Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Question 1: Use Whittaker method to classify bacteria, protozoa, fungi, algae, prokaryotic
and eukaryotic microbes.
Answer: According to Robert Harding Whittaker, given below are the characteristic features
of bacteria, protozoa, fungi, algae, prokaryotic and eukaryotic microbes:
a) Kingdom Monera
• As all the organisms are unicellular, there is absence of multicellular body designs.
• They may have either an autotrophic or heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
• These are prokaryotic cells without well-defined nucleus or cell organelles.
• All types of blue green algae and bacteria are included in this kingdom.
b) Kingdom Protista
Answer:
A B
Fungi Chlorella
Protozoa Bacteriophage
Virus Candida
Algae Amoeba
Bacteria Prokaryotic
Class 8 Science
Answer:
A B
Fungi Candida
Protozoa Amoeba
Virus Bacteriophage
Algae Chlorella
Bacteria Prokaryotic
Question 4: State whether the following statements are true or false. Explain your
statement.
a) Lactobacilli are harmful bacteria- False
Lactobacilli are not harmful bacteria. They are mostly found in the gastrointestinal
tracts of humans and animals. They are an important component of dairy products
such as milk, yogurt, ghee, etc.
b) Cell wall of fungi is made up of chitin. – True
c) Organ of locomotion in amoeba is pseudopodia. – True
d) Tomato wilt is viral disease. - True
Question 5: Give answers:
1. State the merits of Whittaker’s method of classification.
Answer: Whitakker’s method of classification has the following merits:
c. Bacteriophage
Question 8: Arrange the following in ascending order of size Bacteria, Fungi, Viruses, Algae.
Answer: Viruses → Bacteria → Fungi→ Algae
-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 2 Health and Diseases
Question 1: Distinguish between – Infectious and non-infectious diseases.
They are also known as communicable They are known as non-communicable diseases.
diseases.
a) supplies important nutrients to our body that is required for body growth.
b) helps us to maintain fitness and stay free from diseases.
c) strengthens the human immune system.
d) helps to maintain and function our systems properly.
e) helps to maintain a healthy and balanced body weight
f) reduces or helps in cutting down body fat.
g) provides energy to the entire body.
h) promotes sound sleep and boosts our overall health.
2. Physical exercise / Yoga asanas.
Answer: Importance of exercise and yoga asanas are:
They are also known as communicable diseases. Some examples include diarrhoea,
tuberculosis, cholera, etc.
Question 6: What is the mode of infection, symptoms, prevention and treatment of
tuberculosis?
Answer: Tuberculosis is caused by the pathogen named Mycobacterium tuberculae.
a) Mode of infection: Spitting by patient in the open, through air, prolonged contact
with and sharing of materials of the patient.
b) Symptoms: Chronic cough, bloody spitting, emaciation, difficulty in breathing.
c) Prevention and treatment: Regular medication like DOT, BCG vaccine, isolation of
the patient, etc.
Class 8 Science
Question 7: Explain the mode of infection, symptoms, prevention and treatment of
Hepatitis (Jaundice).
Answer: Hepatitis (Jaundice) is caused by the pathogen called Hepatitis virus- A, B, C, D, E.
a) Mode of infection: Consumption of contaminated water, sharing of syringes and
needles, blood transfusion.
b) Symptoms: Anorexia, yellow urine, swelling of liver, abdominal pain, general
weakness, nausea, vomiting, grey stool, etc.
c) Prevention and treatment: Drinking boiled water and maintaining proper hygiene by
cleaning of hands regularly.
Question 8: How is Malaria caused?
Answer: Malaria is mainly caused and spread in human beings when a female Anopheles
mosquito bites which usually breed in stagnant water.
Question 9: Explain the mode of infection, symptoms, prevention and treatment of Cholera.
Answer: Cholera is caused by the pathogen called Vibrio cholerae (bacterium).
a) Mode of infection: Consumption of contaminated food and water.
b) Symptoms: Vomiting, severe diarrhoea, cramps in legs etc.
c) Prevention and treatment: Maintaining proper hygiene, avoiding open place food,
drinking boiled water, vaccination against cholera.
Question 10: How is elephantiasis caused?
Answer: Elephantiasis is caused by the bite of a female Culex mosquito which breeds in dirty
and sewage water.
Question 11: What is the mode of infection, symptoms, prevention and treatment of
Typhoid?
Answer: Typhoid is caused by the pathogen called Salmonella typhi (bacterium).
a) Mode of infection: Consumption of contaminated food and water.
b) Symptoms: Anorexia, headache, rash on abdomen, dysentery, fever up to 104°F.
c) Prevention and treatment: Drinking clean water, vaccination, proper disposal of
sewage.
Question 12: Explain the causes of Dengue.
Answer: Dengue is caused by DEN-1 – 4 virus belonging to the type- flavivirus. It happens
when mosquitoes lay the eggs in water-logged places and gradually their population
multiplies. Dengue is spread by Aedes aegypti.
Class 8 Science
Question 13: What are the symptoms of Dengue?
Answer: Given below are the symptoms of Dengue:
a) Acute fever and headache, nausea and vomiting.
b) Pain in the eye socket is a key symptom of Dengue.
c) There is a sudden decrease in platelet count which may lead to internal
haemorrhage.
Question 14: What are the reasons for Swine Flu infection?
Answer: Some of the reasons for Swine Flu infection are listed below:
a) It transmits from pigs to human beings.
b) The Swine Flu viral infection is spread through secretions of nose, throat and saliva.
Question 15: When was the first case of Swine Flu reported?
Answer: In 2009, the first case of Swine Flu was reported in Mexico. This disease is caused
by the viral influenza A (H1N1). People who come in contact with pigs are likely to contract
this disease.
Question 16: What are the major symptoms of Swine Flu?
Answer: Some of the major symptoms of Swine Flu include:
a) Difficulty in breathing.
b) Sore throat, acute body ache with body temperature.
Question 17: What is the mode of infection, symptoms, prevention and treatment of
Dysentery?
Answer: Dysentery is caused by the pathogen called Bacteria, virus, Shigella, bacilli,
Entamoeba histolytica.
a) Mode of infection: Consumption of contaminated food and water.
b) Symptoms: Watery stool, abdominal pain, etc.
c) Prevention and treatment: Drinking of boiled water, proper storage of food, ORS
consumption, etc.
Question 18: How is the diagnosis of Swine Flu done?
Answer: For the diagnosis of Swine Flu, a liquid from the throat or sputum of the patient is
taken and sent for examination in a pathological laboratory.
Class 8 Science
Question 19: Describe AIDS.
Answer: AIDS stands for Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. This disease is caused by a
deadly virus known as HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus). In this disease, the patient
suffers from various types of diseases due to weakening of his/her natural immunity of the
body. AIDS cannot be diagnosed or confirmed without proper tests in medical laboratories.
ELISA test is basically used for its proper diagnosis. Although the symptoms of AIDS may
differ from person to person.
Question 20: When was HIV first reported?
Answer: The fatal disease HIV was first reported in an African species of monkeys. According
to the National AIDS Control Program and UNAIDS, about 80 – 85% HIV infections occur in
India due to unsafe sexual contact between persons.
Question 21: What are the key points to remember if we come in contact with HIV patients?
Answer: Given below are the key points to remember if we come in contact with HIV
patients:
a) AIDS does not spread through touching or coming in direct contact with HIV infected
patients or sharing the food with them, or even by nursing such patients.
b) Everyone should maintain a normal behaviour with HIV infected patients and not
discard them for their incurable ailment.
Question 22: How is Rabies caused? What are its symptoms?
Answer: Rabies is a fatal viral disease that occurs when an infected dog, monkey or cat bite
a human being. The virus enters the human brain through the nerves.
Some of the symptoms of rabies include:
a) Fever for 2 – 12 weeks
b) Exaggerations in behaviour
c) Hydrophobia
When the victim becomes hydrophobic, he/she exhibits extreme fear for water. The fatality
of this disease can be prevented by vaccination on time just before the onset of symptoms.
Symptoms usually start appearing within 90 – 175 days of the animal bite.
Question 23: Define non-infectious diseases. Give examples.
Answer: There are some diseases which do not occur through infections and direct body
contacts are known as non-infectious diseases. Such diseases may arise in the human body
itself due to metabolic or genetic reasons. Some examples include:
a) Cancer
b) Diabetes
c) Hypertension
d) Heart Diseases
Class 8 Science
Question 24: Explain about Cancer. How is it caused?
Answer: Cancer: Cancer is the abnormal or uncontrolled growth of deadly cells in the
human body. A group or lump of cancerous cells are known as a malignant tumour. It can
occur in any part of the body such as throat, lungs, mouth, breast, tongue, stomach, uterus,
skin and blood tissues, etc.
Some of the possible reasons of cancer are listed below:
a) Consumption of tobacco such as pan masala or gutkha.
b) Heavy smoking.
c) Drinking alcohol.
d) Lack of fibre content such as fresh fruits and leafy vegetables in the diet.
e) Excessive consumption of junk food such as pizza, cola, burger, etc.
f) Genetic reasons in rare circumstances.
Question 25: What are the symptoms of Cancer?
Answer: Some of the summon symptoms of Cancer are:
a) Chronic cough, harsh tonal quality or pitch, difficulty in swallowing food.
b) Scar and inflammation of certain body parts which do not heal quickly.
c) Breast lumps or soreness in breast area.
d) Sudden and unexplained weight loss.
Question 26: How does vaccination help in prevention of diseases?
Answer: Vaccines help in preventing diseases which are either dangerous or even deadly.
Taking timely vaccinations greatly reduces the risk of any possible infection as it works with
the body’s natural defences to safely develop an immunity towards a deadly disease.
Question 27: Describe Diabetes. What are the symptoms and reasons for this disease?
Answer: Diabetes is a disorder in which the glucose level of the body cannot be controlled
due to low secretion of insulin by the pancreas. The hormone insulin is produced in the
pancreas as it controls the level of sugar glucose in blood.
Symptoms: Some of the symptoms of this disease include:
a) Unexplained weight loss
b) Increased obesity
c) Frequent urination at night
d) Feeling thirsty often
e) Weakness due to giddiness
Class 8 Science
Reasons for diabetes: Some of the possible reasons for diabetes are:
a) Obesity
b) Genetic reasons
c) Lack of physical activity
d) Mental stress
Question 28: Explain Heart diseases.
Answer: Human heart does not function efficiently when there is decreased oxygen and
blood supply and supply of nutrients to the heart muscles. Many a time, heart diseases are
caused due to excessive mental stress and in extreme circumstances might cause a heart
attack. If a person suffers a cardiac arrest, then he/she should be rushed to the doctor
immediately and given the necessary treatment.
Question 29: What are the symptoms and reasons for heart attack?
Answer: Symptoms of heart attack: Some of the symptoms of heart attack are listed below:
a) Severe chest pain
b) Acute pain in shoulder blades, neck and arms
c) Cramps and needle-like sensation on the palm of both hands
d) Uneasiness
e) Difficulty in breathing
f) Tremors or shivers across the body
g) Weakness and dizziness
h) Sweating
Reasons for heart attack: Heart attack is caused due to the following reasons:
a) Smoking
b) Alcohol addition
c) Diabetes
d) Obesity
e) Hypertension
f) Lack of physical activity
g) Mental stress
h) Anger
i) Anxiety
j) Heredity
Class 8 Science
Question 30: How can heart diseases be cured?
Answer: Heart diseases can be managed to an extent by following the below listed medical
procedures:
a) Angioplasty
b) By-Pass surgery
c) Open heart surgery
d) Heart transplant
e) Installation of stents
f) Installation of pacemaker
Question 31: Define generic medicines.
Answer: Generic medicines are commonly known as general medicine which are
manufactured and distributed without any patent. Such medicines are said to be at par in
quality with quality or branded medicines. Usually, the production cost of such medicines is
comparatively low due to less expenses incurred on research and development as their
formula is readily available to manufacture the necessary medicines.
-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 3 Force and Pressure
Question 1: Write the word in the blank space.
a) The SI unit of force is Newton.
b) The air pressure on our body is equal to atmospheric pressure.
c) For a given object, the buoyant force in liquids of different density is different.
d) The SI unit of pressure is N/m2.
Question 2: Make a match:
Answer:
A group B group
350 175 –
– 190 4
103 5
8.5×103 103 –
– 0.04 20,000
1500 500 –
Class 8 Science
Answer: We know, Density = Mass / Volume
By using the above formula, we can find the quantity of one substance if the other two
quantities are furnished:
350 175 2
760 190 4
5×103 103 5
1500 500 3
Question 6: The density of a metal is 10.8×103 kg/m3. Find the relative density of the metal.
Answer:
Given: Density of metal = 10.8×103 kg/m3
We have density of water = 1000 kg/m3
Relative density of substance =Density of substance / Density of water
Relative density of substance = 10.8×103 / 1000 = 10.8
Question 7: Volume of an object is 20 cm3 and the mass is 50 g. Density of water is 1 gcm-3.
Will the object float on water or sink in water?
Class 8 Science
Answer:
Given: Volume of object = 20 cm3
Mass of object = 50 g
Density of object = Mass of object / Volume of object = 50 / 20 = 2.5 g /cm3
Now, we know density of water = 1 g/cm3
Since, density of object > density of water, therefore, the object will sink in water.
Question 8: The volume of a plastic covered sealed box is 350 cm3 and the box has a mass
500 g. Will the box float on water or sink in water? What will be the mass of water displaced
by the box?
Answer: Given: Volume of box = 350 cm3
Mass of box = 500 g
Density of object = Mass of object / Volume of object = 500 / 350 = 1.43 g/cm3
We know, density of water = 1 g/cm3
Since, density of box > density of water, therefore, the object will sink in water.
Now, volume of liquid displaced = Volume of the object = 350 cm3
⇒Mass of liquid displaced / Density of liquid displaced = 350 cm3
⇒Mass of liquid= 350×1 = 350 g
Additional Questions
Question 1: Define a force.
Answer: A force is an interaction, which when unopposed, changes the motion of an object.
It can cause an object with mass to change or accelerate its velocity. Force can also be
defined intuitively as a push or a pull. It is expressed in magnitude and direction as a vector
quantity.
Question 2: What is Newton’s first law of motion?
Answer: When no force is applied to a stationary object, it remains still or stationary. A
moving object in motion continues to move with the same intensity, speed and direction
when no force is acting on that particular object. This is Newton’s first law of motion.
Question 3: What is Contact force?
Answer: When a force is seen to act through a direct contact of the objects or through any
other object. Such a force is called ‘Contact force’.
Question 4: Define Non-contact force.
Answer: When a force is applied between two objects even if the two objects are not in
contact with each other, such a force is known as ‘non-contact force’.
Class 8 Science
Question 5: Give examples of Contact force.
