ATA 06: DEMENSIONS & AREAS

Câu 1: Which of the body coordinates is highlighted?

A. Body buttock lines.
B. Body waterlines.
C. Body starions.

Câu 2: Which statement is correct?

A. The body stations are parallel to the body buttock lines and perpendicular to the body
waterlines.
B. The body waterlines are parallel to the body center line.
C. The body stations are perpendicular to both the body buttock lines and the body
waterlines.
D. The body buttock lines are perpendicular to the body center line.
Câu 3: Which of the wing coordinates is highlighted?
A. Wing buttock lines.
B. Wing station.
C. Wing referrence plane.

Câu 4: The nacelle waterlines are parallel to…

A. The body waterlines.
B. The nacelle centerline.
C. The wing reference plane.
Câu 5: Which 3 planes are shown?
A. Fin station, fin leading edge station and rudder station.
B. Fin waterline, fin leading edge station and rudder station.
C. Fin station, fin waterline and rudder station.
D. Fin station, fin leading edge station and fin waterline.

Câu 6: Located major zone 300 on this aircraft.

Câu 7: Which of the major zones corresponds to the nacelles and struts?
A. 400.
B. 500.
C. 600.
D. 700.
Câu 8: Which panel is highlighted?
A. 324GL.
B. 324CL.
C. 317CL.
D. 317GL.

ATA 21: AIR CONDITIONING

LESSON 1. INTRODUCTION
Câu 1. What are the main functions of the air conditioning system?
A. Temperature control, ventilation and pressurization of cabin and cargo compartments
and equipment ventilation.
B. Ventilation of the cabin and the heating of the cargo compartments.
C. Pressurization of landing gear bays and temperature control of equipment.
Câu 2. The cabin of an aircraft is usually divided into several zones. What is the
reason for this?
A. To allow a better overview of the aircraft.
B. To allow a quicker boarding system according to the zones.
C. To allow individual temperature selection for each zone.
Câu 3. The air conditioning system must fulfill physical air requirements. What are
they?
A. The air must be clean.
B. The air must have a comfortable temperature, humidity and freshness.
C. The air must have the correct pressure.
D. Air must be clean, fresh, have a comfortable humidity and temperature and have the
correct pressure.
Câu 4. The air conditioning system pressurizes the fuselage during flight. Which one
of the following statements is true?
A. The best condition for aircraft structure would be to pressurize cabin to ground
conditions during flight.
B. The best condition for people would be no pressurization during flight.
C. The best condition for aircraft structure would be no pressurization during flight.
D. The best condition for people would be not to flight.
Câu 5. During normal flight, what is the maximum allowed cabin altitude for civil
aircraft?
A. 6000 feet
B. 8000 feet
C. 10000 feet
D. 14000 feet
Câu 6. Where does the air conditioning system begin?
A. At the pack valve.
B. At pack air inlet.
C. At pack air outlet.
D. When the air enters the cabin.
Câu 7. What are the pressurized areas of an aircraft?
A. The cockpit, the passenger compartment and the cargo compartment.
B. The landing gear bays, the tail cone and the radome.
C. Only the 2 cargo compartments and the avionic compartment.
LESSON 2. TEMPERATURE CONTROL OVERVIEW
Câu 1. Which kind of cooling machine would you expect on a propeller-driven
passenger aircraft?
A. Just a heat exchanger.
B. Vapor-cycle machine.
C. Air-cycle machine.
Câu 2. What is the function of the packs?
A. They cool or heat the cabin air.
B. They only cool the cabin air.
C. They cool or heat the pneumatic air.
D. They cool the pneumatic air.
Câu 3. Where would you find the air conditioning controls?
The controls are located on the overhead panel in the cockpit
Câu 4. Which types of cooling devices are used in the air conditioning system?
A. Heat exchanger, oil cooler and vapor-cycle machines.
B. Air-cycle machines, water-cooling system and blower.
C. Heat exchanger, air-cycle machines and vapor-cycle machines.
Câu 5. What is the cooling principle of a vapor-cycle machine?
A. The hot preumatic air is compressed and evaporated and therefore cooles and sent to
the cabin.
B. A special cooling fluid is compressed and expanded in a closed circuit and cooled by
cabin air.
C. A special cooling fluid is compressed and expanded in an open circuit and cooled by
cabin air.
Câu 6. What is the cooling principle of an air-cycle machine?
A. Hot bleed air is pressurized, pre-cooled in a heat exchanger and expanded before being
sent to the cabin.
B. A cooling fluid is pressurized, pre-cooled in a heat exchanger, expanded and cooled by
cabin air.
C. Cabin air is pressurized, pre-cooled in a heat exchanger and sent back to the cabin.
LESSON 3. COOLING DESCRIPTION
Câu 1. Locate the position of these components.
Ram air inlet door
Air-cycle machine
Bypass valve
Pack valve
Heat exchanger

Câu 2. what is the primary function of the pack valve?

A. the pack valve adjusts the airflow to the cabin.
B. the pack valve adjusts the pressure in the cabin.
C. the pack valve adjusts the pack temperature as necessary.
D. the pack valve adjusts the cooling efficiency of the pack.
Câu 3. what are the primary components of an air-cycle machine?
A. an air-cycle machine has a turbine, a fan and a heat exchanger.
B. the air-cycle machine has a compressor, a turbine, a fan and a heat exchanger.
C. the air-cycle machine has a compressor, a turbine and a fan.
D. the air-cycle machine has a compressor, a turbine, a fan, a heat exchanger and a
bypass valve.
Câu 4. Which one is the driving part of an air-cycle machine?

Câu 5. what happens to the air in a cooling cycle?

