You are on page 1of 149

Class 8 Science

Chapter 1 Living World and Classification of Microbes

Question 1: Use Whittaker method to classify bacteria, protozoa, fungi, algae, prokaryotic
and eukaryotic microbes.
Answer: According to Robert Harding Whittaker, given below are the characteristic features
of bacteria, protozoa, fungi, algae, prokaryotic and eukaryotic microbes:
a) Kingdom Monera

• As all the organisms are unicellular, there is absence of multicellular body designs.
• They may have either an autotrophic or heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
• These are prokaryotic cells without well-defined nucleus or cell organelles.
• All types of blue green algae and bacteria are included in this kingdom.
b) Kingdom Protista

• These are unicellular, eukaryotic organisms with a well-defined nucleus enclosed in a


nuclear membrane.
• These organisms can be either autotrophic or heterotrophic.
• They have whip-like flagella or pseudopodia or hair-like cilia which helps in
locomotion.
c) Kingdom Fungi

• They may be unicellular or multicellular, non-green, heterotrophic and eukaryotic


organisms.
• Most of them are saprotrophs and they feed on dead organic matter.
• Some fungi are thread-like and most of the nuclei are present in the cytoplasm.
• Their cell walls are made up of complex and tough sugar called ‘Chitin’.’
Examples- Mushrooms, Baker’s yeast, Penicillium, Aspergillus (Fungus on corn).
d) Kingdom Plantae

• They are mainly multicellular and eukaryotic organisms.


• They are of non-motile nature.
• The plant cells mostly contain chlorophyll pigments and they are an autotrophic
mode of nutrition.
• Their cell wall is composed of cellulose and not ‘Chitin’ like that of fungi.
e) Kingdom Animalia

• These organisms are multicellular eukaryotes.


• Absence of cell walls in these organisms.
• Absence of chloroplast in animal cells. They mostly have a heterotrophic mode of
nutrition.
Class 8 Science
Question 2: Complete the five-kingdom method of classification using living organism
prokaryotes, eukaryotes, multicellular, unicellular, protista, animals, plants, fungi.

Answer:

Question 3: Find out my partner

A B

Fungi Chlorella

Protozoa Bacteriophage

Virus Candida

Algae Amoeba

Bacteria Prokaryotic
Class 8 Science
Answer:

A B

Fungi Candida

Protozoa Amoeba

Virus Bacteriophage

Algae Chlorella

Bacteria Prokaryotic

Question 4: State whether the following statements are true or false. Explain your
statement.
a) Lactobacilli are harmful bacteria- False
Lactobacilli are not harmful bacteria. They are mostly found in the gastrointestinal
tracts of humans and animals. They are an important component of dairy products
such as milk, yogurt, ghee, etc.
b) Cell wall of fungi is made up of chitin. – True
c) Organ of locomotion in amoeba is pseudopodia. – True
d) Tomato wilt is viral disease. - True
Question 5: Give answers:
1. State the merits of Whittaker’s method of classification.
Answer: Whitakker’s method of classification has the following merits:

a) Unicellular and multicellular organisms are kept and categorised separately.


b) Autotrophic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition are placed in distinct groups.
c) Fungi is a separate kingdom because of its mode of nutrition.
d) It is more naturally segregated than classified under two kingdoms.
e) Prokaryotes are unicellular organisms which are placed in Kingdom Monera.

2. Explain the nutrition in fungi.


Answer: Fungi are called saprophytes because of their mode of nutrition. It is a nutrition
mode in which an organism obtains its nutrients from dead or decomposed organic matter.
Class 8 Science
3. Write the characteristics of viruses.
Answer: The various characteristics of viruses are:

a) They are extremely small in size and simpler than bacteria.


b) They are ultra-microscopic, which are visible only with an electron microscope.
c) They are considered to be the organisms which live at the edge of living and non-
living things.
d) They are dependent parasites which cannot survive on their own.
e) They require a living organism to multiply as they cannot live on their own. .
f) Viruses consist of genetic materials (DNA or RNA) which is surrounded by a protein
coat (capsid).
g) Viruses are responsible for causing severe fatal diseases in humans, plants, animals,
etc.
4. Which living organisms are included in the kingdom Monera?
Answer: Organisms with the following characteristics are included under the kingdom
Monera:

a) They have either autotrophic or heterotrophic modes of nutrition.


b) There is an absence of nucleus and membrane-bound organelles in these organisms.
c) There may either have presence or absence of cell walls
d) As they are all unicellular organisms, they include bacteria and blue green algae.
Question 6: Who am I?
Answer:
a) don’t have a true nucleus, cell organelles or plasma membrane. – Monera
b) I have nucleus and membrane bound cell organelles. – Protozoa
c) I live on decaying organic matter. – Fungi
d) I reproduce mainly by cell division. – Bacteria
e) I can produce my replica. – Viruses
f) I am green, but don’t have organs. – Algae

Question 7: Draw neat and labelled diagrams.


Answer: Given below are the labelled diagrams:
Class 8 Science

a. Structure of bacteria and its different types


Class 8 Science
b. Paramoecium

c. Bacteriophage

Question 8: Arrange the following in ascending order of size Bacteria, Fungi, Viruses, Algae.
Answer: Viruses → Bacteria → Fungi→ Algae

-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 2 Health and Diseases
Question 1: Distinguish between – Infectious and non-infectious diseases.

Infectious diseases Non-infectious diseases

It can be transmitted from one It cannot be transmitted from one individual to


individual to another. another.

It is mainly caused by a pathogen. It is caused due to internal reasons, such as


metabolic, hereditary or genetic reasons.

They are also known as communicable They are known as non-communicable diseases.
diseases.

Examples: diarrhoea, tuberculosis, Examples: hypertension, diabetes, cancer, etc.


cholera, etc.

Question 2: Identify the odd term.


1. Malaria, hepatitis, elephantiasis, dengue.
Answer: Malaria, hepatitis, elephantiasis, dengue: Among all these diseases,
Hepatitis is the odd one because it is caused by a virus while the rest of three usually
spread through mosquito bites.
2. Plague, AIDS, cholera, T.B.
Answer: Plague, AIDS, cholera, T.B.: Among all these diseases, AIDS is the odd term
because it is caused by a viral infection while the rest of the diseases are caused by
bacteria.
Question 3: Answer in one to two sentences.
1. Which are various media of spreading the infectious diseases?
Answer: Infectious diseases usually spread through water, air, human blood to blood
transfusion and animal vectors.
2. Give the names of five non-infectious diseases other than given in the lesson.
Answer: Non-infectious diseases include cataract, arthritis, osteoporosis, multiple
sclerosis, Parkinson’s and Alzheimer’s disease.
3. Which are the main reasons for diabetes and heart diseases?
Answer: Some of the reasons for diabetes include obesity, lack of physical activity,
mental anxiety & stress, imbalanced diet and genetic causes.
Some of the reasons for heart diseases include heavy smoking, drinking,
hypertension, diabetes, obesity, lack of physical activity, mental anxiety & stress and
imbalanced diet.
Class 8 Science
Question 4: What can be achieved / can be prevented?
1. Drinking boiled and filtered water.
Answer: Boiling and filtration are useful methods of purifying water that renders it
suitable for consumption. Drinking boiled and filtered water can prove helpful in
prevention of various water-borne diseases such as typhoid fever, cholera, etc. Most
of the water-borne diseases are caused due to the consumption of contaminated
water in some form or the other.
2. Avoiding smoking and alcoholism.
Answer: Smoking and alcoholism are two major causes of health problems which
affect our society greatly. Smoking leads to different kinds of respiratory disorders
and hinders the respiration process in humans. It can lead to acute health diseases
such as lung cancer, throat cancer, etc. On the contrary, consumption of alcohol
affects the liver, nervous and digestive system of our body. People can maintain a
healthy lifestyle and stay protected from various diseases by avoiding alcohol and
smoking in their lives.
3. Regular balanced diet and exercise.
Answer: Having a balanced diet and proper exercise are key factors which contribute
to good health. When both are combined together, it helps our systems to function
properly, maintain a healthy body mass and weight, reduces body fat, provides
energy, promotes sound sleep and makes us feel fresh and fit about ourselves.
4. Proper checking of blood before blood donation.
Answer: Proper checking of blood before blood donation is important to check the
blood thoroughly before it is transferred to others. Many a time, there are chances
of transmission of infectious diseases from the donor to the recipient in case the
former is suffering from any such diseases. One more important reason, it is
important to check blood before donation is to examine that the donor is not
anaemic as donating blood may be harmful to him/her.
Question 5: Read the passage and answer the questions.
Master ‘X’ is a 3-year-old child. He is living with his family in a slum. Public toilet is present
near his house. His father is a drunkard. His mother does not know the importance of a
balanced diet.
1. Master ‘X’ can suffer from which different possible diseases in above conditions?
Answer: Since, the house of master X is in a slum area and there is a public toilet
near it, there are chances that there is a lack of cleanliness in that area. He is likely to
suffer from diseases like shigellosis, salmonellosis, diarrhoea, gastroenteritis,
giardiasis, trachoma, tapeworm infection or threadworm infection.
Class 8 Science
2. How will you help him and his family in this situation?
Answer: In this case, the family needs to maintain personal hygiene and cleanliness
in and around their houses. They should be explained about the importance of a
balanced diet for the entire family. Since, the father is a drunkard, he needs proper
counselling, rehabilitation and treatment to get rid of this ill-habit of alcoholism.
3. Which disease can occur to the father of master ‘X’?
Answer: Since the father of master X is a drunkard, he is likely to suffer from
complex diseases such as liver cirrhosis, heart diseases, ulcers and gastrointestinal
problems, brain haemorrhage, etc.
Question 6: Give the preventive measures of the following diseases.
1. Dengue
Answer: Dengue is a disease which is transmitted by Aedes mosquito which lays eggs
in water-logged places, which multiply over time. Mosquitoes breeding can be
prevented by adopting the following measures:

a) Larvae-eating fishes should be introduced and left in pond water.


b) Water storage and collection should always be done in closed vessels.
c) There should be proper drainage of potted plants to avoid accumulation of water in
the pots.
d) Use of pesticides against mosquitoes as and when necessary.
2. Cancer
Answer: Preventive measures for cancer:

a) To maintain a healthy diet.


b) Proper exercise daily.
c) Avoid smoking or drinking alcohol.
d) Regular health check-ups to maintain health.
3. AIDS
Answer: Preventive measures for AIDS are:

a) Avoid sexual contact / intercourse with unknown people.


b) Check blood thoroughly before transfusion.
c) Avoid sharing or using the same needles or syringes.
Class 8 Science
Question 7: Make a list.

Viral diseases Chicken pox, Mumps, Measles, Swine flu, etc.

Bacterial diseases Diphtheria, Tuberculosis, Cholera, Tetanus, Typhoid,


etc.

Diseases spread through insects Malaria, Dengue, Plague, etc.

Hereditary diseases Hypertension, Diabetes, Cancer, etc.

Question 8: Explain the importance.


1. Balanced diet.
Answer: A balanced diet is a diet that consists of all essential nutrients such as proteins,
carbohydrates, fats, vitamins and minerals in the right proportion. A balanced diet helps us
in the following ways:

a) supplies important nutrients to our body that is required for body growth.
b) helps us to maintain fitness and stay free from diseases.
c) strengthens the human immune system.
d) helps to maintain and function our systems properly.
e) helps to maintain a healthy and balanced body weight
f) reduces or helps in cutting down body fat.
g) provides energy to the entire body.
h) promotes sound sleep and boosts our overall health.
2. Physical exercise / Yoga asanas.
Answer: Importance of exercise and yoga asanas are:

a) reduces the risk of heart diseases such as attacks or strokes.


b) helps in maintaining proper weight.
c) helps in maintaining blood pressure levels.
d) helps in maintaining proper cholesterol level of blood.
e) lowers the risk of cancers and type 2 diabetes.
f) helps in maintaining stronger muscles, bones and joints.
g) lowers the risk of osteoporosis disease.
h) makes you feel relaxed by boosting energy levels.
Class 8 Science
Question 9: Write the information on modern diagnostics and treatments of cancer.
Answer: Diagnostics of cancer: There are various techniques which are used in the
diagnosis of cancer. The application completely depends upon the type of cancer.
Radiography (use of X-rays), biopsy, CT scan (Computed Tomography), histopathological
studies of bone and blood and MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) are mostly used in the
diagnosis of cancer. Some of the modern techniques such as Radiography, CT scan and MRI
are used in cancer diagnosis.
a) MRI uses strong magnetic rays and non-ionising radiations to accurately detect and
identify pathological and physiological changes in the living tissue or body.
b) CT Scan uses X-rays to generate a three-dimensional image of the internal parts of a
particular object or human body.
Treatment of cancer: Cancer can be treated by using three major approaches based upon
the type of cancer. These approaches include surgery, radiotherapy and chemotherapy.
a) In surgery, the tumour is removed from its site through operation and is applicable in
specific body regions and cases only.
b) Radiotherapy is a technique in which the cancer cells are damaged with radiations
and take care of the normal tissues surrounding the cancer cells.
c) Chemotherapy uses various types of drugs for treating cancer. These
chemotherapeutic drugs can be used specifically for particular tumours only and
they have a lot of side effects such as hair loss, paling of skin, anaemia, etc.
Most of the cancers can be treated by using a combination of all these three approaches.
Question 10: Enlist the names and composition of the medicines present at your home.
Answer: The following medicines are found in our houses:
a) For treating influenza, we generally use Paracip – Paracetamol or Acetaminophen.
b) For treating minor stomach aches and disorders, we use Digene, Polycrol, Pudin
Hara, etc.
c) For treating body aches we use Volini, Moov, Iodex, etc.

Chapter 2 Additional Questions


Question 1: Define health.
Answer: Health is defined as the state of complete physical, mental and social well-being
and not just the absence of any disease in a particular body.
Question 2: What is a disease?
Answer: A disease is a condition of disturbances in physical and psychological processes of
the human body. Every disease has a different set of specific symptoms.
Class 8 Science
Question 3: Explain the different types of diseases.
Answer: The symptoms of different types of diseases are specific and usually differ from
one another. Let’s understand the types of diseases through a diagram:

Question 4: What do we mean by pathogen?


Answer: A pathogen is something that causes a particular ailment or disease such as a virus
like rhinovirus, which is the common cause of influenza or common cold.
Question 5: What do we mean by infectious diseases?
Answer: Diseases that spread through contaminated food, air, water, vectors (insects and
other animals) are known as infectious diseases.
Infectious diseases are caused by:
a) transmission from one person to another.
b) a pathogen.

They are also known as communicable diseases. Some examples include diarrhoea,
tuberculosis, cholera, etc.
Question 6: What is the mode of infection, symptoms, prevention and treatment of
tuberculosis?
Answer: Tuberculosis is caused by the pathogen named Mycobacterium tuberculae.
a) Mode of infection: Spitting by patient in the open, through air, prolonged contact
with and sharing of materials of the patient.
b) Symptoms: Chronic cough, bloody spitting, emaciation, difficulty in breathing.
c) Prevention and treatment: Regular medication like DOT, BCG vaccine, isolation of
the patient, etc.
Class 8 Science
Question 7: Explain the mode of infection, symptoms, prevention and treatment of
Hepatitis (Jaundice).
Answer: Hepatitis (Jaundice) is caused by the pathogen called Hepatitis virus- A, B, C, D, E.
a) Mode of infection: Consumption of contaminated water, sharing of syringes and
needles, blood transfusion.
b) Symptoms: Anorexia, yellow urine, swelling of liver, abdominal pain, general
weakness, nausea, vomiting, grey stool, etc.
c) Prevention and treatment: Drinking boiled water and maintaining proper hygiene by
cleaning of hands regularly.
Question 8: How is Malaria caused?
Answer: Malaria is mainly caused and spread in human beings when a female Anopheles
mosquito bites which usually breed in stagnant water.
Question 9: Explain the mode of infection, symptoms, prevention and treatment of Cholera.
Answer: Cholera is caused by the pathogen called Vibrio cholerae (bacterium).
a) Mode of infection: Consumption of contaminated food and water.
b) Symptoms: Vomiting, severe diarrhoea, cramps in legs etc.
c) Prevention and treatment: Maintaining proper hygiene, avoiding open place food,
drinking boiled water, vaccination against cholera.
Question 10: How is elephantiasis caused?
Answer: Elephantiasis is caused by the bite of a female Culex mosquito which breeds in dirty
and sewage water.
Question 11: What is the mode of infection, symptoms, prevention and treatment of
Typhoid?
Answer: Typhoid is caused by the pathogen called Salmonella typhi (bacterium).
a) Mode of infection: Consumption of contaminated food and water.
b) Symptoms: Anorexia, headache, rash on abdomen, dysentery, fever up to 104°F.
c) Prevention and treatment: Drinking clean water, vaccination, proper disposal of
sewage.
Question 12: Explain the causes of Dengue.
Answer: Dengue is caused by DEN-1 – 4 virus belonging to the type- flavivirus. It happens
when mosquitoes lay the eggs in water-logged places and gradually their population
multiplies. Dengue is spread by Aedes aegypti.
Class 8 Science
Question 13: What are the symptoms of Dengue?
Answer: Given below are the symptoms of Dengue:
a) Acute fever and headache, nausea and vomiting.
b) Pain in the eye socket is a key symptom of Dengue.
c) There is a sudden decrease in platelet count which may lead to internal
haemorrhage.
Question 14: What are the reasons for Swine Flu infection?
Answer: Some of the reasons for Swine Flu infection are listed below:
a) It transmits from pigs to human beings.
b) The Swine Flu viral infection is spread through secretions of nose, throat and saliva.
Question 15: When was the first case of Swine Flu reported?
Answer: In 2009, the first case of Swine Flu was reported in Mexico. This disease is caused
by the viral influenza A (H1N1). People who come in contact with pigs are likely to contract
this disease.
Question 16: What are the major symptoms of Swine Flu?
Answer: Some of the major symptoms of Swine Flu include:
a) Difficulty in breathing.
b) Sore throat, acute body ache with body temperature.
Question 17: What is the mode of infection, symptoms, prevention and treatment of
Dysentery?
Answer: Dysentery is caused by the pathogen called Bacteria, virus, Shigella, bacilli,
Entamoeba histolytica.
a) Mode of infection: Consumption of contaminated food and water.
b) Symptoms: Watery stool, abdominal pain, etc.
c) Prevention and treatment: Drinking of boiled water, proper storage of food, ORS
consumption, etc.
Question 18: How is the diagnosis of Swine Flu done?
Answer: For the diagnosis of Swine Flu, a liquid from the throat or sputum of the patient is
taken and sent for examination in a pathological laboratory.
Class 8 Science
Question 19: Describe AIDS.
Answer: AIDS stands for Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. This disease is caused by a
deadly virus known as HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus). In this disease, the patient
suffers from various types of diseases due to weakening of his/her natural immunity of the
body. AIDS cannot be diagnosed or confirmed without proper tests in medical laboratories.
ELISA test is basically used for its proper diagnosis. Although the symptoms of AIDS may
differ from person to person.
Question 20: When was HIV first reported?
Answer: The fatal disease HIV was first reported in an African species of monkeys. According
to the National AIDS Control Program and UNAIDS, about 80 – 85% HIV infections occur in
India due to unsafe sexual contact between persons.
Question 21: What are the key points to remember if we come in contact with HIV patients?
Answer: Given below are the key points to remember if we come in contact with HIV
patients:
a) AIDS does not spread through touching or coming in direct contact with HIV infected
patients or sharing the food with them, or even by nursing such patients.
b) Everyone should maintain a normal behaviour with HIV infected patients and not
discard them for their incurable ailment.
Question 22: How is Rabies caused? What are its symptoms?
Answer: Rabies is a fatal viral disease that occurs when an infected dog, monkey or cat bite
a human being. The virus enters the human brain through the nerves.
Some of the symptoms of rabies include:
a) Fever for 2 – 12 weeks
b) Exaggerations in behaviour
c) Hydrophobia
When the victim becomes hydrophobic, he/she exhibits extreme fear for water. The fatality
of this disease can be prevented by vaccination on time just before the onset of symptoms.
Symptoms usually start appearing within 90 – 175 days of the animal bite.
Question 23: Define non-infectious diseases. Give examples.
Answer: There are some diseases which do not occur through infections and direct body
contacts are known as non-infectious diseases. Such diseases may arise in the human body
itself due to metabolic or genetic reasons. Some examples include:
a) Cancer
b) Diabetes
c) Hypertension
d) Heart Diseases
Class 8 Science
Question 24: Explain about Cancer. How is it caused?
Answer: Cancer: Cancer is the abnormal or uncontrolled growth of deadly cells in the
human body. A group or lump of cancerous cells are known as a malignant tumour. It can
occur in any part of the body such as throat, lungs, mouth, breast, tongue, stomach, uterus,
skin and blood tissues, etc.
Some of the possible reasons of cancer are listed below:
a) Consumption of tobacco such as pan masala or gutkha.
b) Heavy smoking.
c) Drinking alcohol.
d) Lack of fibre content such as fresh fruits and leafy vegetables in the diet.
e) Excessive consumption of junk food such as pizza, cola, burger, etc.
f) Genetic reasons in rare circumstances.
Question 25: What are the symptoms of Cancer?
Answer: Some of the summon symptoms of Cancer are:
a) Chronic cough, harsh tonal quality or pitch, difficulty in swallowing food.
b) Scar and inflammation of certain body parts which do not heal quickly.
c) Breast lumps or soreness in breast area.
d) Sudden and unexplained weight loss.
Question 26: How does vaccination help in prevention of diseases?
Answer: Vaccines help in preventing diseases which are either dangerous or even deadly.
Taking timely vaccinations greatly reduces the risk of any possible infection as it works with
the body’s natural defences to safely develop an immunity towards a deadly disease.
Question 27: Describe Diabetes. What are the symptoms and reasons for this disease?
Answer: Diabetes is a disorder in which the glucose level of the body cannot be controlled
due to low secretion of insulin by the pancreas. The hormone insulin is produced in the
pancreas as it controls the level of sugar glucose in blood.
Symptoms: Some of the symptoms of this disease include:
a) Unexplained weight loss
b) Increased obesity
c) Frequent urination at night
d) Feeling thirsty often
e) Weakness due to giddiness
Class 8 Science
Reasons for diabetes: Some of the possible reasons for diabetes are:
a) Obesity
b) Genetic reasons
c) Lack of physical activity
d) Mental stress
Question 28: Explain Heart diseases.
Answer: Human heart does not function efficiently when there is decreased oxygen and
blood supply and supply of nutrients to the heart muscles. Many a time, heart diseases are
caused due to excessive mental stress and in extreme circumstances might cause a heart
attack. If a person suffers a cardiac arrest, then he/she should be rushed to the doctor
immediately and given the necessary treatment.
Question 29: What are the symptoms and reasons for heart attack?
Answer: Symptoms of heart attack: Some of the symptoms of heart attack are listed below:
a) Severe chest pain
b) Acute pain in shoulder blades, neck and arms
c) Cramps and needle-like sensation on the palm of both hands
d) Uneasiness
e) Difficulty in breathing
f) Tremors or shivers across the body
g) Weakness and dizziness
h) Sweating
Reasons for heart attack: Heart attack is caused due to the following reasons:
a) Smoking
b) Alcohol addition
c) Diabetes
d) Obesity
e) Hypertension
f) Lack of physical activity
g) Mental stress
h) Anger
i) Anxiety
j) Heredity
Class 8 Science
Question 30: How can heart diseases be cured?
Answer: Heart diseases can be managed to an extent by following the below listed medical
procedures:
a) Angioplasty
b) By-Pass surgery
c) Open heart surgery
d) Heart transplant
e) Installation of stents
f) Installation of pacemaker
Question 31: Define generic medicines.
Answer: Generic medicines are commonly known as general medicine which are
manufactured and distributed without any patent. Such medicines are said to be at par in
quality with quality or branded medicines. Usually, the production cost of such medicines is
comparatively low due to less expenses incurred on research and development as their
formula is readily available to manufacture the necessary medicines.

Question 32: What are the causes of lifestyle disorders?


Answer: Lifestyle refers to the daily routine and the type of food consumed by people. In
the current generation, lifestyle disorders are caused due to the fact that most people have
various bad habits such as staying in bed till late morning and sleeping late at night,
frequent changes in meal timings, lack of physical activity, consumption of junk food, etc.
Due to all these reasons, such people are frequently falling sick and their body is unable to
cope with the changes in their daily lives.

-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 3 Force and Pressure
Question 1: Write the word in the blank space.
a) The SI unit of force is Newton.
b) The air pressure on our body is equal to atmospheric pressure.
c) For a given object, the buoyant force in liquids of different density is different.
d) The SI unit of pressure is N/m2.
Question 2: Make a match:
Answer:

A group B group

Fluid Same pressure in all directions

Blunt knife Lower pressure

Sharp needle Higher pressure

Relative density Specific gravity

Hecto Pascal Atmospheric pressure

Question 3: Answer the following questions in brief.


1. A plastic cube is released in water. Will it sink or come to the surface of water?
Answer: As the density of the plastic cube is less than that of water, it will float on
the surface of water.
2. Why do the load carrying heavy vehicles have a large number of wheels?
Answer: We know, Pressure = Force / Area
When the area of contact between two surfaces is greater, the pressure will be less
too. Hence, the load carrying heavy vehicles usually have greater number of wheels
as there is a reduction in pressure on the road due to greater contact area. This
happens as the load is equally shared among the tyres which ensures that the force
caused is equally distributed among all the tyres and no single tyre is under
tremendous pressure.
3. How much pressure do we carry on our heads? Why don’t we feel it?
Answer: It is said that human beings can carry an atmospheric pressure of 105 Pa
(approx.) on their heads. We don’t feel the pressure because there is a balance of
atmospheric pressure created by the air and the blood running inside our body.
Class 8 Science
Question 4: Why does it happen?
1. A ship dips to a larger depth in fresh water as compared to marine water.
Answer: The density of fresh water is less than marine water due to the buoyant
force on the ship that floats on marine water and is greater than the fresh water. For
this reason, the ship dips to a larger depth in fresh water as compared to marine
water.
2. Fruits can easily be cut with a sharp knife.
Answer: Fruits can be easily cut with a sharp knife because of acute pressure. The
sharp-edged knife makes less contact with the fruits that are meant to be cut, hence
the pressure exerted by it on the fruit is immense.
3. The wall of a dam is broad at its base.
Answer: We are aware that pressure of liquid increases along with its depth. So, the
walls of a dam are made broader at its base so that it can bear the heavy amount of
pressure that is exerted by the river water.
4. If a stationary bus suddenly speeds up, passengers are thrown in the backward
direction.
Answer: If a stationary bus suddenly speeds up, the passengers are thrown in the
backward direction because initially the passenger’s whole body was in the state of
rest inside the bus. However, when the bus suddenly starts speeding up, the lower
part of the passenger’s body comes in motion towards the forward direction but the
upper part of the body still remains at rest particularly due to inertia of rest. This is
the reason why the passengers are thrown in a backward direction when a stationary
bus suddenly increases its speed.
Question 5: Complete the following tables.

