MCQ- CAT-1 EXAM

Unit-1
1. Which one is not an auxiliary Element in Medical Instrument?
a). Calibration signal
b) Control and Feedback
c) Transmission of data to remote location
d) Receive of data from remote location

Answer: d
2. Match the following
i) calibration signal - (1) intensive care monitors
ii) control and feedback - (2) nurses’ stations
iii) Alarms - (3) known voltage
iv) transmission of data to remote locations - (4) insulin delivery
a) i) – (3), ii) – (4), iii) – (1), iv) – (2)
b) i) – (2), ii) – (3), iii) – (4), iv) – (1)
c) i) – (3), ii) – (1), iii) – (4), iv) – (2)
d) i) – (4), ii) – (3), iii) – (1), iv) – (2)

Answer: a
3. What is the function of generating sensor?
a) Produces output from energy in measurement
b) Chang in flow of energy from an external source through the sensor
c) Measure directly interfaces with sensor
d) known relation to desired measurand
Answer: a
4. what is the measurand the instrument designed to isolate?
a) Desired input
b) Interfering inputs
c) Modifying inputs
d) Indirect measured
Answer: a
5. Relation to desired measurand known as
a) Indirect measured
b) Direct measured
c) Desired input
d) Interfering inputs
Answer: a
6. Find the correct statement of Modifying inputs measurements.

a) the measurand the instrument is designed to isolate

b) quantities that inadvertently affect the instrument as a consequence of the principles used
to acquire and process the desired inputs
c) undesired quantities that indirectly affect the output by altering the performance of the
instrument itself.
d) measures change in flow of Energy from an external source through the sensor
Answer: c
7. Quantities that inadvertently affect the instrument as a consequence of the principles used to
acquire and process the desired inputs is known as
a) Indirect measured
b) Modifying inputs
c) Desired input
d) Interfering inputs
Answer: d
8. undesired quantities that indirectly affect the output by altering the performance of the
instrument itself is known as
a) Modifying inputs
b) Direct measured
c) Desired input
d) Interfering inputs
Answer: a
9. a measure of the relationship between numerical variables X and Y for paired observations are
Known as
a) Corelation coefficient
b) standard deviation
c) geometric mean
d) Signal filtering
Answer: a
10. What are characteristics of system performance for DC or very low frequency inputs?
a) Static Characteristics
b) Dynamic Characteristics
c) Reproducibility
d) Statistical Control
Answer: a
11. Find the odd one out of Instrument performance static characteristics
a) Zero Drift
b) Input Impedance
c) Static Sensitivity
d) Nonlinearity
Answer: d
12. Find the system performance for AC inputs is know as
a) Static Characteristics
b) Dynamic Characteristics
c) Reproducibility
d) Statistical Control
Answer: b
13. Which one is not a correct statement of instrument measurement
a) High precision does not imply high accuracy.
b) possibility that the measurement is low or high are presumed equal
c) The ability of an instrument to give the different output for equal
d) The degree to which nearly identical values can be discriminated
Answer: c
14. From given figure which one is low accuracy and high precision of measurement
a)
 b)

c)

d)

Answer: b

15. From given figure which one is low accuracy and low precision of measurement
a)

b)
 c)

d)

Answer: d

16. What is the Static error of resolution?

a) Removed by calibration and correction factors
b) Averaging multiple measurements made under “controlled, measurment” conditions
c) The smallest incremental quantity that can be measured with certainty
d) How much variation is there from measurement to measurement under measurement
conditions
Answer: a
17. What is the random errors of resolution?
e) Removed by calibration and correction factors
f) Averaging multiple measurements made under “controlled, measurment” conditions
g) The smallest incremental quantity that can be measured with certainty
h) How much variation is there from measurement to measurement under measurement
conditions
Answer: b
18. Define resolution of instrument measurement.
a) The ratio of the incremental output quantity to the incremental input quantity, under static
conditions, within the operating range of the instrument
b) hold all inputs constant except one
c) Vary this one input incrementally over the n.o.r., recording the resulting incremental
outputs
d) The smallest incremental quantity that can be measured with certainty
Answer: d
19. Identify the zero drift of measurement
a) All output values increase or decrease by the same absolute amount
b) The slope of the calibration curve changes
c) The ratio of the incremental output quantity to the incremental input quantity, under static
conditions
 d) Averaging multiple measurements made under “controlled, measurment” conditions
Answer: a

20. What is the meaning of sensitivity drift?

a) All output values increase or decrease by the same absolute amount
b) The slope of the calibration curve changes
c) The ratio of the incremental output quantity to the incremental input quantity, under static
conditions
d) Averaging multiple measurements made under “controlled, measurment” conditions
Answer: b