Complete the sentence using the answer which gives the correct sequence.
Air is ……
A. Precooled by heat exchanger, compressed by compressor, cooled by heat exchanger
and expanded by turbine.
B. Precooled by heat exchanger, expanded by turbine, compressed by compressor and
cooled by heat exchanger.
C. Precooled by heat exchanger, compressed by compressor, expanded by turbine and
cooled by heat exchanger.
D. Precooled by heat exchanger, compressed by turbine, cooled by heat exchanger and
expanded by compressor.
Câu 6. What happened to the air in each component?
Lower pressure, lower temperature.
Higher pressure, higher temperature.
No pressure change, lower temperature.
Pressure change, no temperature change.
Câu 7. what is the function of the bypass valve in the pack?
A. it determines the mass of air wich goes to the cabin.
B. it determines the mass of air which goes to the pack.
C. it determines the mass of air wich goes to the turbine.
D. it determines the pack outlet pressure.
Câu 8. The bypass valve in the pack determines the acm outlet temperature.
If the outlet temperature is too lơ, how does the bypass valve react to increase the
pack outlet temperature?
A. it opens more.
B. it does nothing.
C. it closes more.
Câu 9. the bypass valve is not the only component in a pack which determines the
pack outlet temperature.
Can you answer which other component or components are used for pack outlet
temperature regulation?
A. the pack valve.
B. the separated water wich is sent to the heat.
C. the fan.
D. the ram air inlet and exit door.
LESSON 4. WATER SEPARATION
Câu 1: The moisture in the air separated because of the cooling packs. What is the
reason for water separation
A. The warmer the air is, the less water it can dissolve, so the water could make the cabin
very wet.
B. At high flight altitudes the air is very wet, so Moisture could appear in the cabin as
droplets or fog.
C. Water is eliminated for passenger comfort reasons, because they feel better if the air is
dry.
D. Near ground especially, water droplets appear in the cooling cycle. They can freeze
and cause corrosion.
Câu 2: which one of the following statements is a correct definition of the low
pressure water separation system?
A. It separates the water after air is compressed by the compressor and before it goes to
the turbine.
B. The It separates the water after it leaves the air-cycle machine and sends it to the ram
air inlet.
C. It separates water at the ozone converter and sends it through the pack valve to the
primary heat exchanger.

Câu 3. This is a cross-section of a water separator. What is the function of

coalescer?
A. The coalescer separates the water droplets.
B. The coalescer makes the water droplets bigger.
C. The coalescer prevents the water separator from clogging.
D. The coalescer lets the air rotate

Câu 4. This is a cross-section of a water seperator. Please identify the component

which have the function given on the labels.
Water Droplets Bigger
Lets The Air Rotate
Open If Coalescer Clogged
Collects The Water
Aspirator is Connected

Câu 5. Please identify on the graphic components which belong to the high pressure
water separation loop.
Giải thích: Here you see all the component which belong to the high pressure water
separation loop.
Câu 6. How do you notice icing conditions in the pack?
A. The differential pressure changes between the water separator inlet and outlet.
B. The pack outlet temperature becomes low.
C. The air-cycle machine stops running if the water separator is clogged.
Giải thích: Yes, clogging of the water separator is the direct effect of icing and therefore,
changes the differential pressure.

Câu 7: Identify the anti-ice valve in this graphic. Please click on the correct
component.
LESSON 5. PACK CONTROL
Câu 1: This Airbus aircraft has 4 engines and 2 packs.
How many pack controllers would you expect on this aircraft?
A. 2 – (1 for each pack).
B. 3 – (1 for each pack and 1 back-up controller).
C. 4 – (2 for each pack 1 controller and 1 back-up controller).
D. 6 – (1 for each engine, 1 controller and 1 back-up controller).
Câu 2: A pack is set to maximum heating.
To heat to the maximum value, which positions are correct for the bybass valve,
ram air inlet door and ram air outlet door?
Bybass Valve – Full Open
Bypass Valve – Full Closed
RAI- Full Open
RAI – Full Closed
RAE – Full Open
RAE – Full Closed
Giải thích: Yes, to heat to the maximum value the bybass valve must be open, RAI and
RAE doors must be closed.
Câu 3: This is the air conditioning panel and the pack indication of an Airbus
aircraft.
Please identify the components or indications which are asked for on the labels.
Flow Section Switch
Compressor Outlet Temp
Pack Outlet Temp
Bypass Valve Positon
LESSON 6: DISTRIBUTION
Câu 1/ What is the function of the mixing unit?
A - It mixed the cold air from the pack with hot air from the pneumatic system.
B – It mixed the air for the passenger cabin with the air with the air for cockpit.
C – It mixed the cold air from the pack with the recirculated air from the passenger cabin.
D – It mixed the hot air from the pneumatic system with the air form the low pressure
ground connector.
Câu 2/ What the function of the recirculation system?
A – It recirculates cockpit air to regulate temperature.
B – It recirculates cabin air to reduce the pack airflow.
C – It supplies the gasper system with cabin air.
D – It recirculates cabin air to supply the cockpit.
LESSON 7: ZONE TEMPERATURE CONTROL
Câu 1/ What is the function of the trim air pressure regulatin valve?
A – It regulates the temperature of the trim air that flow to the zone supply ducts.
B – It only regulates the pressure of the trim that flow into the zone supply ducts.
C – It only shut down the trim air system when there is a failure.
D – It ragulates the trim air pressure and shut off the trim air when there is a failure.

Câu 2/ What happen when the trim air pressure regulating valve closes?
A – The trim air valve also close.
B – The pack increase the airflow.
C – The trim air valve remain in the final position.
D – The pack valva aloso close.

Câu 3/ What is the correct definition for the coolest demand?

A – The zone with the lowest selected temperature always has the coolest demand.
B – It depand on the difference between the selected and the actual temperature.
C – The coolest demand always comes from the cockpit.
D – The coolest demand depend on the number of pack that are switched on.