Answer: A fine example of contact force is muscular force, when it is applied to objects with
the help of our muscles. It is applied in some cases such as lifting, pushing, pulling. For
example, when a man applies force from behind to a car so that it moves in the forward
direction.
Question 6: Give examples of non-contact force.
Answer: When force is applied to an object through some magnetic force, gravitational
force, electrostatic force act without any direct contact between the objects. These are the
examples of non-contact forces. For example, when a comb is brushed against hair, then
small pieces of paper kept on a table get attracted to the comb. This is because the comb
has an electrostatic charge and there is an induced opposite charge on the pieces of paper
and the pieces stick to the comb.
Question 7: What is friction?
Answer: Friction is the force, which resists the relative motion of solid surfaces or material
elements which slide against each other. There are various types of friction. Dry friction is
that force by which it opposes the relative lateral motion of two solid surfaces which are in
contact with each other.
Question 8: What happens in the absence of frictional force?
Answer: Frictional force is very useful in our daily lives. In the absence of frictional force, the
object would remain in motion. It would continue to move and would not be in a stationary
position.
Question 9: What happens due to reduced frictional force? Explain with examples.
Answer: When we walk on the road, we exert pressure on the ground with our feet. In the
absence of friction, we will slip and will fall down immediately. For instance, when we slip
over banana peel on the street or slip due to mud on the road. These examples occur due to
reduced frictional force.
Question 10: Define electrostatic force.
Answer: Electrostatic force is the force that exists between electrically charged particles or
some objects at rest. It is a non-contact force.
Question 11: What are balanced forces?
Answer: When two forces that are of equal size but are acting in opposite directions, these
are called balanced forces. For example, when two pans with equal masses are connected to
a box kept on a table, they have equal gravitational force as they are in a balanced state
with effective force equal to zero as both are acting in opposite directions.
Question 12: What is unbalanced force?
Answer: Forces that cause a change in the motion of a particular object are called
unbalanced forces. When unequal forces are applied to the box on a table on both the two
sides, an unbalanced force acts on the box which results in imparting motion to the box.
Class 8 Science
Question 13: Give a good example of unbalanced force.
Answer: When children play tug of war at school, they pull the rope in their respective
directions. If the pull of the force is equal on the two sides, the rope does not move. If the
force is more on one side, the rope moves towards that direction. This means that initially,
the two forces are balanced; the rope moves in the direction of higher force when the
forces become unbalanced.
Question 14: What happens when force is applied to a stationary object?
Answer: When a force is applied on a stationary object it gradually starts to move and its
speed and direction also changes.
Question 15: Define inertia.
Answer: The tendency of an object to remain in its existing state is called its inertia. Due to
this reason, a stationary object remains in the similar state and an object in motion remains
in the state of motion in the absence of an external force.
Question 16: Define Pressure.
Answer: Pressure is the force exerted on a unit area perpendicularly.
Pressure = Force / Area on which the force in applied.
Question 17: What are the types of inertia?
Answer: There are three types of inertia which are discussed below:
a) Inertia of the state of rest: An object in the stationary state which is at rest cannot
change its state of rest due to its innate property. This property is known as the
inertia of the state of rest.
b) Inertia of motion: The innate property of an object due to which its state of motion
cannot change, is known as its inertia of motion. For example, an electric fan
continues to revolve even after it is switched off, when passengers are sitting in a
running bus get a sudden jerk in the forward direction if the bus tends to stop
suddenly.
c) Directional inertia: The innate property of an object due to which the object cannot
change the direction of its motion, is called directional inertia. For instance, if a
vehicle in motion which is travelling along a straight line suddenly turns, then the
passengers sitting in it are thrown in the opposite direction of the turning.
Question 18: What is the unit of pressure?
Answer: The SI unit of force is Newton (N). The area is measured in m2. Hence, the SI unit of
pressure is N/m2. It is also known as Pascal (Pa).
Pressure is a scalar quantity. In atmospheric science, the unit for pressure is bar i.e. 1 bar =
105 Pa.
Question 19: What happens to the pressure of a force when area increases?
Answer: When area increases, pressure reduces for the same force and vice versa.
Class 8 Science
Question 20: Why doesn’t a camel’s feet penetrate into the sand while walking on it?
Answer: As the bottom surfaces of a camel’s feet are broad and are adapted to the sand in
the desert. Therefore, the camel’s weight is exerted on a large area on the sand and the
pressure is reduced on the sand. Due to this reason, the camel’s feet do not penetrate into
the sand and it becomes easy for it to walk on the sand.
Question 21: What is pressure on solids?
Answer: There is air pressure in all objects, which are kept in air. Likewise, when some
weight is kept on a solid, pressure is exerted on it. This pressure is totally dependent on the
value of the weight and the contact area between the two.
Question 22: Where do fluids in a container exert pressure from?
Answer: Fluids in a container usually exert pressure from inside it especially on the walls
and the bottom of the particular container. When a fluid is enclosed in a container, it exerts
pressure in all directions equally at a point within the fluid.
Question 23: What is atmospheric pressure?
Answer: We are surrounded by air from all directions. This layer of air is known as
atmosphere. It exists to about 16 km in height and further stretches up to about 400 km in a
dilute form. The pressure created due to the air is known as atmospheric pressure.
Question 24: What happens to atmospheric pressure at sea level?
Answer: The air pressure at the sea level is called 1 Atmosphere pressure. The air pressure
tends to decrease as we go up in height from the sea level.
1 Atmosphere = 101 x 103 Pa = 1 bar = 103 mbar
1 mbar ≈ 102 Pa (hecto pascal)
Question 25: What is buoyant force?
Answer: The buoyant force is the upward force exerted on an object that is fully or partially
immersed in a fluid. This upward force is also called Upthrust. Due to this reason, the
buoyant force of a body submerged partially or fully in a fluid appears to lose its weight i.e.
appears to be lighter.
Question 26: What are the two factors of buoyancy?
Answer: Buoyant force is dependent on two factors:
a) Volume of the object – The buoyant force is usually more if the volume of the object
which is dipped is more.
b) Density of liquid – With the increase in the density of the liquid, the force of
buoyancy also increases.
Class 8 Science
Question 27: Who was Archimedes?
Answer: Archimedes was a Greek scientist and sharp mathematician who found out the
value of π by numerical calculations. His knowledge of various pulleys, levers, wheels in
Physics proved useful to the Greek army and helped them to fight the Roman army. He was
particularly famous for his geometry and mechanics works.
There is a famous incident, while taking a bath in a bathtub, he discovered the Archimedes
principle by observing the water overflowing out of the tub. He came out of the tub in the
same state shouting ‘Eureka’, ‘Eureka’, which meant ‘I found it’, ‘I found it.’
Question 28: Write about Archimedes principle.
Answer: Archimedes principle states that “When an object is partially or fully immersed in a
fluid, a force of buoyancy acts on it in the upward direction. This force is equal to the weight
of the fluid displaced by the object”.
Question 29: Identify some uses of Archimedes principle.
Answer: The Archimedes principle has been used in the construction of ships and
submarines. Instruments such as the hygrometer, lactometer are based on this principle.
Question 30: What is Density of a substance? Explain with a formula.
Answer: Density of a substance is usually defined as the mass per unit volume of the
substance.
The SI unit of density is kg/m3.
Density = Mass / Volume
Question 31: What is Relative density?
Answer: The relative density of a substance is expressed with reference to the density of
water.
Relative density = Density of substance / Density of water
This particularly implies the ratio of two equal physical quantities that has no unit. Relative
density of a substance is known as its ‘specific gravity.’
Question 32: Give an example of gas pressure.
Answer: When a balloon is inflated on all sides by filling it with air from mouth and a pin
hole is created in the balloon, then the air leaks out of it and it does not inflate fully. This
implies that gas exerts pressure on the wall of the respective container in which it is
enclosed from all sides.
-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 4 Current Electricity and Magnetism
Question 1: Write proper words from the following group of words in the blanks.
1. Water in the waterfall flows from a higher level to the lower level because
of potential differences.
2. In an electric circuit, electrons flow from a point of higher potential to the point
of lower potential.
3. The differences between the electrostatic potential of the positive end and the
negative end of an electric cell is the potential difference of the cell.
4. Three electric cells of potential difference 1.5 V each have been connected as a
battery. The potential differences of the battery will be 1.5 + 1.5 + 1.5 = 4.5V.
5. An electric current flowing in a wire creates a magnetic field around the wire.
Question 2: A battery is to be formed by joining 3 dry cells with connecting wires. Show how
you will connect the wires by drawing a diagram.
Answer: Given below is the diagram used to show the connection by joining 3 dry cells with
connecting wires:
or
Question 3: In an electric circuit, a battery and a bulb have been connected and the battery
consists of two or three cells of equal potential difference. If the bulb is not glowing, then
which tests will you perform in order to find out the reason for the bulb not glowing?
Answer: We need to perform the following test to detect the reason why the bulb is not
glowing:
a) First, we need to check how the battery terminals are connected to each other. It
should be ensured that the positive terminal of a battery is connected to the
negative terminal of another battery. If all the batteries are linked or connected in
this fashion and even then, the bulb is not glowing, then we need to check an
alternate option.
Class 8 Science
b) Secondly, we need to check if there are any broken wires in the circuit. By ensuring
that the wires that are used for linking or connecting the different electrical
components are not broken in between it helps in detecting that the circuit is closed.
Further, this also helps to ensure that the wires are not broken somewhere in
between because of which the bulb is not glowing. If this doesn’t work, we need to
move to the next test.
c) Finally, we need to check how the connecting wires are plugged into the bulb. This
will ensure that the bulb is properly connected to the batteries as shown in the
diagram below. Even then, if the bulb does not glow, then we need to replace the
batteries of the bulb with a new set.
Question 4: Electric cells having 2V potential difference each have been connected in the
form of a battery. What will be the total potential difference of the battery in both cases?
(i)
(ii)
d) Working of a dry cell: The chemical reactions take place between the zinc container,
electrolyte and graphite rod. Due to this reason, electric charge is produced or
generated on the two terminals – positive and negative of the cell and electric
current gradually flows into the circuit.
e) Usefulness of a dry cell: A dry cell is usually portable and easy to use. The longevity
of a dry cell is more than those cells which use liquid electrolyte. Dry cells can also be
used in T.V., torch, toys or Air Conditioner remote controls, etc.
Question 6: Describe the construction and working of an electric bell with the help of a
diagram.
Answer: Construction of an electric bell: The components of electric bell are given below –
Additional Questions:
Question 1: What are the constituents of an atom?
Answer: An atom has the same number of positively charged protons and negatively
charged electrons in it.
Question 2: Describe current electricity.
Answer: An enormous current flow when lightning strikes from a cloud to the ground, while
we feel the sensation due to the microscopically small current flowing to the brain. We are
all aware of the current flowing through electric bulbs, wires and electrical equipment in the
house. In the electric cells of a car battery or a radio, a current is produced by the flow of
both positively and negatively charged particles.
Question 3: Define electrons.
Answer: Moving charges transfer from one object to another as these are negatively
charged. Such moving negatively charged particles are called electrons.
Question 4: What is electrostatic potential?
Answer: We are also aware that water or a liquid flow from a higher level to a lower level
due to the gravitational force on earth. Likewise, heat always flows from a body at higher
temperature to a body at lower temperature. In similar fashion, there is a tendency of the
positive charge to flow from a point of higher electric level to a point of lower electric level.
This electric level deciding the direction of flow of electric charges is known as electrostatic
potential.
Question 5: What is a potential difference?
Answer: Electric potential difference or electric tension is the difference in electric potential
between two points, i.e. the temperature difference of hot and cold bodies or that similar to
the height of a waterfall, etc.
Question 6: How is the electric current measured?
Answer: Electric current is produced due to the flow of both positively and negatively
charged particles. When it flows through a wire in one second, it can be called unit current.
The SI unit of electric current is Coulomb per second or Ampere. Electric current is a scalar
quantity. 1 Ampere = 1A = 1 Coulomb/1 second = 1 C/s.
Class 8 Science
Question 7: Define an electric cell. Give examples.
Answer: A general device that is required to produce a uniform flow of charges in an electric
circuit. Such a general device is referred to as an electric cell. These are used in ships, wrist
watches, submarines, etc.
Question 8: What is the main function of electric cells?
Answer: The main function of different electric cells is to maintain a constant potential
difference between its two terminals. The electric cells usually work on the electric charges
to maintain a constant potential difference between the terminals.
Question 9: What is a dry cell? Give examples.
Answer: A dry cell is a type of electric battery or unit which is mostly used in portable
electrical devices. Dry cells are used in our TV or AC remote controls, radio sets, wall clocks
and torches, etc.
Question 10: What is an electrolyte?
Answer: An electrolyte is filled between the two layers of Zinc (Zn) metal and graphite rod
of a dry cell. It contains both negatively charged and positively charged ions in it. These are
the carriers of electricity.
Question 11: What are lead-acid cells used for?
Answer: Lead-acid cells are mostly used in vehicles such as lorries, cars, motorbikes and
generators such as Uninterrupted Power Supplies (UPS).
Question 12: What is an electric circuit?
Answer: When an electric bulb, a cell holder and a plug key are connected through
connecting wires and a dry cell is fitted into the holder, then the bulb lights up by closing the
plug key. This implies that the bulb lights up due to the flow of the current through the
circuit. When we remove the cell, the electric current flowing through the circuit suddenly
stops and the light in the bulb ceases to glow. This type of connection of electrical
components is known as an electric circuit.
Question 13: What are connecting cells?
Answer: When two or more cells are connected to an electric circuit in a series, this obtains more
potential difference than that of a single cell. This connection of cells is known as a battery of cells.
Connecting cells in a series increases the voltage of the circuit but doesn’t make the cells last longer.
Question 14: Where are Lithium-ion cells used?
Answer: Lithium-ion cells are mostly used in modern equipment such as smartphones, laptops, etc.
These cells are the ones which can be recharged. Additional electrical energy can also be stored in
these cells in comparison to those of NiCad cells.
Question 15: What is the magnetic effect of electric current?
Answer: The magnetic effect of electric current is referred to as electromagnetic effect. It is
observed that when a magnetic bar is brought near the magnetic needle, the needle gets deflected
and changes its direction because of the flow of electricity. This shows that electric current flows in a
wire and a magnetic effect is produced.
