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Detailed Solutions

ESE-2018 Mechanical Engineering


Mains Test Series Test No : 4
Section A : Strength of Materials and Mechanics

Q.1.(a) Solution:
y
T BC

TAC
13
5 P
5
12 3
4 x
C

480 N
FBD of point C
For horizontal force equilibrium, ΣFx = 0

12 4
− TAC + P = 0
13 5

13
TAC = P ...(i)
15
For vertical force equilibrium, ΣFy = 0

5 3
TAC + TBC + P − 480 = 0
13 5
Test No : 4 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING | 11

 5  13  3
   P + TBC + P − 480 = 0 [from equation (i)]
 13  15  5

P 3P
TBC + + = 480
3 5

14
TBC = 480 − P ....(ii)
15
From equation (i), TAC > 0 which requires P > 0

14 P
From equation (ii), TBC > 0 requires < 480 , P < 514.29 N
15
Hence allowable range for force : 0 < P < 514 N Ans.

Q.1.(b) Solution:
P

Rate of loading, w = 2 kN/m 2h


3 3
Length, L = 2 m h= 2 a
N A

wL2 h
Mmax = 3 60°
8 Q R
a

2×2×2
= = 1 kN-m
8
Mmax = 1 × 106 N-mm

3a
Altitude of equilateral triangle, h = = 0.866 a
2
3
bh 3 a × (0.866 a )
Moment of inertia, INA = = = 0.0180 a4
36 36
Maximum stress will occur at edge P as it is farthest from N.A.
Mmax y
σmax ≥
I

1 × 10 6 × (2 / 3) × 0.866 a
80 ≥
0.0180 a 4

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2 × 106 × 0.866
a3 ≥ = 400.926 × 103 mm3
240 × 0.0180
a ≥ 73.74 mm Answer

Q.1.(c) Solution:
Diameter of rod, d = 3 cm = 30 mm

π 2 π
Area of the rod, A = d = × 900 = 225π mm2
4 4
Initial temperature, T1 = 90°C
Final temperature, T2 = 25°C
Fall in temperature, ∆T = T1 – T2 = 90 – 25 = 65°C
Modulus of elasticity, E = 2 × 105 MPa
Coefficient of linear expansion, α = 12 × 10–6 /°C
(i) When the ends do not yield
Stress = α∆TE
= 12 × 10–6 × 65 × 2 × 105 MPa
= 156 MPa (Tensile) Ans.(1)
Pull in the rod = stress × area
= 156 × 225π = 110269.9 N or 110.27 kN Ans.(1)
(ii) When the ends yield by 0.15 cm
δ = 0.15 cm = 1.5 mm
The stress when the ends yield is given by equation
 ( αTL − δ ) 
stress =  ×E
 L 

12 × 10−6 × 65 × 5000 − 1.5


= × 2 × 105
5000
 3.9 − 1.5  5
=   × 2 × 10
 5000 
= 96 MPa (Tensile) Ans.(2)
Pull in the rod = stress × area
= 96 × 225 π = 67858.4 N = 67.86 kN Ans. (2)

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Test No : 4 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING | 13
Q.1.(d) Solution:
As the circular sector OAB is symmetrical about x-axis, So CG of the area will lie on x-
axis. This implies that y = 0
y
Elemental area of triangle OCD is given by B
D
OC × CD R 2 dθ
G
dA = = dθ C
2 2 θ x
O
x*
The CG of this element is at G.
R
2 2R
OG = × OC = A
3 3
The distance of CG of area dA from y-axis is given by
2R
x* = OG × cosθ = cos θ
3
α /2
 2 R cos θ   R 2 dθ 
2 ∫   
∫ x * dA 0
 3  2 
x = = α /2
∫ dA R2
2 ∫ 2

0
α /2
R3
3 ∫ cos θdθ
0
x = 2 α /2
R
2 ∫ dθ
0

α /2
2 R ( sin θ )0 2R 2 α 4R α
x = = × sin   = sin  
3 (θ )α /2 3 α  2  3α 2
0

y = 0 [Area OAB is symmetrical about the x-axis]


For a semi-circle, α = π = 180°

4R  π  4R
x = sin   =
3× π  2  3π

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Q.1.(e) Solution:
Power HP × 746 × 60
Torque = =
Angular velocity 2 × π× 200

600 × 746 × 60
T = = 21371.326 Nm = 213.713 × 105 N-mm
2 π× 200

Polar moment of inertia, J =


2
(
π 4
R2 − R14 )
π( 4
= 80 − 40 4 ) = 6031.86 × 104 mm4
2

TR2 213.713 × 10 5 × 80
Shear stress at R2, τmax = = = 28.344 N/mm2
J 6031.86 × 10 4

2
(
2
)
Volume of shaft, V = π R2 − R1 × L = π (80 − 40 ) × 1000
2 2

= 15079.644 × 103 mm3


Shear strain energy for hollow shaft is given by
2
τmax  R2 + R2 
U =  2 1 V
4G  R22 

( 28.344 )2  802 + 40 2  3
=  2
 × 15079.644 × 10
4 × 80000  80 
U = 47.323 × 103 Nmm = 47.323 Nm or Joule

1 1  TL 
T T 2L
Tθ = 
2  GJ 
=
2 2GJ
2
T 2L ( 213.71 × 105 ) × 1000
= = 47323.674 Nmm
2GJ 2 × 80000 × 6031.86 × 10 4

1
So, Tθ = 47.323 Nm or Joule
2

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Test No : 4 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING | 15
Q.2.(a) Solution:
As per Lame’s theory:

B R2
Radial stress, σr = A − 2
r
R1 Pi

B
Hoop stress, σH = A + 2
r
P0

Boundary conditions for the given thick cylinder are:


When R 1 = 0.08 m, σ r = – P ...(i)
When R 2 = 0.16 m, σr = – 10 MPa ...(ii)
As the maximum hoop stress occurs at the inside surface of the cylinder
σHoop = 30 MPa at R1 = 0.08 m ...(iii)
from eq. (ii) and eq. (iii),

B
– 10 = A −
(0.16 )2

– 10 = A – 39.06B ....(iv)

B
30 = A +
( 0.08 )2

30 = A + 156.25 B ...(v)
Subtracting eq. (iv) from eq. (v),
40 = 195 B ∴ B = 0.205
Substituting in eq. (iv), A = – 10 + 39 B
A = – 10 + 8 = – 2
B
σr = – Pi = A − 2 = A – 156 .25B
R1
Pi = 156.25B – A = 156.25 × 0.205 + 2  34 MPa
So, the allowable internal pressure is 34 MPa.
Change of diameter = diametral strain × original diameter
= circumferential strain × original diameter

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With the principal stress system of hoop, radial and longitudinal stresses, the
circumferential strain is given by
1
∈C =
E
[σ H − vσr − vσL ]
2 R2
∆D = [σ H − vσr − vσL ]
E
At the outside surface, σr = – 10 MPa (Radial stress)