Câu 4/ What happens when you select the higher temperature for the passenger
zone?
A – You get a fast increase in the duct temperature and a slow zone temperature change.
B – You get a slow increase in the duct temperature and a fast zone temperature change.
C – This always results in a change in the pack outlet temperature.
D – The duct temperature and the zone temperature change at nearly the same rate.
Câu 5/ What happens when a zone supply duct overheats?
A – You must switch off the pack manually.
B – Only the trim air vlave for the overheated duct closes.
C – The trim air pressure regulating valve closes first.
D – You must select the cooler temperature.
Câu 6/ What is the reason for the ventilation of the temperature sensors in the cabin
zone?
A – The ventilation prevents the sensor overheating.
B – It protects the sensor form dust contamination.
C – This is only necessary when the sensors are electrically heated.
D – The ventilation delivers the cabin air to the sensor.

LESSON 8: VENTILATION
Câu 1. Which of the following gives you the correct ways which a cargo
compartment can be heated?

A. Electrical fan heaters located in the cargo compartment heat the ambient cargo
compartment air.

B. Gas-fired central heating which only operates in flight.

C. Pneumatic air or electrical heaters built in the air supply duct.

D. Ground heating supply connectors.

Explanation: Yes, there are the 2 ways of heating the cargo compartment.

Câu 2. On this graphic you can see a cargo ventilation system. What is the function
of the 2 isolation valves?
A. To stop the airflow and to isolate the cargo compartment in case of a fire.

B. To regulate the airflow into the cargo compartment.

C. To isolate the cabin in case of depressurization.

D. To regulate the temperature in the cargo compartment.

Explanation: Yes, this is the function of the isolation valves.

Câu 3. The lavatories and galleys are ventilated. How is this ventilation realized?
A. A similar system to that used for cargo compartment ventilation is used.

B. An extra system of ducts and blowers is built in.

C. The air is discharged into the cabin and then sent to the outflow valves.

D. A ventilation fan is found in the ceiling of each lavatory and galley.

LESSON 9: EQUIPMENT COOLING SYSTEM

Câu 1. Click on a label on the RH side of screen and then click on the correct
component on the schematic on the LH side.

Inboard supply valve

Skin exchanger isolation

Extract valve

Exhaust valve

Skin air inlet valve

Câu 2. Which is the correct definition for the “Inboard Mode”?

A. Air comes from the cabin and flows out of the aircraft.

B. Air comes from outside the aircraft and goes to the underfloor area of forward cargo
compartment.

C. Air comes from the cabin and goes to the underfloor area or forward cargo
compartment.

Câu 3. Who is responsible for setting the modes for the equipment cooling system?

A. The computer displays the condition on the ECAM/EICAS display and the pilot sets
the modes.

B. The pilot programs condition data into the equipment cooling computer. The computer
sets the mode.
C. Normally the computer sets the modes automatically, but the crew can always override
this.

Explanation: Yes, normally the computer sets the modes, but a manual override
available.

LESSON 10: CABIN PRESSURIZATION

Câu 1. What is the maximum allowed cabin altitude during cruise flight?

A. 6000 ft

B. 8000 ft

C. 14000 ft

D. 15000 ft

Câu 2. Click on the area with a positive cabin rate.

Câu 3. Please do the correct switching in the correct sequence on the panel to
manually decrease the cabin pressure.
- Hint: You must first select the MAN mode and then select a positive cabin V/S.
Câu 4. Click on 5 signals which the cabin pressure controller requires for the
internal descent mode.

Explanation: You only need FMS signals in the external mode. Ground and takeoff
initialization signals are used for ground and pressurization mode.
Câu 5. What does the barometric correction do?

A. It compensates the ram effect of airspeed in pressurization controls.

B. It adjust the protection circuits using local environmental condition.

C. It compensates for the difference between the standard atmosphere and weather related
atmospheric condition

D. To hold the cabin altitude during cruise at a constant level.

Explanation: You can only calculate the altitudes correctly, when you know the weather
related differences from the standard atmosphere.

Câu 6. This safety valve has a positive and a negative pressure relief function. Click
on the component that has the negative pressure relief function.
- The controller assembly has the positive pressure relief fuction.

- In this area you can usually find the cabin pressure.

- The diagram assembly opens when the ambient pressure is higher than the cabin
pressure.

- This is the area of the valve body.

Câu 7. Why is it very important to follow all official instructions before and during
a cabin pressure leakage test? Choose the most complete answer.

A. You can damage the aircraft structure when you pressurize the aircraft on ground.

B. You can injure people inside the cabin and damage pressure sensitive components.

C. The safety valve can open and the strong airflow can injure ground personnel.

D. You can damage the wing fuel tanks during the pressurization.
ATA 27: FLIGHT CONTROLS

LESSON 1. INTRODUCTION

Câu 1 . Which option matches each of the aircraft motions with its associated axis
A. Roll occurs around the longitudinal axis, yaw around the lateral axis and pitch around
the vertical axis.

B. Roll occurs around the lateral axis, yaw around the vertical axis and pitch around the
longitudinal axis.

C. Roll occurs around the longitudinal axis, yaw around the vertical axis and pitch around
the lateral axis.

D. Roll occurs around the vertical axis, yaw around the longitudinal axis and pitch around
the lateral axis.

Câu 2. Which of the lift devices increase drag decrease lift ?

A. Leading edge devices.

B. Flaps.

C. Speed Brakes.

Câu 3. Which trim is achieved by the trimable horizontal stabilizer ?

A. Roll trim.

B. Pitch trim.

C. Yaw trim.

Câu 4. What kind of transmission is represented here ?

A. Electrical.

B. Hydraulic.

C. Mechanical.

Câu 5. Which of the primary flight controls achieves yaw control ?

A. Rudder.

B. Elevators.
C. Ailerons.

D. Roll Spoilers.

Câu 6. Which of the flight control surfaces is specifically designated for pitch trim ?
A. Elevators.

B. Flaps

C. Trimable Horizontal Stabilizer.

D. Leading Edge Devices.

Câu 7. Match a control input to each of the hilighted primary flight control surfaces

LESSON 2. CABLE TRANSMISSION

Câu 1. Which cable is used where operation over pulleys is frequent ?
A. 7 x 7.