Class 8 Science
Chapter 5 Inside the Atom
Question 1: Answer the following:
1. What is the difference in the atomic models of Thomson and Rutherford?
Answer: Differences between Thomson and Rutherford Theory are listed below:
This theory states that the negatively This theory states that an atom consists of a
charged electron are entrenched in a positively charged nucleus around which the
positively charged solid material which has a electrons revolve in an orbit
spherical shape
It does not divulge any details about the It mentions about the atomic nucleus
atomic nucleus
In this theory, it states that electrons are It states that electrons revolve around a solid
distributed in an atom in a uniform manner material at the centre i.e. atomic nucleus
This theory indicates that an atom is This theory indicates that an atom has a solid
spherical in shape core at the centre defined as the nucleus
which is surrounded by the electrons
Nowhere in this theory does it mention the This theory clearly mentions that nucleus is a
constituents of nucleus composition of neutrons and protons
Neutron Neutral
Answer:
1. Neutron number = Mass number – Number of protons
= 23 – 11 = 12
2. Mass number = 14
3. Proton number = Atomic number = 17
Additional Questions
Question 1: What is meant by matter?
Answer: Matter is everything that is around us, such as atoms and compounds are all
composed of the smallest parts of matter. Matter is made of molecules which in turn, are
formed from atoms.
Class 8 Science
Question 2: Describe matter as stated by the great Indian philosopher Acharya Kanad.
Answer: The great Indian sage and philosopher, Acharya Kanad (6th century B.C.) stated
that there is a limit to divide matter into small particles. He named the indivisible particles
that constitute matter as ‘paramanu’ which means the smallest particles. He also stated that
‘paramanu’ is indestructible by nature.
Question 3: Who coined the term ‘Atom’?
Answer: The Greek philosopher Democritus who lived in the 5th century B.C. stated that
matter is made of very small particles which cannot be divided. Democritus described the
smallest particle of matter and named it as ‘Atom’ or ‘Atomos’ which means the one which
cannot be cut or divided.
Question 4: Describe Dalton’s Atomic Theory.
Answer: In 1803 A.D. John Dalton, the British scientist proposed ‘Atomic Theory’. According
to this theory, matter is composed of atoms which are indivisible and indestructible. All
atoms of an element are alike while different elements have different atoms with different
mass.
Question 5: Describe Thomson’s plum pudding model of atom.
Answer: In 1904, J.J. Thomson demonstrated the first model of atomic structure through
the plum pudding model of atom. According to this model, the positive charge is distributed
throughout the atom while the negatively charged electrons are embedded in it. There is a
balance between the distributed positive charge by the negative charge on the electrons.
Due to this reason, the atom becomes electrically neutral.
Question 6: Describe Rutherford’s Nuclear atomic model.
Answer: Given below are the postulates of Rutherford’s Nuclear atomic model:
a) There is a positively charged nucleus at the centre of an atom.
b) The entire mass of the atom is almost concentrated in the nucleus.
c) The negatively charged particles are called electrons that revolve around the
nucleus.
d) The total negative charge on all the electrons is equal to the positive charge on the
nucleus. As the opposite charges are balanced the atom is electrically neutral.
e) There is an empty space between the revolving electron and the atomic nucleus.
Question 7: What is the shortcoming of Rutherford’s Nuclear atomic model?
Answer: One of the major shortcomings of Rutherford’s Nuclear atomic model is that it
turns out to be unstable. However, in reality, all atoms except the radioactive atoms are
stable.
Class 8 Science
Question 8: Describe Bohr’s stable orbit atomic model.
Answer: In 1913 Niels Bohr, a Danish scientist explained the stability of an atom by
demonstrating the stable orbit atomic model. The important postulates of Bohr’s atomic
model are listed as below:
a) The electrons that revolve around the atomic nucleus lie in the concentric circular
orbit at a certain distance from the nucleus.
b) The energy of an electron is constant while it is in a particular circular orbit.
c) When an electron jumps from an inner orbit to an outer orbit it absorbs energy
equal to the difference of its energy level. Also, when it jumps from an outer orbit to
an inner orbit it emits energy equal to the difference of its energy level.
Question 9: Describe nucleus.
Answer: The nucleus of an atom is positively charged. The entire mass of the atom is almost
concentrated in the nucleus. The nucleus contains two types of subatomic particles together
which are called nucleons. The two types of nucleons are protons and neutrons.
Question 10: Define Proton.
Answer: Proton is a positively charged subatomic particle in the atomic nucleus. The
positive charge on the nucleus is due to the proton in it. A proton is represented by the
symbol ‘p’. Each proton carries a positive charge of +1e. (1e = 1.6 × 10-19 coulomb).
Question 11: What is Neutron?
Answer: Neutron is an electrically neutral subatomic particle of an atom that is denoted by
the symbol ‘n’. The number of neutrons in an atomic nucleus is denoted by the symbol ‘N’.
Atomic nuclei of all the elements except hydrogen with atomic mass 1u, contain neutrons.
The mass of a neutron is approximately 1u, which is almost equal to that of a proton.
Question 12: What comprises the extranuclear part?
Answer: The extranuclear part in an atomic structure basically includes the electrons that
revolve around the nucleus and the empty space in between the nucleus and the electrons.
Question 13: What is an electron?
Answer: Electron is a negatively charged subatomic particle of an atom that is denoted by
the symbol ‘e–’. Each electron carries one unit of negative charge (-1e). Mass of an electron
is 1800 times less than that of a hydrogen atom. Therefore, the mass of an electron can be
treated as negligible.
Question 14: Give examples of moderators.
Answer: Heavy water or Graphite are used as moderators for reducing the speed of
neutrons in an atom in a nuclear reactor.
Class 8 Science
Question 15: What is electronic configuration of an element?
Answer: According to their maximum capacity, the electrons in an atom are distributed in
the shells. The shell wise distribution of the electron in an atom of an element is called the
electronic configuration of that element. Each electron has a definite energy according to
the shell in which it is present.
Question 16: Define valence electrons.
Answer: An atom forms chemical bonds from its outermost shell by using electrons. Valency
of an atom is determined by the configuration of its outermost shell. Therefore, the
outermost shell is known as the valence shell and the electrons in the outermost shell are
called valence electrons.
Question 17: What are the uses of Isotopes?
Answer: Some elements have isotopes which are radioactive. They are used in a variety of
fields such as agriculture, industry, medicine, research and development.
a) Uranium – 235 is particularly used for production of electricity and nuclear fission.
b) Radioactive isotopes like Cobalt – 60 are used in the medical treatment of life-
threatening diseases such as cancer.
c) Iodine -131 is used to treat diseases such as goitre and thyroid gland disorders.
d) The radioactive isotopes are used for detection of cracks or leakage in the
underground.
e) Pipes such as Sodium -24.
f) Radioactive isotopes are used for preserving food from microbes.
g) The radioactive isotope C-14 is used for determining the age of archaeological
objects.
Question 18: What is a nuclear reactor?
Answer: Nuclear reactor is a machine that is used to generate electricity on a large scale by
using atomic energy. In a nuclear reactor, the nuclear energy in an atom is released by
combining and bringing the nuclear reactions on the nuclear fuel.
Question 19: What is the function of a controller in a nuclear reactor?
Answer: A controller is used in a nuclear reactor to reduce the number of neutrons by
absorbing the rods of boron, cadmium, beryllium, etc.
Question 20: How to control chain reaction in a nuclear reactor?
Answer: A chain reaction is usually kept under control to prevent a probable explosion. In
order to control a chain reaction in the nuclear reactor it is necessary to slow down the
speed and number of neutrons. For this purpose, moderators and controllers are used in a
nuclear reactor.
-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 6 Composition of Matter
Question 1: Choose the appropriate option and rewrite the following statements.
1. The intermolecular force is maximum in the particles of solid.
2. Solids retain their volume even when external pressure is applied. This property is
called incompressibility.
3. Matter is classified into the type’s mixture, compound and element by applying the
criterion states of matter.
4. Matter that contains two or more constituent substances is called compound.
5. Milk is an example of a type of matter called a homogeneous mixture.
6. Water, mercury and bromine are similar to each other, because three are liquids.
7. Valency of carbon is 4 and that of oxygen is 2. From this, we understand that there
are 2 chemical bond/bonds between the carbon atom and one oxygen atom in the
compound-carbon dioxide.
Question 2: Identify the odd term out and explain
1. Gold, silver, copper, brass
Answer: Brass is an odd one out since it is an alloy and the other metals – gold,
copper or silver are elements.
2. Hydrogen, hydrogen peroxide, carbon dioxide, water vapour.
Answer: Hydrogen is an odd one out since it is an element and the rest are
compounds.
3. Milk, lemon juice, carbon, steel.
Answer: Carbon is an odd one since it is an element and the rest are a mixture of
several elements.
4. Water, mercury, bromine, petrol.
Answer: Water is an odd one since it is an universal solvent and the others are not
universal solvents.
5. Sugar, slat, baking soda, blue vitriol.
Answer: Baking soda is an odd one as it is a mixture of several elements and the rest
are compounds.
6. Hydrogen, sodium, potassium, carbon.
Answer: Carbon is an odd one out as it has four valence electrons in it and the rest
have one valence electron only.
Class 8 Science
Question 3: Answer the following questions.
1. Plants synthesize glucose in sunlight with the help of chlorophyll from carbon dioxide
and water and give away oxygen. Identify the four compounds in this process and
name their types.
Answer: Photosynthesis is a natural chemical process in which plants along with
some algae and bacteria produce oxygen and glucose from water and carbon
dioxide. It uses sunlight as a source of energy, which is absorbed by the chlorophyll
of plants.
6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2
We can derive the four substances in this process:
a) Carbon dioxide which is an organic compound.
b) Water which is an organic compound
c) Glucose which is an organic compound
d) Chlorophyll which is an organo-metallic compound or complex compound
2. In one sample of brass, the following ingredients were found: copper (70%) and zinc
(30%). Identify the solvent, solute and solution from these.
Answer: Brass is an alloy primarily made of copper with zinc. Brass as a solid solution
consists of zinc and other metals as solute dissolved in copper is considered as a
solvent. Hence, brass meets all the criteria of a solution.
3. Sea water tastes salty due to the dissolved salt. The salinity (the proportion of salts
in water) of some water bodies Lonar lake – 7.9 %, Pacific Ocean – 3.5%,
Mediterranean Sea – 3.8%, Dead sea- 33.7%. Explain two characteristics of mixture
from the above information.
Answer: Sea water tastes salty due to the dissolved salt. The salinity (the proportion
of salts in water) of some water bodies Lonar lake – 7.9 %, Pacific Ocean – 3.5%,
Mediterranean Sea – 3.8%, Dead sea- 33.7%. The characteristics of mixtures from
the above data are:
a) The constituent substances of a mixture are a composition of 2 or more elements or
compounds.
b) The proportion of constituent substances in a mixture can vary.
c) The properties of constituent substances stay back in the mixture.
CCl4 Carbon C, Cl C = 4, Cl = 1
tetrachloride
HI Hydrogen iodide H, I H = 1, I = 1
Bronze Cu + Sn Mixture
3. Lemon sharbat has a sweet, sour and salty taste and it can be poured in a glass.
Answer: Lemon sharbat has a sweet, sour and salty taste and it can be poured in a
glass because the sour taste implies the presence of an acid. If that acid is poured in
a metal vessel or utensil, then acid reacts with metal and renders it poisonous for
consumption. Hence, we prefer to take glass material vessels for drinking lemon
juice.
Additional Questions
Question 1: What are the various states of matter?
Answer: There are five states of matter namely:
a) Solid
b) Liquid
c) Gas
d) Plasma
e) Bose-Einstein condensate
Gaseous Fluid Indefinite Indefinite Very high Very weak Very large
-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 7: Metals and Nonmetals
Q1. Complete the table:
Answer: The stainless-steel vessels in the kitchen have a copper coating on the
bottom because copper is a good conductor of heat.
Answer: Copper and brass vessels are cleaned with lemon because lemon contains
acid and copper and brass react with acid.
Answer: Sodium metal is kept in kerosene because sodium reacts with air and it
burns so to prevent reaction it is kept in kerosene.
Class 8 Science
Q4. Answer the following.
1. What is done to prevent corrosion of metals?
Answer: To prevent corrosion of metals, layers of oil, grease, varnish and paint are
applied on them. Also plating with another non corroding metal is done. Iron is
arrested by zinc plating. Due to these processes, the contact of metal surfaces with
air is lost and corrosion cannot occur as the chemical reaction cannot occur.
2. What are the metals that make the alloys, brass and bronze?
a) All the metals are good conductors of heat and electricity. Cooking utensils and irons
are made up of metals as they are good conductors of heat.
b) Ductility is the ability of the material to be stretched into a wire. This ability allows
metals to be drawn into wires and coupled with their durability, find applications as
cable wires and for soldering purposes. Since metals can be drawn into wires we can
say that metals are ductile.
c) Malleability is the property of substances which allows them to be beaten into flat
sheets. Aluminium sheets are used in the manufacturing of Aircraft because of their
light weight and strength. Other metal sheets are used in automobile industries, for
making utensils, etc. Therefore, metals are malleable.
d) Metals are sonorous because it produces a deep or ringing sound when struck by
another hard object.
e) Usually, all the metals have a shiny appearance but these metals can also be
polished to have a shiny appearance.
Q9. Write chemical properties of metals?
Answer: The chemical properties of metals are:
a) Reaction with water: Only highly reactive metals react with water and not all the
metals. For example, Sodium reacts vigorously with water and oxygen and gives a
large amount of heat in the process. This is why sodium is stored in kerosene so that
it does not come in contact with moisture or oxygen.
b) Reaction with acids: Hydrogen gas is produced when metals react with acids. For
example, when zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid it produces zinc chloride and
hydrogen gas.
c) Reaction with bases: Not all the metals react with bases and when they do react,
they produce metal salts and hydrogen gas. When zinc reacts with strong sodium
hydroxide it gives sodium zincate and hydrogen gas.
d) Reaction with oxygen: Metal oxides are produced when metals burn in the presence
of oxygen. These metal oxides are basic in nature. For example: When magnesium
strip is burned in the presence of oxygen it forms magnesium oxide and when
magnesium oxide dissolves in water it forms magnesium hydroxide.
Class 8 Science
Q10. Write the physical properties of nonmetals?
Answer: Some of the physical properties of non-metals are listed below.
a) Uses of nonmetals in our daily life – Oxygen which is 21% by volume helps in the
respiration process. It is also used for manufacturing of steel and provides high
temperature in the metal fabrication process. Oxygen cylinders are used in hospitals.
Chlorine is useful in removing stains and colour patches as a bleaching agent. Various
graded plastics and insecticides are made with chlorine. It helps in purification of
water. Adding chlorine to drinking water kills the bacteria. Helium is used as an inert
gas for scientific experiments. It is also used in weather balloons. Iodine helps from
throat infections and is used as antiseptic on wounds and cuts.