Mass (Kg) Volume (m3) Density (kg/m3)

350 175 –

– 190 4

Density of Metal (kg/m3) Density of water (kg/m3) Relative Density

103 5

8.5×103 103 –

Weight (N) Area (m2) Pressure (Nm−2)

– 0.04 20,000

1500 500 –
Class 8 Science
Answer: We know, Density = Mass / Volume
By using the above formula, we can find the quantity of one substance if the other two
quantities are furnished:

Mass (kg) Volume (m3) Density (kg/m3)

350 175 2

760 190 4

We know, Relative density of substance = Density of substance / Density of water


By using the above formula, we can find the quantity of one substance if the other two
quantities are furnished:

Density of Metal (kg/m3) Density of water (kg/m3) Relative Density

5×103 103 5

8.5×103 103 8.5

We know, Pressure = Force / Area


By using the above formula, we can find the quantity of one substance if the other two
quantities are furnished:

Weight (N) Area (m2) Pressure (Nm−2)

800 0.04 20,000

1500 500 3

Question 6: The density of a metal is 10.8×103 kg/m3. Find the relative density of the metal.
Answer:
Given: Density of metal = 10.8×103 kg/m3
We have density of water = 1000 kg/m3
Relative density of substance =Density of substance / Density of water
Relative density of substance = 10.8×103 / 1000 = 10.8
Question 7: Volume of an object is 20 cm3 and the mass is 50 g. Density of water is 1 gcm-3.
Will the object float on water or sink in water?
Class 8 Science
Answer:
Given: Volume of object = 20 cm3
Mass of object = 50 g
Density of object = Mass of object / Volume of object = 50 / 20 = 2.5 g /cm3
Now, we know density of water = 1 g/cm3
Since, density of object > density of water, therefore, the object will sink in water.
Question 8: The volume of a plastic covered sealed box is 350 cm3 and the box has a mass
500 g. Will the box float on water or sink in water? What will be the mass of water displaced
by the box?
Answer: Given: Volume of box = 350 cm3
Mass of box = 500 g
Density of object = Mass of object / Volume of object = 500 / 350 = 1.43 g/cm3
We know, density of water = 1 g/cm3
Since, density of box > density of water, therefore, the object will sink in water.
Now, volume of liquid displaced = Volume of the object = 350 cm3
⇒Mass of liquid displaced / Density of liquid displaced = 350 cm3
⇒Mass of liquid= 350×1 = 350 g

Additional Questions
Question 1: Define a force.
Answer: A force is an interaction, which when unopposed, changes the motion of an object.
It can cause an object with mass to change or accelerate its velocity. Force can also be
defined intuitively as a push or a pull. It is expressed in magnitude and direction as a vector
quantity.
Question 2: What is Newton’s first law of motion?
Answer: When no force is applied to a stationary object, it remains still or stationary. A
moving object in motion continues to move with the same intensity, speed and direction
when no force is acting on that particular object. This is Newton’s first law of motion.
Question 3: What is Contact force?
Answer: When a force is seen to act through a direct contact of the objects or through any
other object. Such a force is called ‘Contact force’.
Question 4: Define Non-contact force.
Answer: When a force is applied between two objects even if the two objects are not in
contact with each other, such a force is known as ‘non-contact force’.
Class 8 Science
Question 5: Give examples of Contact force.
Answer: A fine example of contact force is muscular force, when it is applied to objects with
the help of our muscles. It is applied in some cases such as lifting, pushing, pulling. For
example, when a man applies force from behind to a car so that it moves in the forward
direction.
Question 6: Give examples of non-contact force.
Answer: When force is applied to an object through some magnetic force, gravitational
force, electrostatic force act without any direct contact between the objects. These are the
examples of non-contact forces. For example, when a comb is brushed against hair, then
small pieces of paper kept on a table get attracted to the comb. This is because the comb
has an electrostatic charge and there is an induced opposite charge on the pieces of paper
and the pieces stick to the comb.
Question 7: What is friction?
Answer: Friction is the force, which resists the relative motion of solid surfaces or material
elements which slide against each other. There are various types of friction. Dry friction is
that force by which it opposes the relative lateral motion of two solid surfaces which are in
contact with each other.
Question 8: What happens in the absence of frictional force?
Answer: Frictional force is very useful in our daily lives. In the absence of frictional force, the
object would remain in motion. It would continue to move and would not be in a stationary
position.
Question 9: What happens due to reduced frictional force? Explain with examples.
Answer: When we walk on the road, we exert pressure on the ground with our feet. In the
absence of friction, we will slip and will fall down immediately. For instance, when we slip
over banana peel on the street or slip due to mud on the road. These examples occur due to
reduced frictional force.
Question 10: Define electrostatic force.
Answer: Electrostatic force is the force that exists between electrically charged particles or
some objects at rest. It is a non-contact force.
Question 11: What are balanced forces?
Answer: When two forces that are of equal size but are acting in opposite directions, these
are called balanced forces. For example, when two pans with equal masses are connected to
a box kept on a table, they have equal gravitational force as they are in a balanced state
with effective force equal to zero as both are acting in opposite directions.
Question 12: What is unbalanced force?
Answer: Forces that cause a change in the motion of a particular object are called
unbalanced forces. When unequal forces are applied to the box on a table on both the two
sides, an unbalanced force acts on the box which results in imparting motion to the box.
Class 8 Science
Question 13: Give a good example of unbalanced force.
Answer: When children play tug of war at school, they pull the rope in their respective
directions. If the pull of the force is equal on the two sides, the rope does not move. If the
force is more on one side, the rope moves towards that direction. This means that initially,
the two forces are balanced; the rope moves in the direction of higher force when the
forces become unbalanced.
Question 14: What happens when force is applied to a stationary object?
Answer: When a force is applied on a stationary object it gradually starts to move and its
speed and direction also changes.
Question 15: Define inertia.
Answer: The tendency of an object to remain in its existing state is called its inertia. Due to
this reason, a stationary object remains in the similar state and an object in motion remains
in the state of motion in the absence of an external force.
Question 16: Define Pressure.
Answer: Pressure is the force exerted on a unit area perpendicularly.
Pressure = Force / Area on which the force in applied.
Question 17: What are the types of inertia?
Answer: There are three types of inertia which are discussed below:
a) Inertia of the state of rest: An object in the stationary state which is at rest cannot
change its state of rest due to its innate property. This property is known as the
inertia of the state of rest.
b) Inertia of motion: The innate property of an object due to which its state of motion
cannot change, is known as its inertia of motion. For example, an electric fan
continues to revolve even after it is switched off, when passengers are sitting in a
running bus get a sudden jerk in the forward direction if the bus tends to stop
suddenly.
c) Directional inertia: The innate property of an object due to which the object cannot
change the direction of its motion, is called directional inertia. For instance, if a
vehicle in motion which is travelling along a straight line suddenly turns, then the
passengers sitting in it are thrown in the opposite direction of the turning.
Question 18: What is the unit of pressure?
Answer: The SI unit of force is Newton (N). The area is measured in m2. Hence, the SI unit of
pressure is N/m2. It is also known as Pascal (Pa).
Pressure is a scalar quantity. In atmospheric science, the unit for pressure is bar i.e. 1 bar =
105 Pa.
Question 19: What happens to the pressure of a force when area increases?
Answer: When area increases, pressure reduces for the same force and vice versa.
Class 8 Science
Question 20: Why doesn’t a camel’s feet penetrate into the sand while walking on it?
Answer: As the bottom surfaces of a camel’s feet are broad and are adapted to the sand in
the desert. Therefore, the camel’s weight is exerted on a large area on the sand and the
pressure is reduced on the sand. Due to this reason, the camel’s feet do not penetrate into
the sand and it becomes easy for it to walk on the sand.
Question 21: What is pressure on solids?
Answer: There is air pressure in all objects, which are kept in air. Likewise, when some
weight is kept on a solid, pressure is exerted on it. This pressure is totally dependent on the
value of the weight and the contact area between the two.
Question 22: Where do fluids in a container exert pressure from?
Answer: Fluids in a container usually exert pressure from inside it especially on the walls
and the bottom of the particular container. When a fluid is enclosed in a container, it exerts
pressure in all directions equally at a point within the fluid.
Question 23: What is atmospheric pressure?
Answer: We are surrounded by air from all directions. This layer of air is known as
atmosphere. It exists to about 16 km in height and further stretches up to about 400 km in a
dilute form. The pressure created due to the air is known as atmospheric pressure.
Question 24: What happens to atmospheric pressure at sea level?
Answer: The air pressure at the sea level is called 1 Atmosphere pressure. The air pressure
tends to decrease as we go up in height from the sea level.
1 Atmosphere = 101 x 103 Pa = 1 bar = 103 mbar
1 mbar ≈ 102 Pa (hecto pascal)
Question 25: What is buoyant force?
Answer: The buoyant force is the upward force exerted on an object that is fully or partially
immersed in a fluid. This upward force is also called Upthrust. Due to this reason, the
buoyant force of a body submerged partially or fully in a fluid appears to lose its weight i.e.
appears to be lighter.
Question 26: What are the two factors of buoyancy?
Answer: Buoyant force is dependent on two factors:
a) Volume of the object – The buoyant force is usually more if the volume of the object
which is dipped is more.
b) Density of liquid – With the increase in the density of the liquid, the force of
buoyancy also increases.
Class 8 Science
Question 27: Who was Archimedes?
Answer: Archimedes was a Greek scientist and sharp mathematician who found out the
value of π by numerical calculations. His knowledge of various pulleys, levers, wheels in
Physics proved useful to the Greek army and helped them to fight the Roman army. He was
particularly famous for his geometry and mechanics works.
There is a famous incident, while taking a bath in a bathtub, he discovered the Archimedes
principle by observing the water overflowing out of the tub. He came out of the tub in the
same state shouting ‘Eureka’, ‘Eureka’, which meant ‘I found it’, ‘I found it.’
Question 28: Write about Archimedes principle.
Answer: Archimedes principle states that “When an object is partially or fully immersed in a
fluid, a force of buoyancy acts on it in the upward direction. This force is equal to the weight
of the fluid displaced by the object”.
Question 29: Identify some uses of Archimedes principle.
Answer: The Archimedes principle has been used in the construction of ships and
submarines. Instruments such as the hygrometer, lactometer are based on this principle.
Question 30: What is Density of a substance? Explain with a formula.
Answer: Density of a substance is usually defined as the mass per unit volume of the
substance.
The SI unit of density is kg/m3.
Density = Mass / Volume
Question 31: What is Relative density?
Answer: The relative density of a substance is expressed with reference to the density of
water.
Relative density = Density of substance / Density of water
This particularly implies the ratio of two equal physical quantities that has no unit. Relative
density of a substance is known as its ‘specific gravity.’
Question 32: Give an example of gas pressure.
Answer: When a balloon is inflated on all sides by filling it with air from mouth and a pin
hole is created in the balloon, then the air leaks out of it and it does not inflate fully. This
implies that gas exerts pressure on the wall of the respective container in which it is
enclosed from all sides.

-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 4 Current Electricity and Magnetism
Question 1: Write proper words from the following group of words in the blanks.
1. Water in the waterfall flows from a higher level to the lower level because
of potential differences.
2. In an electric circuit, electrons flow from a point of higher potential to the point
of lower potential.
3. The differences between the electrostatic potential of the positive end and the
negative end of an electric cell is the potential difference of the cell.
4. Three electric cells of potential difference 1.5 V each have been connected as a
battery. The potential differences of the battery will be 1.5 + 1.5 + 1.5 = 4.5V.
5. An electric current flowing in a wire creates a magnetic field around the wire.
Question 2: A battery is to be formed by joining 3 dry cells with connecting wires. Show how
you will connect the wires by drawing a diagram.
Answer: Given below is the diagram used to show the connection by joining 3 dry cells with
connecting wires:

or

Question 3: In an electric circuit, a battery and a bulb have been connected and the battery
consists of two or three cells of equal potential difference. If the bulb is not glowing, then
which tests will you perform in order to find out the reason for the bulb not glowing?
Answer: We need to perform the following test to detect the reason why the bulb is not
glowing:
a) First, we need to check how the battery terminals are connected to each other. It
should be ensured that the positive terminal of a battery is connected to the
negative terminal of another battery. If all the batteries are linked or connected in
this fashion and even then, the bulb is not glowing, then we need to check an
alternate option.
Class 8 Science
b) Secondly, we need to check if there are any broken wires in the circuit. By ensuring
that the wires that are used for linking or connecting the different electrical
components are not broken in between it helps in detecting that the circuit is closed.
Further, this also helps to ensure that the wires are not broken somewhere in
between because of which the bulb is not glowing. If this doesn’t work, we need to
move to the next test.
c) Finally, we need to check how the connecting wires are plugged into the bulb. This
will ensure that the bulb is properly connected to the batteries as shown in the
diagram below. Even then, if the bulb does not glow, then we need to replace the
batteries of the bulb with a new set.

Question 4: Electric cells having 2V potential difference each have been connected in the
form of a battery. What will be the total potential difference of the battery in both cases?
(i)

(ii)

Answer: (i) Total potential difference of electric cells having 2V each = 2 + 2 + 2 = 6V


(ii) Total potential difference of electric cells having 2V each = 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 8V
Question 5: Describe the construction, working and usefulness of a dry cell, with the help of
a diagram.
Answer: Construction of dry cell: A dry cell consists of the following components –
a) Outer metal cover: The outer metal cover is made up of Zinc metal. It is white in
appearance and works as a negative terminal of the cell.
b) Electrolyte: There is the electrolyte filled between the two layers inside the Zinc
metal. Electrolyte is a wet pulp which is a combination of Ammonium chloride
Class 8 Science
(NH4Cl) and Zinc chloride (ZnCl2). It is the carrier of electric charge as it consists of
both positively charged and negatively charged ions.
c) Metal rod: At the centre of the cell, there is a graphite rod which is surrounded by a
paste of Manganese dioxide (MnO2). It is considered the positive terminal of the cell.

d) Working of a dry cell: The chemical reactions take place between the zinc container,
electrolyte and graphite rod. Due to this reason, electric charge is produced or
generated on the two terminals – positive and negative of the cell and electric
current gradually flows into the circuit.
e) Usefulness of a dry cell: A dry cell is usually portable and easy to use. The longevity
of a dry cell is more than those cells which use liquid electrolyte. Dry cells can also be
used in T.V., torch, toys or Air Conditioner remote controls, etc.
Question 6: Describe the construction and working of an electric bell with the help of a
diagram.
Answer: Construction of an electric bell: The components of electric bell are given below –

a) Electromagnet: A copper wire is wrapped around an iron piece that works as a


magnet when the electric current flows through it.
b) The hammer is connected with the contact screw through an iron strip.
c) A metal gong.
d) A switch or key.
Class 8 Science
Working of an electric bell: When the switch is pressed ‘ON’, the screw is connected with
the iron strip, then electric current flows through the copper wire and gets magnetised due
to electromagnetism. This electromagnet or magnetised copper wire attracts the iron strip
towards it and lets the striker hit the gong which produces sound.
As soon as the hammer hits the gong, the screw loses its touch with the iron strip and the
electric current stops in the circuit. Now, the electromagnet tends to lose its magnetic
power and the iron strip moves backward which then comes in contact with the contact
screw. Therefore, the electric current is thereafter restored in the circuit and again the
hammer hits the gong as per the above-mentioned process. This action is an ongoing
process and it repeats itself and the bell rings to produce sound.

Additional Questions:
Question 1: What are the constituents of an atom?
Answer: An atom has the same number of positively charged protons and negatively
charged electrons in it.
Question 2: Describe current electricity.
Answer: An enormous current flow when lightning strikes from a cloud to the ground, while
we feel the sensation due to the microscopically small current flowing to the brain. We are
all aware of the current flowing through electric bulbs, wires and electrical equipment in the
house. In the electric cells of a car battery or a radio, a current is produced by the flow of
both positively and negatively charged particles.
Question 3: Define electrons.
Answer: Moving charges transfer from one object to another as these are negatively
charged. Such moving negatively charged particles are called electrons.
Question 4: What is electrostatic potential?
Answer: We are also aware that water or a liquid flow from a higher level to a lower level
due to the gravitational force on earth. Likewise, heat always flows from a body at higher
temperature to a body at lower temperature. In similar fashion, there is a tendency of the
positive charge to flow from a point of higher electric level to a point of lower electric level.
This electric level deciding the direction of flow of electric charges is known as electrostatic
potential.
Question 5: What is a potential difference?
Answer: Electric potential difference or electric tension is the difference in electric potential
between two points, i.e. the temperature difference of hot and cold bodies or that similar to
the height of a waterfall, etc.
Question 6: How is the electric current measured?
Answer: Electric current is produced due to the flow of both positively and negatively
charged particles. When it flows through a wire in one second, it can be called unit current.
The SI unit of electric current is Coulomb per second or Ampere. Electric current is a scalar
quantity. 1 Ampere = 1A = 1 Coulomb/1 second = 1 C/s.
Class 8 Science
Question 7: Define an electric cell. Give examples.
Answer: A general device that is required to produce a uniform flow of charges in an electric
circuit. Such a general device is referred to as an electric cell. These are used in ships, wrist
watches, submarines, etc.
Question 8: What is the main function of electric cells?
Answer: The main function of different electric cells is to maintain a constant potential
difference between its two terminals. The electric cells usually work on the electric charges
to maintain a constant potential difference between the terminals.
Question 9: What is a dry cell? Give examples.
Answer: A dry cell is a type of electric battery or unit which is mostly used in portable
electrical devices. Dry cells are used in our TV or AC remote controls, radio sets, wall clocks
and torches, etc.
Question 10: What is an electrolyte?
Answer: An electrolyte is filled between the two layers of Zinc (Zn) metal and graphite rod
of a dry cell. It contains both negatively charged and positively charged ions in it. These are
the carriers of electricity.
Question 11: What are lead-acid cells used for?
Answer: Lead-acid cells are mostly used in vehicles such as lorries, cars, motorbikes and
generators such as Uninterrupted Power Supplies (UPS).
Question 12: What is an electric circuit?
Answer: When an electric bulb, a cell holder and a plug key are connected through
connecting wires and a dry cell is fitted into the holder, then the bulb lights up by closing the
plug key. This implies that the bulb lights up due to the flow of the current through the
circuit. When we remove the cell, the electric current flowing through the circuit suddenly
stops and the light in the bulb ceases to glow. This type of connection of electrical
components is known as an electric circuit.
Question 13: What are connecting cells?
Answer: When two or more cells are connected to an electric circuit in a series, this obtains more
potential difference than that of a single cell. This connection of cells is known as a battery of cells.
Connecting cells in a series increases the voltage of the circuit but doesn’t make the cells last longer.
Question 14: Where are Lithium-ion cells used?
Answer: Lithium-ion cells are mostly used in modern equipment such as smartphones, laptops, etc.
These cells are the ones which can be recharged. Additional electrical energy can also be stored in
these cells in comparison to those of NiCad cells.
Question 15: What is the magnetic effect of electric current?
Answer: The magnetic effect of electric current is referred to as electromagnetic effect. It is
observed that when a magnetic bar is brought near the magnetic needle, the needle gets deflected
and changes its direction because of the flow of electricity. This shows that electric current flows in a
wire and a magnetic effect is produced.
Class 8 Science
Chapter 5 Inside the Atom
Question 1: Answer the following:
1. What is the difference in the atomic models of Thomson and Rutherford?
Answer: Differences between Thomson and Rutherford Theory are listed below:

Thomson Theory Rutherford Theory

This theory states that the negatively This theory states that an atom consists of a
charged electron are entrenched in a positively charged nucleus around which the
positively charged solid material which has a electrons revolve in an orbit
spherical shape

It does not divulge any details about the It mentions about the atomic nucleus
atomic nucleus

In this theory, it states that electrons are It states that electrons revolve around a solid
distributed in an atom in a uniform manner material at the centre i.e. atomic nucleus

This theory indicates that an atom is This theory indicates that an atom has a solid
spherical in shape core at the centre defined as the nucleus
which is surrounded by the electrons

Nowhere in this theory does it mention the This theory clearly mentions that nucleus is a
constituents of nucleus composition of neutrons and protons

2. What is meant by valency of an element? What is the relationship between the


number of valence electrons and valency?
Answer: Valency of an element: It refers to the number of electrons of an atom of
the element that is used to combine or mix with the atoms of other elements. It is
the combining capacity of an atom of the respective element.
Here’s the relationship between the number of valence electrons and valency:
Valency of an element can be determined by its electronic configuration. It explains
about the gain or loss in the total number of electrons in order to derive at the
closest noble gas configuration.
For example: The electronic configuration of Sodium (Na) is 11 i.e. 2, 8, 1. Hence, the
valency of Na is 1.
The electronic configuration of Chlorine (Cl) is 17 i.e. 2, 8, 7. Hence, its valency is 1.
Number of valence electrons: The outermost shell of an atom contains the total
number of electrons in it. However, it is not mandatory that all the valence electrons
would be involved in bonding. For example: The electronic configuration of Sodium (-
Na) is 11 i.e. 2, 8, 1. Hence, the number of valence electrons is 1.
Class 8 Science
The electronic configuration of Chlorine (Cl) is 17 i.e. 2, 8, 7. Hence, its number of
valence electrons is 7.
Hence, we have observed that valency of an element is directly proportional to the
number of valence electrons in that atom.
3. What is meant by atomic mass number? Explain how the atomic number and mass
number of carbon are 6 and 12, respectively.
Answer: Atomic Mass Number: It is the sum of the total number of neutrons and
protons present in an atomic nucleus.
Atomic mass number = Number of neutrons + Number of protons
Atomic number is denoted by Z = Number of protons = Number of electrons.
Mass number is denoted by A = Number of protons + Number of neutrons.
For example: In a carbon atom the total number of protons = 6
Number of neutrons = 6 and Number of electrons = 6
Atomic number (Z) = number of protons = number of electrons = 6.
Mass number (A) = number of protons + number of neutrons = 6 + 6 = 12.
4. What is meant by subatomic particle? Give brief information of three subatomic
particles with reference to electrical charge, mass and location.
Answer: Subatomic particles: A subatomic particle is a functional and structural unit
of matters. This implies that all the matters are a combination of these fundamental
particles. As per the modern atomic theory, an atom has a nucleus at its center or
core. This nucleus contains subatomic particles such as protons and neutrons in it.
Difference between subatomic particles are listed below:
Electron
• Electrons are usually present outside the atom nucleus.
• They are negatively charged i.e (1.6 × 10-19 Coulomb).
• The mass of an electron is considered as negligible as it’s 1800 times less than
that of hydrogen.
• Relative mass = 1/ 1840 times hydrogen
• It revolves around the nucleus of an atom in a discrete orbit.
Proton
• Protons are present inside the nucleus of an atom.
• Protons are positively charged i.e. (1.6 × 10-19 Coulomb).
• The mass of a proton is approximately 1u (1Dalton) i.e. (1u = 1.66 × 10-27 g).
• They are bound in the nucleus closely.
Class 8 Science
Neutron
• Neutrons are present in an atom nucleus.
• Neutrons have no charge; hence they are neutral.
• The mass of a neutron is nearly equal to the mass of a proton that is 1u
(1Dalton) i.e. (1u = 1.66 × 10-27 g).
• They are bound in the nucleus closely.
Question 2: Give scientific reasons:
1. All the mass of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus.
Answer: All the mass of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus because an atom
consists of three subatomic particles such as electron, proton and neutron. The
nucleus present at the centre of an atom usually contains two subatomic particles i.e
protons and neutrons. The total mass of a nucleus is the sum of the mass of protons
and neutrons located at the central part of an atom.
2. Atom is electrically neutral.
Answer: An atom is electrically neutral because there are electrons and protons in
an atom which carry charges and each atom has an equal number of protons
(positively charged) and electrons (negatively charged) particles.
3. Atomic mass number is a whole number.
Answer: An atomic mass number is a whole number because it is the cumulative
sum of the total number of protons and neutrons present in an atom, which is
represented in the form of integers.
4. Atoms are stable though negatively charged electrons are revolving within it.
Answer: Atoms are stable irrespective of the fact that negatively charged electrons
are revolving within it because each atom consists of equal numbers of protons and
electrons. Hence, the charge on negatively charged electrons are balanced by charge
on the positively charged proton. Therefore, an atom is electrically neutral and
stable at all times.
Question 3: Define the following forms:
Answer:
1. Atom: An atom is defined as the structural and functional unit of matter. It is the
smallest particle of an element which retains its chemical identity in all the physical
and chemical changes. The term “atom” comes from the Greek word ‘Atomos’,
which means that which cannot be divided because atoms are the smallest and
minutest things in the universe which cannot be divided. Atoms comprise three
subatomic particles like protons, neutrons and electrons.
2. Isotopes: Isotopes are the atoms that have the same atomic number but different
mass number. As a matter of fact, isotopes have the same number of protons but
different numbers of neutrons in it.
Class 8 Science
Some common examples of isotopes include carbon has three isotopes, namely, C –
12, C – 13, C – 14. The mass number of isotopes is also represented by another
method as 12C , 13C and 14C. The isotopes have the same proton number but different
neutron number.
3. Atomic number: Atomic number is equal to the total numbers of electrons in an
atom. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom are characteristic of a
chemical element and determine its place in the periodic table.
For example:
Atomic number of carbon = 6
Atomic number of oxygen = 8
4. Atomic Mass Number: It is the sum of the total number of protons and neutrons
present in an atomic nucleus.
Atomic mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons.
Atomic number is denoted by Z = number of protons = number of electrons.
Mass number is denoted by A = number of protons + number of neutrons.
For example: In a carbon atom, Number of protons = 6
Number of neutrons = 6
Number of electrons = 6
Atomic number (Z) = number of protons = number of electrons = 6
Mass number (A) = number of proton + number of neutrons = 6 + 6 =12
5. Moderator in nuclear reactor: Moderator of a nuclear reactor is a substance that
slows or brings down the neutrons speed. In traditional and ancient nuclear reactors,
the moderator is considered as similar to that of coolant like water.
Question 4: Draw a neat labelled diagram
Answer: Rutherford’s scattering experiment:
Class 8 Science
b. Thomson’s atomic model:

c. Diagrammatic sketch of electronic configurations of Magnesium (Atomic number 12):

d. Diagrammatic sketch of electronic configuration of Argon (Atomic number 18):


Class 8 Science
Question 5: Fill in the blanks:
1. Electrons, protons, neutrons are the types of subatomic particles in an atom.
2. An electron carries a negative charge.
3. The electron shell K is nearest to the nucleus.
4. The electronic configuration Magnesium is 2, 8, 2. From this it is understood that the
valence shell of Magnesium is M shell.
5. The valency of hydrogen is ‘one as per the molecular formula H2O. Therefore,
valency of ‘Fe’ turns out to be three as per the formula Fe2O3.
Question 6: Match the pairs:
Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’

Proton Positively charged

Electron Negatively charged

Neutron Neutral

Question 7: Deduce from the datum provided.

Answer:
1. Neutron number = Mass number – Number of protons
= 23 – 11 = 12
2. Mass number = 14
3. Proton number = Atomic number = 17

Additional Questions
Question 1: What is meant by matter?
Answer: Matter is everything that is around us, such as atoms and compounds are all
composed of the smallest parts of matter. Matter is made of molecules which in turn, are
formed from atoms.
Class 8 Science
Question 2: Describe matter as stated by the great Indian philosopher Acharya Kanad.
Answer: The great Indian sage and philosopher, Acharya Kanad (6th century B.C.) stated
that there is a limit to divide matter into small particles. He named the indivisible particles
that constitute matter as ‘paramanu’ which means the smallest particles. He also stated that
‘paramanu’ is indestructible by nature.
Question 3: Who coined the term ‘Atom’?
Answer: The Greek philosopher Democritus who lived in the 5th century B.C. stated that
matter is made of very small particles which cannot be divided. Democritus described the
smallest particle of matter and named it as ‘Atom’ or ‘Atomos’ which means the one which
cannot be cut or divided.
Question 4: Describe Dalton’s Atomic Theory.
Answer: In 1803 A.D. John Dalton, the British scientist proposed ‘Atomic Theory’. According
to this theory, matter is composed of atoms which are indivisible and indestructible. All
atoms of an element are alike while different elements have different atoms with different
mass.
Question 5: Describe Thomson’s plum pudding model of atom.
Answer: In 1904, J.J. Thomson demonstrated the first model of atomic structure through
the plum pudding model of atom. According to this model, the positive charge is distributed
throughout the atom while the negatively charged electrons are embedded in it. There is a
balance between the distributed positive charge by the negative charge on the electrons.
Due to this reason, the atom becomes electrically neutral.
Question 6: Describe Rutherford’s Nuclear atomic model.
Answer: Given below are the postulates of Rutherford’s Nuclear atomic model:
a) There is a positively charged nucleus at the centre of an atom.
b) The entire mass of the atom is almost concentrated in the nucleus.
c) The negatively charged particles are called electrons that revolve around the
nucleus.
d) The total negative charge on all the electrons is equal to the positive charge on the
nucleus. As the opposite charges are balanced the atom is electrically neutral.
e) There is an empty space between the revolving electron and the atomic nucleus.
Question 7: What is the shortcoming of Rutherford’s Nuclear atomic model?
Answer: One of the major shortcomings of Rutherford’s Nuclear atomic model is that it
turns out to be unstable. However, in reality, all atoms except the radioactive atoms are
stable.
Class 8 Science
Question 8: Describe Bohr’s stable orbit atomic model.
Answer: In 1913 Niels Bohr, a Danish scientist explained the stability of an atom by
demonstrating the stable orbit atomic model. The important postulates of Bohr’s atomic
model are listed as below:
a) The electrons that revolve around the atomic nucleus lie in the concentric circular
orbit at a certain distance from the nucleus.
b) The energy of an electron is constant while it is in a particular circular orbit.
c) When an electron jumps from an inner orbit to an outer orbit it absorbs energy
equal to the difference of its energy level. Also, when it jumps from an outer orbit to
an inner orbit it emits energy equal to the difference of its energy level.
Question 9: Describe nucleus.
Answer: The nucleus of an atom is positively charged. The entire mass of the atom is almost
concentrated in the nucleus. The nucleus contains two types of subatomic particles together
which are called nucleons. The two types of nucleons are protons and neutrons.
Question 10: Define Proton.
Answer: Proton is a positively charged subatomic particle in the atomic nucleus. The
positive charge on the nucleus is due to the proton in it. A proton is represented by the
symbol ‘p’. Each proton carries a positive charge of +1e. (1e = 1.6 × 10-19 coulomb).
Question 11: What is Neutron?
Answer: Neutron is an electrically neutral subatomic particle of an atom that is denoted by
the symbol ‘n’. The number of neutrons in an atomic nucleus is denoted by the symbol ‘N’.
Atomic nuclei of all the elements except hydrogen with atomic mass 1u, contain neutrons.
The mass of a neutron is approximately 1u, which is almost equal to that of a proton.
Question 12: What comprises the extranuclear part?
Answer: The extranuclear part in an atomic structure basically includes the electrons that
revolve around the nucleus and the empty space in between the nucleus and the electrons.
Question 13: What is an electron?
Answer: Electron is a negatively charged subatomic particle of an atom that is denoted by
the symbol ‘e–’. Each electron carries one unit of negative charge (-1e). Mass of an electron
is 1800 times less than that of a hydrogen atom. Therefore, the mass of an electron can be
treated as negligible.
Question 14: Give examples of moderators.
Answer: Heavy water or Graphite are used as moderators for reducing the speed of
neutrons in an atom in a nuclear reactor.
Class 8 Science
Question 15: What is electronic configuration of an element?
Answer: According to their maximum capacity, the electrons in an atom are distributed in
the shells. The shell wise distribution of the electron in an atom of an element is called the
electronic configuration of that element. Each electron has a definite energy according to
the shell in which it is present.
Question 16: Define valence electrons.
Answer: An atom forms chemical bonds from its outermost shell by using electrons. Valency
of an atom is determined by the configuration of its outermost shell. Therefore, the
outermost shell is known as the valence shell and the electrons in the outermost shell are
called valence electrons.
Question 17: What are the uses of Isotopes?
Answer: Some elements have isotopes which are radioactive. They are used in a variety of
fields such as agriculture, industry, medicine, research and development.
a) Uranium – 235 is particularly used for production of electricity and nuclear fission.
b) Radioactive isotopes like Cobalt – 60 are used in the medical treatment of life-
threatening diseases such as cancer.
c) Iodine -131 is used to treat diseases such as goitre and thyroid gland disorders.
d) The radioactive isotopes are used for detection of cracks or leakage in the
underground.
e) Pipes such as Sodium -24.
f) Radioactive isotopes are used for preserving food from microbes.
g) The radioactive isotope C-14 is used for determining the age of archaeological
objects.
Question 18: What is a nuclear reactor?
Answer: Nuclear reactor is a machine that is used to generate electricity on a large scale by
using atomic energy. In a nuclear reactor, the nuclear energy in an atom is released by
combining and bringing the nuclear reactions on the nuclear fuel.
Question 19: What is the function of a controller in a nuclear reactor?
Answer: A controller is used in a nuclear reactor to reduce the number of neutrons by
absorbing the rods of boron, cadmium, beryllium, etc.
Question 20: How to control chain reaction in a nuclear reactor?
Answer: A chain reaction is usually kept under control to prevent a probable explosion. In
order to control a chain reaction in the nuclear reactor it is necessary to slow down the
speed and number of neutrons. For this purpose, moderators and controllers are used in a
nuclear reactor.

