١١/٠٧/٤٠

Study group

Q1: Which the following organism produce

macroconidia and microconidia

A. Bacteria
B. Virus
C. Yeast
D. Filamentous fungi

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Macroconidia and Microconidia

Q2: Which is the most common method of

automated immunoassay

A. Nephelometry
B. Atomic absorption
C. Spectrophotometry
D. Chemiluminescence

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١١/٠٧/٤٠

Q The prolactin hormone function :3

‫؟‬following the of to stimulate which

A. Saliva secretion
B. Mucous secretion
C. Milk secretion
D. Sweat secretion

Q4: Which of the following techniques is

commonly used for hormonal estimation?

A. Microscopy
B. Electrophoresis
C. Flame photometry
D. Immunodiffusion

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Q5: Transmission of which of the following could

cause Schistosoma heamatobium infection?

A. Ingestion of oocyte
B. Ingestion of embryonated egg
C. Penetration of the skin by cercaria
D. Penetration of the skin by cyticercus

Schistosoma heamatobium cercaria

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Q6: Which of the immunoglobulin is found in

very few amounts in serum?

A. IgM
B. IgD
C. IgG
D. IgA
E. IgE

Q7: Which of the following organism is

responsible for cutaneous mycoses?

A. Trichophyton rubrum
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
C. Malassezia furfur
D. Cryptococcus neoformans

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Q8: Which of the following is the first viral

marker detected after hepatitis B infection?

A. HBeAg
B. HBsAg
C. HBcAg
D. Anti-HBc

Hepatitis B markers

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Q9: Which of the following should be

collected for a CBC analysis?

A. RBCs
B. Serum
C. Plasma
D. Whole Blood

Q10: What is the high specific diagnostic test

for ANA?

A. RIBA
B. Immunofluorescence
C. Reverse passive agglutination
D. Agglutination inhibition reaction

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Immunofluorescence

Q11: What is the Streptolysin O?

A. Pilli
B. Flagella
C. Endotoxin
D. Exotoxin

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Exotoxin vs Endotoxin

Q12: Which of the sampling error can result

in falsely elevated potassium level?

A. Hemolysis
B. Timing Error
C. Contamination
D. Interfering Substance

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Q13: A request for ABO typing has been received; a blood

bank technician has started the procedure of forward
grouping by labeling the test tubes.

A. Add cells, add antisera, spin and mix

B. Add plasma, add cells, spin and mix
C. Add serum, add antisera, spin and mix
D. Add antisera, add cells, spin and mix

Q14: Which of the following is used to grow

virus in the laboratory?

A. Nutrient agar
B. Blood agar
C. Nutrient broth
D. Tissue culture

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Q15: Which of the following is the standard

cycle of autoclaving?

A. 20 Lb pressure, 100 ° C temperature for 10 mins.

B. 15 Lb pressure, 121 ° C temperature for 15 mins.
C. 10 Lb pressure, 130 ° C temperature for 15 mins.
D. 5 Lb pressure, 140 ° C temperature for 30 mins.

Q16: Calculate the MCHC given this data?

RBC 4.63x10 12/L , hemoglobin 15 g/dl , Hct 45 %

A. 30
B. 33
C. 35
D. 37

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MCHC

Q17: A 25 year-old patient has O blood group, and a request

for two units packed RBCs has been received Which blood
group should be used in the cross match?

A. A
B. A or b
C. O

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Q18: Which of the following specimen is used for

viral diagnosis of respiratory tract infection?

A. Conjunctival swab
B. Cerebrospinal fluid
C. Stool sample
D. Nasal swab

Q19: Which of the following blood collecting

tubes could be used for serological test?

A. Plain tube
B. EDTA tube
C. Sodium citrate tube
D. Lithium heparin tube

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Q20: The technician left the tourniquet on for more than the
recommended time period. Which of the following will be
falsely increased in the blood sample?

A. Sodium
B. Glucose
C. Protein
D. Triglycerides

Q21: Which of the following is the most convenient

time for cortisol blood sampling?

A. At 8 am and 10 pm
B. At 8 am and 4 pm
C. At 8 am and 8 pm
D. At 2 am and 4 pm

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Q22: Which part of the virus is detected by

PCR

A. Antigen
B. Viral particles
C. DNA
D. Envelope

Q23: What does an indirect ELISA technique detect?

A. Antibodies to virus and parasites

B. Antigens as protein and drugs
C. Epitopes
D. Label

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Q24: Which of the following processes uses viral

envelope glycoproteins?

A. Penetration
B. Assembly
C. Attachment
D. Adsorption

Viral replication processes

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Q25: The word "decontamination" is used

with which of the following?