Metals Nonmetals
These are solids at room temperature These exist in all three states
except mercury
These are very hard except sodium These are soft except diamond
These are malleable and ductile These are brittle and can break down into
pieces
a) Choosing the right type of metal can help control corrosion and reduce the
requirement for additional prevention measures. For example, metals like aluminium
and stainless steel are highly resistant to corrosion.
b) One of the cheapest ways to control corrosion is by applying a layer of paint on the
surface of the metal. This coating of paint acts as a barrier and protects the metal
from corrosion by preventing the flow of electrochemical charge.
c) The control over the constituents of the environment to which the metal is exposed
can also help in the prevention of corrosion. An example of this would be the
treating of water with softeners before putting it in a boiler to prevent corrosion
inside the boiler.
Q18. What are the three types in which the elements are generally classified?
Answer: The three types in which the elements are generally classified are solids liquids
gases.
Q19. What are the metals and nonmetals that we use in everyday life?
Answer: Some non – metals and their uses are listed below-
-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 8 Pollution
Question 1: Following are some statements about pollution which type of pollution do
those express?
1. Fog seems to be appearing in Delhi during day hours.
Answer: Air pollution
2. Many times, vomiting and dysentery occurs after eating ‘pani puri’
Answer: Water pollution
3. Problem of sneezing occurs sometimes during a visit to the garden.
Answer: Air pollution
4. Crop does not grow in some areas.
Answer: Soil pollution
5. People living in the busy squares face problems like short breathing and other
respiratory problems.
Answer: Air pollution
Question 2: Read the passage and identify the sentences expressing types of pollution.
Nilesh is a student of std. VIII and lives in an urban area. It takes about an hour to go to the
school by bus. He faces the heavy traffic of two wheelers, four wheelers, rickshaws, buses
while going to school. He has been facing the problem of asthma since last few days.
Doctors recommended him to stay away from the urban area. Since then, his mother sent
him to the village of his maternal uncle. Nilesh saw heaps of garbage in many places in the
village. Foul smell of human and animal wastes was present at many places. Blackish water
with foul smell was flowing in a stream. He developed some abdominal disease within a few
days.
Answer: Let’s break down the causes of pollution in the given case:
Nilesh is a student of std. VIII and lives in an urban area. It takes about an hour to go to the
school by bus. He faces the heavy traffic of two wheelers, four wheelers, rickshaws, buses
while going to school. He has been facing the problem of asthma since last few days: This is
due to air pollution.
Doctors recommended him to stay away from the urban area. Since then, his mother sent
him to the village of his maternal uncle. Nilesh saw heaps of garbage in many places in the
village. Foul smell of human and animal wastes was present at many places: This is due to
air and soil pollution.
Blackish water with foul smell was flowing in a stream. He developed some abdominal
disease within a few days: This is due to water pollution.
Class 8 Science
Question 3: Match the pairs from ‘A’ and ‘B’ columns and explain the effect of pollution on
human health.
Answer:
2. How does the pollution occur due to vehicles? Give the names of vehicles causing
least pollution.
Answer: Most of the automobiles run on fossil fuels such as diesel and petrol. These
fossil fuels burn in vehicles while in use to produce energy, which results in the
emission of smoke. This smoke consists of harmful gases like nitrogen oxide, carbon
monoxide, hydrogen, ammonia and sulphur dioxide in it.
There are several kinds of vehicles which cause less or no pollution such as bicycle,
CNG vehicles, metro rail, electric cars, etc.
Class 8 Science
3. What are natural reasons for water pollution?
Answer: The natural reasons of water pollution are:
a) Aquatic weeds present in water bodies deplete the oxygen level in them.
b) Excessive growth of algae.
c) When mud and sludge get mixed in water bodies due to current in rivers and their
diversions.
d) Growth of harmful microbes such as bacteria and fungi on dead and decomposing
matter present in the water bodies.
4. Suggest four preventive measures for air pollution.
Answer: Some of the measures that should be undertaken to prevent air pollution
are listed below:
a) Use of biofuels such as CNG, LPG and lead-free petrol in private and public transport.
b) Use of renewable sources of energy such as solar power, wind energy and hydro
power.
c) Planting more saplings and trees to avert pollution.
d) Should prevent burning of dry waste and leaves in the open rather use them in
composting.
5. Explain relation between greenhouse effect and global warming.
Answer: Greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, methane, etc. absorb the heat of
the sun and create a hole in the ozone layer of the earth and emit it back on the
earth’s surface. Thus, these gases hold back the harmful sun rays and prevent them
from escaping into outer space. This cycle repeats itself several times in the earth’s
atmosphere and results in an optimum increase in temperature of 15°C. Therefore,
greenhouse gases help to maintain the temperature on the Earth to a certain level.
However, with time, the concentration of these gases has considerably increased
due to increased industrialization, that has led to the heating up of the earth’s
atmosphere. In due course, the overall temperature of the earth has increased,
which has resulted in climatic changes. During the last century, the Earth
temperature has increased by nearly 0.6°C. This has led to overall global warming.
However, the greenhouse effect can be controlled or restricted by slowing down the
use of natural resources and fossil fuels. These fossil fuels produce greenhouse gases
and emit poisonous gases when they burn.
Class 8 Science
Question 7: Classify the following pollutants into natural and manmade categories.
Answer:
Pollutant Category
Sewage Man-made
Dust Natural
Algae Natural
Pesticides Man-made
Additional Questions:
Question 1: What are the natural reasons for air pollution?
Answer: Some of the natural reasons for air pollution are listed below:
a) Volcanic eruption: Solid, gaseous and liquid materials evolve through eruption.
Examples: Hydrogen sulphide, hydrogen, vapours, carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide,
ammonium chloride, dust, etc.
b) Earthquake: Poisonous gases and water vapour are released into air from inside the
earth.
c) Cyclones and dust storms: Dust, garbage, soil, pollen, harmful microbes are mixed
with air.
d) Forest fires: Forest fires release carbon dioxide, hydrogen sulphide, sulphur dioxide,
smoke in air.
e) Microbes in air: Spores of bacteria, algae and fungi are mixed with air.
Class 8 Science
Question 2: Describe the man-made reasons for air pollution.
Answer: Some of the man-made reasons for air pollution are given below:
a) Fuel: Burning of fuel like coal, LPG, kerosene, petrol and diesel release carbon
dioxide, nitrogen oxide, carbon monoxide, lead compounds, sulphur dioxide, etc.
They cause pollution when they are released in air. Burning of agricultural waste,
solid waste, etc. in open space thereby causing air pollution.
b) Industrialization: Smoke releases in large quantities from several factories in the
form of nitrogen oxide, sulphur powder, cotton seed powder in air.
c) Atomic energy plants and blasts: Use of radioactive elements like uranium,
plutonium, thorium, graphite, etc. release radiations in air and cause pollution.
Question 3: Name some of the dangerous air pollutants which cause severe pollution.
Answer: Some of the dangerous air pollutants which causes severe pollution include sulphur
dioxide (SO2), carbon monoxide (CO), nitrogen oxides, pesticides, methane (CH4), dust,
particulate matter, etc.
Answer: When wet waste is dumped at wrong places instead of composting, pathogens
grow upon it, which then mix with water causing water pollution. Insecticides, chemical
fertilizers, weedicides are used in agriculture, which causes soil pollution. Use of excessively
sprayed insecticides and weedicides mix with air causing air pollution.
Similarly, excessive use of chemical fertilizers also causes water pollution. Soil pollution
occurs due to mixing of human wastes, birds and animal’s waste. This releases various
stinking gases causing air pollution. When the same waste mixes with water, it causes water
pollution.
Question 15: What are some of the preventive measures undertaken by the Government of
India that help in pollution control?
Answer: The Government of India has enacted some major laws for prevention, regulating
and controlling pollution. Given below are some laws regarding pollution control:
a) Water Pollution and Prevention Act, 1974.
b) Air Pollution and Prevention Act, 1981.
c) Environmental Protection Act, 1986.
Besides these, there are several laws and rules which are in force with respect to biomedical
waste, harmful effluents, solid waste and sound pollution. Government statutory bodies
such as Maharashtra Pollution Control Board and Central Pollution Control Board also
supervise if the industries, industrial areas, local governing bodies like Municipalities,
District Councils, Panchayat Samitis, Gram Panchayats, etc. follow the stated laws to control
pollution.
-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 9: Disaster Management
Q1. What do you mean by disaster?
Answer: A disaster is defined as a disruption on a massive scale, either natural or man-
made, occurring in short or long periods of time. Disasters can lead to human, material,
economic or environmental hardships, which can be beyond the bearable capacity of the
affected society. As per statistics, India as a whole, is vulnerable to 30 different types of
disasters that will affect the economic, social and human development potential to such an
extent that it will have long-term effect on productivity and macro-economic performance.
Q2. What are the different types of disaster?
Answer: Disasters can be classified into the following categories:
a) Water and Climate Disaster: Flood, hail storms, cloudburst, cyclones, heat waves,
cold waves, droughts, hurricanes.
b) Geological Disaster: Landslides, earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, tornadoes
c) Biological Disaster: Viral epidemics, pest attacks, cattle epidemic and locust plagues
d) Industrial Disaster: Chemical and industrial accidents, mine shaft fires, oil spills
e) Nuclear Disasters: Nuclear core meltdowns, radiation poisoning
f) Man-made disasters: Urban and forest fires, oil spill, the collapse of huge building
structures
Answer: After effects of heavy rains cause landslides. Plants and small trees are
uprooted from the soil due to continuous heavy rains. The rain water enters the
cracks and fissures present in hard rocks causing their weathering. Due to these
factors, soil and rocks run off on a slopy region. This running of soil, rocks along with
other debris causes landslide. This proves that there is a strong relation between
continuous rains and landslide.
Answer: The constructions, which do not get damaged due to earth movements up
to a certain limit, are called earthquake resistant buildings. To construct tall
buildings, ‘Indian Standard Institute’ has made some code of conduct. Buildings are
constructed as per I.S. 456 and earthquake resistant constructions are performed as
per IS 1893 (Criteria for earthquake resistant design of structure) and IS 13920
(Ductile detailing of reinforced concrete structures subjected to seismic forces).
Advanced technology is used for earthquake resistant construction. To get prior
intimation about earthquake, modern equipment like lasers ranging very long
baseline, geiger counter, creep meter, strain meter, tide gauge, tiltmeter, volumetric
strain gauge etc. are used.
Class 8 Science
3. Prepare a chart showing ‘Do’s’ and ‘don’ts’ at the time of earthquake.
Answer: The main purpose of constructing a dam is to impound flowing water. Due
to storage of tons of water in the dam, there is weakening of the faults and the
stress caused by it is enough to induce earthquakes. The platonic plates are
disturbed and when they move, they cause an earthquake.
Q4. If a crowd gathers at the place of earthquake, what would be the difficulties in relief
work?
Answer: If a crowd gathers at the place of earthquake, there would be following difficulties
in relief work:
a) It would be difficult for the relief team in finding the victims
b) The gathering might misuse the relief resources
c) The help might get delayed towards the victims because of the crowd gathering.
d) The targeted area might get havocked due to crowd gathering, which will make it
hard to pinpoint the area that needs more help.
e) The gathering can misguide the relief workers.
f) The severity of the situation can be easily misjudged.
Class 8 Science
Q5. Give scientific reasons.
1. It is safer to find shelter under things like a bed, table at the time of earthquake.
Answer: During an earthquake, it is safer to find shelter under things like a bed, table
because due to high vibrations, heavy things may fall on us and we might get injured.
If any heavy things hit us, we might die or have any other injuries. So, staying under
things like a bed, table is the safest way to protect ourselves at the time of an
earthquake.
Used for measuring and recording the Used for indicating the intensity of
vibrations of earthquakes an earthquake
Used for measuring the motions related to Used for quantifying the energy that
the ground like seismic waves resulting in an is released during an earthquake
earthquake and volcanic eruptions
-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 10: Cell and Cell Organelles
Q1. Who am I?
1. I am ATP producing factory.
3. I support the cell, but I am not cell wall. I have a body resembling net.
Answer: Mitochondria are absent in RBCs. Due to this, the oxygen which is carried by
them is not used for themselves.
Answer: Mitochondria and plastids are the cell organelles present in eukaryotes.
Mitochondria are found in all the eukaryotic cells, including plants and animals,
whereas plastids are found only in plant cells.
Answer: A gene is a basic unit of hereditary. So, if genes are absent on the
chromosomes, then the offspring fails to look like the parent. Absence of genes will
prevent the baby from looking like the parent as the gene is the unit which transfers
the characteristics from the parent to the child. It is made up of DNA and is present
within a nucleus.
Class 8 Science
4. Plasma membrane had not been selectively permeable.
Answer: If Plasma membrane had not been selectively permeable then any
substance can enter the cell which can harm the balance between the cell content
and outside environment.
Answer: In food, the main sources of anthocyanins are berries, such as blackberries,
grapes, blueberries etc, and some vegetables such as egg-plants and avocado. If
plants lacked anthocyanin, they died.
Q3. Who is odd man among us? Give reason.
1. Nucleolus, mitochondria, plastids, endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: Plastids because they are not found in animal cells, only found in plant cells.
Answer: Chlorophyll is odd as DNA and ribosome are found in animals but
chlorophyll is found in plants.
Q4. Give functions.
1. Plasma membrane
2. Cytoplasm
Answer: One of the major functions of cytoplasm is to enable cells to maintain their
turgidity, which enables the cells to hold their shape. Other functions of cytoplasm
are as follows:
a) The jelly-like fluid of the cytoplasm is composed of salt and water and is present
within the membrane of the cells and embeds all of the parts of the cells and
organelles.
b) The cytoplasm is home to many activities of the cell as it contains molecules,
enzymes that are crucial in the breakdown of the waste.
c) The cytoplasm also assists in metabolic activities.
d) Cytoplasm provides shape to the cell. It fills up the cells, thus enabling the organelles
to remain in their position. The cells, without cytoplasm, would deflate and
substances will not permeate easily from one to the other organelle.
e) A part of the cytoplasm, the cytosol has no organelles. Rather, the cytosol is
enclosed by matrix boundaries that fill up the cell section which does not hold the
organelles.
Class 8 Science
3. Lysosome
Answer: The key function of lysosomes is digestion and removal of waste. Cellular
debris or foreign particles are pulled into the cell through the process of endocytosis.
The process of endocytosis happens when the cell membrane falls in on itself
(invagination), creating a vacuole or a pouch around the external contents and then
bringing those contents into the cell. On the other hand, discarded wastes and other
substances originating from within the cell are digested by the process of
autophagocytosis or autophagy. The process of autophagy involves disassembly or
degradation of the cellular components through a natural, regulated mechanism.
