a
Page 32 of 81
customer, profit earned by shopkeeper is Rs. 1323, together is Rs.1200 and ratio of selling prices of
then find cost price of pen tablet of Type Y for A’s and B’s articles is 6: 7, respectively. If A
customer? calculated his profit per cent on cost price and B
A.Rs. 8424 calculated his profit per cent on selling price, then
B.Rs. 8641 find the difference between the profit amounts of A
C.Rs. 7200 and B?
D.Rs. 8541 A.Rs.800
E.None of these B.Rs.200
C.Rs.400
11. A shopkeeper marks his article 250% above D.Rs.300
cost price, and gives discount of Rs. 620, so there E.Rs.700
is a profit of 56.25%. if he gives two successive
discounts of 37.5% and 20% while selling the 13. Harshit marks up all books in his shop 25%
article then find profit% or loss% of the more. And he gives 20% discount on 35% of the
shopkeeper? total number of books and 10% discount on 38% of
A.80% the total number of books. If Harshit gets an overall
B.40% profit of 8%, then find the percentage of discount

C.60% (approximately) should be given by Harshit to a
D.62.5% customer on the remaining number of books?
E.None of these A.13%
B.9%
12. A and B purchased the same article at different C.15%
cost prices and both of them sold their articles at D.11%
20% profit. The total profit received by A and B E.18
Page 33 of 81
14. Harsh goes to furniture shop to buy a Chair B.The data in statement II alone is sufficient to
and a table. He bargains for a 20% discount on the answer the question, while the data in statement I
table and 30% discount on Chair. However,the alone is not sufficient to answer the question
shopkeeper, by mistake, interchanged the discount C.The data either in statement I alone or in
percentage figures while making the bill and Harsh statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
paid accordingly then what percentage did Harsh question
pay extra? D.The data given in both statements I and II
A.9% together are not sufficient to answer the question
B.7.50% E.The data given in both statements I and II
C.10% together are necessary to answer the question.
D.5.25%
E.None of these Directions (16-20): Study the following data
carefully and answer the questions:
15. What is the cost price of the Pendrive? There are total 6 pipes A, B, C, D, E and F out of
Statement I: The marked price of the Pendrive is which A, B, C and D are inlet and E and F are
25% more than the cost price of the Pendrive and outlet pipes. Pie chart given below shows the
the shopkeeper offers a discount of 10% on distribution (degree) of time taken by combination
marked price of the Pendrive. of pipes together to fill a tank.
Statement II: Selling price of the Pendrive is Some other information is also known:
Rs.4500. Time taken by pipes C and D together to fill that
A.The data in statement I alone is sufficient to tank is 20 min where pipe C is twice as efficient as
answer the question, while the data in statement II pipe D. Time taken by pipes A, B and E together to
alone is not sufficient to answer the question fill the tank is 24 min.
Page 34 of 81
min each, then what part of total tank is filled by
pipes A and D together?
a) 4/5
b) 1/2
c) 4/3
d) 6/7
e) 3/4
18. If a pipe P can fill the tank at the rate of 36
ml/min and two pipes C and P together can fill that
16. Pipe A and B together started filling the tank tank in 18 min, then what is the capacity of tank?
and, after 4 min pipe A is replaced with pipe F and a) 1320 ml
they together fill the tank for ‘t’ min. Now, pipe F is b) 1440 ml
replaced by two pipes C and E and they can fill the c) 1780 ml
remaining part of tank in ‘t – 5’ min, then what is d) 1540 ml
the value of ‘t’? e) 1620 ml
a) 25
b) 15 19. A tank is first filled by using pipes B, D and P
c) 30 (inlet) together and when it is filled immediately it is
d) 10 emptied by using pipes E and Q (outlet). Total time
e) 20 taken in this process is 30.5 min and ratio of
efficiency of pipe P to Q is 4: 1, then what is the

17. If combination of pipes A, B and F
time taken by pipes P and Q together to fill that
together and combination of pipes C, D and
tank?
E together started filling the tank alternatively for 1
Page 35 of 81
a) 20 min Total bags manufactured by the company = total
b) 15 min number of Formal bags manufactured in all four
c) 40 min manufacturing units + total number of Sports bags
d) 25 min manufactured in all four manufacturing units.
e) 10 min Number of Formal bags manufactured in Krishna
nagar is 80% more than formal bags manufactured
20. Approximately what percent of total capacity of in Kalindi Kunj. Number of formal bags
tank is filled by pipe B alone when pipes A and D manufactured in Karawal nagar is 13/19 less than
together filled the tank of ’t’ hours and remaining sum of formal bags manufactured in Krishna nagar
part of tank is filled by pipes B and C together in ‘t and Kardampuri Together. Total number of Sports
– 1’ hours? bags manufactured by the company is 40% of total
a) 36.67% number of bags manufactured by the company.
b) 16.67% The pie chart given below shows the degree
c) 23.33% distribution of Formal bags manufactured in a
d) 26.67% manufacturing units out of total number of Formal
e) 33.33% bags manufactured in all given manufacturing
units.
Directions (21-25): Read the following information
carefully and Answer the question based on it.
A company have four manufacturing units in four
Different states, Karawal Nagar, Krishna Nagar,
Kardampuri and in Kalindi Kunj. Company
manufactured bags of two Category: Formal Bags
and Sports bags.
Page 36 of 81
A.43.81%
B.42.81%
C.42.71%
D.41.71%
E.41.81%
23. Total number of formal bags manufactured in
Karawal Nagar is how much % more or less than
total number of formal bags manufactured in
Krishna Nagar?
A.40%more
21. Find the Central Angle corresponding to
B.33.33% less
Number of Formal Bags manufactured in Karawal
C.25% more
Nagar?
D.50% less
A.72
E.None of these
B.108
C.60
24. If total number of formal bags manufactured in
D.96
Kalindi Kunj is 480. 62.5% of total manufactured
E.None of these
formal bags by the company is sold at Rs. 154/bag
and 93.33% of total manufactured Sports bag sold

22. If difference b/w number of Formal bags
by the company @ Rs. 172/bag remaining bags
manufactured in Karawal nagar and Krishna Nagar
were not sold. Find the approx. total revenue
is 972, then find what % of Sports bags
generated by the company?
manufactured in Kalindi Kunj, it is given that total
A.Rs. 585434
bags manufactured in Kalindi Kunj is 2784?
Page 37 of 81
B.Rs. 585464 27. 4895 990 210 ? 25 20
C.Rs. 585493 a) 60
D.Rs. 585413 b) 65
E.None of these c) 55
d) 75
25. Number of Formal bags manufactured in e) 95
Kalindi Kunj is how much % more or less than
number of formal bags manufactured in Karawal 28. 6 9 14 17 ?
Nagar? a) 23
A.25% less b) 22
B.20%more c) 19
C.16.66% less d) 18
D.33.33% more e) None of these
E.None of these
29. 29 30 26 53 37 ?
Directions (26-30): What will come in place of a) 62
question mark (?) in the following number series? b) 87

26. 26 51 ? 125 174 199 c) 152
a) 100 d) 162
b) 91 e) None of these
c) 89
d) 99 30. ? 6 24 60 120 210
e) 94 a) 2
b) 3
Page 38 of 81
c) 4 d) 110
d) 1.5 e) 152
e) 0
34. 8, 10, 22, 52, 109, 198
Directions (31-35): Find out the wrong number in a) 10
the following number series. b) 52
31. 113, 150, 201, 265, 345, 438 c) 109
a) 201 d) 22
b) 113 e) 198
c) 265
d) 345 35. 48, 24, 72, 18, 92, 15
e) 438 a) 18
b) 92
32. 72, 76, 91, 97, 122, 128 c) 15
a) 91 d) 24
b) 76 e) 72
c) 122
d) 97 Directions (36-40): what will come in place of
e) 128 question mark (?) in the following give expression?
36. 34% of 4100 – 1156 = 14 x (?) + 42 x 3
33. 116, 145, 114, 151, 110, 152 a) 8
a) 145 b) 9
b) 114 c) 17
c) 151 d) 6
Page 39 of 81
e) None of these a) 532
b) 522
37. (47² - 15²) ÷ (16 *4) = (?) - (89 x 3) c) 422
a) 398 d) 432
b) 298 e) None of these
c) 198
d) 288 Directions (41-45): What approximate value should
e) None of these come in the place of (?) in the following questions?
41. 23.99×15.071÷35.89+8499÷501.01 =? ×3.013
38. 15 x 17 + (?) – 25 x 26 = 20 x 21 a) 15
a) 925 b) 9
b) 915 c) 12
c) 835 d) 18
d) 825 e) 21
e) 815
42. 196- 33.33% of [(-211-418.07)/√440.9] =?
39. 44² ÷ (25 + 4 x 113) + 65% of (450 x 25) a) 196

a) 9354 b) 180
b) 9344 c) 186
c) 9384 d) 200
d) 9364 e) 210
e) None of these
43. 79.91+ 26.03×0.75×14.931+449.92 =?
40. (?) - 16 = 27 x (390 ÷ 13) – 40% of 760 a) 788
Page 40 of 81
b) 760 II. 2Y² + 13Y + 21 = 0
c) 800 a) X > Y
d) 822 b) X < Y
e) 862 c) X = Y or No relation
d) X ≥ Y
44. ?= (68.06-31.90+ ×8.02+ 24.99÷5.01)÷? e) X ≤ Y
a) -9 47.
b) 12
c) 10 I. (X + 1)² = 9
d) -12 II. X + Y = 6
e) None of these a) X > Y
b) X < Y
45. (2798÷55.97) ×12.11 = 30% of ? c) X = Y or No relation
a) 2500 d) X ≥ Y
b) 2000 e) X ≤ Y
c) 1500
d) 2700 48.
e) 3000 I. X + 3Y = 8
II. 2X -9 = Y
Directions (46-60 ):In the following equations a) X > Y
numbered I and II are given. You have to solve the b) X < Y
both equations and choose the correct option. c) X = Y or No relation
46. d) X ≥ Y
I. 3X² + 11X + 10 = 0 e) X ≤ Y
Page 41 of 81
49. d) x< y
I.15x-17y+23=0 e) x ≤ y
II.3x+4y-25=0
a) x> y 52.
b) x ≥ y I. x2-15x+56=0
c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined. II. 2y2+11y+12=0
d) x< y a) x < y
e) x ≤ y b) x ≥ y
c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
50. d) x > y
I. x= e) x ≤ y
II. y= 22×42
a) x> y 53.
b) x ≥ y I. x2+x-8x=187-13x
c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined. II.y2-35y+306=0
d) x< y a) x > y
e) x ≤ y b) x ≥ y
c) x < y
51. d)x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
I. 9x2+31x+12=0 e) x ≤ y
II. 7y2+23y+6=0
a) x> y 54.
b) x ≥ y I. 3x-15√x+18=0,
c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined. II. √y =22
Page 42 of 81
a) x> y 57.
b) x ≥ y I. 8X + 5Y = 34
c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined. II. 12X + 15Y = 72
d) x< y a) X > Y
e) x ≤ y b) X < Y
c) X = Y or No relation
55. d) X ≥ Y
I. 5x-6y=11, e) X ≤ Y
II. 3x-4y=9
a) x< y 58.
b) x ≥ y I. 2X² + 38X + 168 = 0
c) x> y II. Y² + 3Y - 28 = 0
d) x = yor relationship can’t be determined. a) X > Y
e) x ≤ y b) X < Y
56. d) X ≥ Y
I. x2-4x-437=0, e) X ≤ Y
II. y2+12y-589=0
a) x> y 59.
b) x = y or relationship can’t be determined. I. 7X² - 50X + 72 = 0
c) x ≥ y II. 5Y² - 28Y + 39 = 0
d) x< y a) X > Y
e) x ≤ y b) X < Y
Page 43 of 81
d) X ≥ Y a) X > Y
e) X ≤ Y b) X < Y
60. d) X ≥ Y
I. X² - Y² = 80 e) X ≤ Y
II. X – Y = 4

1. Answer: D Cost price of article Y = (8400/140) x 100 = Rs.
CP of laptop = x 6000
CP of mobile = x/2 MRP of article X = 8400 – 1400 = Rs. 7000
SP of mobile = 9000 Cost price of article X = (7000/140) x 100 = Rs.
SP of laptop = 9000 + 14000 = 23000 5000
We cannot find the answer. Combined cost price of all three articles = 18000
So, cost price of article Z = 18000 – (5000 + 6000)
2. Answer: B = Rs. 7000
MP of Sony = MP of Dell = x MRP of article Z = 7000 x 1.4 = Rs. 9800
x * 80/100 + x * 130/100 = 21000 Selling price of Article X (for shopkeeper) = 7000 x
210x = 2100000 0.76 = 5320
x = 10000 Selling price of article Y (for Shopkeeper) = Rs.
MP = 10000 + 10000 = 20000 8400 x 0.84 = 7056
Selling price of article Z (for shopkeeper) = Rs.
Directions (3-4): 9800 x 0.8 = 7840
MRP of article Y = 8400 Price at which A sold article X to Shopkeeper =
Mark up is 40%, so Cost price of article for 5320 x 0.9 = Rs. 4788
Shopkeeper
Page 44 of 81
Price at which B sold article Y to shopkeeper = 6. Answer: D

7056 x 0.85 = 5997.6 Let CP of article for A = Rs.300x
Price at which C sold article Z to shopkeeper = So, SP of article for A = CP of article for B =
(7840 + 160) x 0.75 = 6000 133(1/3) % of 300x = Rs.400x
3. Answer: B MP of article for B = 115% of 400x = Rs.460x
Loss incurred by A = 5320 – 4788 = Rs. 532 And SP of article for B = Rs. (460x – 184)
Loss incurred by B = 7056 – 5997.6 = 1058.4 Profit of A = 400x – 300x = Rs.100x
Required difference = Rs. 526.4 Profit of B = 460x – 184 – 400x = Rs. (60x – 184)
From the question:
4. Answer: D 100x – (60x – 184) = 504
Selling price of article Y = 7056 40x = 320
Selling price of article Z = 7840
Required ratio = 7056:7840 7. Answer: C
= 441:490 Let CP of the article = Rs.100x
So, MP of the article = 125% of 100x = Rs.125x
5. Answer: E And SP of the article = 125x * (95/100) * (100 –
Cost price of article = 28000 d)/100
Marked price of article = 28000 x 137.5% = 38500 From statement I:
According to question, SP of the article = Rs.1710
38500 x (1 – 2K/100) x (1 – 2.5K/100) = 28798 125x * (95/100) * (100 – d)/100 = 1710 ----------------
(50 – K) x (40 – K) = 187/250 x 2000 (1)
(50 – K) x (40 – K) = 187 x 8 = 11 x 17 x 4 x 2 = 44 With this statement alone we cannot find the value
x 34 of ‘d’.
On comparing we got value of K = 6 From statement II:
New discount = 25 x 6/6 = 25% If the shopkeeper had given a single discount of
Required selling price of article = 38500 x 75% = 12%.
28875 The SP of article would be = 1710 + 50 = 1760
125x * (88/100) = 1760
Page 45 of 81
125x = 2000 100x – 250x/3 = 8

x = 16 x = 0.48
With this statement alone we cannot find the value CP of the article = 100 * 0.48 = Rs.48
of ‘d’ Initial loss per cent = (8/48) * 100 = 16.67%
From statements I and II together:
From equation (1): 9. Answer: E
2000 * 95/100 * (100 – d)/100 = 1710 Difference between MRP of E and C = 48
19 * (100 – d) = 1710 So, (12 – 10) units = 48
100 – d = 90 1 unit = 24
d = 10 MRP of A = 24 x 11 = 264
Hence, both statements I and II together are MRP of B = 24 x 9 = 216
needed to answer the question. MRP of C = 24 x 10 = 240
8. Answer: A MRP of D = 24 x 8 = 192
Let the CP of the article = Rs.100x MRP of E = 24 x 12 = 288
So, MP of the article = 133(1/3) % of 100x = Rs. Cost price of A = 62.5% of 264 = 5/8 x 264 = 165
(400x/3) Cost price of D = 165 – 30 = 135
Let initial discount per cent = y% Selling price of E = 270
So, SP of the article: Selling price of D = 270/2 = 135
(400x/3) * (100 – y)/100 = 100x – 8 -------------(1) Statement I. discount % on E = (288 – 270)/288 x
If marked up per cent were 60% and discount per 100 = 6.25%
cent were same: We can determined this statement.
So, new SP of the article would be: Statement II. We know CP and MRP of A, but we
100x * (160/100) * (100 – y)/100 = 100x don’t have any information about SP. So we can’t
100 – y = 10000/160 determine this statement.
y = 37.5 Statement III. We don’t know SP and CP of C so we
From equation (1): can’t determine this statement
(400x/3) * (62.5/100) = 100x – 8 Statement IV. We don’t know CP and SP of B so
250x/3 = 100x – 8 we can’t determine this statement.
Page 46 of 81
Only I can be determined. Required profit % = [(560 – 320) / 320] x 100 = 75%
10. Answer: D 12. Answer: B

Let the cost price of Pen tablet of type X, Y and Z is Let CP of A’s and B’s articles are ‘a’ and ‘b’
900a, 800a and 500a respectively.
Selling price of X = 900a x 160% x 65% = 936a So, SP of A’s article = a * (120/100) = 6a/5
Selling price of Y = 800a x 162.5% x 73% = 949a And SP of B’s article = b * (100/80) = 5b/4
Selling price of Z = 500a x 150% x 70% = 525a Profit on A’s article = (6a/5) – a = a/5
Profit on selling one pen tablet of type X = 36a Profit on B’s article = (5b/4) – b = b/4
Profit on selling one pen tablet of type Z = 25a Since, ratio of SP of A’s and B’s articles
According to question, respectively = 6: 7
2 x 36a + 3 x 25a = 1323
147a = 1323
So, a = 9
Selling price for shopkeeper or cost price for
customer of type Y pen tablet =
949 x 9 = 8541
11. Answer: E Since, total profit received by A and B together =

Let cost price = 100a Rs.1200
Selling price = 100a + 56.25% of 100a = 156.25a So,
MRP of article = 350% of 100a = 350a (a/5) + (b/4) = 1200
According to question From equation (1):
350a - 156.25a = 620 (a/5) + (7a/25) = 1200
So value of a = 3.2 (5a + 7a)/25= 1200
Cost price = 3.2 x 100 = 320 a = 2500
MRP = 350 x 3.2 = 1120 CP of A’s article = Rs.2500
Desired selling price = 1120 x 5/8 x 4/5 = 560 Profit amount of A = 2500/5 = Rs.500
Page 47 of 81
CP of B’s article = 2500 * (28/25) = Rs.2800 Let the cost of the chair = Rs. 100
Profit amount of B = 2800/4 = Rs.700 So price of the table is = Rs. 30
Required difference = 700 – 500 = Rs.200 Now, the bargaining price for Harsh.
Cost of the chair is = 100 × 70/100 = Rs. 70
13. Answer: D Cost of the table is = 30 × 80/100 = Rs. 24
Let Harshit has 100 books. So, the bargaining value for Harsh is = 70 + 24 =
And the cost price of each book is = Rs. 100 Rs. 94
So, marked price of each book is = 100 × 125/100 = But he pays in reality.
Rs. 125 Cost of the chair is = 100 × 80/100 = Rs. 80
And selling price of 100 books is = 100 × 100 × Cost of the table is = 30 × 70/100 = Rs. 21
108/100 = Rs. 10,800 So, the amount paid is = 80 + 21 = Rs. 101
Now, selling price of 35% of 100 = 35 books is = 35 Thus, the required percentage is = (101 – 94)/94 ×
× 125 × 80/100 = Rs. 3500 100 ≈ 7.50%
Selling price of 38% of 100 = 38 books is = 38 × He, the required answer is = 7.50% (approx.)
125 × 90/100 = Rs. 4275
Now, 15. Answer: E
Let Harshit gave x% discount on remaining books = From statement I,
(100 – 35 – 38) = 27 books CP = 4x
So, selling price of 27 books is = 27 × 125 × (100 – MP = 125/100 * 4x = 5x
x)/100 SP = 5x * 90/100
= 3375 × (100 – x)/100 So, Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the
Then, according to the question, question.
= 10,800 = 3500 + 4275 + 3375 × (100 – x)/100 From statement II,
= 10,800 – 3500 – 4275 = 3375 × (100 – x)/100 SP = 4500
= 3025/3375 = (100 – x)/100 So, Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer
= 0.896 = (100 – x)/100 the question.
= x = 100 – 89.6 = 10.4% From statement I and II,
14. Answer: B 5x * 90/100 = 4500
Page 48 of 81
x = 1000
CP of Pendrive = 1000 * 4 = Rs.4000
F = 40
From equation (2):
Directions (16-20):
Time taken by E alone to empty the tank = E = 72
D = 60
min
From equation (4):
Since, pipe C is twice as efficient as pipe. So, lets
time taken by pipes C and D alone to fill the tank is
‘x’ and ‘2x’ respectively. E = 36
From equation (5):
A = 36
x = 30
Table given below shows the time taken by pipes
Time taken by D alone to fill the tank = 2x = 60 min
alone to fill/empty the tank:
Time taken by C alone to fill the tank = x = 30 min
Inlet Time taken Outlet Time taken
Now,
pipes (min) pipes (min)
A 36 E 36
B 24
C 30 F 40
D 60
C = 30
16. Answer: B
Time for which pipe A is opened = 4 min
From (1) and (2): Time for which pipe B is opened = 4 + t + (t – 5) =
(2t – 1) min
B = 24 Time for which pipe C is opened = (t – 5) min
From equation (3): Time for which pipe E is opened = (t – 5) min

Time for which pipe F is opened = t min
Page 49 of 81
Now,
P = 45
40 + 30t – 15 + 12t – 60 – 10t + 50 – 9t = 360 Time taken by pipe P alone fill the tank = 45 min
23t = 345 and inlet rate of pipe P is 36 ml/min.
t = 15 Capacity of the tank = 45 * 36
Value of ‘t’ = 15 = 1620 ml

Part of tank filled by combination of pipes A, B and Let time taken by pipe P alone to fill the tank and
F together in 1 min- pipe Q alone to empty the tank is ‘x’ and ‘4x’
respectively.
Let time in which pipes B, D and P together can fill
Part of tank filled by combination of pipes C, D and
the tank is ‘t’ min and time at which E and Q
E together in 1 min-
together can empty the tank is ’30.5 – t’ min.
Now,
Total part of work done in 2 min =
Total time taken to fill the tank = 15 * 2 = 30 min
Both pipes A and D alone work for 30 min, then part
of work done by pipes A and D together = From (1) and (2):
x = 15 and t = 8
Time taken by P and Q together to empty the tank-
18. Answer: E
= 20 min
Let time taken by pipe P alone to fill the tank = P
min
20. Answer: E
Now,
According to the question:
Page 50 of 81
320a = 4560 – 720 = 3840

So value of a = 12
Angle corresponding to Karawal Nagar = (54 x 12 +
10t + 6t + 15t – 15 + 12t – 12 = 360
720)/19 = 720
43t = 387
Angle corresponding to Krishna Nagar = 9 x 12 =
t=9
1080
Part of work done by pipe B alone =
Angle Corresponding to Kardampuri = 1200
Required percent = Angle corresponding to Kalindi Kunj = 5 x 12 = 600
= 33.33%
Directions (21-25):
Total number of formal bags manufactured in
Kardampuri = 120o
Number of formal Bags Manufactured in (Karawal
Nagar + Krishna Nagar + Kalindi Kunj) = 360 – 120
= 2400
Let number of formal Bags Manufactured in Kalindi
Kunj = 5a
Number of formal bags Manufactured in Krishna
Nagar = 180% of 5a = 9a 21. Answer: A
Number of formal bags manufactured in Karawal

22. Answer: E
nagar is 13/19 less than sum of formal bags
According to question,
manufactured in Krishna nagar and Kardampuri
(108 – 72) = 972
Together.
Number of formal bags in Karawal Nagar = (1 – = 972/36 x 360
13/19) x (9a + 1200) Total formal bags manufactured = 9720

Formal bags manufactured on Kalindi Kunj =
= 6/19 x (9a + 1200) = 54a/19 + 7200/19
60/360 x 9720 = 1620
So, 54a/19 + 720/19 + 9a + 5a = 240
Page 51 of 81
Total bags manufactured in Kalindi Kunj = 2784 25. Answer: C

Sports bags manufactured in Kalindi Kunj = 2784 – Angle corresponding to Karawal Nagar = 72
1620 = 1164 Angle corresponding to Kalindi Kunj = 60
Required % = 1164/2784 x 100 = 41.81% Required % change = (72 – 60)/72 x 100 =
16.66%less
23. Answer: B
Angle corresponding to Karawal Nagar = 72 Directions (26-30):
Angle corresponding to Krishna Nagar = 108 26. Answer: A
Required % change = (108 – 72)/108 x 100 = 26 + 25 = 51
33.33% less 51 + 49 = 100
100 + 25 = 125
24. Answer: D 125 + 49 = 174
Number of formal bags manufactured in Kalindi 174 + 25 = 199
Kunj = 480
Total number of formal bags manufactured by the 27. Answer: C
company = 480/60 x 360 = 2880 4895 x 0.2 + 11 = 990
% of formal bags manufactured by the company = 990 x 0.2 + 12 = 210
60% of total bags 210 x 0.2 + 13 = 55
% of sports bags manufactured by the company = 55 x 0.2 + 14 = 25
40% of total bags 25 x 0.2 + 15 = 20
Total bags manufactured by the company =
2880/60 x 100 = 4800 28. Answer: B
Number of sports bags manufactured by the 5+1=6
company = 40% of 4800 = 1920 7+2=9
Total revenue generated by the company = 62.5% x 11 + 3 = 14
2880 x 154 + 93.33% x 1920 x 172 = 277200 + 13 + 4 = 17
308213 = Rs. 585413 17 + 5 = 22
Page 52 of 81
29. Answer: D +29 -31 +37 -41 +43

29 + 1³ = 30
30 - 2² = 26 34. Answer: E
26 + 3³ = 53 8 10 22 52 109 203
53 - 4² = 37 2 12 30 57 94
37 + 5³ = 162 10 18 27 37
8 9 10
30. Answer: E
1³ - 1 = 0 35. Answer: B
2³ - 2 = 6 48 24 72 18 90 15
3³ - 3 = 24 ÷2 ×3 ÷4 ×5 ÷6
4³ - 4 = 60
5³ - 5 = 120 Directions (36-40):
6³ - 6 = 210 36. Answer: A
34% of 4100 – 1156 = 14 x (?) + 42 x 3
Directions (31-35): 1394 – 1156 – 126 = (?) x 14
31. Answer: C (?) = 112 / 14
113 150 201 266 345 (?) = 8
438
37 51 65 79 93 37. Answer: B
14 14 14 14 (47² - 15²) ÷ (16 *4) = (?) - (89 x 3)
[(47 + 15)(47 – 15)] ÷ 64 = (?) - 267
32. Answer: A 31 + 267 = (?)
72 76 92 97 122 128 (?) = 298
4 16 5 25 6
Series is 4, 42, 5, 52, 6 38. Answer: E
33. Answer: E 15 x 17 + (?) – 25 x 26 = 20 x 21
116 145 114 151 110 153 255 + (?) = 420 + 650
Page 53 of 81
(?) = 815 79.91+ 26.03×0.75×14.931+449.92 =?

80+ 26× ×15 +450 =?
39. Answer: D 80+ 292.5+450 =?
44² ÷ (25 + 4 x 113) + 65% of (450 x 25) 822=?(approx.)
1936 /484 + 65% x 14400 = (?)
4 + 9360 = (?) 44. Answer: A
(?) = 9364 ?= (68.06-31.90+ ×8.02+ 24.99÷5.01)÷?
?2= (68 – 32 + ×8 + )
40. Answer: B
?2= 81
(?) = 27 x 30 – 304 + 16
?= +9 or -9
(?) = 810 – 288
(?) = 522
45. Answer: B
(2798÷55.97) ×12.11 = 30% of ?
Directions (41-45):
×12 = 30% of ?
41. Answer: B
50 ×12 = 30% of ?
23.99×15.071÷35.89+8499÷501.01 =? ×3.013
600= of ?
24× + =?×3
2000 =?
10 + 17 =?×3
?=9
Directions (46-60):
46. Answer: A
42. Answer: C
I.3X² + 11X + 10 = 0
196- 33.33% of [(-211-418.07)/√440.9] =?
3X² + 6X + 5X + 10 = 0
196 – 33.33% of [-629/21] =?
3X(X + 2) + 5(X + 2) = 0
196 – 33.3% of (30)=?
(3X + 5)(X + 2) = 0
196-10 =?
X = - 1.66, - 2
186=?
II.2Y² + 13Y + 21 = 0
2Y² + 6Y + 7Y + 21 = 0
43. Answer: D
Page 54 of 81
2Y(Y + 3) + 7(Y + 3) = 0 X=5

(2Y + 7)(Y + 3) = 0 On pitting value of X in any equation
Y = -3.5, - 3 Y=1
X Relation Y X>Y
-1.66 > -3.5
-1.66 > -3 49. Answer: D
-2 > -3.5 15x-17y+23=0,
-2 > -3 3x+4y-25=0
X>Y By solving these equations we can get, x=3, y=4
Therefore x<y
47. Answer: B
I. (X + 1)² = 9 50. Answer: A
X2 + 1 + 2X = 9 x=
X2 + 2X – 8 = 0 x=71
X2 + 4X – 2X – 8 = 0 y= 22×42
X(X + 4) – 2(X + 4) = 0 y= 4×16 =64
(X – 2) (X + 4) = 0 Therefore x>y
X = 2, -4
II.X + Y = 6 51. Answer: C
Y=6–X 9x2+31x+12=0
Y = 4, 10 (9x+27) (9x+4) =0
X<Y x= -3, -4/9

7y2+23y+6=0
48. Answer: A (7y+21) (7y+2) =0
X + 3Y = 8] y= -3, -2/7
2X – Y = 9] x 3 Therefore relationship between x and y can’t be

On adding both equations established.
7X = 35
Page 55 of 81
52. Answer: D x<y

x2-15x+56=0
x2-7x-8x+56=0 54. Answer: D
x(x-7)-8(x-7)=0 I->3x-15√x+18=0
(x-7) (x-8)=0 x-5√x +6 =0
X=7,8 x-3√x -2√x+6=0
2y2+11y+12=0 √x(√x-3) -2(√x – 3) =0
2y2+3y+8y+12=0 (√x-3) (√x-2) =0
2y(y+4)+3(y+4)=0 √x = 3,2
(y+4) (2y+3)=0 x= 9,4
Y= -4, -1.5 II->√y =22
From the values of x&Y √y =4
x>y y = 16
From the values of x&y,
53. Answer: C x <y
x2+x-8x=187-13x
x2-7x-187+13x=0 55. Answer: C
x2+6x-187=0 5x-6y=11, 3x-4y=9
x2+17x-11x-187=0 By solving this equations we get,
x(x+17)-11(x+17)=0 15x – 18y = 33 ------ 1
(x+17) (x-11)=0 15x – 20y = 45 -------- 2
X=11, -17 Subtracting 1 and 2,
y2-35y+306=0 2y = - 12
y2-17y-18y+306=0 y=-6
y(y-17)-18(y-17)=0 15x = 45 – 120
(y-17) (y-18) =0 x=-5
Y=17,18 Therefore x>y
From the values of x&y
Page 56 of 81
56. Answer: B I. 2X² + 38X + 168 = 0

x2-4x-437=0 X² + 19X + 84 = 0
x2-23x+19x-437=0 X² + 12X + 7X + 84 = 0
x(x-23) +19(x-23)=0 X(X + 12) + 7(X + 12) = 0
(x-23) (x+19) =0 (X + 7)(X + 12) = 0
x=23,-19 X = -7, -12
y2+12y-589=0 II. Y² + 3Y - 28 = 0
y2+31y-19y-589=0 Y² +7Y - 4Y – 28 = 0
y(y+31) -19(y+31)=0 Y(Y + 7) – 4(Y + 7) = 0
(y+31) (y-19) =0 (Y + 7)(Y – 4) = 0
y= -31,19 Y = -7, 4
From the value of x and y, X Relation Y
-7 = -7
Relationship can’t be established
-7 < 4
-12 < -7
57. Answer: B -12 < 4
8X + 5Y = 34] x 3 X≤Y
12X + 15Y = 72
On subtracting both equations 59. Answer: C
24X – 12X = 102 – 72 I. 7X² - 50X + 72 = 0
12X = 30 7X² - 14X – 36X + 72 = 0
X = 2.5 7X(X – 2) – 36(X – 2) = 0
On putting value in X in any equation (7X – 36)(X – 2) = 0
8 x 2.5 + 5Y = 34 X = 36/7, 2
5Y = 14 II. 5Y² - 28Y + 39 = 0
Y = 2.8 5Y² - 15Y - 13Y + 39 = 0
X<Y 5Y(Y – 3) – 13(Y – 3) = 0
(5Y – 13)(Y – 3) = 0
58. Answer: E Y = 13/5, 3
Page 57 of 81
X Relation Y On adding both equations

36/7 > 13/5
2X = 24
36/7 > 3
2 < 13/5 X = 12
2 < 3 On putting value in equation II
No relation can be established 12 – 4 = Y
Y=8
60. Answer: A X>Y
(X + Y)(X – Y) = 80
(X + Y) = 80/4 = 20…………….. (I)
(X – Y) = 4……………………….. (II)
English Language
Directions (1-5): In a passage given below there are airport for nearly an hour. It was then ________ (C)
five blanks, every blank has four alternative words _________ to Lucknow, but poor visibility in the U.P.
given in options (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to capital forced it to head to Prayagraj, and then
choose which word will best suit to the respective again re-route to Lucknow, where it landed after the
blank. pilot gave a call for a fuel May Day. The plane
Poor weather forced a vistara flight to turn from one landed at Lucknow at 6.49 p.m., nearly two hours
airport to another requesting for _____ (A) ________ after its scheduled time of arrival at Delhi. When the
to land, before it declared a fuel emergency and aircraft landed it had 300 kg of aviation turbine fuel,
arrived at Lucknow after two extra hours of being in enough for 10 minutes of flight. Vistara said in a
air. Passengers, meanwhile, had an anxious time statement that it _________ (D) ________ with
waiting for their ordeal to end. As heavy rain lashed regulatory norms requiring it to carry sufficient fuel
the national capital on Monday and led to traffic for the nearest alternative airport in case of
_______ (B) ________ at Delhi’s Indira Gandhi emergencies. Meanwhile, the DGCA and the airline
International airport, Vistara’s UK 944 flight from _________ (E) ___________the pilot for investigation.
Mumbai to Delhi was forced to hover over the
Page 58 of 81
A flight from Lucknow to Delhi finally left at 12.15 A. Have complied

a.m. to ferry the passengers to their destination. B. Had complied
1. Which of the word suitable for the blank given C. Have been complied
(A)? D. Having been complied
A. Permission E. None of these
B. Concurrence
C. Extradition 5. Which of the word suitable for the blank given
D. Rendezvous (E)?
E. None of these A. Has grounded
B. Have grounded
2. Which of the word suitable for the blank given C. Been grounding
(B)? D. Have been grounded
A. Congestion E. None of these
B. Paramount
C. Lacuna Directions (6-10): In each of the following
D. Tryst sentences four words are given in bold. These
E. None of these words may or may not be placed appropriately to
form a contextually and grammatically meaningful
3. Which of the word suitable for the blank given sentence. Below each sentence four options are
(C)? given for the replacements. You have to choose the
A. Being diverted correct replacement as your answer. If no
B. Diverted replacement is required, choose no change
C. Diversion required.
D. Been diverted 6. I rented (a) hiking boots and walking sticks at the
E. None of these rental shop, pretending (b) briefly into the
church popped (c), as a good atheist, to
4. Which of the word suitable for the blank given be admiring (d) the architecture and then we were
(D)? off behind our volcanologist guide.
Page 59 of 81
A. b-d 9. The figures (a) disclosed in US lobbying reports

B. a-d (b) include both interventions (c) to candidates and
C. b-c parties, as well as fees paid to professional
D. c-d lobbyists who approach elected leaders to broker
E. No change required legislative contributions (d).
A. a-d
7. Though it is not clear whether the B. c-d
current direction (a) is an extension of the C. b-d
old scheme (b), the broad proposal (c) of change D. a-b
(d) is clear and upper-crust Indians, by and large, E. No change required
like what they hear of it.
A. a-d 10. In India entities have deluged (a) politicians with
B. a-b funds on this scale over just two months and Indian
C. c-d citizens are hoping (b) the right to know who those
D. b-d entities are, or to understand (c) what they
E. a-c are denied (d) to get in return.
A. b-c
8. The electoral bonds (a) allow citizens to support B. a-c
a party or candidate, using white money, C. a-b
and without fear of repercussions (b) but the trade- D. b-d
off for this freedom (c) is the loss of any public E. No change required
(d) oversight of who is funding elected leaders
A. a-c Directions (11-15): In each of the following
B. b-d sentences, there are two blanks. Below the
C. No change required sentences there are options with two words each.
D. b-c Find the pair which fits in the given blanks correctly
E. c-d and mark that as your answer.
Page 60 of 81
11. The Income Tax Department has casted doubts A. Injured, Unable
over the ______of the loose sheets that are B. Abled, Successful
allegedly copies of a diary kept by former C. Challenged, Experienced
Karnataka Chief Minister B.S. Yeddyurappa D. Scribed, Extremely
''recording ______of large amounts of money'' to E. None of the above
other senior BJP leaders.
A. Complaints, Issue 14. Around 76.48 lakh new subscribers were
B. Veracity, Transfers _____to social security schemes of the Employees’
C. Statements, Indulging Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) from
D. Blaming, Expedition September 2017 to January 2019, the data
E. None of these showed. This indicates that these many jobs were
______in the formal sector over the past 17 months.
12. The official said the enforcement wing of the A. Reported, Examined
transport department _____close to 260 two- B. Addition, Estimated
wheelers ______with Ola in the city in the last one C. Forecasted, Payroll
month. D. Added, Created
A. Informed, Funded E. None of these
B. Imposed, Attracted
C. Impounded, Attached 15. The Enforcement Directorate (ED) has _____a
D. Operational, Developed penalty of Rs 14.40 lakh and ordered the
E. None of these confiscation of nearly 6.8 lakh in connection with a
FEMA case _________Jammu and Kashmir-based
13. Seven years ago, Himanshu Mittal met with an separatist Syed Ali Shah Geelani, officials said on
accident in which his spinal cord was ______and left Friday.
him wheelchair-bound. It didn’t stop him from taking A. Investigated, Adjudication
over his family business, but when he found that he B. Levied, Against
was ______to scale it up, he decided to upgrade his C. Possession, Allegedly
skills and knowledge base. D. Recovered, Separatist
Page 61 of 81
E. None of these B.B-E, C-D

C.A-E, C-F
Directions (16-20): In the following questions two D.A-F, B-D
columns are given containing three E. None of these
Sentences/phrases each. In first column,
17.
from the second column to make a grammatically
and contextually correct sentence. Each question
has five options, four of which display the
sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can
be joined to form a grammatically and contextually
correct sentence. If none of the options given forms
a correct sentence after combination, mark (e), i.e.
“None of these” as your answer.
A.A-D, B-E
16. B.B-F, C-D
C.B-D, C-F
D.A-F, B-E
E. None of these
18.
A.A-D, B-F
Page 62 of 81
C.B-E, C-F
D.A-F, B-D
E. None of these
20.
A.A-D, B-E
B.B-F, C-D
C.B-E, C-F
D.A-F, B-D
E. None of these
19.
A.A-D, B-E
B.B-F, C-D
C.B-D, C-F
D.A-F, B-E
E. None of these
A.A-D, B-E
B.B-F, C-D
Page 63 of 81
Directions (1-5): Option C is incorrect. ‘Diversion’ is a noun whereas

1. Answer: A we require a verb in the blank.
Option A is correct. ‘Permission’ is the correct Option D is incorrect. ‘Been diverted’ is
alternative with respect to the context of the grammatically incorrect
statement.
Option B is incorrect; ‘concurrence’ means 4. Answer: B
coincidence. Option B is correct. ‘Had complied’ is the correct
Option C is incorrect; ‘extradition’ means alternative with respect to the context of the
deportation. statement.
Option D is incorrect; ‘rendezvous’ means Option A is incorrect. ‘Have complied’ can be used
appointment. only for plural entities.
Option C is incorrect. ‘Have been complied’ is
2. Answer: A applicable for past continuous tense, while the
Option A is correct. ‘Congestion’ is the correct given statement is in past perfect.
alternative with respect to the context of the Option D is incorrect. ‘Having been complied’ is
statement. grammatically incorrect.
Option B is incorrect. ‘Paramount’ means supreme.
Option C is incorrect. ‘Lacuna’ means hiatus. 5. Answer: B
Option D is incorrect. ‘Tryst’ means meeting. Option B is correct. ‘Have grounded’ is the correct
alternative with respect to the context of the
3. Answer: B statement.
Option B is correct. ‘Diverted’ is the correct Option A is incorrect; ‘Has grounded’ cannot be
alternative with respect to the context of the used with plural entities.
statement. Option C is incorrect; ‘been grounding’ is
Option A is incorrect. ‘Being diverted’ refers to past grammatically incorrect.
continuous tense while the sentence is in past
perfect, thus it is incorrect grammatically.
Page 64 of 81
Option D is incorrect; ‘have been grounded’ is as fees paid to professional lobbyists who approach
grammatically incorrect and it alters the meaning of elected leaders to broker legislative interventions.
statement.
10. Answer: D
Directions (6-10): In India entities have deluged politicians with funds
6. Answer: C on this scale over just two months and Indian
I rented hiking boots and walking sticks at the rental citizens are denied the right to know who those
shop, popped briefly into the church pretending, as entities are, or to understand what they
a good atheist, to be admiring the architecture and are hoping to get in return.
then we were off behind our volcanologist guide.
Directions (11-15):
Though it is not clear whether the Veracity: Conformity to facts, Truthfulness
current proposal is an extension of the old scheme, Transfers: Act of moving something from one place
the broad direction of change is clear. And upper- to other place
crust Indians, by and large, like what they hear of it.
12. Answer: C
8. Answer: C Impounded: Seize and take legal custody of
The electoral bonds allow citizens to support a party something because of breaking the law
or candidate, using white money, and without fear Attached: Joined or connected to something
of repercussions but the trade-off for this freedom is
the loss of any public oversight of who is funding 13. Answer: A
elected leaders Injured: Harmed, Damaged, Impaired
Unable: Lacking the skill
9. Answer: B
The figures disclosed in US lobbying reports include 14. Answer: D
both contributions to candidates and parties, as well Added: Denoting an increasing or enhancing quality
Created: Bring something into existence
Page 65 of 81
From the given options only B-D, C-F is matched

15. Answer: B and make a meaningful sentence. The correct
Levied: Impose a tax or fine answer after matching will be
Against: In opposition to (B-D): Mr. Knapp said that efforts were on to double
its market share in India from the present 1.4% to
16. Answer: A 3% in the next five years, as part of the company’s
From the given options only A-D, B-F is matched India 2.0 plan, through six strategic brand pillars —
and make a meaningful sentence. people, brand positioning, loyalty programmes,
The correct answer after matching will be network expansion, corporate fleets and
(A-D): In an advertisement posted on the airline’s digitalization.
website and in newspapers, the RP, Ashish (C-F): Volkswagen will be launching its A0 SUV
Chhawchharia, appointed by Jet Airways’ (sport utility vehicle) as the first product under India
lenders, has set a deadline of August 3 for receipt 2.0 initiative by end 2020-21.
of EoIs, August 6 as the date of issue of provisional Option A: (A-D, B-E) is incorrect because it does
list of prospective resolution applicants and August not make any meaningful sentence.
11 as the last date of submission of objections. Option B: (B-F, C-D) is incorrect because it does
(B-F): The estimated date for submission of the not make any meaningful sentence.
resolution plan by the RP to the National Company Option D: (A-F, B-E) is incorrect because it does
Law Tribunal for approval is September 20. not make any meaningful sentence.
Option B: (B-E, C-D) is incorrect because it does
not make any meaningful sentence. 18. Answer: D
Option C: (A-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does From the given options only A-F, B-D is matched
Option D: (A-F, B-D) is incorrect because it does answer after matching will be
not make any meaningful sentence. (A-F): ISRO’s most powerful launch vehicle, the
Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark-III
17. Answer: C or GSLV Mk -III successfully lifted off from the
Page 66 of 81
Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota and the Option A: (A-D, B-E) is incorrect because it does
spacecraft has been placed in the Earth’s Orbit. not make any meaningful sentence.
(B-D): The mighty launch vehicle GSLV Mk -III has Option C: (B-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does
been completely designed and made within the not make any meaningful sentence.
country, making it a fully home-grown technology, Option D: (A-F, B-D) is incorrect because it does
hence Chandrayaan 2 is a fully indigenous mission. not make any meaningful sentence.
Option A: (A-D, B-E) is incorrect because it does
not make any meaningful sentence. 20. Answer: C
Option B: (B-F, C-D) is incorrect because it does From the given options only B-D, C-F is matched
Option C: (B-E, C-F) is incorrect because it does answer after matching will be
not make any meaningful sentence (B-D): As part of the Finance Bill introduced in
Parliament, the Centre had proposed amendments
19. Answer: B to the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act,
From the given options only B-F, C-D is matched 1992 that were seen as affecting SEBI’s financial
and make a meaningful sentence. The correct autonomy.
answer after matching will be (C-F): To be specific, the amendments required that
(B-F): Financial Express Online has earlier
after 25% of its surplus cash in any year is
reported Indian Railways 100-day roadmap to bring
transferred to its reserve fund, SEBI will have to
all its rolling stock, locomotive and wheels
transfer the remaining 75% to the government.
manufacturing units under a single entity, the Indian
Railway Rolling Stock Company (IRRC). Option A: (A-D, B-E) is incorrect because it does
(C-D): Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, during not make any meaningful sentence.
the Union Budget presentation, indicated that the Option B: (B-F, C-D) is incorrect because it does
Centre does not have the fiscal space to make the not make any meaningful sentence.
kind of heavy investments that are required to Option D: (A-F, B-E) is incorrect because it does not
make any meaningful sentence.
modernize Indian Railways.
Page 67 of 81
General Awareness
1. FSSAI has notified regulations to limit trans-fat in 4. Which of the following park has recorded 93
food items to ____ per cent from 2022. thousand 491 birds?
A) 3 A) Bannerghatta National Park
B) 1.5 B) Kaziranga National Park
C) 1 C) Anamudi Shola National Park

D) 2 D) Bandhavgarh National Park
E) 2.5 E) Bandipur National Park
2. Which state is set to create state’s 5th tiger reserve? 5. Who among the following has written the book ‘By
A) Kerala Many a Happy Accident’?

B) Tamil Nadu A) NS Tomar
C) Haryana B) Anurag Thakur
D) Bihar C) M Hamid Ansari
E) Gujarat D) Ravi Shankar Prasad
E) Prahlad Patel
3. Which of the following city has become Karnataka's
31st district? 6. PhonePe has partnered with which bank on UPI
A) Chikballapur Multi-Bank recently?

B) Bidar A) SBI
C) Bagalkot B) Bank of Baroda
D) Ballari C) Bandhan
E) Vijayanagara D) Axis
E) HDFC
Page 68 of 81
7. World Unani Day is Observed On which of the B) February 3

following date? C) February 4
A) February 1 D) February 5
B) February 3 E) February 11
C) February 4
D) February 11 11. Indian Army has laid the foundation of a 100-foot-
E) February 5 high national flag in which UT recently?
A) Andaman & Nicobar

8. India along with which country recently reviewed the B) Daman & Diu
Indo-Pacific developments? C) Puducherry
A) Australia D) Delhi
B) France E) J&K
C) Russia
D) Japan 12. The government of which state has decided to

E) US appoint sprinter Hima Das as DSP?
A) Kerala
9. What is the theme of the RBI Financial literacy week B) Gujarat
2021? C) Bihar
A) Education Management D) Haryana

B) Farmers E) Assam
C) Credit Discipline and Credit from Formal Institutions
D) MSMEs 13. Pacer Ishant Sharma has becomes the ____ Indian
E) Credit Management pacer to take 300 Test wickets.
A) 6th
10. International Day of Women and Girls in Science B) 5th

2021 is being observed on which of the following date? C) 4th
A) February 1 D) 2nd
Page 69 of 81
E) 3rd 17. Goa has become the _____ State to successfully

undertake ULB reforms.
14. India’s first ever CNG Tractor will be launched on A) 2nd
which of the following date? B) 3rd
A) February 11 C) 4th
B) February 10 D) 6th
C) February 12 E) 5th
D) February 8
E) February 9 18. Which city police has recently launched the Swach
Sarvekshan Abhiyan?
15. ‘Hope’ probe of which of the following country has A) Delhi

successfully entered Mars orbit? B) Chandigarh
A) France C) Chennai
B) UAE D) Bengaluru
C) Saudi Arabia E) Surat
D) Qatar
E) China 19. Who among the following has been honoured as
Tamil Semmal award?
16. Which state government has signed MoU with A) Vijay

Flipkart to promote wooden toys, local artifacts, B) Yogi Babu
handicrafts? C) M. Manikandan
A) Bihar D) Muthalankurichi Kamarasu

B) Chhattisgarh E) Ravi Prakash
C) Maharashtra
D) Madhya Pradesh 20. What is the theme of World Radio Day 2021?
E) Haryana A) Services rendered by the Radio
B) As the World Changes, the Radio Evolves
Page 70 of 81
C) Resilience of Radio C) 350

D) New World, New Radio D) 450
E) Evolution of Radio E) 400
21. Which of the following country has recently test- 24. Which of the following bank will provide a $100
fired a surface-to-surface cruise missile? million Project to Support Nutrition-Supportive
A) Japan Agriculture in Tribal-Dominated Areas of Chhattisgarh?
B) Pakistan A) AfDB
C) Bangladesh B) AIIB
D) Germany C) ECB
E) Sweden D) World Bank

E) ADB
22. Which of the following states has launched the
Mandu festival? 25. A three-day Annual Convention of Association of

A) Kerala Domestic Tour Operators of India has started in which
B) Chhattisgarh state recently?
C) Bihar A) Punjab
D) Madhya Pradesh B) Bihar
E) Haryana C) Haryana
D) Madhya Pradesh
E) Gujarat
23. Exim Bank will provide ______ million for Maldives

project.
A) 250
B) 300

Page 71 of 81
1) Answer: D 500,000 premature deaths from coronary heart disease

Packaged food companies said the Food Safety and each year around the world.
Standards Authority of India’s (FSSAI) move to reduce
trans-fat in food items which use edible oil as an 2) Answer: B
ingredient to 2% from 2022. With the Centre’s approval, Tamil Nadu government
An FSSAI notification dated February 2 said the latest passed an order for creating the fifth tiger reserve in the
amendment of the Food Safety and Standards state and the 51st in the country.
(Prohibition and Restriction on Sales) Regulations, 2011 The Srivilliputhur Megamalai Tiger Reserve will span the
will come into effect from January 1, 2022. ∙ It is forests of Megamalai wildlife sanctuary and Srivilliputhur
consumer friendly and will not put burden on the industry grizzled squirrel wildlife sanctuary spread across the
as most companies are already working on reducing districts of Theni, Virudhunagar and Madurai. ∙ The
trans-fat in their products 100,000-hectare area is home to a range of mammals
The permissible limit for trans fats in food products in and bird species and more than a dozen tigers ∙
2021 is 3 percent, cut down from the previous limit of 5 Fourteen tigers have so far been identified in
per cent. Meghamalai and Srivilliputhur sanctuaries following scat
Food products that incorporate edible oils and fats as analysis between 2017 and 2018.
ingredients, including edible refined oils, Meghamalai is home to a large population of hoofed
vanaspati/partially hydrogenated oils, margarine, animals, spotted deers, Indian gaurs, etc. while
vegetable fat spreads, mixed fat spreads, bakery Sriviliputhur has Nilgiri tahrs, Sambars, elephants, and
shortenings, fall under the ambit of the newly issued bird species among others.
Food Safety and Standards (Prohibition and Restrictions The first tiger reserve in Tamil Nadu – Kalakkad
on Sales) Regulations, 2021. Mundanthurai – was formed around 1988-89, which was
The World Health Organization (WHO), which has followed by Anamalai and Mudumalai in 2008 and 2009.
launched a major campaign to eliminate industrially The fourth reserve – Sathyamangalam was created
produced trans-fat from national food supplies by 2023, around 2013-14.

says trans-fat intake is responsible for approximately
3) Answer: E
Page 72 of 81
The Karnataka government issued an official notification The recent bird census has witnessed an increase of
announcing Vijayanagara as the state's 31st district, over 59 thousand birds in the Kaziranga national park. ∙
which was carved out of the ore-rich Ballari district. The park authority has recently conducted a 2 day
Vijayanagara will have six taluks namely Hosapete, census where 35 teams were involved.
Kudligi, Hagaribommanahalli, Kotturu, Hoovina Hadagali Last year, the figure stood at 34 thousand 284.
and Harapanahalli.
Hosapete is the headquarters of the new Vijayanagara 5) Answer: C
district. Former vice president Hamid Ansari released a book

The Yediyurappa government's plan to create titled as By Many a Happy Accident. About the Author:
Vijayanagara district had run into opposition, especially Mohammad Hamid Ansari was the vice president of
from within the ruling BJP. India and chairman of the Rajya Sabha for two
Undivided Ballari was politically significant, comprising consecutive terms from 2007 to 2017.
nine Assembly constituencies of which the Congress A former diplomat, he served as ambassador to the
represents five and the BJP four. United Arab Emirates, Afghanistan, Iran, and Saudi
Minister for Infrastructure Development, Haj and Wakf, Arabia, as high commissioner to Australia and as
Anand Singh, who is also the Ballari district in-charge, permanent representative to the United Nations in New
had anchored the efforts for the new district. York. About the book:
The book By Many a Happy Accident offers an
4) Answer: B informative and engaging account of the life and work of

In Assam, the Kaziranga national park has recorded a Hamid Ansari, an outstanding public servant.
total of 93 thousand 491 birds as per the latest census. ∙ This book is an account of a life of unplanned
There are 112 bird species and 22 families found during happenings that took M. Hamid Ansari away from his
the enumeration. preferred fancy for academia to professional diplomacy.
For Study Materials: www.ibpsguide.com For Mock This book is based on unplanned happenings that took
Tests & E-books: https://guidely.in Follow us: Telegram, M. Hamid Ansari away from his preferred fancy for
Facebook, Twitter, Instagram academia to professional diplomacy and then be co-
Daily Current Affairs 11th February 2021 opted in public life and catapulted to the second highest
Page 73 of 81
office in the land for two consecutive terms. None of his It is the birthday of the great Unani scholar and social
predecessors, except Dr Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, had reformer "Hakim Ajmal Khan"
experienced this honour. Objective :
He also highlights some of the important contemporary To pay tribute to Hakim Ajmal Khan for his contribution
issues demanding urgent address to ensure good in the sustained development of the Unani system of
governance and inclusive growth and progress in our medicine in the country and world across.
society. First Unani Day was celebrated at Central Research
Institute of Unani Medicine (CRIUM), Hyderabad in

6) Answer: D 2017.
Digital payments platform PhonePe announced that it The Unani system of medicine is a science of life, a
has partnered with Axis Bank on a Unified Payments system of healthcare and medicine that aims to assist
Interface (UPI) multi-bank model. people in living a healthy life.
The partnership will provide PhonePe users with the About Hakim Ajmal Khan :
option to create and use multiple UPI IDs with Axis Hakim Ajmal Khan, he was an eminent Indian Unani
Bank’s “@axl” handle. physician who was a versatile genius, a great scholar, a
PhonePe will also start acquiring merchants with Axis social reformer, a noted freedom fighter, an Unani
Bank in addition to its partnership with YES Bank. ∙ This medical educationist, and founder of scientific research
partnership with Axis Bank will ensure greater business in the Unani System of Medicine
continuity for both our customers and merchant partners, He was one of the founders of the Jamia Millia Islamia
making their transaction experience seamless.” University, New Delhi.
He was also appointed the university's first chancellor in
7) Answer: D 1920 and remained in office until his death in 1927.

World Unani Day is a global event celebrated on
February 11 to spread awareness about health care 8) Answer: E
delivery through the Unani system of medicine through External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and US Secretary
its preventive and curative philosophy. of State Antony Blinken held a "comprehensive
Page 74 of 81
discussion and reviewed Indo-Pacific developments and The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been conducting
the Quad cooperation”. Financial Literacy Week (FLW) every year since 2016 to
Mr Jaishankar said that they also exchanged views on propagate financial education messages on a particular
the situation in Myanmar. theme across the country.
The External Affairs Minister said, he looks forward to

remaining in touch with him. 10) Answer: E
The telephonic conversation between Mr Jaishankar and On 11 February, the United Nations, partners worldwide,
Blinken came a day after Prime Minister Narendra Modi women and girls will mark the International Day of
had a telephonic conversation with US President Joe Women and Girls in Science.
Biden. This year, the world will celebrate the 6th International
During the conversation, both the leaders discussed Day of Women and Girls in Science Assembly
regional issues and the shared priorities. The Day focuses on the reality that science and gender
equality are both vital for the achievement of
9) Answer: C internationally agreed development goals, including the

Reserve Bank of India, Delhi is observing Financial 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
Literacy Week from February 8-12, 2021, to propagate The 2021 theme of the Day is “Women Scientists at the
financial education. forefront of the fight against COVID-19”.
The Reserve Bank of India has launched the Financial The UN General Assembly established this Day, on 22
Literacy Week on the theme of 'Credit Discipline and December 2015, to recognize the critical role women
Credit from Formal Institutions'. and girls play in science and technology
This theme is one of the strategic objectives of the The Day is implemented by UNESCO and UN-Women
National Strategy for Financial Education 2020-2025. in collaboration with institutions and civil society partners
Focus will be on responsible borrowing; borrowing from that aim to promote women and girls in science.
formal institutions and timely repayments. As per UNESCO data (2014-2016), only around 30 per
This five-day event was launched on Monday by Ajay cent of all female students select STEM-related fields in
Kumar, Regional Director, Reserve Bank of India, New higher education. Across the globe, enrolment of female
Delhi
Page 75 of 81
students is lower in natural sciences, mathematics and appoint her as a Deputy Superintendent of Police in the
statistics as compared to men. state.
The 21-year-old is currently preparing for the upcoming
11) Answer: E Tokyo Olympics qualification at Netaji Subhas National
The Indian Army has laid the foundation stone of the Institute of Sports, Patiala.
tallest 'Iconic National Flag' at the famous ski-resort of
Gulmarg in Jammu and Kashmir. 13) Answer: E
The flag will be on a 100 feet-high pole, the highest Veteran fast bowler Ishant Sharma became the sixth
Tricolour in the Valley. Indian and the third pacer from the country to take 300
The Indian Army in collaboration with the Solar Industry wickets in Test cricket
India will install the 'Iconic National Flag' at Gulmarg. The 32-year-old Ishant reached the milestone in 98
The foundation stone for the iconic national flag was laid matches, more than the other Indian bowlers in the club.
by Dagger Division General Officer Commanding (GoC) Ishant reached the landmark when he trapped Dan
Major General Virendra Vats along with Bollywood actor- Lawrence with a delivery that swung back sharply before
producer Arbaaz Khan and actress Vidya Balan. hitting his pads in England's second innings on the
This iconic Indian national flag will be a first in many fourth day of the opening Test
ways. The site is expected to become another tourist Besides Kumble (619) and Kapil (434), Ravichandran
attraction, among the snow-clad mountains of Kashmir. Ashwin (377 before this game), Harbhajan Singh (417),
and Zaheer Khan (311) are the other bowlers from the
12) Answer: E country who have reached the landmark.
Assam Chief Minister Sarbananda Sonowal chaired a The ICC also lauded the seasoned fast bowler's
meeting of his cabinet where a decision was taken to achievement, coming after more than 13 years of toil.
appoint World Championship sprinter Hima Das as a
Deputy Superintendent of Police in the state. 14) Answer: C
Union Youth Affairs and Sports Minister Kiren Rijiju said Union Minister for Road Transport and Highways Nitin
that sprinter Hima Das will continue running for the Gadkari will formally launch India's first-ever diesel
country even after the Assam government decided to tractor converted into a CNG tractor on February 12.
Page 76 of 81
This conversion is jointly done by Rawmatt Techno The Hope Mars Mission is considered as the biggest
Solutions and Tomasetto Achille India. strategic and scientific national initiative announced by
The CNG tractor will help farmers to increase their UAE's President His Highness Sheikh Khalifa bin Zayed
income, by lowering costs and help to create job Al Nahyan and His Highness Sheikh Mohammed bin
opportunities in rural India. Rashid Al Maktoum in 2014.

This will help them to improve their livelihood. Prior to this, only the United States, Soviet Union,
The farmers can save up to 50 per cent on the fuel cost Europe and India have achieved this feat.
as the current Diesel prices are around 77 rupees per

litre whereas CNG is only 42 rupees per kilogram 16) Answer: C
The conversion from diesel to CNG will be beneficial as To promote wooden toys, local artifacts, handicrafts
it is a clean fuel with lowest carbon and pollutant Maharashtra Small Industries Development Corporation
content. It is also economical as it has zero lead and is and Maharashtra State Khadi & Village Industries Board
non-corrosive, non-dilutive and non-contaminating which have signed a Memorandum of Understanding with
helps in increasing the life of the engine. Flipkart.

This MoU will enable artisans, weavers, craftsmen &
15) Answer: B MSMEs from Maharashtra to showcase their products to
The United Arab Emirates (UAE) made history as its millions of customers in India.
first-ever interplanetary Hope Probe mission Flipkart will provide free training for packaging and
successfully entered orbit around Mars. branding to all these manufacturers.

According to CNN, UAE's first mission to Mars arrived at Also, product photography will also be done by the
the red planet and successfully entered orbit on its first company.
attempt.
When the spacecraft arrived, the Hope Probe marked 17) Answer: D
the UAE as only the fifth country in history to reach the Goa has become the 6th State in the country to
red planet and the Arab nation's first interplanetary successfully undertake Urban Local Bodies reforms
mission. stipulated by the Department of Expenditure.
Page 77 of 81
Finance Ministry said, the state has now become eligible A native of Muthala Kurichi village, Kamarasu has
to mobilise additional financial resources of 223 crore penned 53 books including two novels.
rupees through Open Market Borrowings. His writings focus mainly on the history of composite
Goa has joined five other states - Andhra Pradesh, Tirunelveli and Thoothukudi, feudal systems of Zamins,
Madhya Pradesh, Manipur, Rajasthan and Telangana, historical cities like Korkai and archaeological sites along
who have completed Urban Local Bodies reforms. river Thamirabarani and the spirituality associated with
the river.
18) Answer: D
The Bruhat Bengaluru Mahanagara Palike has launched 20) Answer: D
Swach Sarvekshan Abhiyan in Bengaluru to educate Every year World Radio Day (WRD) is celebrated on 13
citizens about solid waste management. February.

The Special Commissioner in the Municipal Corporation, The day was proclaimed by the member states of
Randeep Dev informed that Bengaluru received 214 UNESCO in 2011 and subsequently adopted by the
marks in Sarvekshan last year. United Nations General Assembly in 2021 as an

To gain a higher rank, he informed that 40 percent of International Day.
waste is segregated and 18,000 municipal workers, The theme of World Radio Day 2021, "New World, New
8000 drivers are pressed into garbage collection work Radio", will highlight the services rendered by the radio
every day in the city. medium throughout the crisis.
The year 2021 will see WRD being divided into three
19) Answer: D main sub-themes as well. These include:
From a bus conductor to a writer, Muthalankurichi “Evolution: The world changes, radio evolves. This sub-
Kamarasu has come a long way in his life. theme refers to the resilience of the radio, to its
And, when he started following his passion, honour sustainability.”
came calling. “Innovation: The world changes, radio adapts and
Chief Minister Edappadi K Palaniswami handed over innovates. Radio has had to adapt to new technologies
Tamil Semmal award to Kamarasu during a function to remain the go-to medium of mobility, accessible
held at the secretariat in Chennai on February 1. everywhere and to everyone;
Page 78 of 81
“Connection: The world changes, radio connects. This State culture and tourism minister Usha Thakur
sub-theme highlights radio’s services to our society— inaugurated the mandu festival.
natural disasters, socio-economic crises, epidemics, Handicrafts related to handmade art are also being
etc.” displayed in the Mandu Utsav to encourage vocals for
locals.
21) Answer: B Dino Adventure Park & Fossils Museum also
Pakistan conducted a successful training launch of a inaugurated by the state culture and tourism minister.
surface-to-surface cruise missile which can strike targets The State Minister informed that the Dinosaur Park is
up to 450 kilometres, the country's first modern fossil park which has 24 eggs
This was the country's third missile test in three weeks. and other fossils of dinosaurs on display.
The Babar missile "is capable of engaging targets at The park also provides information related to the life of
land and sea with high precision. dinosaurs.
The Babur cruise missile IA was launched from a “state Principal Secretary Tourism and Culture Shri Sheo
of the art Multi Tube Missile Launch Vehicle Shekhar Shukla said that Such events will not only
On January 20, the army conducted a successful test of familiarize people around the world with the special
the surface-to-surface ballistic missile Shaheen-III. culture of rural Madhya Pradesh but will also help in
Earlier this month, the army successfully conducted the realizing the dream of Atmanirbhar Madhya Pradesh by
‘training launch’ of nuclear-capable ballistic missile sile creating new employment opportunities.
Ghaznavi as part of its annual field training exercise.

Earlier in January this year, the army had also test-fired 23) Answer: E
an indigenously developed extended-range guided Export-Import Bank of India (Exim Bank) will provide
Multi-Launch Rocket System (MLRS). $400 million to Maldives to fund Greater Male
Connectivity Project.
22) Answer: D The agreement under the line of credit is effective
In Madhya Pradesh, the three-day Mandu Festival January 28, 2021.

began at Mandu in the historic town of Dhar district. The 6.7 km Greater Male Connectivity Project (GMCP)
will be the largest civilian infrastructure project in
Page 79 of 81
Maldives, connecting Male with three neighbouring 25) Answer: E

islands Villingili, Gulhifahu and Thilafushi. The slogan of ‘Dekho Apna Desh’ by the Prime Minister
India will fund the implementation of a major connectivity has given boost to domestic tourism stated Union
project in Maldives through a USD 400 million line of Minister of State (IC) for Tourism & Culture, Shri Prahlad
credit and USD 100 million grant. Singh Patel, while inaugurating via video conferencing
Kevadia, Gujarat.
24) Answer: D The three-day event has been organised from February
The Government of India, the Government of 12 to 14, 2021.

Chhattisgarh and the World Bank signed a $100 million The three day ADTOI 10th Annual Convention-cum-
project to develop sustainable production systems. Exhibition at the Statue of Unity (SOU), Tent City 2 in
That will allow tribal households in remote areas of Kevadia, is based on the theme: ‘Domestic Tourism
Chhattisgarh to practice round-the-year production of Hope for the revival- Dekho Apna Desh’.
diversified and nutritious food. This convention has been jointly organized by the
CHIRAAG - Chhattisgarh Inclusive Rural and Ministry of Tourism and ADTOI with support from
Accelerated Agriculture Growth Project will be Gujarat Tourism.
implemented in the southern tribal-majority region of the It aims at building public confidence to travel for the
state where a large population is undernourished and revival of domestic tourism in the country and is being
poor. attended by around 400 delegates comprising ADTOI
The project will benefit over 180,000 households from members from across India, hoteliers, airlines
about 1,000 villages in eight districts of Chhattisgarh. representatives, senior government officials, media-
The loan agreement was signed by Dr. C S Mohapatra, persons among other stakeholders of the tourism
Additional Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs, industry.

Ministry of Finance on behalf of the Government of India
and Mr Junaid Kamal Ahmad, Country Director (India)
on behalf of the World Bank
Page 80 of 81
Page 81 of 81
Page 1 of 110
Reasoning Ability
Direction (1 -4) : S tudy th e fo llowing i nfor mation 3) If the petrol cost is Rs.76/litre and the mileage o f
carefully and answer the questions given below. the car is 5kmpl, then what will be the to tal c ost o f
A car from point P travels towards the east for 5 km. the entire journey?
After taking a right turn from point Q, travels 8 km to a) Rs.542
reach point R where it takes a left turn and Travels b) Rs.522
for 5 km in the same direction to reach point S c) Rs.552
where it takes a left turn and travels for 14 km to d) Rs.532
reach point T. Then the car takes a right turn from e) Cannot be determined
point T and travels for another 3 km and stops at
point U. 4) If point V is 8km south of point U then what is the
1) What is the shortest distance between p oints Q direction of point P with respect to point V?
and U? a) North
a) 8km b) South
b) 9km c) Southwest
c) 10km d) Northwest
d) 12km e) None of the above
e) 14km
Direction (5-7): Answer the questions based on th e
2) What is the direction of point P w ith r e spect to information given below.
point R? A person from point B walks to point F crossing the
a) Southeast following points. Point G is 5m to the south of point
b) Northwest B and 4m to the west of point C. Point E is 3m to
c) Southwest the south of point C and 6m to the east of point A.
d) Northeast Point F is 9m to the east of point D which is 8m to
e) North the north of point A.
5) What is the shortest distance between p oints B
and F?
Page 2 of 110
a) 6m reach point Q. Again he takes 135° to his left and

b) 7m walks 7km to reach point S and finally, he takes 45°
c) 9m to his right and walks 15km to stop at point L.
d) 8m 8) What is the direction of p oint L w ith r e spect to
e) 5m point R?
a) East
6) What is the direction of point C w ith r e spect to b) North
point F? c) North-West
a) Northeast d) South
b) Northwest e) South-west
c) Southwest
d) South 9) What is the distance between P and S?
e) Southeast a) 8km
b) 6km
7) If the person walks at a s p eed o f 1 .5m /s, th en c) 5km
how long it takes to reach point A from point B? d) 4km
a) 6 sec e) Can’t be determined
b) 8 sec
c) 10 sec 10) Four of the five among the following are similar
d) 12 sec in such a way to fo rm a g r oup, w hich o ne o f th e
e) None of the above following doesn’t belong to the group?
a) PL
Direction (8-10): Study th e following i nfor mation b) RS
carefully and answer the below questions. c) RL
Mr.K starts walking from point X towards the north d) XL
direction and walks for 4km to reach point P where e) PQ
he takes a right turn. After covering 5km to reach
point R then he takes a left turn and covers 12km to
Page 3 of 110
Direction (11-13): Study the following i nform ation c) North-east

carefully and answer the below question: d) Cannot be determined
Point U is 12m south of point R, which is 20m north e) None of these
of point S. point T is 8m east of point R. Point P is
14m west of point U and 16m north of point W. Direction (14-17): Study the following i nform ation
Point Q is 12m south of point T. Point O is 18m east carefully and answer the questions given below.
of point W. Point V is exactly in the middle between A man from point A walks towards the west for 3m
point Q and point U. and turns to his left at point B, from where he walks
11) In which d ir ection i s p oint V with r espect to for 1m and reaches point C. Then, he turns to his
point O? right and walks for 6m to reach point D where he
a) North turns to his left. Then he walks for 8m and reaches
b) South point E. He walks for 2m after taking a left turn and
c) North-east reaches point F. Then he walks for 4m towards the
d) South-west north to reach point G from where he turns to his
e) North-west right and walks for 7m to reach point H.
14) What is the shortest distance between points A
12) What is the shortest distance between the and H?
points R and Q? a) 6m
a) √ 208 m b) 8m
b) √ 209 m c) 7m
c) √ 207 m d) 5m
d) √ 210 m e) None of these
e) None of these
15) In which d ir ection i s p oint D with r espect to
13) In which d ir ection i s p oint S with r espect to point G?
point L, which is 5m west of point V ? a) North
a) North b) Southeast
b) south-east c) Northwest
Page 4 of 110
d) South 18) If the Rice shop is north of the m eat s hop a nd

e) None of these the distance between them is half o f the d istance
16) What is the approximate shortest distance between the grain shop and the F ruits s hop, then
between points E and B? what is the shortest distance b etween th e Gr ains
a)12m shop and Rice shop?
b)11m a) √96 m
c) 10m b) √97 m
d) 13m c) √95 m
e) None of these d) √98 m
e) None of the above
17) If point J is exactly in the middle of points D and
C, then what is the direction of point J with r e spect 19) If the vegetable shop is shifted to th e fish s tall
to point F? then the fish stall is shifted to th e fr uits s hop th en
a) North the fruits shop i s s hifted to th e v egetable s hop.
b) Southwest Then what is the direction o f th e V egetable s hop
c) Northeast with respect to the Grains shop?
d) South a) West
e) None of the above b) South
c) North
Direction (18-20): Study the following i nform ation d) South-west
carefully and answer the below questions e) South-east
In the market, some shops are located at a certain
distance. The Fish stall is 10m north of the 20) If the Flower shop is 8m north of the fi sh s tall,
vegetable shop which is 8m west of the Fruits shop. then what i s the d istance b e tween th e S pinach
Spinach shop is 15m east of Grains shop which is shop and Flower shop?
18m north of Fruits shop. The meat shop is exactly a) 28m
between the Vegetable shop and the fruit shop. b) 25m
c) 23m
Page 5 of 110
d) 27m HCL sits second to the right of the one who works
e) None of the above in Cognizant. The number of persons is sitting
between D and the one who works in Bangalore is
Directions (21-25): Study the following i nform ation the same as between the one who works in
carefully and answer the below questions Bangalore and B. The one who works in HCL does
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting not work in the Bangalore branch. The one who
at the square table facing the center. Four of them works in Mumbai sits adjacent to neither H nor C.
are sitting in the middle of the table and four of The one who works in Hyderabad sits immediate
them are sitting at the corner of the table. They are left of the one who works in Capgemini. The one
working in different companies- Wipro, Accenture, who works in Hyderabad does not sit adjacent to D.
IBM, Cognizant, Oracle, HCL, Capgemini, and TCS Neither B nor D works in Chennai. Either D or H
and they are working in different branches- works in Delhi.
Hyderabad, Bangalore, Kochi, Chennai, Pune, 21) Who among the following person works in
Kolkata, Mumbai, and Delhi but not necessarily in Delhi?
the same order. a) C
B who does not sit at the corner sits third to the left b) The one who sits opposite to G
of the one who works in TCS. One person sits c) The one who works in HCL
between B and the one who works in Kochi. G sits d) The one who sits immediate left of A
opposite to the one who sits third to the right of the e) B
one who works in Kochi. C and G are sitting
adjacent to each other. The one who works in 22) Which of the following statement is true?
Accenture sits second to the left of C. F sits third to I) E works in Accenture
the left of D who sits opposite to the one who works II) The one who works in Cognizant works in
in Oracle. The one who works in Oracle works in Kolkata
the Kochi branch. E sits adjacent to neither D nor F. III) C and A sit opposite to ea ch other
The one who works in Pune sits second to the right a) Only (I) and (II)
of H. The one who works in HCL sits opposite to the b) Only (I)
one who works in Wipro. The one who works in c) Only (I) and (III)
Page 6 of 110
d) Only (II) Directions (26-30): Study the following i nform ation

e) All (I), (II), and (III) carefully and answer the below questions
Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting
23) In which of the following company does G at the square table. Four of them are sitting at the
work? corner of the table are facing the center and four of
a) TCS them are sitting in the middle of the table are facing
b) Wipro outside. They like different chocolates- Dairy Milk,
c) Cognizant Munch, Snickers, Galaxy, Kitkat, Bar one, Milky bar
d) Capgemini and Bournville. And they are having different
e) Accenture numbers of chocolates. All the information is not
24) What is the position o f th e o ne w ho w orks i n Note: The consecutive alphabetical n a mes o f th e
Oracle with respect to D w hen c ounted fr om the persons are not sitting together.
right of D? Q sits second to the right of the one who likes Bar
a) Second one. Two persons are sitting between the one who
b) Fourth likes Bar one and S. S sits immediate left of W who
c) Fifth faces outside. R sits third to the left of T. The one
d) Third who likes Kitkat sits immediate right P. Neither P
e) Immediate right nor V sits adjacent to each other. The one who likes
Bournville sits opposite to the one who sits
25) Which of the following combination is true? immediate right of V. The one who likes Munch has
a) B-IBM 49 chocolates and is facing the center. The one
b) Wipro-Pune who likes Galaxy sits third to the right of the one
c) Accenture-Mumbai who likes Dairy Milk. Either Q or P likes Galaxy. V
d) H- Bangalore likes neither Dairymilk nor Munch. The one who
e) TCS- Kolkata likes Kitkat is four chocolates less than Munch. The
one who likes Galaxy has one-third of the
chocolates having by U. The one who sits adjacent
Page 7 of 110
to U does not like Snickers. The one who likes e) All (I), (II), and (III)
snickers has twice of Bar one and three more than
the chocolates having by Q. Neither V nor the one 28) Which of the following combination is true?
who likes Dairy milk has an odd number of a) R-Snickers
chocolates. The one who has 21 chocolates sits at b)T- Bar one
the corner of the table. There is ten chocolate c) Milkybar- P
difference between the chocolates of R and V. R d) U- Galaxy
has more chocolates than T and S. The difference e) S- 32
between the number of chocolates of U and P is the
same as between R and W. W has more chocolates 29) Four of the five among the following are similar
than the one who likes Dairy Milk. in such a way to fo rm a g r oup, w hich o ne o f th e
26) What is the sum of the chocolates of V, Q, a nd following doesn’t belong to the group?
W? a) V
a) 64 b) The one who likes Milky bar
b) 75 c)The one who sits immediate left of S
c) 92 d) R
d) 65 e) The one who sits immediate right of U
e) 60
30) Who among the following person likes
27) Who among the following person h as a n e ven Bournville chocolate?
number of chocolates? a) The one who has 21 chocolates
I) The one w ho likes Dairy milk b) The one who has 18 chocolates
II) The one who likes Bournville c) W
III) The one who sits immediate left of T d) V
a) Only (I) and (II) e) The one who sits immediate right V
b) Only (I)
c) Only (I) and (III) Directions (31-35): Study the following i nform ation
d) Only (II) carefully and answer the below questions
Page 8 of 110
Six persons- U, V, W, X, Y, and Z are sitting at the a) The one who bought Honda
hexagonal table facing the center. They are sitting b) The one who bought Hero
at each corner of the table. They bought different c) The one who bought TVS
brand bikes- Hero, TVS, KTM, Suzuki, Honda, and d) The one who sits second to the left of W
Bajaj. And the bikes are different in colors- Red, e) The one who sits immediate right of V
Black, White, Green, Blue, and Yellow but not
necessarily in the same order. 32) How many persons are sitting between the o n e
Y sits second to the left of the one who bought KTM who bought Honda and the one who b o ught B ajaj
bikes. The one who bought the Honda bike sits when counted from the right of the one who bought
adjacent to Y. The one who bought Red color bike Honda?
sits third to the left of the one who bought KTM. W a) One
sits immediate left of Z, neither of them sits b) Two
adjacent to the one who bought Honda and Y. The c) Three
one who sits opposite to Z sits adjacent to the one d) Four
who bought the White color bike. V bought the e) Either b or d
black color bike and is not an immediate neighbor
of Y. U bought neither Honda nor TVS. The one 33) Four of the five among the following are similar
who bought the Bajaj bike sits opposite to the one in such a way to form a group, who among the
who sits immediate right of the one who bought the following doesn’t belong to the group?
Hero bike. Y and Z do not buy Hero bikes. Either X a)X, the one who bought KTM
or Z bought the Blue color bike. The number of b) W, The one who bought TVS
persons sits between X and the one who bought c) Z, U
yellow color bike is the same as between the one d) The one who bought white color, the one who
who bought the yellow color bike and U. The one bought Honda
who bought a Suzuki bike sits second to the right of e) V, Y
the one who bought the green color bike.
31) W h o a mong th e following p erson b ought a
Green color bike?
Page 9 of 110
34) If U is related to Bajaj and V is related to Suzuki and Teacher. And they are having different pet
in a certain way. Then who among the following i s animals- Goat, Dog, Horse, Cat, Ox, Rabbit, Pig,
related to TVS? and Cow but not necessarily in the same order. All
a) The one who bought the white bike three persons are sitting on longer sides do not face
b) The one who bought the Blue bike the same direction.
c) The one who sits immediate left of V P sits third to the right of M who faces outside. R
d) The one who sits third to the left of Z sits second to the right of P, both are facing the
e) None of the above opposite direction. P sits on the smaller side of the
table. The one who has Rabbit sits third to the right
35) Which of the following combination is/are false? of R and both are facing the same direction. O is
I. W-TVS-Yellow Artist and is an immediate neighbor of neither P nor
II. V-Black-Honda M. The Businessman sits immediate right of Artist.
III. Y-White-Suzuki The immediate neighbors of the Artist are facing the
a) Only I and III opposite direction. R does not sit opposite to O who
b) Only III is facing the opposite direction as M. L has Goat
c) Only I and II sits third to the left of the one who is a scientist. The
d) Only II Scientist is an immediate neighbor of neither Artist
e) None of the statement is false nor Businessman. S sits immediate right of N. The
Doctor sits second to the right of S. The banker is
Directions (36-40): Study the following i nform ation facing towards the center. The one who has cow
carefully and answer the below questions sits second to the right of the one who sits
Eight persons-L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S are sitting immediate left of P. Neither P nor the one who has
at the rectangular table. Three of them are sitting at Goat is a Lawyer. The engineer sits second to the
each long side and one person is sitting at each right of the one who has the Horse. The one who
smaller side. Four of them are facing the center and has a pig sits second to the left of the one who has
four of them are facing opposite to the center. They Ox, vice versa. Either Doctor or Engineer has Cat.
belong to the different professions- Doctor, Lawyer, Neither Scientist nor Teacher has Pig. The one who
Scientist, Artist, Engineer, Businessman, Banker, sits opposite to P faces the same directions as P.
Page 10 of 110
36) Who among the following person is the b) The one who has Dog
Teacher? c) P
a) The one who sits second to the left of Q d) The one who sits third to the left of Q
b) The one who has Ox e) The one who sits immediate right N
c) The one who has Goat
d) The one who sits third to the right of O 40)Four of the following five are a like i n a c e rtain
e) The one who has Cat way and thus form a group. Find the one who
doesn’t belong to that group?
37) Which of the following combination is true? a) The one who has Cat
a) L-Dog-Businessman b) The one who sits immediate right of S
b) O-Cat- Lawyer c) The one who sits immediate left of N
c) P-Rabbit- Banker d) The one who is Teacher
d) N-Ox-Teacher e) The one who has Horse
e) Engineer-P-Pig
Directions (41-45): Study the following i nform ation
38) Who among the following person sits second to carefully and answer the below questions
the left of the one who has a Horse? Eight persons- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are sitting
a) The one who sits second to the right of P at the rectangular table facing the center. Four of
b) O them are seated at the corner and Four of them are
c) The one who has Ox seated in the middle of the table. They are
d) The one who is an Engineer celebrating their birthday in different months-
e) The one who sits immediate left of M March, April, May, June, August, September,
October, and November. And they like different
39) If O is related to Horse and Q is related to C ow sweets- Laddu, Jalebi, Mysore Pak, Halwa,
in a certain way. Then who among the following i s KajuKatli, Kheer, Burfi, and Jamun but not
related to Ox? necessarily in the same order. The consecutive
a) The one who sits immediate left of the one who alphabetical names of the persons are not sitting
is Scientist together.
Page 11 of 110
R sits third to the left of the one who likes Jalebi. d) The one who sits immediate right of the one who
One person sits between the one who likes Jalebi likes KajuKatli
and U who sits in the middle of the longer side of e) Q
the table. The one who likes Jamun sits second to 42) Who among the following p erson c elebrates
the left of the one who likes Mysore Pak. The one their birthday in a month having an even number o f
who likes Mysore Pak sits immediate left of R. Q days?
sits second to the right of S. Two persons are sitting I) The one who sits immediate right of U
between S and P who sits middle of the table. S II) The one who likes Mysore Pak
and the one who likes Jamun are not immediate III) The one who likes Laddu
neighbors. W does not like Jalebi. The one who sits a) Only (I) and (II)
immediate right of T celebrates in October. The one b) Only (I)
who likes KajuKatli sits third to the left of the one c) Only (II) and (III)
who likes Laddu. Neither R nor S likes Kheer. The d) Only (II)
one who celebrated in April sits fourth to the right of e) All (I), (II), and (III)
the one who likes Kheer. The one who likes Halwa
celebrates in August. The one who celebrates in 43) Who among the following person likes Jalebi?
March sits corner of the table. The one who a) S
celebrates in October and March are not immediate b) The one who sits second to the right of P
neighbors. U celebrates in a month having an odd c) The one who celebrates in November
number of days. The one who celebrates in May d) The one who sits immediate right of U
sits second to the right of the one who celebrates in e) The one who celebrates in April
September. V does not celebrate in June. U does
not like Laddu. 44) What is the position of the one who likes
41) Who among the following person sits second to KajuKatli with respect to W?
the right of the one who likes Halwa? a) Fourth to the left
a) The one who likes Jalebi b) Second to the left
b) The one who sits immediate left of P c) Third to the right
c) The one who sits second to the left of U d) Third to the left
Page 12 of 110
e) Second to the right c) The one who likes Mysore Pak and R are
immediate neighbors
45) Which of the following statement is true? d) U likes Halwa
a) The one who likes Jalebi celebrates in August e) P celebrates in November
b) Two persons are sitting between the one who
likes Laddu and S
Directions (1-4): 5) Answer: B

6) Answer: C
7) Answer: D
Directions (8-10):
1) Answer: C
2) Answer: B
3) Answer: D
4) Answer: D
Directions (5-7):
8) Answer: C
9) Answer: B
122 + 52= (PQ)2
√169 =13km
Page 13 of 110
13-7=6km 14) Answer: D

16) Answer: B
Directions (11-13): 17) Answer: C
Directions (18-20):
11) Answer: A
18) Answer: B
12) Answer: A
√(92+42) = √97 m
13) Answer: B
19) Answer: D
20) Answer: C
Directions (14-17):
Directions (21-25):
Page 14 of 110
Final Arrangement From the above condition, there are three

possibilities.
We have,
• B who does not sit at the corner sits third to
the left of the one who works in TCS.
• One person sits between B and the one who
works in Kochi.
possibilities.
Again we have,
• G sits opposite to the one who sits third to
Again we have,
the right of the one who works in Kochi.
• The one who works in Accenture sits second
• C and G are sitting adjacent to each other.
to the left of C.
Page 15 of 110
• F sits third to the left of D who sits opposite • E sits adjacent to neither D nor F.
to the one who works in Oracle. From the above condition, case1 and case2 get
• The one who works in Oracle works in the eliminated.
Kochi branch.
Again we have,
Again we have,
Page 16 of 110
• The one who works in Pune sits second to

the right of H.
• The one who works in HCL sits opposite the
one who works in Wipro.
• The one who works in HCL sits second to
the right of the one who works in Cognizant.
Again we have,
• The one who works in Mumbai sits adjacent
to neither H nor C.
• The one who works in Hyderabad sits
immediate left of the one who works in
Again we have, Capgemini.
• The number of persons is sitting between D • The one who works in Hyderabad does not
and the one who works in Bangalore is the sit adjacent to D.
same as between the one who works in • Neither B nor D works in Chennai.
Bangalore and B. • Either D or H works in Delhi.
• The one who works in HCL does not work in From the above condition, case1a shows the final
the Bangalore branch. arrangement.
From the above condition, case1(1) gets eliminated.
Page 17 of 110
• Q sits second to the right of the one who

likes Bar one.
who likes Bar one and S.
• S sits immediate left of W who faces outside.
possibilities.
Directions (26-30):
26) Answer: D
27) Answer: A
28) Answer: B
Again we have,
29) Answer: C
• R sits third to the left of T.
30) Answer: C
Final Arrangement
Case1 has one more possibility.
We have,
Page 18 of 110
Again we have,
• The one who likes Munch has 49 chocolates
and is facing the center.
• The one who likes Galaxy sits third to the
right of the one who likes Dairy Milk.
• Either Q or P likes Galaxy.
• V likes neither Dairymilk nor Munch.
Again we have, possibilities.
• The one who likes Kitkat sits immediate right
P.
• Neither P nor V sits adjacent to each other.
• The one who likes Bournville sits opposite to
the one who sits immediate right of V.
• The consecutive alphabetical names of the
persons are not sitting together.
Page 19 of 110
Again we have,
• The one who likes Kitkat is four chocolates
less than Munch. Again we have,
• The one who likes Galaxy has one-third of • The one who sits adjacent to U does not like
the chocolates having by U. Snickers.
• The one who likes snickers has twice of Bar
one and three more than the chocolates
having by Q.
• Neither V nor the one who likes Dairy milk
has an odd number of chocolates.
• The one who has 21 chocolates sits at the
corner of the table.
Page 20 of 110
Again we have,
• There is ten chocolates difference between
the chocolates of R and V.
• R has more chocolates than T and S.
• The difference between the number of
chocolates of U and P is the same as
between R and W.
• W has more chocolates than the one who
likes Dairy Milk.
From the above condition, case1a(1) gets
eliminated. Case1a shows the final arrangement.
Page 21 of 110
• The one who bought the Honda bike sits

adjacent to Y.
possibilities.
Directions (31-35):
31) Answer: C
32) Answer: A
33) Answer: E
Again we have,
34) Answer: A
• The one who bought Red color bike sits third
35) Answer: C
to the left of the one who bought KTM.
Final Arrangement
• W sits immediate left of Z, neither of them
sits adjacent to the one who bought Honda
and Y.
• The one who sits opposite to Z sits adjacent
to the one who bought the White color bike.
possibilities.
We have,
• Y sits second to the left of the one who
bought KTM bikes.
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• V bought the black color bike and is not an

immediate neighbor of Y.
Again we have,
Page 23 of 110
• The number of persons sits between X and

the one who bought the yellow color bike is
the same as between the one who bought
the yellow color bike and U.
• The one who bought a Suzuki bike sits
second to the right of the one who bought
the green color bike.
case1(1) shows the final arrangement.
Again we have,
• U bought neither Honda nor TVS.
• The one who bought the Bajaj bike sits
opposite to the one who sits immediate right
of the one who bought the Hero bike.
• Y and Z do not buy Hero bikes.
Directions (36-40):
36) Answer: C
37) Answer: E
38) Answer: E
39) Answer: A
40) Answer: E
Again we have,
Final Arrangement
• Either X or Z bought the Blue color bike.
Page 24 of 110
• O is Artist and is an immediate neighbor of

neither P nor M.
• The Businessman sits immediate right of
Artist.
• The immediate neighbors of the Artist are
• The one who sits opposite to P faces the
same directions as P.
• R does not sit opposite to O who is facing
the opposite direction as M.
We have, • All three persons are sitting on longer sides
• P sits third to the right of M who faces do not face the same direction.
outside.
• R sits second to the right of P, both are
• P sits on the smaller side of the table.
possibilities.
Again we have,
• L has Goat and sits third to the left of the one
who is a scientist.
Again we have, • The Scientist is an immediate neighbor of
• The one who has Rabbit sits third to the right neither Artist nor Businessman.
of R and both are facing the same direction.
Page 25 of 110
From the above condition, there are three • S sits immediate right of N.
possibilities. • The Doctor sits second to the right of S.
• The banker is facing towards the center.
eliminated.
Again we have,
Page 26 of 110
• The one who has a pig sits second to the left

of the one who has Ox, vice versa.
• Either Doctor or Engineer has Cat.
• Neither Scientist nor Teacher has Pig.
Again we have,
• The one who has cow sits second to the right
of the one who sits immediate left of P.
• Neither P nor the one who has Goat is a
Lawyer.
• The engineer sits second to the right of the
one who has the Horse.
From the above condition, case1 has one more
Directions (41-45):
possibility.
41) Answer: D
42) Answer: A
43) Answer: C
44) Answer: C
45) Answer: C
Final Arrangement
Again we have,
Page 27 of 110
• The one who likes Mysore Pak sits

immediate left of R.
• Q sits second to the right of S.
• Two persons are sitting between S and P
who sits in the middle of the side.
• S and the one who likes Jamun are not
immediate neighbors.
• The consecutive alphabets are not sitting
together.
Common Explanation
We have,
• R sits third to the left of the one who likes
Jalebi.
• One person sits between the one who likes
Jalebi and U who sits in the middle of the
longer side of the table.
Again we have,
• W does not like Jalebi.
• The one who sits immediate right of T
celebrates in October.
case1 has one more possibility.
Again we have,
• The one who likes Jamun sits second to the
left of the one who likes Mysore Pak.
Page 28 of 110
• The one who celebrated in April sits fourth to

the right of the one who likes Kheer.
• The one who likes Halwa celebrates in
August.
• U does not like Laddu
Again we have,
• The one who celebrates in March sits at the
corner of the table.
• The one who celebrates in October and
March are not immediate neighbors.
• U celebrates in a month having an odd
number of days.
• The one who celebrates in May sits second
to the right of the one who celebrates in
September.
Again we have,
• The one who likes KajuKatli sits third to the
left of the one who likes Laddu.
• Neither R nor S likes Kheer.
Page 29 of 110
Again we have,
• V does not celebrate in June.
From the above condition, case1a shows the final
arrangement.
1. A shopkeeper sold the laptop and mobile at the d) Selling price of the mobile.
profit of (x + 10)% and (x + 5)% respectively and A.All A, B, C and D
the sum of the cost price of the laptop and mobile B.Only C and D
is Rs.18000. If the sum of the selling price of laptop C.Only A, B and D
and mobile is Rs.28000. D.Only B and D
From the above which of the following can be E.Cannot be determine
determined?
a) Value of x 2. The marked price of the mobile is 40% more
b) Cost price of laptop than the marked price of the laptop. The
c) If selling price of the mobile is increased by shopkeeper offers two successive discounts 10%
10%, find the new selling price of the mobile. and 25% on marked price of the mobile and the
Page 30 of 110
shopkeeper offers two successive discounts of x% The total selling price of variety A rice was Rs. 40
and 10% on marked price of the laptop. If the more than that of variety B rice. Had the two
difference between the selling price of the laptop varieties been mixed and sold at an overall profit of
and mobile is equal to the 41(19/21)% of the 25%, the selling price (per kg) would have been Rs
selling price of the mobile, then find the value of x? _____ (approximately)?
A.28% A.Rs 40
B.31% B.Rs 95
C.35% C.Rs 32
D.39% D.Rs 47
E.41% E.None of these
3. Mohan marks up all shoes in his shop is 25% 5. Swarali bought a gadget costing Rs.
higher than its cost price. He gave 20% discount _____including sales tax at 9%. She asked the
on 3/5th of the total shoes and 15% discount on shopkeeper to reduce the price of the gadget so
1/5th of the total shoes. If Mohan gets an overall that she can save the amount equal to the tax. The
profit of 5%, then the percentage of discount reduction of the price of the gadget is Rs. _____.
should be given by Mohan to customers on the 1)Rs.1853, Rs.153
remaining shoes is ______%? 2)Rs. 1635,Rs.153
A.2.5% 3)Rs.1417,Rs.117
B.5% 4)Rs. 1199, Rs. 99
C.7.5% A.Only 1 and 3
D.10% B.Only 2 and 3
E.None of these C.Only 3 and 4
D.Only 3
4. Ram purchased 40 kg of variety A rice at Rs. x E.None of these
per kg and 32 kg of variety B rice at Rs. (x + 6) per
kg. Ram sold the whole quantity of variety A rice at 6. Vikas purchased two bags X and Y for Rs.
20% profit and that of variety B rice at 25% profit. 12000. He marked up X and Y at 58% and a%
Page 31 of 110
above their respective cost price. He sold bag Y at the shopkeeper offers a discount of 20% on
a discount of Rs. 2520. Total selling price of both X marked price of the TV while he gets the profit of
and Y is Rs. 12975 and selling price of bag Y is (4T) % and the marked price of the TV is Rs. (U).
Rs. 2820 less than cost price of bag X. b% profit Bala has Rs. V but he want to buy a Table and the
earned on bag X which is Rs. c more than that of marked price of the table is Rs. (V + 380). If the
bag Y. Marked price of bag X is Rs. 4650 more shopkeeper offers a discount of 20 % on marked
than that of bag Y. if ratio of marked price of bag Y price of the table, then he bought the table. The
and Z is (a + 19): (5b – 9) respectively, find the profit earned by selling the book for Rs. 80 is equal
selling price of bag Z which is sold at a discount of to the loss incurred when the same book is sold for
(c – 590)% . Rs.60 and the cost price of the book is Rs. (W).
A.Rs. 2970.50 7. Find the value in the place of (S)?
B.Rs. 3040.50 A.Rs.1000
C.Rs. 3060.50 B.Rs.1200
D.Rs. 3007.50 C.Rs.1500
E.Rs. 2990.50 D.Rs.1800
E.None of these
carefully and answer the questions given below? 8. Find the value in the place of (T)?
Arul sold the mobile to Bala at the profit of 20 %, A.4.25%
Bala sold the same mobile to Divya at the profit of B.5.75%
25 % and Divya sold that mobile to Esai at the C.6.25%
profit of 10 %. Esai paid the amount is Rs. 1650 D.7.75%
and Arul bought the mobile at Rs. (S). Esai sold E.8.25%
the laptop at a discount of 15 % on marked price of
the laptop and the ratio of the marked to cost price 9. Find the value in the place of (U)?
of the laptop is 5: 4. Esai gets the profit of (T) % A.Rs.36500
and the marked price of the laptop is Rs. (10S – B.Rs.37500
2800). The cost price of the TV is Rs. 24000 and C.Rs.38000
Page 32 of 110
D.Rs.40000 II: Mohan sold items A and B to the customer at

E.None of these 20% profit and 10% loss, respectively.
III: Mohan marked up the price of items A and B
10. Find the value in the place of (V)? both 50% above cost price and sold after giving
A.Rs.1540 20% discount and 40% discount on items A and B
B.Rs.1680 respectively. (2 marks)
C.Rs.1500 A.Either I alone or III alone is sufficient.
D.Rs.1620 B.Either I alone or II alone is sufficient.
E.None of these C.Either II alone or III alone is sufficient.
D.Any one of them alone is sufficient.
11. Find the value in the place of (W)? E.Any two of them together are sufficient.
A.Rs.60
B.Rs.70 13. A shopkeeper made a profit of P% on selling
C.Rs.80 an article at a certain price. If he sells the article at
D.Rs.40 58.33% of the actual Selling price so there is a loss
E.None of these of 16%. If another article is sold at two successive
discounts of P/2% and Q% for Rs. 1404 and its
Study the following data carefully and answer the cost price is Rs. 1200. Find the value of Q% (later
questions. article is marked up by 100%).
12. Mohan purchased items A and B from Sohan A.20%
such that purchased price of items A to B for B.40%
Mohan is 3: 4. Find the difference between selling C.25%
price of both the items for Mohan. D.12%
I: Purchased price of items A for Sohan is Rs.600 E.None of these
and he sold items A and B to Mohan such that he
gains 50% profit on item A and 20% profit on item 14. A shopkeeper marked up an article by 20% of
B. its cost price. If the shopkeeper allows the discount
Page 33 of 110
of x% and the difference between the selling price Direction (16-19): Study the following data carefully
and marked price of the article is Rs.800. and answer the questions:
From the statement given in the above question Pie chart given below shows degree distribution of
which of the following can be determined. difference between the number of boys in
a) Value of x 10th class and that of in 12th class in 4 schools A,
b) Ratio of the marked to selling price of the article B, C and D. Sum of pie chart is 120.
c) Profit percentage
d) Cost price of the article
A.All A, B, C and D
B.Only A
C.Only A and B
D.Only D
15. The selling price of Watch is Rs.920. The ratio

of the marked price to cost price of the watch is 23:
20 and the ratio of the marked price to cost price of Pie chart given below shows degree distribution of
the Pen is 11: 10. If the ratio of the cost price of the difference between the number of girls in 10 th class
watch to Pen is 2: 1 and the discount offers for and that of in 12th class in given 4 schools A, B, C
watch is 20%, then what is the marked price of and D. Sum of pie chart is 90.
Pen?
A.Rs.550
B.Rs.650
C.Rs.450
D.Rs.350
E.None of these
Page 34 of 110
A.8
B.2
C.6
D.4
E.5
18. In school C, number of boys in 10 th class is

112.5% more than that of girls in 10th class and
number of girls in 12th class is 88% of that of boys
in 12 th class.
16. In school A, if number of boys in 10 th class is
Quantity I: Find the total number of students in
87.5% more than that of girls in 12 th class and ratio
12th class in school C?
of number of boys in 12 th class to that of girls in
Quantity II: Find the total number of students in
10 th class is 24: 13, then find the total number of
10th class in school C?
students in 10th class and 12th class together in
A.Quantity I > Quantity II
school A?
B.Quantity I < Quantity II
A.415
C.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
B.405
D.Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
C.420
E.Quantity I = Quantity II or relation cannot be
D.430
determined
E.425
19. In school D, if number of girls in 10 th class is 5

17. In school B, the number of students in
more than that of boys in same class and number
10 th class is 245 and all the girls in 10 th class got
of girls in 12th class is 90 less than the double of
pass. If 20% boys of 10 th class in schools B got fail
the number of boys in 10 th class, then number of
and 96 boys in 10th class got pass, then find the
boys in 12th class in school D is what per cent of
difference between the number of students in
that of girls in 10 th class in school D?
12 th class and that in 10th class of school B?
A.80%
Page 35 of 110
B.50% Statement III: At end of 1.5 years from start of the

C.75% business the profit share of Bagya is 260% more
D.60% than the profit share of Elango and the profit
E.90% received by Elango is Rs.1800.
A.III alone is sufficient
Direction (20-24): Study the following information B.I and II together are sufficient
carefully and answer the questions given below. C.I and III together are sufficient
The given pie chart shows the percentage salary of D.All I, II and III together are sufficient
5 different person out of total salary of the 5 of E.All I, II and III together not are sufficient
them. 21. Diya’s salary get two consecutive hikes of 25%
each and Anil’s salary gets a hike of Rs.1500. Diya
invests 40% of his new salary in simple interest
scheme A at 20% per annum for 3 years and Anil
invested 4/5 of his new salary in compound interest
scheme B at 20% per annum for one year. Sharu
and Bagya started the business investing 4/5 and
x% of their salaries respectively. If the profit earned
by Bagya and Sharu is Rs.7440 and the difference
between the profit share of Sharu and the sum of
20. Find the value of x? the interest received from scheme A and B
Statement I: Anil and Bagya started the business together is Rs.1740, find the value of x?
with the them salary and after x months Elango A.40
joined with them with his salary and six more B.50
months Bagya withdrew his 50% of the investment C.60
and Anil added 1/4 of his initial investment. D.30
Statement II: The profit share of Elango from the E.80
total profit of Rs.4000 is Rs.200 and after 8 months
Elango withdrew Rs.1000 for his initial investment.
Page 36 of 110
22. Elango bought shirt with 1/5 of his salary and E.Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be
Anil bought T-shirt with one-fourth of his salary. established
Elango marked up the shirt by 25% and gave the
discount of 20% and sold it to Sharu who bought it 24. Find the value of R?
at x% of her salary. Anil marked up the t-shirt by Statement I: Anil invests his 45% of salary in
y% and gave a discount of 25% and sold it to simple interest scheme at the rate of R% per
Bagya who bought it at 3/16 of his salary. What is annum and Bagya invests his 60% of salary in
the difference between the value of x and y? simple interest scheme at the rate of (R + 5)% per
A.5 annum. Difference between the interest received
B.8 by Anil and Bagya is Rs.540
C.3 Statement II: Anil invests his salary in simple
D.4 interest scheme for x years and Bagya invests her
E.6 salary in simple interest scheme for (x – 1) years
A.The data in statement I alone is sufficient to
23. answer the question, while the data in statement II
Quantity I: Sharu and Diya started the business alone is not sufficient to answer the question
with them salary after 8 months Anil Joins with B.The data in statement II alone is sufficient to
them with the investment of his salary. At the end answer the question, while the data in statement I
of two years Sharu’s profit is Rs.3000. Then they alone is not sufficient to answer the question
are decided, they gets the total profit is deposited C.The data either in statement I alone or in
to the SBI bank which offer simple interest at 27% statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
per annum for 2 years, then find the interest question
amount from SBI Bank? D.The data given in both statements I and II
Quantity II: 50% of the salary of Bagya together are not sufficient to answer the question
A.Quantity I > Quantity II E.The data given in both statements I and II
B.Quantity I ≥ Quantity II together are necessary to answer the question.
C.Quantity II > Quantity I
D.Quantity II ≥ Quantity I
Page 37 of 110
25. In the following given number series, there is a D.42

missing term P. E.None of these
1236, 1092, 1288, 1032, 1356, P
Find the value of (75% of P). Direction (28-30): There are two missing number
A.717 series given in each question and three

B.777 relationships has been derived from that you have
C.956 to answer the correct relationship between them.
D.917 28.
E.None of these Series I: 1, 5, 6, ?, 17, 28, 45
Series II: 98, 101, 108, ?, 142
(i) The sum of the two missed numbers is 132
Direction (26-27): Find the missing number in the (ii) The difference between the two missed
following number series and solve the following numbers is 5
questions (iii) The ratio of the two missed number is 5: 7
12 35 124 (A) 722 721 A.Both (i) and (ii)
-1 8 24 (B) 85 134 B.Both (ii) and (iii)
589 (C) 502 415 299 154 C.Only (i)
26. What will be the value of A+C? D.Only (ii)
B.521
C.923 29.
D.672 Series I: 6, 25, 62, 123, 214, ?
E.None of these Series II: 1, 2, 8, 46, ? , 2558
(i) The ratio of two missed numbers is 4: 5.
27. What will be the value of 85.71% of B? (ii) The difference between two missed numbers is
A.52 21.
B.63 (iii) The sum of two numbers is 625.
C.56 A.Only (i)
Page 38 of 110
B.Only (ii) I: HCF of wrong terms in all the three series is 18.
C.Only (iii) II: Wrong term in series 3 is a perfect square.
D.Both (i) and (ii) III: If ‘1’ is subtracted from wrong number in series
E.None of these 2 and ‘5’ is subtracted from wrong number in series
3, then both the wrong numbers become prime
30. numbers.
Series I: 16, 25.5, 33, 38.5, ?, 43.5 A.All three
Series II: 3, 4, 10, ?, 136, 685 B.Only III
(i) The difference between two missed numbers is C.Only I and III
9. D.Only II and III
(ii) The sum of two missed numbers is 75. E.None
(iii) The ratio of two numbers is 14: 17. 32.
A.Only (i) Series 1: 15, 51, 26, 39, 33, 37
B.Only (ii) Series 2: 21, 21, 28, 52, 117, 241
C.Both (i) and (ii) Which of the following statement is/are true related
D.Both (ii) and (iii) to the given series?
E.None of these I: HCF of wrong number in series 1 and series 2 is
a prime number.
Direction (31-35): In each of the following II: Sum of wrong number in series 1 and series 2 is
questions two or three number series given. a perfect square.
Choose the correct option regarding to the wrong III: Unit digit of product of wrong numbers of both
numbers in each series. the series is 8.
31. A.Only I and III
Series 1: 18, 23, 29, 39, 58, 96 B.All three
Series 2: 2.5, 128, 5120, 81920, 655360 C.Only II and III
Series 3: 17, 36, 144, 894, 7160, 71610 D.Only I and II
Which of the following statement is/are true related E.Only III
to the given series?
Page 39 of 110
33. III: HCF of sum of wrong numbers of series 1 and

Series 1: 4, 9, 27, 69, 154 series 2 and sum of wrong numbers of series 1
Series 2: 10, 11, 20, 63, 253, 1245 and series 3 is 22.
Which of the following statement is/are true related A.None
to the given series? B.Only I and II
I: When sum of wrong numbers of both the series C.Only II and III
are divided by 11, then remainder is 3. D.All three
II: Wrong number of series 2 is completely divisible E.Only I and III
by wrong number of series 1.
III: HCF and LCM of wrong numbers in series 1 35.
and series 2 is 23 and 759, respectively. Series 1: 18, 20, 29, 49, 84, 132
A.Only II Series 2: 11, 13, 25, 61, 144, 291
B.Only I Which of the following statement is/are true related
C.Only I and II to the given series?
D.Only III I: LCM of wrong number of series 1 and series 2 is
E.Only I and III 1008.
II: Prime factors of wrong number of series 1 are 2,
34. 3, and 5.
Series 1: 14, 20, 38, 68, 110, 165 III: When ‘3’ is subtracted from sum of wrong
Series 2: 32, 20, 28, 55, 124, 330 numbers of both the series, then it becomes
Series 3: 22, 25, 33, 61, 142, 385 square of 14.
Which of the following statement is/are true related A.Only I and III
to the given series? B.Only I and II
I: Difference between wrong number of series 1 C.Only I
and series 3 is 132. D.Only II
II: Sum of wrong number of series 2 and series 3 is E.None
88.
Page 40 of 110
Direction (36-40): What should come in place of a) 3555.3428

question mark (?) in the following given b) 3556.3438
expression? c) 3556.3428
36. 12.5% of (73² - 64² + 7) + (√4225) % of 2500 – d) 3555.3438
(11³ - 22²) = 3/16* (?) e) None of these
A.4956
B.4896 40. 29 x (232 ÷ 8) – 4133.333% of (978/248) + 16²
C.4816 = (?)² - 27
D.4976 a) 31
E.None of these b) 29
c) 39
37. 8.5 x (53 x 74 – 37 x 104) + (31.25% of 780 + d) 41
56.25% of 980 + 46) 1/2 % of 1250 = (?) e) None of these
A.981.5 Directions (41 - 45): What approximate value
B.991.5 should come in the place of (?) in the following
C.971.5 questions?
D.992.5 41. 71.428 % of 909.913 + 22.228 % of 90.12 +
E.None of these 66.67 % of 269.90 = ?
A.780
38. 76 x 84 + 128 x 112 – 116 x 120 = 340% of (?) B.810
a) 2000 C.830
b) 2500 D.850
c) 1800 E.870
d) 4000
e) None of these 42. 1040.19 ÷ 7.92 – √626 * 1.908 + 125.124 % of
39.908 = ?
39. [{68(2/3) % of 46(1/3) % of 486}] ÷ [(240(4/5) A.120
% of 1225/92] x (903) = (?) B.130
Page 41 of 110
C.110 Directions (46-50): Following question contains two

D.140 equations as I and II. You have to solve both
E.150 equations and determine the relationship between
them.
43. √1600.12 + 18.897 * 10.198 – 119.903 % of 46.
149.934 = ? I) x2 + 17x + 42 =0
A.40 II) y2 + 13y + 30 = 0
B.50 a) x> y
C.60 b) x ≥ y
D.70 c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
E.80 d) x< y
e) x ≤ y
44. (0.9/11) of 3903 + (2.92/8) of 326 + 18 % of
497 =? - 1331.78 47.
A.1400 I) 3x2 - 45x + 168 = 0
B.2100 II) 2y2 – 36y + 160 = 0
C.1700 a) x > y
D.1900 b) x ≥ y
E.2300 c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
d) x < y
45. ? % of 399 = 562.18 - (12.22 – 6.132) × 17.85 ÷ e) x ≤ y
12
A.150 48.
B.100 I) x2 - 5x - 126 = 0
C.175 II) y2 + 9y – 112 = 0
D.125 a) x> y
E.200 b) x ≥ y
c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
Page 42 of 110
d) x< y E.If relationship between x and y cannot be

e) x ≤ y determined
49. 52.
I) x2 – 28x + 195 = 0 I: 35x2 – 53x + 20 = 0
II) y2 – 31y + 240 = 0 II: y2 – 29y + 210 = 0
a) x> y A.If x < y
b) x ≥ y B.If x > y
c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined. C.If x ≤ y
d) x< y D.If x ≥ y
e) x ≤ y E.If relationship between x and y cannot be
determined
50.
I) x2 – 8x – 153 = 0 53.
II) y2 – 37y + 342 = 0 I: 2x2 + 5x – 33 = 0
a) x > y II: 2x2 – 3x – 35 = 0
b) x ≥ y A.If x < y
c) x = y or relationship can’t be determined. B.If x > y
d) x < y C.If x ≤ y
e) x ≤ y D.If x ≥ y
51. determined
I: 2x 2 + 15x + 27 = 0
II: 3y 2 + y – 2 = 0 54.
A.If x < y I: 4x2 + 3x – 10 = 0
B.If x > y II: 2y2 + 15y + 27 = 0
C.If x ≤ y A.If x < y
D.If x ≥ y B.If x > y
Page 43 of 110
C.If x ≤ y C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.

