DATE : 13/09/2020 Test Booklet Code

G5
AKANH

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs.
Questions & Answers Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2020
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

2. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.

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4. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving
the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

5. The CODE for this Booklet is G5.

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in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this
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11. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in
the Attendance Sheet.

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

1. If the distance between two consecutive base 5. The QRS complex in a standard ECG
pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base represents
pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical
(1) Depolarisation of auricles
mammalian cell is 6.6 × 10 9 bp, then the
length of the DNA is approximately (2) Depolarisation of ventricles
(1) 2.5 meters (3) Repolarisation of ventricles
(2) 2.2 meters (4) Repolarisation of auricles
(3) 2.7 meters Answer (2)
(4) 2.0 meters 6. Match the following columns and select the
Answer ( 2 ) correct option.
2. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate Column-I Column-II
animals are exemplified by (a) Floating Ribs (i) Located between
(1) Platyhelminthes second and
(2) Aschelminthes seventh ribs

(3) Annelida (b) Acromion (ii) Head of the

Humerus
(4) Ctenophora
(c) Scapula (iii) Clavicle
Answer ( 1 )
(d) Glenoid cavity (iv) Do not connect
3. Match the following columns and select the
correct option. with the sternum

Column-I Column-II (a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) Gregarious, (i) Asterias (1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

polyphagous pest (2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
symmetry and larva (4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
with bilateral Answer ( 3 )
symmetry 7. Experimental verification of the chromosomal
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana theory of inheritance was done by

(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta (1) Sutton

(a) (b) (c) (d) (2) Boveri

(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (3) Morgan
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (4) Mendel
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) Answer ( 3 )
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) 8. Identify the incorrect statement.
Answer ( 1 ) (1) Sapwood is involved in conduction of
4. Which is the important site of formation of water and minerals from root to leaf
glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic (2) Sapwood is the innermost secondary
cells? xylem and is lighter in colour
(1) Peroxisomes
(3) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils
(2) Golgi bodies etc., heart wood is dark in colour
(3) Polysomes (4) Heart wood does not conduct water but
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum gives mechanical support
Answer (2) Answer ( 2 )

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

9. Match the following columns and select the 13. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may
correct option. live for few days because
Column-I Column-II (1) the cockroach does not have nervous
(a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease system.

(b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus (2) the head holds a small proportion of a
nervous system while the rest is situated
(c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus along the ventral part of its body.
(d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease (3) the head holds a 1/3 rd of a nervous
(a) (b) (c) (d) system while the rest is situated along the
dorsal part of its body.
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
cockroach are situated in ventral part of
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) abdomen.
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 2 ) 14. Select the correct events that occur during
10. Match the organism with its use in inspiration.
biotechnology. (a) Contraction of diaphragm
(a) Bacillus (i) Cloning vector (b) Contraction of external inter-costal
thuringiensis muscles
(b) Thermus (ii) Construction of (c) Pulmonary volume decreases
aquaticus first rDNA (d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases
molecule
(1) (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA polymerase
(3) only (d) (4) (a) and (b)
tumefaciens
Answer ( 4 )
(d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins
15. By which method was a new breed ‘Hisardale’
typhimurium
of sheep formed by using Bikaneri ewes and
Select the correct option from the following: Marino rams?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Mutational breeding
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (2) Cross breeding
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (3) Inbreeding
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (4) Out crossing
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 1 ) 16. Which one of the following is the most
11. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond abundant protein in the animals?
and peptide bond, respectively in their (1) Collagen (2) Lectin
structure
(3) Insulin (4) Haemoglobin
(1) Glycerol, trypsin (2) Cellulose, lecithin
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Inulin, insulin (4) Chitin, cholesterol
17. How many true breeding pea plant varieties
Answer ( 3 ) did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar
12. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of except in one character with contrasting
DNA helix during transcription. traits?
(1) DNA helicase (2) DNA polymerase (1) 2 (2) 14
(3) RNA polymerase (4) DNA ligase (3) 8 (4) 4
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 2 )

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

18. The body of the ovule is fused within the 23. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced
funicle at amino acids by mixing the following in a
(1) Micropyle (2) Nucellus closed flask

(3) Chalaza (4) Hilum (1) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C

Answer ( 4 ) (2) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C

19. Which of the following is correct about (3) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C
viroids? (4) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C
(1) They have free RNA without protein coat Answer (4)
(2) They have DNA with protein coat 24. Which of the following statements is
(3) They have free DNA without protein coat correct?