A. Disinfection and remove of a living organism

B. Reduction of Gram-negative bacteria
C. Increased Gram-negative bacteria
D. Damage of spores and capsules

Q26: Which of the following statements best

describes "B- haemolysis on sheep blood agar ?

A. Partial clearing around colonies

B. No clearing around colonies
C. Complete clearance around colonies
D. Brown color around colonies

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Q27: Which is the following organ synthesized

and secreted high density lipoproteins (HDL)?

A. Pancreas
B. Kidney
C. Muscle
D. Liver

Q28: What should be the first measure an individual

should take after swallowing an acid or alkali?

A. Immediately rinse the mouth well with water and

neutralize a suitable chemical
B. Put the acid or alkali away from the patient
C. Transfer the patient to another area
D. Calm the patient down

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Q29: Which of the following blood sample is required for

glucose estimation in an emergency situation?

A. Four sample after every half and hour

B. Postprandial (2hours)
C. Fasting (8 hours)
D. Random

Q30: ABO typing on patient indicates a subgroup of the A

blood group. which reagent should be used to resole an A
subgroup?

A. Anti-A
B. Anti A1
C. Anti B
D. Anti-D

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Q31: Which the following analytes is separated with

thin layer chromatography?

A. Electrolytes
B. hormones
C. Non-volatile mixture
D. Protein nitrogenous compound

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Q32: What could be diagnosed by determining the

PTH (Parathyroid hormone) levels?

A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hyperlipidemia
D. Hyperkalemia

Q33: Which the following enzymes is stable with

refrigerated at 4C for 24 hours?

A. Aspirate aminotransferase
B. Superoxide dismutase
C. Creatine kinase
D. Valtase

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Q34: Which anticoagulant is used for complete

blood count analysis?

A. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)

B. Lithium iodoacetate
C. Lithium heparin
D. Sodium fluoride

Q35: When blood clot forms inappropriately inside

blood vessels, What is that process called ?

A. Hemostasis
B. Thrombosis
C. Hematopoiesis
D. Blood coagulation

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Q36: Carbon dioxide is required for primary

isolation of which organism?

A. Escherichia
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Enterococcus faecalis

Q37: Positive stranded RNA in viruses acts as which

of the following?

A. Viral RNA
B. DNA- dependent RNA
C. RNA
D. Messenger RNA

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Q38: Which the following statement best describes

fungi?

A. Has one chromosome

B. Reproduced by binary fission
C. Cell made of peptidoglycan
D. Have 80s ribosome

Q39: A positive direct Coomb’s test may be caused

by which of the following?

A. Marked reticulocytosis
B. Intravascular hemolysis
C. Congestive heart failure
D. An autoantibody on red cells surface

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Q40: What could be used to determine the

osmolality of the serum and urine?

A. Osometry
B. Nephelometr
C. Turbidometery
D. Chemiluminescence

Q41: In which sample the Balantidium coli

parasite could found?

A. Urine
B. Stool
C. Blood
D. Sputum

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Q42: Which of the following are the chocolate agar

containing vancomycin , colistin, nystain and
trimethoprime?

A. EMP agar
B. Skirrows media
C. Thayer-martin agar
D. Columbia PNBA agar

Q43: A patient attending emergency department was diagnosed with a urinary tract
infection
( see lab result ) Urine analaysis :
(1) Gram stain → gram –ve rods (2) Glucose → fermented (3) Nitrates → reduced to
nitrates (4) Oxidasa → negative
What is the most likely organism ?

A. Escherichia coli
B. Proteus vulgars
C. Nesseria gonorrhoeae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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Q44: What of the following is found in the syndrome

of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone?

A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypovolemia
C. Hypoproteinemia
D. Hyperglycemia

(hyponatremia ) ‫الجواب غير مذكور وهو‬

Q45: Which of the following fungi can be

stained by gram staining ?

A. Candida albicans
B. Aspergillus fumigatus
C. Trichophyton rubrum
D. Penicilum species

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Candida albicans

Q46: What is the ligand of Apo B-100?

A. Chylomicron remnant in liver

B. LDL receptor in liver
C. HDL receptor
D. IDLP receptor

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Q47: A 45 years old male comes to blood donation center . His past
medical history conformed that he previously had been infected with
hepatitis B surface antigen.
How long is deferral period ?

A. Two weeks
B. One month
C. Three years
D. Permanent

Q48: What does a urine collection container include?

A. Acid
B. EDITA
C. Heparin
D. Sodium fluoride

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Q49: Which of the following sample will be

rejected from the laboratory?

A. Grossly cleared
B. Labeled as dangerous
C. Insufficient in quantity
D. Patient identification labels

Q50: Examination of sample from which of the following is best

done for the diagnosis of Neisseria gonorrhea in a female patient?