D.If x ≥ y D.x < y
E.If relationship between x and y cannot be E.x ≤ y
determined
58.
55. I) x2 – 15x + 56 = 0
I) 3x2 – 3x - 18 = 0 II) y2 – 19y + 90 = 0
II) y2 – 7y + 12 = 0 A.x > y
A.x < y B.x ≥ y
B.x ≤ y C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
C.x > y D.x < y
D.x ≥ y E.x ≤ y
E.x = y or relationship can’t be determined. 59.
I: 6x 2 + x – 2 = 0
56. II: 3y 2 – 11y + 6 = 0
I) x2 + x – 2 = 0 A.If x < y
II) y2 + 5y + 6 = 0 B.If x > y
A.x > y C.If x ≤ y
B.x ≥ y D.If x ≥ y
C.x = y or relationship can’t be determined. E.If relationship between x and y cannot be
D.x < y determined
E.x ≤ y 60.
I: 6x 2 + 13x + 6 = 0
57. II: 3y 2 – 8y + 4 = 0
I) x2 + 8x + 12 = 0 A.If x < y
II) 2y2 + 6y + 4 = 0 B.If x > y
A.x > y C.If x ≤ y
B.x ≥ y D.If x ≥ y
Page 44 of 110
E.If relationship between x and y cannot be determined

1. Answer: E Then marked price of each Shoes = 100 × 125/100
CP of laptop = y = Rs 125
CP of mobile = 18000 - y And selling price of 100 shoes = 100 × 100 ×
y * (100 + (x + 10))/100 + (18000 – x ) * (100 + (x + 105/100 = Rs 10500
5))/100 =28000 Selling price of 60 shoes (3/5 of 100 shoes) = 60 ×
We cannot find the value of x and y. 125 × 80/100
= >Rs 6000
2. Answer: D Selling price of 20 shoes (1/5 of 100 shoes) = 20 ×
Let, MP of laptop = y 125 × 85/100
MP of mobile = 140/100 * y = 7y/5 = >Rs 2125
SP of mobile = 7y/5 * 90/100 * 75/100 = 0.945y Remaining Shoes = 100 – 60 – 20 = 20
SP of laptop = y * 90/100 * (100 – x)/100 = 0.9y * Selling price of remaining 20 shoes:
(100 – x)/100 = >20 × 125 × (100 –x) /100
41 * (19/21)% of the SP of mobile = 880/2100 * = > 2500 × (100 – x) / 100
0.945y = 0.396y Now according to the question,
0.945y – (90y + 0.9xy)/100 = 0.396y 10500 = 6000 + 2125 + 2500 × (100 – x ) / 100
94.5y – 90y + 0.9xy = 39.6y 10500 – 8125 = 25 (100 –x)
0.9x = 35.1 2375 /25 = (100 – x)
x = 39% 95 = 100 – x
x=5%
3. Answer: B
Let Mohan has 100 shoes and C.P of each shoes is 4. Answer: D
Rs. 100.
Page 45 of 110
1.09x = 1635
x = 1500
So, reduction in cost will be 1635- 1500 = 135
So, statement 2 is not true.
3) Rs.1417, Rs.117
109% of x = 1417
1.09x = 1417
48x = 40x + 240 + 40
x = 1300
8x = 280
So, reduction in cost will be 1417-1300 = 117
x = 35
So, statement 3 is true.
Selling price of Mixture:
4) Rs. 1199, Rs. 99
= > (40× 35 +32(35 + 6)) × 125/100 = (1400 +
109% of x = 1199
1312) * 125/100
1.09x = 1199
= >2712 × 125/100
x = 1100
= >Rs 3390
Therefore per selling price = 3390/72
=Rs 47
Hence, statement 1, 3 and 4 can be determined.
5. Answer: E
6. Answer: D
We will check by putting values given in the
Let cot price of X and Y be 100m and 100n
statements.
respectively.
1) Rs.1853, Rs.153
MRP of bag X = 158% of 100m = 158m
109% of x = 1853
Marked price of bag X is Rs. 4650 more than bag Y
1.09x = 1853
So, MRP of Bag Y = 158m – 4650
x = 1700
Selling price of bag Y is Rs. 2820 less than cost
price of bag X.
So, selling price of bag Y = 100m – 2820
2) Rs. 1635, Rs.153
Bag Y sold at a discount of Rs. 2520
109% of x = 1635
Page 46 of 110
So, SP + Discount = MRP Cost price of the laptop = 7200 * 4/5 = 5760
100m – 2820 + 2520 = 158m – 4650
58m = 4350
So, value of m = 75
So, cost price of bag X = 100m = 100 x 75 = 7500 CP of TV = Rs.24000
Cost price of Bag Y = 12000 – 7500 = 4500 Profit = 6.25 * 4 = 25%
MRP of bag X = 158 x 75 = 11850 SP of TV = 24000 * 125/100 = Rs.30000
MRP of bag Y = 11850 – 4650 = 7200 MP of the TV (U) = 30000 * 100/80 = Rs.37500
Selling price of bag Y = 7200 – 2520 = 4680 MP of the table = Rs. (V + 380)
Selling price of bag X = 12975 – 4680 = 8295 SP of table = (V + 380) * 80/100
So, value of a %= (7200 – 4500)/4500 x 100 = 60% (V + 380) * 80/100 = V
Value of b% = (8295 – 7500)/7500 x 100 = 10.6% 20V = 380 * 80
Profit earned on Bag X = 8295 – 7500 = 795 V = Rs.1520
Profit earned on Bag Y = 4680 – 4500 = 180 80 – CP of the book (W) = CP of the book (W) - 60
So, value of c = 795 – 180 = 615
Ratio of MRP of Y and Z = (a + 19): (5b – 9) = (60 +
19): (5 x 10.6 – 9) = 79/44 7. Answer: A
So, selling price of bag Z = 44/79 x 7200 = 4010 S * 120/100 * 125/100 * 110/100 = 1650
(approx.) S = Rs.1000
Discount on bag Z = (615 – 590) % = 25% Arul bought the mobile at Rs.1000
So selling price of article Z = 75% of 4010 = Rs.
3007.5 8. Answer: C
MP of the laptop is = 10000 – 2800 = Rs.7200
Directions (7-11): SP of the laptop = 7200 * 85/100 = Rs.6120
S * 120/100 * 125/100 * 110/100 = 1650 Cost price of the laptop = 7200 * 4/5 = 5760
S = Rs.1000
MP of the laptop is = 10000 – 2800 = Rs.7200
SP of the laptop = 7200 * 85/100 = Rs.6120
Esai profit = 6.25%
Page 47 of 110
Purchased price if item A for Sohan = Rs.600

9. Answer: B 150% of 600 = 3x
CP of TV = Rs.24000 x = 300
Profit = 6.25 * 4 = 25% Purchased price if item B for Sohan = 4x *
SP of TV = 24000 * 125/100 = Rs.30000 (100/120) = Rs.1000
MP of the TV (U) = 30000 * 100/80 = Rs.37500 Statement I alone is not sufficient.
Marked price of the TV = Rs.37500 From II:
Selling price of item, A for Mohan = 120% of 3x =
10. Answer: E 3.6x
MP of the table = Rs. (V + 380) Selling price of item B for Mohan = 90% of 4x =
SP of table = (V + 380) * 80/100 3.6x
(V + 380) * 80/100 = V Required difference = 3.6x – 3.6x
20V = 380 * 80 =0
V = Rs.1520 Statement II alone is sufficient.
Bala have an amount to buy a table = Rs.1520 From III:
MP of item A for Mohan = 150% of 3x = 4.5x
11. Answer: B SP of item A for Mohan = 80% of 4.5x = 3.6x
MP of item B for Mohan = 150% of 4x = 6x
SP of item B for Mohan = 60% of 6x = 3.6x
Required difference = 3.6x – 3.6x
=0
Statement III alone is sufficient.
Hence, either statement II alone or III alone is
sufficient to answer the question.
12.Answer: C
Let purchased price of items A and B for Mohan is 13. Answer: C
‘3x’ and ‘4x’ respectively. According to question,
From I:
Page 48 of 110
84% of cost price = 58.333% of selling price of So, number of boys in 10th class in school A = a +
article 120 * (90°/360°) = a + 30
21/25 x cost price = 21/36 x selling price Let number of girls in 10th class in school A = p
Cost price/ selling price = 25/36 So, number of girls in 12th class in school A = p +
Value of P% = (36 – 25)/25 x 100 = 44% 90 * (60°/360°) = p + 15
Marked price of other article = 1200 x 200% = 2400 From the question:
So, 2400 x (1 – 44%/2) x (1 – Q %) = 1404 a + 30 = (p + 15) * (187.5/100)
(1 – Q/100) = 0.75 8a + 240 = 15p + 225
So required value of Q = 25% 15p – 8a = 15 --------------(1)
14. Answer: E And,
CP = y a/p = 24/13
MP = y * 120/100 = 6y/5 From equation (1):
SP = 6y/5 * (100 – x)/100 15 * (13a/24) – 8a = 15
6y/5 – 6y/5 * (100 – x) = 800 65a – 64a = 120
a = 120, p = 120 * (13/24) = 65
15. Answer: A So, total number of students in 10 th class and
CP of Watch = 2x 12th class together in school A:
CP of Pen = x 120 + (120 + 30) + 65 + (65 + 15) = 415
SP of Watch = 920
Marked price of Watch = 920/80 * 100 = 1150 17. Answer: E
CP of Watch = 1150/23 * 20 = Rs.1000 Let number of girls in 10th class in school B = q
CP of Pen = 1000/2 = 500 So, number of boys in 10th class in school B = 245 –
Marked price of Pen = 500/10 * 11 = Rs.550 q
Since, all the girls of 10th class in schools B got
Direction (16-19): pass and 20% boys of 10th class in school B got fail:
16. Answer: A So, number of boys in 10th class who got pass:
Let number of boys in 12th class in school A = a (245 – q) * (80/100) = 96
245 – q = 120
Page 49 of 110
q = 125 Quantity I:
Number of girls in 10th class in school B = 125 Number of boys in 12th class in school C = 125
Number of boys in 10th class in school B = 245 – Number of girls in 12th class in school C = 80 + 30 =
125 = 120 110
Number of girls in 12th class in school B = 125 + 90 So, total number of students in 12 th class in school
* (100°/360°) = 150 C = 125 + 110 = 235
Number of boys in 12th class in school B = 120 – Quantity II:
120 * (60°/360°) = 100 Number of boys in 10th class in school C = 125 + 45
Required difference = (100 + 150) – (120 + 125) = 5 = 170
Number of girls in 10th class in school C = 80
18. Answer: B So, total number of students in 10 th class in school
Let number of boys in 12th class in school C = c C = 170 + 80 = 250
So, number of boys in 10th class in school C = c + Hence, Quantity I < Quantity II
120 * (135°/360°) = c + 45
Let number of girls in 10th class in school C = r 19. Answer: C
So, number of girls in 12th class in school C = r + 90 Let number of boys in 12th class in school D = d
* (120°/360°) = r + 30 So, number of boys in 10th class in school D = d +
From the question: 120 * (75°/360°) = d + 25
c + 45 = r * (212.5/100) = 17r/8 Let number of girls in 10th class in school D = s
8c + 360 = 17r So, number of girls in 12th class in school D = s +
17r – 8c = 360 -------------(1) 90 * (80°/360°) = s + 20
And, From the question:
r + 30 = c * (88/100) = 22c/25 s – (d + 25) = 5
25r + 750 = 22c s – d = 30 -------------(1)
22c – 25r = 750 -------------(2) And,
By equation (1) * 11 + equation (2) * 4: s + 20 = 2 * (d + 25) – 90
187r – 88c + 88c – 100r = 3960 + 3000 s + 20 = 2d + 50 – 90
r = 80 and c = 125 2d – s = 60 -------------(2)
Page 50 of 110
By equation (1) + equation (2): Profit share of Anil, Bagya and Elango = (6000 * (x
d = 90, s = 120 + 6) + (7500) * (18 – x – 6)):((7200 * (x + 6) + (3600
Number of boys in 12th class in school D = 90 * (18 – x – 6)):(3600 * (18 – x))
Number of girls in 10th class in school D = 120 = (6000x + 36000 + 90000 – 7500x):(7200x +
Required percentage = (90/120) * 100 = 75% 43200 + 43200 – 3600x):(64800 – 3600x)
= (126000 – 1500x):(3600x + 86400):(64800 –
3600x)
Direction (20-24): 3600x + 86400/64800 – 3600x = 6480/1800
20. Answer: C x=3
From statement I, Both statements I and III together can sufficient.
Anil’s investment = 25/100 * 24000 = Rs.6000
Bagya’s investment = 30/100 * 24000 = 21. Answer: B
Rs.7200 Diya’s new salary = 10/100 * 24000 * 125/100 *
Elango’s investment = 15/100 * 24000 = Rs.3600 125/100 = 3750
So, Statement I alone is not sufficient to the answer Anil’s salary = 25/100 * 24000 + 1500 = 7500
the question. Interest received by Diya = ((3750 * 40/100) * 20 *
From statement II, 3)/100 = 900
Total profit of the business = 4000 Interest recived by Anil = 4/5 * 7500 * (1 + 20/100) –
Elango’s profit share = Rs.200 4/5 * 7500 = 1200
So, Statement II alone is not sufficient to the Sharu’s investment = 4/5 * 20/100 * 24000 = 3840
answer the question. Bagya’s investment = y
From Statement III, (3840/(3840 + y) * 7440) – (1200 + 900) = 1740
Elango’ s profit share = Rs.1800 7440 = 3840 + y
Bagya’s profit share = 1800 * 360/100 = 6480 y = 3600
Total investment period = 18 months x% = (3600/(30/100 * 24000) * 100 = 50
So, Statement III alone is not sufficient to the
answer the question. 22. Answer: A
From I and III CP of shirt = 1/5 * 15/100 * 24000 = 720
Page 51 of 110
MP of shirt = 125/100 * 720 = 900 From statement I,

SP of shirt = 900 * 80/100 = 720 Time period is not given.
720 = x/100 * 20/100 * 24000 So, Statement I alone is not sufficient to the answer
x = 15 the question.
CP of t-shirt = 1/4 * 25/100 * 24000 = 1500 From Statement II,
MP of t-shirt = 1500 * (100 + y)/100 Anil invests his salary in simple interest scheme for
SP of t-shirt = 15 * (100 + y) * 75/100 x years and Bagya invests her salary in simple
3/16 * 30/100 * 24000 = 1125 + 11.25y interest scheme for (x – 1) years
y = 20 So, Statement II alone is not sufficient to the
Difference of x and y = 20 – 15 = 5 answer the question.
23. Answer: A 25. Answer: A

From quantity I, 1236 – 12 x 12 = 1092
Sharu’s investment = 20/100 * 24000= 4800 1092 + 14 x 14 = 1288
Diya’s investment = 10/100 * 24000 = 2400 1288 – 16 x 16 = 1032
Anil’s investment = 25/100 * 24000 = 6000 1032 + 18 x 18 = 1356
Profit ratio Sharu, Diya and Anil = 4800 * 24: 2400 * 1356 – 20 x 20 = 956
24: 6000 * 16 Required value = 75% of 956 = 717
= 6:3:5
Total profit of the business = 14/6 * 3000 = 7000 Direction (26-27):
SI received from bank = 27 * 7000 * 2/100 = 26. Answer: C
Rs.3780 To calculate the value of A:
From quantity II, 12x5-5²=35
50% of the salary of Bagya = 50/100 * 30/100 * 35x4-4²=124
24000 = 3600 124x3-3²=363
Quantity I > quantity II 363x2-2²=722
722x1-1²=721
24. Answer: D Hence, A=363.
Page 52 of 110
To calculate the value of C: Series II =>

589-29x1= 560 98 + 22 – 1 = 101
560-29x2= 502 101 + 32 – 2 = 108
502-29x3= 415 108 + 42 – 3 = 121
415- 29x4= 299 121 + 52 – 4 = 142
299- 29x5=154 Relationship (i) => 11 + 121 = 132 (Correct)
Hence, C= 560. Relationship (ii) => 121 – 11 = 110 (Incorrect)
Therefore, Relationship (iii) => 11: 121 = 1: 11 (Incorrect)
A + C= 560+363 =923
29. Answer: B
27. Answer: D Series I=>
To calculate the value of B: 23 – 2 = 6
-1+3²=8 33 – 2 = 25
8+4²= 24 43 – 2 = 62
24+5²= 49 53 – 2 = 123
49+6²= 85 63 – 2 = 214
85+7²=134 73 – 2 = 341
Hence, B= 49. (Or)
Therefore, 85.71% of 49=42. (Value of 85.68%=6/7) The difference of difference is, 6, 6, 6,…
Series II=>
Direction (28-30): 1*4–2=2
28. Answer: C 2*5–2=8
Series I => 8 * 6 – 2 = 46
1+5=6 46 * 7 – 2 = 320
5 + 6 = 11 320 * 8 – 2 = 2558
6 + 11 = 17 Relationship (i) => 341: 320 (Incorrect)
11 + 17 = 28 Relationship (ii) => 341 – 320 = 21 (Correct)
17 + 28 = 45 Relationship (iii) => 341 + 320 = 661 (Incorrect)
Page 53 of 110
160 * 32 = 5120
30. Answer: C 5120 * 16 = 81920
Series I=> 81920 * 8 = 655360
16 + 9.5 = 25.5 Wrong term = 128
25.5 + 7.5 = 33 Series 3:
33 + 5.5 = 38.5 17 * 2 + 2 = 36
38.5 + 3.5 = 42 36 * 4 + 4 = 148
42 + 1.5 = 43.5 148 * 6 + 6 = 894
Series II=> 894 * 8 + 8 = 7160
3* 1+1 =4 7160 * 10 + 10 = 71610
4 * 2 + 2 = 10 Wrong term = 144
10 * 3 + 3 = 33 Statement I:
33 * 4 + 4 = 136 HCF of wrong terms in all the three series = HCF of
136 * 5 + 5 = 685 96, 128 and 144
Relationship (i) => 42 – 33 = 9 (Correct) = 16
Relationship (ii) => 42 + 33 = 75 (Correct) Statement II:
Relationship (iii) => 42: 33 = 14: 11 (Incorrect) Wrong term in series 3 is 144 which is a perfect
square of 12.
Direction (31-35): Statement III:
31. Answer: D Number of obtained after subtracting ‘1’ from wrong
Series 1: number in series 2 = 128 – 1 = 127 (Prime number)
Difference of difference: Number of obtained after subtracting‘5’ from wrong
18 23 29 39 58 93 number in series 3 = 144 – 5 = 139 (Prime number)
5 6 10 19 35 Hence, only statements II and III are TRUE.
1 4 9 16
Wrong term = 96 32. Answer: A
Series 2: Series 1:
2.5 * 64 = 160 15 + 62 = 51
Page 54 of 110
51 – 52 = 26 4 9 27 71 154
26 + 4 2 = 42 5 18 44 83
42 – 32 = 33 13 26 39
33 + 22 = 37 Wrong number = 69
Wrong term = 39 Series 2:
Series 2: 10 * 1 + 1 = 11
21 + (13 – 1) = 21 11 * 2 – 2 = 20
21 + (23 – 1) = 28 20 * 3 + 3 = 63
28 + (3 3 – 1) = 54 63 * 4 – 4 = 248
54 + (43 – 1) = 117 248 * 5 + 5 = 1245
117 + (53 – 1) = 241 Wrong term = 253
Wrong term = 52 Statement I:
Statement I: Sum of wrong numbers of both the series = 69 +
HCF of wrong number in series 1 and series 2 = 253 = 322
HCF of 39 and 52 = 13 (Prime number) Remainder when 322 is divided by 11 is 3.
Statement II: Statement II:
Sum of wrong number in series 1 and series 2 = 39 Wrong number of series 1= 69
+ 52 = 91 (Not a perfect square) Wrong number of series 2 = 253
Statement III: 253 is not completely divisible by 69.
Unit digit of wrong number of series 1 = 9 Statement III:
Unit digit of wrong number of series 2 = 2 HCF of wrong numbers in series 1 and series 2 =
Unit digit of product of wrong numbers of both the HCF of 69 and 253 = 23
series =9 * 2 = 8 LCM of wrong numbers in series 1 and series 2 =
Hence, only statement I and III are TRUE. LCM of 69 and 253 = 759
Hence, only statements I and III are TRUE.
33. Answer: E
Series 1: 34. Answer: D
Difference of difference: Series 1:
Page 55 of 110
14 + (6 * 1) = 20 Sum = 55 + 33
20 + (6 * 3) = 38 = 88
38 + (6 * 5) = 68 Statement III:
68 + (6 * 7) = 110 Sum of wrong numbers of series 1 and series 2 =
110 + (6 * 9) = 164 165 + 55 = 220
Wrong term = 165 Sum of wrong numbers of series 1 and series 3 =
Series 2: 165 + 33 = 198
32 * 0.5 + 4 = 20 HCF of 220 and 198 = 22
20 * 1 + 8 = 28 Hence, all the three statements are TRUE.
28 * 1.5 + 12 = 54
54 * 2 + 16 = 124 35. Answer: C
124 * 2.5 + 20 = 330 Series 1:
Wrong term = 55 Difference of difference =
Series 3: 18 20 29 49 82 132
22 + 31 = 25 2 9 20 33 50
25 + 3 2 = 34 7 11 13 17
34 + 33 = 61 Wrong term = 84
61 + 34 = 142 Series 2:
142+ 35= 385 11 + (12 + 13) = 13
Wrong term = 33 13 + (22 + 23) = 25
Statement I: 25 + (32 + 33) = 61
Wrong number of series 1 = 165 61 + (4 2 + 4 3 ) = 141
Wrong number of series 3 = 33 141 + (52 + 53) = 291
Difference = 165 – 33 Wrong term = 144
= 132 Statement I:
Statement II: LCM of wrong number of series 1 and series 2 =
Wrong number of series 2 = 55 LCM of 84 and 144 = 1008
Wrong number of series 3 = 33 Statement II:
Page 56 of 110
Wrong number of series 1 = 84 (80 – 4) x (80 + 4) + (120 + 8) x (120 – 8) – [116 x

84 = 22 * 3 * 7 (100 + 20)] = 340% of (?)
Prime factors of 84 are 2, 3 and 7 (6400 – 16) + (14400 – 64) – (11600 + 2320) =
Statement III: 340% of (?)
Sum of wrong numbers of both the series = 84 + 6800 = 340% of (?)
144 = 228 (?) = 6800/3.4 = 2000
Number obtained after subtracting 3 from sum of
wrong numbers of both the series = 228 – 3 = 225 39. Answer: C
225 is a perfect square of 15. [(206/300 x 139/300 x 486) ÷ (1204/500 x 1500/92)]
Hence, only statement I is TRUE. x 903= (?)
[(206 x 139 x 54 x 23) / (10000 x 903)] x 903 = (?)
Direction (36-40): (?) = 3556.3428
36. Answer: D
1/8 x (5329 – 4096 + 7) + 65% of 2500 – (1331 – 40. Answer: A
484) =3/16* (?) (29 x 29) – (124/3 x 978/248) + 256 + 27 = (?)²
155 + 1625 – 847 = 3/16 x (?) (?)² = 841 – 163 + 256 + 27
933 = 3/ 16 x (?) (?) = √961 = 31
(?) = 4976
Direction (41-45):
37. Answer: B 41. Answer: D
8.5 x (53 x 74 – 37 x 104) + (243.75 + 551.25 + 71.428 % of 909.913 + 22.22 % of 90.12 + 66.67 %
46)1/2 % of 1250 of 269.90 = ?
629 + 29% of 1250 (5/7) * 910 + (2/9) * 90 + (6/9) * 270 = ?
629 + 362.5 650 + 20 + 180 = ?
(?) = 991.5 850 = ?
Page 57 of 110
1040.19 ÷ 7.92 – √626 * 1.908 + 125.124 % of x (x + 14) + 3(x + 14) = 0

39.908 = ? (x + 3)(x + 14) = 0
1040 ÷ 8 - √625 * 2 + 125% of 40 = ? x = -3, -14
130 – 50 + 50 = ? II) y2 + 13y + 30 = 0
130 = ? y2 + 3y + 10y + 30 = 0
43. Answer: B y(y + 3) + 10(y + 3) = 0
√1600.12 + 18.897 * 10.198 – 119.903 % of (y + 10)(y + 3) = 0
149.934 = ? y = -10, -3
√1600 + 19 * 10 – 120% of 150 = ? Relationship between x and y cannot be
40 + 190 – 180 = ? established.
50 = ?
47. Answer: E
44. Answer: D I) 3x2 - 45x + 168 = 0
(1/11) * 3905 + (3/8) * 328 + (18/100) * 500 + 1332 3x2–24x – 21x + 168 = 0
=x 3x(x – 8) – 21(x – 8) = 0
x = 355 + 123 + 90 + 1332 (3x – 21)(x – 8) = 0
x = 1900 x = 7, 8
II) 2y2 – 36y + 160 = 0
45. Answer: B 2y2 – 16y – 20y + 160 = 0
(x / 100) * 400 = 562 – (144 – 36) * (18/12) 2y(y – 8) – 20(y – 8) = 0
4x = 562 – 162 (2y – 20)(y – 8) = 0
4x = 400 y = 10, 8
x = 100 x≤y
Direction (46-60): 48. Answer: C

46. Answer: C I) x2 - 5x - 126 = 0
I) x2 + 17x + 42 =0 x2 – 14x + 9x – 126 = 0
x2 + 14x + 3x + 42 = 0 x(x – 14) + 9(x – 14) = 0
Page 58 of 110
(x + 9)(x – 14) = 0 x = 17, -9

x = - 9, 14 II) y2 – 37y + 306 = 0
II) y2 + 9y – 112 = 0 y2 – 19y – 18y + 342 = 0
y2 + 16y – 7y – 112 = 0 y(y – 19) – 18(y – 19) = 0
y(y + 16) – 7(y + 16) = 0 (y – 18)(y – 19) = 0
(y – 7)(y + 16) = 0 y = 18, 19
y = 7, -16 x<y
established. 51. Answer: A
From I =>
49. Answer: E 2x2 + 15x + 27 = 0
I) x2 – 28x + 195 = 0 => (2x + 9) (x + 3) = 0
x2 – 13x – 15x + 195 = 0 => x = -9/2, -3
x(x – 13) – 15(x – 13) = 0 From II =>
(x – 15)(x – 13) = 0 3y2 + y – 2 = 0
x = 15, 13 => (3y – 2) (y + 1) = 0
II) y2 – 31y + 240 = 0 => y = 2/3, -1
y2 – 16y – 15y + 240 = 0 Hence, x < y
y(y – 16) – 15(y – 16) = 0
(y – 15)(y – 16) = 0 52. Answer: A
y = 15, 16 From I =>
x≤y 35x2 – 53x + 20 = 0
=> 5x (7x – 5) – 4(7x – 5) = 0
50. Answer: D => (5x – 4) (7x – 5) = 0
I) x2 – 8x – 153 = 0 => x = 4/5, 5/7
x2 – 17x + 9x – 153 = 0 From II =>
x(x – 17) + 9(x – 17) = 0 y2 – 29y + 210 = 0
(x + 9)(x – 17) = 0 => y (y – 14) – 15 (y – 14) = 0
Page 59 of 110
=> (y – 15) (y – 14) = 0 => y = -9/2, -3

=> y = 14, 15 Hence, x > y
Hence, x < y
55. Answer: B
53.Answer: E I) 3x2 – 3x - 18 = 0
From I => 3x2 – 9x + 6x – 18 = 0
2x2 + 5x – 33 = 0 3x(x – 3) + 6(x – 3) = 0
=> 2x(x – 3) + 11(x – 3) = 0 (3x + 6)(x – 3) = 0
=> (2x + 11) (x – 3) = 0 x = - 2, 3
=> x = -11/2, 3 II) y2 – 7y + 12 = 0
From II => (y – 3) (y – 4) = 0
2x2 – 3x – 35 = 0 y = 3, 4
=> 2x (x – 5) + 7(x – 5) = 0 Hence, x ≤ y
=> (2x + 7) (x – 5) = 0
=> x = -7/2, 5 56. Answer: B
Hence, relationship between x and y cannot be I) x2 + x – 2 = 0
determined. (x – 1) (x + 2) = 0
x = 1, -2
54. Answer: B II) y2 + 5y + 6 = 0
From I => (y + 3) (y + 2) = 0
4x2 + 3x – 10 = 0 y = -3, -2
=> 4x (x + 2) – 5 (x + 2) = 0 Hence, x ≥ y
=> (4x – 5) (x + 2) = 0
=> x = 5/4, -2 57. Answer: E
From II => x2 + 8x + 12 = 0
2y2 + 15y + 27 = 0 x2 + 6x + 2x + 12 = 0
=> 2y (y + 3) + 9 (y + 3) = 0 x(x + 6) + 2(x + 6) = 0
=> (2y + 9) (y + 3) = 0 (x + 2)(x + 6) = 0
Page 60 of 110
x = -2, -6 From I =>6x2 + x – 2 = 0

2y2 + 6y + 4 = 0 =>(3x + 2) (2x – 1) = 0
2y2 + 4y + 2y + 4 = 0 => x = -2/3, ½
2y(y + 2) + 2(y + 2) = 0 From II => 3y2 – 11y + 6 = 0
(2y + 2)(y + 2) = 0 => 3y(y – 3) – 2(y – 3) = 0
y = -1, -2 => (3y – 2) (y – 3) = 0
Hence, x ≤ y => y = 2/3, 3
Hence x < y
58. Answer: D
x2 – 15x + 56 = 0 60. Answer: A
x2 – 7x – 8x + 56 = 0 From I =>6x2 + 13x + 6 = 0
x(x – 7) – 8(x – 7) = 0 =>3x(2x + 3) + 2(2x + 3) = 0
(x – 8)(x – 7) = 0 => (3x + 2) (2x + 3) = 0
x = 8, 7 => x = -2/3, -3/2
y2 – 19y + 90 = 0 From II =>3y2 – 8y + 4 = 0
y2 – 9y – 10y + 90 = 0 => 3y(y – 2) – 2(y – 2) = 0
y(y – 9) – 10(y – 9) = 0 => (3y – 2) (y – 2) = 0
(y – 10)(y – 9) = 0 => y = 2/3, 2
y = 10, 9 Hence x < y
Hence, x < y
59. Answer: A
English Language
Directions (1-5): Read the following passage to make a meaningful sentence if it is

carefully and answer the following questions. Some inappropriately used.
of the words have been highlighted in the p a ssage
Page 61 of 110
Online education is a flexible instructional delivery pace and time and face no commuting or parking
system that encompasses any kind of learning that hassles. Itlearn to become responsible for their own
takes place via the Internet. Online learning gives education with information available at their
educators an opportunity to reach students who fingertips, finds the submission of assignments
may not be able to enroll in a traditional classroom easy and convenientare more apt to voice their own
course and supports students who need to work on opinions and share and debate issues with other
their own schedule and at their own pace. students, as well as learn from other students
The quantity of distance learning and online during the group discussions
degrees in most disciplines is large and increasing Possible negative effects of learning online are that
rapidly. Schools and institutions that offer online some students: It may miss the face-to-face
learning are also increasing in number. Students interaction with the instructor and among students,
pursuing degrees via the online approach must be may prefer to attend traditional classes with an
selective to ensure that their coursework is done instructor who teaches and guides them through the
through a respected and credentialed institution. course, finds access to the necessary technology
Online education has become a viable and exciting challenging and the availability of technical support
method for instructional delivery in the global limited. In addition, some administrators and
business society that runs on a 24/7 schedule (24 instructors who do not understand the workload
hours a day/7 days a week) because it provides may display a negative attitude toward online
students with great flexibility. education.Online teaching is here to stay. Many
With the increased availability of the Internet and students prefer the online classroom since it offers
computer technology, students are able to access flexibility in their busy schedules. With the
information anytime and anyplace that would proliferation of information and knowledge, students
normally be available only through a traditional must become lifelong learners in today's world, and
classroom. Studies have shown that students learn online education plays an important role in helping
just as effectively in an online classroom as they do individuals access the learner-centered and self-
in the traditional classroom. Online education offers directed instruction. With enhanced software,
many positive benefits since students have hardware, and Internet access, more options for
flexibility in taking classes and working at their own online education will become available. With
Page 62 of 110
student enrollments increasing faster than A. Only (I)

classrooms can be built, students becoming more B. Only (II) & (III)
proficient with technology, and students pursuing an C. Only (III)
education that meets their needs, the future of D. All of the above
online education will continue to grow. Online E. None
degree programs will become more widely
accepted as they become a more common practice. 3. What are the possible negati ve effects of
1. Which of the following will be similar meaning fo r learning online of some students?
the word “proliferation”? (I) It may miss the face-to-face interaction with the
A. Abatement instructor and among students.
B. Lessening (II)It may prefer to attend traditional classes with an
C. Curtailment instructor who teaches and guides them through the
D. Burgeoning course.
E. None of these (III) Itlearns to become responsible for their own
education with information available at their
2. Which of the following cannot b e inferred fr om fingertips.
the passage? A. Only (I) & (II)
(I) Students pursuing degrees via the online B. Only (II) & (III)
approach must be selective to ensure that their C. Only (III)
coursework is done through a respected and D. All of the above
credentialed institution. E. None
(II)Most people who choose online learning tend to
have other commitments, and prefer this mode of 4. What are the benefits in advanced software a nd
learning as it gives them power over how they will internet access?
delegate their time towards their different projects. (I) with student enrollments increasing faster than
(III)Students in traditional classrooms may not get classrooms can be built, students becoming more
the personalized attention they need to have proficient with technology.
concepts clarified.
Page 63 of 110
(II) Some administrators and instructors who do not (ii) Its sales have boost-up in the coming months.
understand the workload may display a negative i) Though the new company’s sales were
attitude toward online education. low………..
(III) Students pursuing an education that meets their ii) Despite the low sales at………
needs, the future of online education will continue to iii) However, the new company’s sales have boost-
grow. up…….
A. Only (I) & (II) A. Only i
B. Only (I) & (III) B. Only ii
C. Only (III) C. Only iii
D. All of the above D. Both i and ii
E. None E. Both ii and iii
5. What is the title given to the passage? 7.

A. Traditional education (i) RBI is worried about the risk of investi ng in
B. Online education bonds and mutual funds.
C. Formal education (ii) RBI is likely to ask commercial banks to
D. Internet and computer technology decrease their investments i n b o nds a nd m utual
E. None of the above funds.
i) At the risk of investing…………
Directions(6-10): Select the connector out o f thr ee ii) To decrease investments………..
starters given as (i), (ii) and (iii) which can b e u sed iii) Worried for the risk…………
in the beginning (to start th e s entence) to fo rm a A. Only i
single sentence from the two o r th ree s tatements B. Only iii
given while implying the same meaning as C. Only ii
expressed in the statement sentences. D. Both i and ii
6. E. Both ii and iii
(i) The new company’s sales were low at the
starting of the year. 8.
Page 64 of 110
(i) The central government has determined to install (i) Time spent on platforms has risen by 30% in the
renewable energy devices on important sites. current quarter as compared to the October-
(ii) Public will be more aware of their advantages. December quarter.
i) The central government’s determination ………… (ii) Audio streaming that saw a dip during peak
ii) Determining to install………….. covid-19 lockdown last year is now consolidating its
iii) By making public………….. recovery.
A. Only i (i) Time spent on platforms has raised ….
B. Only iii (ii) Last year, audio streaming saw ….
C. Only ii (iii) By comparison to the October- November
D. Both i and ii quarterly ….
E. Both ii and iii A. Only (ii)
B. Only (iii)
9. C. Only (i)
(i) Fifteen million youth enter the workforce of India D. All are correct
every Year. E. None is correct
(ii) Sixty percent of these youth are unskilled.
i) While sixty percent………. Directions ( 1 1-15): In e ach q uestions b elow, a
ii) Of the fifteen million……. paragraph is given, containing three blanks. T here
iii) Since fifteen million…….. were three columns in the passage. Choose correct
A. Only i combination of words from the options, which can fit
B. Only iii in the blanks both grammatically and meaningfully.
C. Only ii 11. Suddenly, he found that his _______ w as L o rd
D. Both i and ii Shiva himself in _______ who came to a dvise h im
E. Both ii and iii not to take the great _______ without divine
intervention.
10. COLUMN I COLUMN II COLUMN III
a)accessory d)expose g)abstention
b)adversary e)obvious h)venture
Page 65 of 110
c)affiliate f)disguise i)certitude COLUMN I COLUMN II COLUMN III

A. c-e-h a) avoid d) into g) indulgence
B. a-c-d b) confront e) to h) abandon
C. b-d-i c) indulge f) from i) abstinence
D. b-f-h A. c-e-h
E.None of these B. a-e-i
C. b-d-i
12. News of the Moon landing s pr ead a c ross th e D. b-f-h
world, _______ an entire generation and _______ a n E. None of these
infectious sense of possibility _______ what was to 14. By _______ at th e international c o mmunity's
come in space exploration. attempt to c h allenge i ts p olicy i n X injiang, a nd
COLUMN I COLUMN II COLUMN III turning a blind eye to the evidence
a) unexciting d) neglect g) from of _______abuse, China's partners are also
b) repugnant e) instilling h) for doubling down on one of their usual refrains:
c) captivating f) drain i) of sovereignty is _______, p ar ticularly w hen h uman
A. c-e-h rights are involved.
B. a-c-d COLUMN I COLUMN II COLUMN III
C. b-d-i a) ask out d) rampant g) profane
D. b-f-h b) firing back e) temperate h) scorned
E. None of these c) retort f) reticent i) sacrosanct
13. Among the i deas s uggested b y the S c ottish A. c-e-h
Conservatives are allowing fi rst -time d r ug u ser s B. a-e-i
to_______ a criminal record as long as th ey a ttend C. b-d-i
support services; r e dir ection _ _ _____ fu nds i nto D. b-f-h
rehabilitation, recovery and _ _ _____; a s w ell a s a E. None of these
review into the use of heroin substitute methadone. 15. But the rich storehouse _______ hidden
potential within us is opened unto us w hen w e a r e
COLUMN I COLUMN II COLUMN III humble, _______ of ego and possessed by a s e nse
a) from d) profuse g) drizzle Page 66 of 110
b)Click
of Here For Banking
e) replete h) downpour
and Insurance Special Package | Click Here For Best Standard Online Test Series
c) to If there are any
f) devoid i) collect
suggestions/ errors in this PDF contact us via this email: studynitiguide@gmail.com
of total surrender, which facilitate _______ of d ivine 17. Given the government’s historic track record
grace. of paying (a) fiscal deficit targets and the failing ( b )
A. c-e-h health of state finances, bond traders do
B. a-e-i not want (c) the government to get away
C. b-d-i without missing (d) for it.
D. b-f-h A. b-c
E. None of these B. a-b
C. a-d
Directions (16-20): In each of the following D. b-d
sentences fo ur w ords a r e g iven i n b old. T hese E. no change required
words may or may not be placed a ppropriately to
form a contextually and grammatically m e aningful 18. India's slowest (a)services industry last month
sentence. Below each sentence fo ur o p tions a r e grew at its dominant (b) pace since September,
given for the replacements. You have to choose the hampered by a weaker (c) expansion
correct replacement as your answer. If no in domestic (d) demand that dragged the pace of
replacement is required, choose no change hiring to a six-month low.
required. A. a-b
16. Private consumption is also expected to get a B. b-d
fillip from public disposable (a) in rural areas and an C. c-d
increase in spending (b) incomes (c) of households D. a-c
due to tax benefits (d) E. no change required
A. a-d
B. c-d 19. RBI governor said the central bank
C. b-d will issue (a)a fresh circular on how to plan (b)with
D. a-b NPAs after the Supreme Court set aside the
E. no change required regulator’s previous circular that had mandated
lenders to take (c) defaulters to bankruptcy courts in
Page 67 of 110
case they failed to put a rescue deal (d) within six of any individual or corporate entity (b) to challenge
months. the decision of any authority(c) in the court (d) of
A. a-d law and the RBI was not an exception
B. b-d A. b-c
C. c-d B. a-c
D. b-c C. b-d
E. no change required D. c-d
E. no change required
20. On companies (a) taking the central bank to
court, the governor said it was the democratic right
Directions (1-5): and guides them through the course, finds access
1. Answer: D to the necessary technology challenging and the
Proliferation, burgeoning – growth availability of technical support limited.
Lessening, curtailment - reduce
4. Answer: B
2. Answer: A With student enrollments increasing faster than
Students pursuing degrees via the online approach classrooms can be built, students becoming more
must be selective to ensure that their coursework is proficient with technology, and students pursuing an
done through a respected and credentialed education that meets their needs, the future of
institution. online education will continue to grow. Online
Options (II) & (III) are not related to the passage. degree programs will become more widely
accepted as they become a more common practice
3. Answer: A
It may miss the face-to-face interaction with the 5. Answer: B
instructor and among students, may prefer to attend The passage describes about online education.
traditional classes with an instructor who teaches
Page 68 of 110
Directions (6-10): ii) Of the fifteen million youth that enter the
6. Answer: D workforce of India every Year, sixty percent of them
Starter first and second can be used to frame the are unskilled.
meaningful sentence.
i) Though the new company’s sales were low at the 10. Answer A
start of the year, they have a boost-up in the Only (ii) starter can be used to form meaningful
coming months. sentence.
ii) Despite the low sales at the starting of the year, Last Year, Audio streaming saw a dip during peak
they have boost-up in the coming months. covid-19 lockdown is now consolidating its
recovery. Time spent on platforms has risen by
7. Answer: B 30% in the current quarter as compared to the
iii) Only starter third can be used to frame the October-December quarter.
Worried for the risk of investing in bonds and Directions (11-15):
mutual funds, RBI is likely to ask commercial banks 11. Answer: D
to decrease their investments in bonds and mutual Suddenly, he found that his adversary was Lord
funds Shiva himself in disguise who came to advise him
not to take the great venture without divine
8. Answer: A intervention.
Only the starter first can be used to frame the
meaningful sentence. 12. Answer: A
i) The central government’s determination to install News of the Moon landing spread across the
renewable energy devices on important sites will world, captivating an entire generation and instilling
make the public more aware of their advantages. an infectious sense of possibility for what was to
come in space exploration
9. Answer: C
Only starter second can be used to frame the 13. Answer: B
Page 69 of 110
Among the ideas suggested by the Scottish

Conservatives are allowing first-time drug users 17. Answer: C
to avoid a criminal record as long as they attend Given the government’s historic track record of
support services; redirection to funds into missing fiscal deficit targets and the failing health of
rehabilitation, recovery and abstinence as well as a state finances, bond traders do not want the
review into the use of heroin substitute methadone government to get away without paying for it.

By firing back at the international community's India's dominant services industry last month grew
attempt to challenge its policy in Xinjiang, and at its slowest pace since September, hampered by
turning a blind eye to the evidence of rampant a weaker expansion in domestic demand that
abuse, China's partners are also doubling down on dragged the pace of hiring to a six-month low.
one of their usual refrains: sovereignty
is sacrosanct particularly when human rights are 19. Answer: B
involved. RBI governor said the central bank will issue a fresh
circular on how to deal with NPAs after the
15. Answer: D Supreme Court set aside the regulator’s previous
But the rich storehouse of hidden potential within us circular that had mandated lenders to take
is opened unto us when we are humble, devoid of defaulters to bankruptcy courts in case they failed
ego and possessed by a sense of total surrender, to put a rescue plan within six months.
which facilitate downpour of divine grace.
20. Answer: E
Directions (16-20): On companies taking the central bank to court, the
16. Answer: D governor said it was the democratic right of any
Private consumption is also expected to get a fillip individual or corporate entity to challenge the
from public spending in rural decision of any authority in the court of law and the
areas and an increase in disposable incomes of RBI was not an exception
households due to tax benefits
Page 70 of 110
General Awareness
1. What is the theme of the World Leprosy Day 4. Who among the following has been chosen for
2021? the 2021 Padma Awards?
A) Zero cases of leprosy-related disabilities in A) Dr Rajesh Kumar
children B) Dr Arav Sen
B) Beat Leprosy, End Stigma and advocate for C) Dr Mukesh Singh
Mental Wellbeing D) Dr Sushil Gupta
C) Ending discrimination, stigma and prejudice E) Dr Krishna Mohan Pathi
D) Negative attitudes hamper efforts to stop the
spread of the disease 5. Which company has launched the Taj Mahal
E) Zero disabilities in girls and boys inspired engineering hub in Noida?
A) HP
2. India has signed a ______ million dollar loan for B) Infosys
the STARS program with the World Bank. C) TCS
A) 200 D) Microsoft
B) 250 E) HCL
C) 400
D) 450 6. Indian Coast Guard Day is observed on which of
E) 500 the following date?
A) February 3
3. India’s First ‘Gender Park’ has recently been B) February 5
inaugurated in which state? C) February 1
A) Chhattisgarh D) February 7
B) Telangana E) February 9
C) Kerala
D) Karnataka 7. Which of the following country has recently
E) West Bengal applied to join the Asia-Pacific free trade pact?
A) Switzerland
Page 71 of 110
B) Germany C) Sudesh Gupta

C) France D) Nitin Singh
D) Sweden E) Arjun Arora
E) UK
11. Tax holiday for start ups has been extended for
8. Which country has decided to award which of the following year?
hydropower project 679 mega watt Lower Arun A) 2025
Hydropower Project to India's Satluj Jal Vidyut B) 2024
Nigam (SJVN)? C) 2022
A) Madagascar D) 2023
B) Maldives E) 2021
C) Sri Lanka
D) Nepal 12. India has established its first Centre for
E) Bhutan Wetland Conservation and Management in which
city?
9. Military has seized power in which of the A) Surat
following country and has announced a 1 year B) Pune
emergency? C) Delhi
A) Vietnam D) Chennai
B) Myanmar E) Chandigarh
C) Brunei
D) Thailand 13. World Bank will provide _______ million to
E) Singapore Bangladesh for improving Road and Digital
Connectivity.
10. SBI Card has appointed who among the A) 200
following as MD & CEO for 2 years? B) 350
A) Rajesh Tanwar C) 300
B) Rama Mohan Rao Amara D) 500
Page 72 of 110
E) 450 A) Pune
14. In 2021 Budget, Government has proposed to B) Delhi
introduce single securities markets code. Who is C) Pune
the current security market regulator? D) Surat
A) IRDA E) Chandigarh
B) SEBI
C) RBI 18. Which of the following word has been named
D) NHB as Oxford Hindi word of 2020?
E) NABARD A) Samvidhaan
B) Atmanirbharta
15. Who among the following has penned a new C) Swadesh
book ‘The Little Book of Encouragement’ ? D) Aadhar
A) Anurag Thakur E) Shakti
B) Anupam Kher
C) Dalai Lama 19. Who among the following will replace Jeff
D) Narendra Modi Bezos as Amazon CEO?
E) Amitabh Bachan A) Arnould Renault
B) Steve Micthell
16. World Cancer Day is observed on which of the C) Nitin Desai
following date? D) Gazal Alagh
A) February 1 E) Andy Jassy
B) February 3
C) February 4 20. India to emerge as the most resilient economy
D) February 5 after which country in 2021 as per the industry
E) February 8 body PHDCCI?
A) Israel
17. India's First Amputee Clinic has been B) Denmark
Launched in which city? C) Germany
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D) France 24. Which institution has inked a deal with

E) Sweden MIDHANI to develop, manufacture composite raw
materials?
21. The CM of which state has launched the 'Har A) DRDO
Ghar Pani, Har Ghar Safai' mission? B) ONGC
A) Madhya Pradesh C) BDL
B) Haryana D) HAL
C) Uttar Pradesh E) BEL
D) Kerala
E) Punjab 25. India ranked _____ in EIU's 2020 Democracy
Index
22. RBI has unveiled risk-based internal audit A) 57th
guidelines for select NBFCs, UCBs which will B) 98th
come into force from? C) 53rd
A) January 1, 2022 D) 71st
B) March 31, 2022 E) 49th
C) September 30, 2022
D) August 31, 2021 26. International Day of Zero Tolerance to Female
E) March 31, 2021 Genital Mutilation is observed on which of the
following date?
23. Who among the following has been re -elected A) February 1
as President of Boxing Federation of India? B) February 3
A) Rajakumar C) February 6
B) Anant Gupta D) February 15
C) Suresh Kalmadi E) February 11
D) Ajay Singh
E) Nitin Rai 27. Which of the following country will build the
world's first energy island in the North Sea?
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A) Israel E) Razorpay
B) France
C) Germany 31. The Government of which state has approved
D) Sweden the implementation of the Water Conservation
E) Denmark Programme?
A) Bihar
28. Which of the following company will launch a B) Maharashtra
fighter jet? C) Kerala
A) BEML D) UP
B) HAL E) MP
C) BEL
D) BDL 32. Which of the following country will build the
E) DRDO World’s Largest Offshore Wind Farm?
A) Iceland
29. Which of the following state will get its first B) Sweden
human milk bank? C) Germany
A) Bihar D) France
B) Haryana E) South Korea
C) Gujarat
D) Kerala 33. Which state has launched the 'SAANS'
E) Madhya Pradesh campaign to reduce infant mortality?
A) Uttar Pradesh
30. Which company will shut its domestic payment B) Punjab
services in India from April 1? C) Bihar
A) Mobikwik D) Madhya Pradesh
B) Cashfree E) Haryana
C) Freecharge
D) Paypal
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34. RBI has decided to set up an expert committee C) Keller Mark

for which of the following bank? D) Ana Hana
A) SCBs E) Michael Bloomberg
B) RRBs
C) Urban co-operatives 38. India-US joint military exercise ‘Yudh Abhyas
D) Small Finance 20’ has recently commenced in which state?
E) Payment A) Karnataka
B) Chhattisgarh
35. Who among the following is set to Become C) Kerala
W.T.O.’s First Female Leader? D) Rajasthan
A) Charles Soludo E) Gujarat
B) Uzodinma Iweala
C) Ikemba Iweala 39. Budget 2021: What is the Agricultural credit
D) Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala target set at Rs. _____ lakh crore for FY22.
E) Yoo Myung-hee A) 11.5
B) 16.5
36. Which organization has decided to set up a C) 12.5
24x7 helpline for digital payment services? D) 14.5
A) SEBI E) 13.5
B) SIDBI
C) ICICI 40. India's first geothermal power project will be
D) RBI established at Puga village of which UT?
E) NABARD A) Chandigarh
B) Puducherry
37. Who among the following has been Re- C) Daman & Diu
Appointed as United Nations Climate Envoy? D) Ladakh
A) Arnie Frank E) Delhi
B) Stein Lockhardt
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41. Which of the following has become the first C) Drass Red
State to implement e-cabinet? D) Kargil Blue
A) Uttar Pradesh E) Jammu Green
B) Haryana
C) Punjab 45. India’s First Thunderstorm Research Testbed
D) Rajasthan will be established at Balasore in which state?
E) Himachal Pradesh A) Haryana
B) Uttar Pradesh
42. Which state government has decided to set u p C) Karnataka
Indian Institute of Skills? D) Odisha
A) Nagaland E) Kerala
B) Assam
C) Gujarat 46. The Government of which state has announced
D) Haryana the 16-Digit Unicode To Identify Landholdings?
E) Kerala A) Punjab
B) Kerala
43. Who among the following has become the first C) Chhattisgarh
batsman to score 200 in 100th Test? D) Haryana
A) Time Paine E) Uttar Pradesh
B) Steve Smith
C) Rohit Sharma 47. Which of the following armed forces has
D) Virat Kohli Inducted a Women Commandos Into Elite Anti-
E) Joe Root Naxal CoBRA Unit?
A) ITBP
44. Which team has won the 13th CEC Cup Ice B) CRPF
Hockey Championship? C) CISF
A) Lal Bagh Blue D) RPF
B) Sonmarg Blue E) RAF
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48. The chief minister of which state has launched B) 1.5

organic products and Loumiconnect App? C) 1
A) Punjab D) 2
B) Chhattisgarh E) 2.5
C) Karnataka
D) Manipur 52. Which state is set to create state’s 5th tiger
E) Kerala reserve?
A) Kerala
49. Which state/UT Cabinet has approved the B) Tamil Nadu
'Mukhyamantri Vigyan Pratibha Pariksha'' C) Haryana
Scholarship Scheme? D) Bihar
A) Punjab E) Gujarat
B) Chandigarh
C) Delhi 53. Which of the following city has become
D) Kerala Karnataka's 31st district?
E) Uttar Pradesh A) Chikballapur
B) Bidar
50. Who among the following has been voted ICC C) Bagalkot
Player of the Month for January 2021? D) Ballari
A) Pat Cummins E) Vijayanagara
B) Meg Lanning
C) Georgia Wareham 54. Which of the following park has recorded 93
D) Rishab Pant thousand 491 birds?
E) Virat Kohli A) Bannerghatta National Park
B) Kaziranga National Park
51. FSSAI has notified regulations to limit trans-fat C) Anamudi Shola National Park
in food items to ____ per cent from 2022. D) Bandhavgarh National Park
A) 3 E) Bandipur National Park
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55. Who among the following has written the book C) Russia
‘By Many a Happy Accident’? D) Japan
A) NS Tomar E) US
B) Anurag Thakur
C) M Hamid Ansari 59. What is the theme of the RBI Financial literacy
D) Ravi Shankar Prasad week 2021?
E) Prahlad Patel A) Education Management
B) Farmers
56. PhonePe has partnered with which bank on C) Credit Discipline and Credit from Formal
UPI Multi-Bank recently? Institutions
A) SBI D) MSMEs
B) Bank of Baroda E) Credit Management
C) Bandhan
D) Axis 60. International Day of Women and Girls in
E) HDFC Science 2021 is being observed on which of the
following date?
57. World Unani Day is Observed On which of the A) February 1
following date? B) February 3
A) February 1 C) February 4
B) February 3 D) February 5
C) February 4 E) February 11
D) February 11
E) February 5 61. Indian Army has laid the foundation of a 100-
foot-high national flag in which UT recently?
58. India along with which country recently A) Andaman & Nicobar
reviewed the Indo-Pacific developments? B) Daman & Diu
A) Australia C) Puducherry
B) France D) Delhi
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E) J&K A) France
B) UAE
62. The government of which state has decided to C) Saudi Arabia
appoint sprinter Hima Das as DSP? D) Qatar
A) Kerala E) China
B) Gujarat
C) Bihar 66. Which state government has signed MoU with
D) Haryana Flipkart to promote wooden toys, local artifacts,
E) Assam handicrafts?
A) Bihar
63. Pacer Ishant Sharma has becomes the ____ B) Chhattisgarh
Indian pacer to take 300 Test wickets. C) Maharashtra
A) 6th D) Madhya Pradesh
B) 5th E) Haryana
C) 4th
D) 2nd 67. Goa has become the _____ State to
E) 3rd successfully undertake ULB reforms.
A) 2nd
64. India’s first ever CNG Tractor will be launched B) 3rd
on which of the following date? C) 4th
A) February 11 D) 6th
B) February 10 E) 5th
C) February 12
D) February 8 68. Which city police has recently launched the
E) February 9 Swach Sarvekshan Abhiyan?
A) Delhi
65. ‘Hope’ probe of which of the following country B) Chandigarh
has successfully entered Mars orbit? C) Chennai
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D) Bengaluru A) Kerala
E) Surat B) Chhattisgarh
C) Bihar
69. Who among the following has been honoured D) Madhya Pradesh
as Tamil Semmal award? E) Haryana
A) Vijay
B) Yogi Babu 73. Exim Bank will provide ______ million for
C) M. Manikandan Maldives project.
D) Muthalankurichi Kamarasu A) 250
E) Ravi Prakash B) 300
C) 350
70. What is the theme of World Radio Day 2021? D) 450
A) Services rendered by the Radio E) 400
B) As the World Changes, the Radio Evolves
C) Resilience of Radio 74. Which of the following bank will provide a $100
D) New World, New Radio million Project to Support Nutrition-Supportive
E) Evolution of Radio Agriculture in Tribal-Dominated Areas of
Chhattisgarh?
71. Which of the following country has recently A) AfDB
test-fired a surface-to-surface cruise missile? B) AIIB
A) Japan C) ECB
B) Pakistan D) World Bank
C) Bangladesh E) ADB
D) Germany
E) Sweden 75. A three-day Annual Convention of Association
of Domestic Tour Operators of India has started in
72. Which of the following states has launched the which state recently?
Mandu festival? A) Punjab
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B) Bihar D) Madhya Pradesh

C) Haryana E) Gujarat

1. Answer: B Some 250 million students (between the age of six
World Leprosy Day is observed on the last Sunday and 17) in 1.5 million schools and over 10 million
of January. teachers will benefit from the programme.
The day was chosen by French humanitarian Raoul The STARS programme builds on the long
Follereau in 1953 to coincide with the anniversary partnership between India and the World Bank
of Mahatma Gandhi’s death which happened on the (since 1994), for strengthening public school
last Sunday of January 1948. education and to support the country’s goal of
In 2021 World Leprosy Day is Observed 31 providing Education for All.
January 2021. Prior to STARS, the Bank had provided a total
It is celebrated with the aim of raising awareness assistance of more than three billion US dollars
and knowledge about leprosy, the fact that it can be towards this goal.
cured, and changing attitudes that stigmatise and
marginalise people affected by the disease. 3. Answer: C
Theme of 2021 is Beat Leprosy, End Stigma and The Kerala government’s Gender Park in
advocate for Mental Wellbeing Kozhikode will become functional from next month,
coinciding with the second edition of the
2. Answer: E International Conference on Gender Equality
The Government of India and the World Bank (ICGE-II).
signed a 500-million US dollar Strengthening Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan will inaugurate the
Teaching-Learning and Results for States February 11-13 IGCE-II and the Gender Park.
Programme (STARS) to improve the quality and He will also lay the foundation of the International
governance of school education in six Indian states. Women’s Trade and Research Centre (IWTRC) that
These include Himachal Pradesh, Kerala, Madhya envisages a secure and sustained ecosystem for
Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, and Rajasthan.
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women entrepreneurs and a space for them to The center will provide opportunities for engineering
market products. talent in the areas of Business & Productivity tools,
Along with this Park, a Gender Museum, Gender AI, Cloud & Enterprise, Core Services, and the new
Library, Convention Centre and an Amphitheatre Gaming division.
will also be launched at the event. The IDC NCR workspace architecture is inspired by
the Taj Mahal, one of the seven wonders of the
4. Answer: E world.
Dr Pathi is a noted orthopaedic surgeon who is The IDC in NCR will collaborate with Microsoft
known for his landmark work in tribal districts of the teams worldwide to design and create products that
State. drive digital innovations.
Octogenarian Dr Krishna Mohan Pathi goes about
giving free treatment to poor patients on a daily 6. Answer: C
basis in a village of Ganjam district. The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) will celebrate its 45th
For him, age is just a number as the 82-year-old Raising Day on Feb 01.
doctor refuses to give up on helping the needy, a The ICG is an armed force of India that protects
trait which has earned him the Padma Shri award maritime interests and enforces maritime law.
this year. The ICG is headed by a Director-General, Vice-
Admiral rank of the Indian Navy.
5. Answer: D With just seven surface platforms in 1978, the ICG
Microsoft announced the launch of its new India has grown into the fourth largest coast guard with
Development Center (IDC) facility at NCR that will 156 ships and 62 aircraft in its inventory.
serve as a premier hub for driving cutting-edge The ICG has targeted force levels of 200 surface
engineering and innovation. platforms and 80 aircraft by 2025.
IDC NCR is Microsoft’s third Development Center in Since its inception in 1977, the ICG has saved over
India after Bengaluru and Hyderabad. 10,000 lives and apprehended around 14,000
The IDC NCR facility will collaborate with Microsoft miscreants, the agency said.
teams globally to build products and services for Director General, Indian Coast Guard K Natarajan
driving digital innovation.
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7. Answer: E Arun III hydel project, which will provide 21 per cent
The UK is applying to join a free trade area made free power to Nepal during the concession period.
up of 11 Asia and Pacific nations, under its post-
Brexit plans. 9. Answer: B
The Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement The Myanmar Military Tatmadaw has announced a
for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP). one year state of emergency in the country.
The trade agreement formed in 2018 which The Vice President Myint Swe has been made the
includes Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, acting President and all powers have been
Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore transferred to the Commander in Chief Min Aung
and Vietnam. Hlaing.
In total, it covers a market of around 500 million The development follows early morning detention of
people, generating more than 13% of the world's the State Counsellor Aung San Suu Kyi, President
income. Win Myint and other senior leaders from the ruling
International Trade Secretary Liz Truss will make party National League for Democracy (NLD) by the
the request with negotiations expected in the military.
spring.
10. Answer: B
8. Answer: D SBI Cards and Payment Services Ltd (SBI Card)
Nepal has decided to award the contract for appointed Rama Mohan Rao Amara as its
construction of 679 mega watt Lower Arun Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer for a
Hydropower Project to India's Satluj Jal Vidyut period of two years.
Nigam (SJVN). It was effective from 30 January 2021.
This was decided at a meeting of the Investment Prior to this appointment, Amara, who started his
Board Nepal (IBN), chaired by Nepal Prime Minister banking career with SBI in 1991 as a probationary
KP Sharma Oli. officer, was the Chief General Manager of SBI
The project was awarded to the SJVN under the Bhopal circle.
Build, Own, Operate and Transfer (BOOT) delivery Rao is a veteran banker, with a successful career
method. spanning over 29 years at SBI, the credit card
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company said in a release. Prior to taking charge at Management(NCSCM), Chennai, an institution

SBI Card, he was the Chief General Manager, SBI under the Ministry.
Bhopal Circle. On the occasion of the World Wetland Day and as a
part of its commitment towards conservation,
11. Answer: C restoration and management of India’s wetlands,
To help India's startups amid the COVID-19 the Minister of State for Environment, Forest and
pandemic, tax holidays for these businesses have Climate Change.
been extended by one year till March 31, 2022, said The event was attended virtually by NCSCM, State
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman while Wetland Authorities and the knowledge partners of
presenting the Union Budget 2021-22 the Wetland Division.
The government has also proposed to incentivise India has nearly 4.6% of its land as wetlands,
incorporation of one-person companies (OPCs). covering an area of 15.26 million hectares and has
The move is likely to help smaller startups and 42 sites designated as Wetlands of International
innovators. Importance (Ramsar Sites), with a surface area of
The Government has increased the FDI limit from 1.08 million hectares.
49 to 74 percent in Insurance Companies and
allowed foreign ownership and control with 13) Answer: D
safeguards. World Bank to provide USD 500 million to
The Government has proposed to infuse 20 Bangladesh for improving Road and Digital
thousand crore rupees to re-capitalized Public Connectivity. The government of Bangladesh
Sector Banks. signed an agreement with the World Bank for the
upgradation of rural roads and connectivity in the
12. Answer: D western region.
Sh. Babul Supriyo announced the establishment of The project is expected to benefit over 20 million
a Centre for Wetland Conservation and people in the western region of Bangladesh.
Management (CWCM), as a part of the National The project will help upgrade the 48 kilometre two-
Centre for Sustainable Coastal lane Jashore-Jhenaidah road to a modern 4-lane
highway.
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It will also help improve 600 kilometre of connecting The proposal to create a unified securities market
rural roads and build or develop new rural markets. code is very progressive as it aims to simplify and
The project will finance installation of fiber-optic reduce the friction between rules enacted by
cables along the highway to ensure fast and reliable various acts of Sebi, depositories.
internet service SEBI Act - 1992
The project is the first of a multi-phased USD1.4 Depositories Act - 1996
billion 10-year program to upgrade the existing 110 Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act - 1956
kilometre two-lane highway, Bhomra-Satkhira- Government Securities Act - 2007
Navaron and Jashore-Jhenaidah. In the current
phase, the project will be implemented in four 15. Answer: C
districts namely Jashore, Jhenaidah, Magura, and Tibetan spiritual leader the Dalai Lama has come
Chuadanga. out with his new book titled ‘The Little Book of
Encouragement’, in which he has shared quotes
14. Answer: B and words of wisdom to promote human happiness.
The government proposed to introduce a unified "The Little Book of Encouragement", which has 130
securities markets code, a move that will help in quotes, is edited by Renuka Singh and published by
boosting the ease of doing business in the country's Penguin Random House.
financial markets. It deals with the new realities of the panic-stricken
The proposed move would help in cutting down world, combat rising extremism, polarity and climate
compliance costs and reducing the friction between change besides Dalai Lama’s views on Tibet.
rules enacted by capital markets watchdog SEBI,
depositories and government 16. Answer: C
Finance Minister in her Budget speech for 2021-22 World Cancer Day 2021 Annually observed on
proposed to consolidate the provisions of SEBI Act, February 4.
Depositories Act, Securities Contracts (Regulation) World Cancer Day seeks to raise awareness and
Act and Government Securities Act into a reduce the stigma surrounding the disease that is
rationalised single securities markets code. the second leading cause of deaths globally.
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This international day is a ‘global uniting initiative’ This initiative will attempt to provide appropriate
led by the Union of International Cancer Control management to amputees to guide them in their
(UICC) and is meant to encourage the prevention, path to rehabilitation in society and will support
detection, diagnosis and treatment of cancer as patients with counseling and medical facilities
early as possible. during their treatment and recovery.
History of the day :
World Cancer Day was first established at the 18. Answer: B
World Cancer Summit Against Cancer for the New Prime Minister Narendra Modi pushed for
Millennium held in Paris, on February 4, 2000. 'Atmanirbhar Bharat' (self-reliant India) an Oxford
This day celebrates the anniversary of the signing panel has now chosen 'Atmanirbharta' in Hindi word
of the ‘Charter of Paris Against Cancer’ by the of 2020.
General Director of UNESCO, Kōichirō Matsuura The advisory panel of language experts Kritika
and the French President Jacques Chirac. Agrawal, Poonam Nigam Sahay and Imogen Foxell
In 2019, the theme ‘I Am and I Will’ was introduced stated that "it validated the day-to-day
and was to be carried on till 2021 achievements of the countless Indians who dealt
with and survived the perils of a pandemic”.
17. Answer: E The Oxford Hindi word of the year is a word or
An 'amputee clinic', the first of its kind in India, with expression that is chosen to reflect the ethos,
the aim of improving amputation patient care by mood, or preoccupations of the passing year, and
providing a collection of services under one roof have lasting potential as a term of cultural
with significant coordination was launched in significance.
Chandigarh. The usage of the word 'Aatmanirbharta' after Prime
The clinic was formally inaugurated by the Post Minister Modi's address has increased significantly.
Graduate Institute of Medical Education and There was a massive increase in the usage of
Research (PGIMER) Director Prof Jagat Ram. aatmanirbharta following the prime minister's
The basic intent of this initiative is to bring an address, highlighting its increased prominence as a
Amputee as a near-normal functional human being phrase and concept in the public lexicon of India
in society.
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Previous Hindi words of the year are Aadhar India's IER Rank stands at second among the top-
(2017), Nari Shakti (2018) and Samvidhaan (2019). 10 leading economies, indicating strong resilience
of the Indian economy to the daunting pandemic of
19. Answer: E COVID-19,
Amazon Web Services (AWS) chief Andy Jassy will India's real GDP growth rate is projected to be the
replace billionaire founder Jeff Bezos as highest at 11.5% in the year 2021 among the top-10
Amazon.com's next chief executive officer. leading economies in the world, according to the
Bezos started the company 27 years ago, on 5 July industry body.
1994, as an internet bookseller. 21. Answer: E
He will assume the role of Executive Chairman of Punjab Chief Minister Captain Amarinder Singh
Amazon. virtually launched the 'Har Ghar Pani, Har Ghar
Meanwhile, it has also been announced that the Safai' mission as part of the government's
head of Amazon’s cloud services, Andy Jassy will campaign to accomplish the goal of 100 per cent
take over as the company's new CEO. potable piped water supply in all rural households
by March next year.
20. Answer: C The Chief Minister also inaugurated one Mega
Germany ranks first in the PHDCCI International Surface Water Supply Scheme covering 85 villages
Economic Resilience (IER) Rank followed by India in the Moga district, 144 new water supply schemes
and South Korea at second and third positions, for 172 villages, 121 Arsenic, and Iron removal
respectively, according to the report released by plants.
industry body PHDCCI. The scheme will benefit more than 1.6 lakh
It is based on analysis of five lead macroeconomic residents from 155 villages in Amritsar, Tarn Taran,
indicators reflecting a country's economic and Gurdaspur districts by helping replace
performance including real GDP growth rate, groundwater with surface water supply for drinking,
merchandise export growth rate, current account besides resolving the problem of arsenic affected
balance (as percentage of GDP), general habitations.
government net lending/borrowing (as percentage
of GDP) gross debt-to-GDP ratio.
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The scheme is being funded by the World Bank, Jal risk management function and risk -based internal
Jeewan Mission of GoI, NABARD, and State audit function.
Budget. RBI, in its monetary policy statement on December
The Chief Minister also formally launched 10 new 4, 2020, had announced that suitable guidelines
large multi-village surface water supply schemes at would be issued to large UCBs and NBFCs for the
a cost of Rs.1,020 Crore. The scheme will cover adoption of RBIA to strengthen the internal audit
1,018 villages in the water quality affected areas of function, which works as a third line of defence.
districts Patiala, Fatehgarh Sahib, Gurdaspur,
Amritsar, and Tarn Taran. 23. Answer: D
Ajay Singh has been re-elected as President of the
22. Answer: B Boxing Federation of India (BFI).
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued guidelines Singh received 37 votes while Shelar, who has held
on risk-based internal audit (RBIA) system for many top positions in sport, including the role of
select non-bank lenders and urban co-operative President of Maharashtra Cricket Association and
banks (UCBs). Mumbai District Football Association, got 27 votes
NBFCs and UCBs have grown in size and become in the BFI elections.
systemically important, prevalence of different audit Hemanta Kumar Kalita was elected secretary
systems/approaches in such entities has created general and Digvijay Singh treasurer.
certain inconsistency. The elections were held in the presence of AIBA
The entities have to implement the RBIA framework observer Yury Zaystsev and IOA observer Rakesh
by March 31, 2022 Gupta.
This is mainly for Strengthen the quality and The six-time world champion boxer Mary Kom
effectiveness of the internal audit system of credited BFI President Ajay Singh for the
selected entities. remarkable performances of the boxers from the
The regulator also specified that RBIA policy shall country at the global stage in recent years.
clearly document the purpose, authority, and
responsibility of the internal audit activity, with a 24. Answer: D
clear demarcation of the role and expectations from
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Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) and Mishra India slipped two places to 53rd position in the 2020
Dhatu Nigam Limited (MIDHANI) have signed a Democracy Index’s global ranking, according to The
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for Economist Intelligence Unit.
development and production of composite raw India is ranked higher than most of its neighbouring
materials during the Aero India 2021 in Bengaluru countries. India’s overall score fell from 6.9 in 2019
on February 04, 2021 to 6.61 in the Index that provides a snapshot of the
This is the first time that such an MoU has been current state of democracy worldwide for 167
signed for composite raw materials. countries.
The MoU was signed by Chairman and Managing Norway has topped the Index.Iceland, Sweden,
Director, HAL Shri R Madhavan and Chairman and New Zealand and Canada are the top five countries
Managing Director, MIDHANI Dr S K Jha in the in the list.
presence of other senior officials. Out of 167 countries, the Democracy Index
Composites raw materials, mainly in the form of classifies 23 countries as full democracies, 52 as
prepregs used in platforms like Light Combat flawed democracies, 35 as hybrid regimes and 57
Aircraft (LCA), Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH), as authoritarian regimes. India has been classified
Light Combat Helicopter (LCH) and Light Utility as a ‘flawed democracy’ along with countries.
Helicopter (LUH) are currently imported.
The usage of composites in aerospace is going to
exist and increase, particularly for fighter 26. Answer: C
aircraft/helicopters because of its inherent Every Year on Feb 06, International Day of Zero
advantages over metallic raw materials. Tolerance for Female Genital Mutilation is
In addition, similar requirements exist for other Observed.
aerospace and defence programmes, including It was first held in 2003.
those of Indian Space Research Organisation Theme of 2021is No time for global inaction: unite,
(ISRO), Defence Research Development fund and act to end FGM/C
Organisation (DRDO) and National Aerospace It is a United Nations-sponsored annual awareness
Laboratories (NAL). day to eradicate female genital mutilation (FGM).
25. Answer: C
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27. Answer: E Denmark also has plans for an energy island in the
The Denmark to build world's first energy island in Baltic Sea. The state will hold a controlling stake in
the North Sea both islands.
The €28 billion construction project is the biggest of
its kind in Danish history. The government will hold 28. Answer: B
a 51% stake in the island, with the remainder held Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) unveiled a
by the private sector. leap in technology of teaming up unmanned aircraft
In that Initial phase will be the size of 18 football and vehicles with manned jets similar to the US
fields, will be linked to hundreds of offshore wind project of skyborg.
turbines and will supply both power to households It will enhance Indian military strike capabilities
and green hydrogen for use in shipping, aviation, The technology named Combined Air Teaming
industry and heavy transport. System (CATS) will have a mother ship, operating
It will cost around 210 billion Danish crowns ($33.9 from faraway, and four autonomous unmanned
billion) to build, and is an important part of aerial vehicles known as CATS Warrior.
Denmark's legally binding target to cut greenhouse HAL is also developing a high-altitude satellite
gas emissions by 70% by 2030 from 1990 levels, system. It will be solar energised.
one of the world's most ambitious. This asset will be flying unmanned around 70,000
The move came as the European Union unveiled feet height for around two to three months and will
plans to transform its electricity system to rely be taking all the information.
mostly on renewable energy within a decade and HAL is also developing a high altitude asset with
increase its offshore wind energy capacity 25-fold long endurance. It will be flying 50,000 feet for 24
by 2050. hours and it is also part of CATS programme.
The island, to be located 80 kilometres off
Denmark's west coast, and its surrounding wind 29. Answer: D
turbines will have an initial capacity of 3 gigawatt The southern state of Kerala will get its first human
and be operational around 2033. milk bank. The state-of-the-art facility will be
inaugurated by health minister K K Shailaja at state-
owned Ernakulam general hospital in Kochi.
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It is being set up in partnership with Rotary Club of Earlier in December 2020, Financial solutions
Cochin Global. provider Razorpay had partnered with global digital
The facility will provide breast milk to newborn payments platform PayPal to facilitate international
babies who are deprived of it because of various payments for small businesses and freelancers.
issues, including the sickness of their mothers.
According to the state government, 3,600 babies 31. Answer: B
are born in the general hospital a year and out of The Maharashtra Cabinet approved the
those, 600 to 1,000 sick babies are admitted into implementation of the Chief Minister Water
the Neonatal intensive care unit (NICU). Conservation Programme, costing Rs.1,340.75
A similar milk bank - the Northeast's first - opened crore.
at Guwahati's Satribari Christian Hospital in Under the programme, water sources would be
December last year. repaired, which will enhance the State’s irrigation
It was the 15th milk bank in the entire country capacity.
The period of the programme is from April 2020 to
30. Answer: D March 2023,
The California-based global digital payment
platform PayPal has announced that the company 32. Answer: E
has decided to wind down its domestic payment South Korea unveiled a 48.5 trillion won ($43.2
services in India with effect from April 01, 2021. billion) plan to build the world’s largest wind power
The US-based company will instead focus on plant by 2030 as part of efforts to foster an
enabling more international sales for Indian environmentally-friendly recovery from the COVID-
businesses. 19 pandemic.
Moreover,the global customer will be able to pay The project is a major component of President
Indian merchants using Paypal. Moon Jae-in’s Green New Deal, initiated last year
Paypal was one of the payment options on to curb reliance on fossil fuels in Asia’s fourth-
platforms like ticketing services BookMyShow, largest economy and make it carbon neutral by
MakeMyTrip, and food delivery platform Swiggy. 2050
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Moon attended a signing ceremony in the Social awareness campaign in which medical staff
southwestern coastal town of Sinan for the plant, is being trained.
which will have a maximum capacity of 8.2 Training will be imparted at the community and
gigawatts. primary health centres.
The plan is part of the country’s Green New Deal Around 4,000 Health and Wellness Centres have
that seeks to transition South Korea to a more been set up in Madhya Pradesh for this purpose.
sustainable energy future. The State government has also developed training
It is accelerating the eco-friendly energy transition modules in partnership with PGIMER, Chandigarh,
and moving more vigorously toward carbon and UNICEF, which will be used to enhance the
neutrality. skills of health workers, including doctors and
The estimated cost of the project is 48.5 trillion won paramedical staff
($43.2 billion).
The project would provide up to 5,600 jobs and help 34. Answer: C
achieve a goal to boost the country’s wind power The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to set
capacity to 16.5 GW by 2030 from 1.67 GW now. up an expert committee on Urban Co-operative
Till date, the world’s largest offshore wind farm is Banks (UCBs) involving all stakeholders in order to
Hornsea 1 in Britain, which has 1.12 GW capacity. provide a medium-term road map to strengthen the
sector, enable faster rehabilitation/resolution of
33. Answer: D UCBs, as well as examine other critical aspects
The health department in Madhya Pradesh has relating to these entities.
launched the Social Awareness and Action to This follows the provisions of the Banking
Neutralise Pneumonia Successfully (‘SAANS’) Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 becoming
campaign with the aim of reducing infant mortality applicable to Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks
due to pneumonia. (UCBs) with effect from June 26, 2020.
Purpose : The amendments have brought near parity in
To reduce the death rate due to pneumonia among regulatory and supervisory powers between UCBs
infants a strategy is being chalked out under the and commercial banks in respect of regulatory
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powers, including those related to governance, CTS across all bank branches and allowing retail
audit and resolution. investors to open Gilt accounts with RBI.
The constitution of the committee as well as the Reports that the government is encouraging various
terms of reference will be notified separately by the modes of digital payments.
RBI. The helpline will, in addition to building trust and
35. Answer: D confidence, also reduce expenditure on both
Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala, an economist and former financial and human resources, otherwise incurred
finance minister of Nigeria, appears set to become for addressing queries and grievances.
the next director general of the World Trade The major payment system operators would be
Organization. required to facilitate setting-up of a centralised
She would be the first woman and the first African industry-wide 24x7 helpline for addressing
national to lead the organization. customer queries in respect of various digital
Dr. Okonjo-Iweala served twice as Nigeria’s finance payment products and give information on available
minister, spent 25 years at the World Bank as a grievance redress mechanisms by September
development economist and now is the chairwoman 2021.
of the Center for Global Development, according to RBI has decided to move beyond the aggregator
the center’s website. model and provide retail investors online access to
She is the former finance minister of Nigeria, the government securities market along with the
succeeding Roberto Azevedo, who stepped down in facility to open their gilt securities account.
August 2020.
37. Answer: E
36. Answer: D United Nations Secretary-General Antonio Guterres
RBI has announced certain measures of protection re-appointed Michael Bloomberg as his Special
of common bank account holders in the Monetary Envoy on Climate Ambition and Solutions.
policy statement. About Bloomberg :
It includes setting up of 24*7 helpline for digital Bloomberg was first appointed UN special envoy on
payment services, integrated ombudsman scheme, cities and climate change in 2014 by UN Secretary-
General Ban Ki-moon.
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Bloomberg would work with governments, share their war-related techniques, skills and
companies, cities, and financial institutions to experience with each other during this exercise.
ensure they pledge to cut emissions and commit to The exercise is one of the largest military training
net-zero before 2050. and defense cooperation efforts between India and
Bloomberg has previously been appointed to U.N. the United States.
climate envoy positions in 2014 and 2018. This exercise is another step in the growing military
Bloomberg will be global ambassador for the cooperation between the two countries, which
campaigns "Race to Zero" and "Race to shows the growth in Indo-US relations.
Resilience," which rally businesses, cities, and It is also a sign that both India and the US
investors to mobilize climate action. understand the threat of terrorism and are standing
Bloomberg is the founder and owner of Bloomberg shoulder to shoulder in combating the same.
LP, the parent company of Bloomberg News.
He would also work to mobilise stronger and more 39. Answer: B
ambitious climate action in the lead-up to 2021 With the aim of doubling farmers’ income by 2022,
United Nations Climate Change conference in Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman announced
Scotland in November 2021. that the agricultural credit target was set at Rs.16.5
lakh crore for FY22, during Union Budget 2021.
38. Answer: D It is an increase of 10 percent over the previous
The India-US joint military exercise "Yudh Abhyas year Rs 15 Lakh Crore
20" commenced in Mahajan Field Firing Range of She also announced that the micro irrigation fund
Bikaner district in Rajasthan. would be doubled by Rs.5,000 crore. Operation
This is the 16th edition of annual bilateral joint green scheme will be expanded to include 22
exercise of both the armies. perishable schemes.
It will continue till the 21st of this month. Agriculture infra fund to be increased to Rs.40,000
The previous version of the joint exercise was held crore and this will be available to APMCs.
at Seattle in the United States. 1,000 more mandis will be integrated with the
About 250 US and 250 Indian army soldiers are electronic national market (e-NAM) to enhance the
participating in the exercise. Both the armies will infrastructure of APMCs.
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In the third phase, it is planned to promote joint

40. Answer: D ventures and commercial projects. Puga is a place
India's first geothermal power project will be where it is uncovered with a potential of more than
established at Puga village of eastern Ladakh. 100 mw of geothermal energies.
Puga has been identified as the hotspot of 41. Answer: E
geothermal energy in the country by the scientists. Himachal Pradesh has become the first State in the
In the first phase of the pilot project, one megawatt country to make the end to end processing of the
(MW) power generation capacity will be generated. cabinet paperless by implementing e-cabinet
A tripartite Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) application.
for establishment and implementation of the first Chief Minister Jai Ram Thakur inaugurated the first
phase was signed. e-cabinet at Shimla.
India's first ever geothermal power project, known The entire process from initiation of a cabinet
as Geothermal Field Development Project is memo, approval of the cabinet memo through
planned to commission by the end of 2022. The concerned Secretary, Chief Secretary, concerned
tripartite MOU was signed between ONGC Energy, Minister and finally by Chief Minister to place in the
LAHDC, Leh and the Power Department of UT cabinet has been made online.
Ladakh. It will also be possible to monitor the status of
In the first phase, the pilot project implemented by implementation of cabinet decisions more
the ONGC-OEC will explore within the depth of 500 effectively through this application.
metres and it is planned to supply 24 hours free The e-cabinet provides for generation of automatic
power to 10 neighbouring villages which are not s through SMS on real time basis for various stages
connected with the northern grid for power supply. involved in processing cabinet issues like receipt of
The second Phase is proposed for deeper and cabinet memo, finalization of cabinet meeting,
lateral exploration of geothermal reservoirs by advice received on cabinet memo for various levels
drilling optimal number of wells and setting up of a like Secretaries and Ministers.
higher capacity demo plant in Ladakh. The second The e-cabinet application is also available as a
phase will be the Research and Development stage Mobile App on android devices .
or demonstration of the project.
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The new system will bring greater efficiency in the 43. Answer: E
overall process of conducting a cabinet meeting by Joe Root, the England captain, sent India on a
removing dependencies which arise due to the leather hunt, becoming the first player in history to
physical movement of cabinet memos. score a double century in his 100th Test match.
42. Answer: C Root, who was unbeaten on 128 overnight, batted
In Gujarat, the State Government has asked the on against India on Day 2 in Chennai and notched
Tata group to start the work on setting up Indian up the fifth double century of his career – second in
Institute of Skills- IIS. three Tests.
This was conveyed during a meeting between the In the process, Root also surpassed former
high powered team from Tata Group and senior Pakistan captain Inzamam-Ul-Haq as the player
officials of Gujarat Government held in with the highest individual score playing the 100th
Gandhinagar. Test match of his career. Inzamam had hit 184
IIS is being set up by the Labour and Employment against India in a Test match in Bengaluru in 2005,
Department of Gujarat along with Tata Group at which Pakistan had won by 168 runs.
Nasmed village of Gandhinagar. His record stood for 15 years before being broken
The State Government has allotted around 20 acres by Root, who reached his double-century with a six
of land for Tatas to start Indian Institute of Skills. off R Ashwin, the second time he hit the off-spinner
The foundation stone for the proposed IIS at over the ropes.
Nasmed was performed by Union Home Minister
Amit Shah who is also Lok Sabha Member from 44. Answer: C
Gandhiagar constituency in Gujarat. Proposed IIS In Kargil Ladakh, Drass Red has won the 13th CEC
at Nasmed is located in Gandhinagar Lok Sabha Cup Ice Hockey Championship beating Hockey
constituency. Club Chiktan team in the Final match.
The institute is being developed on a Not-for-profit The 1st Women CEC Ice Hockey Cup 2021 was
Public Private Partnership mode by the Tata Group lifted by Shakar Chiktan Team defeating Wakha
along with the state’s Labour and Employment Mulbekh Team.
Department.
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32 Men teams and 5 Women Teams participated in the land, the next 4 digits determining the unique
the tournament which was organized by the District identity of the land.
Youth Services & Sports. The digits from 11 to 14 will be the number of the
division of the land.
45. Answer: D The last 2 digits will have the details of the
Odisha's Balasore will get the country's first category, through which, the agricultural, residential
thunderstorm research testbed, the India and commercial land will be identified.
Meteorological Department (IMD). Purpose of the Digit Unicode:
The objective of setting up the thunderstorm The Unicode will put an end to fake registries of
testbed is to minimize human fatalities and loss of disputed land and the scheme is being
property due to lightning strikes. implemented across the state.
The thunderstorm testbed will be established in a The work has started in most of the districts.
collaboration between the Ministry of Earth Every piece of land in the state will have its own
Sciences, IMD, Defence Research and unique identity from now onwards that would check
Development Organisation (DRDO) and Indian cases of land disputes and save people from falling
Space Research Organisation (ISRO). into the trap of fraudsters.
IMD Director-General Dr Mrutyunjay Mohapatra, While the Unicode assessment for plots has started
while speaking with a private television channel, in all revenue villages, the work of marking the
also revealed that a first-of-its-kind monsoon disputed plots in the computerised management
testbed is also being planned near Bhopal. system is being done by the revenue courts

The Uttar Pradesh government has introduced a Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) inducted
system of issuing a unique 16-digit Unicode to mark women commandos in its anti-Naxal Commando
all kinds of landholdings in the state. Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA) unit which
About the 16 Digit Unicode: will undergo training and then will be sent to Naxal-
The Unicode number of the land will be 16 digits hit areas.
with the first six digits based on the population of
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These 34 women personnel were inducted in the Border Areas Development Authority (EBADA) at
elite CoBRA wing during the 35th Raising Day of the Chief Minister’s Secretariat in Imphal.
the force’s 88th Mahila Battalion, the first all-women He also launched Loumi Connect App which would
battalion in the world. enable connect farmers with Horticulture and
According to the CRPF, on the occasion of the 88th Agriculture experts.
all-women battalion Raising Day, these women The chief minister also released Illustrative guide
commandos have been inducted along with the booklets on organic farming and Mission Organic
introduction of all Mahila brass bands which will Value Chain Development for North Eastern Region
make CRPF the first force to have a women brass (MOVCDNER).
band. The chief minister also informed that Food Park,
The 34 women personnel from the 6 Mahila Nilakuthi, will have a packaging facility soon. He
Battalions of CRPF who are joining the COBRA, will also informed that the state government has
undergo a strenuous CoBRA pre-induction training already submitted a INR400 crore project proposal
of 3 months, before being sent to Naxal-hit areas of for bamboo to the union government.
the country.
Taking another step towards women empowerment, 49. Answer: C
the 88th Mahila battalion of CRPF has the The Delhi cabinet approved ''Mukhyamantri Vigyan
distinction of being the first all-Mahila battalion in Pratibha Pariksha'' in which Rs 5,000 will be
the world. provided to Rs 1,000 meritorious students of Class
9 in schools of Delhi as a science scholarship.
48. Answer: D The scholarship will provide a boost to science
Manipur chief minister N Biren Singh launched a education in secondary classes at the school level.
new range of packaged organic products and Loumi According to the release, the students studying in
Connect App apart from distributing Bolero Camper Delhi schools who have secured more than 60
vehicles and nurseries to seven Farmers Producer percent in Class 8 are eligible for the examination.
Companies (FPCs). Students belonging to SC, ST, PH, or OBC
A function organized jointly by Directorate of category will be given a relaxation of up to 5
Horticulture and Soil Conservation and Eastern percent of marks.
Page 99 of 110
In Addition to that The cabinet approved January 2020, wherein he scored a 97 at Sydney
procurement of close to 1200 computers, multi- and an unbeaten 89 at Brisbane, leading India to an
functional printers, and UPSs for all the schools, incredible series win.
branch offices, and district offices under the
education department.
51. Answer: D
50. Answer: D Packaged food companies said the Food Safety
The International Cricket Council (ICC) announced and Standards Authority of India’s (FSSAI) move to
the winners of the inaugural ICC Player of the reduce trans-fat in food items which use edible oil
Month Awards which recognise and celebrate the as an ingredient to 2% from 2022.
best performances from both male and female An FSSAI notification dated February 2 said the
cricketers across all forms of international cricket latest amendment of the Food Safety and
throughout the year. Standards (Prohibition and Restriction on Sales)
India’s Rishabh Pant won the ICC Men’s Player of Regulations, 2011 will come into effect from
the Month for January 2021 for his performances in January 1, 2022. ∙ It is consumer friendly and will
the two Tests against Australia where he scored a not put burden on the industry as most companies
97 at Sydney and an unbeaten 89 at Brisbane that are already working on reducing trans-fat in their
led India to a historic series win against arch-rivals products
Australia. The permissible limit for trans fats in food products
South Africa’s Shabnim Ismail was named the ICC in 2021 is 3 percent, cut down from the previous
Women’s Player of the Month for January 2021 for limit of 5 per cent.
her performances across three ODIs and two T20Is Food products that incorporate edible oils and fats
during the month. as ingredients, including edible refined oils,
Ismail took seven wickets in the victorious ODI vanaspati/partially hydrogenated oils, margarine,
series against Pakistan, before taking five wickets vegetable fat spreads, mixed fat spreads, bakery
in the second T20I against the same opposition. shortenings, fall under the ambit of the newly issued
Pant has been honored for his superlative Food Safety and Standards (Prohibition and
performances in the two Tests against Australia in Restrictions on Sales) Regulations, 2021.
Page 100 of 110

The World Health Organization (WHO), which has and 2009. The fourth reserve – Sathyamangalam
launched a major campaign to eliminate industrially was created around 2013-14.
produced trans-fat from national food supplies by
2023, says trans-fat intake is responsible for 53. Answer: E
approximately 500,000 premature deaths from The Karnataka government issued an official
coronary heart disease each year around the world. notification announcing Vijayanagara as the state's
31st district, which was carved out of the ore-rich
52. Answer: B Ballari district.
With the Centre’s approval, Tamil Nadu government Vijayanagara will have six taluks namely Hosapete,
passed an order for creating the fifth tiger reserve in Kudligi, Hagaribommanahalli, Kotturu, Hoovina
the state and the 51st in the country. Hadagali and Harapanahalli.
The Srivilliputhur Megamalai Tiger Reserve will Hosapete is the headquarters of the new
span the forests of Megamalai wildlife sanctuary Vijayanagara district.
and Srivilliputhur grizzled squirrel wildlife sanctuary The Yediyurappa government's plan to create
spread across the districts of Theni, Virudhunagar Vijayanagara district had run into opposition,
and Madurai. ∙ The 100,000-hectare area is home especially from within the ruling BJP.
to a range of mammals and bird species and more Undivided Ballari was politically significant,
than a dozen tigers ∙ Fourteen tigers have so far comprising nine Assembly constituencies of which
been identified in Meghamalai and Srivilliputhur the Congress represents five and the BJP four.
sanctuaries following scat analysis between 2017 Minister for Infrastructure Development, Haj and
and 2018. Wakf, Anand Singh, who is also the Ballari district
Meghamalai is home to a large population of hoofed in-charge, had anchored the efforts for the new
animals, spotted deers, Indian gaurs, etc. while district.
Sriviliputhur has Nilgiri tahrs, Sambars, elephants,
and bird species among others. 54. Answer: B
The first tiger reserve in Tamil Nadu – Kalakkad In Assam, the Kaziranga national park has recorded
Mundanthurai – was formed around 1988-89, which a total of 93 thousand 491 birds as per the latest
was followed by Anamalai and Mudumalai in 2008 census.
Page 101 of 110

There are 112 bird species and 22 families found ∙ This book is an account of a life of unplanned
during the enumeration. happenings that took M. Hamid Ansari away from
For Study Materials: www.ibpsguide.com For Mock his preferred fancy for academia to professional
Tests & E-books: https://guidely.in Follow us: diplomacy.
Telegram, Facebook, Twitter, Instagram This book is based on unplanned happenings that
Daily Current Affairs 11th February 2021 took M. Hamid Ansari away from his preferred fancy
The recent bird census has witnessed an increase for academia to professional diplomacy and then be
of over 59 thousand birds in the Kaziranga national co-opted in public life and catapulted to the second
park. ∙ The park authority has recently conducted a highest office in the land for two consecutive terms.
2 day census where 35 teams were involved. None of his predecessors, except Dr Sarvepalli
Last year, the figure stood at 34 thousand 284. Radhakrishnan, had experienced this honour.
He also highlights some of the important
55. Answer: C contemporary issues demanding urgent address to
Former vice president Hamid Ansari released a ensure good governance and inclusive growth and
book titled as By Many a Happy Accident. About the progress in our society.
Author:
Mohammad Hamid Ansari was the vice president of 56. Answer: D
India and chairman of the Rajya Sabha for two Digital payments platform PhonePe announced that
consecutive terms from 2007 to 2017. it has partnered with Axis Bank on a Unified
A former diplomat, he served as ambassador to the Payments Interface (UPI) multi-bank model.
United Arab Emirates, Afghanistan, Iran, and Saudi The partnership will provide PhonePe users with
Arabia, as high commissioner to Australia and as the option to create and use multiple UPI IDs with
permanent representative to the United Nations in Axis Bank’s “@axl” handle.
New York. About the book: PhonePe will also start acquiring merchants with
The book By Many a Happy Accident offers an Axis Bank in addition to its partnership with YES
informative and engaging account of the life and Bank. ∙ This partnership with Axis Bank will ensure
work of Hamid Ansari, an outstanding public greater business continuity for both our customers
servant.
Page 102 of 110

and merchant partners, making their transaction He was one of the founders of the Jamia Millia
experience seamless.” Islamia University, New Delhi.
He was also appointed the university's first
57. Answer: D chancellor in 1920 and remained in office until his
World Unani Day is a global event celebrated on death in 1927.
February 11 to spread awareness about health care
delivery through the Unani system of medicine 58. Answer: E
through its preventive and curative philosophy. External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and US
It is the birthday of the great Unani scholar and Secretary of State Antony Blinken held a
social reformer "Hakim Ajmal Khan" "comprehensive discussion and reviewed Indo-
Objective : Pacific developments and the Quad cooperation”.
To pay tribute to Hakim Ajmal Khan for his Mr Jaishankar said that they also exchanged views
contribution in the sustained development of the on the situation in Myanmar.
Unani system of medicine in the country and world The External Affairs Minister said, he looks forward
across. to remaining in touch with him.
First Unani Day was celebrated at Central The telephonic conversation between Mr
Research Institute of Unani Medicine (CRIUM), Jaishankar and Blinken came a day after Prime
Hyderabad in 2017. Minister Narendra Modi had a telephonic
The Unani system of medicine is a science of life, a conversation with US President Joe Biden.
system of healthcare and medicine that aims to During the conversation, both the leaders discussed
assist people in living a healthy life. regional issues and the shared priorities.
About Hakim Ajmal Khan :
Hakim Ajmal Khan, he was an eminent Indian 59. Answer: C
Unani physician who was a versatile genius, a great Reserve Bank of India, Delhi is observing Financial
scholar, a social reformer, a noted freedom fighter, Literacy Week from February 8-12, 2021, to
an Unani medical educationist, and founder of propagate financial education.
scientific research in the Unani System of Medicine
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The Reserve Bank of India has launched the The 2021 theme of the Day is “Women Scientists
Financial Literacy Week on the theme of 'Credit at the forefront of the fight against COVID-19”.
Discipline and Credit from Formal Institutions'. The UN General Assembly established this Day, on
This theme is one of the strategic objectives of the 22 December 2015, to recognize the critical role
National Strategy for Financial Education 2020- women and girls play in science and technology
2025. Focus will be on responsible borrowing; The Day is implemented by UNESCO and UN-
borrowing from formal institutions and timely Women in collaboration with institutions and civil
repayments. society partners that aim to promote women and
This five-day event was launched on Monday by girls in science.
Ajay Kumar, Regional Director, Reserve Bank of As per UNESCO data (2014-2016), only around 30
India, New Delhi per cent of all female students select STEM-related
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has been fields in higher education. Across the globe,
conducting Financial Literacy Week (FLW) every enrolment of female students is lower in natural
year since 2016 to propagate financial education sciences, mathematics and statistics as compared
messages on a particular theme across the country. to men.