4. Vacuole
5. Nucleus
Answer: Following are the important nucleus function:
a) It contains the cell’s hereditary information and controls the cell’s growth and
reproduction.
b) The nucleus has been clearly explained as a membrane-bound structure that
comprises the genetic material of a cell.
c) It is not just a storage compartment for DNA, but also happens to be the home of
some essential cellular processes.
d) First and foremost, it is possible to duplicate one’s DNA in the nucleus. This process
has been named DNA Replication and creates an identical copy of the DNA.
e) Creating two identical copies of the host or body is the first step in cell division,
where each new cell will get its own set of instructions.
f) Secondly, the nucleus is the spot of transcription. Transcription is the process of
creating different types of RNA from DNA. Transcription would be a lot like making
copies of individual pages of the human body’s instructions that can then be passed
out and read by the rest of the cell.
g) The central rule of biology states that DNA is copied into RNA, which is then turned
into protein.
Class 8 Science
Q5. Who gives me the colour?
Answer:
Carrot Carotene
Violet Anthocyanin
• Prokaryotes
• Eukaryotes
Prokaryotic Cells
• Prokaryotic cells have no nucleus. Instead, some prokaryotes such as bacteria have a
region within the cell where the genetic material is freely suspended. This region is
called the nucleoid.
• They all are single-celled microorganisms. Examples include archaea, bacteria, and
cyanobacteria.
• The cell size ranges from 0.1 to 0.5 µm in diameter.
• The hereditary material can either be DNA or RNA.
• Prokaryotes reproduce by binary fission, a form of sexual reproduction.
Eukaryotic Cells
• The cell membrane supports and protects the cell. It controls the movement of
substances in and out of the cells. It separates the cell from the external
environment. The cell membrane is present in all the cells.
• The cell membrane is the outer covering of a cell within which all other organelles,
such as the cytoplasm and nucleus, are enclosed. It is also referred to as the plasma
membrane.
• By structure, it is a porous membrane (with pores) which permit the movement of
selective substances in and out of the cell. Besides this, the cell membrane also
protects the cellular component from damage and leakage.
• It forms the wall-like structure between two cells as well as between the cell and its
surroundings.
• Plants are immobile, so their cell structures are well-adapted to protect them from
external factors. The cell wall helps to reinforce this function.
Cell Wall
• The cell wall is the most prominent part of the plant cell structure. It is made up of
cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin.
• The cell wall is present exclusively in plant cells. It protects the plasma membrane
and other cellular components. The cell wall is also the outermost layer of plant
cells.
• It is a rigid and stiff structure surrounding the cell membrane.
• It provides shape and support to the cells and protects them from mechanical shocks
and injuries.
Cytoplasm
• The cytoplasm is a thick, clear, jelly-like substance present inside the cell membrane.
• Most of the chemical reactions within a cell take place in this cytoplasm.
• The cell organelles such as endoplasmic reticulum, vacuoles, mitochondria,
ribosomes, are suspended in this cytoplasm.
Class 8 Science
Nucleus
• The nucleus contains the hereditary material of the cell, the DNA.
• It sends signals to the cells to grow, mature, divide and die.
• The nucleus is surrounded by the nuclear envelope that separates the DNA from the
rest of the cell.
• The nucleus protects the DNA and is an integral component of a plant cell structure.
• Chloroplasts
• Chromoplasts
• Gerontoplasts
• Leucoplasts
Mitochondria Plastids
It surrounds the entire components of the cell. It surrounds only the cell organelles.
It regulates the tonicity of the cell. It does not regulate the tonicity of the
cell.
It contains initial receptors for signal It is not the first step in cell signalling.
transduction and is the first step in cell However, it is involved in the process.
signalling.
Always protects the cell from bacteria and Does not always protect the cell from
viruses. outside invaders.
Plays an important role in cytokinesis during cell Does not play a key role in cytokinesis
division. during cell division.
Cilia are present and are involved in feeding and Cilia are absent.
movement.
Prokaryotes Eukaryotes
Cell size Ranges in size from 0.2 μm – 2.0 μm Size ranges from 10 μm – 100 μm in
in diameter diameter
Cell wall Usually present; chemically complex When present, chemically simple in
in nature nature
Cytoplasm Present, but cell organelles absent Present, cell organelles present
Flagella The flagella are smaller in size The flagella are larger in size
-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 11 Human Body and Organ System
Heart beats 72
RBC 50 – 60 lakh/mm3
Respiratory Nose This organ traps the dust particles and microbes like a
filter and prevents their entry into the respiratory
Pharynx
system.
Windpipe
It acts as a passage or medium through which air
Lungs enters into the windpipe.
This organ acts as a passage or channel through which
air passes into or reaches the lungs.
An exchange of gases occurs in it.
Circulatory Heart The main organ from where blood circulation occurs
system to different parts of the body.
Blood vessels
This consists of a closed system of vessels that help in
blood circulation to different body parts.
Class 8 Science
a) It transports oxygen and nutrients to the different parts of the human body.
b) Blood helps in carrying waste materials from different parts of the body and removes
it from our body through the excretory system.
c) Various chemical messengers such as hormones are transported in the body by
blood.
d) Blood protects the body by creating antibodies that fight against disease carrying
germs.
e) Blood helps in maintaining a normal body temperature.
3. Explain the importance and need of blood donation.
Answer: Blood donation is considered one of the biggest donations of an individual
towards the society. We are all aware that a lot of blood is lost under various
circumstances such as accidents, surgeries or in cases of blood-related diseases
which require transfusion of blood. If an adequate amount of blood is available in
blood banks, it can save many lives in need. Donating blood does not harm or affect
the body of the donor. In fact, whenever a donor donates blood, he/she recovers it
in his/her body within 24 hrs. However, this donated blood can be stored by blood
banks in refrigerators and used as and when required.
Class 8 Science
Question 6: Explain the differences.
Answer: Difference between arteries and veins:
Arteries Veins
Arteries carry blood to different body organs Veins carry blood towards the heart and away
and away from the heart. from other organs.
Blood flows with extreme pressure and gives Blood flows with low pressure in a smooth
jerks. manner.
Arteries do not have any valves. Veins have valves which help to prevent
backflow of blood.
They are branched and decrease in size. They unite and increase in size
They have thick and muscular walls. Veins have less muscular and thin walls.
The smallest artery is known as Arteriole. The smallest vein is called Venules.
It occurs between the body and the outside or It occurs internally at the cellular level.
external environment.
Additional Questions
Question 1: Define organ system. Name some organ systems.
Answer: The group of organs which work together to perform a specific function is called an
organ system. Various organ systems include respiratory, digestive, nervous, circulatory,
reproductive, muscular, excretory, skeletal, etc. which are essential for normal functioning
in our body.
Class 8 Science
Question 2: Where is body energy produced? Why is it essential?
Answer: Energy is essential for operating all the life processes in the human body. Energy
production occurs within the cells of the human body. Cells need the supply of soluble
nutrients and oxygen to complete energy production. This supply takes place with the help
of essential organs such as respiratory and circulatory systems.
Question 3: What are the different steps of respiration?
Answer: The different steps of respiration are listed below:
a) External Respiration
b) Internal Respiration
c) Cellular Respiration
Question 4: Define Cellular Respiration.
Answer: Dissolved nutrients such as glucose slowly burn (oxidized) with the help of oxygen
and energy is released in the form of ATP. Waste materials like carbon dioxide and water
vapour are produced during this process.
Cellular respiration can be summarized as follows:
C6H12O6+6O2 → 6CO2+6H2O+ Energy (38 ATP)
Question 5: Who discovered the mechanism of heart valves of the human body?
Answer: In 1628, William Harvey discovered the working mechanism of valves of the heart.
He described the working of circulation in the human body. He proposed a theory that our
heart is a muscular pump through which blood circulates in the body.
Question 6: Define capillaries.
Answer: Arteries that gradually divide with the decrease in their diameter as they spread in
the body and finally form fine hair-like vessels are called capillaries. The walls of capillaries
are extremely lean and thin and composed of a single layer of cells.
Question 7: Who is a blood donor?
Answer: A person who donates blood to other people or to the blood bank is referred to as
a blood donor.
Question 8: What are the different groups of human blood?
Answer: There are four main groups of human blood namely A, B, AB and O. Besides, there
are two more types as ‘Rh’ negative and ‘Rh’ positive of each of those four groups. Thus, in
all eight blood groups are formed. (Examples: A Rh +ve & A Rh -ve).
Question 9: What are veins?
Answer: The capillaries unite together in the entire body to form blood vessels of bigger
diameter which are known as veins. The network of capillaries is present in each organ.
Class 8 Science
Question 10: Define a blood recipient.
Answer: A person who receives blood from other people or from the blood bank is referred
to as a blood recipient.
Question 11: What is the function of a blood bank?
Answer: Blood is collected in blood banks by following specific procedures from healthy
persons and supplied to the people who are in need of it. If the collected blood is not to be
used instantly, it is stored by the blood banks for some days in the refrigerator.
Question 12: Define hypertension.
Answer: When the blood pressure is higher than normal it is referred to as hypertension.
Hypertension is usually considered a hereditary disorder. In hypertension, the arteries of the
person develop unnecessary tension. The heart does not perform its functions properly in
case of hypertension. Both the systolic and diastolic pressures stay high in hypertension.
Question 13: Define blood pressure.
Answer: Blood continuously flows through the blood vessels of the human body due to
contraction and relaxation of the heart. This exerts pressure on the walls of the arteries of
the heart due to contraction and it is known as blood pressure.
Question 14: What is systolic pressure?
Answer: The pressure that is recorded during the contraction of heart is known as systolic
pressure.
Question 15: Define diastolic pressure.
Answer: The pressure that is recorded during relaxation is known as diastolic pressure.
Question 16: What is the normal blood pressure of a healthy person?
Answer: The blood pressure of a healthy person is about 120/80 mm to 139/89 mm of Hg. It
is measured with the help of a sphygmomanometer.
Question 17: What is the minimum age requirement for blood donation?
Answer: A healthy person of age more than 18 years can donate blood for 3 – 4 times a
year. However, his/her health history should be thoroughly checked before he/she donates
blood. Proper care should be taken so that there is no trouble during or after the blood
donation.
Question 18: What are the scenarios where blood is required for transfusion?
Answer: Blood is required by the needful persons in various situations such as accidents,
excess bleeding, surgical operations, childbirth, etc. Sometimes people suffering from blood
disorders such as leukemia or Thalassemia or even anaemia are required to opt for blood
transfusion.
Class 8 Science
Question 19: When is National Voluntary Blood Donation Day observed?
Answer: 1st October is observed as National Voluntary Blood Donation Day every year.
Healthy people are encouraged to donate blood so that it can be transfused into the bodies
of people who are in urgent need of it.
Question 20: Who discovered the blood groups – A, B, O and AB?
Answer: In 1900, the blood groups – A, B, O were discovered by Carl Landsteiner. He won
the Nobel Prize in 1930 for this discovery. In 1902, the blood group AB was discovered by
Decastello and Sturli.
Question 21: Define Hematology.
Answer: Hematology is a branch of medical science that deals with the study of
hematopoietic organs, blood and blood diseases. In this branch, research of diagnosis and
remedies of blood diseases are performed.
-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
1 No change Acid
Examples Acetic acid CH3COOH and Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH) and Ammonia
sulphuric acid
Characteristics Would depend upon the Bases would feel slippery and solid in
(Physical) temperature, acids would look nature except ammonia which is gaseous.
solid, liquid or in the form of It would have a bitter taste.
gas. It would also have a sour
taste.
Class 8 Science
Disassociation Acids would release hydrogen Bases would release hydroxide ions (OH-)
ions (h+) when mixed with when mixed with water
water
Test with Litmus Would turn litmus paper red Would turn litmus paper blue
a) Sulfuric acid is used to make other chemicals reduce corrosion refined oil and create
fertilizers.
b) Nitric acid is used to make explosives dyes and fertilizers.
c) It is used in food items eg carbonic acid which is used in soft drinks like coke or sprite
d) The steel industry uses hydrochloric acid to clean metal sheets before processing.
e) Paper manufacturers make use of sodium hydroxide to remove lignin from paper
pulp.
Q6. Select proper word given in brackets and fill in the blanks.
1. Main constituent of an acid is H+ ions
2. Main constituent of base is OH- ions
3. Tartaric acid is a white, crystalline organic acid.
Class 8 Science
Q7. Match the pairs.
Group A Group B
a) The manufacturing of soap and paper involve the use of sodium hydroxide. NaOH is
also used in the manufacture of rayon.
b) Ca(OH)2, also known as slaked lime or calcium hydroxide, is used to manufacture
bleaching powder.
c) Dry mixes used in painting or decoration are made with the help of calcium
hydroxide.
d) Magnesium hydroxide, also known as milk of magnesia, is commonly used as a
laxative. It also reduces any excess acidity in the human stomach and is, therefore,
used as an antacid.
e) Ammonium hydroxide is a very important reagent used in laboratories.
f) Any excess acidity in soils can be neutralized by employing slaked lime.
Q21. What is alkali and discuss its properties?
Answer: Alkali is a base that dissolves in water. Not all bases are alkali but all alkali is base. It
is a basic salt alkali earth metal or alkali metal. On adding alkali to acid the pH of the mixture
increases. On adding acid to alkali the pH decreases due to the removal of alkali.
Neutralization is a reaction in which removal of alkalinity or acidity occurs.
Properties of alkalies:
a) Bases have bitter taste.
b) They are slippery.
c) Bases contain hydroxide (OH-) as a main constituent.
d) Metal oxides are generally basic in nature.
Class 8 Science
Q22. What is neutralization?
Answer: Acid contains (H+) hydrogen ions and base contains(OH-) hydroxide ions. Salt and
water are formed by a combination of acid and base.
Base Alkali
Bases do not dissolve in water Bases that dissolve in water are alkali
Example: Zinc hydroxide, copper oxide Example: potassium hydroxide, sodium hydroxide
Answer c: Water
Class 8 Science
Answer d: Hydrogen chloride
A covalent bond is formed between two This type of bond is formed between a
similar electronegative non-metals metal and non-metal
Bonds formed from covalent bonding have Ionic Bonds have no definite shape
a definite shape
Low Melting Point and Boiling Point High Melting Point and Boiling Point
Low Polarity and more Flammable High Polarity and less Flammable
Covalent Bonds are in Liquid or gaseous At room temperature, Ionic Bonds have
state at room temperature Solid-state.
-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 14: Measurement and Effects of Heat
Question 1: A. Whom should I pair with?
Group A Group B
Heat Temperature
i. It is a form of energy which makes us feel It measures the degree of hotness or coldness of
hot or cold. a particular object.
ii. It is measured in Joules (J). It is measured in kelvin (K), Celsius (°C) and
Fahrenheit (°F).
a) It contains a metallic vessel and stirrers that are made up of copper or aluminium.
b) The vessel is kept inside a wooden jacket that generates heat and contains heat-
insulating materials in it.
c) The outer wooden jacket acts as a heat shield and reduces the loss of heat from the
inner vessel.
d) The outer jacket has an opening through which a thermometer with mercury is
inserted inside the calorimeter.