A. Vaginal discharge
B. Cervix
C. Blood
D. Urine

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Q51: Which of the following a gonadotropin honmone?

A. LH
B. ACTH
C. TSH
D. Prolactin

Q52: Which of the following physical hazard is

associated with ethanol?

A. Explosive
B. Flammable
C. Water reactive
D. Oxidizer

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Q53: Which of the following is pre-analytical error?

A. Improper preparation of the patient

B. Calibrators
C. Pipetting
D. Interpretation of the data

Q54: In a positive anti-streptolysin O test, which of

the following results can be confirmed?

A. Agglutination
B. NO Agglutination
C. Hemolysis
D. No Hemolysis

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Q55: Which of the following reagent is used to

perform oxidase test?

A. Tetramethyl para-phenylene diamine dihydrocholoride

B. Alpha naphthylamine
C. potassium hydroxide (KOH)
D. para di methyl amino benz-aldehyde

Q56: Before taking blood from a donor, the phlebotomist

routinely inspects blood bag.
What is the most important item to be inspected?

A. Defects
B. Expiry date
C. Capacity
D. Anticoagulant

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Q57: Which of the following organism

produces mycelium?

A. Parasite
B. Filamintous fungi
C. Viruses
D. Bacteria

Q58: A 30 year-old male comes to blood Donation center, the

donor was fit for donation and 500 ml of blood is collected. This
unit of blood was unsuitable for platelets transfusions.
What is the most likely cause?

A. Platelets unit was not irradiated

B. The draw time was longer that the 20 minutes
C. Platelets prepared 5 hours after collecting time
D. Platelets was not prepared by plateletphoresis

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Q59: While cross-matching ABO blood types, what

tests used to determine when cells are coated with
antibodies?

A. Direct coombs test

B. Indirect coombs test
C. positive heterophile test
D. Anti human IgG antibody test

Q60: What phase does quality control assess?

A. Analytical
B. post analytical
C. Pre analytical
D. Extra-analytical

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Q61: Which reagent is used in the oxidase test?

A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Acetyl methyl carbinol
C. Para-dimethylaminobenzaklehyde
D. Tetramethyle -p-phenylenediamine

Q62: Which of the following is included in the

function of neutrophils ?

A. Granule circulation
B. Antibodies reaction
C. Diapedesis is for chemotaxis
D. Immunoglobulin production

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Q63: Which of the following viruses is

classified as paramyxovirus ?

A. Mumps
B. H5n1
C. Rhino
D. Influenza c

Q64: A blood donor comes to the blood donation center.

He says he wishes to donate blood. An examination of both
arms there were skin lesions?

A. Deferral donor
B. Collect blood from donor
C. Ask donor to return from donation after 2 weeks
D. Send donor to blood bank physician for evaluation

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Q65: Which of the following parasites is a significant

intestinal Protozoa to human health ?

A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Ascaris lumbercoxles
C. Faciola hepatica
D. Tarnish saginata

Q66: A patient with a supcutaneous tissue was admitted and diagnosed

with necrotizing facilities (see lab. results):
(1) Organism → Grame +ve cocci (2) Hemolysis → Beta (3) Catalase → -ve
Which is the most likely organism?

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Staphylococcus lugdunesis
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Viridans streptococcus

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Q67: Which of the following is an example of

selective media ?

A. Nutrient agar
B. Nutrient broth
C. Blood agar
D. XLD agar

Q68: Which of amino acid produce

vasodilator on decarboxylation ?

A. Glutamic acid
B. Histadine
C. Ornithine
D. Cyatine

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Q69: Which of the following fraction of billirubin is

water soluble and react with Diazo reagent without
adding accelerator ?

A. Unconjugated
B. Conjugated
C. Total
D. Indirect

Q70: In a sandwich reaction with an ELISA , which

of the following is attached to solid phase ?

A. Patient Ag
B. Patient Ab
C. Specific Ag
D. Specific Ab

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Sandwich ELISA

Q71: Which of the following indicates standard PCR steps?

A. Denaturation, annealing and ligation

B. Denaturation, annealing
C. Annealing and ligation
D. Denaturation, annealing and extension

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Standard PCR steps

Q72: The sickling test depends on which of the

following?

A. RBC count
B. Solubility of HbS
C. Reticulocyte count
D. Hb concentration of the patient

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Q73: A 30 year-old female come to the Emergency department

with tiredness, headache, and weakness. A blood sample was
taken from the arm with an IV infusion. What is the main cause
for low results?

A. Unmixed sample
B. Clotted sample
C. Diluted sample
D. Old sample

Q74: Which of the following techniques is commonly

used for hormonal estimations?