B. 7 x 19.

C. Either 7 x 7 or 7 x 19.

Câu 2. Which of the following methods is recommended for inspecting the surface of
a cable for broken wires ?
A. Bend the cable.

B. Run a small magnet over the cable. The broken wires are pulled out and easy to see

C. Rub a piece of cloth back and forth over the length of the cable .
D. Check the cables at all pulleys and fairleads with a magnifying glass.

Câu 3. What is the primary function of a cable tension regulator in the flight control
cable system of a large all-metal aircraft ?
A. To increase the cable tension in cold weather.

B. To provide a means of changing cable tension during flight.

C. To maintain a set cable tension.

D. To decrease the cable tension in cold weather.

Câu 4. What is the maximum change of direction allowed by a cable fairlead ?

A. 3°.

B. 6°.

C. 7°.

D. 19°.

Câu 5. Match each of the labels in the box with its associated cable end fitting.

LESSON 3: MECHANICAL TRANSMISSION??

Câu 1. What is the main function of an offset gearbox in a torque tube transmission
A. To transmit torque tube rotation to an output lever.

B. To move the drive path forward or back.

C. To connect one torque tube to another.

D. To allow for changes in direction when power is being transmitted from one torque
tube to another.

Câu 2. Identify the bevel gearbox.

Câu 3. Which statement is correct ?

A. A rotary actuator changes a high torque, low speed input into a low torque, high speed
output.

B. A rotary actuator changes a high torque, high speed input into a low torque, low speed
output.

C. A rotary actuator changes a low torque, high speed input into a high torque, low speed
output.

D. A rotary actuator changes a low torque, low speed input into a high torque, high speed
output.

Câu 4. At what speed does the output shaft rotate, in this example, with the left
pressure off brake set ?
A. The output shaft does not rotate.

B. The normal speed for 2 motor operation.

C. Half the normal speed for 2 motor operation.

Câu 5. Which component prevents a complete jamming af the flight control system
when 1 component is jammed ?
A. No back brake.

B. Torque limiter.

C. Override device.

Câu 6. Assume that an overtorque has just been corrected. Which statement is
correct ?
A. The torque limiter and the overtorque indicator are automatically reset.

B. The torque limiter and the overtorque indicator must be manually reset.

C. The torque limiter resets itself but the overtorque indicator must be manually reset.

D. The torque limiter resets itself but the torque indicator must be manually reset.

Câu 7. Which load limiter is used to limit rotary forces ?

A. Force detent.

B. Shear rivets.

C. Force limiting strut.

Câu 8. Locate both connecting bevels in this differential gear.

Câu 9. Locate the component which secures the transmission if the screwjack
breaks.
- The safety rod is used to secure a screw jack transmission if the screwjack breaks.
LESSON 4. HYDRAULIC TRANSMISSION
Câu 1. What is the relationship between the movement of the control input and the
movement of the control surface in the hydraulic transmission?
A. The control surface is deflected directly and proportionally by the control input.
B. Movement of the control surface follows the movement of the control input
proportionally put with a delay
C. The control surface deflects until the mechanical stops are reached

Explain: A small input movement is required to open the control value before the surface
can follow the control input
Câu 2. What is the reaction of the piston rod to this control input
A. The piston rod moves to the left until until the value input lever is in the neutral
position.
B. The piston rod moves to the right until the value input lever is in the neutral position.
C. The piston rod moves to the left until the piston stop is reached
D. The piston rod moves to the right until the piston stop is reached

Câu 3. How does the feel and centering spring react to a trim input
A. It doesn’t change
B. It contracts
C. It expands

Câu 4. What happens to the control wheels during aileron trim opperation?
A. Nothing
B. They move in the trim direction.
C. They must be operated in the trim direction by the pilot
Câu 5. What is the purpose of the bypass value in a servo control unit?
A. To connect the pressure port to the return port.
B. To connect the control value to the cylinder chambers in the event of pressure loss
C. To permit a damping function.

Explain: The bypass value permits a damping function when the servo control unit is
depressurized
Câu 6. Which servo control unit component is used to achieve low damping speed?
A. Control value
B. Bypass value
C. Damping orifice
Explain: The damping orifice limits the flowrate between the cylinder chambers
Câu 7. Which pilot has just completed a flight on a large aircraft without hydraulic
transmissions.

A.

B.

C.
Explain: This pilot is exhausted after struggling with the full force of the airloads.
LESSON 5. SURFACES
Câu 1. Which hinge allows for expansion or contraction of the control surface due to
temperature changes?
A. Primary hinge.
B. Normal hinge.
C. Both primary hinge and normal hinge

Câu 2. Which hinge compensates for misalignment of the failsafe bolt?

A. Primary hinge
B. Normal hinge
C. Both primary hinge and normal hinge

Explain: Both primary and normal hinges have ball bearings to compensate for
misalignment of the failsafe bolt
Câu 3. Which hinge component prevents an overstress of the hinge forks?
A. Inner bolt
B. Sleeves
C. Ball bearings
D. An overstress of the hinge forks cannot be prevented
Explain: The sleeves prevent overstress of the hinge forks
Câu 4. Why are balance weights incorporated in the leading edge of the primary
flight control surfaces on some aircraft?
A. To make the surfaces harder to move during flight
B. To prevent rapid movement of surfaces in turbulent flying conditions.
C. To prevent the surfaces from fluttering during flight.