21. How much skin impedance are reduced for 1 cm2 to apply the frequency of 1 Hz to
1MHz using electrode skin interface
a) 200KΩ to 200Ω
b) 200Ω to 20KΩ
c) 100KΩ to 100Ω
d) 100Ω to 100KΩ
Answer: a

22. Which one is not a surface electrode?

a) Metal plate electrode
b) Suction cup electrode
c) Single point electrode
d) Multipoint electrode
Answer: c

23. What type of application are use metal plate electrode?

a) EMG Measurement
b) EEG Measurement
c) ECG Measurement
d) EOG Measurement
Answer: c

24. Chose the odd one out of, Haff – cell potential polarization?
a) Metal involved
b) Concentration of its ion in solution
c) Temperature
d) Electrolyte
Answer: d

24. Metal dose not connect the subject directly but via electrolyte bridge also called
as____________________
a) Electrode
b) Junction Electrode
c) Liquid Junction Electrode
d) Electrolyte
Answer: c

25 What type of artifact is eliminating in Floating electrode?

 a) Surface artifact
b) Movement artifact
c) Chemical artifact
d) Electron artifact
Answer: b

26. It is not suitable for flexible body surface electrode.

a) Carbon filled silicon rubber
b) flexible thin film neonatal electrode
c) Cross sectional view of the thin film electrode
d) Surface thin electrode
Answer: d

27. Find odd one out of, given the recording problems
a) Thermal nose
b) Noise at the electrolyte
c) Electric and magnetic field interference
d) Surface artifact
Answer: d

28. Moment of low current density is known as __________________

a) Interference
b) Ohmic noise
c) Movement artifact
d) Distortion
Answer: d

29. when you’re measuring the bio signal. if signal is distortion, then you’re using Ag-AgCl
electrode use shielded the cable to reduce ______________
a) Interference
b) Ohmic noise
c) Movement artifact
d) Distortion
Answer: a

30. Equal Half cell potential and high impedance will minimize the artifacts is known as
_______________
a) Interference
b) Ohmic noise
c) Movement artifact
d) Distortion
Answer: c
31. Which of the following statements is not true for biosensors?
a) Biosensors convert a biological signal into an electrical signal
b) Biosensors are used to determine the concentration of substances and other
parameters of biological interest even where they do not utilize a biological system
directly
c) Biosensors utilize the different biological systems such as enzymes, whole cell
metabolism, ligand binding and the antibody-antigen reaction
 d) Biosensor consists of a vessel, or series of vessels, used to perform a desired
conversion by enzymic means
Answer: d

32. Which of the following features is not possessed by biosensor?

a) The biocatalyst used in the biosensor must be highly specific for the purpose of the
analyses
b) The reaction occurring in the biosensor should be as independent of such physical
parameters
c) Active site is mainly constituted by non-polar amino acids for catalysis to take place
d) The response from the biosensors should be accurate, precise, reproducible and linear
Answer: c

33. What does the following diagram represent?

a)

Packed bed reactor

b) Schematic diagram showing the main components of a biosensor
c) Chromatography
d) Lock and key model
Answer: b

34.  What property of enzyme doesn’t make it an excellent analytical reagent?

a) Specificity
b) Selectivity
c) Piezo-electric biosensor
d) Location of the enzyme
Answer: c

35. If the physical change accompanying the reaction is heat output, the biosensors are
referred to as _________________
a) Potentiometric biosensors
b) Optical biosensors
c) Calorimetric biosensors
d) Amperometric biosensors
Answer: c

36. When the physical change produced in a biosensor is due to the movement of electrons
produced in a redox reaction, the biosensor is referred to as ____________
 a) calorimetric biosensor
b) potentiometric biosensor
c) piezo-electric biosensor
d) amperometric biosensor
Answer: d

37. In a biosensor ___________ is one which involves subtracting a ‘reference’ baseline

signal from the sample signal.
a) signal processor
b) amplifier
c) detector
d) transducer
Answer: a

38. Biosensors measure glucose concentrations between which of the following ranges?
a) 10-1 to 10-2 M
b) 10-2 to 10-4 M
c) 10-1 to 10-4 M
d) 10-1 to 10-7 M
Answer: d