(4) They have RNA with protein coat (1) Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-
bond
Answer ( 1 )
(2) Adenine pairs with thymine through three
20. The number of substrate level H-bonds
phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid
cycle is (3) Adenine does not pair with thymine

(1) One (2) Two (4) Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-
bonds
(3) Three (4) Zero
Answer (4)
Answer ( 1 )
25. Match the following with respect to meiosis
21. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by
nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous (a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization
plants is/are (b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata
(1) Nitrate alone (c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over
(2) Ammonia and oxygen (d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis
(3) Ammonia and hydrogen Select the correct option from the following
(4) Ammonia alone (a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer (3) (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
22. Match the following diseases with the (2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
causative organism and select the correct
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
option.
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Column-I Column-II
Answer (1)
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria
26. Choose the correct pair from the following
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
(1) Polymerases - Break the DNA into
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
fragments
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
(2) Nucleases - Separate the two
(a) (b) (c) (d) strands of DNA
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (3) Exonucleases - Make cuts at
specific positions
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
within DNA
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) Ligases - Join the two DNA
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) molecules
Answer (1) Answer (4)

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

27. Select the option including all sexually
transmitted diseases.
(1) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
(2) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(3) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
(4) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
33. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to
(1) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose
of UV-B radiation
(2) High reflection of light from snow
(3) Damage to retina caused by infra-red
rays

Answer (4) (4) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low

temperature
28. Embryological support for evolution was
Answer ( 1 )
disapproved by
34. Match the following concerning essential
(1) Alfred Wallace
elements and their functions in plants
(2) Charles Darwin
(a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water
(3) Oparin
(b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination
(4) Karl Ernst von Baer
(c) Boron (iii) Required for
Answer (4) chlorophyll
29. The roots that originate from the base of the biosynthesis
stem are (d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis
(1) Primary roots (2) Prop roots Select the correct option
(3) Lateral roots (4) Fibrous roots (a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer (4) (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
30. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
fragments can be visualized with the help of
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(1) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation
35. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the
(4) Acetocarmine in bright blue light introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus
Answer (1) thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to
31. Which of the following hormone levels will (1) Fungal diseases (2) Plant nematodes
cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the (3) Insect predators (4) Insect pests
graffian follicle?
Answer ( 4 )
(1) High concentration of Progesterone
36. Ray florets have
(2) Low concentration of LH
(1) Superior ovary (2) Hypogynous ovary
(3) Low concentration of FSH
(3) Half inferior ovary(4) Inferior ovary
(4) High concentration of Estrogen
Answer (4)
Answer ( 4 )
37. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for
32. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified control of
from
(1) Emission of ozone depleting substances
(1) Columnar epithelial cells
(2) Release of Green House gases
(2) Chondrocytes
(3) Disposal of e-wastes
(3) Compound epithelial cells
(4) Transport of Genetically modified
(4) Squamous epithelial cells organisms from one country to another
Answer ( 1 ) Answer (1)
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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

38. Identify the wrong statement with regard to (1) (c) and (a) (2) (a) and (b)
Restriction Enzymes.
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (d) and (c)
(1) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
Answer (3)
sites.
43. Match the following columns and select the
(2) They are useful in genetic engineering.
correct option.
(3) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
Column-I Column-II
ligases.
(a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-A
(4) Each restriction enzyme functions by
inspecting the length of a DNA sequence. butylicum
Answer (3) (b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid
39. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that polysporum
enters the human body is (c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid
(1) Sporozoites
purpureus
(2) Female gametocytes
(d) Aspergillus niger (iv) Blood cholesterol
(3) Male gametocytes
lowering agent
(4) Trophozoites
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer (1)
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
40. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
completed
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) At the time of copulation
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) After zygote formation
Answer (1)
(3) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an
ovum 44. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular
algae?
(4) Prior to ovulation
(1) Gelidium and Gracilaria
Answer (3)
41. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme (2) Anabaena and Volvox
in photorespiration leads to the formation of (3) Chlorella and Spirulina
(1) 1 molecule of 3-C compound (4) Laminaria and Sargassum
(2) 1 molecule of 6-C compound Answer (3)
(3) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 45. In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the
1 molecule of 2-C compound transfer of electrons from
(4) 2 molecules of 3-C compound (1) Cytb6f complex to PS-I
Answer (1) (2) PS-I to NADP+
42. Which of the following statemennts are true (3) PS-I to ATP synthase
for the phylum-Chordata?
(4) PS-II to Cytb6f complex
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from
Answer (4)
head to tail and it is present throughout
their life. 46. Presence of which of the following conditions
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?
the embryonic period only. (1) Uremia and Renal Calculi
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and (2) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
hollow.
(3) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla :
(4) Uremia and Ketonuria
Hemichordata, Tunicata and
Cephalochordata. Answer (2)

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

47. Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, 52. The transverse section of a plant shows
strychnine and caffeine are produced by following anatomical features :
plants for their
(a) Large number of scattered vascular
(1) Growth response bundles surrounded by bundle sheath
(2) Defence action (b) Large conspicuous parenchymatous
(3) Effect on reproduction ground tissue

(4) Nutritive value (c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed

Answer (2) (d) Phloem parenchyma absent

48. Which of the following would help in Identify the category of plant and its part :
prevention of diuresis? (1) Monocotyledonous root
(1) Reabsorption of Na+and water from renal (2) Dicotyledonous stem
tubules due to aldosterone
(3) Dicotyledonous root
(2) Atrial natriuretic factor causes
vasoconstriction (4) Monocotyledonous stem