-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 6 Composition of Matter
Question 1: Choose the appropriate option and rewrite the following statements.
1. The intermolecular force is maximum in the particles of solid.
2. Solids retain their volume even when external pressure is applied. This property is
called incompressibility.
3. Matter is classified into the type’s mixture, compound and element by applying the
criterion states of matter.
4. Matter that contains two or more constituent substances is called compound.
5. Milk is an example of a type of matter called a homogeneous mixture.
6. Water, mercury and bromine are similar to each other, because three are liquids.
7. Valency of carbon is 4 and that of oxygen is 2. From this, we understand that there
are 2 chemical bond/bonds between the carbon atom and one oxygen atom in the
compound-carbon dioxide.
Question 2: Identify the odd term out and explain
1. Gold, silver, copper, brass
Answer: Brass is an odd one out since it is an alloy and the other metals – gold,
copper or silver are elements.
2. Hydrogen, hydrogen peroxide, carbon dioxide, water vapour.
Answer: Hydrogen is an odd one out since it is an element and the rest are
compounds.
3. Milk, lemon juice, carbon, steel.
Answer: Carbon is an odd one since it is an element and the rest are a mixture of
several elements.
4. Water, mercury, bromine, petrol.
Answer: Water is an odd one since it is an universal solvent and the others are not
universal solvents.
5. Sugar, slat, baking soda, blue vitriol.
Answer: Baking soda is an odd one as it is a mixture of several elements and the rest
are compounds.
6. Hydrogen, sodium, potassium, carbon.
Answer: Carbon is an odd one out as it has four valence electrons in it and the rest
have one valence electron only.
Class 8 Science
Question 3: Answer the following questions.
1. Plants synthesize glucose in sunlight with the help of chlorophyll from carbon dioxide
and water and give away oxygen. Identify the four compounds in this process and
name their types.
Answer: Photosynthesis is a natural chemical process in which plants along with
some algae and bacteria produce oxygen and glucose from water and carbon
dioxide. It uses sunlight as a source of energy, which is absorbed by the chlorophyll
of plants.
6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2
We can derive the four substances in this process:
a) Carbon dioxide which is an organic compound.
b) Water which is an organic compound
c) Glucose which is an organic compound
d) Chlorophyll which is an organo-metallic compound or complex compound
2. In one sample of brass, the following ingredients were found: copper (70%) and zinc
(30%). Identify the solvent, solute and solution from these.
Answer: Brass is an alloy primarily made of copper with zinc. Brass as a solid solution
consists of zinc and other metals as solute dissolved in copper is considered as a
solvent. Hence, brass meets all the criteria of a solution.
3. Sea water tastes salty due to the dissolved salt. The salinity (the proportion of salts
in water) of some water bodies Lonar lake – 7.9 %, Pacific Ocean – 3.5%,
Mediterranean Sea – 3.8%, Dead sea- 33.7%. Explain two characteristics of mixture
from the above information.
Answer: Sea water tastes salty due to the dissolved salt. The salinity (the proportion
of salts in water) of some water bodies Lonar lake – 7.9 %, Pacific Ocean – 3.5%,
Mediterranean Sea – 3.8%, Dead sea- 33.7%. The characteristics of mixtures from
the above data are:
a) The constituent substances of a mixture are a composition of 2 or more elements or
compounds.
b) The proportion of constituent substances in a mixture can vary.
c) The properties of constituent substances stay back in the mixture.

Question 4: Give two examples each


Answer:
a) Liquid element = bromine and mercury
b) Gaseous element = hydrogen and oxygen
c) Solid element = sodium and aluminium
d) Homogeneous mixture = blood plasma and mixture of sugar in water
Class 8 Science
e) Colloid = milk, butter, jelly, etc.
f) Organic compound = carbohydrates and proteins
g) Complex compound = chlorophyll and haemoglobin
h) Inorganic compound = common salt and limestone
i) Metalloid = germanium and silicon
j) Element with valency 1 = potassium and chlorine
k) Element with valency 2 = calcium and magnesium
Question 5: Write the names and symbols of the constituent elements and identify their
valences from the molecular formulae given below.
Answer:

Compounds Name of Symbol of constituent Valency of constituent


compounds elements elements

KCl Potassium chloride K, Cl K = 1, Cl = 1

HBr Hydrogen bromide K, Br K = 1, Br = 1

MgBr2 Magnesium Mg, Br Mg = 2, Br = 1


bromide

K2O Potassium oxide K, O K = 1, O = 2

NaH Sodium hydride Na, H Na = 1, H = 1

CaCl2 Calcium chloride Ca, Cl Ca = 2, Cl = 1

CCl4 Carbon C, Cl C = 4, Cl = 1
tetrachloride

HI Hydrogen iodide H, I H = 1, I = 1

H2S Hydrogen sulphide H, S H = 1, S = 2

Na2S Sodium sulphide Na, S Na = 1, S = 2

FeS Iron(II) Sulfide Fe, S F = 2, S = 2

BaCl2 Barium chloride Ba, Cl B = 2, Cl = 1


Class 8 Science
Question 6: Chemical composition of some matter is given in the following table.
Identify the main type of matter from their composition.
Answer:

Name of matter Chemical composition Main type of matter

Sea water H2O + NaCl + MgCl2 +….. Mixture

Distilled water H2O Compound

Hydrogen gas filled in a H2 Element or Molecule


balloon

The gas in LPG cylinder C4H10 + C3H8 Mixture

Baking soda NaHCO3 Mixture

Pure gold Au Element

The gas in oxygen cylinder O2 Element or Molecule

Bronze Cu + Sn Mixture

Diamond C Element (allotrope)

Heated white powder of blue CuSO4 Compound


vitriol

Limestone CaCO3 Compound

Dilute hydrochloric acid HCl+ H2O Compound

Question 7: Write scientific reason.


1. Hydrogen is combustible, oxygen helps combustion, but water helps to extinguish
fire.
Answer: Water is composed of two elements – oxygen and hydrogen. Hydrogen is
flammable, but oxygen is inflammable. Flammability refers to the ability of a
combustible material with sufficient supply of oxygen to sustain enough heat energy
to burn a fire even after it has been ignited. Water is made up of two atoms of
hydrogen and one atom of oxygen which form an ionic compound. It does not
possess the attributes of these elements because a compound doesn’t have the
properties of its constituent elements. Therefore, water has its own properties that
help to extinguish the fire.
Class 8 Science
2. Constituent substances of a colloid cannot be separated by ordinary filtration.
Answer: Constituent substances of a colloid cannot be separated by ordinary
filtration because the particles size in a colloid (or colloidal solution) is much bigger
than the one in a true solution and surprisingly smaller than the one in suspension.
The diameter is in between 1 – 100nm. The ordinary filter paper size is more than
100nm because of which colloidal particles pass through the filter paper pores. For
this reason, we prefer to use ultra-filter paper so that filtration of the colloidal
particles takes place easily.

3. Lemon sharbat has a sweet, sour and salty taste and it can be poured in a glass.
Answer: Lemon sharbat has a sweet, sour and salty taste and it can be poured in a
glass because the sour taste implies the presence of an acid. If that acid is poured in
a metal vessel or utensil, then acid reacts with metal and renders it poisonous for
consumption. Hence, we prefer to take glass material vessels for drinking lemon
juice.

4. A solid matter has the properties of definite shape and volume.


Answer: A solid matter has the following properties of definite shape and volume
due to the reasons listed below:
a) There is a strong intermolecular force of attraction between the various particles of
matter.
b) Internuclear space is almost negligible between the particles of matter.
c) Particles of matter are so close to each other that they vibrate at their fixed position
too.
Question 8: Deduce the molecular formulae of the compound obtained from the following
pairs of elements by the cross-multiplication method.
Answer: a. C (Valency 4) & Cl (Valency 1):
Step 1: Let’s first write the symbols of the radicals.
C Cl
Step 2: Then, write the valency below the respective radical.
C Cl
41
Step 3: Cross-multiply symbols of radicals with their respective valency.
Class 8 Science

Step 4: Write down the chemical formula of the compound=CCl4


b. N (Valency 3) & H (Valency 1)
Step 1: Let’s first write the symbols of the radicals.
NH
Step 2: Then, write the valency below the respective radical.
NH
31
Step 3: Cross-multiply symbols of radicals with their respective valency.

Step 4: Write down the chemical formula of the compound.


NH3
c. C (Valency 4) & O (Valency 2)
Step 1: Let’s first write the symbols of the radicals.
CO
Step 2: Then, write the valency below the respective radical.
CO
42
Step 3: Cross-multiply symbols of radicals with their respective valency.

Step 4: Write down the chemical formula of the compound.


CO2
d. Ca (Valency 2) & O (Valency 2)
Step 1: Let’s first write the symbols of the radicals.
Ca O
Class 8 Science
Step 2: Then, write the valency below the respective radical.
Ca O
22
Step 3: Cross-multiply symbols of radicals with their respective valency.

Step 4: Write down the chemical formula of the compound.


CaO

Additional Questions
Question 1: What are the various states of matter?
Answer: There are five states of matter namely:
a) Solid
b) Liquid
c) Gas
d) Plasma
e) Bose-Einstein condensate

Question 2: What is the difference in ice, water and steam?


Answer: Water exists in three different physical states such as solid, liquid and gaseous. In
the solid state, water usually exists in the form of ice. In the liquid state, it is simply referred
to as water which is consumed by living organisms post filtration. In the gaseous state,
water exists as steam or water vapour.
Question 3: What are the smallest particles of matter called?
Answer: The smallest particles of matter are called atoms which are indivisible and
indestructible.
Question 4: Classify the following matter into three groups. Cold drink, air, sherbat, soil,
water, wood, cement.
Answer: Given below is the classification of matter into three groups:
a) Solid: Soil, wood, cement
b) Liquid: Cold drink, sherbat, water
c) Gaseous: Air
Question 5: What is a homogeneous mixture?
Answer: When all the components of a mixture form one particular phase that have similar
characteristics, it is known as homogeneous mixture.
Class 8 Science
Question 6: What are the characteristics of the states of matter?
Answer: The characteristics of the states of matter are listed as below:

Physical Fluidity/ Rigidity/ Volume Shape Compressibility Intermolecular Distance


state of Plasticity/ Elasticity force between
matter particles

Solid Rigid/plastic/elastic Definite Definite Negligible Strong Minimum

Liquid Fluid Definite Indefinite Very small Moderate Moderate

Gaseous Fluid Indefinite Indefinite Very high Very weak Very large

Question 7: What consists of the smallest particles of an element?


Answer: The smallest particles of an element contain identical atoms. For example, each
molecule of oxygen contains two oxygen atoms in a bonded state. The smallest particles
(molecules) of a compound are formed by joining two or more types of atoms to each other.
Question 8: Why is water considered as a compound?
Answer: Pure water is a compound that is formed by the chemical combination of elements
such as hydrogen and oxygen. The proportion of constituent elements of water are oxygen
and hydrogen, which by weight is always 8:1, irrespective of whatsoever may be the source
of water. Hydrogen is an inflammable gas while oxygen gas supports combustion. However,
the compound water formed by chemical combination of the gaseous elements hydrogen
and oxygen is a liquid. It is neither inflammable nor does it support combustion. On the
contrary, it helps to extinguish fire.
Question 9: What are organic compounds?
Answer: Organic compounds can be a member of any states of matter such as gaseous,
liquid, or solid chemical compounds in which one or more atoms of carbon are covalently
linked to atoms of other elements such as oxygen, hydrogen or nitrogen.
Question 10: Why is milk considered as a mixture of elements?
Answer: Milk is a mixture of water, lactose, fats, protein and some more natural substances.
The proportion of various ingredients of milk is different, as per its source. The proportion of
fats in cow milk is 3-5 %, while it is 6-9 % in buffalo milk. The ingredient water is naturally
present in a large proportion in milk. Therefore, milk exists in a liquid state. The sweetness
of milk is due to the ingredient called lactose. In other words, the properties of the
constituent substances are retained in milk.
Question 11: What is a solvent and a solute?
Answer: In a salt solution, the component which is present in the largest proportion is called
solvent. The other components which are in less proportion than the solvent are called
solutes.
Class 8 Science
Question 12: What are inorganic compounds? Give examples.
Answer: Inorganic compounds are those chemical compounds which lack carbon–hydrogen
bonds in it. These compounds ideally are not organic in nature. Some examples include
carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, carbides, carbonates, blue vitriol, limestone, etc.
Question 13: Give some examples of complex compounds.
Answer: Chlorophyll that contains magnesium, haemoglobin that contain iron,
cyanocobalamine (Vitamin B-12) that contain cobalt are some examples of complex
compounds.
Question 14: Define phase.
Answer: The part of matter which has a uniform composition in a mixture is known as the
phase.
Question 15: How is the strength of intermolecular force in the liquid state?
Answer: The strength of intermolecular force is moderate in the liquid state. It is not strong
enough to fix the particles in a definite position and hold all of them together. As a result,
liquids have definite volume. However, they have fluidity and their shape is not definite but
changes in accordance with the container.
Question 16: Define a heterogeneous mixture.
Answer: When the components of a mixture are distributed into two or more phases it is
called a heterogeneous mixture.
Question 17: Define solution. Explain with an example.
Answer: A homogeneous mixture of two or more substances is known as a solution. Eg:
when a homogeneous mixture of salt and water is formed, it is called a salt solution.
Question 18: How are complex compounds formed?
Answer: Complex compounds are formed from the molecules of compounds that have a
complex structure including many atoms in the centre of this structure. Some metal atoms
are also included in it.
Question 19: Define dissolution.
Answer: The process of forming a solution by mixing solutes in a solvent is called
dissolution. It is the process wherein a solute in solid, liquid, or gaseous phase dissolves in a
particular solvent to form a solution.
Question 20: What is Colloid?
Answer: The heterogeneous mixture of water and milk in a beaker appears translucent. It
means that, when light is incident on the surface of this mixture, it is partly transmitted and
partly scattered. This is because the tiny particles of milk phase in this heterogeneous
mixture are dispersed evenly in water phase, and the diameter of these particles is around
10-5m. Such a heterogeneous mixture is known as a colloid.
Class 8 Science
Question 21: Define suspension.
Answer: The heterogeneous mixture of a liquid and a solid is called a suspension. Eg : when
the heterogeneous mixture of water and sawdust is formed, it is referred to as suspension.
Question 22: What is the valency of an atom?
Answer: The ability of joining to each atom with a chemical bond to another atom that is
indicated by a number and this number is known as valency of that atom. An atom forms as
many chemical bonds with other atoms as its valency. Generally, the valency of an element
remains constant in its various compounds.
Question 23: What is a molecular formula?
Answer: Molecular formula indicates the number of atoms of each of the constituent
elements present in one molecule of a compound. A molecular formula includes the
information regarding the symbols of all the constituent elements and their respective
number as subscripts.

-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 7: Metals and Nonmetals
Q1. Complete the table:

Property of Metal Use in everyday life

Ductility Copper, Gold

Malleability Lead, Copper

Conduction of heat Silver

Conduction of electricity Aluminium, Iron

Sonority Silver, Iron

Q2. Identify the odd term


1. Gold, silver, iron, diamond
Answer: Diamond – It is a nonmetal, rest are metals.

2. Ductility, brittleness, sonority, malleability


Answer: Brittleness – It is a property of nonmetals; the rest are properties of metals.

3. Carbon, bromine, sulphur, phosphorus


Answer: Bromine – it is liquid, the rest are solids.

4. Brass, bronze, iron, steel


Answer: Iron – Rest are mixtures
Q3. Write scientific reasons.
1. The stainless-steel vessels in the kitchen have a copper coating on the bottom.

Answer: The stainless-steel vessels in the kitchen have a copper coating on the
bottom because copper is a good conductor of heat.

2. Copper and brass vessels are cleaned with lemon.

Answer: Copper and brass vessels are cleaned with lemon because lemon contains
acid and copper and brass react with acid.

3. Sodium metal is kept in kerosene.

Answer: Sodium metal is kept in kerosene because sodium reacts with air and it
burns so to prevent reaction it is kept in kerosene.
Class 8 Science
Q4. Answer the following.
1. What is done to prevent corrosion of metals?

Answer: To prevent corrosion of metals, layers of oil, grease, varnish and paint are
applied on them. Also plating with another non corroding metal is done. Iron is
arrested by zinc plating. Due to these processes, the contact of metal surfaces with
air is lost and corrosion cannot occur as the chemical reaction cannot occur.

2. What are the metals that make the alloys, brass and bronze?

Answer: A homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or a homogeneous mixture


metal with nonmetals is called alloy. Alloys are made by mixing the constituent
elements in, as per the requirement. For example, the stainless-steel utensils used at
home are made of an alloy of iron with carbon, chromium and nickel. The alloy
bronze is formed from copper and tin.
3. What are the uses of Noble metals?
Answer: The uses of Noble metals are:
a) Gold, silver and platinum are used to prepare ornaments.
b) Silver used in medicines. (It has antibacterial property).
c) Gold and silver are also used to make the medals.
d) Gold and silver also used to make few electronic devices.
e) Platinum, palladium metals is used as catalyst.
Q5. Three experiments to study the process of rusting are given below. Observe the three
test tubes and answer the following questions.

1. Why is the nail in the test tube 2 is not rusted?


Answer: In the test tube 2 iron nail is not rusted due to cut off the supply of air by a
layer of oil.
2. Why is the nail in the test tube 1 rusted highly?
Answer: The nail in the test tube 1 is rusted highly as it gets both air and moisture
which is required for rusting.
3. Would the nail in the test tube 3 get rusted?
Answer: The iron nail in the test tube 3 is not rusted because of the calcium chloride
which is moisture absorber. Hence, the nail would not get moisture for the rusting.
Class 8 Science
Q6. What are metals? Give examples.
Answer: Metals have a lustre and are hard. Wire or sheet can be made from metal. Metals
are good conductors of heat and electricity. Metals lose their valence electrons to produce
positively charged ions, that is, cations. Example: Gold, silver, iron, copper, aluminium,
magnesium, calcium, sodium, platinum is a few metals.
Q7. What are nonmetals? Give examples.
Answer: Nonmetals are the elements which form negative ions by accepting or gaining
electrons. Nonmetals usually have 4, 5, 6 or 7 electrons in their outermost shell. Example:
Carbon, Sulphur, Phosphorus is a few nonmetals.
Q8. Write the physical properties of metals?
Answer: The physical properties of metals are:

a) All the metals are good conductors of heat and electricity. Cooking utensils and irons
are made up of metals as they are good conductors of heat.
b) Ductility is the ability of the material to be stretched into a wire. This ability allows
metals to be drawn into wires and coupled with their durability, find applications as
cable wires and for soldering purposes. Since metals can be drawn into wires we can
say that metals are ductile.
c) Malleability is the property of substances which allows them to be beaten into flat
sheets. Aluminium sheets are used in the manufacturing of Aircraft because of their
light weight and strength. Other metal sheets are used in automobile industries, for
making utensils, etc. Therefore, metals are malleable.
d) Metals are sonorous because it produces a deep or ringing sound when struck by
another hard object.
e) Usually, all the metals have a shiny appearance but these metals can also be
polished to have a shiny appearance.
Q9. Write chemical properties of metals?
Answer: The chemical properties of metals are:

a) Reaction with water: Only highly reactive metals react with water and not all the
metals. For example, Sodium reacts vigorously with water and oxygen and gives a
large amount of heat in the process. This is why sodium is stored in kerosene so that
it does not come in contact with moisture or oxygen.
b) Reaction with acids: Hydrogen gas is produced when metals react with acids. For
example, when zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid it produces zinc chloride and
hydrogen gas.
c) Reaction with bases: Not all the metals react with bases and when they do react,
they produce metal salts and hydrogen gas. When zinc reacts with strong sodium
hydroxide it gives sodium zincate and hydrogen gas.
d) Reaction with oxygen: Metal oxides are produced when metals burn in the presence
of oxygen. These metal oxides are basic in nature. For example: When magnesium
strip is burned in the presence of oxygen it forms magnesium oxide and when
magnesium oxide dissolves in water it forms magnesium hydroxide.
Class 8 Science
Q10. Write the physical properties of nonmetals?
Answer: Some of the physical properties of non-metals are listed below.

a) Poor conductors of electricity and heat


b) Non-Ductile metals
c) Brittle solids
d) Maybe solids, liquids or gases at room temperature
e) These are not sonorous
f) Transparent
Q11. Write chemical properties of nonmetals?
Answer: The chemical properties of nonmetals are:
a) Reaction with Water – Non-metal does not react with water but it is usually very
reactive in air, which is why some of them are stored in water. For example, one of
the highly reactive nonmetals is phosphorus and it catches fire when exposed to air.
That is why it is stored in water to prevent its contact with atmospheric oxygen.
b) Reaction with Acids – None of the non-metals is known to react with acids.
c) Reaction with Bases – The reaction between non-metals and bases is a very complex
one. The reaction of chlorine with bases like sodium hydroxide gives products like
sodium hypochlorite, sodium chloride as well as water.
d) Reaction with Oxygen – Oxides of non-metals are formed when it reacts with
oxygen. The oxides of non-metals are acidic or neutral in nature.
• When sulphur reacts with oxygen, we get sulphur dioxide. S + O2 → SO2
• When sulphur dioxide reacts with water it forms sulphurous acid. SO2 + H2O → H2SO3
Q12. Define noble metal.
Answer: Some metals like gold, silver, platinum, palladium and rhodium are noble metals.
They occur in nature in the elemental state. Gold, which is100 percent pure is called 24
carat gold. Pure gold is soft. As a result, the ornaments made from pure gold bend or break
due to pressure. Therefore, goldsmiths mix it with a certain proportion of copper or silver.
Ornaments are made from 22 carat gold or gold with a still smaller carat value.
Q13. Define corrosion.
Answer: Gases in the air react with metals in the presence of moisture to form metal
compounds. The metals get affected by this process and undergo what is called corrosion.
Q14. Explain uses of metals.
Answer: Metals are usually very strong, most durable and highly resistant to everyday wear
and tear. As such, they have been used since ancient times for a lot of things. And even
today with advances in technology and a lot of other things the uses of metals have
broadened greatly. Metals even play a key role in the economy. Some of the important and
popular metal uses are.
Class 8 Science
• In the Construction Industry
• In electronics
• In medicine
• Machinery, Refractory and Automobiles
• Decorative products
• Other Uses
Q15. Explain uses of non-metals.
Answer: The uses of non-metals are:

a) Uses of nonmetals in our daily life – Oxygen which is 21% by volume helps in the
respiration process. It is also used for manufacturing of steel and provides high
temperature in the metal fabrication process. Oxygen cylinders are used in hospitals.
Chlorine is useful in removing stains and colour patches as a bleaching agent. Various
graded plastics and insecticides are made with chlorine. It helps in purification of
water. Adding chlorine to drinking water kills the bacteria. Helium is used as an inert
gas for scientific experiments. It is also used in weather balloons. Iodine helps from
throat infections and is used as antiseptic on wounds and cuts.

b) Nonmetals used in fertilizers – Fertilizers contain nitrogen. It helps in plant growth. It


enhances the rate of plant growth. Non-Metal phosphorus is also used for better
plant growth. These two nonmetals play a major role in plant growth.

c) Nonmetals used in crackers – sulphur and phosphorus are used in fireworks.

Q16. Difference between metals and nonmetals.

Metals Nonmetals

These are solids at room temperature These exist in all three states
except mercury

These are very hard except sodium These are soft except diamond

These are malleable and ductile These are brittle and can break down into
pieces

These are shiny These are non-lustrous except iodine

Electropositive in nature Electronegative in nature

Have high densities Have low densities


Class 8 Science
Q17. How can we prevent corrosion?
Answer: We can prevent corrosion by the following ways:

a) Choosing the right type of metal can help control corrosion and reduce the
requirement for additional prevention measures. For example, metals like aluminium
and stainless steel are highly resistant to corrosion.
b) One of the cheapest ways to control corrosion is by applying a layer of paint on the
surface of the metal. This coating of paint acts as a barrier and protects the metal
from corrosion by preventing the flow of electrochemical charge.
c) The control over the constituents of the environment to which the metal is exposed
can also help in the prevention of corrosion. An example of this would be the
treating of water with softeners before putting it in a boiler to prevent corrosion
inside the boiler.
Q18. What are the three types in which the elements are generally classified?
Answer: The three types in which the elements are generally classified are solids liquids
gases.
Q19. What are the metals and nonmetals that we use in everyday life?
Answer: Some non – metals and their uses are listed below-

a) Oxygen is used for breathing.


b) Chlorine is used for purifying water.
c) Non – metals like nitrogen, is used in fertilizers.
d) Graphite is used as a good conductor of electricity.
e) Potassium is used in fertilizers.
Some metals and their uses are listed below:

a) Gold and silver are used for making jewellery.


b) Copper is used for making electrical wires, cooking utensils etc.
c) Zinc is mainly used as a protective coating for iron.
d) Aluminium is used for making electrical cables, packaging, cooking utensils, etc.
e) Metals like iron and steel are widely used in building and home constructions.
Q20. What are nonmetal materials?
Answer: Nonmetals are natural materials that do not produce heat or electricity and that
are structurally brittle (cannot be easily rolling, moulding, extruding or pressing). Chemically,
hydrogen, carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, phosphorus, arsenic, and selenium are the non-metallic
elements in the periodic table.

-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 8 Pollution
Question 1: Following are some statements about pollution which type of pollution do
those express?
1. Fog seems to be appearing in Delhi during day hours.
Answer: Air pollution
2. Many times, vomiting and dysentery occurs after eating ‘pani puri’
Answer: Water pollution
3. Problem of sneezing occurs sometimes during a visit to the garden.
Answer: Air pollution
4. Crop does not grow in some areas.
Answer: Soil pollution
5. People living in the busy squares face problems like short breathing and other
respiratory problems.
Answer: Air pollution
Question 2: Read the passage and identify the sentences expressing types of pollution.
Nilesh is a student of std. VIII and lives in an urban area. It takes about an hour to go to the
school by bus. He faces the heavy traffic of two wheelers, four wheelers, rickshaws, buses
while going to school. He has been facing the problem of asthma since last few days.
Doctors recommended him to stay away from the urban area. Since then, his mother sent
him to the village of his maternal uncle. Nilesh saw heaps of garbage in many places in the
village. Foul smell of human and animal wastes was present at many places. Blackish water
with foul smell was flowing in a stream. He developed some abdominal disease within a few
days.