Class 8 Science
4. Explain why rails have gaps at specific distances.
Answer: It is a known fact that all solids tend to expand on heating. As rail lines are
made up of steel, they tend to expand during summers and contract in winters.
However, these expansion and contraction can cause sagging and bending of railway
tracks which could derail the trains that run on them. Thus, the rails are provided with
gaps at specific distances so as to prevent this bending of rails and avoid derailing of
trains. These spaces get closer in summers and become wider in winters.
5. Explain with the help of formulae the expansion coefficients of liquid and gas.
Answer: The formulae for the expansion coefficients of liquid and gas is discussed
below:
• V2 = V1 (1+β∆T)
• or β = (V2-V1/V1) 1/∆T
From the above formula, we can say that –
a) A liquid does not have a definite shape but it has a definite volume. The volumetric
expansion coefficient for a liquid (β) is defined as the fractional change in the volume
of the liquid per °Celsius (or kelvin) change in temperature.
b) A gas does not even have a fixed volume. The expansion of a gas is measured by
keeping its pressure constant. This volumetric expansion coefficient is called the
constant pressure expansion. Here, ∆T is the change in temperature and V1 and V2
are the initial and final volumes of the gas at constant pressure. β is the constant
pressure expansion coefficient of the gas.
Question 4: Solve the following examples.
1. What must be the temperature in Fahrenheit so that it will be twice its value in
Celsius?
Answer: Let the temperature in Celsius be T.
• So, the temperature in Fahrenheit = 2T
• Now, F = 32 + 9 / 5 C
• ⇒ 2T = 32 + 9 / 5T
• T = 160°C
• ⇒Temperature in Fahrenheit = 2T = 320°F
Class 8 Science
2. A bridge is made from 20 m long iron rods. At temperature 18°C, the distance
between two rods is 0.4 cm. Up to what temperature will the bridge be in good
shape?
Answer: Length of the iron rod = 20 m = 2000 cm at 18°C
• Distance between the length of two rods = 0.4 cm
• Temperature coefficient of linear expansion of iron = 11.5 × 10−6 °C−1
• The bridge will be in proper and good shape until both the rods expand by 0.2 cm
due to increase in temperature. Let the temperature be T, both the rods expand
by 0.2 cm i.e. the total expansion of rods is 0.4 cm.
• Using formula for linear expansion of solids, we have
• ∆l / l = α1∆T
• ⇒0.4 / 2000 = 11.5 × 10−6 × (T−16)
• T = 18 + 0.4 /2000 × 11.5 × 10−6 = 35.4°C
3. At 15°C the height of Eiffel tower is 324 m. If it is made of iron, what will be the
increase in length in cm, at 30°C?
Answer: Height of Eiffel tower = 324 m = 32400 cm at 15°C
• Temperature coefficient of linear expansion of iron = 11.5 × 10−6 °C−1
• Change in temperature = 30°C − 15°C = 15°C
• Change in length = Δl
• Using formula for linear expansion of solids, we have
• ∆l / l = α1∆T
• ⇒Δl / 32400 = 11.5 × 10−6 × 15
• Δl = 32400 × 11.5 × 10−6 × 15 = 5.6 cm
4. Two substances A and B have specific heats c and 2 c, respectively. If A and B are
given Q and 4Q amounts of heat, respectively, the change in their temperatures is
the same. If the mass of A is m, what is the mass of B?
Answer: Let the mass of B be M.
• Let the change in temperature be T for both the bodies, A and B.
• The amount of heat in a body is described as
• Q = m × c × ΔT
• For body A,
• Q=m×c×T
• ⇒T = Q / mc …. (i)
Class 8 Science
• For body B,
• 4Q = M × 2c × T
• ⇒M = 4Q / 2c × T
• From (i), T= Q / mc
• ⇒ M = 4Q / 2c × Q / mc = 2m
5. When a substance having mass 3 kg receives 600 cal of heat, its temperature
increases by 10°C. What is the specific heat of the substance?
Answer: Let the specific heat capacity of the substance be c.
• We know, Mass of the substance, m = 3 kg = 3000 g
• Heat given to the substance, Q = 600 cal
• Increase in temperature of the substance = 10°C
• Now, the amount of heat in a body is given as
• Q = m × c × ΔT
• ⇒c = Q / m × ΔT = 600 / 3000 × 10 = 0.02 cal g−1 °C−1
• = 0.0033 cal /(gm°C)
Additional Questions
Question 1: Define the unit of heat and one calorie heat.
Answer: The unit of heat in the SI system is Joule while that in the CGS unit, it is denoted in
calories. One calorie is equivalent to 4.18 Joule. One calorie heat is the heat that is required
to increase the temperature of 1 gm of water through 1°C.
Question 2: Name the sources of heat.
Answer: Some of the rich sources of heat are listed below:
a) Sun
b) Earth
c) Chemical energy
d) Electrical energy
e) Atomic energy
f) Air
Class 8 Science
Question 3: Which is the biggest source of heat for earth?
Answer: The Sun is the biggest source of heat that is received by the earth. A large amount
of heat is produced and generated due to the nuclear fusion that takes place at the core of
the sun. Here, hydrogen nuclei fuse together to form helium nuclei, thereby generating heat
in the process. Some of the sun rays reach the earth in the form of light and heat.
Question 4: What is geothermal energy?
Answer: The earth is a rich source of heat as the temperature at its core is also extremely
high. This heat is also referred to as geothermal energy.
Question 5: How is heat derived from chemical energy?
Answer: When fossil fuels such as wood, coal, petrol etc. burn, a chemical reaction occurs
between the fossil fuel and oxygen and heat is generated in this reaction. This results in the
evolution of chemical energy.
Question 6: What are the electrical appliances from which heat is produced?
Answer: In your daily lives, there are several equipment’s which produce heat such as
electric press, electric heaters, etc. Therefore, electricity is a rich source of heat.
Question 7: Define atomic energy.
Answer: A huge amount of heat is produced or generated in a very short span of time when
the nuclei of some elements like uranium, thorium, etc undergo fission. This energy that is
generated from a nuclear reaction is referred to as atomic energy. This is extensively used in
atomic energy projects.
Question 8: Define temperature.
Answer: Temperature of an object indicates the hotness or coldness of that object. The
temperature of a cold object is said to be lower than the temperature of a hot object. Due
to this reason, the temperature of ice cream is lesser than the temperature of tea.
Question 9: What is the boiling point of water in temperature units of kelvin (K), Celsius (°C)
and Fahrenheit (°F)?
Answer: The boiling point of water in kelvin (K), Celsius (°C) and Fahrenheit (°F) is listed
below:
a) 212°F (Fahrenheit)
b) 100°C (Celsius)
c) 373.15 K (kelvin)
Question 10: What is the freezing point of water in temperature units of kelvin (K), Celsius
(°C) and Fahrenheit (°F)?
Answer: The freezing point of water in kelvin (K), Celsius (°C) and Fahrenheit (°F) is listed
below:
a) 32°F (Fahrenheit)
b) 0°C (Celsius)
c) 273 K (kelvin)
Class 8 Science
Question 11: What is the boiling and freezing point of mercury in Celsius (°C)?
Answer: The boiling point of mercury is 356.7°C and the freezing point is -38.8°C.
Question 12: What is the room temperature in units of kelvin (K), Celsius (°C) and
Fahrenheit (°F)?
Answer: The room temperature in units of kelvin (K), Celsius (°C) and Fahrenheit (°F) is listed
below:
a) 72°F (Fahrenheit)
b) 23°C (Celsius)
c) 296 K (kelvin)
Question 13: What are the different types of thermometers?
Answer: Different thermometers are used for different purposes such as:
a) Ordinary thermometer
b) Clinical thermometer
c) Digital thermometer
d) Maximum-minimum thermometer
Question 14: Define specific heat.
Answer: The specific heat of an object is the amount of heat that is required to increase the
temperature of unit mass of that particular substance through one degree. This is
represented by the symbol ‘c’. Its unit in SI is Joule /(kg°C) and in CGS is cal/(gm°C).
Question 15: What is the specific heat of the substances such as Aluminium, Iron, Copper,
Mercury, Water and Hydrogen?
Answer: The specific heat of the substances are listed as below:
a) Aluminium – 0.21 cal/(gm°C)
b) Iron – 0.11 cal/(gm°C)
c) Copper – 0.09 cal/(gm°C)
d) Mercury – 0.03 cal/(gm°C)
e) Water – 1.0 cal/(gm°C)
f) Hydrogen – 3.42 cal/(gm°C)
Question 16: What are the effects of heat on matter?
Answer: The effects of heat on matter are given below:
a) expansion and contraction
b) change of state
Class 8 Science
Question 17: What happens in expansion of heat?
Answer: When heat is given to any substance, the temperature of the object increases and
it expands. Its expansion depends on the increase in its temperature. Solids, liquids and
gases all expand on receiving heat.
Question 18: What is linear expansion of solids?
Answer: The linear expansion of a solid is the increase in length of a wire or a rod of a solid
due to increase in its temperature.
Question 19: Define λ (lambda).
Answer: λ (lambda) is the constant of proportionality and it is called the coefficient of linear
expansion of a solid substance.
Question 20: What is area expansion of solids?
Answer: The area of a sheet of a solid material increases upon heating just like linear
expansion. This is called the areal expansion of solids. σ is the coefficient of areal expansion
of a solid substance.
Question 21: What is volumetric expansion of solids?
Answer: When the three-dimensional piece of solid expands on all sides when heated and
its volume increases just like a sheet. This is called the volumetric expansion of a solid. β is
the volumetric expansion coefficient of a solid substance.
Question 22: How is the effect of heat on water different from other liquids?
Answer: The effect of heat on water is somewhat different from that of other liquids. This is
known as anomalous behaviour of water.
Question 23: What is the purpose of a digital thermometer?
Answer: Digital thermometers are used for clinical purposes to measure body temperature
between 35°C and 42°C. This thermometer does not use the expansion of liquid due to heat
like an ordinary thermometer. Instead, it has a sensor which measures the heat coming out
from the body directly and from that it measures the temperature of the body.
Question 24: What is the function of a maximum-minimum thermometer?
Answer: Maximum-minimum thermometers are special types of thermometers which are
used to measure the minimum and maximum temperatures in a day. These are mainly used
in the laboratory as they can measure large spanning temperatures of 40°C to 110°C or even
larger.
Question 25: What are potential and kinetic energies?
Answer: Potential energy is the energy in a particular body which is due to its position.
While kinetic energy is the energy in a body which is due to its motion.
-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 15: Sound
Q1. Fill in the blank with appropriate word:
1. The region in a sound wave with higher pressure and density is called compression
and that with low pressure and density is called a rare fraction.
3. The total number of compressions and rarefactions produced per second in a sound
wave is 1000. The frequency of the sound wave is 500.
Answer: In the humans, sound is produced in the larynx. While swallowing food, we
can feel with our finger a hard bump that seems to move. This is nothing but larynx.
It is at the upper end of the windpipe. Two vocal cords are stretched across the voice
box or larynx in such a way that it leaves a narrow slit between them for the passage
of air. When the lungs force air through the slit, the vocal cords vibrate, producing
sound. Muscles attached to the vocal cords can make the cords tight or loose. When
the vocal cords are tight and thin, the type or quality of voice is different.
Answer: Two astronauts on the moon talking to each other directly, will be unable to
listen to each other, even if they are very close to each other. The moon does not
have an atmosphere. Since there is no medium, which is necessary for the
generation and propagation of sound, between the astronauts, direct sound
propagation between them is not possible. Therefore, the astronauts use some
technology like the one used in our cell-phones to communicate with each other.
The waves used in cell-phones do not need any medium for propagation.
3. As the sound wave propagates from one place to the other in the air, the air itself is
not required to move from one place to the other.
Answer: The sound wave doesn’t move from one place to another, but it creates a
disturbance in the medium particles. Suppose at first, the sound waves hit the
medium particle, then that median particle hits the nearby one and then the nearby
one the other. Like this the sound disturbance travels through the air with help of
medium particles by creating disturbances.
Class 8 Science
Q3. How are different sound notes generated in musical instruments like guitar,
which uses strings for sound generation, and flute, which uses blown air for sound
generation?
Answer: Sound waves of different frequencies produce different sound notes. In the field of
music, various musical instruments are used for the creation of sound notes. This includes
instruments like sitar, violin, guitar, which use strings for production of sound and
instruments like flute, shehnai, which use air blown into pipes for the production of sound.
In string-based instruments, the frequency of vibration of the string is changed by changing
the tension on the string and/or by changing the vibrating length of the string using fingers.
This results in generation of different notes.
In musical instruments like flute, the holes on the flute are opened or closed to change the
length of the vibrating air column in the flute. The frequency of the waves, therefore,
changes and it results in the production of different notes. In a flute, different notes can be
generated by changing the way of air-blowing also.
Q4. How is sound produced in a human larynx and a loudspeaker?
Answer: In the humans, sound is produced in the larynx. While swallowing food, we can feel
with our finger a hard bump that seems to move. This is nothing but larynx. It is at the upper
end of the windpipe. Two vocal cords are stretched across the voice box or larynx in such a
way that it leaves a narrow slit between them for the passage of air. When the lungs force
air through the slit, the vocal cords vibrate, producing sound. Muscles attached to the vocal
cords can make the cords tight or loose. When the vocal cords are tight and thin, the type or
quality of voice is different.
Sound can be produced using a loudspeaker. It consists of a permanent magnet. A coil is
wound around it and if a current flow through this coil, it also generates a magnetic field.
We know that if two magnets are brought near each other, they move depending on their
positions. In the same way, here, depending on the magnetic field created due to the coil,
the coil moves back and forth. The frequency and amplitude of the movement of the coil
depend on the variables in the current flowing through the coil. As the coil moves, the
conical screen of the loudspeaker, which is attached to the coil, also moves back and forth.
Due to back-and-forth motion of the loudspeaker screen, sound waves are produced in an
air. We can feel these vibrations of the loudspeaker screen, just by gently touching the
screen of a loudspeaker, which is producing sound.
Q5. Match the following:
a) Take a bell jar. Bell jar is a laboratory equipment used for creating a vacuum. Its
shape is similar to that of a bell.
b) Place an electric bell in the bell jar.
c) Start pumping out the air of the sealed bell jar. As we start pumping out the air, the
sound of an electric bell coming out of the bell jar starts fading.
d) As soon as the vacuum is achieved in the bell jar, no more sound will be audible from
the bell jar. However, in the bell jar, hammer continues to hit the gong.