B
σ H = A + 2 = A + 39 B = – 2 + 39 × 0.205
R2

σ H = – 2 + 8 = 6 MN/m2 or 6 MPa

P1 R12 − P2 R22 34 × 0.082 − 10 × 0.16 2


Longitudinal stress, σL = =
R22 − R12 0.16 2 − 0.082
0.2176 − 0.256
= = – 2 MN/m2
0.0256 − 0.0064
0.32
∆D = 9
[6 − (0.29 × −10 ) − (0.29 × (−2 ))]× 106
207 × 10
0.32
= [6 + 2.9 + 0.58]
207 × 103
∆D = 1.4655 × 10–5 m
∆D = 14.65 µm Answer

Q.2.(b) Solution:
P
B C
A
spring force
RB RC

L
ΣMB = 0 ⇒ P× = RC × L
2

RC = 0.5P
ΣF y = 0 ⇒ RB – RC = P
RB = 1.5P
Deflection under the load is given by

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Test No : 4 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING | 17

∂U
∆A =
∂P
where, U = UAB + UBC + Uspring
UAB = Strain energy stored in member AB
UBC = Strain energy stored in member BC
USpring = Strain energy stored in member spring

1 ( )2
USpring = k ∆ [k = spring stiffness]
2

Rc P 1
Since, deflection ∆ = = ×
k 2 k

1
Flexibility is the inverse of stiffness, f =
k

2
1 P 1
⇒ Uspring = k  ×
2  2  k2

2 2
1  1  P  1 P
Uspring =    = f 
2  k  2  2 2

1 L3 P 2 P 2 L3
Uspring = × × = Answer (1)
2 EI 4 8EI
Consider member AB: (x measured from A)
M(x) = – Px
L /2 L /2
M x2 dx P 2 x 2 dx P 2 L3
UAB = ∫ 2 EI
= ∫ 2 EI
=
48EI
Answer (2)
0 0

Consider member BC: (x measured from C)


P
Mx = − x
2
L
L
M 2 dx P 2 x 2 dx P 2 L3
UBC = ∫ x
2 EI
= ∫ 8EI = 24EI Answer (3)
0 0

U = UAB + UBC + US

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P 2 L3 P 2 L3 P 2 L3 3P 2 L3
= 8EI + 48EI + 24EI = 16EI

∂U 3PL3
Thus deflection of point A, ∆A = = Answer (4)
∂P 8EI

Q.2.(c) (i) Solution:


di 40
Ratio of diameters, k = = = 0.667
d0 60

Applied torque, T = 1.8 kN-m

π
Angular twist, θ = 0.25° = × 0.25 = 4.3633 × 10–3 rad
180

Length, L = 0.2 m

T Gθ
J
=
L

π 4( π
J = d0 1 − k 4 ) = × 0.06 4 ( 1 − 0.667 4 )
32 32

J = 1.0205 × 10–6 m4

TL 1.8 × 103 × 0.2


G = = = 8.08485 × 1010 N/m2
θJ 4.3633 × 10 −3 × 1.0205 × 10 −6

Modulus of Rigidity, G = 80.8489 × 109 N/m2 = 80.84849 GPa Ans.(1)


E = 2G(1 + v)
E  210 
v(Poisson’s ratio) = −1 =   − 1 = 0.2987  0.3 Ans.(2)
2G  2 × 80.8489 

Q.2.(c) (ii) Solution:


Length of cantilever = 2 m = L
Diameter of steel cantilever, d = 50 mm
πd 3 π × 50 3
Section modulus, Z = = = 12.27 × 103 mm3
32 32
4
πd 4 π × ( 50 )
Moment of Inertia, I = = = 30.68 × 104 mm4
64 64
σmax = 120 MPa
Mmax = σmax Z = 120 × 12.27 × 103 = 1472.4 × 103 Nmm

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Test No : 4 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING | 19
Mmax = WeL
Mmax 14.72 × 105
Equivalent load, We = = = 736.2 N
L 2000
3
We L3 736.2 × ( 2000 )
Instantaneous deflection, δ i = =
3EI 3 × 200 × 103 × 30.68 × 10 4
= 31.99478 mm  32 mm Answer
Weight, P = 100 N
1
P(h + δ i) = We δi
2
1
100(h + 32) = × 736.2 × 32
2
h + 32 = 117.792
h = 85.792 mm Answer
Alternative solution:
736.2
Impact Factor (I.F.) = = 7.362
100

2h
I.F. = 1 + 1 + δ
st

2h
7.362 – 1 = 1+
δst

2h
6.3622 = 1 + δ
st

2h
40.475 – 1 = δ
st

39.475 × 32
h =
7.362 × 2
h = 85.792 mm Answer

Q.3.(a) Solution:
A structure in which the laws of statics are not sufficient to determine all the unknown
forces or moments is said to be statically indeterminate. Such structures are analyzed by
writing appropriate equations of static equilibrium and additional equations pertaining
to the deformation and constraints known as compatibility condition.

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EXAMPLE:
Two unknown forces RA and RB only one useful statics equation,
A RA

P P
a

C
L

RB

RA – P + RB = 0 ...(i)
We have to find another equation, by concept of compatibility
Force break starting from base B,
Displacement in bar AC is δAC
Displacement in bar BC is δBC
P –RB
A
a
C
P –RB

RB
C
b
B
RB

Equation of compatibility-expresses the fact that the change in length of the bar must be
compatible with the conditions at the supports.
δ T = δAC + δCB = 0 ...(ii)
We have to write force displacement relations which takes the mechanical properties of
the material into account.
( P − RB ) a − RB × b
δ AC = , δCB =
AE AE
( P − RB ) a −
RB × b
δ T = δAC + δCB = =0
AE AE
Pa
RB =
L
Pa Pb
RA = P − =
L L
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Test No : 4 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING | 21
Above example shows that compatibility condition of involving deformations in a
structure is necessary for the solution of a statically indeterminate problems.
Advantage of statically indeterminate structure: The statically indeterminate structures
are frequently used for several advantages. They are relatively more economical in the
requirement of material as maximum bending moments in the structure are reduced.
The statically indeterminate are more rigid leading to smaller deflections.
Disadvantage of statically indeterminate strulcture : The disadvantage of the
indeterminate structure is that they are subjected to stresses when subjected to
temperature changes and settlements of support.