Answer: Let’s break down the causes of pollution in the given case:
Nilesh is a student of std. VIII and lives in an urban area. It takes about an hour to go to the
school by bus. He faces the heavy traffic of two wheelers, four wheelers, rickshaws, buses
while going to school. He has been facing the problem of asthma since last few days: This is
due to air pollution.
Doctors recommended him to stay away from the urban area. Since then, his mother sent
him to the village of his maternal uncle. Nilesh saw heaps of garbage in many places in the
village. Foul smell of human and animal wastes was present at many places: This is due to
air and soil pollution.
Blackish water with foul smell was flowing in a stream. He developed some abdominal
disease within a few days: This is due to water pollution.
Class 8 Science
Question 3: Match the pairs from ‘A’ and ‘B’ columns and explain the effect of pollution on
human health.
Answer:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’

Water containing cobalt Paralysis

Methane gas Skin cancer

Water containing lead Mental retardedness

Sulphur dioxide Irritation of eyes

Nitrogen dioxide Inflammation of lungs

Question 4: True or false


1. Water does not get polluted by washing the clothes in running water of the river-
False
2. More the use of electric appliances, more will be the pollution-True
Question 5: Answer the following.
1. What is pollution?
Answer: Pollution refers to the contamination of the natural environment that is
harmful to the ecosystem. It also refers to any undesirable change in the
environment that is detrimental to both living and non-living things.
2. What are pollutants?
Answer: Pollutants are the harmful substances or chemicals that cause pollution and
affect the normal functioning of the ecosystem. For example, pesticides, carbon
monoxide, sulphur oxides, etc.
3. What is acid rain?
Answer: Harmful gases such as sulphur dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, etc. present in air
when they combine with the water droplets present in the atmosphere form acid
droplets. These droplets remain suspended in the atmosphere and fall down on
earth along with rain, thereby creating an acidic effect. Such rain is known as acid
rain.
4. What is the greenhouse effect?
Answer: When there is an increase in the average temperature of the surface of the
earth due to the increase in the concentration of greenhouse gases such as
methane, carbon dioxide, etc. this is known as greenhouse effect.
Class 8 Science
5. Which are visible pollutants known to you?
Answer: Visible pollutants are those pollutants which are visible to our naked eyes.
For example, plant and animal wastes, sewage, pesticides, polythene bags, etc.
6. Which are invisible pollutants?
Answer: Invisible pollutants are those pollutants which cannot be seen with the
naked eyes. For example, viruses, fungi, bacteria, poisonous gases such as nitrogen
dioxide, carbon monoxide, etc.
Question 6: Answer the following
1. Give examples of each of water, soil and air pollution from your residential area.
Answer:
Sources of air pollution:
a) When fuel such as wood, kerosene, etc is burnt, it causes air pollution.
b) Harmful emissions from automobiles or vehicles on roads.
Sources of water pollution:
a) Washing dirty clothes on river banks or ponds.
b) Release of chemical wastes or domestic sewage into nearby water bodies.
Sources of soil pollution:
a) Spraying of excessive pesticides and insecticides on plants.
b) Mixing of animals wastes in plants.

2. How does the pollution occur due to vehicles? Give the names of vehicles causing
least pollution.
Answer: Most of the automobiles run on fossil fuels such as diesel and petrol. These
fossil fuels burn in vehicles while in use to produce energy, which results in the
emission of smoke. This smoke consists of harmful gases like nitrogen oxide, carbon
monoxide, hydrogen, ammonia and sulphur dioxide in it.

There are several kinds of vehicles which cause less or no pollution such as bicycle,
CNG vehicles, metro rail, electric cars, etc.
Class 8 Science
3. What are natural reasons for water pollution?
Answer: The natural reasons of water pollution are:
a) Aquatic weeds present in water bodies deplete the oxygen level in them.
b) Excessive growth of algae.
c) When mud and sludge get mixed in water bodies due to current in rivers and their
diversions.
d) Growth of harmful microbes such as bacteria and fungi on dead and decomposing
matter present in the water bodies.
4. Suggest four preventive measures for air pollution.
Answer: Some of the measures that should be undertaken to prevent air pollution
are listed below:
a) Use of biofuels such as CNG, LPG and lead-free petrol in private and public transport.
b) Use of renewable sources of energy such as solar power, wind energy and hydro
power.
c) Planting more saplings and trees to avert pollution.
d) Should prevent burning of dry waste and leaves in the open rather use them in
composting.
5. Explain relation between greenhouse effect and global warming.
Answer: Greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, methane, etc. absorb the heat of
the sun and create a hole in the ozone layer of the earth and emit it back on the
earth’s surface. Thus, these gases hold back the harmful sun rays and prevent them
from escaping into outer space. This cycle repeats itself several times in the earth’s
atmosphere and results in an optimum increase in temperature of 15°C. Therefore,
greenhouse gases help to maintain the temperature on the Earth to a certain level.

However, with time, the concentration of these gases has considerably increased
due to increased industrialization, that has led to the heating up of the earth’s
atmosphere. In due course, the overall temperature of the earth has increased,
which has resulted in climatic changes. During the last century, the Earth
temperature has increased by nearly 0.6°C. This has led to overall global warming.

However, the greenhouse effect can be controlled or restricted by slowing down the
use of natural resources and fossil fuels. These fossil fuels produce greenhouse gases
and emit poisonous gases when they burn.
Class 8 Science
Question 7: Classify the following pollutants into natural and manmade categories.
Answer:

Pollutant Category

Sewage Man-made

Dust Natural

Pollen grains Natural

Chemical fertilizers Man-made

Vehicular smoke Man-made

Algae Natural

Pesticides Man-made

Waste of animal and plants Natural

Additional Questions:
Question 1: What are the natural reasons for air pollution?
Answer: Some of the natural reasons for air pollution are listed below:
a) Volcanic eruption: Solid, gaseous and liquid materials evolve through eruption.
Examples: Hydrogen sulphide, hydrogen, vapours, carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide,
ammonium chloride, dust, etc.
b) Earthquake: Poisonous gases and water vapour are released into air from inside the
earth.
c) Cyclones and dust storms: Dust, garbage, soil, pollen, harmful microbes are mixed
with air.
d) Forest fires: Forest fires release carbon dioxide, hydrogen sulphide, sulphur dioxide,
smoke in air.
e) Microbes in air: Spores of bacteria, algae and fungi are mixed with air.
Class 8 Science
Question 2: Describe the man-made reasons for air pollution.
Answer: Some of the man-made reasons for air pollution are given below:
a) Fuel: Burning of fuel like coal, LPG, kerosene, petrol and diesel release carbon
dioxide, nitrogen oxide, carbon monoxide, lead compounds, sulphur dioxide, etc.
They cause pollution when they are released in air. Burning of agricultural waste,
solid waste, etc. in open space thereby causing air pollution.
b) Industrialization: Smoke releases in large quantities from several factories in the
form of nitrogen oxide, sulphur powder, cotton seed powder in air.
c) Atomic energy plants and blasts: Use of radioactive elements like uranium,
plutonium, thorium, graphite, etc. release radiations in air and cause pollution.
Question 3: Name some of the dangerous air pollutants which cause severe pollution.
Answer: Some of the dangerous air pollutants which causes severe pollution include sulphur
dioxide (SO2), carbon monoxide (CO), nitrogen oxides, pesticides, methane (CH4), dust,
particulate matter, etc.

Question 4: Describe the effects of air pollution on plants and animals.


Answer: Given below are the effects of air pollution on plants and animals:
Plants:
a) Stomata get closed and affected.
b) Slows down the photosynthesis rate in plants.
c) Growth of plants gets retarded. Leaves fall off or become yellow or discoloured.
Animals:
a) The respiration tract of animals is adversely affected.
b) Pollution causes severe irritation of eyes and skin.
Question 5: Name some biological pollutants which cause water pollution.
Answer: Some of the biological pollutants which make water unfit for drinking or are not
potable due to algae, bacteria, viruses, parasites, etc. All these pollutants cause
gastrointestinal diseases and spread due to biological pollution.

Question 6: List some inorganic pollutants which cause water pollution.


Answer: Some examples of inorganic pollutants include suspended particles like fine sand,
dust, soil, precipitates of salt, compounds of arsenic, cadmium, lead, mercury, and traces of
radioactive material.
Class 8 Science
Question 7: What are the sources and effects of air pollutants?
Answer: Given below are some of the sources and effects of air pollutants:

Air Pollutants Sources Effects

Carbon Industrial and vehicular smoke Lowers the oxygen carrying


monoxide (CO) capacity of blood

Sulphur dioxide Emission by factories by burning of Severe irritation of eyes,


(SO2) fossil fuels such as coal and blockage in respiratory tract,
minerals difficulty in breathing, chronic
coughing, etc.

Methane (CH4) Leakage of industrial waste Skin cancer, asthma, respiratory


disorders, etc.

Nitrogen Smoke emission from vehicles Blockage in respiratory tract,


oxides lungs, difficulty in breathing,
etc.

Pesticides Production and use of pesticides Mental retardation, death in


extreme and prolonged
exposure

Question 8: What are the effects of acid rain?


Answer: Listed below are the harmful effects of acid rain to the environment:
a) Acidity of soil and water bodies happens due to acid rain. It harms the aquatic living
organisms, plants and entire forest life. The total environmental ecosystem is
adversely affected.
b) Erosion of buildings, metal idols, historical monuments, busts, bridges, wire fences,
etc. occurs due to acid rain.
c) Heavy metals such as mercury and cadmium are absorbed by plants which enter our
food chain indirectly due to acid rain.
d) Due to acidification of water in water bodies and pipes, bleaching of metal and
plastic material occurs in water and thereby giving rise to acute and serious health
problems.
Question 9: Name some organic pollutants that cause water pollution.
Answer: Some of the organic pollutants are listed below:
a) Weedicides
b) Insecticides
c) Fertilizers
Class 8 Science
d) Sewage
e) Industrial effluents
Question 10: What are the man-made reasons for water pollution?
Answer: Some of the man-made reasons for water pollution are listed below:
a) Domestic sewage from villages and cities is directly disposed of in water bodies.
b) Industrial effluents such as various pigments, bleaching chemicals, leather pieces,
fibres, mercury, lead, etc. are released into water.
c) Oil spillage occurs which happens while transporting or cleaning of tankers in water
bodies.
d) Use of fertilizers and pesticides such as N, P, K containing chemical fertilizers,
pesticides such as endrin, chlorine, etc. flow and mix with water.
e) Other valid reasons for water pollution are disposal of human wastes, washing of
clothes, decomposing hemp and flax in water, disposal of ashes, floral offerings to
god, water from thermal power plant, etc.
Question 11: List some of the harmful effects of water pollution.
Answer: Given below are some of the harmful effects of water pollution:
1. Effects on human beings
a) Diseases like typhoid, hepatitis, skin and alimentary canal disorders.
b) Ailments of liver, kidney, deformities in bones, brain, hypertension.
2. Effects on ecosystem
a) Loss of plant species
b) Decreased dissolved oxygen level
c) Increase in salt content of water
d) Retarded plant growth
e) Disturbance in aquatic ecosystem
f) Death of aquatic animals
g) Adverse effects on seabirds
3. Other effects of water pollution
a) Changes in physical and chemical properties of water
b) Useful aquatic fauna is destroyed
c) Soil fertility is affected
d) Changes in natural colour and taste
e) Toxic materials are added to crops
Class 8 Science
Question 12: What do you mean by soil erosion?
Answer: Soil erosion happens when the soil is said to be polluted through the changes in its
physical, biological and chemical properties and its fertility decreases due to either natural
or man-made reasons.
Question 13: What are the effects of soil pollution?
Answer: Listed below are the some of the effects of soil pollution:
a) Soil fertility is reduced due to the mixing of salty, acidic water from industrial wastes.
b) Radioactive and other pollutants enter and pass through the food chain like the soil,
crop, water and finally affects the human body.
c) Problem of water pollution accelerates due to soil pollution. Toxic substances leach
into water and several diseases spread through complex pathogens such as bacteria,
viruses, fungi, etc.
Question 14: Describe the relationship of soil pollution with air and water pollution.

Answer: When wet waste is dumped at wrong places instead of composting, pathogens
grow upon it, which then mix with water causing water pollution. Insecticides, chemical
fertilizers, weedicides are used in agriculture, which causes soil pollution. Use of excessively
sprayed insecticides and weedicides mix with air causing air pollution.
Similarly, excessive use of chemical fertilizers also causes water pollution. Soil pollution
occurs due to mixing of human wastes, birds and animal’s waste. This releases various
stinking gases causing air pollution. When the same waste mixes with water, it causes water
pollution.
Question 15: What are some of the preventive measures undertaken by the Government of
India that help in pollution control?

Answer: The Government of India has enacted some major laws for prevention, regulating
and controlling pollution. Given below are some laws regarding pollution control:
a) Water Pollution and Prevention Act, 1974.
b) Air Pollution and Prevention Act, 1981.
c) Environmental Protection Act, 1986.
Besides these, there are several laws and rules which are in force with respect to biomedical
waste, harmful effluents, solid waste and sound pollution. Government statutory bodies
such as Maharashtra Pollution Control Board and Central Pollution Control Board also
supervise if the industries, industrial areas, local governing bodies like Municipalities,
District Councils, Panchayat Samitis, Gram Panchayats, etc. follow the stated laws to control
pollution.

-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 9: Disaster Management
Q1. What do you mean by disaster?
Answer: A disaster is defined as a disruption on a massive scale, either natural or man-
made, occurring in short or long periods of time. Disasters can lead to human, material,
economic or environmental hardships, which can be beyond the bearable capacity of the
affected society. As per statistics, India as a whole, is vulnerable to 30 different types of
disasters that will affect the economic, social and human development potential to such an
extent that it will have long-term effect on productivity and macro-economic performance.
Q2. What are the different types of disaster?
Answer: Disasters can be classified into the following categories:
a) Water and Climate Disaster: Flood, hail storms, cloudburst, cyclones, heat waves,
cold waves, droughts, hurricanes.
b) Geological Disaster: Landslides, earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, tornadoes
c) Biological Disaster: Viral epidemics, pest attacks, cattle epidemic and locust plagues
d) Industrial Disaster: Chemical and industrial accidents, mine shaft fires, oil spills
e) Nuclear Disasters: Nuclear core meltdowns, radiation poisoning
f) Man-made disasters: Urban and forest fires, oil spill, the collapse of huge building
structures

Q3. Answer the following in your own words.


1. Explain the relation between continuous rains and landslide. Give reasons.

Answer: After effects of heavy rains cause landslides. Plants and small trees are
uprooted from the soil due to continuous heavy rains. The rain water enters the
cracks and fissures present in hard rocks causing their weathering. Due to these
factors, soil and rocks run off on a slopy region. This running of soil, rocks along with
other debris causes landslide. This proves that there is a strong relation between
continuous rains and landslide.

2. What are the specifications of an earthquake – proof building?

Answer: The constructions, which do not get damaged due to earth movements up
to a certain limit, are called earthquake resistant buildings. To construct tall
buildings, ‘Indian Standard Institute’ has made some code of conduct. Buildings are
constructed as per I.S. 456 and earthquake resistant constructions are performed as
per IS 1893 (Criteria for earthquake resistant design of structure) and IS 13920
(Ductile detailing of reinforced concrete structures subjected to seismic forces).
Advanced technology is used for earthquake resistant construction. To get prior
intimation about earthquake, modern equipment like lasers ranging very long
baseline, geiger counter, creep meter, strain meter, tide gauge, tiltmeter, volumetric
strain gauge etc. are used.
Class 8 Science
3. Prepare a chart showing ‘Do’s’ and ‘don’ts’ at the time of earthquake.

Answer: Do’s at the time of earthquake:


a) Stay under the lintel of an inner door, in the corner of a room, under a table or
under a bed.
b) Keep yourself away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls, and anything
that could fall.
c) Hold on and protect your head with a pillow, unless you are under a heavy light
fixture that could fall.
d) Use a doorway for shelter only if it is in close proximity to you and if you know it
is a strongly supported, load bearing doorway.
Avoid doing following things during earthquake:
a) Avoid using the lift in the multistorey building, instead use the staircase.
b) Do not sit in discomfort for long. Do some physical movements.
c) After the earthquake there is a possibility of fire, hence, to avoid it, carefully
switch off the main electric supply.
d) Do not use candles, lantern, or matchbox, instead use torch or battery.

4. Explain the effects of a landslide.

Answer: The effects of landslide are:


a) Rivers get flooded and change their paths.
b) Displacement of waterfalls, formation of artificial water reservoirs.
c) There is life and financial loss on a large scale, as trees, buildings, rocks on sloppy
areas collapse on low-lying land.
d) Landslides affect the traffic.
e) Landslide destroys plant life on it.

5. Is there any relation between dam and earthquake? Explain.

Answer: The main purpose of constructing a dam is to impound flowing water. Due
to storage of tons of water in the dam, there is weakening of the faults and the
stress caused by it is enough to induce earthquakes. The platonic plates are
disturbed and when they move, they cause an earthquake.
Q4. If a crowd gathers at the place of earthquake, what would be the difficulties in relief
work?
Answer: If a crowd gathers at the place of earthquake, there would be following difficulties
in relief work:
a) It would be difficult for the relief team in finding the victims
b) The gathering might misuse the relief resources
c) The help might get delayed towards the victims because of the crowd gathering.
d) The targeted area might get havocked due to crowd gathering, which will make it
hard to pinpoint the area that needs more help.
e) The gathering can misguide the relief workers.
f) The severity of the situation can be easily misjudged.
Class 8 Science
Q5. Give scientific reasons.
1. It is safer to find shelter under things like a bed, table at the time of earthquake.

Answer: During an earthquake, it is safer to find shelter under things like a bed, table
because due to high vibrations, heavy things may fall on us and we might get injured.
If any heavy things hit us, we might die or have any other injuries. So, staying under
things like a bed, table is the safest way to protect ourselves at the time of an
earthquake.

2. In monsoon, don’t take shelter near hillside.


Answer: During monsoon season slipping is a common issue. Slipping happens due
to various reasons, but the two most relevant ones are gravity and water. Gravity
pulls soils and sand downwards and rain can help to do it fast. Thus, it’s risky to take
shelter near hillsides during monsoons.
3. Don’t use lifts at the time of earthquake.
Answer: During an earthquake, we should not use lift because if the earthquake is
too strong on the Richter’s scale, it may cut the power. Due to which, you might get
trapped inside the lift for an uncertain period of time, till it is reconnected. Thus, it is
better to avoid it before and after the shocks.
4. The foundation of earthquake-proof building is separated from other land.
Answer: The simple way to structure more resistance to these lateral forces is to tie
the walls, floor, roof, and foundations into a rigid box that holds together when
shaken by a quake. From an earthquake point of view, the most dangerous building
construction is unreinforced brick or concrete block.
Q6. Make a list of the institutes and organizations who provide help for disaster
management. Collect more information about their work.
Answer: The list of institutes and organizations who provide help for disaster management:
a) National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)
b) National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
c) National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM)
d) International Strategy for Disaster Reduction (ISDR)
Q7. Define earthquake.
Answer: Sudden vibrations of the earth and shaking of the earth’s surface /ground is called
an earthquake. These causes seismic waves leading to movements of the earth’s surface like
tremors, shaking or it goes up-down. The shocks and waves formed in the interior of the
earth spread on the surface in all directions. The central point of an earthquake is the point
above the epicentre on the earth’s surface. Strong convulse or waves at first reach the
epicentre, therefore major loss occurs near to that area.
Class 8 Science
Q8. Name the machine or instrument used to record the earthquakes and how it is
measured?
Answer: The machine / Instrument, which records the earthquakes is called ‘Seismograph’
or ‘Seismometer’, and the accentuation (intensity) is measured in ‘Richter Scale’. This is one
of the mathematical measuring units.
Q9. What are the effects of an earthquake?
Answer: The effects of an earthquake are:
a) Loss of human beings, wild animals and pets.
b) Economic loss at large scale (Electric poles, pipelines, houses, buildings, roads,
railway tracks are destroyed.)
c) Ecosystem destruction due to the loss of biodiversity.
d) Direction of flow of rivers, streams changes.
e) Possibility of fire in cities increases.
f) If there is an earthquake at the bottom of the ocean, it may create tsunami waves
and thereby the large-scale destruction of the coastal region.
g) Level of water-table changes.
Q10. What are the causes of an earthquake?
Answer: The causes of an earthquake are:
a) Volcanic eruption.
b) Stress of big dams on the earth.
c) Mining.
d) Underground atomic tests.
e) Water percolates through the cracks of the earth. Due to tremendous heat, the
water converts into steam. The steam formed tries to come out from the loosened
earth surface causing earthquakes.
Q11. What precautions should be taken during an earthquake?
Answer: Following are the precautions that should be taken during an earthquake:
a) If you are at home, then, do not get scared and instead of running here and there,
stand still in one place.
b) Sit on the floor or below the bed or any other furniture and cover yourself until the
movement of earth stops.
c) If there is no table or any other shelter, then sit in any corner of the room and cover
your head by folding your hands around it.
d) If you are in the vehicle or outside the house, then park your vehicle in a safe place
and sit inside it.
e) Do not wait near or below tall buildings, trees or electric poles.
Class 8 Science
Q12. Explain the causes of landslides?
Answer: The causes of landslides are:
a) After effects of natural disasters like earthquake, tsunami, heavy rains, storms,
floods cause landslides.
b) Unlimited cutting of trees causes soil erosion.
c) While building roads in mountains, there is a lot of digging that makes the mountain
weak.
Q13. What are the methods of fire extinction?
Answer: There are 3 main methods to stop the spread of fire or to control the fire.
a) Cool Out (Use of Water): To extinguish fire, water is most common and effective
solution which is easily available everywhere. If you spray water on the fire or
around the fire it creates cooling effect and helps to control the fire.
b) Suppress the Fire: To control the fire which is caused due to electricity or oil, sand or
soil can be used. If we spread a froth like substance on the fire, it cuts off the contact
between air and fire. This method is more useful to extinguish fire spread due to oil.
c) Keep away Flammable Substances: In this method, all flammable substances are kept
away from the fire. Any wooden article or flammable substances must be kept away
so that no source is left for the fire to spread. Stirrup pump is the best device to put
off small fires. It sprays water in all directions around the fire.
Q14. What is the difference between seismograph and Richter scale?
Answer: Following is the table explaining the difference between seismograph and Richter
scale:

Seismograph Richter scale

Used for measuring and recording the Used for indicating the intensity of
vibrations of earthquakes an earthquake

Used for measuring the motions related to Used for quantifying the energy that
the ground like seismic waves resulting in an is released during an earthquake
earthquake and volcanic eruptions

Q15. Explain the earthquake zones in India?


Answer: There are total 5 earthquake zones in India and they are:
a) Zone 5: Highly prone to earthquakes. Punjab, Kashmir and North-East India.
b) Zone 4: Parts of Delhi, Jammu, Bihar and Indo-Gangetic basin.
c) Zone 3: Moderate damage risk. Western Himalayan plains, Andaman Nicobar Islands.
d) Zone 2 and 1: Low damage risk.
Class 8 Science
Q16. What is called the collapse of rift?
Answer: Natural cracks and fissures present in hard rocks cause their breaking. Especially, at
the time of heavy rains, water entering these cracks causes weathering of these rocks.
Weight increases, these rocks slide on the sloppy region and settle at the lower side. This is
called collapse of rift.
Q17. What are seismic waves?
Answer: When an earthquake occurs, it releases waves of energy, which are known as
Seismic waves. It is like the ripples created in water if you throw a stone in it. Seismic waves
are like those ripples which can travel through the inside of the earth, as well as on the
surface.
Q18. Explain the types of fire?
Answer: The types of fire are:
a) Class A Fire (Solid substances): Commonly flammable materials are their fuel source.
(wood, clothes, coal, papers etc.) This fire can be put out with water.
b) Class B Fire (Liquid substances): Fires caused due to flammable liquid substances
(petrol, oil, varnish, solvents, cooking oil, paints etc.) All these substances are lighter
than water, therefore, fire extinguishers can be used to extinguish fire.
c) Class C Fire (Gaseous Substances): Fires caused due to acetylene, household gas (L.P.G.)
d) Class D Fire (Chemical substances): Fires caused due to combustible metals like
potassium, sodium and calcium, which react with water at normal room
temperature. Magnesium, aluminium and zinc react with water at high temperature.
When both these groups combine with water, it explodes.
e) Class E Fire (Electrical): A fire caused due to electrical components is class E fire. To
extinguish such fire, power is cut off and non-conductive fire extinguishers like
carbon dioxide are used.
Q19. What are the types of earthquakes?
Answer: The types of earthquakes are:
a) Tectonic earthquakes: The most common form of earthquakes, it is caused by the
movement of loose fragmented pieces of land on the earth’s crust -tectonic plates.
b) Volcanic earthquake: The less prevalent compared to the tectonic variety, these
earthquakes have happened before or after the eruption of a volcano. It is caused
when magma leaving the volcano is filled with rocks being pushed to the surface.
c) Collapse earthquake: This earthquake occurs in underground mines. The main cause
is due to pressure generated within the rocks.
d) Explosion earthquakes: The occurrence of this type of earthquake is artificial in
nature. High-density explosions such as nuclear explosions are the primary cause.
Class 8 Science
Q20. What are the types of landslides?
Answer: Following are the types of landslides:
a) Falls – Falls are sudden movements of loads of soil, debris, and rock that break away
from slopes and cliffs. Falls landslides occur as a result of mechanical weathering,
earthquakes and force of gravity.
b) Slides – It is a kind of mass movement which breaks away the sliding material from
the underlying stable material. During this type of landslide rotational and
transitional kinds of slides are experienced.
c) Topples – This type of landslides occurs when the topple fails. The failure of the
topple encompasses the forward spinning and movement of huge masses of rock,
debris, and earth from a slope. This type of slope failure takes place around an axis
near or at the bottom of the block of rock.
d) Spreads – They are commonly known as lateral spreads and take place on gentle
terrains via lateral extension followed by tensile fractures.
e) Flows – This type of landslide is categorised into five; earth flows, debris avalanche,
debris flow, mudflows and creep, which include seasonal, continuous and
progressive.

-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 10: Cell and Cell Organelles
Q1. Who am I?
1. I am ATP producing factory.

Answer: Mitochondria – Mitochondria are membrane-bound organelles present in


the cytoplasm of all eukaryotic cells, that produces adinosine triphosphate (ATP), the
main energy molecule used by the cell.

2. I am single layered, but maintain cellular osmotic pressure.

Answer: Vacuole – Vacuoles are membrane-bound cell organelles present in the


cytoplasm and filled with a watery fluid containing various substances.

3. I support the cell, but I am not cell wall. I have a body resembling net.

Answer: Endoplasmic reticulum – Endoplasmic Reticulum is a complex network of


tubular membranes exclusively present in the cytoplasm of the eukaryotic cell.

4. I am chemical factory of the cell.

Answer: Chloroplasts – Chloroplast is an organelle that contains the photosynthetic


pigment chlorophyll that captures sunlight and converts it into useful energy,
thereby, releasing oxygen from water.

5. Leaves are green because of me.

Answer: Chlorophyll – Pigment imparting green colour to plants.


Q2. What would have happened? If…….
1. RBCs had mitochondria.

Answer: Mitochondria are absent in RBCs. Due to this, the oxygen which is carried by
them is not used for themselves.

2. There had been no difference between mitochondria and plastids.

Answer: Mitochondria and plastids are the cell organelles present in eukaryotes.
Mitochondria are found in all the eukaryotic cells, including plants and animals,
whereas plastids are found only in plant cells.

3. Genes had been absent on the chromosomes.

Answer: A gene is a basic unit of hereditary. So, if genes are absent on the
chromosomes, then the offspring fails to look like the parent. Absence of genes will
prevent the baby from looking like the parent as the gene is the unit which transfers
the characteristics from the parent to the child. It is made up of DNA and is present
within a nucleus.
Class 8 Science
4. Plasma membrane had not been selectively permeable.

Answer: If Plasma membrane had not been selectively permeable then any
substance can enter the cell which can harm the balance between the cell content
and outside environment.

5. Plants lacked anthocyanin.

Answer: In food, the main sources of anthocyanins are berries, such as blackberries,
grapes, blueberries etc, and some vegetables such as egg-plants and avocado. If
plants lacked anthocyanin, they died.
Q3. Who is odd man among us? Give reason.
1. Nucleolus, mitochondria, plastids, endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: Plastids because they are not found in animal cells, only found in plant cells.

2. DNA, Ribosomes, Chlorophyll

Answer: Chlorophyll is odd as DNA and ribosome are found in animals but
chlorophyll is found in plants.
Q4. Give functions.
1. Plasma membrane

Answer: Following are the important plasma membrane function:


a) The plasma membrane forms a barrier between the cell organelles from the outside
environment.
b) It allows only certain molecules to pass through it.
c) It facilitates communication and signalling between the cells.

2. Cytoplasm

Answer: One of the major functions of cytoplasm is to enable cells to maintain their
turgidity, which enables the cells to hold their shape. Other functions of cytoplasm
are as follows:
a) The jelly-like fluid of the cytoplasm is composed of salt and water and is present
within the membrane of the cells and embeds all of the parts of the cells and
organelles.
b) The cytoplasm is home to many activities of the cell as it contains molecules,
enzymes that are crucial in the breakdown of the waste.
c) The cytoplasm also assists in metabolic activities.
d) Cytoplasm provides shape to the cell. It fills up the cells, thus enabling the organelles
to remain in their position. The cells, without cytoplasm, would deflate and
substances will not permeate easily from one to the other organelle.
e) A part of the cytoplasm, the cytosol has no organelles. Rather, the cytosol is
enclosed by matrix boundaries that fill up the cell section which does not hold the
organelles.
Class 8 Science
3. Lysosome

Answer: The key function of lysosomes is digestion and removal of waste. Cellular
debris or foreign particles are pulled into the cell through the process of endocytosis.
The process of endocytosis happens when the cell membrane falls in on itself
(invagination), creating a vacuole or a pouch around the external contents and then
bringing those contents into the cell. On the other hand, discarded wastes and other
substances originating from within the cell are digested by the process of
autophagocytosis or autophagy. The process of autophagy involves disassembly or
degradation of the cellular components through a natural, regulated mechanism.