(3) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG cells Answer ( 4 )

(4) More water reabsorption due to 53. In relation to Gross primary productivity and
undersecretion of ADH Net primary productivity of an ecosystem,
which one of the following statements is
Answer (1)
correct?
49. Select the correct match
(1) Gross primary productivity is always more
(1) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal than net primary productivity
dominant trait
(2) Gross primary productivity and Net
(2) Sickle cell anaemia – Autosomal primary productivity are one and same
recessive trait,
(3) There is no relationship between Gross
chromosome-11
primary productivity and Net primary
(3) Thalassemia – X linked productivity
(4) Haemophilia – Y linked (4) Gross primary productivity is always less
Answer (2) than net primary productivity
50. Which of the following is not an attribute of a Answer ( 1 )
population? 54. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination
(1) Natality takes place by :
(2) Mortality (1) Water currents only
(3) Species interaction (2) Wind and water
(4) Sex ratio (3) Insects and water
Answer (3) (4) Insects or wind
51. Which of the following statements about Answer ( 4 )
inclusion bodies in incorrect?
55. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic
(1) These are involved in ingestion of food sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
particles
(1) Floating debris
(2) They lie free in the cytoplasm
(2) Effluents of primary treatment
(3) These represent reserve material in
(3) Activated sludge
cytoplasm
(4) Primary sludge
(4) They are not bound by any membrane
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 1 )

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

56. The process responsible for facilitating loss Select the correct option
of water in liquid form from the tip of grass (a) (b) (c) (d)
blades at night and in early morning is
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(1) Root pressure (2) Imbibition
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) Plasmolysis (4) Transpiration (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer ( 1 ) (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
57. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of Answer (4)
microvilli is found in
62. The first phase of translation is
(1) Ducts of salivary glands (1) Recognition of DNA molecule
(2) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron (2) Aminoacylation of tRNA
(3) Eustachian tube (3) Recognition of an anti-codon
(4) Lining of intestine (4) Binding of mRNA to ribosome
Answer ( 2 ) Answer (2)
58. Select the correct statement. 63. Strobili or cones are found in

(1) Glucagon is associated with (1) Pteris

hypoglycemia. (2) Marchantia
(2) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and (3) Equisetum
adipocytes. (4) Salvinia
(3) Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia. Answer (3)
(4) Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis. 64. Match the following columns and select the
Answer ( 4 ) correct option.
Column-I Column-II
59. Which of the following is not an inhibitory
substance governing seed dormancy? (a) 6-15 pairs of (i) Trygon
gill slits
(1) Abscisic acid
(b) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes
(2) Phenolic acid caudal fin
(3) Para-ascorbic acid (c) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes
(4) Gibberellic acid (d) Poison sting (iv) Osteichthyes
Answer ( 4 ) (a) (b) (c) (d)
60. According to Robert May, the global species (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
diversity is about (2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(1) 20 million (2) 50 million (3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(3) 7 million (4) 1.5 million (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Answer ( 3 ) Answer (4)

61. Match the trophic levels with their correct 65. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and
species examples in grassland ecosystem. enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called
quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at
(a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow the end of
(b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture (1) G1 phase (2) S phase
(c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit (3) G2 phase (4) M phase
(d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass Answer (4)

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

66. Identify the correct statement with reference (a) (b) (c) (d)
to human digestive system. (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(1) Serosa is the innermost layer of the (2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
alimentary canal
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) IIeum is a highly coiled part
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) Vermiform appendix arises from
Answer (2)
duodenum
71. The ovary is half inferior in :
(4) IIeum opens into small intestine
(1) Mustard (2) Sunflower
Answer (2)
(3) Plum (4) Brinjal
67. In which of the following techniques, the
Answer (3)
embryos are transferred to assist those
females who cannot conceive? 72. Identify the basic amino acid from the
following.
(1) GIFT and ZIFT (2) ICSI and ZIFT
(1) Glutamic Acid (2) Lysine
(3) GIFT and ICSI (4) ZIFT and IUT
(3) Valine (4) Tyrosine
Answer (4)
Answer (2)
68. The plant parts which consist of two
generations - one within the other 73. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
Column-I Column-II
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male (a) Eosinophils (i) Immune response
gametes
(b) Basophils (ii) Phagocytosis
(c) Seed inside the fruit
(c) Neutrophils (iii) Release
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule histaminase,
destructive
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (c) and (d)
enzymes
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (a) only (d) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules
Answer (3) containing
histamine
69. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex
occurs during (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(1) Zygotene (2) Diplotene
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) Leptotene (4) Pachytene
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Answer (2)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
70. Match the following columns and select the
Answer (4)
correct option.
74. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
(a) Organ of Corti (i) Connects middle (a) Inhibitor of (i) Ricin
ear and pharynx catalytic activity

(b) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part of the (b) Possess peptide (ii) Malonate
labyrinth bonds