Q.3.(b) Solution:
(i) As the SF diagram is only on one side, this is the case of a cantilever beam AB of
length 3 m.
(ii) Beam is fixed at A and free at B.
(iii)There is UDL of 5 kN/m over BC = 1 m.
(iv)Point load of 5 kN is at C.
(v) Point load of 5 kN is at D.
Based on above, loading diagram can be drawn as below:
5 kN 5 kN
5 kN/m

A 1m D 1m C 1m B

BMD (kN-m)
A D C B


2.5
Parabola
12.5

Straight lines

27.5

Maximum bending moment occurs at fixed end A,


MA = 5 × 1 + 5 × 2 + 5 × 2.5
= 5(2 + 1 + 2.5)
MAD = – 27.5 + 15x, (Linear)
MA = – 27.5 + 0 = – 27.5 kN-m
MD = – 27.5 + 15 = – 12.5 kN-m

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MDC = – 27.5 + 15x – 5(x – 1) = – 22.5 + 10x (Linear)


MD = – 22.5 + 10 = – 12.5 kN-m
MC = – 22.5 + 10 × 2 = – 2.5 kN-m

2
5 (x − 2 )
MCB = – 27.5 + 15x – 5(x – 1) – 5(x – 2) –
2
MCB = – 2.5x2 + 15x – 22.5 (Parabolic)
MC = – 2.5 kN-m
MB = 0
Maximum moment (from BMD), MA = 5 × 5.5 = 27.5 kN-m = σb × Z

bd 2 150 × 3002
Section modulus, Z = = = 225 × 104 mm3
6 6

Mmax 27.5 × 10 3 × 10 3
σmax = = = 12.22 MPa
Z 225 × 10 4

Q.3.(c) (i) Solution:


Given: σx = – 60 MPa, σy = – 80 MPa, τxy = 50 MPa

σx + σ y 2
 σ − σy  2
σ 1, 2 = ±  x  + τxy
2  2 

2
−60 − 80  −60 + 80  ( )2
= ±   + 50
2  2 

2 2
= −70 ± (10 ) + ( 50 ) = −70 ± 2600
σ 2 = – 19 MPa and σ1 = – 121 MPa ...(i)
τxy 2 × 50
tan2θP = = =5
 σx − σ y  ( −60 + 80 )
 
 2 
θP = 39.34° and 129.34°
Maximum In-plane shear stress is given by
1/2
 σ − σ  2 
τmax =  x y  + τxy2 
 2  

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Test No : 4 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING | 23
1/2
 −60 + 80  2 
=  2
 + 50  = 51 MPa ...(ii)
 2  

− (σ x − σ y ) −20 1
tan2θ s = = × = − 0.2
2 τxy 50 2

θs = – 5.65° and 84.3°


σx + σ y
σavg = = – 70 MPa
2
70 MPa
19 MPa
121 M 51 MPa
Pa
121 MPa 39.3° τmax
, inplan
e

70 MPa 5.65°
5.65°
σav
39.3° 45° g

19 MP
a

Orientation for σ1, 2 Position of τmax, implane Avg. stress

Q.3.(c) (ii) Solution:


Let us consider a sphere subjected to uniform hydrostatic pressure.
∆V −3 P
Volumetric strain, = = ∈V = ( 1 − 2ν ) (where P is magnitude of pressure)
V E
If ν < 0.5, P < 0 and (1 – 2ν) > 0, as ∈V < 0
Which means that volumetric strain will be negative and it has practical significance
under hydrostatic pressure sphere volume will reduce.
P
P

P
P
D

P
P

If v > 0.5, ∈v > 0 i.e. in place of decrease in volume there


will be increase in volume which is not possible that means µ can not greater than 0.5.

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Q.4.(a) (i) Solution:


C (ω = ?)

θ = 8 rad
θA
O A ω = 5 rad/s
θC

B (ω = 0)

At initial position OA, ω = 5 rad/s


At intermediate position, OB, ω = 0
At final position OC, ω = ?
Total angular displacement = Angular displacement in CW and CCW direction
= θclockwise + θanticlockwise = 20.5 radians
θC + θA = 20.5 (total angle)
θA – θC = 8 (net angular movement for C)
Solving these two, we get
θA = 14.25 rad and θC = 6.25 rad
Let us consider motion of bar from OA to OB
ω 2 = ω02 + 2αθC
0 = 52 + 2α(6.25)

25
α = − = – 2 rad/s2 (–ve sign for retardation)
12.5

Now, let us consider motion of bar from OA to OC


ω 2 = ω02 + 2αθ
ω 2 = (5)2 + 2 × (–2) × (– 8)
ω 2 = 25 + 32 = 57
ω = 7.55 rad/s Answer
Alternative solution:
Now let us consider motion of bar from OB to OC,
ω 2 = ω02 + 2αθ
ω 2 = (0)2 + 2 ×(– 2) × (–14.25)
ω = 7.55 rad/s Answer

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Test No : 4 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING | 25
Q.4.(a) (ii) Solution:
Consider the system at the verge of impending when θ = 45° then taking the system in
equilibrium condition.
Considering FBD of block A:
W
ΣFx = 0 A

N1 = FAB cos45°

N1
ΣFy = 0 45°

µN1 + FAB sin45° – W = 0


FAB
W = µN1 + FAB sin45°
µN1
= µFAB cos45° + FAB sin45°
FBD of block A

FAB
W = (µ + 1) ...(i)
2

FAB W
Considering FBD of block B: B

ΣF y = 0
N2 – W – FAB sin45° = 0 45°

N2 = W + FAB sin45°
ΣFx = 0 µN2

FAB cos45° – µN2 = 0


N2
FABcos45° – µ(W + FAB sin45°) = 0
FBD of block B
FABcos45° – µW – µFAB sin45° = 0
FAB ( cos 45° − µ sin 45° ) FAB  1 − µ 
W = =   ...(ii)
µ 2  µ 
from equation (i) and (ii):

FAB FAB  1 − µ 
(1 + µ ) =  
2 2  µ 

µ + µ2 = 1 – µ
µ2 + 2µ – 1 = 0
−2 ± 4 + 4 −2 ± 2 2
µ = = = −1 ± 2
2 2
Discarding negative value, µ = −1 + 2 = 0.414

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Q.4.(b) Solution:
The work done by the weights of the bar and disk as they fall and becomes vertical is
U12 = mbar g(0.6) + mdisk g(1.2)
= 14 × 9.81 × 0.6 + 9 × 9.81 × 1.2
= 188.4 Nm
The bar’s moment of inertia about the pinned end O is
1 1
I0 = mbar l 2 = × 14 × 1.2 2 = 6.72 kgm2
3 3
The moment of inertia of the disk about A is

1 1
IA = mdisk R 2 = × 9 × 0.3 2 = 0.405 kgm2
2 2
Case (i): The disk also rotates with respect to frame if the bar and disk are welded.
1 2 1
Tdisk = mdisk ( lw ) + I A w 2
2 2
1 2 1  2
=  × 9 × ( 1.2 ) + × 0.405  w = 6.68 w 2
2 2 
Equating the work to the final kinetic energy,
U12 = Tbar + Tdisk
188.4 = 3.36 w 2 + 6.68ω2
ω2 = 18.76494
ω = 4.33 rad/s Answer (i)
Case (ii): The bar and disk are connected by smooth pin i.e. disk will not rotate w.r.t.
frame, so its final kinetic energy is
1 2
Tdisk = mdisk ( lw )
2
1
= mdisk l 2 w 2
2
1 2
= × 9 × ( 1.2 ) × w 2 = 6.48 w 2
2
Equating the work to the final kinetic energy,