On 11 February, the United Nations, partners The Indian Army has laid the foundation stone of
worldwide, women and girls will mark the the tallest 'Iconic National Flag' at the famous ski-
International Day of Women and Girls in Science. resort of Gulmarg in Jammu and Kashmir.
This year, the world will celebrate the 6th The flag will be on a 100 feet-high pole, the highest
International Day of Women and Girls in Science Tricolour in the Valley.
Assembly The Indian Army in collaboration with the Solar
The Day focuses on the reality that science and Industry India will install the 'Iconic National Flag' at
gender equality are both vital for the achievement of Gulmarg.
internationally agreed development goals, including The foundation stone for the iconic national flag
the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development. was laid by Dagger Division General Officer
Commanding (GoC) Major General Virendra Vats
Page 104 of 110

along with Bollywood actor-producer Arbaaz Khan The 32-year-old Ishant reached the milestone in 98
and actress Vidya Balan. matches, more than the other Indian bowlers in the
This iconic Indian national flag will be a first in many club.
ways. The site is expected to become another Ishant reached the landmark when he trapped Dan
tourist attraction, among the snow-clad mountains Lawrence with a delivery that swung back sharply
of Kashmir. before hitting his pads in England's second innings
on the fourth day of the opening Test
62. Answer: E Besides Kumble (619) and Kapil (434),
Assam Chief Minister Sarbananda Sonowal chaired Ravichandran Ashwin (377 before this game),
a meeting of his cabinet where a decision was Harbhajan Singh (417), and Zaheer Khan (311) are
taken to appoint World Championship sprinter Hima the other bowlers from the country who have
Das as a Deputy Superintendent of Police in the reached the landmark.
state. The ICC also lauded the seasoned fast bowler's
Union Youth Affairs and Sports Minister Kiren Rijiju achievement, coming after more than 13 years of
said that sprinter Hima Das will continue running for toil.
the country even after the Assam government
decided to appoint her as a Deputy Superintendent 64. Answer: C
of Police in the state. Union Minister for Road Transport and Highways
The 21-year-old is currently preparing for the Nitin Gadkari will formally launch India's first-ever
upcoming Tokyo Olympics qualification at Netaji diesel tractor converted into a CNG tractor on
Subhas National Institute of Sports, Patiala. February 12.
This conversion is jointly done by Rawmatt Techno
63. Answer: E Solutions and Tomasetto Achille India.
Veteran fast bowler Ishant Sharma became the The CNG tractor will help farmers to increase their
sixth Indian and the third pacer from the country to income, by lowering costs and help to create job
take 300 wickets in Test cricket opportunities in rural India.
This will help them to improve their livelihood.
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The farmers can save up to 50 per cent on the fuel Prior to this, only the United States, Soviet Union,
cost as the current Diesel prices are around 77 Europe and India have achieved this feat.
rupees per litre whereas CNG is only 42 rupees per
kilogram 66. Answer: C
The conversion from diesel to CNG will be To promote wooden toys, local artifacts, handicrafts
beneficial as it is a clean fuel with lowest carbon Maharashtra Small Industries Development
and pollutant content. It is also economical as it has Corporation and Maharashtra State Khadi & Village
zero lead and is non-corrosive, non-dilutive and Industries Board have signed a Memorandum of
non-contaminating which helps in increasing the life Understanding with Flipkart.
of the engine. This MoU will enable artisans, weavers, craftsmen
& MSMEs from Maharashtra to showcase their
65. Answer: B products to millions of customers in India.
The United Arab Emirates (UAE) made history as Flipkart will provide free training for packaging and
its first-ever interplanetary Hope Probe mission branding to all these manufacturers.
successfully entered orbit around Mars. Also, product photography will also be done by the
According to CNN, UAE's first mission to Mars company.
arrived at the red planet and successfully entered
orbit on its first attempt. 67. Answer: D
When the spacecraft arrived, the Hope Probe Goa has become the 6th State in the country to
marked the UAE as only the fifth country in history successfully undertake Urban Local Bodies reforms
to reach the red planet and the Arab nation's first stipulated by the Department of Expenditure.
interplanetary mission. Finance Ministry said, the state has now become
The Hope Mars Mission is considered as the eligible to mobilise additional financial resources of
biggest strategic and scientific national initiative 223 crore rupees through Open Market Borrowings.
announced by UAE's President His Highness Goa has joined five other states - Andhra Pradesh,
Sheikh Khalifa bin Zayed Al Nahyan and His Madhya Pradesh, Manipur, Rajasthan and
Highness Sheikh Mohammed bin Rashid Al Telangana, who have completed Urban Local
Maktoum in 2014. Bodies reforms.
Page 106 of 110

archaeological sites along river Thamirabarani and

68. Answer: D the spirituality associated with the river.
The Bruhat Bengaluru Mahanagara Palike has
launched Swach Sarvekshan Abhiyan in Bengaluru 70. Answer: D
to educate citizens about solid waste management. Every year World Radio Day (WRD) is celebrated
The Special Commissioner in the Municipal on 13 February.
Corporation, Randeep Dev informed that Bengaluru The day was proclaimed by the member states of
received 214 marks in Sarvekshan last year. UNESCO in 2011 and subsequently adopted by the
To gain a higher rank, he informed that 40 percent United Nations General Assembly in 2021 as an
of waste is segregated and 18,000 municipal International Day.
workers, 8000 drivers are pressed into garbage The theme of World Radio Day 2021, "New World,
collection work every day in the city. New Radio", will highlight the services rendered by
the radio medium throughout the crisis.
69. Answer: D The year 2021 will see WRD being divided into
From a bus conductor to a writer, Muthalankurichi three main sub-themes as well. These include:
Kamarasu has come a long way in his life. “Evolution: The world changes, radio evolves. This
And, when he started following his passion, honour sub-theme refers to the resilience of the radio, to its
came calling. sustainability.”
Chief Minister Edappadi K Palaniswami handed “Innovation: The world changes, radio adapts and
over Tamil Semmal award to Kamarasu during a innovates. Radio has had to adapt to new
function held at the secretariat in Chennai on technologies to remain the go-to medium of
February 1. mobility, accessible everywhere and to everyone;
A native of Muthala Kurichi village, Kamarasu has “Connection: The world changes, radio connects.
penned 53 books including two novels. This sub-theme highlights radio’s services to our
His writings focus mainly on the history of society—natural disasters, socio-economic crises,
composite Tirunelveli and Thoothukudi, feudal epidemics, etc.”
systems of Zamins, historical cities like Korkai and
71. Answer: B
Page 107 of 110

Pakistan conducted a successful training launch of Dino Adventure Park & Fossils Museum also
a surface-to-surface cruise missile which can strike inaugurated by the state culture and tourism
targets up to 450 kilometres, minister.
This was the country's third missile test in three The State Minister informed that the Dinosaur Park
weeks. is the country's first modern fossil park which has
The Babar missile "is capable of engaging targets 24 eggs and other fossils of dinosaurs on display.
at land and sea with high precision. The park also provides information related to the life
The Babur cruise missile IA was launched from a of dinosaurs.
“state of the art Multi Tube Missile Launch Vehicle Principal Secretary Tourism and Culture Shri Sheo
On January 20, the army conducted a successful Shekhar Shukla said that Such events will not only
test of the surface-to-surface ballistic missile familiarize people around the world with the special
Shaheen-III. culture of rural Madhya Pradesh but will also help in
Earlier this month, the army successfully conducted realizing the dream of Atmanirbhar Madhya
the ‘training launch’ of nuclear-capable ballistic Pradesh by creating new employment opportunities.
missile sile Ghaznavi as part of its annual field
training exercise. 73. Answer: E
Earlier in January this year, the army had also test- Export-Import Bank of India (Exim Bank) will
fired an indigenously developed extended-range provide $400 million to Maldives to fund Greater
guided Multi-Launch Rocket System (MLRS). Male Connectivity Project.
The agreement under the line of credit is effective
72. Answer: D January 28, 2021.
In Madhya Pradesh, the three-day Mandu Festival The 6.7 km Greater Male Connectivity Project
began at Mandu in the historic town of Dhar district. (GMCP) will be the largest civilian infrastructure
State culture and tourism minister Usha Thakur project in Maldives, connecting Male with three
inaugurated the mandu festival. neighbouring islands Villingili, Gulhifahu and
Handicrafts related to handmade art are also being Thilafushi.
displayed in the Mandu Utsav to encourage vocals
for locals.
Page 108 of 110

India will fund the implementation of a major

connectivity project in Maldives through a USD 400 75. Answer: E
million line of credit and USD 100 million grant. The slogan of ‘Dekho Apna Desh’ by the Prime
Minister has given boost to domestic tourism stated
74. Answer: D Union Minister of State (IC) for Tourism & Culture,
The Government of India, the Government of Shri Prahlad Singh Patel, while inaugurating via
Chhattisgarh and the World Bank signed a $100 video conferencing Kevadia, Gujarat.
million project to develop sustainable production The three-day event has been organised from
systems. February 12 to 14, 2021.
That will allow tribal households in remote areas of The three day ADTOI 10th Annual Convention-cum-
Chhattisgarh to practice round-the-year production Exhibition at the Statue of Unity (SOU), Tent City 2
of diversified and nutritious food. in Kevadia, is based on the theme: ‘Domestic
CHIRAAG - Chhattisgarh Inclusive Rural and Tourism Hope for the revival- Dekho Apna Desh’.
Accelerated Agriculture Growth Project will be This convention has been jointly organized by the
implemented in the southern tribal-majority region Ministry of Tourism and ADTOI with support from
of the state where a large population is Gujarat Tourism.
undernourished and poor. It aims at building public confidence to travel for the
The project will benefit over 180,000 households revival of domestic tourism in the country and is
from about 1,000 villages in eight districts of
being attended by around 400 delegates comprising
Chhattisgarh.
ADTOI members from across India, hoteliers,
The loan agreement was signed by Dr. C S
airlines representatives, senior government officials,
Mohapatra, Additional Secretary, Department of
Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance on behalf of media-persons among other stakeholders of the
the Government of India and Mr Junaid Kamal tourism industry.

Ahmad, Country Director (India) on behalf of the
World Bank
Page 109 of 110

Page 110 of 110

Page 1 of 77
Reasoning Ability
Direction (1-5): Study the following information A.18m, north

carefully and answer the questions given below. B.12√2, north-east
“A@B(24)” means “A is 16m north of B”. C.6m, east
“A%B(27)” means “A is 9m west of B”. D.6m, south-east
“A&B(36)” means “A is 27m south of B”. E.None of these
“A#B(18)” means “A is 54m east of B”.
Note: Above given condition, neither follows 4. Find the odd one.
addition nor follows subtraction A.WU
Condition: T@Q(27), S%Y(72), U&V(24), B.WV
W@P(48), R#V(4), Y&R(48), T%P(54). Q%S(36) C.UY
1.What is the position of S with respect to U? D.PQ
A.West E.WR
B.South-east
C.South-West 5. What is the direction of Y with respect to T?
D.North-east A.North
E.None of these B.South
C.East
2. If V walks 18m towards the west and then takes D.South east
a left turn of 24m then, what is the shortest distance E.None of the above
between Q and V finally?
A.6√5m Direction (6-10): Study the following information
B.14m carefully and answer the below questions.
C.18√2m A@B(9m) --> A is 5m north of B
D.16m A#B(15m) --> A is 18m south of B
E.None of these. A$B(8m) --> A is 15m east of B
A%B(11m) --> A is 9m west of B
3. What is the position of U with respect to P? @% --> north-west, #$ --> Southeast
Page 2 of 77
L@P(18); Y%T(12); J$L; Z#E(20); P%V(20); C.TE

E%X(11); Y@K(16); X#J(11); V@T(15); E$V; D.TZ
Z$K(10) E. YZ
6.What is the direction of Z with respect to V?
A.@% 10. What is the direction of Y with respect to E?
B.#$ A.North
C.Can’t be determined B.South
D.#% C.East
E.@$ D.South west
E.None of the above
7.What is the direction and shortest distance of V
with respect to E? Direction (11-15):Study the following information
A.V$E(9) carefully and answer the below questions
B.E$V(7) % --> North
C.E%V(7) # --> South
D.V%E(9) @ --> West
E.None of the above & --> East
* -->Either 4 meters or 11 meters
8.What is the distance between L and J? ? --> Either 5 meters or 12 meters
A.31m i.e., A % B means A is north of B
B.32m A#@B means A is southwest of B
C.34m A*B means A either 4 meters or 11 meters from B
D.33m A&?B means A is east of B with either 5 meters or
E.30m 12 meters
Point O is 6m east of Point T which is 4m south of
9. Find the odd one Point I.
A. LT I. I@*H
B.LY II. L%O
Page 3 of 77
III. R?%L 14. What is the direction of I with respect to O?

IV. H#*M A.#
V. L@?M B.%@
VI. L%@H C.%
D.&
11.What is the direction of L with respect to T? E.@
A.East
B.North-West 15. Find the odd one
C.North-East A. MT
D.South B.LI
E.South-west C.HO
D.IO
12.Four of the following five are alike in a certain E.RI
way. Which of the following does not belongs to the
group? Direction (16-20): Study the following information
A.RL carefully and answer the question below.
B.MH Nine exams RRB PO, IBPS SO, BOB CLERK, SBI
C.LO SO, BOI CLERK, HDFC PO, IBPS PO, IBPS
D.IT CLERK andSBI PO were held on the 9th, 10th, and
E.HO 13thof the month April, July, and August but not
13.What is the shortest distance between R and M, An Equal number of exams were held before and
If the distance between R and L is less than 10m? after BOB Clerk. Both RRB PO and BOI Clerk were
A.√ 50m held on the same date but not in a month in which
B.√ 192 m BOB Clerk was held. SBI SO was held one of the
C.√ 191 m months before the BOI Clerk but not in the same
D.√ 195 m month. IBPS Clerk was held just before SBI PO but
E.None of these not in the same month. IBPS SO and HDFC PO
Page 4 of 77
were held respectively in the same month but not B.HDFC PO

consecutively. IBPS PO neither held before SBI SO C.IBPS SO
nor it was the last exam to be held. D.SBI SO
16.Which of the following exam was held on E.None of these
9th August?
A.SBI PO 20.Four of the following five are alike in a certain
B.BOI Clerk way and hence form a group. Find the one which
C.IBPS SO doesn’t belong to that group?
D.RRB PO A.IBPS Clerk
E.None of these B.HDFC PO
C.SBI SO
17.How many exams were held before IBPS Clerk? D.IBPS SO
A.Five E.BOB Clerk
B.Two
C.Six Direction (21-25): Study the following information
D.Four carefully and answer the question below.
E.Seven Six persons T, U, V, W, X, and Y are staying in a
hotel on the same date of different months among
18.Which of the following exam was held just after March, April, July, August, September, and October
BOI Clerk? in the same year but not necessarily in the same
A.IBPS PO order.
B.IBPS Clerk U stays one month before Y. There is a gap of two
C.IBPS SO months between V and T(two months gap is taken
D.HDFC PO according to the yearly calendar of months for
E.None example- two months gap is there between January
and April). W stays immediately before T but not in
19.Which exam was held on 13th July? September. X stays in the hotel after W but is not
A.IBPS PO the last person to stay.
Page 5 of 77
21.Who among the following person stays in D.One

September? E.Four
A.The one who stays immediately after V.
B.V 25.Which of the following is true combination?
C.The one who stays immediately before Y. A.U- July
D.T B.V – April
E.Nonelf these C.Y – August
D.X –October
22.What is the month gap (according to the yearly E.W – March
calendar) between T and Y?
A.Four Direction (26-30): Answer the questions based on
B.Five the information given below.
C.Three Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H bought a
D.Six new bike on different months- August, September,
E.None of these October, and November on different dates either 10
or 25 of the month. All the information is not
23.Who among the following person stays necessarily in the same order.
immediately after V? B bought a bike on an even-numbered date on a
A.The one who stays in the hotel in August month. month having an odd number of days. F bought the
B.W bike after E. Only two persons bought a bike
C.The one who stays two months before X between B and D. E bought the bike immediately
D.Y before G. The number of persons who bought a
E.U bike between B and C is the same as between A
and H. The number of persons who bought the bike
24.How many persons stay before T? before D is the same as after C. A bought the bike
A.Two on an odd-numbered date before H.
B.Three
C.No one
Page 6 of 77
26.Four of the following are alike in a certain way D.G

and hence form a group. Who among the following E.C
one does not belong to the group?
A.C 29.On which among the following Month and Date
B.E G bought the bike?
C.The person who bought a bike immediately A.October 10
before G B.November 10
D.The person who bought a bike immediately after C.August 25
F D.September 25
E.B E.None of the above
27.Which of the following statement is/are true? 30.How many persons bought a bike between C
I). H bought a bike in October and E?
II). Two persons bought bikes between C and G A.More than three
III). B bought a bike on an odd-numbered date B.Two
A.Both I and II C.Three
B.Only III D.One
C.All I, II, and III E.No one
D.Only II
E.None of these Direction (31-35): Study the following information
28.Who among the following person bought a bike Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are
on 25th August? getting married on the different months of the same
A.The person who bought a bike immediately after year (2020) Viz., January, March, April, May, June,
H July, August, and October but not necessarily in the
B.The person who bought a bike immediately same order.
before E F is married in a month has an even number of
C.B days. The number of persons is married before F is
Page 7 of 77
the same as after B. Only three persons are E.More than Three
married between B and D. H is married adjacent to
B. E is married immediately before G. G does not 34.How many persons are married between F and
marry on the adjacent month of H. A is married H?
before C. C is married after H. A.Five
31.A is related to April in the same way B is related B.Four
to October then F is related to __? C.Three
A.July D.Six
B.June E.None of these
C.August
D.May 35.Four of the following are alike in a certain way.
E.March Who among the following does not belong to the
group?
32.On which of the following month does D get A.AF
married? B.DE
A.June C.EB
B.October D.GH
C.August E.FH
D.July
E.March Direction (36-40): Study the following information
33.If the persons are married in alphabetical order Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F, and G released
from January then how many persons are their books in seven different months i.e. January,
unchanged in their position? March, June, July, September, October, and
A.No one December but not necessarily in the same order.
B.One C released his book three months before E (for
C.Two example: If E is released in May then C must be
D.Three released in February). G released his book
Page 8 of 77
immediately after B but immediately before D. A C.No one

doesn’t release his book in a month of 31 days. D.One
36.Who among the following person released his E.Four
book in December?
A.E 40.Four of the following five are related in a certain
B.D way and hence form a group. Find the one which
C.F doesn’t belong to that group?
D.C A.G
E.None of these B.E
C.C
37.How many persons released their book after D? D.B
A.Four E.D
B.Five
C.Two Direction (41-45): Study the following information
D.No one carefully and answer the question below.
E.Three Nine persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I get their
scholarship in nine different months viz. January,
38.Which of the following is/are true? February, April, June, July, September, October,
A.C-September November, and December not necessarily in the
B.A-June same order.
C.D-December I gets a scholarship at least three months before C.
D.E-October D gets his scholarship immediately after G but not
E.G-July in a month of having less than 31 days. A is not the
1st person who gets his scholarship. C gets a
39.How many persons released their book after G scholarship before B but not adjacent to D. C does
but before E? not get the scholarship in November. Only H gets
A.Two his scholarship between I and G. F and B gets a
B.Three scholarship in consecutive months.
Page 9 of 77
41.Who among the following person get his E.C- October

scholarship in September?
A.E 45.If F gets his scholarship immediately after C
B.C then who is the person to get his scholarship at
C.F last?
D.A A.A
E.B B.E
C.H
42.____ get scholarship immediately before______. D.C
A.D and A E.B
B.I and G
C.G and C Direction (46-50): Answer the questions based on
D.E and H the information given below.
E.H and D Seven persons viz. J, K, L, M, N, O and P are going
to the gym on seven different days of the week
43.How many persons get their scholarship starting from Sunday to Saturday, but not
between E and G. necessarily in the same order.
A.Five N goes to the gym three days after L but not on the
B.Three last day of the week. P goes to the gym
C.Two immediately before N. Only three persons go to the
D.No one gym between P and J who goes to gym adjacent to
E.Four M. O goes to the gym before K but after M.
46. Who among the following person goes to the
44.Which of the following combination is false? gym on Wednesday?
A.D-July A.L
B.I-Jan B.P
C.A-September C.N
D.H-April D.O
Page 10 of 77
E.None of these 50. Which of the following statement is true with

respect to the final arrangement?
47. How many days are there between the days on A.L goes to the gym immediately after P
which J and K go to the gym? B.K goes to the gym two days before J
A.One C.M goes to the gym immediately before L
B.Two D.Only three persons go to the gym between M and
C.Three K
D.More than three E.None of them is true
E.None
48. In which of the following day does M go to the the information given below.
gym? SBI PO, SBI Clerk, IBPS PO, IBPS Clerk, RRB PO,
A.Monday RRB Clerk, LIC, and RBI exams are conducted in
B.Wednesday different months- September, October, November,
C.Friday and December on different dates either 10th or
D.Sunday 19th of the month of the year 2020. All the
E.None of these information is not necessarily in the same order.
IBPS PO exam was conducted on 10th November.
49. If L is related to Wednesday and N is related to Not more than one exam conducted between LIC
Saturday in a certain way, then O is related to and SBI Clerk. RRB Clerk and RRB PO were not
which of the following day? conducted in the same month. RRB clerk was
A.Tuesday conducted two exams before the exam which was
B.Thursday conducted immediately after the RRB PO exam.
C.Monday SBI PO was conducted on an even number date.
D.Wednesday LIC was conducted after SBI Clerk. Two exams
E.Friday were conducted between IBPS PO and RBI. IBPS
clerk was conducted just before or after the RBI
exam.
Page 11 of 77
51.Which of the following month and date LIC exam 54.Which of the following exam is conducted
conducted? between RBI and IBPS PO?
A.October 10th A.LIC
B.October 19th B.RRB Clerk
C.September 10th C.RRB PO
D.November 19th D.IBPS Clerk
E.None of the above E.Both a and d
52.Four of the following are alike in a certain way 55.How many exams are conducted between SBI
and hence form a group. Which of the following one PO and SBI Clerk?
does not belong to the group? A.As many as conducted before RRB clerk
A.Exam which was conducted immediately before B.Four
RRB Clerk C.As many as conducted between LIC and RRB
B.Exam which was conducted Immediately before PO.
SBI Clerk D.One
C.IBPS Clerk E.None of these
D.Exam which was conducted Immediately after
LIC Direction (56-60): Study the following information
E.RBI carefully and answer the below questions.
Seven teams-DC, MI, RCB, SRH, KKR, KXIP, and
53.Which of the following statement is/are true? RR are playing the match against CSK on different
A.LIC exam conducted immediately before IBPS dates -05, 08, 11, 15, 18, 22, and 27 of October
Clerk month in the same year but not necessarily in the
B.RRB PO Conducted immediately after RBI same order.
C.Only one exam conducted between RRB PO and MI is playing the match against CSK before KKR.
LIC There are ten days between the match played by
D.RRB Clerk is the last exam the team KKR and MI. The number of teams plays
E.None of these before MI is the same as after RR. RCB is playing
Page 12 of 77
the match adjacent to KKR. The number of days 59.Which of the following team is playing the match
between the match played by the team MI and KKR on the 15thof the month?
is the same as between DC and RCB. SRH plays A.the team which plays seven days before SRH
on neither 11th nor 22nd of October B.the team which plays immediately before MI
56.Which of the following combination is true? C.SRH
A.MI-22 D.RR
B.RCB-11 E.RCB
C.KKR-18
D.KXIP-05 60.On which of the following date does KXIP play?
E.None of these A.October 18
B.October 15
57.How many teams are playing the match C.October 11
between DC and RR? D.October 27
A.Four E.October 22
B.One
C.Two Direction (61-65): Study the following information
D.Three carefully and answer the below questions.
E.None Seven different items viz.- Ball, Rose, Toy, Milk,
Card, Fruit, and Bat were bought by a man from the
58.As many teams are playing before KXIP is the supermarket from Monday to Sunday but not
same as that of after___? necessarily in the same order.
A.RR The card was bought on Wednesday. Two items
B.RCB were bought between Card and Fruit. The ball was
C.SRH bought three days before Bat, which was not
D.KKR bought at last. The toy was bought on neither
E.None of the above Tuesday nor Friday but was bought on any day
after Rose. Milk was bought on any day before Bat.
Rose was bought on neither Monday nor Friday.
Page 13 of 77
61.Which of the following items was bought just

after Milk? 64.Find the odd one out?
A.Card A.Friday – Rose
B.Fruit B.Sunday – Fruit
C.Ball C.Monday – Ball
D.Toy D.Thursday – Card
E.None of these E.Tuesday – Bat
62.Which of the following items was bought on 65.Which of the following statement is/are not true?
Thursday? I. Three items were bought between Bat and Card
A.Fruit II. Milk was bought two items before Card.
B.Rose III. Two items were bought after Fruit.
C.Milk A.Both I and III
D.Toy B.Only III
E.None of these C.Only I
D.Both I and II
63.How many items were bought between Milk and E.None of these
Rose?
A.As many as bought after Fruit
B.Three
C.Two
D.As many as bought before Card
E.Both C and D
Directions (1-5):
We have:
Page 14 of 77
6) Answer: B
1) Answer: C
7) Answer: D
2) Answer: A
8) Answer: C
3) Answer: C
9) Answer: C
4) Answer: D
10) Answer:D
5) Answer: D
Directions (11-15):
Directions (6-10):
A@B(9m) --> A is 5m north of B --> 9-4=5
A#B(15m) --> A is 18m south of B --> 15+3=18
A$B(8m) --> A is 15m east of B --> 8+7=15
A%B(11m) --> A is 9m west of B -->11-2=9
From the above condition, we have subtracted -4, -
2 from the new sequence of questions and we have
added 7, 3 to the new sequence of the question.
11) Answer: C
12) Answer: E
13) Answer: A
Page 15 of 77
14) Answer: B
15) Answer: D
Directions (16-20):
IBPS Clerk was held just before SBI PO but not in

the same month.
IBPS SO and HDFC PO were held respectively in
the same month but not consecutively. Case 2 has
one more possibility.
An Equal number of exams were held before and

after the BOB clerk.
Both RRB PO and BOI clerk were held on the same
date but not in a month in which BOB Clerk was
held.
SBI SO was held one of the months before BOI
clerk but not in the same month. Here we get three
possibilities.
Page 16 of 77
We cannot fix the position of IBPS SO and HDFC Hence case 2 shows the final arrangement,
PO exam in cases (1) and case (3). So these cases
are eliminated.
IBPS PO was neither held before SBI SO nor it was
the last exam to be held.
16) Answer: C
17) Answer: B
18) Answer: D
19) Answer: A
20) Answer: E
Page 17 of 77
Directions (21-25):
U stays one month before Y. There is a gap of two We cannot fix the position of W in case (1). So this
months between V and T. case is eliminated.
Here we get four possibilities. X stays after W but is not the last person to stay.
We cannot fix the position of X in cases (2) and

W stays immediately before T but not in September.
case (3). So these cases are eliminated.
21) Answer: C
22) Answer: B
23) Answer: A
24) Answer: D
25) Answer: E
Page 18 of 77
Directions (26-30): The number of persons who bought a bike between

B and C is the same as A and H.
A bought a bike on an odd-numbered date before
H.
B bought a bike on an even-numbered date on a

month having an odd number of days.
Only two persons bought a bike between B and D.
possibilities. E bought a bike immediately before G.
The number of persons who bought a bike before D

is the same as after C. F bought the bike after E.
Page 19 of 77
From the above condition, case1 and case3a get F is married in a month has an even number of
eliminated. Case2 shows the final arrangement. days.
The number of persons is married before F is the
same as after B.
possibilities.
26) Answer: D
27) Answer: A
28) Answer: B
29) Answer: D
30) Answer: D
Only three persons are married between B and D.
H is married adjacent to B.
Directions (31-35):
possibilities.
Page 20 of 77
E is married immediately before G.

31) Answer: B
G does not marry in the adjacent month of H.
32) Answer: E
33) Answer: B
34) Answer: C
35) Answer: E
Directions (36-40):
A is married before C.
C is married after H.
eliminated. Case2 shows the final arrangement.
C released his book three months before E.
Page 21 of 77
Here we get four possibilities. 37) Answer: A

38) Answer: D
39) Answer: B
40) Answer: E
Directions (41-45):
G released his book immediately after B but

immediately before D. A does not release his book
in a month of 31 days.
D get his scholarship immediately after G but not in

a month having less than 31 days. Only H gets his
scholarship between I and G.
Here we get three possibilities.
We cannot fix the position of G, B, and D in cases

(1), case (2), and case (4). So these cases are
eliminated.
36) Answer: C
Page 22 of 77
F and B get their scholarship in consecutive

months.
I gets a scholarship at least three months before C.
A is not the first person who gets his scholarship.
C gets scholarship before B but not adjacent to D.
C does not get a scholarship in November.
We cannot fix the position of C in cases (2) and
case (3).
So these cases are eliminated.
41) Answer: D
42) Answer: A
Page 23 of 77

44) Answer: B
45) Answer: E Directions (51-55):
Directions (46-50):
1. N goes to the gym three days after L but not on

the last day of the week. P goes to the gym
immediately before N.
IBPS PO exam was conducted on 10th November.

Two exams were conducted between IBPS PO and
RBI.
2. Only three persons go to the gym between P and From the above condition, there are two
J who goes to gym adjacent to M. O goes to the possibilities.
gym before K but after M. Hence, cases 1 and 2 get

eliminated.
46) Answer: D
47) Answer: D
48) Answer: A
49) Answer: B
Page 24 of 77
RRB clerk was conducted two exams before the

exam which was conducted immediately after RRB
PO.
RRB Clerk and RRB PO are not conducted in the
same month.
IBPS Clerk was conducted on just after or before

the RBI exam.
possibilities.
SBI PO was conducted on an even number date.

LIC was conducted after SBI Clerk.
Not more than one exam conducted between LIC
and SBI Clerk.
eliminated. Case1 shows the final arrangement.
Page 25 of 77
MI is playing the match against CSK before KKR.

There are ten days between the match played by
the team KKR and MI.
possibilities.
51) Answer: D
52) Answer: E
53) Answer: A
54) Answer: E
The numbers of teams plays before MI is the same
55) Answer: C
as after RR.
RCB is playing the match adjacent to KKR.
Directions (56-60):
possibilities.
Page 26 of 77
The number of days between the match played by 58) Answer: D

the team MI and KKR is the same as between DC 59) Answer: E
and RCB, from the above condition, case1 gets 60) Answer: C
eliminated.
Directions (61-65):
SRH plays on neither 11th nor 22ndof October.

Case2 shows the final arrangement. We have:
• The card was bought on Wednesday.
• Two items were bought between Card and
Fruit.
• The ball was bought three days before Bat,
which was not bought at last.
That means, in case (1) Bat was bought on Friday,
in case (2) Bat was bought on Thursday.
56) Answer: C
57) Answer: A
Page 27 of 77
Again, we have: Case (2) is not valid as Rose was neither bought on
• The toy was bought on neither Tuesday nor Monday nor Friday.
Friday but was bought on any day after
Rose. 61) Answer: C
• Rose was bought on neither Monday nor 62) Answer: B
Friday. 63) Answer: E
• Milk was bought on any day before Bat. 64) Answer: E
That means, Toy was bought on Sunday, case (2) 65) Answer: A
is not valid.
1. The simple interest on a sum of Rs.800 at 10% approximately what percent of the compound
per annum for x years is 160. Find the compound interest on a sum of Rs. y at 10% for x years?
interest on a sum of Rs. y at 20% for x years is A.210%
Page 28 of 77
B.200% 10% per annum for 2 years. If the interest received

C.230% by both A and B together is Rs.3930, find the value
D.240% of x?
E.260% A.Rs.5000
B.Rs.6000
2. Ramesh invested Rs.6x in simple interest C.Rs.8000
scheme at the rate of 18% per annum for 4 years. D.Rs.9000
After 4 years, he received the interest is Rs.(3x + E.Rs.10000
2376). Find the value of x?
A.Rs.1200 5. Mahesh invested Rs. 75,500 in a scheme
B.Rs.1500 offering simple interest for three years. If the rate of
C.Rs.1800 interest for first year, second year and third year is
D.Rs.2000 16%, 22% and 28% respectively then find the
E. None of these interest earned by him after three years?
A.Rs. 48,275
3. SI received on Rs.5000 after 3 years at R% rate B.Rs. 50,828
of interest is Rs.750 more than CI received on C.Rs. 49,830
same sum after 2 years at 10% rate of interest. D.Rs. 51,742
Find the value of ‘R’? E. None of these
A.15%
B.8% 6. Dharani deposited certain amount of money in
C.16% SBI Bank which offers simple interest at 15% per
D.12% annum for 4 years. Vinothini deposited the same
E.10% amount in ICICI bank which offers compound
interest at the rate of 10% per annum for 2 years. If
4. A invests Rs.x in simple interest scheme at the the difference between the interest received by
rate of 18% per annum for 2 years and B invests Dharani and Vinothini is Rs.5265, then find the
Rs.(x – 3000) in compound interest at the rate of amount deposited by Dharani?
Page 29 of 77
A.Rs.12800
B.Rs.13200 9. A sum of money invested doubles itself in 4
C.Rs.13500 years. In how many years will it become nine times
D.Rs.12500 itself at the same rate?
E.Rs.14000 A.24 years
B.30 years
7. A sum of money becomes Rs.3300 after one C.28 years
year and Rs.3993 after 3 years, when invested in a D.32 years
compound interest scheme. What is the total E. None of these
amount will get if the sum invested in the same
scheme for 2 years? 10. The simple interest on Rs. P at 15% p.a for 2
A.Rs.3630 years is Rs.300 more than the simple interest on
B.Rs.3640 Rs.(P + 500) at 12% for 2 years. What is the
C.Rs.3650 interest if (2P + 500) is lent for 2 years at 12% SI
D.Rs.3880 rate?
E. None of these A.Rs.1750
B.Rs.2350
8. Harshit invested Rs. 12,000 at simple interest for C.Rs.3480
3 years at the rate of x% and gets an interest of D.Rs.4810
Rs. 5760. If he invested the total amount which E. None of these
offered compound interest at the rate of (x% + 4%)
then find the total amount obtained by Harshit after 11. Amala has Rs.x. She invests 60% of this
2 years? amount in simple interest scheme at the rate of
A.Rs. 28,273.8 15% per annum and rest in compound interest
B.Rs. 27,626.5 scheme at the rate of 20% per annum. After 2
C.Rs. 22,824.8 years she received the total interest from both
D.Rs. 25,574.4 schemes is Rs.2848, find the value of x?
E.None of these A.Rs.3000
Page 30 of 77
B.Rs.5000 14. Sharmi invested half of her PF amount in

C.Rs.7000 scheme A at 10% p.a simple interest for 2 years
D.Rs.6000 and another half of the amount in scheme B at
E.Rs.8000 15% compounded annually for 2 years. If Sharmi
received Rs.661.5 less than scheme A when
12. Shon invested totally Rs.6000 in two schemes compared to scheme B, then find the amount
A and B. Scheme A offers simple interest at the invested by her in scheme B.
rate of 15% per annum while scheme B offers 10% A.Rs.5200
per annum compound interest, compounded B.Rs.5400
annually. If the amount received by Shon after 2 C.Rs.5800
years is Rs.7440, find the sum invested in scheme D.Rs.5900
A? E. None of these
A.Rs.1000
B.Rs.2000 15. Meena borrows Rs.x from Tina at 20% per
C.Rs.3000 annum at compound interest for 3 years. If Meena
D.Rs.4000 returned Rs.3660 at the end of second year and
E.Rs.3200 she returned Rs.4999.68 at end of third year and
cleared all her debt, find the value of x?
13. The ratio of the amounts on the same sum for A.Rs.5345
11 years to 9 years is 36:25 when invested to earn B.Rs.5245
compound interest. What is the rate of interest per C.Rs.5235
annum? D.Rs.5435
A.15% E.Rs.5425
B.10%
C.20% Direction (16-20): The following Radar graph
D.18% shows the percentage of various laptops given by
E.None of these government in various years.
Page 31 of 77
B.59:29
C.59:32
D.59:35
E. None of these
18. If in 2016, the number of Lenovo laptops given

is 25% more than that of previous year, HP laptops
given is 30% less than that of the previous year
and Acer laptop given is 16.67% less than that of
the previous year, then total number of laptops
given in 2015 is how more or less than the number
Note:
of laptops given in 2020 ?
Average number of laptops given from 2016 to
A.1500 more
2020 = 6600
B.2400 more
Ratio of total number of laptops given from 2016 to
C.2000 more
2020 is 5:10:6:4:8
D.2000 less
E. None of these
16. Find the average of total laptops given in 2017
and 2019.
19. Find the difference between the sum of HP
A.6500
laptops given from 2016 to 2019 and sum of Acer
B.7500
laptops given from 2017 to 2020.
C.6000
A.3375
D.7000
B.3250
E. None of these
C.3150
D.3450
17. Find the ratio of number of Lenovo laptops
E.3650
given in 2016, 2018, 2019 together to the average
number of acer laptops given in 2017 and 2020.
A.59:31
Page 32 of 77
20. Number of Acer laptops given in 2016 is what C.455:112

percentage more or less than number of Lenovo D.418:121
laptop given in 2019? E. None of the above
A.4.44% less
B.4.07% less 22. If total distance covered by all of them together
C.4.23% more on Wednesday is 440km and ratio of total distance
D.4.33% more covered on Tuesday, Friday and Wednesday
E.4.17% less 8:6:11 then find the distance covered by C on all
these days together?
Direction (21-25): Study the following information A.222km
carefully and answer the questions given below. B.238km
The following radar graph shows the Percentage of C.242km
distance travelled by various persons on different D.264km
days. E.262km
23. What can be the minimum distance covered by

A and C in all the days together?
A.192km
B.128km
C.64km
D. Can’t be determined
E. None of these
21. If Distance travelled by C on Monday is 65km
and B on Thursday is 28km. Find the ratio of total 24. If total distance covered on Monday is 50%
distance covered by A and C together on Monday more than that of Thursday. Find distance covered
to that of Thursday? by C on Thursday is what percentage of distance
A.455:111 covered by A on Monday?
B.445:112 A.88.88%
Page 33 of 77
B.77.77% 26. If the number of girls in MBA and MBBS is 180

C.50% and 330 respectively, then what is the 50% of the
D.66.67% difference between the total number of students in
E. None of these MBA and MBBS?
A.120
25. Difference between distance covered on Friday B.140
and that of Tuesday is 100km, then find the total C.150
distance covered on these days together? D.160
A.240km E.130
B.360km
C.120km 27. What is the ratio of the number of girls in BSC
D.480km to BE?
E. Data insufficient A.9:10
B.4:5
Direction (26-30): Study the following information C.3:5
carefully and answer the questions given below. D. Cannot be determine
The given radar graph shows the percentage of the E. None of these
boys in 6 different courses.
28. If the total number of girls in BBA and MSC is
370 and the total number of boys in BBA and MSC
is 730, then what is difference between the total
number of students in BBA and MSC?
A.200
B.250
C.300
D.350
E.150
Page 34 of 77
29. If the number of girls in BE is equal to the

number of girls in MBA and the 80% of the number
of girls in BE is 360, then what is the difference
between number of boys in BE and MBA?
A.120
B.150
C.180
D.200
E. None of these
31. What is the respective ratio between the
number of students who opted for Marketing in the
30. If the total number of students in BSC is 780,
years 2002 and 2004 together and the number of
then what is difference between number of girls
students who opted for Production in the year 2001
and boys in BSC?
and 2005 together?
A.78
A.11: 5
B.56
B.5: 7
C.80
C.5:12
D.88
D.7: 12
E. None of these
E. None of these
Direction (31-35): Study the following graph

32. If the total number of students in the given
exam in the year 2003 was 455030, the total
Number of students (in thousands) who opted for
number of students who opted for the given three
three different specializations during the given five
specialization were approximately what percent of
years in MBA exam
the total students?
A.5
B.9
C.17
Page 35 of 77
D.22 B.22
E.24 C.24
D.32
33. What is the total number of students who opted E.28
for Production and who opted for HR in the years
2002, 2003 and 2005 together? Direction (36 – 40): What approximate value will
A.45000 come in place of question mark (?) in the following
B.90020 given expression?
C.95000 36. 800.001% of 40 + (1179 ÷ 36.98) + (√9220) %
D.24500 of 24.98 = (?) x 2.49
B. 120
34. Out of the total number of students who opted C. 140
for the given three posts, in the year 2005, 38% D. 145
were girls. How many boys opted for the given E. 155
three posts in the same year?
A.21500 37. 25.99% of 71.99% of 1278 = 38.79% of 48.2%
B.42100 of (?)
C.44510 A. 639
D.21000 B. 978
E.27900 C. 1278
D. 2518
35. The total number of students who opted for HR E. None of these
in the years 2001 and 2004 together are
approximately what percent of the total number of 38. {19.89% of (59.89 x 34.98) + 35.02% of (39.9 x
students who opted for all three posts in the same 49.992)} ÷ 6.99 = (?)
years? A. 70
A.34 B. 160
Page 36 of 77
C. 190
D. 180 42. 19 * 6 – √324 * √169 = ? – 15 * 8
E. 170 A.-2
B.-8
39. 23.98% of √624 + (79.88 x 2 x 99.99) ÷ 9.89² - C.0
√24.89 + 23 = (?)² D.-4
A. 10 E.–16
B. 11
C. 12 43. 1056 ÷ 33 = ? + 40
D. 13 A.-7
E. 14 B.-8
C.-9
40. 27.77 x 31.89 + 51.99 x 47.99 + 19.922 x 11.99 D.-10
= (?) E.-6
A. 3692
B. 3962 44. 95 ÷ 729 x 81 ÷ 92 x 6561 = 9? X 9
C. 3232 A.5
D. 3652 B.3
E. 3632 C.4
D.2
Direction (41 – 44): What value should come in E. None of these
41. √676 + ? = 3 (4/5) of 100 Direction (45-49): In the following given number
A. 347 series. Find the odd one out
B.357 45. 24 22 42 92 226
C.354 615
D.364 A. 24
E.336 B. 42
Page 37 of 77
C. 615 B. 1890
D. 226 C. 6
E. None of these D. 210
E. None of these
46. 2 20 42 72 110 156
A. 20 Direction (50 – 54): What will come in place of
B. 72 question-mark (?) in the following question?
C. 2 50. 1, 4, 27, 256, 3125, 46656,?
D. 156 A.888753
C.881243
47. 18 19 23 50 66 191 D.865243
228 E.823543
A. 228
B. 191 51. 55, 51, 42, 26, ?
C. 18 A.0
D. 66 B.1
E. None of these C.-1
48. 28 60 127 259 523 1051 D.3
A. 1051 E. None
B. 127
C. 259 52. 24, 73, 109, 134, 150, ?
D. 60 A.160
C.159
49. 2 6 30 210 1890 D.170
30030 E.164
A. 30030
Page 38 of 77
53. 8, 32, 67, 115, 178, ? I. 10X² + 16X + 6 = 0

A.255 II. 6Y² + 14Y + 8 = 0
B.249 A. X > Y
C.258 B. X < Y
D.261 C. X = Y or No relation
E.238 D. X ≥ Y
E. X ≤ Y
54. 2688, 1344, 336, 56, 7, ?
A.1 57.
B.0.5 I. X² - 51X + 638 = 0
C.70 II. Y² - 64Y + 1015 = 0
D.0.7 A. X > Y
E.0.07 B. X < Y
C. X = Y or No relation
Direction (55– 70): In the following equations D. X ≥ Y
numbered I and II are given. You have to solve the E. X ≤ Y
both equations and choose the correct option.
58.
55. I. 2x2 –3x –14 = 0,
I. X² = 196 II. 3y2 + 16y + 20 = 0
II. Y² - 28Y + 196 = 0 A. If x > y
A. X > Y B. If x < y
B. X < Y C. If x ≥ y
C. X = Y or No relation D. If x ≤ y
D. X ≥ Y E. If x = y or relation cannot be established
E. X ≤ Y
59.
56. I.7x2+ 19x –6 = 0,
Page 39 of 77
II. 3y2–8y –16 = 0 A. If x > y

A. If x > y B. If x < y
B. If x < y C. If x ≥ y
C. If x ≥ y D. If x ≤ y
D. If x ≤ y E. If x = y or relation cannot be established
E. If x = y or relation cannot be established
63.
60. I.3x-15√x+18=0,
I. 8x2+ (4 + 2√2)x + √2 = 0 II. √y =22
II. 3y2–(6 + 2√3)y + 4√3 = 0 A. x> y
B. If x < y C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
C. If x ≥ y D. x< y
D. If x ≤ y E. x ≤ y
64.
61. I. 5x-6y=11,
I. 3x2–(3 –2√2)x –2√2 = 0 II. 3x-4y=9
II. 5y2+ (2 + 5√2)y + 2√2 = 0 A. x< y
B. If x < y C. x> y
C. If x ≥ y D. x = yor relationship can’t be determined.
D. If x ≤ y E. x ≤ y
65.
62. I. x2-4x-437=0,
I. 6x2–(3 + 4√3)x + 2√3 = 0, II. y2+12y-589=0
II. y2–(3 + √3)y + 3√3 = 0 A. x> y
Page 40 of 77
B. x = y or relationship can’t be determined. II. y2 + 14y = 72

C. x ≥ y A. x > y
D. x< y B. x ≥ y
E. x ≤ y C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
D. x < y
66. E. x ≤ y
I. x2 – 23x + 126 = 0
II. y2 – 29y + 210 = 0 69.
A. x> y I. x * 19 = 342
B. x ≥ y II. y * 34 = 646
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined. A. x > y
D. x< y B. x ≥ y
D. x < y
67. E. x ≤ y
I. x2 + 3x – 54 = 0
II. y2 + 3y – 108 = 0 70.
A. x > y I. x2 + 34x + 285 = 0
B. x ≥ y II. y2 + 35y + 304 = 0
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined. A. x > y
D. x < y B. x ≥ y
D. x < y
68. E. x ≤ y
I. x + y = 18

1. Answer: A 160=800*10*x/100
Page 41 of 77
x=2 years 3930 = (x * 18 * 2/100) + ((x – 3000) * (1 +

CI =y(1+20/100)2-y 10/100)2 – (x – 3000))
=y(11/25) 3930 = 0.36x + 0.21x – 630
CI =y(1+10/100)2-y 0.57x = 4560
=y(21/100) x = 8000
Required percentage= (11y/25)/(21y/100)*100
=209.5% 5. Answer: C
Amount of money invested by Mahesh = Rs. 75,500
2. Answer: C Interest received in first year = 75,500 × 16/100
3x + 2376 = 6x * 18 * 4/100 = Rs. 12,080
1.32x = 2376 Interest received in second year = 75,500 × 22/100
x = 1800 = Rs. 16,610
Interest received in third year = 75,500 × 28/100
3. Answer: D = Rs. 21,140
CI received on Rs.5000 after 2 years at 10% rate of So, the total interest received in three years is,
interest: = 12,080 + 16,610 + 21,140
5000 * (1 + 10/100)2 – 5000 = 6050 – 5000 = = Rs. 49,830
Rs.1050
So, SI received on Rs.5000 after 3 years at R% rate 6. Answer: C
of interest: Amount = x
1050 + 750 = Rs.1800 SI = x * 15 * 4/100 = 3x/5
So, CI = x * (1 + 10/100)2 – x
(5000 * R * 3)/100 = 1800 = 0.21x
150R = 1800 3x/5 – 0.21x = 5265
R = 12% 0.6x – 0.21x = 5265
0.39x = 5265
4. Answer: C x = 13500
Page 42 of 77
7. Answer: A 10. Answer: C

CA = P * (1 + R/100)n P * 15% * 2 = (P + 500) * 12% * 2 + 300
3300 = P * (1 + R/100)1 ------(1) 30%P=24%P+120+300
3993 = P * (1 + R/100)3------(2) 6%P=420
From (1) * (2) => P = Rs.7000
P2 * (1 + R/100)4 = 3300 * 3993 Required interest = (2P + 500) * 2 * 12/100
P * (1 + R/100)2 = 3630 =14500*2*12/100
= Rs.3480
8. Answer: D
Let the amount invested by Harshit is at the rate = 11. Answer: E
x% SI = x * 60/100 * 2 * 15/100 = 0.18x
So, according to the question, CI = x * 40/100 * (1 + 20/100)2 – x * 40/100
= x = (5760 × 100)/(12,000 × 3) = 0.176x
= x = 16% 0.18x + 0.176x = 2848
So, the new rate of interest = 16 + 4 = 20% x = 8000
Total of the amount is = 12,000 + 5760 = Rs.
17,760 12. Answer: B
So, the amount at compound interest after 2 years Amount invested in scheme B = x
will be, Amount invested in scheme A = 6000 - x
= 17,760 × (120/100)2 SI = (6000 – x) * 15 * 2/100 = 1800 – 0.3x
= 25,574.4 CA = x * (1 + 10/100)2 = 1.21x
(6000 – x) + 1800 – 0.3x + 1.21x = 7440
9. Answer: D x = 4000
2P – P = P * 4 * R/100 Sum invested by Scheme A = 6000 – 4000 = 2000
R = 25%
9P = P + (P * 25 * N/100) 13. Answer: C
N = 32 CA = P * (1 + R/100)n
CA for 11 years = P * (1 + R/100)11 -----(1)
Page 43 of 77
CA for 9 years = P * (1 + R/100)9------(2) Number of Acer laptops given in 2016 = 25% of

From (1) and (2) 5000 = 1250
(1 + R/100)2 = 36/25 Similarly all other values are found and the results
(1 + R/100) = 6/5 are tabulated.
100 + R = 120
R = 20%
14. Answer: B
Amount invested in scheme A or B be P.
P[(1 + r/100)n – 1] – Pnr/100 = 661.5
=>P[(1 + 15/100)2 – 1] – P * 2 * 10/100 = 661.5
=> P = Rs.5400
15. Answer: D 16. Answer: D
120/100 * (1.44x – 3660) = 4999.68

1.728x – 4392 = 4999.68 Required average =
x = 5435
17. Answer: A
Direction (16-20): Required ratio= (2000+2700+1200) : (1500+1600)
It is given that, = 59 : 31
Total number of laptops given in all the years

together = 6600*5 = 33000 18. Answer: E
Number of laptops given in 2016 No. of Lenovo laptops given in 2015
= =
Number of Lenovo laptops given in 2016 = 40% of No. of HP laptops given in 2015
5000 = 2000
Number of HP laptops given in 2016 = 35% of 5000 =
= 1750
Page 44 of 77
No. of Acer laptops given in 2015 x=13

Total distance covered on Monday = 1300km
= Let total distance covered on Thursday =100y
Total laptops sold in 2015 = 1600+2500+1500 = 20y =28km
5600 Therefore 100y = 140km
Desired value = 8000 – 5600 =2400 less Required ratio,
35% of 1300 : 80% of 140
19. Answer: C 455:112
Required difference
= (1750+5000+1200+1600) – 22. Answer: B
(1500+2100+1200+1600) Let total distance covered on Wednesday = 100x
= 3150 =440km
Total distance covered on Tuesday = (440/11)
20. Answer: E ×8=320km
Total distance covered on Friday = (440/11)
Required percentage = =4.17% ×6=240km
Required sum = 10% of 320 + 25% of 440 + 40% of
Direction (21-25): 240 = 238km
21. Answer: C
The given radar graph can be rewritten as, 23. Answer: D
Solution can’t be determined i.e no numerical data
regarding any of the distance is given
24. Answer: A
Let total distance covered on Thursday=100x
Let total distance covered on Monday =100x Therefore, total distance covered on Monday =150x
It is given that, Required percentage = [(40% of 100x) / (30% of
5x =65 150x)]×100=88.88%
Page 45 of 77
y = 400
25. Answer: E Difference = 700 – 400 = 300
Data insufficient
From the given data, we can’t calculate total 29. Answer: B
distance on any particular day. Number of girls in BE = 100/80 * 360 = 450
Number of boys in BE = 50/50 * 450 = 450
Direction (26-30): Number of girls in MBA = 450
26. Answer: C Number of boys in MBA = 40/60 * 450 = 300
Total number of students in MBA = 100/60 * 180 = Difference = 450 – 300 = 150
300
Total number of students in MBBS = 100/55 * 330 = 30. Answer: A
600 Difference = (55 – 45)/100 * 780 = 78
Required answer = 50/100 * (600 – 300) = 150
Direction (31-35):
27. Answer: D 31. Answer: A
Data inadequate. Required Ratio
= (25 + 30): (5 + 20)
28. Answer: C = 55: 25
Total number of students in BBA = x = 11: 5
Total number of students in MSC = y
x * 30/100 + y * 40/100 = 370 32. Answer: B
3x + 4y = 3700 ------(1) Required Percentage
x * 70/100 + y * 60/100 = 730 = {(15 + 10 + 15) × 1000} / 455030 × 100
7x + 6y = 7300 ------(2) = {(40000)/455030} × 100
(2) * 2 – (1) * 3 = 8.79
14x – 9x = 3500 = 9% Approximately
x = 700
6y = 7300 – 4900 33. Answer: C
Page 46 of 77
Required total number of students 26 x 72 x 1278 = 39 x 48 x (?)

= (5 + 35 + 15 + 15 + 20 + 5) × 1000 (?) = (26 x 72 x 1278) / (39 x 48)
= 95000 (?) = 1278

In 2005 (420 + 700) ÷ 7 = (?)
Total number of girls = (20 + 20 + 5) × 38/100 × 60 + 100 = (?)
1000 (?) = 160
= 1710000 / 100
= 17100 39. Answer: D
Total number of boys = 45000 – 17100 = 27900 24% of 25 + 160 – 5+ 8 = (?)²
6 + 155 + 8 = (?)²
35. Answer: D (?) = √169 = 13
Required percentage
= {(15000 + 30000) / (5000 + 35000 + 15000 + 40. Answer: E
25000 + 30000 + 30000)} × 100 28 x 32 + 52 x 48 + 20 x 12 = (?)
= 4500000/140000 (30 + 2) (30 – 2) + (50 + 2) (50 – 2) + 240 = (?)
= 32.14 896 + 2496 + 240 = (?)
= 32% Approximately (?) = 3632
Direction (36 – 40): Direction (41 – 44):

36. Answer: A 41. Answer: C
320 + 32 + 96% of 25 = (?) x 2.5 ? = 100 * (19/5) - √676
352 + 24 = (?) x 2.5 = 20 * 19 - 26
376/2.5 = (?) = 380 - 26 = 354
(?) = 150
42. Answer: C
37. Answer: C 19 * 6 – √324 * √169 = ? – 15 * 8
Page 47 of 77
114 – 234 = ? – 120 6 x 7 = 42

?=0 8 x 9 = 72
10 x 11 = 110
43. Answer: B 12 x 13 = 156
?= 1056 ÷ 33 - 40
= 32 - 40 47. Answer: A
= -8 18 + 1³ = 19
19 + 2² = 23
44. Answer: A 23 + 3³ = 50
95÷ 729 x 81 ÷ 92 x 6561 = 9? X 9 50 + 4² = 66
=> 95÷ 93 x 92÷ 92 x 94 = 9? X 9 66 + 5³ = 191
=> 9(5 – 3 + 2 – 2 + 4) = 9(? + 1) 191 + 6² = 227
=> 96 = 9(? + 1)
=> 6 = ? + 1 48. Answer: D
=> 6 – 1 = ? 28 x 2 + 5 = 61
=> 5 = ? 61 x 2 + 5 = 127
127 x 2 + 5 = 259
Direction (45-49): 259 x 2 + 5 = 523
45. Answer: E 523 x 2 + 5 = 1051
24 x 0.5 + 10 = 22
22 x 1 + 20 = 42 49. Answer: B
42 x 1.5 + 30 = 93 2x3=6
93 x 2 + 40 = 226 6 x 5 = 30
226 x 2.5 + 50 = 615 30 x 7 = 210
210 x 11 = 2310
46. Answer: C 2310 x 13 = 30030
2x3=6
4 x 5 = 20 Direction (50-54):
Page 48 of 77
50. Answer: E
11 = 1 Direction (55– 70):
22 = 4 55. Answer: E
33 = 27 I. X² = 196
44 = 256 X = + 14, - 14
55 = 3125 II. (X – 14)² = 0
66 = 46656 Y = 14, 14
77 = 823543 It’s very clear from the values
X≤Y
51. Answer: B
Difference: 22, 32, 42, 52.. 56. Answer: D
I. 10X² + 16X + 6 = 0
52. Answer: C 10X² + 10X + 6X + 6 = 0
24 + 72 =73 10X(X + 1) + 6(X + 1) = 0
73 + 62 =109 (10X + 6)(X + 1) = 0
109 + 52 =134 X = -3/5, - 1
134 + 42 =150 II. 6Y² + 14Y + 8 = 0
150 + 32 =159 6Y² + 6Y + 8Y + 8 = 0
6Y(Y + 1) + 8(Y + 1) = 0
53. Answer: C (6Y + 8)(Y + 1) = 0
8 + (52 – 1) = 32 Y = -4/3, - 1
32 + (62 – 1) = 67 X Relation Y
67 + (72 – 1) = 115 -0.6 > -1.33
115 + (82 – 1) = 178 -0.6 > -1
178 + (92 – 1) = 258 -1 > -1.33
-1 = -1
54. Answer: D X≥Y
The following series is /2, /4, /6, /8, /10
Page 49 of 77
57. Answer: E 7x2+ 21x –2x –6 = 0

I. X² - 51X + 638 = 0 Gives x = -3, 2/7
X² - 22X – 29X + 638 = 0 3y2–8y –16 = 0
X(X – 22) – 29(X – 22) = 0 3y2–12y + 4y –16 = 0
(X – 22)(X – 29) = 0 So y = -4/3, 4
X = 22, 29
II. Y² - 64Y + 1015 = 0 60. Answer B
Y² - 29Y – 35Y + 1015 = 0 8x2+ (4 + 2√2)x + √2 = 0
Y(Y – 29) – 35(Y – 29) = 0 (8x2+ 4x) + (2√2x + √2) = 0
(Y – 29)(Y – 35) = 0 4x (2x + 1) + √2 (2x + 1) = 0
Y = 29, 35 So x = -1/2, -√2/4
X Relation Y 3y2–(6 + 2√3)y + 4√3 = 0
22 < 29 (3y2–6y) –(2√3y –4√3) = 0
22 < 35 3y (y –2) –2√3 (y –2) = 0
29 = 29 So, y = 2, 2√3/3
29 < 35
X≤Y 61. Answer E
3x2–(3 –2√2)x –3√2 = 0
58. Answer C (3x2–3x) + (2√2x –2√2) = 0
2x2–3x –14 = 0 3x (x –1) + 2√2 (x –1) = 0
2x2+ 4x –7x –14 = 0 So x = 1, -2√2/3
Gives x = -2, 7/2 5y2+ (2 + 5√2)y + 2√2 = 0

3y2+ 16y + 20 = 0 (5y2+ 2y) + (5√2y + 2√2) = 0
3y2+ 6y + 10y + 20 = 0 y (5y + 2) + √2 (5y + 2) = 0
Gives y = -10/3, -2 So, y = -2/5 ,-√2
59. Answer E 62. Answer B

7x2+ 19x –6 = 0 6x2–(3 + 4√3)x + 2√3 = 0
Page 50 of 77
(6x2–3x) –(4√3x –2√3) = 0 2y = - 12

3x (2x-1) –2√3 (x –2) = 0, y=-6
So x = 1/2, 2√3/3 15x = 45 – 120
Y2–(3 + √3)y + 3√3 = 0 x=-5
(y2–3y) –(√3y –3√3) = 0 Therefore x>y
y (y –3) –√3 (y –3) = 0
So x = 3, √3 65. Answer: B
x2-4x-437=0
63. Answer: D x2-23x+19x-437=0
I->3x-15√x+18=0 x(x-23) +19(x-23)=0
x-5√x +6 =0 (x-23) (x+19) =0
x-3√x -2√x+6=0 x=23,-19
√x(√x-3) -2(√x – 3) =0 y2+12y-589=0
(√x-3) (√x-2) =0 y2+31y-19y-589=0
√x = 3,2 y(y+31) -19(y+31)=0
x= 9,4 (y+31) (y-19) =0
II->√y =22 y= -31,19
√y =4 From the value of x and y,
y = 16 Relationship can’t be established
From the values of x&y,
x <y 66. Answer: E
x2 – 23x + 126 = 0
64. Answer: C x2 – 14x – 9x + 126 = 0
5x-6y=11, 3x-4y=9 x(x – 14) – 9(x – 14) = 0
By solving this equations we get, x = 9, 14
15x – 18y = 33 ------ 1 y2 – 29y + 210 = 0
15x – 20y = 45 -------- 2 y2 – 14y – 15y + 210 = 0
Subtracting 1 and 2, y(y – 14) – 15(y – 14) = 0
Page 51 of 77
y = 14, 15 If y = -18 means

x≤y x = 18 + 18 = 36
x>y
67. Answer: C
x2 + 3x – 54 = 0 69. Answer: D
x2 + 9x – 6x – 54 = 0 x * 19 = 342
x(x + 9) – 6(x + 9) = 0 x = 18
x = 6, -9 y = 646/34 = 19
y2 + 3y – 108 = 0 x<y
y2 + 12y – 9y – 108 = 0
y(y + 12) – 9(y + 12) = 0 70. Answer: C
y = 9, -12 x2 + 34x + 285 = 0
Relationship between x and y cannot be x2 + 19x + 15x + 285 = 0
established. x(x + 19) + 15(x + 19) = 0
68. Answer: A x = -19, -15
y2 + 14y = 72 y2 + 35y + 304 = 0
y2 + 18y – 4y – 72 = 0 y2 + 19y + 16y + 304 = 0
y(y + 18) – 4(y + 18) = 0 y(y + 19) + 16(y + 19) = 0
y = 4, -18 y = -19, -16
If y = 4 means Relationship between x and y cannot be
x + y = 18 established.
x = 18 – 4 = 14
English Language
Directions (1-5): In the table given below two may or may not be connected grammatically and
columns are given with three sentences. Below contextually with Column II.You have to identify
that set of connectors given. In Column I sentence
Page 52 of 77
possible connection of sentences from two C. b-I-d, c-III-f, a-II-e

columns by using below given connector. D. b-I-f, a-III-f, c-II-e
1. E. b-II-d, c-I-e, a-III-e
COLUMN I COLUMN II
a) Accusing the Left d) Are available on the 2.
Democratic Front (LDF) Election Commission COLUMN I COLUMN II
of following a “corporate of India’s website, a) A case was registered d) has become a slave
manifesto” accessing the and a trap laid on of the BJP, Congress
information there could Tuesday. Saravanan, leader Veerappa Moily
be tedious for many. Commercial Assistant, has said.
b) They have also been e)Swearing allegiance was arrested
directed to ensure to the Communist b) Time is ripe for the e) received 5,000 from
effective and prompt manifesto, Congress people of Tamil Nadu to the complainant
isolation of those leader Priyanka overthrow the
infected and tracing their Gandhi said the Kerala government of the
close contacts government was trying AIADMK,
to assert a borderline c) From hospitals to f) There are some
fascist culture in the educational institutions, pockets that have been
State. this area boasts some neglected.
c) Though the data has f) Strengthening the good facilities
been compiled from the public and private I) which
affidavits filed by healthcare resources. II) While
candidates III) Yet
I) despite A. a-II-e, b-I-f, c-III-d
II) That B. a-I-e, b-III-f, c-II-d
III) While C. b-I-d, c-III-f, a-II-e
A. a-II-e, b-I-f, c-III-d D. b-I-f, a-III-f, c-II-e
B. a-I-e, b-III-f, c-II-d E. b-II-d, c-I-e, a-III-e
Page 53 of 77
I) and
3. II) Due
COLUMN I COLUMN II III) Hence
a) He died at the d) Was in the process of A. a-II-f, b-I-d, c-III-e
Government Corona evolving and sincerely B. a-I-e, b-III-f, c-II-d
Hospital within 25 attempting to understand C. b-I-d, c-III-f, a-II-e
minutes of arrival on the feelings of people D. b-I-f, a-III-f, c-II-e
March 28 involved in such E. b-II-d, c-I-e, a-III-e
relationships and also
that of their parents to 4.
whom such relationships COLUMN I COLUMN II
involving their children a) Mr. Stalin had been d) several senior DMK
come as a rude shock. frequently speaking leaders were against
b) Justice N. Anand e) The judge requested about the formation of his succession plan,
Venkatesh of the psychologist Vidya special courts to deal Mr. Stalin had been
Madras High Court Dinakaran to hold with the corruption advocating the setting
wrote that he was trying counselling sessions cases against elected up of special courts, Mr.
to break his own with them and their representatives Palaniswami claimed.
preconceived notions parents in the third week
about same sex of April. b) Campaigning in e) Some of them filed
relationships support of the AIADMK nominations against
c) The petitioners did f) to severe COVID19 candidates at party candidates and
not mince words while pneumonia and Marakkadai in Tiruchi, campaigned against
explaining their respiratory failure Mr.Palaniswami felt that party candidates.
relationship to the judge Mr. Stalin had been
and insisted that they levelling unfounded
preferred to reside allegations against the
together Ministers
Page 54 of 77
c) The AIADMK f) He could not stomach speech was not only laws were given the right
expelled eight party the growing popularity derogatory to vote.
functionaries, including and goodwill gained by
a former MP, in various the present c) Bharatiya Janata f) Also obscene and
districts government. Party (BJP) is an lowered the “dignity of
opportunistic alliance motherhood which
seems to be a serious
I) as violation of the model
II) After code of conduct”.
III) Since
A. a-II-f, b-I-d, c-III-e I) however
B. a-I-e, b-III-f, c-II-d II) Which
C. b-I-d, c-III-f, a-II-e III) But
D. b-I-f, a-III-d, c-II-e A. a-II-f, b-I-d, c-III-e
E. b-II-d, c-I-e, a-III-e B. a-I-e, b-III-f, c-II-d
C. b-I-d, c-III-f, a-II-e
5. D. b-I-f, a-III-d, c-II-e
COLUMN I COLUMN II E. b-II-d, c-I-e, a-III-e
a) Jail officials said d) was formed to safe
most of them were not guard the interests of Directions (6-10): In the questions below, three
eligible to cast their vote AIADMK leaders, similar statements are given, revolving around the
as per settled law. charged Dravida same idea or theme. Decide which of the following
Munnetra Kazhagam sentences are grammatically and meaningfully
(DMK) women’s wing correct and mark your answers accordingly.
secretary Kanimozhi. 6.
I .Satellite data shows the message is getting
b) The EC said it was of e) Those detained under through, with clearances up sharply and this month
the view that Mr. Raja’s preventive detention
Page 55 of 77
set to be the first in five years in which Brazil has B. Only III
lost an area of forest bigger than Greater London. C. Only I
II. Satellite data showing the message is getting D. Only I and II
through, with clearances up sharply and this month E. None of these
set to be the first in five years in which Brazil has
lost an area of forest bigger than Greater London. 8.
III. Satellite data which also shows the message is I. Brazil being in a strong position, at the next
getting through and therefore with clearances up round of UN climate talks, to demanding increased
sharply and this month set to the first in five years international aid for the vast Amazon region.
in which Brazil has lost an area of forest bigger II. Brazil is in a strong position, at the next round of
than Greater London. UN climate talks, to demand increased
A. Only II international aid for the vast Amazon region.
B. Only III III. Since Brazil is in a strong position, at the next
C. Only I round of UN climate talks, to demand increase
D. Only I and II international aid for the vast Amazon region.
E. None of these A. Only II
B. Only III
7. C. Only I
I. Firm pressure must be brought to bear in the D.Only I and II
form of strong environmental regulations, and a E. None of these
refusal to compromise on transparency.
II. Firm pressure should be brought to bear in the 9.
form of strong environment regulations, and a I. Environmentalists, including Green politicians,
refusal to compromise on transparency. should work through European political institutions
III. Firm pressure must bring to bear in the form of since EU is the second-biggest market with
strong environmental regulations, and a refusal to Brazilian exports.
compromise on transparency. II. Environmentalists, including Green politicians,
A. Only II should work through European political institutions,
Page 56 of 77
in the knowledge that the EU is the second-biggest D. Only I and II

market for Brazilian exports. E. None of these
III. Environmentalists, which includes Green
politicians, should work through European political Directions (11-15): Given below are six statements
institutions, in the knowledge that the EU is the A, B, C, D, E and F, which when arranged in the
second-biggest market for Brazilian exports. correct order, form a coherent and meaningful
A. Only II paragraph. The sentence marked as C is fixed and
B. Only III would fit in the third position. Rearrange the other
C. Only I statements in a proper sequence to form a
D. Only I and II meaningful paragraph, and then answer the
E. None of these questions below.
A) Amidst the rising popularity of other investment
10. platforms like mutual funds, PPF is most trusted
I. Last week one of the leaders of the Waiãpi because of sovereign guarantee from the
people, Emyra Waiãpi, was found stabbed to death government on the principal invested and interest
on a remote reserve in the state of Amapá, after earned.
armed men raid his village. B) Returns on PPF enjoys Exempt-Exempt-Exempt
II. The previous week, one of the leaders of the (EEE) tax status which means that the interest
Waiãpi people, Emyra Waiãpi, has been found earned, proceeds gathered on maturity and
stabbed to death on a remote reserve in the state investments are tax exempt under Section 80C of
of Amapá, after armed men raided his village. the I-T Act.
III. Last week one of the leaders of the Waiãpi C) However, despite its acclamation, many
people, Emyra Waiãpi, was found stabbed to death investors are not aware of the most important facts
on a remote reserve in the state of Amapá, after associated with the PPF account.
armed men raided his village. D) Since decades, PPF (Public Provident Fund)
A. Only II has remained one of the popular investment
B. Only III alternatives, especially for risk-averse investors
C. Only I
Page 57 of 77
who are satisfied with moderate but guaranteed B.C

returns. C.F
E) This tax-free status gives PPF an advantage D.A
over 5 year-tax saving fixed deposits from banks E. None of these
and post offices as their interest income is taxable
as per the tax slab of the depositor. 14. Which of the following will be FOURTH
F) Currently, PPF offers a 7.9% return that is statement after rearrangement?
compounded annually. Basis the yields of A.B
government bonds, the Ministry of Finance reviews B.C
interest rates every financial quarter. C.F
11. Which of the following will be LAST sentence D.A
after rearrangement? E. None of these
A.B
B.D 15. Which of the following pairs form two
C.A consecutive statements after rearrangement?
D.F A.A-D
E. None of these B.B-C
12. Which of the following pairs form two C.E-D
consecutive statements after rearrangement? D.C-F
A.A-D E. None of these
B.B-C
C.A-C Directions (16-20): There is a sentence given
D.C-E below which is divided into four or five parts. There
E. None of these is an error in any part(s) of the sentence. From the
given options, find out the part which contain(s)
13. Which of the following will be SECOND error and arrange them logically.
statement after rearrangement? 16. political model of two party rules is under
A.D strain (A)/ As the Angela Merkel era draws to a
Page 58 of 77
close, Germany’s post – war (B)/as leader of the Trump's son-in-law, White House adviser Jared
Christian Democratic Union after leading it with 18 Kushner (D) / said in an interview on CNN. (E)
years(C)/and Chancellor Merkel’s decision to stand A. DECAB, A
down (D)/was triggered by its poor showing in B. ECBDA, C
recent regional elections. (E). C. CDABE, A
A. BADCE, C D. DECAB, D
B. BDCEA, B E. No Arrangement Required
C. ACDBE, C
D. CBDEA, D 19. It is tempting to see this as a validation of both
E. No arrangement required. his immigration strategies. (A)/ on immigration and
otherwise, both parties turned out (B)/ without
17. Seeking to steer the party to the political taking from the other and (C)/ their voters,
center(A)/their grand coalition and then (B)/ the extending their territory a bit (D) /The broader
CDU and the SPD took months for forge (C) / CDU conclusion from the mid-terms is that (E).
hardliners blamed the drubbing on Ms. Merkel A. DECAB, C
policies (D) / Following their worst combined B. ECBDA, E
showing with the 2017 general elections (E). C. CDABE, A
A. DABCE, D D. EBDCA, B
B. ECBDA, C E. No Arrangement Required
C. BACDE, B
D. CDABE, A 20. A environmental group has denounced (A) / it
E. No arrangement required. to register as foreign agent (B) / on the southern
Japanese island of Okinawa may require (C) /the
18. about Khashoggi and told him "the world is organization's efforts to block construction on a
watching" (A)/Riyadh's account of the journalist's U.S. military base (D)/ a House oversight
disappearance (B) / that he had urged the crown committee for suggesting (E)
prince to be transparent (C) / Earlier in Monday, A. DECAB, A
B. ECBDA, C
Page 59 of 77
C. AEDCB, A E. No Arrangement Required

D. EBDCA, A

Directions (1-5): From hospitals to educational institutions, this area
1. Answer: B boasts some good facilities; yet there are some
Accusing the Left Democratic Front (LDF) of pockets that have been neglected.
following a “corporate manifesto” despite swearing A case was registered and a trap laid on Tuesday.
allegiance to the Communist manifesto, Congress Saravanan, Commercial Assistant, was arrested
leader Priyanka Gandhi said the Kerala government while received 5,000 from the complainant.
was trying to assert a borderline fascist culture in
the State. 3. Answer: A
They have also been directed to ensure effective He died at the Government Corona Hospital within
and prompt isolation of those infected and tracing 25 minutes of arrival on March 28 due to severe
their close contacts while strengthening the public COVID19 pneumonia and respiratory failure.
and private healthcare resources. Justice N. Anand Venkatesh of the Madras High
Though the data has been compiled from the Court wrote that he was trying to break his own
affidavits filed by candidates that are available on preconceived notions about same sex relationships
the Election Commission of India’s website, and was in the process of evolving and sincerely
accessing the information there could be tedious for attempting to understand the feelings of people
many. involved in such relationships and also that of their
parents to whom such relationships involving their
2. Answer: C children come as a rude shock.
Time is ripe for the people of Tamil Nadu to The petitioners did not mince words while
overthrow the government of the AIADMK, which explaining their relationship to the judge and
has become a slave of the BJP, Congress leader insisted that they preferred to reside together.
Veerappa Moily has said. Hence, the judge requested psychologist Vidya
Page 60 of 77
Dinakaran to hold counselling sessions with them The EC said it was of the view that Mr. Raja’s
and their parents in the third week of April. speech was not only derogatory, but also obscene
and lowered the “dignity of motherhood which
4. Answer: D seems to be a serious violation of the model code
Campaigning in support of the AIADMK candidates of conduct”.
at Marakkadai in Tiruchi, Mr.Palaniswami felt that The alliance between All India Anna Dravida
Mr. Stalin had been levelling unfounded allegations Munnetra Kazhagam (AIADMK) andBharatiya
against the Ministers as he could not stomach the Janata Party (BJP) is an opportunistic alliance,
growing popularity and goodwill gained by the which was formed to safeguard the interests of
present government. AIADMK leaders, charged Dravida Munnetra
Mr. Stalin had been frequently speaking about the Kazhagam (DMK) women’s wing secretary
formation of special courts to deal with the Kanimozhi.
corruption cases against elected representatives.
Since several senior DMK leaders were against his Directions (6-10):
succession plan, Mr. Stalin had been advocating 6. Answer: C
the setting up of special courts, Mr. Palaniswami Statement I is correct. The sentence is contextually
claimed. and grammatically correct.
The AIADMK expelled eight party functionaries, Statement II is incorrect. There is no helping verb
including a former MP, in various districts, after preceding ‘showing’, so it should be simply ‘shows’.
some of them filed nominations against party Statement III is incorrect. ‘Also’ is superfluous and
candidates and campaigned against party ‘therefore’ is redundant in the second part of the
candidate statement.
Jail officials said most of them were not eligible to Statement I is correct. The sentence is contextually
cast their vote as per settled law. However, those and grammatically coherent.
detained under preventive detention laws were
given the right to vote.
Page 61 of 77
Statement II is incorrect. ‘Environment’ is a noun Statement II is incorrect. Since the statement is in

while there should be an adjective which should simple past, ‘has been’ cannot be used.
precede the noun ‘regulations’.
Statement III is incorrect. Helping verb is missing, Directions (11-15):
which alters the meaning of the sentence. The correct sequence of the paragraph should
be DACFBE
8. Answer: A D) Since decades, PPF (Public Provident Fund) has
Statement II is correct. The sentence is contextually remained one of the popular investment
and grammatically coherent. alternatives, especially for risk-averse investors
Statement I is incorrect. With the preposition ‘to’, who are satisfied with moderate but guaranteed
‘demanding’ is grammatically incorrect. returns.
Statement III is incorrect. ‘Increase’ is A) Amidst the rising popularity of other investment
grammatically incorrect; it should be ‘increased’. platforms like mutual funds, PPF is most trusted
because of sovereign guarantee from the
9. Answer: A government on the principal invested and interest
Statement II is correct. The sentence is contextually earned.
and grammatically coherent. C) However, despite its acclamation, many
Statement I is incorrect. Preposition is incorrectly investors are not aware of the most important facts
used preceding ‘Brazilian exports’. associated with the PPF account.
Statement III is incorrect. For a plural entity F) Currently, PPF offers a 7.9% return that is
‘environmentalists’, ‘includes’ is grammatically compounded annually. Basis the yields of
incorrect government bonds, the Ministry of Finance reviews
interest rate every financial quarter.
10. Answer: B B) Returns on PPF enjoys Exempt-Exempt-Exempt
Statement III is correct. The sentence is (EEE) tax status which means that the interest
contextually and grammatically coherent. earned, proceeds gathered on maturity and
Statement I is incorrect. ‘Raid’ is grammatically investments are tax exempt under Section 80C of
incorrect since the statement is in simple past. the I-T Act.
Page 62 of 77
E) This tax-free status gives PPF an advantage took months to forge (B)/ their grand coalition and
over 5 year-tax saving fixed deposit from banks and then (C) / CDU hardliners blamed the drubbing on
post office as their interest income is taxable as per Ms. Merkel policies (D) / seeking to steer the party
the tax slab of the depositor. to the political center. (E)
11. Answer: E
12. Answer: C 18. Answer: D
13. Answer: D In part (D): Replace “in” with “on” -it is used as a
14. Answer: C function word to indicate a time frame during which
15. Answer: D something takes place
Earlier on Monday, Trump's son-in-law, White
Directions (16-20): House adviser Jared Kushner (A), said in an
16. Answer: A interview on CNN (B) / that he had urged the crown
In part (C): Replace “with” with “for” as it is used as prince to be transparent (C) /about Khashoggi and
a function word to indicate duration of time or extent told him "the world is watching" (D) / Riyadh's
of space gone account of the journalist's disappearance. (E)
As the Angela Merkel era draws to a close,
Germany’s post – war (A)/ political model of two 19. Answer: D
party rules is under strain (B)/and Chancellor In part (A): Replace “his” with “their”, as it is used to
Merkel’s decision to stand down (C)/ as leader of indicate - relating to them or themselves especially
the Christian Democratic Union, after leading it for as possessors for-both their immigration strategies
18 years(D)/ was triggered by its poor showing in The broader conclusion from the mid-terms is that
recent regional elections. (E) (A), on immigration and otherwise, both parties
turned out (B) their voters, extending their territory a
17. Answer: B bit (C), without taking from the other and (D) it is
In part (C): Replace “for” with “to” as it is used as a tempting to see this as a validation of both their
preposition error immigration strategies. (E)
Following their worst combined showing with the
2017 general elections (A)/, the CDU and the SPD 20. Answer: C
Page 63 of 77
In part (A): Replace “A” with “An” as this article is U.S. military base (C) /on the southern Japanese
used before a vowel sound. island of Okinawa may require (D)/ it to register as
An environmental group has denounced (A) /a foreign agent. (E)
House oversight committee for suggesting (B) /the
organization's efforts to block construction on a
General Awareness
1. The government of which state will construct the B) 1992

‘COVID Warrior Memorial’ at Biju Patnaik Park? C) 1993
A) Haryana D) 1996
B) Bihar E) 1995
C) Chhattisgarh
D) Odisha 4. Which state has become the 13th State to complete

E) Delhi the ONOR Card?
A) Chhattisgarh
2. India will fund USD _____ million for restoration of 3 B) Madhya Pradesh
cultural heritage projects in Nepal. C) Delhi
A) 35 D) Haryana
B) 50 E) Punjab
C) 55
D) 40 5. Who among the following has been sworn in as
E) 45 Italy's new prime minister?
A) Fedrick Draghi
3. The Lok Sabha has passed the Arbitration & B) Mario Draghi
Conciliation (Amendment) Bill, 2021 and will amend the C) Jens Weldmann
Arbitration and Conciliation Act of which year? D) Sergio Matarella

A) 1990 E) Giacomo Draghi
Page 64 of 77
9. RBI has constituted a _____ member expert

6. ISRO has collaborated with which company to bring committee on Urban Co-operative Banks.
India a rival to Google Maps? A) 4
A) Mosdac B) 5
B) Vedas C) 6
C) Navic D) 8
D) DRDO E) 7
E) MapmyIndia
10. Which of the following Bank has launched ATM
7. Which institution has launched the fundraising demo vans?
campaign ‘Cherish 2021’? A) UCO Bank

A) IIT Guwahati B) Kerala Bank
B) IIT Roorkee C) Bandhan Bank
C) IIT Madras D) Axis Bank

D) IIT Bombay E) SBI Bank
E) IIT Delhi
11. The government has increased the budget of the
8. Kotak Mahindra Bank launched its outward forex Department of Science and Technology and the
remittance service, Kotak Remit, it offers remittances in Ministry of Earth Sciences by ____ per cent.
how many currencies? A) 45
A) 12 B) 25
B) 10 C) 40
C) 15 D) 30
D) 08 E) 35
E) 06
12. Which of the following Ministry has unveiled the
Pilot Pey Jal Survekshan?
Page 65 of 77
A) Ministry of Education C) 10
B) Ministry of Agriculture D) 11
C) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs E) 12
D) Ministry of Jal Shakti
E) Ministry of Agriculture 16. Which company has announced its first device
manufacturing line in India?
13. Which of the following country has overtaken the A) Nokia
US and become the European Union's biggest trading B) Huawei

partner? C) Amazon
A) Israel D) Tesla
B) France E) Walmart
C) Germany
D) Japan 17. The Union Cabinet has approved a production-
E) China linked incentive scheme - telecom sector worth

_____crores.
14. Which of the following insurance provider has A) 11560
launched the corporate risk index? B) 12450
A) Max Life C) 13400
B) Apollo Munich D) 12300

C) ICICI Lombard E) 12195
D) Religare
E) Nippon 18. Facebook has blocked users from which country

from sharing or viewing news content?
15. How many states have successfully attained Ease A) US
of Doing Business reforms? B) Israel

A) 13 C) Australia
B) 15 D) Germany
Page 66 of 77
E) France 22. Which country has recently joined Russia-Iran’s

two-day naval exercise?
19. ‘Free Gift Milk to Girl Students of Sikkim’ initiative A) China
aims to provide _____mls of milk every day. B) India
A) 300 C) US
B) 100 D) France
C) 150 E) Germany
D) 200
E) 250 23. Indian Government has launched ______, a
Whatsapp Like Instant Messaging App For Government
20. Which company has signed an MoU with Indian Employs.

School of Mines? A) Indie-Message
A) BPCL B) Live India
B) ONGC C) Live Sandes

C) HPCL D) Sandes
D) ESSAR E) Message India
E) Reliance
24. Which of the following country has Passed an Anti-
21. Labour Minister Santosh Gangwar has launched radicalism Bill ?

applications for _____ pan-India surveys. A) China
A) 8 B) France
B) 7 C) Germany
C) 6 D) Sweden
D) 5 E) US
E) 4
25. India along with which country will work together for
peace, prosperity and security in Indo-Pacific region?
Page 67 of 77
A) Germany E) Australia
B) Sweden
C) US
D) China

1) Answer: D India will provide Nepalese Rupees(NR) 142 million to
Odisha government to construct ‘COVID Warrior Nepal for the restoration and conservation of three
Memorial’ at Biju Patnaik Park in Bhubaneswar in cultural heritage sites in the Kathmandu Valley.
recognition of the sacrifice & services rendered by The three sites are part of cultural heritage projects
COVID19 warriors who have lost their lives fighting the being taken up by India for post-earthquake
pandemic. conservation and restoration under an MoU signed
More than 60 Covid warriors including health workers in between the two countries.
Odisha have succumbed to coronavirus. 19. The projects are being implemented under USD 50
The state government plans to inaugurate the memorial million grant assistance committed by India for post-
on August 15 2021. earthquake reconstruction of the cultural heritage sites
Last year, Odisha chief minister Naveen Patnaik had across eight districts of Nepal.
announced that the martyr status would be accorded to The agreements were signed by the Project Director of
all health personnel and other support services who CLPIU (Building) of National Reconstruction Authority
succumbed to Covid19. and Contractors for conservation and retrofitting of Seto

The state government also announced ₹50 lakh ex- Machindranath Temple ( Total Cost - NRs 626 million ),
gratia to all health personnel (private and public) and construction of Dharamshala at Budhaneelkantha ( Total
members of all other support services who died of Cost NRs - 334 million ) and conservation and
Covid-19. development of Kumari Home in Lalitpur district ( Total
Cost NRs - 456 million ), according to a press release
2) Answer: B issued by the Indian Embassy.
Page 68 of 77
3) Answer: D The former European Central Bank chief Mario Draghi

The Lok Sabha passed the Arbitration and Conciliation has been sworn in as Italy’s prime minister at the head
(Amendment) Bill, 2021 by voice vote. of a unity government
The Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on February 4, Draghi,73 year old who formerly served as the head of
2021 by Law Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad. the European Central Bank.
It seeks to amend the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, Draghi's predecessor, Giuseppe Conte, resigned only
1996 so as to (i) enable automatic stay on awards in weeks ago after infighting among political groups over
certain cases and (ii) specify by regulations his handling of the pandemic.
Punjab has become the 13th State in the country to Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and
successfully undertake “One Nation One Ration Card MapmyIndia, the navigation solutions provider, have
system” reform. joined hands to offer an indigenous mapping solution to
The State has become eligible to mobilise additional take on Google Maps.
financial resources of one thousand five hundred and According to MapmyIndia CEO and Executive Director,
sixteen crore rupees through Open Market Borrowings. Rohan Verma, the services will combine the power of
12 other States which have completed this reform are the company’s digital maps and technologies with
Andhra Pradesh, Goa, Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, ISRO's catalogue of satellite imagery and earth
Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Telangana, Tamil observation data.

Nadu, Tripura and Uttar Pradesh. The collaboration will enable them to jointly identify and
The implementation of One Nation One Ration Card build a holistic geospatial portal utilising earth
System ensures availability of ration to beneficiaries observation datasets, 'NavIC', Web Services and APIs
under National Food Security Act and other welfare (application programming interface) available in
schemes at any Fair Price Shop across the country. MapmyIndia, ISRO said in a statement adding that the
geospatial portals will be called 'Bhuvan', 'VEDAS' and

5) Answer: B 'MOSDAC'.
Page 69 of 77
Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System also known For the first time, Kotak customers can conveniently
as NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation), is an transfer money internationally to their beneficiaries
indigenous navigation system, developed by ISRO. straight from their mobile.
Bhuvan is the national geo-portal developed and hosted Kotak Remit offers remittances in 15 currencies
by ISRO comprising geospatial data, services, and tools including the US dollar, Australian Dollar, UK Pound
for analysis. Sterling, Hong Kong Dollar, Saudi Riyal, Canadian
The collaboration will use ISRO’s database of satellite Dollar, Singapore Dollar, Euro, Japanese Yen.
images and MapmyIndia’s digital map platform to

develop the new app. 9) Answer: D
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constituted an eight-
7) Answer: D member expert committee on Urban Co-operative Banks

IIT Bombay launched its first-ever annual fundraising (UCBs) that is tasked with examining existing issues and
campaign in India, Cherish IIT Bombay 2021. providing a road map for strengthening the sector.
The funds will be used for the creation of world-class The panel will function under the chairmanship of former
laboratory complexes, modernization of lecture halls and RBI Governor N S Vishwanathan.
continuation of awards to attract and retain faculty. According to a statement from the RBI, the committee
Donations made to IIT Bombay by corporate bodies and will take stock of the regulatory measures taken by the
individuals are 100% tax-deductible under section 80G central bank and other authorities related to UCBs and
of the Indian Income Tax Act. assess their impact over the last five years.
The objective will be to identify key constraints and
8) Answer: C enablers.
Kotak Mahindra Bank launched its outward forex The primary job of the committee will be to “consider the
remittance service, Kotak Remit, hence allowing its need for differential regulations and examine prospects
users to directly send money abroad from their phones. to allow more leeway in permissible activities for UCBs
The feature is already live on the Kotak Mobile Banking with a view to enhance their resilience”.
App.
10) Answer: B
Page 70 of 77
The Kerala Bank has launched ATM demonstration vans The Minister informed that the National Research
to promote digital transactions. Foundation (NRF) will be an independent society and it
NABARD has sanctioned 10 vans for the Kerala Bank will build on existing national strengths in research and
from its financial inclusion fund. innovation. It will fill gaps in the current research and
Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan and Cooperation Minister education ecosystem to augment India’s research and
Kadakampally Surendran addressed the virtual launch. innovation achievements.
Cooperation Secretary Mini Antony and Registrar of
Cooperative Societies Geromic George flagged off the 12) Answer: C

two vans which have become operational. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs has launched a
The Kerala Bank’s project brochure was released by Pilot Pey Jal Survekshan under Jal Jeevan Mission-
Mini Antony by handing over a copy to Nabard chief Urban, JJM-U.

general manager P Balachandran. Secretary Housing and Urban Affairs Durga Shanker
NABARD chief general managers V Selvarajan and K C Mishra informed that it will be conducted in cities to
Sahadevan and CEO P S Rajan attended. ascertain equitable distribution of water, reuse of
wastewater and mapping of water bodies with respect to
11) Answer: D quantity and quality of water through a challenge
The Union Government has increased the budget of process.
Department of Science and Technology and Ministry of He said, as a first step, the Ministry has decided to
Earth Sciences by 30 per cent as compared to the launch the Survekshan in 10 cities- Agra, Badlapur,
revised estimate of 2020-21. Bhubaneswar, Churu, Kochi, Madurai, Patiala, Rohtak,
An allocation of Rs 16,695 crore has been given for the Surat and Tumkur.
two ministries which will add thrust to India's remarkable,

accelerated growth in the fields of Science and 13) Answer: E
Technology. China last year overtook the United States as the EU's
Rs 50 thousand crore have been allocated for the biggest trading partner, the EU statistics agency
National Research Foundation. Eurostat
Page 71 of 77
The European Union, was the third-largest trading The index showed that most of corporate India’s risk
partner for the bloc, behind China and the United States. management strategies are focused primarily on
Eurostat said the trade volume with China reached 586 operational and natural hazard risks, influenced by
billion euros ($711 billion) in 2020, compared to 555 COVID-19. It added that there is a scope for
billion euros ($673 billion) for the US. improvement in the way market, economic, technological
The agency said EU exports rose by 2.2 percent to and crime or security risks are being managed.
202.5 billion euros while at the same time, imports from
the People's Republic of China increased by 5.6 percent 15) Answer: B

to 383.5 billion euros. The number of states successfully completing the Ease
of Doing Business reforms has increased to 15.
14) Answer: C The Finance Ministry has said that three more states -
Private general insurer ICICI Lombard has launched the Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand have completed
‘Corporate India Risk Index’. This is intended to be a Ease of Doing Business reforms.
unified, standardised corporate risk index that spans On receipt of recommendation from the Department for
industries and companies. Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, the
Corporate risk index that uses a risk measurement tool Department of Expenditure has granted permission to
has been developed with the management consulting these three states to raise additional financial resources
firm Frost & Sullivan covering 150 top companies from of nine thousand 905 crore rupees through Open Market
its own investment portfolio across 15 key sectors, ICICI Borrowings.

Lombard chief executive Bhargav Dasgupta told The Ministry said, earlier, Andhra Pradesh, Assam,
reporters. Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala,
The insurer said that this will help companies Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Tamil
understand the level of risk that their business is facing Nadu and Telangana had also reported completion of
and also assist in developing a successful risk aversion this reform.
plan. It has worked with consulting firm Frost and On completion of reforms facilitating ease of doing
Sullivan to develop the risk measurement tool. business, these 15 states have been granted additional
borrowing permission of over 38 thousand crore rupees.
Page 72 of 77
Briefing reporters after the cabinet meeting, Electronic

16) Answer: C and IT Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad said, the
E-commerce giant Amazon has announced its plans to production-linked incentive worth Rs 12,195 Crore has
begin manufacturing devices in India. been cleared for the telecom sector.
This is the first Amazon manufacturing line in India and He said this will create 40 thousand direct and indirect
reiterates the firm’s commitment to the government’s employment.
“Make in India'' for an Atma Nirbhar Bharat. Production Linked Incentive Scheme intends to promote
Amazon will commence manufacturing with contract manufacture of Telecom and Networking Products in
manufacturer Cloud Network Technology, a subsidiary India and proposes a financial incentive to boost
of Foxconn, in Chennai, and start production later this domestic manufacturing and attract investments in the
year. target segments of telecom and networking products in

The programme will churn out hundreds of thousands of order to encourage make in India.
Fire TV Stick devices every year. Amazon will evaluate The scheme will also encourage exports of telecom and
scaling capacity to additional marketplaces and cities, networking products 'Made in India'.
depending on the domestic demand. Support under the Scheme will be provided to
In 2020 Amazon announced “Local Shops on Amazon”, companies and entities engaged in manufacturing of
a programme that retailers and local shops be self- specified telecom and networking products in India.
dependent, and benefit from selling online.
It now has over 22,000 neighbourhood stores registered 18) Answer: C

across the country, gathering additional footfalls through Facebook has blocked Australian users from sharing or
their online presence and furthering their earning viewing news content on the platform, causing alarm
potential by acting as pickup points, logistics partners, over public access to key information.
and experience centres for e-commerce. Australians woke up this morning to find the Facebook
pages of all local and global news sites were
17) Answer: E unavailable.

The Union Cabinet approved a production-linked Several government health, emergency and other pages
incentive scheme for the telecom sector. were also blocked.
Page 73 of 77
Later the tech giant asserted it was a mistake. research and development of various advanced CBM
Those outside of Australia are also unable to read or technological innovations indigenously.
access any Australian news publications on the platform. EOGEPL, an investee company of Essar Global Fund
Facebook's move is in response to a proposed law in Limited (EGFL), is one of India’s largest operators of
Australia which would make tech giants pay for news unconventional hydrocarbon acreages.
content. EGFL’s investments in EOGEPL are a part of its
portfolio of Essar Capital’s upstream business, which is
19) Answer: D increasingly focused on clean energy.