(c) Eustachian tube (iii) Attached to the oval (c) Cell wall material (iii) Chitin
window in fungi
(d) Stapes (iv) Located on the (d) Secondary (iv) Collagen
basilar membrane metabolite
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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

Choose the correct option from the following 79. The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion
(a) (b) (c) (d) of

(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (1) trypsinogen into trypsin

(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (2) caseinogen into casein

(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (3) pepsinogen into pepsin

(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (4) protein into polypeptides
Answer (4) Answer ( 1 )
75. Identify the correct statement with regard to 80. The specific palindromic sequence which is
G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase. recognized by EcoRl is
(1) Reorganisation of all cell components (1) 5 - GGAACC - 3
takes place.
3 - CCTTGG - 5
(2) Cell is metabolically active, grows but
(2) 5 - CTTAAG - 3
does not replicate its DNA.
(3) Nuclear Division takes place. 3 - GAATTC - 5

(4) DNA synthesis or replication takes place. (3) 5 - GGATCC - 3

Answer (2) 3 - CCTAGG - 5

76. Name the plant growth regulator which upon (4) 5 - GAATTC - 3
spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the 3 - CTTAAG - 5
length of stem, thus increasing the yield of
sugarcane crop. Answer ( 4 )

(1) Gibberellin (2) Ethylene 81. Match the following columns and select the
correct option.
(3) Abscisic acid (4) Cytokinin
Column-I Column-II
Answer ( 1 )
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
77. Identify the wrong statement with reference
to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups. (b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence
deaminase
(1) A person will have only two of the three deficiency
alleles.
(c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV
(2) When IA and IB are present together, they infection
express same type of sugar.
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
(3) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar. thuringiensis
(4) The gene (I) has three alleles. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer ( 2 ) (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
78. Identify the wrong statement with reference (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
to immunity.
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) When ready-made antibodies are directly
given, it is called “Passive immunity”. (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) Active immunity is quick and gives full Answer (4)
response. 82. Floridean starch has structure similar to
(3) Foetus receives some antibodies from (1) Amylopectin and glycogen
mother, it is an example for passive
immunity. (2) Mannitol and algin

(4) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) (3) Laminarin and cellulose
antibodies are produced in the host’s (4) Starch and cellulose
body. It is called “Active immunity”.
Answer (1)
Answer ( 2 )
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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

83. Which of the following statements is 87. The process of growth is maximum during
not correct?
(1) Lag phase
(1) The proinsulin has an extra peptide called
(2) Senescence
C-peptide.
(2) The functional insulin has A and B chains (3) Dormancy
linked together by hydrogen bonds. (4) Log phase
(3) Genetically engineered insulin is produced Answer (4)
in E.Coli.
88. Which of the following regions of the globe
(4) In man insulin is synthesised as a exhibits highest species diversity?
proinsulin
(1) Madagascar
Answer (2)
(2) Himalayas
84. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are
examples of (3) Amazon forests
(1) Convergent evolution (4) Western Ghats of India
(2) Industrial melanism Answer (3)
(3) Natural selection 89. The sequence that controls the copy number
(4) Adaptive radiation of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed
Answer (1) (1) Ori site
85. Which of the following refer to correct (2) Palindromic sequence
example(s) of organisms whch have evolved
(3) Recognition site
due to changes in environment brought about
by anthropogenic action? (4) Selectable marker
(a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands. Answer (1)
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds. 90. Match the following columns and select the
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes. correct option.

(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated Column-I Column-II

animals like dogs. (a) Placenta (i) Androgens
(1) (a) and (c)
(b) Zona pellucida (ii) Human Chorionic
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
Gonadotropin
(3) only (d)
(hCG)
(4) only (a)
(c) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the ovum
Answer (2)
glands
86. Identify the wrong statement with reference
to transport of oxygen. (d) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication of the

(1) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere with Penis

O2 binding with haemoglobin (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Higher H+
conc. in alveoli favours the
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
formation of oxyhaemoglobin
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the formation
of oxyhaemoglobin (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
mainly related to partial pressure of O2
Answer (3)
Answer (2)

11
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

91. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives

97. For the reaction, 2Cl(g) 
 Cl 2 (g), the
(1) -D-Glucose +-D-Glucose correct option is
(2) -D-Glucose +-D-Fructose
(1) rH > 0 and rS < 0
(3) -D-Fructose +-D-Fructose
(2) rH < 0 and rS > 0
(4) -D-Glucose +-D-Fructose
(3) rH < 0 and rS < 0
Answer (2)
92. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to (4) rH > 0 and rS > 0
form pent-2-ene is Answer (3)
(a) -Elimination reaction 98. Which of the following is the correct order of
(b) Follows Zaitsev rule increasing field strength of ligands to form
(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction coordination compounds?
(d) Dehydration reaction (1) SCN– < F – < CN– < C2 O2–
4
(1) (a), (c), (d) (2) (b), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) (2) F – < SCN– < C2 O2–
4 < CN
–