Explain: Balance weights prevent surface flutter

Câu 5. Which control surface doesn’t need an index plate to establish its zero
position?
A. all surfaces need an index plate
B. Elevators
C. Rudder
D. Aileron
Explain: The aileron zero position is established when the surface is flush with the
adjecent airfoil.
LESSON 6. RINGGING
Câu 1/ Which condition must apply before cble tension is checked
A. Temperature must be stable for at least 1 hour. Rig pin must be inserted in all quadrant

B. Aircraft must be bettwen and . Cable system must be isolated from

tranmission system
C. Temperature must be stable for at least 1 hour. Cable system must be isolated from
tranmission system

D.Aircraft must be bettwen and . Rig pins must be inserted in all quadrant

Câu 2/ Assume the ambient is . What does the reading of 8.5 on the cable
tension
A. Cable tension is too high
B. Cable tension is approriate
C. Cable tension is too low
Câu 3/ The correct cable tension has been established. The lower quadrant is in the
correct position. The upper quadrant needs be rotated, anti clock wise, to align the
rig pin holes. How should the turnbuckles be adjusted?
A. The turnbuckles on the left should be adjusted
B. Both turnbuckles should be turned in the clockwise direction
C. The turnbuckles on the right should be adjusted
D. One turnbuckles should be turned anti clockwise direction and the other the same
number of rotation clockwise
Câu 4/ How can this control surface be adjusted to the zero possition?
A. Make the pistol rod longer
B. Make the pistol rod shorter
C. Replace the servo control unit
D. Move the index plate
LESSON 7. HYDRAULIC
Câu 1/ what is the minimum number of independent hydraulic system required for
aircraf with hydraulically powered flight controls?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
Câu 2/ Which consumers of the Boeing747 hydraulic system receive power directly,
i.e not via shut off valve
A. Left and right stabilizer trim
B. Left and right elevators
C. Flap and elevator feel
D. Spoiler

Câu 3/ Which system supply outboard aileron on the boeing 747

A. System 2 and system 3
B. All 4 system
C. System 3 only
D. System 3 and system 4
Câu 4/ what type of valve is the priority valve on these hydraulic distribution
systems?
A. Electro motor operated shut-off valve
B. Solenoid operated shut-off valve
C. Pressure operated shut-off valve
Câu 5/ the failure of 2 hydraulic system can mean that roll control must be achived
by the spoilers. Which 2 system ?
A. Blue and green
B. Green and yellow
C. Blue and yellow
LESSON 8. TAKE OFF WARNING
Câu 1/ Which flight control activate the take off warning if they outside the take off
range with the aircraft on the ground and the engine at take off power
A. elevator, speed brake and flap
B. elevator, flap/leading edge devices and aileron
C. speed brake, flap/ leading edge devices and stabilizer
D. flap/ leading edge devices, stabilizer and elevator
Câu 2/ When the take off warning switch is pressed which of the following condition
is simulated
A. engine at take off power and aircraft on the ground
B. engine at take off power
C. engine at take off power and flap, stabilizer trim or speed brake outside the take off
range
ATA 06: DIMENSIONS AND AREAS

1. X values all positive defined in relation to station 0. Why is station 0 always in

front of the aircraft?
A. No particular reason. It’s just a standard practice adopted by aircraft manufacturers.
B. Because aircraft dimensions change during flight.
C. To ensure that any changes subsequent to design do not affect the numbering of the
rear part of the aircraft.
2. Horizontal plane along top of floor beams: reference plane for installation of
equipment in cabin, cockpit and compartments. Locate the plane along the top of the
floor beams.

Explanation: On the Boeing 747 this plane is known as the body reference plane and is
located at body waterline 199.8.

3. Fuselage datum (- point 0 on 2 axis) on Airbus 320: located 240 mm above floor
beams. What is the reference plane for a component installed on the floor beam on
this Airbus 320?
A. -2240
B. -21000
C. +21000
D. +2240
4. Which of the nacelle coordinates is highlighted?

A. Nacelle waterline
B. Nacelle buttock line
C. Nacelle station

5. Which of the red lines represents the nacelle waterline?

6. Which of the horizontal stabilizer coordinates is highlighted?

A. Horizontal stabilizer station
B. Horizontal stabilizer buttock line
C. Horizontal stabilizer leading edge station
D. Elevator station

ATA 21: AIR CONDITIONING

Lesson 1: Introduction

1. How many main functions does the air conditioning system have?
A. 2: heating and cooling
B. 3: heating. Cooling and ventilation
C. 4: heating, cooling, ventilation and pressurization
2. Click on the part of the aircraft which would be regulated to the coolest
temperature by the air conditioning system.

Explanation: Usually the temperature is lower in the cockpit.

3. What do the regulations say is an acceptable limit of fresh air to be supplied per
minute to each person?
A. No limit
B. 0.35 kg per min per person
C. 0.5 kg per min per person
D. 0.7 kg per min per person
4. Look at the boxes on the graphic and try to work out which of the following is in
the correct order?
A. A = cooling, B = temperature regulation, C = distribution, D = pressurization
B. A = pressurization, B = distribution, C = cooling, D = temperature regulation
C. A = temperature regulation, B = pressurization, C = distribution, D = cooling
D. A = cooling, B = temperature regulation, C = pressurization, D = distribution

5. What are the main functions of the air conditioning system?

A. Temperature control, ventilation and pressurization of cabin and cargo compartment
and equipment ventilation.
B. Ventilation of the cabin and the heating of the cargo compartments
C. Pressurization of landing gear bays and temperature control of equipment.

Lesson 2: Temperature control overview

1. What do the packs to the pneumatic air?

A. The packs heat the air, because in high flight altitudes it is very cold.
B. The packs cool the air, because pneumatic air is very hot
C. The packs can make pneumatic air either hot or cold

2. Click on the area of the air-cycle machine which the air goes to next.

3. Which kind of cooling machine would you expect on a propeller-driven passenger

aircraft?
A. Just a heat exchanger
B. Vapor-cycle machine
C. Air-cycle machine

Lesson 3: Cooling description

1. Click on a label and then click on the correct position on the graphic.

2. What do you think the ozone converter does to the ozone?

A. It converts the ozone to oxygen
B. It converts the ozone to water
C. It extracts the ozone and sends it overboard

3. Click on secondary / main heat exchanger.

4. The turbine outlet temperature is too high. How does the bypass valve react to
decrease the pack outlet temperature?
A. It opens more
B. It does nothing
C. It closes more

5. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The more the valve is open, the faster the air-cycle machine runs.
B. The more the valve is closed, the slower the air-cycle machine runs.
C. The more the valve is open, the slower the air-cycle machine runs.