Sikkim Chief Minister P. S. Tamang launched the ‘Free As energy transitions happen in the world, CBM gas is
Gift Milk to Girl Students of Sikkim’ initiative at Gangtok. widely seen as the green fuel of this century.
The initiative will benefit around 1,500 students who

would be provided 200 mls of milk every day. 21) Answer: D
Mr Tamang called the initiative a step towards The importance of accurate data for policy making,
eradicating malnutrition and other health problems Labour Minister Santosh Gangwar launched software
among the young generation. applications for five pan-India surveys, including on
He said that the State Government is planning to extend migrant and domestic workers.
it on a larger scale. The minister also released instruction manuals with
He said that proper nutrition is the foundation of a questionnaires for the five pan-India surveys being
healthy mind and body, and this should be emphasized conducted by the Labour Bureau.
in educational institutions. These five surveys being undertaken by the Labour
Bureau are -- All-India Survey on Migrant workers, All-
20) Answer: D India Survey on Domestic Workers, All-India Survey on

Essar Oil and Gas Exploration and Production Ltd Employment Generated by Professionals, All-India
(EOGEPL), India’s leading Coal Bed Methane (CBM) Survey on Employment Generated in Transport Sector,
gas producer, said it has signed a Memorandum of and All-India Quarterly Establishment based
Understanding for collaboration with the prestigious IIT Employment Survey.
(Indian School of Mines), Dhanbad, to jointly work on
Page 74 of 77
The objectives of the all-India survey on employment Notably, this app is an upgrade to NIC's existing
generated by professionals are essentially two-fold, Government Instant Messaging System (GIMS) app.
firstly to estimate the total number of active While the Sandes app allows users to backup chat
professionals in the country and secondly to capture the histories to a registered email, it does not allow users to
employment generated by these professionals. change their mobile number or email address registered
with the app
22) Answer: B
India has joined Iran and Russia in a two-day navy 24) Answer: B
exercise dubbed "Iran-Russia Maritime Security Belt The French Parliament has approved an Anti-radicalism
2021" in the northern part of the Indian Ocean. Bill in a bid to fight the Islamic radicalism.
About the drill : The bill would strengthen oversight of mosques, schools
The drill will cover an area of 17,000 square kilometres and sports clubs to safeguard France from radical
(6,500 square miles). Islamists and ensure respect for French values, one of
It will include shooting at sea and air targets and President Emmanuel Macron’s landmark projects.
liberating hijacked ships, as well as search and rescue The vote in the lower house was the first critical hurdle
and anti-piracy operations, Al Jazeera reported. for the legislation that has been long in the making after
two weeks of intense debate. The bill passed 347 to 151
23) Answer: D with 65 abstentions.
The National Informatics Centre (NIC) of India has To adapt to the changes, the bill amends the French law
launched an instant messaging app just like WhatsApp of 1905 guaranteeing the separation of Church and
for government employees called Sandes. State.
The government is currently asking employees to use

the GIMS/Sandes app. There is still no word if this app 25) Answer: E
will ever be available for all users in the future. Prime Minister Narendra Modi spoke with Prime Minister
Just like WhatsApp, one can share images, videos, of Australia Scott Morrison.
voice messages, create groups on the app. Users can Mr. Modi said, both the countries reiterated their
also set up their profile pictures and status. commitment to consolidate Comprehensive Strategic
Page 75 of 77
Partnership and discussed regional issues of common

interest.
He said, India is looking forward to working together for
peace, prosperity and security in the Indo-Pacific region.
Page 76 of 77
Page 77 of 77
Page 1 of 77
Reasoning Ability
Direction (1-5): Study the following information 3) What is the position of point K with respect to
carefully and answer the below questions. point F?
“A @ B” means “A is south of B”. A.4√2m, south-west
“A % B” means “A is east of B”. B.6m, north
“A & B” means “A is north of B”. C.2√3m north-east
“A ^ B” means “A is west of B”. D.4m, West
Note:- “A 4@ B” means “A is 4m south of B”. E.None of these
Two persons are traveling from Point A to Point T.
Path of each person are given below. 4) Find the odd one.
Person 1: D 18& C 8% V, P 6% B, V 6& H 12^ W, A. DA
P 24@ A, D 10^ Q 4@ L, T 12% L. W 8& B. B. CW
Person 2: Y 36% M 16@ X, T 8& F, A 8^ Z 4@ K, X C. HB
24^ K, Y 16@ G 8% F. D. WP
1) Find the odd one. E. ZT
A. HW
B. MY 5) What is the distance between point P and point
C. DQ L?
D. AP A.32m
E. KF B.40m
C.36m
2) What is the position of point Z with respect to D.42m
point C? E.None of these
A.West
B.North-East Direction (06-10): In the following questions, the
C.South-West symbols #, %, @, and * are used with the following
D.East meanings as illustrated below. Study the following
E.None of these information and answer the given questions:
Page 2 of 77
Note The directions which are given indicated exact 8) What is the direction of P with respect to S?
directions. A. %@
P#Q - Q is in the south direction of P at a distance B. %*
of 5m. C. #*
P%Q - Q is in the north direction of P at a distance D. #
of 4m E. @
P@Q - Q is in the east direction of P at a distance
of 3m 9) If B@A, B#C, D*C, D%E true then which of the
P*Q - Q is in the west direction of P at a distance of following is false?
6m. A. A#@E
P#*Q- Q is in the southwest direction of P. B. C@%A
P%@Q- Q is in the northeast direction of P. C. B#@D
6) If F@C#B*D#E is true, then find the shortest D. D#@B
distance between E and F? E. A#@D
A.2√10m
B.√103m 10) What is the shortest distance between A and F
C.5√5m in the following conditions B*A, B%C, C@D, E%D,
D.√109 E@F?
E.None of these A. 11m
B. 12m
7) If K*L%M@N is true, then find the shortest
C. 13m
distance between N and K?
D. 14m
A.8m
E. 15m
B.5m
C.√14m
D.3√2 m
E.None of these
P#Q(18m) -> P is 20m north of Q
P? Q(11m) -> P is 16m south of Q
Page 3 of 77
P%Q(15m) -> P is 22m east of Q D. Southwest

P@Q(20m) ->P is 30m west of Q E. Northwest
P#M(20); O?E(34); G?J(2);
I#T(22); O@T(22); J@I(2); G%M(8) 15. What is the direction of O with respect to I?
11)What is the shortest distance between E and P? A. North
A.60 m B. South
B.10m C. Northeast
C.9m D. Southwest
D.8m E. Northwest
E.5m
12)What is the shortest distance between I and O?
A.40m
Eight persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are
B.18m
attending a meeting on the 12th, 17th, and 20th of
C.16m
July, August, and September of the same year, but
D.15m
not necessarily in the same order. No meeting was
E.10m
held on one of the dates. Not more than one person
attends the meeting on the same date of the same
13) Find the odd one.
month.
A. EM
G attends the meeting on a prime date and is two
B. PG
persons away from D’s meeting, which was held
C. JT
before G’s meeting. The date on which no meeting
D.OI
was held is on an odd date before D. Only three
E. GT
persons attend the meeting between E and C who
attends the meeting after G. E neither attends the
14) What is the direction of M with respect to T?
meeting first nor in the month having 30 days. H
A. North
and F attend the meeting in the same month
B. South
whereas B and H attend the meeting on the same
C. Northeast
Page 4 of 77
date. B doesn’t attend the meeting after the vacant A.E

date. B.H
16)Who among the following attends the meeting in C.D
August? D.G
A.B E.B
B.D
C.H 20) How many persons attend the meeting after A?
D.A A.As many persons attend before G
E.F B.Four
C.As many persons attend before E.
17)On Which of the following date and months was D.Two
no meeting held? E.One
A.17th August
B.12th August Direction (21-25): Answer the questions based on
C.17th July the information given below.
D.17th September Seven persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S attend the
E.Cannot be determined swimming classes on different days from Sunday to
Saturday in a week but not necessarily in the same
18) How many days are there between the meeting order. One person attends a class between Q and
of G and C? the one who attends class on Thursday. P doesn’t
A.27 attend class on Tuesday. Three persons attend
B.58 class between R and S, none of them attends class
C.30 immediately before or after Q. The one who attends
D.61 class immediately after R attends class two days
E.Cannot be determined before N. M attends class immediately before P.
21) Which of the following statements is true with
19) Who among the following attends the meeting respect to P?
on 12th September? A.P attends a class on Tuesday
Page 5 of 77
B.Only one person attends a class between P and D.N- Tuesday

R E.R- Sunday
C.P attends a class two days after S
D.P attends a class immediately before N 25) On which day does O attend a class?
E.None is true A.Friday
B.Tuesday
22) How many persons attend a class between Q C.Monday
and M? D.Wednesday
A.As many as between O and N. E.None of these
B.Three
C.As many as between R and the person attending Direction (26-30): Study the following information
class just after Q. carefully and answer the below questions.
D.One Nine movies namely – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X will
E.None of these be released in nine different months viz.- January,
February, April, May, June, August, September,
23) Who among the following person attends a November, and December. All the information is not
class immediately after S? necessary in the same order.
A.M V will be released in the month of 30 days before
B.The one who attends a class on Friday August. Two movies will be released between V
C.O and S, which is released three months before U.
D.Both (a) and (b) The number of movies released after U is the same
E.Both (b) and (c) as the number of movies released before P. One
movie will be released between P and X, which will
24)Which among the following combinations be released in the month of 31 days. The number of
doesn’t form a group? movies released between X and S is two less than
A.Q- Monday the number of the movies released between Q and
B.P- Friday T. Movie T will be released in any of the months
C.S- Wednesday
Page 6 of 77
before the release of movie X. At least two movies C.Two

were released between Q and W. D. As many as between S and P.
26) Movie X will be released in which of the E. Either C or D
following month?
A.January 30) Which of the following statement is/are not
B.November true?
C.June A.Two movies will be released between X and T.
D.April B.Movie R will be released just before U.
E.None of these C.One movie will be released between S and X.
D.Movie P will be released just after V.
27) Which of the following movie released just after E.All of the above statements are true.
U?
A.R Direction (31-35): Study the following information
B.X carefully and answer the below questions.
C.V Ten persons namely –Zoye, Madhu, Raj, Navya,
D.W Hema, Gogi, Abhi, Kajal, Parul, and Luv attend a
E.None of these birthday event in five different months viz.- January,
April, July, September, December. Birthday in each
28) How many movies released after R? month was scheduled on the 3rd and 4th of the
A.As many as before V. month. All the information is not necessary in the
B.Three same order.
C.As many as between P and U. The number of persons is attending a birthday after
D.Either A or B Zoye is the same as the number of persons is
E.None of these attending the birthday before Raj. Zoye attends
birthday two months after Madhu, who attends the
29) How many movies released between U and Q? birthday on an odd date. Raj and Luv attend the
A.Four birthday in the same month. The number of persons
B. As many as between W and R. is attending the birthday between Luv and Madhu is
Page 7 of 77
the same as the number of persons is attending the A.Zoye

birthday between Zoye and Parul. The number of B.Gogi
persons is attending the birthday between Gogi and C.Madhu
Raj is one less than the number of persons is D.Luv
attending the birthday between Kajal and Abhi. E.None of these
Gogi attends birthday three months before Parul,
who attends birthday in one of the months has 31 34) How many persons attending the birthday
days. Abhi attends birthday on the 4th of the month between Navya and Abhi?
but not in January. Kajal and Navya attend A.Four
birthdays in the same month. At least two persons B.As many as between Hema and Abhi.
attend the birthday between Hema and Zoye. C.Two
31)Who among the following person attends D.As many as between Luv and Kajal.
birthday on 4th of January? E.Either C or D
A.Kajal
B.Abhi 35)Which of the following statement is/are not true?
C.Gogi I). Luv attends the birthday just after Raj.
D.Navya II). Three persons attending the birthday between
E.None of these Zoye and Luv.
III). Zoye and Abhi attending the birthday in the
32) Who among the following person attends the same month.
birthday event along with Gogi in the same month? A.Only III
A.Abhi B.Only II and III
B.Zoye C.Only I and II
C.Hema D.Only I and III
D.Madhu E.None of these
E.None of these Direction (36-40): Answer the questions based on
33) Who among the following person attends the the information given below.
birthday just after Abhi?
Page 8 of 77
Lectures of ten professors P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, B.S

and Y are arranged one after the other in the same C.Y
week starting from Monday to Friday. There are two D.X
slots on each day i.e. 1st slot is the Morning slot and E.None of these
2nd slot is the Afternoon slot. All the information is
not necessarily in the same order. 38)How many days gap is there between the
P’s lecture is not on Monday, but P’s lecture is lectures of Y and R?
arranged three days before the W, who doesn’t A.1
have a lecture in the morning slot. The number of B.None
lectures arranged before S is as same as the C.2
number of lectures arranged after P. V and Q’s D.3
lecture is arranged on the same day. T’s lecture is E.Both have lectures on the same day
arranged on two days before V. Neither T nor V has
a lecture in the 2nd slot. U, whose lecture is 39)Which among the following doesn’t form a
arranged in the afternoon slot, has a lecture either group?
on Tuesday or Thursday. Y’s lecture is arranged A.P, Q
before R, but not before X. Y and X’s lecture is not B.Y, W
arranged on adjacent days. C.V, S
36) Which among the following pairs of professors D.Y, Q
have lectures on the same day? E.T, U
A.Y, P
B.S, U 40) Which among the following is not true with
C.Y, S respect to Q?
D.T, W A.Q and V has a lecture on the same day
E.None of these B.Q has a lecture one day before Y
37)Who among the following has a lecture on the C.U has a lecture one day after Q
afternoon slot of Thursday? D.Both (a) and (b)
A.U E.Both (b) and (c)
Page 9 of 77
42)In which of the following month Netflix was rated

Direction (41-45): Answer the questions based on the top?
the information given below. A.January
Eights applications viz. Amazon, Hotstar, Netflix, B.June
Sunnxt, Voot, Xstream, Youtube, and Zee5 are C.July
rated the top in different months from January to D.March
August, but not necessarily in the same order. E.None of these
Hotstar was not rated in any of the months having
43)If Xstream is related to Voot and Zee5 is related
31 days. Voot was rated the top two months after
to Amazon in a certain way, then which of the
Hotstar was rated the top. Only three months were
following application is related to Sunnxt?
there between the months in which Voot and Zee5
A.Netflix
were rated the top. Netflix was rated the top
B.You tube
immediately before the month in which Zee5 was
C.Hotstar
rated the top but not in January. The number of
D.Xstream
months before Netflix was rated the top is one less
E.None of these
than the number of months after Amazon was rated
the top. Only one application was rated the top
44)How many months are there between the
between Amazon and Sunnxt. Xstream was rated
months in which Xstream and Amazon rated the
the top in the month having31 days but not
top?
afterSunnxt.
A.One
41)Which of the following application was rated the
B.Two
top in February?
C.Three
A.Hotstar
D.More than three
B.Zee5
E.None of these
C.You tube
45)Four of the following five are alike in a certain
D.Netflix
E.None of these
doesn't belong to that group.
A.Zee5
Page 10 of 77
B.Amazon A.S
C.Sunnxt B.The one who visits the Sanctuary on Wednesday
D.Voot C.V
E.Netflix D.The one who visits the Sanctuary on Monday
E.None of these
the information given below. 48) Which of the following statements is true with
Seven persons visit a Sanctuary one after the other respect to Q?
in a week starting from Monday to Sunday. Two A.Q visits the Sanctuary on Tuesday
persons visit a Sanctuary between T and the one B.Only two persons visit the Sanctuary between Q
who visits the Sanctuary on Thursday. S visits a and S
Sanctuary two days after the one who visits a C.V visits the Sanctuary immediately after Q
Sanctuary on Wednesday. The number of persons D.Q visits the Sanctuary immediately before T
is visiting the Sanctuary before Q is as same as the E.None is true
number of persons is visiting the Sanctuary after R.
Q doesn’t visit the Sanctuary immediately before or 49) On which of the following day, does U visit the
after U. V visits Sanctuary before P, but not before Sanctuary?
U. Not more than two persons visit the Sanctuary A.Sunday
between U and P. B.Tuesday
46)How many persons visit the Sanctuary between C.Monday
V and T? D.Wednesday
A.One E.None of these
B.Three
C.Two 50) Which among the following combinations
D.Four doesn’t form a group?
E.None of these A.R- Wednesday
B.P- Friday
47)Who visits the Sanctuary immediately before R? C.V- Thursday
Page 11 of 77
D.S- Sunday A.No one

E.U- Tuesday B.One
C.Two
Direction (51-55): Study the following information D.Three
carefully and answer the below questions E.More than Three
Eight hostel students- M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, and T
53)How many persons are between the one who
are visiting their homes on different dates -07, 09,
visits immediately before P and immediately after
11, 14, 18, 22, 25, 28, and 30 of May in the same
N?
year but not necessarily in the same order. No one
A.Five
visited on one of the dates.
B.Four
Q is visiting on a prime numbered date. O is visiting
C.Three
immediately before M, but adjacent to neither Q nor
D.Six
R. The number of given dates before Q is the same
E.None of these
as after S. R is visiting on a date which is ten days
before N. The number of persons is visiting after P
54)Which of the following combination is false?
is the same as the number of persons is visiting
A.S-25
before the one who is visiting immediately before T.
B.P-22
51)On Which of the following date is T visited
C.M-09
home?
D.N-28
A.11
E.T-7
B.14
C.18 55)How many persons are visited after T?
D.09 A.3
E.None of the above B.4
C.5
52)If the persons are arranged in alphabetical order
D.6
from May 7th then how many persons are
E.None of the above
unchanged in their position?
Page 12 of 77
Direction (56-60): Answer the questions based on A.One

the information given below. B.Two
Interviews of eight different persons are scheduled C.Four
on regular days from Wednesday. No interviews are D.Three
scheduled on Saturday and Sunday. A is one of the E.None of these
persons.
The one whose interview is scheduled three 58) Who among the following attends the interview
persons before E is scheduled immediately after H. two days before C?
Both E and H have an interview on neither Monday A.G
nor Tuesday. The number of persons has an B.H
interview before G is as same as the number of C.A
persons has an interview after D. G doesn’t have an D.F
interview immediately before or immediately after D. E.None of these
More than four persons have an interview before C.
Two persons have an interview between F and B. 59)Which among the following combinations
Neither G nor C has an interview immediately doesn’t form a group?
before or immediately after B. A.C- Friday
56) Who among the following has an interview on B.D- Friday
Thursday? C.E- Thursday
A.B D.F- Thursday
B.H E.H- Tuesday
C.E
D.Both (a) and (b) 60) How many interviews are scheduled before E?
E.Both (a) and (c) A.Five
B.Four
57) How many interviews are scheduled between H C.Three
and the one who has an interview on Wednesday D.Six
after H? E.None of these
Page 13 of 77
62)Four of the following five are alike in a certain

Direction (61-65): Study the following information way and hence form a group. Which among the
carefully and answer the below questions following does not belong to the group?
Eight products- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W are A.The product which got the tag in January
getting the Geographical Indication(GI) tag in B.The product which got tag immediately after Q
different months of the same year i.e. January, C.T
March, April, June, July, September, October, and D.The product which got tag immediately before R
November but not necessarily in the same order. E.S
Product U got GI tag in the month which has an odd
63)Which of the following statement is/are true?
number of days. U got the GI tag after June. Only
A.Product S got the tag in November
two products are getting the GI tag between U and
B.Product P got tag two months after T
R. S got the GI tag before T. The number of
C.Only one product got a tag between V and T
products is getting tag before U is the same as after
D.Product Q got tag immediately before U
Q. V got the GI tag three months after product P but
E.None of these
not in July ( for example: If P got the tag in May
then V must get the tag in August). Neither S nor V
64)Which of the following product got GI tag exactly
gets the tag in September. W does not get the tag
between S and T?
in the month which has an even number of days.
A.Q
61)In which of the following month does product V
B.U
gets the GI tag?
C.P
A.November
D.Both (a) and (e)
B.October
E.The product which got immediately before U
C.September
65)How many Products are getting the GI tag after
D.April
Q?
E.January
A.Five
B.Two
C.Four
D.One
Page 14 of 77
E.None of these
Directions (1-5):
We have: The path for Person 2:

Path of person 1: • A 8^ Z 4@ K: A is 8m west of Z and Z is 4m
• P 24@ A: P is 24m south of A. south of K.
• P 6% B: P is 6m east of B. • X 24^ K: X is 24m west of K.
• W 8&B: W is 8m north of B. • Y 36% M 16@ X: Y is 36m east of M and M
• V 6& H 12^ W: V is 6m north of H and H is is 16m south of X.
12m west of W. • Y 16@ G 8% F: Y is 16m south of G and G
• D 18& C 8% V: D is 18m north of C and C is is 8m east of F.
8m east of V. • T 8& F: T is 8m north of F.
• D 10^ Q 4@ L: D is 10m west of Q and Q is Based on the above-given information we have:
4m south of L.
• T 12% L: T is 12m east of L.
Page 15 of 77
NK= √32 + 42 =5m
8) Answer: B
1) Answer: D
2) Answer: B
3) Answer: D
4) Answer: E
5) Answer: C
9) Answer: D
Directions (6-10):
6) Answer: D
EF= √32 + 102 =√109m 10) Answer: B
7) Answer: B
Page 16 of 77
13) Answer: D
14) Answer: E
15) Answer: D
Directions (16-20):
Directions (11-15):
P#Q(18m)-> P is 20m north of Q->18+2=20->+2
P?Q(11m) -> P is 16m south of Q->11+5=16->+5
P%Q(15m) -> P is 22m east of Q->15+7=22->+7
1. G attends the meeting on a prime date and is
P@Q(20m) -> P is 30m west of Q->20+10->30-
two persons away from D’s meeting, which was
>+10
held before G’s meeting.
Here we add 2, 5, 7, 10 to the value of a new
2. The date on which no meeting was held is on
sequence of questions.
an odd date before D.
3. Only three persons attend the meeting between

E and C who attends the meeting after G.
11) Answer: E 4. E neither attends the meeting first nor in the
12) Answer: A month having 30 days.
242+322=(OI)2
√(242+322)=√1600=40m
Page 17 of 77
16) Answer: D
17) Answer: C
18) Answer: C
19) Answer: B
20) Answer: A
Directions (21-25):
• Seven persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S attend
the swimming classes on different days from
Sunday to Saturday in a week.
5. H and F attend the meeting in the same month • One person attends a class between Q and the
whereas B and H attend the meeting on the same one who attends class on Thursday.
date. B doesn’t attend the meeting after the vacant • Three persons attend class between R and S,
date. none of them attends class immediately before
or after Q.
• The one who attends a class immediately
after R attends class two days before N.
Page 18 of 77
• M attends class immediately before P.

• P doesn’t attend a class on Tuesday.
• Two movies will be released between V and S,

21) Answer: C
which is released three months before U.
22) Answer: C
That means, in case (1) U will be released in
23) Answer: D
November, in case (2) U will be released in May.
24) Answer: E
25) Answer: C
Directions (26-30):
We have:
• V will be released in the month of 30 days
before August.
That means, in case (1) V will be released in April,
in case (2) V will be released in June.
Page 19 of 77
• The number of movies released after U is the That means, movie T will be released in January,
same as the number of movies released and movie W will be released in December.
before P. Based on the above-given information we have:
• One movie will be released between P and
X, which will be released in the month of 31
days.
That means, in case (1) X will be released in May,
case (2) is not valid.
26) Answer: E
27) Answer: D
28) Answer: A
29) Answer: C
30) Answer: D
• The number of movies released between X Directions (31-35):

and S is two less than the number of the We have:
movie released between Q and T. • Zoye attends birthday two months after
• Movie T will be released in any of the months Madhu, who attends the birthday on an odd
before the release of movie X. date.
• At least two movies were released between
Q and W.
Page 20 of 77
That means, in case (1) Zoye attends birthday on • Gogi attends birthday three months before
3rd September, in case (2) Zoye attends birthday on Parul, who attends birthday in one of the
4th September. months has 31 days.
• The number of persons is attending the
birthday between Gogi and Raj is one less
than the number of persons is attending the
birthday between Kajal and Abhi.
• Abhi attends birthday on the 4th of the month
but not in January.
That means, in case (1) & case (2) Kajal attends
birthday on 3rdJaunuary.

birthday after Zoye is the same as the
number of persons is attending the birthday
before Raj.
• Raj and Luv attend the birthday in the same
month.
• Kajal and Navya attend birthday in the same
birthday between Luv and Madhu is the
month.
same as the number of persons is attending
the birthday between Zoye and Parul.
Page 21 of 77
• At least two persons attending the birthday Directions (36-40):

between Hema and Zoye. • P’s lecture is not on Monday, but P’s lecture
That means, case (2) is not valid. is arranged three days before the W, who
Based on the above given information we have: doesn’t have a lecture in the morning slot.
• The number of lectures arranged before S is
as same as the number of lectures arranged
after P.
• V and Q’s lecture is arranged on the same
day.
• T’s lecture is arranged two days before V.
• Neither T nor V has a lecture in the 2nd Slot
• U, whose lecture is arranged in the afternoon
slot, has a lecture either on Tuesday or
Thursday.
• Y’s lecture is arranged before R, but not
before X.
Case (2) is not valid as At least two persons

attending the birthday between Hema and Zoye.
31) Answer: D
32) Answer: B
33) Answer: A
34) Answer: B • Y and X’s lecture is not arranged on adjacent
35) Answer: D days.
Page 22 of 77
were there between the months in which Voot and

Zee5 were rated the top.
36) Answer: C
37) Answer: B
38) Answer: B
39) Answer: D
40) Answer: C 2. Netflix was rated the top immediately before the
month in which Zee5 was rated the top but not in
Directions (41-45): January. The number of months before Netflix was

rated the top is one less than the number of months
after Amazon was rated the top. Hence, case 2 gets
eliminated.
1. Hotstar was not rated in any of the months

having 31 days. Voot was rated the top two months
after Hotstar was rated the top. Only three months
Page 23 of 77
44) Answer: C
45) Answer: A
Directions (46-50):
• Seven persons visit a Sanctuary one after
the other in a week starting from Monday to
Sunday.
• Two persons visit the Sanctuary between T
and the one who visits the Sanctuary on
Thursday.
• S visits the Sanctuary two days after the one
3. Only one application was rated the top between
who visits the Sanctuary on Wednesday.
Amazon and Sunnxt. Xstream was rated the top in
• The number of persons is visiting the
the month having31 days and not afterSunnxt.
Sanctuary before Q is as same as the
number of persons is visiting the Sanctuary
after R.
41) Answer: C
42) Answer: D
43) Answer: B • Q doesn’t visit the Sanctuary immediately
before or after U.
Page 24 of 77
• V visits Sanctuary before P, but not before U. 49) Answer: C

50) Answer: D
Directions (51-55):
• Not more than two persons visit a Sanctuary

between U and P.
Q is visiting on a prime number date.
The number of given dates before Q is the same as
after S.
possibilities
46) Answer: B
47) Answer: D
48) Answer: D
Page 25 of 77

R is visiting on a date which is ten days before N.

O is visiting immediately before M, but adjacent to
neither Q nor R. 51) Answer: B
52) Answer: B
53) Answer: C
54) Answer: E
55) Answer: B
Directions (56-60):
• The one whose interview is scheduled three
persons before E is scheduled immediately
after H.
• Both E and H have an interview on neither
Monday nor Tuesday.
The number of persons is visiting after P is the • The number of persons has an interview
same as the number of persons is visiting before before G is as same as the number of
the one who is visiting immediately before T. persons has an interview after D.
Page 26 of 77
• G doesn’t have an interview immediately

before or immediately after D.
• More than four persons have an interview
before C.
56) Answer: E
57) Answer: B
58) Answer: C
59) Answer: C
60) Answer: D
• Two persons have an interview between F
and B.
Directions (61-65):
• Neither G nor C has an interview
immediately before or immediately after B. A
is one of the persons.
Page 27 of 77
Product U got GI tag in the month which has an odd

number of days.
U got the GI tag after June.
Only two products are getting the GI tag between U
and R.
possibilities.
W does not get the tag in the month which has an

even number of days.
Neither S nor V gets the tag in September
S got the GI tag before T.
From the above condition, case1 and case2 get
eliminated. case1a shows the final arrangement.
The number of products is getting before U is the

same as after Q.V got the GI tag three months after
product P but not in July.
61) Answer: D
62) Answer: C
Page 28 of 77
63) Answer: D
64) Answer: D
65) Answer: C
1) Shon invested Rs.x in scheme A which offers C) 40%

simple interest at 15% per annum for 4 years. He D) 50%
also invests Rs.(x + 1000) in scheme B which offer E) None of these
compound interest at 10% per annum for 2 years
3) A invests Rs.4800 at simple interest scheme at
and after 2 years he received the compound
x % per annum for 4 years and after 4 years he
interest is Rs.714. How much amount of interest
received the total amount is Rs.7680. If B invests
received by Shon in scheme A?
same amount at simple interest scheme at (x + 3)
A) Rs.1280
% per annum for 5 years, find the interest amount
B) Rs.1370
received by B?
C) Rs.1440
A) Rs.2340
D) Rs.1320
B) Rs.5430
E) None of these
C) Rs.4320
2) Sam invests Rs.7000 at the compound interest D) Rs.2880
scheme at x% per annum for 6 years and Rahul E) None of these
invests same amount on same scheme at the
4) Surya invests certain amount in scheme A and
same rate of interest for three years. If the end of
B which offer simple and compound interest
the scheme ratio of the amount received by Sam to
respectively for 6 years and 2 years respectively at
Rahul is 27:8, find the rate of interest per annum?
the rate of 15% per annum and 10% per annum
A) 20%
respectively. If the ratio of the interest received by
B) 30%
Surya from A and B is 30: 7, then find the sum?
Page 29 of 77
A) Rs.5000 E) None of these

B) Rs.7000
7) Gopi invests Rs.4400 in a bank in simple
C) Rs.4000
interest at 12% per annum for n years and
D) Cannot be determined
Chandra invests Rs.5400 in the same bank in
E) None of these
simple interest at (n + 8)% per annum for 2 years.
5) Rosy invests Rs.4000 in AB bank which offers If Gopi received the interest which is Rs.816 more
simple interest at the rate of 15% per annum for x than the interest received by Chandra, find the
years and she also invests Rs.2000 in XY bank value of n.
which offer simple interest at the rate of x% per A) 1
annum for 4 years. If Rosy received the total B) 2
interest amount from both banks is Rs.5440, then C) 3
find the value of x? D) 4
A) 8 E) None of these
B) 10
8) Ramya invested Rs.(x + 2000) in simple interest
C) 2
scheme at the rate of 15% per annum for 3 years.
D) 14
If the amount received by Ramya after 3 years is
E) None of these
Rs.(x + 5375), then find the value of x?
6) Anu borrows certain amount at the simple A) Rs.4500
interest of 10% per annum for 4 years and the B) Rs.5000
same amount invests in scheme A which offers C) Rs.5500
compound interest at 20% per annum for 2 years. D) Rs.6000
If the difference between simple and compound E) None of these
interest is Rs.480, find the sum?
9) Ajay has some money to invest in SI. He
A) Rs.12000
invested 25% of money in scheme P for 2 year at
B) Rs.15000
8% per annum, 30% of amount in scheme Q for 4
C)Rs.18000
year at 5% per annum and remaining in scheme R
D)Rs.20000
Page 30 of 77
for 2 year at 10% per annum. If total amount from E) Rs. 15216
all schemes he received is Rs. 18,326, then find
12) Yashika invests Rs.x on simple interest
the difference of sum invested in scheme P and Q.
scheme at the rate of y% per annum for y years. If
A) Rs. 880
she received the interest amount after y years is
B) Rs. 825
25% of the initial investment of Yashika and Yamini
C) Rs. 770
invests Rs.6000 on simple interest at the rate of
D) Rs. 810
12% per annum for y years, then what is the
E) None of these
interest amount received by yamini after y years?
10) The difference between the Simple Interest A) Rs.3200
and Compound Interest incurred on an amount of B) Rs.3000
Rs.1200 in 2 years was Rs.5.88. Find the rate of C) Rs.3600
interest. D) Cannot be determined
A) 7% E) None of these
B) 8%
C) 9% 13) Ram invested Rs.x at simple interest at the
D) 10% rate of 12% per annum for 5 years and Sam
E) None of these invested Rs.(x + 1000) at compound interest rate
of 10% per annum for two years. If Ram received
11) Amar invested some amount at 15% rate of
the interest amount is Rs.1350 more than that of
compound interest for two years. After 2 years he
Sam, then find the value of x.
invested 60% of compound interest again at 8%
A) Rs.4000
per annum simple interest for Five years. The
B) Rs.3000
simple interest received by him is Rs. 1170 then
C) Rs.5000
find the approx. initial investment of Amar?
D) Rs.6000
A) Rs. 15120
E) None of these
B) Rs. 15116
C) Rs. 15125 14) A, invested Rs. 1, 20,000 and B invested Rs. 1,
D) Rs. 15220 60,000 under Simple interest and compound
Page 31 of 77
interest for 5 years and 2 years respectively. The invests Rs.y on simple interest scheme at the rate
ratio of rate of interest under CI and SI is 3:2 of 12% per annum for 2 years. If the ratio of the
respectively. Find the total interest earned by A, if total amount received by Tarun to Rani at the end
rate of interest under CI is 12% per annum of scheme is 1:1, the initial amount invests by
compounded annually. Tarun is what percent of the amount invests by
A) Rs. 88604 Rani?
B) Rs. 89704 A) 78.85%
C) Rs. 88704 B) 80.45%
D) Rs. 88504 C) 83.78%
E) None of these D) 85.58%
E) 77.78%
15) Tarun invests Rs.x on simple interest scheme
at the rate of 16% per annum for 3 years and Rani
Following Radar graph shows the total number of balls in 5 different bags and the blue balls in them.
Page 32 of 77
17) Find the ratio of sum of Red color balls in A

16) Find the difference between the average
and D together to the pink color balls in same
number of balls in the bag A, B and C to the
bags, if the bags have only three color balls and
average number of balls other than the blue colour
the ratio of pink and red color balls in the bags A
in the bag B, D and E.
and D is 13: 7 and 4: 11 respectively.
A) 25
A) 17: 18
B) 15
B) 18: 17
C) 50
C) 8: 7
D) 150
D) 7: 8
E) 75
E) 5: 4
18) The bags have only three color balls. The red
color balls in the bags B and C is what percentage
Page 33 of 77
of number of blue balls in the bag D, if the grey and E) 60%

red color balls in the bag B and C is in the ratio 3: 2
and 4: 3 respectively? Directions (21-25): Study the following information
A) 50% carefully and answer the given questions?
B) 45% The following radar graph shows the total number
C) 60% of students studied in two different schools in 6
D) 80% different years.
E) 90%
19) The bags have only three color balls. If the

ratio of yellow color balls and pink color balls in the
bags is 3: 2, find the average difference between
them.
A) 5
B) 4 21) Find the difference between the total number of
C) 8 students studied in School P in the year 2013 and
D) 6 2015 together to that of total number of students
E) 9 studied in School Q in the year 2014 and 2017
together?
20) Total number of blue balls in all the bags
A) 200
together is approximately what percentage of total
B) 250
balls in all the bags together?
C) 150
A) 40%
D) 300
B) 45%
E) None of these
C) 35%
D) 50%
Page 34 of 77
22) Find the average number of students studied in B) 144 %

School P in all the given years together? C) 162 %
D) 106 %
A) 1700
E) 128 %
B) 1400
C) 1250
D) 1350
25) Find the difference between the average
E) None of these
number of students studied in School P in the year
2013, 2015 and 2018 together to that of the
average number of students studied in School Q in
23) Find the ratio between the total numbers of
the year 2013, 2014 and 2017 together?
students studied in School Q in 2013 to that of total
number of students studied in School P in 2016? A) 200
B) 300
A) 1 : 3
C) 250
B) 5 : 7
D) 100
C) 4 : 5
E) None of these
D) 9 : 11
E) None of these
carefully and answer the questions given below.
The graph shows the income of various aviation
24) Total number of students studied in School Q companies (in crore) in different year.
in the year 2015 and 2016 together is Number of passengers = Income/(fare per
approximately what percentage of total number of passenger)
students studied in School P in the year 2014 and
2018 together?
A) 115 %
Page 35 of 77
E) None of these
28) The fare of Jet Airways is 10% more than that

of Kingfisher. If the fare of Kingfisher is Rs 7000
per passenger in 2014, then what is the total
number of passenger of Jet Airways in the year
2014?
A) 29574
B) 23974
C) 25974
26) If the fare per passengers of Indigo is Rs 5000 D) 24974
in 2013 and that of Air India is Rs 4000 in 2010 for E) None of these
all classes of passengers, then what is the ratio of
the number of passengers of Indigo in the year 29) Which aviation company carried the maximum
2013 to that of Air India in the year 2010? number of passengers during the given year (2009
A) 7:25 to 2014)?
B) 2:25 A) Jet Airways
C) 3:25 B) Cannot be determined
D) 4:25 C) Kingfisher
E) None of these D) Indigo
E) Air India
27) The total income of Indigo is what percent of
the total income of Jet Airways from the year 2012 30) In which year, the total income of all aviation
to 2014? companies together is maximum?
A) 110% A) 2009
B) 120% B) 2011
C) 125% C) 2012
D) 100% D) 2014
Page 36 of 77
E) None of these
32) What is the difference between the total

Directions (31-35): Study the following information number of children had injected Dengue and
carefully and answer the questions given below. Covid19 vaccines in Bihar and Manipur together
The given radar graph shows two different and the number of children had injected Covid19
vaccines given to the number of children(in ‘00s) in vaccine in Tamilnadu and Assam together?
five different states.
A) 7000
B) 6000
C) 9000
D) 8000
E) 5000
33) The number of children had injected Covid19

vaccine in Kerala and Manipur together is
approximately what percent of the number of
31) What is the ratio of the Dengue vaccine given children had injected Covid19 vaccine in all the
to thenumber of children in Tamilnadu and Bihar states together?
together to the Covid19 vaccine given to the
A) 35%
number of children in Assam and Kerala?
B) 38%
A) 16:23 C) 40%
B) 32:45 D) 43%
C) 31:44 E) 46%
D) 16:19
E) None of these
Page 37 of 77
34) What is the average number of children had 36) 80% of 420 + (64 ÷ 136) * (17 ÷ √16) +? = 15
injected Dengue vaccine in all the states together? * 25
A) 33
A) 3250
B) 36
B) 3380
C) 34
C) 3560
D) 37
D) 3760
E) 38
E) 3830
37) [(0.7)43 ÷ (0.49)18]* (0.343) = (0.7)?

A) 8
35) The number of children had injected Dengue B) 10
vaccine in Delhi is 35% more than the number of C) 12
children had injected Covid19 vaccine in Bihar and D) 14
the number of children had injected Covid19 E) 17
vaccine in Delhi is 25% more than the number of
children had injected Dengue vaccine in 38) 35 % of 360 + (864 ÷ 48) * (32 ÷ √64)= ?
Tamilnadu. Find the number of children had A) 210
injected Dengue and Covid19 vaccine in Delhi? B) 208
C) 198
A) 10170
D) 188
B) 10190
E) 176
C) 11080
D) 11100
39) 8800 ÷ √484 + ? + 12 * 15 = 160% of 360
E) 11050
A) -2
B) -4
Directions (36-45): What value should come in
C) -3
D) -6
E) -1
Page 38 of 77
40 ) ?2 + (1500% of 25) = (25)2 – (15)2 44) 35% of 120 + 60% of 650 + 150% of 90=?
A) 2 A) 456
B) 7 B) 567
C) 9 C) 678
D) 6 D) 789
E) 5 E) 345
41) 320% of 720 + ? + 220% of 580 = 750% of 620 45) (3/8) * (296 – (32 * 4)) = ? * 9
A) 1170 A) 3
B) 1090 B) 7
C) 1110 C) 9
D) 1070 D) 1
E) 1105 E) 0
42) 126 ÷ √49 + ? * 12 = 75 % of 320 + 15 * 2 Directions (46-55): What will come in place of
A) 21 question-mark (?) in the following question?
B) 18 46) 51975, 9450, 2100, 600, 240, 160, ?
C) 20 A) 80
D) 24 B) 120
E) 15 C) 320
D) 240
43) 30 % of 360 + 75% of 80 + 83.33 % of 240 = ? E) None of these
A) 388
B) 368 47) 73, 100, 131, 178, 289, ?
C) 378 A) 472
D) 358 B) 536
E) 348 C) 618
D) 656
Page 39 of 77
E) 828 B) 348
C) 420
48) 3390, 2758, ?, 1740, 1342 D) 465
A) 1018 E) 528
B) 2208
C) 2210 52) 36, 86, 186, 236, ?
D) 1902 A) 432
E) None of these B) 436
C) 631
D) 721
49) 372, 368, 358, 330, 248, ?
E) 731
A) 12
53) 1260, 210, 42, 10.5, 3.5,?
B) 56
A) 1.75
C) 4
B) 1.25
D) 78
C) 2.25
E) 30
D) 1.60
E) 2.75
50) 9, 35, 138, 549, 2192, 8763, ?
54) 1560, 1640, 1722, 1806, 1892, ?
A) 35046
A) 1920
B) 46430
B) 1940
C) 34650
C) 1970
D) 42850
D) 1980
E) 26780
E) 1960
51) 124, 62, 62, 93, 186,?

55) 6, 20, 90, 440, 2190, ?
A) 284
A) 10940
Page 40 of 77
B) 64839 49) 372, 368, 358, 330, 248, ?

C) 96900
A) 12
D) 65900
B) 56
E) None of these
C) 4
D) 78
Directions (46-55): What will come in place of
E) 30
question-mark (?) in the following question?
46) 51975, 9450, 2100, 600, 240, 160, ?
A) 80
50) 9, 35, 138, 549, 2192, 8763, ?
B) 120
C) 320 A) 35046
D) 240 B) 46430
E) None of these C) 34650
D) 42850
47) 73, 100, 131, 178, 289, ? E) 26780
A) 472
B) 536 51) 124, 62, 62, 93, 186,?
C) 618 A) 284
D) 656 B) 348
E) 828 C) 420
D) 465
48) 3390, 2758, ?, 1740, 1342 E) 528
A) 1018
B) 2208 52) 36, 86, 186, 236, ?
C) 2210 A) 432
D) 1902 B) 436
E) None of these C) 631
D) 721
Page 41 of 77
E) 731 I: x2 + 13x + 36 = 0
II: y2 + 15y + 56 = 0
53) 1260, 210, 42, 10.5, 3.5,? A) x > y
A) 1.75 B) x ≥ y
B) 1.25 C) x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
C) 2.25 D) x < y
D) 1.60 E) x ≤ y
E) 2.75
57)
54) 1560, 1640, 1722, 1806, 1892, ? I) x2 – 15x + 56 = 0
A) 1920 II) y2 – 19y + 90 = 0
B) 1940 A) x > y
C) 1970 B) x ≥ y
D) 1980 C) x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
E) 1960 D) x < y
E) x ≤ y
55) 6, 20, 90, 440, 2190, ?
A) 10940 58)
B) 64839 I: 6x2 + x – 2 = 0
C) 96900 II: 3y2 – 11y + 6 = 0
D) 65900 A) If x < y
E) None of these B) If x > y
C) If x ≤ y
Directions (56-70): Following question contains two D) If x ≥ y
equations as I and II. You have to solve both E) If relationship between x and y cannot be
equations and determine the relationship between determined
them and give answer as,
56) 59)
Page 42 of 77
I: 6x2 + 13x + 6 = 0
II: 3y2 – 8y + 4 = 0 62)
A) If x < y I: 2x2 – 17x + 36 = 0
B) If x > y II: 2y2 – 11y + 12 = 0
C) If x ≤ y A) If x < y
D) If x ≥ y B) If x > y
E) If relationship between x and y cannot be C) If x ≤ y
determined D) If x ≥ y
E) If relationship between x and y cannot be
60) determined
I: 3x2 – 14x + 8 = 0
II: 3y2 – 20y + 12 = 0 63)
A) If x < y I: 2x2 + 39x + 175 = 0
B) If x > y II: 2y2 + 45y + 243 = 0
C) If x ≤ y A) x > y
D) If x ≥ y B) x ≥ y
E) If relationship between x and y cannot be C) x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
determined D) x < y
E) x ≤ y
61)
I: 2x2 – 7x + 3 = 0 64)
II: 4y2 + 13y + 10 = 0 I: 43x2 – 34x – 9 = 0
A) If x < y II: 3y2 + 21y + 18 = 0
B) If x > y A) x > y
C) If x ≤ y B) x ≥ y
D) If x ≥ y C) x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
E) If relationship between x and y cannot be D) x < y
determined E) x ≤ y
Page 43 of 77
68)
65) I: 2x2 + 23x + 63 = 0
I: (x + 3)! = 12(x + 1)! II: 5y2 + 17y + 14 = 0
II: 2y! = (y + 1)! A) If x < y
A) x > y B) If x > y
B) x ≥ y C) If x ≤ y
C) x = y or relationship can’t be determined. D) If x ≥ y
D) x < y E) If relationship between x and y cannot be
E) x ≤ y determined
66) 69)
I: 18/√x = (4√x) + (13/√x) I: 4x2 + 19x + 21 = 0
II: 3√y + 16/√y = 22/√y II: 3y2 + 19y + 30 = 0
A) x > y A) If x < y
B) x ≥ y B) If x > y
C) x = y or relationship can’t be determined. C) If x ≤ y
D) x < y D) If x ≥ y
E) x ≤ y E) If relationship between x and y cannot be
determine
67)
I: x / 32 * 31 = 155/x * 1/10 70)
II: 8/√y + 3x√y = 4√y I: 6x2 + 29x + 35 = 0
A) x > y II: 2y2 - 17y + 36 = 0
B) x ≥ y A) If x < y
C) x = y or relationship can’t be determined. B) If x > y
D) x< y C) If x ≤ y
E) x ≤ y D) If x ≥ y
Page 44 of 77
E) If relationship between x and y cannot be determined
1) Answer: C SI received by B = 4800 * (15 + 3) * 5/100

CI=P * (1 + R/100)n – P = 4320
714=(x + 1000) * (1 + 10/100)2 – (x + 1000)
714=(x + 1000) * (21/100) 4) Answer: D
3400=x + 1000 The principal amount is not given in the question.
X=2400 Hence, the question cannot be answered.
SI=P * N * R/100
=2400 * 15 * 4/100 5) Answer: A
=Rs.1440 SI = (P * N * R)/100
(4000 * 15 * x)/100 + (2000 * x * 4)/100 = 5440
2) Answer: D
600x + 80x = 5440
CI = P * (1 + R/100)n –P
x=8
Sam received the amount = 7000 * (1 + x/100)6
6) Answer: A
Rahul received the amount = 7000 * (1 + x/100)3
SI = P * N * R/100
[7000 * (1 + x/100)6]/ [7000 * (1 + x/100)3]= 27/8
SI = P * 10 * 4/100 = 2P/5
(1 + x/100)3 = 27/8
CI = P * (1 + R/100)n – P
1 + x/100 = 3/2
CI = P * (1 + 20/100)2 – P
100 + x = 150
= 11P/25
x = 50%
11P/25 – 2P/5 = 480
P = 480 * 25
3) Answer: C
P = 12000
SI = P * N * R/100
7680 - 4800 = 4800 * x * 4/100
7) Answer: D
x = 15%
Page 45 of 77
Interest received by Gopi = 4400 * n * 12/100 = 10) Answer: A

528n P = Rs.1200, n = 2 and Rate = r%
Interest received by Chandra = 5400 * (n + 8) * [P(1 + r/100)n – P] – Pnr/100 = 5.88
2/100 = 108n + 864 => [1200(1 + r/100)2 – 1200] – 1200 * 2 * r/100 =
528n – 108n – 864 = 816 5.88
=> n = 4 => r = 7%
(OR)
8) Answer: C Difference=Pr2/(100)2
SI = P * N * R/100 5.88=1200* r2/100*100
(x + 5375) – (x + 2000) =((x + 2000) * 15 * 3)/100 5.88*10000/1200= r2
337500/45 = (x + 2000) r2=49
x = Rs.5500 r=7%

Let the amount Ajay has = Re. 100x Let the amount invested in simple interest = a
So, according to the question, According to question,
8% x 5 x a = 1170
a = 1170/40 x 100 = Rs. 2925
100x + 4x + 6x + 9x = 18,326 Compound interest earned = 2925/60 x 100 = 4875
119x = 18,326 P x [(1 + 15/100)² - 1] = 4875
x = 154 P = (4875 x 400) / 129 = 15116 (approx.)
So, the total amount invested by Ajay is = Re.
15,400 12) Answer: C
Thus, the required difference is = 15,400 × (30 – SI = P * N * R/100
25)/100 25/100 * x = x * y * y/100
= 15,400 × 5/100 y=5
= Rs. 770 SI received by Yamini = 6000 * 12 * 5/100 =
Rs.3600
Page 46 of 77
x/y = 31/37
13) Answer: A Required percentage = 31/37 * 100 = 83.78%
SI = P * N * R/100
CI = P * (1 + R/100)n – P
Directions (16-20):
SI = x * 12 * 5/100 = 0.6x
16) Answer: A
CI = (x + 1000) * (1 + 10/100)2 – (x + 1000)
Number of balls other than the blue colour in the
= 21/100 * (x + 1000)
bag,
0.6x – 21x/100 – 210 = 1350
B = 40 – 10 = 30
60x – 21x – 21000 = 135000
D = 75 – 45 = 30
x = Rs.4000
E = 30 – 15 = 15
The average = (30 + 30 + 15)/3 = 25
14) Answer: C
Average number of balls in the bag A, B and C =(60
Rate of interest under CI = 12%
+ 40 + 50)/3 = 50
Rate of interest under SI = 2/3 x 12 = 8%
Simple interest earned = 1, 20,000 x 8% x 5 =
48000
Compound interest earned = 1, 60,000 x (12 + 12 +
17) Answer: B
12 x 12/100) = 40704
Total interest earned by A = 48000 + 40704 = Bag A:
88704 Red + Pink = 60 – 20 = 40
Red = (40/20) * 7 = 14
15) Answer: C Pink = (40/20) * 13 = 26
SI = P * N * R/100 Bag D:
SI received by Tarun = (x * 16 * 3)/100 = 48x/100 Red + Pink = 75 – 45 = 30
SI received by Rani = (y * 12 * 2)/100 = 24y/100 Red = (30/15) * 11 = 22
(x + (48x/100)/((24y/100) + y) = 1/1 Pink = (30/15) * 4 = 8
100x + 48x = 100y + 24y Required ratio = (14 + 22): (26 + 8)
148x = 124y = 18: 17
Page 47 of 77
Required % = [(20 + 10 + 15 + 45 + 15)/(60 + 40 +

18) Answer: C 50 + 75 + 30)] * 100
Number of balls other than the blue colour in the = (105/255) * 100
bag, = 40%
B = 40 – 10 = 30
Red balls in B = (30/5) * 2 = 12 Directions (21-25):
C = 50 – 15 = 35 21) Answer: A
Red balls in C = (35/7) * 3 = 15 The total number of students studied in School P in
Required percentage = [(12 + 15)/45] * 100 = 60% the year 2013 and 2015 together
= > 1800 + 1300 = 3100
19) Answer: D The total number of students studied in School Q in
Number of balls other than the blue colour in the the year 2014 and 2017 together
bag, = > 1500 + 1800 = 3300
A = 60 – 20 = 40 Required difference = 3300 – 3100 = 200
B = 40 – 10 = 30
C = 50 – 15 = 35 22) Answer: E
D = 75 – 45 = 30 The average number of students studied in School
E = 30 – 15 = 15 P in all the given years together
The sum = 40 + 30 + 35 + 30 + 15 = 150 = > [1800 + 1400 + 1300 + 1500 + 1600 + 1700] / 6
The ratio of yellow color balls and pink color balls in = > [9300 / 6] = 1550
the bags = 3: 2
Yellow color balls = (150/5) * 3 = 90
23) Answer: C
Pink color balls = (150/5) * 2 = 60
Required difference = (90/5)- (60/5) = 30/5 = 6
The total number of students studied in School Q in
2013 = 1200
The total number of students studied in School P in
20)
2016 = 1500
Answer: A Required ratio = 1200: 1500 = 4: 5
Page 48 of 77
Required Ratio = 10000:62500

24) Answer: D = 4:25
Total number of students studied in School Q in the
year 2015 and 2016 together 27) Answer: B
= > 1600 + 1700 = 3300 Total income of Indigo from 2012 to 2014 = 25 +5 +
Total number of students studied in School P in the 30
year 2014 and 2018 together = 60 crore
= > 1400 + 1700 = 3100 Total income of Jet Airways from 2012 to 2014 = 5
Required % = (3300 / 3100) * 100 = 106.45 % = + 25 +20 = 50 crore
106 % Required percentage = (60 x 100)/50= 120%
25) Answer: D 28) Answer: C

The average number of students studied in School Fare per passenger of Jet Airways = 7000 x
P in the year 2013, 2015 and 2018 together (110/100) = 7700
= > (1800 + 1300 + 1700) / 3 = 1600 Now, total number of passengers in Jet Airways in
The average number of students studied in School 2014 = (Total Income)/(Fare per passenger)
Q in the year 2013, 2014 and 2017 together = (20 crore)/7700
= > (1200 + 1500 + 1800) / 3 = 1500 = 25974
29) Answer: B
Directions (26-30): Since fare per passenger is not given, we can’t
26) Answer: D determine which company carried the maximum
The income of Indigo in 2013 = Rs 5 crore number of passenger.
Fare of Indigo = 5000 per passenger
Total number of passengers = (5 crore)/5000 30) Answer: D
= 10000 Total income of aviation companies in the year
Total income of Air India in 2010 = 25 crore 2009 = 10 +15 +20 +25 = 70 crore
Number of Passenger = (25 crore)/4000 = 62500 Similarly in 2010 = 5 + 15 +25 +35 = 80 crore
Page 49 of 77
2011 = 10 +15+ 25 +30 = 80 crore = 18800/5

2012= 5 + 10 +25 +35 = 75 crore = 3760
2013 = 5 + 15 +20 + 25 = 65 crore
2014 = 20 + 25 + 30 + 35 = 110 crore 35) Manswer: A
In 2014 the income of all the aviation companies is Required total = 135/100 * 4200 + 3600 * 125/100
the maximum. = 5670 + 4500
= 10170
Directions (31-35):
Directions (36-45):
31) Answer: B
36) Answer: D
Required ratio = (3600 + 2800):(3600 + 5400)
80% of 420 + (64 ÷ 136) * (17 ÷ √16) + ? = 15 * 25
= 6400:9000
336 + 2 + ? =375
= 32:45
?=37
32) Answer: A
37) Answer: B
Required difference = (2800 + 4200 + 5200 + 2800)
[(0.7)43 ÷ (0.49)18]* (0.343) = (0.7)?
– (4400 + 3600)
[(0.7)43/(0.7)36]* (0.7)3 = (0.7)?
= 15000 – 8000
(0.7)43 – 36 + 3 = (0.7)?
= 7000
? = 10
33) Answer: C
38) Answer: C
Required percentage = (5400 + 2800)/(4400 + 5400
35 % of 360 + (864 ÷ 48) * (32 ÷ √64) = ?
+ 4200 + 3600 + 2800) * 100
126 + 72 = ?
= (8200/20400) * 100
? = 198
= 40%
39) Answer: B
34) Answer: D
8800 ÷ √484 + ? + 12 * 15 = 160% of 360
Required average = (3600 + 1800 + 2800 + 5400 +
400 + ? + 180=576
5200)/5
?=-4
Page 50 of 77
42 + 390 + 135=?
40) Answer: E 567=?
x2 + (1500% of 25) = (25)2 - (15)2
x2 + (1500/100 of 25) = 625 - 225 45) Answer: B
x2 + (15 * 25) = 400 (3/8) * (296 – (32 * 4)) = ? * 9
x2 = 400 - 375 3/8 * (168) = ? * 9
x2 = 25 ?=7
x=5 Directions (46-55):
46) Answer: C
41) Answer: D *2/11, *2/9, *2/7, *2/5, *2/3, *2/1……
320% of 720 + ? + 220% of 580 = 750% of 620
2304 + ? + 1276 = 4650 47) Answer: D
? = 1070 73, 100, 131, 178, 289, 656
27 31 47 111 367
42) Answer: A 4 16 64 256
126 ÷ √49 + ? * 12 = 75 % of 320 + 15 * 2 (41) (42) (43) (44)
126 / 7 + ? * 12 = (3 / 4) * 320 + 30 The difference of difference is, 41, 42, 43, 44,…
? * 12=252 The answer is, 656
? = 21
48) Answer: C
43) Answer: B 3390 = 153 + 15
30 % of 360 + 75% of 80 + 83.33 % of 240 = ? 2758 = 143 + 14
108 + 60 + (5/6) * 240 = ? 2210 = 133 + 13
108 + 60 + 200 = ? 1740 = 123 + 12
368 = ?
49) Answer: C
44) Answer: B The pattern is, 372- (31 +1)=368
35% of 120 + 60% of 650 + 150% of 90=? 368 -(32 +1)=358
Page 51 of 77
358 -(33 +1)=330 210 ÷ 5 = 42

330 -(34 +1)= 248 42 ÷ 4 = 10.5
248 -(35 +1)=4 10.5 ÷ 3 = 3.5
The answer is, 4 3.5 ÷ 2 = 1.75

The given numbers series is based on the following 39 * 40=1560
pattern : 40 * 41=1640
9 x 4 - 1 = 36 - 1 = 35 41 * 42=1722
35 x 4 - 2 = 140 - 2 = 138 42 * 43=1806
138 x 4 - 3 = 552 - 3 = 549 43 * 44=1892
549 x 4 - 4 = 2196 - 4 = 2192 44 * 45=1980
2192 x 4 - 5 = 8768 - 5 = 8763
∴ ? = 8763 x 4 - 6 55) Answer: A
= 35052 - 6 = 35046 *5-10, *5-10, *5-10,..
51) Answer: D Directions (56-70):

124 * 0.5 = 62 56) Answer: C
62 * 1 = 62 Quantity I:
62 * 1.5 = 93 x2+ 13x + 36 = 0
93 * 2 = 186 = x2 + 9x + 4x + 36 = 0
186 * 2.5 = 465 = x(x + 9) + 4(x + 9) = 0
= (x + 9) (x + 4) = 0
52) Answer: B
= x = -9, -4
Difference: 50, 100, 150, 200
Quantity II:
y2 + 15y + 56 = 0
53) Answer: A
= y2 + 8y + 7y + 56 = 0
1260 ÷ 6 = 210
= y(y + 8) + 7(y + 8) = 0
Page 52 of 77
= (y + 8) (y + 7) = 0 From I =>6x2 + 13x + 6 = 0

= y = -8, -7 =>3x(2x + 3) + 2(2x + 3) = 0
Hence, relationship cannot be determined => (3x + 2) (2x + 3) = 0
=> x = -2/3, -3/2
57) Answer: D From II =>3y2 – 8y + 4 = 0
x2 – 15x + 56 = 0 => 3y(y – 2) – 2(y – 2) = 0
x2 – 7x – 8x + 56 = 0 => (3y – 2) (y – 2) = 0
x(x – 7) – 8(x – 7) = 0 => y = 2/3, 2
(x – 8)(x – 7) = 0 Hence x < y
x = 8, 7
y2 – 19y + 90 = 0 60) Answer: E
y2 – 9y – 10y + 90 = 0 From I =>3x2 – 14x + 8 = 0
y(y – 9) – 10(y – 9) = 0 => 3x(x – 4) – 2(x – 4) = 0
(y – 10)(y – 9) = 0 => (3x – 2) (x – 4) = 0
y = 10, 9 => x = 2/3, 4
Hence, x < y From II => 3y2 – 20y + 12 = 0
=> 3y(y – 6) – 2(y – 6) = 0
58) Answer: A => (3y – 2) (y – 6) = 0
From I =>6x2 + x – 2 = 0 => y = 2/3, 6
=>(3x + 2) (2x – 1) = 0 Hence relationship between x and y cannot be
=> x = -2/3, ½ determined
From II => 3y2 – 11y + 6 = 0
=> 3y(y – 3) – 2(y – 3) = 0 61) Answer: B
=> (3y – 2) (y – 3) = 0 From I =>2x2 – 7x + 3 = 0
=> y = 2/3, 3 => 2x(x – 3) – (x – 3) = 0
Hence x < y => (2x – 1) (x – 3) = 0
=> x = ½, 3
59) Answer: A From II => 4y2 + 13y + 10 = 0
Page 53 of 77
=> (4y + 5) (y + 2) = 0 43x2 – 34x – 9 = 0

=> y = -5/4, -2 43x2 – 43x + 9x – 9 = 0
Hence x > y 43x(x – 1) + 9(x – 1) = 0
(43x + 9)(x – 1) = 0
62) Answer: D x = -9/43, 1
From I => 2x2 – 17x + 36 = 0 3y2 + 21y + 18 = 0
=> (2x – 9) (x – 4) = 0 3y2 + 18y + 3y + 18 = 0
=> x = 9/2, 4 3y(y + 6) + 3(y + 6) = 0
From II => 2y2 – 11y + 12 = 0 (3y + 3)(y + 6) = 0
=> (2y – 3) (y – 4) = 0 y = -1, -6
=> y = 3/2, 4 x>y
Hence x ≥ y
65) Answer: E
63) Answer: C (x + 3)! = 12(x + 1)!
2x2 + 39x + 175 = 0 (x + 3)(x + 2)(x + 1)! = 12(x + 1)!
2x2 + 14x + 25x + 175 = 0 x2 + 2x + 3x + 6 = 12
2x(x + 7) + 25(x + 7) = 0 x2 + 5x – 6 = 0
(2x + 25)(x + 7) = 0 x2 + 6x – x – 6 = 0
x = -12.5, -7 x(x + 6) – 1(x + 6) = 0
2y2 + 45y + 243 = 0 (x – 1)(x + 6) = 0
2y2 + 18y + 27y + 243 = 0 x = 1, -6
2y(y + 9) + 27(y + 9) = 0 2y! = (y + 1)!
(2y + 27)(y + 9) = 0 2y! = (y + 1) * y!
y = -13.5, -9 y=1
Relationship between x and y cannot be x≤y
established.
66) Answer: D
64) Answer: A 18/√x = (4√x) + (13/√x)
Page 54 of 77
5/√x = 4√x => 2x2 + 14x + 9x + 63 = 0

x = 5/4 = 1.25 => 2x (x + 7) + 9(x + 7) = 0
3√y + 16/√y = 22/√y => (2x + 9) (x + 7) = 0
3√y = 6/√y => x = -9/2, -7
y=2 From II =>
x<y 5y2 + 17y + 14 = 0
=> 5y2 + 10y + 7y + 14 = 0
67) Answer: C => 5y(y+2) + 7(y+2) = 0
x ÷ 32 * 31 = 155/x * 1/10 => (5y + 7) (y + 2) = 0
x/32 * 31 = 155/x * 1/10 => y = -7/5, -2
x2 = 16 Hence, x < y
x = -4, 4
if x = -4 69) Answer: D
8/√y + 3x√y = 4√y From I =>
8 + 3xy = 4y 4x2 + 19x + 21 = 0
8 – 12y = 4y => 4x2 + 12x + 7x + 21 = 0
y = 1/2 => 4x (x + 3) + 7 (x + 3) = 0
if x = 4 => (4x + 7) (x + 3) = 0
8/√y + 3x√y = 4√y => x = -3, -7/4
8 + 3xy = 4y From II =>
8 + 3 * 4y = 4y 3y2 + 19y + 30 = 0
y = -1 => 3y2 + 9y +10y + 30 = 0
Relationship between x and y cannot be => 3y(y + 3) + 10(y + 3) = 0
established. => (3y + 10) (y + 3) = 0
=> y = -10/3, -3
68) Answer: A Hence, x ≥ y
From I =>
2x2 + 23x + 63 = 0 70) Answer: A
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From I => => 2y2 - 8y - 9y + 36 = 0

6x2 + 29x + 35 = 0 => 2y (y – 4) – 9(y - 4) = 0
=> 6x2 + 15x + 14x + 35 =0 => (2y – 9) (y – 4) = 0
=> 3x (2x + 5) + 7(2x + 5) = 0 => y = 9/2, 4
=> (2x + 5) (3x + 7) = 0 Hence, x < y
=> x = -5/2, -7/3
From II =>
2y2 - 17y + 36 = 0
English Language
Directions (1-5): Read the following statements, C) To anticipate what issues will arise during
and find out the odd sentence out of the given four India’s tenure two and three years down the road,
sentences which does not match the central theme in the highest decision-making organ concerned
of the other statements. with peace and conflict in the global organization,
1) is clearly problematic.
A) There are several aspects to the latest counting D) The less accessible Western Ghats has
operation a staggering exercise spread over 3, witnessed a steady increase in numbers from
81,400 sq km and 26,838 camera trap locations 2006, notably in Karnataka, and Central India has
that are of international interest, because some abundance, but there is a marked drop in
tiger range countries are beginning their own Chhattisgarh and Odisha; in Buxa, Dampa and
census of the cats. Palamau, which are tiger reserves, no trace of the
B) Moreover, even developed countries are trying animal was found.
to revive populations of A) A
charismatic wild creatures such as wolves and B) B
bears through a more accurate outcome C) C
measurement. D) D
E) None of these
Page 56 of 77
3)
2) A). Chinese companies Huawei Technologies and
A). It was denied by invoking the exemption ZTE are in the cross-hairs of the Trump
clauses of Sections 8(d) and 8(j), respectively, i.e. administration. In May, Washington logged Huawei
the ‘commercial confidence, trade secrets or in its trade backlist, citing security concerns,
intellectual property’ and ‘unwarranted invasion of effectively blocking the company from sourcing
the privacy of the individual’. hardware, software and services from U.S.
B). Even more worrying is the signal that is sent suppliers.
across by the falling stock market. As stock prices B). China has officially approved 5G commercial
discount the future, lackluster market performance services earlier in June, and is currently testing the
could well be a prelude to the further worsening of technology in all major cities and provincial
general economic conditions in the near term. regions. Small scale commercial use of 5G tech is
C). There is already a significant downturn in expected this year, followed by large-scale
sectors such as automobile with major companies deployment next year.
reporting falling sales and earnings, and C). Unlike other networks, IoT technology enables
automobile dealers closing down showrooms and such items as smart phones, smart wristbands,
slashing jobs. smart locks, drones, self-driving cars, surveillance
D). The overall gross domestic product growth, cameras, to provide pervasive real-time
which slipped below 6% to hit 5.8% in the fourth information required by the state.
quarter, has also been slowly catching up with the D). U.S. President Donald Trump warned China on
bleak picture painted by high-frequency economic Tuesday against waiting out his first term in hope
indicators for quite some time. of concluding a trade deal after the 2020
A) A presidential election, just as negotiations began in
B) B Shanghai to resurrect stalled talks with Chinese
C) C officials.
D) D A) A
E) None of these B) B
C) C
Page 57 of 77
D) D economy is a factor encouraging them to look for

E) None of these greener pastures, especially because in some
cases, they can return to what they have left.
4) A) A
A). Thirty-two-years old, Naryanan is currently in a B) B
senior position at his fifth job, and he considers C) C
himself successful. He attributes this success D) D
largely to his ability to realize when he has E) None of these
outgrown a role — or, figuring out when a role is
not serving him as well as he is serving it.
B). The summit would bring together successful 5)
women leaders, startup founders, policymakers A). As artificial intelligence (AI) gains more traction
and aspiring women entrepreneurs on a common in the workaday life of organizations, a little over
platform to share their experiences and success two-thirds of industry honchos are worried about
stories, KSUM said in a press release. The focal the potentially negative impact that this technology
theme — ‘Developing an Inclusive can have on their corporate culture, according to
Entrepreneurship Ecosystem’ — would feature an online poll conducted by development solutions
inspiring visionaries whose innovative actions are provider Dale Carnegie.
changing the world. B). Respondents in the online poll were
C). An Indeed study based on responses from CEO/directors. They recognize that gains from AI
1000 professionals has found that 56% of Indian can be offset by losses, at least in part, if the
workers have voluntarily left a role after a short resulting impact on their corporate culture
stint, the duration being 16 months or less. The disengages their employees, says the survey.
trend is more prevalent in mid-sized companies C). The ideas discussed by the authors include
with 200-500 employees. how to build a personal reputation for innovation,
D). Today’s employees display a lower tolerance techniques to amplify innovation capital, ways to
threshold when their expectations don’t quite mesh garner attention for ideas and projects and what it
with the reality of their job. The rise of the gig
Page 58 of 77
means to provide visionary leadership and how it

can be achieved. 7) This is the 15th day in (a)/ a row that the number
D). Achieving the full potential of AI depends on of new cases has (b)/ been low than 2,000 (c)/ and
the successful partnership between humans and the sixth consecutive day (d)/ No error (e)
machines, it adds. As much as 44% of the A) a
respondents agree that AI will fundamentally B) b
change the way they work and live over the next C) c
10 years, and expect those changes to be positive. D) d
A) A E) e
B) B
C) C 8) Not only sound pollution is bad (a)/ for our ear
D) D and brain, (b)/ it turns out it actually is making us
E) None of these (c)/ less efficient, too. (d)/ No error (e)
A) a
Directions (6-10): Read each sentence to find out B) b
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error C) c
in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the D) d
sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If E) e
there is no error the answer is (E).
6) Five boys has been arrested by (a)/ the police in 9) Neither my sister (a)/ nor my mother (b)/ were
connection with the murder (b)/ of a male able to help me (c)/ in doing household chores (d)/
employee of a (c)/ foreign company earlier this No error (e)
month (d). No Error (e) A) a
A) a B) b
B) b C) c
C) c D) d
D) d E) e
E) e
Page 59 of 77
10) Radha always wanted to be a soldier, (a)/ but I. During the sale, the manager was able to
her grades at school weren't (b)/quite enough good __________ customers into the store by offering
to get her(c)/ into army school (d)/ No Error (e) thirty percent off.
A0 a II. The kidnapper was able to ___________ the
B) b small child into his van by offering her candy.
C) c A) Antagonize
D) d B) Surfeit
E) e C) Scandalize
D) Lure
Direction (11-15): In the Questions given below, E) Bother
there are two statements; each statement consists
of a blank. You have to choose the option which 13)
provides the correct set of words that fits in the (I) Many politicians and members of the public
blanks in both the statements appropriately making expressed ___________ at the verdict
them meaningful and grammatically correct. (II) The conviction of the three demonstrators has
11) caused public __________ locally.
I. She's _________ the prospect of studying in A) Solace
Bologna for six months. B) Ovation
II. He goes around positively ___________ any C) Outrage
opportunity that he has to make matters worse. D) Plaudit
A) Abhorring E) Hilarity
B) Relishing
C) Detesting 14)
D) Rejecting I. The flower girl scattered ___________ petals from
E) Despising her pretty wicker basket.
II. Her __________ nature rebelled against the
12) thought of marrying that brute.
A) Dainty
Page 60 of 77
B) Gawky (II). She peered out from …………… her wagon

C) Crude and found the smiling face of Bordeaux.
D) Stumbling A) From
E) Ponderous B) Under
C) After
15) D) below
I. He listened to the music with an expression of E) None of the above
pure ___________ on his face.
II. The prime minister's supporters greeted her 17)
speech with ___________ . (I). Put your name in for a reservation at the
A) Rapture restaurant and then take a walk ……………. the
B) Gloom neighboring historic buildings and woods.
C) Dejection (II). Her arms stole ……………..his neck and she
D) Panic ran trembling fingers through the soft hair on the
E) Distress back of his head.
A) From
Direction (16-20): In the Questions given below, B) Though
there are two statements; each statement consists C) Around
of a blank. You have to choose the option which D) with
provides the correct set of prepositions that fits in E) None of the above
the blanks in both the statements appropriately
making them meaningful and grammatically 18)
correct. (I). All the blood which had seemed congested
16) somewhere …………… his throat rushed to his
(I).The gardener put his hand …………………his face and eyes.
cloak and drew out the very bag that the merchant (II). The tourists were left ……………… and Dean
had lost. was alone save the sounds of nature on the rocky
rutted path as his Jeep's tires clawed upward.
Page 61 of 77
A) Below C) for
B) within D) Near
C) from E) None of the above
D) above
E) None of the above 20)
(I). The next moment a broad-leaved plant was
19) jerked ……………….. the ground where it grew
(I). Roxanne's house was ……………… walking and held suspended in the air before the Wizard.
distance and the night was balmy. (II). He got down ……………… his horse and very
(II). It is only the serious eye peering from and the gently took the little ones up in his big warm hands.
sincere life passed …………….. it restrains A) with
laughter and consecrates the costume of any B) through
people. C) for
A) Below D) from
B) within E) None of the above
Directions (1-5): conditions; while the statement A talks other than

1) Answer: C economic conditions
Statement C is the odd one out. The other
statements are talking about India’s tiger census; 3) Answer: D
while the statement C talks about India’s Statement D is the odd one out. The other
international relations statements are talking about 5G technology rollout;
while the statement D talks about US warning to
2) Answer: A China in the context of trade war.
Statement A is the odd one out. The other
statements are talking about India’s economic 4) Answer: B
Page 62 of 77
Statement B is the odd one out. The other The error lies in part (c), here were replaced by
statements are talking about India’s job market; “was” because after nor singular noun has been
while statement B talks about the women leader used.
summit.
10) Answer: C
5) Answer: C The error lies in part (c) of the sentence. Here
Statement C is the odd one out. The other enough is used as an adverb of quantity; the
statements are talking about AI impact on appropriate phrase should have been ‘quite good
corporate; while the statement C talks about enough to get him”.
discussion about a book.
Directions (11-15):
6) Answer: A The meaning of “relishing” is “a to enjoy greatly”
Error lies in part (a). Replace ‘has’ by ‘have’. Here
the noun ‘five boys’ is plural. 12) Answer: D
The meaning of “lure” is “a to attract”
7) Answer: C
The error lies in part (c) of the sentence. Here 13) Answer: C
usage of ‘low’ is incorrect and will be replaced by The meaning of “outrage” is “a feeling of anger and
‘less’ because ‘low’ is used to show ‘the degree or shock”
the extent’’ without comparison while ‘less’ is used
for comparison. 14) Answer: A
The meaning of “dainty” is “delicately small and
8) Answer: A pretty/discriminating”
The error lies in part (a), the correct phrase should
be “not only is sound pollution bad”. 15) Answer: A
The meaning of “rapture” is “extreme happiness
9) Answer: C and delight in something”
Page 63 of 77
“BELOW” is the correct answer fits for both

Directions (16-20): sentence
16) Answer: B
“UNDER” is the correct answer that fits both 19) Answer: C
sentences. “FOR” is the correct answer fits for both sentence

“AROUND” is the correct answer fits for both
“FROM” is the correct answer fits for both
sentence
sentence
18) Answer: A
General Awareness
1. The Union government has kicked off which of the E) Pune
following campaigns to promote e-mobility?
A) Go Efficient 3. Free period products to all students are being offered

B) Go E-mobile by which of the following country?
C) Go Electric A) Germany
D) Go Green B) Sweden
E) Go Clean C) France
D) US
2. Which of the following city has received recognition E) New Zealand
as the 2020 Tree City of the World?

A) Delhi 4. Snakepedia' mobile app has been launched in which
B) Chennai state to help people, doctors treat snake bites?
C) Surat A) Gujarat
D) Hyderabad B) Kerala
Page 64 of 77
C) Karnataka
D) Punjab 8. World Day of Social Justice 2021 is being Observed
E) Haryana On which date?
A) February 9
5. Which of the following Bank has partnered with B) February 20

Vayana Network to offer help MSMEs? C) February 11
A) UCO D) February 2
B) Bandhan E) February 23
C) Axis
D) Bank of Maharashtra 9. Prakash Javadekar has inaugurated the Atal
E) Bank of India Paryavaran Bhavan in which state/UT?

A) Punjab
6. Which company has become the title sponsor for IPL B) Chandigarh
2021? C) Lakshadweep
A) Realme D) Puducherry
B) Vivo E) Delhi
C) Nokia
D) Samsung 10. The chief minister of which state has laid the
E) Xiaomi foundation of the first skill university of eastern India?

A) Mizoram
7. Who among the following has won the national title, B) Manipur
eyes Tokyo Olympic spot via Doha? C) Tripura

A) Nilesh Pant D) Nagaland
B) Surender Singh E) Assam
C) Anand Rawat
D) Manika Batra 11. Which of the following country has recently Officially
E) Reeth Rishya rejoined the Paris Climate Agreement?
Page 65 of 77
A) UAE D) 3
B) Germany E) 2
C) Israel
D) US 15. Which country has become the 1st in the world to
E) France identify the need for action for Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver
Disease?
12. Which of the following state will host the second A) Sweden
Khelo India University Games this year? B) Denmark

A) Chhattisgarh C) India
B) Punjab D) France
C) Haryana E) Israel
D) Kerala
E) Karnataka 16. India has offered USD _____ million line of credit to
Mauritius.
13. First paperless budget will be presented in the A) 140
Assembly of which state? B) 130
A) Delhi C) 120
B) Chhattisgarh D) 100
C) Uttar Pradesh E) 110

D) Haryana
E) Bihar 17. Which country has launched a "green pass" for
people with vaccination certificates?

14. DRDO has conducted ______successful launches of A) China
Vertical Launch Short Range Surface to Air Missile. B) US
A) 6 C) Germany
B) 5 D) France
C) 4 E) Israel
Page 66 of 77
21. The External Affairs Minister has inaugurated a new

18. Which state government has presented the biggest Indian High Commission building in which country?
ever budget of around Rs 5,50,270 crores to make a A) Sri Lanka
self-reliant state? B) Bhutan
A) Chhattisgarh C) Bangladesh
B) Karnataka D) Mauritius
C) Kerala E) Maldives
D) Uttar Pradesh
E) Haryana 22. The Union Government and AIIB has signed a loan
agreement of USD _____ million for Assam.
19. e-Kuber payments system has been launched in A) 180

which state/UT recently? B) 200
A) Telangana C) 304
B) Puducherry D) 300
C) Daman & Diu E) 250
D) Chandigarh
E) J&K 23. PM KISAN scheme has completed two years on
which of the following date?
20. Sardar Patel Cricket Stadium In Motera has been A) February 11

renamed Narendra Modi Stadium. It is located in which B) February 3
state? C) February 5
A) Mizoram D) February 6
B) Manipur E) February 24
C) Punjab
D) Assam 24. Rajnath Singh has inaugurated the DRDO Skill

E) Gujarat Development Centre for Fire Safety Training in which
state?
Page 67 of 77
A) Kerala B) OBC
B) Haryana C) UCO
C) Uttar Pradesh D) Bandhan Bank
D) Karnataka E) State Bank of Sikkim
E) Punjab
25. Which of the following bank has recently been
placed under Reserve Bank of India's regulatory

purview?
A) Bank of India

1) Answer: C awareness drive for promoting public charging, e-
The Union government launched the 'Go Electric' mobility and its ecosystem
campaign to spread awareness about the benefits of e- To implement the Go Electric campaign at the national
mobility and electric vehicle (EV) charging infrastructure and state levels, BEE will extend technical support to the
in India. State Designated Agencies (SDAs) and other partners to
The campaign was launched in the presence of Nitin ensure uniformity of information.
Gadkari, Union Minister for Road Transport and State agencies are expected to support BEE in
Highways, Micro, Small, Medium Enterprise and R K consumer awareness initiatives to accelerate the
Singh, MoS (IC) Power and New & Renewable Energy, deployment of EV charging infrastructure and electric
MoS Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. mobility ecosystem at the state level.
Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), under the aegis of
the Ministry of Power, is mandated to undertake an 2) Answer: D
Page 68 of 77
The United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization where 3,200 young people were provided with period
and the Arbor Day Foundation have recognized products.
Hyderabad as a 2020 Tree City of World, for its Every school in New Zealand will be stocked with free
commitment to growing and maintaining urban forests. period products for female students from June, the prime
Hyderabad earned recognition in the Foundation’s minister, Jacinda Ardern, has confirmed.
second year of the programme along with 51 other cities Principals and poverty groups have been calling for the
globally (120 cities from 63 countries assessed) and the move for years, saying period poverty meant some girls
only city in India to get this recognition so far. ended up skipping school during their periods because
List of Five Factors to be Eligible for ‘Tree City’ they could not afford the sanitary products to manage
To be eligible for Tree City, the city must affirm its five them hygienically.
requirements, include
Defining responsibility (the declaration written by civic 4) Answer: B
representatives to assign the responsibility for trees) A team of scientists, nature lovers and doctors have
Setting down the rules (the law or official policy that come up with a mobile application 'Snakepedia' on
regulates forest and tree management) snakes in Kerala to help the public as well as doctors to
Knowing what you have (an updated inventory or treat snake bites.
assessment of the local tree resources) Snakepedia is a comprehensive android mobile
Allocate funds (a dedicated annual tree management application that documents information on snakes with
plan routine budget) the help of pictures, infographics and podcasts and
Celebrate achievements (an annual celebration of trees analyses its first aid, treatment, myths and superstitions.
to raise awareness). The main aim of the app is to help the public identify
snakes, avail proper treatment on time for snakebites

3) Answer: E There are about 3,600 species of snakes known so far in
The scheme to provide free menstrual products for the the world and over 300 species are found in India.
next three years comes after a six-month pilot program Snakepedia was developed as an answer to the
launched last year in 15 schools in the Waikato region question of how to find a useful way for the general
public to identify snakes.
Page 69 of 77
Brijesh Patel spoke ahead of the auction in Chennai on

5) Answer: D February 18 and announced that VIVO is back as the
Bank of Maharashtra has entered into a strategic title sponsor of the T20 league after Dream 11 had been
partnership with Vayana Network to offer financial roped in as sponsor for the 2020 season.
support to the MSME sector. Last year, the IPL signed up Dream 11 for Rs 222 crore
Through this association, BoM will provide short term for one season whereas they had been getting Rs 440
credit to meet funding requirements of dealers of crore per year from VIVO.
corporates via “Mahabank Channel Financing Scheme” In 2018, VIVO had signed a five-year deal worth Rs
launched by the bank, through Vayana Network’s 2199 crore
expertise in this segment.
Under the partnership, Vayana Network will provide its 7) Answer: D

Supply Chain Financing solutions (SCF) to the bank Star paddler Manika Batra clinched her second title by
supported by Vayana’s technology and service defeating Reeth Rishya 4-2 in the women's singles final
expertise. of the Senior National Table Tennis Championship

The SCF solutions will include vendor and dealer Manika Batra ,in action during final of women's singles
financing programs across the bank's network of 1,870 final at the 82nd Senior National Table Tennis
branches across the country. Championship 2020 at Tau Devi Lal Sports Complex in
Vayana Network’s proprietary tech platform will help to Panchkula.
digitize the transactions of Supply Chain Financing, She ranked 63rd in world ranking.
while the market services will help to increase She had just beaten Reeth Rishya 8-11, 10-12, 11-1,
penetration in the under-served MSME segment. 11-9, 11-5, 11-6 at the Tau Devi Lal Sports Complex in
Panchkula to win the 82nd Senior National Table Tennis

6) Answer: B Championship
Indian Premier League Governing Council chairman She represented the Petroleum Sports Promotion Board
Brijesh Patel revealed at the IPL 2021 Auction that VIVO (PSPB) had won her maiden title in 2015 at Hyderabad.
is back as the title sponsor of the league.
8) Answer: B
Page 70 of 77
World Day of Social Justice is observed on February 20 Prakash Javadekar is on a four day official visit to
every year. Lakshadweep from February 19 to 22, 2021.
The main objective of celebrating World Day of Social The minister attended high level meetings with the
Justice is to raise a voice against social injustice and to Secretaries of various departments in UT’s
bring the various communities internationally together to administration.

eliminate poverty, gender, and physical discrimination, The Minister is to attend programmes at Suheli, Kadmat
illiteracy, religious discrimination to make a socially and Bangaram islands and evaluate major innovative
integrated society. initiatives of the Forest and Environment Department of

The theme of World Day of Social Justice 2021: "A Call the Union Territory.
for Social Justice in the Digital Economy". Suheli Par is an oval-shaped and 17 km long coral atoll
History : in Lakshadweep, that is surrounded by a zone of rich

On 26 November 2007, the General Assembly declared marine fauna.
that starting from the sixty-third session of the General It is located in the South-West of Kavaratti and 76 km to
Assembly, 20 February will be celebrated annually as the south of Agatti.

the World Day of Social Justice. The Nine Degree channel in the Indian Ocean, is located
The International Labour Organization unanimously between the Islands of Kalpeni and Suheli Par, and
adopted the ILO Declaration on Social Justice for a Fair Maliku Atoll.
Globalization on 10 June 2008. This is the third major He will also evaluate the major innovative initiatives of
statement of principles and policies adopted by the the Union Territory's Forest and Environment
International Labour Conference since the ILO’s Department.
Constitution of 1919.
10) Answer: E
9) Answer: C Assam Chief Minister Sarbananda Sonowal laid the
Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate foundation of the first skill university of eastern India in
Change, Prakash Javadekar, inaugurated the Atal Darrang district, aimed at imparting training to over
Paryavaran Bhavan at Lakshadweep on Feb 19, 2021. 10,000 students in 12 disciplines.
Page 71 of 77
The varsity would be built with a financial outlay of 12) Answer: E

Rs.1,000 crore. Union Sports Minister Kiren Rijiju has announced that
It is expected to be completed by 2026, and will have the second Khelo India University Games will be hosted
understandings with countries like Germany, Taiwan, by Karnataka.
South Korea, Israel, Japan, England. Bengaluru along with Chief Minister BS Yediyurappa, Mr
Skill, Employment and Entrepreneurship Development Rijiju said that the largest University games in the
Minister Chandra Mohan Patowary termed the day as country scheduled later this year will be held in
historic, as the process has been initiated for setting up Bengaluru in partnership with Association of Indian
the third skill university in India. Universities.
Over 4,000 sportsmen under the age of 25 will compete
11) Answer: D with an opportunity to be selected for the national teams.

The United States officially rejoined the Paris Agreement
on climate change designed to limit global warming and 13) Answer: C
avoid its potentially catastrophic impacts. The first paperless budget will be presented in the Uttar
Nearly 200 nations have signed on to the landmark Pradesh Assembly.
accord and committed to limit their greenhouse gas UP will be the first state in the country to table a
emissions in an attempt to keep global warming below 2 paperless budget.
degrees Celsius, preferably below 1.5 degrees Celsius The State Finance Minister Suresh Khanna will present
compared to pre-industrial temperatures. the first paperless budget in the history of the State.
Earlier, in November 2020, the US had officially exited All members of the State Legislature have been
the agreement on the order of the then President Donald provided iPads to view the budget highlights which will
Trump. also be available on two big screens put up in the

The landmark Paris climate agreement was signed in House.
2015, as per which countries are expected to enhance The 2021-2022 budgets will also be available on an App
their commitments to curb greenhouse gas emissions which can be downloaded from Google Play Store with
every five years. the name 'Uttar Pradesh Sarkar Ka Budget'.
Page 72 of 77
14) Answer: E
Defence Research and Development Organisation 16) Answer: D
(DRDO) has conducted two successful launches of India offered a USD 100 million line of credit to Mauritius
Vertical Launch Short Range Surface to Air Missile (VL- to facilitate procurement of defence assets and the two
SRSAM). countries signed a Comprehensive Economic

The launches were carried out from a static vertical Cooperation Partnership Agreement following talks
launcher from Integrated Test Range, Chandipur off the between External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and
coast of Odisha. Mauritius Prime Minister Pravind Jugnauth here.

Indigenously designed and developed by the DRDO for "SAGAR policy reaffirmed. Pleased to witness, along
Indian Navy, VL-SRSAM is meant for neutralizing with PM @JugnauthKumar, the exchange of USD 100
various aerial threats at close ranges including sea- million Defence Line of Credit.
skimming targets. Will facilitate procurement of defence assets, guided by
The launches were monitored by senior scientists from the needs of Mauritius,".
various DRDO labs involved in the design and

development of the system. 17) Answer: E
During the test launches, flight path and vehicle Israel has launched a coronavirus ‘green pass’ system,
performance parameters were monitored using flight and that allows people who have been vaccinated to
data, captured by various Range instruments. access public facilities.
Israelis who have gotten both Pfizer vaccine shots and

15) Answer: C those who have recovered from the virus get a "Green
Health Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan said that India has Pass" certificate in the form of a QR code or printout for
become the first country in the world to identify the need people without smartphones.
for action for Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease. Pass-holders could prove their status by presenting a
He said this while launching the operational guidelines vaccination certificate or downloading a health ministry
for integration of Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease with app linked to their medical files.
the National Programme for Prevention & Control of
Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke.
Page 73 of 77
The pass allows entry to gyms, swimming pools, hotels, To improve the tourism in Ayodhya city, Rs 101 crore
entertainment venues and sporting events. Restaurants have been allocated in the budget for development of
and bars will be added to the list in March. Maryada Purushottam Shri Ram Airport.
Meanwhile, Israel has faced international criticism for Yogi Adityanath Government has also announced to
largely excluding Palestinians in the West Bank and provide financial help to destitute women under Mahila
Gaza Strip from its highly successful vaccination Samarthya Yojana till they get alimony from the Court.
campaign, widening the persistent inequality with Israelis The State Government will provide free tablets to the
that began long before the pandemic. eligible students under Abhyudaya Scheme.
Uttar Pradesh Government presented the biggest ever Jammu and Kashmir formally rolled out e-Kuber
budget to the tune of around Rs 5,50,270 crores to payments system of Reserve Bank of India.
make Atma Nirbhar or self-reliant Uttar Pradesh. J&K is the first Union Territory to implement version 2.9
The budget presented by Finance Minister Suresh of e-Kuber payments system

Khanna in the State Assembly was also the first e-Kuber would be implemented in the Civil Secretariat
paperless budget of any state in the country. treasury on a pilot basis and rollout of this system for
The budget focuses on farmers' welfare, women other treasuries shall follow shortly.
empowerment and health sector along with the The system is capable of making 50,000 transactions at
development projects. a time, while all government-related financial

Atmanirbhar Krishak Samanvit Vikas Yojna has been transactions would be dealt directly with RBI, without
launched for the welfare of the farmers of the state. any intermediary bank.
Seven hundred crores have been allocated for free The system would also overcome payment delays and
irrigation to the farmers eliminate risk of paper vouchers being lost in transit
The State Government also focused on heritage tourism
in the state and particularly the overall development of 20) Answer: E

Ayodhya.
Page 74 of 77
President Ram Nath Kovind inaugurated the newly External Affairs Minister Dr. S. Jaishankar inaugurated
revamped Motera cricket stadium in Ahmedabad, which the new Indian High Commission building in Mauritius in
has been renamed the Narendra Modi Stadium. the presence of Prime Minister of Mauritius Pravind
The ground, which was earlier named the Sardar Patel Jugnauth and Foreign Minister Alan Ganoo.
Stadium, and more popularly known as the Motera Dr Jaishankar said, the green and efficient project
stadium, has been renamed after the Prime Minister, reflects New India.
who was also formerly a president of the Gujarat Cricket He expressed confidence that it will inspire the work of
Association. the Indian High Commission even more.

The Narendra Modi Stadium, which is the world's largest He reviewed the Dagotière Social Housing Project in
cricket stadium with a capacity of 1,10,000 spectators, Mauritius accompanied by Deputy Prime Minister and
will host the first international match since the stadium Housing Minister Louis Steven Obeegadoo.
was revamped. Dr Jaishankar expressed happiness that the 956
Home Minister Amit Shah and Sports Minister Kiren Housing Units built with Indian support will be occupied
Rijiju, along with the Board of Control for Cricket in India soon.
(BCCI) secretary Jay Shah, were also present at the He thanked the workers who have done India proud.
event.
The Narendra Modi Stadium, the largest cricket ground 22) Answer: C
in the world will host its first international match on The Union Government and the Asian Infrastructure
Wednesday, when India will take on England in the Day- Investment Bank (AIIB) signed a loan agreement for a
Night Test. 304 million dollar Assam Intra-State Transmission
The stadium will be a part of the planned Sardar System Enhancement Project to improve reliability,
Vallabhbhai Patel Sports Enclave in the city. capacity and security of the power transmission network
The stadium is spread across 63 acres of land and has in the State of Assam.
three entry points. It has a seating capacity of 1,32,000 The project aims to strengthen Assam’s electricity
people. transmission system by constructing 10 transmission

substations and laying transmission lines, upgrading 15
21) Answer: D
Page 75 of 77
existing substations and providing technical assistance The facility, created by Delhi based DRDO laboratory
to support project implementation. Centre for Fire, Explosive and Environment Safety
(CFEES)
23) Answer: E Aim : At developing trained human resources, fire safety
Feb 24 is the second anniversary of Pradhan Mantri technology and products to save precious human lives
Kisan Samman Nidhi, PM KISAN. and valued assets.
The Scheme was formally launched on 24th February in
the year 2019 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at a 25) Answer: E

function at Gorakhpur in Uttar Pradesh. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has brought State
PM KISAN was started with a view to augment the Bank of Sikkim under its regulatory purview.
income of the farmers by providing income support to all The bank, established five years before Sikkim acceded
landholding farmers’ families across the country. to India in 1973, provides treasury operations for the
Under the PM KISAN Scheme, an amount of 6000 state government.
rupees per year is transferred in three installments of It only operates within Sikkim and is wholly-owned by
2000 rupees directly into the bank accounts of the the state government.
farmers. The bank’s ownership structure will not change, but it
will be regulated by the RBI on a par with other banks.
24) Answer: C
Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh has inaugurated Skill

Development Centre (SDC) for Fire Safety Training of
Defence Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO) at Pilkhuwa in Uttar Pradesh through virtual

mode on February 22, 2021
Page 76 of 77
Page 77 of 77
Page 1 of 86
Reasoning Ability
Directions (1-2): Relationship b etween d iffer ent All Navy is Air force
elements is shown in the statements fo llowed b y Conclusions:
two conclusions. Choose the c onclusion a s y our I) All Army being Navy is a possibility
answer which logically follows the given II). Some AF is BSF
statements. A. a
a) Only conclusion I follows B. b
b) Only conclusion II follows C. c
c) Either conclusion I or II follows D. d
d) Neither conclusion I nor II follows E. e
e) Both conclusion I and II follow
Directions (3-7): Study th e fo llowing s tatements
1) Statements: and then decide which o f th e g iven c onclusions
Only Gift is Doll logically follows from the given statements
Some Teddy is Gift disregarding commonly known facts.
Only a few Games is Teddy 3) Statement:
Conclusions: Only a few Diwali is Pongal
I) Some Teddy can be Doll All Pongal is New Year
II) Some Game is not Teddy Some New Year is Christmas
A. a Conclusion
B. b I). All Pongal is Diwali
C. c II). Some Pongal can be Christmas
D. d A. a
E. e B. b
C. c
2) Statements: D. d
Mostly Army is BSF E. e
Only a few BSF is Navy
Page 2 of 86
4) Statement All Kiwis is Apricot

Only a few Sweet is Salty No Apricot is Litchi
All Salty is Sour Conclusion
All Sour is Bitter I). Some Apricot is Coconut
Conclusion II). No Kiwi is Litchi
I). All Salty is Bitter A. a
II). No Sour is Sweet B. b
A. a C. c
B. b D. d
C. c E. e
D. d
E .e 7) Statements:
Only a few Days are Noon
5) Statement All Noon is Night
Only a few Figs is Cherry Some Night is Dark
No Cherry is Pear Conclusions:
No Pear is Orange I) Some Dark can be Days
Conclusion II). Some Noon is Dark
I). All Fig can be Cherry A. a
II). Some Cherry is not an Orange B. b
A. a C. c
B. b D. d
C. c E. e
D. d
E. e 8) Statements:
Only a few Crow is Dove
6) Statement Some Dove is Goose
Only a few Kiwis is Coconut No Goose is Turkey
Page 3 of 86
Conclusions: II). All Wiper is Gear

I). All Dove is Turkey A. a
II). Some Crow can be Goose B. b
A. a C. c
B. b D. d
C. c E. e
D. d
E. e 11) Statement
Only a few Radiators is Grilles
9) Statements: Some Grilles are Headlight
Only a few Ostrich are Sparrow Few Doors is Radiator
No Sparrow is Peacock Conclusion
All Peacock is Duck I). Some Grilles being Door is a possibility
Conclusions: II). No Radiator is Headlight
I). Some Sparrow being Duck is a possibility A. a
II). Some Ostrich is not Peacock B. b
A. a C. c
B. b D. d
C. c E. e
D. d
E. e Directions (12-20): In each of the followi ng
questions two s tatements a re g iven a nd th ese
10) Statements: statements are followed by two conclusions
Only a few Gears is Wheel numbered I and II. You have to take the given tw o
All Gear is Bumper statements to be true even i f th ey s eem to b e a t
All Bumpers is Wiper variance from commonly k nown fa cts. R ead th e
Conclusions: conclusions and then d ecide w hich o f th e g iven
I). No Wheel is Bumper
Page 4 of 86
conclusions logically fo llows fr om th e two g iven I). All silver can never be ruby
statements, disregarding commonly known facts. II). Few diamond can be silver
Answer: A. a
(a) If only I conclusion follows B. b
(b) If only II conclusion follows C. c
(c) If either I or II follows D. d
(d) If neither I nor II follows and E. e
(e) If both I and II follow
12) Statements: 14) Statements:
Only a few papers is plastic Only a few iball is hp
No plastic is pen All dell is hp
All pens are eraser Only a few dell is asus
All erasers are ink All asus is Lenovo
Conclusions: Conclusions:
I). All paper can never be ink I). All iball is Lenovo is a possibility
II). All pen can never be plastic is a possibility II).Few asus is hp
A. a A. a
B. b B. b
C. c C. c
D. d D. d
E. e E. e

Only a few ruby is emerald No HCL is TCS
Only a few emeralds is diamond All TCS are Accenture
All ruby is silver No TCS is Wipro
No diamond is silver Only a few HCL are IBM
Conclusions: Conclusions:
Page 5 of 86
I). Some Accenture are not IBM I) All scooty can never be yamaha
II). Few Wipro are Accenture II) Few scooty is Yamaha
A. a A. a
B. b B. b
C. c C. c
D. d D. d
E. e E. e

No peso is dollar Only a few teachers are lawyer
All peso is euro Only a few lawyers are doctor
All dollar is euro All teachers are professor
Only a few euro are dinar Conclusions:
Conclusions: I) Few professor are lawyers
I) All dinar can never be peso II) Some teachers are not doctor
II) Few dollar can be dinar A. a
A. a B. b
B. b C. c
C. c D. d
D. d E. e
E. e
19) Statements:
17) Statements: Only a few broccoli are potato
Only a few Suzuki are Yamaha All broccoli is corn
All dio is scooty All potato are lettuce
All scooty is Suzuki All lettuce is pumpkin
No dio is yamaha Conclusions:
Conclusions: I) Few lettuce is not corn
Page 6 of 86
II) All corn can be pumpkin Senior officer (SO) in different months from
A. a January to August in the same year, but not
B. b necessarily in the same order. Only one person
C. c with one designation is hired in the same month.
D. d R was hired in the month having less than 31 days
E. e and two months before the one who is hired as
CEO. Only two persons were hired between the
20) Statements: one who is hired as CEO and P where at least one
Only a few beagle is pug person was hired before P. The one who is hired
Only a few pug is boxer as a senior officer (SO) is hired immediately before
No boxer is dachshund P. T was hired in the month immediately before the
No dachshund is Rottweiler one who is hired as Senior officer (SO). The
Conclusions: number of persons hired before T is the same as
I) All Rottweiler can never be boxer the number of persons hired after S who is hired
II) Some beagle are not dachshund immediately after the one who is hired as non-
A. a clerical staff (Non-clerk). M, who is hired as
B. b Clerical staff (Clerk), was hired two months before
C. c the one who is hired for Non-clerical staff. Q was
D. d hired in the month having 31 days but not the last
E. e month. The one who is hired as Principal officer
(PO) is hired immediately after the one who is
Directions (21-25): Study the following information hired as Deputy Manager (DM). The one who is
carefully and answer the questions given below. hired as Assistant Manager (AM) is hired in one of
Eight persons viz. M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, and T are the months after the one who is hired as non-
hired in the bank at different posts viz. Assistant clerical staff (Non-clerk). O was neither hired as
Manager (AM), CEO, Clerical staff (Clerk), Deputy Senior officer (SO) nor hired in the month having
Manager (DM), General manager (GM), Non- 31 days.
clerical staff (Non-clerk), Principal officer (PO), and
Page 7 of 86
21) Who among the following is hired as the A. Deputy manager – January
CEO? B. Clerical staff – P
A. N C. Assistant manager – June
B. O D. O – April
C. S E. M – May
D. Q
E. None of these 25) Who among the following person was hired as
Deputy manager?
22) Who among the following person was hired i n A. R
January? B. M
A. The one who is hired as Principal officer C. P
B. R D. O
C. The one who is hired as General manager E. Q
D. S
E. None of these Directions (26-30): Read the following infor mation
carefully and answer the questions that follow.
23) The number of persons i s h ired b efore M i s Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G are going to
two persons less than the number of persons hired watch a movie on different days starting from
after the one who is hired as ______. Monday to Sunday (but not necessarily in the
A. Senior officer same order) at different timing.
B. Deputy manager C is going to watch a movie on one of the days
C. Non-clerical staff after Thursday. There is two days gap between the
D. No such person day in which C and E watch the movie. The one
E. None of these who watches the movie on a day immediately
before E watches the movie at 2:00 pm. There is
24) Four of the following five are alike in a cer tain three days gap between the person who watches
way and hence form a g r oup. Find t h e o ne th at the movie at 2:00 pm and the one who watches the
doesn’t belong to that group. movie at 12:30 pm. G watches the movie on the
Page 8 of 86
day immediately before A. Only one day gap 28) How many movies were watched i n b etween
between the movie watched by A and the one who the days on which the movies w atched b y G a n d
watches the movie at 10:45 am, who watches the C?
movie one of the days before A. Only one day gap A. 1
between the person who watches the movie at B. 2
10:45 am and the one who watches the movie at C. None
9:00 am. Only two days are the gap between D. 3
persons who watch the movie at 9:00 am and D. E. More than three
The one who watches the movie on a day
immediately before D watches the movie at 3:00 29) Which of the following statement is true
pm. One of the people watches the movie at 11:30 regarding B?
am. There is only one day gap between B and the A. The one who watched the movie on the day
one who watches the movie at 4:30 pm. immediately after B watch the movie at 3:00 pm
26 ) How many movies were watched before E ? B. Two movies were watched in between the days
A. 1 on which C and B watch the movie
B. 2 C. B watched the movie at9:00am
C. None D. Number of movies watched on the days after B
D. 3 is three
E. More than three E. A watches a movie one of the days after B.
27) Who among the following watch movie at 11:30 30) Which of the following statement is true?
am? A. The one who watches the movie immediately
A. E before A watches movie at 2:00 pm.
B. A B. Three movies were watched in between the
C. G days on which F and E watch the movie
D. C C. No movie is watched between the days on
E. D which F and A watch movie
D. No one watch a movie on a day before G
Page 9 of 86
E. Two days gap between the one who watches 31) Who among the following persons is attending
the movie at 10:45 am and the one who watches the marriage along with L in the same month?
the movie at 3:00 pm. A. K, M
B. F, E
Direction (31-35): Study the following i nform ation C. C, E
carefully and answer the below questions. D. J, B
Twelve persons namely – B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, E. None of these
K, L, and M are attending a marriage event in four
different months viz.- January, April, June, and 32) Which of the following s tatement i s/are n ot
September. Marriage event in each month was true?
scheduled on three different dates viz.- 9th, A. Two persons are attending marriage between E
16th, and 21st. No two persons attend the marriage and J.
on the same date of the same month. B. One person attends marriage between H and G.
Two persons are attending marriage between J C. Three persons are attending marriage between
and E. D attends marriage three months before G, B and H.
who attends marriage just before J. Both G and J D. One person attends the marriage between G
are attending a marriage in a different month. D and K.
attends marriage on an even date. C attends E. All of the above
marriage two months after M, who attends the statements are true.
marriage of a date which is a perfect square. At
least two persons are attending marriage between 33) Four of the five a re r elated to e a ch o ther i n
G and C.F attends marriage on an odd date just some way and th us fo rm a g r oup, find th e o dd
after L, who doesn’t attend a marriage in the same among all?
month with D. The number of persons attending A. D
marriage between M and D is one less than the B. H
number of persons attending marriage between F C. C
and H. I attend marriage three months before B but D. E
not attending on the 21st of the month. E. L
Page 10 of 86
was not scheduled on Monday. The exam of

34) How many persons a r e a ttending m a rriage Computer was scheduled three days after Ankita,
between M and J? but not on Saturday. The exam of Raunak was
A. As many as between G and H. scheduled on any day before Ankita but not on
B. Two Tuesday. Two persons attend the examination
C. As many as between L and C. between Raunak and the examination of English.
D. Three The examination of Shyam was immediately before
E. Both A and C the examination of English. Madhu attends the
exam of Hindi and was scheduled before the exam
35) Who among the following per son a ttends o n of Ankita. The number of exams scheduled
21 st of June? between Shreya and English is one less than the
A. D number of exams scheduled between Babu and
B. K Hindi. The number of persons is attending the
C. C exam before Geography is one more than the
D. M number of persons is attending the exam after
E. G Shreya. At least one person attends an exam
between Zeshan and the exam of History.
Direction (36-40): Study the following i nform ation 36) Who among the following person appeared fo r
carefully and answer the below questions. the Chemistry exam?
Seven persons namely – Shreya, Shyam, Ankita, A. The one whose exam was scheduled
Zeshan, Babu, Madhu, and Raunak having exams immediately before Zeshan.
were scheduled in a week from Monday to Sunday. B. Shyam
Exam of different subjects was scheduled on each C. Babu
day viz.- English, Biology, Hindi, Chemistry, D. Raunak
Computer, History, and Geography. All the E. None of these
information is not necessary in the same order.
The exam of Chemistry was scheduled
immediately the next day to Ankita, whose exam
Page 11 of 86
37) If Zeshan is related to Chemistry, and Babu i s 40) Zeshan was attended th e e xam o n w hich o f
related to Geography, then who among the the following day?
following person is related to Hindi? A. Monday
A. The one who appeared for Computer. B. Thursday
B. Raunak C. Tuesday
C. Madhu D. Sunday
D. The one who appeared for English. E. None of the above
E. None of these.
Direction (41-45): Study the following i nform ation
38) Which of the following exam i s s c heduled for carefully and answer the questions given below:
Wednesday? Six Couples i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, P, Q, R, S, T, and
A. The one scheduled just after History. U get married in three different months viz. April,
B. Geography August, and October, but not necessarily in the
C. The one immediately before the day to Babu. same order. They get married on 2 different dates
D. English viz. 5thand 28th. Each of the six couples gets
E. Either B or C married on six different dates.
Three couples get married between F’s husband
39) Which of the statement is true? and Q’s Wife. R gets married before Q. C was
A. As many persons have attended the exam after married to T on an even-numbered date. Two
Babu is the same before Hindi. couples get married between E’s husband and B’s
B. The computer exam was scheduled just before wife. E’s husband gets married before B’s wife. T
Shreya. was not a male. D is the husband of S. The
C. As many persons have attended the exam after number of couples who get married after S is the
Biology is the same before Shyam. same as the number of couples who get married
D. Two persons have attended the exam between before U’s husband. E’s husband gets married
Ankita and Madhu. before P and after A.
E. All the above statements are not true. 41) How many c o uples g et m ar ried b e fore R ’s
wife?
Page 12 of 86
A. Two D. U
B. Four E. C
C. Three
D. Five 45) Who among the following doesn’t g et m a rried
E. None in the month which has 30 days?
A. S
42) Who a mong th e following g ets m a rried o n B. R
5 th October? C. A
A.Q D. F
B.B E. D
C. U
D. Both (a) or (b) Directions (46-50): Study the following information
E. Both (a) and (c) carefully and answer the below questions.
Seven persons namely – D, F, H, K, R, T, and W
43) Which of the following p air o f h u sbands g e t were born in different months viz.- January, March,
married in the same month? April, June, July, August, and November in the
A. D, R same year. Each person likes different clothing
B. Q, C brands viz.- Wrangler, Pepe Jeans, Levi’s, Lee,
C. Q, R Duke, Mufti, and Allen Solly. All the above
D. R, C statements are not necessarily in the same order.
E. None of these Three persons were born between the one who
likes Lee and K, who likes Wrangler. R likes
44) Four of the following five are alike in a c e rtain neither Duke nor Lee. The one who likes Lee was
way and hence they form a g r oup. W hich o ne o f born in one of the months having an odd number of
the following does not belong to that group? days but neither in January nor in July. The one
A. F who likes Duke was born three persons before D,
B. E who doesn’t like Allen Solly. The one who likes
C. T Wrangler was born just after H, who likes neither
Page 13 of 86
Duke nor Allen Solly. The one who likes Duke born D. Both I and III
in neither January nor April. W was born just E. None of these.
before the one who likes Pepe Jeans. One person
was born between R and the one who likes Allen 48) F likes which of the following brand?
Solly. The number of persons born before R is one A. Levi’s
more than the number of persons born after W. B. Lee
The one who likes Pepe jeans was not born C. Duke
immediately before or immediately after the one D. Mufti
who likes Duke. Two persons were born between T E. Allen Solly
and the one who likes Levi’s
46) Who among the following person likes Mufti? 49) W was born in which of the following month?
A. The one who was born three persons after H A. March
B. D B. April
C. The one who C. June
was born two persons before F. D. July
D. T E. August
E. None of these
50) Who among th e following p erson w as b orn
47) Which of the following s tatement i s/are n ot immediately after R?
true? A. H
I). The one who likes Pepe-Jeans was born just B. K
after W. C. T
II). The one who likes Duke was born three D. F
persons after K. E. No one
III). The one who likes Lee was born just before F.
A. Only I Direction (51-55): Study the following i nform ation
B. Both II and III and answer the given questions.
C. Only III
Page 14 of 86
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H were born E. None of these

in eight different months March, May, June, July, 52) If E is related to parrot, A is related to rabbit, i n
August, October, November, and December. Each the same way, B is related to which of the
one of them likes different pet animals Dog, Bird, following?
Cat, Turtle, Parrot, Rabbit, Fish, and Rat but not A. Cat
necessarily in the same order. Person name starts B. Bird
with consecutive alphabet does not born in C. Dog
consecutive months. D. Rat
D was born in a month which has less than 31 E. None of these
days. G was born immediately after the one who
likes turtles. More than three persons were born 53) Which of the following statement is true?
between F and the one who likes rabbits. G does A. As many persons were born before C was born
not like a rabbit. The one who likes parrots was after the one who likes fish
born before the one who likes fish but was born B. Less than two persons were born between F
after the one who likes a rat. As many persons and the one who likes Cat
were born before E was born after the one who C. Three persons were born between D and the
likes rabbit. Three persons were born between C one who likes bird
and the one who likes the dog. B was born before D. More than three persons were born between G
H. Only one person was born between B and the and the one who likes a rat
one who likes birds. Two persons were born E. None is true
between D and the one who likes turtles. D does
not like fish. The one who likes rabbit born after F 54) How many persons w ere b orn a fter th e o ne
.51) How many persons were born between D a nd who likes fish?
the one who likes fish? A. 4
A. 1 B. 6
B. 2 C. 2
C. 3 D. 3
D. 4 E. None of these
Page 15 of 86
C. Turtle
55) D likes which of the following pet? D. Parrot
A. Bird E. Rabbit
B. Cat
1) Answer: B
4) Answer: A
2) Answer: E
3) Answer: B
5) Answer: D
Page 16 of 86
6) Answer: E
9) Answer: E
7) Answer: A
10) Answer: D
8) Answer: B
11) Answer: A
Page 17 of 86
12) Answer: D
15) Answer: D
16) Answer: B
13) Answer: D
17) Answer: A
14) Answer: E
Page 18 of 86
20) Answer: D
18) Answer: A
21) Answer: B
22) Answer: C
23) Answer: A
19) Answer: B 24) Answer: E

25) Answer: C
Page 19 of 86
month immediately before the one who is hired as

Senior officer (SO).
1. R was hired in the month having less than 31

days and two months before the one who is hired
3. The number of persons hired before T is the
as CEO. Only two persons were hired between the
same as the number of persons hired after S who is
one who is hired as CEO and P where at least one
hired immediately after the one who is hired as non-
person was hired before P.
clerical staff (Non-clerk). Hence, case 3 gets
eliminated.
2. The one who is hired as a senior officer (SO)

is hired immediately before P. T was hired in the
Page 20 of 86
4. M, who is hired as Clerical staff (Clerk), was

hired two months before the one who is hired for
Non-clerical staff. Q was hired in the month having
31 days but not the last month.
6. O was neither hired as Senior officer (SO) nor

hired in the month having 31 days. Hence, case 1
gets eliminated.
5. The one who is hired as Principal officer (PO) is

hired immediately after the one who is hired as
Deputy Manager (DM). The one who is hired as
Assistant Manager (AM) is hired in one of the
months after the one who is hired as non-clerical
staff (Non-clerk).
26) Answer: A
27) Answer: E
28) Answer: A
Page 21 of 86
29) Answer: E
30) Answer: B
C is going to watch the movie on one of the days
after Thursday. So here we have the three possible
cases.
There is two days gap between the day in which C
and E watch the movie.
The one who watches the movie on a day
immediately before E watches the movie at 2:00
pm.
There is three days gap between the person who
watches the movie at 2:00 pm and the one who
watches the movie at 12:30 pm.
G watches the movie on the day immediately before
A.
Only one day gap between the movie watched by A
and the one who watches the movie at 10:45 am,
who watches the movie one of the days before A.
Only one day is a gap between the person who

watches the movies at 10:45 am and the one who
watches the movie at 9:00 am.
Page 22 of 86
Only two days are the gap between persons the

one who watches the movie at 9:00 am and D.The
one who watches a movie on a day immediately
before D watches a movie at 3:00 pm.
Page 23 of 86
There is only one day gap between B and the one

who watches the movie at 4:30 pm. From this case-
2 and 3 get eliminated.
Page 24 of 86
One of the people watches the movie at 11:30 am.