Answer (4)
(3) CN– < C2 O24 – < SCN– < F –
93. The number of Faradays(F) required to
produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2
(Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol–1) is (4) SCN– < F – < C2 O2–
4 < CN
–

(1) 2 (2) 3 Answer (4)

(3) 4 (4) 1
99. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of
Answer (4) Cr2+ ion is
94. An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) (1) 4.90 BM (2) 5.92 BM
structure with a cell edge of 288 pm. The
atomic radius is (3) 2.84 BM (4) 3.87 BM
Answer (1)
2 4
(1)  288 pm (2)  288 pm 100. Which of the following set of molecules will
4 3
have zero dipole moment?
4 3 (1) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride,
(3)  288 pm (4)  288 pm
2 4 carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene

Answer (4) (2) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,

water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
95. HCl was passed through a solution of CaCl2,
MgCl 2 and NaCl. Which of the following (3) Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride,
compound(s) crystallise(s)? carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
(1) Only NaCl (4) Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water,
(2) Only MgCl2 1,4-dichlorobenzene
(3) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2 Answer (3)
(4) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2 101. The following metal ion activates many
Answer (1) enzymes, participates in the oxidation of
glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is
96. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH) 2 in
responsible for the transmission of nerve
0.1 M NaOH. Given that the ionic product of
signals.
Ni(OH)2 is 2 × 10–15
(1) 2 × 10–8 M (2) 1 × 10–13 M (1) Copper (2) Calcium

(3) 1 × 108 M (4) 2 × 10–13 M (3) Potassium (4) Iron

Answer (4) Answer (3)

12
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

102. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as 107. The correct option for free expansion of an
one of the product. Its structure is ideal gas under adiabatic condition is

CH2 – CH2 – CH3 CH2 – CH = CH2 (1) q = 0, T < 0 and w > 0

(2) q < 0, T = 0 and w = 0

(1) (2)
(3) q > 0, T > 0 and w > 0

(4) q = 0, T = 0 and w = 0
CH2CH2CH3 CH = CH – CH3
Answer (4)

(3) (4) 108. Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has

– O – O – linkage?

Answer (2) (1) H2SO4, sulphuric acid

103. The rate constant for a first order reaction is (2) H2S2O8, peroxodisulphuric acid
4.606 × 10–3 s–1. The time required to reduce
(3) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
(1) 200 s (2) 500 s (4) H2SO3, sulphurous acid

(3) 1000 s (4) 100 s Answer (2)

Answer (2) 109. Identify compound X in the following sequence
104. Reaction between acetone and of reactions
methylmagnesium chloride followed by
hydrolysis will give : CH3 CHO
(1) Sec. butyl alcohol (2) Tert. butyl alcohol
Cl2/h H2O
(3) Isobutyl alcohol (4) Isopropyl alcohol X 373 K
Answer (2)
105. Which of the following is a natural polymer?
(1) poly (Butadiene-styrene) CH2Cl CHCl2

(2) polybutadiene
(3) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile) (1) (2)

(4) cis-1, 4-polyisoprene

Answer (4)
CCl3 Cl
106. Identify the correct statements from the
following :
(a) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream (3) (4)
and frozen food.
(b) The structure of C60 contains twelve six Answer (2)
carbon rings and twenty five carbon rings.
(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert 110. The number of protons, neutrons and
alcohols into gasoline. 175
electrons in 71Lu, respectively, are
(d) CO is colorless and odourless gas.
(1) 104, 71 and 71
(1) (a) and (c) only
(2) 71, 71 and 104
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) 175, 104 and 71
(3) (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) 71, 104 and 71

Answer (3) Answer (4)

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 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

111. Identify the incorrect statement. 116. Match the following :

(1) The transition metals and their Oxide Nature
compounds are known for their catalytic
activity due to their ability to adopt (a) CO (i) Basic
multiple oxidation states and to form (b) BaO (ii) Neutral
complexes.
(c) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
(2) Interstitial compounds are those that are
formed when small atoms like H, C or N (d) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
are trapped inside the crystal lattices of
metals. Which of the following is correct option?
(3) The oxidation states of chromium in (a) (b) (c) (d)
CrO24 and Cr2O72 are not the same. (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent than (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Fe2+ (d6) in water.
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer (3)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
112. Which of the following is a cationic
detergent? Answer (1)
(1) Sodium stearate
117. Which one of the followings has maximum
(2) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
number of atoms ?
(3) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(4) Sodium lauryl sulphate (1) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
Answer (2) (2) 1 g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
113. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of
benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. The freezing point (3) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
depression for the solution of molality
0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in (4) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal
Answer (3)
places) :
(1) 0.80 K (2) 0.40 K 118. Reaction between benzaldehyde and
(3) 0.60 K (4) 0.20 K acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is
known as
Answer (2)
114. Identify the incorrect match. (1) Cannizzaro’s reaction
Name IUPAC Official Name (2) Cross Cannizzaro’s reaction
(a) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
(3) Cross Aldol condensation
(b) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
(c) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium (4) Aldol condensation
(d) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium Answer (3)
(1) (b), (ii) (2) (c), (iii)
119. A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable
(3) (d), (iv) (4) (a), (i) than a secondary butyl carbocation because
Answer (3) of which of the following ?
115. The mixture which shows positive deviation
from Raoult’s law is (1) + R effect of – CH3 groups