A. Microscopy
B. Electrophoresis
C. Flamphotometery
D. Immunodiffusion

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Q75: What is the colour of the label sample of

hepatitis C patient?

A. Red
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Orange

Q76: Which of the following is resistant to

penicillin?

A. Cyanobacteria
B. Mycoplasmas
C. Spirochetes
D. Vibrios

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Antibiotic target bacteria

Q77: What is the specific stain for DNA zone in

electrophoresis?

A. Ponceau S
B. Amido black
C. Ethidium bromide
D. Coomassie brilliant blue

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Q78: Which of the following phase is the most

problematic in a laboratory test?

A. Analytical
B. Pre-analytical
C. Post-analytical
D. Extra-analytical

Q79: What is the difference between plasma and

serum?

A. Fibrinogen
B. Transferrin
C. Turbid colour
D. Ceruloplasmin

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Q80: ABO type on a patient gave the following reactions

Anti-A Anti-B Anti-AB B cells A1 cells
4+ Negative 4+ 4+ 1+

A. A1
B. A2
C. Am
D. Ax

Q81: Which of the following is the best laboratory

test for neonatal primary hypothyrodism?

A. Free T3
B. Free T4
C. Thyroid Binding Globuli
D. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone

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Q82: For inoculation or plating of bacteria on ANA

agar plate ,which of the following should
be used?

A. A loop with handle

B. A hand finger
C. A pencil
D. A pen

Q83: A patient is experiencing glucosuria (glucose in

urine). An excess of which hormone could be the cause?

A. Glucagon
B. Calcitonin
C. Somatostatin
D. Antidiuretic hormones

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Q84: Which of the following are Gram-negative motile rods

that are characterized by gray, sprading film
of growth on agar plates?

A. Proteus vulgaris
B. Enteroccus faecalis
C. E. coli
D. Bacillus anthracis

Q85: Which of the following is true for vibrios and

Pseudomonas?

A. They are gram positive

B. They are non-motile
C. They are oxidase negative
D. They are non-lactose ferments

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Q86: Which of the following health hazard is

associated with ethylene oxide?

A. Irritant
B. Carcinogen
C. Nephrotoxic
D. Hepatotoxic

Hazardous materials classification

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Q87: Which is the compound of choice for fixation of

blood films for hematological examination?

A. Acetone
B. Propanol
C. Methanol
D. Acid -alcohol

Q88: Which of the following is post-analytical error?

A. Improper preparation of the patient

B. Calibrators
C. Pipetting
D. Interpretation of the data

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Q89: What is the appropriate diagnostic test for HCV?

A. Agglutination inhibition reaction

B. Revere passive agglutination
C. Immunofluorescence
D. RIBA (Recombinant Immunoblot Assay)

Recombinant Immunoblot Assay

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Q90: What are the maximum numbers of hour that can be

used to leave blood samples on the bench before
centrifugation?

A. 2
B. 6
C. 12
D. 24

Q91: Which of the following is the correct sequence to be

followed when preparing a donors arm for
blood collection‘?

A. Select vein, apply tourniquet, clean with PVP-iodine,

venipuncture
B. Select vein, apply tourniquet, venipuncture, clean with
PVP-iodine
C. Select vein, clean with PVP-iodine , apply tourniquet,
venipuncture
D. Select vein, venipuncture, clean with PVP-iodine, apply
tourniquet

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Q92: In a precipitation curve, which of the following

exist in the protozone?

A. Ab excess
B. Ag excess
C. Insoluble Ab
D. Equal amounts Ag and Ab.

Precipitation curve

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Q93: Some patients platelets clump in EDTA, or satellite,

making platelet counts falsely low. How should this be correct?

A. Mix the sample

B. Warm the sample
C. Do manual count
D. Use sodium citrate tub

Platelets clump in EDTA

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Q94: Which of the following gel separates large DNA

fragments‘?

A. Agarose
B. Cellulose acetate sodium
C. Denaturating polycrylamide
D. Dodecyl sulfate-polyacrylamide

Q95: How many pressing points of an automated pipette

can be used to release the sample from the pipette?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

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Q96: What does a quality control sample check out?

A. Standard
B. Reproducibility
C. Sample blank
D. Reagent blank

Q97: Which of the following is falsely increased

when clenching the first prior to vein puncture?

A. Sodium
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
D. Ionized calcium

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Q98: Which is the most likely stain used to identify

for malaria parasite?

A. Gram
B. Iodine
C. Giemsa
D. Leishmans

Q99: Which of the following organisms appear in

gram stained film as chains?

A. Gonococci
B. Streptococci
C. Staphylococci
D. Meningococci

٥٨
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Q100: In a complement fixation test, incubation of a patient sera for 30

minuets is allowed to lyse complement of the patient sera.
What is the temperature required in degree centegrate for the incubation?