So, the final arrangement is—
31) Answer: B
32) Answer: D
33) Answer: A
34) Answer: E
35) Answer: C
We have:
• D attends marriage three months before G,
who attends marriage just before J.
• Both G and J are attending a marriage in a
different month.
• D attends marriage on an even date.
That means G attends marriage on 21st April.
• Two persons are attending marriage
between J and E.
Page 25 of 86
That means, in case (1) E attends marriage on

9th April, in case (2) E attends marriage on
9th September.
Again, we have:
• The number of persons attending marriage
between M and D is one less than the
• C attends marriage two months after M, who number of persons attending marriage
attends the marriage of a date which is a between F and H.
perfect square. • F attends marriage on an odd date just after
• At least two persons are attending marriage L, who doesn’t attend a marriage in the same
between G and C. month with D.
That means, in case (1) & case (2a) M attends That means, in case (1) & case (2a) F attends
marriage on 16th April, in case (2b) M attends marriage on 21st September, case (2b) is not valid.
marriage on 9th April. • I attends marriage three months before B but
Based on the above-given information we have: not attending on the 21st of the month.
That means, in case (2a) I attend the marriage on
9th January, case (1) is not valid.
Page 26 of 86
Based on the above-given information we have the 38) Answer: B

final arrangement as follows: 39) Answer: E
40) Answer: D
We have:
• The exam of Chemistry was scheduled
immediately the next day to Ankita, whose
exam was not scheduled on Monday.
• The exam of Computer was scheduled three
days after Ankita, but not on Saturday.
Case (1) is not valid a s I a ttends m a rriage thr ee
That means, in case (1) Exam of Ankita was
months before B but not attending on the 21 st of the
scheduled on Thursday, in case (2) Exam of Ankita
month, case (2b) is not valid as the number of
was scheduled on Tuesday.
persons attending marriage b etween M a n d D i s
• The exam of Raunak was scheduled on any
one less than th e n um ber o f p ersons a ttending
day before Ankita but not on Tuesday.
marriage between F and H .
• Two persons attend the examination
between Raunak and the examination of
36) Answer: C
English.
37) Answer: D
Page 27 of 86
• The examination of Shyam was immediately That means, in case (1b) Madhu attends the exam
before the examination of English. on Tuesday, Shreya attends the exam on Saturday,
That means, in case (1a) Raunak attends case (1a) & case (2) are not valid.
examination on Wednesday, in case (1b) & case (2) Based on the above-given information we have:
Raunak attends examination on Monday.
Case (1a) is not valid as the number of exams

scheduled between Shreya and English is one l ess
Again, we have: than the number of exams scheduled between
• Madhu attends the exam of Hindi and was Babu and Hindi, c ase ( 2 ) i s n o t v alid a s M a dhu
scheduled before the exam of Ankita. attends the exam of Hindi and was scheduled
• The number of exams scheduled between before the exam of Ankita.
Shreya and English is one less than the Again, we have:
number of exams scheduled between Babu • At least one person attends an exam
and Hindi. between Zeshan and the exam of History.
• The number of persons is attending the That means Raunak attends the History exam.
exam before Geography is one more than Based on the above-given information we have the
the number of persons is attending the exam final arrangement as follows:
after Shreya.
Page 28 of 86
Two couples get married between E’s husband and

B’s wife.
E’s husband gets married before B’s wife.
From this condition Case, 2 is ruled out now and we
get one more possibility i.e. Case 3a.
41) Answer: A
42) Answer: E
43) Answer: D
44) Answer: E
45) Answer: B
From the given statements, three couples get
married between F’s husband and Q’s Wife. R gets
married before Q.
From these conditions, we have 3 possibilities i .e.
Case 1, Case 2, and Case 3.
C was married to T on an even-numbered date.
T was not a male.
Page 29 of 86
D is the husband of S. E’s husband gets married before P and after A.
The number of couples who get married after S is From this condition Case, 3a is ruled o ut n ow. S o,
the same as the number of couples who get the final arrangement is-
married before U’s husband.

From these conditions, Case 3 is ruled out now.
46) Answer: C
47) Answer: B
48) Answer: E
49) Answer: E
50) Answer: C
Page 30 of 86
• The one who likes Duke born in neither

January nor April.
That means, in case (1) & case (2) the one who
likes Duke was born in June.
We have:
• The one who likes Lee was born in one of Again, we have:
the months having an odd number of days • One person was born between R and the
but neither in January nor in July. one who likes Allen Solly.
• Three persons were born between the one • R likes neither Duke nor Lee.
who likes Lee and K, who likes Wrangler. • The number of persons born before R is one
• The one who likes Wrangler was born just more than the number of persons born after
after H, who likes neither Duke nor Allen W.
Solly. • The one who likes Pepe jeans was not born
That means, in case (1) the one who likes Lee was immediately before or immediately after the
born in March, in case (2) the one who likes Lee one who likes Duke.
was born in August. • W was born just before the one who likes
• The one who likes Duke was born three Pepe Jeans.
persons before D, who doesn’t like Allen That means, in case (2) R was born in April, case
Solly. (1) is not valid.
Page 31 of 86
Case (1) is not valid as the number of persons born

before R is one more than the num ber o f p ersons
51) Answer: A
born after W.
52) Answer: C
Again, we have:
53) Answer: E
• Two persons were born between T and the
54) Answer: D
one who likes Levi’s
55) Answer: B
That means, T was born in June, and H likes Levi’s.
->D was born in a month which has less than 31
days.
->Two persons were born between D and the one
who likes turtles.
->G was born immediately after the one who likes
turtles.
Page 32 of 86
->Three persons were born between C and the one

who likes the dog.
->B was born before H.
->Only one person was born between B and the
one who likes birds.
->The one who likes parrots was born before the
one who likes fish but was born after the one who
likes a rat.
->More than three persons were born between F
->D does not like fish.
and the one who likes rabbits. G does not like a
rabbit.
->As many persons were born before E was born
after the one who likes rabbit.
->The one who likes rabbit born after F.
Case 2:B will be dropped because only one person

was born between B and the one who likes birds.
Case 1 will be dropped because E and F do not

born in the consecutive month.
1. Rahul invests Rs.2000 in scheme A which offers he also invests Rs.6000 in scheme B which offers
simple interest at the rate of 12% per annum and compound interest on the condition that interest
Page 33 of 86
rate will doubled after every year, the rate of The total interest received by Meena and Nila is
interest for first year is 10% per annum. What is Rs.4092. If Nirmal invests Rs.2x in simple interest
the difference interest amount received by Rahul scheme at the rate of 10% per annum for 2 years
after 2 years from scheme A and B? and Rani invests Rs.2y in simple interest scheme
A.Rs.1440 at the rate of 15% per annum for 3 years and total
B.Rs.1280 interest received by Rani and Nirmal is Rs.5970,
C.Rs.1840 find the value of x?
D.Rs.1640 A.Rs.4500
E. None of these B.Rs.4800
C.Rs.5100
2. Roshni deposited three different amount in three D.Rs.5400
different schemes-A, B and C for 2 years each in E.Rs.5700
the ratio of 4:3:5, scheme A and B offers simple
interest at the rate of 8% and 12% respectively and 4. Nithish invests Rs.x in scheme A which offers
scheme C offers compound interest at the rate of simple interest at the rate of 20% per annum for 3
10% per annum. If the total interest obtained by years. Surya invests Rs.y in scheme B which offers
Roshni is Rs.7712, then find the total amount compound interest at the rate of 15% per annum
deposited by her in all the schemes together? for 3 years. The value of y is equal to the three-
A.Rs.38400 fourth of the total amount received by Nithish from
B.Rs.36700 scheme A. If the total interest received by Nithish
C.Rs.33400 and Surya after three years is Rs.9800.4, then find
D.Rs.40500 the value of x?
E.Rs.39700 A.Rs.6000
B.Rs.8000
3. Meena invests Rs.x in compound interest C.Rs.7000
scheme at the rate of 20% per annum for 2 years, D.Rs.9000
Nila invests Rs.y in the same compound interest E.Rs.10000
scheme at the rate of 20% per annum for 2 years.
Page 34 of 86
5. A and B lent Rs 10000 and Rs 16000 to C and D E. None of these

for 5 years at 10% per annum and 5% per annum
for simple interest, after that A and B reinvest the 7. Kani invests Rs.9000 in scheme A which offers
total amount in particular business, A starts the simple interest at the rate of 15% per annum for 4
business after particular month B joins in a years and Ragu invests his amount in scheme A
business, at the end of the one year, A and B which offers simple interest at the ra te of 10% per
share their profit in the ratio of 9:8, then find how annum for 4 years. Kavin invests his amount in
many months after B joins in a Business. scheme B which offers compound interest at the
A.8 Months rate of 15% per annum for 2 years. Ratio of the
B.6 Months investment amount of Ragu to Kavin is 5:6 and the
C.4 Months interest amount received by Kani is 12.5% more
D.9 Months than the interest amount received by Ragu after 4
E. None of these years. What is the difference between the interest
received by Kani and Kavin?
6. Priyanka invests Rs.x in simple interest scheme A.Rs.854
at the rate of 15% per annum for 3 years and B.Rs.798
Rahul invests Rs.(x + 8000) in compound interest C.Rs.828
scheme at the rate of 10% per annum fo r 2 years. D.Rs.756
Soniya invests Rs.(2x + 8000) in compound E. None of these
interest scheme at the rate of 20% per annum for 2
years. If the interest received by Soniya is Rs.3248 8. Pooja planned to invest Rs.x in fixed deposit in
more than the sum of the interest received by compound interest scheme at the rate of 15% per
Rahul and Priyanka, then find the investment annum for 3 years. Due to some reason, Pooja
amount of Soniya? withdrew her whole amount after 2 years so that
A.Rs.16800 she got only 10% compound rate of interest
B.Rs.18800 instead of 15% as penalty. If Pooja got Rs.1243.5
C.Rs.19090 less than the interest which she expect at the end
D.Rs.20800 of 3 years, then find the value of x?
Page 35 of 86
A.Rs.3000 received Rs 40 more as total interest. How much

B.Rs.3600 did he invest at 12% simple interest initially?
C.Rs.4500 A.Rs.16500
D.Rs.4000 B.Rs.15600
E.Rs.4800 C.Rs.17200
D.Rs.12400
9. Ritu had Rs 8000. She invested some of it in E. None of these
Scheme A and the rest of the money in Scheme B.
She invested for 3 years in Scheme A and 2 years 11. The ratio of the amount ha s Amit and Sameer
in Scheme B. Scheme A offers simple interest at a is 5:8. If Amit invested his amount in simple
rate of 20% pa while Scheme B compounded interest scheme at the rate of 15% per annum for 4
annually at the rate of 30% pa. The interest years and Sameer invested his amount in
received from Scheme A is Rs 930 more than the compound interest scheme at the rate of 10% per
interest received from scheme B. Find the annum for 2 years. If the sum of the interest
difference between the sums invested by Ritu in received by Amit and Sameer is Rs.29952, then
Scheme A and Scheme B. what is the difference between the amount has by
A.Rs.5200 Amit and Sameer?
B.Rs.3500 A.Rs.19200
C.Rs.4000 B.Rs.18400
D.Rs.2000 C.Rs.20400
E. None of these D.Rs.16800
E.Rs.15200
10. Satish invested some amount at the rate of
12% simple interest and a certain amount at the 12. Difference between CI and SI of a certain sum
rate of 10% simple interest and he received total after 2 years at R% rate of interest is ‘P’ a nd that
interest of Rs 3830 for one year. If he had after 3 years at same rate of interest is ‘Q’. Ratio of
interchanged the amount invested, he would have P and Q is 20: 63, respectively. If that certain sum
Page 36 of 86
is Rs.16000, then find the difference between P ‘2.5r’% rate of interest compounded annually, and
and Q? interest received from scheme B is Rs.735. Find
A.Rs.734 the interest received from scheme A?
B.Rs.798 A.Rs.212
C.Rs.766 B.Rs.215
D.Rs.720 C.Rs.206
E.Rs.774 D.Rs.209
E.Rs.204
13. Amithabh invested Rs.2800 in SBI b ank which
offers simple interest at the rate of x% per annum 15. Elsa deposited certain amount at 15% per
for x years and after x years, he received the annum compound interest scheme A for 2 years
simple interest of Rs.700. Abhisheik invested and she also invested same amount of sum in
Rs.2800 in compound interest scheme at the rate scheme B which offers simple interest at the rate of
of x% per annum for 2 years and Aysh invests 12% per annum for 3 years. If Elsa received the
Rs.3600 on simple interest scheme at the rate of total amount from Scheme B is Rs.525 more than
12% per annum for x years. What is the difference the amount received from scheme A, then find the
between the interest received by Abhisheik and sum?
Aysh? A.Rs.15000
A.Rs.1873 B.Rs.10000
B.Rs.1883 C.Rs.12000
C.Rs.1983 D.Rs.11000
D.Rs.1863 E.Rs.14000
E.Rs.1923
Directions (16-20): Study the following data
14. A certain sum ‘P’ is invested in scheme A and it carefully and answer the questions:
becomes 108.16% after 2 years at ‘r’% rate of Radar graph given below shows the average
interest compounded annually. Another sum of Rs. number of Red and Blue balls and difference
(P + 1000) is invested in scheme B for 2 years at
Page 37 of 86
between Red and Blue balls in five different bags 16. If 3 red balls from bag A are painted Green,
A, B, C, D and E. then probability of selecting 2 g reen balls from that
Total balls in the bag = Red balls + Blue balls + bag is increased by what percent from the original
Green balls probability?
Note: Red balls are more than Blue balls in only A. 120%
bags A and E and total number of balls in any one B. 280%
can’t exceed 20. C. 180%
D. 320%
A
6 E. None of these
5
4
3
17. If 3 more balls of colour red and blue colour are
E 2 B
1 added to bag B and now the probability of selecting
0
2 balls out of which one is Blue and one is green
becomes (1/11), then what will be the probability of
selecting 3 red balls from that bag?
D C
A. 2/33
B. 3/44
Average Difference
C. 4/55
D. 5/66
Ratio of total balls in bag A to that in bag B is 2: 1 E. None of these
and probability of selecting 2 balls from bag B out
of which one is green and other is blue is (1/7). 18. What will be the probability of selecting 2 balls
Probability of selecting 2 balls from bag C in such a of different colours from bag C?
way that both are either Red or Blue is (4/45). A. 21/55
Average of total number of balls in all the five bags B. 31/45
together is 11.6 and probability of selecting 2 C. 11/35
Green balls from bag E is (1/12). D. 1/15
E. None of these
Page 38 of 86
years for which investment made by individual in a

19. If ‘x’ white balls are added to the bag D in such particular business.
a way that probability of selecting 2 blue balls from A B C D E
the bag becomes (1/10), then what will be the P I II III IV V
probability of selecting ‘x/2’ red balls from bag D Q IV V I II III
after adding ‘x’ white balls? R V I II III IV
A. 1/131
B. 1/144 The chart given below shows the investment made
C. 2/121 by a particular individual (having same sum of
D. 1/133 money i.e. Rs. 18000 each) on 5 business.
E. None of these
I
20. What will be the probability of selecting 3 balls 1
0.8
from bag E in such a way that 2 balls are of same
0.6
colour and one is of different colour? V
0.4
II
0.2
A. 55/84
00 000
0
B. 45/74
C. 65/94
D. 53/88 IV III
E. None of these
I II III IV V
Directions (21-25): Read the data carefully and
answer the following questions.
There are 5 businesses A, B, C, D and E, 3 friends
P, Q and R who invests in these businesses in the 21. Find the ratio of the profit earned by all three
same sequence but in different order. Table given individuals in business C?
below represents the same and also the number of A. 6: 9: 10

B. 9: 6: 10
Page 39 of 86
C. 9: 4: 6 24. Investment made by R in business C is

D. 9: 4: 10 approximately what percent of that the profit
E. none of these earned by R in business E using all the data of
previous question?
22. Total profit eared by Q is Rs. ---------- in all its A. 162%
businesses together, which is shared in the ratio --- B. 156%
----then the profit earned by Q in business D is Rs. C. 148%
-----------. D. B and C
A) 9180, 16: 10: 6: 10: 9 and 1800 E. All of the above
B) 8670, 16: 10: 10: 9: 6 and 1530
C) 9690, 16: 10: 6: 10: 9 and 1900 25. Profit earned by P in all the business is in the
D) 8160, 16: 10: 10: 9: 6 and 1440 ratio x: y: z, then find the profit earned by P in
business B, if it is given that the total profit earned
A. A and B in business D is Rs 4550?
B. B and D A. Rs 1200
C. A and C B. Rs 1250
D. All follows C. Rs 1300
E. None follows D. B and C
E. None of these
23. Using all the data of the previous Question, find
the difference between profit eared by P and R in Directions (26-35):
business E? What approximate value should come in the place
A. Rs 1080 of (?) in the following questions?
B. Rs 1120 26. 28.06% of 149.912 + 55.55% of 134.99 = ? *
C. Rs 1140 √170
D. A and B A. 7
E. A and C B. 9
C. 11
Page 40 of 86
D. 5 C. 150
E. 13 D. 90
E. 170
27. (128.97 ÷ 1469.01) * (113.05 ÷ 3353.89) * ? =
14.91 31. 15.05% of 299.91 + ? 2 = 275.94 ÷ √530 +
A. 4890 321.97
B. 4920 A. 17
C. 5020 B. 19
D. 5070 C. 21
E. 5090 D. 14
E. 11
28. 45.08 * √575 + 125.02 * √145 = ? * 30.05
A. 86 32. ? 2 = 30.05 * 8.96 + 40.03 % of 360.11 + 34.95
B. 91 * √3.91
C. 75 A. 19
D. 81 B. 22
E. 96 C. 25
D. 17
29. 719.891 ÷ √64.03 + 48.19 * √26 = ? + 129.91 E. 15
A. 180
B. 160 33. 19.96 % of 39.891 % of 625.01 + (√1849.24 ÷
C. 200 6.01) * √145 = ?
D. 220 A. 128
E. 240 B. 136
C. 146
30. 15.18% of 199.910 + 63.908% of 124.976 = ? D. 148
A. 110 E. 156
B. 130
Page 41 of 86
34. 29.971% of 580.07 + 20.19 % of 210.08 = ? + B. 11108

46.25 C. 87
A. 140 D. 364
B. 150 E. 26
C. 170
D. 190 38. 5, 5, 12, 38, 103, 225
E. 210 A. 12
B. 38
35. 10.91 * 79.945 – √1369.23 * 61.31 = ? – C. 5
48.412 * 52.22 D. 103
A. 1178 E. 225
B. 1110
C. 1129 39. 17, 29, 65, 125, 209, 318
D. 1119 A. 318
E. 1138 B. 125
C. 29
Directions (36-45): D. 209
Find out the wrong number in the following number E. 65
series.
36. 16, 24, 60, 210, 947, 5197.5 40. 13, 78, 390, 1560, 4680, 9340
A. 210 A. 78
B. 5197.5 B. 4680
C. 947 C. 390
D. 24 D. 9340
E. 60 E. 1560
37. 11, 26, 87, 364, 1845, 11108 41. 12, 60, 270, 1080, 3760, 11340
A. 1845 A. 3760
Page 42 of 86
B. 11340 B. 112
C. 270 C. 41
D. 1080 D. 145
E. 60 E. 60
42. 16, 161, 284, 387, 472, 540 Directions (46-60):

A. 161 Following question contains two equations as I and
B. 472 II. You have to solve both equations and determine
C. 540 the relationship between them.
D. 284 46.
E. 387 I) x(5/3) ÷ 8 = 4.5 ÷ x(1/3)
II) y * 221 = 17 * (y2 + 42)
43. 45, 69, 108, 164, 236, 335 A. x > y
A. 164 B. x ≥ y
B. 236 C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
C. 108 D. x < y
D. 335 E. x ≤ y
E. 69
47.
44. 1727, 1327, 991, 713, 487, 310 I) (x + 2)! = (x + 1)!
A. 487 II) 2 * y! = (y + 1)!
B. 713 A. x > y
C. 310 B. x ≥ y
D. 991 C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
E. 1327 D. x < y
E. x ≤ y
45. 24, 41, 60, 83, 112, 145
A. 83 48.
Page 43 of 86
I) 2x2 – 20x + 32 = 0 I) x2 – x – 132 = 0

II) 3y2– 3y – 18 = 0 II) y2 – 17y – 18 = 0
A. x > y A. x > y
B. x ≥ y B. x ≥ y
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined. C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
D. x < y D. x < y
E. x ≤ y E. x ≤ y
established. 52.
I) 3x2 – 15x + 18 = 0
49. II) y2 + 13y + 22 = 0
I) x2+ 5x - 84 = 0 A. x > y
II) y2+ 26y + 168 = 0 B. x ≥ y
A. x > y C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
B. x ≥ y D. x < y
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined. E. x ≤ y
D. x < y
E. x ≤ y 53.
I) x2 + 7x + 6 = 0
50. II) y2 + 5y + 6 = 0
I) x2 - 28x + 195 = 0 A. x > y
II) y2- y – 240 = 0 B. x ≥ y
A. x > y C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined
B. x ≥ y D. x < y
D. x < y
E. x ≤ y 54.
51. I) 2x + y = 13
Page 44 of 86
II) 3x + 4y = 32 II) y2 – 28y + 195 = 0

A. x > y A. x > y
B. x ≥ y B. x ≥ y
D. x < y D. x < y
E. x ≤ y E. x ≤ y
55. 58.
I) x2 – 2x + 1 = 0 I) x2 – 14x – 207 = 0
II) y2 + y – 2 = 0 II) y2 + 25y + 144 = 0
A. x > y A. x > y
B. x ≥ y B. x ≥ y
D. x < y D. x < y
E. x ≤ y E. x ≤ y
56. 59.
I) x 2 + 11x - 126 = 0 I) x2 – 31x + 238 = 0
II) y 2 - 19y + 84 = 0 II) y2 – 25y + 154 = 0
A. If x < y A. x > y
B. If x > y B. x ≥ y
C. If x ≤ y C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
D. If x ≥ y D. x < y
E. If relationship between x and y cannot be E. x ≤ y
determined
60.
57. I) (x + 2)! = 42 * x!
I) x2 – 33x + 272 = 0 II) y2 + 4y – 32 = 0
Page 45 of 86
A. x > y D. x < y
B. x ≥ y E. x ≤ y
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.

1. Answer: A 4x + 9y = 59700----(2)
SI = P * N * R/100 5y = 22500
SI= 2000*2* 12 /100=480 y = 4500
CI = P * (1 + R/100)n - P x = 9300 – 4500 = Rs.4800
CI=6000 * (1+10/100)*(1+ 20/100))- 6000
= 1920 4. Answer: B
Difference = 1920 – 480 = 1440 SI = P * N * R/100
CI = P * (1 + R/100)n – P
2. Answer: A SI = x * 3 * 20/100 = 3x/5
(4x * 8 * 2/100) + (3x * 12 * 2/100) + (5x * (1 + Total amount = 3x/5 + x = 8x/5
10/100)2 – 5x) = 7712 Initial investment of Surya = 8x/5 * 3/4 =6x/5
0.64x + 0.72x + 1.05x = 7712 CI = 6x/5 * (1 + 15/100)3 – 6x/5
x = 3200 = 0.62505x
Required total = 12 * 3200 = 38400 3x/5 + 0.62505x = 9800.4
3x + 3.12525x = 49002
3. Answer: B x = 8000
CI = P * (1 + R/100)n – P
SI = P * N * R/100 5. Answer: C
4092 = x * (1 + 20/100)2 – x + y * (1 + 20/100)2 – y A and B lent Rs 10000 and Rs 16000 to C and D for
4092 = 0.44x + 0.44y 5 years at 10% per annum and 5% per annum for
x + y = 9300----(1) simple interest
5970 = (2x * 10 * 2/100) + (2y * 15 * 3/100) 10000*5*10/100=5000
597000 = 40x + 90y So total Amount=15000
Page 46 of 86
B=16000*5*5/100=4000 SI received by Kani = (9000 * 15 * 4)/100 = Rs.5400

So total amount becomes 16000+4000=20000 Interest received by Ragu = 5400 * 100/112.5 =
After than A and B entered into business Rs.4800
15000*12 : 20000*X Investment amount of Ragu = Rs.a
They share their profit in the ratio 9:8 4800 = (a * 10 * 4)/100
15000*12/20000*X=9/8 a = Rs.12000
15*12/20*X=9/8 Amount invested by Kavin = 12000 * 6/5 =
X=8 Rs.14400
So after 4 month B joined in a business. CI received by Kavin = 14400 * (1 + 15/100)2 –
14400
6. Answer: D = Rs.4644
CI = P * (1 + R/100)n – P Required difference = 5400 – 4644 = Rs.756
SI = P * R * N/100
SI received by Priyanka = (x * 15 * 3)/100 = 45x/100 8. Answer: D
CI received by Rahul = (x + 8000) * (1 + 10/100)2 – (x * (115/100)3 – x) – (x * 110/100 * 110/100 – x) =
(x + 8000) 1243.5
= 1.21x + 9680 – x – 8000 = 0.21x + 1680 0.520875x – 0.21x = 1243.5
CI received by Soniya = (2x + 8000) * (1 + 0.310875x = 1243.5
20/100)2 – (2x + 8000) x = 4000
= 2.88x + 11520 – 2x – 8000
= 0.88x + 3520 9. Answer: D
0.88x + 3520 – 0.21x – 1680 – 0.45x = 3248 Let the amount invested in scheme A is Rs X.
0.22x = 1408 Amount invested in Scheme B is Rs (8000-X)
x = Rs.6400 Compounding at 30% for 2 years, rate
Required amount = 2 * 6400 + 8000 = Rs.20800
ATQ,
7. Answer: D
60% of X -69% of (8000-X) = 930
SI = P * N * R/100
Page 47 of 86
X = Rs.16500
11. Answer: A
SI = P * N * R/100
CI = P * (1 + R/100)n – P
Interest received by Amit = 5x * 15 * 4/100 = 3x
Interest received by Sameer = 8x * (1 + 10/100)2 –
8x
= 1.68x
3x + 1.68x = 29952
x = 6400
Difference between the sums invested by Ritu in Required difference = 8x – 5x = 3x
Scheme A and Scheme B=5000-3000=2000 = 3 * 6400 = 19200
10. Answer: A 12. Answer: E

Let satish invests Rs X at 12% and Rs Y at 10% Difference between CI and SI for 2 years:
Now, P = 16000 * (R/100)2
X x 12/100 + Y x 10/100 = 3830 Difference between CI and SI for 3 years:
6X +5Y = 191500 --------(i) Q = 16000 * (R/100)2 * (300 + R)/100
And, X x 10/100 + Y x 12/100 = 3830 + 40 = 3870 Since,
5X + 6Y = 193500 --------(ii) P/Q = 20/63
From eq. (i) & (ii) So,
36X + 30Y = 1149000
25X + 30Y = 967500
11X = 181500
X = 181500/11 6300 = 6000 + 20R
Page 48 of 86
R = 15 (P + 1000) * (121/100) = P + 1735

Now, 121P + 121000 = 100P + 173500
P = 16000 * (15/100)2 = 360 21P = 52500
And, P = 2500
Q = 16000 * (15/100)2 * (315/100) = 1134 Amount invested in scheme A = Rs.2500
So, difference between P and Q = 1134 – 360 = So, interest received from scheme A = 8.16% of
Rs.774 2500 = Rs.204
13. Answer: A 15. Answer: E

2800 * x * x/100 = 700 CA = P * (1 + R/100)n
x=5 SI = P * N * R/100
CI received by Abhisheik = 2800 * (105/100)2 – Sum = P
2800 = 287 (P + (P * 12 * 3/100)) – (P * (1 + 15/100)2) = 525
SI received by Aysh = 3600 * 5 * 12/100 = 2160 1.36P – 1.3225P = 525
Difference = 2160 – 287 = 1873 P = Rs.14000
14. Answer: E Directions (16-20):

In scheme A: Table given below shows the red and blue balls in
P * (1 + r/100)2 = P * (108.16/100) five bags:
(1 + r/100)2 = 10816/10000 Bags Red Blue
(1 + r/100)2 = 676/625 A (11 + 5)/2 = 8 (11 – 5)/2 = 3
1 + r/100 = 26/25 B (7 – 1)/2 = 3 (7 + 1)/2 = 4
r/100 = (26/25) – 1 C (5 – 1)/2 = 2 (5 + 1)/2 = 3
r = 4% D (12 – 2)/2 = 5 (12 + 2)/2 = 7
In scheme B: E (6 + 2)/2 = 4 (6 – 2)/2 = 2
Rate of interest = 2.5 * 4 = 10% Probability of selecting 2 balls from bag B out of
So, which one is green and other is blue = (4 * b)/7 + bC2
(P + 1000) * (1 + 10/100)2 = P + 1000 + 735 = (1/7)
Page 49 of 86
8b/(7 + b)(6 + b) = 1/7 3 =4

56b = b2 + 13a + 42 C (5 – 1)/2 = (5 + 1)/2 5 10
b2 – 43b + 42 = 0 2 =3
b = 1 or 42 (Not valid) D (12 – 2)/2 (12 + 3 15
Total balls in bag B = 3 + 4 + 1 = 8 =5 2)/2 = 7
Total balls in bag A = 8 * (2/1) = 16 E (6 + 2)/2 = (6 – 2)/2 3 9
Total green balls in bag A = a = 16 – 8 – 3 = 5 4 =2
Probability of selecting 2 balls from bag C in such a 16. Answer: C
way that both are either Red or Blue = (2C 2 + 3C2)/5 Probability of selecting 2 green balls from bag A =
+ cC2 = (4/45) 5C 2/16C 2 = 10/120
8/(5 + c)(4 + c) = 4/45 Number of green balls after painting = 5 + 3 = 8
(5 + c)(4 + c) = 90 Now, Probability of selecting 2 green balls from bag
c = 5 and -14 (Not valid) A = 8C2/16C 2 = 28/120
Total balls in bag C = 2 + 3 + 5 = 10 Increase in the probability = (28/120) – (10/120) =
Probability of selecting 2 Green balls from bag E = (18/120)
eC 2/6 + eC 2 = (1/12) Required percent = [(18/120)/(10/120)] * 100 =
e(e – 1)/(6 + e)(5 + e) = 1/12 180%
11e2 – 23e – 30 = 0
e=3 17. Answer: A
Total balls in bag E = 4 + 2 + 3 = 9 Let ‘x’ blue balls are added to the bag B.
Total balls in bag D = (11.6 * 5) – (16 + 8 + 10 + 9) Probability of selecting 2 balls out of which one is
= 15 Blue, and one is green =(4 + x)/11C 2 = (1/11)
Green balls in bag D = 15 – 5 – 7 = 3 (4 + x)/5 = 1
Bags Red Blue Gre Total x=1
en Hence, number of red balls added to bag B = 3 – x
A (11 + 5)/2 (11 – 5 16 =2
=8 5)/2 = 3 Probability of selecting 3 red balls from that bag =
B (7 – 1)/2 = (7 + 1)/2 1 8 5C 3/11C 3 = 10/165 = 2/33
Page 50 of 86
Probability of selecting 2 red and one green balls

18. Answer: B from bag E = (4C2 * 3C 1)/9C3
Probability of selecting one red and one blue ball = 18/84
from bag C = (2 * 3)/10C2 Probability of selecting 2 blue and one red balls
= 2/15 from bag E = (2C2 * 4C 1)/9C3
Probability of selecting one red and one green ball = 4/84
from bag C = (3 * 5)/10C2 Probability of selecting 2 blue and one green balls
= 1/3 from bag E = (2C2 * 3C 1)/9C3
Probability of selecting one blue and one green ball = 3/84
from bag C = (2 * 5)/10C2 Probability of selecting 2 green and one red balls
= 2/9 from bag E = (3C2 * 4C 1)/9C3
Required probability = (2/15) + (1/3) + (2/9) = (6 + = 12/84
15 + 10)/45 = 31/45 Probability of selecting 2 green and one blue balls
from bag E = (3C2 * 2C 1)/9C3
19. Answer: D = 6/84
Probability of selecting 2 blue balls from the bag = Required probability = (12 + 18 + 4 + 3 + 12 + 6)/84
7C 2/15 + x C 2 = (1/10) = 55/84
42/(15 + x)(14 + x) = 1/10
x2 + 29x – 210 = 0 Directions (21-25):
x = 6 and -35 (Not valid) 21. Answer: B
Probability of selecting ‘x/2 = 3’ red balls from bag According to the chart:
D = 5C3/21C 3 = 10/1330 Investment in business C by
= 1/133 P = 15% of 18000
= Rs 2700
20. Answer: A For 3 years
Probability of selecting 2 red and one blue balls Q = 30% of 18000
from bag E = (4C2 * 2C 1)/9C 3 = 5400
= 12/84 For 1 year
Page 51 of 86
R = 25% of 18000 = Rs 1620

= 4500 The ratio of profit in business E by all 3 individuals
For 2 years = 1800*5: 2700*3: 3600*4
Required ratio = 2700*3: 5400*1: 4500*2 = 10: 9: 16
= 9: 6: 10 Required difference = 16 – 10 = 6
Given 9 = 1620
22. Answer: C 6 = Rs. 1080
For business A From option C of the previous Question
Q invested Rs 3600 for 4 years Q’s profit in E is
For business B = Rs 1710
Q invested Rs 1800 for 5 years The ratio of profit in business E by all 3 individuals
For business C = 1800*5: 2700*3: 3600*4
Q invested Rs 5400 for 1 years = 10: 9: 16
For business D Required difference = 16 – 10 = 6
Q invested Rs 4500 for 2 years Given 9 = 1710
For business E 6 = Rs. 1140
Q invested Rs 2700 for 3 years
Ratio of Q’s investment made in all the business 24. Answer: D
= 16: 10: 6: 10: 9 Investment of R in C is Rs. 4500
Hence option. from previous Question ratio of the investment in all
A and C satisfies. the business by Q
= 16: 10: 6: 10: 9
23. Answer: E The ratio of profit in business E by all 3 individuals
from previous Question ratio of the investment in = 1800*5: 2700*3: 3600*4
all the business by Q = 10: 9: 16
= 16: 10: 6: 10: 9 Condition1.
From option A of the previous Question Profit earned by R in E
Q’s profit in E is Given 9 = 1620
Page 52 of 86
1 = 180 16 = 2080
R in E = 16*180 10 = 1300
= 2880 Hence required Answer is Rs. 1300
Required % = 4500/2880
= 156% Directions (26-35):
Condition2. 26. Answer: B
Profit earned by R in E 28.06% of 149.912 + 55.55% of 134.99 = ? * √170
Given 9 = 1710 28/100 * 150 + 5/9 * 135 = ? * √169
1 = 190 42 + 75 = ? * 13
R in E = 16*190 ?=9
= Rs 3040
Required % = 4500/3040 27. Answer: D
= 148% (128.97 ÷ 1469.01) * (113.05 ÷ 3353.89) * ? =
14.91
25. Answer: C 129 ÷ 1469 * 113 ÷ 3354 * ? = 15
Ratio of Profit earned by P in all its business 1/13 * 1/26 * ? = 15
= 5400*1: 4500*2: 2700*3: 3600*4: 1800*5 ? = 5070
= 6: 10: 9: 16: 10
Ratio of profit earned in business D is 28. Answer: A
= 3600*4: 4500*2: 2700*3 45.08 * √575 + 125.02 * √145 = ? * 30.05
= 16: 10: 9 45 * √576 + 125 * √144 = ? * 30
Given 16+10+9 = 35 1080 + 1500 = ? * 30
35 = 4550 ? = 86
1 = 130
Profit of P in business D 29. Answer: C
= 130*16 719.891 ÷ √64.03 + 48.19 * √26 = ? + 129.91
= Rs 2080 720 ÷ √64 + 48 * √25 = ? + 130
Profit of P in business B 90 + 240 = ? + 130
Page 53 of 86
? = 200
34. Answer: C
30. Answer: A 29.971% of 580.07 + 20.19 % of 210.08 = ? + 46.25
15.18% of 199.910 + 63.908% of 124.976 = ? 30% of 580 + 20 % of 210 = ? + 46
15/100 * 200 + 64/100 * 125 = ? 174 + 42 = ? + 46
30 + 80 = ? ? = 170
110 = ?
35. Answer: D
31. Answer: A 10.91 * 79.945 – √1369.23 * 61.31 = ? – 48.412 *
15.05% of 299.91 + ?2 = 275.94 ÷ √530 + 321.97 52.22
15% of 300 + ?2 = 276 ÷ √529 + 322 11 * 80 – √1369 * 61 = ? – 48 * 52
45 + ?2 = 12 + 322 880 – 2257 = ? – 2496
?2 = 289 1119 = ?
? = 17
Directions (36-45):
?2 = 30.05 * 8.96 + 40.03 % of 360.11 + 34.95 * 16 * 1.5 = 24
√3.91 24 * 2.5 = 60
?2 = 30 * 9 + 40 % of 360 + 35 * √4 60 * 3.5 = 210
?2 = 270 + 144 + 70 210 * 4.5 = 945 (Not 947)
? = 22 945 * 5.5 = 5197.5
37. Answer: B
33. Answer: B (11 + 2) * 2 = 26
19.96 % of 39.891 % of 625.01 + (√1849.24 ÷ 6.01) (26 + 3) * 3 = 87
* √145 = ? (87 + 4) * 4 = 364
20 % of 40 % of 625 + (√1849 ÷ 6) * √144 = ? (364 + 5) * 5 = 1845
50 + 86 = ? (1845 + 6) * 6 = 11106 (Not 11108)
136 = ?
Page 54 of 86
38. Answer: D 16 + 122 + 1 = 161

5 + (13 – 1) = 5 161 + 112 + 2 = 284
5 + (23 – 1) = 12 284 + 102 + 3 = 387
12 + (33 – 1) = 38 387 + 92 + 4 = 472
38 + (43 - 1) = 101 (Not 103) 472 + 82 + 5 = 541 (not 540)
101 + (53 – 1) = 225
43. Answer: B
39. Answer: A 45 + (12 * 2) = 69
17 + (12 * 1) = 29 69 + (13 * 3) = 108
29 + (12 * 3) = 65 108 + (14 * 4) = 164
65 + (12 * 5) = 125 164 + (15 * 5) = 239 (not 236)
125 + (12 * 7) = 209 239 + (16 * 6) = 335
209 + (12 * 9) = 317 (Not 318)
44. Answer: C
40. Answer: D 123 – 12 = 1727
13 * 6 = 78 113 – 22 = 1327
78 * 5 = 390 103 – 32 = 991
390 * 4 = 1560 93 – 42 = 713
1560 * 3 = 4680 83 – 52 = 487
4680 * 2 = 9360 (Not 9340) 73 – 62 = 307 (not 310)
41. Answer: A
12 * 5 = 60 45. Answer: D
60 * 4.5 = 270 24 + 17 = 41
270 * 4 = 1080 41 + 19 = 60
1080 * 3.5 = 3780 (not 3760) 60 + 23 = 83
3780 * 3 = 11340 83 + 29 = 112
112 + 31 = 143 (not 145)
42. Answer: C
Page 55 of 86
Directions (46-60): 2x(x – 8) – 4(x – 8) = 0

46. Answer: E (2x – 4) (x – 8) = 0
x(5/3) ÷ 8 = 4.5 ÷ x(1/3) x = 2, 8
x(5/3 + 1/3) = 4.5 * 8 3y2 – 3y – 18 = 0
x6/3 = 36 3y2 – 9y + 6y – 18 = 0
x = 6, -6 3y(y – 3) + 6(y – 3) = 0
y * 221 = 17 * (y2 + 42) (3y + 6)(y – 3) = 0
y2 – 13y + 42 = 0 y = 3, -2
y2 – 6y – 7y + 42 = 0 Relationship between x and y cannot be
y(y – 6) – 7(y – 6) = 0 established.
y = 6, 7
x≤y 49. Answer: B
x2 + 5x - 84 = 0
47. Answer: D x2 + 12x – 7x – 84 = 0
(x + 2)! = (x + 1)! x(x + 12) – 7(x + 12) = 0
(x + 2)(x + 1)! = (x + 1)! (x – 7)(x + 12) = 0
x+ 2 = 1 x = 7, -12
x= 1 – 2 y2 + 26y + 168 = 0
x = -1 y2 + 14y + 12y + 168 = 0
2 * y! = (y + 1)! y(y + 14) + 12(y + 14) = 0
2 * y! = (y + 1)y! (y + 12)(y + 14) = 0
y=2–1 y = -12, -14
y=1 x≥y
x<y
50. Answer: C
48. Answer: C x2- 28x + 195 = 0
2x2 – 20x + 32 = 0 x2–13x – 15x + 195 = 0
2x2 – 16x – 4x + 32 = 0 x(x – 13) – 15(x – 13) = 0
Page 56 of 86
(x – 13)(x – 15) = 0 x = 3, 2
x = 13, 15 y2 + 13y + 22 = 0
y2 - y – 240 = 0 y2 + 11y + 2y + 22 = 0
y2 – 16y + 15y – 240 = 0 y(y + 11) + 2(y + 11) = 0
y(y – 16) + 15(y – 16) = 0 (y + 2)(y + 11) = 0
(y + 15)(y – 16) = 0 y = -2, -11
y = -15, 16 x>y
established. 53. Answer: C
x2 + 7x + 6 = 0
51. Answer: C x2 + 6x + x + 6 = 0
x2 – x – 132 = 0 x(x + 6) + 1(x + 6) = 0
x2 – 12x + 11x – 132 = 0 (x + 1)(x + 6) = 0
x(x – 12) + 11(x – 12) = 0 x = -1, -6
(x + 11)(x – 12) = 0 y2 + 5y + 6 = 0
x = -11, 12 y2 + 2y + 3y + 6 = 0
y2 – 17y – 18 = 0 y(y + 2) + 3(y + 2) = 0
y2 – 18y + y – 18 = 0 (y + 3)(y + 2) = 0
y(y – 18) + 1(y – 18) = 0 y =-3, -2
(y + 1)(y – 18) = 0 Relationship between x and y cannot be
y = -1, 18 established.
Relationship between x and y cannot established. 54. Answer: D
2x + y = 13 ---------(1)
52. Answer: A 3x + 4y = 32 ---------(2)
3x2 – 15x + 18 = 0 From (1) and (2)
3x2 – 6x – 9x + 18 = 0 x=4
3x(x – 2) – 9(x – 2) = 0 y=5
(3x – 9)(x – 2) = 0 x<y
Page 57 of 86
x2 – 33x + 272 = 0
55. Answer: B x2 – 16x – 17x + 272 = 0
x2 – 2x + 1 = 0 x(x – 16) – 17(x – 16) = 0
x2 – x – x + 1 = 0 (x – 16)(x – 17) = 0
x(x – 1) –1(x – 1) = 0 x = 16, 17
(x – 1)(x – 1) = 0 y2 – 28y + 195 = 0
x = 1, 1 y2 – 13y – 15y + 195 = 0
y2 + y – 2 = 0 y(y – 13) – 15(y – 13) = 0
y2 + 2y – y – 2 = 0 (y – 13)(y – 15) = 0
y(y + 2) – 1(y + 2) = 0 y = 13, 15
(y – 1)(y + 2) = 0 x>y
y = 1, -2
x≥y 58. Answer: B
x2 – 14x – 207 = 0
56. Answer: C x2 – 23x + 9x – 207 = 0
From I =>x2 + 11x - 126 = 0 x(x – 23) + 9(x – 23) = 0
=>x2 + 18x -7x - 126 = 0 (x + 9)(x – 23) = 0
=>x(x + 18) -7(x + 18) = 0 x = 23, -9
=> (x + 18) (x – 7) = 0 y2 + 25y + 144 = 0
=> x = -18, 7 y2 + 9y + 16y + 144 = 0
From II =>y2 - 19y + 84 = 0 y(y + 9) + 16(y + 9) = 0
=> y2 - 12y - 7y + 84 = 0 (y + 9)(y + 16) = 0
=>y(y – 12) - 7(y - 12) = 0 y = -9, -16
=> (y – 12) (y – 7) = 0 x≥y
=> y = 12, 7
Hence, x ≤ y 59. Answer: B
x2 – 31x + 238 = 0
57. Answer: A x2 – 17x – 14x + 238 = 0
Page 58 of 86
x(x – 17) – 14(x – 17) = 0 x2 + 8x – 5x – 40 = 0

(x – 17)(x – 14) = 0 x(x + 8) – 5(x + 8) = 0
x = 14, 17 (x – 5)(x + 8) = 0
y2 – 25y + 154 = 0 x = 5, -8
y2 – 14y – 11y + 154 = 0 y2 + 4y – 32 = 0
y(y – 14) – 11(y – 14) = 0 y2 + 8y – 4y – 32 = 0
(y – 14)(y – 11) = 0 y(y + 8) – 4(y + 8) = 0
y = 14, 11 (y – 4)(y + 8) = 0
x≥y y = 4, -8
60. Answer: C established.
(x + 2)! = 42 * x!
(x + 2) * (x + 1) * x! = 42 * x!
x2 + x + 2x + 2 = 42
x2 + 3x - 40 = 0
English Language
Directions (1-5): In each of the following questions, emphasis are among the suggestions being made,
a paragraph with a blank i s given. F rom the fi ve apart from demand-side
choices given below, select th e s entence w hich management. _ ______ _____________________.
can go into the blank to make the paragraph There is a compelling need for a paradigm s hift i n
logically coherent. the way the water crisis is being v iewed. W hen i t
comes to source augmentation, in the last 40
1) The public d iscour se o n C hennai’s o ngoing
years, a couple of major projects were taken up for
water c r isis h as b e en along p r edictable l ines.
Chennai to tap both freshwater and seawater. T he
Source augmentation, deepening of water b odies
Krishna Water Supply Scheme o r T elugu Ga nga
and giving rainwater harvesting a renewed
Project (1996) a nd th e N ew V eeranam P r oject
Page 59 of 86
(2004) wer e i mplem ented u sing tw o i mportant professional? What s hould b e th e p urpose o f a
inter-State rivers — the Krishna and the C auver y, basic degree in medicine? Is specialization
both of which depend on the southwes t m o nsoon required? If so, how much and how is it to be
(June-September). done? T he d raft N ew E ducation P olicy ( NEP)
speaks about equity, inclusiveness and sustainable
A. Though the Krishna Water Supply Scheme, if
development a t m any p oints, s tarting fr om th e
realized fully, can take care of at least half of the
preamble. However, ________________, especially
Chennai Metropolitan Area (CMA)’s projected
in the field of medical education. For e x ample, o n
water demand of 1,721 million litres a day (MLD)
page 300, it states that fees in m edical c olleges,
B. Another source since 2017 for the city has been
both public and private, will be left to be decided by
the abandoned stone quarries located on the
the institutions themselves. H owever, just a fe w
outskirts
pages later, it asserts that the c o st o f e ducation
C. In effect, realization of water by Chennai hinges
should be lowered.
on nature
D. But these ideas, however well-meaning they A. It is by no means clear that its recommendations
may be, have their limitations will fulfill these objectives
E. None of these B. The policy document states that all private
institutions should be not-for-profit
C.As well as the regulatory apparatus suggested
2) The pr imary o bjective o f m edical e d ucation
by it
should be to provide a cadre of personnel to ta ke
D. Higher education a not-for-profit enterprise but
care of the health needs of the country. In addition,
has become a very large driver of the black
any education policy in the m oder n w orld h a s to
economy
take into consideration social objectives, for
E. None of these
example equity and justice in enrolment and
access. Those apart, certain fundamental
questions need answering too. For instance, h ow 3) On July 9, Sri Lanka became the fourth countr y
many years of training are required for a m e dical in the Asian region — after Bhutan, The M a ldives
Page 60 of 86
and Timor-Leste — to eliminate measles. A midst Department policy against charging a sitting
an increase in th e n umber o f c ases w orldwide, President. But hours later he corrected himself and
especially in Europe, this came as an encouraging said “we did not reach a determination as to
development. Measles is considered as eliminated whether the President c om mitted a c r ime.” T he
when a country interrupts transmission of an former FBI director, who spent 22 months
indigenous virus for three years. investigating w hat h e c oncluded w as R ussian
However,____________________________ i n 4 9 o f interference in a “sweeping and systematic
the 53 countries in the World Health Organization fashion” in the 2016 U.S. election to help Mr.
(WHO)’s European Region. A to tal o f 1 , 6 0,000 Trump and the President’s
cases and more than 100 d eaths w er e r eported conduct, ____________________________. Mr.
from these 49 countries between January 1 , 2 018 Mueller then appeared before the House
and May 30 this year. Intelligence Committee for more questioning.
Democrats control the House, w hile M r . T rump’s
A. The region came despite vaccination coverage
fellow Republicans control the Senate.
for the second dose being at a record-high of 91%
in 2018 A. Did not reach a conclusion on whether Mr.
B. The viral infection has, since the beginning of Trump committed the crime of obstruction of justice
2018, seen a resurgence in a series of actions aimed at impeding the inquiry
C. The coverage is high at the national level in B. Praised Mr. Mueller and said no one, including
many countries, there are pockets of low coverage Mr. Trump
in them C. Appeared for more than three-and-a-half hours
D. There has been a 300% increase in the number before the House of Representatives Judiciary
of cases in the first three months of this year Committee
E. None of these D.I have seen a number of challenges to our
democracy
E. None of these
4) Mr. M u eller i nitially te stified h e w ould h ave
sought to indict Mr. Trump were it not for a Justice
Page 61 of 86
5) China’s military on Wednesday s ignalled th at 6)

ties with India were improving, but warned the U.S. (I) To us, chain cat sharks a) protractible tan with
that it should not test Beijing’s o ne -China p olicy brownish black markings, but to other members of
over Taiwan. A white paper titled ‘China’s National this species, whose eyes are packed with rods that
Defence in the New Era’, released by the Chinese can b) detect even very tiny amounts of light, the
Defence Ministry, ____________________________. lines on their skin glow bright green—just like on
It has also created “favourable conditions” to the model on view in Unseen Oceans, a special c)
peacefully resolve the Doklam military s tandoff — exhibition open now through August 18, 2019.
a reference to the militar y te nsions b etween th e (II) A d) appear jaw helps make e) snatch its prey:
two countries in the summer o f 2 017. C hina h as when make catches a tuna, its jaw projects
“taken effective m easures to c r eate fa vourable outward, f) helping extend its reach and snatch its
conditions for the peaceful resolution of the huge prey.
Donglang (Doklam) standoff”, the paper said. A. a-d
A. Said Beijing was striving to promote security B. b-f
and stability along the India-China border C. c-e
B. The white paper has gone ballistic, especially D. c-f
regarding the status of Taiwan E. a-e
C. Said the threat of Taiwan separatism is growing
D. After the State Department cleared $2.2 billion 7)
worth weapons sales, including 108 General (I). The gravitational pull caused by a planet on its
Dynamics Corp host star makes it a) exploration, around their
E. None of these common center of mass, which shifts the b)
spectra and can be measured in terms of Radial
Direction (6-10): Each question below contains two Velocity using c) embarks and stabilized High
statements with three highlighted w ords. C hoose Resolution Spectrographs, like the PARAS.
the option correctly by swapping the words (II). As the agency d) precise on its next era of e)
correctly based on the correct meaning. wobble, STMD is focused on advancing
Page 62 of 86
technologies and testing new capabilities for use at 9)

the Moon that also will be f) critical for crewed (I). In a world a) undergoing dramatic changes,
missions to Mars. China will remain confident and b) graceful in
A. a-d, c-e safeguarding its sovereignty and security, and
B. b-f, a-d maintain its sincerity and goodwill for c) pristine
C. c-e, b-f world peace and promoting common prosperity,
D. c-f, b-e President Xi Jinping said in his 2019 New Year's
E. a-e, c-d speech.
(II). Lakshadweep is that d) tranquil set of islands
8) that children first learn to draw. White coral sands,
(I). a) Conceived and directed by Milo Rau, coconut trees standing tall, and e) safeguarding
presented by NTGent and performed in French blue waters filled with fish and turtles that thrive
and Flemish , it recreates a b) monitoring among the f) resolute sea anemones and a vibrant
homophobic murder that took place outside Liège reef. In 2019, these islands present a very different
in 2012, while asking c) burp questions about the picture from most polluted and overfished tropical
way we do theatre now. islands in the developing world – and this
(II). The dying Juan de Fuca plate is a perfect happened almost by a happy coincidence.
opportunity to study such d) impacts, in part A. a-d, c-e
because it’s not going quietly into the deep, so B. b-f, a-d
scientists are closely e) notorious the system’s C. c-e, b-f
every shiver and f) probing D. c-f, b-e
A. a-d, c-e E. a-e, c-d
B. b-f, a-d
C. c-e, b-f 10)
D. c-f, b-e (I). Rather than tax breaks to a) stimulate demand
E. a-e, c for electric vehicles, the government should use its
funds to make public transport more b) effective
Page 63 of 86
and to strengthen the grid, a vital necessity, and (II) The worst way to miss someone is to be sitting
build a c) distributed charging infrastructure for right ………………him knowing you can’t have him.
electric-powered mobility. A. From
(II). As it is, the actual d) devolution of the B. Under
revenues of the Centre to the states is a good deal C. beside
— in excess of ten percentage points, by some e) D. below
estimates — below the 42% recommended by the E. None of the above
14th FC, thanks to a f) sizeable chunk of the
Centre’s collections, including large dollops from 12.
petroleum, being in the form of cesses and (I). At this they both put their
surcharges that are not shareable with the states. heads ………………….the side of the b u ggy a n d
A. a-d looked down.
B. b-f (II). the name of Pittacus was known
C. c-e all …………….. the world.
D. c-f A. near
E. a-e B. Under
C. beside
Direction (11-15): In the Qu estions g iven b elow, D. Over
there are two statements; each statement consists E. None of the above
of a blank. You have to choose th e o ption w hich
provides the correct set of prepositions th at fi ts i n 13)
the blanks in both the s tatements a ppr opriately (I). I know people think I' m c razy, b ut I' d l ike to
making them meaningful and grammatically keep the ranch as …………… its natural s tate a s
correct. possible.
11) (II). He w as o ften c alled th e E ttrick S hepherd,
(I) He squatted down ………………….. the because he was the keeper of
footprints and examined them closely. sheep ………………. the Ettrick Water.
Page 64 of 86
A. near D. around
B. Under E. None of the above
C. beside
D. Over Directions (16-20): In table given below two
E. None of the above columns are given with th ree s entences. B elow
that three connectors given. Sentence in c olumn I
14) may or may not be connected w ith C olum n II b y
(I). They would h ave s o me tim e to e njoy a l ate using given connector. You have to identify
Christmas ………… home when they returned. possible connections b etween two c olumns b y
(II). One day they were sitting … … …… th e table using given connector.
working on coloring books when Alex came h o me 16)
early. COLUMN I COLUMN II
A. near a) Interest rates of d) violating the model
B. at small savings schemes code of conduct by
C. in of GoI shall continue to making certain
D. On be at the rates remarks against Chief
E. None of the above Minister
b) The Election e) Existed in the last
15) Commission of India quarter of 20202021,
(I). I have just been paddling to keep my (ECI) barred DMK i.e. rates that
head ……………… water my whole l ife l ong a nd deputy general prevailed as of March
sinking down further with every stroke. secretary A. Raja from 2021.
(II). She dropped to the sand a s a h a il o f b ullets campaigning for 48
whistled …………. her head. hours and reprimanded
A. near him
B. above c) He says many f) That they can speak
C. below speakers have different for a long time.
Page 65 of 86
methods to keep their (I) but

throat healthy (II) That
(I) for (III) As
(II) So A) a-II-e, b-III-d, c-I-f
(III) Which B) a-III-e, b-I-d, c-II-f
A) a-II-e, b-III-d, c-I-f C) a-II-e, c-I-d, b-III-f
B) a-III-e, b-I-d, c-II-f D) c-III-e, b-I-d, a-II-f
C) a-II-e, c-I-d, b-III-f E) None of the above is correct match
D) c-III-e, b-I-d, a-II-f
E) None of the above is correct match 18)
COLUMN I COLUMN II
17) a) A session’s court in d) Imposing a fine on
COLUMN I COLUMN II Chengalpattu convicted him.
a) Doctors are noticing d) many of them and sentenced a
changes in clinical preferred home 41yearold man to life
presentation of isolation and came in imprisonment
COVID19 patients and late as symptoms b) Two persons were e) murdering his
radiological findings in progressed arrested on the charge employer in 2012
young patients c) At the conclusion of the f) Lifting bikes parked
b) The hospital saw e) Have led them to trial, the Principal on the road in and
several patients aged analyse the variations Sessions Court in around Tambaram.
between 20 and 45 with when compared to Chengalpattu held him
breathlessness last year. guilty of the murder and
sentenced him to life
c) There are many f) positive CT findings imprisonment
persons with swab (I) besides
negative results (II) For
Page 66 of 86
(III) Of (II) After

A) a-II-e, b-III-d, c-I-f (III) Over
B) a-III-e, b-I-d, c-II-f A) a-II-e, b-III-d, c-I-f
C) a-II-e, c-I-d, b-III-f B) a-III-e, b-I-d, c-II-f
D) c-III-e, b-I-d, a-II-f C) a-II-e, c-I-d, b-III-f
E) None of the above is correct match D) c-III-e, b-I-d, a-II-f
E) None of the above is correct match
19)
COLUMN I COLUMN II 20)
a) The seized articles d) the persons carrying COLUMN I COLUMN II
were being returned only them, were handed a) It was possible for d) the air
when the individual over to the returning every party cadre to rise bubble/Vande Bharat
concerned produced officers concerned for Mission programme,
relevant documents and further action, said the national carrier Air
police. India will connect the
two capitals using a
b) After conducting due e) 10.35 crore cash at 256seat, two class
investigation, the seized 22 places on (business and
material, Wednesday, the city economy) Boeing 787
police said. Dreamliner aircraft
b) To be operated as a e) Then, I have been
c) Flying squad teams f) Obtaining clearance once week service regularly contesting in
and static surveillance from the Income Tax the elections.
teams, in association Department.
with police personnel,
seized
(I) along with
Page 67 of 86
c) I started out as an f) The ranks provided D) c-III-e, b-I-d, a-II-f

Independent in the 2009 he was willing to serve E) None of the above is correct match
Lok Sabha election in the people, added Mr.
south Chennai. Palaniswami.
(I) under
(II) Through
(III) Since
A) a-II-e, b-III-d, c-I-f
B) a-III-e, b-I-d, c-II-f
C) a-II-e, c-I-d, b-III-f

1) Answer: D Telugu Ganga Project (1996) and the New
The public discourse on Chennai’s ongoing water Veeranam Project (2004) were implemented using
crisis has been along predictable lines. Source two important inter-State rivers — the Krishna and
augmentation, deepening of water bodies and the Cauvery, both of which depend on the
giving rainwater harvesting a renewed emphasis southwest monsoon (June-September).
are among the suggestions being made, apart from
demand-side management. But these ideas, 2) Answer: A
however well-meaning they may be, have their The primary objective of medical education should
limitations. There is a compelling need for a be to provide a cadre of personnel to take care of
paradigm shift in the way the water crisis is being the health needs of the country. In addition, any
viewed. When it comes to source augmentation, in education policy in the modern world has to take
the last 40 years, a couple of major projects were into consideration social objectives, for example
taken up for Chennai to tap both freshwater and equity and justice in enrolment and access. Those
seawater. The Krishna Water Supply Scheme or apart, certain fundamental questions need
Page 68 of 86
answering too. For instance, how many years of Health Organization (WHO)’s European Region. A
training are required for a medical professional? total of 1, 60,000 cases and more than 100 deaths
What should be the purpose of a basic degree in were reported from these 49 countries between
medicine? Is specialization required? If so, how January 1, 2018 and May 30 this year.
much and how is it to be done? The draft New
Education Policy (NEP) speaks about equity, 4) Answer: C
inclusiveness and sustainable development at Mr. Mueller initially testified he would have sought
many points, starting from the preamble. However, to indict Mr. Trump were it not for a Justice
it is by no means clear that its recommendations Department policy against charging a sitting
will fulfill these objectives, especially in the field of President. But hours later he corrected himself and
medical education. For example, on page 300, it said “we did not reach a determination as to
states that fees in medical colleges, both public and whether the President committed a crime.” The
private, will be left to be decided by the institutions former FBI director, who spent 22 months
themselves. However, just a few pages later, it investigating what he concluded was Russian
asserts that the cost of education should be interference in a “sweeping and systematic fashion”
lowered. in the 2016 U.S. election to help Mr. Trump and the
President’s conduct, appeared for more than three-
3) Answer: B and-a-half hours before the House of
On July 9, Sri Lanka became the fourth country in Representatives Judiciary Committee. Mr. Mueller
the Asian region — after Bhutan, The Maldives and then appeared before the House Intelligence
Timor-Leste — to eliminate measles. Amidst an Committee for more questioning. Democrats control
increase in the number of cases worldwide, the House, while Mr. Trump’s fellow Republicans
especially in Europe, this came as an encouraging control the Senate.
development. Measles is considered as eliminated
when a country interrupts transmission of an 5) Answer: A
indigenous virus for three years. However, the viral China’s military on Wednesday signalled that ties
infection has, since the beginning of 2018, seen with India were improving, but warned the U.S. that
resurgence in 49 of the 53 countries in the World it should not test Beijing’s one-China policy over
Page 69 of 86
Taiwan. A white paper titled ‘China’s National center of mass, which shifts the spectra and can be
Defence in the New Era’, released by the Chinese measured in terms of Radial Velocity using precise
Defence Ministry, said Beijing was striving to and stabilized High Resolution Spectrographs, like
promote security and stability along the India-China the PARAS.
border. It has also created “favourable conditions” (II). As the agency embarks on its next era of
to peacefully resolve the Doklam military standoff — exploration, STMD is focused on advancing
a reference to the military tensions between the two technologies and testing new capabilities for use at
countries in the summer of 2017. China has “taken the Moon that also will be critical for crewed
effective measures to create favourable conditions missions to Mars.
for the peaceful resolution of the Donglang
(Doklam) standoff”, the paper said. 8) Answer: D
(I). Conceived and directed by Milo Rau, presented
6) Answer: A by NTGent and performed in French and Flemish ,
(I) To us, chain cat sharks appear tan with it recreates a notorious homophobic murder that
brownish black markings, but to other members of took place outside Liège in 2012, while asking
this species, whose eyes are packed with rods that probing questions about the way we do theatre
can detect even very tiny amounts of light, the lines now.
on their skin glow bright green—just like on the (II). The dying Juan de Fuca plate is a perfect
model on view in Unseen Oceans, a special opportunity to study such impacts, in part because
exhibition open now through August 18, 2019. it’s not going quietly into the deep, so scientists are
(II) A protractible jaw helps make snatch its prey: closely monitoring the system’s every shiver
when mako catches a tuna, its jaw projects and burp.
outward, helping extend its reach and snatch its
huge prey. 9) Answer: C
In a world undergoing dramatic changes, China will
7) Answer: E remain confident and resolute in safeguarding its
(I). The gravitational pull caused by a planet on its sovereignty and security, and maintain its sincerity
host star makes it wobble around their common and goodwill for safeguarding world peace and
Page 70 of 86
promoting common prosperity, President Xi Jinping 11) Answer: C

said in his 2019 New Year's speech. “BESIDE” is the correct answer that fits both
(II). Lakshadweep is that tranquil set of islands that sentences.
children first learn to draw. White coral sands,
coconut trees standing tall, and pristine blue waters 12) Answer: D
filled with fish and turtles that thrive among the “OVER” is the correct answer that fits both
graceful sea anemones and a vibrant reef. In 2019, sentences.
these islands present a very different picture from
most polluted and overfished tropical islands in the 13) Answer: A
developing world – and this happened almost by a “NEAR” is the correct answer that fits both
happy coincidence sentences.
10) Answer: B 14) Answer: B

(I). Rather than tax breaks to stimulate demand for “AT” is the correct answer that fits for both
electric vehicles, the government should use its sentences.
funds to make public transport more effective and to
strengthen the grid, a vital necessity, and build a 15) Answer: B
distributed charging infrastructure for electric- “ON” is the correct answer that fits for both
powered mobility. sentences.
(II). As it is, the actual devolution of the revenues of
the Centre to the states is a good deal — in excess 16) Answer: B
of ten percentage points, by some estimates — Interest rates of small savings schemes of GoI shall
below the 42% recommended by the 14th FC, continue to be at the rates which existed in the last
thanks to a sizeable chunk of the Centre’s quarter of 20202021, i.e. rates that prevailed as of
collections, including large dollops from petroleum, March 2021.
being in the form of cesses and surcharges that are The Election Commission of India (ECI) barred
not shareable with the states. DMK deputy general secretary A. Raja from
campaigning for 48 hours and reprimanded him for
Page 71 of 86
violating the model code of conduct by making

certain remarks against the Chief Minister. 19) Answer: D
He says many speakers have different methods to Flying squad teams and static surveillance teams,
keep their throat healthy, so that they can speak for in association with police personnel, seized over
a long time. 10.35 crore cash at 22 places on Wednesday, the
city police said.
17) Answer: A After conducting due investigation, the seized
Doctors are noticing changes in clinical material, along with the persons carrying them,
presentation of COVID19 patients and radiological were handed over to the returning officers
findings in young patients that have led them to concerned for further action, said the police.
analyse the variations when compared to last year. The seized articles were being returned only when
The hospital saw several patients aged between 20 the individual concerned produced relevant
and 45 with breathlessness as many of them documents and after obtaining clearance from the
preferred home isolation and came in late as Income Tax Department
symptoms progressed.
There are many persons with swab negative results 20) Answer: B
but positive CT findings. I started out as an Independent in the 2009 Lok
Sabha election in south Chennai. Since then, I have
18) Answer: C been regularly contesting in the elections.
A session’s court in Chengalpattu convicted and To be operated as a once week service under the
sentenced a 41yearold man to life imprisonment air bubble/Vande Bharat Mission programme,
for murdering his employer in 2012. national carrier Air India will connect the two
At the conclusion of the trial, the Principal Sessions capitals using a 256seat, two class (business and
Court in Chengalpattu held him guilty of the murder economy) Boeing 787 Dreamliner aircraft.
and sentenced him to life imprisonment, besides It was possible for every party cadre to rise through
imposing a fine on him. the ranks provided he was willing to serve the
Two persons were arrested on the charge of lifting people, added Mr. Palaniswami.
bikes parked on the road in and around Tambaram.
Page 72 of 86
General Awareness
1. Which country is unlikely to exit ‘grey list’ as FATF E) Insurance

m eets?
A) China 4. Which edition of the M aritime India Summit 2021 has
B) North Korea been inaugurated by PM Modi?

C) Qatar A) 6th
D) Iran B) 5th
E) Pakistan C) 2nd
D) 3rd
2. The Central government has Launched National E) 4th

Urban Digital Mission For Creating Digital Infra For
Cities by which year? 5. Which country has passed law to Facebook, Google
A) 2024 pay for news?

B) 2022 A) China
C) 2023 B) US
D) 2025 C) Australia
E) 2026 D) Germany
E) France
3. The Central government has approved the PLI
Scheme for which of the following sectors? 6. Who among the following has taken charge as
A) Highways Chairman of the National Commission for Scheduled

B) Medical Devices Castes?
C) Banking A) Komal Tyagi

D) IT Hardware B) Surender Gupta
Page 73 of 86
C) Vijay Sampla
D) Anand Singh 10. The ______ edition of Global Bio-India has been
E) Rajat Chauhan organised from 1st to 3rd M arch.

A) 6th
7. Which state has bagged an award for fastest B) 5th
im plementation of PM KSNY? C) 4th

A) Bihar D) 2nd
B) Punjab E) 3rd
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Madhya Pradesh 11. Indian Railways has decided to reactivate the
E) Haryana facility of ____ ON MOBILE App.

A) Where’s my train
8. Who among the following has bagged an award for B) UTS
best digital initiatives? C) Catering

A) HSRTC D) Reservation
B) KSRTC E) Food Servicing

C) APSRTC
D) UPSRTC 12. The Governor of which state has Inaugurated
E) JKSRTC India’s First Digital University?

A) Haryana
9. President's Rule has recently been imposed in which B) Chhattisgarh

state/UT? C) Bihar
A) Punjab D) Karnataka
B) Delhi E) Kerala
C) Chandigarh
D) Daman & Diu
E) Puducherry
Page 74 of 86
13. Which state’s New Agriculture Pump Power A) ASSOCHAM

Connection scheme has bagged good response since B) IWAI
launch? C) CII
A) Punjab D) Niti Aayog
B) Maharashtra E) FICCI
C) Kerala
D) Chhattisgarh 17. The Ministry of Corporate Affairs has signed an
E) Haryana M oU with which institution for data exchange.

A) Niti Aayog
14. Retirement age has been raised to 60 years for B) CII
which state for government employees? C) CBIC

A) Chhattisgarh D) ICAI
B) Madhya Pradesh E) FICCI
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Haryana 18. World NGO Day is observed on which date?
E) Punjab A) February 1
B) February 3
15. Who among the following has recently been C) February 27
appointed as the new UN goodwill ambassador? D) February 4

A) Charlize Theron E) February 21
B) Amina J. Mohammed
C) Yo-Yo Ma 19. The bridge on which river will be the world's highest
D) Natalia Vodianova rail bridge taller than Eiffel Tower, and will be
E) Natalia Kanem completed by the end of 2021?

A) Yamuna
16. Which institution has signed a pact with MOL for B) Ganga
transportation of LPG through inland waterways? C) Sutlej

Page 75 of 86
D) Chenab
E) Ravi 23. The government of which state has launched its
Budget mobile app?

20. NPCI enables UPI AutoPay live on which of the A) Punjab
following streaming platform app? B) Madhya Pradesh
A) Wynk C) Haryana
B) Gaana D) Bihar
C) Paytm E) Gujarat
D) Spotify
E) Hungama 24. E-Daakhil portal for consumer grievance redressal
has now been m ade operational in ____ states and

21. Indian company Omega Seiki to set up an electric UTs.
vehicle plant in which country? A) 16
A) Netherlands B) 11
B) Bangladesh C) 12
C) France D) 15
D) Germany E) 13
E) Japan
25. Vinay Kumar who announced his retirement

22. SIDBI has joined hands with the government of recently was a famous______.
which state for Development of MSME ecosystem? A) Actor

A) Chhattisgarh B) Producer
B) Punjab C) Director
C) Haryana D) Musician
D) Andhra Pradesh E) Cricketer
E) Madhya Pradesh
Page 76 of 86

1) Answer: E The mission has three pillars – people, process, and
Pakistan is unlikely to exit the 'grey list’ of the FATF as platform.
some European countries have taken the stand that

Islamabad has not fully implemented all the points of a 3) Answer: D
plan of action set by it, on the eve of the plenary meeting Union Cabinet approved Production Linked Incentive
of the global watchdog for money laundering and terror Scheme for IT Hardware.
financing. The scheme proposes incentives to boost domestic
A global dirty money watchdog decided to keep Pakistan manufacturing and attract large investments in the value
on its “grey list”, despite progress by Islamabad on chain of IT Hardware.
meeting international anti-terrorism financing norms. Communication and IT Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad
said, the target segments of the scheme include laptops,
2) Answer: B tablets, all-in-one PCs and servers.
The Central government launched 'National Urban Mr Prasad said, the total cost of the proposed scheme is
Digital Mission'' to create a digital infrastructure for cities around Rs 7,350 crore over four years.
in the country. Mr. Prasad added that the scheme has direct and
The Union Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry (MoHUA) indirect employment generation potential of over one
said the move will institutionalise a citizen-centric and lakh 80 thousand.
ecosystem-driven approach to urban governance and The Union Cabinet also approved Production Linked
service delivery in cities by 2022, and across all cities Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Pharmaceuticals over a
and towns by 2024. period of Financial Year 2020-21 to 2028-29.
Union Housing and Urban Affairs Minister Hardeep The Scheme will benefit domestic manufacturers, help in
Singh Puri and Minister of Electronics and IT Ravi creating employment and is expected to contribute to the
Shankar Prasad launched the 'National Urban Digital availability of a wider range of affordable medicines for
Mission' (NUDM) at a virtual event. consumers.
Page 77 of 86
4) Answer: C Google will now pay for news content that appears on its
Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate the 2nd Showcase product and Facebook is expected to pay
edition of the Maritime India Summit 2021. providers who appear on its News product, which is to
The summit will be organised virtually between 2nd to be rolled out in Australia later this year.
4th March 2021.
First summit was organised in 2016 in Mumbai. 6) Answer: C

Rajiv Jalota, Chairman, Mumbai Port Trust informed that Former Union Minister Vijay Sampla assumed the
the MIS 2021 will provide a unique platform where charge of Chairman National Commission for Scheduled
various stakeholders in the maritime sectors such as Castes (NCSC).
Senior Government Officials, Domestic and International Sampla has been the former Union Minister of State for
Investors, Shipping Line Owners, Representatives of Social Justice and Empowerment from 2014-19.
Major Ports from across the world as well as the He was president of the BJP Punjab unit.
Governments of Maritime States in India will participate. He also served as Chairman, Khadi and Village
The Summit will also include an exclusive CEOs’ forum Industries Board, Punjab from 2009-12 and
with the Minister of State (I/c) of Ports, Shipping & subsequently, his name was recommended for
Waterways. Rashtrapati Award.
Australia’s parliament passed landmark legislation Uttar Pradesh received award for fastest implementation
requiring global technology giants to pay for the news of Pradhan mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana.
content shared on their platforms, in a move that is Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath has congratulated the
being closely watched around the world. people of state for this achievement.
The law was passed after a last-gasp deal that watered The Chief Minister said that under the guidance of Prime
down binding rules Facebook and Google had fiercely Minister Narendra Modi the state government is
opposed and which last week prompted Facebook to committed for the welfare of farmers of state.
remove all news from its Australian platform. Discussion on the budget in the state assembly Chief
Minister informed the house about this achievement.

Page 78 of 86
During his budget speech, the state Finance Minister 10) Answer: D
had recently informed that more than 27110 crores has To showcase the strength and opportunities of India's
been transferred in the accounts of the farmers of state biotechnology sector at national level and to the global
under PM Kisan Samman Nidhi yojna. community, the second edition of Global Bio-India will be
organized from 1st to 3rd March.
8) Answer: C The theme for this year is transforming lives and the tag
Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation line is Biosciences to Bio economy.
(APSRTC) has received Digital Technology Sabha Science and Technology Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan will
Award, consecutively for the second consecutive time inaugurate the event virtually.
(2020 & 2021) in the category of “Internet of Things”. Global Bio-India is one of the largest biotechnology
The Corporation also received the award in 2017. stakeholders’ conglomerates that is being co-organized
RTC Vice-Chairman and Managing Director RP Thakur by the Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of Science
received the award from the RTC House virtually. and Technology along with its Public Sector
Undertaking, Biotechnology Industry Research

9) Answer: E Assistance Council, BIRAC in partnership with industry
Puducherry has been placed under the President's rule association CII, Association of Biotechnology Led
days after the Congress-led Government collapsed after Enterprises and Invest India.
several resignations.
The Home Ministry issued a notification imposing the 11) Answer: B

President's rule in the Union Territory. Indian Railways has decided to reactivate the facility of
President Ram Nath Kovind suspended the Puducherry UTS ON MOBILE App in zones where unreserved train
Assembly as well. services are reintroduced.
The Legislative Assembly of the Union territory is now To decongest ticket booking counters and to ensure
placed under suspended animation. smooth compliance of social distancing norms, the
The Assembly polls are due in the Union Territory facility to book unreserved tickets through UTS ON
shortly. MOBILE app is being reactivated by Indian Railways.
Page 79 of 86
The Railways Ministry said, it has been decided that in provide education to 12,000 residential scholars on the
addition to the UTS ON MOBILE App facility available on campus and many technology-linked learners outside.
suburban sections, this facility may also be reintroduced

on non-suburban sections of zonal Railways. 13) Answer: B
In Maharashtra, the State Government's New Agriculture
12) Answer: E Pump Power Connection scheme has been receiving a

Digital University has been set up in Kerala’s good response.
Technocity, Mangalapuram. The Governor of Kerala Arif The scheme announced in October 2020 has provided
Mohammed Khan has inaugurated the country’s first various relaxations to farmers to pay their pending dues.
Digital University in the state. Since the scheme was announced, as many as three
Kerala University of Digital Sciences, Innovation and lakh 42 thousand farmers have paid dues to the tune of
Technology (Digital University) is established by 312 crore 41 lakh rupees.
upgrading the two-decade old state government’s Indian In a bid to provide more relief to the farmers' the State
Institute of Information Technology and Management Government has waived-off pending dues of 15
Kerala (IIITM-K). thousand crore rupees, an official press statement said.
The university is formed with a vision of creating a Farmers who will pay their Agri pumps dues in the first
futuristic institution of higher learning, aspiring to set a year will get 50 per cent relaxation on their actual dues.
global benchmark in Digital technologies and its Besides, the interest and late fees will also be waived off
management completely.
The launch of the first Digital University in the country This apart, farmers who will pay their total dues will be
will open tremendous opportunities for youngsters. given nearly 66 per cent concession.
India’s first Digital University will focus on postgraduate
programmes and research along with building strong 14) Answer: C
industry-academic and academic-academic linkages In Tamil Nadu, Chief Minister Edappadi K.

with leading institutions in India and abroad. Developed Palananiswami announced that the retirement age of
on a 10-acre campus in Technocity, the university will State Government employees has been increased from
59 to 60 years.
Page 80 of 86
Making a suo motu statement in the Legislative humanitarian crises, and all forms of gender-based
Assembly, he said, the order would be applicable to violence.”
employees of the government and government-aided

schools, legal and constitutional bodies, government 16) Answer: B
sectors, local bodies, commissions, boards and unions. A Memorandum of Understanding was signed between
He said, all those who were in service and those who the Inland Waterways Authority of India and the MOL
would retire on 31st of May this year would be covered (Asia Oceania) Limited for transportation of Liquefied
under the announcement. Natural Gas through barges on National Waterways-1

and National Waterways-2.
15) Answer: D The MoU was inked in the presence of Minister for
Russian supermodel and philanthropist Natalia Ports, Shipping and Waterways Mansukh Mandaviya.
Vodianova became a United Nations goodwill The Inland Waterways Authority will provide support for,
ambassador facilitating with adequate fairway, handling of LPG cargo
Purpose : To promote the sexual and reproductive rights on IWAI terminals or Multimodal Terminals at Haldia,
of women and girls and tackle stigmas surrounding their Sahibganj and Varanasi.
bodies. MOL Group is the world’s largest gas carrier company

She will be a campaigner for the U.N. Population Fund, and will invest for construction and operation of
which now calls itself the U.N.’s sexual and reproductive dedicated LPG barges under the Make-in-India initiative.
health agency, known as UNFPA.

UNFPA Executive Director Natalia Kanem, who 17) Answer: C
announced her appointment, called Vodianova “above The Ministry of Corporate Affairs and Central Board of
all a passionate, longtime advocate for the rights and the Indirect Taxes and Customs signed a Memorandum of
needs of women and girls and in particular people living Understanding in New Delhi for data exchange between
with disabilities.” the two organisations.

Vodianova has focused on “breaking harmful taboos and It is in line with the vision of both organisations to
tackling the stigmas that surround women’s bodies and harness data capabilities to ensure effective
health, including menstrual health even during enforcement.

Page 81 of 86
Both are going to benefit from access to each other’s World NGO Day gives an opportunity for these people to
databases which include details of import-export take time and make an effort by attributing the best they
transactions and consolidated financial statements of can provide within a given period of time.
companies registered in the country. World NGO Day was established by Mārcis Liors
The data sharing arrangement gains significance in light Skadmanis as an effort to recognise, appreciate and
of development of MCA21 Version 3 which will utilise celebrate the great contributions that NGOs have made
state of the art technology for enhancing ease of doing and the impact they have on the entire world.
business in India and improve the regulatory

enforcement and similar steps by CBIC like the launch of 19) Answer: D
Advanced Analytics in Indirect Taxation ADVAIT, a 360- Chenab bridge, the world’s tallest railway bridge over
degree taxpayer profiling tool. Chenab River in Kouri area, will achieve another
engineering milestone.
18) Answer: C The Konkan Railway Corporation Limited (KRCL) is
World NGO Day is commemorated on 27th February building the Chenab bridge over a challenging 111 km-
every year across the world. stretch under the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail
This commemoration is specifically important to boost Link (USBRL) project.

the social work that has been organised by every It will connect the Valley with the rest of the country
country and to honour the activists and social workers through railways.
who are diligently working for the betterment of the The Chenab bridge is being constructed 359 metres
society. above Chenab’s river bed and will be 35 metres taller
The celebration was embarked in the UN in 2014, but than the Eiffel Tower (which has a height of 324 metre).
after then World NGO Day was officially recognised and The length of the Chenab bridge will be 1,315 metres
declared by the 12 member countries of the IX Baltic with 17 spans, of which the span of the main arch across
Sea NGO Forum of the Council of the Baltic Sea States Chenab river will be 467 metres. The viaduct portion
in 2010. comprises a straight and curved portion. The curvilinear
portion is located on a 2.74-degree sharp curve.
Page 82 of 86
20) Answer: B It is the first project of any Indian company producing

National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has Electrical vehicles in the international market.
announced that UPI AutoPay has now gone live on The project will be a modern greenfield facility and will
Gaana. focus on manufacturing two-wheelers, three-wheelers,
Its integration with UPI AutoPay has made Gaana the and electric bicycles.
first player in the Media and Entertainment industry to The Chairman of the Omega Seiki mobility Uday Narang
roll out the innovative e-mandate feature on UPI. said that Bangladesh does not have a policy on
The introduction of UPI AutoPay will empower Gaana’s Electrical Vehicles as yet but it may change fast.
users to experience a smooth and seamless mechanism According to a press release issued by the Omega Seiki,
of renewing their subscriptions. the company will focus on coming out with best in class
Customers can enjoy premium, uninterrupted streaming vehicles and quality service experience for the buyers.
of their choicest music, podcasts and radio without
having to remember about the subscription renewal 22) Answer: D
date. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has

The strategic role played by Paytm and Juspay as entered into a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
payment aggregators will create a superior transaction with the Government of Andhra Pradesh to develop the
experience for the customers. MSME ecosystem in the State.
Based on the mandate, the subscription amount will be The MoU was signed by J V N Subramanyam
deducted automatically on the authorized date without IAS,Director of Industries, Commerce and Export
entering UPI PIN. Promotion, Government of Andhra Pradeshand Sanjay
Jain, General Manager, Regional Head, Small Industries

21) Answer: B Development Bank of India (SIDBI), Hyderabad, in the
An Indian company Omega Seiki will set up an electric presence of Mekapati Goutham Reddy, Cabinet Minister
vehicle plant in Bangladesh. of Industries, AP government.

The manufacturing unit will be set up near Dhaka with Under the agreement, a Project Management Unit
an investment of Rs. 100 crore. (PMU) will be deployed by SIDBI to design
schemes/programmes in the areas of equity support,

Page 83 of 86
interest subvention, resolution of stressed MSMEs, and The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which came into
facilitate intervention based on evaluation of the existing force from July 20, 2020, has a provision for e-filing of
status of MSMEs. consumer complaints in the consumer commissions and

The PMU will study the existing framework of schemes online payment of the fees for filing a complaint.
currently available for MSMEs in the State and shall A web application for e-filing of consumer complaints
suggest modifications, if any, to enhance efficacy. named 'edaakhil.nic.in' has been developed by NIC for
the purpose.
23) Answer: E
In Gujarat, Deputy Chief Minister Nitin Patel launched 25) Answer: E
'Gujarat Budget' mobile application at Gandhinagar. Pacer Vinay Kumar announced his retirement from all
Briefing media at Gandhinagar, Mr Patel said the mobile forms of cricket.

app will have five different sections, comprising Davangere Express" after running for 25 years and
budgetary allocations for 27 departments, budget passing so many stations of cricketing life, has finally
highlights, finance minister's speech, and important arrived at a station called "retirement".
aspects of the budget and news coverage of it. An intelligent pacer and a capable batsman, Vinay
He added that since budget publications will be available played one Test (against Australia in Perth in 2012), 31
online, the government will print only 20 percent of ODIs and nine T20Is.
material, which would save 55 lakh pages. The 37-year-old last featured for India in the limited-
The month-long budget session of the Gujarat Assembly overs leg of a home series against Australia in 2013.
would begin on March 1st and the budget for the Vinay was an outstanding performer in his 17-year
financial year 2021-22 will be presented on March 3rd. domestic career.

He scalped 504 wickets in 139 first-class matches and is
24) Answer: D the highest wicket-taker among fast bowlers in Ranji
The 'E-Daakhil' portal for consumer grievance redressal Trophy history.

is now operational in 15 states and Union Territories He also has 225 and 194 wickets in List A and T20
(UTs). matches respectively. With the bat, he scored two
centuries and 17 fifties in first-class matches.

Page 84 of 86
Vinay made his Ranji Trophy debut for Karnataka in the

2004-05 season and quickly rose through the ranks to
become their lead seamer.

The 2007-08 season marked his arrival as he finished as
the second leading wicket-taker in the Ranji Trophy
season - a performance that ensured a call-up to the IPL

where he represented Royal Challengers Bangalore.
It soon got better as the 2009-10 Ranji Trophy season

saw him take 46 wickets and lead his Karnataka side to
the final.
Page 85 of 86
Page 86 of 86
Page 1 of 99
Reasoning Ability
Direction (01-05): In the fo llowing q uestions th e II). Some Fruit is not Red.
statements are followed by two conclusions. R ead A.Only I follows
both the conclusions and then decide which o f th e B.Only II follows
given conclusions logically follows fr o m th e g iven C.Either I or II follows
statements disregarding commonly known fa cts. D.Neither I nor II follows
1) Statements: E.Both I and II follow
Some Gold is Silver.
Some Silver is Chain. 3) Statements:
Some Chains are Gold. Some Milk is Cream.
No Chain is Ring. Only a few Cream is Cake.
Only a few Rings are Platinum. No Puffs is Cake.
Conclusion: Some Egg is Puffs.
I). Some Gold is not Ring. Conclusion:
II). Some Platinum are Chain is a possibility. I). All Creams are Puffs is a possibility.
A.Only I follows II). No Milk is Egg is a possibility.
B.Only II follows A.Only I follows
C.Either I or II follows B.Only II follows
D.Neither I nor II follows C.Either I or II follows
E.Both I and II follow D.Neither I nor II follows
E.Both I and II follow
2) Statements:
Some Apple is Red. 4) Statements:
Only a few Apple is Green. Only a few Star is Moon.
All Apple is Fruit. Some Sun is not Moon.
Some Leaves are Green. All Sun is Asteroid.
Conclusion: Some Asteroid is Galaxy.
I). Some Apple is not Green. Conclusion:
Page 2 of 99
I). Some stars are Galaxy. All Balls are Plastic.

II). No star is Galaxy. Only a few Metals are Gun.
A.Only I follows No Gun is Plastic.
B.Only II follows Conclusions:
C.Either I or II follows A.Some balls are Vessels.
D.Neither I nor II follows B.Some Metals are not Ball.
E.Both I and II follow C.No Vessel is Gun.
D.All of the above follow
5) Statements: E.None follows
All Pots are Sand.
Only Sand is Mud. 7) Statements:
All Clays are Sand. Some Jacks are Spade.
Only a few Toys are Sand. Only a few Spades are Heart.
Conclusion: Some Hearts are Club.
I). All Toys can be Mud. All Clubs are Black.
II). Some Clay can be Mud. No Black is Red.
A.Only I follows Conclusions:
B.Only II follows A.All Heart cannot be Red.
C.Either I or II follows B.All Jacks are Red is a possibility.
D.Neither I nor II follows C.Some Blacks are Heart.
E.Both I and II follow D.All of the above Follow
E.None follows
Direction (06-10): Read the conclusions a n d then
decide which o f th e g iven c onclusions l ogically 8) Statements:
follows from the g iven s tatements, d isregar ding Only Mobiles are Android.
commonly known facts. Only a few Mobiles are Tablet.
6) Statements: No Tablet is Landline.
Some Vessels are Plastic. All Phones are Landline.
Page 3 of 99
Conclusions: D.No Fruit is Stem

A.Some Mobiles are Landline. E.None follows
B.No Phone is Android. Direction (11-15): Read the conclusions a n d then
C.Some Tablets can be Android. decide which o f th e g iven c onclusions l ogically
D.All of the above follow follows from the g iven s tatemen ts, d isregar ding
E.None follows commonly known facts.
11) Statements
9) Statements: Only a few Profits are loss
Some Squares are Triangle. All Loss is Income
Only a few Triangles are Circle. No Income is gain
All Circles are Sphere. Conclusions
All Squares are Cube. A.Some Loss is Gain
Conclusions: B.All profits are Gain is not a possibility
A. All Triangles cannot be Sphere C.All Incomes are Profit
B. Some Squares are not Circle D.All Profits are Loss is a possibility
C. Some Cubes are Triangle E.None of the above
D. All of the above follow
E. None follows 12) Statements
All Nationals are International
10) Statements: No National is State
Only Stems are Root. No State is district
Only a few Stems are Branch. Conclusions
Some Branches are Leaves. A.Some nationals are district
Only a few Leaves are Fruit. B.All International can never be a district
Conclusions: C.All state can never be international
A.All Roots are Fruit is a possibility D.Some district can be National
B.Some Branches are Fruit E.None of the above
C.All Leaves can never be Branch
Page 4 of 99
13) Statements Conclusion:

Some members are person I). Some Soil is not Floor.
All Persons are People II). No Granite is Sand.
No People is candidate A.Only conclusion I follows
Conclusions B.Only conclusion II follows
A.All members can never be people C.Either conclusion I or II follows
B.All Candidates can be a member. D.Neither conclusion I nor II follows
C.Some persons are candidate E.Both conclusions I and II follow
D.All people can be candidate
E.Some members are people is a possibility Direction (16-20): Some statements are followed by
some conclusions in each option. Choose the
14) Statements option which follows the given statements logically.
All Mothers are Father 16) Statements:
No father is Daughter All Words are Phrase.
Some Daughters are Son Only a few Words are Text.
Conclusions All Poems are Poetry.
A.No father is son Only a few Texts are poems.
B.Some mothers are daughter Conclusions:
C.Some Sons are Mother is not a possibility A.Some Texts are not Words
D.All Sons can be father B.Some Phrases are not Text
E.All mothers can never be daughter C.Some Text can be Phrases
D.No Phrase is Poetry
15) Statements: E.Both (b) and (c) follow.
Some Tiles are Carpet.
Only a few Carpets are Granite. 17) Statements:
Some Granite is Floor. Only a few Huts are Home.
All Soil is Sand. No Den is Hut.
No Sand is Floor. Some Cages are Den.
Page 5 of 99
All Cages are Mount. C.No Bike is Duke

Conclusions: D.All of these
A.Some Huts are neither Home nor Den E.None of these
B.Few Mount are not Home
C.No Cage is Hut 20) Statements:
D.All Dens are Mount Some Sticks are Pencil.
E.None of these All Sticks are Wood.
No Pencil is Crayon.
18) Statements: All Crayons are Colorful.
Only Metals are Gold. Conclusions:
Only a few Metals are Silver. A.Some Woods are Colorful
No Silver is Platinum. B.Some Sticks are not Crayon
All Diamonds are Platinum. C.All Pencils are not Colorful
Conclusions: D.No Crayon is Wood
A.Some Silvers are neither Gold nor Diamond E.None of these
B.Some Gold is not platinum
C.No Platinum is Gold Direction (21-25): Study the following i nform ation
D.All of these carefully and answer the below questions
E.None of these Seven persons-A, B, C, D, E, F, and G attend the
interview on seven days of the week starting from
19) Statements: Sunday to Saturday but not necessarily in the same
Only a few Bikes are Costly. order.
Only a few Dukes are Costly. P^Q means P and Q go on the adjacent days
All Dukes are Vehicle. P@Q means Two days are there between P and Q
Only Vehicles are Car. P#Q means P goes before Q (ex: P2#Q means P
Conclusions: goes two days before Q)
A.Some Cars are Duke P&Q means P goes after Q (ex: P2&Q means P
B.Some Vehicles are not Costly goes two days after Q)
Page 6 of 99
P! Q means P and Q do not go in adjacent days.

Statement: 24) Find the odd one
D@E; A3#C; F2&B; F^A; G#C; D!G; A. BF
B. DA
21) Who among the following p erson a ttend th e C. AG
interview on Wednesday? D. EC
A.B E. FC
B.The one who attends two days before D
C.The one who attends immediately after G 25) Who among the following p erson a ttends th e
D.The one who attends immediately before E interview two persons after the one who attends o n
E.None of these Monday?
A. A
22) If all the persons are made to attend in B. D
alphabetical order from Sunday, then how m any o f C. G
them remain unchanged in their original position? D. C
A.One E. F
B.Two
C.Three Direction (26-30): Study the following i nform ation
D.More than Three carefully and answer the below questions
E.No one Five persons- U, V, W, X and Y are joining the
different classes- Singing, Dance, Yoga, Painting,
23) Which among the following s tatem e nt i s tr ue, And Swimming on five different days starting from
according to the given arrangement? Monday to Friday but not necessarily in the same
A.A and D attended on consecutive days order.
B.G is the first person to attend the interview The one who joins the yoga class is joining two
C.Only two persons attend between G and B. days after the one who joins in singing class. The
D.B attends the interview immediately before D. number of people who joins before singing is the
E.None is true same as after Y. The one who joins the painting
Page 7 of 99
class is joining before the one who joins the 29) X joins on which of the following day?
swimming class. Only two persons are joining A. Thursday
between Y and the one who joins in dance class. U B. Monday
joins before V but not immediately before V. X joins C. Wednesday
neither swimming nor singing. X joins immediately D. Friday
after the one who joins yoga class. E. Tuesday
26) Who among the following person joins on
Wednesday? 30) Who among the following person joins
A.The one who joins the Swimming class immediately after W?
B.V A. U
C.The one who joins the Painting class B. Y
D.The one who joins immediately before U C. V
E.W D. X
27) Which of the following combination is true?
A.W-Yoga Direction (31-35): Study the following i nform ation
B.U-Swimming carefully and answer the below questions.
C.V-Singing Seven persons namely – B, C, D, E, F, G, and H
D.X- Painting were born in the same week of the same month and
E.Y- Dance year starting from Tuesday to Monday. Each person
likes different food items viz.-Chole, Samosa,
28) Find the odd one. Burger, Laddoo, Pizza, Halwa, and Maggie. Each of
A. UW them also likes different books viz.-Panchtantra,
B. XY Harry Potter, Melhua, Ruskin Bond, 2-States,
C. VX Malgudidays, and Champak. All the information is
D. WY not necessary in the same order.
E. VW The one who likes Harry Potter was born on neither
Monday nor Friday but was born after C.Two
Page 8 of 99
persons were born between the one who likes B.As many persons were born between D and the
Harry Potter and C, who likes Burger but not likes one who likes Melhua.
Champak. Three persons were born between E and C.One
B, who like 2-states. Neither E nor B was born on D.Either B or C
the adjacent day of C. F, who likes Samosa, was E.Either A or B
born three persons after H, who likes neither
Melhua nor Champak. E neither likes Ruskin Bond 33) Four of the five are related to e a ch o ther i n a
nor likes Laddoo. The one who likes Chole also certain way and thus form a g r oup, then w hich o f
likes Ruskin Bond and was born two persons after the following is the odd one out?
the one who likes Malgudidays. One person was A.E – Melhua
born between the one who likes Panchatantra and B.D – Chole
the one who likes Halwa, either of them was born C.G – 2-State
just after D, who neither likes Maggie nor born on D.C – Halwa
born on Wednesday. G neither likes Maggie nor E.H – Malgudidays
likes Pizza and was born on the adjacent day of the
one who likes Champak. 34)The one who was born just after G likes?
31) Who among the following person likes A.Melhua
Champak? B.Pizza
A.The one who also likes Laddoo C.Burger
B.H D.Halwa
C.The one who also likes Maggie E.Both A and C
D.F
E.None of these 35) Which o f th e following s tatement i s/are n ot
true?
32) How many persons were born b e tween F a n d I. Two persons were born between the one who
the one who likes Chole? likes Samosa and B.
A.Three II. Three persons were born between G and the one
who likes Harry Potter.
Page 9 of 99
III. Two persons were born before the one who likes colour flag. The yellow colour flag was hoisted by
Ruskin Bond. the person who is second after the one who hoists
A.Both II and III the black colour flag. I hoisted the flag on even date
B.Only III and three persons after the one who hoists the
C.Only I purple colour flag. F hoists immediately before the
D.Both I and III one who hoists pink colour flag but on different
E.None of these months. C doesn’t hoist the green colour flag
whereas B doesn’t hoist the white colour flag.
Direction (36-40): Answer the questions b a sed o n 36) Who among th e following h oist R ose c olour
the information given below. flag?
Nine persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are A.A
hoisting the flag of different colours viz. Black, Blue, B.C
Green, Pink, Purple, Red, Rose, White and Yellow C.H
on 7th, 16th and 21st of February, March and April of D.B
the same year, but not necessarily in the same E.None of these
order. Not more than one colour flag was hoisted by
the same person and not more than one person 37)The number of persons who hoist the flag before
hoists the flag on the same date of the same month. the one who hoists the Blue colour flag is one more
D hoists the flag in February and immediately than the number o f p ersons w ho h oists th e flag
before the one who hoists the blue colour flag. Only after ___.
four persons hoist the flag between D and H who A.H
hoist two persons after the one who hoists Red B.I
colour flag. E hoists the flag on the same date as C.The one who hoists the White colour flag
the one who hoists the red colour flag and is two D.The one who hoists the Black colour flag
persons after B. G hoists in a prime date of the E.None of these
month having 31 days. The one who hoists the
green colour flag hoists the first among all and on 38)In which of the following date and month does A
the same date with the one who hoists the black hoist the flag?
Page 10 of 99
A.21st April different number days i.e., 2, 5, 7, 8, 9, 11, 13 and

B.7th February 17 but not necessarily in the same order.
C.21st March H goes on vacation for the least number of days. O
D.16th April goes to C in the month having 30 days. There is
E.None of these two months gap between O and F. The one who
goes on vacation in May is going for the maximum
39)What is the colour of the flag hoisted by G? number of days. There is 10 days difference
A.Pink between the persons who go on vacation in May
B.Red and June. F does not go in January. There is three
C.Black months gap between O and the one who goes to Q.
D.Blue The one who goes to Q is going for 8 days. D goes
E.None of these to L for 13 days. M goes to K just before the month
in which the one goes to L. D does not go for
40) Who among the following person hoists the flag vacation in the month having 31 days. The one who
immediately before A? goes to S is going for 11 days. There is two months
A. B gap between N and B's vacation. The one who
B. C goes to V goes just before the month of the one
C. D who goes to G. N is not going to V. O does not go
D. E on vacation for 5 days.
E. No one 41)Which of the following combination is correct a s
per the given information?
Direction (41-45): Study the following i nform ation A.H - S - 2
carefully and answer the questions given below: B.M - K - 8
Eight persons B, D, F, H, M, N, O and P are going C.B – V - 17
to different places for vacation i.e., L, K, P, C, Q, S, D.N - G - 7
G and V in different months viz. January, February, E.O - L - 9
March, April, May, June, July and August for
Page 11 of 99
42)Who among the fo llowing p er son g oes fo r a 44)For how many days F is going on vacation?
vacation in August? A.5
A.N B.11
B.M C.7
C.H D.8
D.D E.None of these
E.Can’t be determined
45)Four of the following five are a like i n a c e rtain
43)How many months gap is there between B a nd way and hence they form a group. Which one of the
M's vacation? following does not belong to that group?
A.Two A.M - March
B.Five B.D - April
C.Three C.B - July
D.Four D.H- May
E.Six E.F – February
Direction (01-05):
1) Answer: E
2) Answer: A
3) Answer: B
Page 12 of 99
5) Answer: D
9) Answer: C
10) Answer: E
Direction (06-10):
6) Answer: B
7) Answer: D
Page 13 of 99
15) Answer: A
Direction (11-15):
11) Answer: B
Direction (16-20):
16) Answer: B
12) Answer: D
17) Answer: A
13) Answer: B
18) Answer: D
14) Answer: E
Page 14 of 99
19) Answer: B
We have,
A3#C ->A goes three days before C;
F2&B -> F goes two days after B;
F^A -> F and A goes on adjacent days
From the above conditions, there are two
possibilities
20) Answer: B
Direction (21-25):
Final arrangement
Again we have,
D@E -> Two days are there between D and E
G#C ->G goes before C
D! G -> D and G do not go on an adjacent day.
Page 15 of 99
From the above condition, case2 gets eliminated. • The one who joins the yoga class is joining
case1 shows the final arrangement. two days after the one who joins in singing
class.
• X joins immediately after the one who joins
yoga class.
possibilities.
21) Answer: D
22) Answer: A
23) Answer: D
Again we have,
24) Answer: E • The number of people who joins before
25) Answer: A
singing is the same as after Y.
• Only two persons are joining between Y and
Direction (26-30): the one who joins in dance class.
Final Arrangement • The one who joins the painting class is
joining before the one who joins the
swimming class.
• U joins before V but not immediately before
V.
• X joins neither swimming nor singing.
We have,
Page 16 of 99
• Two persons were born between the one who

likes Harry Potter and C, who likes Burger but
not likes Champak.
That means, in case (1) C was born on Thursday, in
case (2) C was born on Wednesday.
• Three persons were born between E and B,
who like 2-states.
• Neither E nor B was born on the adjacent day
26) Answer: B of C.
27) Answer: D • E neither likes Ruskin Bond nor likes Laddoo.
28) Answer: D That means, in case (1) B was born on Tuesday, in
29) Answer: A case (1a) B was born on Saturday, case (2) is not
30) Answer: C valid.
Direction (31-35):
Case (2) is not valid as neither E nor B was born on

the adjacent day of C .
We have: Again, we have:
• The one who likes Harry Potter was born on • F, who likes Samosa, was born three persons
neither Monday nor Friday but was born after C. after H, who likes neither Melhua nor Champak.
Page 17 of 99
That means, in case (1) & case (1a) F was born on Since C doesn’t like Champak, that means in case
Monday. (1a) E likes Champak, case (1) is not valid.
• The one who likes Chole also likes Ruskin Also, D doesn’t like Maggie, which means D likes
Bond and was born two persons after the one Pizza.
who likes Malgudidays. Based on the above-given information we have:
• One person was born between the one who
likes Panchatantra and the one who likes
Halwa, either of them was born just after D,
who neither likes Maggie nor born on born on
Wednesday.
That means, in case (1) & case (2) F likes
Panchatantra.
Case (1) is not valid as C doesn’t like Champak.