(1) Benzene + Toluene (2) – R effect of – CH3 groups

(2) Acetone + Chloroform
(3) Hyperconjugation
(3) Chloroethane + Bromoethane
(4) – I effect of – CH3 groups
(4) Ethanol + Acetone
Answer (4) Answer (3)

14
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

120. Which of the following is not correct about 124. Identify the correct statement from the
carbon monoxide ? following :

(1) It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood. (1) Blister copper has blistered appearance
due to evolution of CO2.
(2) The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin
(2) Vapour phase refining is carried out for
bound to CO) is less stable than Nickel by Van Arkel method.
oxyhaemoglobin.
(3) Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of
(3) It is produced due to incomplete shapes.
combustion.
(4) Wrought iron is impure iron with 4%
(4) It forms carboxyhaemoglobin carbon.
Answer (3)
Answer (2)
125. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following
121. Which of the following is a basic amino reaction.
acid ?
 Glucose  Fructose
Sucrose  H2 O 
(1) Alanine
If the equilibrium constant (KC) is 2 × 1013 at
(2) Tyrosine
300 K, the value of r G○ at the same
(3) Lysine
temperature will be :
(4) Serine
(1) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)
Answer (3) (2) 8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(3 × 1013)
122. Urea reacts with water to form A which will (3) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(4 × 1013)
decompose to form B. B when passed through (4) –8.314 J mol–1K–1 × 300 K × ln(2 × 1013)
Cu 2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is
formed. What is the formula of C from the Answer (4)
following ? 126. Identify a molecule which does not exist.
(1) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (1) Li2 (2) C2
(2) Cu(OH)2 (3) O2 (4) He2
(3) CuCO3Cu(OH)2 Answer (4)

(4) CuSO4 127. An increase in the concentration of the

reactants of a reaction leads to change in
Answer (1)
(1) heat of reaction
123. A mixture of N 2 and Ar gases in a cylinder
(2) threshold energy
contains 7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar. If the total
pressure of the mixture of the gases in the (3) collision frequency
cylinder is 27 bar, the partial pressure of N2 (4) activation energy
is :
Answer (1)
[Use atomic masses (in g mol –1 ) : N = 14,
Ar = 40] 128. Which of the following alkane cannot be made
in good yield by Wurtz reaction?
(1) 12 bar
(1) 2,3-Dimethylbutane
(2) 15 bar
(2) n-Heptane
(3) 18 bar (3) n-Butane
(4) 9 bar (4) n-Hexane
Answer (2) Answer (2)

15
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

129. Which of the following amine will give the I

carbylamine test?

(3) + C2H5OH
NHCH3 N(CH3)2

(1) (2) OH

(4) + CH3I
NHC2H5 NH2

(3) (4) Answer (4)

133. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in
Answer (4) determining which property of colloidal
solution?
130. On electrolysis of dil. sulphuric acid using (1) Solubility
Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained
at anode will be (2) Stability of the colloidal particles
(3) Size of the colloidal particles
(1) Oxygen gas
(4) Viscosity
(2) H2S gas
Answer (2)
(3) SO2 gas 134. Paper chromatography is an example of
(4) Hydrogen gas (1) Partition chromatography

Answer (1) (2) Thin layer chromatography

(3) Column chromatography
131. What is the change in oxidation number of
carbon in the following reaction? (4) Adsorption chromatography
Answer (1)
CH4 (g)  4Cl2 (g)  CCl4 (l)  4HCl(g)
135. Match the following and identify the correct
(1) 0 to + 4 option.
(a) CO(g) + H2(g) (i) Mg(HCO3)2 +
(2) – 4 to + 4
Ca(HCO3)2
(3) 0 to – 4
(b) Temporary (ii) An electron
(4) + 4 to + 4 hardness of deficient hydride

Answer (2) water

(c) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas
132. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives
(d) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar
I
structure
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) + CH3OH
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
OH
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(2) + C2H5I (4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

Answer (4)

16
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

136. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac 141. For which one of the following, Bohr model is
voltage source. When L is removed from the not valid ?
circuit, the phase difference between current (1) Singly ionised helium atom (He+)

and voltage is . If instead C is removed from (2) Deuteron atom
3
 (3) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
the circuit, the phase difference is again
3 (4) Hydrogen atom
between current and voltage. The power factor
of the circuit is : Answer (3)

(1) 0.5 (2) 1.0 142. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on
a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence
(3) –1.0 (4) zero
having surface area 20 cm 2 . The energy
Answer (2) received by the surface during time span of
137. A wire of length L, area of cross section A is 1 minute is :
hanging from a fixed support. The length of the (1) 12 × 103 J (2) 24 × 103 J
wire changes to L1 when mass M is suspended
(3) 48 × 103 J (4) 10 × 103 J
from its free end. The expression for Young’s
modulus is : Answer (2)