A. 46
B. 56
C. 66
D. 76

Complement fixation test

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١١/٠٧/٤٠

Q1: What is pH electrode?

A. Reference electrode
B. Ion selective electrode
C. An electrolytic cell
D. A full cell

Q2: Which of the following organisms cause enteric fever?

A. Shigella dysentriae
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Salmonella typhimurium
D. Campylobacter jejuni

٦٠
١١/٠٧/٤٠

Q3: Which is the compound of choice for fixation of

blood films for hematological examinations?

A. Acetone
B. Propanol
C. Methanol
D. Acid -alcohol

Q4: Which of the following staphylococcus species is

novobiocin resistant?

A. Aureus
B. Epidermidis
C. Saprophyticus
D. Haemolyticus

٦١
١١/٠٧/٤٠

Novobiocin resistant/ sensitive

Q5: Which of the following immunoglobulins

increased in allergy?

A. IgM
B. IgD
C. IgG
D. IgA
E. IgE

٦٢
١١/٠٧/٤٠

Q6: What is the type of Jaffe’s reaction for creatinin

analysis?

A. End points colorimetric

B. End points enzymatic
C. Electrochemical
D. Kinetics

Jaffe’s reaction

٦٣
١١/٠٧/٤٠

Q7: Which of the following light does turbidimeter

measure?

A. Transmission
B. Absorbed
C. Scatter
D. Emitted

Turbidimeter

٦٤
١١/٠٧/٤٠

Q8: Why is the reagent blank used for in an instrument?

A. Calculation
B. Calibration
C. Linearity check
D. Zeroing the observance

Q9: Which of the following analytes is

photosensitive?

A. Potassium
B. Bilirubin
C. Protein
D. Glucose

٦٥
١١/٠٧/٤٠

Q10: What is the use of standard substance?

A. Calibrate new instruments

B. Estimate specific test
C. External quality control
D. Zeroing the observation

Q11: Which of the following enzymes is affected by

hemolysis?

A. AST
B. ALT
C. GGT
D. Amylase

٦٦
١١/٠٧/٤٠

Q12: Which of the following Haemophilus species

requires X and V factor for growth?

A. Aprophilus
B. Ducreyi
C. Parainfluenzae
D. Influenzae

Q13: Which one is the dimmer antibody?

A. IgG
B. IgD
C. IgM
D. IgA

٦٧
١١/٠٧/٤٠

Antibody structure

Q14: What is the other term for the adaptive

immunity?

A. Phygocytosis
B. Acquired immunity
C. Antigenic immunity
D. Lymphocyte reactive immunity

٦٨
١١/٠٧/٤٠

Q15: What is the use of screening tests?

A. Follow up disease course

B. Confirm disease diagnosis
C. Detect disease at sub-clinical stage
D. Discover treatment regime complication

Q16: What is the most critical distinction between

Staphylococcus aureus and other Staphylococcus species?

A. G Phosphatase production
B. Coagulase production
C. DNA production
D. Hemolysis

٦٩
١١/٠٧/٤٠

Q17: Which of the following anticoagulant is used for

the collection of blood samples for glucose estimation?

A. EDTA
B. Citrate
C. Heparin
D. Sodium floride

Anticoagulant tube for glucose estimation

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Q18: Which of the following virus are replicated in

the nucleus?

 All DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus,

A. Poxviruses except pox viruses, which replicate in the
cytoplasm.
B. Picornavirus  All RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm,
except retroviruses, influenza virus, and
C. Herpes viruses hepatitis D virus, which require an
intranuclear step.
D. Paramyxovirus

Q19: Which of the following is an enriched medium?

A. Nutrient agar
B. MacConkey agar
C. Blood agar
D. Nutrient broth

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Q20: DAT is used to do what?

A. Determine the red cell phenotype

B. Demonstrate in vivo Ab coating of red cells
C. Demonstrate in vitro Ab coating of red cell
D. Detect incomplete antibodies to potential
donor red cells

DAT (Direct antiglobulin test)

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Q21: Which of the following is enveloped virus?

A. Herpes virus
B. Adenoviruses
C. Rotaviruses
D. Paraviruses

Enveloped vs Naked virus

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Q22: Which of the following is within a reasonable

reference range of platelets?

A. 100 X 10^12/L
Normal range of platelets
B. 10 X 10^9/L = 150X10^9‫ـــ‬450X10^9
C. 1000 X 10^9/L
D. 200 X 10^9/L

Q23: Which of the following is an automated system used for

bacterial identification and sensitivity?