4. Vacuole

Answer: The important functions of vacuole include:


a) Storage – A vacuole stores salts, minerals, pigments and proteins within the cell. The
solution that fills a vacuole is known as the cell sap. The vacuole is also filled with
protons from the cytosol that helps in maintaining an acidic environment within the
cell. A large number of lipids are also stored within the vacuoles.
b) Turgor Pressure – The vacuoles are completely filled with water and exert force on
the cell wall. This is known as turgor pressure. It provides shape to the cell and helps
it to withstand extreme conditions.
c) Endocytosis and Exocytosis – The substances are taken in by a vacuole through
endocytosis and excreted through exocytosis. These substances are stored in the
cells, separated from the cytosol. Lysosomes are vesicles that intake food and digest
it. This is endocytosis and it varies in different cells.

5. Nucleus
Answer: Following are the important nucleus function:

a) It contains the cell’s hereditary information and controls the cell’s growth and
reproduction.
b) The nucleus has been clearly explained as a membrane-bound structure that
comprises the genetic material of a cell.
c) It is not just a storage compartment for DNA, but also happens to be the home of
some essential cellular processes.
d) First and foremost, it is possible to duplicate one’s DNA in the nucleus. This process
has been named DNA Replication and creates an identical copy of the DNA.
e) Creating two identical copies of the host or body is the first step in cell division,
where each new cell will get its own set of instructions.
f) Secondly, the nucleus is the spot of transcription. Transcription is the process of
creating different types of RNA from DNA. Transcription would be a lot like making
copies of individual pages of the human body’s instructions that can then be passed
out and read by the rest of the cell.
g) The central rule of biology states that DNA is copied into RNA, which is then turned
into protein.
Class 8 Science
Q5. Who gives me the colour?
Answer:

Red tomato Lycopene

Green leaf Chlorophyll

Carrot Carotene

Violet Anthocyanin

Q6. How many types of cells are found in living organisms?


Answer: Cells are similar to factories with different labourers and departments that work
towards a common objective. Various types of cells perform different functions. Based on
cellular structure, there are two types of cells:

• Prokaryotes
• Eukaryotes
Prokaryotic Cells

• Prokaryotic cells have no nucleus. Instead, some prokaryotes such as bacteria have a
region within the cell where the genetic material is freely suspended. This region is
called the nucleoid.
• They all are single-celled microorganisms. Examples include archaea, bacteria, and
cyanobacteria.
• The cell size ranges from 0.1 to 0.5 µm in diameter.
• The hereditary material can either be DNA or RNA.
• Prokaryotes reproduce by binary fission, a form of sexual reproduction.
Eukaryotic Cells

• Eukaryotic cells are characterised by a true nucleus.


• The size of the cells ranges between 10–100 µm in diameter.
• This broad category involves plants, fungi, protozoans, and animals.
• The plasma membrane is responsible for monitoring the transport of nutrients and
electrolytes in and out of the cells. It is also responsible for cell-to-cell
communication.
• They reproduce sexually as well as asexually.
• There are some contrasting features between plant and animal cells. For eg., the
plant cell contains chloroplast, central vacuoles, and other plastids, whereas the
animal cells do not.
Class 8 Science
Q7. Which instrument had you used to observe cells?
Answer: A microscope is an optical instrument used to observe objects that are invisible to
the naked eye. It is used to view and study cell structure.
Q8. Describe the structure of the cell?
Answer: The cell structure comprises individual components with specific functions
essential to carry out life’s processes. These components include- cell wall, cell membrane,
cytoplasm, nucleus, and cell organelles. Read on to explore more insights on cell structure
and function.
Cell Membrane

• The cell membrane supports and protects the cell. It controls the movement of
substances in and out of the cells. It separates the cell from the external
environment. The cell membrane is present in all the cells.
• The cell membrane is the outer covering of a cell within which all other organelles,
such as the cytoplasm and nucleus, are enclosed. It is also referred to as the plasma
membrane.
• By structure, it is a porous membrane (with pores) which permit the movement of
selective substances in and out of the cell. Besides this, the cell membrane also
protects the cellular component from damage and leakage.
• It forms the wall-like structure between two cells as well as between the cell and its
surroundings.
• Plants are immobile, so their cell structures are well-adapted to protect them from
external factors. The cell wall helps to reinforce this function.
Cell Wall

• The cell wall is the most prominent part of the plant cell structure. It is made up of
cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin.
• The cell wall is present exclusively in plant cells. It protects the plasma membrane
and other cellular components. The cell wall is also the outermost layer of plant
cells.
• It is a rigid and stiff structure surrounding the cell membrane.
• It provides shape and support to the cells and protects them from mechanical shocks
and injuries.
Cytoplasm

• The cytoplasm is a thick, clear, jelly-like substance present inside the cell membrane.
• Most of the chemical reactions within a cell take place in this cytoplasm.
• The cell organelles such as endoplasmic reticulum, vacuoles, mitochondria,
ribosomes, are suspended in this cytoplasm.
Class 8 Science
Nucleus

• The nucleus contains the hereditary material of the cell, the DNA.
• It sends signals to the cells to grow, mature, divide and die.
• The nucleus is surrounded by the nuclear envelope that separates the DNA from the
rest of the cell.
• The nucleus protects the DNA and is an integral component of a plant cell structure.

Q9. Explain the characteristics of the cell?


Answer: Following are the various essential characteristics of cells:

a) Cells provide structure and support to the body of an organism.


b) The cell interior is organised into different individual organelles surrounded by a
separate membrane.
c) The nucleus (major organelle) holds genetic information necessary for reproduction
and cell growth.
d) Every cell has one nucleus and membrane-bound organelles in the cytoplasm.
e) Mitochondria, a double membrane-bound organelle is mainly responsible for the
energy transactions, vital for the survival of the cell.
f) Lysosomes digest unwanted materials in the cell.
g) Endoplasmic reticulum plays a significant role in the internal organisation of the cell
by synthesising selective molecules and processing, directing and sorting them to
their appropriate locations.

Q10. Define cell.


Answer: A cell is the structural and fundamental unit of life. Cells are complex, and their
components perform various functions in an organism. They are of different shapes and
sizes, pretty much like bricks of the buildings. Our body is made up of cells of different
shapes and sizes. Cells are the lowest level of organisation in every life form. From organism
to organism, the count of cells may vary. Humans have the number of cells compared to
that of bacteria.
Cells comprise several cell organelles that perform specialised functions to carry out life
processes. Every organelle has a specific structure. The hereditary material of the organisms
is also present in the cells.
Q11. What is cytoplasm?
Answer: The fluid that fills up the cells is referred to as the cytoplasm. It encompasses the
cytosol with filaments, ions, proteins, and macromolecular structures and also other
organelles suspended in the cytosol. The cytoplasm of the eukaryotic cells associates with
the cell contents except for the nucleus. But in prokaryotic cells, as they do not possess a
defined nuclear membrane, the cytoplasm possesses the genetic material of the cell. The
cells, in comparison to the eukaryotes, are smaller and have an uncomplicated arrangement
of the cytoplasm.
Class 8 Science
Q12. What is cell organelles?
Answer: An organelle is a specialized subunit having a specific function within the cell. They
are ‘organs of the cell.’ Each organelle has its own lipoprotein membrane. Except nucleus
and chloroplast, all other organelles can be seen only with an electron microscope.
Q13. What are the functions of Endoplasmic Reticulum?
Answer: The functions of Endoplasmic Reticulum are:

a) It is the framework that supports cell.


b) Conduction of proteins.
c) Toxins that have entered the body through food, air and water are made water
soluble by ER and then flushed out of the body.
Q14. Explain golgi complex.
Answer: It is made up of 5-8 hollow Fusing vesicles and flat sacs placed parallel to each
other.
These sacs are called ‘cisternae’ and are filled with different enzymes. The proteins coming
from ER are enclosed in vesicles, which come towards golgi complex via cytoplasm. They
fuse with the formation face of the golgi membranes and empty their contents in the
cisternae.
As they pass through the cisternae, they are chemically modified with the help of enzymes.
They are again packed in the vesicles. These vesicles exit from the maturation face. Thus,
cisternae work like a packing department that packs and distributes substances.
Q15. What are the functions of golgi complex?
Answer: The functions of Golgi Complex are as follows:

a) Golgi complex is the secretory organ of the cell.


b) It modifies, sorts and packs materials synthesized in the cell (enzymes, mucus,
proteins, pigments etc.) and dispatches them to various targets like plasma
membrane, lysosome etc.
c) It produces vacuoles and secretory vesicles.
d) It helps in the formation of cell wall, plasma membrane and lysosomes.

Q16. Explain the functions of mitochondria?


Answer: The functions of mitochondria are:

• To produce energy-rich compound- ATP.


• Synthesis of proteins, carbohydrates, lipids etc. by using the energy in ATP.
Class 8 Science
Q17. List the types of Plastids?
Answer: There are different types of plastids with their specialized functions. Among which
few are mainly classified based on the presence or absence of the biological pigments and
their stages of development.

• Chloroplasts
• Chromoplasts
• Gerontoplasts
• Leucoplasts

Q18. What is nucleus?


Answer: A nucleus is defined as a double-membraned eukaryotic cell organelle that contains
the genetic material. The nucleus is found only in eukaryotes and is the defining
characteristic feature of eukaryotic cells. However, some cells, such as RBCs do not possess
a nucleus, though they originate from a eukaryotic organism.
Class 8 Science
Q19. Write the difference between Mitochondria and Plastids.
Answer: The difference between Mitochondria and Plastids

Mitochondria Plastids

Found in all eukaryotic cells Found only in plant cells

Produces ATP Produces glucose and stores it as starch

The main function is cell respiration Main organelle for photosynthesis

Smaller in size Comparatively larger in size

Pigments are absent Pigments are present

Q20. Define vacuole.


Answer: The term “vacuole” means “empty space”. They help in the storage and disposal of
various substances. They can store food or other nutrients required by a cell to survive. They
also store waste products and prevent the entire cell from contamination. The vacuoles in
plant cells are larger than those in the animal cells. The plant vacuoles occupy more than
80% of the volume of the cell. The vacuoles may be one or more in number.
Q21. Define Endocytosis and Exocytosis.
Answer: Endocytosis is defined as the process of trapping a particle or substance from the
external environment by engulfing it. Endocytosis is of two types viz phagocytosis, also
known as cellular eating and pinocytosis, also referred to as cellular drinking.
Exocytosis, on the other hand, is described as the process of fusing vesicles with the plasma
membrane to release their contents to the external environment of the cell.
Q22. What is osmosis?
Answer: Osmosis is a process by which the molecules of a solvent pass from a solution of
low concentration to a solution of high concentration through a semipermeable membrane.
Osmosis is of two types: Endosmosis and Exosmosis.
Q23. Define structure of plasma membrane.
Answer: Protein molecules are embedded in two layers of phospholipids. Plasma membrane
is said to be a selectively permeable membrane as it allows some substances to enter the
cell, while prevents other substances. Due to this property, useful molecules of water, salt
and oxygen enter the cell and CO2 exits the cell. If any changes occur outside the cell, the
cellular environment does not change due to plasma membrane. This condition is called
homeostasis.
Class 8 Science
Q24. Difference between Cell Membrane and Plasma Membrane.
Answer: Following are the important differences between cell membrane and plasma
membrane:

Cell Membrane Plasma Membrane

It surrounds the entire components of the cell. It surrounds only the cell organelles.

It regulates the tonicity of the cell. It does not regulate the tonicity of the
cell.

Cell membrane can be transformed to stimulate Plasma membrane cannot be modified.


movement and feeding in organisms such as
Paramaecium.

It contains initial receptors for signal It is not the first step in cell signalling.
transduction and is the first step in cell However, it is involved in the process.
signalling.

Always protects the cell from bacteria and Does not always protect the cell from
viruses. outside invaders.

Plays an important role in cytokinesis during cell Does not play a key role in cytokinesis
division. during cell division.

Cilia are present and are involved in feeding and Cilia are absent.
movement.

Is a target for antimicrobials. Is not a target for antimicrobials.


Class 8 Science
Q25. Write the difference between Eukaryotic cells and Prokaryotic cells.
Answer: The differences between Eukaryotic cell Prokaryotic cell are:

Prokaryotes Eukaryotes

Type of Cell Always unicellular Unicellular and multi-cellular

Cell size Ranges in size from 0.2 μm – 2.0 μm Size ranges from 10 μm – 100 μm in
in diameter diameter

Cell wall Usually present; chemically complex When present, chemically simple in
in nature nature

Nucleus Absent Present

Ribosomes Present. Smaller in size and Present. Comparatively larger in


spherical in shape size and linear in shape

DNA Circular Linear


arrangement

Mitochondria Absent Present

Cytoplasm Present, but cell organelles absent Present, cell organelles present

Endoplasmic Absent Present


reticulum

Plasmids Present Very rarely found in eukaryotes

Ribosome Small ribosomes Large ribosomes

Lysosome Lysosomes and centrosomes are Lysosomes and centrosomes are


absent present

Cell division Through binary fission Through mitosis

Flagella The flagella are smaller in size The flagella are larger in size

Reproduction Asexual Both asexual and sexual

Example Bacteria and Archaea Plant and Animal cell

-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 11 Human Body and Organ System

Question 1: Find out my partner.


Answer:

Group ‘A’ Group ‘B’

Heart beats 72

RBC 50 – 60 lakh/mm3

WBC 5000-6000 per mm3

Blood donation 350 ml

Normal body temperature 37 °C

pH of oxygenated blood 7.4

Question 2: Complete the following table.


Answer:

Organ system Organs Functions

Respiratory Nose This organ traps the dust particles and microbes like a
filter and prevents their entry into the respiratory
Pharynx
system.
Windpipe
It acts as a passage or medium through which air
Lungs enters into the windpipe.
This organ acts as a passage or channel through which
air passes into or reaches the lungs.
An exchange of gases occurs in it.

Circulatory Heart The main organ from where blood circulation occurs
system to different parts of the body.
Blood vessels
This consists of a closed system of vessels that help in
blood circulation to different body parts.
Class 8 Science

Question 3: Draw neat and labelled diagrams.


Answer:
a. Respiratory system
Class 8 Science

b. Internal structure of heart


Class 8 Science
Question 4: Explain with reasons.
1. Human blood is red coloured.
Answer: Human blood is red in colour due to the presence of haemoglobin which is a
respiratory pigment. Haemoglobin is a red colour pigment, which gives red colour to
the blood.
2. Upward and downward movement of diaphragm occurs consecutively.
Answer: Diaphragm is a partition comprising muscles that is present between the
thoracic cavity and abdominal cavity. When a person breathes, there is upward and
downward movement of diaphragm that occurs simultaneously. When we inhale,
the ribs rise up while the diaphragm lowers down at the same time causing a
pressure decrease on lungs. This promotes free movement of air into lungs through
the nostrils. Likewise, when the ribs return to their normal position, the diaphragm
rises up leading to an increase in pressure inside the lungs. This helps in movement
of the air outside the nostrils.
3. Blood donation is considered to be superior of all donations.
Answer: Blood donation is considered superior of all donations because it can save a
person’s life who is in need of it. Most lives are often lost due to blood loss during
operations, surgeries, accidents or whenever regular blood transfusion is required.
Many lives can be saved, if sufficient blood is available to inject to the patient who is
in need of it.
4. Person with ‘O’ blood group is considered as ‘universal donor’
Answer: Person with an ‘O’ blood group is considered a ‘universal donor’ because
such an individual can give or donate blood to a person who has any other blood
group.
5. Food must have a limited amount of salts.
Answer: Food must have a limited amount of salts as too much mineral salts are
harmful to the body. As a matter of fact, we require limited amounts of salts in our
body. Excessive salts in food can lead to water retention in different parts of the
body such as arms, legs etc. and might also lead to edema. Too much salt however
also leads to increase in the blood pressure and may cause hypertension.
Question 5: Answer the following questions in your own words.
1. Explain the functional correlation of the circulatory system with respiratory,
digestive and excretory systems.
Answer: The functional correlation between circulatory system with respiratory,
digestive and excretory system are listed as follows:
a) We are all aware that during respiration there is exchange of gases that occurs in the
lungs. The respiratory system causes the diffusion of oxygen into the blood and the
diffusion of carbon dioxide from the blood. This oxygen is then transported to
different body cells through the circulatory system.
Class 8 Science
b) The digestive system is responsible for producing and supplying nutrients to the
human body by breaking complex molecules into simpler ones. The circulatory
system transports the energy derived from these nutrients to different cells and
tissues of the body.
c) The excretory system is responsible for eliminating the waste products from the
body. These waste products are transported to the excretory system by blood in the
body.
2. Explain the structure and function of human blood.
Answer: Blood is a red colour fluid connective tissue that flows in blood vessels. It consists
of two components – blood cells and plasma.
Plasma is a pale-yellow colour fluid that is slightly alkaline and made up of water (~90-92%)
and some 8% of dissolved nutrients, proteins, hormones and waste products.
Blood consists of three types of blood cells. These are
a) Red Blood Cells: These are small, circular, enucleated cells that contain a red
pigment called haemoglobin, which helps in transporting oxygen to different cells of
the body.
b) White Blood Cells: These are large, nucleated and colourless cells that fight against
germs from entering into our body and protect us from harmful diseases.
c) Platelets: These are extremely small and disc-shaped units of blood. For example,
when we get injured, the bleeding stops after some time due to the activity of
platelets that helps in the clotting of blood.
Functions of blood:

a) It transports oxygen and nutrients to the different parts of the human body.
b) Blood helps in carrying waste materials from different parts of the body and removes
it from our body through the excretory system.
c) Various chemical messengers such as hormones are transported in the body by
blood.
d) Blood protects the body by creating antibodies that fight against disease carrying
germs.
e) Blood helps in maintaining a normal body temperature.
3. Explain the importance and need of blood donation.
Answer: Blood donation is considered one of the biggest donations of an individual
towards the society. We are all aware that a lot of blood is lost under various
circumstances such as accidents, surgeries or in cases of blood-related diseases
which require transfusion of blood. If an adequate amount of blood is available in
blood banks, it can save many lives in need. Donating blood does not harm or affect
the body of the donor. In fact, whenever a donor donates blood, he/she recovers it
in his/her body within 24 hrs. However, this donated blood can be stored by blood
banks in refrigerators and used as and when required.
Class 8 Science
Question 6: Explain the differences.
Answer: Difference between arteries and veins:

Arteries Veins

Arteries carry blood to different body organs Veins carry blood towards the heart and away
and away from the heart. from other organs.

Carries blood full of oxygen. Carries carbon dioxide enriched and


deoxygenated blood.

Blood flows with extreme pressure and gives Blood flows with low pressure in a smooth
jerks. manner.

Arteries do not have any valves. Veins have valves which help to prevent
backflow of blood.

Walls of arteries are elastic. Walls of veins are non-elastic.

Arteries are deeply placed. Veins are superficial in nature.

They are branched and decrease in size. They unite and increase in size

Arteries are capable of constricting and Veins cannot constrict.


dilating.

They have thick and muscular walls. Veins have less muscular and thin walls.

The smallest artery is known as Arteriole. The smallest vein is called Venules.

b. Difference between external and internal respiration:

External respiration Internal respiration

It occurs between the body and the outside or It occurs internally at the cellular level.
external environment.

External respiration follows a mechanical Internal respiration is a chemical process.


process.

It includes both – voluntary and involuntary It includes only an involuntary action.


action.
Class 8 Science
Question 8: Which health parameters of blood donors should be checked?
Answer: The following parameters of blood donors have to be checked prior blood
donation:
a) Age – It is important to check the age of an individual before he/she donates
blood. This is because there is a set age before which and after which blood donation
can be done or not, respectively.
b) Weight – Weight of individuals is a key parameter of blood donation as underweight
individuals are not allowed to donate blood. In underweight individuals, there are
chances that the donor may face unnecessary consequences or have a reaction such
as dizziness and fainting, if blood donated is in higher quantity
c) Heart, lungs and other blood disorders – Whenever a donor goes for donating
blood, his/her prior history of heart, lungs or blood diseases are thoroughly
enquired. People with heart valve conditions, heart disease, irregular heartbeat,
anaemia, heart failure, and certain lung conditions are excluded from blood
donation. Certain blood diseases such as iron deficiency or chronic leukemia or HIV
+ve are also excluded from blood donation.
d) Other medical conditions –Extreme medical conditions such as hypotension,
diabetes, hypertension, fever etc. are also checked before blood donation to prevent
it from transfusing the blood to a person in need.
e) Recent surgery – People with recent surgery history are also not allowed to donate
blood. However, after a year of surgery they can donate blood if they wish but only if
they’ve recovered or healed completely and they are capable of resuming full
activity like a healthy human being.
f) Pregnancy – Pregnant women are not permitted to donate blood during pregnancy
and for at least six weeks after the pregnancy ends.
Question 8: Fill in the blanks using appropriate words given in the bracket.
1. RBCs of the blood contain haemoglobin, an iron compound.
2. Diaphragm is present between the thoracic and abdominal cavity.
3. Cardiac muscles are involuntary.
4. pH of oxygenated blood is alkaline.
5. Production of RBCs occurs in red bone marrow.
Question 9: Find an odd one out.
1. A, O, K, AB, B.
Answer: A, O, K, AB, B – K is the odd one out because it is an inorganic ion. The rest
of the four A, O, AB, B are types of blood groups.
Class 8 Science
2. Blood plasma, platelets, blood transfusion, blood corpuscles.
Answer: Blood transfusion is the odd one out because it is a technique for
transferring blood from a donor to the recipient. Rest of the three-blood plasma,
platelets and blood corpuscles are components of blood.
3. Trachea, alveoli, diaphragm, capillaries.
Answer: Capillaries are the odd one out because they are a part of the circulatory
system while the rest of the three trachea, alveoli and diaphragm are parts of the
respiratory system.
4. Neutrophils, globulins, albumins, prothrombin.
Answer: Neutrophils are the odd one out because they are a type of blood cell. Rest
of the three globulins, albumins, and prothrombin are components of the plasma.
Question 10: Read the following paragraph and identify the disease.
Today, her child became one and half years old. However, that child does not seem to be
healthy and happy. It was continuously crying and gradually becoming weak. It has
shortness of breath. Its nails have become blue.
Answer: From the symptoms mentioned above, it appears like the child is suffering from
some kind of respiratory or circulatory disorder. He has difficulty in breathing and his nails
have become blue which indicates that there is low/lack of oxygen circulating in the red
blood cells. It is known as Cyanosis. This disorder occurs when enough oxygen is not present
in the blood, thus making the skin or membrane below the skin turn into purplish-blue.
Question 11: Your neighbouring uncle has been diagnosed with hypertension. What should
he do to keep his blood pressure within normal range?
Answer: The following methods can be adopted to keep the blood pressure within the
normal range:

a) Proper exercise or yoga on a daily basis.


b) Lose the extra kilos.
c) Maintain a balanced diet by eating a healthy diet consisting of fruits and vegetables.
d) Reduce the intake of salt in food or additional raw salt while eating.
e) Avoid drinking alcohol and smoking cigarettes.
f) Reduce the amount of stress by meditation or indulge in fun-filled activities.
g) Monitor the blood pressure regularly.

Additional Questions
Question 1: Define organ system. Name some organ systems.
Answer: The group of organs which work together to perform a specific function is called an
organ system. Various organ systems include respiratory, digestive, nervous, circulatory,
reproductive, muscular, excretory, skeletal, etc. which are essential for normal functioning
in our body.
Class 8 Science
Question 2: Where is body energy produced? Why is it essential?
Answer: Energy is essential for operating all the life processes in the human body. Energy
production occurs within the cells of the human body. Cells need the supply of soluble
nutrients and oxygen to complete energy production. This supply takes place with the help
of essential organs such as respiratory and circulatory systems.
Question 3: What are the different steps of respiration?
Answer: The different steps of respiration are listed below:
a) External Respiration
b) Internal Respiration
c) Cellular Respiration
Question 4: Define Cellular Respiration.
Answer: Dissolved nutrients such as glucose slowly burn (oxidized) with the help of oxygen
and energy is released in the form of ATP. Waste materials like carbon dioxide and water
vapour are produced during this process.
Cellular respiration can be summarized as follows:
C6H12O6+6O2 → 6CO2+6H2O+ Energy (38 ATP)
Question 5: Who discovered the mechanism of heart valves of the human body?
Answer: In 1628, William Harvey discovered the working mechanism of valves of the heart.
He described the working of circulation in the human body. He proposed a theory that our
heart is a muscular pump through which blood circulates in the body.
Question 6: Define capillaries.
Answer: Arteries that gradually divide with the decrease in their diameter as they spread in
the body and finally form fine hair-like vessels are called capillaries. The walls of capillaries
are extremely lean and thin and composed of a single layer of cells.
Question 7: Who is a blood donor?
Answer: A person who donates blood to other people or to the blood bank is referred to as
a blood donor.
Question 8: What are the different groups of human blood?
Answer: There are four main groups of human blood namely A, B, AB and O. Besides, there
are two more types as ‘Rh’ negative and ‘Rh’ positive of each of those four groups. Thus, in
all eight blood groups are formed. (Examples: A Rh +ve & A Rh -ve).
Question 9: What are veins?
Answer: The capillaries unite together in the entire body to form blood vessels of bigger
diameter which are known as veins. The network of capillaries is present in each organ.
Class 8 Science
Question 10: Define a blood recipient.
Answer: A person who receives blood from other people or from the blood bank is referred
to as a blood recipient.
Question 11: What is the function of a blood bank?
Answer: Blood is collected in blood banks by following specific procedures from healthy
persons and supplied to the people who are in need of it. If the collected blood is not to be
used instantly, it is stored by the blood banks for some days in the refrigerator.
Question 12: Define hypertension.
Answer: When the blood pressure is higher than normal it is referred to as hypertension.
Hypertension is usually considered a hereditary disorder. In hypertension, the arteries of the
person develop unnecessary tension. The heart does not perform its functions properly in
case of hypertension. Both the systolic and diastolic pressures stay high in hypertension.
Question 13: Define blood pressure.
Answer: Blood continuously flows through the blood vessels of the human body due to
contraction and relaxation of the heart. This exerts pressure on the walls of the arteries of
the heart due to contraction and it is known as blood pressure.
Question 14: What is systolic pressure?
Answer: The pressure that is recorded during the contraction of heart is known as systolic
pressure.
Question 15: Define diastolic pressure.
Answer: The pressure that is recorded during relaxation is known as diastolic pressure.
Question 16: What is the normal blood pressure of a healthy person?
Answer: The blood pressure of a healthy person is about 120/80 mm to 139/89 mm of Hg. It
is measured with the help of a sphygmomanometer.
Question 17: What is the minimum age requirement for blood donation?
Answer: A healthy person of age more than 18 years can donate blood for 3 – 4 times a
year. However, his/her health history should be thoroughly checked before he/she donates
blood. Proper care should be taken so that there is no trouble during or after the blood
donation.
Question 18: What are the scenarios where blood is required for transfusion?
Answer: Blood is required by the needful persons in various situations such as accidents,
excess bleeding, surgical operations, childbirth, etc. Sometimes people suffering from blood
disorders such as leukemia or Thalassemia or even anaemia are required to opt for blood
transfusion.
Class 8 Science
Question 19: When is National Voluntary Blood Donation Day observed?
Answer: 1st October is observed as National Voluntary Blood Donation Day every year.
Healthy people are encouraged to donate blood so that it can be transfused into the bodies
of people who are in urgent need of it.
Question 20: Who discovered the blood groups – A, B, O and AB?
Answer: In 1900, the blood groups – A, B, O were discovered by Carl Landsteiner. He won
the Nobel Prize in 1930 for this discovery. In 1902, the blood group AB was discovered by
Decastello and Sturli.
Question 21: Define Hematology.
Answer: Hematology is a branch of medical science that deals with the study of
hematopoietic organs, blood and blood diseases. In this branch, research of diagnosis and
remedies of blood diseases are performed.

-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science

Chapter 12: Introduction to Acid and Base


Q1. Identify the following solutions, whether they are acid or base.
Answer:

Solution Change in Indicator Acid /


Base

Litmus Phenolphthalein Methyl orange

1 No change Acid

2 Orange colour turns Acid


red

3 Red litmus turns blue Base

Q2. Write chemical names from given formulae.