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Test No : 4 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING | 27
U12 = Tbar + Tdisk
188.4 = 3.36 ω2 + 6.48 ω2
188.4
ω2 = ( = 19.14634
3.36 + 6.48 )
ω = 4.376 rad/s Answer (ii)

Q.4.(c) Solution:
1. Dividing into 3 parts as shown.
2. Quarter circle part (1)

π× 32
A1 = = 7.07 cm2
4
4×3
x1 = y1 = = 1.27 cm

y
y
A
D A
2
3 G2
R
1 y2
y1
x x
O B C O
x1
x1
3. Square - part (2)
A 2 = 3 × 3 = 9 cm2
x1 = – 1.5 cm; y2 = 1.5 cm
4. Quarter circle part (3)

π× 32
– A3 = − = – 7.07 cm2
4
 4×3 
x3 = −  3 −  = – 1.73 cm
 3π 
4× 3
y3 = 3 − = 1.73 cm

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y y
D
A
3
G3
y3 G
x y
C O B x
C
x3 x

5. Centriod of the given shaded area is given as

7.07 × 1.27 + 9 × ( −1.5 ) + ( −7.07 ) × ( −1.73 )


x =
7.07 + 9 − 7.07

x = 0.8566 cm

7.07 × 1.27 + 9 × 1.5 + ( −7.07 ) × 1.73


y =
7.07 + 9 − 7.07

y = 1.139 cm
∴ Coordinates of centroid w.r.t. origin O are
G (0.8566, 1.139) cm Answer

Section B : Fluid Mechanics and Turbo Machinery-1, Thermodynamics-2 + RAC-2

Q.5.(a) Solution:

1
mg 1000°C

T 500°C
2 Q1
Increase in unvailable
Q1 energy
210°C
mw
mw

Q2
a b e
T0 = 25 + 273
= 298 K ∆sgas
d c f
∆swater
Entropy

When water evaporates at 210°C as the gas gets cooled from 1000°C to 500°C, the resulting
power cycle has an unavailable energy represented by the area aefd. The increase in
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Test No : 4 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING | 29
unavailable energy due to irreversible heat transfer is thus given by area befc.
Entropy increase of 1 kg water
Latent heat absorbed 1 × 1900.2
(∆S)water = =
T ( 273 + 210 )
= 3.934 kJ/K
Q1 = Heat transferred from the gas
= Latent heat transferred from water
= mgcpg(1000 – 500) = 1 × 1900.2 (for one kg of water)
1900.2
mgcpg = = 3.8004 kJ/K
500
 773 
(∆S)Gas = 3.8004 l n   = – 1.896 kJ/K
 1273 
(∆S)Total = (∆S)water + (∆S)gas
= 3.934 – 1.896 = 2.038 kJ/K Answer
Increase in unavailable energy = T0(∆S)total = 298 × 2.038 = 607.2966 kJ Answer

Q.5.(b) Solution:
The compressibility factor (Z) is a useful thermodynamic property for modifying the
ideal gas law to account for behavior of real gases. It is measure of how much the
thermodynamic properties of a real gas deviate from those expected of an ideal gas.
Compressibility factor is defined as the ratio of actual volume at a given pressure and
temperature to the ideal volume under same conditions of pressure and temperature. It
is also known as the compression factor or the gas deviation factor.
Significance:
(i) for Z  1, the gas pressure becomes very low and all gases tend toward ideal
behavior.
(ii) for Z < 1, the gas is at intermediate pressure because the intermolecular forces of
attraction cause the actual volumes to be less than the ideal values.
(iii) For Z > 1, the gas is at high pressure because the intermolecular repulsive forces
cause the actual volumes to be greater than the ideal values.
In case of a real gas, forces between the molecules are a function of the distance between
them. When the molecules are far apart, there are attractive forces between them but
when they are forced close together their electronic fields overlap due to which repulsive
forces come into play. Pressure and molecular attraction tend to confine the molecules
while temperature and molecular repulsion tend to separate them.
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When the temperature of gas is high, kinetic energy of molecules is increased due to
which the molecules tend to move apart. So, at high temperatures, the actual volume of
gas will be more than the ideal volume. Hence the compressibility factor will be greater
than one at high temperatures.

Q.5.(c) Solution:

2m
6m
A B
A1
A2 4m

D C
5m

Let us join AC for the ease of calculation.


1
A1 = × 6 × 4 = 12 m2
2
4
y1 = 2 + = 2 + 1.33 = 3.33 m
3
1
A2 = × 5 × 4 = 10 m2
2
2 14
y2 = 2 + × 4 = = 4.67 m
3 3
Water thrusts:

F1 = ρgA 1 y1
= 9810 × 12 × 3.33 = 392007.6 N  392 kN

F2 = ρgA 2 y2
= 9810 × 10 × 4.67 = 458127 N  458.13 kN
Total water thrust, F = F1 + F2 = 392 + 458.13 = 850.13 kN Answer
Moment of Inertia:

6 × 43
Triangle ABC : IG1 = = 10.67 m4
36

5 × 43
Triangle ACD: IG2 = = 8.89 m4
36
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Depth of centre of pressure below free surface:
IG 1
Triangle ABC: h1 = y1 + A y
1 1
10.67
= 3.33 + = 3.597 m
12 × 3.33
IG 2
Triangle ACD: h2 = y 2 + A y
2 2
8.89
= 4.67 + = 4.86 m
10 × 4.67
Location of common center of pressure is given as
F1h1 + F2 h2
h1 =
F1 + F2
392 × 3.597 + 458.13 × 4.86
=
392 + 458.13
= 4.2776 m (from the free water surface) Answer

Q.5.(d) (i)Solution:
The type of operational difficulties commonly experienced in centrifugal pumps and
their remedies (given in parentheses) are as given below:
1. Pump fails to start pumping:
• Pump may not be properly primed – (Reprime the pump).
• Total head against which the pump is working may be much higher than that
for which the pump is designed – (Check the head with accurate gauges; reduce
the head or change the pump)
• Impeller may be clogged – (Clean the impeller)
• The rotation of the impeller may be in the wrong direction (Change the direction
of rotation)
• Too high suction lift (Reduce the suction lift)
• Law speed – (Increase the speed)
2. Pump is not working upto capacity and pressure:
• Leakage of air into the pump – (Plug the leakage)
• Some of the parts are damaged due to excessive wear and tear – (Replace the
worn out/damaged parts).
3. Pump stops working:
• Presence of air in suction line – (Remove the air by priming and plug the entry
of air).
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• High suction lift (Reduce the suction lift).