Lesson 4: Water separation

1. Which one of the following statements is a correct definition of the low-pressure

water separation system?
A. It separates the water after air is compressed by the compressor and before it goes to
the turbine
B. It separates the water after it leaves the air-cycle machine and sends it to the ram air
inlet
C. It separates water at the ozone converter and sends it through the pack valve to the
primary heat exchanger.
2. Click on the label and then click on the correct position on the graphic.
Option:
- Collector
- Drain
- Air inlet side
- Relief valve
- Swirl vanes

3. Where does the air go next?

A. The air goes to the main heat exchanger
B. The air goes to the primary heat exchanger
C. The air goes to the compressor
D. The air goes to the turbine

4. Where is the collected water sent to?

A. To the ram air inlet
B. To the ambient
C. To the ozone converter
D. To the wing anti-ice system
5. Does the temperature of the air from the turbine out let change while passing the
condenser?
A. No, because the cross flowing air keeps the temperature constant.
B. Yes, it becomes colder.
C. Yes, it becomes warmer.

6. How can icing conditions be noticed in the water separator?

A. The differential pressure between the water separator inlet and outlet becomes high.
B. The pack outlet temperature becomes low.
C. The air-cycle machine would stop running because the water separator is clogged.
Lesson 5: Pack control

1. Pick the statement which correctly completes the following: In flight for
maximum cooling…
A. … the ram air doors are open and the bypass valve is closed.
B. … the ram air doors are closed and the bypass valve is closed.
C. … the ram air doors are open and the bypass valve is open.
D. … the ram air doors are closed and the bypass valve is open.
2. If the bypass valve opens more, in which direction does the pointer of the bypass
valve indication move?
A. The pointer moves to hot, because the pack cools less.
B. The pointer moves to cold, because the pack cools more.
C. The pointer dose not move, because the pack temperature stays the same.

Lesson 6: Distribution

1. What happens to cold air immediately it leaves the packs?

A. The cold air is distributed to the cabin.
B. The cold air goes into the mixing unit.
C. The cold air first goes to cool the E & E compartment
2. What type of air is supplied to the cockpit?
A. Fresh air only.
B. Air from the mixing unit only.
C. Fresh air and mixed air.
D. The cockpit crew wear oxygen masks so the air is fresh and separate from the cabin
air.

Lesson 7: Zone Temperature control

1. What are the air sources for the cockpit and the passenger cabin zones?
A. The air always comes directly from the pack.
B. The cockpit is supplied by return air from the cabin and the cabin is supplied directly
from the packs.
C. The cockpit is usually supplied directly from a pack and the cabin zones are supplied
from the mixing unit.
D. The air always comes from the mixing unit.

2. How can you control different individual zone temperatures?

A. By using electrical heaters in the zone supply ducts.
B. By adding hot bleed air from the engines to the zone supply ducts.
C. By adding flow regulated hot air from the packs to the zone supply ducts
D. By controlling the pack temperatures.

3. What happens when you move a trim air valve to open?

A. The corresponding cabin temperature increases immediately.
B. The zone supply duct temperature increases immediately and the cabin zone
temperature increases slowly.
C. The zone supply duct temperature and the cabin zone temperature increases slowly.
D. The corresponding cabin temperature increases and the temperatures of the other
zones decrease.

4. How is the trim air system switched off?

A. All trim air valves move to the close position.
B. The trim air pressure regulating valve closes.
C. The 2 pack valves close.
D. The temperature control system must be switched into the manual mode.
Lesson 8: Ventilation

1. Which cargo compartments do most jet aircraft have?

A. The forward and aft cargo compartment.
B. The forward, aft and bulk cargo compartment.
C. The forward, middle, aft and bulk cargo compartment.
D. Most aircraft have only one cargo compartment, but it is divided into several zones.

2. Click on a label and then on the correct component.

Options:
- Air outlets
- Extraction Fan
- Outlet isolation valve
Lesson 9: Equipment Cooling System

1. Can the hot air be used in any way?

A. Yes, it can be used to heat the forward cargo compartment.
B. Yes, it can be used to ventilate the lavatory and galley.
C. No, it cannot be used in any other way.
D. Yes, it can be used to heat the cabin

2. What do you think happens when the aircraft is on the ground and the cooling
system is becoming too hot and there is nobody in the cockpit who knows what to
do?
A. Non important equipment is automatically switched off to decrease the temperature.
B. A horn sound to alert the ground crew.
C. The emergency ram air inlet of the mixer unit opens and the recirculation system cools
the equipment.
D. Red flashing warning lights outside the aircraft alert the maintenance staff.

Lesson 10: Cabin pressurization

1. What is the differential pressure for flight altitude of 40000 ft and cabin altitude
of 8000 ft?
A. delta p = 10.9 psi
B. delta p = 13.6 psi
C. delta p = 8.2 psi
D. delta p = 2.7 psi
2. What is the cabin rate in our example?
A. 2000 ft/min
B. 400 ft/min
C. 4000 ft/min
D. 200 ft/min
3. Which are pressurized areas?
- Radome
- Electric & Electronic Compartment
- Wheel wells
- Cargo Compartment
- Center Wing Area
- Stabilizer Compartment
- Cockpit
- Passenger Cabin

4. Which situation produces negative differential pressure?

A. No cabin air supply with outflow valves closed and high descent rate.
B. Aircraft on ground with all doors and windows closed and 1 pack activated.
C. Normal system operation, but high descent rate.
D. Normal system operation, but high aircraft climb rate.
5. What happens when you select the UP position?
A. The outflow valve drives toward open and the cabin altitude increases.
B. The outflow valve drives toward open and the cabin pressure increases.
C. The outflow valve drives toward closed and the cabin altitude increases.
D. The outflow valve drives toward closed and the cabin altitude decreases.
6. Which result is correct if you hold the switch for too long?
A. When you select UP for too long the differential pressure can exceed the limit.
B. When you select UP for too long the cabin altitude exceeds the alarm threshold.
C. When you select DN for too long the cabin altitude exceeds the alarm threshold.
D. When you select DN for too long the negative pressure relief valve opens.