39. Given below is the diagram of biosensor. Identify the unmarked component.

a) Microprocessor
b) Filter
c) Transducer
d) A/D converter
Answer: c

40. Transducers employed in the bulk of enzyme electrodes use which of the following
principles?
a) Amperometric
b) Optical
c) Magnetic
d) Colorimetric
Answer: a
41. Which of these biosensors use the principle of heat released or absorbed by a reaction?
a) Potentiometric biosensor
b) Optical biosensors
c) Piezo-electric biosensors
d) Calorimetric biosensors
Answer: d
 42. For constructing the glucose sensor, which of the following is used as a gel?
a) Urea
b) Urease
c) Acrylamide
d) Polyacrylamide
Answer: d

Unit-II

1. What is the frequency range of Electrocardiography?

a) 0.05 to 120 Hz
b) 0.1 to 100 Hz
c) 5 to 2000 Hz
d) 0 to 20 Hz
Answer: a

2. Identify the Amplitude range of Electromyography ?

a) 0.1 to 5µV
b) 0.5 to 1µV
c) 10 to 3500µV
d) 2 to 200µV
Answer: a

3. Which type of electrode used in Electro-oculography to measure the signal?

a) Surface
b) Scalp
c) Needle
d) Contact
Answer: d

4. ECG identified by the PR interval tends to become longer with every succeeding ECG
complex until there is a P wave not followed by a QRS is observed in
a) Third-Degree Atrioventricular Block
b) Second-Degree Atrioventricular Block, Type II
c) Second-Degree Atrioventricular Block, Type I
d) First-Degree Atrioventricular Block, Type II
Answer: c
5.  P wave indicates
a) Depolarization of right ventricle
b) Depolarization of left ventricle
c) Depolarization of both atria
d) Atria to ventricular conduction time
Answer: c
6. Ventricular muscle depolarization is indicated by
a) PR interval
b) P wave
c) U wave
d) The QRS complex
Answer: d

7. The characteristics – slurring of the initial QRS deflection, shortened PR interval, and
prolonged QRS duration are of this condition
a) Atrial tachycardia
b) Left bundle branch block
c) WPW (Wolff-Parkinson-White) syndrome
d) Myocardial ischemia
Answer: c

8. For the normal heartbeat, depolarization stimulus originates in

a) His-bundle areas
b) Epicardium
c) Sinoatrial (SA)node
d) Atrioventricular (AV) node
Answer: c

9. ECG report must consist of the following information

a) Rhythm, cardiac axis
b) Conduction intervals
c) Description of the ST segments, QRS complexes, T-waves
d) All of these
Answer: d
10. A particular ECG change observed in Hypokalemia is
a) ST segment elevation
b) U wave (a position deflection after the T wave)
c) Tall peaked T waves
d) Widening of the QRS complex and increased amplitude
Answer: b

11. In which of these conditions can widen QRS and Tall-tented T waves be observed?
a) Hyponatremia
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Hyperphosphatemia
Answer: b

12. This is the classic ECG change in MI (myocardial infarction)

a) ST-segment elevation
b) T-wave inversion
c) Development of an abnormal Q wave
d) All of these
Answer: d

13. Which of the four limbs acts like a ground and thus is not a part of the ECG test?
a) Right Arm
b) Left Arm
c) Right Leg
d) Left Leg
Answer: c

14. The most common placement of the leads from the Einthoven’s triangle is __________
a) Positive Left Arm and Negative Right Arm
b) Positive Left Leg and Negative Right Arm
c) Positive Left Leg and Negative Left Arm
d) Positive Right Arm and Negative Left Leg
Answer: b
15.  The amplitudes of the segments of the wave are ____________

a) P = 0.25 mV, Q = 0.4mV, R = 1.60mV, T = 0.1 – 0.5 mV

b) P = 2.0 mV, Q = 0.1mV, R = 1.60mV, T = 0.1 – 0.5 mV
c) P = 25.0mV, Q = 4.0mV, R = 16.0 mV, T = 10 – 50 mV
d) P = 0.25 mV, Q = 0.60mV, R = 1.60mV, T = 0.1 – 1.0 mV
Answer: a

16. In the standard 12-leads ECG, how many leads are unipolar?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 12
Answer: c

17. According to the international 10/20 system to measure EEG, even number denotes
which side of the brain?
a) left
b) top
c) bottom
d) right
Answer: d

18. Letter F in the EEG electrode placement system denotes?

a) front
b) face
c) frontal lobe
d) fast
Answer: c

19.  The delta wave in EEG ranges from ___________

a) 0.5-4Hz
b) 4-8Hz
c) 8-13Hz
d) 13-22Hz
Answer: a
20. The peak to peak amplitude of the waves that can be picked from the scalp is
______________
a) 100mV
b) 100V
c) 100µV
d) 10mV
Answer: c