31) Answer: C
32) Answer: B
33) Answer: C
34) Answer: E
35) Answer: D
Direction (36-40):
Again, we have:
• G neither likes Maggie nor likes Pizza and
was born on the adjacent day of the one who
likes Champak.
Page 18 of 99
1. D hoists the flag in February and immediately

before the one who hoists the blue colour flag. Only
four persons hoist the flag between D and H who
hoist two persons after the one who hoists Red
colour flag.
3. The one who hoists the green colour flag hoists

the first among all and on the same date with the
one who hoists the black colour flag. Yellow colour
flag was hoisted by the person who is second after
the one who hoists the black colour flag.
2.E hoists the flag on the same date as the one who
hoists the red colour flag and is two persons after B.
G hoists in a prime date of the month having 31
days.
Page 19 of 99
4. I hoist the flag on even date and three persons

after the one who hoists the purple colour flag. F
hoists immediately before the one who hoists pink
colour flag but on different months. Hence, cases 1,
2 and 3 get eliminated.
Direction (41-45):
From the given statements, O goes to C in the
month of having 30 days. Here we get 2
possibilities i.e., Case 1 and Case 2.
There is two months gap between O and F.
F does not go in January.
The one who goes on vacation in May is going for
the maximum number of days. There is 10 days
difference between the persons who go on vacation
in May and June.
There is three months gap between O and the one
who goes to Q.
5. C doesn’t hoist the green colour flag whereas B The one who goes to Q is going for 8 days.
doesn’t hoist the white colour flag.
36) Answer: D
37) Answer: C
38) Answer: B
39) Answer: A
40) Answer: E
Page 20 of 99
From the given statements, D does not go on From the given statements, there is two months gap
vacation in the month having 31 days. D goes to L between N and B's vacation.
for 13 days. The one who goes to V goes just before the month
M goes to K just before the month in which one who of the one who goes to G.
goes to L. N is not going to V.
Here Case 2 is ruled out now. O does not go on vacation for 5 days.
H goes on vacation for the least number of days.
The one who goes to S is going for 11 days.
Page 21 of 99
45) Answer: E
41) Answer: C
42) Answer: A
43) Answer: C
44) Answer: B
1) Neeta and Seeta invested Rs. 72000 and Rs. 2) Rashu invested Rs. ____ on a scheme X which
______ in Bank X at 25% and 12.5% compound offer compound interest of 25% per annum. After 2
interest respectively. Also Neeta and Seeta years he got Rs. 8718.75 as interest. Rashu
invested Rs. _____ and Rs. 32500 In bank Y at invested the same amount in scheme Y which
14% and 18% simple interest respectively. offers simple interest per annum at the rate less
Difference of interest earned by Neeta and Seeta than 20%o of compound interest he got from
together from both the banks after 3 years is Rs. scheme X for the time ____years. The total interest
______. he earned from scheme X and Y is Rs.
Find which of the following statement(s) is/are will 33,518.75?
satisfied the blanks in same order. A. Rs. 21,320 and 4 years
I. 128000, 22500, 4385 B. Rs. 19,845 and 5 years
II. 102400, 32500, 19435 C. Rs. 15,500 and 8 years
III. 122880, 16500, 4045 D. Rs. 13,450 and 10 years
A. I only E. None of these
B. III only
C.I and III only 3) Amount invested in scheme B for 2 years is 12%
D. I and II only more than that invested in scheme A for 4 years
E. I, II and III and SI received form scheme A is Rs.3600 more
than that received from scheme B. Rate of interest
in scheme A is 20% less than that in scheme B. If
Page 22 of 99
the amount, invested in scheme A, had been retained by him is reduced by Rs. 1248. Find the
invested in scheme B for 2 years, then what would value of (X/2 + Y).
be the SI received from scheme B? A. Rs. 10200
A. Rs.5500 B. Rs. 10400
B. Rs.6000 C. Rs. 15600
C. Rs.7500 D. Rs. 5200
D. Rs.7000 E. Rs. 7800
E. Rs.6500
6) Sameer invested Rs. ‘K’ in scheme X which
4) Ramani invested Rs. K in a scheme for 3 years offers _____ % rate of simple interest for 3 years
earning compound interest @ 2% per annum. If and investment in Scheme Y is Rs. 9000 less than
rate and time period of investment interchanged, scheme X that offers _____ % rate of simple
and invested same amount then he received Rs. interest for 4 years. Total interest earned by
24.64 less interest. Find the interest received by Sameer from both the schemes is Rs. 34200. If
Ramani if he invested Rs. (3K/2) in 3 years earning Sameer invested Rs. (2K – 9000) in scheme Z for
compound interest at 20% per annum? two years at 10% per annum simple interest, then
A. Rs. 87340 interest earned from Scheme Z is Rs. 9000.
B. Rs. 87370 Which of the following statement(s) is/are satisfy
C. Rs. 87360 the blanks in same order?
D. Rs. 87860 I). 28%, 16%
E. None of these II). 88/3%, 12%
III). 220/9%, 20%
5) A borrows Rs. X from B at 10% annual interest. IV). 30%, 14%
He adds own money and lends Rs. (X + Y) to C at A. I and III only
16% annual interest. At the end of the year after B. III and IV only
returning B’s due the net interest retained by A is C. II, III, IV only
140% of what B incurred. Had ‘A’ lent Rs. (X/2 + D. All satisfy the blanks
Y/3) to C at 18% annual interest then interest E. None of the above
Page 23 of 99
II). 50 and 20
7) Farhani invested Rs. (4K + 4750) in bank 1, III). 100 and 9
earning simple interest for 5 years at 28% per A. Only A and B
annum. Then he withdraw all the interest from B. All A, B and C
Bank 1, and invested 66.666% of interest in bank 2 C. Only A and C
for 7 years earning simple interest at 12.5% per D. Only B and C
annum, and rest interest in bank 3 at rate of 35% E. Only A
per annum for 2 years. Bank 3 don’t disclose
whether they are offering simple interest or 9) Pooja invested Rs. 8400 and Rs. 9600 at the
compound interest. The total interest earned by rate of X% and (X + 5)% respectively on simple
Farhani from Bank 2 is Rs. 2597 more than interest interest for two years and gets total interest of Rs.
received from Bank 3. Find 800% of value of K, if 3180. If Pooja invested Rs. (8400 + Y) and Rs.
the interest received by Farhani from any of the (9600 + Y) at the rate of X% and (X + 5)%
given bank is an integer value? respectively on compounded interest for two year,
A. 1100 then he would get total interest of Rs. 4076.50.
B. 2420 Which of the following can be determined by using
C. 2516 the above given data?
D. 2500 I) The value of X.
E. None of these II) Sum of the value of X and Y.
III) The value of Y.
8) A person invested Rs.5000 at ____ percent A. Only I and III
annual CI for 2 years and after 2 years, he B. Only II
invested the received amount for 3 years at ___ C. All I, II and III
percent SI. Total simple interest amount received D. Only III
by him is Rs.5400. E. Only I and II
Which of the following value will fill the blanks
given in the question in the same order? 10) Compound interest on Rs.___ for two years at
I). 20 and 25 a certain rate of interest is Rs.___ more than that
Page 24 of 99
by Simple interest on the same sum at same rate 12) Shivani deposited Rs _____ in a bank at ___ %
of interest for two years, if the simple interest on per annum compounded annually. She received an
the same sum and at same rate of interest for 5 interest of Rs _____ after a period of 3 years.
years is Rs.1200. Which of the following values can we fill in the
I) 8000, 10 II) 6000, 3.5 III) 8000, 7.2 same order?
A. Only I I) 5000, 10, 1655
B. Only II II) 6250, 12, 2520
C. Only III III) 6400, 5, 1024
D. Both I and II IV) 8000, 10, 2468
E. Both II and III A. Only (ii)
B. Only (i) and (iii)
11) Rekha invests Rs. 7200 in scheme A which C. Only (i)
offers simple interest at the rate of x% per annum D. Only (i)(ii)(iv)
for 5 years and Rani invests Rs.5000 in scheme B E. None follow
which also offers simple interest at the rate of (x +
2)% per annum for 6 years. If the interest received 13) Renu invests Rs.3000 in scheme A which
by Rekha and Rani is equal and then Ramesh offers simple interest at 10% per annum for 6 years
invests Rs. y in compound interest scheme at the and Richie invests his amount in scheme A which
rate of x% per annum for 2 years, after 2 years he offer simple interest at the rate of 10% per annum
received the total amount is Rs. 5445. Find the for 4 years. If France invests his amount in scheme
value of y? B which offers compound interest at the rate of
A. Rs.4000 15% per annum for 2 years and the interest
B. Rs.4500 received by Renu and Richie in the ratio of 15:16.
C. Rs.4800 If the amount invests by France is 25% more than
D. Rs.5000 Richie, then find the amount received by France
E. None of these after 2 years?
A. Rs.7935
B. Rs.8245
Page 25 of 99
C. Rs.8860 15) If Renu invests Rs.x in scheme A which offers

D. Rs.9240 compound interest at the rate of 10% per annum
E. None of these for 3 years and Tinu invests Rs.(x + 4000) in
scheme B which offers simple interest at 15% per
14) Renu, Banu and Dinu invest their amount on annum for 4 years. If the interest received by Renu
two different schemes A and B. The scheme A and is Rs.4014 less than Tinu, then find the value of x?
B offers simple interest and compound interest A. Rs.6000
respectively. Renu invested Rs.3000 in scheme A B. Rs.4000
at 15% per annum for 4 years and the interest C. Rs.5000
received by Renu and Banu in the ratio of 9: 8 and D. Rs.8000
Banu invest his amount in scheme A at 10% per E. None of these
annum for 4 years. Dinu invests the amount in
scheme B which is 20% more than that of the Directions (16-20): Study the following data
amount invests by Banu and scheme B offers at carefully and answer the questions:
the rate of 15% per annum for two years. Three candidates P, Q and R participate in an
From the statement given in the above question election from five different zones of a town. Voters
which of the following can be determined. in the zone casted their votes to these 3
I) Amount invested by Banu candidates only and a voter can only vote to one
II) Amount invested by Dinu candidate. Out of total voters in the zones, only
III) Interest received by Dinu certain voters casted their votes and remaining did
IV) If the interest amount received by Renu is what not cast. Out of total casted votes, some were
percent of the total amount received by Dinu? declared invalid and remaining are considered as
A. Only A and B valid votes. Votes received by each candidate is
B. Only C and D valid votes only.
C. All A, B, C and D The graph given below shows the votes received
D. Only D by P as % of total valid votes, votes received by Q
E. None of these as % of total casted votes and votes received by R
as % of total voters in the zone.
Page 26 of 99
valid votes casted in all the five zones together is

49600 and votes casted to Q in zone E is 3000
more than P. Ratio of votes casted to candidates P
to R in zone E is 3: 8.
16) What is the difference between maximum

votes received by P in any of the five zones and
minimum votes received by Q in any of the five
zones?
A. 24000
B. 18000
C. 12000
D. 15000
Some other information is also given:
E. 21000
Out of total voters in zone A, 20000 did not cast
their votes and out of total casted votes in that
17) Total valid votes received by R in zones A, D
zone, 15000 were declared invalid. 60000 voters in
and E together are what percentage of Total valid
zone B casted their votes, out of which 20% were
votes in these zones?
declared invalid. Average of total voters in zones A
A. 34%
and B together is 77500 and votes received by Q
B. 44%
in zone A is equal to the votes received by R in
C. 28%
zone B. Average of votes received by R in zones
D. 38%
A, B and C together is 15000.Votes received by R
E. 40%
in zone C is 36% of total valid votes in that zone.
Ratio of total voters in zone B to that in zone D is
18) If ratio of total male voters to fe male voters in
3: 5 and total 50000 voters in zone D did not cast
zones B and D together is 3: 2. Out of total casted
their votes. Total votes casted to P in zone D is
votes in zone B, 50% are male voters and votes
68.75% more than that in zone C. Average of total
Page 27 of 99
casted by male voters in zone B is 60% of total difference b/w valid votes casted to winner and first
male voters in that zone. runner up and difference b/w valid votes casted to
Quantity I: Difference between male and female first runner up and second runner up?
voters in zone B. A. 4800
Quantity II: Difference between male and female B. 5200
voters in zone D. C. 4200
A. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II D. 3600
B. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II E. 4400
C. Quantity I > Quantity II
D. Quantity I < Quantity II Directions (21-25): Study the following data
E. Quantity I = Quantity II or relation cannot be carefully and answer the questions:
determined There are five trains A, B, C, D and E and bar
graph given below shows the time taken (seconds)
19) If out of total casted votes in zone C, male by trains to cross a platform of certain length and a
casted votes are 10000 more than casted votes of person running with speed 5 km/h in same
female voters. Out of total casted votes by male direction as that of trains.
voters, 80% are declared valid, then find the ratio
of invalid male casted votes to invalid female
casted votes in zone C.
A. 2: 5
B. 3: 7
C. 4: 9
D. 5: 11
E. 6: 13
20) If winner among P, Q and R is declared by Note: Length of train B is 100 meters more than
counting valid votes casted to them in all the five the length of the platform.
zones together, then what is the average between
Page 28 of 99
21) Train A can cross another train P of length 200 C. 230 m

min ‘t’ seconds when running in opposite direction D. 190 m
and train B can cross train P when running in E. 250 m
opposite direction in ‘t + 10.8’ seconds, then what
is the time taken by train P to cross the platform? 24) Train D can cross a person running in opposite
A. 50 s direction as that of train in seconds, then what
B. 30 s is the ratio of time taken (seconds) by person to
C.40 s cover the length of train D when he runs inside the
D. 60 s train to the length (m) of platform which is crossed
E. 45 s by train D in 57.6 seconds?
A. 10: 11
22) Train A cross a platform of length ‘x’ meters in B. 7: 8
seconds and train D can cross another train P C. 12: 13
of length ‘x’ meters in 2.25 min when running in D. 5: 6
same direction, then what is the speed of train P? E. 8: 9
A. 35 km/h
B. 25 km/h 25) Length of train P is the average of length of
C. 45 km/h trains A, B, C, D and E and train P can cross train
D. 30 km/h E running in opposite direction in 14.4 seconds,
E.40 km/h then what is the time taken by train P to cross train
C when running in same direction?
23) Train C can cross a bridge in 28.8 seconds A. 66.6 s
while train P can cross that bridge in 18 seconds. If B. 56.8 s
time taken by train P to cross train C while running C. 48.4 s
in same direction is 2.32 minutes, then what is the D. 55.2 s
length of train P? E.32.8 s
A.210 m
B. 170 m
Page 29 of 99
Direction (26-35):What approximate value should B. 1064

come in the place of (?) in the following questions. C. 1054
26) 88.88% of 540.012 + 14.28% of 349.92= ? + D. 1088
20.18 * 9.91 E. 1032
A. 330
B. 270 30) √4490 * 1.99 + √1850 * 4.98 = ? + 1495.01 ÷
C. 320 √35
D. 290 A. 120
E. 380 B. 100
C. 150
27) 22.08* 39.909 + 24.92 * 16.12 – 279.912 = ? 3 D. 140
A. 15 E. 170
B. 10
C. 20 31) √4224 * √15 + ? * 9.99 = 39.91 * 8.91
D. 30 A. 10
E. 25 B. 13
C. 15
28) 719.72 ÷ 8.12 + 7999.91 ÷ √1025 = ? + D. 18
149.91 E. 8
A.170
B. 180 32) 14.93 * 7.89 + 12.07 * 4.901 + 23.98 * 5.96 =
C. 190 ?2
D. 150 A. 25
E. 200 B. 10
C. 18
29) 6.09 * 24.012 + 54.09 * 31.91 –42.08 * 19.98= D. 13
? E. 22
A. 1170
Page 30 of 99
33) 12.81% of 16.01% of 480.13 = 8.12/2.14 * ? D. x < y

A. 3 E. x ≤ y
B. 19
C. 51 37)
D. 81 I) 32x2 – 48x + 16 = 0
E. 91 II) 2y2 – 12y + 16 = 0
A .x > y
34) 5887.31 ÷ 28.94 + 703.08 ÷ 37.18 = 231.891 - B. x ≥ y
? C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
A. 10 D. x < y
B. 12 E. x ≤ y
C. 8
D. 14 38)
E. 6 I) x2 + 74x + 1333 = 0
II) y2 + 89y + 1978 = 0
35) √62 =? 3/16 + 17/9 - (13 × 1.9333) A. x > y
A. 4 B. x ≥ y
C. 8 D. x < y
D. 10 E. x ≤ y
E. 16
39)
36) I) x2 – 44x + 468 =0
I) 18x2 – 117x + 180 = 0 II) y2 – 39y + 378=0
II) 6y2 – 27y + 30 = 0 A. x > y
A. x > y B. x ≥ y
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined. D. x < y
Page 31 of 99
E. x ≤ y
43)
40) I) x2 + 275 = 396
I) x2 + 27x + 162=0 II) y2 – 23y + 132 =0
II) 2y2 + 42y + 216=0 A. x > y
A. x > y B. x ≥ y
D. x < y E. x ≤ y
E. x ≤ y
44)
41) I) x2 - 12x = 108
I) 3x2 – 51x + 216=0 II) y2 + 23y + 102 = 0
II) y2 + 19y - 66 =0 A. x > y
A. x > y B. x ≥ y
D. x < y E. x ≤ y
E. x ≤ y 45)
I) x2 – 6x – 216 = 0
42) II) y2 – 7y – 198 = 0
I) x2 – 10x – 504 =0 A. x > y
II) y2 + 40y + 396 =0 B. x ≥ y
A. x > y C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
B. x ≥ y D. x < y
D. x < y
E. x ≤ y 46)
Page 32 of 99
I) 3x2 – 19x + 30 = 0 II) y2– 15y + 54 = 0

II) 2y2 –7y + 6 = 0 A. x < y
A. x< y B. x ≤ y
B. x > y C. x > y
C. x = y or relationship cannot be established. D. x ≥ y
D. x ≥ y E. x = y or relationship cannot be established.
E. x ≤ y
50)
47) I) 6x2 – x – 2 = 0
I) 3x2 + 22x + 40 = 0 II) 20y2 – 31y + 12 = 0
II) 3y2 + 19y + 20 = 0 A. x < y
A. x < y B. x > y
B. x > y C. x = y or relationship cannot be established.
C. x ≥ y D. x ≥ y
D. x = y or relationship cannot be established. E. x ≤ y
E. x ≤ y
51) 899, 896, 880, ?, -541, -17348
48) A. 741
I) 40/x2 – 13/x = –1 B. 748
II) 48/y2 – 14/y = –1 C. 755
A. x < y D. 763
B. x = y or relationship cannot be established. E. 769
C. x > y
D. x ≥ y 52) ?, 1235, 1252, 1295, 1384
E. x ≤ y A. 1235
B. 1230
49) C. 1225
I) √x+ 1 = (9/√x) + (3/√x) D. 1220
Page 33 of 99
E. 1233 E. 1522
53) 19, 23, 32, 48, 73, 109, ? 57) 23, 47, 75, 107, 143, ?
A. 133 A. 219
B. 147 B. 198
C. 158 C. 183
D. 163 D. 176
E. 175 E. 150
54) 12, 13, 28, 87, 352, ? 58) 4913, 2197, ?, 343, 125, 27
A. 1760 A. 1197
B. 1765 B. 1331
C. 1770 C. 216
D. 1775 D. 1728
E. 1780 E. 512
55) 24, 45, 133, 531, 2655, ? 59) 6754, 6729, 6680, 6599, 6478, 6309, ?
A.17241 A. 7935
B.14962 B. 5837
C.14931 C. 6084
D.15931 D. 6893
E.17832 E. 9642
56) 108, 217, 438, 885,?, 3597? 60) 2, 10, 30, 68, 130,?
A. 1984 A. 212
B. 1724 B. 222
C. 1854 C. 218
D. 1786 D. 228
Page 34 of 99
E. 232

1) Answer: D Simple interest earned by Seeta from bank Y =
Statement I. 36000 x 18% x 3 = 19440
Compound interest earned by Neeta from Bank X = Total interest earned by Neeta = (68625 + 13650) =
72000 x [(1.25)³ - 1] = 68625 82275
Compound interest earned by Seeta from bank X = Total interest earned by Seeta = (43400 + 19440) =
128000 x [(1.125)³ - 1] = 54250 62840
Simple interest earned by Neeta from bank Y = Required difference = 82275 – 62840 = Rs. 19435
22500 x 14% x 3 = 9450 This option will satisfied the blanks
Simple interest earned by Seeta from bank Y = Statement III.
36000 x 18% x 3 = 19440 Compound interest earned by Neeta from Bank X =
Total interest earned by Neeta = (68625 + 9450) = 72000 x [(1.25)³ - 1] = 68625
78075 Compound interest earned by Seeta from bank X =
Total interest earned by Seeta = (54250 + 19440) = 122880 x [(1.125)³ - 1] = 52080
73690 Simple interest earned by Neeta from bank Y =
Required difference = 78075 – 73690 = Rs. 4385 16500 x 14% x 3 = 6930
This option will satisfied the blanks Simple interest earned by Seeta from bank Y =
Statement II. 36000 x 18% x 3 = 19440
Compound interest earned by Neeta from Bank X = Total interest earned by Neeta = (68625 + 6930) =
72000 x [(1.25)³ - 1] = 68625 75555
Compound interest earned by Seeta from bank X = Total interest earned by Seeta = (52080 + 19440) =
102400 x [(1.125)³ - 1] = 43400 71520
Simple interest earned by Neeta from bank Y = Required difference = 75555 – 71520 = Rs. 4035
32500 x 14% x 3 = 13650 This option will NOT satisfied the blanks
Statement I and II will satisfied the blanks
Page 35 of 99
So, rate of interest in scheme A = 80% of 5y = 4y%

2) Answer: C From the question:
Let the amount invested initially = 100x (100x * 4y * 4)/100 – (112x * 5y * 2)/100 = 3600
So, according to the question, (160xy/10) – (112xy/10) = 3600
= 100x × 125/100 × 125/100 - 100x = 8718.75 48xy/10 = 3600
= 156.25x – 100x = 8718.75 xy = 750 --------------(1)
= 56.25x = 8718.75 If the amount, invested in scheme A, had been
= x = 155 invested in scheme B for 2 years:
So, amount invested initially is = 155 × 100 = Rs. (100x * 5y * 2)/100 = 10xy
15,500 From equation (1):
Now, he invested this amount at 20% less of 10 * 750 = 7500
scheme X So, the SI received from scheme B would be =
So, the rare of simple interest = 25 × 80/100 = 20% Rs.7500
Now, simple interest on scheme Y = 33,518.75 –
8718.75 = Rs. 24,800 4) Answer: C
So, according of the question, According to question
= (15,500 × 20 × T)/100 = 24,800 K x [(1.02)³ - 1] – K x [(1.03)² - 1] = 24.64
= 3100T = 24,800 K x (1.061208 – 1.0609) = 24.64
=T=8 K = 24.64/0.000308
SO, time is = 8 years. K = 80000
Hence, the required answer is = Rs. 15,500 and 8 New amount invested = 3/2 x 80000 = 120000
years. Required compound interest = 120000 x 1.2 x 1.2 x
1.2 – 120000
3) Answer: C = Rs. 87360
Let amount invested in scheme A = ‘100x’ rupees
So, amount invested in scheme B = 112% of ‘100x’ 5) Answer: B
= ‘112x’ rupees Total interest returned by A = 10% of X
Let rate of interest in scheme B = 5y% Interest earned by A = 16% of (X + Y)
Page 36 of 99
After returning B’s Interest, net interest retained by Statement II.

A = 16% of (X + Y) – 10% of X = 6% of X + 16% of 27000 x 88/3% x 3 + 18000 x 12% x 4 = 32400
Y This will not satisfy the blanks
According to question, Statement III.
140% x (10% of X) = 6% of X + 16% of Y 27000 x 220/9% x 3 + 18000 x 20% x 4 = 34200
14% of X = 6% of X + 16% of Y This will satisfy the equation
8% of X = 16% of Y Statement IV. 27000 x 30% x 3 + 18000 x 14% x 4
X = 2Y = 34380
Interest earned by A in second case = 18% of (X/2 This will not satisfy the blanks,
+ Y/3) = 9% of X + 6% of Y Only I and III follows
So, (16% of X + 16% of Y) – (9% of X + 6% of Y) =
1248 7) Answer: D
7% of X + 10% of Y = 1248 According to question,
7 x 2Y + 10Y = 1248 x 100 Interest received by Farhani from bank 1 = 28% x 5
Y =(1248 x 100)/24 = 5200 x (4K + 4750) = 140% of (4K + 4750)
Required value = (X/2 + Y) = 2 x Y = 2 x 5200 = Amount invested in Bank 2 = 2/3 x 140% of (4K +
10,400 4750)
6) Answer: A Amount invested in Bank 3 = 1/3 x 140% of (5.6K +
According to the question, 6650)
(2K – 9000) x 10% x 2 = 9000 Interest received from bank 2 = 12.5% x 7 x 2/3 x
2K – 9000 = 45000 140% of (4K + 6750) =245/3 % x (4K + 4750)
K = 54000/2 = 27000 If interest received from bank 3 is simple interest,
Amount invested in Scheme X = 27000 so interest = 35% x 2 x 1/3 x 140% of (4K + 4750) =
Amount invested in Scheme Y = 27000 – 9000 = 98/3% of (4K + 4750)
18000 So, (245/3) % x (4K + 4750) – (98/3) % x (4K +
Statement I. 4750) = 2597
27000 x 28% x 3 + 18000 x 16% x 4 = Rs, 34200 49% x (4K + 4750) = 2597
This will satisfy the blanks (4K + 4750) = 5300
Page 37 of 99
K = 137.5
Interest received by Farhani from any of the bank is
integer value. Let’s check for K = 137.5
Interest received by Farhani from bank 2 = (245/3)
% x (4 x 137.5 + 4750) = 245/3% of 5300 =
After putting b = 25
4328.3333 (not possible)
So interest earned from bank 3, should be
compound interest.
Compound interest earned by Farhani from bank 3
for 2 years = 35 + 35 + (35 x 35)/100 = 82.25%
= 82.25% x 1/3 x 140% x (4K + 4750)
= (115.15/3) % x (4K + 4750) After putting b = 16
So, (245/3) % x (4K + 4750) - (115.15/3) % x (4K +
4750) = 2597
(4K + 4750) x 129.85% = 2597 x 3
(4K + 4750) = 7791/129.85%
(4K + 4750) = 6000
So, value of K = 312.5
Required value = 800% of 312.5 = 2500 After putting b = 9
8) Answer: C
Let annual rate of CI = a%
Let rate of SI = b%
Now, amount after 2 years:
Hence, only A and C are TRUE.
Simple interest amount after 3 years: 9) Answer: A
Page 38 of 99
Amount invested by Pooja on simple interest for two

years is = Rs. 8400 and Rs. 9600. 10) Answer: C
So, according to the question, SI = Pnr/100 => 1200 = P * 5 * r/100
= (4200 × X × 2)/100 + (4800 × (X + 5) × 2)/100 = =>Pr = 24000 --- (i)
3180 Difference between CI and SI for two years = P *
= 84X + 96X + 480 = 3180 r2/1002
= 180X = 3180 – 480 From Option I => 8000 * r = 24000
= 180X = 2700 => r = 3%
= X = 15%(I) 8000 * 3 * 3/(100 * 100) ≠ 10
So, theamount of Rs. (4200 + Y) is invested at = This option does not satisfy the given condition.
15% From Option II => 6000 * r = 24000
And the amount of Rs. (4800 + Y) is invested at = => r = 4%
(15 + 5)% = 20% 6000 * 4 * 4/(100 * 100) ≠ 3.5
So, the compound interest of two year at the rate of This option does not satisfy the given condition.
15%, From Option III => 8000 * r = 24000
= 15 + 15 + (15 × 15)/100 = 32.25% => r = 3%
And the compound interest of two year at the rate of 8000 * 3 * 3/(100 * 100)= 7.2
20%, This option satisfies the given condition.
= 20 + 20 + (20 × 20)/100 = 44%
Then, according to the question, 11) Answer: B
= (4200 + Y) × 32.25/100 + (4800 + Y) × 44/100 = SI = P * N * R/100
4076.50 7200 * 5 * x/100 = 5000 * (x + 2) * 6/100
= 135450 + 32.25Y + 211200 + 44Y = 407650 360x = 300x + 600
= 346650 + 76.25Y = 407650 x = 10%
= 76.25Y = 61000 CA = P * (1 + R/100)n
= Y = Rs. 800 (II) 5445 = y * (1 + 10/100)2
Sum of the value of X and Y cannot be y = Rs.4500
determined. (III)
Page 39 of 99
12) Answer: C Interest received by Renu = 3000 * 10 * 6/100 =

Case (i) : C.I = 500 Rs.1800
500 50 Interest received by Richie = 16/15 * 1800 =
500 100 5 Rs.1920
------------------------------------------ Amount invests by Richie = x
Total C.I = 1655 condition satisfied 1920 = x * 10 * 4/100
Case (ii): X = Rs.4800
France = 4800 * 125/100 = Rs.6000
750 CA = P * (1 + R/100)n
750 90 CA received by France = 6000 * (1 + 15/100)2
750 180 10.8 = Rs.7935
------------------------------------------ 14) Answer: C
Total C.I = 2530.8 condition not satisfied SI = (P * N * R)/100
Case (iii): SI received by Renu = (3000 * 15 * 4)/100 =
320 Rs.1800
320 16 Interest received by Banu = 1800 * 8/9 = 1600
320 32 .8 Amount invests by Banu = x
------------------------------------------ 1600 = (x * 10 * 4)/100
Total C.I = 1008.8 condition not satisfied x = 4000
Case (iv): Amount invested by Dinu = 4000 * 120/100 = 4800
800 CI received by Dinu = 4800 * (1 + 15/100)2 – 4800
800 80 = Rs.1548
800 160 8 CA received by Dinu = 4800 + 1548 = Rs.6348
------------------------------------------ Required percentage = 1800/6348 * 100 = 28%
Total C.I = 2648 condition not satisfied
15) Answer: A
13) Answer: A CI = P * (1 + R/100)3 – P
SI = P * N * R/100 SI = P * N * R/100
Page 40 of 99
CI = x * (1 + 10/100)3 – x Total voters in zone A = a = 80000

= 331x/1000 Votes received by R = 15% of 80000 = 12000
SI = (x + 4000) * 15 * 4/100) Total casted votes in zone A = a – 20000 = 60000
= (60x + 240000)/100 Votes received by Q = 25% of 60000 = 15000
(60x + 240000)/100 – 331x/1000 = 4014 Total valid votes in zone A = (a – 35000) = 45000
269x + 2400000 = 4014000 Votes received by P = 40% of 45000 = 18000
x = 6000 Total voters in zone B = b = 75000
Votes received by R = 20% of 75000 = 15000
Directions (16-20): Total casted votes in zone B = 60000
Zone A: Votes received by Q = 27% of 60000 = 16200
Let total voters = a Total valid votes in zone B = 48000
Total casted votes = (a – 20000) Votes received by P = 35% of 48000 = 16800
Total valid votes = (a – 20000) – 15000 = (a – Zone C:
35000) Votes received by R = 3 * 15000 – (12000 + 15000)
Zone B: = 18000
Let total voters = b Total voters = 18000 * (100/20) = 90000
Total casted votes = 60000 Total valid votes = 18000 * (100/36) = 50000
Total valid votes = 80% of 60000 = 48000 Votes received by P = 32% of 50000 = 16000
Now, Votes received by Q = 50000 – 18000 – 16000 =
a + b = 77500 * 2 16000
a + b = 155000 ……. (1) Total casted votes = 16000 * (100/20) = 80000
25% of (a – 20000) = 20% of b Zone D:
a – 20000 = 0.8b Total voters = 75000 * (5/3) = 125000
a = 0.8b + 20000 ……. (2) Votes received by R = 12% of 125000 = 15000
From (1) and (2): Total casted votes = 125000 – 50000 = 75000
0.8b + 20000 + b = 155000 Votes received by Q = 24% of 75000 = 18000
b = 75000 Votes received by P = 168.75% of 16000 = 27000
a = 155000 – 75000 = 80000 Total valid votes = 27000 * (100/45) = 60000
Page 41 of 99
Zone E: Total valid votes received by R in zones A, D and E

Total valid votes = 5 * 49600 – (45000 + 48000 + together = 12000 + 15000 + 24000 = 51000
50000 + 60000) = 45000 Required percent = (51000/150000) * 100
Votes received by P = 20% of 45000 = 9000 = 34%
Votes received by Q = 9000 + 3000 = 12000
Total casted votes = 12000 * (100/24) = 50000 18) Answer: C
Votes received by R = 9000 * (8/3) = 24000 Total voters in zones B and D together = 75000 +
Total voters = 24000 * (100/40) = 60000 125000 = 200000
Male voters in zones B and D together = 200000 *
(3/5) = 120000
Female voters in zones B and D together = 200000
* (2/5) = 80000
Total casted votes in zone B = 60000
Total casted votes by male voters in zone B = 50%
of 60000 = 30000
Total male voters in zone B = 30000 * (100/60) =
16) Answer: D
50000
Since maximum votes are received by P in zone D,
Total male voters in zone D = 120000 – 50000 =
then votes received by P in zone D = 27000
70000
Since minimum votes are received by Q in zone E,
Total female voters in zone B = 75000 – 50000 =
then votes received by Q in zone E = 12000
25000
Required difference = 27000 – 12000
Total female voters in zone D = 125000 – 70000 =
= 15000
55000
Quantity I:
17) Answer: A
Difference between male and female voters in zone
Total valid votes in zones A, D and E together =
B = 50000 – 25000 = 25000
45000 + 60000 + 45000 = 150000
Quantity II:
Page 42 of 99
Difference between male and female voters in zone Total valid votes casted to Q in all the 5 zones
D = 70000 – 55000 = 15000 together = 15000 + 16200 + 16000 + 18000 +
Hence, Quantity I > Quantity II 12000 = 77200
Total valid votes casted to R in all the 5 zones
19) Answer: B together = 12000 + 15000 + 18000 + 15000 +
Total casted votes in zone C = 80000 24000 = 84000
Total casted votes by male voters = (80000 + Hence, winner is P, first runner up is R and second
10000)/2 = 45000 runner up is Q.
Total casted votes by female voters = (80000 – Difference between valid votes casted to winner
10000)/2 = 35000 and first runner up = 86800 – 84000
Valid votes casted by male voters = 80% of 45000 = 2800
= 36000 Difference between valid votes casted to first runner
Total valid votes = 50000 up and second runner up = 84000 – 77200
Valid votes casted by female voters = 50000 – = 6800
36000 = 14000 Required average = (2800 + 6800)/2
Invalid votes casted by male voters = 45000 – = 4800
36000 = 9000
Invalid votes casted by female voters = 35000 – Directions (21-25):
14000 = 21000 Let length of train B and platform is ‘b’ meters and
Required ratio = 9000: 21000 ‘b–100’ meters respectively.
= 3: 7 Let the speed of train B = ‘q’ km/h
Now,
20) Answer: A
Total valid votes casted to P in all the 5 zones 2b–100 = 20q …….. (1)
together = 18000 + 16800 + 16000 + 27000 + 9000
= 86800
3b = 40q – 200 ……. (2)
From (1) and (2):
Page 43 of 99
3b = 2(2b – 100) – 200 9d + 2700 = 160s ………. (7)

3b = 4b – 200 – 200
b = 400 and q = 35
d = 12.5s – 62.5 ……. (8)
Length of platform = b – 100 = 300 meters From (7) and (8):
Let the length of train A and its speed is ‘a’ and ‘p’
9(12.5s – 62.5) + 2700 = 160s
respectively. 112.5s – 562.5+ 2700 = 160s
s= 45 and d = 500
a + 300 = 10p ………. (3) Let the length of train E and its speed is ‘e’ and ‘t’
respectively.
a = 5p – 25 ……. (4)
From (3) and (4): e + 300 = 20t ………. (9)
5p – 25 + 300 = 10p
p = 55 and a = 250
e = 10t – 50 ……. (10)
Let the length of train C and its speed is ‘c’ and ‘r’ From (9) and (10):
respectively. 10t – 50 + 300 = 20t
t = 25 and e = 200
c + 300 = 10r ………. (5) Table given below shows the length and speed of
all the five trains:
Trains Length (Meters) Speed (Km/h)
6c = 35r – 175 ……. (6)
From (5) and (6): A a = 250 p = 55
B b = 400 q = 35
6(10r – 300) = 35r – 175
C c = 350 r = 65
60r – 1800 = 35r – 175
D d = 500 s = 45
r = 65 and c = 350
E e = 200 t = 25
Let the length of train D and its speed is ‘d’ and ‘s’
21) Answer: C
respectively.
Let speed of train P is ‘x’ km/h.
Now,
Page 44 of 99
Let the length of train P is ‘y’ meters and speed of

train P is ‘z’ km/h
(55 + x)t = 1620 …….. (1)
Now,
(35 + x)(t + 10.8) = 2160 ……… (2)

350 + x = 520
From (1) and (2):
x = 170 meters
t = 16.2 and x = 45
And,
Speed of train P = x = 45 km/h
Now,
Time taken to cross the platform by train P: (y + 170) = 5z
y = 5z – 170 …….. (1)
= 40 seconds
22) Answer: B 3(y + 350) = 116(z – 65) ……… (2)
Let speed of train P = ‘s’ km/h From (1) and (2):
Now, 3(5z – 170 + 350) = 116(z – 65)
15z + 540 = 116z – 7540
101z = 8080
250 + x = 500
z = 80
x = 250
And, y = 5z – 170 = 230
Length of train P = y = 230 m
750 = 37.5(45 – s)
24) Answer: A
45 – s = 20
Let the length of platform is ‘x’ meters and speed of
s = 25
person is ‘y’ km/h
Speed of train P = s = 25 km/h
Now,
23) Answer: C
45 + y = 54
Let the length of bridge = ‘x’ meters
y=9
Page 45 of 99
Time taken by person to cover the length of train D: 530 = ? + 200

? = 330
= 200 seconds
27) Answer: B
22.08 * 39.909 + 24.92 * 16.12 – 279.912 = ?3
500 + x = 720
880 + 400 – 280= ?3
x = 220
10= ?
Required ratio = 200: 220
= 10: 11
28) Answer: C
719.72 ÷ 8.12 + 7999.91 ÷ √1025 = ? + 149.91
25) Answer: D
90 + 250 = ? + 150
Length of train P = 340 meters
? = 190
Let the speed of train P = ‘x’ km/h
Now, 29) Answer: E
6.09 * 24.012 + 54.09 * 31.91 – 42.08 * 19.98 = ?
25 + x = 135 ? = 144 + 1728 – 840
x = 110 ? = 1032
Time taken by train P to cross C when running in
same direction: 30) Answer: B
√4490 * 1.99 + √1850 * 4.98 = ? + 1495.01 ÷ √35
134 + 215 = ? + 249
= 55.2 seconds
? = 100
Directions (26-35):
√4224 * √15 + ? * 9.99 = 39.91 * 8.91
88.88% of 540.012 + 14.28% of 349.92 = ? + 20.18
260 + ? * 10 = 360
* 9.91
? = 10
8/9 * 540 + (1/7) * 350 = ? + 200
480 + 50 = ? + 200
Page 46 of 99
32) Answer: C 18x2 – 72x - 45x + 180 = 0

14.93 * 7.89 + 12.07 * 4.901 + 23.98 * 5.96 = ?2 18x(x – 4) – 45(x – 4) = 0
120 + 60 + 144 = ?2 (18x – 45)(x – 4) = 0
? = 18 x = 2.5, 4
6y2 – 27y + 30 = 0
33) Answer: A 6y2 – 12y – 15y + 30 = 0
12.81% of 16.01% of 480.13 = 8.12/2.14 * ? 6y(y – 2) – 15(y – 2) = 0
=> 13% of 16% of 480 = 8/2 * ? (6y – 15)(y – 2) = 0
=> 10 * 2/8 y = 2, 2.5
=> 2.5 x≥y
=>3(approximately) 37) Answer: D
32x2 – 48x + 16 = 0
34) Answer: A 32x2 – 32x – 16x + 16 = 0
5887.31 ÷ 28.94 + 703.08 ÷ 37.18 = 231.891 - ? 32x(x – 1) – 16(x – 1) = 0
203 + 19 = 232 - ? (32x – 16)(x – 1) = 0
? = 10 x = 1, 0.5
2y2 – 12y + 16 = 0
35) Answer: C 2y2 – 8y – 4y + 16 = 0
√62 =?3/16 + 17/9 - (13 × 1.9333) 2y(y – 4) – 4(y – 4) = 0
8 = (x3/16) + 2 – (13 * 2) (2y – 4)(y – 4) = 0
8 = (x3/16) + 2 - 26 y = 2, 4
x3/16 = 32 x<y
x3 = 512 = 83
x=8 38) Answer: B
x2 + 74x + 1333 = 0
Directions (36-50): x2 + 43x + 31x + 1333 = 0
36) Answer: B x(x + 43) + 31(x + 43) = 0
18x2 – 117x + 180 = 0 (x + 31)(x + 43) = 0
Page 47 of 99
x = -31, -43 2y2 + 42y + 216 = 0

y2 + 89y + 1978 = 0 2y2 + 24y + 18y + 216 = 0
y2 + 43y + 46y + 1978 = 0 2y(y + 12) + 18(y + 12) = 0
y(y + 43) + 46(y + 43) = 0 (2y + 18)(y + 12) = 0
(y + 46)(y + 43) = 0 y = -9, -12
y = -46, -43 Relationship between x and y cannot be
x≥y established.
39) Answer: C 41) Answer: A

x2 – 44x + 468 = 0 3x2 – 51x + 216 = 0
x2 – 26x – 18x + 468 = 0 3x2 – 24x – 27x + 216 = 0
x(x – 26) – 18(x – 26) = 0 3x(x – 8) – 27(x – 8) = 0
(x – 18)(x – 26) = 0 (3x – 27)(x – 8) = 0
x = 18, 26 x = 9, 8
y2 – 39y + 378 = 0 y2 + 19y - 66 = 0
y2 – 21y – 18y + 378 = 0 y2 + 22y - 3y - 66 = 0
y(y – 21) – 18(y – 21) = 0 y(y + 22) - 3(y + 22) = 0
(y – 18)(x – 21) = 0 (y – 3)(y + 22) = 0
y = 18, 21 y = 3, -22
Relationship between x and y cannot be x>y
established.
42) Answer: B
40) Answer: C x2 – 10x – 504 = 0
x2 + 27x + 162 = 0 x2 – 28x + 18x – 504 = 0
x2 + 9x + 18x + 162 = 0 x(x – 28) + 18(x – 28) = 0
x(x + 9) + 18(x + 9) = 0 (x + 18)(x – 28) = 0
(x + 18)(x + 9) = 0 x = -18, 28
x = -18, -9 y2 + 40y + 396 = 0
Page 48 of 99
y2 + 18y + 22y + 396 = 0 x≥y

y(y + 18) + 22(y + 18) = 0
(y + 22) (y + 18) = 0 45) Answer: C
y = -22, -18 x2 – 6x – 216 = 0
x≥y x2 – 18x + 12x – 216 = 0
x(x – 18) + 12(x – 18) = 0
43) Answer: E (x + 12)(x – 18) = 0
x2 + 275 = 396 x = -12, 18
x2 = 121 y2 – 7y – 198 = 0
x = 11, -11 y2 – 18y + 11y – 198 = 0
y2 – 23y + 132 = 0 y(y – 18) + 11(y – 18) = 0
y2 – 12y – 11y + 132 = 0 (y + 11)(y – 18) = 0
y(y – 12) – 11(y – 12) = 0 y =-11, 18
(y – 11)(y – 12) = 0 Relationship between x and y cannot be
y = 11, 12 established.
x≤y
46) Answer: B
44) Answer: B From I.
x2 - 12x = 108 3x2 – 19x + 30 = 0
x2 – 12x – 108 = 0 = 3x2 – 10x – 9x + 30 = 0
x2 – 18x + 6x – 108 = 0 = x (3x – 10) – 3 (3x – 10) = 0
x(x – 18) + 6(x – 18) = 0 = (3x – 10) (x – 3) = 0
x = 18, -6 = x = 10/3, 3
y2 + 23y + 102 = 0 From II.
y2 + 17y + 6y + 102 = 0 2y2 – 7y + 6 = 0
y(y + 17) + 6(y + 17) = 0 = 2y2 – 4y – 3y + 6 = 0
(y + 6)(y + 17) = 0 = 2y (y – 2) – 3 (y – 2) = 0
y = -6, -17 = (y – 2) (2y – 3) = 0
Page 49 of 99
= y = 3/2, 2 = 48/y2 – 14/y + 1 = 0

Hence x > y. = y2 – 14y + 48 = 0
= y2 – 8y – 6y + 48 = 0
47) Answer: D = y (y – 8) – 6 (y – 8) = 0
From I. = (y – 8) (y – 6) = 0
3x2 + 22x + 40 = 0 = y = 8, 6
= 3x2 + 10x + 12x+ 40 = 0 49) Answer: D
= x (3x + 10) + 4 (3x + 10) = 0 From I.
= (3x + 10) (x + 4) = 0 √x+ 1 = (9/√x) + (3/√x)
= x = –10/3, –4 = √x + 1 = 12/√x
From II. = x + √x = 12
3y2 + 19y + 20 = 0 = x + √x – 12 = 0
= 3y2 + 15y + 4y + 20 = 0 = x + 4√x – 3√x – 12 = 0
= 3y (y + 5) + 4 ( y + 5) = 0 = √x (√x + 4) – 3 (√x + 4) = 0
= (y + 5) (3y + 4) = 0 = (√x + 4) (√x – 3) = 0
= y = –5, –4/3 = √x cannot be –4.
So, √x = 3
48) Answer: B = x = 9.
From I. From II.
40/x2 – 13/x = –1 y2 – 15y + 54 = 0
= 40/x2 – 13/x + 1 = 0 = y2 – 9y – 6y + 54 = 0
= x2 – 13x + 40 = 0 = y (y – 9) –6 (y – 9) = 0
= x2 – 8x – 5x + 40 = 0 = (y – 9) (y – 6) = 0
= x (x – 8) – 5 (x – 8) = 0 = y = 9, 6
= (x – 8) (x – 5) = 0 Hence x ≥ y.
= x = 8, 5
From II. 50) Answer: A
48/y2 – 14/y = –1 From I.
Page 50 of 99
6x2 – x –2 = 0 The given number series is based on the following

= 6x2 + 3x – 4x – 2 = 0 pattern:
= 3x (2x + 1) – 2 (2x + 1) = 0 19 + 22 = 23
= (2x + 1) (3x – 2) = 0 23 + 32 = 32
= x = –1/2, 2/3 32 + 42 = 48
From II. 48 + 52 = 73
20y2 – 31y + 12 = 0 73 + 62 = 109
= 20y2 –16y –15y + 12 = 0 ∴ ? = 109 + 72
= 4y (5y –4) – 3 (5y – 4) = 0 = 109 + 49 = 158
= (5y – 4) (4y – 3) = 0 54) Answer: B
= y = 4/5, 3/4 12 * 1 + 1=13
Hence x < y. 13 * 2 + 2=28
28 * 3 + 3=87
Directions (51-55): 87 * 4 + 4=352
51) Answer: C 352 * 5 + 5=1765
899 – 3^1 =896

896 – 4^2 =880 55) Answer: D
880 – 5^3 =755 24 * 2 – 3 = 45

755 – 6^4 =-541 45 * 3 – 2 = 133
-541 – 7^5 =-17348 133 * 4 – 1 = 531

531 * 5 – 0 = 2655
52) Answer: B 2655 * 6 – (-1) = 15931
Directions (56-60):
56) Answer: D
108 ×2 + 12 = 216 + 1 = 217
217 × 2 + 22 = 434 + 4 = 438
53) Answer: C 438 ×2 + 32 = 876 + 9 = 885
Page 51 of 99
885 × 2 + 42 = 1770 + 16 = 1786 59) Answer: C

1786 × 2 + 52 = 3572 + 25 = 3597. 6754-25=6729
6729-49=6680
57) Answer: C 6680-81=6599
23 + 24 = 47 6599-121=6478
47 + 28 = 75 6478-169=6309
75 + 32 = 107 6309-225=6084
107 + 36 = 143
143 + 40 = 183 60) Answer: B
13 + 1 = 2
58) Answer: B 23 + 2 = 10
Cube of prime numbers 33 + 3 = 30
173 = 4913 43 + 4 = 68
133 = 2197 53 + 5 = 130
113 = 1331 63 + 6 = 222
73 = 343
53 = 125
33 = 27
English Language
Directions (1-7): Read the passage c arefully a nd The peace process in Afghanistan has reached a
answer the questions given below it. Certain critical turning point. As when then U.S. President
words/ phrases have been g iven i n b old to h elp Barack Obama announced the exit of U.S. forces
you locate them while answering some of the from Afghanistan (and the Taliban famously
questions. exalted – ‘you may have the watches, but we have
the time’), and more recently, when the Doha
Page 52 of 99
Agreement was concluded a year ago between the Pentagon are passionate about keeping a
U.S. Government and the Taliban. Now, a more modicum of U.S. military presence in Afghanistan.
decisive step is in store. Afghan social media and Mr. Biden has long held, even as Vice-President,
political circles are rife with details, corroborated by that Pakistan is strategically more important to the
official sources in Afghanistan, that the U.S. U.S. than Afghanistan, and that U.S. troops should
Secretary of State, Antony J. Blinken, has unveiled be pulled out of the Afghan battlefield as soon as
the initial conclusions of the review by the United possible. Donald Trump was doing nothing
States of its strategy in Afghanistan in a letter he different from his predecessor, only in his
has addressed simultaneously to Afghanistan inimitable way, which Mr. Biden wishes to distance
President Ashraf Ghani and the head of the Afghan himself from and leave a narrative of orderly exit.
High Council for National Reconciliation of The ongoing review had raised hopes in Kabul of a
Afghanistan, Abdullah Abdullah. Mr. Ghani has turnaround in U.S. policy. That is not happening in
been virtually read the riot act by Mr. Blinken, substance. The U.S. is anxious to proceed to a
whose letter confirms the intention to fully withdraw final settlement rapidly on terms visible from the
all U.S. military forces from Afghanistan as early as very outset of the peace process. The continuation
May 1, as specified in the Doha Agreement. Mr. of Zalmay Khalilzad as the Special Representative
Ghani has been warned that without them, the for Afghanistan Reconciliation at the State
security situation will deteriorate and the Taliban Department was an early sign that, in substance,
could make rapid gains. U.S. policy is going to remain unaltered.
Despite the Doha Agreement, the Taliban has not The U.S. maintains that its objective is to bring
ended its ties with the al-Qaeda and other similar about a just and durable peace through political
terrorist groups. Nor have intra-Afghan negotiations in a manner that Afghanistan remains
negotiations progressed. The policy review ordered united, sovereign, and democratic, and preserves
in Washington DC by U.S. President Joe Biden the gains made over the past two decades. This is
has been shrouded in secrecy. What appeared in a tall order, as it contradicts the abiding U.S.
the U.S. media indicates that some within the U.S. priority, to cut its losses and be out of Afghanistan
Administration are voicing the need to defend at the earliest. The conundrum for the U.S. is that it
American values. ……………… (7) in the cannot disengage from Afghanistan, if that is its
Page 53 of 99
priority, without accepting Pakistan’s terms. These D. Joe Bieden

would not be acceptable to Afghan patriots who E. Kamala Harris
want freedom for Afghanistan to choose its political
direction. 2) Which of the following is true?
If training, combat support, and the supply of A. the Taliban has ended its ties with the al-Qaeda
weapons are stopped from Pakistan, the Taliban and other similar terrorist groups
could be on its knees. The U.S. Government is B. U.S. is lethargic to a final settlement on terms
wary but resigned about Pakistan’s negative role. visible from the very outset of the peace process
Instead of pressuring Pakistan, it is seeking Afghan C. both A and B
acquiescence for a power-sharing arrangement D. both A and E
with the Taliban, enabling the exit of U.S. soldiers. E. both trump and Biden agreed that U.S. troops
The U.S. Government is advocating ‘a new, should be pulled out of the Afghan battlefield as
inclusive government’ in Afghanistan, which soon as possible
implies an immediate 50% share for the Taliban in
an interim government, as a quid pro quo for a 3) What is the objective of the US i n A fghanistan
permanent and comprehensive ceasefire. This will peace deal?
be without reference to a mandate from the people A. deploy drones so that it can make surveillance
as elections will be held only in the future, after the in Iran
principles guiding Afghanistan’s future B. remain as a strategically important ally of
constitutional and governing arrangements are Afghanistan
worked out. C. Makes Taliban the sold leader of the country
D. bring about a just and durable peace through
1) Who has been warned ‘that without th em, the political negotiations in a manner that Afghanistan
security situation will deteriorate a nd th e T aliban remains united, sovereign, and democratic, and
could make rapid gains’? preserves the gains made over the past two
A. Mr. Asraf Ghani decades
B. Antony J. Blinken E. None of these
C. Donald Trump
Page 54 of 99
4) Doha agreement was concluded between B. dissuade

whom? C. enamor
A. U.S. Government and Afghanistan D. protagonists
B. Afghanistan and the Taliban E. None of these
C. U.S. Government and the Taliban
D. Afghanistan and Pakistan Directions (8-12): In the question below, a
E. Afghanistan and Qatar sentence is divided into five parts out of which part
A has been given without a ny e r ror . R emaining
5. Which of the following is antonymous with some parts m a y o r m ay n o t c ontain e r ror . Y ou
‘deteriorate ’? have to identify the p arts w hich d o n o t h ave a n
A. improve error.
B. culpable 8) Most animals which live (A) / in crowding
C. reminisce conditions have (B) / particular robust immune
D. bequeath systems, (C) /so it long puzzled entomologists (D)/
E. vaunt that honeybees do not. (E)
A. DE
6) Which of the following is synonymous with B. BE
‘resigned’? C. CD
A. phlegmatic D. DB
B. eclectic E. No error
C. leave
D. bracing 9) Airbus expects its new plane (A)/ to be powered
E. inimical by hydrogen directly (B)/ as a fuel in new turbofans
(C)/ of the sort now founded (D)/ in largest
7) Which of the following should fill the blank given passenger jets. (E)
in (7) to make it contextually correct and A. CE
meaningful? B. BC
A. disenchant C. CD
Page 55 of 99
D. DE from the biggest surge in online activity of (D)/ any

E. No error retail category—rising by almost 50% in America in
2020 (E)
10) In November the European Commission A. AE
accused (A)/ Amazon of violating competition laws B. BD
(B)/ for using non-public data from (C)/ third-party C. CE
sellers to benefit (D)/ itself own retail business. (E) D. DB
A. BC E. No error
B. CD
C. CE Directions (13-17): A sentence given below divided
D. BD into five parts with o ne p a rt o f th e s entence n ot
E. No error related to the central theme of the s entence. Y ou
have to choose correct rearrangement of sentence
11) The growing ease a nd fa lling c ost o f tr avel, with elimination of the odd one from th e s entence
(A)/ plus a lack of any regulations (B)/ to curb in the options given.
emissions, means that unchecked a rose (C)/ to as 13) saying it was one-sided and packed with false
much as 9% of total carbon (D)/ emissions by assertions (A)/ The Indian government has
2050 had looked plausible. (E) slammed a debate (B)/in London issued a
A. CD statement immediately after the debate(C)/ and
B. BC safety of farmer’s protests in India (D) /held in the
C. BD House of Commons on press freedom (E)
D. CE A. DCBA
E. No error B. BEDA
C. BEDC
12) Globally the supermarket and superstore D. BDAC
sector has (A)/ had a profitable pandemic, E. EACB
benefiting both from the fact (B)/ that grocery
stores remained open during lockdowns, (C)/ and
Page 56 of 99
14) promising a monthly honorarium of Rs1,500 to state government has been stern (C)/ offline in
women (A)/ heads of families and six domestic April in the current format, (D)/ on its decision to
LPG cylinders (B)/ Chief Minister Edappadi K conduct SSC and HSC exams. (E)
Palaniswami on Monday stepped on the populist A. ABDC
gas,(C)/ this promise from the yet-to-be-released B. CEBD
AIADMK manifesto(D)/ per year free to every C. BADE
household in Tamil Nadu (E) D. ACED
A. BDCE E. CEDB
B. BCDA
C. CADE 17) based on complaints about sub-stranded range
D. CABE performance (A)/ temporarily suspend subsidy on
E. ABDE nexon electric vehicles, (B)/ the company has
claimed the government took the extreme step (C)/
15) Darekar made the demand in the legislative Tata Motors has moved Delhi High Court (D)/
council on Monday (A)/ Deshmukh said the guilty challenging the AAP government’s decision to (E)
will not be spared (B)/ after state home minister A. DEBA
Anil Deshmukh read out a statement (C)/for B. DECB
murder on the complaint of Hiran’s wife Vimla (D)/ C. ABED
that the ATS had registered an FIR (E) D. CDEA
A. ABED E. CBAE
B. BCAD
C. ACED Directions (18-22): In each of the given statements,
D. ABCD four words have been h ighlighted. One o f th em
E. BCED may be spelt incorrectly or is contextually incorrect.
Identify the incorrect w ord. If a ll th e highlighted
16) a teacher from Hindi medium school, used words are correctly spelt, mark ‘e’ as your answer.
Google forms to reach (A)/ 79% students said they 18) Citizens above the age of 45, irrperspective of
were dissatisfied with the decision (B)/ While the comorbidities, will be eligible for COVID-19
Page 57 of 99
vaccination from April 1, the government B. Accountability

announced on Tuesday. C. Adopted
A. Irrperspective D. Council
B. Eligible E. All are correct.
C. Vaccination
D. Announced
E. All are correct. 21) Tribute was paid to Bhagat Singh and his
associates through patriotic songs by students and
faculty members of the Music Faculty.
19) Justice Shah, who authored the judgment, A. Tribute
resoned that additional interest in the form of B. Associates
compound or penal is usually collected from loan C. Patriotic
defaulters. D. Members
A. Authored E. All are correct.
B. Resoned
C. Compound
D. Defaulters 22) Maintaining air quality has become a m a m oth
E. All are correct. challenge for the Indian government and stubble
burning is an important reason for severe air
pollution.
20) The revolution on ‘Promoting reconciliation, A. Maintaining
accountability and human rights in Sri Lanka’ was B. Mamoth
adopted after 22 states of the 47-member Council C. Stubble
voted in its favor. D. Severe
A. Revolution E. All are correct.
Directions (1-7): 1) Answer: A

Page 58 of 99
The question can be answered by reading the following 4) Answer: C

paragraph- Mr. Ghani has been warned that without The question can be answered by reading the following
them, the security situation will deteriorate and the paragraph- As when then U.S. President Barack Obama
Taliban could make rapid gains. announced the exit of U.S. forces from Afghanistan (and
So option A will be the correct choice here. the Taliban famously exalted – ‘you may have the
watches, but we have the time’), and more recently,

2) Answer: E when the Doha Agreement was concluded a year ago
The question can be answered by reading the following between the U.S. Government and the Taliban. Now, a
paragraph- Mr. Biden has long held, even as Vice- more decisive step is in store.
President, that Pakistan is strategically more important So option C will be the correct choice here.
to the U.S. than Afghanistan, and that U.S. troops

should be pulled out of the Afghan battlefield as soon as 5) Answer: A
possible. Donald Trump was doing nothing different from ‘Improve’ means make or become better. So it is
his predecessor, only in his inimitable way, which Mr. antonymous with ‘deteriorate’. ‘Reminisce’ means to
Biden wishes to distance himself from and leave a indulge in enjoyable recollection of past events. So
narrative of orderly exit. option A will be the correct choice here.

So option E will be the correct choice here.
6) Answer: C
3) Answer: D ‘Leave’ is synonymous with ‘resigned’. ‘Eclectic’ means

The question can be answered by reading the following deriving ideas, style, or taste from a broad and diverse
paragraph- The U.S. maintains that its objective is to range of sources. ‘Inimical’ means tending to obstruct or
bring about a just and durable peace through political harm. So option C will be the correct choice here.
negotiations in a manner that Afghanistan remains
united, sovereign, and democratic, and preserves the 7) Answer: D

gains made over the past two decades. In the given sentence, only ‘protagonists’ make it
So option D will be the correct choice here. grammatically as well as contextually correct.
Page 59 of 99
Option A): is incorrect because disenchant means in large passenger jets.

because (someone) to be disappointed which does not In part D usage of “founded” is contextually incorrect.
fit here. "Founded" is the past tense of "to found," which means
Option B): is incorrect as dissuade means persuade to establish something, like a company.
(someone) not to take a particular course of action which Find – notice, observe identify (something) as being
does not make any sense here. present.

Option C): is incorrect as ‘enamor’ does not fit here. The given sentence meant to convey “hydrogen fue lled
Option D): is the correct alternative among the following turbofans can be f o und ( no ticed /observed) i n l arge
as ‘protagonists’ fit here both grammatically and passenger jets too”
contextually. It means an advocate or champion of a In part E usage of “largest” is grammatically incorrect.
particular cause or idea. “Large” is the correct usage.

Directions (8-12):
Most animals which live in crowded conditions have Error free part is BD
particularly robust immune systems, so it long puzzled In November the European Commission accused
entomologists that honeybees do not. Amazon of violating competition laws by using non-
In part B “crowding” should be replaced with an public data from third-party sellers to benefit its own
adjective “crowded” as we need an adjective there to retail business.
modify the subject “conditions”. In part C preposition “for” is incorrect. Correct

In part C “particular” is a noun, which needs to be preposition is “by” “by” + -ING verb
replaced by an adverb “particularly ” to make it This structure describes how something is done or how
grammatically correct. to do something.
The given sentence says Amazon violated com peti tion
9) Answer: B laws by using non-public data from third-party sellers.

Error free part is BC In part E usage of “itself” doesn’t make any sense. It has
Airbus expects its new plane to be powered by hydrogen to be replaced by “its”
directly as a fuel in new turbofans of the sort now found

Page 60 of 99
11) Answer: C
Error free part is BD 14) Answer: D
The growing ease and falling cost of travel, plus a lack Correct sequence is CABE
of any regulations to curb emissions, means that Chief minister Edappadi K Palaniswami on Monday
unchecked a rise to as much as 9% of total carbon stepped on the populist gas, promising a monthly
emissions by 2050 has looked plausible. honorarium of Rs 1,500 to women heads of families and
In part C “rose” is grammatically incorrect. It is a verb. six domestic LPG cylinders per year free to every
Articles should always be followed by nouns. Hence household in Tamil Nadu

“rise” (noun) should be used.
In part E usage of “had” is grammatically incorrect. The 15) Answer: C
given sentence is in present form. So usage of “was” is Correct sequence is ACED

incorrect. Darekar made the demand in the legislative council on
Monday after state home minister Anil Deshmukh read
12) Answer: E out a statement that the ATS had registered an FIR for
Globally the supermarket and superstore sector has had murder on the complaint of Hiran’s wife Vimla
a profitable pandemic, benefiting both from the fact that

grocery stores remained open during lockdowns, and 16) Answer: E
from the biggest surge in online activity of any retail Correct sequence is CEDB
category—rising by almost 50% in America in 2020. While the state government has been stern on its
decision to conduct SSC and HSC exams offline in April
Directions (13-17): in the current format, 79% students said they were
13) Answer: B dissatisfied with the decision.
Correct sequence is BEDA
The Indian Government has slammed a debate held in 17) Answer: A

the House of Commons on press freedom and safety of Correct sequence is DEBA
farmer’s protests in India, saying it was one-sided and Tata Motors has moved Delhi High Court challenging the
packed with false assertions. AAP government’s decision to temporarily suspend

Page 61 of 99
subsidy on Nexon electric vehicles, based on complaints Hence, option (a) is the most suitable answer choice.
about sub-standard range performance. Resolution- a formal expression of opinion or intention
agreed on by a legislative body or other formal meeting,

Directions (18-22): typically after taking a vote.
18) Answer: A Revolution- a forcible overthrow of a government or
Among the given highlighted words, ‘Irrespective’ has social order, in favor of a new system.
been incorrectly spelt as ‘irrperspective’.
Hence, option (a) is the most suitable answer choice. 21) Answer: E
Irrespective - not taking (something) into account; All the given highlighted words are correct in context of
regardless of. the sentence and do not require any improvement.
Hence, option (e) is the most suitable answer choice.

19) Answer: B
Among the given highlighted words, ‘reasoned’ has 22) Answer: B
been incorrectly spelt as ‘resoned’. Among the given highlighted words, ‘mammoth’ has
Hence, option (b) is the most suitable answer choice. been incorrectly spelt as ‘mamoth’.
Reasoned- based on logic or good sense. Hence, option (b) is the most suitable answer choice.
Mammoth - huge.
20) Answer: A
Among the given highlighted words, ‘revolution’ is

incorrect in context of the given sentence. It must be
replaced with ‘resolution’.
General Awareness
1. The government of which state will construct the B) Bihar

‘COVID Warrior Memorial’ at Biju Patnaik Park? C) Chhattisgarh
A) Haryana D) Odisha
Page 62 of 99
E) Delhi 5. Who among the following has been sworn in as

Italy's new prime minister?
2. India will fund USD _____ m illion for restoration of 3 A) Fedrick Draghi
cultural heritage projects in Nepal. B) Mario Draghi
A) 35 C) Jens Weldmann
B) 50 D) Sergio Matarella
C) 55 E) Giacomo Draghi
D) 40
E) 45 6. ISRO has collaborated with which company to bring
India a rival to Google Maps?
3. The Lok Sabha has passed the Arbitration & A) Mosdac

Conciliation (Amendment) Bill, 2021 and will amend the B) Vedas
Arbitration and Conciliation Act of which year? C) Navic
A) 1990 D) DRDO
B) 1992 E) MapmyIndia
C) 1993
D) 1996 7. Which institution has launched the fundraising
E) 1995 campaign ‘Cherish 2021’?
A) IIT Guwahati
4. Which state has become the 13th State to complete B) IIT Roorkee
the ONOR Card? C) IIT Madras

A) Chhattisgarh D) IIT Bombay
B) Madhya Pradesh E) IIT Delhi
C) Delhi
D) Haryana 8. Kotak Mahindra Bank launched its outward forex
E) Punjab remittance service, Kotak Remit, it offers remittances in
how many currencies?

Page 63 of 99
A) 12 D) 30
B) 10 E) 35
C) 15
D) 08 12. Which of the following M inistry has unveiled the
E) 06 Pilot Pey Jal Survekshan?
A) Ministry of Education
9. RBI has constituted a _____ member expert B) Ministry of Agriculture
committee on Urban Co-operative Banks. C) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

A) 4 D) Ministry of Jal Shakti
B) 5 E) Ministry of Agriculture
C) 6
D) 8 13. Which of the following country has overtaken the
E) 7 US and become the European Union's biggest trading
partner?
10. Which of the following Bank has launched ATM A) Israel
dem o vans? B) France

A) UCO Bank C) Germany
B) Kerala Bank D) Japan
C) Bandhan Bank E) China

D) Axis Bank
E) SBI Bank 14. Which of the following insurance provider has

11. The government has increased the budget of the launched the corporate risk index?
Department of Science and Technology and the A) Max Life
M inistry of Earth Sciences by ____ per cent. B) Apollo Munich

A) 45 C) ICICI Lombard
B) 25 D) Religare
C) 40 E) Nippon
Page 64 of 99
18. Facebook has blocked users from which country

15. How many states have successfully attained Ease from sharing or viewing news content?
of Doing Business reforms? A) US

A) 13 B) Israel
B) 15 C) Australia
C) 10 D) Germany
D) 11 E) France
E) 12
19. ‘Free Gift Milk to Girl Students of Sikkim’ initiative
16. Which company has announced its first device aims to provide _____mls of milk every day.
m anufacturing line in India? A) 300

A) Nokia B) 100
B) Huawei C) 150
C) Amazon D) 200
D) Tesla E) 250
E) Walmart
20. Which company has signed an MoU with Indian
17. The Union Cabinet has approved a production- School of M ines?
linked incentive scheme - telecom sector worth A) BPCL

_____crores. B) ONGC
A) 11560 C) HPCL
B) 12450 D) ESSAR
C) 13400 E) Reliance
D) 12300
E) 12195 21. Labour M inister Santosh Gangwar has launched
applications for _____ pan-India surveys.
A) 8
Page 65 of 99
B) 7 E) US
C) 6
D) 5 25. India along with which country will work together for
E) 4 peace, prosperity and security in Indo-Pacific region?
A) Germany
22. Which country has recently joined Russia-Iran’s B) Sweden

two-day naval exercise? C) US
A) China D) China
B) India E) Australia
C) US
D) France 26. The Union government has kicked off which of the
E) Germany following campaigns to promote e-mobility?
A) Go Efficient
23. Indian Government has launched ______, a B) Go E-mobile

Whatsapp Like Instant M essaging App For Government C) Go Electric
Em ploys. D) Go Green
A) Indie-Message E) Go Clean
B) Live India
C) Live Sandes 27. Which of the following city has received recognition
D) Sandes as the 2020 Tree City of the World?
E) Message India A) Delhi

24. Which of the following country has Passed an Anti- B) Chennai
radicalism Bill ? C) Surat
A) China D) Hyderabad
B) France E) Pune
C) Germany
D) Sweden
Page 66 of 99
28. Free period products to all students are being B) Vivo

offered by which of the following country? C) Nokia
A) Germany D) Samsung
B) Sweden E) Xiaomi
C) France
D) US 32. Who among the following has won the national title,
E) New Zealand eyes Tokyo Olympic spot via Doha?
A) Nilesh Pant
29. Snakepedia' mobile app has been launched in B) Surender Singh
which state to help people, doctors treat snake bites? C) Anand Rawat
A) Gujarat D) Manika Batra

B) Kerala E) Reeth Rishya
C) Karnataka
D) Punjab 33. World Day of Social Justice 2021 is being Observed

E) Haryana On which date?
A) February 9
30. Which of the following Bank has partnered with B) February 20
Vayana Network to offer help M SMEs? C) February 11
A) UCO D) February 2
B) Bandhan E) February 23
C) Axis
D) Bank of Maharashtra 34. Prakash Javadekar has inaugurated the Atal
E) Bank of India Paryavaran Bhavan in which state/UT?
A) Punjab
31. Which company has become the title sponsor for B) Chandigarh
IPL 2021? C) Lakshadweep
A) Realme D) Puducherry
Page 67 of 99
E) Delhi 38. First paperless budget will be presented in the

Assembly of which state?
35. The chief minister of which state has laid the A) Delhi
foundation of the first skill university of eastern India? B) Chhattisgarh
A) Mizoram C) Uttar Pradesh
B) Manipur D) Haryana
C) Tripura E) Bihar
D) Nagaland
E) Assam 39. DRDO has conducted ______successful launches of
Vertical Launch Short Range Surface to Air Missile.
36. Which of the following country has recently Officially A) 6

rejoined the Paris Climate Agreement? B) 5
A) UAE C) 4
B) Germany D) 3
C) Israel E) 2
D) US
E) France 40. Which country has become the 1st in the world to
identify the need for action for Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver
37. Which of the following state will host the second Disease?
Khelo India University Games this year? A) Sweden
A) Chhattisgarh B) Denmark
B) Punjab C) India
C) Haryana D) France
D) Kerala E) Israel
E) Karnataka
41. India has offered USD _____ million line of credit to
M auritius.
Page 68 of 99
A) 140 D) Chandigarh
B) 130 E) J&K
C) 120
D) 100 45. Sardar Patel Cricket Stadium In M otera has been
E) 110 renamed Narendra M odi Stadium. It is located in which
state?
42. Which country has launched a "green pass" for A) Mizoram
people with vaccination certificates? B) Manipur

A) China C) Punjab
B) US D) Assam
C) Germany E) Gujarat
D) France
E) Israel 46. The External Affairs Minister has inaugurated a new
Indian High Commission building in which country?

43. Which state government has presented the biggest A) Sri Lanka
ever budget of around Rs 5,50,270 crores to m ake a B) Bhutan

self-reliant state? C) Bangladesh
A) Chhattisgarh D) Mauritius
B) Karnataka E) Maldives
C) Kerala
D) Uttar Pradesh 47. The Union Government and AIIB has signed a loan
E) Haryana agreement of USD _____ m illion for Assam.
44. e-Kuber payments system has been launched in A) 180
which state/UT recently? B) 200

A) Telangana C) 304
B) Puducherry D) 300
C) Daman & Diu E) 250

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51. Which country is unlikely to exit ‘grey list’ as FATF

48. PM KISAN scheme has completed two years on m eets?
which of the following date? A) China

A) February 11 B) North Korea
B) February 3 C) Qatar
C) February 5 D) Iran
D) February 6 E) Pakistan
E) February 24
52. The Central government has Launched National
49. Rajnath Singh has inaugurated the DRDO Skill Urban Digital Mission For Creating Digital Infra For
Development Centre for Fire Safety Training in which Cities by which year?
state? A) 2024
A) Kerala B) 2022
B) Haryana C) 2023
C) Uttar Pradesh D) 2025
D) Karnataka E) 2026
E) Punjab
53. The Central government has approved the PLI
50. Which of the following bank has recently been Scheme for which of the following sectors?
placed under Reserve Bank of India's regulatory A) Highways
purview? B) Medical Devices

A) Bank of India C) Banking
B) OBC D) IT Hardware
C) UCO E) Insurance
D) Bandhan Bank
E) State Bank of Sikkim 54. Which edition of the Maritime India Summit 2021
has been inaugurated by PM Modi?

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A) 6th D) Madhya Pradesh

B) 5th E) Haryana
C) 2nd
D) 3rd 58. Who among the following has bagged an award for
E) 4th best digital initiatives?
A) HSRTC
55. Which country has passed law to Facebook, Google B) KSRTC
pay for news? C) APSRTC

A) China D) UPSRTC
B) US E) JKSRTC
C) Australia
D) Germany 59. President's Rule has recently been imposed in
E) France which state/UT?
A) Punjab
56. Who among the following has taken charge as B) Delhi
Chairman of the National Commission for Scheduled C) Chandigarh

Castes? D) Daman & Diu
A) Komal Tyagi E) Puducherry
B) Surender Gupta
C) Vijay Sampla 60. The ______ edition of Global Bio-India has been
D) Anand Singh organised from 1st to 3rd M arch.

E) Rajat Chauhan A) 6th
57. Which state has bagged an award for fastest B) 5th
im plementation of PM KSNY? C) 4th

A) Bihar D) 2nd
B) Punjab E) 3rd
C) Uttar Pradesh
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61. Indian Railways has decided to reactivate the A) Chhattisgarh

facility of ____ ON MOBILE App. B) Madhya Pradesh
A) Where’s my train C) Tamil Nadu

B) UTS D) Haryana
C) Catering E) Punjab
D) Reservation
E) Food Servicing 65. Who among the following has recently been
appointed as the new UN goodwill ambassador?

62. The Governor of which state has Inaugurated A) Charlize Theron
India’s First Digital University? B) Amina J. Mohammed
A) Haryana C) Yo-Yo Ma
B) Chhattisgarh D) Natalia Vodianova
C) Bihar E) Natalia Kanem
D) Karnataka
E) Kerala 66. Which institution has signed a pact with MOL for
transportation of LPG through inland waterways?

63. Which state’s New Agriculture Pump Power A) ASSOCHAM
Connection scheme has bagged good response since B) IWAI
launch? C) CII
A) Punjab D) Niti Aayog
B) Maharashtra E) FICCI
C) Kerala
D) Chhattisgarh 67. The Ministry of Corporate Affairs has signed an
E) Haryana M oU with which institution for data exchange.

A) Niti Aayog
64. Retirement age has been raised to 60 years for B) CII
which state for government employees? C) CBIC

Page 72 of 99
D) ICAI 71. Indian company Omega Seiki to set up an electric

E) FICCI v ehicle plant in which country?
A) Netherlands
68. World NGO Day is observed on which date? B) Bangladesh
A) February 1 C) France
B) February 3 D) Germany
C) February 27 E) Japan
D) February 4
E) February 21 72. SIDBI has joined hands with the government of
which state for Development of MSME ecosystem?
69. The bridge on which river will be the world's highest A) Chhattisgarh
rail bridge taller than Eiffel Tower, and will be B) Punjab
completed by the end of 2021? C) Haryana
A) Yamuna D) Andhra Pradesh

B) Ganga E) Madhya Pradesh
C) Sutlej
D) Chenab 73. The government of which state has launched its
E) Ravi Budget mobile app?
A) Punjab
70. NPCI enables UPI AutoPay live on which of the B) Madhya Pradesh
following streaming platform app? C) Haryana

A) Wynk D) Bihar
B) Gaana E) Gujarat
C) Paytm
D) Spotify 74. E-Daakhil portal for consumer grievance redressal
E) Hungama has now been m ade operational in ____ states and
UTs.
Page 73 of 99
A) 16 75. Vinay Kumar who announced his retirement

B) 11 recently was a famous______.
C) 12 A) Actor
D) 15 B) Producer
E) 13 C) Director
D) Musician
E) Cricketer

1. Answer: D
Odisha government to construct ‘COVID Warrior 2. Answer: B
Memorial’ at Biju Patnaik Park in Bhubaneswar in India will provide Nepalese Rupees(NR) 142 million to
recognition of the sacrifice & services rendered by Nepal for the restoration and conservation of three
COVID19 warriors who have lost their lives fighting the cultural heritage sites in the Kathmandu Valley.
pandemic. The three sites are part of cultural heritage projects

More than 60 Covid warriors including health workers in being taken up by India for post-earthquake
Odisha have succumbed to coronavirus. 19. conservation and restoration under an MoU signed
The state government plans to inaugurate the memorial between the two countries.
on August 15 2021. The projects are being implemented under USD 50
Last year, Odisha chief minister Naveen Patnaik had million grant assistance committed by India for post-
announced that the martyr status would be accorded to earthquake reconstruction of the cultural heritage sites
all health personnel and other support services who across eight districts of Nepal.
succumbed to Covid19. The agreements were signed by the Project Director of

The state government also announced ₹50 lakh ex- CLPIU (Building) of National Reconstruction Authority
gratia to all health personnel (private and public) and and Contractors for conservation and retrofitting of Seto
members of all other support services who died of Machindranath Temple ( Total Cost - NRs 626 million ),
Covid-19. construction of Dharamshala at Budhaneelkantha ( Total
Page 74 of 99
Cost NRs - 334 million ) and conservation and under National Food Security Act and other welfare
development of Kumari Home in Lalitpur district ( Total schemes at any Fair Price Shop across the country.
Cost NRs - 456 million ), according to a press release

issued by the Indian Embassy. 5. Answer: B
The former European Central Bank chief Mario Draghi
3. Answer: D has been sworn in as Italy’s prime minister at the head

The Lok Sabha passed the Arbitration and Conciliation of a unity government
(Amendment) Bill, 2021 by voice vote. Draghi,73 year old who formerly served as the head of
The Bill was introduced in the Lok Sabha on February 4, the European Central Bank.
2021 by Law Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad. Draghi's predecessor, Giuseppe Conte, resigned only
It seeks to amend the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, weeks ago after infighting among political groups over
1996 so as to (i) enable automatic stay on awards in his handling of the pandemic.
certain cases and (ii) specify by regulations
6. Answer: E
4. Answer: E Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and
Punjab has become the 13th State in the country to MapmyIndia, the navigation solutions provider, have
successfully undertake “One Nation One Ration Card joined hands to offer an indigenous mapping solution to
system” reform. take on Google Maps.
The State has become eligible to mobilise additional According to MapmyIndia CEO and Executive Director,
financial resources of one thousand five hundred and Rohan Verma, the services will combine the power of
sixteen crore rupees through Open Market Borrowings. the company’s digital maps and technologies with
12 other States which have completed this reform are ISRO's catalogue of satellite imagery and earth
Andhra Pradesh, Goa, Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, observation data.
Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Telangana, Tamil The collaboration will enable them to jointly identify and
Nadu, Tripura and Uttar Pradesh. build a holistic geospatial portal utilising earth
The implementation of One Nation One Ration Card observation datasets, 'NavIC', Web Services and APIs
System ensures availability of ration to beneficiaries (application programming interface) available in

Page 75 of 99
MapmyIndia, ISRO said in a statement adding that the The feature is already live on the Kotak Mobile Banking
geospatial portals will be called 'Bhuvan', 'VEDAS' and App.
'MOSDAC'. For the first time, Kotak customers can conveniently

Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System also known transfer money internationally to their beneficiaries
as NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation), is an straight from their mobile.
indigenous navigation system, developed by ISRO. Kotak Remit offers remittances in 15 currencies
Bhuvan is the national geo-portal developed and hosted including the US dollar, Australian Dollar, UK Pound
by ISRO comprising geospatial data, services, and tools Sterling, Hong Kong Dollar, Saudi Riyal, Canadian
for analysis. Dollar, Singapore Dollar, Euro, Japanese Yen.
The collaboration will use ISRO’s database of satellite
images and MapmyIndia’s digital map platform to 9. Answer: D

develop the new app. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constituted an eight-
member expert committee on Urban Co-operative Banks
7. Answer: D (UCBs) that is tasked with examining existing issues and

IIT Bombay launched its first-ever annual fundraising providing a road map for strengthening the sector.
campaign in India, Cherish IIT Bombay 2021. The panel will function under the chairmanship of former
The funds will be used for the creation of world-class RBI Governor N S Vishwanathan.
laboratory complexes, modernization of lecture halls and According to a statement from the RBI, the committee
continuation of awards to attract and retain faculty. will take stock of the regulatory measures taken by the
Donations made to IIT Bombay by corporate bodies and central bank and other authorities related to UCBs and
individuals are 100% tax-deductible under section 80G assess their impact over the last five years.
of the Indian Income Tax Act. The objective will be to identify key constraints and
enablers.
8. Answer: C The primary job of the committee will be to “consider the

Kotak Mahindra Bank launched its outward forex need for differential regulations and examine prospects
remittance service, Kotak Remit, hence allowing its to allow more leeway in permissible activities for UCBs
users to directly send money abroad from their phones. with a view to enhance their resilience”.
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The Minister informed that the National Research

10. Answer: B Foundation (NRF) will be an independent society and it
The Kerala Bank has launched ATM demonstration vans will build on existing national strengths in research and
to promote digital transactions. innovation. It will fill gaps in the current research and
NABARD has sanctioned 10 vans for the Kerala Bank education ecosystem to augment India’s research and
from its financial inclusion fund. innovation achievements.

Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan and Cooperation Minister
Kadakampally Surendran addressed the virtual launch. 12. Answer: C

Cooperation Secretary Mini Antony and Registrar of Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs has launched a
Cooperative Societies Geromic George flagged off the Pilot Pey Jal Survekshan under Jal Jeevan Mission-
two vans which have become operational. Urban, JJM-U.

The Kerala Bank’s project brochure was released by Secretary Housing and Urban Affairs Durga Shanker
Mini Antony by handing over a copy to Nabard chief Mishra informed that it will be conducted in cities to
general manager P Balachandran. ascertain equitable distribution of water, reuse of

NABARD chief general managers V Selvarajan and K C wastewater and mapping of water bodies with respect to
Sahadevan and CEO P S Rajan attended. quantity and quality of water through a challenge
11. Answer: D process.
The Union Government has increased the budget of He said, as a first step, the Ministry has decided to
Department of Science and Technology and Ministry of launch the Survekshan in 10 cities- Agra, Badlapur,
Earth Sciences by 30 per cent as compared to the Bhubaneswar, Churu, Kochi, Madurai, Patiala, Rohtak,
revised estimate of 2020-21. Surat and Tumkur.

An allocation of Rs 16,695 crore has been given for the
two ministries which will add thrust to India's remarkable, 13. Answer: E
accelerated growth in the fields of Science and China last year overtook the United States as the EU's
Technology. biggest trading partner, the EU statistics agency
Rs 50 thousand crore have been allocated for the Eurostat
National Research Foundation.

Page 77 of 99
The European Union, was the third-largest trading The index showed that most of corporate India’s risk
partner for the bloc, behind China and the United States. management strategies are focused primarily on
Eurostat said the trade volume with China reached 586 operational and natural hazard risks, influenced by
billion euros ($711 billion) in 2020, compared to 555 COVID-19. It added that there is a scope for
billion euros ($673 billion) for the US. improvement in the way market, economic, technological
The agency said EU exports rose by 2.2 percent to and crime or security risks are being managed.
202.5 billion euros while at the same time, imports from
the People's Republic of China increased by 5.6 percent 15. Answer: B

to 383.5 billion euros. The number of states successfully completing the Ease
of Doing Business reforms has increased to 15.
14. Answer: C The Finance Ministry has said that three more states -
Private general insurer ICICI Lombard has launched the Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand have completed
‘Corporate India Risk Index’. This is intended to be a Ease of Doing Business reforms.
unified, standardised corporate risk index that spans On receipt of recommendation from the Department for
industries and companies. Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, the
Corporate risk index that uses a risk measurement tool Department of Expenditure has granted permission to
has been developed with the management consulting these three states to raise additional financial resources
firm Frost & Sullivan covering 150 top companies from of nine thousand 905 crore rupees through Open Market
its own investment portfolio across 15 key sectors, ICICI Borrowings.

Lombard chief executive Bhargav Dasgupta told The Ministry said, earlier, Andhra Pradesh, Assam,
reporters. Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala,

The insurer said that this will help companies Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Tamil
understand the level of risk that their business is facing Nadu and Telangana had also reported completion of
and also assist in developing a successful risk aversion this reform.

plan. It has worked with consulting firm Frost and On completion of reforms facilitating ease of doing
Sullivan to develop the risk measurement tool. business, these 15 states have been granted additional
borrowing permission of over 38 thousand crore rupees.

Page 78 of 99
Briefing reporters after the cabinet meeting, Electronic

16. Answer: C and IT Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad said, the
E-commerce giant Amazon has announced its plans to production-linked incentive worth Rs 12,195 Crore has
begin manufacturing devices in India. been cleared for the telecom sector.
This is the first Amazon manufacturing line in India and He said this will create 40 thousand direct and indirect
reiterates the firm’s commitment to the government’s employment.

“Make in India'' for an Atma Nirbhar Bharat. Production Linked Incentive Scheme intends to promote
Amazon will commence manufacturing with contract manufacture of Telecom and Networking Products in
manufacturer Cloud Network Technology, a subsidiary India and proposes a financial incentive to boost
of Foxconn, in Chennai, and start production later this domestic manufacturing and attract investments in the
year. target segments of telecom and networking products in

The programme will churn out hundreds of thousands of order to encourage make in India.
Fire TV Stick devices every year. Amazon will evaluate The scheme will also encourage exports of telecom and
scaling capacity to additional marketplaces and cities, networking products 'Made in India'.
depending on the domestic demand. Support under the Scheme will be provided to
In 2020 Amazon announced “Local Shops on Amazon”, companies and entities engaged in manufacturing of
a programme that retailers and local shops be self- specified telecom and networking products in India.
dependent, and benefit from selling online.
It now has over 22,000 neighbourhood stores registered 18. Answer: C

across the country, gathering additional footfalls through Facebook has blocked Australian users from sharing or
their online presence and furthering their earning viewing news content on the platform, causing alarm
potential by acting as pickup points, logistics partners, over public access to key information.
and experience centres for e-commerce. Australians woke up this morning to find the Facebook
pages of all local and global news sites were

17. Answer: E unavailable.
The Union Cabinet approved a production-linked Several government health, emergency and other pages
incentive scheme for the telecom sector. were also blocked.

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Later the tech giant asserted it was a mistake. research and development of various advanced CBM
Those outside of Australia are also unable to read or technological innovations indigenously.
access any Australian news publications on the platform. EOGEPL, an investee company of Essar Global Fund
Facebook's move is in response to a proposed law in Limited (EGFL), is one of India’s largest operators of
Australia which would make tech giants pay for news unconventional hydrocarbon acreages.
content. EGFL’s investments in EOGEPL are a part of its

portfolio of Essar Capital’s upstream business, which is
19. Answer: D increasingly focused on clean energy.

Sikkim Chief Minister P. S. Tamang launched the ‘Free As energy transitions happen in the world, CBM gas is
Gift Milk to Girl Students of Sikkim’ initiative at Gangtok. widely seen as the green fuel of this century.
The initiative will benefit around 1,500 students who 21. Answer: D
would be provided 200 mls of milk every day. The importance of accurate data for policy making,
Mr Tamang called the initiative a step towards Labour Minister Santosh Gangwar launched software
eradicating malnutrition and other health problems applications for five pan-India surveys, including on
among the young generation. migrant and domestic workers.
He said that the State Government is planning to extend The minister also released instruction manuals with
it on a larger scale. questionnaires for the five pan-India surveys being
He said that proper nutrition is the foundation of a conducted by the Labour Bureau.
healthy mind and body, and this should be emphasized These five surveys being undertaken by the Labour
in educational institutions. Bureau are -- All-India Survey on Migrant workers, All-
India Survey on Domestic Workers, All-India Survey on

20. Answer: D Employment Generated by Professionals, All-India
Essar Oil and Gas Exploration and Production Ltd Survey on Employment Generated in Transport Sector,
(EOGEPL), India’s leading Coal Bed Methane (CBM) and All-India Quarterly Establishment based
gas producer, said it has signed a Memorandum of Employment Survey.
Understanding for collaboration with the prestigious IIT The objectives of the all-India survey on employment
(Indian School of Mines), Dhanbad, to jointly work on generated by professionals are essentially two-fold,
Page 80 of 99
firstly to estimate the total number of active While the Sandes app allows users to backup chat
professionals in the country and secondly to capture the histories to a registered email, it does not allow users to
employment generated by these professionals. change their mobile number or email address registered
with the app
22. Answer: B
India has joined Iran and Russia in a two-day navy 24. Answer: B
exercise dubbed "Iran-Russia Maritime Security Belt The French Parliament has approved an Anti-radicalism
2021" in the northern part of the Indian Ocean. Bill in a bid to fight the Islamic radicalism.
About the drill : The bill would strengthen oversight of mosques, schools
The drill will cover an area of 17,000 square kilometres and sports clubs to safeguard France from radical
(6,500 square miles). Islamists and ensure respect for French values, one of
It will include shooting at sea and air targets and President Emmanuel Macron’s landmark projects.
liberating hijacked ships, as well as search and rescue The vote in the lower house was the first critical hurdle
and anti-piracy operations, Al Jazeera reported. for the legislation that has been long in the making after
two weeks of intense debate. The bill passed 347 to 151
23. Answer: D with 65 abstentions.

The National Informatics Centre (NIC) of India has To adapt to the changes, the bill amends the French law
launched an instant messaging app just like WhatsApp of 1905 guaranteeing the separation of Church and
for government employees called Sandes. State.

The government is currently asking employees to use
the GIMS/Sandes app. There is still no word if this app 25. Answer: E
will ever be available for all users in the future. Prime Minister Narendra Modi spoke with Prime Minister
Just like WhatsApp, one can share images, videos, of Australia Scott Morrison.
voice messages, create groups on the app. Users can Mr. Modi said, both the countries reiterated their
also set up their profile pictures and status. commitment to consolidate Comprehensive Strategic
Notably, this app is an upgrade to NIC's existing Partnership and discussed regional issues of common
Government Instant Messaging System (GIMS) app. interest.

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He said, India is looking forward to working together for The United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization
peace, prosperity and security in the Indo-Pacific region. and the Arbor Day Foundation have recognized
Hyderabad as a 2020 Tree City of World, for its

26. Answer: C commitment to growing and maintaining urban forests.
The Union government launched the 'Go Electric' Hyderabad earned recognition in the Foundation’s
campaign to spread awareness about the benefits of e- second year of the programme along with 51 other cities
mobility and electric vehicle (EV) charging infrastructure globally (120 cities from 63 countries assessed) and the
in India. only city in India to get this recognition so far.

The campaign was launched in the presence of Nitin List of Five Factors to be Eligible for ‘Tree City’
Gadkari, Union Minister for Road Transport and To be eligible for Tree City, the city must affirm its five
Highways, Micro, Small, Medium Enterprise and R K requirements, include

Singh, MoS (IC) Power and New & Renewable Energy, Defining responsibility (the declaration written by civic
MoS Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. representatives to assign the responsibility for trees)
Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), under the aegis of Setting down the rules (the law or official policy that
the Ministry of Power, is mandated to undertake an regulates forest and tree management)
awareness drive for promoting public charging, e- Knowing what you have (an updated inventory or
mobility and its ecosystem assessment of the local tree resources)
To implement the Go Electric campaign at the national Allocate funds (a dedicated annual tree management
and state levels, BEE will extend technical support to the plan routine budget)
State Designated Agencies (SDAs) and other partners to Celebrate achievements (an annual celebration of trees
ensure uniformity of information. to raise awareness).

State agencies are expected to support BEE in
consumer awareness initiatives to accelerate the 28. Answer: E
deployment of EV charging infrastructure and electric The scheme to provide free menstrual products for the
mobility ecosystem at the state level. next three years comes after a six-month pilot program
launched last year in 15 schools in the Waikato region
27. Answer: D
Page 82 of 99
where 3,200 young people were provided with period

products. 30. Answer: D
Every school in New Zealand will be stocked with free Bank of Maharashtra has entered into a strategic
period products for female students from June, the prime partnership with Vayana Network to offer financial
minister, Jacinda Ardern, has confirmed. support to the MSME sector.
Principals and poverty groups have been calling for the Through this association, BoM will provide short term
move for years, saying period poverty meant some girls credit to meet funding requirements of dealers of
ended up skipping school during their periods because corporates via “Mahabank Channel Financing Scheme”
they could not afford the sanitary products to manage launched by the bank, through Vayana Network’s
them hygienically. expertise in this segment.
Under the partnership, Vayana Network will provide its

29. Answer: B Supply Chain Financing solutions (SCF) to the bank
A team of scientists, nature lovers and doctors have supported by Vayana’s technology and service
come up with a mobile application 'Snakepedia' on expertise.

snakes in Kerala to help the public as well as doctors to The SCF solutions will include vendor and dealer
treat snake bites. financing programs across the bank's network of 1,870
Snakepedia is a comprehensive android mobile branches across the country.
application that documents information on snakes with Vayana Network’s proprietary tech platform will help to
the help of pictures, infographics and podcasts and digitize the transactions of Supply Chain Financing,
analyses its first aid, treatment, myths and superstitions. while the market services will help to increase
The main aim of the app is to help the public identify penetration in the under-served MSME segment.
snakes, avail proper treatment on time for snakebites
There are about 3,600 species of snakes known so far in 31. Answer: B
the world and over 300 species are found in India. Indian Premier League Governing Council chairman
Snakepedia was developed as an answer to the Brijesh Patel revealed at the IPL 2021 Auction that VIVO
question of how to find a useful way for the general is back as the title sponsor of the league.
public to identify snakes.

Page 83 of 99
Brijesh Patel spoke ahead of the auction in Chennai on World Day of Social Justice is observed on February 20
February 18 and announced that VIVO is back as the every year. The main objective of celebrating World Day
title sponsor of the T20 league after Dream 11 had been of Social Justice is to raise a voice against social
roped in as sponsor for the 2020 season. Last year, the injustice and to bring the various communities
IPL signed up Dream 11 for Rs 222 crore for one season internationally together to eliminate poverty, gender, and
whereas they had been getting Rs 440 crore per year physical discrimination, illiteracy, religious discrimination
from VIVO. to make a socially integrated society.
In 2018, VIVO had signed a five-year deal worth Rs The theme of World Day of Social Justice 2021: "A Call
2199 crore for Social Justice in the Digital Economy".
History :
32. Answer: D On 26 November 2007, the General Assembly declared

Star paddler Manika Batra clinched her second title by that starting from the sixty-third session of the General
defeating Reeth Rishya 4-2 in the women's singles final Assembly, 20 February will be celebrated annually as
of the Senior National Table Tennis Championship the World Day of Social Justice.
Manika Batra ,in action during final of women's singles The International Labour Organization unanimously
final at the 82nd Senior National Table Tennis adopted the ILO Declaration on Social Justice for a Fair
Championship 2020 at Tau Devi Lal Sports Complex in Globalization on 10 June 2008. This is the third major
Panchkula. statement of principles and policies adopted by the
She ranked 63rd in world ranking. International Labour Conference since the ILO’s
She had just beaten Reeth Rishya 8-11, 10-12, 11-1, Constitution of 1919.
11-9, 11-5, 11-6 at the Tau Devi Lal Sports Complex in

Panchkula to win the 82nd Senior National Table Tennis 34. Answer: C
Championship Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate
She represented the Petroleum Sports Promotion Board Change, Prakash Javadekar, inaugurated the Atal
(PSPB) had won her maiden title in 2015 at Hyderabad. Paryavaran Bhavan at Lakshadweep on Feb 19, 2021.
Prakash Javadekar is on a four day official visit to
33. Answer: B Lakshadweep from February 19 to 22, 2021.

Page 84 of 99
The minister attended high level meetings with the It is expected to be completed by 2026, and will have
Secretaries of various departments in UT’s understandings with countries like Germany, Taiwan,
administration. South Korea, Israel, Japan, England.

The Minister is to attend programmes at Suheli, Kadmat Skill, Employment and Entrepreneurship Development
and Bangaram islands and evaluate major innovative Minister Chandra Mohan Patowary termed the day as
initiatives of the Forest and Environment Department of historic, as the process has been initiated for setting up
the Union Territory. the third skill university in India.
Suheli Par is an oval-shaped and 17 km long coral atoll

in Lakshadweep, that is surrounded by a zone of rich 36. Answer: D
marine fauna. The United States officially rejoined the Paris Agreement
It is located in the South-West of Kavaratti and 76 km to on climate change designed to limit global warming and
the south of Agatti. avoid its potentially catastrophic impacts.
The Nine Degree channel in the Indian Ocean, is located Nearly 200 nations have signed on to the landmark
between the Islands of Kalpeni and Suheli Par, and accord and committed to limit their greenhouse gas
Maliku Atoll. emissions in an attempt to keep global warming below 2
He will also evaluate the major innovative initiatives of degrees Celsius, preferably below 1.5 degrees Celsius
the Union Territory's Forest and Environment compared to pre-industrial temperatures.
Department. Earlier, in November 2020, the US had officially exited
the agreement on the order of the then President Donald

35. Answer: E Trump.
Assam Chief Minister Sarbananda Sonowal laid the The landmark Paris climate agreement was signed in
foundation of the first skill university of eastern India in 2015, as per which countries are expected to enhance
Darrang district, aimed at imparting training to over their commitments to curb greenhouse gas emissions
10,000 students in 12 disciplines. every five years.

The varsity would be built with a financial outlay of
Rs.1,000 crore. 37. Answer: E
Page 85 of 99
Union Sports Minister Kiren Rijiju has announced that Defence Research and Development Organisation
the second Khelo India University Games will be hosted (DRDO) has conducted two successful launches of
by Karnataka. Bengaluru along with Chief Minister BS Vertical Launch Short Range Surface to Air Missile (VL-
Yediyurappa, Mr Rijiju said that the largest University SRSAM).
games in the country scheduled later this year will be The launches were carried out from a static vertical
held in Bengaluru in partnership with Association of launcher from Integrated Test Range, Chandipur off the
Indian Universities. coast of Odisha.
Over 4,000 sportsmen under the age of 25 will compete Indigenously designed and developed by the DRDO for
with an opportunity to be selected for the national teams. Indian Navy, VL-SRSAM is meant for neutralizing
various aerial threats at close ranges including sea-
38. Answer: C skimming targets.

The first paperless budget will be presented in the Uttar The launches were monitored by senior scientists from
Pradesh Assembly. various DRDO labs involved in the design and
UP will be the first state in the country to table a development of the system.
paperless budget. During the test launches, flight path and vehicle
The State Finance Minister Suresh Khanna will present performance parameters were monitored using flight
the first paperless budget in the history of the State. data, captured by various Range instruments.
All members of the State Legislature have been
provided iPads to view the budget highlights which will 40. Answer: C
also be available on two big screens put up in the Health Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan said that India has
House. become the first country in the world to identify the need
The 2021-2022 budgets will also be available on an App for action for Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease.
which can be downloaded from Google Play Store with He said this while launching the operational guidelines
the name 'Uttar Pradesh Sarkar Ka Budget'. for integration of Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease with
the National Programme for Prevention & Control of
39. Answer: E Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke.
Page 86 of 99
41. Answer: D Meanwhile, Israel has faced international criticism for

India offered a USD 100 million line of credit to Mauritius largely excluding Palestinians in the West Bank and
to facilitate procurement of defence assets and the two Gaza Strip from its highly successful vaccination
countries signed a Comprehensive Economic campaign, widening the persistent inequality with Israelis
Cooperation Partnership Agreement following talks that began long before the pandemic.
between External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and

Mauritius Prime Minister Pravind Jugnauth here. 43. Answer: D
"SAGAR policy reaffirmed. Pleased to witness, along Uttar Pradesh Government presented the biggest ever
with PM @JugnauthKumar, the exchange of USD 100 budget to the tune of around Rs 5,50,270 crores to
million Defence Line of Credit. make Atma Nirbhar or self-reliant Uttar Pradesh.
Will facilitate procurement of defence assets, guided by The budget presented by Finance Minister Suresh
the needs of Mauritius,". Khanna in the State Assembly was also the first
paperless budget of any state in the country.
42. Answer: E The budget focuses on farmers' welfare, women

Israel has launched a coronavirus ‘green pass’ system, empowerment and health sector along with the
and that allows people who have been vaccinated to development projects.
access public facilities. Atmanirbhar Krishak Samanvit Vikas Yojna has been
Israelis who have gotten both Pfizer vaccine shots and launched for the welfare of the farmers of the state.
those who have recovered from the virus get a "Green Seven hundred crores have been allocated for free
Pass" certificate in the form of a QR code or printout for irrigation to the farmers
people without smartphones. The State Government also focused on heritage tourism
Pass-holders could prove their status by presenting a in the state and particularly the overall development of
vaccination certificate or downloading a health ministry Ayodhya.
app linked to their medical files. To improve the tourism in Ayodhya city, Rs 101 crore
The pass allows entry to gyms, swimming pools, hotels, have been allocated in the budget for development of
entertainment venues and sporting events. Restaurants Maryada Purushottam Shri Ram Airport.
and bars will be added to the list in March.

Page 87 of 99
Yogi Adityanath Government has also announced to stadium, has been renamed after the Prime Minister,
provide financial help to destitute women under Mahila who was also formerly a president of the Gujarat Cricket
Samarthya Yojana till they get alimony from the Court. Association.
The State Government will provide free tablets to the The Narendra Modi Stadium, which is the world's largest
eligible students under Abhyudaya Scheme. cricket stadium with a capacity of 1,10,000 spectators,
will host the first international match since the stadium

44. Answer: E was revamped.
Jammu and Kashmir formally rolled out e-Kuber Home Minister Amit Shah and Sports Minister Kiren
payments system of Reserve Bank of India. Rijiju, along with the Board of Control for Cricket in India
J&K is the first Union Territory to implement version 2.9 (BCCI) secretary Jay Shah, were also present at the
of e-Kuber payments system event.

e-Kuber would be implemented in the Civil Secretariat The Narendra Modi Stadium, the largest cricket ground
treasury on a pilot basis and rollout of this system for in the world will host its first international match on
other treasuries shall follow shortly. Wednesday, when India will take on England in the Day-
The system is capable of making 50,000 transactions at Night Test.
a time, while all government-related financial The stadium will be a part of the planned Sardar
transactions would be dealt directly with RBI, without Vallabhbhai Patel Sports Enclave in the city.
any intermediary bank. The stadium is spread across 63 acres of land and has
The system would also overcome payment delays and three entry points. It has a seating capacity of 1,32,000
eliminate risk of paper vouchers being lost in transit people.

President Ram Nath Kovind inaugurated the newly External Affairs Minister Dr. S. Jaishankar inaugurated
revamped Motera cricket stadium in Ahmedabad, which the new Indian High Commission building in Mauritius in
has been renamed the Narendra Modi Stadium. the presence of Prime Minister of Mauritius Pravind
The ground, which was earlier named the Sardar Patel Jugnauth and Foreign Minister Alan Ganoo.
Stadium, and more popularly known as the Motera

Page 88 of 99
Dr Jaishankar said, the green and efficient project Feb 24 is the second anniversary of Pradhan Mantri
reflects New India. Kisan Samman Nidhi, PM KISAN.
He expressed confidence that it will inspire the work of The Scheme was formally launched on 24th February in
the Indian High Commission even more. the year 2019 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at a
He reviewed the Dagotière Social Housing Project in function at Gorakhpur in Uttar Pradesh.
Mauritius accompanied by Deputy Prime Minister and PM KISAN was started with a view to augment the
Housing Minister Louis Steven Obeegadoo. income of the farmers by providing income support to all
Dr Jaishankar expressed happiness that the 956 landholding farmers’ families across the country.
Housing Units built with Indian support will be occupied Under the PM KISAN Scheme, an amount of 6000
soon. rupees per year is transferred in three installments of
He thanked the workers who have done India proud. 2000 rupees directly into the bank accounts of the
farmers.
47. Answer: C
The Union Government and the Asian Infrastructure 49. Answer: C

Investment Bank (AIIB) signed a loan agreement for a Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh has inaugurated Skill
304 million dollar Assam Intra-State Transmission Development Centre (SDC) for Fire Safety Training of
System Enhancement Project to improve reliability, Defence Research and Development Organisation
capacity and security of the power transmission network (DRDO) at Pilkhuwa in Uttar Pradesh through virtual
in the State of Assam. mode on February 22, 2021

The project aims to strengthen Assam’s electricity The facility, created by Delhi based DRDO laboratory
transmission system by constructing 10 transmission Centre for Fire, Explosive and Environment Safety
substations and laying transmission lines, upgrading 15 (CFEES)
existing substations and providing technical assistance Aim : At developing trained human resources, fire safety
to support project implementation. technology and products to save precious human lives
and valued assets.
48. Answer: E
50. Answer: E
Page 89 of 99
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has brought State ecosystem-driven approach to urban governance and
Bank of Sikkim under its regulatory purview. service delivery in cities by 2022, and across all cities
The bank, established five years before Sikkim acceded and towns by 2024.
to India in 1973, provides treasury operations for the Union Housing and Urban Affairs Minister Hardeep
state government. Singh Puri and Minister of Electronics and IT Ravi
It only operates within Sikkim and is wholly-owned by Shankar Prasad launched the 'National Urban Digital
the state government. Mission' (NUDM) at a virtual event.
The bank’s ownership structure will not change, but it The mission has three pillars – people, process, and
will be regulated by the RBI on a par with other banks. platform.