7. What is the correct cabin rate if the time to TOC is 20 min?

A. 2000 ft/min
B. 400 ft/min
C. 800 ft/min
D. 2400 ft/min
8. What is the cruise altitude when the landing airport has an elevation of 14000 ft
(such as La Paz)?
A. The cabin cruise altitude will also be 14000 ft.
B. The cabin cruise altitude will be at the maximum allowed cabin altitude of 8000 ft.
C. The cabin cruise altitude will be the altitude for maximum differential pressure.
It is not allowed to land at such an airport.
9. What force acts on a door of 2 m^2 with a delta p of 4 psi?
A. 800 N (approximately 80 kg)
B. 56 kN (approximately 5.6t)
C. 100 kN (approximately 100 kg)
D. 4 kN (approximately 0.4t)

ATA 27 FLIGHT CONTROL GENERAL

Lesson 1: Introduction

1/ Which option matches each of the aircraft motion with its associated axis?
A - Roll occurs around the longitudinal axis, yaw around the lateral axis and pitch around
the vertical axis.
B - Roll occurs around the lateral axis, yaw around the vertical axis and pitch the
longitudinal axis.
C - Roll occurs around the longitudinal axis, yaw around the vertical axis and pitch
around the lateral axis.
D - Roll occurs around the vertical axis, yaw around the longitudinal axis and pitch
around the lateral axis.
2/ Which of the lift devices increase drag and decrease lift?
A - Leading edge devices.
B - Flags.
C - Speed Brakes.
3/ Which trim is achieved by the trimable horizontal stabilizer?
A - Roll rim.
B - Pitch trim.
C - Yaw trim.
4/ What kind of transmission is represented here?
A - Electrical
B - Hydraulic
C - Mechanical
5/ Which of the primary flight controls achieves yaw control?
A - Rudder
B - Elevators
C - Ailerons
D - Roll Spoiler
6/ Which of the flight control surface is specifically designated for pitch trim?
A - Elevators
B - Faps
C - Trimable Horizontal Stabilizer.
D - Leading edge devices

Lesson 2: Cable Transmission

1/ Which cable, do you think, is more flexible?

A - The cable with 7 wires in a stand
B - The cable with 19 wires in a stand
C - The 2 cables are equally flexible
2/ What is the extentof the cable wear on the wires on the right?

A - More than 50%

B - Between 40% and 50%
C - Less than 40%
3/ What happen when the ambient temperature decrease during flight?
A - Cable tension does not change
B - Cable tension increase
C - Cable tiension decrease
4/ What is the main purpose of a cable pulley?
A - To increase and decrease cable tension
B - To change the direction of a cable run
C - To provide necessary support for lengthy cable runs
5/ Which cable is used where operation over pulleys is frequent?
A - 7x7
B - 7x19
C - Either 7x7 or 7x19
6/ Which of the following methods is recommended for inspecting the surface of a
cable broken wires?
A - Band the cable
B - Run a small magnet over the cable. The broken wires are pulled out and easy to see
C - Rud a piece of cloth back and forth over the length of the cable
D - Check the cable at all pulleys and fairleads with a magnifying glass
7/ What is the primary function of a cable tension regulator in the flight control
cable system of a large all - metal aircraft?
A - To increase the cable tension in cold weather
B - To provide a mean of changing cable tension during flight
C - To maintain a set cable tension
D - To decrease the cable tension in cold weather
8/ What is the maximum change of direction allowed by a cable fairlead?
A - 3o
B - 6o
C - 7o
D - 19o

Lesson 3: Mechanical Transmission

1/ Why do you think non-adjustanle rods have threaded and fitting?

A - To facilitate adjustment in case of emergency
B - To compensate for misaliment of the aircraft
C - So that end fittings can be replaced in the workshop if they become damaged or worn
2/ What is the main function of an angle gearbox?
A - To allow for changes in direction when power is being transmitted from on torque
tube to another
B - To move the drice path forward or back
C - To transmit torque tube rotation to an output lever
D - To correct one torque tbe to another
3/ What happens to the output shaft in this situation?
A - It is rotated in the opposite direction to before
B - It is rotated in the same direction as before but at half the speed
C - It stops rotating
4/ Which way would the screw rotate with this aerodynamic load without a No back
brake?

A - Either clockwise or counter clockwise

B - Counter clockwise
C - Clockwise
5/ What do you think happens when 1 aileron is jammed?
A - The jammed aileron blocks the entire transmission system
B - The pilot has to manually disconnect the jammed aileron
C - The jammed aileron is automatically isolated by a special device
6/ What is the main function of an offset gearbox in a torque tube transmission?
A - To transmittorque tube rotation to an output lever
B - To move the drive path forward or back
C - To connect on torque tube to another
D - To allow for changes in direction when power is being transmitted from on torque
tube to another
7/ At what speed does the output shaft rotate, in this example with the left pressure
off brake set?

A - The output shaft does not rotate

B - The normak speed for 2 motor operation
C - Half the normal speed for 2 mototr operation
8/ Which component prevents a complete jamming of the flight control system when
1 component is jammed?
A - No back brake
B - Torque limiter
C - Override device
9/ Which load limiter is used to limit rotary force
A - Force detent
B - Shear rivet
C - Force limitng strut

Lesson 4: Hydraulic Transmission

1/ Why the pilot has such large muscles?