1. H2SO4 – Sulphuric Acid
2. Ca(OH)2 – Calcium hydroxide/Lime water
3. HCl – Hydrochloric Acid
4. NaOH – Sodium Hydroxide
5. KOH – Potassium Hydroxide
6. NH4OH – Ammonium hydroxide
Q3. Sulphuric acid has the highest importance in the chemical Industry. Why?
Answer: In the chemical industry sulfuric acid is one of the important compounds. This
chemical is used in making hundreds of compounds by the chemical industry. By far the
largest amount of sulfuric acid is used to make phosphoric acid, used in turn to make
phosphate fertilizer, calcium dihydrogen phosphate and aluminum phosphate. lt is also used
to make ammonium sulfate, which is particularly important fertilizer in sulfur deficient. Due
to the following reasons sulphuric acid is highly used in chemical industry.
Class 8 Science
Q4. Give answers.
1. Which acid is used for getting chloride salt?
Answer: Hydrochloric acid is used to get chloride salt. It is a strong acid as it is
completely dissociated in water. Therefore, it is used to prepare salts containing the
Cl– anion called chlorides.
2. By squeezing lemon on a piece of rock the gas liberated turned lime water milky.
Which compound is present in the rock?
Answer: When lemon is squeezed onto the rock, a gas is liberated. This gas turned
the lime water milky. This confirms that Carbon dioxide is present in the rock. This is
because insoluble calcium carbonate that is CaCO3 is formed.
3. The label on the bottle of chemical is spoiled. How will you find whether the
chemical is acidic or not?
Answer: We can find the nature of that chemical by using Acid-Base indicators like
litmus, Phenolphthalein, China rose extract, etc. If the stored chemical is acid then
the blue litmus will turn into red and if the chemical was base in nature then the red
litmus turn into blue colour.
Q5. Answer the following questions.
1. Explain the difference between acid and base.

Basis Acid Base

Definition An acid is any chemical A base is an aqueous substance that could


compound once dissolved in absorb hydrogen ions.
water produces a solution
with hydrogen ion activity
more than purified water

Strength Relies on the concentration of Relies on the concentration of the


the hydronium ions hydroxide ions

Examples Acetic acid CH3COOH and Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH) and Ammonia
sulphuric acid

Characteristics Would depend upon the Bases would feel slippery and solid in
(Physical) temperature, acids would look nature except ammonia which is gaseous.
solid, liquid or in the form of It would have a bitter taste.
gas. It would also have a sour
taste.
Class 8 Science
Disassociation Acids would release hydrogen Bases would release hydroxide ions (OH-)
ions (h+) when mixed with when mixed with water
water

Test with Litmus Would turn litmus paper red Would turn litmus paper blue

2. Why does the indicator not get affected by salt?


Answer: The substances, which change their colours in presence of acid or base are
called ‘Indicators’. From the reaction of acids and bases salt is produced and due to
this reason, it is considered as neutral. For this reason, Indicators are not affected by
salt as salt is the product of acid and base which is neutral.
3. Which substances are produced by neutralization process?
Answer: We have seen that acid contains (H+) hydrogen ions and base contains
(OH-) hydroxide ions. Salt and water are formed by combination of acid and base.

This chemical reaction is called neutralisation.


4. Which are the industrial uses of acids?
Answer: The industrial uses of acids:

a) Sulfuric acid is used to make other chemicals reduce corrosion refined oil and create
fertilizers.
b) Nitric acid is used to make explosives dyes and fertilizers.
c) It is used in food items eg carbonic acid which is used in soft drinks like coke or sprite
d) The steel industry uses hydrochloric acid to clean metal sheets before processing.
e) Paper manufacturers make use of sodium hydroxide to remove lignin from paper
pulp.
Q6. Select proper word given in brackets and fill in the blanks.
1. Main constituent of an acid is H+ ions
2. Main constituent of base is OH- ions
3. Tartaric acid is a white, crystalline organic acid.
Class 8 Science
Q7. Match the pairs.

Group A Group B

Tamarind Tartaric acid

Curd Lactic acid

Lemon Citric acid

Vinegar Acetic acid

Q8. State true or false.


1. Oxides of metals are acidic in nature: True
2. Table salt is acidic: False
3. Metal corrodes due to salts: False
4. Salts are neutral: True
Q9. Classify following substances into acidic, basic and neutral group –
HCl, NaCl, MgO, KCl, CaO, H2SO4, HNO3, H2O, Na2CO3
Answer:
1. Acidic group – HCl, KCl and NaCl
2. Basic group – H2SO4, HNO3, Na2CO3̣
3. Neutral group – MgO, CaO, H2O
Q10. Define acid.
Answer: Acid is such a substance, which gives H+ ions in solution state. e.g. HCl dissociates
in water solution. Examples of some acids: Hydrochloric acid (HCl), Nitric acid (HNO3),
Sulphuric acid (H2SO4), Carbonic acid (H2CO3) (in cold aerated drinks), ascorbic acid, citric
acid in lemon and other fruits, acetic acid in vinegar, etc.
Q11. Define natural acids or organic acids.
Answer: Acids present in food are called natural acids or organic acids. These acids being
weak in nature are called weak acids.
Q12. Write the uses of Calcium hydroxide?
Answer: Calcium hydroxide is a white powder, which does not have any characteristic
odour. It is used in industrial settings such as the treatment of waste, the manufacturing of
paper, building and processing of food. There are also several medical and dental
applications of this compound. For instance, fillings used in root canal treatments often
contain calcium hydroxide
Class 8 Science
Q13. Define mineral acids.
Answer: Some acids are strong in nature. They are caustic/inflammatory, e.g. sulphuric acid
(H2SO4), hydrochloric acid (HCl) and nitric acid (HNO3). These acids are also called ‘mineral
acids’. The skin gets burnt when their concentrated solution falls on skin, similarly their
vapours if inhaled can be harmful to health. Strong concentrated acids are converted into
their dilute acids by slowly adding them into water. Such dilute acids are less harmful than
their corresponding strong acids.
Q14. What are Indicators?
Answer: The substances, which are neither acidic nor basic and are chemically inert in
nature. Touching or tasting of acid or base is very harmful and hence typical indicators are
used to recognise them. The substances which change their colours in presence of acid or
base are called ‘Indicators’.
Q15. Write the properties of acid?
Answer: The properties of acid are as follows:

a) Acids are sour in taste.


b) Acid molecules contain hydrogen ion (H+) as a main constituent.
c) Acid reacts with metal to form hydrogen gas.
d) Acid reacts with carbonates and liberates CO2 gas.
e) Blue litmus turns red in acid.

Q16. Discuss the uses of acids?


Answer: The uses of acids are as follows:

a) Acids are used in the production of chemical fertilizers.


b) Acids are used in the production of explosives, oil purification, medicines, dyes and
paints.
c) Hydrochloric acid is used for the preparation of different types of chloride salts.
d) Dil. H2SO4 acid is used in the batteries. (Electric cell)
e) Dil. HCl is used for sterilization of water.
f) Acid is used for making of white paper from wood pulp.

Q17. What is pH scale?


Answer: In order to find the numeric value of the level of acidity or basicity of a substance,
the pH scale (wherein pH stands for ‘potential of hydrogen’) can be used. The pH scale is the
most common and trusted way to measure how acidic or basic a substance is. A pH scale
measure can vary from 0 to 14, where 0 is the most acidic and 14 is the most basic a
substance can be.
Class 8 Science
Q18. Define litmus paper.
Answer: Litmus paper is filter paper, which has been treated with a natural water-soluble
dye obtained from lichens. The resulting piece of paper, called “litmus paper”, can be used
as a pH indicator. Blue litmus paper turns red under acidic conditions (pH below 4.5) while
red litmus paper turns blue under alkaline conditions (pH above 8.3).
Q19. Define base with examples.
Answer: Base is a substance whose water solution gives hydroxide (OH-) ion e.g.

Q20. Write the uses of bases?


Answer: The uses of bases are:

a) The manufacturing of soap and paper involve the use of sodium hydroxide. NaOH is
also used in the manufacture of rayon.
b) Ca(OH)2, also known as slaked lime or calcium hydroxide, is used to manufacture
bleaching powder.
c) Dry mixes used in painting or decoration are made with the help of calcium
hydroxide.
d) Magnesium hydroxide, also known as milk of magnesia, is commonly used as a
laxative. It also reduces any excess acidity in the human stomach and is, therefore,
used as an antacid.
e) Ammonium hydroxide is a very important reagent used in laboratories.
f) Any excess acidity in soils can be neutralized by employing slaked lime.
Q21. What is alkali and discuss its properties?
Answer: Alkali is a base that dissolves in water. Not all bases are alkali but all alkali is base. It
is a basic salt alkali earth metal or alkali metal. On adding alkali to acid the pH of the mixture
increases. On adding acid to alkali the pH decreases due to the removal of alkali.
Neutralization is a reaction in which removal of alkalinity or acidity occurs.
Properties of alkalies:
a) Bases have bitter taste.
b) They are slippery.
c) Bases contain hydroxide (OH-) as a main constituent.
d) Metal oxides are generally basic in nature.
Class 8 Science
Q22. What is neutralization?
Answer: Acid contains (H+) hydrogen ions and base contains(OH-) hydroxide ions. Salt and
water are formed by a combination of acid and base.

This chemical reaction is called neutralization.


Q23. Why are bases called alkali?
Answer: In contact with water, alkali metals form alkali (base) and form metal oxides as
water reacts. Alkali metal oxides are also bases and when dissolved in water, they form an
alkaline solution. During reaction with water, Group 2 metals also form bases and their
oxides are basic and found in the earth’s crust.
Q24. Difference between alkali and base.
Answer: The difference between alkali and base are:

Base Alkali

Bases do not dissolve in water Bases that dissolve in water are alkali

All bases are not alkali All alkali are bases

It neutralizes acids It releases OH- ions, accepts a proton

Example: Zinc hydroxide, copper oxide Example: potassium hydroxide, sodium hydroxide

Q25. Write the uses of Sodium hydroxide?


Answer: The uses of sodium hydroxide are:

a) It is used in the manufacturing of detergents and soaps


b) It is used in the production of bleach-like chlorine
c) It is used in drain cleaners
d) It is used in the removal of heavy metals from the water by the municipal water
treatment facility
e) It is used in food preservatives to prevent bacteria and mold growth
f) It is used for canning
g) It is used in papermaking and paper recycling process.
Class 8 Science
Chapter 13: Chemical Change and Chemical Bond
Q1. Filling the gaps using appropriate term from the terms given in the bracket.
1. An arrow is drawn in between the reactants and products while writing the equation for
a chemical reaction.
2. Rusting of iron is a slow chemical change
3. The spoiling of food is a chemical change which is recognized from the generation of
certain smell due to it.
4. A colourless solution of calcium hydroxide in a test tube turns milky on blowing in it
through a blow tube for some time.
5. The white particles of baking soda disappear when put in lemon juice. This means that it
is a chemical change.
6. Oxygen is a Reactant in respiration.
7. Sodium chloride is ionic compound while hydrogen chloride is covalent compound.
8. Electron shell is complete in each hydrogen in a hydrogen molecule.
9. Chlorine (Cl2) molecule is formed by …………… of electrons between two chlorine atoms.
2. Explain by writing a word equation.
1. Respiration is a chemical change.
Answer: Respiration is a continuously occurring biological process. In this process,
we inhale the air and exhale carbon dioxide and water vapour. After an in-depth
study, it is learnt that glucose in the cells reacts with oxygen in the inhaled air to
form carbon dioxide and water. The word equation and the chemical equation of this
chemical reaction are as follows.

2. Hard water gets softened on mixing with a solution of washing soda.


Answer: Some wells or tube wells have hard water. It is brackish to taste and does
not form lather with soap. This is because hard water contains the chloride and
sulphate salts of calcium and magnesium in dissolved state. To soften the hard
water, a solution of washing soda is added to it. This results in a chemical reaction to
form a precipitate of insoluble carbonate salts of calcium and magnesium. As the
dissolved salts of calcium and magnesium go out in the form of precipitate of the
Class 8 Science
carbonate salts, the water is softened. The following equation can be written for this
chemical change.

3. Lime stone powder disappears on adding to dilute hydrochloric acids.


Answer: The lime stone (calcium carbonate) reacts with hydrochloric acid and three
products are formed. One of them is calcium chloride, which being soluble in water,
gets washed away with water. The second product is carbon dioxide; its bubbles mix
up in air. The third product, water mixes with water. The following equation can be
written for this chemical change.
Word equation: Calcium carbonate + Hydrochloric acid → Calcium chloride + Carbon
dioxide + water
4. Bubbles are seen on adding lemon juice to baking soda.
Answer: When baking soda is added to lemon juice a chemical change takes place in
the citric acid present in the lemon juice and the gas formed is carbon dioxide. The
word equation can be written for this chemical reaction as follows:

Q3. Match the pairs.


Answer:

Photosynthesis Chemical change

Water Covalent bond

Sodium chloride Ionic bond

Dissolution of salt in water Physical change

Carbon Reactant in combustion process

Fluorine Tendency to form anion

Magnesium Tendency to lose electrons


Class 8 Science
4. Show with the help of diagram of electronic configuration how the following
compounds are formed from the constituent atoms.
Answer a: Sodium chloride

Answer b: Potassium fluoride

Answer c: Water
Class 8 Science
Answer d: Hydrogen chloride

Q5. Define ionic bond and ionic compound


Answer: The chemical bond formed due to an electrostatic force of attraction between the
oppositely charged cation and anion is called an ionic bond or an electrovalent bond. The
compound formed by means of one or more ionic bonds is called an ionic compound.
Q6. Define covalent bond.
Answer: A covalent bond is formed by equal sharing of electrons from both the participating
atoms. The pair of electrons participating in this type of bonding is called shared pair or
bonding pair. The covalent bonds are also termed as molecular bonds. Sharing of bonding
pairs will ensure that the atoms achieve stability in their outer shell, which is similar to the
atoms of noble gases.
Q7. What is chemical bonding?
Answer: Chemical Bonding refers to the formation of a chemical bond between two or more
atoms, molecules, or ions to give rise to a chemical compound. These chemical bonds are
what keep the atoms together in the resulting compound.
Q8. Explain combustion of fuels.
Answer: Wood, coal, petrol or cooking gas are burnt for getting energy. The common
substance that burns in all these fuels is ‘Carbon’. During the combustion process carbon
combine with oxygen in air and the product carbon dioxide is formed. A common equation
can be written for all these combustion processes as follows.

Combustion of fuel is a fast and irreversible chemical change.


Class 8 Science
Q9. What is the difference between physical and chemical change?
Answer: The difference between physical and chemical change are as follows:

Sl. Differentiating Physical Change Chemical Change


No. Property

1 Explanation In a physical change, the In a chemical change, the


molecules are rearranged molecular composition of a
while their actual substance completely changes
composition remains same. and a new substance is formed.

2 Example Some examples of physical A few examples of chemical


change are freezing of change are digestion of food,
water, melting of wax, burning of coal, rusting, etc.
boiling of water, etc.

3 Reversibility Physical change is easily Chemical change is irreversible i.e.


reversible i.e original original substance cannot be
substance can be recovered.
recovered.

4 Formation of new In physical change, no new A chemical change is always


substance substance is formed. accompanied by one or more new
substance(s).

5 Type of Change Physical change is a Chemical change is a permanent


temporary change. change.

6 Energy In a physical change, no In a chemical change, energy is


Production energy is produced. produced (heat, light, sound, etc.)

7 Absorption of Physical change involves During chemical reaction,


Energy very little to no absorption absorption and evolution of
of energy. energy takes place.

8 Affects Physical change affects Chemical changes affect both


only physical properties i.e. physical and chemical properties
shape, size, etc. of the substance including its
composition.
Class 8 Science
Q10. Define chemical change and word equation.
Answer: During a chemical change the chemical composition of the original matter changes
and new substances having different properties and different chemical composition are
formed. A chemical equation can be written for a chemical change, if the exact change in
chemical composition is known. Names and chemical formulae of the original substance and
newly formed substance are used while writing a chemical equation.
For example, when baking soda is added to lemon juice a chemical change takes place in the
citric acid present in the lemon juice and the gas formed is carbon dioxide. The word
equation can be written for this chemical reaction as follows.

This is neutralization reaction.


Q11. What is physical change and chemical change?
Answer: The change in which the molecular composition is completely altered and a new
product is formed is called a chemical change. Chemical changes create a new product. The
changes in chemical change are irreversible and permanent. It reveals that chemical change
cannot be reversed by changing or altering the experimental changes. The mass of the
substance is altered during a chemical change.
During the physical change, the arrangement of molecules is altered leading to change in
state. No new products are formed, and the molecular composition remains totally the
same. For example, the molecular composition of ice and water is not altered. No energy
changes occur as a result of a physical change. The energy needed to bring a physical change
is equal to the amount of energy required to reverse the change. There is no change in
energy. The changes are reversible and temporary. The reaction gets reversed if the cause
of producing the change is removed.
Q12. What is the Octet Rule?
Answer: All atoms except noble gases have less than eight electrons in their valence shell. In
other words, the valence shells of these atoms do not have stable configurations. Therefore,
they combine with each other or with other atoms to attain stable electronic configurations.
Therefore, the tendency of atoms of various elements to attain stable configuration of eight
electrons in their valence shells is the cause of chemical combination and the principle of
attaining the maximum of eight electrons in the valence shell of atoms is called octet rule.
Q13. Discuss types of covalent bonds.
Answer: Depending upon the number of shared electron pairs, the covalent bond can be
classified into:
a) Single Covalent Bond
b) Double Covalent Bond
c) Triple Covalent Bond
Class 8 Science
Q14. Write the difference between Ionic and Covalent Bond
Answer: The difference between ionic and covalent bond are:

Covalent Bonds Ionic Bonds

A covalent bond is formed between two This type of bond is formed between a
similar electronegative non-metals metal and non-metal

Bonds formed from covalent bonding have Ionic Bonds have no definite shape
a definite shape

Low Melting Point and Boiling Point High Melting Point and Boiling Point

Low Polarity and more Flammable High Polarity and less Flammable

Covalent Bonds are in Liquid or gaseous At room temperature, Ionic Bonds have
state at room temperature Solid-state.

Examples: Methane, Hydrochloric acid Examples: Sodium chloride, Sulfuric Acid

Q15. Write the ionic bond properties.


Answer: Due to the presence of a strong force of attraction between cations and anions in
ionic bonded molecules, the following properties are observed:

a) The ionic bonds are the strongest of all the bonds.


b) The ionic bond has charge separation and so they are the most reactive of all the
bonds in the proper medium.
c) The ionic bonded molecules have high melting and boiling point.
d) The ionic bonded molecules in their aqueous solutions or in the molten state are
good conductors of electricity. This is due to the presence of ions which act as charge
carriers.

Q16. Define noble gases.


Answer: Group 18 of the modern periodic table consists of noble gases. Helium, neon,
argon, krypton, xenon, and radon are noble gases. These gases are monatomic and
chemically inert under normal conditions and hence are also named as inert gases. These
gases are present in very small quantities in the atmosphere and so they are also called rare
gases.
Class 8 Science
Q17. Discuss chemical reactions in everyday life.
Answer: Following are the chemical reactions in everyday life.
a) Photosynthesis: The process of photosynthesis by which autotrophs manufacture
their food is another chemical reaction. In the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll,
plants manufacture glucose from carbon dioxide and water from the environment.
b) Rusting: The process of oxidation (reactions in the presence of oxygen) results in the
formation of a brown flaky layer over the metal surfaces such as iron. This layer is
formed due to the oxidation of the top most layer to form the metal oxide which we
know as rust. Similar layers are formed on other metals such as silver where a green
coloured layer is formed.
c) Cellular Respiration: The process of respiration in humans also involves a chemical
reaction. The glucose molecules undergo oxidation to produce carbon dioxide and
water along with energy.
d) Combustion: The process of combustion involves the oxidation of a material in the
presence of oxygen from the environment and heat to produce ash, smoke, and
other gases.

-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 14: Measurement and Effects of Heat
Question 1: A. Whom should I pair with?

Group A Group B

Temperature of a healthy human body 98.6°F

Boiling point of water 212°F

Room temperature 296 K

Freezing point of water 0°C

B. Who is telling the truth?


1. The temperature of a substance is measured in Joules.
Answer: This sentence is not correct as heat energy is measured in Joules.
2. Heat flows from an object at higher temperature to an object at lower temperature.
Answer: This sentence is correct as heat energy flows from an object at higher
temperature to an object at lower temperature.
3. Joule is the unit of heat.
Answer: This sentence is correct as Joule is the unit of heat.
4. Object’s contract on heating.
Answer: This sentence is not correct as objects expand not contract on heating.
5. Atoms of a solid are free.
Answer: This sentence is not correct as atoms of a solid are closely packed due to
force attraction among them.
6. The average kinetic energy of atoms in a hot object is less than the average kinetic
energy of atoms in a cold object.
Answer: This sentence is not correct as the average kinetic energy of atoms in a hot
object is greater than the average kinetic energy of atoms in a cold object.
C. You will find it if you search:
1. A thermometer is used to measure temperature.
2. The apparatus used to measure heat is called a calorimeter.
3. Temperature is the measure of the average kinetic energy of the atoms in a
substance.
4. The heat contained in a substance is the measure of the total kinetic energy of
atoms in the substance.
Class 8 Science
Question 2: Nishigandha kept a vessel containing all the ingredients for making tea in a solar
cooker. Shivani kept a similar vessel on a stove. Whose tea will be ready first and why?
Answer: Shivani’s tea will be ready and prepared first.
In Shivani’s case, the intensity of the flame that is in contact with the vessel is extremely
high due to which the flow of heat into the vessel containing water will be faster. Thus, the
time taken for the water to boil will be less. Hence, preparing tea in this case will be faster
and convenient.
In the case of Nishigandha, the intensity of radiation that reaches the vessel is not as high in
comparison to the stove’s flame. Thus, the flow of heat will be lower and slower in this case
and the time taken to reach the boiling temperature of the tea will be more. Hence, tea
prepared through this method would be at a slower rate.
Question 3: Write brief answers:
1. Describe a clinical thermometer. How does it differ from the thermometer used in a
laboratory?
Answer: Clinical thermometer: Clinical thermometers are mostly used at homes. A
clinical thermometer has a glass tube with a bulb at one end to measure
temperature and it is closed at the other end. This bulb and some portion of the
glass tube is filled with thermometric liquid such as mercury or alcohol. The rest of
the volume of the tube has vacuum in it. There is a kink towards the end of the glass
tube which keeps the thermometric liquid intact once it is removed from the hot
body that is under observation. Such thermometers are basically used to measure
the temperature of a human body. A clinical thermometer has a temperature range
of 35ºC to 42°C only.
Differences between Clinical thermometer and Laboratory thermometer

Clinical thermometer Laboratory thermometer

This thermometer is used at homes. It is This thermometer is particularly used


basically used to measure the body for measuring the temperature of all
temperature of humans. things, excluding the human body.

A clinical thermometer has a temperature A laboratory thermometer has a


range of only 35ºC to 42°C. temperature range of -10 ºC to 110 ºC.

There is a kink in a clinical thermometer. A laboratory thermometer does not


have a kink.
Class 8 Science
2. What is the difference between heat and temperature? What are their units?
Answer: Differences between heat and temperature

Heat Temperature

i. It is a form of energy which makes us feel It measures the degree of hotness or coldness of
hot or cold. a particular object.

ii. It is measured in Joules (J). It is measured in kelvin (K), Celsius (°C) and
Fahrenheit (°F).

3. Explain the construction of a calorimeter. Draw the necessary figure.


Answer: Calorimeter: It is a device that is used for measuring heat.
Construction of a Calorimeter

a) It contains a metallic vessel and stirrers that are made up of copper or aluminium.
b) The vessel is kept inside a wooden jacket that generates heat and contains heat-
insulating materials in it.
c) The outer wooden jacket acts as a heat shield and reduces the loss of heat from the
inner vessel.
d) The outer jacket has an opening through which a thermometer with mercury is
inserted inside the calorimeter.
Class 8 Science
4. Explain why rails have gaps at specific distances.
Answer: It is a known fact that all solids tend to expand on heating. As rail lines are
made up of steel, they tend to expand during summers and contract in winters.
However, these expansion and contraction can cause sagging and bending of railway
tracks which could derail the trains that run on them. Thus, the rails are provided with
gaps at specific distances so as to prevent this bending of rails and avoid derailing of
trains. These spaces get closer in summers and become wider in winters.
5. Explain with the help of formulae the expansion coefficients of liquid and gas.
Answer: The formulae for the expansion coefficients of liquid and gas is discussed
below:
• V2 = V1 (1+β∆T)
• or β = (V2-V1/V1) 1/∆T
From the above formula, we can say that –
a) A liquid does not have a definite shape but it has a definite volume. The volumetric
expansion coefficient for a liquid (β) is defined as the fractional change in the volume
of the liquid per °Celsius (or kelvin) change in temperature.
b) A gas does not even have a fixed volume. The expansion of a gas is measured by
keeping its pressure constant. This volumetric expansion coefficient is called the
constant pressure expansion. Here, ∆T is the change in temperature and V1 and V2
are the initial and final volumes of the gas at constant pressure. β is the constant
pressure expansion coefficient of the gas.
Question 4: Solve the following examples.
1. What must be the temperature in Fahrenheit so that it will be twice its value in
Celsius?
Answer: Let the temperature in Celsius be T.
• So, the temperature in Fahrenheit = 2T
• Now, F = 32 + 9 / 5 C
• ⇒ 2T = 32 + 9 / 5T
• T = 160°C
• ⇒Temperature in Fahrenheit = 2T = 320°F
Class 8 Science
2. A bridge is made from 20 m long iron rods. At temperature 18°C, the distance
between two rods is 0.4 cm. Up to what temperature will the bridge be in good
shape?
Answer: Length of the iron rod = 20 m = 2000 cm at 18°C
• Distance between the length of two rods = 0.4 cm
• Temperature coefficient of linear expansion of iron = 11.5 × 10−6 °C−1
• The bridge will be in proper and good shape until both the rods expand by 0.2 cm
due to increase in temperature. Let the temperature be T, both the rods expand
by 0.2 cm i.e. the total expansion of rods is 0.4 cm.
• Using formula for linear expansion of solids, we have
• ∆l / l = α1∆T
• ⇒0.4 / 2000 = 11.5 × 10−6 × (T−16)
• T = 18 + 0.4 /2000 × 11.5 × 10−6 = 35.4°C
3. At 15°C the height of Eiffel tower is 324 m. If it is made of iron, what will be the
increase in length in cm, at 30°C?
Answer: Height of Eiffel tower = 324 m = 32400 cm at 15°C
• Temperature coefficient of linear expansion of iron = 11.5 × 10−6 °C−1
• Change in temperature = 30°C − 15°C = 15°C
• Change in length = Δl
• Using formula for linear expansion of solids, we have
• ∆l / l = α1∆T
• ⇒Δl / 32400 = 11.5 × 10−6 × 15
• Δl = 32400 × 11.5 × 10−6 × 15 = 5.6 cm
4. Two substances A and B have specific heats c and 2 c, respectively. If A and B are
given Q and 4Q amounts of heat, respectively, the change in their temperatures is
the same. If the mass of A is m, what is the mass of B?
Answer: Let the mass of B be M.
• Let the change in temperature be T for both the bodies, A and B.
• The amount of heat in a body is described as
• Q = m × c × ΔT
• For body A,
• Q=m×c×T
• ⇒T = Q / mc …. (i)
Class 8 Science
• For body B,
• 4Q = M × 2c × T
• ⇒M = 4Q / 2c × T
• From (i), T= Q / mc
• ⇒ M = 4Q / 2c × Q / mc = 2m
5. When a substance having mass 3 kg receives 600 cal of heat, its temperature
increases by 10°C. What is the specific heat of the substance?
Answer: Let the specific heat capacity of the substance be c.
• We know, Mass of the substance, m = 3 kg = 3000 g
• Heat given to the substance, Q = 600 cal
• Increase in temperature of the substance = 10°C
• Now, the amount of heat in a body is given as
• Q = m × c × ΔT
• ⇒c = Q / m × ΔT = 600 / 3000 × 10 = 0.02 cal g−1 °C−1
• = 0.0033 cal /(gm°C)

Additional Questions
Question 1: Define the unit of heat and one calorie heat.
Answer: The unit of heat in the SI system is Joule while that in the CGS unit, it is denoted in
calories. One calorie is equivalent to 4.18 Joule. One calorie heat is the heat that is required
to increase the temperature of 1 gm of water through 1°C.
Question 2: Name the sources of heat.
Answer: Some of the rich sources of heat are listed below:
a) Sun
b) Earth
c) Chemical energy
d) Electrical energy
e) Atomic energy
f) Air
Class 8 Science
Question 3: Which is the biggest source of heat for earth?
Answer: The Sun is the biggest source of heat that is received by the earth. A large amount
of heat is produced and generated due to the nuclear fusion that takes place at the core of
the sun. Here, hydrogen nuclei fuse together to form helium nuclei, thereby generating heat
in the process. Some of the sun rays reach the earth in the form of light and heat.
Question 4: What is geothermal energy?
Answer: The earth is a rich source of heat as the temperature at its core is also extremely
high. This heat is also referred to as geothermal energy.
Question 5: How is heat derived from chemical energy?
Answer: When fossil fuels such as wood, coal, petrol etc. burn, a chemical reaction occurs
between the fossil fuel and oxygen and heat is generated in this reaction. This results in the
evolution of chemical energy.
Question 6: What are the electrical appliances from which heat is produced?
Answer: In your daily lives, there are several equipment’s which produce heat such as
electric press, electric heaters, etc. Therefore, electricity is a rich source of heat.
Question 7: Define atomic energy.
Answer: A huge amount of heat is produced or generated in a very short span of time when
the nuclei of some elements like uranium, thorium, etc undergo fission. This energy that is
generated from a nuclear reaction is referred to as atomic energy. This is extensively used in
atomic energy projects.
Question 8: Define temperature.
Answer: Temperature of an object indicates the hotness or coldness of that object. The
temperature of a cold object is said to be lower than the temperature of a hot object. Due
to this reason, the temperature of ice cream is lesser than the temperature of tea.
Question 9: What is the boiling point of water in temperature units of kelvin (K), Celsius (°C)
and Fahrenheit (°F)?
Answer: The boiling point of water in kelvin (K), Celsius (°C) and Fahrenheit (°F) is listed
below:
a) 212°F (Fahrenheit)
b) 100°C (Celsius)
c) 373.15 K (kelvin)