4. Pump has very low efficiency:
• Speed may be too high - (Reduce the speed)
• Head may be too low and the pump delivers the liquid in large quantity –
(Reduce the discharge or change the pump)
• Pump may be operating in wrong direction - (Correct the direction of rotation
of impeller)
• Shaft may be bent, the impeller may be touching the casing, stuffing, boxes
may be too tight, wearing rings be worm - (Repair the affected parts).

Q.5.(d) (ii)Solution:
Priming of a centrifugal pump:
• The operation of filling the suction pipe, casing of the pump and a portion of the
delivery pipe completely from outside source with the liquid to be raised, before
starting the pump, to remove any air, gas or vapour from these parts of the pump
is called priming of a centrifugal pump. If a centrifugal pump is not primed
before starting, air pockets inside the impeller may give rise to vortices and cause
discontinuity of flow. Further, dry running of the pump may result in rubbing
and seizing of the wearing rings and cause serious damage.
• Small pumps are usually primed by pouring liquid into the funnel provided for
the purpose. While doing priming, the air -vent valve provided in the pump
casing is opened, the air escape through the valve. The priming is continued till
all air from the suction pipe, impeller and casing has been removed.
• Large pumps are primed by evacuating the casing and the suction pipe by vacuum
pump or by an ejector; the liquid is thus drawn up the suction pipe from the
sump and the pump is filled with liquid.
• The internal construction of some pumps is such that special arrangements
containing a supply of liquid are provided in the suction pipe due to which
automatic priming of the pump occurs, such pumps are known as ‘self priming
pumps’.
Q.5.(e) Solution:
Advantages of Vortex tube:
• Leakages are insignificant as air is the refrigerant.
• No moving parts, thus no maintenance
• Longer life
• Simple design and function

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Test No : 4 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING | 33
• Light in weight and compact
• Initial investment is less
• Operation is simple and no skilled manpower required
Disadvantages of Vortex tube refrigeration :
• Poor COP
• Limitation on size of unit, not suitable for large capacity
• Compressor results in noisy operation
Applications of Vortex tube refrigeration :
• Cooling of cutting tools
• Air suits for mines
• Condensation of natural gases
• Turbine blade cooling
• Aircraft systems

Q.6.(a) (i)Solution:

1 m W.C. L h
Diameter of tank = 3 m Initial position
X
Diameter of pipe = 20 cm = 0.2 m h = L sinθ
Deflection in the pipe, L = 5 m θ
from the figure shown,
h = Lsinθ
As given, for Xm fall of liquid in the tank, there is Lm rise in the tube/pipe. Here, volume
displaced is the same for tank as well as tube.

π 2 π 2
 × 3  X =  × 0.2  L
4  4 

2
 0.2  0.04 L
X =   L=
 3  9

Difference of head = h + X
= Lsinθ + X
Pressure due to difference of head = Gauge pressure of water
ρliquid g(h + X) = ρwater gH
(h + X)(SG)liquid = H
(Lsinθ + X) × 0.88 = H

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 0.04L  1
 L sin θ +  =
 9  0.88
0.04 1
sin θ + =
9 L × 0.88
1 0.04
sinθ = − = 0.22283 (L = 5 m)
5 × 0.88 9
θ = 12.875° Answer

Q.6.(a) (ii)Solution:
Capillary action occurs because water molecules bond each other strongly due to forces
of cohesion and adhesion where water molecules are attracted and stick to other
substances such as glass or paper. Adhesion of water to the surface of a material will
cause an upward force on the liquid. The surface tension acts to hold the surface intact.
Capillary action occurs when the adhesion to the surface material and cohesive forces
between the water molecules are unequal. The height to which capillary action will take
place is limited by surface tension and gravity.
When a glass tube (a narrow one) is inserted into a fluid say water, the water rises in the
tube up to a certain extent. This is because the water molecules are attracted to the glass
molecules. Thus more water molecules try to be near to the glass molecules and the
level of water keeps rising until it is balanced by the gravitational force acting on the
risen water column. The capillary tube is composed of atoms or elements or molecules
that attract the individual molecules in the liquid. A point to be noted here is that the
force of adhesion between the water and glass is higher than the cohesive force between
the water molecules. For mercury the fluid would actually goes down when a glass tube
is inserted into mercury. This is mainly because the mercury molecules would be together
rather than be with the glass molecules. Hence it tires to move away from the glass and
thus goes down the tube.
Examples of surface tension:
• formation of liquid droplets,
• the ability of a needle to float on water
• spherical shape of bubbles
• soap being used to break up water tension
Examples of capillary rise and depression:
• Glass tube dipped in water
• Moving of water molecules inside the soil, absorbed into the roots of the plant.

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Test No : 4 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING | 35
• Glass tube dipped in mercury
• Sponges and brushes used to absorb soap water to clean the vessels.
• Blotting paper used to absorb spilled liquid
• Absorption of sweat from skin by fabrics
• Movement of water in and out of our cellular structure that deposits vitamins,
nutrients and vital blood plasma. (Acts as a vital communication between brain
and body parts)
Q.6.(b) Solution:
Bend nozzle assembly is our system and Fx and Fy denotes hydrodynamic forces on
system.

(2)
y

Fy V2
5 cm dia
P2 = Patm

x
Fx
0.5 m (2)
V1 W

‘ (1) (1)

P1
(a) Bend-nozzle
10 cm dia.

2400 × 10−3
Discharge through bend-nozzle, Q = = 0.04 m3/s
60

Velocity at section 1, V1 = Q = 0.04 × 4 = 5.093 m/s


A1 π× ( 0.1)2

Q 4 × 0.04
Velocity at nozzle exit, V2 = A = = 20.372 m/s
2 π× ( 0.05 )2

W = Weight of 18.2 litres of water


= 18.2 × 10–3 × 9810 = 178.5 N
Applying Bernoulli’s equation between sections (1) and (2) and taking the horizontal
plane through the bottom of the bend as datum:
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P1 V12 P V2
+ + z1 = 2 + 2 + z2 + Head loss
ρg 2 g ρg 2 g
Head loss = Head loss in bend + Head loss in nozzle

V2 V2 V2 V12
= 0.5 + = 2.5 = 2.5
2g g 2g 2g

(V1 = velocity of water in pipe)


2
P1 ( 5.093 ) ( )2 ( )2
+ + 0 = 0 + 20.372 + 0.5 + 2.5 × 5.093
ρg 19.62 19.62 19.62
P1
ρg = 23.636 m
P 1 = 9810 × 23.636 = 231.868 kN/m2
Let Fx and Fy be the forces in positive x-direction and positive y-direction applied by
fluid on bend-nozzle assembly.
Applying momentum equation in x-direction:
– Fx +(– P2A2 – 0) = ρQ(V2 – 0)
Fx = 1000 × 0.04 × 20.372 = – 814.9 N (P2 = Patm = 0)
Applying momentum equation in y-direction:
(0 + P1A1) + (– Fy) – W = ρQ(0 – v1)

π
231868 × × 0.12 + ( −Fy ) − 178.5 = 1000 × 0.04 × (– 5.093)
4
1821.08 + (– Fy) – 178.5 = – 203.72
Fy = 1846.30 N
Since the computed Fx is negative, its actual direction is reversed as shown in figure (b).
Resultant force on bend nozzle.