Pakistan is unlikely to exit the 'grey list’ of the FATF as Union Cabinet approved Production Linked Incentive
some European countries have taken the stand that Scheme for IT Hardware.
Islamabad has not fully implemented all the points of a The scheme proposes incentives to boost domestic
plan of action set by it, on the eve of the plenary meeting manufacturing and attract large investments in the value
of the global watchdog for money laundering and terror chain of IT Hardware.
financing. Communication and IT Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad
A global dirty money watchdog decided to keep Pakistan said, the target segments of the scheme include laptops,
on its “grey list”, despite progress by Islamabad on tablets, all-in-one PCs and servers.
meeting international anti-terrorism financing norms. Mr Prasad said, the total cost of the proposed scheme is
around Rs 7,350 crore over four years.

52. Answer: B Mr. Prasad added that the scheme has direct and
The Central government launched 'National Urban indirect employment generation potential of over one
Digital Mission'' to create a digital infrastructure for cities lakh 80 thousand.
in the country. The Union Cabinet also approved Production Linked
The Union Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry (MoHUA) Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Pharmaceuticals over a
said the move will institutionalise a citizen-centric and period of Financial Year 2020-21 to 2028-29.
Page 90 of 99
The Scheme will benefit domestic manufacturers, help in passed after a last-gasp deal that watered down binding
creating employment and is expected to contribute to rules Facebook and Google had fiercely opposed and
the availability of a wider range of affordable medicines which last week prompted Facebook to remove all news
for consumers. from its Australian platform.
Google will now pay for news content that appears on its
54. Answer: C Showcase product and Facebook is expected to pay

Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate the 2nd providers who appear on its News product, which is to
edition of the Maritime India Summit 2021. be rolled out in Australia later this year.
The summit will be organised virtually between 2nd to
4th March 2021. 56. Answer: C
First summit was organised in 2016 in Mumbai. Former Union Minister Vijay Sampla assumed the
Rajiv Jalota, Chairman, Mumbai Port Trust informed that charge of Chairman National Commission for Scheduled
the MIS 2021 will provide a unique platform where Castes (NCSC).
various stakeholders in the maritime sectors such as Sampla has been the former Union Minister of State for
Senior Government Officials, Domestic and International Social Justice and Empowerment from 2014-19.
Investors, Shipping Line Owners, Representatives of He was president of the BJP Punjab unit.
Major Ports from across the world as well as the He also served as Chairman, Khadi and Village
Governments of Maritime States in India will participate. Industries Board, Punjab from 2009-12 and
The Summit will also include an exclusive CEOs’ forum subsequently, his name was recommended for
with the Minister of State (I/c) of Ports, Shipping & Rashtrapati Award.
Waterways.
57. Answer: C
55. Answer: C Uttar Pradesh received award for fastest implementation
Australia’s parliament passed landmark legislation of Pradhan mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana.
requiring global technology giants to pay for the news Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath has congratulated the
content shared on their platforms, in a move that is people of state for this achievement. The Chief Minister
being closely watched around the world. The law was said that under the guidance of Prime Minister Narendra
Page 91 of 99
Modi the state government is committed for the welfare The Legislative Assembly of the Union territory is now
of farmers of state. placed under suspended animation.
Discussion on the budget in the state assembly Chief The Assembly polls are due in the Union Territory
Minister informed the house about this achievement. shortly.
During his budget speech, the state Finance Minister
had recently informed that more than 27110 crores has 60. Answer: D
been transferred in the accounts of the farmers of state To showcase the strength and opportunities of India's
under PM Kisan Samman Nidhi yojna. biotechnology sector at national level and to the global
community, the second edition of Global Bio-India will be
58. Answer: C organized from 1st to 3rd March.
Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation The theme for this year is transforming lives and the tag
(APSRTC) has received Digital Technology Sabha line is Biosciences to Bio economy.
Award, consecutively for the second consecutive time Science and Technology Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan will
(2020 & 2021) in the category of “Internet of Things”. inaugurate the event virtually.
The Corporation also received the award in 2017. Global Bio-India is one of the largest biotechnology
RTC Vice-Chairman and Managing Director RP Thakur stakeholders’ conglomerates that is being co-organized
received the award from the RTC House virtually. by the Department of Biotechnology, Ministry of Science
and Technology along with its Public Sector
59. Answer: E Undertaking, Biotechnology Industry Research

Puducherry has been placed under the President's rule Assistance Council, BIRAC in partnership with industry
days after the Congress-led Government collapsed after association CII, Association of Biotechnology Led
several resignations. Enterprises and Invest India.
The Home Ministry issued a notification imposing the
President's rule in the Union Territory. 61. Answer: B

President Ram Nath Kovind suspended the Puducherry Indian Railways has decided to reactivate the facility of
Assembly as well. UTS ON MOBILE App in zones where unreserved train
services are reintroduced.

Page 92 of 99
To decongest ticket booking counters and to ensure industry-academic and academic-academic linkages
smooth compliance of social distancing norms, the with leading institutions in India and abroad. Developed
facility to book unreserved tickets through UTS ON on a 10-acre campus in Technocity, the university will
MOBILE app is being reactivated by Indian Railways. provide education to 12,000 residential scholars on the
The Railways Ministry said, it has been decided that in campus and many technology-linked learners outside.
addition to the UTS ON MOBILE App facility available on

suburban sections, this facility may also be reintroduced 63. Answer: B
on non-suburban sections of zonal Railways. In Maharashtra, the State Government's New Agriculture
Pump Power Connection scheme has been receiving a
62. Answer: E good response.
Digital University has been set up in Kerala’s The scheme announced in October 2020 has provided
Technocity, Mangalapuram. The Governor of Kerala Arif various relaxations to farmers to pay their pending dues.
Mohammed Khan has inaugurated the country’s first Since the scheme was announced, as many as three
Digital University in the state. lakh 42 thousand farmers have paid dues to the tune of
Kerala University of Digital Sciences, Innovation and 312 crore 41 lakh rupees.
Technology (Digital University) is established by In a bid to provide more relief to the farmers' the State
upgrading the two-decade old state government’s Indian Government has waived-off pending dues of 15
Institute of Information Technology and Management thousand crore rupees, an official press statement said.
Kerala (IIITM-K). Farmers who will pay their Agri pumps dues in the first
The university is formed with a vision of creating a year will get 50 per cent relaxation on their actual dues.
futuristic institution of higher learning, aspiring to set a Besides, the interest and late fees will also be waived off
global benchmark in Digital technologies and its completely.
management This apart, farmers who will pay their total dues will be
The launch of the first Digital University in the country given nearly 66 per cent concession.
will open tremendous opportunities for youngsters. 64. Answer: C
India’s first Digital University will focus on postgraduate In Tamil Nadu, Chief Minister Edappadi K.
programmes and research along with building strong Palananiswami announced that the retirement age of
Page 93 of 99
State Government employees has been increased from Vodianova has focused on “breaking harmful taboos and
59 to 60 years. tackling the stigmas that surround women’s bodies and
Making a suo motu statement in the Legislative health, including menstrual health even during
Assembly, he said, the order would be applicable to humanitarian crises, and all forms of gender-based
employees of the government and government-aided violence.”
schools, legal and constitutional bodies, government

sectors, local bodies, commissions, boards and unions. 66. Answer: B
He said, all those who were in service and those who A Memorandum of Understanding was signed between
would retire on 31st of May this year would be covered the Inland Waterways Authority of India and the MOL
under the announcement. (Asia Oceania) Limited for transportation of Liquefied
Natural Gas through barges on National Waterways-1

65. Answer: D and National Waterways-2.
Russian supermodel and philanthropist Natalia The MoU was inked in the presence of Minister for
Vodianova became a United Nations goodwill Ports, Shipping and Waterways Mansukh Mandaviya.
ambassador The Inland Waterways Authority will provide support for,
Purpose : To promote the sexual and reproductive rights facilitating with adequate fairway, handling of LPG cargo
of women and girls and tackle stigmas surrounding their on IWAI terminals or Multimodal Terminals at Haldia,
bodies. Sahibganj and Varanasi.
She will be a campaigner for the U.N. Population Fund, MOL Group is the world’s largest gas carrier company
which now calls itself the U.N.’s sexual and reproductive and will invest for construction and operation of
health agency, known as UNFPA. dedicated LPG barges under the Make-in-India initiative.
UNFPA Executive Director Natalia Kanem, who
announced her appointment, called Vodianova “above 67. Answer: C
all a passionate, longtime advocate for the rights and the The Ministry of Corporate Affairs and Central Board of
needs of women and girls and in particular people living Indirect Taxes and Customs signed a Memorandum of
with disabilities.” Understanding in New Delhi for data exchange between
the two organisations.

Page 94 of 99
It is in line with the vision of both organisations to Sea NGO Forum of the Council of the Baltic Sea States
harness data capabilities to ensure effective in 2010.
enforcement. World NGO Day gives an opportunity for these people to

Both are going to benefit from access to each other’s take time and make an effort by attributing the best they
databases which include details of import-export can provide within a given period of time.
transactions and consolidated financial statements of World NGO Day was established by Mārcis Liors
companies registered in the country. Skadmanis as an effort to recognise, appreciate and
The data sharing arrangement gains significance in light celebrate the great contributions that NGOs have made
of development of MCA21 Version 3 which will utilise and the impact they have on the entire world.
state of the art technology for enhancing ease of doing
business in India and improve the regulatory 69. Answer: D

enforcement and similar steps by CBIC like the launch of Chenab bridge, the world’s tallest railway bridge over
Advanced Analytics in Indirect Taxation ADVAIT, a 360- Chenab River in Kouri area, will achieve another
degree taxpayer profiling tool. engineering milestone.

The Konkan Railway Corporation Limited (KRCL) is
68. Answer: C building the Chenab bridge over a challenging 111 km-
World NGO Day is commemorated on 27th February stretch under the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla Rail
every year across the world. Link (USBRL) project.
This commemoration is specifically important to boost It will connect the Valley with the rest of the country
the social work that has been organised by every through railways.
country and to honour the activists and social workers The Chenab bridge is being constructed 359 metres
who are diligently working for the betterment of the above Chenab’s river bed and will be 35 metres taller
society. than the Eiffel Tower (which has a height of 324 metre).
The celebration was embarked in the UN in 2014, but The length of the Chenab bridge will be 1,315 metres
after then World NGO Day was officially recognised and with 17 spans, of which the span of the main arch across
declared by the 12 member countries of the IX Baltic Chenab river will be 467 metres. The viaduct portion
Page 95 of 99
comprises a straight and curved portion. The curvilinear The manufacturing unit will be set up near Dhaka with
portion is located on a 2.74-degree sharp curve. an investment of Rs. 100 crore.
It is the first project of any Indian company producing

70. Answer: B Electrical vehicles in the international market.
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has The project will be a modern greenfield facility and will
announced that UPI AutoPay has now gone live on focus on manufacturing two-wheelers, three-wheelers,
Gaana. and electric bicycles.
Its integration with UPI AutoPay has made Gaana the The Chairman of the Omega Seiki mobility Uday Narang
first player in the Media and Entertainment industry to said that Bangladesh does not have a policy on
roll out the innovative e-mandate feature on UPI. Electrical Vehicles as yet but it may change fast.
The introduction of UPI AutoPay will empower Gaana’s According to a press release issued by the Omega Seiki,
users to experience a smooth and seamless mechanism the company will focus on coming out with best in class
of renewing their subscriptions. vehicles and quality service experience for the buyers.
Customers can enjoy premium, uninterrupted streaming

of their choicest music, podcasts and radio without 72. Answer: D
having to remember about the subscription renewal Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has
date. entered into a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
The strategic role played by Paytm and Juspay as with the Government of Andhra Pradesh to develop the
payment aggregators will create a superior transaction MSME ecosystem in the State.
experience for the customers. The MoU was signed by J V N Subramanyam
Based on the mandate, the subscription amount will be IAS,Director of Industries, Commerce and Export
deducted automatically on the authorized date without Promotion, Government of Andhra Pradeshand Sanjay
entering UPI PIN. Jain, General Manager, Regional Head, Small Industries
71. Answer: B Development Bank of India (SIDBI), Hyderabad, in the

An Indian company Omega Seiki will set up an electric presence of Mekapati Goutham Reddy, Cabinet Minister
vehicle plant in Bangladesh. of Industries, AP government.
Page 96 of 99
Under the agreement, a Project Management Unit The 'E-Daakhil' portal for consumer grievance redressal
(PMU) will be deployed by SIDBI to design is now operational in 15 states and Union Territories
schemes/programmes in the areas of equity support, (UTs).

interest subvention, resolution of stressed MSMEs, and The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which came into
facilitate intervention based on evaluation of the existing force from July 20, 2020, has a provision for e-filing of
status of MSMEs. consumer complaints in the consumer commissions and

The PMU will study the existing framework of schemes online payment of the fees for filing a complaint.
currently available for MSMEs in the State and shall A web application for e-filing of consumer complaints
suggest modifications, if any, to enhance efficacy. named 'edaakhil.nic.in' has been developed by NIC for
the purpose.
73. Answer: E
In Gujarat, Deputy Chief Minister Nitin Patel launched 75. Answer: E
'Gujarat Budget' mobile application at Gandhinagar. Pacer Vinay Kumar announced his retirement from all
Briefing media at Gandhinagar, Mr Patel said the mobile forms of cricket.

app will have five different sections, comprising Davangere Express" after running for 25 years and
budgetary allocations for 27 departments, budget passing so many stations of cricketing life, has finally
highlights, finance minister's speech, and important arrived at a station called "retirement".
aspects of the budget and news coverage of it. An intelligent pacer and a capable batsman, Vinay
He added that since budget publications will be available played one Test (against Australia in Perth in 2012), 31
online, the government will print only 20 percent of ODIs and nine T20Is.
material, which would save 55 lakh pages. The 37-year-old last featured for India in the limited-
The month-long budget session of the Gujarat Assembly overs leg of a home series against Australia in 2013.
would begin on March 1st and the budget for the Vinay was an outstanding performer in his 17-year
financial year 2021-22 will be presented on March 3rd. domestic career.

He scalped 504 wickets in 139 first-class matches and is
74. Answer: D the highest wicket-taker among fast bowlers in Ranji
Trophy history.
Page 97 of 99
He also has 225 and 194 wickets in List A and T20 It soon got better as the 2009-10 Ranji Trophy season
matches respectively. With the bat, he scored two saw him take 46 wickets and lead his Karnataka side to
centuries and 17 fifties in first-class matches. the final.

Vinay made his Ranji Trophy debut for Karnataka in the
2004-05 season and quickly rose through the ranks to
become their lead seamer.

The 2007-08 season marked his arrival as he finished as
the second leading wicket-taker in the Ranji Trophy

season - a performance that ensured a call-up to the IPL
where he represented Royal Challengers Bangalore.
Page 98 of 99
Page 99 of 99
Page 1 of 83
Reasoning Ability
Directions (1-2): In the following questions, the I) Pigeon $ Goose

symbols #, @, $, %, &, ! and ? are used with the II) Turkey % ! Ostrich
following meaning as illustrated below. study the III) Crow & Dove
following information and answer the given A. Only III follows
question. In each of the questions given below B. Both II and III follow
statements are followed by some conclusions. You C. Both I and II follow
have to take the given statements to be true even if D. None follow
they seem to be at variance from commonly known E. All Follows
facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which
of the given conclusions logically follows from the 2) Statements
given statements, disregarding commonly known Ox @ Panda; Walrus $ Lion; Otter % Dog; Lion #
facts Otter; Dog ? cat; Panda % Walrus
A#B -> Some A is B Conclusions
A$B -> No A is B I) Lion # Cat
A@B -> Only a few A is B II) Ox %! Lion
A?B -> Only A is B III) Panda #! Walrus
A%B -> All A is B A. Only III follows
A&B -> Some A is not a B B. Both II and III follow
! -> Possibility C. Both I and III follow
Note: If ! is placed after any of the symbols D. None follow
mentioned above then it will be considered as a E. All Follows
possibility case of the symbol. For example A%!B
means All A being B is a possibility. Directions (3-4): Each of the questions below
1) Statements consists of some statements followed by some
Dove @ Turkey; Pigeon % Ostrich; Goose ? Crow; conclusion. You have to decide which of the given
Turkey # Pigeon; Goose $ Ostrich statements given in options is used such that
Conclusions conclusions must be definitely true:
Page 2 of 83
3) Statements: Directions (5-7): In the following questions, the

I) Some Gold are Glass. symbols $, #, & @ and * are used with the
II) Only a few Glass are Silver. following meanings as illustrated below. Study the
III) All Silver are Lead. following information and answer the given
Conclusions: questions. In each of the questions given below
I) Some Gold are not Lead. statements are followed by some conclusions. You
II) All Glasses can never be Silver. have to take the given statements to be true even if
III) Some Metals are not Lead. they seem to be at variance from commonly known
A. Some Metal are Silver. facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide
B. No Silver is Metal. which of the given conclusions logically does not
C. Only Gold are Metal. follow from the given statements disregarding
D. Some Gold are not Metal. commonly known facts.
E. None of these A$B – All A is B.
A#B - Some B is A.
4) Statements: A@B – No B is A.
I) Only a few Gold are Silver. A&B – Some A is not B.
II) No Diamond is Silver. * - possibility case
III) All Diamonds are Coal. Note: if * is placed after any of the symbols
Conclusions: mentioned above then it will be considered as
I) Some Gold is not Diamond. possibility case of the symbol. E.g. A#*B means
II) Some diamond are not Iron. some B being A is a possibility.
III) Some Irons are not Silver. 5) Statements: A#B$D&C
A. All Irons are Gold. A. A#C
B. Only a few Gold are Iron. B. A# D
C. Only a few Silvers are Iron. C. D# B
D. Only a few Diamonds are Iron. D. C#*D
E. None of these E. B&*C
Page 3 of 83
6) Statements: JKL@ABC@XYZ$PQR B. Some Team Lead can never be Manager. Some

A. JKL#*XYZ HR Can be CEO. Some Manager Can never be
B. PQR&XYZ HR
C. ABC$*PQR C. Some HR not being CEO is a possibility. Some
D. JKL#*PQR CEO can never be Team Lead. Some Manager
E. PQR&ABC can never be HR
D. Some HR not being Manager is a possibility.
7) Statements: EAST# NORTH$ WEST; EAST$ Some CEO are not Manager. No Clerk is HR
SOUTH E. None of these
A. WEST#* SOUTH
B. WEST# SOUTH 9) Statement:
C. SOUTH$* WEST Only a few Work is Load.
D. SOUTH# NORTH No Service is Work.
E. WEST# EAST All Data are Service.
Few Load are Data.
Directions (8-10): In the questions below are given Conclusion:
some statements followed by some set of A. All Load can be Work. Some Load can never be
conclusions. Find out the correct set of the Data. No work is Data.
conclusion that logically follows. B. Some Load can never be Work. All load can
8) Statement: never be Data. All Work being Data is not a
Only CEO is Clerk. possibility.
Few CEO are Manager. C. Few Load is Service. All Load can be service.
All Mangers are Team Lead. Some Work not being Data is a possibility.
No HR is Team Lead. D. Some Works are Data. Few Load can never be
Conclusion: Service. All Service can never be Data.
A. Some HR can never be CEO. No Manager is E. None of these
HR. Some Team Lead can never be Clerk
10) Statement:
Page 4 of 83
Only a few DAA are Compiler. III) No Socks are Shoes. All legs are Shoes. Some
No DS is Java. Hands are finger.
Few Java are C++. A. If the data in statement I and II together are
Few DS are Compiler. sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Conclusion: statement III are not required to answer the
A. All C++ being DS is not a possibility. Some DS question.
can never be DAA. All DAA can be C++. B. If the data in statement I and III together are
B. Some DAA can never be DS. No DS is C++. sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Some C++ can be Compiler. statement II are not required to answer the
C. All Compiler being C++ is not a possibility. Few question.
Java are Compiler. All DAA can never be C++. C. If the data in statement II and III are sufficient to
D. Some DS being C++ is not a possibility. Few DS answer the question, while the data in statement I
can never be DAA. All Compiler can be DAA. are not required to answer the question.
E. None of these D. If the data in all three statements I, II and III
together are necessary to answer the question.
Directions (11): In the question given below two E. If the data in all the statements, I, II and III even
conclusions followed by three sets of statement. together are not sufficient to answer the question.
You have to choose the correct set of statement
that logically satisfies the given conclusions. Directions (12-14): Read the conclusions and then
11) Conclusion: decide which of the given conclusions logically
I) Some hands are not Socks. follows from the given statements, disregarding
II) No legs are socks. commonly known facts.
Statement: 12) Statements
I) All legs are Hands. Some Shoes are legs. No Only a few Ball is Bat
Legs are fingers. All Bat is Gloves
II) Some watches are arm. All arms are fingers. All Some Gloves is Helmet
legs are Hands. Only a few Helmet is Stumps
Only stumps are Leg pad
Page 5 of 83
Conclusions II) All Book can be Eraser

A. Some Leg pad is not a Bat III) Some Note is Paper
B. Some stumps are Bat A. Only III follows
C. All Ball being Gloves is not a possibility B. Both II and III follow
D. All Helmet can be Stumps C. Both I and III follow
E. No Bat is Helmet D. None follow
E. All Follows
13) Statements
Only a few Soccer is Tennis Directions (15): In the following questions, the
Some Tennis is Golf symbols #, @, $, %, &, !and ^ are used with the
All Golf is Badminton following meaning as illustrated below. In each of
Some Badminton is Basketball the questions given below statements are followed
Only Basketball is Cricket by some conclusions. You have to take the given
Conclusions statements to be true even if they seem to be at
A. All Cricket can be Tennis variance from commonly known facts. Read the
B. No Golf is Badminton conclusions and then decide which of the given
C. Some Soccer is not a Tennis conclusions logically follows from the given
D. Some Basketball is Golf statements, disregarding commonly known facts
E. No Tennis is Basketball A % B – All Aare B.
A # B – Some A are B.
14) Statements A & B – No A is B.
Some Pen is Pencil A ! B – Some A are not B.
Only a few Pen is Note A @ B – Only a few B are A.
All Pencil is Eraser A $ B – Some A can never be B.
No Eraser is Paper ^– possibility case.
Only Note is Book Note: if ^ is placed after any of the symbols
Conclusions mentioned above then it will be considered as
I) Some Pencil being Paper is a possibility
Page 6 of 83
possibility case of the symbol. E.g. A %^ B means 16) On which of the following floor and flat does P
all A being B is a possibility. live?
15) Statements: A. Floor 1, Flat 2
Home % Street # Town ! District; City @ Town B. Floor 4, Flat 2
A. Town ! Home C. Floor 3, Flat 1
B. District & City D. Floor 2, Flat 1
C. Town %^ District E. Floor 4, Flat 1
D. Street &^ City
E. City $ Home 17) Which of the following statements is/are true?
I) S lives immediately above U
Direction (16-20): Study the following information II) V lives east of R
carefully and answer the questions given below: III) Vacant flat and S’s flat are on the same floor
Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are living in IV) P lives northeast of Q
two different flats i.e. flat 1 and flat 2 of a four- A. Both II and III
storey building such that the lower-most floor is B. Only IV
numbered as 1, floor immediate above it is C. None is true
numbered as 2 and so on but not necessarily in the D. Only III
same order. Flat-1 is to the west of flat-2. One flat E. All are true except IV
is vacant.
Q lives in the southeast flat of S who lives on an 18) Who among the following persons is/ are living
odd number floor. No person lives between T and in Flat-1?
Q and T lives above Q in the same flat. R lives on I) P
an odd number floor and in an odd number flat. R II) Vacant
neither living on the same floor as Q nor S. P and III) U
V are living in different flats. U lives two floors IV) V
below the one who lives adjacent floor of S. The A. Both I and II
vacant floor is north of V’s flat but not east of P’s B. Both II and III
flat. C. Both I and IV
Page 7 of 83
D. Both I and III The one who lives just above T in the same
E. All I, II, and III numbered flat lives two floors below G, who lives
west of J. Both T and G don’t live in the same
19) What is the direction of P’s flat with respect to numbered flat. There are two floors between H and
the Vacant flat? I, both live in a different flat number. Q lives
A. North-west northeast of I. F lives southeast of S, who doesn’t
B. South-west live on an even-numbered floor. P lives two floors
C. North-east above R, who doesn’t live on the bottommost floor.
D. North 21) Which among the following pair of persons
E. South lives on the same floor?
A. I, T
20) Which of the following combination persons are B. G, H
living on the same floor? C. S, Q
A. PQ D. R, J
B. UV E. None of these
C. ST
D. RV 22) Who among the following lives on flat 2 of the
E. Vacant, T floor no. 2?
A. S
Directions (21-25): Answer the questions based B. T
on the information given below. C. F
Ten persons P, Q, R, S, T, F, G, H, I, and J are D. J
living on five floors (numbered 1 to 5) of a building. E. None of these
There are two flats on each of the five floors i.e. flat
1 and flat 2. Flat 1 is to the west of flat 2, where the 23) How many floors gap is there between H and
bottommost floor is 1 and the floor just above it is R?
2, and so on. All the information is not necessarily A. Two
in the same order. B. None
Page 8 of 83
C. One and so on till the topmost floor which is numbered

D. Three as 5. All the information is not necessarily in the
E. Both lives on the same floor same order.
E lives two floors above northeast of D, who
24) Which among the following doesn’t form a doesn’t live on the bottommost floor. The one who
group? lives west of F lives just below D in the same
A. P, J numbered flat. B lives on the same floor as G, who
B. R, H doesn’t live in flat 2. A, who doesn’t live on the
C. I, Q topmost floor, lives northwest of J, who doesn’t live
D. P, T above D lives. More than two floors are there
E. S, H between C and I and both live in the same flat
number. H lives neither southeast nor northeast of
25) Which among the following statement is not C.
true? 26) Which among the following pair of persons
A. Q and H lives on adjacent floors lives on the same floor?
B. J lives three floors above R A. C, F
C. R lives immediately above the floor on which Q B. I,H
lives C. C,H
D. Both (a) and (b) D. G,E
E. Both (b) and (c) E. None of these
Directions (26-30): Answer the questions based on 27) Who among the following lives on flat 2 of floor
the information given below. no. 3?
Ten persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, and J are A. D
living on five floors (numbered 1 to 5) of a building. B. B
There are two flats on each of the five floors i.e. flat C. G
1 and flat 2. Flat 1 is to the left of flat 2, where the D. J
bottommost floor is 1 and the floor above it is 2, E. None of these
Page 9 of 83

28) How many floors gap is there between A and carefully and answer the below questions.
F? Eight person- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are living
A. One in the four-storey building with floor numbered 1 to
B. None 4 from bottom to the top. Each floor has two flats,
C. Two flat 1 and flat 2 from west to east respectively. No
D. Three two persons live in the same flat. All the
E. Both lives on the same floor information is not necessarily in the same order.
F lives on an even-numbered floor. Only one floor
29) Four of the following five are alike in a certain gap is there between F and C, both are living in a
way and hence form a group which of the following different flat. D lives two floors above G’s flat who
does not belong to that group? lives south-east of E. E lives either on the same
A. C, E floor of F or C. B lives north east direction of the
B. D, F one who lives immediately above E’s flat. H lives
C. G, J one of the floors below A. The number of floors
D. I, H between H and F is the same as between A and B.
E. A, B A does not live on same flat as B.
31) Who among the following person lives on floor
30) Which among the following is not true with number two?
respect to D? A. The one who lives west of C
A. Flat number of D and A is the same B. The one who lives immediately above H
B. H lives three floors above D C. D
C. B lives immediately below the floor on which D D. A
lives E. None of the above
D. Both (a) and (b)
E. Both (b) and (c) 32) Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and thus form a group. Who among the
following does not belong to the group?
Page 10 of 83
A. C C. E, F
B. The one who lives East of E D. All the given options
C. The one who lives immediately above H E. H, G
D. The one lives south of F
E. The one who lives West of B Directions (36-40): Study the following information
33) Which of the following person lives above E? Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are living
I) A in a four-storey building where floors are numbered
II) D as 1-4 from bottom to top. There are two flats on
III) G each floor numbered as flat 1 and flat 2. Flat 1 is to
A. Both II and III the west of flat 2. No two persons live in the same
B. Only III flat. All the information is not necessarily in the
C. Both I and II same order.
D. Only II A lives on an even numbered floor and odd
E. None of these numbered flat.H is not adjacent to floor of A.A and
H are living on the same number flat. Two floors
34) On which of the following floor and flat does A are between D and G. The number of floors
lives? between H and E is the same as between D and C.
A. Floor 1, Flat 2 G lives to the south-east of E who does not live
B. Floor 2, Flat 2 south-west of C. F lives neither in the same floor of
C. None of the those given as option G nor C. B lives either at the same floor of G or F.
D. Floor 4, Flat 2 The number of floors between B and D is same as
E. Floor 3, Flat 1 between H and G.
36) Which of the following pair of persons live on
35) Which of the following pair of persons live on the same floor?
the same floor? A. HF
A. C, B B. EC
B. A, D C. DB
Page 11 of 83
D. GA
E. EA 40) What is the direction of E’s flat with respect to
Flat G?
37) Which of the following statement is/are true? A. North-east
I) H lives on an even number floor. B. East
II) E and F are living on the same floor C. West
III) B lives below A D. North-west
A. Only II E. North
B. Only III
C. Both I and II Directions (41-45): Study the following information
D. Both I and III carefully and answer the below questions.
E. None is true Twelve persons namely – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I,
J, K, and L are living in a six floored building
38) Four of the following five are alike in a certain marked 1 to 6 from bottom to top but not
way and form a group. Who among the following necessarily in the same floor. There are two flat on
person does not belong to the group? each floor marked 01 & 02 from west to east.
A. H Note: - Flat adjacent to each other means either
B. E east-west or north-south. Only one person lives in
C. G each flat.
D. The person who lives north of B Two floors are between L and A, both are not living
E. The person who lives west of F in the same flat type. The person lives just above
the flat of A is living immediate east of D. Only one
39) In which of the following floor and flat C lives? floor is between D and E, who lives on any floor
A. Flat1, Floor3 above L. E lives immediately north-east of the one
B. Flat2, Floor3 who lives two floors above J.C and J are living on
C. Flat2, Floor1 the adjacent flats. One floor is between C and K,
D. Flat1, Floor2 who lives just below G’s flat. Two floors are
E. Flat2, Floor 4 between I and B, both are not living on the same
Page 12 of 83
flat. I neither lives on the adjacent flat of G nor L. H 44) Who among the following person lives
lives on any floor above F, who doesn’t live in the immediately above L’s floor?
same flat along with I. A. C
41) Who among the following person lives B. H
immediate north-east of B? C. K
A. The one who lives just below H’s flat D. Either A or B
B. G E. None of these
C. The one who lives just below A’s flat
D. C 45) Which of the following statement is/are not
E. None of these true?
A. One floor is between D and E
42) If L is related to E, and K is related to I, then B. The person immediate west of C’s flat lives
who among the following person is related to H? three floors below I
A. The one who lives two floors below K C. Two floors are between F and the person lives
B. G just below A’s flat
C. D D. F lives immediately below L’s floor.
D. The one who lives to the immediate west of J E. More than one statement is not true
E. None of these
43) Which of the following persons are living on the information given below.
floor number 3? Ten persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, and N are
A. BH living on five floors (numbered 1 to 5) of a building
B. LH but not necessarily in the same order. There are
C. BA two flats on each of the five floors i.e. flat 1 and flat
D. CK 2. Flat 1 is to the west of flat 2, where the
E. None of these bottommost floor is 1 and the floor above it is 2,
and so on.
Page 13 of 83
E lives three floors above L, who lives southeast of B. None

M, who lives on an even-numbered floor. Both E C. Three
and L don’t live in the same numbered flat. H and D. Two
K live on the same numbered floor, but not E. Both live on the same floor
immediately above or immediately below the floor
on which M lives. Only one floor between K and F, 49) Which among the following doesn’t form a
who lives northeast of G. J lives above I, but not group?
above N. Both N and I live in the same numbered A. H, N
flat. H lives on an odd numbered flat. B. J, I
46) Which among the following pair of persons C. M, L
lives on the same floor? D. K, G
A. M, J E. E, F
B. I, F
C. J, F 50) Which among the following is not true with
D. M, F respect to J?
E. None of these A. J lives northwest of I
B. J lives two floors above L
47) Who among the following lives on flat 2 of the C. J lives immediately below the floor on which M
floor no. 4? lives
A. E D. Both (a) and (b)
B. N E. Both (b) and (c)
C. J
D. M Directions (51-55): Study the following information
E. None of these carefully and answer the questions below:
Ten persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are
48) How many floors gap is there between K and living in two different flats viz. Flat A and Flat B of
G? a five-storey building, but not necessarily in the
A. One same order. Flat A is to the east of Flat B. The
Page 14 of 83
lowermost floor is numbered 1 and the floor just B. Floor 2

above it is numbered 2 and so on. Not more than C. Floor 3
one person lives in the same flat on the same floor. D. Floor 4
P lives three floors above O but on different flats. E. Floor 5
One floor is between the floors on which T and S
live, but both are not living on the same flats. S 54) Who among the following person lives to the
lives on the same floor as O. U lives immediately immediate east of P?
below N on the same flat and is two floors below V A. M
who lives on different flats. M lives on the same B. V
floor with R and the same flat with Q but neither C. T
below V nor to the right of R. D. U
51) Who among the following lives on flat A of floor E. No one
2?
A. O 55) If O is related to U and T is related to P in a
B. S certain way, then who among the following person
C. U is related to V?
D. Q A. R
E. Cannot be determined B. P
C. N
52) How many persons live between V and R? D. S
A. 2 E. Cannot be determined
B. 3
C. 4 Directions (56-60): Study the following information
D. More than four carefully and answer the questions below:
E. No one Eleven persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, and
K are living in three different flats viz. Flat 1, Flat 2,
53) On which of the following floor does T live? and Flat 3 of a four-storey building, but not
A. Floor 1 necessarily in the same order. Flat 1 is to the west
Page 15 of 83
of Flat 2 and Flat 3 is to the east of Flat 2. One of 58) Who among the following person lives to the
the flats is vacant. The lowermost floor is east of E?
numbered 1 and the floor above is numbered 2 A. C
and so on. Not more than one person lives in the B. D
same flat on the same floor. C. F
Neither flat 1 nor flat 3 is vacant. I lives D. H
immediately above flat of the vacant flat. C lives to E. Cannot be determined
the east of I. G lives immediately below A but both
of them live neither with I nor with C in the same 59) Four of the following five are alike in a certain
flat. A lives to the immediate west of J who doesn’t way and hence form a group. Find the one that
live on the adjacent floors of I. H lives two floors doesn’t belong to that group?
north of F, who lives on the same floor with B. Both A. D
K and E live in the same flat. K lives above E. B. G
56) Who among the following person Lives on the C. A
same flat along with F? D. E
A.A E. K
B. The one who lives to the immediate east of J
C. E 60) On which of the following floor and flat does K
D. The one who lives to the immediate west of K live?
E. Cannot be determined A. Floor 2, flat 1
B. Floor 3, flat 2
57) Which of the following floor has a vacant flat? C. Floor 4, flat 3
A. Floor 1 D. Floor 4, flat 1
B. Floor 2 E. Cannot be determined
C. Floor 3
D. Floor 4 Direction (61-65): Study the following information
E. Cannot be determined carefully and answer the questions given below:
Page 16 of 83
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are living B. Only IV

in two different flats i.e. flat A and flat B of a four C. None is true
storey building such that the lower most floor is D. Only III
numbered as 1, floor immediate above it is E. Only II
numbered as 2 and so on till topmost position but
not necessarily in the same order. Flat A is in the 63) Who among the following persons is/ are living
west of flat B. in Flat A?
B lives to the northeast flat of E. B and E are not I) B
living on the adjacent floor. There are two floors II) F
between C and D and they are not living in the III) E
same flat. A and D neither live in the same flat nor IV) C
in the same floor. A lives to the northwest flat of G. A. Both I and II
H lives two floors below F. F lives either on the B. Both II and III
same floor as A or G. C lives above D. C. Both I and IV
61) In which of the following floor and flat G lives? D. Both III and IV
A. Floor 1, Flat B E. All I, II, and III
B. Floor 4, Flat B
C. Floor 3, Flat A 64) What is the direction of G with respect to B?
D. Floor 2, Flat A A. North-west
E. Floor 2, Flat B B. South-west
C. North-east
62) Which of the following statements is/are true D. North
regarding B? E. South
I) B lives immediate above E
II) B lives on an even number floor 65) Which of the following pair of persons are living
III) B and H lives in the same flat on the same floor?
IV) B and C live on the same floor A. CF
A. Both II and IV B. AG
Page 17 of 83
C. HD E. DC
D. EB
Direction (1-2):
1) Answer: E
Hence, option C is the correct choice.
4) Answer: D
From statement D we have:
2) Answer: D
Direction (3-4): Clearly, all the three conclusions are definitely true.
3) Answer: C Thus, statement D is true.
For option C we have the following diagram: Hence, option D is the correct choice.
Page 18 of 83
Direction (5-7):
5) Answer: A
9) Answer: B
6) Answer: B
7) Answer: A
10) Answer: E
Direction (8-10):
8) Answer: C
Page 19 of 83
Direction (11):
11) Answer: C
Combining both the statements II and III we get,
14) Answer: D
I) From the venn diagram it is clear that all legs are
hand, all legs are shoes and no shoes is socks.
Hence, we can conclude that some hands are not
socks.
II) From the venn diagram it is clear that all legs are
shoes and no shoes are socks. Hence, we can
conclude that no legs are socks.
Direction (12-14):
12) Answer: A
Direction (15):
15) Answer: D
13) Answer: C
Page 20 of 83
Direction (16-20):
We have,
Again we have,
• Q lives in the southeast flat of S who lives on
• P and V are living in different flats.
an odd number floor.
• U lives two floors below the one who lives
• No person lives between T and Q and T lives
adjacent floor of S.
above Q in the same flat.
• The vacant floor is north of V’s flat but not
east of P’s flat.
possibilities.
Again we have,
• R lives on an odd number floor and in an odd
16) Answer: E
numbered flat.
17) Answer: E
• R neither living on the same floor as Q nor S.
18) Answer: D
19) Answer: A
eliminated.
20) Answer: D
Page 21 of 83
Direction (21-25):
21) Answer: C
22) Answer: B
• The one who lives just above T in the same
23) Answer: C
numbered flat lives two floors below G, who
24) Answer: D
lives west of J.
25) Answer: C
• Both T and G don’t live in the same
numbered flat.
Direction (26-30):
• There are two floors between H and I, both
live in a different flat number.
• Q lives northeast of I.
• F lives southeast of S, who doesn’t live on an
even-numbered floor.
• P lives two floors above R, who doesn’t live
on the bottommost floor.
• E lives two floors above northeast of D, who

doesn’t live on the bottommost floor.
• The one who lives west of F lives just below
D in the same numbered flat.
Page 22 of 83
• B lives on the same floor as G, who doesn’t • H lives neither southeast nor northeast of C.
live in flat 2. • So the final arrangement becomes:
• A, who doesn’t live on the topmost floor, lives
northwest of J, who doesn’t live above D
lives.
26) Answer: C
27) Answer: B
28) Answer: C
• More than two floors are there between C
29) Answer: D
and I and both live in the same flat number.
30) Answer: C
Direction (31-35):
Page 23 of 83
B lives north east direction of the one who lives

immediately above E’s flat.
From the above condition, case2 and case3 get
eliminated.
F lives on an even-numbered floor.

Only one floor gap is there between F and C, both
are living in a different flat.
possibilities.
H lives one of the floors below A.
The number of floors between H and F is the same
as between A and B. A does not live on same flat
as B.
From the above condition, case1 gets eliminated,
D lives two floors above G’s flat who lives south-

east of E.
E lives either on the same floor of F or C.
31) Answer: B
32) Answer: D
33) Answer: C
Page 24 of 83
34) Answer: E Two floors are between D and G.

35) Answer: D The number of floors between H and E is the same
as between D and C.
Direction (36-40): G lives south-east of E who does not live south-
west of C.
A lives on an even numbered floor and odd

numbered flat.
H is not adjacent to floor of A.
F neither lives in the same floor of G nor C.
A and H live on the same number flat.
B either lives at the same floor of G or F.
possibilities.
Page 25 of 83
The numbers of floors between B and D is same as

between H and G.
We have:
• Two floors are between L and A, both are not
living in the same flat type.
• The person lives just above the flat of A is
36) Answer: B
living immediate east of D.
37) Answer: D
• Only one floor is between D and E, who lives
38) Answer: C
on any floor above L.
39) Answer: B
• E lives immediately north-east of the one
40) Answer: D
who lives two floors above J.
That means, in case (1) L lives on floor number 2 of
Direction (41-45):
flat 01 and J lives just below L’s flat, in case (2) L
lives on floor number 2 of flat 01 and J lives
immediate south-east L.
Based on the above given information we have:
Page 26 of 83
Again, we have:
• Two floors are between I and B, both are not
living in the same flat.
• I neither lives on the adjacent flat of G nor L.
That means, in case (2a) I lives immediately east of
D, case (1) & case (2b) are not valid.
• H lives on any floor above F, who doesn’t
live in the same flat along withI.
That means, F lives immediately west of J.
Based on the above given information we have the
Again, we have: final arrangement as follows:
• C and J are living on the adjacent flat.

• One floor is between C and K, who lives just
below G’s flat.
That means, in case (1) G lives immediate west of
E, in case (2a) G lives immediate west of A, in case
(2b) G lives immediate west of E.
Based on the above given information we have:
Case (1) & case (2b) are not valid as I neither live
on the adjacent flat of G nor L.
41) Answer: C
42) Answer: D
43) Answer: A
44) Answer: B
45) Answer: B
Page 27 of 83
Direction (46-50):
• Both N and I live in the same numbered flat.

• E lives three floors above L, who lives

southeast of M, who lives on an even-
numbered floor.
• Both E and L don’t live in the same
numbered flat.
• H and K live on the same numbered floor,
but not immediately above or immediately
below the floor on which M lives.
• Only one floor between K and F, who lives 46) Answer: C
northeast of G. 47) Answer: B
• J lives above I, but not above N. 48) Answer: C
• H lives on an odd numbered flat. 49) Answer: D
50) Answer: C
Direction (51-55):
Page 28 of 83
1. P lives three floors above O but on different

flats. 5. M lives on the same floor with R and the same
2. One floor is between the floors on which T flat with Q but neither below V nor to the right of R.
and S live, but both are not living on the Hence, cases 2, 3, and 4 get eliminated.
same flats.
3. S lives on the same floor as O.
51) Answer: C
52) Answer: E
53) Answer: C
4. U lives immediately below N on the same flat and 54) Answer: E
is two floors below V who lives on different flats. 55) Answer: A
Direction (56-60):
Page 29 of 83
6. H lives two floors north of F, who lives on the

same floor with B.
7. Both K and E live in the same flat. K lives above
E.
1. Neither flat 1 nor flat 3 is vacant.

2. I lives immediately above flat of the vacant
flat.
3. C lives to the east of I.
56) Answer: B
57) Answer: C
58) Answer: D
59) Answer: A
60) Answer: D
Direction (61-65):
4. G lives immediately below A but both of them live
Final Arrangement:
neither with I nor with C in the same flat.
5. A lives to the immediate west of J who doesn’t
live on the adjacent floors of I.
We have,
Page 30 of 83
• B lives to the northeast flat of E. Again we have,

• B and E are not living on the adjacent floor. • F lives either on the same floor as A or G.
From the above condition, there are three • H lives two floors below F.
possibilities. From the above condition, case2 and case3 get
eliminated.
Again we have,
• There are two floors between C and D and
61) Answer: E
they are not living in the same flat.
62) Answer: A
• C lives above D.
63) Answer: D
• A and D neither live in the same flat nor the
64) Answer: E
same floor.
65) Answer: C
• A lives to the northwest flat of G.
Page 31 of 83
1) A Jar contains the mixture of apple and grapes 3) There are two variety of Rice, Variety I costing
juice in the ratio of 3:x. If 40 liters of apple juice Rs. 305 per kg, variety II costing Rs. X per kg. 20%
and 70 liters of grapes juice added in the mixture, gain is made by selling the mixture at Rs. 240 per
then the ratio of the apple and grapes juice in the kg. Find how many Kg of variety I is mixed 62 kg of
resultant solution becomes 2:3. If the initial quantity variety II?
of mixture in Jar is 140 liters, then find the initial A. 64 kg
quantity of grapes juice? B. 32 kg
A. 40 C. 54 kg
B. 80 D. 92 kg
C. 120 E. Can’t be determined
D. 60
E. 100 4) There are three varieties of wheat with their
quantity in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 4. If 8 kg of second
2) There are two vessels A and B and the capacity variety and 5 kg of third variety are added to their
of both vessels are equal. Vessel A contains the respective quantity and y kg of first type is
mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 5:4 and removed from it, then final ratio becomes 8 : 7 : 9.
vessel B contains the mixture of milk and water in Find the sum of initial quantities of these varieties?
the ratio of 3:2. If the mixtures of both vessels are A. 324 kg
mixed, then what is the ratio of the milk and water B. 444 kg
in the final solution? C. 321 kg
A. 26:19 D. 282 kg
B. 24:17 E. None of these
C. 27:20
D. 28:13 5) A vessel contains 90 liters of mango juice and
E. None of these remaining water which constitutes 10% of the
mixture. 10 liters of mango juice and p liters of
water is added to the mixture such that the ratio of
Page 32 of 83
mango juice to water in the resultant mixture B. 24 liters

becomes 4: 3. How much of water added to the C. 28 liters
mixture? D. 32 liters
A. 50 liters E. None of these
B. 60 liters
C. 55 liters 8) A 140 ml mixture of juice pack contains mixture
D. 65 liters of Litchi and Banana juice in the ratio of 9 : 5. If x
E. None of these ml juice is taken out from pack and 10 ml of
banana juice is mixed in pack so, the new ratio of
6) Mixture X contains 70% of juice and remaining Litchi and Banana juice become 7 : 5. Then find
water, mixture Y of 64 litres contains juice and the quantity of Litchi juice taken out from pack?
water in the ratio 3:1, if both are mixed in the third A. 24 ml
container, then the quantity of water in the final B.35 ml
mixture is 29.5liters. Find the total volume of C. 48 ml
Mixture X (in litres)? D. 27 ml
A. 40 litres E. None of these
B. 35 litres
C. 50 litres 9) A mixture contains 500 ml of Acid and Water in
D. 60 litres the ratio 37:13. If 300 ml of Acid and Water mixture
E. 45 litres is added then the ratio becomes 5:3. Find the Ratio
of Acid and Water in 300 ml mixture?
7) A vessel contains 60 liters of milk and water A. 17:13
mixture in the ratio of 7:5. If certain quantity of B. 19:9
mixture is taken out and replaced with 13 liters of C. 13:17
water, then the ratio of the water and milk becomes D. 21:16
4:3, then find the quantity of water in the final E. 17:21
solution?
A. 20 liters
Page 33 of 83
10) A vessel contains a mixture of 930 litres of milk amount of water becomes 36.6 liters, then find the
and water. Amount of water in vessel is 55% of value of x.
amount of milk. If K litres of mixture is removed A. 12 liters
from vessel and then add 82 litres of water then B. 15 liters
amount of milk in resultant mixture is 28.56% more C. 18 liters
than quantity of water then find the value of K in D. 20 liters
litres. E. None of these
A. 272 litres
B. 372 litres 13) A vessel contains mixture of milk and water in
C. 472 litres which milk is 375% of water. If 228 litres of mixture
D. 362 litres is removed and replaced by 28 litres water only
E. 352 litres then % of milk becomes 250% of water. Find the
initial quantity of milk in the vessel.
11) Mixture A contains milk and water 9:7, if A. 290 litres
63liters of milk and 50 liters of water are added to B. 195 litres
this mixture then the ratio of water and milk in the C. 390 litres
final mixture is 110:141, then find the difference D. 420 litres
between quantity of milk and water in the initial E. None of these
mixture?
A. 96 liters 14) Vessel A contains the mixture of milk and
B. 64 liters water in the ratio of 5:4 and vessel B contains the
C. 48 liters mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 3:2. If the
D. 80 liters mixture from vessel A and B is mixed, then the
E. 60 liters quantity of milk and water in the final solution is 32
liters and 24 liters respectively. Find the initial
12) A milkman has 75 liters of milk. If he sold x quantity of vessel A?
liters and replaced by same amount of water, this A. 90 liters
process is repeated two more time and after this B. 72 liters
Page 34 of 83
C. 45 liters
D. 36 liters
E .None of these
15) Vessel A contains mixture of milk and water in
the ratio of x:y. If 30 liters of milk is added to vessel
A, then the ratio of the milk and water becomes
3:1. When 20 liters of water added to vessel A, the
ratio of the milk and water becomes 3:4. Find the
ratio of x and y?
A. 1:2
B. 3:2
C. 5:4 Note: Total population = male employee + female
D. 4:3 employee + male student + female student
E. 5:3 16) Difference of male students in Delhi and
female students in Noida is 850. If the ratio of total
Directions (16-20): Study the following information population of Delhi to Noida is 5 : 6. then find the
and answer the given questions. average number of male employee in Delhi and
The below table shows the percentage of male and Noida.
female employees and percentage of male and A. 1375
female students. Some data are missing in the B. 1385
table. C. 1475
D. 1485
E. None of these
17) Ratio of male employees in Jaipur to Mumbai

is 4 : 3 and the ratio of female students in Mumbai
to Jaipur is 5 : 3. Find the ratio of the number of
female employees to female students in Jaipur.
Page 35 of 83
A. 3 : 4 C. 28200
B. 4 : 3 D. 28300
C. 1 : 4 E. None of these
D. 4 : 1
E. None of these 20)The ratio of the male employees to male
students in Mumbai is 5 : 7 and the ratio of the
18) If total population of Jodhpur is 30% more than population of the Delhi to Mumbai is 2 : 5. If the
the total population of Delhi. The number of male number of male employees in Mumbai is 5250,
employees and female employees together from then find the number of female employees in Delhi.
Jodhpur are approximately what percent of total A. 2700
number of male employees and female employees B. 2750
together from Delhi? C. 2800
A. 134% D. 2850
B. 136% E. None of these
C. 138%
D. 140% Directions (21-25): Read the following line graph
E. None of these carefully and answer the following questions.
Given below is the table showing investment of five
19) Percentage of female students is 50% more persons in a business, time for which investment is
than the percentage of female employees in the made, share of profit of each person and
Jaipur, difference between total female employees percentage share of total profit earned.
and total male employees in Jaipur is 5400. If Some values are missing in the table, you have to
given that total number of male and female calculate these values if necessary to answer the
students in Delhi 8760 more than the total male questions.
employees in Jaipur. Then find the total population
of Delhi.
A. 28000
B. 28100
Page 36 of 83
C. 2 months
D. 6 months
E. None of these
23) What is the total investment of Tina and Raju if

Tina is invested for four months less than Raju and
the ratio of the time of investment of Raju to Tina is
5:3?
A. Rs.55000
21) What is the percentage share of Qamar out of B. Rs.50000
the total profit earned if it is given that the profit C. Rs.20000
earned by Qamar is 50% more than the profit D. Rs.60000
E. None of these
earned by Raju, which in turn is of the total
profit earned by all the five persons?
24) The profit of Pinku is what percent of the profit
A. 700/23%
B. 500/23% of Raju if the profit of Raju is less than the
C. 400/23% profit of Pinku?
D. 600/23% A. 75%
E. None of these B. 125%
C. 80%
22) For how many more months in investment D. 20%
made by Sumit in comparison to Tina if the profit of E. None of these
Sumit is equal to the profit of Raju and the
25) What is the sum of the total profit of Pinku and
investment of Sumit is of the investment of
Raju together if the investment of Pinku and Raju
Tina?
together is 200% of the investment of Qamar and
A. 4 months
the investment of Pinku is 50% more than the
B. 3 months
Page 37 of 83
investment of Raju (Pinku invested for two months A. 40 days

less than Raju)? B. 20 days
A. Rs.1960 C. 60 days
B. Rs.2200 D. 80 days
C. Rs.1980 E. None of these
D. Rs.2180
E. None of these 27) Find the average number working days of all
the given companies in the year 2014, if the ratio
Directions (26-30): Study the following information between the number of working days of C to that of
carefully and answer the given questions: D is 63 : 61 and the number of working days of C
The following table shows the number of working in the year 2014 is 5 less than that of the number
days of various companies in 6 different years. of working days of C in the year 2015?
A. 325 days
B. 294 days
C. 288 days
D. 310 days
E. None of these
28) The number of working days of all the given

companies in the year 2016 is approximately what
percentage of the number of working days of all
26) Find the difference between the number of
the given companies in the year 2017, if the ratio of
working days of all the given companies in the year
number of working days of company D in the year
2012 to that of 2015, if the average working days
2013 to that of company A in the year 2017 is 9 :
of company B in the year 2012 and 2013 is 310
10?
days and the number of working days of company
A. 125 %
E in the year 2015 is 17 days less than the
B. 88 %
previous year?
C. 102 %
Page 38 of 83
D. 116 % The following table shows the total number of

E. 134 % formal dress and percentage of modern dress in 5
different shops and price above Rs. 1500 for all the
29) Find the ratio between the number of working dresses also given. Some values are missing here.
days of company D in the year 2014 to that of the
company E in the year 2013, if the average
number of working days of company D in all the
given years together is 309 days and the total
number of working days of company B and E in the
year 2013 is 628 days?
A. 61: 64
B. 55: 57
C. 43: 49 Note:
D. 22: 25 Total dress = Total Formal dress + Total modern
E. None of these
dress
31) Find the difference between the total number of
30) The number of working days of company A and dresses in shop A to that of shop E, if the
C in the year 2015 is approximately what percentage of total number of formal dress in E is
percentage more/less than the number of working 54 %?
days of company B and E in the year 2017? A. 220
A. 20 % less B. 180
B. 7 % more C. 200
C. 20 % more D. 240
D. 7 % less E. None of these
E. 30 % more
32) If the total number of dresses of prices above

Directions (31-35): Study the following information Rs. 1500 in shop C is 356, which is equal to 35 3/5
carefully and answer the given questions
Page 39 of 83
% of total number of dresses in that shop, then find E. None of these

the total number of formal dress in shop C?
A. 520 35) Find the difference between the total number of
B. 560 dresses in shop B to that of shop D having the
C. 640 price below Rs. 1500, if the total number of modern
D. 680 dresses in shop B is 570 and the percentage of
E. None of these modern dresses in shop D is 52 %?
A. 178
33) Find the average number of dresses in shop A, B. 214
C and E together, if the total number of modern C. 282
dress in shop C is 440 and the ratio of total number D. 256
of formal to that of modern dress in shop E is 27 : E. None of these
23?
A. 1580 Directions (36-45): Find out the wrong number in
B. 1620 the following number series.
C. 1550 36) 17, 21.5, 47.5, 146, 592.5, 2967
D. 1600 A. 21.5
C. 592.5
34) Find the ratio between the percentage of D. 47.5
modern dress in shop D to that of shop E, if the E. 2967
total number of dresses in shop E is 1800 and the
total number of shop D dresses of price below Rs. 37) 7, 13, 31, 98, 391, 1957
1500 is 706? A. 13
A. 26 : 23 B. 7
B. 18 : 11 C. 31
C. 33 : 26 D. 98
D. 45 : 38 E. 1957
Page 40 of 83
38) 5, 31, 159, 647, 1951, 3927 42) 3, 8, 18, 38, 78, 128
A. 31 A. 128
B. 5 B. 18
C. 647 C. 8
D. 1951 D. 78
E. 3927 E. 38
39) 16, 15, 21, 44, 108, 231 43) 10, 27, 52, 85, 105, 175
A. 16 A. 175
B. 15 B. 27
C. 44 C. 105
D. 231 D. 52
E. 445 E. 85
40) 157.5, 45, 15, 6, 3, 2, 1 44) 18, 38, 77, 135, 212, 306
A. 1 A. 212
B. 2 B. 77
C. 3 C. 38
D. 45 D. 306
E. 15 E.135
41) 98, 102, 75, 91, 34, 2 45) 32, 16, 24, 20, 22, 26
A. 91 A. 22
B. 34 B. 20
C. 102 C. 16
D. 2 D. 24
E. 75 E. 26
Page 41 of 83
Directions (46-55): What value should come in E. 326

46) 45879 + 24856 + 1245 + 214 - 101 =? 50) 1189 - 1079 - 9589 + 3986 + 8924 - 4627 +
A. 72093 6683 - 3195 = ?
B. 18581 A. 2122
C. 26548 B. 1682
D. 65412 C. 2292
E. 96547 D. 3452
E. 2402
47) 899 ÷ 31 + 19 * 9 = ? * 8
A. 20 51) 120% of 550 + 80% of ? = 43 * 20
B. 15 A. 280
C. 25 B. 300
D. 30 C. 250
E. 10 D. 220
E. 260
48) 336 ÷ ? - 18 = 6
A. 12 52) (124 ÷ 2728) * (90 ÷ 2430) * ? = 10
B. 10 A. 5940
C. 15 B. 4200
D. 16 C. 4800
E. 14 D. 5100
E. 5300
49) 3/8 of 168 x 15 ÷ 5 + ? = 549 ÷ 9 + 235
A. 189
B. 107 53)
C. 174 A. 11
D. 296 B. 15
Page 42 of 83
C. 38 B. x ≥ y
D. 62 C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
E. 8 D. x < y
E. x ≤ y
54) 30 % of 210 + 588 ÷ √2401 + 15 * 25 = ?
A. 250 57)
B. 350 I) x2 + 11x - 26 = 0
C. 450 II) y2 – 21y + 54 = 0
D. 550 A. x > y
E. 650 B. x ≥ y
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
D. x < y
E. x ≤ y
55)
A.68
58)
B.52
I) x2 - 44x + 475 = 0
C.64
II) 15y2 – 19y + 6 = 0
D.85
A. If x < y
E.25
B. If x > y
C. If x ≤ y
Directions (56-70): In each of the following
D. f x ≥ y
questions, two equations are given. You have to
E. If relationship between x and y cannot be
determined
between x and y.
56)
59)
I) 13x2 + 65x + 78 = 0
I) 2x2 + 37x + 171 = 0
II) 15y2 + 105y + 180 = 0
II) y2 +14y + 45 = 0
A. x > y
A. If x < y
Page 43 of 83
B. If x > y A. x > y
C. If x ≤ y B. x ≥ y
D. If x ≥ y C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
E. If relationship between x and y cannot be D. x < y
determined E. x ≤ y
60) 63)
I) 9x2 + 32x + 15 = 0 I) x2 + 40x + 279 = 0
II) 5y2 + 11y - 12 = 0 II) y2 + 68y + 1147 = 0
A. If x < y A. x > y
B. If x > y B. x ≥ y
C. If x ≤ y C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
D. If x ≥ y D. x < y
E. If relationship between x and y cannot be E. x ≤ y
determined
64)
61) I) x2 + 11x – 312 = 0
I) x2 – 48x + 540 = 0 II) 2y2 – 53y + 351 = 0
II) y2 – 38y + 360 = 0 A. x > y
A. x > y B. x < y
B. x ≥ y C. x ≥ y
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined. D. x ≤ y
D. x < y E. x = y or relation cannot be determined
E. x ≤ y
65)
62) I) –2x2– 21x + 270 = 0
I) x2 + 2x – 483 = 0 II) 2y2 + 37y + 170 = 0
II) y2 – 43y + 462 = 0 A. x > y
Page 44 of 83
B. x < y II) y2 – 3y – 54 = 0
C. x ≥ y A. x > y
D. x ≤ y B. x < y
E. x = y or relation cannot be determined C. x ≥ y
D. x ≤ y
66) E. x = y or relation cannot be determined
I) 6x + 7y – 3xy = 0
II) 3x – 14y + xy = 0 69)
A. x > y I) X² + 3X – 238 = 0
B. x < y II) Y² - 21Y + 68 = 0
C. x ≥ y A. X < Y
D. x ≤ y B. X > Y
E. x = y or relation cannot be determined C. X ≥ Y
D. X ≤ Y
67) E. X = Y or No relation
I) √ (3x2 – x + 140) = x + 10
II) 2y2 – y – 10 = 0 70)
A. x > y I) 3x2 – 4x – 32 = 0
B. x < y II) 4y2 + 45y + 126 = 0
C. x ≥ y A. x > y
D. x ≤ y B. x < y
E. x = y or relation cannot be determined C. x ≥ y
D. x ≤ y
68) E. x = y or relation cannot be determined
I) x/√(3 )= √(8x – 45)
Page 45 of 83
1) Answer: B
((3/(3 + x) * 140) + 40)/(x/(x + 3) * 140 + 70) = 2/3
(140x + 70x + 210) * 2 = 3(420 + 120 + 40x)
420x + 420 = 1620 + 120x
1200 = 300x
x=4
Required quantity = 4/7 * 140 = 80
We don’t know about cost price of variety II, it can’t

2) Answer: A
be determined.
Milk in vessel A = 5x/9
Water in vessel A = 4x/9
4) Answer: B
Milk in vessel B = 3x/5
Let the initial quantity is 5x, 3x and 4x respectively.
Water in vessel B = 2x/5
Required ratio = (5x/9 + 3x/5):(4x/9 + 2x/5)
= 5x – y : 3x + 8 : 4x + 5 = 8 : 7 : 9
= (25x + 27x):(20x + 18x)
Solving last two ratios, we get
= 52:38
= (3x + 8)/(4x + 5) = 7/9
= 26:19
= 27x + 72 = 28x + 35
= x = 37
3) Answer: E
Thus, the sum of initial quantities = (5 + 3 + 4) × 37
Cost price of mixture = 240/120 x 100 = 200
= 444 kg
By apply Allegation,
5) Answer: D
Quantity of water in the initial mixture = 90/0.90 *
0.10 = 10 liters
(90 + 10)/(10 + p) = 4/3
Page 46 of 83
=> p = 65 liters Banana juice in mixture = 140 × 5/14 = 50 ml

6) Answer: E
Let initial quantity of mixture X =100x
Amount of juice in the mixture =70% of 100x =70x
5 (1260 – 9x) = 7 (700 – 5x + 140)
Remaining 30x are water.
6300 – 45x = 4900 – 35x + 980
Amount of juice in the another mixture = (64/4) × 3
45x – 35x = 6300 – 5880
= 48 litres
10x = 420
Remaining 16 litres are water.
x = 42 ml
It is given that,
So, the initial quantity of Litchi juice taken out = 42
30x+16 =29.5
× 9/14 = 27 ml
30x =13.5
x=0.45
9) Answer: C
Total quantity of mixture X =100x = 100(0.45) =
45litres
500 ml mixture of Acid and Water in the ratio 37:13
Quantity of Acid in the mixture = (500/50) * 37 =
7) Answer: C
370 ml
Milk in 60 liters = 60 * 7/12 = 35
Quantity of Water in the mixture is 130 ml
Water in 60 liters = 60 * 5/12 = 25
300 ml mixture is added now,
(35 – 7x/12)/(25 – 5x/12 + 13) =3/4
Let ‘x’ be the Quantity of acid in the ‘300 – x’ be the
114 – 5x/4 = 140 – 7x/3
Quantity of water.
7x/3 – 5x/4 = 26
x = 24
Final quantity of water = 25 – (5 * 24/12) + 13 = 28
1110 + 3x = 2150 – 5x
liters
8x = 1040
x =130
8) Answer: D
Quantity of acid = 130
Litchi juice in mixture = 140 × 9/14 = 90 ml
Page 47 of 83
Quantity of water = 170 75 * (1 – (x/75))3 = 75 – 36.6

So the ratio = 13: 17 (1 – x/75)3 = 38.4/75
(1 – x/75)3 = 64/125
10) Answer: B (1 – x/75) = 4/5
Ratio of Milk and water in initial mixture = 20:11 x/75 = 1/5
Ratio after removal of K litres mixture will be same x = 15 liters
= 20:11
According to question 13) Answer: C
20a / (11a + 82) = 9/7 Initial ratio of milk and water = 375/100 = 15:4
140a = 99a + 82 x 9 After removal of 228 litres mixture, ratio will be
41a = 82 x 9 same = 15:4
a = 18 After adding 28 litres water, ratio of milk and water
Total quantity of mixture after removal = (20a + = 250/100 = 5:2
11a) x 18 = 558 According to question,
Value of K = 930 – 558 = 372 litres 15a / (4a + 28) = 5/2
30a = 20a + 140
11) Answer: D 10a = 140
Let initial quantity of mixture =16x a = 14
Therefore quantity of milk in the mixture = 9x Total mixture after removal of 228 litres = 14 x (15 +
Quantity of water in the mixture =7x 4) = 266
Initial quantity of mixture = 266 + 228 = 494
Initial quantity of milk = 15/19 x 494 = 390 litres
990x+6930= 987x+7050
X = 40 14) Answer: D
Required difference = 9x-7x = 2x = 80litres Total quantity of vessel A = 9x
Total quantity of vessel B = 5y
12) Answer: B 5x + 3y = 32 ------------(1)
Initial amount of milk = 75 liters 4x + 2y = 24
Page 48 of 83
2x + y = 12 ---------------(2) Male employees in Noida = 6000 × (100 – 25 – 10 –

From (1) and (2) 35)/100 = 60 × 30 = 1800
x=4 Average number of male employee in Delhi and
Quantity of vessel A = 4 * 9 = 36 liters Noida = (1150 + 1800)/2 = 2950/2 = 1475

(x + 30)/y = 3/1 Male employees in Jaipur = 48%
3y = x + 30 Male employees in Mumbai = 3 × 48%/4 = 36%
x/(y + 20) = 3/4 Female student in Mumbai = 40%
3y + 60 = 4x Female student in Jaipur = 3 × 40%/5 = 24%
x + 30 + 60 = 4x Percentage of female employees in Jaipur = 100% -
x = 30 (48 + 22 + 24) = 6%
y = 60/3 = 20 Ratio of the number of female employees to female
Ratio of x and y = 30:20 = 3:2 students in Jaipur= 6% : 24% = 1 : 4

16) Answer: C Let the total population of Delhi be x.
Let the total population of Delhi and Noida be 5x Total population of Jodhpur = x × 130/100 = 1.3x
and 6x respectively. Percentage of Male employees and female
Difference of male students in Delhi and female employees together in Jodhpur = 100% - (30 +
students in Noida = 850 25)% = 45%
⇒ 6x × 35/100 – 5x × 25/100 = 850 Number of Male employees and female employees
⇒ 2.1x – 1.25x = 850 together =1.3x × 45/100 = 0.585x
⇒ x = 850/0.85 = 1000 Percentage of Male employees and female
Total population of Delhi = 5 × 1000 = 5000 employees together in Delhi = 100% - (25 + 32)%
Total population of Noida = 6 × 1000 = 6000 = 43%
Male employees in Delhi = 5000 × 23/100 = 1150 Number of Male employees and female employees
together in Delhi = x × 43/100 = 0.43x
Page 49 of 83
Required percentage = (0.585x/0.43x) × 100 ≈ Percentage of male employees and male students
136% in Mumbai = 100% - (24% + 40%) = 36%
Percentage of male employees = 5 × 36%/(7 + 5) =
19) Answer: A 15%
Let the percentage of female employees in the 15% = 5250
Jaipur be x%. Total population of Mumbai = (5250/15) × 100 =
Percentage of female students = x% × 150/100 = 35000
1.5x% The ratio of the population of the Delhi to Mumbai is
ATQ, 2 : 5. So,
x% + 1.5x% = (100 – 48 – 22)% = 30% Total population of Delhi = 2 × 35000/5 = 14000
x = 30/2.5 Percentage of female employees in Delhi = 100% -
x = 12% (23 + 25 + 32)% = 20%
Difference between total female employees and Total number of female employees in Delhi = 14000
total male employees in Jaipur= 5400 × 20/100 = 2800
48% – 12% = 5400
36% = 5400 Directions (21-25):
Total population of Jaipur (100%) = 15000 21) Answer: D
Total male employees in Jaipur = 15000 × 48/100 = Profit earned by Qamar= 3/2 x 900=1350
7200 Now, 17 9/23% = 4/23
Total number of male and female student = 7200 + 4/23=900
8760 = 15960 1 = 900 x 23/4 = 5175
⇒ 25% + 32% = 15960 Required Answer = 1350/5175 x 100= 600/23%
⇒ 57% = 15960
Total population of Delhi = (15960/57) × 100 = 22) Answer: C
28000
Investment of Sumit = of 35000 = 5/7 x
35000 = 25000
20) Answer: C
Profit of Sumit = profit of Raju = 900
Page 50 of 83
(3R +2R) = 200% of 25000

Then, (t is the time of investment 5R = 50000
of Tina) R = 10000
t= 6 months So, investment of Raju = 20000
Required answer = 8 -6 = 2 months Investment of Pinku = 30000
Ratio of profit of Raju to Pinku
23) Answer: A = 20000 x 10 : 30000 x 8
Let Tina and Raju invest for 3X and 5X months =2x5:3x4
respectively. = 5:6
Then, 5X -3X = 4 Sum of profit = 900/5 x 11 = Rs.1980
2X = 4
X=2 Directions (26-30):
26) Answer: A
Again (where M amount invested The average working days of company B in the
by Raju) year 2012 and 2013 = 310 days
M = 20000 The total working days of company B in the year
Required Answer = 20000 + 35000 = Rs.55000 2012 and 2013

= > 310*2 = 620 days
24) Answer: D The number of working days of company B in the

year 2012 = 620 – 308 = 312
The number of working days of company E in the
year 2015
= > The number of working days of company E in
the year 2014 – 17
25) Answer: C = > 295 – 17 = 278 days
Pinku Raju Qamar The number of working days of all the given
Investment 3R 2R 25000 companies in the year 2012
Now, according to the question, = > 284 + 312 + 328 + 290 + 314 = 1528
Page 51 of 83
The number of working days of all the given The number of working days of all the given
companies in the year 2015 companies in the year 2016
= > 328 + 331 + 320 + 311 + 278 = 1568 = > 312 + 335 + 332 + 315 + 307 = 1601
Required difference = 1568 – 1528 = 40 days The number of working days of all the given
companies in the year 2017
27) Answer: D => 330 + 296 + 293 + 336 + 312 = 1567
The ratio between the number of working days of C Required % = (1601/1567)*100 = 102 %
to that of D in the year 2014 = 63 : 61
The number of working days of C in the year 2014 29) Answer: A
= > The number of working days of C in the year The average number of working days of company D
2015 – 5 in all the given years together = 309 days
= > 320 – 5 = 315 The total number of working days of company D in
63’s = 315 all the given years together = 309*6 = 1854
1’s = 5 The number of working days of company D in the
The number of working days of D in the year 2014 year 2014
= 61’s = 61*5 = 305 days = > 1854 – (290 + 297 + 311 + 315 + 336)
Required average = (309 + 326 + 315 + 305 + = > 1854 – 1549 = 305 days
295)/5 = 1550/5 = 310 days The total number of working days of company B
and E in the year 2013 = 628
28) Answer: C The number of working days of company E in the
The ratio of number of working days of company D year 2013
in the year 2013 to that of company A in the year = > 628 – 308 = 320 days
2017 = 9: 10 Required ratio = 305: 320 = 61: 64
9’s = 297
1’s = 33 30) Answer: B
The number of working days of company A in the The number of working days of company A and C in
year 2017 = 10’s = 330 days the year 2015
= > 328 + 320 = 648 days
Page 52 of 83
The number of working days of company B and E in 34) Answer: A

the year 2017 The total number of dresses in shop D = 494 + 706
= > 296 + 312 = 608 days = 1200
Required % = [(648 – 608)/608]*100 = 7 % more The percentage of modern dress in shop D
= > [(1200 – 576) / 1200] * 100 = 52 %
Directions (31-35): The total number of dresses in shop E = 1800
31) Answer: C The percentage of modern dress in shop E
The total number of dresses in shop A = > [(1800 – 972) / 1800] * 100 = 46 %
= > 1300 * (100 / 65) = 2000 Required ratio = 52 : 46 = 26 : 23
The total number of dresses in shop E
= > 972 * (100 / 54) = 1800 35) Answer: C
Required difference = 2000 – 1800 = 200 The total numbers of dresses in shop B having the
price below Rs. 1500
32) Answer: B = > 570 * (100/38) – 512
(178/5) % of total number of dress in shop C = 356 = > 1500 – 512 = 988
Total number of dress in shop C = 356 * (500 / 178) The total number of dresses in shop D having the
= 1000 price below Rs. 1500
Total number of formal dress in shop C = 1000 * = > 576 * (100/48) – 494
(56/100) = 560 = > 1200 – 494 = 706
33) Answer: D
The average number of dresses in shop A, C and E Directions (36-45):
together 36) Answer: B
= > [1300 * (100/65) + (440 / 44) * 100 + (972 / 27) * 17 x 1 + 4.5 = 21.5
50] / 3 21.5 x 2 + 4.5 = 47.5
= > [2000 + 1000 + 1800] / 3 47.5 x 3 + 4.5 = 147 (not 146)
= > 4800 / 3 = 1600 147 x 4 + 4.5 = 592.5
592.5 x 5 + 4.5 = 2967
Page 53 of 83
37) Answer: D 41) Answer: B

7 x 1 + 6 = 13 98 + 22 = 102
13 x 2 + 5 = 31 102 – 33 = 75
31 x 3 + 4 = 97 (not 98) 75 + 42 = 91
97 x 4 + 3 = 391 91 – 53 = -34
391 x 5 + 2 = 1957 -34 + 62 = 2
38) Answer: C 42) Answer: A

5 x 6 + 12 = 31 3*2+2=8
31 x 5 + 22 = 159 8 * 2 + 2 = 18
159 x 4 + 32 = 645 (not 647) 18 * 2 + 2 = 38
645 x 3 + 42 = 1951 38 * 2 + 2 = 78
1951 x 2 + 52 = 3927 78 * 2 + 2 = 158

16 + 13 - 2 = 15 32 + 1 = 10
15 + 23 - 2 = 21 52 + 2= 27
21 + 33 - 2 = 46 (not 44) 72 + 3 = 52
46 + 43 - 2 = 108 92 + 4 = 85
108 + 53 - 2 = 231 112 + 5 = 126
132 + 6 = 175
40) Answer: A
157.5/3.5 = 45 44) Answer: D
45/3 = 15 18 + 18 * 1 + 2 = 38
15/2.5 = 6 38 + 18 * 2 + 3 = 77
6/2 = 3 77 + 18 * 3 + 4 = 135
3/1.5= 2 135 + 18 * 4 + 5 = 212
2/1 = 2 (not 1) 212 + 18 * 5 + 6 = 308
Page 54 of 83

(32 + 16)/2 = 24 ? = (1189+3986+8924+6683) -
(16 + 24)/2 = 20 (1079+9589+4627+3195)
(24 + 20)/2 = 22 = 20782 - 18490 = 2292
(20 + 22)/2 = 21
51) Answer: C
Directions (46-55): 120% of 550 + 80% of ? = 43 * 20
46) Answer: A 660 + 80 % of ? = 860
45879 + 24856 + 1245 + 214 - 101 =? 80% of ? = 200
72194-101 =? ? = 250
=72093
52) Answer: A
47) Answer: C (124 ÷ 2728) * (90 ÷ 2430) * ? = 10
899 ÷ 31 + 19 * 9 = ? * 8 1/22*1/27*?=10
29 + 171 = ? * 8 ? = 5940
? = 25
53) Answer: A
48) Answer: E
? = 16 + 5 -10
? = 11
? = 14
54) Answer: C
49) Answer: B 30 % of 210 + 588 ÷ √2401 + 15 * 25 = ?
3/8 of 168 x 15 ÷ 5 + ? = 549 ÷ 9 + 235 63 + 12 + 375 = ?
= 3/8 x 168 x15 x 1/5 + ? = 549 x 1/9 + 235 450 = ?
= 3 x 21 x 3 + ? = 61 + 235
= 296 – 189 = 107 55) Answer: E
Page 55 of 83
y2 – 18y – 3y + 54 = 0
y(y – 18) – 3(y – 18) = 0
(y – 3)(y – 18) = 0
y = 3, 18
x<y
58) Answer: B
From I =>x2 - 44x + 475 = 0
Directions (56-70):
=>x2–19x – 25x + 475 = 0
56) Answer: B
=>x(x – 19) - 25(x – 19) = 0
13x2 + 65x + 78 = 0
=> (x – 19) (x – 25) = 0
13x2 + 26x + 39x + 78 = 0
=> x = 19, 25
13x(x + 2) + 39(x + 2) = 0
From II => 15y2 – 19y + 6 = 0
(13x + 39)(x + 2) = 0
=> 15y2 – 10y – 9y + 6 = 0
x = -3, -2
=>5y(3y – 2) - 3(3y – 2) = 0
15y2 + 105y + 180 = 0
=> (5y – 3) (3y – 2) = 0
15y2 + 45y + 60y + 180 = 0
=> y = 3/5, 2/3
15y(y + 3) + 60(y + 3) = 0
Hence, x > y
(15y + 60)(y + 3) = 0
y = -3, -4
59) Answer: C
x≥y
From I => 2x2 + 37x + 171 = 0
=> 2x2 + 18x + 19x+ 171 = 0
57) Answer: D
=> 2x(x + 9) + 19(x + 9) = 0
x2 + 11x - 26 = 0
=> (x + 9) (2x + 19) = 0
x2 + 13x – 2x – 26 = 0
=> x = -9, -19/2
x(x + 13) – 2(x + 13) = 0
From II => y2 + 14y + 45 = 0
(x – 2)(x + 13) = 0
=> y2 + 9y + 5y + 45 = 0
x = 2, -13
=>y(y + 9) + 5(y + 9) = 0
y2 – 21y + 54 = 0
Page 56 of 83
=> (y + 5) (y + 9) = 0 y = 18, 20
=> y = -5, -9 Relationship between x and y cannot be
Hence, x ≤ y established.

From I => 9x2 + 32x + 15 = 0 x2 + 2x – 483 = 0
=> 9x2 + 27x + 5x+ 15 = 0 x2 + 23x – 21x – 483 = 0
=> 9x (x + 3) + 5 (x + 3) = 0 x(x + 23) – 21(x + 23) = 0
=> (9x + 5) (x + 3) = 0 (x – 21)(x + 23) = 0
=> x = -5/9, -3 x = 21, -23
From II => 5y2 + 11y - 12 = 0 y2 – 43y + 462 = 0
=> 5y2 + 15y – 4y - 12 = 0 y2 – 21y – 22y + 462 = 0
=> 5y(y + 3) - 4(y + 3) = 0 y(y – 21) – 22(y – 21) = 0
=> (5y – 4) (y + 3) = 0 (y – 21)(y – 22) = 0
=> y = 4/5, -3 y = 21, 22
Hence, relationship between x and y cannot be x≤y
determined
63) Answer: B
61) Answer: C x2 + 40x + 279 = 0
x2 – 48x + 540 = 0 x2 + 31x + 9x + 279 = 0
x2 – 18x – 30x + 540 = 0 x(x + 31) + 9(x + 31) = 0
x(x – 18) – 30(x – 18) = 0 (x + 9)(x + 31) = 0
(x – 30)(x – 18) = 0 x = -9, -31
x = 30, 18 y2 + 68y + 1147 = 0
y2 – 38y + 360 = 0 y2 + 31y + 37y + 1147 = 0
y2 – 18y - 20y + 360 = 0 y(y + 31) + 37(y + 31) = 0
y(y – 18) - 20(y – 18) = 0 (y + 37)(y + 31) = 0
(y – 18)(y – 20) = 0 y = -31, -37
Page 57 of 83
x≥y (y + 10) (2y + 17) = 0

y = -10, -8.5
64) Answer: D Hence, relation cannot be determined
I:
x2 + 11x – 312 = 0 66) Answer: A
x2 + 24x – 13x – 312 = 0 I:
x (x + 24) – 13(x + 24) = 0 6x + 7y – 3xy = 0
(x + 24) (x – 13) = 0 (6x + 7y)/xy = 3xy/xy
x = -24, 13 (6/y)+(7/x)= 3 ----------------(1)
II: II:
2y2 – 53y + 351 = 0 3x – 14y + xy = 0
2y2 – 27y – 26y + 351 = 0 (3x – 14y)/xy = - xy/xy
y (2y – 27) – 13(2y – 27) = 0 3/y – 14/x= -1 --------------------(2)
(2y – 27) (y – 13) = 0 By equation (1) *2 + equation (1):
y = 13.5, 13 12/y + 14/x + 3/y – 14/x = 6 – 1
Hence, x ≤ y 15/y = 5
y=3
65) Answer: E From equation (1):
I: 6/3 + 7/x = 3
–2x2 – 21x + 270 = 0 x=7
–2x2 – 36x + 15x + 270 = 0 Hence, x > y
–2x (x + 18) + 15(x + 18) = 0
(x + 18) (-2x + 15) = 0 67) Answer: C
x =- 18, 7.5 I:
II: √ (3x2 – x + 140) = x + 10
2y2 + 37y + 170 = 0 3x2 – x + 140 = (x + 10)2
2y2 + 20y +17y + 170 = 0 3x2 – x + 140 = x2 + 100 + 20x
2y (y + 10) + 17(y + 10) = 0 2x2 – 21x + 40 = 0
Page 58 of 83
2x2 – 16x – 5x + 40 = 0
2x (x – 8) – 5(x – 8) = 0 69) Answer: E
(x – 8) (2x – 5) = 0 I). X² + 3X – 238 = 0
x = 8, 2.5 X² + 17X – 14X – 238 = 0
II: X(X + 17) – 14(X + 17) = 0
2y2 – y – 10 = 0 (X – 14)(X + 17) = 0
2y2 – 5y + 4y – 10 = 0 X = 14, - 17
y (2y – 5) + 2(2y – 5) = 0 II). Y² - 21Y + 68 = 0
(2y – 5) (y + 2) = 0 Y² - 17Y – 4Y + 68 = 0
y = 2.5, -2 Y(Y – 17) – 4(Y – 17) = 0
Hence, x ≥ y (Y – 17)(Y – 4) = 0
Y = 4, 17
68) Answer: C It is very clear from above values, there is no
I: relation
x/√3= √(8x – 45)
x = √(24x – 135) 70) Answer: A
x2 – 24x + 135 = 0 I) 3x2 – 4x – 32 = 0
x2 – 15x – 9x + 135 = 0 3x2 – 12x + 8x – 32 = 0
x (x – 15) – 9(x – 15) = 0 3x (x – 4) + 8 (x – 4) = 0
(x – 15) (x – 9) = 0 (3x + 8) (x – 4) = 0
x = 15, 9 x = -8/3, 4 = -2.66, 4
II: II) 4y2 + 45y + 126 = 0
y2 – 3y – 54 = 0 4y2 + 24y + 21y + 126 = 0
y2 – 9y + 6y – 54 = 0 4y (y + 6) + 21 (y + 6) = 0
y (y – 9) + 6(y – 9) = 0 (4y + 21) (y + 6) = 0
(y – 9) (y + 6) = 0 y = -5.25, -6
y = 9, -6 x>y
Hence, x ≥ y
Page 59 of 83
English Language
Directions (1- 7): Read the following passage pre-industrial level of about 294 parts per million
carefully and answer the questions given below it. (ppm) in the atmosphere to more than 390 ppm
Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to today. {With research and analysis showing that
help you locate them while answering some of the additional (A)/ warming of about 2 degree Celsius
questions. may be the (B)/ threshold for harmful climate
A new analysis has determined that the threat of change, the European Union have asked to(C)/
global warming can still be curtailed if countries cut dramatic cuts in emissions of carbon dioxide and
emissions of heat-trapping greenhouse gases by other harmful greenhouse gases.(D)}
80% this century. The analysis was completed by To examine the impact of cuts on the world's
scientists at the National Centre for Atmospheric climate, Washington and his colleagues operate a
Research (NCAR). Whereas global temperatures series of global studies in collaboration with the
would rise, the most dangerous and harmful NCAR-based Community Climate System Model
potential aspects of climate change, including huge (CCSM). They assumed that carbon dioxide level
losses of Arctic sea ice and permafrost and major could be held to 460 ppm at the end of this
sea-level rise, could be certainly avoided. "This century. In contrast, emissions are now on track to
research indicates that we could no longer avoid reach about 770 ppm by 2200 if unchecked. The
major warming during this century," said NCAR team's results stated that if carbon dioxide were
scientist Warren Washington, the study paper's held to 460 ppm, global temperatures would spike
leading author. "But, if the universe was to by o.8 degree Celsius above current readings by
implement this level of emission cuts, we could the end of this century. (In contrast, the study also
stabilize the threat of climate change," he also showed that emissions would rise by almost five
added. times that amount, to 2.3 degrees Celsius above
Global temperatures have warmed by close to 2 current readings, if temperatures were continued to
degree Celsius since the pre-industrial era. Much be allowed on their present course). Holding
of the warming is because of human-produced carbon dioxide levels to 460 ppm would have other
emissions of greenhouse gases, mainly carbon harmful impacts, according to the climate study.
dioxide. This heat-trapping gas has surged from a
Page 60 of 83
1) Why has the European Union asked for A) At present the carbon dioxide emission is about
dramatic cuts in carbon dioxide and harmful 274 ppm.
greenhouse gas emissions? B) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 450
A) As global warming is not an important issue of ppm at the end of this century if unchecked.
concern. C) The carbon dioxide emission was about 330
B) As the temperature may rise almost by an ppm during the pre-industrial era.
additional two degree and this will lead to severe D) The carbon dioxide emissions will be about 770
change in the climate ppm at the end of this century if unchecked.
C) As the NCAR has forced the European Union to E) None of these
announces the cuts
D) As all the countries has decided to cut 4) What does the scientist Warren Washington
emissions of carbon dioxide mean when he says "we could stabilize the threat
E) None of these of climate change"?
A) Climate change can be stopped partially.
2) What would be the following impact of B) Climate change can be regularized.
unchecked carbon dioxide and greenhouse gas C) Climate change and its effects can be studied
emissions? extensively.
A) The temperature would increase from the D) The harmful effects of the change in climate can
current temperature by 2.3 degrees Celsius. be minimized.
B) Global temperatures will increase by o.8 E) None of these
degrees Celsius.
C) Arctic warming would be reduced by one-fourth. 5) Find the erroneous part:-
D) Thermal power expansion will stop completely With research and analysis showing that additional
E) None of these (A)/ warming of about 2 degree Celsius may be the
(B)/ threshold for harmful climate change, the
3) From the given options which of the following European Union have asked to (C)/ dramatic cuts
statements is correct in the context of the in emissions of carbon dioxide and other harmful
passage? greenhouse gases.(D)/
Page 61 of 83
A. A
B. B Directions (8-12): In the following questions two
C. C columns are given containing three
D. D sentences/phrases each. In the first column,
E. No error sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the
second column the sentences/phrases are D, E
6) In this question some words are highlighted in and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column
bold which may or may not be in their proper place, may or may not connect with another
you have to arrange them in order to make sentence/phrase from the second column to make
sentences coherently and meaningfully correct. a grammatically and contextually correct sentence.
In contrast, the study also showed that emissions Each question has five options which display the
(A) would rise by almost five times that amount, to sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases can
2.3 degrees Celsius above current (B) readings, if be joined to form a grammatically and contextually
temperatures (C) were to continue to be allowed correct sentence. Choose the pair(s) which
(D) on their present course. make(s) a grammatically meaningful sentence.
A) B-D 8)
B) A-C COLUMN 1
C) A-D A) The coconut inflorescence, the kernel and the
D) B-C water
E) No correction required B) Fresh coconut is rich in antioxidants and
C) The oil is a low calorie, easily digestible dietary
7) Choose the word which is the antonym for the fat good for glowing skin, contains good fats,
word “curtailed”. boosts metabolism, excellent skin moisturizer and
A) Diminish COLUMN 2
B) Shorten D) is an excellent nutraceutical.
C) Retrench E) a conditioner for hair.
D) Dwarf F) are unparalleled as delicacies and health foods.
E) Amplify A) BF
Page 62 of 83
B) AD C) Sam source provides online training programs

C) CE that.
D) All a, b, c COLUMN 2
E) Both b and c D) Workers can complete on their own time.
E) Performance in all three areas and gathers
9) detailed metrics like accuracy rates.
COLUMN 1 F) Centre’s run pilots to work out any kinks
A) France has the most attractive A) CD
B) More than 70 innovation clusters have been set B) AE
up, improving synergies C) BF
C) France is among the leading countries in D) All a, b, c
Europe for the number E) Both a and c
COLUMN 2
D) Of international patent filed 11)
E) Tax credit in Europe COLUMN 1
F) Among public and private research A) ABB's integrated electrical and automation
A) BF solution will power the plant
B) AF B) Rs 6.27 lakh collected by Muslims in
C) CD Bulandshahr and handed over to the district
D) All a, b, c administration to pay for damage
E) None of the above. C) A start-up needs to liaise with many agencies
before it can take wings. Plus, the economic
10) environment
COLUMN 1 COLUMN 2
A) To stay true to its mission, Sam source needs to D) To public property in anti-CAA demonstrations
get work, give work, and grow. So it tracks. E) With maximum energy efficiency.
B) The organization scopes and preps clients' F) is unkind to a start-up's "failures"
projects and helps. A) AD
Page 63 of 83
B) AF B) The prime minister began his first day at work

C) BD C) World's fastest growing large economy.
D) CF D) With government estimates of a decelerating
E) Both c and d economy
E) SBI bank stepped in to revive the economy.
12) A) DBEC
COLUMN 1 B) DBCA
A) Worldwide, the number of people with Type 2 C) BDAC
diabetes. D) DAEB
B) 108 million people across the world had E) ECAB
diabetes in 1980,
C) 200,000Die every year due to lack of. 14)
COLUMN 2 A) Need an additional element to address the
D) Has quadrupled over 35 years challenges
E) Access for safe water. B) Produced by mounting complexity and rapid
F) It is 422 million now change.
A) AD C) Leadership capability in the market
B) BF d) Form an organization's operating system
C) CE E) The existing structures and processes that
D) All a, b, c together
E) Only a and b A) ACBE
B) EDAB
Directions (13-17): In the sentences given below, C) CDBE
sentences are jumbled and one of them is an odd D) ACDB
one out. Identify the correct sequence of the E) ECAB
sentences and eliminate the odd one out.
13) 15)
A) And of India losing its tag of being the
Page 64 of 83
A) Identifying the relevant parties, grouping them E) DBAC

into fronts according to
B) Applying the system codes to artificial 17)
intelligence. A) As well as anarchist elements who want
C) Approach early on and which to engage only B) To defeat the efforts of the Opposition
after you've made progress elsewhere. C) To divide society by inciting caste passions”
D) Designing and executing a negotiation D)"Our biggest challenge is
campaign involves E) The congress is trying hard
E) Shared interests, determining whether to A) EBAD
combine fronts, and deciding which fronts to B) DACB
A) BACD C) DECA
B) DBEC D) DACE
C) DAEC. E) DBAC
D) CBED
E) DCAB Directions (18-22): Here a word is given in bold. A
set of six words given in options to identify
16) synonym or antonym of the given word. So you
A) Grew just 3.7 per cent in the quarter ended have to choose meaning or opposite of the given
December 2018, word from the options
B) The index of industrial production, 18) DITHER
C) A measure of industrial activity, A) Indecisive
D) Industry’s progress failed to impress the B) Excited
government C) Spoiled
E) The lowest in five quarters. D) Plenty
A) BCAE E) Nervous
B) DACB
C) DECA 19) TRUCULENT
D) DACE A) Conversation
Page 65 of 83
B) Sly A) Ban
C) Flavor B) Approval
D) Aggressive C) Sad
E) Curb D) Angry
E) None of the above
20) BLANDISHMENT
A) Clever 22) GERMANE
B) Illuminated A) Irrelevant
C) Flattery B) Kill
D) Happy C) Value
E) Friendly D) Increase
E) None of the above
21) FELICITY
Directions (1- 7): temperatures would rise by almost five times that
1) Answer: B amount, to 2.3 degrees Celsius above current
As stated in the third paragraph - With research and readings, if emissions were continued to be allowed
analysis showing that additional warming of about 2 on their present course.
degree Celsius may be the threshold for harmful
climate change, the European Union has asked for 3) Answer: D
dramatic cuts in emissions of carbon dioxide and As stated in the last paragraph- In contrast,
other harmful greenhouse gases emissions are now on track to reach about 770 ppm
by 2200 if unchecked
2) Answer: A
As clearly mentioned in the last lines of the fourth 4) Answer: D
paragraph- In contrast, the study also showed that
Page 66 of 83
Read the second paragraph carefully - "This Directions (8-12):

research indicates that we could no longer avoid 8) Answer: C
major warming during this century," said NCAR AF, CE, BD is the correct combination of sentences
scientist Warren Washington, the study paper's among the given options. The sentence A contains
leading author. "But, if the universe was to multiple subjects hence it must be followed by a
implement this level of emission cuts, we could plural verb, the sentence B contains a single
stabilize the threat of climate change," he also subject hence it must be followed by a singular
added. verb.
5) Answer: C 9) Answer: E
With research and analysis showing that additional AE, CD, BF is the correct combination of sentences
warming of about 2 degree Celsius may be the among the given options. Sentence d needs
threshold for harmful climate change, the European correction ‘the number of’ is followed by plural
Union has asked for dramatic cuts in emissions of noun, it should be ‘international patents’, sentence f
carbon dioxide and other harmful greenhouse needs correction, it should be between and not
gases among for 2 things.
6) Answer: B 10) Answer: D

(In contrast, the study also showed that AE, CD, BF is the correct combination of sentences
temperatures would rise by almost five times that among the given options
amount, to 2.3 degrees Celsius above current
readings, if emissions were continued to be allowed 11) Answer: E
on their present course). AE, CF, BD is the correct combination of sentences
among the given options.
7) Answer: E
Curtail means to reduce, diminish, lessen, shrink, 12) Answer: E
etc.
And amplify is the antonym for the word curtail.
Page 67 of 83
AD, CE, BF is the correct combination of sentences

among the given options. Sentence e is incorrect Directions (18-22):
because ‘access to’ is the correct phrase. 18) Answer: A
DITHER (indecisive is synonym)
Directions (13-17):
(BDAC) is the correct sequence; E is the odd one TRUCULENT (aggressive is synonym), sly (clever),
out curb(prevent)

(EDAB) is the correct sequence; C is the odd one BLANDISHMENT (flattery is synonym)
out
21) Answer: C
15) Answer: C FELICITY (sad is an antonym)
(DAEC) is the correct sequence; B is the odd one
out 22) Answer: A
GERMANE (irrelevant)
16) Answer: A
(BCAE) is the correct sequence; D is the odd one
out
17) Answer: E
(DBAC) is the correct sequence; E is the odd one
out
General Awareness
Page 68 of 83
1. Which of the following company has decided to sell B) Territorial Army

products on the Government e-Market portal? C) Indian Army
A) Paytm D) ITBP
B) Flipkart E) CISF
C) Amazon
D) Snapdeal 5. Which state government has launched an
E) IMPCL engineering research policy?
A) Uttar Pradesh
2. Which of the following nations has launched the B) Haryana
national app portal? C) Madhya Pradesh
A) Myanmar D) Bihar
B) Philippines E) Karnataka
C) Thailand
D) Vietnam 6. Which State Government has launched an online

E) Bangladesh registration portal for migrant workers?
A) Manipur
3. Which station has recently become the first railway B) Mizoram
station to get IGBC Gold Certification? C) Meghalaya
A) Surat D) Nagaland
B) Chandigarh E) Tripura
C) Patna
D) Mumbai 7. The World Bank has planned a_____ guarantee

E) Delhi scheme for solar rooftop projects.
A) 150
4. Which armed force has launched the Community B) 100

Radio Station? C) 120
A) CRPF D) 130
Page 69 of 83
E) 140 11. Which of the following country is one of the top

performers in land records digitisation?
8. India signs pact with which country for supply of A) Chhattisgarh
BrahMos missile? B) Uttar Pradesh
A) Malaysia C) Bihar
B) Laos D) Haryana
C) Thailand E) Madhya Pradesh
D) Philippines
E) Vietnam 12. NPCI has joined hands with which bank to launch
"RuPay SoftPoS" for merchants.
9. EPFO board has recommended an unchanged A) Axis

______ per cent interest on deposits for 2020-21. B) SBI
A) 8.4 C) ICICI
B) 8.3 D) HDFC
C) 8.7 E) Yes
D) 8.5
E) 8.6 13. Which institution has successfully launched flight
test SFDR technology?
10. Which of the following country is building the world's A) HAL

first platypus sanctuary to promote breeding and B) BEL
rehabilitation? C) BDL
A) Japan D) DRDO
B) Switzerland E) ISRO
C) Australia
D) France 14. Which country has announced names of 9

E) Germany individuals to confer its highest civilian award
‘Swadhinta Puraskar’ ?
Page 70 of 83
A) Japan B) 130
B) Germany C) 139
C) Bhutan D) 135
D) France E) 133
E) Bangladesh
18. ‘Maitri Setu’ connecting India and ______ has been
inaugurated by PM Modi.
15. International Women’s Day is celebrated on which A) Sri Lanka

of the following date? B) Nepal
A) March 3 C) Pakistan
B) March 2 D) Bangladesh
C) March 8 E) Bhutan
D) March 4
E) March 5 19. Which of the following Securities company has

launched a platform to make investment in bond,
16. India Science Research Fellowship (ISRF) 2021 debenture hassle free?
has Announced _____ Scholars From Six Countries A) BOI
Awarded. B) UCO
A) 30 C) PNB
B) 35 D) Axis
C) 40 E) SBI
D) 45
E) 50 20. Which of the following company has launched a
new Business Kisht Suraksha to protect MFIs from
17. All Helpline numbers of Railways merged into a natural calamities?

single number which is _____. A) ICICI
A) 131 B) Bank of India
Page 71 of 83
C) HDFC Ergo B) 76
D) Axis C) 77
E) SBI D) 81
E) 75
21. India’s first-ever transgender community desk has

come up in which city police station? 24. Which company recently paid an interim dividend of
A) Chandigarh 140 % on its paid-up capital to the Government for
B) Gwalior 2020-21?
C) Hyderabad A) ONGC
D) Pune B) DRDO
E) Surat C) BEL
D) HAL
22. How many of the Passport Seva Kendras will be E) BDL
transformed as All Women PSKs as recently

announced by MoS External Affairs V Muraleedharan? 25. Which state police recently organized the ‘All
A) 6 Women Parade' for International Women's Day?
B) 5 A) Chhattisgarh
C) 4 B) Himachal Pradesh
D) 3 C) Haryana
E) 2 D) Bihar
E) Madhya Pradesh
23. The Central government has announced that more

than ______% accounts under Stand Up India Scheme
belong to women entrepreneurs.
A) 73
Page 72 of 83

Indian Medicines Pharmaceutical Corporation Limited The Government of Bangladesh has launched its
(IMPCL) will sell products on the Government e-Market national app portal bdapps.com.
(GeM) portal. The agreement between the ICT division of the
The IMPCL and GeM has finalised a deal in this regard government of Bangladesh and the telecom company
and now the Ayurvedic and Unani medicines of IMPCL Robi was signed in Dhaka.
will figure on the GeM portal to hundreds of government Through this agreement, BDApps will be established as
sector buyers. the hub of the ICT division for application developers.
This will facilitate quick procurement of these medicines Under the agreement, the ICT division will collaborate
by Central and State Government institutions for their with bdapps to organise exclusive boot camps and
healthcare programmes. software development events in the country.
It will also help to streamline the procurement and Launching the app portal as the national app portal, ICT
distribution of Ayurvedic and Unani medicines by State minister Zunaid Ahmed Palak said that app developers
Units. from any organisation can use this platform to upload

The thousands of patients and other clients who visit their apps.
Government Ayush hospitals every day stand to gain He said that the ICT division will seek exemption on
because of this increased availability of such medicines income tax for the developers and the abolition of VAT
even in far-flung Ayush Hospitals and Clinics. on apps.
The GeM has created 31 categories covering 311 The minister announced that training facilities of the ICT
medicines which live in the marketplace and IMPCL can department will be extended to developers seeking to
now upload these medicines on GeM Portal. put their apps on the portal.
IMPCL, the 100 crore rupees turnover PSU of the BDApps is the largest mobile application platform in
Ministry of AYUSH, is one of the most trusted Bangladesh hosting more than 23,000 apps developed
manufacturers of Ayush medicines in the country and is by 12,000 developers.
known for the authenticity of its formulations.

3) Answer: D
Page 73 of 83
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus Railway Station of This Community Radio Station has been started with an
Central Railway is the first railway station in Maharashtra aim to revitalize the connection within different segments
to be awarded with Gold certification as per CII’s Indian of the community.
Green Building Council (IGBC) ratings. This will provide a good platform for a community
The rating system gives impetus to the national priorities dialogue, sharing of information, art & culture.
like energy efficiency, water conservation, handling of It will build a community environment, which is better
waste measures and motivates the adoption of green connected with issues which are local and important to
standards for buildings and its environment. the community.

Central Railway has implemented various green
initiatives across its zone, with plantations creating 5) Answer: E
green areas, installation of solar panels, customer- The Karnataka government has launched the country’s
friendly initiatives at many stations, LED bulbs and lights maiden Engineering Research & Development (ER&D)
etc. Policy to raise its contribution to the sector in the country
to 45% in the next five years.

4) Answer: C The new policy envisages creation of an additional
The first of its kind in North Kashmir, Community Radio 50,000 jobs.
Station with the tagline “Radio Chinar 90.4, Har Dil Ki According to industry apex body Nasscom, ER&D has
Dhadkan” was inaugurated 04 Mar 2021 by the Indian the potential to become a $100-billion industry in the
Army for the Awam in Mazbugh, Sopore. country in the next five years.
The Radio Station was inaugurated by Lt Gen BS Raju, The new policy, drafted jointly by the Department of
General Officer Commanding Chinar Corps in presence Electronics, IT, Biotechnology and Science and
of Maj Gen HS Sahi, General Officer Commanding Kilo Technology, Karnataka Innovation and Technology
Force and various Army and civil dignitaries. Society, and Nasscom in consultation with industry
The reach of the Community Radio Station will be stakeholders
Sopore, Bandipora and Baramulla Districts. It has identified five key focus sectors such as
aerospace and defence;
auto, auto components and EV;
Page 74 of 83
biotechnology, pharma and medical devices; The scheme will allow micro, small, and medium
semiconductors, telecom, ESDM; enterprises (MSMEs) to avail concessional debt
software products. financing for setting up rooftop solar units.
The World Bank scheme, along with State Bank of India
6) Answer: C (SBI) and the MSME ministry to accelerate adoption of

In Meghalaya, the State Government launched the rooftop solar units, will help MSMEs access credit of
online registration portal for migrant workers under the around $1 billion.
Meghalaya Identification Registration (Safety and The arrangement will be beneficial for the firms that
Security) of Migrant Workers Act 2020, in a function often do not meet the lending criteria of banks and other
organized by the Labour Department in Shillong. financial institutions, with their financial woes being
Launching the portal, Deputy Chief Minister Prestone exacerbated by the covid-19 pandemic.
Tynsong said, the online portal will improve the ease of
doing business. 8) Answer: D
He urged all stakeholders to utilize the portal so that a India and the Philippines have signed a key agreement
record of genuine migrant labourers or workers is to facilitate government-to-government deals on military
maintained in the State. hardware, including the potential supply of BrahMos
He said, this move is crucial for the development of the cruise missiles.
State as labour forces from other parts of the country are The BrahMos missile is produced by an India-Russian
required to complete projects of different departments. joint venture “BrahMos Aerospace” and it can be
He reiterated that only those migrant workers/labourers launched from submarines, ships, aircraft or from land
who fulfil various criteria stated under the Act, will be platforms.
issued with a labour license. The pact was signed by under-secretary Raymundo
Elefante of the Philippines’ department of national
7) Answer: B defense and Indian ambassador Shambu Kumaran at
The World Bank plans to introduce a $100-million credit Camp Aguinaldo, headquarters of the Filipino armed
guarantee scheme to boost India’s rooftop solar forces
programme. It is the fastest supersonic cruise missile in the world.
Page 75 of 83
Currently the missile is used only by India, however and rehabilitation as the duck-billed mammal faces
several countries including Philippines, Vietnam, South extinction due to climate change.
Africa, Egypt, Oman, Chile and Brunei have expressed The Taronga Conservation Society Australia and the
interest in the procurement of the missile. New South Wales State government said they would
build the specialist facility, mostly ponds and burrows for

9) Answer: D the semi aquatic creatures, at a zoo 391 km (243 miles)
The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) from Sydney, by 2022, which could house up to 65
has kept the interest rates unchanged on provident fund platypuses.

deposits at 8.5 per cent for financial year 2020-21. The new facility will promote breeding and rehabilitation
This rate, the same as last year’s, is the lowest offered of these iconic creatures, which are native to Australia.
by EPFO in eight years.