Question 10: What is the freezing point of water in temperature units of kelvin (K), Celsius
(°C) and Fahrenheit (°F)?
Answer: The freezing point of water in kelvin (K), Celsius (°C) and Fahrenheit (°F) is listed
below:
a) 32°F (Fahrenheit)
b) 0°C (Celsius)
c) 273 K (kelvin)
Class 8 Science
Question 11: What is the boiling and freezing point of mercury in Celsius (°C)?
Answer: The boiling point of mercury is 356.7°C and the freezing point is -38.8°C.
Question 12: What is the room temperature in units of kelvin (K), Celsius (°C) and
Fahrenheit (°F)?
Answer: The room temperature in units of kelvin (K), Celsius (°C) and Fahrenheit (°F) is listed
below:
a) 72°F (Fahrenheit)
b) 23°C (Celsius)
c) 296 K (kelvin)
Question 13: What are the different types of thermometers?
Answer: Different thermometers are used for different purposes such as:
a) Ordinary thermometer
b) Clinical thermometer
c) Digital thermometer
d) Maximum-minimum thermometer
Question 14: Define specific heat.
Answer: The specific heat of an object is the amount of heat that is required to increase the
temperature of unit mass of that particular substance through one degree. This is
represented by the symbol ‘c’. Its unit in SI is Joule /(kg°C) and in CGS is cal/(gm°C).
Question 15: What is the specific heat of the substances such as Aluminium, Iron, Copper,
Mercury, Water and Hydrogen?
Answer: The specific heat of the substances are listed as below:
a) Aluminium – 0.21 cal/(gm°C)
b) Iron – 0.11 cal/(gm°C)
c) Copper – 0.09 cal/(gm°C)
d) Mercury – 0.03 cal/(gm°C)
e) Water – 1.0 cal/(gm°C)
f) Hydrogen – 3.42 cal/(gm°C)
Question 16: What are the effects of heat on matter?
Answer: The effects of heat on matter are given below:
a) expansion and contraction
b) change of state
Class 8 Science
Question 17: What happens in expansion of heat?
Answer: When heat is given to any substance, the temperature of the object increases and
it expands. Its expansion depends on the increase in its temperature. Solids, liquids and
gases all expand on receiving heat.
Question 18: What is linear expansion of solids?
Answer: The linear expansion of a solid is the increase in length of a wire or a rod of a solid
due to increase in its temperature.
Question 19: Define λ (lambda).
Answer: λ (lambda) is the constant of proportionality and it is called the coefficient of linear
expansion of a solid substance.
Question 20: What is area expansion of solids?
Answer: The area of a sheet of a solid material increases upon heating just like linear
expansion. This is called the areal expansion of solids. σ is the coefficient of areal expansion
of a solid substance.
Question 21: What is volumetric expansion of solids?
Answer: When the three-dimensional piece of solid expands on all sides when heated and
its volume increases just like a sheet. This is called the volumetric expansion of a solid. β is
the volumetric expansion coefficient of a solid substance.
Question 22: How is the effect of heat on water different from other liquids?
Answer: The effect of heat on water is somewhat different from that of other liquids. This is
known as anomalous behaviour of water.
Question 23: What is the purpose of a digital thermometer?
Answer: Digital thermometers are used for clinical purposes to measure body temperature
between 35°C and 42°C. This thermometer does not use the expansion of liquid due to heat
like an ordinary thermometer. Instead, it has a sensor which measures the heat coming out
from the body directly and from that it measures the temperature of the body.
Question 24: What is the function of a maximum-minimum thermometer?
Answer: Maximum-minimum thermometers are special types of thermometers which are
used to measure the minimum and maximum temperatures in a day. These are mainly used
in the laboratory as they can measure large spanning temperatures of 40°C to 110°C or even
larger.
Question 25: What are potential and kinetic energies?
Answer: Potential energy is the energy in a particular body which is due to its position.
While kinetic energy is the energy in a body which is due to its motion.

-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 15: Sound
Q1. Fill in the blank with appropriate word:
1. The region in a sound wave with higher pressure and density is called compression
and that with low pressure and density is called a rare fraction.

2. Medium is required for generation of sound.

3. The total number of compressions and rarefactions produced per second in a sound
wave is 1000. The frequency of the sound wave is 500.

4. Different sound notes have different frequencies.

5. In a loudspeaker, electrical energy is converted into sound energy.


2. Give scientific reasons:
1. It is essential to change the tension on the vocal cords, as we produce different
sound notes from our larynx.

Answer: In the humans, sound is produced in the larynx. While swallowing food, we
can feel with our finger a hard bump that seems to move. This is nothing but larynx.
It is at the upper end of the windpipe. Two vocal cords are stretched across the voice
box or larynx in such a way that it leaves a narrow slit between them for the passage
of air. When the lungs force air through the slit, the vocal cords vibrate, producing
sound. Muscles attached to the vocal cords can make the cords tight or loose. When
the vocal cords are tight and thin, the type or quality of voice is different.

2. Astronauts on the moon cannot hear each other directly.

Answer: Two astronauts on the moon talking to each other directly, will be unable to
listen to each other, even if they are very close to each other. The moon does not
have an atmosphere. Since there is no medium, which is necessary for the
generation and propagation of sound, between the astronauts, direct sound
propagation between them is not possible. Therefore, the astronauts use some
technology like the one used in our cell-phones to communicate with each other.
The waves used in cell-phones do not need any medium for propagation.

3. As the sound wave propagates from one place to the other in the air, the air itself is
not required to move from one place to the other.

Answer: The sound wave doesn’t move from one place to another, but it creates a
disturbance in the medium particles. Suppose at first, the sound waves hit the
medium particle, then that median particle hits the nearby one and then the nearby
one the other. Like this the sound disturbance travels through the air with help of
medium particles by creating disturbances.
Class 8 Science
Q3. How are different sound notes generated in musical instruments like guitar,
which uses strings for sound generation, and flute, which uses blown air for sound
generation?
Answer: Sound waves of different frequencies produce different sound notes. In the field of
music, various musical instruments are used for the creation of sound notes. This includes
instruments like sitar, violin, guitar, which use strings for production of sound and
instruments like flute, shehnai, which use air blown into pipes for the production of sound.
In string-based instruments, the frequency of vibration of the string is changed by changing
the tension on the string and/or by changing the vibrating length of the string using fingers.
This results in generation of different notes.
In musical instruments like flute, the holes on the flute are opened or closed to change the
length of the vibrating air column in the flute. The frequency of the waves, therefore,
changes and it results in the production of different notes. In a flute, different notes can be
generated by changing the way of air-blowing also.
Q4. How is sound produced in a human larynx and a loudspeaker?
Answer: In the humans, sound is produced in the larynx. While swallowing food, we can feel
with our finger a hard bump that seems to move. This is nothing but larynx. It is at the upper
end of the windpipe. Two vocal cords are stretched across the voice box or larynx in such a
way that it leaves a narrow slit between them for the passage of air. When the lungs force
air through the slit, the vocal cords vibrate, producing sound. Muscles attached to the vocal
cords can make the cords tight or loose. When the vocal cords are tight and thin, the type or
quality of voice is different.
Sound can be produced using a loudspeaker. It consists of a permanent magnet. A coil is
wound around it and if a current flow through this coil, it also generates a magnetic field.
We know that if two magnets are brought near each other, they move depending on their
positions. In the same way, here, depending on the magnetic field created due to the coil,
the coil moves back and forth. The frequency and amplitude of the movement of the coil
depend on the variables in the current flowing through the coil. As the coil moves, the
conical screen of the loudspeaker, which is attached to the coil, also moves back and forth.
Due to back-and-forth motion of the loudspeaker screen, sound waves are produced in an
air. We can feel these vibrations of the loudspeaker screen, just by gently touching the
screen of a loudspeaker, which is producing sound.
Q5. Match the following:

Human larynx Vibrations in vocal cords

Loudspeaker Vibrations in air column

Jal-tarang Vibrations of screen

Tuning fork Vibrations of metal arms

Sitar Vibrations in strings


Class 8 Science
Q 6. Explain the experiment, with neat diagram, to prove the following:
‘Sound needs a material medium for propagation.’
Answer: Sound needs a material medium for their propagation like solid, liquid or gas to
travel because the molecules of solid, liquid and gases carry sound waves from one point to
another. Sound cannot progress through the vacuum because the vacuum has no molecules
which can vibrate and carry the sound waves.
Experiment: Now think how the sound produced by drums is heard by us? How is this
transferred to our ears? Let us understand this with the help of an experiment.

a) Take a bell jar. Bell jar is a laboratory equipment used for creating a vacuum. Its
shape is similar to that of a bell.
b) Place an electric bell in the bell jar.
c) Start pumping out the air of the sealed bell jar. As we start pumping out the air, the
sound of an electric bell coming out of the bell jar starts fading.
d) As soon as the vacuum is achieved in the bell jar, no more sound will be audible from
the bell jar. However, in the bell jar, hammer continues to hit the gong.

This still means that the sound is being produced, but now we cannot hear it. This is because
sound waves always need a medium to propagate. In the bell jar, it was, hence sound waves
cannot travel.
Class 8 Science
Q7. What is a sound and frequency of sound?
Answer: A sound is a vibration that propagates through a medium in the form of a
mechanical wave. The medium in which it propagates can either be a solid, a liquid or a gas.
Sound travels faster in solids, relatively slower in liquids and slowest in gases.
The frequency is measured in Hertz. The number of rarefactions and compressions that
occur per unit time is known as the frequency of a sound wave. The formula of the
frequency of a wave is given as: f = 1/T
Q8. Define sound waves.
Answer: A sound wave is the pattern of disturbance caused by the energy travelling away
from the source of the sound. Sound waves are longitudinal waves. This means that the
propagation of vibration of particles is parallel to the direction of the energy wave
propagation. When the atoms are set in vibration they move back and forth. This
continuous back and forth motion results in a high-pressure and a low-pressure region in
the medium. These high- pressure and low-pressure regions are termed as compressions
and rarefactions, respectively. These regions are transported to the surrounding medium
resulting in the sound waves to travel from one medium to another.
Q9. How is sound produced?
Answer: Sound is produced by the vibration of objects and is propagated through a medium
from one location to another. The to and fro or back and forth motion of an object is termed
as vibration. The motion of objects causes vibrations. In many cases, we can see the
vibrations with our naked eyes. While in some cases their amplitude is so small that we
cannot see them but can experience them.
Q10. Discuss how we can produce sound using a tuning fork.
Answer: A fork consists of two tines and a handle. When it is hit with a rubber hammer, the
two tines start vibrating. The back-and-forth motion of tines produces disturbances in the
surrounding air molecules. As the tines extend outward from their original position, they
compress surrounding air molecules which result in the creation of high-pressure region
close to the tine. When the tine moves inwards, it produces a low-pressure region near the
tine. By more vibrations of time, an alternating pattern of high and low-pressure regions is
created. These pressure difference regions help in the propagation of sound waves from
one location to another.
Q11. An electric bell is placed inside a transparent glass jar. The bell can be turned on and
off using a switch on the outside of the jar. A vacuum is created inside the jar by sucking
out the air. Then the bell is rung using the switch. What will we see and hear?
Answer: In this case, we can see the bell ringing, but we cannot hear it. This is because
sound needs a medium to travel and it cannot travel in a vacuum. As a result, we do not
hear the bell ringing.
Class 8 Science
Q12. How is sound produced in a human ear?
Answer: A sound produced by objects like drums or alarm clocks is carried away from the
object to the ears through the air which acts as the medium. The sound produced is in the
form of vibration. It first enters in the ears through the funnel-shaped outer part of the ear.
It moves down through a canal till the eardrum (thin membrane is stretched tightly).
Eardrum plays an important role in the functioning of the ears. The vibrations produced by
the objects reach till the eardrum through the air. These vibrations produced make the
eardrum vibrate. And then the vibrations are passed to the inner ear through middle ear
bones or ossicles. The shape of the inner ear is like a snail. The inner ear is also termed as
the cochlea. There are a numerous number of tiny hair cells present in the cochlea. These
hair cells convert the vibrations into electrical signals, which are then transferred to the
brain through the auditory nerve. This is how humans detect sound or noise.
Q13. Explain if sound can travel in space.
Answer: A medium is essential for the propagation of sound. Sound cannot travel through a
vacuum due to the fact that there are no molecules that can be compressed and expanded
in space. Our voice is produced by the vibration of strings known as the vocal cords, which
are inside Adam’s apple. When you make a sound, its vibration travels through the air and
when it reaches your brain through your ears, it is interpreted as sound. In this case
propagation of sound takes place through the air medium.
Q14. List physical factors that affect sound propagation.
Answer: Following are a few factors that affect the propagation of sound:
Atmospheric Turbulence: If the atmosphere in which the sound wave is travelling is
turbulent, sound waves would scatter due to velocity fluctuations of the medium.
Wind Gradient: Sound propagating along the wind would bend downwards while sound
propagating against the wind would bend upwards.
Temperature Gradient: Sound waves travel faster in a warm atmosphere near the surface of
the earth. Here, there is an upward refraction of sound waves. In case of a decrease in
temperature at higher altitudes, the refraction would be downwards.
Q15. Define speed of sound.
Answer: The speed of sound is defined as the dynamic propagation of sound waves. This
depends on the characteristics of the medium through which the propagation takes place.
Speed of sound is used for describing the speed of sound waves in an elastic medium.

-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 16: Reflection of Light
Q1. Fill in the blanks
1. The perpendicular to the mirror at the point of incidence is called normal line.
2. The reflection of light from a wooden surface is diffused reflection.
3. The working of Kaleidoscope is based on the properties of reflection of light.
Q2. Draw a figure describing the following.
The reflecting surfaces of two mirrors make an angle of 90o with each other. If a ray incident
of one mirror has an angle of incidence of 30o, draw the ray reflected from the second
mirror. What will be its angle of reflection?
Answer:

Here, ray AB in the incident ray on the first mirror which makes an angle of 30o.
Ray CD is the reflected ray from the second mirror.
So, its angle of reflection is 60o with the normal.
Q3. How will you explain the statement ‘we cannot see the objects in a dark room’?
Answer: When we switch off the light at night, the objects in the room cannot be seen and
they can be seen as before when the light is switched on again. Thus, we can see objects
when the light coming from these objects enters our eyes. The light entering our eyes may
be emitted by the object or may be reflected by that object.
Class 8 Science
Q4. Explain the difference between regular and irregular reflection of light.
Answer: The difference between regular and irregular reflection of light are:

Regular reflection of light Irregular reflection of light

It occurs on smooth surfaces such as a It occurs on rough surfaces such as a black


plane mirror. board.

The reflected rays are parallel to each The reflected rays are non-parallel to each other.
other.

The reflected rays are in one direction. The reflected rays are in different direction.

Q5. Draw a figure showing the following.


a. Incident Ray
b. Normal
c. Angle of incidence
d. Angle of reflection
e. Point of incidence
f. Reflected ray
Answer:
Class 8 Science
Q6. Study the following incident.
Swara and Yash were looking in a water-filled vessel. They could see their images clearly in
the still water. At that instant, Yash threw a stone in the water. Now their images were
blurred. Swara could not understand the reason for the blurring of the images.
Explain the reason for blurring of the images to Swara by answering the following question.
1. Is there a relation between the reflection of light and the blurring of the images?
Answer: Yes, there is a relation between the reflection of light and the blurring of
the images.
2. Which types of reflection of light can you notice from this?
Answer: We observe irregular type of reflection.
3. Are laws of reflection followed in these types of reflection?
Answer: Yes, laws of reflection are followed in these types of reflection.
Q7. Solve the following examples.
1. If the angle between the plane mirror and the incident ray is 40o, what are the angles
of incidence and reflection? (Ans. 50o)
Answer: Given, the angle made by the light ray with mirror is 40o.
• Therefore, angle between incident and normal ray is (90°- 40°) = 50°
• We know that,
• Angle of incidence = Angle of reflection = 50°
• So, light bends by 50 + 50 = 100°
2. If the angle between the mirror and reflected ray is 23o, what is the angle of
incidence of the incident ray? (Ans. 67o)
Answer b: Given, angle between the mirror and reflected ray is 23o
• Angle of reflection = Angle made by the reflected ray with the normal to the plane
mirror.
• So, 90o – 23o
• = 67o
Q8. Define Reflection of light?
Answer: When light rays fall on an object their direction changes and they turn back. This is
called the reflection of light. The rays falling on any surface are called incident rays. The
point at which an incident ray falls is called the point of incidence. The rays going away from
the surface after reflection are called reflected rays. The direction of the reflected rays is
decided by some rules which are called laws of reflection.
Class 8 Science
Q9. Write the laws of reflection?
Answer: There are three laws of reflection. These are as given below.

a) The angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence.


b) The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal lie in the same plane.
c) The incident ray and the reflected ray are on the opposite sides of the normal.
Q10. Define regular reflection of light.
Answer: The reflection of light from a plane and smooth surface is called regular reflection
of light. For regular reflection, the angles of incidence as well as of reflection are the same
for all parallel rays falling on the surface. Thus, the reflected rays are also parallel to one
another.
Q11. Define irregular reflection of light.
Answer: Reflection of light from a rough surface is called irregular reflection of light. In
irregular reflection, the angles of incidence for parallel rays of incidence are not equal and
therefore, their angles of reflection are also not equal. Thus, the reflected rays are not
parallel to one another and spread over a large surface.
Q12. What is periscope used for?
Answer: Periscope is used in submarines to see objects above the surface of water. It is also
used to observe and keep a watch on the objects or persons on the ground from an
underground bunker. Periscope uses the properties of reflection of light.
Q13. What is Reflection on a Plane Mirror?
Answer: When the light rays which get stroked on the flat mirror and get reflected back.
According to laws of reflection, the angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence. The
image is obtained behind the plane which is present in the mirror. This process of obtaining
a mirror image which is virtual and erect is known as a reflection on a plane mirror.
Q14. What type of image do we see in a mirror? What happens to the left and right sides?
Answer: A plane mirror reflects a duplicate image of an object or thing which appears
identical. The reflection formed by the mirror after reflection of an object from the mirror is
called mirror image of that object.
An equality in which the left and the right are reversed means we get the right-side image to
the left side and left side image to the right side.
Q15. Write the characteristics of Image formed by Plane Mirror.
Answer: Following are the characteristics of image formed by plane mirror:

a) The image obtained by the plane mirror is always erect and virtual.
b) The image size and the size of the object, both are equal.
c) The distance between the image obtained is same as the distance at which the
object is placed.
d) Laterally inverted images are obtained.
Class 8 Science
Q16. How do we see the image of the Moon in water?
Answer: As moon is not self-luminous, the Sun light falling on the surface of the Moon is
reflected. This reflected light is again reflected by water to give us the image of the Moon. In
this way light can be reflected several times.
Q17. A ray of light is incident towards a plane mirror at an angle of 30° with the mirror
surface. What will be the angle of reflection?
Answer: Since the angle of incidence is measured between the incident ray and the normal,
so, here the angle of incidence is not 60°
According to Law of Reflection,
θi = θr
Hence,
Angle of Reflection = 60°
Q18. What is a Kaleidoscope?
Answer: A kaleidoscope is an optical instrument consisting of two or more reflecting
surfaces. These surfaces are tilted towards each other at a certain angle to obtain
symmetrical patterns when viewed from the other end. The tube with reflecting surfaces
consists of coloured pieces of glass. By rotating the tube, symmetrical images are created.
Q19. What is a mirror and explain the terms related to it.
Answer: A mirror is defined as reflecting surface and can be explained by the law of
reflection, which states that when a ray of light is made to fall on the reflecting surface, the
reflected ray has its angle of reflection, incident ray and the reflected ray are normal to the
surface at a point of incidence.
The terms related to mirror are:

a) Incident ray: It is defined as a ray of light that hits the surface.


b) Reflected ray: It is defined as the ray of light that is reflected back after hitting the
surface.
c) Normal ray: It is defined as the ray that is 90° to the surface or the ray which is
perpendicular to the reflecting surface.
d) Refracted ray: It is defined as the incident ray which passes through a second
medium resulting in the change of direction.
e) Angle of incidence: It is defined as the angle between the incident ray the normal at
which the incidence occurs.
f) Angle of reflection: It is defined as the angle between the reflected ray with respect
to the normal at which the reflection occurs.
g) Angle of refraction: It is defined as the angle between the refracted ray and the
normal at which the refraction occurs.
Class 8 Science

Q20. Write the types of mirrors?


Answer: Following are the types of mirrors that are most widely used:
Plane mirror: The images formed from a plane mirror are the reflected images in their
normal proportions but reversed from left to right. These are the most widely used mirrors.
Convex mirror: These are the spherical mirrors that are curved outward and the image
obtained is virtual, diminished and erect for a real object.
Concave mirrors: These are the spherical mirrors that are curved inward and the image
obtained from these mirrors depend on the placement of the object.

-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 17: Man Made

Q1. Try to find it.


1. Plastic shows malleable property; hence it can be moulded to any shape.
2. Motor cars are coated with Teflon.
3. Thermocol melts at 240 ºC.
4. Water glass dissolves in water.

Q2. Who is my partner?


Answer:

‘A’ column ‘B’ column

Lead glass Electric bulb

Bakelite Plates

Thermocol Electric switch

Optic glass Lens

Polypropylene Mattresses

Q3. Answer the following.


1. Thermocol is produced from which material?
Mattress, glass vessel, bangle, chair, gunny bag, broom, knife, pen.

Answer: Thermocol is a form of a complex material called polystyrene. It transforms


into a liquid state on heating at more than 100 ºC temperature and returns to solid
state on cooling. Due to this, we can give any desired shape to it. Being a good
shock-absorber, it is used in packing of delicate items.

2. Write uses of PVC.


Answer: Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a plastic polymer made of monomer vinyl
chloride. PVC are used for manufacturing toys, combs, plates, bowls etc.

3. Which are the main ingredients of glass?


Answer: Glass is the non-crystalline, hard but brittle solid material formed from
mixture of silica and silicate. Silica i.e., SiO2 to which we refer to as sand. Depending
upon the proportion of silica and other components in the glass; there are different
types of glass as soda-lime glass, boro-silicate glass, silica glass, alkali silicate glass,
etc.
Class 8 Science
4. Write the natural or manmade raw material of the following items.

Items Natural raw material Manmade raw material

Plastic

Beaker Silica Glass

Bangles Glass

Chair PVC

Gunny Bags Jute

Broom Broomcorn

Knife Steel, Metal Plastic

Pen Metal Plastic

5. Which are the main ingredients of glass?


Answer: Glass is the non-crystalline, hard but brittle solid material formed from
mixture of silica and silicate. Silica i.e., SiO2 to which we refer to as sand. Depending
upon the proportion of silica and other components in the glass; there are different
types of glass as soda-lime glass, boro-silicate glass, silica glass, alkali silicate glass,
etc.
6. How is plastic produced?
Answer: A man made material showing the property of plasticity and made up of
organic polymers is plastic. Structure of all the plastics is not the same. Some are
linear while some are circular.
Q4. Distinguish between: Manmade material and natural material

Natural Material Manmade Material

Comes from nature Manmade material

Natural colour Color as per requirement is added in colour bath

During spinning process spinneret is not During spinning process spinneret is necessary
necessary for the production of filament

Chances of containing dust or impurities No chance of any dust or impurities

Less durable than synthetic More durable than natural


Class 8 Science
b. Thermoplastic and thermosetting plastic.

Thermoplastic Thermosetting Plastic

Thermoplastic can be synthesized by the process Thermosetting plastics are


called addition polymerization. synthesized by condensation
polymerization.

Thermoplastic is processed by injection moulding, Thermosetting Plastic is processed by


extrusion process, blow moulding, thermoforming compression moulding, reaction
process and rotational moulding. injection moulding.

Thermoplastics have secondary bonds between Thermosetting plastics have primary


molecular chains. bonds between molecular chains and
held together by strong cross-links.

Thermoplastics have low melting points and low Thermosetting plastics have high
tensile strength. melting points and tensile strength.

Thermoplastic is lower in molecular weight, compared Thermosetting Plastic is high in


to thermosetting plastic. molecular weight.

5. Answer the following in your own words.


a. Explain the effect and remedial plans of following materials on environment and human
health.
Answer: The effects of the following materials on environment and human health are:
A. Plastic – It is non-biodegradable and a manmade material which causes a lot of land
pollution. Due to its non-biodegradable 6678jjjcharacteristics, it remains in the soil
and water for a very long time, thus causing pollution. The smoke released after
burning of plastic is also harmful for human health.

B. Glass – While glass production, mixture needs to be heated up to 1500 ºC. During
this, greenhouse gases like sulphur dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, carbon dioxide are
released through burning of fuel. As the glass is non-degradable, if pieces of the
waste glass material flow into water body, it may affect that ecosystem. Similarly,
drainage may be blocked due to these pieces.

C. Thermocol – Being carcinogenic ingredients in styrene, the person in contact with


thermocol for long duration may have the possibility of blood cancer like leukemia
and lymphoma. It takes a long duration for natural degradation of thermocol; hence
many people opt for destroying it by burning. However, it is still more hazardous
method as it releases poisonous gases in atmosphere. In mass gatherings, plates and
cups used to offer the food, water, tea are made up of thermocol. It affects their
health. If the food kept in thermocol is reheated, styrene may dissolve in that food.
Due to this, there is possibility of health problems.
Class 8 Science
Q6. Write short notes.
1. Glass production.

Answer: For glass production, mixture of sand, soda, lime, and small quantity of
magnesium oxide is heated in furnace. Sand i.e. silicon dioxide melts at 1700 0C. So
as to melt the mixture at low temperature, pieces of discarded glass are added to it.
Due to this, mixture melts at 850 ºC. Once all the ingredients of mixture are liquified,
it is heated up to 1500 ºC and immediately cooled. Due to sudden cooling, mixture
becomes homogeneous, amorphous and transparent instead of crystalline. This is
called Soda-lime glass.

2. Optic glass

Answer: Optical glass is produced from the mixture of sand, soda, limestone, barium
oxide and boron. This type of pure glass is useful in production of spectacles, lenses,
microscopic lenses, etc.

3. Uses of plastic.

Answer: Following are the uses of plastics:

a) Plastic is used in healthcare sector e.g. syringes.


b) Vessels used to cook food in microwave oven are made up of plastic.
c) Vehicles are coated with Teflon to protect from scratches. Teflon is a type of plastic.
d) There are more than 2000 different types of plastics.
e) Some types of plastic are used in assembling some parts of aeroplane.
f) Polyacrylic is a type of plastic used for manufacturing lenses & artificial teeth.
Q7. Write the properties of glass?
Answer: The properties of glass are as follows

a) On heating, glass becomes soft and can be moulded into any shape.
b) Density of glass depends upon its ingredients.
c) Glass is slow conductor of heat. On quick heating of cool glass or on quick cooling of
hot
d) glass, it cracks / breaks.
e) Being bad conductor of electricity, glass is used as insulator in electric appliances.
f) Being transparent, most light passes through the glass. However, if there are oxides
of either chromium, vanadium or iron in the glass, large amount of light is absorbed
in glass.
Class 8 Science
Q8. Explain properties of plastics.
Answer: The properties of glass are:

a) Plastic does not corrode.


b) It does not decompose.
c) It is not easily affected by humidity, heat, rain, etc.
d) Items of any colour can be made from it.
e) It can be molded into any shape due to the property of plasticity.
f) It is a bad conductor of heat and electricity.
g) Being light in weight, it is easy to carry.

Q9. Define degradable and non-degradable material?


Answer: Some materials are naturally degraded; they are called degradable materials while
some materials are not naturally degraded, they are called non-degradable material.
Q10. How many types can plastics be classified into?
Answer: Depending upon the effect of heat, plastic can be classified into two types. The
plastic that can be molded as per our wish is called thermoplastic. Eg. Polythene, PVC are
used for manufacturing the toys, combs, plates, bowls etc. Another plastic is such that once
a specific shape is given with the help of mold, its shape cannot be changed on heating. It is
called thermosetting plastic. eg. Electric switches, coverings over the handles of cookers,
etc.
Q11. Explain the uses of thermoplastic and thermosetting plastic?
Answer: The uses of thermoplastic and thermosetting plastic:

Thermoplastic

Polyvinyl chloride Bottles, raincoat, pipes, handbags, shoes, electric cable insulation,
(PVC) furniture, ropes, toys, etc.