A. Microscan Walk Away

B. ELISA
C. PCR
D. Latex agglutination

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Q24: Why the monochromatic filter is used for the

spectrophotometer?

A. Allow the desired light to reach the sample

B. Eliminate ultraviolet wavelengths of light
C. Inhibit transmission of light
D. Increase luminescence

Monochromatic filter

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Q25: What is the function of flame in atomic

absorption spectrophotometry?

A. Eliminate ultraviolet light

B. Generate a reference beam
C. Break the chemical bonds of molecules
D. Allow the desired light to reach the sample

Flame in atomic absorption spectrophotometry

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Q26: Which of the following is the most sensitive test for the
diagnosis of herpes simplex meningitis in a newborn infant?

A. HSV IgG antibody

B. HSV polymerase chain reaction
C. HSV culture
D. Tzank smear

Q27: What is the relation between the percentage transmittance

(%T) versus concentration in spectrophotometer?

A. Proportional
B. Linear function
C. Non measurable
D. Non linear function

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Q28: Which of the following is used to produce

chemiluminescence?

A. Firely Iuciferase
B. B-galactosoidase
C. Horseradish peroxidase
D. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase

Q29: Which of the following is the common method to be

used for quantitative analysis of urinary glucose?

A. Hexokinase
B. Glucose oxidase
C. Glucose dehydrogenase
D. Glucokinase test

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Q30: To which of the following fungi classes does

"candida" belong to?

A. Zygomycetes
B. Ascomycetes
C. Basidiomycetes
D. Dutromycetes

Q31: The following are good points in the laboratory

work ethics, which one has no relatedness?

A. Being responsible
B. Being reliable
C. Being good in planning a career
D. Being able to be effortless in the job

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Q32: Which of the following is used to grow viruses in

the laboratory?

A. Nutrient agar
B. Blood agar
C. Nutrient broth
D. Tissue culture

Q33: While working up a case of hemolytic disease of a newborn

due to Rh incompatibility, a technician would most likely craw
out an indirect Coombs test on which of the following?

A. Newborns serum
B. Newborns RBCs
C. Mother’s serum
D. Mother’s RBCs

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Q34: What could be diagnosed by using modified

Ziel-Neelsen stain?

A. Entamoeba coli
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Balantidium coli
D. Cryptosporidium species

Q35: Which of the following agar is generally used for

the isolation of fungi?

A. MacConkey
B. Muller-Hinton
C. Chocolate agar
D. Sabourauds dextrose

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Q36: A six year-old girl who has a percent travel history with a sore throat, hoarseness and
enlarged lymph nodes. A throat swab was sent for culture (see lab results).
(1) Gram stain Gram +ve bacilli (2) Organism Non-motile (3) Catalase test Positive
(4) Haemolysis Non-haemolytic
Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria

Q37: Which of the following methods is used for a

quantitative assay of creatine kinase isoenzymes?

A. Atomic absorbtion spectrophotometer

B. Ion-exchange chromatography
C. Flame absorbtion spectrophotometer
D. Flow cytometry

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Q38: What is the stain used for the identification of amoebae?

A. Gram
B. Iodine
C. Giemsa
D. Leishmans stain

Q39: Which of the following is usually used for

quantitative analysis of electrolytes?

A. Two dimentional paper chromatography

B. Thin layer chromatography
C. Ion selective electrodes
D. Electrophoresis

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Q40: How the Taenia saginata infection can be diagnosed?

A. Finding gravid segments in the feces

B. Finding characteristic eggs in feces with lateral spin
C. Finding characteristic eggs in feces with terminal
spin
D. Testing serum for antibodies produced in response
to infection

Q41: What is the solution that is used to clean microscope lenses?

A. Xylene
B. Cider oil
C. Methyl alcohol
D. Ethyl alcohol

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Q42: Which of the following is post-analytical error?

A. Improper preparation of the patient

B. Calibrator
C. Pipetting
D. Interpretation of the data

Q43: Which of the following is the causative agent of variety of

cutaneous warts?

A. Human papillomavirus
B. West Nile virus
C. Tick-borne encephalitis virus
D. Polyomairus

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Q44: A 35 year-old female complains of irritability, heat intolerance and muscle

aches. She is also complaining of diarrhea and irregular heartbeat (palpitations)
(see lab results).
Test Result: TSH 1.2 mU/L .. T4 200 mmol/L .. T3 4.5 nmol/L
Normal Value: TSH 0.4-6.5 mU/L .. T4 60-165 mmol/L .. T3 1.3-3.1 nmol/L

A. Primary hyperthyrodism
B. Secondary hyperthyrodism
C. Non—thyr0diaI illness
D. T3 thyrotoxicosis

Q45: All repeating measurements for one sample can give

the same values.
Which of the following can be titled the comment below?