There were speculations that the EPFO would lower 11) Answer: E
interest on provident fund deposits for this fiscal (2020- Madhya Pradesh, West Bengal and Odisha are the best
21) from 8.5 per cent given in 2019-20, owing to the performing Indian states in land record digitisation,
coronavirus-induced slowdown through 2020. according to an annual land records index prepared by
The retirement fund body has more than 50 million Delhi-based think-tank National Council of Applied
active subscribers Economic Research (NCAER).
The decision was taken at the Central Board of Trustees The NCAER’s Land Records and Services Index
(CBT) meeting, which is the main decision-making body (NLRSI) 2020-21 released Thursday said nearly all
of EPFO. states and union territories 29 out of 32 showed a
The interest rate would be officially notified in the gradual improvement in their efforts to digitise land
government gazette following which EPFO would credit records compared to the previous year.
the rate of interest into the subscribers’ accounts The data was primarily collected on two aspects: the
extent of digitisation of land records and the quality of
10) Answer: C these records.

Australian conservationists unveiled plans to build the
world's first refuge for the platypus, to promote breeding
Page 76 of 83
Out of the 32 states and UTs ranked, only Assam and This solution will revolutionize the way micro and small
Lakshadweep Islands saw a decline in points from last merchants receive payments and create a demarcated
year. shift in their tendency to deal in cash to accepting
As a result, the mean N-LRSI score across the 32 states secure, contactless digital payments instead.
and UTs has shown an increase of 16.6 per cent in

2020-21, from 38.7 in 2019-20 to 45.1 in 2020-21 (out of 13) Answer: D
the maximum score of 100 points). The Defence Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO) has successfully tested a flight demonstration

12) Answer: B based on Solid Fuel Ducted Ramjet (SFDR) technology
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) from the Integrated Test Range in Odisha's Chandipur.
partnered with SBI Payments to announce the launch of The SFDR technology will help DRDO with the
‘RuPay SoftPoS’ for millions of Indian merchants. technological advantage to develop long-range air-to-air
This innovative solution has the capability to transform missiles (AAMs).
NFC enabled smartphones into merchant Point of Sale The performance of the missile was monitored using the
(PoS) terminals for the retailers. Merchants will now be data captured by Electro Optical, Radar and Telemetry
able to accept contactless payments of up to ₹5000 instruments deployed by ITR and confirmed successful
through a simple tap and pay mechanism on their demonstration of the mission objectives.
smartphones. The launch was monitored by senior scientists of various
RuPay SoftPoS will provide cost effective acceptance DRDO labs, including Defence Research &
infrastructure to retailers at nominal cost. This unique Development Laboratory (DRDL), Research Centre
phenomenon would be able to proliferate digital Imarat (RCI) and High Energy Materials Research
payment acceptance among millions of underserved Laboratory(HEMRL)

Indian MSMEs. The High Energy Material Research Laboratory
Merchants can convert their existing android (HEMRL) has developed the nozzle-less booster while
smartphone devices into a payment terminal by simply the ramjet engine is being developed with Russian
downloading a supported app. assistance.
Page 77 of 83
14) Answer: E The recipients of the award get a gold medal and a cash
Bangladesh has announced the names of 9 individuals reward of Taka 5 lakh.
and one organization for conferring the Independence
Award, the highest civilian award of Bangladesh for the 15) Answer: C
year 2021. The International Women’s Day (IWD) is celebrated on

The Cabinet department of the government issued a March 8 every year, to celebrate the social, economic,
press release. cultural, and political achievements of women.
Four individuals have been selected posthumously for The theme for International Women's Day 2021 is
the award under the category of freedom fighters for 'Women in leadership: Achieving an equal future in a
their contribution to the liberation war of Bangladesh. COVID-19 world'.
These include A K M Bazlur Rahman, Ahsan Ullah According to the UN Women website, it aims to
Master, Brig Gen. Khurshid Uddin Ahmed and 'celebrate the tremendous efforts by women and girls
Akhataruzzaman Chowdhury Babu.Dr. Mrinmoy Guha around the world in shaping a more equal future and
Niyogi has been selected for his contribution to science recovery from the COVID-19 pandemic'.
and technology. The hashtags for the day will be #IWD2021 and
Mahadev Saha will be honoured with the award for #InternationalWomensDay.
literature while Ataur Rahman and Gazi Mazharul Anwar The date of March 8 was chosen for the celebration as it
will get the award for their contribution in the field of marks the day when women in Soviet Russia started
Culture. protests for the right to vote which they were granted in
Dr. M Amzad Hossain has been nominated for the 1917.
award for social and public service. The first National Woman’s Day was observed in the
In the category of organisations, the Bangladesh United States on 28 February.1909.

Agriculture Research Council has been nominated for The day was adopted in 1975 by the United Nations.
research and training.
The award has been given since 1977 ahead of the 16) Answer: C
Independence Day of Bangladesh. Forty scholars from six countries have been awarded
with Indian Science Research Fellowship (ISRF) 2021.
Page 78 of 83
The forty scholars will now have the opportunity to carry Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate Maitri Setu
out their research in Indian institutes and universities. between India and Bangladesh through video
These scholars have been selected based on research conferencing.
proposal, experience, academic merit and publication Mr Modi will also inaugurate and lay the foundation
record and recommended for the award of ISRF 2021. stone of multiple infrastructure projects in Tripura during
the event.
17) Answer: C The bridge Maitri Setu has been built over Feni River
Indian Railway has integrated all railway help lines into which flows between Indian boundary in Tripura State
single number 139 which is Rail Madad Helpline for and Bangladesh.
quick grievance redressal and enquiry during the The name Maitri Setu symbolizes growing bilateral
journey. relations and friendly ties between India and

As the new helpline number 139 will take over all the Bangladesh.
existing helpline numbers, it will be easy for the The construction was taken up by the National Highways
passengers to remember this number and connect with and Infrastructure Development Corporation Limited at a
Railways for all their needs during the travel. project cost of 133 Crore rupees.
The Ministry of Railways in a statement said that various The 1.9 Kilometres long bridge joins Sabroom in India
Railway grievances helplines were discontinued last with Ramgarh in Bangladesh.
year and now, Helpline number 182 would also be It is poised to herald a new chapter for trade and people
discontinued from 1st of April, 2021 and will be merged to people movement between India and Bangladesh.
into 139. With this inauguration, Tripura is set to become the
The Helpline 139 will be available in twelve languages Gateway of North East with access to Chittagong Port of
and passengers can opt for Interactive Voice Response Bangladesh, which is just 80 Kilometres from Sabroom.
System- IVRS or directly connect to call-centre
executives by pressing the asterisk button. 19) Answer: D
There is no need for a smart phone to call on 139. Axis Securities announced the launch of 'YIELD' - an
online platform to buy and sell bonds as well as
18) Answer: D debentures in the secondary market.
Page 79 of 83
YIELD is the first-of-its-kind initiative that allows retail changes whilst also protecting financial institutions from
investors direct access to the debt instruments. rising NPAs occurring due to the impact of natural
This removes the hassle of filling up physical forms or disasters.
the need for separate KYC with the bond institutions. Business Kisht can be customised as per the needs of
To facilitate transactions only in secure options, it an individual MFI or financial institution.

aggregates only 'AAA' to 'A' rated quality debt The product can also be tailor-made depending on the
instruments available for investment in the secondary geographical presence of the borrower, MFI or any
market. financial institution basis the perils/climatic conditions

A seamless online platform that gives retail investors that the location is prone to.
access to bonds available earlier only to the large
corporations, family offices, or HNIs. 21) Answer: C

Investing in bonds through YIELD is the answer to the The Cyberabad (Hyderabad) Police launched India's
investors seeking new alternative investment avenues first-ever 'Transgender Community Desk' at the
for safe and relatively higher returns. Gachibowli Police Station in Hyderabad.
This desk is the first-of-its-kind gender-inclusive
20) Answer: C community policing initiatives in the country.
HDFC ERGO General Insurance has introduced The desk was formally inaugurated by Cyberabad Police
Business Kisht Suraksha a unique cover aimed at chief VC Sajjanar in a ceremony that was attended by
protecting the balance sheet of MFIs, financial over 200 transgender people.
institutions and banks in the event of a catastrophe or It is the world's first-ever help desk for the transgender
natural disaster. community and it will be managed by a Police Liaison
It aims to limit the impacts on the balance sheet of Officer and a member of the transgender community
financial institutions, due to non-payment of EMIs by who is designated as a community coordinator.
borrowers, resulting out of listed calamities such as It will also be the focal point for all grievance redressal
floods, earthquakes, cyclones, etc. among the transgender community in Cyberabad

Business Kisht Suraksha aims to address these Commissionerate.
concerns by indemnifying against these climatic
Page 80 of 83
Earlier in 2014, the Supreme Court recognised the The Ministry said, these Schemes have financially
transgender community as a third gender along with empowered women to lead a better life and chase their
male and female and ruled that they have equal dreams of being an entrepreneur.
privilege over the fundamental rights enshrined in the
Indian Constitution. 24) Answer: C

Navratna Defence Public Sector Undertaking Bharat
22) Answer: E Electronics Limited, BEL paid interim dividend of 140
On the occasion of International Women’s Day, Minister percent on its paid-up capital to the Government for
of State for External Affairs V Muraleedharan unveiled financial year 2020-21.
two of the Passport Seva Kendras, PSKs to be The Interim Dividend cheque of 174 crore 43 lakh 63
transformed as All Women PSKs. thousand 5 hundred 69 rupees payable on the shares
One PSK is at RK Puram, Bhikaji Cama Place in New held by the President of India, to Defence Minister
Delhi and another at Tripunithura in Cochin, Kerala. Rajnath Singh in New Delhi.
The Minister expressed that the Government is The BEL has declared 140 per cent as interim dividend
continuously working to create a balance between both to its shareholders for the financial year 2020-21.
men and women in various spheres of lives, be it This is the 18th consecutive year that BEL is paying
professional or personal. interim dividend.
It had paid a total dividend of 280 per cent on its paid-up
23) Answer: D capital for the financial year 2019-20.

Government has said that more than 81 percent
accounts under Stand up India Scheme and about 68 25) Answer: B
percent of loan accounts under MUDRA scheme belong On the occasion of International Women's Day,
to women entrepreneurs. Himachal Pradesh Police Department will organize ‘All
The Finance Ministry said, out of the total of over 41 Woman Parade' at the historic Ridge Grounds in Shimla,
crore accounts opened under Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan aimed at increasing the strength of women in the police
Yojana, over 23 crore accounts belong to women. force.
The state police will celebrate the Day in two sessions.
Page 81 of 83
State governor Bandaru Dattatreya will be the chief An exhibition on the theme, 'Women in HP Police in 50
guest in the first session during which the Parade will be Years' would be displayed at Gaiety Theatre at six pm
held on the Ridge, while the chief minister Jai Ram followed by a cultural program during the second
Thakur will be the chief guest during the second session. session.
Himachal Pradesh DGP Sanjay Kundu said the state The exhibition will continue till March 14.
Police will hold a series of events on Women's Day.
On the occasion, 26 women cop will perform daring bike
stunts and musketry drills, which will be a major

attraction in the first season.
Page 82 of 83
Page 83 of 83
Page 1 of 77
Reasoning Ability
Directions (1-3): Read the conclusions and then B. Some height is not length
decide which of the given conclusions logically C. No height is circumference
follows from the given statements, disregarding D. Some Surface is Length
commonly known facts. E. At least some Area is height
1) Statements
Only a few Time is Distance 3) Statements
Some Distance is Speed Mostly Printer is Keyboard
All Speed is Hour A few Mouse is Printer
No Hour is Minute 100% Keyboard is Monitor
Only Minutes is Meter No Monitor is Mouse
Some Minute is Kilometer A. At least some printer is not monitor
Conclusions B. All monitor can be keyboard
A. Some hour being Distance is a possibility C. All printer can never be Mouse.
B. All minute being kilometer is not a possibility D. Some Printer is not keyboard
C. All Time can be the distance E. All follows
D. Some distance is not a speed
E. None of the above Directions (4-5): In the following questions, the
symbols #, @, $, %, & and ? are used with the
2) Statements following meaning as illustrated below. study the
Only a few Area is Volume following information and answer the given
All Area is Surface question. In each of the questions given below
No Surface is height statements are followed by some conclusions. You
All height is Perimeter have to take the given statements to be true even if
No Circumference is Perimeter they seem to be at variance from commonly known
All Circumferences is Length facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which
Conclusions of the given conclusions logically follows from the
A. All volume can be height
Page 2 of 77
given statements, disregarding commonly known Mars @ Jupiter ? Venus; Jupiter # Earth %
facts Mercury; Mercury $ Uranus; Earth $ Neptune
A#B-> Some A is B Conclusions
A$B->No A is B I. Venus % Mercury
A@B ->Only a few A is B II. Mars # Neptune
A?B->Only A is B III. Jupiter & Earth
A%B-> All A is B A. Only III follows
A&B-> Some A is not a B B. Both II and III follow
! -> Possibility C. Both I and III follow
Note: If ! is placed after any of the symbols D. None follow
mentioned above then it will be considered as a E. All Follows
possible case of the symbol. For example A%!B-
>All A being B is a possibility. Directions (6-8): Read the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically
4) Statements follows from the given statements, disregarding
Silver @ Gold % Diamond; Platinum # Diamond; commonly known facts.
Iron $ Copper; Platinum % Copper 6) Statements
Conclusions Only a few Burfi is Kheer
I. Platinum #! Iron No Kheer is Laddoo
II. Silver & Diamond Only Laddoo is Peda
III. Gold $ Copper Some Laddoo is Halwa
A. Only III follows All Halwa is Kulfi
B. Both II and III follow Conclusions
C. Both I and II follow A. Some Peda being Kulfi is a possibility
D. None follow B. All Burfi can be Laddoo
E. All Follows C. All Laddoo being Kulfi is not a possibility
D. Some Kheer being Kulfi is not a possibility
5) Statements E. None of the above
Page 3 of 77
Directions (9-10): In the following questions, the

7) Statements symbols #, @, $, %, &, ! and ^ are used with the
All Hero is Bajaj following meaning as illustrated below. In each of
Only a few Bajaj is Suzuki the questions given below statements are followed
Only Suzuki is Honda by some conclusions. You have to take the given
Some Suzuki is Jawa statements to be true even if they seem to be at
All Jawa is Royal Enfield variance from commonly known facts. Read the
Conclusions conclusions and then decide which of the given
A. Some Suzuki is Royal Enfield conclusions logically follows from the given
B. Some Hero being Honda is not a possibility statements, disregarding commonly known facts
C. All Hero can be Jawa A % B – All A are B.
D. No Honda is Royal Enfield A # B – Some A are B.
E. All of the above A & B – No A is B.
A ! B – Some A are not B.
8) Statements A @ B – Only a few B are A.
Only a few Chennai is Salem A $ B – Some A can never be B.
All Salem is Trichy ^– possibility case.
No Trichy is Theni Note: if ^ is placed after any of the symbols
All Theni is Coimbatore mentioned above then it will be considered as
Only Coimbatore is Madurai possibility case of the symbol. E.g. A %^ B means
Conclusions all A being B is a possibility.
A. Some Madurai is Theni 9) Statements:
B. No Coimbatore is Trichy Dumb # Bell !Buzzer % Sound; Ring @ Sound
C. All Coimbatore can be Chennai A. Sound # Bell
D. Some Trichy being Chennai is a possibility B. Dumb & Ring
E. None of the above C. Buzzer # Ring
D. Bell %^ Sound
E. Ring & Buzzer
Page 4 of 77
12) Statements
10) Statements: Only a few RRB is SSC
Steel # Metal; Charcoal @ Metal; Charcoal % All SSC is UPSC
Mining & Coal All UPSC is SBI
A. Mining #^ Metal No SBI is IBPS
B. Steel !Charcoal All IBPS is TNPSC
C. Charcoal $ Coal Only TNPSC is RBI
D. Metal %^ Coal Conclusions
E. Mining & Steel A. Some IBPS is RBI
B. All SBI can never be RRB
Directions (11-13): Read the conclusions and then C. Some RRB being UPSC is a possibility
decide which of the given conclusions logically D. No UPSC is IBPS
follows from the given statements, disregarding E. Some RBI being SSC is a possibility
commonly known facts.
11) Statements 13) Statements
Only a few Franc are Birr Only a few Red is Green
All Birr is Dollar All Green is Black
Some Dollar is Euro Only a few green is Blue
All Euro is Peso No Black is Yellow
No Peso is Yuan Some Yellow is Pink
Only Yuan is Riel Only Pink is White
Conclusions Conclusions
A. Some Dollar can be Peso A. Some white is yellow
B. Some Euro being Yuan is a possibility B. All green being Blue is a possibility
C. Some Franc is not a Riel C. All Red can be Green
D. No Birr is Euro D. Some yellow being Green is a possibility
E. None of the above E. All Blue can be Red
Page 5 of 77
Directions (14-15): Read the conclusions and then E. None of the above
decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements, disregarding
commonly known facts.
14) Statements Direction (16-20): Study the following information
Some Watch is Socks carefully and answer the question below.
All Socks are Tie Eight persons I, K, L, M, N, O, P and T live in a
Only a few Tie is Purse four storey building. Each floor has two flats which
Some Purse is Ring are flat 1 and flat 2. No two persons live in the
Only Ring is Cap same flat. Flat 1 is in the West of flat 2. The
Conclusions lowermost floor is numbered as 1 and the topmost
A. All ring is socks floor is numbered as 4.
B. Some Ring is not a Purse One floor is between N and T and both N and T’s
C. Some watch being tie is a possibility flat numbers are the same. M and P live on the
D. All Tie is Purse same floor. L lives immediately below P in the
E. None of the above same flat. L doesn’t live on the bottom-most floor.
K doesn’t live in the same flat as O lives. There is a
15) Statements gap of atmost one floor between O and I. I lives
Only a few hat is handbag above N. No one lives to the West of K. K doesn’t
All Handbag is Scarf live below O.
Some Scarf is Hairpin
No Hairpin is Gloves 16) Who among the following lives in Flat1 of 3rd-
All Gloves are Belt floor?
Conclusions A. T
A. All Belt is Hairpin B. L
B. Some Hat is not Scarf C. P
C. All Scarf being Hairpin is not a possibility D. N
D. Some Hat is not Handbag E. K
Page 6 of 77
B. K and P
17) How many persons live below I( including both C. M and O
flats)? D. L and N
A. 3 E. L and O
B. 4 Direction (21-25): Answer the questions based on
C. 1 the information given below.
D. 2 Twelve persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K
E. None of these and L are living in three flats viz. Flat 1, Flat 2 and
Flat 3 of a four-storey building, but not necessarily
18) Who among the following lives to the east of in the same order. Flat 2 lies to the west of Flat 3
N? and the east of Flat 1. The lowermost floor is
A. L numbered as 1 and the floor above is numbered as
B. O 2 and so on. Not more than one person lives in the
C. I same flat on the same floor.
D. M J lives on flat 2 of an even-numbered floor whereas
E. None of these B lives on an even-numbered floor and even-
numbered flat. L, who lives on an odd-numbered
19) Number of floors above P is the same as the floor, lives to the southwest of J and immediate
number of floors below ___? west of F. D lives two floors away from F but
A. N neither in the same flat with B nor L. E lives to the
B. I west of D and immediately below G in the same
C. K flat. Both C and I live on the same floor whereas
D. T both I and H live on the same flat but not adjacent
E. L to each other. A lives above K but not in the same
flat as J.
20)Who among the following lives in the same 21) Who among the following person lives
flats? immediately above H in the same flat?
A. T and I A. D
Page 7 of 77
B. I 25) In which of the following floor and flat does I

C. A live?
D. K A. Flat 3, floor 4
E. No such person B. Flat 2, floor 3
22) How many floors are there between C and D? C. Flat 1, floor 4
A. 1 D. Flat 2, floor 4
B. 2 E. Flat 3, floor 2
C. 3
D. Cannot be determined Direction (26-30): Answer the questions based on
Ten persons viz. Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z
23) In which of the following flat does K live? are staying in two flats viz. Flat 1 and Flat 2 of a
A. Flat 1 five storey building, but not necessarily in the same
B. Flat 2 order. The lowermost floor is numbered 1 and the
C. Flat 3 floor above is numbered 2 and so on. Flat 1 is to
D. Cannot be determined the west of Flat 2.
E. None of these W stays two floors below U but on different flats.
Neither U nor W stays at the topmost or
24) Four of the following five are alike in a certain bottommost floor. S stays immediately above W,
way and hence form a group. Find the one who on the same flat. Z stays to the east of T who stays
doesn’t belong to that group. four floors below R on the same flat. X stays on the
A. L same floor with U and is immediately above the
B. D floor on which Y stays. Q stays below V but on
C. E different flats.
D. A 26) Who among the following person stays on flat
E. J 1 of floor 2?
A. W
B. U
Page 8 of 77
C. X
D. Q 30) What is the position of R with respect to Q?
E. None of these A. North
B. North-east
27) How many persons stay between the floors of C. South
R and W (including both flats)? D. East
A. One E. North-west
B. Two
C. Three Direction (31-35): Study the following information
D. More than three carefully and answer the question below.
E. None There are nine persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and
X who live in a building having three floors such
28) In which of the following floor and flat does V that ground floor is numbered as 1 and floor
stay? immediately above ground floor is numbered as 2
A. Flat 1, floor 5 and so on. Each floor consists of three flats viz. F1,
B. Flat 2, floor 5, F2 and F3. F2 is in East of F1 and F3 is in East of
C. Flat 1, floor 4 F2. Only one person lives in each flat. All the
D. Flat 2, floor 4 information is not necessarily in the same order.
E. Flat 2, floor 2 T lives in an even numbered flat. Q lives
immediately below T in the same flat. W lives on
29) Four of the following five are alike in a certain the same floor on which Q lives. P lives one of the
way and hence form a group. Find the one who floors above T but not lives on the same floor and
doesn’t belong to that group. on the same flat as V, R and W.V lives towards
A. S west of R but doesn’t live on the ground floor. Both
B. X S and V live in the same flat. There is one floor
C. Z between S and U. X lives north-east of U.
D. W 31) Who lives immediately above R in the same
E. R flat?
Page 9 of 77
A. X C. One who lives immediate below V in the same

B. Person who lives west of P flat
C. W D. X
D. Person who lives immediate east of S E. W
E. Both(a) and (d)
35) Who among the following lives on flat 1 of
32) How many persons live between V and U in 2nd floor?
the same flat? A. The person who lives immediate east of Q
A. One B. P
B. Three C. The one who lives immediate above W in the
C. Two same flat
D. None D. Both (e) and (a) option
E. Four E. V
33) Who among the following lives on the same flat Direction (36-40): Answer the questions based on
as P lives? the information given below.
A. S Eight persons viz. Adhi, Deepa, Hari, Nila, priya,
B. W Ravi, Sara and Vedha were living in two different
C. V flats viz. Flat A and Flat B of a four storey building,
D. Q but not necessarily in the same order. The
E. U lowermost floor is numbered 1 and the floor above
is numbered 2 and so on. Flat A is to the west of
34) Four of the following five are related in a Flat B.
certain way and hence form a group. Find the one Adhi was living on floor 3 and immediately above
which doesn’t belong to that group? Hari in a different flat. Sara was living in flat B on
A. S floor 1 and two floors below Deepa. Only one floor
B. V is there between Priya and Nila who is living in the
Page 10 of 77
same flat along with Deepa. Ravi lives above B. Immediately above Sara on the same flat
Vedha in the same flat. C. Two floors below Adhi on different flat
36) In which of the following floor does Ravi lives? D. On the bottommost floor
A. 2 E. None of these
B. 4
C. 1 40) In which of the following floor and flat does
D. 3 Deepa lives?
E. Cannot be determined A. Floor 3, flat B
B. Floor 4, flat A
37) Who among the following person lives C. Floor 3, flat A
immediately above Sara in the same flat? D. Floor 4, flat B
A. Priya E. None of these
B. Deepa
C. Adhi Directions (41-45): Study the following information
D .Hari carefully and answer the questions given below it.
E. None of these Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are
living in a four floor building in such a way that
38) Which of the following statement is true with ground floor is numbered 1 and the top floor is
respect to the final arrangement? numbered 4. There are two flats represented as X
A. No floors are there above Priya and Y in each floor in a way that flat Y is in the east
B. Ravi and Nila doesn’t live on the same floor of flat X.
C. Vedha lives in the same flat as Priya A lives in an even numbered floor. There is only
D. Hari and Ravi live on the same floor one floor between A and F. C lives immediately
E. None of these above A. F and B lives on same floor. G and D
lives on same floor where G lives in flat X. E lives
39) Which of the following position is correct with in one of the floors below C. A,C,F all lives in same
respect to Priya? flat X.
A. On the same floor as Ravi
Page 11 of 77
41) Who among the following lives immediately B. C

below A in the same flat? C. H
A. C D. D
B. B E. E
C. G
D. E 45) How many persons live below C(including both
E. D flats)?
A. 1
42) How many persons live above H(including both B. 2
flats)? C. 3
A. 2 D. 5
B. 3 E. 4
C. 4
D. 1 Directions (46-50): Answer the questions based on
Ten persons viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are
43) Who among the following sits in Flat Y of Floor staying in two different flats viz. Flat A and Flat B of
1? a five storey building, but not necessarily in the
A. G same order. Flat A is to the west of Flat B. The
B. E lowermost floor is numbered 1 and the floor above
C. H is numbered 2 and so on.
D. D C stays on an odd numbered floor in Flat A and
E. F two floors above H but in different flats. There are
two floors between B and E who stays in Flat B of
44) Four of the following are alike in a certain way the topmost floor where both stay on the same flat.
to form a group. Which among the following does Both A and G stays on the same floor where G
not belong to the group? neither stay on the same flat with C nor below B.
A. B Only three floor are there between I and D who
Page 12 of 77
doesn’t stay on the same floor with E. J stays A. 1

above F. B. 2
46) Four of the following five are alike in a certain C. 3
way and hence form a group. Find the one that D. More than three
doesn’t belong to that group. E. None
A. C 50) What is the position of I with respect to B?
B. D A. Two floors above
C. G B. Immediately below
D. I C. Three floors above
E. F D. Immediately above
E. None of these
47) In which of the following floor and flat does J
stays? Directions (51-55): Answer the questions based on
A. Flat B, floor 3 the information given below.
B. Flat A, floor 2 Eight persons viz. M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are
C. Flat B, floor 1 staying in two different flats viz. Flat A and Flat B of
D. Flat A, floor 5 a four storey building, but not necessarily in the
E. Flat B, floor 4 same order. Flat A is to the west of Flat B. The
lowermost floor is numbered as 1 and the floor
48) Who among the following person stays on the above is numbered as 2 and so on.
topmost floor? S stays in Flat A of an even numbered floor and
A. H immediately above Q in the different flat. Only one
B. A floor is there between Q and R where both stay in
C. F the same flat. M stays on the same floor with Q
D. I and immediately below O. N stays on the same flat
E. None of these with P but not on the same floor with T who doesn’t
stay below O.
49) How many floors are there between A and H?
Page 13 of 77
51) Who among the following person stays on the C. Flat B, floor 1
topmost floor? D. Flat B, floor 4
A. N E. None of these
B. R
C. T 55) What is the position of P with respect to O?
D. M A. Two floors above
E. None of these B. Immediately below
C. Three floors above
52) How many floors are there between P and O? D. Immediately above
B. Two
C. Three Direction (56-60): Study the following information
D. More than three carefully and answer the below questions.
E. None Eight people are P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W living
in a building which has four floors numbered as 1
53) Four of the following five are alike in a certain to 4 from bottom to top. Each floor has two flat 1
way and hence form a group. Find the one that and flat 2, where flat 2 is to the east of flat 1. Only
doesn’t belong to that group. one person is living in each flat of the building but
A. N not necessarily in the same order.
B. M T lives on an even numbered floor but not in an
C. P even numbered flat. S lives two floors above U.
D. R Neither P nor W lives on the same floor. Q doesn’t
E. S live on the same floor of V. P lives northwest of U
who lives immediately below W. R lives one of the
54) In which of the following floor and flat does S floors above T. Only one person lives between T
stays? and V both are living on the same numbered flat.
A. Flat B, floor 3 56) Who among the following person lives in
B. Flat A, floor 2 4th floor?
Page 14 of 77
A. R A. Floor1, Flat1
B. The one who lives immediately above W B. Floor2, Flat1
C. P C. Floor3, Flat2
D. Q D. Floor4, Flat3
E. None of the above E. None of the above
57) Four of the following five are alike in a certain 60) Who among the following pair of persons lives
way and hence form a group. Who among the on the same floor?
following one does not belong to the group? A. P, R
A. V B. Q, S
B. P C. T, W
C. T D. V, U
D. Q E. None of the above
E. S
58) Which of the following statement(s) is/are true the information given below.
with respect to P? Ten persons P, Q, R, S, T, F, G, H, I, and J are
I). P lives west of S living on five floors (numbered 1 to 5) of a building.
II). P lives on an odd numbered floor There are two flats on each of the five floors i.e. flat
III). P lives on the same floor of T 1 and flat 2. Flat 1 is on the west of flat 2, where
A. Only I and III the bottommost floor is 1 and the floor above it is 2,
B. Only III and so on.
C. Only I and II T lives northeast of H, who lives three floors above
D. Only II G, both H and G live on the same number flat.
E. None of these Both S and F live on the same floor. J lives
southeast of S. I lives northwest of P, both live on
59) On which of the following floor and flat does Q adjacent floors. P doesn’t live on an odd-numbered
lives? floor. Q lives on one of the floors above R.
Page 15 of 77
61) Which among the following pair of persons D. 3

lives on the same floor? E. Both lives on the same floor
A. Q, R
B. G, J 64) Four of the following are alike and form a
C. H, P group, which among the following doesn’t form a
D. S, T group?
E. None of these A. H, T
B. Q, F
62) Who among the following lives on flat 2 of the C. I, P
floor no. 3? D. S, R
A. S E. S, J
B. F
C. T 65) Which among the following is not true with
D. J respect to Q?
E. None of these A. Q and S live on the same flat
B. I lives three floors above Q
63) How many floors gap is there between Q and C. S lives immediately below the floor on which Q
T? lives
A. 1 D. Both (a) and (b)
B. None E. Both (b) and (c)
C. 2

Directions (1-3):
1) Answer: B
Page 16 of 77
2) Answer: C
5) Answer: A
3) Answer: E
Directions (6-8):
6) Answer: C
Directions (4-5):
4) Answer: D
Page 17 of 77
7) Answer: E
8) Answer: E Directions(11-13):
11) Answer: C
Direction(9-10):
9) Answer: D
12) Answer: D
10) Answer: C
Page 18 of 77
13) Answer: E
Direction (16-20):
Directions (14-15):
14) Answer: B
One floor is between N and T and both N and T’s

flat numbers are same. Here we get four
possibilities:
15) Answer: D
Page 19 of 77
We cannot fix the position of I and O in case (1). So

this case is eliminated.
M and P live on the same floor. L lives immediately
K does not live in the same flat as O lives. I lives
below P in the same flat. L does not live on the
above N.
bottom-most floor.
We cannot fix the position of I above N in case (2)

Atmost one floor gap is between O’s floor and I’s
and position of O in case (4). So these cases are
floor. No one lives to the west of K. K doesn’t live
eliminated.
below O.
16) Answer: A
17) Answer: D
18) Answer: B
19) Answer: A
Page 20 of 77
20) Answer: E
Direction (21-25):
3. Both C and I live on the same floor whereas both

I and H live on the same flat but not adjacent to
each other. A lives above K but not in the same flat
1. J lives on flat 2 of an even-numbered floor
as J. Hence, case 1a and 2 get eliminated.
whereas B lives on an even-numbered floor
and even-numbered flat. L, who lives in an
odd- numbered floor, lives to the southwest
of J and immediate west of F.
2. D lives two floors away from F but neither in the

same flat with B nor L. E lives to the west of D and
immediately below G in the same flat.
Page 21 of 77

2. D lives two floors away from F but neither in the


Page 22 of 77
2. D lives two floors away from F but neither in the Direction (31-35):
T lives in an even numbered flat.

Q lives immediately below T in the same flat. Here
we get two possibilities.

W lives on the same floor on which Q lives.

P lives one of the floors above T but not lives on the
same floor and on the same flat as V,R and W.
V lives towards west of R, but does not live on the
ground floor.
Now case 1 has one more possibility.
21) Answer: C
22) Answer: B
23) Answer: B
24) Answer: E
25) Answer: A
Page 23 of 77
We cannot fix the position of P in case (2). So this 35) Answer: E

case is eliminated.
Both S and V live in the same flat. There is one Direction (36-40):
floor between S and U.
1. Adhi was living on floor 3 and immediately

X lives north-east of U. above Hari in a different flat. Sara was living
in flat B of floor 1 and two floors below
Deepa.
Case 1 shows the final arrangement.
2. Only one floor is there between Priya and Nila

who is living in the same flat along with Deepa. Ravi
lives above Vedha in the same flat. Hence, case 2
gets eliminated.
31) Answer: A
32) Answer: D
33) Answer: D
34) Answer: B
Page 24 of 77
36) Answer: B
C lives immediately above A. C lives in flat X. F
37) Answer: D
and B lives on same floor.
38) Answer: C
Here Case 2 gets eliminated.
39) Answer: E
40) Answer: A
Direction (41-45):
G and D lives on same floor where G lives in flat X.
A lives in an even numbered floor. There is only

one floor between A and F. A and F lives in flat X.
Here, we get two cases Case 1 and Case 2.
E lives in one of the floors below C.

So, the final arrangement is,
Page 25 of 77
41) Answer: C
42) Answer: A
3. Both A and G stays on the same floor where G
43) Answer: D
neither stay on the same flat with C nor below B.
44) Answer: B
4. Only three floors are there between I and D who
45) Answer: E
doesn’t stay on the same floor with E.
5. J stays above F.
Direction (46-50):
6. Hence, case 1 gets eliminated.
1. C stays on an odd numbered floor in Flat A and

two floors above H but in different flats.
46) Answer: C
2. There are two floors between B and E who stays
47) Answer: A
in Flat B of the topmost floor where both stay on
48) Answer: D
the same flat.
49) Answer: B
50) Answer: C
Page 26 of 77
Direction (51-55):
1) S stays in Flat A of an even numbered floor and

immediately above Q in the different flat. 51) Answer: C
2) Only one floor is there between Q and R where 52) Answer: A
both stay in the same flat. 53) Answer: D
54) Answer: B
55) Answer: A
Direction (56-60):
3) M stays on the same floor with Q and

immediately below O.
4) N stays on the same flat with P but not on the
same floor with T who doesn’t stay below O. Hence,
T lives on an even numbered floor but not in an
even numbered flat.
Only one person lives between T and V both are
living on the same numbered flat.
possibilities.
Page 27 of 77
P lives northwest of U who lives immediately below So Final arrangement becomes,

W.
Neither P nor W lives on the same floor.
56) Answer: A
57) Answer: E
S lives two floors above U. 58) Answer: C
Q doesn’t live on the same floor of V. 59) Answer: A
R lives one of the floors above T. 60) Answer: C
Case-1 gets eliminated because R lives above T.
Directions (61-65):
Page 28 of 77
• T lives northeast of H, who lives three floors • Q lives on one of the floors above R.
above G, both H and G live on the same • So, the final arrangement becomes:
number flat.
• Both S and F live on the same floor.
61) Answer: C
62) Answer: B
• J lives southeast of S.
63) Answer: C
• I lives northwest of P, both live on adjacent
64) Answer: D
floors.
65) Answer: C
• P doesn’t live on an odd-numbered floor.
Page 29 of 77
1. There are two vessels A and B has the mixture 3. Vessel has 100 liters pure milk. 10 liters of milk
of Sand and Soil. The ratio of Sand to Soil in the is taken out and replaced with 15 liters of water,
mixture of Vessel A is 5:3 and the ratio of Sand again 15 liters of mixture taken out and replaced
toSoil in the mixture of Vessel B is 2:3. If the with 20 liters of water and again 20 liters of solution
vessels A and B are mixed in the ratio of 8:5, then is taken out and replaced with 25 liters of water.
what is the percentage of the quantity of soil in the What is the final quantity of milk in the resultant
final mixture? solution (approximately)?
A.46.15% A.60
B.43.23% B.63
C.49.81% C.65
D.51.89% D.68
E.41.09% E.72
2. A container contains 320 liters acid. 80 liters of 4. In a mixture of wine and water, quantity of water
acid is taken from the container and replaced with is 20 L less than that of wine. When 20% mixture is
the same quantity of water. This process is taken out, quantity of water becomes 16 L less
repeated 2 more times, find the quantity of acid left than that of wine. Find the initial quantity of
in the container? mixture?
A.135 liters A.80
B.143 liters B.50
C.128 liters C.90
D.148 liters D.60
E.130 liters E. Cannot be determined
Page 30 of 77
5. A mixture of tea is sold at Rs. 9 per kg. This Water in the final mixture is 40% more than acid.
mixture is formed by mixing the tea of Rs. 5.4 per Find the initial quantity of acid?
kg and Rs. 8.9 per kg. Find the ratio of the cheaper A.60 liters
to costlier quality in the mixture if 20% of profit is B.56 liters
earned after selling the mixture? C.40 liters
A.2 : 3 D.80 liters
B.5 : 8 E.100 liters
C.4 : 7
D. 1 : 3 8. Jar A contains the mixture of milk and water in
E. None of these the ratio of 9:1 and Jar B contains 70% milk and
rest is water. In what ratio should Jar A mixed with
6. Total quantity of the mixture of oil and water in B to obtain a mixture with 75% milk?
vessel A and B together is 175 liters. The quantity A.2:3
of water in vessel B is 30 liters more than the B.1:2
quantity of water in vessel A. The ratio of amount C.2:1
of oil to water in vessel B is 1:3 and the quantity of D.1:3
oil in vessel A is 30 liters. What is the ratio of the E.5:1
quantity of mixture of A to B?
A.1:2 9. Ratio of kerosene to diesel in mixture A and
B.2:3 mixture B is x: 1 and 2: 3, respectively. When both
C.4:5 the mixtures are mixed together in the ratio of 12:
D.3:4 5, ratio of kerosene and diesel becomes 10: 7 in
E. None of these the final mixture, then find the value of ‘x’?
A.5
7. Vessel contains the mixture of acid and water in B.3
the ratio of 4:3. If 91 liters of mixture is taken out C.1
and 22 liters of acid and 49 liters of water is added D.4
into the remaining mixture, then the quantity of E.2
Page 31 of 77
and the rest is zinc. Find the ratio of silver and zinc
10. Two vessels X and Y have mixture of different into the mixture of these two metals?
liquids. In vessel X three liquids P, Q and R is A. 12 : 23
mixed in the ratio of 3 : 1 : 1 and in vessel Y two B. 5 : 9
liquids Q and R is mixed in ratio of 4 : 5. If mixture C. 11 : 8
of both vessels X and Y is poured into third vessel D. 7 : 26
Z which have quantity of P, Q and R in ratio 9 : 19 : E. None of these
23. Then find the quantity in X is how much 13. 80 litre of orange juice contain milk and orange
percentage more or less than in Y? juice. From this container, 18 litre of milk was taken
A.34 3/7% out and replaced by water. This process was again
B.55 1/2 % repeated several times. Then find how much of
C.58 1/3% milk is now contained by the container?
D.33 1/3% A.28.50 litre
E. None of these B.32.25 litre
C.35.70 litre
11. A 72 litres solution containing liquids of milk D.23.74 litre
and water in the ratio of 7 : 5 respectively. Find E. Cannot be determined
how much amount of milk is to be added in the
solution so that the amount of milk is 75% of the 14. Vessel contains 200 liters mixture of milk and
newly formed solution? water and contains 60% milk. If x liters of water
A.52 litre added to the mixture such that the ratio of milk to
B.32 litre water in the final mixture becomes 4:5, find the
C.48 litre value of x?
D.36 litre A.50
C.80
12. 5 kg of a metal contains 1/6 of silver and rest is D.70
zinc. Another 6 kg of metal contains 1/4 of silver E.100
Page 32 of 77
D.18.25%
15. A Jar contains 80 liters acid and 40 liters water. E.20.05%
If 36 liters of mixture is taken out and replaced with
water, then what is the ratio of the acid and water 17. If average number of employees in C all the
in the final solution? departments is 120, then find the total number of
A.4:5 HR employees in C?
B.6:7 A.60
C.7:8 B.80
D.8:9 C.50
E. None of these D.90
E.70
Directions (16-20):
Study the following information carefully and 18. If the total number of Sales employees in all
answer the questions given below. the companies together is 570, then find the
The given table shows the number of employees number of sales employees in D?
working three different departments in five different A.120
companies.(some data is missing) B.150
C.180
D.200
E.240
16. If the average number of IT employees in all

19. Total number of employees in D and E is 450
the companies together is 114, then the number of
and 320 respectively, then what is the difference
IT employees in B what percent of the number of
between the number of HR employees in E and the
IT employees in D?
number of Sales employees in D?
A.12.23%
A.50
B.14.28%
B.60
C.16.67%
C.70
Page 33 of 77
D.80 lakhs more than pens sold by the same company

E.90 in 2013, then find the number of pens produced by
company N in 2014?
20. Total number of employees in C is 400. The A.730 lakhs
number of HR employees in C is what percent of B.400 lakhs
the number of IT employees in D? C.855 lakhs
A.72% D.615 lakhs
B.75% E.550 lakhs
C.78%
D.80% 22. If the ratio of the number of pens sold by
E.84% company M in 2015 to that in 2016 is 8: 17, then
find the percentage of pens were sold by company
Directions (21-25): Study the following information M in 2016?
carefully and answer the given questions. A.18 %
The following table shows the number of pens (In B.22.5 %
lakhs) produced and sold by three different C.25 %
companies in 5 different years. D.30.5 %
E.35 %
23. If company O produced ‘x’ number of pens in

2013 and ‘x + 200’ number of pens in 2015 and the
total number of pens sold by company O in these
years is 630 lakhs, then find the number of pens
were sold by O in 2015?
A.200 lakhs
21. If the total number of pens sold by company M
B.250 lakhs
and N in the year 2013 is 400 lakhs and the
C.480 lakhs
number of pens sold by company N in 2014 is 200
D.300 lakhs
Page 34 of 77
E.350 lakhs The following table shows the total no. of students
passed out from a college in five different years

24. Company N has produced 900 lakhs pens in
and the percentage of students in three different
2016 and the number of pens sold by the same
departments. (Some data are missing)
company in 2013 is 10 % more than number of
pens sold by the company in 2016, then find
number of pens produced by the same company in
2014 if the number of pens sold by company N in
2013 and 2014 is in the ratio of 9 : 8?
A.200 lakhs
B.400 lakhs
C.480 lakhs
D.660 lakhs
E.350 lakhs
26. In 2016 the no. of passed out students from
CSE is 180 more than the no. of passed
25. If the average number of pens sold by
out students from CIVIL. Find the no. of passed out
company M in 2012, 2013 and 2014 are 200 lakhs,
from civil in 2019 is what percent of the total
then the production of company M in 2014 is what
students passed out in 2016?
percentage of the total production of company N in
A.24%
2015?
B.54%
A.90 %
C.57%
B.80 %
D.50%
C.75 %
E.75%
D.65 %
E.55 %
27. The ratio of no. of students passed out from
CSE in 2015 and the no.of students passed out
carefully and answer the given questions.
Page 35 of 77
from IT in 2017 is 16:15.Find the no. of students E.2450

passed out from CIVIL in 2015?
A.213 30. In 2014 the no. of students passed out from
B.255 CIVIL was 60 more than the no. of students
C.273 passed out from CIVIL in 2019.If the percentage of
D.210 students passed out from CIVIL in 2014 is 40% of
E.200 total students passed out in that year and the no.
of students passed out from CSE is 50% more
28. The no. of students passed out in 2016 is than the no. of students passed out from IT in 2014
2/3rd of the no. of students passed out in 2018. The then find what percent of students passed out from
difference between the no. of students passed out IT in 2014?
from CIVIL in 2018 and the no. of students passed A.19%
out from IT in 2016 is 63. Find the sum of the no. of B.23%
students passed out from CSE in 2016 and the no. C.25%
of students passed out from IT in 2018? D.24%
B.332
C.442 Directions (31-35): Study the following information
D.552 carefully and answer the questions given below.
E.662 The given table shows the number of employees in
five different departments in six different
29. If the total number of students passed out from companies – A, B, C, D, E and F.
2015-2019 is 6250. Find the average number of
students from 2016, 2018 and 2017?
A.1150
B.2250
C.1350
D.2350
Page 36 of 77
B.70%
C.85%
D.68%
E.75%
33. If the number of Sales employees in F is 120

and the average number of employees in F is 120,
31. Total number of IT employees in all the then find the number of Finance employees in F.
companies together is 520 and the total number of A.120
Finance employees in all the companies together B.130
is 540. If the ratio of number of Finance employees C.140
in F to the number of marketing employees in D is D.150
3:4 and the number of Finance employees in F is E.None of these
25% less than the number of IT employees in A,
then what is the difference between sum of the 34. If the total number of Finance employees in all
number of IT employees in C and E together and the companies together is 450 and the number of
sum of the number of Finance employees in B and IT employees in B is equal to the number of
D together? Finance employees in F, then find the number of
A.78 Finance employees in D.
B.70 A.30
C.60 B.70
D.72 C.20
E.75 D.15
32. The number of Sales employees in A and E
together is what percent of the number of HR 35. The number of IT employees in D is
employee in D? approximately what percent more than that of the
A.80% number of marketing employees in E?
Page 37 of 77
A.23% E.510
B.37%
C.33% 39. 18% of 400 + (20% of 75) * (15% of 80) – 9%
D.27% of 900= ?
E.42 A.169
B.171
Directions (36-45): What value should come in the C.178
place of (?) in the following questions. D.185
36. 551 ÷ √361+ ?2 = 23 * 34 - √576 E.197
A.18
B.23 40. 145% of 240 - 85% of 320 + √4225 * 4 =?
C.27 A.336
D.34 B.342
E.38 C.346
D.328
37. 3√(32751+ 2√(223+ √4356))= ? * 3√(512) E.312
A.17
B.1 41. (5/9) * 369 + 3/37 * 777 = ? + 4/11 * 187
C.4 A.180
D.13 B.200
E.7 C.220
D.160
38. 56% of 1200 – (43 * 6)/√144 – 125% of (720/5) E.240
=?
A.440 42. (689625/25)*4-2684+5473=?
B.460 A.147579
C.480 B.114694
D.490 C.165789
Page 38 of 77
D.113129 B.143
E.113265 C.183
D.193
43. √1849+ (13824)1/3-(4096)1/4+212=?*5 E.153
A.620
B.350 47. 815, 572, 491, 464, 455,?
C.100 A.484
D.360 B.642
E.390 C.246
D.452
44. (?/56)*1960=3429-874 E.532
A.63
B.73 48. ?, 8, 20, 40, 70
C.79 A.2
D.74 B.3
E.84 C.4
D.1
45. (256)-1/4+(1/64)-5/6+(81)3/4=? E.5
A.46.25
B.35.25 49. 21, 30, 57, ?, 165, 246
C.59.25 A.106
D.53.55 B.102
E.73.75 C.116
D.114
Directions (46-55): What will come in place of E.110
question-mark (?) in the following question?
46. 23, 33, 63, 113, ?, 273 50. 5, 11, 22, 38, 59, 85, ?
A.163 A.116
Page 39 of 77
B.156 B.368
C.584 C.350
D.265 D.348
E.None E.321
51. 456, 228, 342, 855, ? , 55. 1, 7, 42, 210, 840, ?

A.2552.5 A.2510
B.3688.5 B.2520
C.2442.5 C.2530
D.2992.5 D.2540
E.4274.5 E.2560
52. 6, 10, 12, 12, 10, ? Directions (56-70): In each of the following
A.12 questions, two equations are given. You have to
B.16 solve both the equations to find the relation
C.10 between x and y.
D.6 56.
E.8 I) x2+ 21x – 196=0
II) y2- 17y+ 72 =0
53. 406, 626, 896, 1216, 1586, ? A. x > y
A. 2006 B. x ≥ y
C. 2046 D. x < y
D.1956 E. x ≤ y
E. 1996
57.
54. 895, 623, 487, 419, 385, ? I) x2- 19x – 92=0
A.370 II) y2+ 13y + 36 =0
Page 40 of 77
A. x > y B. If x > y
B. x ≥ y C. If x ≤ y
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined. D. If x ≥ y
D. x < y E. If relationship between x and y cannot be
E. x ≤ y determined
58. 61.
I) x2- 33x+ 272 =0 I: x2 - 8x - 48 = 0
II) y2- 40y+ 399 =0 II: y2 - 28y + 192 = 0
A. x > y A. If x < y
B. x ≥ y B. If x > y
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined. C. If x ≤ y
D. x < y D. If x ≥ y
E. x ≤ y E. If relationship between x and y cannot be
determined
59.
I) x2 – 23x + 130 = 0 62.
II) y2 – 27y + 182 = 0 I) 2 * x! = (x + 1)!
A. x > y II) 2 * (y – 1)! = (y + 1)!
B. x ≥ y A. x > y
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined B. x ≥ y
D. x < y C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined
E. x ≤ y D. x < y
E. x ≤ y
60.
I: x2 - 23x + 102 = 0 63.
II: y2 +y - 30 = 0 I) (x + 2)! = 6 * x!
A. If x < y II) (y - 1) * (y – 2) = 0
Page 41 of 77
A. x > y A. If x < y
B. x ≥ y B. If x > y
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined C. If x ≤ y
D. x < y D. If x ≥ y
E. x ≤ y E. If relationship between x and y cannot be
determined
64.
I: x2- 33x + 270 = 0 67.
II: y2 - 43y + 450 = 0 I: x2+ 22x + 105 = 0
A. If x < y II: y2 +27y + 180 = 0
B. If x > y A. If x < y
C. If x ≤ y B. If x > y
D. If x ≥ y C. If x ≤ y
E. If relationship between x and y cannot be D. If x ≥ y
determined E. If relationship between x and y cannot be
determined
65.
I) x2+ 31x + 228 = 0 68.
II) y2+ 3y – 108 = 0 I: x2 + 5x -14 = 0
A. x > y II: 4y2 - 23y + 30 = 0
B. x ≥ y A. If x < y
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined. B. If x > y
D. x < y C. If x ≤ y
E. x ≤ y D. If x ≥ y
E. If relationship between x and y cannot be
66. determined
I: x2 - 33x + 242 = 0
II: y2 - 4y - 77 = 0 69.
Page 42 of 77
I: x2 - 7x - 60 = 0 70.
II: y2 - 32y + 240 = 0 I) 3x2 + 39x + 126 = 0
A. If x < y II) 2y2 + 26y + 84 = 0
B. If x > y A.X > y
C. If x ≤ y B. x ≥ y
D. If x ≥ y C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
E. If relationship between x and y cannot be D.X < y
determined E. x ≤ y

1. Answer: A = 135 liters
3. Answer: B
Final quantity of milk = 100 * (1 – 10/100) * (1 –
15/105) * (1 – 20/110)
(2/5 – x)/(x – 5/8) = 8/5 = 63 liters (approx)
8x – 5 = 2 – 5x
x = 7/13 4. Answer: E
Soil in final mixture = 6/13 Let initial quantity of wine in the mixture = ‘x’ L
Required percentage = 6/13 * 100 = 46.15% So, initial quantity of water in the mixture = (x – 20)
L
2. Answer: A After taking out 20% mixture:
Required quantity of acid = 320 * (1 – 80/320)3
Page 43 of 77
New quantity of wine in the mixture = x – 20% of x = Quantity of water in vessel B = x + 30

(4x/5) L Oil in vessel A = 30 liters
And new quantity of water in the mixture = (x – 20) Quantity of oil in vessel B = 175 – (30 + x + x + 30)
– 20% of (x – 20) = [(4x – 80)/5] L = 115 – 2x
From the question: (115 – 2x)/(x + 30) = 1/3
(4x/5) – (4x – 80)/5 = 16 x + 30 = 345 – 6x
(4x – 4x + 80)/5 = 16 7x = 315
16 = 16 x = 45
Hence, we cannot determine the initial quantity of Quantity of oil in vessel B = 115 – 90 = 25
mixture. Quantity of water in vessel B = 3/1 * 25 = 75
Required ratio = (30 + 45):(25 + 75)
5. Answer: A = 75:100
Let the cost price of the mixture is = Rs. x per kg = 3:4
So, selling price of mixture = x + (x × 20)/100 = 9
= (5x + x)/5 = 9 7. Answer: D
= 6x/5 = 9 Acid in 91 liters = 91 * 4/7 = 52 liters
= x = Rs. 7.5per kg Water in 91 liters = 91 * 3/7 = 39 liters
Now, using Alligation method. (4x – 52 + 22)/(3x – 39 + 49) = 100/140
15x + 50 = 28x – 210
260 = 13x
x = 20
Initial quantity of acid = 20 * 4 = 80 liters
8. Answer: D
So, the required ratio is = 14 : 21 => 2 : 3
6. Answer: D
Quantity of water in vessel A = x
Page 44 of 77
3x : x + 4y : x + 5y = 9 : 19 : 23
Now, solving we get,
3x = 9
x=3
And x + 4y = 19
4y = 19 – 3= y = 4
So, quantity in vessel X is = (3 + 1 + 1) × 3 = 15 unit
9. Answer: E And quantity in vessel Y is = (4 + 5) × 4 = 36 unit
By the alligation: So, the required percentage is = (36 – 15)/36 × 100
x/ (x + 1) 2/5 => 58 1/3%
10/17
12 5 11. Answer: C
Amount of milk in the solution = 72 × 7/12 = 42 litre
Amount of water in the solution = 72 × 5/12 = 30
litre
Let the milk to be added is = x litres
So, milk is to be 75% of new solution, so water is to
be 25% of new solution.
So, 25% of new solution = Water in the solution
(7x – 10)/(4x + 4)=1/3
Then, according to the question,
21x – 30 = 4x + 4
=> (72 + x) × 25/100 = 30
x=2
=> 72 + x = 120
=> x = 48 litre
10. Answer: C
Let in X, quantity of P, Q and R is 3x, x and x
12. Answer: D
respectively.
Silver in 5 kg of metal is = 5 × 1/6 = 5/6
And in Y, quantity of Q and R is = 4y and 5y
And Zinc in 5 kg of metal is = 5 × 5/6 = 25/6
respectively.
Similarly,
Page 45 of 77
Silver in 6 kg of metal is = 6 × 1/4 = 3/2 Acid in 36 liters = 2/3 * 36 = 24 liters

And Zinc in 6 kg of metal is = 6 × 3/4 = 9/2 Water in 36 liters = 1/3 * 36 = 12 liters
So, the Silver in the mixture is = 5/6 + 3/2 Required ratio = 80 – 24:40 – 12 + 36
= (5 + 9)/6 = 14/6 = 56:64
= 7/3 = 7:8
And the Zinc in the mixture is = 25/6 + 9/2 Directions (16-20):
= (25 + 27)/6 = 52/6 16. Answer: C
= 26/3 Total number of IT employees = 114 * 5 = 570
So, the required ratio is = 7/3 : 26/3 = 7 : 26 Number of IT employees in B = 570 – (120 + 150 +
180 + 90)
13. Answer: E = 570 - 540
As the data regarding the number of times of = 30
repetition is not given. Required percentage = 30/180 * 100
So, we cannot find the solution of this question. = 16.67%
Hence, the required answer is = Cannot be
determined. 17. Answer: D
Total employees in C = 120 * 3 = 360
14. Answer: D Number of HR employees in C = 360 – 150 – 120
Milk in 200 liters = 60/100 * 200 = 120 = 90
Water in 200 liters = 40/100 * 200 = 80
120/(80 + x)= 4/5 18. Answer: B
150 = 80 + x Number of sales employees in D = 570 – (60 + 90 +
x = 70 120 + 150)
= 570 - 420
15. Answer: C = 150
Acid = 80 liters
Water = 40 liters 19. Answer: C
Ratio of acid and water = 80:40 = 2:1
Page 46 of 77
Number of HR employees in E = 320 – (90 + 150) =

80 23. Answer: C
Number of Sales employees in D = 450 – (180 + = > x*15/100 + (x+200)*40/100 = 630
120) = 150 = > 15x/100 + 40x/100 + 80 = 630
Difference = 150 – 80 = 70 = > (15x+ 40x)/100 = 630 - 80
= > 55x = 550*100
20. Answer: A = > x = 1000 lakhs
Number of HR employees in C = 400 – (150 + 120) Number of pens sold in 2015 =
= 130 (1000+200)*(40/100) = 480 lakhs
Required percentage = 130/180 * 100
= 72% 24. Answer: D
Number of pens sold by company N in 2016 =
Directions (21-30): 900*(30/100) = 270 lakhs
21. Answer: C Number of pens sold by company N in 2013 =
Number of pen sold by company N in 2013 270*(110/100) = 297 lakhs
= > 400 – 600*(43/100) Number of pens sold by company N in 2014 =
= > 400 – 258 = 142 lakhs 297*8/9 = 264 lakhs
Number of pen sold company N in 2014 = 142 + Number of pens produced by company N in 2014
200 = 342 lakhs = > 264*(100/40) = 660 lakhs
Number of pen produced by company N in 2014
= > 342*100/40 = 855 lakhs 25. Answer: B
Total pens sold by company M in 2012, 2013 and
22. Answer: B 2014 together
Number of pens sold by company M in 2015 = > 200*3= 600 lakhs
= > 480*15/100= 72 lakhs Number of pens sold by company M in 2014
Number of pens sold by company M in 2016 = > 600 – [(60/100)*450 + (43/100)*600]
= > 72*17/8 = 153 lakhs = > 600 – 270 – 258 = 72 lakhs
Required percentage = (153/680)*100 = 22.5 %
Page 47 of 77
Number of pens produced by company M in 2014 = The no. of students passed out from CIVIL in 2018
72*(100/20) = 360 lakhs = x*27/100
Required percentage = (360/450)*100 = 80% The no. of students passed out from IT in 2016 =
(2x/3)*30/100=20x/100
26. Answer: D = > 27x/100-20x/100=63
The percentage of students passed out from CSE = >x=900
and CIVIL is 50% and 20% respectively. The no. of students passed out from CSE in 2016 =
= > 30% = 180 (2/3*900)*50/100=300
= > 100% = 600 The no. of students passed out from IT in 2018 =
The no. of students passed out from CIVIL in 2019 900*28/100=252
= 30*1000/100=300 Required answer = 300+252=552
Required answer = 300*100/600=50%
29. Answer: A
27. Answer: E The total number of students passed out from 2015-
The no. of students passed out from IT in 2017 = 2019 is 6250
1200*25/100=300 The total number of students passed out from 2016
The no. of students passed out from CSE in 2015 = and 2018 = 6250 – 3000 =2250
300*16/15=320 Average number of students from 2016, 2018 and
The no. of students passed out from CSE and 2019 = (2250 + 1200)/3 = 1150
CIVIL together in 2015
= 800*65/100=520 30. Answer: D
The no. of students passed out from Civil in 2015 The no. of students passed out from CIVIL in 2019=
=520-320=200 1000*30/100=300
The no. of students passed out from CIVIL in 2014
28. Answer: D = 300+60=360
Let the no. of students passed out in 2018 = x = > 40% = 360
so, the no. of students passed out in 2016 = 2x/3 = > 100% = 900
Page 48 of 77
The ratio of the no. of students passed out from 34. Answer: E
CSE and IT in 2014 = 3:2 We don’t know the value of finance in B
The total no. of students passed out from CSE and
IT = 900-360=540 35. Answer: C
= >5’s = 540 Required percentage=[(160–
= > 2’s=216 120)/120]*100=33.33%
Required answer = 216*100/900=24%
Directions (36-45):
Directions (31-35): 36. Answer: C
31. Answer: B 551 ÷ √361 + ?2 = 23 * 34 - √576
Total number of IT employee = 520 29 + ?2 = 782 - 24
Number of Finance employee = 540 ?= 27
Number of Finance employees in F = 3/4 * 80 = 60
Number of IT employees in A = 100/75 * 60 = 80 37. Answer: C
Number of IT employees in C and E = 520 – (80 +
40 + 160 + 50) = 190
Number of Finance employees in B and D = 540 –
(180 + 120 + 60 + 60) = 120
Difference = 190 – 120 = 70
32. Answer: A
Required percentage= (20+100)/150*100=80%
33. Answer: D 38. Answer: B

Total number of employees in F= 120 * 5 = 600 56% of 1200 – (43 * 6)/√144 – 125% of (720/5) = ?
Finance employees in F=600- 672 – 32 – 180 = ?
(180+50+120+100)=150 ? = 460
Page 49 of 77
39. Answer: B
18% of 400 + (20% of 75) * (15% of 80) – 9% of 45. Answer: C
900 = ? (1/256)1/4+(64)5/6+(3)3=?
72 + 180 – 81 = ? 0.25+32+27=?
171 = ? ?=59.25
40. Answer: A Directions (46-55):

145% of 240 - 85% of 320 + √4225 * 4 =? 46. Answer: C
348 - 272 + 260=? 23 + 10 = 33
? = 336 33 + 30 = 63
63 + 50 = 113
41. Answer: B 113 + 70 = 183
(5/9) * 369 + 3/37 * 777 = ? + 4/11 * 187 183 + 90 = 273
205 + 63 = ? + 68
? = 200 47. Answer: D
Difference: -243, -81, -27, -9, -3
42. Answer: D
27585*4-2684+5473=? 48. Answer: A
113129=? 2+2*3=8
8 + 3 * 4 = 20
43. Answer: C 20 + 4 * 5 = 40
43+24-8+441=?*5 40 + 5 * 6 = 70
100=? (or)
44. Answer: B
(?/56)*1960=2555
?*35=2555
?=73
Page 50 of 77
49. Answer: B
21 + (1 * 9) = 30
30 + (3 * 9) = 57
57 + (5 * 9) = 102
102 + (7 * 9) = 165
165 + (9 * 9) = 246
54. Answer: B
895 623 487 419 385 368
50. Answer: A
272 136 68 34 17
Difference: 5+1, 10+1, 15+1, 20+1…
(÷2) (÷2) (÷2) (÷2) (÷2)
The answer is 116
55. Answer: B
51. Answer: D
1*7 = 7
456 * (1/2) = 228
7 * 6 = 42
228 * (3/2) = 342
42 * 5 = 210
342 * (5/2) = 855
210 * 4 = 840
855 * (7/2) = 2992.5
840 * 3 = 2520
52. Answer: D
Directions (56-70):
12 * 0.5 = 6
56. Answer: D
10 * 1 = 10
x2+ 21x – 196 = 0
8 * 1.5 = 12
x2+ 28x - 7x – 196=0
6 * 2 = 12
x(x + 28) - 7(x + 28)=0
4 * 2.5 = 10
(x - 7)(x + 28)=0
2*3=6
x =7, -28
y2 - 17y + 72 = 0
53. Answer: A
y2-8y – 9y+ 72 =0
y(y-8)- 9(y-8)=0
(y - 8)(y- 9)=0
Page 51 of 77
y =8, 9
x<y 59. Answer: E
x2 – 23x + 130 = 0
57. Answer: B x2 – 13x – 10x + 130 = 0
x2- 19x – 92 = 0 x(x – 13) – 10(x – 13) = 0
x2- 23x + 4x – 92=0 (x – 10)(x – 13) = 0
x(x – 23) + 4(x – 23) = 0 x = 10, 13
(x + 4)(x – 23) = 0 y2 – 27y + 182 = 0
x = -4, 23 y2 – 13y – 14y + 182 = 0
y2 + 13y + 36 = 0 y(y – 13) – 14(y – 13) =0
y2 + 9y + 4y + 36 = 0 (y – 14)(y – 13) = 0
y(y + 9) + 4(y + 9) = 0 y = 14, 13
(y + 4)(y + 9) = 0 x≤y
y = -4, -9
x≥y 60. Answer: B
From I =>x2 - 23x + 102 = 0
58. Answer: D =>x2 - 17x - 6x + 102 = 0
x2- 33x + 272 = 0 =>x(x – 17) -6(x – 17) = 0
x2– 17x – 16x + 272 = 0 => (x – 6) (x – 17) = 0
x(x – 17) – 16(x – 17) = 0 => x = 6, 17
(x – 16)(x – 17) = 0 From II =>y2 + y - 30 = 0
x = 16, 17 =>y2 + 6y – 5y - 30 = 0
y2 - 40y + 399 = 0 =>y(y + 6) - 5(y – 5) = 0
y2 – 21y – 19y + 399 = 0 => (y + 6) (y – 5) = 0
y(y – 21) – 19(y – 21) = 0 => y = -6, 5
(y – 19)(y – 21) = 0 Hence, x > y
y = 19, 21
x<y 61. Answer: C
Page 52 of 77
From I =>x2 - 8x - 48 = 0 (x + 2)! = 6 * (x)!

=>x2 - 12x + 4x - 48 = 0 (x + 2) * (x + 1) * x! = 6 * x!
=>x(x – 12) + 4(x - 12) = 0 x2 + 2x + x + 2 = 6
=> (x – 12) (x + 4) = 0 x2 + 3x – 4 = 0
=> x = 12, -4 x2 + 4x - x – 4 = 0
From II =>y2 - 28y + 192 = 0 x(x + 4) - 1(x + 4) = 0
=> y2 - 12y – 16y + 192 = 0 (x – 1)(x + 4) = 0
=>y(y – 12) - 16(y – 12) = 0 x = 1, -4
=> (y – 12) (y – 16) = 0 (y – 1) * (y – 2) = 0
=> y = 12, 16 y2 – 2y – y + 2 = 0
Hence, x ≤ y y(y – 2) – 1(y – 2) = 0
y = 1, 2
62. Answer: B x≤y
2 * x! = (x + 1)!
2 * x! = (x + 1) * x! 64. Answer: C
x+1=2 From I =>x2 - 33x + 270 = 0
x=1 =>x2 - 15x – 18x + 270 = 0
2 * (y – 1)! = (y + 1)! =>x(x – 15) - 18(x – 15) = 0
2 * (y – 1)! = (y + 1) * y * (y – 1)! => (x – 15) (x – 18) = 0
2 = y2 + y => x = 15, 18
y2 + y – 2 = 0 From II =>y2 - 43y + 450 = 0
y2 + 2y – y – 2 = 0 =>y2 - 25y – 18y + 450 = 0
y(y + 2) – 1(y + 2) = 0 => y(y – 25) - 18(y – 25) = 0
(y – 1)(y + 2) = 0 => (y – 25) (y – 18) = 0
y = 1, -2 => y = 25, 18
x≥y Hence, x ≤ y
Page 53 of 77
x2 + 31x + 228 = 0 =>x(x + 15) +7(x + 15) = 0

x2 + 19x + 12x + 228 = 0 => (x + 7) (x + 15) = 0
x(x + 19) + 12(x + 19) = 0 => x = -7, -15
(x + 12)(x + 19) = 0 From II =>y2 + 27y + 180 = 0
x = -12, -19 =>y2 + 15y +12y + 180 = 0
y2 + 3y – 108 = 0 =>y(y + 15) +12(y + 15) = 0
y2 + 12y – 9y – 108 = 0 => (y + 12) (y + 15) = 0
y(y + 12) – 9(y + 12) = 0 => y = -12, -15
(y – 9)(y + 12) = 0 Hence, relationship between x and y cannot be
y = 9, -12 determined
x≤y
68. Answer: C
66. Answer: D From I =>x2 + 5x - 14 = 0
From I =>x2 - 33x + 242 = 0 =>x2 + 7x - 2x - 14 = 0
=>x2 - 22x - 11x + 242 = 0 =>x(x + 7) -2(x + 7) = 0
=>x(x – 22) -11(x – 22) = 0 => (x + 7) (x – 2) = 0
=> (x – 11) (x – 22) = 0 => x = -7, 2
=> x = 11, 22 From II =>4y2 - 23y + 30 = 0
From II =>y2 - 4y - 77 = 0 =>4y2 - 15y – 8y + 30 = 0
=>y2 – 11y + 7y - 77 = 0 =>y(4y – 15) - 2(4y – 15) = 0
=>y(y - 11) +7(y – 11) = 0 => (4y – 15) (y – 2) = 0
=> (y + 7) (y – 11) = 0 => y = 15/4, 2
=> y = -7, 11 Hence, x ≤ y
Hence, x ≥ y
69. Answer: C
67. Answer: E From I =>x2 - 7x - 60 = 0
From I =>x2 + 22x + 105 = 0 =>x2 - 12x + 5x - 60 = 0
=>x2 + 15x +7x + 105 = 0 =>x(x – 12) + 5(x - 12) = 0
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=> (x – 12) (x + 5) = 0 (3x + 21)(x + 6) = 0

=> x = 12, -5 x = -7, -6
From II =>y2 - 32y + 240 = 0 2y2 + 26y + 84 = 0
=>y2 - 20y -12y + 240 = 0 2y2 + 12y + 14y + 84 = 0
=>y(y – 20) -12(y – 20) = 0 2y(y + 6) + 14(y + 6) = 0
=> (y – 20) (y – 12) = 0 (2y + 14)(y + 6) = 0
=> y = 20, 12 y = -6, -7
Hence, x ≤ y Relationship between x and y cannot be
established.
70. Answer: C
3x2 + 39x + 126 = 0
3x2 + 18x + 21x + 126 = 0
3x(x + 6) + 21(x + 6) = 0
English Language
Directions (1-5): In the following passage, some of imperialism were thrown up in the course of the
the words have been left out, each of which is movement. On these ……… (2)……the Congress
indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from was able to mobilize vast masses of people
the options given against each number and fill up against colonialism. Sadly, the party has forgotten
the blanks with appropriate words to make the its legacy. We need a national party to provide
paragraph meaningfully complete. substantive opposition to the government. The
The Indian National Congress has, in the past, Congress flounders, it is ……… (3)…….All is not
been more inventive because its ideology lost. Moments of crisis can lead to reinvention. The
was ……(1)………in the heat of the freedom party must reinvent itself, simply because it is
struggle. Pluralism, secularism, tolerance, synonymous with the history of our freedom
citizenship, fundamental and minority rights, struggle, and with ……. (4) ……leaders such as
cosmopolitanism, non-violence and anti- Jawaharlal Nehru. Remember that Nehru’s vision
Page 55 of 77
inspired great literature, poetry, films, art, theatre, D. Precarious

and architecture. What do we have today except E. None of these
mediocre hagiography? A ruling class which
cannot inspire cultural creativity can only rule 4. The party must reinvent itself, simply because it
by …….. (5) ……. In modern politics, this is is synonymous with the history of our freedom
counted as a failure. struggle and with ……leaders such as Jawaharlal
1. The Indian National Congress has, in the past, Nehru.
been more inventive because its ideology A. Bottlenecked
was ……in the heat of the freedom struggle. B. Enlightened
A. Exodus C. Saddled
B. Dissemble D. Ballooned
C. Forged E. None of these
D. Petulant
E. None of these 5. A ruling class which cannot inspire cultural
creativity can only rule by …….
2. On these …….. ……the Congress was able to A. Coercion
mobilise vast masses of people against B. Retribution
colonialism. C. Unadorned
A. Intricate D. Ignominy
B. Downturn E. None of these
C. Looming
D. Planks Directions (6-10): A sentence given below with two
E. None of these blanks. You have to choose a pair of words from
the option suitable for the blank to make a
3. The Congress flounders, it is……………. meaningful sentence.
A. Rudderless 6. They have finally succeeded in ___________the
B. Acute management to hold ________________
C. Bode
Page 56 of 77
discussions on issues pertaining to employee which they attribute to medical _______, and which
benefits. have drawn them together to form a small
A. Compelling, intensive movement against medical malpractice in India.
B. Imposing, entrusting A. Gain, success
C. Concretely, feasible B. Grief, success
D. Cohesively, compliance C. Gain, impact
E. Entrusting, intricate D. Grief, malpractice
E. Gain, deficits
7. As public resources are ____________there is a
need for ____________of the private sector in 10. Given that _______ skies are a constant during
development. the monsoon season and during times of flood, the
A. Necessary, regulation ability to _________ the cloud cover is essential.
B. Bounded, complicity A. Hazy, retreat
C. Exhaustive, participation B. Dismal, vacate
D. Relative, solicitation C. Overcast, penetrate
E. Dwindling, coveting D. Cloudy, ebbed
E. Menacing, folding
8. In a way, it may be _______as being a reflection
of the fact that people do not really mind Directions (11-15): In a sentence given below a set
_______reforms if a larger good is served. of four words highlighted and one of them wrongly
A. Surprised, such spelt and inappropriate. So You have to choose
B. Surprised, harsh wrongly spelt and inappropriate word in the given
C. Interpreted, harsh sentence.
D. Interpreted, such 11. We conclude that the problem of
E. Interpreted, devastating the retreiving phase from two images has, in
general, degenerated solutionsthat prevent the
9. In Delhi, a few other families have found that phase-retrieving algorithm from converging.
they share similar stories of _______ and loss, A. Degenerated
Page 57 of 77
B. Retreiving C. Franchise
C. Algorithm D. Assistance
D. Converging E. All are correct
E. All are correct 15. The play of 'correspondences' within and
12. It was certainly Very curteous and among these poems yields a spiritual itinirary the
approachable, but it became very clear that it was more vibrant for being refracted through
acting on advice from management. a diversity of styles.
A. Curteous A. Itinirary
B. Approachable B. Spiritual
C. Advice C. Diversity
D. Management D. Refracted
E. All are correct E. All are correct
13. We were beseiged with correspondence which Directions (16-20): In the sentence given below
suggested that this was one of the has idiom and phrases underlined in it. From the
most iniquitous procedures options choose the corresponding meaning for the
A. Correspondence idiom and phrases given in the sentence so that
B. Iniquitous the meaning of the sentence should not be
C. Procedures changed.
D. Beseiged 16. She has a chip on her shoulder about not
E. All are correct getting admission into that university.
A. Something irrelevant that distracts you from
14. The process was democratic insofar as it was something important
by adult franchise and secret ballot, although B. Demand or bully someone to work harder,
illiterates could receive assistance from two faster, or more efficiently
booth attendents. C. Act in a frenzied manner
A. Democratic D) Holding a grudge or grievance
B. Attendents E) None of the above.
Page 58 of 77
19. She's laughing at me for being weak and I'm

17. The fact is that students in government not going to take it lying down any longer
schools get a raw deal. A) To accept or endure something without
A) To be in low spirits opposition.
B) To receive unfair or poor B) Pass the critical point and start to improve.
treatment in a particular situation. C) Without resources or help.
C) A subject or issue over which D) To put something into a finished state by
there is continuing disagreement solving problems
D) Likely to fail E) To be very sure and definite about something
E) None of the above. 20. To Show a clean pair of heels
a) As soon as the thief saw the Policeman, he
18. The State’s new scheme was initially showed a clean pair of heels.
welcomed, but later turned out to be a house of b) The actor requested the director for a clean pair
cards when it was discovered how easy it was to of heels to fight against the enemy
perpetrate a scam. c) The situation in china really messed up and
A) moving around aimlessly often due to showed a clean pair of shoes to neighboring
disappointments, rejections or failure countries.
B) A poor plan
C) A strange or unusual person/thing
D) To issue a challenge
E) None of the above.
1. Answer: C Option A): is incorrect because ‘exodus’ means a

In the given sentence, only ‘forged’ makes it mass departure of people which does not fit here.
grammatically as well as contextually correct. Option B): is incorrect as ‘dissemble’ means
conceal which does not make any sense here.
Page 59 of 77
Option C): is the correct alternative among the Option B): is incorrect as ‘acute’ means present or
following as ‘forged’ means copied fraudulently experienced to a severe or intense degree which is
which fit here both grammatically and contextually. contextually wrong.
Option D): is incorrect as petulant means bad Option C): is incorrect as ‘bode’ means portend
tempered. which is contextually wrong.
Option D): is incorrect as ‘precarious’ does not fit
2. Answer: D here.
In the given sentence, only ‘planks’ make it
grammatically as well as contextually correct. 4. Answer: B
Option A): is incorrect because ‘intricate’ means In the given sentence, only ‘enlightened’ make it
very complicated which does not fit here. grammatically as well as contextually correct.
Option B): is incorrect as ‘downturn’ does not make Option A): is incorrect as ‘bottlenecked’ does not
any sense here. make any sense here.
Option C): is incorrect as ‘looming’ means about to Option B): is the correct alternative among the
happen soon and causing worry which does not fit following as ‘enlightened’ fit here both
here. grammatically and contextually.
Option D): is the correct alternative among the Option C): is incorrect as ‘saddled’ means
following as ‘planks’ fit here both grammatically and responsibility which does not fit here.
contextually. Option D): is incorrect as ‘ballooned’ does not make
any sense here.
3. Answer: A
In the given sentence, only ‘rudderless’ makes it 5. Answer: A
grammatically as well as contextually correct. In the given sentence, only ‘coercion’ makes it
Option A): is the correct alternative among the grammatically as well as contextually correct.
following as ‘rudderless’ means lacking a clear Option A): is the correct alternative among the
sense of one's aims or principles which fit here both following as ‘coercion’ means the action or practice
grammatically and contextually. of persuading someone to do something by using
Page 60 of 77
force or threats which fit here both grammatically Option b): is incorrect because ‘surprised’ does not
and contextually. fit here
Option B): is incorrect as ‘retribution’ does not make Option d): is incorrect because ‘such’ does not fit
any sense here. here
Option C): is incorrect as ‘unadorned’ does not Option e): is incorrect because ‘devastating’ does
make any sense here. not fit here
Option D): is incorrect as ‘ignominy’ means
humiliation which does not fit here contextually. 9. Answer: D
In the given sentence, only ‘grief, malpractice’ make
6. Answer: A it grammatically as well as contextually correct.
Compelling- inspiring conviction, persuasive Hence the correct answer after filling the blanks will
Intensive- giving emphasis, thorough be,
In Delhi, a few other families have found that they
7. Answer: B share similar stories of grief and loss, which they
Bounded- limited, restricted attribute to medical malpractice, and which have
Complicity- involvement, collaboration drawn them together to form a small movement
against medical malpractice in India.
8. Answer: C Option a): is incorrect because ‘gain’ ‘success’ does
In the given sentence, only ‘interpreted’ ‘harsh’ not fit here.
makes it grammatically as well as contextually Option b): is incorrect because ‘success’ does not
correct. Hence the correct answer after filling the fit here.
blanks will be, Option c): is incorrect because ‘gain’ ‘impact’ does
In a way, it may be interpreted as being a reflection not fit here.
of the fact that people do not really mind harsh Option e): is incorrect because ‘gain’ ‘deficits’ make
reforms if a larger good is served. no sense when used in the blanks.
Option a): is incorrect because ‘surprised’ ‘such’
does not fit here. 10. Answer: C
Page 61 of 77
The meaning of “overcast” is “marked by a covering She has a chip on her shoulder about not getting
of grey cloud” and it is suitable for i blanks and the admission into that university. A chip on her
meaning of “penetrate” is “go into or through shoulder - holding a grudge or grievance
something” so it is appropriate for ii blank. Idioms for other options:
Demand or bully someone to work harder,
11. Answer: B faster, or more efficiently crack the whip
Retreiving is incorrect spelling, it should be EXAMPLE
retrieving which means get or bring (something) The company is three months behind with the
orders, so the boss has started to crack the
12. Answer: A whip.
Curteous is incorrect spelling, it should be An uncontrolled person who can cause
courteous which means respectful, or considerate unintentional damage - loose
in manner EXAMPLE: The candidate turned out to be
a loose cannon, and most of the voters
13. Answer: D could not place their trust on him.
Beseiged is incorrect spelling, it should be besieged Act in a frenzied manner - like a chicken with
which means surround and harass. its head cut off
EXAMPLE: He has been running around all
14. Answer: B morning like a chicken with its head cut off.
Attendents is incorrect spelling, it should be
attendants which means a person employed to 17. Answer: B
provide a service to the public The fact is that students in government schools get
a raw deal.
15. Answer: A Get a raw deal. - To receive unfair or
Itinirary is incorrect spelling, it should be itinerary poor treatment in a particular situation.
which means a planned route or journey. Idioms for other options:
A subject or issue over which there is
16. Answer: D continuing disagreement -- a serious bone
Page 62 of 77
of contention 19. Answer: A

Example: The examination system has She's laughing at me for being weak and I'm not
long been a serious bone of contention in going to take it lying down any longer.
the HRD Ministry. To take it lying down - to accept insult without
To be in the doldrums - To be in low spirits resisting
EXAMPLE: Sam was in the doldrums after he was Idioms for other options:
insulted by the boss in front of his colleagues. Pass the critical point and start to
Likely to fail - on the rocks improve – Turn the corner
EXAMPLE: Their marriage has been on the rocks EXAMPLE: The industry has
for quite some time. turned the corner and things are
looking up
18. Answer: B Without resources or help – high and dry
House of cards -- A poor plan EXAMPLE: When the travel company went
The State’s new scheme was initially welcomed, bankrupt, many holidaymakers were left high and
but later turned out to be a house of cards when it dry abroad or waiting at the airport. to issue a
was discovered how easy it was to perpetrate a challenge - throw down the gauntlet.
scam. To be very sure and definite about something –
Idioms for other options: Make bones
A strange or unusual person/thing -- odd/queer fish EXAMPLE: He made no bones
EXAMPLE: She's really quite an odd fish about his plans to cut expenses.
A strange or unusual person/thing- from pillar to To put something into a finished state by solving
post problems -- iron out
EXAMPLE: John is known for running from pillar to EXAMPLE: We just need to iron out a few things
post any time he finds himself in an unpleasant before the new software is ready for release.
situation.
To issue a challenge - throw down the gauntlet. 20. Answer: A
EXAMPLE: When it comes to the rights of animals, TO SHOW A CLEAN PAIR OF HEELS (to run
we are always willing to throw down the gauntlet away) is correctly used in sentence a.
Page 63 of 77
General Awareness
1. Which of the following Exchange was recently E) Russia
launched for Fostering Innovation in Urban Ecosystem?

A) OTCEI 4. Indian men's skeet team wins bronze in ISSF World
B) Calcutta Stock Exchange Cup held in which of the following country?

C) NSE A) China
D) BSE B) Georgia
E) City Innovation Exchange C) France
D) Germany
2. Jal Shakti Ministry has announced ____ iconic sites E) Egypt
for transforming them into Swachh Tourist Destinations.

A) 8 5. Who among the following has received additional
B) 12 charge of the Department of Revenue?
C) 10 A) VK Saraswat
D) 11 B) Thawar Chand Gehlot
E) 9 C) Rao Inderjit Singh

D) Tarun Bajaj
3. Which of the following country has launched the first E) Ramesh Chand
Arctic-monitoring satellite?
A) Japan 6. Who among the following has bagged the Golden

B) Israel Globe award posthumously?
C) Germany A) Silvio Hortia

D) France B) David Stern
Page 64 of 77
C) Alex Trebek C) Andhra Pradesh Grameena Vikas Bank

D) Naya Rivera D) Both A and C
E) Chadwick Boseman E) Both A and B
7. Who among the following has received the 10. Fino Payments Bank is now a scheduled bank. It
CERAWeek global energy and environment leadership has been included in the _____ schedule of RBI.
award? A) 6th
A) Venkiah Naidu B) 5th

B) Amit Shah C) 4th
C) Narendra Modi D) 2nd
D) NS Tomar E) 3rd
E) Prahlad Patel
11. Suryakirans, Sarang and Tejas will take part in
8. Which edition of the Field assessment of Swachh which country’s Air Force's 70th anniversary
Survekshan -2021 has been launched by the Housing celebrations?
and Urban Affairs Ministry? A) Japan
A) 7th B) US
B) 2nd C) Sri Lanka
C) 3rd D) Bhutan
D) 6th E) Maldives
E) 5th
12. Book Titled ‘Advantage India: The Story of Indian

9. Which of the following RRB launched digital savings Tennis’ has been written by who among the following?
account opening facility through Video-Know Your A) Rihan Richards
Customer (KYC)? B) Ehsan Mani

A) Telangana Grameena Bank C) Ross Macclum
B) Tamil Nadu Grama Bank D) Anindya Dutta
Page 65 of 77
E) Ian Watmore 16. Which country has officially received its first ever
UAE ambassador?
13. Manpreet Vohra has been appointed India's High A) Germany
Commissioner to which country? B) France
A) Japan C) Israel
B) Israel D) China
C) Australia E) US
D) Germany
E) France 17. Cashfree has partnered with which company for a
global payment solution?
14. World Wildlife Day 2021 is being observed on which A) Gpay

of the following date? B) PhonePe
A) March 1 C) Freecharge
B) March 2 D) Paypal
C) March 4 E) PayTM
D) March 3
E) March 5 18. Which movie has recently been selected for Golden
Reel awards nomination?
15. Lok Sabha TV & Rajya Sabha TV merged into one A) Ma Rainey
single entity named _____ TV. B) Emperor
A) Lokmat C) Nomadland
B) Bharat D) Jallikattu
C) Parliament E) Sound of Metal
D) Sansad
E) Democracy 19. Who among the following won a silver at Strandja

Memorial Tournament in Bulgaria?
A) Suresh Kumar
Page 66 of 77
B) Deepak Kumar E) 2023

C) Vinesh Gupta
D) Neeraj Phogat 23. Which of the following Banks has launched a salary
E) Nitin Mahadev account of Indian army personnel?
A) Yes
20. National Safety Day is observed on which of the B) Axis
following date? C) Kotak Mahindra
A) March 11 D) ICICI
B) March 3 E) SBI
C) March 4
D) March 14 24. How many cities participated in the Ease of Living

E) March 5 Index-2020?
A) 115
21. Government has amended the Insurance B) 114

Ombudsman Rules of ______. C) 113
A) 2011 D) 111
B) 2012 E) 112
C) 2015
D) 2013 25. Bihari Puraskar 2020 will be awarded to who among

E) 2017 the following?
A) Rajat Gupta
22. Which of the following has been Declared As B) Mohankrishna Bohara

International Year Of Millets As UN General Assembly? C) Anand Raj
A) 2025 D) Sudhir Kumar
B) 2024 E) Gopal Krishna

C) 2021
D) 2022
Page 67 of 77

1) Answer: E Jaisalmer Fort and Ramdevra in Rajasthan, Golconda
The City Innovation Exchange (CiX) platform was Fort in Telangana and Konark Sun Temple in Odisha.
launched by Shri Durga Shanker Mishra, Secretary, Chandigarh's Rock Garden, Jammu and Kashmir's Dal
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs at an online event. Lake, Banke Bihari Temple in Mathura, Agra Fort in
The platform will be a significant addition to the growing Uttar Pradesh and Kalighat Temple in West Bengal are
innovation ecosystem of India and focuses on fostering the other sites.
innovative practices in cities. The initiative aims at enhancing the experience of both
The City Innovation Exchange (CiX) will connect cities to domestic and foreign visitors by improving the sanitation
innovators across the national ecosystem to design and cleanliness standards at and around the sites.
innovative solutions for their pressing challenges.
The platform will ease the discovery, design & validation 3) Answer: E
of solutions through a robust, transparent and user Russia has successfully launched its first satellite to
centric process that will reduce barriers for innovators monitor the Arctic's climate and environment.
and cities to discover fitting solutions. A Soyuz-2.1b carrier rocket with the "Arktika-M" satellite
The Platform has more than 400 start-ups, 100 smart on board blasted off from the Baikonur Cosmodrome in
cities, more than 150 challenges statements and over Kazakhstan
215 solutions at the time of launch. The creation of a satellite system in highly elliptical orbits
is necessary for information collection to solve
2) Answer: B operational meteorology and hydrology problems, and
Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Ministry of monitoring the climate and environment in the Arctic
Jal Shakti has announced the selection of twelve iconic region
sites under Phase IV of Swachh Iconic Places. The Arktika-M will provide round-the-clock continuous
These sites include Ajanta Caves in Maharashtra, monitoring of the northern territory of Russia and the
Sanchi Stupa in Madhya Pradesh, Kumbhalgarh Fort, seas of the Arctic Ocean.
Page 68 of 77
The satellite will be able to transmit overview images of Late American actor Chadwick Boseman has been
the Earth's northern polar region and the adjacent areas awarded the prestigious Golden Globe for Best Actor in
at least every 15-30 minutes. a Motion Picture, Drama.
The actor won the Golden Globe posthumously for his
4) Answer: E performance as Levee in Ma Rainey's Black Bottom.

The Indian trio of Mairaj Ahmed Khan, Angad Vir Singh The award was accepted by his late wife Taylor Simone
Bajwa and Gurjoat Khangura won the bronze medal in Ledward on his behalf.
men’s skeet team event at the International Shooting

Sport Federation tournament (ISSF) Shotgun World Cup 7) Answer: C
in Cairo Egypt. Prime Minister Narendra Modi will receive the
The Indians defeated the Kazakhstan team of David CERAWeek global energy and environment leadership
Pochivalov, Eduard Yechshenko and Alexandr award during an annual international energy conference
Mukhamediyev 6-2 in the bronze medal match on the next week.
third competition day of the International Shooting Sport The prime minister will also deliver the keynote address
Federation tournament. at the CERAWeek Conference-2021, which will be held
virtually from March 1 to 5, its organiser.
5) Answer: D
Secretary of Department of Economic Affairs Tarun 8) Answer: D
Bajaj has been given additional charge of Department of The Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry launched the
Revenue. field assessment of Swachh Survekshan -2021 at a web
He has been given additional charge after event in New Delhi.
superannuation of Revenue Secretary Dr Ajay Bhushan This will be the sixth edition of the annual cleanliness
Pandey. survey.
Swachh Survekshan was introduced in 2016 as a
6) Answer: E competitive framework to encourage cities to improve

the status of urban sanitation while encouraging large
scale citizen participation.
Page 69 of 77
Secretary of Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry Durga The benefits of DISA include zero balance account; can
Shankar Mishra said, the survey has led to a spirit of be opened within 10 minutes and activation of mobile
healthy competition among cities and towns. banking and SMS alerts immediately.
The journey that started in 2016 with only 73 cities with a Rupay debit cards will be issued and the account
million plus population has grown manifold, with 434 holders need to successfully complete e-KYC at home
cities in 2017, 4,203 cities in 2018, 4,237 cities in 2019 branch or video-KYC within one year.
and 4,242 cities in 2020.
Cities have been regularly filling in their data, updating 10) Answer: D
their progress in the MIS along with running several RBI has announced through a notification issued dated
citizen centric campaigns in preparation for Swachh 22 February 2021 that Fino Payments Bank has been
Survekshan-2021. included in the Second Schedule to the Reserve Bank of

India Act, 1934.
9) Answer: D The scheduled commercial bank (also called as
Telangana Grameena Bank (TGB) and Andhra Pradesh scheduled bank) status allows Fino Payments Bank to
Grameena Vikas Bank (APGVB) have launched digital enhance its banking position in the treasury and
savings account opening facility through Video-Know participation in LAF (Liquidity Facility) window as per the
Your Customer (KYC). RBI. It also helps the bank strengthen its business
The Digital Insta Savings Account mobile app of Andhra proposition on liabilities generation.
Pradesh Grameena Vikas Bank (APGVB) and As a scheduled commercial bank, Fino Payments Bank
Telangana Grameena Bank (TGB) was launched will be better positioned to explore and manage
recently by State Bank of India chairman Dinesh Kumar government businesses. Mandates pertaining to
Khara. pensions, provident funds and various welfare schemes

The app will be at the heart of the Digital Insta Savings under direct benefit transfer (DBT) will help enhance
Account (DISA) launched by the two regional rural Fino’s foot print in the financial inclusion space. Also,
banks. increased visibility on the government websites

strengthens the customers’ bond with the bank.
Page 70 of 77
Scheduled Commercial Banks in India are categorised The IAF Suryakiran Aerobatic Team (SKAT) had earlier
into five groups based on their ownership/nature of toured Sri Lanka in 2001 for the 50th-anniversary
operation. These bank groups are: celebrations of SLAF.
State Bank of India and its Associates
Nationalised Banks 12) Answer: D

Regional Rural Banks Anindya Dutta has written the book titled “Advantage
Foreign Banks India: The Story of Indian Tennis”.
Other Indian Scheduled Commercial Banks (in the The book highlights the history of Indian tennis.
private sector) Westland Sport publishes the book.
About the Book :
11) Answer: C The book provides an extensive history of Indian tennis

Suryakirans, Sarang and Light Combat Aircraft Tejas will on both men’s and women’s sides
participate in an air show in Colombo from March 3 to 5 The book is the result of the detailed research of
as part of the 70th-anniversary celebrations of the Sri Anindya Dutta on the data from the archives of the
Lankan Air Force. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting and British
The IAF's aerobatic display teams, the fixed wing newspapers from the past 200 years.
'Suryakirans' and rotary wing 'Sarang', along with Tejas The book covers pre-independence players such as
arrived at Colombo Mohammed Sleem, the Fyzee brothers, S.M. Jacob and
The IAF and SLAF have seen active exchanges and Ghaus Mohammed and tennis icons Dilip Bose, Sumant
interactions for a number of years in diverse fields like Misra, Naresh Kumar and Ramanathan Krishnan.
training, operational exchanges and professional military
education courses. 13) Answer: C

IAFs participation in the 70th-anniversary celebration of Manpreet Vohra, presently the Ambassador of India to
SLAF is a further manifestation of the strong Mexico, has been appointed as the next High
professional bonds that the two air forces share. Commissioner to Australia, the Ministry of External
Affairs (EAM) informed.
Vohra is a 1988 batch Indian Foreign Service officer.
Page 71 of 77
"Manpreet Vohra (IFS:1988), presently Ambassador of The Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha Television channels
India to Mexico, has been appointed as the next High that broadcast the proceedings of the upper and lower
Commissioner of India to Australia. Houses of Parliament, respectively, have been merged
He is expected to take up the assignment shortly," MEA into a single entity.
said in a statement. Retired Indian Administrative Service officer Ravi

Capoor was appointed the chief executive officer of the
14) Answer: D channel for one year on March 1.
World Wildlife Day is observed annually on March 3 to The decision is in line with the proposals of a panel
celebrate and raise awareness of the world's flora and headed by former Prasar Bharati chairperson A Surya
fauna. Prakash.
This year's theme for World Wildlife Day is "Forests and The panel was set up by Rajya Sabha chairman M
Livelihoods: Sustaining People and Planet". Venkaiah Naidu after consulting with Speaker Om Birla
The day was proposed by Thailand and recognised in in November 2019.
2013 by the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA). These two channels are also expected to serve as two
This year, the UN intends to highlight the role of the language variants of Sansad TV by airing similar
ecosystem and forests in providing livelihood to millions programming in English and Hindi , when not telecasting
of people. live proceedings of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
The day is about raising awareness about wildlife and While Lok Sabha TV was launched in 2006, Rajya
educating yourself and others about the diversity and Sabha TV was launched in 2011.
importance of flora and fauna across the world.
March 3 was chosen as World Wildlife Day as the 16) Answer: C
Convention on International Trade in Endangered Israel's president formally received the first-ever
Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) was signed on ambassador from the United Arab Emirates, following
the same day in 1973. last year's historic agreement between the countries.
The UAE was the first country to agree to establish full

15) Answer: D diplomatic relations with the Jewish state under the
Page 72 of 77
Abraham Accords, a pact brokered by former US Sound editor/designer Renganaath Ravee and his team
president Donald Trump. comprising Sreejith Sreenivasan, Kannan Ganpat,
This will bring peace and prosperity to the people of the Boney M Joy, Arun Rama Varma, Amandeep Singh,
Middle East. Francis C David, and Mohammad Iqbal Paratwada
Israel opened its UAE embassy in January, with veteran worked on the film’s sound.
diplomat Eitan Naeh heading the Abu Dhabi mission.
Israel and the UAE have already signed treaties on 19) Answer: B
direct flights and visa-free travel, along with accords on In Boxing, Deepak Kumar (52kg) won the silver medal at
investment protection, science and technology. the 72nd Strandja Memorial Tournament in Sofia,
Bulgaria.
17) Answer: D He lost the final face-off in a split decision against

Homegrown payments and banking technology Bulgaria’s Daniel Asenov in the men's flyweight.
company, Cashfree on announced its partnership with The 23-year-old youngster belongs to Haryana’s Hisar,
PayPal to enable international payments for merchants. which is known as the ‘City of Steel’, for being India’s
Cashfree Payment Solutions is a Payment Gateway. largest manufacturer of galvanised iron.
It can Collect local and international payments with a
simple integration. 20) Answer: C
National Safety Day is observed on March 4 every year
18) Answer: D to commemorate the foundation of the National Safety

Lijo Jose Pellissery’s Jallikattu has been nominated for Council.
the prestigious Motion Picture Sound Editors (MPSE) Aim:
Golden Reel Awards, which honour various categories in To raise awareness about safety measures that need to
the entertainment sector. be undertaken to prevent accidents and mishaps.
The film has been nominated for outstanding The objective of the day is to renew the commitment of
achievement in Sound Editing (Foreign Language) in the employees and the general public to work safely and
68th edition of the awards. ensure the integration of a safe and sound work culture
and lifestyle.
Page 73 of 77
This year's theme is ‘Sadak Suraksha (Road Safety).’ The new rules notified through an official gazette also
National Safety Day was observed for the first time in pave way for setting up a complaints management
1972, on the foundation day of the National Safety system to enable policyholders track the status of their
Council. complaints online.
Further, the Ombudsman may use video-conferencing

21) Answer: E for hearings.
Government on 2nd March 2021 notified comprehensive
amendments to the Insurance Ombudsman Rules, 2017, 22) Answer: E

with a view to improve the working of the Insurance The UN General Assembly adopted by consensus a
Ombudsman mechanism to facilitate resolution of resolution sponsored by India and supported by over 70
complaints regarding deficiencies in insurance services nations declaring 2023 as the International Year of
in a timely, cost-effective and impartial manner. Millets
About the amendments : It aimed at raising awareness about the health benefits
The Ombudsman mechanism was administered by the of the grain and their suitability for cultivation under
Executive Council of Insurers, which has now been changing climatic conditions
renamed as the Council for Insurance Ombudsman The resolution titled 'International Year of Millets 2023'
Earlier, the scope of complaints to the Ombudsman was was initiated by India with Bangladesh, Kenya, Nepal,
limited to only disputes, but now it has been enlarged to Nigeria, Russia and Senegal and was co-sponsored by
include deficiencies in service on the part of insurers, over 70 nations.

agents, brokers and other intermediaries. The 193-member General Assembly unanimously
The amended rules have also enlarged the scope of adopted the resolution, declaring 2023 as the
complaints to the Ombudsman and insurance brokers International Year of Millets.

have been brought within the ambit of the redressal In April 2016, the UN General Assembly had proclaimed
mechanism. the UN Decade of Action on Nutrition from 2016 to 2025,
To strengthen the timeliness and cost-effectiveness of recognising the need to eradicate hunger and prevent all
the mechanism, policyholders will now be enabled for forms of malnutrition worldwide.
making complaints electronically to the Ombudsman.
Page 74 of 77
The Decade of Action on Nutrition provides an "umbrella Silvassa, Kakinada, Salem, Vellore, Gandhinagar,
for a wide group of actors to work together to address Gurugram, Davangere and Tiruchirappalli.
these and other pressing nutrition issues." Similar to the Ease of Living Index index, the
assessment framework under Municipal Performance
23) Answer: C Index-2020 has classified municipalities based on their

Private sector lender Kotak Mahindra Bank will handle population, Million plus and less than Million Population.
the salary account of the Indian army personnel.
The bank has signed a memorandum of understanding 25) Answer: B

(MoU) with the Indian Army here for a salary account. The 30th Bihari Puraskar for 2020 will be given to
Mohankrishna Bohara for his Hindi book of Criticism,
24) Answer: D titled Taslima: Sangharsh aur Sahitya.

Minister for Housing and Urban Affairs Hardeep Singh The K.K. Birla Foundation announced this in New Delhi.
Puri announced the release of the final rankings of Ease The book was published in 2016.
of Living Index-2020 and the Municipal Performance About Bihari Puraskar

Index-2020 in New Delhi in an online event. Bihari Puraskar carries an award money of two lakh 50
The rankings under Ease of Living Index-2020 were thousand rupees, a Citation and a Plaque. The award is
announced for cities with a population of more than a one of the three literary awards instituted by the K.K.
million and cities with less than a million people. Birla Foundation in 1991.
In all, 111 cities participated in the assessment exercise Named after famous Hindi poet Bihari, the award is
that was conducted last year. given every year for an outstanding work in Hindi or
Bengaluru emerged as the top performer in the Million Rajasthani published in the last 10 years by a Rajasthani
Plus category, followed by Pune, Ahmedabad, Chennai, writer.

Surat, Navi Mumbai, Coimbatore, Vadodara, Indore and
Greater Mumbai.
In the Less than Million categories, Shimla was ranked

the highest in ease of living, followed by Bhubaneshwar,
Page 75 of 77
Page 76 of 77
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Studyniti Banking PDF Course 2021 - Reasoning (Day-1/ 50) – (Eng)

Direction (1-5): Answer the questions based on the D.T

information given below. E.Y

Nine persons viz. R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are

to the immediate left of X. Y sits to the immediate E. Third to the left

right of R. U sits at one of the ends and is to the left

of S. 4)How many persons sit between Y and Z?

1) Who among the following sits third to the right of A. None

A.V C. More than three

E. No such person 5)Four of the following five are alike in a certain

way and hence form a group. Find the one that

the middle of R and Z? A.WT

E.ZU 7)Who among the following sits third to the right of

Direction (6-10): Answer the questions based on A.V

the information given below. B.X

Nine persons viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are C.Q

sitting on a bench and all of them are facing north, D.W

consecutive alphabetically named person doesn’t

sit adjacent to each other. 8)What is the position of S with respect to P?

W where neither of them sits at any of the ends. Q B. Immediate right

and V who sits third to the left of T. R neither sits at

6)Four of the following five are alike in a certain A. None

doesn’t belong to that group. C. More than three

D.RW 10)Who among the following persons sits exactly in

C.R E. None of these

E.W 12)What is the position of T with respect to S?

the information given below. C. Second to the left

Nine persons viz. M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are D. Third to the right

facing towards north, but not necessarily in the

same order. 13)The number of persons to the left of U is one

the ends. Only one person stands between N and A.Q

Q. P stands third to the left of Q. The number of B.T

persons to the left of N is one more than the C.O

number of persons to the right of R. As many D.M

persons stand between P and Q as between N and E. None of these

S. The number of persons between O and M is one

11)Who among the following person stand at the A. One

extreme ends? B. None

E. Three 16)Who among the following person sits to the

to the left of O? B.G

A.M C. The one who sits third to the right of Q

Direction (16-20): Study the following information A.BT

carefully and answer the below questions. B.ZW

Nine persons namely – B, G, H, K, Q, R, T, W, and C.HZ

Z are sitting in a row facing south but not D.GH

right end and sits four persons away from Q.

to H. The number of persons sitting between H and B. Fourth to the left

R is one less than the number of persons between C. Immediate left

At most one person sits between B and R. E. None of these

B. Three three places away from D.

D. Five A. Second to the right

I. B sits fourth to the right of G. E. None of these

II. Three persons are sitting between Q and the

A. Both II and III B. Two

B. Only III C.As many persons are sitting to the left of D

D. Both I and II E. Both A and C

23)The number of persons sitting between M and P

Direction (21-25): Study the following information is ____?

B. Both I and II Direction (26-30): Answer the questions based on

C. Both I and III the information given below.

D. All I, II, and III Nine persons viz. R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are

facing towards north, but not necessarily in the

A.H W stands fourth from one of the ends and three

B.S persons away from Z who doesn’t stand at any of