This still means that the sound is being produced, but now we cannot hear it. This is because
sound waves always need a medium to propagate. In the bell jar, it was, hence sound waves
cannot travel.
Class 8 Science
Q7. What is a sound and frequency of sound?
Answer: A sound is a vibration that propagates through a medium in the form of a
mechanical wave. The medium in which it propagates can either be a solid, a liquid or a gas.
Sound travels faster in solids, relatively slower in liquids and slowest in gases.
The frequency is measured in Hertz. The number of rarefactions and compressions that
occur per unit time is known as the frequency of a sound wave. The formula of the
frequency of a wave is given as: f = 1/T
Q8. Define sound waves.
Answer: A sound wave is the pattern of disturbance caused by the energy travelling away
from the source of the sound. Sound waves are longitudinal waves. This means that the
propagation of vibration of particles is parallel to the direction of the energy wave
propagation. When the atoms are set in vibration they move back and forth. This
continuous back and forth motion results in a high-pressure and a low-pressure region in
the medium. These high- pressure and low-pressure regions are termed as compressions
and rarefactions, respectively. These regions are transported to the surrounding medium
resulting in the sound waves to travel from one medium to another.
Q9. How is sound produced?
Answer: Sound is produced by the vibration of objects and is propagated through a medium
from one location to another. The to and fro or back and forth motion of an object is termed
as vibration. The motion of objects causes vibrations. In many cases, we can see the
vibrations with our naked eyes. While in some cases their amplitude is so small that we
cannot see them but can experience them.
Q10. Discuss how we can produce sound using a tuning fork.
Answer: A fork consists of two tines and a handle. When it is hit with a rubber hammer, the
two tines start vibrating. The back-and-forth motion of tines produces disturbances in the
surrounding air molecules. As the tines extend outward from their original position, they
compress surrounding air molecules which result in the creation of high-pressure region
close to the tine. When the tine moves inwards, it produces a low-pressure region near the
tine. By more vibrations of time, an alternating pattern of high and low-pressure regions is
created. These pressure difference regions help in the propagation of sound waves from
one location to another.
Q11. An electric bell is placed inside a transparent glass jar. The bell can be turned on and
off using a switch on the outside of the jar. A vacuum is created inside the jar by sucking
out the air. Then the bell is rung using the switch. What will we see and hear?
Answer: In this case, we can see the bell ringing, but we cannot hear it. This is because
sound needs a medium to travel and it cannot travel in a vacuum. As a result, we do not
hear the bell ringing.
Class 8 Science
Q12. How is sound produced in a human ear?
Answer: A sound produced by objects like drums or alarm clocks is carried away from the
object to the ears through the air which acts as the medium. The sound produced is in the
form of vibration. It first enters in the ears through the funnel-shaped outer part of the ear.
It moves down through a canal till the eardrum (thin membrane is stretched tightly).
Eardrum plays an important role in the functioning of the ears. The vibrations produced by
the objects reach till the eardrum through the air. These vibrations produced make the
eardrum vibrate. And then the vibrations are passed to the inner ear through middle ear
bones or ossicles. The shape of the inner ear is like a snail. The inner ear is also termed as
the cochlea. There are a numerous number of tiny hair cells present in the cochlea. These
hair cells convert the vibrations into electrical signals, which are then transferred to the
brain through the auditory nerve. This is how humans detect sound or noise.
Q13. Explain if sound can travel in space.
Answer: A medium is essential for the propagation of sound. Sound cannot travel through a
vacuum due to the fact that there are no molecules that can be compressed and expanded
in space. Our voice is produced by the vibration of strings known as the vocal cords, which
are inside Adam’s apple. When you make a sound, its vibration travels through the air and
when it reaches your brain through your ears, it is interpreted as sound. In this case
propagation of sound takes place through the air medium.
Q14. List physical factors that affect sound propagation.
Answer: Following are a few factors that affect the propagation of sound:
Atmospheric Turbulence: If the atmosphere in which the sound wave is travelling is
turbulent, sound waves would scatter due to velocity fluctuations of the medium.
Wind Gradient: Sound propagating along the wind would bend downwards while sound
propagating against the wind would bend upwards.
Temperature Gradient: Sound waves travel faster in a warm atmosphere near the surface of
the earth. Here, there is an upward refraction of sound waves. In case of a decrease in
temperature at higher altitudes, the refraction would be downwards.
Q15. Define speed of sound.
Answer: The speed of sound is defined as the dynamic propagation of sound waves. This
depends on the characteristics of the medium through which the propagation takes place.
Speed of sound is used for describing the speed of sound waves in an elastic medium.
-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 16: Reflection of Light
Q1. Fill in the blanks
1. The perpendicular to the mirror at the point of incidence is called normal line.
2. The reflection of light from a wooden surface is diffused reflection.
3. The working of Kaleidoscope is based on the properties of reflection of light.
Q2. Draw a figure describing the following.
The reflecting surfaces of two mirrors make an angle of 90o with each other. If a ray incident
of one mirror has an angle of incidence of 30o, draw the ray reflected from the second
mirror. What will be its angle of reflection?
Answer:
Here, ray AB in the incident ray on the first mirror which makes an angle of 30o.
Ray CD is the reflected ray from the second mirror.
So, its angle of reflection is 60o with the normal.
Q3. How will you explain the statement ‘we cannot see the objects in a dark room’?
Answer: When we switch off the light at night, the objects in the room cannot be seen and
they can be seen as before when the light is switched on again. Thus, we can see objects
when the light coming from these objects enters our eyes. The light entering our eyes may
be emitted by the object or may be reflected by that object.
Class 8 Science
Q4. Explain the difference between regular and irregular reflection of light.
Answer: The difference between regular and irregular reflection of light are:
The reflected rays are parallel to each The reflected rays are non-parallel to each other.
other.
The reflected rays are in one direction. The reflected rays are in different direction.
a) The image obtained by the plane mirror is always erect and virtual.
b) The image size and the size of the object, both are equal.
c) The distance between the image obtained is same as the distance at which the
object is placed.
d) Laterally inverted images are obtained.
Class 8 Science
Q16. How do we see the image of the Moon in water?
Answer: As moon is not self-luminous, the Sun light falling on the surface of the Moon is
reflected. This reflected light is again reflected by water to give us the image of the Moon. In
this way light can be reflected several times.
Q17. A ray of light is incident towards a plane mirror at an angle of 30° with the mirror
surface. What will be the angle of reflection?
Answer: Since the angle of incidence is measured between the incident ray and the normal,
so, here the angle of incidence is not 60°
According to Law of Reflection,
θi = θr
Hence,
Angle of Reflection = 60°
Q18. What is a Kaleidoscope?
Answer: A kaleidoscope is an optical instrument consisting of two or more reflecting
surfaces. These surfaces are tilted towards each other at a certain angle to obtain
symmetrical patterns when viewed from the other end. The tube with reflecting surfaces
consists of coloured pieces of glass. By rotating the tube, symmetrical images are created.
Q19. What is a mirror and explain the terms related to it.
Answer: A mirror is defined as reflecting surface and can be explained by the law of
reflection, which states that when a ray of light is made to fall on the reflecting surface, the
reflected ray has its angle of reflection, incident ray and the reflected ray are normal to the
surface at a point of incidence.
The terms related to mirror are:
-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 17: Man Made
Bakelite Plates
Polypropylene Mattresses
Plastic
Bangles Glass
Chair PVC
Broom Broomcorn
During spinning process spinneret is not During spinning process spinneret is necessary
necessary for the production of filament
Thermoplastics have low melting points and low Thermosetting plastics have high
tensile strength. melting points and tensile strength.
B. Glass – While glass production, mixture needs to be heated up to 1500 ºC. During
this, greenhouse gases like sulphur dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, carbon dioxide are
released through burning of fuel. As the glass is non-degradable, if pieces of the
waste glass material flow into water body, it may affect that ecosystem. Similarly,
drainage may be blocked due to these pieces.
Answer: For glass production, mixture of sand, soda, lime, and small quantity of
magnesium oxide is heated in furnace. Sand i.e. silicon dioxide melts at 1700 0C. So
as to melt the mixture at low temperature, pieces of discarded glass are added to it.
Due to this, mixture melts at 850 ºC. Once all the ingredients of mixture are liquified,
it is heated up to 1500 ºC and immediately cooled. Due to sudden cooling, mixture
becomes homogeneous, amorphous and transparent instead of crystalline. This is
called Soda-lime glass.
2. Optic glass
Answer: Optical glass is produced from the mixture of sand, soda, limestone, barium
oxide and boron. This type of pure glass is useful in production of spectacles, lenses,
microscopic lenses, etc.
3. Uses of plastic.
a) On heating, glass becomes soft and can be moulded into any shape.
b) Density of glass depends upon its ingredients.
c) Glass is slow conductor of heat. On quick heating of cool glass or on quick cooling of
hot
d) glass, it cracks / breaks.
e) Being bad conductor of electricity, glass is used as insulator in electric appliances.
f) Being transparent, most light passes through the glass. However, if there are oxides
of either chromium, vanadium or iron in the glass, large amount of light is absorbed
in glass.
Class 8 Science
Q8. Explain properties of plastics.
Answer: The properties of glass are:
Thermoplastic
Polyvinyl chloride Bottles, raincoat, pipes, handbags, shoes, electric cable insulation,
(PVC) furniture, ropes, toys, etc.
Polyethylene (PE) Milk bags, packing bags, flexible garden pipes, etc.
Polypropylene (PP) Parts of loudspeakers & vehicles, ropes, mattresses, laboratory appliances,
etc.
Class 8 Science
Thermosetting plastic
Bakelite Cabinets of radio, T.V., telephones, electric switches, toys, coverings over handles
of cookers, etc.
Melamine Domestically useful items like cup – saucers, plates, trey, some spare parts of
airplane engines, electric and sound insulating coverings, etc.
c) Alkali silicate glass: Alkali silicate glass is produced by heating the mixture of sand
and soda. As this glass is soluble in water, it is called a ‘water glass’.
d) Lead glass is produced by melting the mixture of sand, soda, limestone and lead
oxide. Being very clear / transparent, it is used in manufacturing light bulbs, tubes,
etc.
e) Optical glass: Optical glass is produced from the mixture of sand, soda, limestone,
barium oxide and boron. This type of pure glass is useful in production of spectacles,
lenses, microscopic lenses, etc.
f) Coloured glass: Soda lime glass is colourless. So as to impart a desired colour, oxide
of specific metal is mixed during manufacturing process. e.g. Ferrous oxide is mixed
to get bluish green glass and copper oxide to get red glass.
a) We can reduce the use of plastic bags and carry jute bags and paper bags to carry
items from the market.
b) We can reduce the use of plastic containers for storing food and other items and use
more durable materials like metal.
c) We can avoid using takeaway food containers.
Reuse
a) We can use discarded bottles and jars to store food items and water.
b) We can reuse the plastic bags whenever possible, keeping safety and hygiene in
mind.
c) We can use broken artifacts and create something new with our own creativity, for
e.g. discarded water bottles can be used as containers, as shown in the figure below.
Recycle
a) We can give the old plastic chairs and jars for a recycle and support the cause by
using recycled items.
b) We can try using recyclable plastic bags, whenever possible.
Class 8 Science
Q15. Explain the advantages of plastic.
Answer: The following properties of plastic make it the material of choice for making many
articles:
a) Plastics are non-reactive: Most of the metals get corroded by air and water. But
plastics do not react with air or water. So, they cannot be corroded easily. Therefore,
it is used for making many utensils and storing various chemicals.
b) Plastics are light, strong and durable: The articles made up of plastics are very light.
Plastic being light, strong and durable can be moulded into many shapes and sizes as
required by the user. They are cheaper than metals and hence, widely used in
making various household products.
c) Plastic is a poor conductor: They are poor conductors of heat and electricity and
therefore plastics are used for coating electric wires and switches. The handles of
frying pans are also made up of plastic due to this property.
Q16. What is glass?
Answer: Glass is the non-crystalline, hard but brittle solid material formed from mixture of
silica and silicate. Silica i.e. SiO2 to which we refer to as sand. Depending upon the
proportion of silica and other components in the glass; there are different types of glass
such as soda-lime glass, boro-silicate glass, silica glass, alkali silicate glass, etc.
Q17. Write the effect on persons working in thermocol factories?
Answer: Persons staying in contact with thermocol for long term may develop the problems
of eyes, respiratory system, skin, digestive system, etc. Pregnant women may face
miscarriage. Liquid styrene may cause skin-burns.
Q18. Which material is wrapped around the items of glass or similar material during
transport to prevent from breaking up?
Answer: Bubble wrap is used around the items of glass or similar material during transport
to prevent from breaking up. Glass or other similar material are fragile in nature. Bubble
wrap has got air bubbles, which prevent the glass ware from shock that might lead to
breakage.
Q19. Which type of glass is used in vehicles to avoid injuries in accidents?
Answer: Glass used in making car is called safety glass. The glass used in the windshield is
laminated glass. These are all special types of glasses which are used for making cars so that
they don’t break easily, and when they break, they don’t cause much injury.
Q20. What is a plastic?
Answer: A man made material showing the property of plasticity and made up of organic
polymers is plastic. Structure of all the plastics is not the same. Some are linear while some
are circular.
-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 18: Ecosystems
Q1. Complete the following by using correct option.
1. Air, water, minerals, soil are physical factors of an ecosystem.
2. River, ponds, ocean are aquatic ecosystems.
3. Man is consumer in an ecosystem.
Q2. Match the following
Answer:
Producers Ecosystem
Cactus Desert
Mangroves Forest
Pine Creek
Q3. Give my information
1. Ecosystem
Answer: The world around us is made up of living and non-living factors. Living are
called biotic factors while non-living are called abiotic factors. There is a continuous
interaction between these living and non-living factors. Living organisms and their
habitat, environment are correlated with each other. The structure which is formed
due to these reciprocal relationships is called an ecosystem. Biotic and abiotic factors
and their interactions form an ecosystem.
2. Biome
Answer: In some regions on earth, a large area has same climate and abiotic factors.
The living organisms in those areas are also similar. So, a specific ecosystem develops
in a vast area. Such large ecosystems are called ‘Biomes’. These biomes contain
many small ecosystems. Earth itself is a vast ecosytem. Two types of biomes are
found on the earth. i. Land biomes ii. Aquatic biomes.
3. Food web
Answer: There are unique interactions and relationships, which are involved in the
transportation of energy. The energy, once produced and captured, is distributed
throughout the various living organisms. This transfer of energy is termed as the
food web.
Class 8 Science
Q4. Give scientific reasons
1. Plants in an ecosystem are called consumers.
Answer: Plants are called primary consumers in an ecosystem. Typically, they are
considered as producers because they don’t depend on other organisms for their
food. Plants manufacture their own food by the process of photosynthesis. The
photosynthesis is a process through which carbon dioxide and water are converted
into oxygen and glucose in plants in the presence of sunlight.