A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Specificity
D. Sensitivity

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Q46: Which of the following organism does not possess a cell wall?

A. Cocci
B. Bacilli
C. Spiral
D. Mycoplasma

Q47: What is/are the true constituent (s) of α 1-globulin?

A. α 1-anti-trypsin
B. Haptglobulin IgG, IgM, IgD, IgE and CRP
C. IgA and complement
D. IgG, IgM, IgD, IgE and CRP

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Q48: What is the causative organism of the lymphatic filariasis?

A. Loa loa
B. Trichinella spiralis finding characteristic eggs
in the urine with terminal spine
C. Onchocerca volvulus
D. Wuchereria bancrofti

Q49: Which of the following physical hazard is associated

with hypochlorite compounds?

A. Explosive
B. Flammable
C. Water reactive
D. Oxidizer

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Q50: A 19 year-old male blood donor comes to the blood Donation

Center and during donation the donor starts to feel faint and
nauseous. What immediate action should be taken?

A. Stop collecting blood for five minutes then continue

B. Reassurance and continue collecting the blood
C. Remove tourniquet and withdraw the needle
D. Call blood bank doctor

Q51: Which of the following is one of the tape worms?

A. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. Taenia saginata

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Q52: What volume in milliliters of any hazardous material

is a major spill?

A. 250
B. 500
C. 2000
D. 3000

Q53: What is measured with the arterial blood sample?

A. PCo2
B. Enzymes
C. Lipid profile
D. Electrolyte

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Q54: Which indicator system can be used in a complement

fixation test?

A. Lattice
B. Substrate
C. Human RBCs
D. Precipitation

Q55: A 17 year-old sickle cell patient has the A2 blood group,

and a request for two units packed RBCs has been received at
the Blood Bank.
Which blood group should be used in the cross match?

A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O

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Q56: What does CLED agar stand for?

A. Cystin lactulose electrolyte deficient

B. Cystin leucine electrolyte deficient
C. Cystin lactose electrolyte deficient
D. Cystin lysine electrolyte deficient

Q57: Which of the following methods is used for the staining of

acid fast bacilli?

A. Simple
B. NMM
C. Giemsa
D. Ziehl-neelsen

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Q58: By the fermentation of which of the following the

gonococcus can be differentiated from meningococcus?

A. Sugar fermentation
B. Oxidase Production
C. Gram stain
D. Capsulation

Q59: What could be examined to detect malaria parasites?

A. Stained thick blood films

B. Stained lymph node aspirates
C. The buffy coat after centrifuging blood
D. White blood cells for malaria pigments

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Q60: Which of the following tests is used for the detection of

viral antibodies?

A. Tissue culture
B. PCR
C. Haemagglutination
D. Immunofluorescence

Q61: What is the type of reaction for alanine transaminase

measurement activity?

A. End points colorimetric

B. End points enzymatic
C. Kinetics
D. Potentiometric

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Q62: What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for CRP?

A. Western blot
B. Immunofluorescence
C. Reverse passive agglutination
D. Agglutination inhibition reaction

Reverse passive agglutination

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Q63: How are the fractions of separated solutes detected in

high-pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC)?

A. Visible spectrophotometers
B. UV spectrophotometers
C. Infrared spectrophotometers
D. Electrophoresis

Q64: Which of the following methods of osmometry

determines the concentration of alcohol in blood?

A. Membrane
B. Vapour depression
C. Freezing point depression
D. Suction pumps asymmetry

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Q65: Which of the following is the most sensitive test for

cardiac troponin?

A. Fluorescent-labeled immunoassay
B. Chemiluminescence immunoassay
C. Enzyme labeled immunoassay
D. Spectrophotometer

Q66: What is the most common method for measuring

heavy metals?

A. AAS (Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometer)

B. ISES (Ion Selective Electrodes)
C. HPLC (High Performance Liquid Chromatography)
D. Electrophoresis

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Q67: How is the internal quality control assessed?

A. Result from many laboratories are compared

B. Laboratories own internal standards
C. Actual results are compared with previous values
D. Samples are distributed to laboratories at the
same time

Q68: Which of the following structures can be detected by

Indian ink preparation?

A. Spores
B. Capsules
C. Pilli
D. Flagella

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١١/٠٧/٤٠

India ink preparation of

Cryptococcus neoformans

Q69: What does steatorrhea mean?

A. Increased amount of fat in the faeces

B. Persistent diarrhea
C. Hyperlipemia
D. Isosthenuria

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Q70: A unit of blood was collected then transfused to a patient, with 24 hours
post transfusion the patient developed fever, shivering, nausea, vomiting and
diarrhea. A post transfusion investigation reported bacterial contamination
Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A. Needle of the blood bag is big

B. Venipuncture site touched after cleaning
C. Donor hand not was with soap
D. Patient blood group was wrong

Q71: ABO typing on a patient gave the above reaction (see image)
What is the patients blood group?