FR = ( −814.9)2 + (1846.30)2 =2018.14 N

−1  1846.30 
Angle of resultant, θ = tan   = 66.2° w.r.t. horizontal.
 814.9 

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Test No : 4 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING | 37

F Fy

Fx θ
(b) Force diagram

Q.6.(c) Solution:

Free surface

Hydrostatic pressure 1m
diagram

Gate
xm

Y1
X X

(2-x) m
Y2
P

Area of the gate = 2 × 2 = 4 m2


Depth of top edge = 1 m
(i) Let the depth of such a line is x from the top of the gate.
F1 = force on the upper part = ρgAx

 x
= ρg ( 2 x )  1 + 
 2

F2 = Force on lower part

  2 − x 
= ρg  2 ( 2 − x ) ( 1 + x ) +  
  2 

As given, F1 = F 2

 x  x
2x  1 +  = 2 (2 − x ) 1 + x + 1 − 
 2  2
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 x  x
x  1 +  = (2 − x ) 2 + 
 2  2

x(x + 2) = (2 – x)(4 + x)
x 2 + 2x = 8 + 2x – 4x – x2
or 2x2 + 4x – 8 = 0
x 2 + 2x – 4 = 0

−2 ± 4 + 4 × 4 −2 ± 20
x = =
2 2
x = 1.236 m (Discarding negative value)
Answer (i)

(ii) Now, if h1 and h2 be the depth of center of pressure from the top of water surface.

IG
h = x + Ax and from the figure

Y 1 = ( 1 + x ) − h1

Y 2 = h2 − (1 + x )

 x
x1 =  1 +  m
 2

2−x x
x2 = ( 1 + x ) +   = 1+ x + 1−
 2  2

x x+4
x2 = 2 + =  m
2  2 

 x + 2   2x 
3
1

h1 =  2   +  × 
 12 2 x  x + 2  
  2  

x + 2 x2 1
= + ×
2 6 ( x + 2)

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2
6 (x + 2 ) + 2 x2
=
12 ( x + 2 )

x 2 + 3 (x 2 + 4x + 4 )
=
6 (x + 2 )

x 2 + 3x 2 + 12 x + 12
=
6 (x + 2 )

4 (x 2 + 3 x + 3 )
=
6 (x + 2 )

4 ( x 2 + 3x + 3 )
Y 1 = (1 + x ) −
6 (x + 2 )

6 ( x 2 + 3x + 2 ) − 4 x 2 − 12 x − 12
=
6 (x + 2 )

2 x 2 + 6x x ( x + 3 )
= =
6 (x + 2 ) 3 (x + 2 )
3
 x + 4  2 (2 − x ) 1
h2 =  + ×
 2  12 x+4
2 (2 − x )  
 2 
2
 x + 4  (2 − x )
=  +
 2  6 (x + 4 )
2 2
6 (x + 4 ) + 2 (2 − x )
=
12 ( x + 4 )

6 ( x 2 + 8x + 16 ) + 2 ( 4 − 4x + x 2 )
=
12 ( x + 4 )

6 x 2 + 48x + 96 + 8 − 8x + 2 x 2
=
12 ( x + 4 )

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8x 2 + 40 x + 104
=
12 ( x + 4 )

2 x 2 + 10 x + 26
=
3 (x + 4 )

Y 2 = h2 − ( 1 + x )

2 x2 + 10x + 26 − 3 ( x + 4 )(1 + x )
=
3 (x + 4)

2x2 + 10x + 26 − 3 ( x2 + 5x + 4 )
=
3 (x + 4)

2x2 + 10x + 26 − 3x2 − 15x − 12


=
3 (x + 4)

− x 2 − 5x + 14
Y2 =
3 (x + 4 )

Taking moments about X-X


F 1Y 1 = F 2Y 2

 x   x (x + 3)    2 − x    − x − 5x + 14 
2
ρg ( 2 x )  1 +   = ρ g ( 2 ( 2 − x ) )  ( 1 + x ) +    ×  
 2   3 ( x + 2 )    2    3 (x + 4 ) 

[x ( x + 2 )] [x ( x + 3 )]  x  ( − x 2 − 5x + 14 )
3 (x + 2 ) = ( 2 − x ) 2 + 
2  2 3 (x + 4 )

x2 (x + 3) ( 2 − x )( x + 4 ) ( − x 2 − 5 x + 14 )
=
6 2 × 3 (x + 4 )

x2(x + 3) = (2 – x)(– x 2 – 5x + 14)


x3 + 3x2 = – 2x 2 – 10x + 28 + x 3 + 5x2 – 14x
24x = 28
x = 1.1667 m Answer

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Test No : 4 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING | 41
Q.7.(a) (i)Solution:
Diameter of impeller at outlet, D2= 300 mm = 0.3 m
Width of impeller at outlet, B2 = 60 mm = 0.06 m
Discharge through the pump, Q = 164 litres/s = 0.164 m3/s
Manometric efficiency, ηm = 85% = 0.85
Effective vane outlet angle, φ = 30°
Speed of rotation, N = 900 rpm
u2
Vw2
β φ
vf 2 Outlet
v2 vr 2

Vane

Peripheral or tangential velocity at outlet of impeller,

πD2 N π× 0.3 × 900


u2 = =
60 60
u2 = 14.137 m/s

Q
Velocity of flow at outlet, vf 2 = πD B
2 2

0.164
vf 2 =
π× 0.3 × 0.06
vf 2 = 2.9 m/s
from velocity triangle at outlet as shown above,
V f2 2.9
Vw = u2 − = 14.137 − = 9.114 m/s
2 tan φ tan 30°
gHm
Manometric efficiency, ηm =
Vw 2 u2

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Vw 2 × u2 × ηm 9.114 × 14.137 × 0.85


Hm = = = 11.164 m
g 9.81

N Q
Specific speed, NS =
( Hm )3/4
900 0.164
= = 59.676 Answer
(11.164 )0.75

Q.7.(a) (ii)Solution:
S. No. Aspects Impulse turbine Reaction turbine
1. Conversion of The available fluid energy The energy of the fluid is partly
fluid energy is converted into K.E. by a transformed into K.E. before it (fluid)
nozzle. enters the runner of the turbine
2. Changes in pressure The pressure remains same After entering the runner with an excess
and velocity (atmospheric) throughout pressure, water undergoes changes both
the action of water on the in velocity and pressure while passing
runner through the runner.
3. Admittance of water Water may be allowed to Water is admitted over the
over the wheel enter a part or whole of circumference of the wheel
the wheel circumference
4. Water-tight casing Not required Necessary

5. Extent to which the The wheel/turbine does not Water completely fills all the passages
water fills the run full and air has a free between the blades and while flowing
wheel/turbine access to the buckets. between inlet and outlet sections does
work on the blades
6. Installation of unit Always installed above the Unit may be installed above or below
tail race. No draft tube is used. the tail race, use of a draft tube is made
7. Relative velocity Either constant or reduces Due to continuous drop in pressure
of water slightly due to friction during flow through the blade, the
relative velocity increases
8. Flow regulation — By means of a needle valve — By means of a guide-vane
fitted into the nozzle. assembly.
— Impossible without loss. — Always accompanied by loss.