21. Match the following

Wave Frequency(Hz)
1. Delta(δ) - (i) 4 to-8
2. Theat (θ) - (ii) 13 to 22
3. Alpha(α) - (ii) 0.5 to 44
4. Beta((β) - (iv) 8 to 13
a) 1-(ii) ,2-(iv) 3-(i), 4-(iii)
b) 1-(ii) ,2-(i) 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
c) 1-(ii) ,2-(iii) 3-(iv), 4-(i)
d) 1-(iii) ,2-(iv) 3-(i), 4-(ii)
Answer: a

22. Match the following using physical nature of ECG Waveform

1. P wave - (i) ventricular repolarization
2. T wave - (ii) slow repolarization of the ventricles
3. S-T interval - (iii) Atrial polarization or contraction
4. U wave - (iv) ventricular contraction
a) 1-(ii) ,2-(iv) 3-(i), 4-(iii)
b) 1-(ii) ,2-(i) 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
c) 1-(ii) ,2-(iii) 3-(iv), 4-(i)
d) 1-(iii) ,2-(i) 3-(iv), 4-(ii)
Answer: d

23. When intramuscular EMG is required to look into the electrical activities of deeper or
overlaid muscles, ________ electrodes are used.
a) plate shape electrodes
b) surface electrodes
c) thin thread electrodes
d) fine wire electrodes
Answer: d

24. In voluntary contraction of the skeletal muscles, the muscle potential ranges from
________
a) 50 uV – 5 mV
b) 50 mV – 5 V
c) 0.05 uV – 2 mV
d) 50 mV – 500 mV
Answer: a

25. Which of the following is a preferred electrode for measuring EMG?

a) surface electrodes
b) needle electrodes
 c) pregelled electrodes
d) scalp electrodes
Answer: b

26. Which electrode can be used to pick up signals from individual fibers of muscle tissues?
a) biopolar needle electrode
b) concentric core needle electrode
c) multi-element needle electrode
d) monopolar needle electrode
Answer: c

27. he contraction of the skeletal muscles results in the generation of action potential in the
individual muscle fibers. Record of this action potential is called ______________
a) ECG
b) EMG
c) EEG
d) EKG
Answer: b

28. Bio potential amplifiers have ____________ input terminals.

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Answer: a

29. Common mode rejection ratio value of Bio amplifier should be grater then
____________ to reduce the interference from common mode signal
a) 75 dB
b) 78 dB
c) 80 dB
d) 82 dB
Answer: c

30. biomedical Isolation Amplifier can be used to ___________

a) eliminate source ground connection, protect to patient and electronic equipment
b) protect to patient and electronic equipment, break ground loop
c) break ground loop, eliminate source ground connection
d) all
Answer: d

31. What is the signal bandwidth of Capacitive Isolation type Bio amplifier?
a) 68 kHz
b) 70kHz
c) 72kHz
d) 74kHz
Answer: b

32. Which one is not a false statement of Capacitive Isolation type Bio amplifier?
a) Ripple noise are not removed
b) It avoids device noise, radiated noise and conducted noise.
c) High immunity to magnetic noise.
d) High gain stability and linearity.
Answer: a

33. Match the following

1. Opto-isolated amplifier isolation voltage - (i) 2200V
2. Transformed coupled amplifier isolation voltage - (ii) 800 V
3. Capacitance amplifier isolation voltage - (iii) 1200V
a) 1-(iii), 2-(i) 3-(ii)
b) 1-(ii), 2-(iii) 3-(i)

c) 1-(ii), 2-(i) 3-(iii)

d) 1-(i), 2-(iii) 3-(ii)
Answer: a

34. What is the gain stability and linearity of Opto-Couple Bio-Amplifier?

a) 0.005%
b) 0.004%
c) 0.003%
d) 0.002%
Answer: d

35. Chopper stabilized dc amplifiers are complex amplifiers having ________ amplifiers
incorporated in the module.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c

36. Which of the following amplifier is employed with resistive transducers which require
an external source of excitation?
a) differential amplifier
b) ac coupled amplifier
c) carrier amplifier
d) dc bridge amplifier
Answer: d

37. Which amplifier has a limited frequency response?

a) differential amplifier
b) dc amplifiers
c) ac coupled amplifiers
d) carrier amplifiers
Answer: d

38. Which amplifier will reject any common mode signal that appears simultaneously at
both amplifier input terminal and amplifies only the voltage difference that appears
across its input terminals?
a) ac coupled amplifiers
 b) differential amplifiers
c) carrier amplifiers
d) dc amplifiers
Answer: b