Mg(L1  L) MgL 143. An electron is accelerated from rest through a

(1) (2) AL potential difference of V volt. If the
AL 1
de Broglie wavelength of the electron is
MgL MgL1 1.227 × 10–2 nm, the potential difference is :
(3) A(L  L) (4)
1 AL (1) 102 V (2) 103 V
Answer (3)
(3) 104 V (4) 10 V
138. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100
Answer (3)
turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic
field at the centre of the solenoid is : 144. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the
earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a
(0 = 4 × 10–7 T m A–1)
height equal to half the radius of the earth?
(1) 3.14 × 10–4 T (2) 6.28 × 10–5 T
(1) 32 N
(3) 3.14 × 10–5 T (4) 6.28 × 10–4 T
(2) 30 N
Answer (4)
(3) 24 N
139. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on
one surface of a small angle prism (with angle (4) 48 N
of prism A) and emerges normally from the Answer (1)
opposite surface. If the refractive index of the
145. Which of the following graph represents the
material of the prism is , then the angle of
variation of resistivity () with temperature (T)
incidence is nearly equal to :
for copper?
2A
(1) (2) A (1)

A A
(3) (4)
2 2
Answer (2)
140. In a certain region of space with volume T
0.2 m3, the electric potential is found to be 5 V
(2)
throughout. The magnitude of electric field in
this region is :
(1) 0.5 N/C (2) 1 N/C
(3) 5 N/C (4) zero
Answer (4) T

17
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

(3) 150. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure

of 249 kPa and temperature 27°C.
Its density is : (R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1)
(1) 0.2 kg/m3 (2) 0.1 kg/m3
(3) 0.02 kg/m3 (4) 0.5 kg/m3
T
Answer (1)
(4)
235
151. When a uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded
89
with a neutron, it generates 36 Kr , three
neutrons and :
91 101
T (1) 40 Zr (2) 36 Kr
Answer (2) (3) 103
(4) 144
36 Kr 56 Ba
146. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold Answer (4)
frequency is incident on a photosensitive
152. The increase in the width of the depletion
material. What will be the photoelectric
region in a p-n junction diode is due to :
current if the frequency is halved and intensity
is doubled? (1) reverse bias only
(2) both forward bias and reverse bias
(1) four times (2) one-fourth
(3) increase in forward current
(3) zero (4) doubled
(4) forward bias only
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
147. A 40 F capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 153. The phase difference between displacement
50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current and acceleration of a particle in a simple
in the circuit is, nearly : harmonic motion is :
(1) 2.05 A (2) 2.5 A 3 
(1) rad (2) rad
(3) 25.1 A (4) 1.7 A 2 2
(3) zero (4)  rad
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
148. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is
154. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected
coming from a star. The limit of resolution of
to a magnetising field of 1200 A m –1 . The
telescope whose objective has a diameter of 2
permeability of the material of the rod is :
m is :
(0 = 4× 10–7 T m A–1)
(1) 1.83 × 10–7 rad
(1) 8.0 × 10–5 T m A–1
(2) 7.32 × 10–7 rad (2) 2.4× 10–5 T m A–1
(3) 6.00 × 10–7 rad (3) 2.4 × 10–7 T m A–1
(4) 2.4 × 10–4 T m A–1
(4) 3.66 × 10–7 rad
Answer (4)
Answer (4)
155. The quantities of heat required to raise the
149. A ball is thrown vertically downward with a temperature of two solid copper spheres of
velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits radii r1 and r2 (r1 = 1.5 r2) through 1 K are in
the ground after some time with a velocity of the ratio :
80 m/s. The height of the tower is : (g = 10 m/s2) 9 3
(1) (2)
(1) 340 m (2) 320 m 4 2
5 27
(3) 300 m (4) 360 m (3) (4)
3 8
Answer (3) Answer (4)

18
NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

156. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to
the ends of a massless string. The string
passes over a pulley which is frictionless
(see figure). The acceleration of the system in
terms of acceleration due to gravity (g) is :
4 kg
161. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same
material are slightly out of tune and produce
beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is
slightly decreased, the beat frequency
increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is
530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be
(1) 524 Hz (2) 536 Hz
(3) 537 Hz (4) 523 Hz
Answer (1)
162. The color code of a resistance is given below