2. Large dams destroy ecosystems.
Answer: Large dams destroy ecosystem because of the following reasons:
a) Dams can cause rare flooding and this flooding of large areas of land means that the
natural environment is destroyed.
b) Relocation is another big concern. People living in villages and towns that are in the
valley that could be flooded, must move out. Hence, they lose their farms and
businesses.
c) The building of large dams can cause serious geological damage, for instance, the
building of the Hoover Dam in the USA triggered a number of earthquakes and has
depressed the earth’s surface at its location. This is an alarming matter.
d) It causes harm to the aquatic organisms living underwater and thus, they destroy the
river ecosystem.
3. Rhinos were restored in Dudhwa forest.
Answer: About 150 years ago, Dudhwa forest was the habitat for single-horned
Rhino. But in 20th century this animal became extinct due to unrelenting hunting. On
1st April 1984 this rhino were restored there and were bred in captivity and then
released in their habitat. For this, 27 square km grassland and forest where water
sources were available were selected and two observatories were established. So,
finally, these efforts became successful and Rhinos were restored in Dudhwa forest.
Q5. Answer the following.
1. What are the effects of increased population on ecosystems?
Answer: Humans are the consumers in an ecosystem. Ecosystems can provide basic
needs in normal conditions, but due to increased population, man kept on snatching
natural resources on a large scale. Changing lifestyle demands ‘more’ than
‘necessary’. That has increased stress on the ecosystems and has generated vast
amount of wastes.
2. How is urbanization responsible for destruction of ecosystems?
Answer: Due to continuous process of urbanization, more and more agricultural
lands, marshlands, wetlands, forests and grasslands are being destroyed for
buildings and other basic facilities around. As a result of this human interference,
ecosystems either change or get completely destroyed.
Class 8 Science
3. What are the reasons for war?
Answer: Differences and competition over land, water, mineral resources or some
economic and political reasons lead to war among human races. Heavy bombing and
mine explosions are done in wars. These are not only life-threatening but also
change or destroy natural ecosystem.
4. Explain the interactions among the factors of an ecosystem.
Answer: Ecosystems are made up of living things (biotic factors) and non-living
things (abiotic factors) that interact with each other. Organisms such as bacteria,
worms, birds, plants and snakes are examples of biotic factors. Examples of abiotic
factors include water, temperature, pH, salinity and light intensity.
5. Differentiate between evergreen forests and grasslands.
Answer: Grasslands – Grasslands develop where rainfall is not enough to grow big
trees. Vast growth of grass is found in these ecosystems. Longer summer and limited
rain develop dwarf plants in these areas. Animals like goat, sheep, giraffe, zebra,
elephant, deer, chital, tiger, lion, etc. are found in this ecosystem. Similarly, various
birds, insects, microbes are also present.
Evergreen forests – It’s a natural ecosystem where variety of plants, animals and
abiotic factors are found.
Q6. Explain the structure of an ecosystem.
Answer: Living organisms need different types of abiotic factors and they have different
capacities to adapt with those abiotic factors. Some microbes need oxygen, while others
don’t. Some plants need more sunlight, while others grow well in shade. Each and every
abiotic factor (air, water, soil, sunlight, temperature, humidity) affects the biotic factors in
the ecosystem. The abiotic factors in an ecosystem decide which biotic factors will survive in
it and what will be their number. The proportion of abiotic factors in an ecosystem is always
changing as biotic factors use or excrete abiotic factors. Every biotic factor affects abiotic
factors as well as other biotic factors around it. Every living organism in an ecosystem plays
a particular role while living, moving in that ecosystem.
Q7. What are the components of an ecosystem?
Answer: The components of an ecosystem are:
Biotic components are the living things that have a direct or indirect influence on other
organisms in an environment. For example, plants, animals, and microorganisms and their
waste materials.
Abiotic components of an ecosystem include all chemical and physical elements i.e. non-
living components. Abiotic components can vary from region to region, from one ecosystem
to another. They mainly take up the role of life supporter. They determine and restrict the
population growth, number, and diversity of biotic factors in an ecosystem. Hence, they are
called limiting factors.
Class 8 Science
Q8. Define land biomes and aquatic biomes.
Answer: Land biomes – The biomes which exist only on land are called land biomes. Due to
unequal distribution of abiotic factors different types of ecosystems exist. Eg. Grasslands,
evergreen forests, deserts, iceland ecosystem, ecosystems in Taiga, tropical rainforests, etc.
Aquatic biomes – 71 % of the earth surface is covered by water and only 29 % has land on it.
Therefore, study of aquatic biomes becomes very important. According to the area, aquatic
biomes are widespread. Types of aquatic ecosystems are – Freshwater ecosystem, marine
ecosystem, creek ecosystem.
Q9. Explain diminishment of ecosystem due to human interference?
Answer: Many human activities have side effects on functions of ecosystems and cause
their diminishment. Eg. mining and excessive cutting of trees changes the use of land, so
interactions between biotic and abiotic factors are also affected. Different human activities
have different effects on ecosystems. There can be transformation of an ecosystem from
one to another or extinction of a species.
Q10. Write the functions of an ecosystem?
Answer: The functions of the ecosystem are as follows:
a) It regulates the essential ecological processes, supports life systems and renders
stability.
b) It is also responsible for the cycling of nutrients between biotic and abiotic
components.
c) It maintains a balance among the various trophic levels in the ecosystem.
d) It cycles the minerals through the biosphere.
e) The abiotic components help in the synthesis of organic components that involves
the exchange of energy.
Q11. How do producers obtain abiotic factors?
Answer: The producers obtain abiotic factors through biotic factors. Producers are those
organisms that can prepare their own food such as plants who prepare their own food
through photosynthesis. Producers are biotic factors and they are directly dependent on the
abiotic factors such as wind, water, temperature, sunlight. For example, plants obtain
abiotic factors such as sunlight, water and carbon dioxide and in return liberates oxygen and
food.
Q12. From where do the consumers get their food?
Answer: Consumers get their food supply from producers. Producers are plants with the
green pigment chlorophyll, and producers can make their own food using sunlight, air and
water.
Class 8 Science
Q13. Discuss the importance of ecosystem.
Answer: The importance of ecosystem are:
-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----
Class 8 Science
Chapter 19: Life Cycle of Stars
Q1. Search and you will find.
1. Our galaxy is called Milky Way galaxy.
2. For measuring large distances kilometre is used as a unit.
3. The speed of light is 3,00,000 km/s.
4. There are about billions of stars in our galaxy.
5. The end stage of the Sun will be a red giant.
6. Stars are born out of interstellar clouds.
7. Milky way is a spiral galaxy.
8. Stars are spheres of hydrogen and helium gas
9. The masses of other stars are measured relative to the mass of the sun
10. Light takes time to reach us from the Sun while it takes minutes to reach us
11. from the moon.
12. The larger the mass of a star the faster is its evolution.
13. The number of fuels used in the life of a star depends on its life cycle.
3. A star ends its life as a neutron star when the pressure of its electrons balances its
gravity.
Answer: It’s a lie because a star ends its life as a neutron star when the pressure of
its neutron’s balances gravity.
5. The Sun will pass through the supergiant stage during its evolution.
Answer: The statement is true as the sun will pass through the supergiant stage
during its evolution.
Answer: Huge clouds of gas and dust are present in the empty spaces between stars
in a galaxy. These are called interstellar clouds. Due to some disturbance, these
clouds start contracting. Because of the contraction, their density starts increasing
and their temperature also starts to increase and a dense sphere of hot gas is
formed from the cloud. Once the temperature and density at the centre of the
sphere increase sufficiently, nuclear energy (energy generated through fusion of
atomic nuclei) generation starts there. Owing to this energy generation, the gas
sphere becomes self-luminous and a star is formed or we can say that a star is born.
Answer: Evolution of a star means change in its properties with time resulting in its
passing through different stages. Stars evolve very slowly for most of their lifetime.
As stars are continuously emitting energy, their energy is constantly decreasing. For
their stability to remain intact i.e. for maintaining a balance between the gas
pressure and the gravitational force, it is necessary that the temperature remains
constant. For the temperature to remain constant, energy must be generated inside
the star. This generation of energy occurs because of burning of fuel at the centre of
the star. The reason for the evolution of stars is the burning of and therefore, the
decrease in the amount of fuel in their centre. When the fuel in the centre finishes,
the energy generation stops. As a result, the temperature of the star starts
decreasing. Due to the decrease in temperature, the gas pressure decreases and the
balance between gas pressure and gravitational force cannot be maintained. As the
gravitational force is now higher than the gas pressure, the star starts contracting.
This causes another fuel to start burning e.g. when hydrogen at the centre is
finished, helium starts undergoing fusion and energy generation starts again. How
many fuels will be used depends on the mass of the star.
Higher the mass of the star higher is the number of fuels used. During this a lot of
changes occur in the star. As a number of processes occur inside the star, it
sometimes contracts and expands at other times and the star goes through different
stages. When all possible fuels are exhausted, the energy generation finally stops
and the temperature of the star starts decreasing. The balance between
gravitational force and gas pressure cannot be maintained.
Answer: There are three ways of evolution of stars depending on their initial mass.
a) End stages of stars having initial mass less than 8 times the mass of the Sun (Mstar < 8
MSun): Stars in this group undergo huge expansion and their radius increases by a
factor of 100 to 200. In this stage they are called red giant stars. This name is given
because of the large size and because of the fact that the stars look reddish due to
their lower temperature. At the end of its evolution, these stars explode and their
outer gas envelope is thrown out. The inner part contracts and its size becomes
similar to the size of the earth. As the mass of the star is much higher than that of
the earth and the size is similar to that of the earth, the density in the star becomes
very high. In this state, the pressure due to the electrons in the star becomes
independent of temperature and is able to balance the gravitational force forever. In
this state, the star looks white and due to its small size it is called a white dwarf.
After this its temperature keeps decreasing but its size and mass remain unchanged
for ever and so white dwarf is the end stage of stars in this mass range.
b) End stages of stars having mass between 8 and 25 time the mass of the Sun (8 MSun <
MStar < 25 MSun) : These stars also go through the red giant stage and later through
the supergiant stage during which their size may increase 1000 times. The huge
explosion, called the supernova explosion, which occurs at last is very powerful and
so much energy is given off that we can see the star during the day also. The central
portion which is left behind after the explosion, contracts and its size becomes as
small as about 10 km. In this state, the stars are completely made up of neutrons and
are called neutron stars. The pressure of these neutrons is independent of
temperature and is capable of balancing the gravitational force forever. Neutron star
is the end stage of these stars.
c) End stages of stars having mass larger than 25 times the mass of the Sun (Mstar > 25
MSun): These stars evolve like the stars in the second group but after the supernova
explosion, no pressure is capable of balancing their huge gravitational force and they
continue contracting forever. As their size becomes smaller, their density and their
gravitational force increase tremendously. All nearby objects get attracted towards
these stars and nothing can come out of them, not even light. Also, any light falling
on these stars does not get reflected and gets absorbed inside the star. Thus, we
cannot see the star at all but can probably see a minute black hole at its place. This
end stage of the star is therefore called a black hole. Thus, we have seen that,
depending on mass, there are three paths of evolution and three end stages of stars.
Stars Planets
Stars are incredibly hot having high Planets on the other hand have relatively
temperatures to them. low temperatures.
They are objects that produce their own Planets are incapable of producing their
light and do not rely on an external source own light.
for the production of light
Stars have a unique effect of twinkling in Planets do not exhibit the twinkling effect
the sky. unlike stars
The stars do not change their position at Planets in orbits on their own axis change
all. their positions constantly.
Stars have incredibly high temperatures to Planets on the other hand are relatively
them. colder with lower temperatures.
Class 8 Science
Q8. What is a satellite?
Answer: An object orbiting around the sun, earth or any other colossal body is known as a
satellite. There are two major types of categorization when it comes down to satellites, one
is natural and the other is man-made.
Q9. Which is the star nearest to us?
Answer: Stars are celestial objects that can produce their own light. They are extremely hot
and extremely large in size. They are mostly made up of hydrogen gas with a little helium in
them. The sun is also a star which is nearest to us.
Q10. Define light year.
Answer: The distance travelled by light in one year is called a light year. It is a measure of
distance for celestial objects.
Speed of light \(= 3 \times 108 m/s\)
1 light year \(= 9.46 \times 1012 km\)
The sun is 8 light minutes away from earth. The distance of Alpha Centauri is 4.3 light years
away.
Q11. Define the Sun and the Planet.
Answer: The sun is the nearest star to earth. It is continuously emitting heat and light. It is
the main source of heat and light energy for all planets in our solar system.
Planets are celestial bodies that do not emit heat or light of their own. They revolve around
a star in fixed paths called orbits and the time it takes to go around the sun once is known as
its period of revolution. A planet also spins on its own axis which is called a rotation.
Q12. What is stability of stars?
Answer: The gravitational force between the gas particles of the star keeps these particles
together. If the gravitational force which is constantly trying to bring the gas particles close
together and the pressure of the hot gas which is constantly trying to disperse the gas are
balanced, then the star remains stable. The gravitational force is acting inwards, towards the
centre of the star while the gas pressure is acting outwards, i.e. away from the centre of the
star.
Q13. Define stars.
Answer: Stars are celestial bodies that emit their own light and heat. Our sun is an example
of a star. Although stars are always present in the sky but are only visible at night due to the
absence of sunlight. They appear as points as they are millions of kilometres away from us.
Stars twinkle as their light gets refracted in our atmosphere. The position of stars keeps
changing as seen from the earth’s surface, apart from the Polestar whose position is fixed.
Class 8 Science
Q14. What is solar system and how many planets are there in our solar system?
Answer: The sun and all other planets and celestial bodies that revolve around it are
together called a solar system. Our solar system has 8 planets and an asteroid belt. Pluto is
considered as a dwarf planet. All planets in the solar system revolve around the sun in fixed
orbits. Planets nearer to the sun revolve faster as compared to the planets away from the
sun.
Q15. Explain properties of stars.
Answer: The mass of the Sun is about 3.3 lakh times that of the earth and its radius is 100
times that of the earth. The age of the Sun and other stars, which is the time elapsed after
their formation, can be between a few million years to a few billion years. If the properties
of the Sun had changed in its lifetime, it would have caused changes in the properties of the
earth and in the life on the earth. Detailed studies of the properties of the earth have led
scientists to conclude that the properties of the Sun have remained unchanged over its
lifetime i.e. the past 4.5 billion years. According to the studies made by astronomers, these
properties will slowly change in further after 4.5 billion years. So, stars contain the above-
mentioned properties.
-----xxxx-----xxxx-----xxxx-----