Q.7.(b) Solution:
Shaft power, P = 1 MW = 1000 kW
Speed, N = 120 rpm
Overall efficiency, η0 = 92%
Head, H = 12 m

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Test No : 4 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING | 43

Shaft power P
Overall efficiency, η0 = =
Water power ρgQH

P 1000 × 10 3
Flow rate, Q = = 3
(ρgH ) η0 103 × 9.81 × 12 × 0.92 = 9.2334 m /s
Answer

N P 120 1000
Specific speed, Ns = = = 169.9 (S.I. unit) Answer
H 5/4 ( 12 )5/4

Model scale = 1 : 10
Head under which model is tested, Hm = 7.2 m
for similar turbine, each of the following parameters must be same for both model and
prototype:
H
(i) Head coefficient, CH =
N 2 D2
Q
(ii) Flow coefficient, CQ =
ND3
P
(iii) Power coefficient, CP = 3 5
N D

 H   H 
(i)  2 2  =  2 2 
N D model N D prototype

Hm Hp
=
2 2
Nm Dm N p2 Dp2

2
 Dp  Hm
Nm = 2 N p2  
 Dm  Hp

Dp Hm 7.2
Nm = N p × × = 120 × 10 = 929.5 rpm
Dm Hp 12

Qm Qp
=
3
N m Dm N p Dp3

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3
N D 
Qm = Qp m  m 
N p  Dp 
Discharge in the model:
3
929.5  1 
Qm = 9.2334 × × 
120  10 
= 0.07152 m3/s Answer

Pm Pp
Power coefficient, =
3 5
Nm Dm N p3 D p5

Power produced by the model:


3 5
N  D 
Pm = PP  m   m 
 N p   Dp 
3 5
 929.5   1 
= 1000   ×   = 4.65 kW Answer
 120   10 

Q.7.(c) Solution:
There are two runners keyed on the two ends of the shaft, and the generator lies between
them. Each runner is to be considered as one complete turbine. Thus two pelton turbines
are feeding the generator.

26000 13000
Output of each turbine, SP = 2 × η = 0.94 = 13829.787 kW
g

Pt
Power developed by each turbine= Pelton wheel efficiency

13829.787
= = 16081.15 kW
0.86
Power = ρgQH

16081.15 × 1000
Q = = 5.123 m3/s
1000 × 9.81 × 320

Velocity of jet, V1 = C v 2 gH = 1 × 2 × 9.81 × 320 = 79.236 m/s

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Test No : 4 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING | 45
Discharge, Q = Area of jet × velocity of jet
π 2
5.123 = d × 79.236
4
1/2
 5.123 × 4 
d =   = 0.287 m or 287 mm Answer (i)
 π× 79.236 
Mean diameter of runner, D = d × jet ratio
= 287 × 12 = 3444 mm
D = 3.44 m Answer (ii)

Peripheral speed, u = speed ratio× 2gH

u = 0.45 2 × 9.81 × 320 = 35.656 m/s

πDN 60 u 60 × 35.656
u = ,N= = = 197.96 rpm
60 πD π× 3.44
Answer (iii)
i.e. speed should be near to 200 rpm.
N sys × p
Frequency of generator, f =
120

120 f 120 × 50 6000


Nsys = = =
P P P
Assuming P = 30, we have:
6000
Nsynchronous = = 200 rpm Answer (iv)
30
3.44 × 197.96
Revised runner diameter, D = = 3.41 m
200

Q.8.(a) Solution:
Case(I): Same compression ratio and heat addition:
The Otto cycle 1-2-3-4-1, the diesel cycle 1-2-3’-4’-1 and the dual cycle 1-2-2’-3’’-4’’-1 are
shown in P-V and T-s diagram in figure. 1(a) and (b) respectively for the same compression
ratio and heat input.

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Constant
pressure
3
3
2′ 3′′
3′′

Temperature
2′
3′
2
3′
Pressure

2 4′
4′′ 4′
4 1 4 4′′
1 Constant
Isentropic process Volume
Volume 5 6 6′′ 6′
(a) Entropy
(b)
Figure 1: Same compression ratio and heat addition

From the T-s diagram, it can be seen that area 5-2-3-6 = Area 5-2-3’-6’ = 5-2’- 3’’-6’’ as this
area represents the heat input which is the same for all cycles. All the cycles start from
the same initial state point 1 and the air is compressed from state 1 to 2 as the compression
ratio is same. It is seen from the T-s diagram for the same heat input, the heat rejection in
Otto cycle (area 5-1-4-6) is minimum and heat rejection in diesel cycle (5-1-4’-6’) is
maximum. Consequently, Otto cycle has the highest work output and efficiency. Diesel
cycle has the least efficiency and dual cycle having the efficiency between the two.
Case II: Same peak pressure, peak temperature and heat rejection:
Figures 2(a) and (b) show the Otto cycle 1-2-3-4 and diesel cycle 1-2’-3-4 on P-V and T-s
coordinates, where the peak pressure and temperature and the amount of heat rejected
are the same.
The efficiency of the Otto, cycle,

QR
ηOtto = 1 − Q
S

Where, Qs in the area under the curve 2-3 in figure 2(b). The efficiency of the diesel cycle,
1-2-3’-4 is,

QR
ηDiesel = 1 −
QS′

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Test No : 4 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING | 47

2′ 3 3
e
ssur

Is
pre

en
t
stan

tro
Con

Temperature
pi
e
Pressure

2′ lum

cp
o
Is

ro
t V
en
2 an

ce
t
tro
s

ss
2 n 4
4 Co
pi
c
pr

1 Volume
oc

nt
1 Consta
es
s

Volume (a) 5 Entropy(b) 6

Figure 2: Same peak pressure and temperatuer

It is evident from figure 2 that Qs > Qs'. Therefore, the diesel cycle efficiency is greater
than the Otto cycle efficiency when both engines are built to withstand the same thermal
and mechanical stresses. Efficiency of dual cycle lies between two.
Case (iii): Same maximum pressure and heat input:

2′ 3′ 3 3
Is

re
en

u
ress
tro

s ta nt p
pi

Con
Temperature
Pressure

cp

e
Ise 2′ lum
ro

nt o
ce

V
ro nt
ss

pi
cp
2 4
n sta 4
4′ 2 Co
ro 4′
ce 1
ss 1 e
t Volu m
Constan
5 6′ 6
Volume Entropy(b)
(a)

For same maximum pressure and heat input, the Otto cycle (1-2-3-4-1) and diesel cycle
(1-2’-3’-4’-1) are shown on p-V and T-s diagrams in figure 3(a) and (b) respectively. It is
evident from the figure that the heat rejection for Otto cycle (area 1-5-6-4 on T-s diagram)
is more than the heat rejected in diesel cycle (1-5-6’-4’’). Hence diesel cycle is more efficient
than Otto cycle for the condition of same maximum pressure and heat input. One can
make a not that with these conditions, the diesel cycle has higher compression ratio than
that of Otto cycle. One should also not that the cycle which is having higher efficiency
allows maximum expansion The dual cycle efficiency will be between these two.