6 kg

(1) g/2 (2) g/5

(3) g/10 (4) g
Answer (2) The values of resistance and tolerance,
respectively, are
157. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular
diameter d and number density n can be (1) 47 k, 10% (2) 4.7 k, 5%
expressed as : (3) 470 , 5% (4) 470 k, 5%
1 1 Answer (3)
(1) 2 (2) 2 2
2 nd 2 n d 163. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface should be
1 1 (1) 30° < ib < 45° (2) 45° < ib < 90°
(3) 2 2 2 (4)
2n  d 2 nd (3) ib = 90° (4) 0° < ib < 30°
Answer (1) Answer (2)
158. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of 164. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor
16 × 10–9 C m. The electric potential due to the with air as medium is 6 F. With the
dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from introduction of a dielectric medium, the
the centre of the dipole, situated on a line capacitance becomes 30 F. The permittivity of
making an angle of 60° with the dipole axis is : the medium is :
 1  (0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2)
  9  109 N m2 /C2 
 4  0  (1) 1.77 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2
(1) 200 V (2) 400 V (2) 0.44 × 10–10 C2 N–1 m–2
(3) zero (4) 50 V (3) 5.00 C2 N–1 m–2
Answer (1) (4) 0.44 × 10–13 C2 N–1 m–2
159. Dimensions of stress are : Answer (2)
(1) [ML2T–2] (2) [ML0T–2] 165. Find the torque about the origin when a force
(3) [ML–1 T–2] (4) [MLT–2] of 3j N acts on a particle whose position
Answer (3) vector is 2k m .
160. The energy required to break one bond in DNA
(1) 6j Nm
is 10–20 J. This value in eV is nearly
(1) 0.6 (2) 6 i Nm
(2) 0.06
(3) 6k Nm
(3) 0.006
(4) 6 (4) 6i Nm
Answer (2) Answer (2)

19
 NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

166. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of 172. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the
a metre bridge balances a 10  resistance in separation between coherent sources is halved
the right gap at a point which divides the and the distance of the screen from the
bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe
resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1  width becomes :
of the resistance wire is : (1) half
(1) 1.0 × 10–1 m (2) 1.5 × 10–1 m (2) four times
(3) 1.5 × 10–2 m (4) 1.0 × 10–2 m
(3) one-fourth
Answer (1)
(4) double
167. For transistor action, which of the following
Answer (2)
statements is correct?
173. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are
(1) Base, emitter and collector regions should
connected to each other via a stop cock. A
have same size.
contains an ideal gas at standard temperature
(2) Both emitter junction as well as the and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The
collector junction are forward biased. entire system is thermally insulated. The stop
(3) The base region must be very thin and cock is suddenly opened. The process is :
lightly doped. (1) adiabatic
(4) Base, emitter and collector regions should (2) isochoric
have same doping concentrations.
(3) isobaric
Answer (3)
(4) isothermal
168. The ratio of contributions made by the electric
field and magnetic field components to the Answer (1)
intensity of an electromagnetic wave is : 174. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance
(c = speed of electromagnetic waves) is :
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : c (1) 4.5 × 1013 J
(3) 1 : c2 (4) c : 1 (2) 1.5 × 1013 J
Answer (1) (3) 0.5 × 1013 J
169. A charged particle having drift velocity of (4) 4.5 × 1016 J
7.5 × 10 –4 m s –1 in an electric field of
3 × 10–10 Vm–1, has a mobility in m2 V–1 s–1 of : Answer (1)

(1) 2.5 × 106 (2) 2.5 × 10–6 175. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in
water and water rises in it to a height h. The
(3) 2.25 × 10–15 (4) 2.25 × 1015 mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g.
Answer (1) Another capillary tube of radius 2r is immersed
170. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a in water. The mass of water that will rise in this
charge of 3.2 × 10–7 C distributed uniformly. tube is :
What is the magnitude of electric field at a (1) 5.0 g
point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere?
(2) 10.0 g
 1 
  9  109 Nm2 C2  (3) 20.0 g
 4  0 
(4) 2.5 g
(1) 1.28 × 105 N/C (2) 1.28 × 106 N/C
Answer (2)
(3) 1.28 × 107 N/C (4) 1.28 × 104 N/C
Answer (1) 176. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and
there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.
171. Taking into account of the significant figures,
what is the value of 9.99 m – 0.0099 m? The pitch of the screw gauge is :

(1) 9.98 m (2) 9.980 m (1) 0.25 mm (2) 0.5 mm

(3) 9.9 m (4) 9.9801 m (3) 1.0 mm (4) 0.01 mm
Answer (1) Answer (2)

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NEET (UG)-2020 (Code-G5)

177. For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is: 178. The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic
gas is : (k B is Boltzmann constant and T,
absolute temperature)
A
Y 3
(1) kB T
B 2

5
(1) A B Y (2) kB T
2
0 0 0
0 1 1 7
(3) kB T
2
1 0 1
1 1 1 1
(4) kB T
(2) A B Y 2
0 0 1 Answer (1)
0 1 1 179. The solids which have the negative
1 0 1 temperature coefficient of resistance are:

1 1 0 (1) insulators only

(3) A B Y (2) semiconductors only

0 0 1 (3) insulators and semiconductors

0 1 0 (4) metals

1 0 0 Answer (3)

1 1 0 180. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg

respectively are attached to the two ends of a
(4) A B Y
rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass.
0 0 0
The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg
0 1 0 particle is nearly at a distance of :
1 0 0 (1) 50 cm (2) 67 cm
1 1 1 (3) 80 cm (4) 33 cm
Answer (4) Answer (2)

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