A. A
B. B Anti_A Anti_B Anti_AB A1_cell B_cell
‫ــــ‬ve + ve + ve + ve ‫ــ‬ve
C. AB
D. O

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Q72: A unit of whole blood was collected in the blood

Donation Center then rejected by the components
preparation unit (see image) What is most likely reason?

A. Over weight
B. Single bag used
C. Blood not tested
D. CPD anticoagulant

Q73: Which of the following is the most likely organism?

(see image)

A. Staphylococci
B. Streptococci
C. Diplococci
D. Tetracocci

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Q74: ABO typing on a patient gave the above confusing

reaction (see image).
Which sort of case would this result be likely seen?

A. Newborns
B. Children
C. Leukaemia
D. Bombay

Q75: Which of the following is the most likely organism

(see image)?

A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Corynebacterium diphtheria

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Q76: Increase uric acid cause?

A. Gout disease
B. Diabetis millitus
C. Reumatic disease
D. Anemia

Q77: Oil lenses magnification in light microscope is ?

A. 10x
B. 20x
C. 40x
D. 100x

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Q78: Glycated hemoglobin test is show the level of glucose during ?

A. 8-12 weeks
B. 2 months
C. 1 years
D. 3 years

Q79: Enzyme elevated in acute pancreatitis is?

A. sGpt
B. B-amylase
C. CKmb
D. Lipase

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Q80: Substance cannot trans and absorbed without a factor

?

A. Iron
B. Vitamin B12
C. Folic acid
D. Vitamin A.

Q81: Heparine is ?

A. Lipopolysaccharide
B. Fatty acid
C. Protein
D. Carbohydrate

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Q82: Which immunoglobulin is the principal one found in

secretions such as milk?

A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgA

Q83: The dimeric Antibodies is ?

A. IgM
B. IgE
C. IgD
D. IgA

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١١/٠٧/٤٠

Antibodies

Q84: Antibodies associated in Rh ?

A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgA

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Q85: Which of the following leukocyte responsible for

parasitic & allergic reaction ?

A. Neutrophile
B. Monocyte
C. Basophile
D. Eosinophile

White blood cell function

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Q86: Cell not contain nucleus ?

A. Erythrocyte
B. Leukocyte
C. Platelets
D. blast cell

Q87: If infant has Rh+ve & mother RH-ve must give ?

A. Anti-D immunoglubin
B. Anti-E immunoglubin
C. Anti-A immunoglubin
D. Anti-C immunoglubin

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١١/٠٧/٤٠

Q88: Life span of RBCs is ?

A. 120 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 25 days

Q89: Life Span of platelets in bags stored at R.T?

A. 35 days
B. 5 days
C. 14 days
D. 120 days

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١١/٠٧/٤٠

Q90: CPDA1 anticoagulant to store blood for?

A. 42 days
B. 35 days
C. 21 days
D. 10 days

Q91: Which of the following cause cerebral malaria ?

A. Plasmodium malaria
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium ovale
D. Plasmodium vivax

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Q92: Infective stage in malaria ?

A. Cyst
B. Sporozoite
C. Oocyst
D. Ova

Q93: The cause of chaga's disease?

A. Trypanosoma gambiense
B. Trypanosoma Rhodoscence
C. Trypanosoma cruzi
D. Leishmania tropica

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١١/٠٧/٤٠

Q94: Infective stage of Taenia?

A. Ova
B. Larva
C. Cercaria
D. Cysticercus

Q95: Taenia saginata diagnostic by ?

A. Gravid segment
B. Ova in urine
C. Cyst
D. Trophozoite

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Q96: The biochemical test differentiate S.pneumonia from

other streptococci ?

A. Catalas
B. Coagulase
C. Optichin
D. Citrate

Q97: Staph aureus differentiate from Strepto pyogenes

because it ?

A. Contain Catalase
B. Contain Coagulase
C. Contain Citrate
D. Contain Urease

١١٤
١١/٠٧/٤٠

Q98: TCBS is the selective media for isolation of?

A. H.pylori
B. Vibro cholera
C. E-coli
D. H influenza

Q99: Safety in the Lab include vaccination of stuff against ?

A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HDV

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Q100: Rice watery stool can caused by ?

A. Salmonell
B. Shigella
C. Vibro cholera
D. Streptococcus

Q101: Cause Kala- azar ?

A. Leishmania donovani
B. Leishmania tropica
C. Leishmania brazillince
D. Leishmani mexicana

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