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Q.8.(b) Solution:
The temperature entropy (T-s) and enthalpy entropy (h-s) diagrams for a steam jet
refrigeration system are shown in figure (a) and (b) respectively.

Saturation curve
pB
pB Motive steam
A
A hA
pC
F′ pE
hF′
Temperature

Enthalpy
hF F

hE
pC G′ Condenser hD E
F F′ D
hB′
G P B′
pE Flash chamber D hB
C B
H or evaporator B B′ E

Enropy
Entropy
(a) T-s diagram
(b) h-s diagram
Figure: T-s and h-s diagramz

The point A represents the initial condition of the motive steam before passing through
the nozzle and the point B is the final condition of the steam, assuming isentropic
expansion. The point C represents the initial condition of the water vapour in the flash
chamber or evaporator and the point E is the condition of the mixture of high velocity
steam from the nozzle and the entrained water vapour before compression. Assuming
isentropic compression, the final condition of the mixture discharged to the condenser is
represented by point F. The condition of motive steam just before mixing with the water
vapour is shown at point D. The make-up water is supplied at point G whose temperature
is slightly lower than the condenser temperature and is throttled to point H in the flash
chamber.
Efficiencies used in steam jet refrigeration system:
The various efficiency used in steam jet refrigeration system are discussed below:
1. Nozzle efficiency: It is defined as the ratio of actual enthalpy drop to the isentropic
enthalpy drop of the motive steam passing through the nozzle. Mathematically, nozzle
efficiency,

Actual enthalpy drop AP hA − hB′


ηN = = =
Isentropic enthalpy drop AB h A − hB
The nozzle efficiency may vary from 85 to 90 per cent.

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Test No : 4 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING | 49
2. Entrainment efficiency: The water vapour formed in the flash chamber or evaporator
comes out with a very low velocity as compared to the velocity of the steam (V) coming
out of the nozzle which is given by

V = 2000 ( h A − hB′ ) = 44.72 h A − hB '

The expression (hA – hB′) represents the enthalpy drop of the motive steam. This enthalpy
drop gives the required momentum to the water vapour coming out of the flash chamber
by the high velocity steam is called entrainment of vapour. During the entrainment of
water vapour from the flash chamber, the motive steam loses some of its kinetic energy.
This process of entrainment is inefficient and part of the original motive force available
for compression is reduced. This is taken into consideration by a factor known as
entrainment efficiency. Mathematically, entrainment efficiency,
h A − hD
ηE = h − h
A B′
The entrainment efficiency may be taken as 65 percent.
3. Compression efficiency: It is defined as the ratio of the isentropic enthalpy increase to
the actual enthalpy increase required for the compression of the mixture of motive steam
and the water vapour, in the diffuser. Mathematically, compression efficiency.
Isentropic enthalpy increase hF − hE
ηc = =
Actual enthalpy increase hF ′ − hE
The compression efficiency may be taken as 75 to 80 per cent.

Q8. (c) Solution:


h1
curve

h3 26°C
ation

h2
1
Satur

w1
h4
w(kg/kg of dry air)
g)

3
/k

w3
kJ

4 w2
h(

2
50% v3 w4

12°C 24°C tbd3 39°C

DBT
Given: V3 = 4000 m3/min, tdb1 = 39°C, twb1 = 26°C, tdb2 = 24°C, φ2 = 50% RH,
tdb4 = ADP = 12°C
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Following are the steps for showing processes on Psychrometric chart.


1. Locate point 1 at the intersection of 39°C DBT and 26°C WBT lines.
2. Locate point 2 at the intersection of 24°C DBT and 50% RH lines.
3. Join the points 1 and 2.
4. Locate point 3, which represents 20% of fresh air and 80% of recirculated air, on the
line 1-2, such that
Length 2 –3 = 0.2 × length 2-1
5. Locate point 4 on the saturation curve where it meets vertical line drawn at 12°C
DBT.
6. Joint the point 3 and 4.
Using psychrometric chart, we find:
h1 = 80.6 kJ/kg of dry air
h2 = 48 kJ/kg of dry air
h3 = 54.4 kJ/kg of dry air
h4 = 33.1 kJ/kg of dry air
vs3(specific volume) = 0.865 m3/kg of dry air
tdb3 = 27°C and
ω3 = 0.0106 kg/kg of dry air
V3 4000
Mass of air entering the coil, ma3 = v = 0.865 = 4624.3 kg/min = 77.07 kg/s
3
(i) Total cooling load = ma3(h3 – h4)
= 4624.3(54.4 – 34.1) = 98497.59 kJ/min
98497.59
= = 469 tonne = 1641.5 kW Ans.(1)
210
(ii) Since the total mass of air (ma3 = 4624.3 kg/min) comprises 20% of fresh air, therefore,
mass of fresh air supplied at point 1,
ma1 = 0.2 × 4624.3 = 924.86 kg/min, and
fresh air load = ma1(h1 – h2)
= 924.86(80.6 – 48) = 30150.4 kJ/min
30150.4
= = 143.5733 tonne
210
Room heat gain = 469 – 143.5733 = 325.42 tonne
= 1139 kW Answer (2)

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120 125 130 135 140 145


5

www
11

35 40 45 50 55 0.35
0.033
0
11

0.032
5

0.031
10

0.030 0.40
0
10

0.029

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0.028

90
30
0.027
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70
0.024

di
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0.023 0.50

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60

lat
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0.021

– 1.8 Enthalpy deviation kJ/kg dry air


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65 0.019
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0.018
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50
Test No : 4

0.014 0.75

%
th
40

30
En
0.013 0.80
0.012
35

0.85

– 0.8

– 1.2
40

– 0.6
0.011

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0.90

– 0.4
2
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0.
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0.

20%
3
25

0.95


0.010

0.


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25 u re
20

rat 2
pe

10
4 0.008
tem

Moisture Content kg/kg of Dry air


n
15

atio
10

0.007
tur
r sa 0.006

10%
bo 5
bul
10
5

t 0.005
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0 0.004
0

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0.4 0.002
0.6
0

0.001
–1

0.8 1.0
0.00
–10 –5 0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 55
Dry bulb temperature °C
0.75 0.80 0.85 0.90
3
Volume m kg dry air

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