Polystyrene (PS) Thermo-insulating parts of electric appliances like refrigerators, gears of


machines, toys, protective coverings like covers of CD and DVD, etc.

Polyethylene (PE) Milk bags, packing bags, flexible garden pipes, etc.

Polypropylene (PP) Parts of loudspeakers & vehicles, ropes, mattresses, laboratory appliances,
etc.
Class 8 Science
Thermosetting plastic

Bakelite Cabinets of radio, T.V., telephones, electric switches, toys, coverings over handles
of cookers, etc.

Melamine Domestically useful items like cup – saucers, plates, trey, some spare parts of
airplane engines, electric and sound insulating coverings, etc.

Polyurethane Surfing boards, small boats, furniture, seats in vehicles, etc.

Polyester Fiberglass, toners of laser printers, textile industry, etc.

Q12. Explain the types of glass and uses.


Answer: The types and uses of glass are as follows:
a) Silica glass: This is produced by using the silica. Items made up of silica glass show
minimum expansion on heating. It is not affected by acid and alkali. Due to this, silica
glass is used to produce laboratory glass-wares.

b) Borosilicate glass: Borosilicate glass is produced by melting the mixture of sand,


soda, boric acid and aluminium oxide. This glass does not show any effect on
medicines. Hence, the bottles made up of borosilicate glass are used in
pharmaceutical industry to store the medicines.

c) Alkali silicate glass: Alkali silicate glass is produced by heating the mixture of sand
and soda. As this glass is soluble in water, it is called a ‘water glass’.

d) Lead glass is produced by melting the mixture of sand, soda, limestone and lead
oxide. Being very clear / transparent, it is used in manufacturing light bulbs, tubes,
etc.

e) Optical glass: Optical glass is produced from the mixture of sand, soda, limestone,
barium oxide and boron. This type of pure glass is useful in production of spectacles,
lenses, microscopic lenses, etc.

f) Coloured glass: Soda lime glass is colourless. So as to impart a desired colour, oxide
of specific metal is mixed during manufacturing process. e.g. Ferrous oxide is mixed
to get bluish green glass and copper oxide to get red glass.

g) Processed glass: So as to improve the quality and utility, some processing is


performed on glass and various types like reinforced glass, plain glass, fiberglass, fen
glass, translucent glass, etc. are produced.
Class 8 Science
Q13. Explain the harmful effects of plastic for the environment?
Answer: The harmful effects of plastic for the environment are as follows:

a) Littering of plastics in open spaces creates unhygienic conditions, as it acts as a


breeding ground for insects and mosquitoes that cause diseases like malaria and
dengue.
b) Plastics do not undergo degradation, thus, stay in the soil for many years, which
affects the soil fertility and degrades the soil quality.
c) When plastic artifacts enter the drainage and sewerage system, they block the pipes
and the drains causing waterlogging.
d) The improperly disposed food bags, when eaten by animals, cause stomach and
intestine related disease which even lead to suffocation and death.
e) Plastic items find their way to the river and other water bodies, which are then
swallowed by fish, seabirds, and other marine species, thus leading to suffocation
and death.
f) The waste from the plastic manufacturing industry is thrown directly into the water
bodies, thus affecting the chemical property of water, causing hazards on a very
large-scale.

Q14. How can we manage plastic waste management?


Answer: There are primarily three ways of managing plastics:
Reduce
This refers to the reduction or decreased consumptions of plastic artifacts.

a) We can reduce the use of plastic bags and carry jute bags and paper bags to carry
items from the market.
b) We can reduce the use of plastic containers for storing food and other items and use
more durable materials like metal.
c) We can avoid using takeaway food containers.
Reuse

a) We can use discarded bottles and jars to store food items and water.
b) We can reuse the plastic bags whenever possible, keeping safety and hygiene in
mind.
c) We can use broken artifacts and create something new with our own creativity, for
e.g. discarded water bottles can be used as containers, as shown in the figure below.
Recycle

a) We can give the old plastic chairs and jars for a recycle and support the cause by
using recycled items.
b) We can try using recyclable plastic bags, whenever possible.
Class 8 Science
Q15. Explain the advantages of plastic.
Answer: The following properties of plastic make it the material of choice for making many
articles:
a) Plastics are non-reactive: Most of the metals get corroded by air and water. But
plastics do not react with air or water. So, they cannot be corroded easily. Therefore,
it is used for making many utensils and storing various chemicals.

b) Plastics are light, strong and durable: The articles made up of plastics are very light.
Plastic being light, strong and durable can be moulded into many shapes and sizes as
required by the user. They are cheaper than metals and hence, widely used in
making various household products.

c) Plastic is a poor conductor: They are poor conductors of heat and electricity and
therefore plastics are used for coating electric wires and switches. The handles of
frying pans are also made up of plastic due to this property.
Q16. What is glass?
Answer: Glass is the non-crystalline, hard but brittle solid material formed from mixture of
silica and silicate. Silica i.e. SiO2 to which we refer to as sand. Depending upon the
proportion of silica and other components in the glass; there are different types of glass
such as soda-lime glass, boro-silicate glass, silica glass, alkali silicate glass, etc.
Q17. Write the effect on persons working in thermocol factories?
Answer: Persons staying in contact with thermocol for long term may develop the problems
of eyes, respiratory system, skin, digestive system, etc. Pregnant women may face
miscarriage. Liquid styrene may cause skin-burns.
Q18. Which material is wrapped around the items of glass or similar material during
transport to prevent from breaking up?
Answer: Bubble wrap is used around the items of glass or similar material during transport
to prevent from breaking up. Glass or other similar material are fragile in nature. Bubble
wrap has got air bubbles, which prevent the glass ware from shock that might lead to
breakage.
Q19. Which type of glass is used in vehicles to avoid injuries in accidents?
Answer: Glass used in making car is called safety glass. The glass used in the windshield is
laminated glass. These are all special types of glasses which are used for making cars so that
they don’t break easily, and when they break, they don’t cause much injury.
Q20. What is a plastic?
Answer: A man made material showing the property of plasticity and made up of organic
polymers is plastic. Structure of all the plastics is not the same. Some are linear while some
are circular.

-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 18: Ecosystems
Q1. Complete the following by using correct option.
1. Air, water, minerals, soil are physical factors of an ecosystem.
2. River, ponds, ocean are aquatic ecosystems.
3. Man is consumer in an ecosystem.
Q2. Match the following
Answer:

Producers Ecosystem

Cactus Desert

Aquatic plants Aquatic

Mangroves Forest

Pine Creek
Q3. Give my information
1. Ecosystem
Answer: The world around us is made up of living and non-living factors. Living are
called biotic factors while non-living are called abiotic factors. There is a continuous
interaction between these living and non-living factors. Living organisms and their
habitat, environment are correlated with each other. The structure which is formed
due to these reciprocal relationships is called an ecosystem. Biotic and abiotic factors
and their interactions form an ecosystem.
2. Biome
Answer: In some regions on earth, a large area has same climate and abiotic factors.
The living organisms in those areas are also similar. So, a specific ecosystem develops
in a vast area. Such large ecosystems are called ‘Biomes’. These biomes contain
many small ecosystems. Earth itself is a vast ecosytem. Two types of biomes are
found on the earth. i. Land biomes ii. Aquatic biomes.
3. Food web
Answer: There are unique interactions and relationships, which are involved in the
transportation of energy. The energy, once produced and captured, is distributed
throughout the various living organisms. This transfer of energy is termed as the
food web.
Class 8 Science
Q4. Give scientific reasons
1. Plants in an ecosystem are called consumers.
Answer: Plants are called primary consumers in an ecosystem. Typically, they are
considered as producers because they don’t depend on other organisms for their
food. Plants manufacture their own food by the process of photosynthesis. The
photosynthesis is a process through which carbon dioxide and water are converted
into oxygen and glucose in plants in the presence of sunlight.
2. Large dams destroy ecosystems.
Answer: Large dams destroy ecosystem because of the following reasons:

a) Dams can cause rare flooding and this flooding of large areas of land means that the
natural environment is destroyed.
b) Relocation is another big concern. People living in villages and towns that are in the
valley that could be flooded, must move out. Hence, they lose their farms and
businesses.
c) The building of large dams can cause serious geological damage, for instance, the
building of the Hoover Dam in the USA triggered a number of earthquakes and has
depressed the earth’s surface at its location. This is an alarming matter.
d) It causes harm to the aquatic organisms living underwater and thus, they destroy the
river ecosystem.
3. Rhinos were restored in Dudhwa forest.
Answer: About 150 years ago, Dudhwa forest was the habitat for single-horned
Rhino. But in 20th century this animal became extinct due to unrelenting hunting. On
1st April 1984 this rhino were restored there and were bred in captivity and then
released in their habitat. For this, 27 square km grassland and forest where water
sources were available were selected and two observatories were established. So,
finally, these efforts became successful and Rhinos were restored in Dudhwa forest.
Q5. Answer the following.
1. What are the effects of increased population on ecosystems?
Answer: Humans are the consumers in an ecosystem. Ecosystems can provide basic
needs in normal conditions, but due to increased population, man kept on snatching
natural resources on a large scale. Changing lifestyle demands ‘more’ than
‘necessary’. That has increased stress on the ecosystems and has generated vast
amount of wastes.
2. How is urbanization responsible for destruction of ecosystems?
Answer: Due to continuous process of urbanization, more and more agricultural
lands, marshlands, wetlands, forests and grasslands are being destroyed for
buildings and other basic facilities around. As a result of this human interference,
ecosystems either change or get completely destroyed.
Class 8 Science
3. What are the reasons for war?
Answer: Differences and competition over land, water, mineral resources or some
economic and political reasons lead to war among human races. Heavy bombing and
mine explosions are done in wars. These are not only life-threatening but also
change or destroy natural ecosystem.
4. Explain the interactions among the factors of an ecosystem.
Answer: Ecosystems are made up of living things (biotic factors) and non-living
things (abiotic factors) that interact with each other. Organisms such as bacteria,
worms, birds, plants and snakes are examples of biotic factors. Examples of abiotic
factors include water, temperature, pH, salinity and light intensity.
5. Differentiate between evergreen forests and grasslands.
Answer: Grasslands – Grasslands develop where rainfall is not enough to grow big
trees. Vast growth of grass is found in these ecosystems. Longer summer and limited
rain develop dwarf plants in these areas. Animals like goat, sheep, giraffe, zebra,
elephant, deer, chital, tiger, lion, etc. are found in this ecosystem. Similarly, various
birds, insects, microbes are also present.
Evergreen forests – It’s a natural ecosystem where variety of plants, animals and
abiotic factors are found.
Q6. Explain the structure of an ecosystem.
Answer: Living organisms need different types of abiotic factors and they have different
capacities to adapt with those abiotic factors. Some microbes need oxygen, while others
don’t. Some plants need more sunlight, while others grow well in shade. Each and every
abiotic factor (air, water, soil, sunlight, temperature, humidity) affects the biotic factors in
the ecosystem. The abiotic factors in an ecosystem decide which biotic factors will survive in
it and what will be their number. The proportion of abiotic factors in an ecosystem is always
changing as biotic factors use or excrete abiotic factors. Every biotic factor affects abiotic
factors as well as other biotic factors around it. Every living organism in an ecosystem plays
a particular role while living, moving in that ecosystem.
Q7. What are the components of an ecosystem?
Answer: The components of an ecosystem are:
Biotic components are the living things that have a direct or indirect influence on other
organisms in an environment. For example, plants, animals, and microorganisms and their
waste materials.
Abiotic components of an ecosystem include all chemical and physical elements i.e. non-
living components. Abiotic components can vary from region to region, from one ecosystem
to another. They mainly take up the role of life supporter. They determine and restrict the
population growth, number, and diversity of biotic factors in an ecosystem. Hence, they are
called limiting factors.
Class 8 Science
Q8. Define land biomes and aquatic biomes.
Answer: Land biomes – The biomes which exist only on land are called land biomes. Due to
unequal distribution of abiotic factors different types of ecosystems exist. Eg. Grasslands,
evergreen forests, deserts, iceland ecosystem, ecosystems in Taiga, tropical rainforests, etc.
Aquatic biomes – 71 % of the earth surface is covered by water and only 29 % has land on it.
Therefore, study of aquatic biomes becomes very important. According to the area, aquatic
biomes are widespread. Types of aquatic ecosystems are – Freshwater ecosystem, marine
ecosystem, creek ecosystem.
Q9. Explain diminishment of ecosystem due to human interference?
Answer: Many human activities have side effects on functions of ecosystems and cause
their diminishment. Eg. mining and excessive cutting of trees changes the use of land, so
interactions between biotic and abiotic factors are also affected. Different human activities
have different effects on ecosystems. There can be transformation of an ecosystem from
one to another or extinction of a species.
Q10. Write the functions of an ecosystem?
Answer: The functions of the ecosystem are as follows:
a) It regulates the essential ecological processes, supports life systems and renders
stability.
b) It is also responsible for the cycling of nutrients between biotic and abiotic
components.
c) It maintains a balance among the various trophic levels in the ecosystem.
d) It cycles the minerals through the biosphere.
e) The abiotic components help in the synthesis of organic components that involves
the exchange of energy.
Q11. How do producers obtain abiotic factors?
Answer: The producers obtain abiotic factors through biotic factors. Producers are those
organisms that can prepare their own food such as plants who prepare their own food
through photosynthesis. Producers are biotic factors and they are directly dependent on the
abiotic factors such as wind, water, temperature, sunlight. For example, plants obtain
abiotic factors such as sunlight, water and carbon dioxide and in return liberates oxygen and
food.
Q12. From where do the consumers get their food?
Answer: Consumers get their food supply from producers. Producers are plants with the
green pigment chlorophyll, and producers can make their own food using sunlight, air and
water.
Class 8 Science
Q13. Discuss the importance of ecosystem.
Answer: The importance of ecosystem are:

a) It provides habitat to wild plants and animals.


b) It supports different food chains and food webs.
c) It regulates essential ecological processes and supports lives.
d) Involved in the recycling of nutrients between biotic and abiotic components.
e) Maintains the proper flow of energy in an ecosystem including – Water Cycle,
Carbon Cycle, Oxygen Cycle, Nitrogen Cycle, Energy Cycle.
Q14. Define freshwater ecosystem and marine ecosystem.
Answer: Freshwater ecosystem – Ponds, lakes and rivers are included in aquatic
ecosystems. The transition of energy in these ecosystems is through water currents and
rivers. Decomposers are at the bottom of water reservoirs. They decompose dead bodies of
plants and animals into abiotic factors.
Marine ecosystem – Marine plants grow in these ecosystems. Shallow water contains small
fishes, prawns feeding on algae. The central part of sea has less number of aquatic living
organisms. Large fishes are secondary consumers. Ocean has a large amount of nutrients.
The bottom of oceans has more decomposers. Dead bodies of plants and animals, waste
materials are decomposed by bacteria.
Q15. What makes a good ecosystem?
Answer: A good ecosystem consists of native plants and animal species interacting with
each other and the environment. A healthy ecosystem has an energy source and the
decomposers that break down dead plants and animal matter, returning essential nutrients
to the soil.
Q16. Which is the largest ecosystem in the world?
Answer: The largest ecosystem in the world is the aquatic ecosystem. It comprises the
freshwater and marine ecosystem. It constitutes 70% of the surface of the earth.
Q17. Which biotic factors get affected due to a dam?
Answer: Soil contains important nutrients, minerals, silt and loam etc. Hence, when the
quality and quantity of soil and water gets affected by the dams due to storing of water,
controlling flow, digging reservoirs etc, then these abiotic factors are impacted, and the
environment also gets impacted.
Q18. Why are microbes said to be Decomposers?
Answer: The organic substances (carbohydrates, proteins and lipids) from dead bodies of
plants and animals are converted into inorganic substances (hydrogen, oxygen, calcium,
iron, sodium, potassium etc.) by microorganisms. Therefore, microbes are said to be
‘Decomposers’.
Class 8 Science
Q19. Explain the human activities responsible for diminishment of ecosystems.
Answer: The human activities responsible for diminishment of ecosystems are as follows:
a) Increasing use of resources due to increased population – Humans are the
consumers in an ecosystem. Ecosystems can provide basic needs in normal
conditions, but due to increased population, man kept on snatching natural
resources on large scale. Changing lifestyle demands ‘more’ than ‘necessary’. That
has increased stress on the ecosystems and has generated vast amount of wastes.
b) Urbanization: Due to continuous process of urbanization. More and more
agricultural lands, marshlands, wetlands, forests and grasslands are being destroyed
for buildings and other basic facilities around. As a result of this human interference,
ecosystems either change or get completely destroyed.
c) Industrialization and traffic: Raw materials required for industrialization are
obtained by destroying forests. This result in destruction of forests. To provide the
amenities for increased traffic, many times roads and railways are built through
forests and wetlands.
d) Tourism: People visit scenic places mainly for nature watch, entertainment and visit
to sacred places. A lot of amenities are created for these tourists. This causes
destruction of local ecosystems due to increased stress.
e) Large Dams: Dams cover vast lands. So the forests or grassland in that area get
converted into aquatic ecosystems. Dams also lessen the water current in the lower
area. Therefore, the previous ecosystems in that running water get destroyed.
Q20. Define food chain.
Answer: A food chain is a chain which shows how organisms are linked to each other
through food. A food web shows how two food chains are connected. A single food web
consists of many food chains. Every food chain begins with producers and ends with top
carnivores.

-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 19: Life Cycle of Stars
Q1. Search and you will find.
1. Our galaxy is called Milky Way galaxy.
2. For measuring large distances kilometre is used as a unit.
3. The speed of light is 3,00,000 km/s.
4. There are about billions of stars in our galaxy.
5. The end stage of the Sun will be a red giant.
6. Stars are born out of interstellar clouds.
7. Milky way is a spiral galaxy.
8. Stars are spheres of hydrogen and helium gas
9. The masses of other stars are measured relative to the mass of the sun
10. Light takes time to reach us from the Sun while it takes minutes to reach us
11. from the moon.
12. The larger the mass of a star the faster is its evolution.
13. The number of fuels used in the life of a star depends on its life cycle.

Q2. Who is telling lies?


1. Light year is used to measure time.
Answer: The statement is a lie as light year is used to measure distance.

2. End stage of a star depends on its initial mass.


Answer: The statement is true as end stage of a star depends on its initial mass.

3. A star ends its life as a neutron star when the pressure of its electrons balances its
gravity.
Answer: It’s a lie because a star ends its life as a neutron star when the pressure of
its neutron’s balances gravity.

4. Only light can emit from the blank hole.


Answer: The statement is a lie because nothing can be emitted from black hole.

5. The Sun will pass through the supergiant stage during its evolution.
Answer: The statement is true as the sun will pass through the supergiant stage
during its evolution.

6. The Sun will end its life as a white dwarf.


Answer: It is true as the Sun will end its life as a white dwarf.
Class 8 Science
Q3. Answer the following question.
1. How do stars form?

Answer: Huge clouds of gas and dust are present in the empty spaces between stars
in a galaxy. These are called interstellar clouds. Due to some disturbance, these
clouds start contracting. Because of the contraction, their density starts increasing
and their temperature also starts to increase and a dense sphere of hot gas is
formed from the cloud. Once the temperature and density at the centre of the
sphere increase sufficiently, nuclear energy (energy generated through fusion of
atomic nuclei) generation starts there. Owing to this energy generation, the gas
sphere becomes self-luminous and a star is formed or we can say that a star is born.

2. Why do stars evolve?

Answer: Evolution of a star means change in its properties with time resulting in its
passing through different stages. Stars evolve very slowly for most of their lifetime.
As stars are continuously emitting energy, their energy is constantly decreasing. For
their stability to remain intact i.e. for maintaining a balance between the gas
pressure and the gravitational force, it is necessary that the temperature remains
constant. For the temperature to remain constant, energy must be generated inside
the star. This generation of energy occurs because of burning of fuel at the centre of
the star. The reason for the evolution of stars is the burning of and therefore, the
decrease in the amount of fuel in their centre. When the fuel in the centre finishes,
the energy generation stops. As a result, the temperature of the star starts
decreasing. Due to the decrease in temperature, the gas pressure decreases and the
balance between gas pressure and gravitational force cannot be maintained. As the
gravitational force is now higher than the gas pressure, the star starts contracting.
This causes another fuel to start burning e.g. when hydrogen at the centre is
finished, helium starts undergoing fusion and energy generation starts again. How
many fuels will be used depends on the mass of the star.

Higher the mass of the star higher is the number of fuels used. During this a lot of
changes occur in the star. As a number of processes occur inside the star, it
sometimes contracts and expands at other times and the star goes through different
stages. When all possible fuels are exhausted, the energy generation finally stops
and the temperature of the star starts decreasing. The balance between
gravitational force and gas pressure cannot be maintained.

3. Why was the name black hole given?


Answer: Stars having mass larger than 25 times the mass of the Sun (Mstar > 25 MSun)
evolve like the stars in the second group but after the supernova explosion, no
pressure is capable of balancing their huge gravitational force and they continue
contracting forever. As their size becomes smaller, their density and their
gravitational force increase tremendously. All nearby objects get attracted towards
these stars and nothing can come out of them, not even light. Also, any light falling
on these stars does not get reflected and gets absorbed inside the star. Thus, we
cannot see the star at all but can probably see a minute black hole at its place. This
end stage of the star is therefore called a black hole.
Class 8 Science
4. What are the three end stages of stars?

Answer: There are three ways of evolution of stars depending on their initial mass.
a) End stages of stars having initial mass less than 8 times the mass of the Sun (Mstar < 8
MSun): Stars in this group undergo huge expansion and their radius increases by a
factor of 100 to 200. In this stage they are called red giant stars. This name is given
because of the large size and because of the fact that the stars look reddish due to
their lower temperature. At the end of its evolution, these stars explode and their
outer gas envelope is thrown out. The inner part contracts and its size becomes
similar to the size of the earth. As the mass of the star is much higher than that of
the earth and the size is similar to that of the earth, the density in the star becomes
very high. In this state, the pressure due to the electrons in the star becomes
independent of temperature and is able to balance the gravitational force forever. In
this state, the star looks white and due to its small size it is called a white dwarf.
After this its temperature keeps decreasing but its size and mass remain unchanged
for ever and so white dwarf is the end stage of stars in this mass range.
b) End stages of stars having mass between 8 and 25 time the mass of the Sun (8 MSun <
MStar < 25 MSun) : These stars also go through the red giant stage and later through
the supergiant stage during which their size may increase 1000 times. The huge
explosion, called the supernova explosion, which occurs at last is very powerful and
so much energy is given off that we can see the star during the day also. The central
portion which is left behind after the explosion, contracts and its size becomes as
small as about 10 km. In this state, the stars are completely made up of neutrons and
are called neutron stars. The pressure of these neutrons is independent of
temperature and is capable of balancing the gravitational force forever. Neutron star
is the end stage of these stars.
c) End stages of stars having mass larger than 25 times the mass of the Sun (Mstar > 25
MSun): These stars evolve like the stars in the second group but after the supernova
explosion, no pressure is capable of balancing their huge gravitational force and they
continue contracting forever. As their size becomes smaller, their density and their
gravitational force increase tremendously. All nearby objects get attracted towards
these stars and nothing can come out of them, not even light. Also, any light falling
on these stars does not get reflected and gets absorbed inside the star. Thus, we
cannot see the star at all but can probably see a minute black hole at its place. This
end stage of the star is therefore called a black hole. Thus, we have seen that,
depending on mass, there are three paths of evolution and three end stages of stars.

5. Which types of stars end their life as a neutron star?


Answer: Stars having mass between 8 and 25 times the mass of the Sun (8 MSun <
MStar < 25 MSun) go through the red giant stage and later through the supergiant
stage during which their size may increase 1000 times. The huge explosion, called
the supernova explosion, which occurs at last is very powerful and so much energy is
given off that we can see the star during the day also. The central portion which is
left behind after the explosion, contracts and its size becomes as small as about 10
km. In this state, the stars are completely made up of neutrons and are called
neutron stars. The pressure of these neutrons is independent of temperature and is
capable of balancing the gravitational force forever. Neutron star is the end stage of
these stars.
Class 8 Science
Q4. A. Describe white dwarfs.
Answer: Stars having initial mass less than 8 times the mass of the Sun (Mstar < 8 MSun)
undergo huge expansion and their radius increases by a factor of 100 to 200. In this stage
they are called red giant stars. This name is given because of the large size and because of
the fact that the stars look reddish due to their lower temperature. The size of a red giant
star in comparison to other types of stars. At the end of its evolution, these stars explode
and their outer gas envelope is thrown out. The inner part contracts and its size becomes
similar to the size of the earth. As the mass of the star is much higher than that of the earth
and the size is similar to that of the earth, the density in the star becomes very high. In this
state, the pressure due to the electrons in the star becomes independent of temperature
and is able to balance the gravitational force forever. In this state, the star looks white and
due to its small size, it is called a white dwarf.
Q5. What is a galaxy?
Answer: A galaxy is a collection of billions of stars, their planetary systems and interstellar
clouds which are present in the empty spaces between stars. The universe is made up of
innumerable such galaxies. Galaxies differ in structure and shape. We can divide them into
three types: spiral, elliptical and irregular galaxies.
Q6. What are the different constituents of our solar system?
Answer: The Solar System is our solar neighborhood which is held together by the Sun’s
gravity. Our solar system consists of planets, moon or satellite, dwarf planets, comets,
asteroids, meteoroids, stars, centaurs, transneptunian objects, etc.
Q7. What are the major differences between a star and a planet?
Answer: The major differences between a star and a planet are as follows:

Stars Planets

Stars are incredibly hot having high Planets on the other hand have relatively
temperatures to them. low temperatures.

They are objects that produce their own Planets are incapable of producing their
light and do not rely on an external source own light.
for the production of light

Stars have a unique effect of twinkling in Planets do not exhibit the twinkling effect
the sky. unlike stars

The stars do not change their position at Planets in orbits on their own axis change
all. their positions constantly.

Stars have incredibly high temperatures to Planets on the other hand are relatively
them. colder with lower temperatures.
Class 8 Science
Q8. What is a satellite?
Answer: An object orbiting around the sun, earth or any other colossal body is known as a
satellite. There are two major types of categorization when it comes down to satellites, one
is natural and the other is man-made.
Q9. Which is the star nearest to us?
Answer: Stars are celestial objects that can produce their own light. They are extremely hot
and extremely large in size. They are mostly made up of hydrogen gas with a little helium in
them. The sun is also a star which is nearest to us.
Q10. Define light year.
Answer: The distance travelled by light in one year is called a light year. It is a measure of
distance for celestial objects.
Speed of light \(= 3 \times 108 m/s\)
1 light year \(= 9.46 \times 1012 km\)
The sun is 8 light minutes away from earth. The distance of Alpha Centauri is 4.3 light years
away.
Q11. Define the Sun and the Planet.
Answer: The sun is the nearest star to earth. It is continuously emitting heat and light. It is
the main source of heat and light energy for all planets in our solar system.
Planets are celestial bodies that do not emit heat or light of their own. They revolve around
a star in fixed paths called orbits and the time it takes to go around the sun once is known as
its period of revolution. A planet also spins on its own axis which is called a rotation.
Q12. What is stability of stars?
Answer: The gravitational force between the gas particles of the star keeps these particles
together. If the gravitational force which is constantly trying to bring the gas particles close
together and the pressure of the hot gas which is constantly trying to disperse the gas are
balanced, then the star remains stable. The gravitational force is acting inwards, towards the
centre of the star while the gas pressure is acting outwards, i.e. away from the centre of the
star.
Q13. Define stars.
Answer: Stars are celestial bodies that emit their own light and heat. Our sun is an example
of a star. Although stars are always present in the sky but are only visible at night due to the
absence of sunlight. They appear as points as they are millions of kilometres away from us.
Stars twinkle as their light gets refracted in our atmosphere. The position of stars keeps
changing as seen from the earth’s surface, apart from the Polestar whose position is fixed.
Class 8 Science
Q14. What is solar system and how many planets are there in our solar system?
Answer: The sun and all other planets and celestial bodies that revolve around it are
together called a solar system. Our solar system has 8 planets and an asteroid belt. Pluto is
considered as a dwarf planet. All planets in the solar system revolve around the sun in fixed
orbits. Planets nearer to the sun revolve faster as compared to the planets away from the
sun.
Q15. Explain properties of stars.
Answer: The mass of the Sun is about 3.3 lakh times that of the earth and its radius is 100
times that of the earth. The age of the Sun and other stars, which is the time elapsed after
their formation, can be between a few million years to a few billion years. If the properties
of the Sun had changed in its lifetime, it would have caused changes in the properties of the
earth and in the life on the earth. Detailed studies of the properties of the earth have led
scientists to conclude that the properties of the Sun have remained unchanged over its
lifetime i.e. the past 4.5 billion years. According to the studies made by astronomers, these
properties will slowly change in further after 4.5 billion years. So, stars contain the above-
mentioned properties.

-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----

You might also like