A - He goes to a body building club
B - It’s heavy work operating the control surface via a mechanical transmission on this
large aircraft
C - he wants to impress the flight attendants
D - He has just finishes eating a large plate of spinach
2/ In Hydraulic transmission can the pilot feel the airload effect directly?
A - He can not feel any of the airload effect directly
B - He can feel the ful airload effect directly
C - He can feel part of the airload effect directly
3/ What is required to change this servo control unit from the damping mode to the
control mode?
A - Hydraulic pressure supply on the bypass valve automatically moves to the left
B - An input to the distribution control valve via the input lever
C - Hydraulic pressure supply on and a mechanical input to the bypass valve
4/ What happens if external push or oull force are applied to the piston rod?
A - The bypass valve automatically switches back to the damping mode
B - The piston rod holds its position
C - The piston rod oves to the left or right
5/ What is necessary to stop the piston rob movement in an intermediate position?
A - The current for the ser vo valve must be reduce to zero
B - The current for the servo valve must be inversed
C - The hydraulic power for the servo valve must be switched off
D - The piston rod always moves fully to the left or right
6/ What happens to this servo control unit when the control column is pushed
forward slightly?
A - The piston rod move in proportion to the control column movement
B - The piston rod move fully to the left
C - The piston rod move fully to the right
7/ What is the purpose of the bypass valve in a servo control unit?
A - To connect the pressure port to the return port
B - To connect the control the valve to the cylinder chambers in the event of pressure loss
C - To permit a damping function.
8/ Which servo control unit component is used to achieve low damping speed?
A - Control valve
B - Bypass valve
C - Damping orifice

Lesson 5, 6: Surfaces and Rigging

1/ Surface flutter results from competition between:

Down-going tendency of surface with center of gravity such as this
Up-going effects of airloads
How do you think, surface flutter can be prevented?
A. Move the center of gravity to the hinge point
B. Increase surface area
C. Decrease surface area
D. Provide higher friction on the surface hinges

2/ What, if any, is the difference between the zero condition and the neural position
of a control surface?
 A. The 2 terms describe the same position
B. The zero position always remain the same but the neural position can be changed
by a trim input
C. The neural position always remain the same but the zero position can be changed
by a trim input

3/ Which surface deflection angels cannot be measured by an inclinometer?

A. Spoiler
B. Elevator
C. Rudder

4/ What is rigging?
A. Ensuring that each flight control surface can move fully through its travel range
B. Making sure the flight controls are in the correct position before take-off
C. Adjusting cables and linkages in the flight control transmissions to ensure proper
system operation

5/ What is correct location for the rig pin hole on this cable tension regulator>
A. Position A
B. Position B
C. Position C
6/ What should the scale read at an ambient temperature of 10oF

A. Between 8.4 and 9.9

B. Between 7.4 and 7.9
C. Between 7.6 and 8.1

7/ Is it necessary to have the rig pins inserted in the quadrants to measure the cable
tension using a tensionmeter?
A. Yes
B. No
C. It’s only necessary to insert one rigging pin

8/ What should the cable tension be if the ambient temperature is 30oF

 A. 105 pounds
B. 74 pounds
C. 94 pounds
D. 115 pounds

9/ How can the control surface be adjusted to the zero position

A. Move the index plate so that the zero mark aligns with the trailing edge of the
surface
B. Replace the servo control unit
C. Make the adjustable rod longer
D. Make the adjustable rod shorter

10/ How should the piston rod be adjusted to bring the surface back to the zero
position?
A. It should be made longer
B. It should be made shorter

Lesson 7: Hydraulic supply

1. Hydraulic power distributed via shut-off valves: On all Boeing aircraft

A. System 1 only.
B. all 4 systems.
C. system 3 only.
D. system 1 and system 3.
2. Tail and wing shut-off valve: operated from flight control hydraulic power panel.
3. Flight control shut-off switches:
Guarded toggle switches:
Used for maintenance and trouble shooting:
A. the aircraft can only be controlled by the autopilot.
B. the aircraft is uncontrollable.
C. the pilot must control the aircraft manually.
4. Hydraulic power distribution on airbus 320:
Via leak measurement valves to surfaces which control aircraft around 3 axes.
Via priority valves to flaps and LED’s.
A. Flaps and leading devices.
B. surfaces which control aircraft around 3 axes.
Lesson 8: Take-off warnings
1. what conditions, do you think, must be satisfied before a flight control take-off
warning is activated?
A. aircraft on ground, engines running, some of the flight controls outside take-off
configuration.
B. aircraft on ground, engines at take-off power, all of the flight controls outside take-off
configuration.
C. aircraft on ground, engines at take-off power, some of the flight controls outside take-
off configuration.
ATA 32-1: LANDING GEAR
1. Introduction
1. Which aircraft type permits more forceful application of brakes on landing?
A. Nose wheel type.
B. Tail wheel type.
C. Nose wheel type and tail wheel type permit the same.

2. Why do you think jet aircraft have multiple wheels on each main landing gear?
A. To absorb the impact on landing.
B. So that more brakes can be fitted.
C. to distribute the aircraft weight over a greater area.

3. Nose landing gear:

 Lighter than main landing gear

Why is the nose gear lighter than the main gears?

A. The center of gravity is nearer to the main gears.
B. The nose gear carries less load than the main gears.
C. A light construction is necessary for steering.
D. Heavier passengers always sit above the main gears.
4. Nose gear on all jet aircraft:
 Retracts forward into fuselage

What is the advantage when the nose gear retracts forward?

A. It is easier to stow.
B. If there is no hydraulic power to extend the nose gear, its weight and the airstream will
cause it to extend.
C. If there’s no hydraulic power to retract the nose gear, the airstream pushes it into the
retracted position.

5. Why are direct nose wheel steering systems not used on heavy jet aircraft?
A. Muscle power is not sufficient to turn the nose wheel.
B. The distance from the cockpit to the nose gear is too long for direct mechanical
linkages.
C. Indirect steering systems permit greater deflections.

6. Why are landing gear extension and retraction systems necessary?

A. To prevent the build up of ice on the gears during flight.
B. Retractable landing gear is lighter than non-retractable landing gear.
C. To reduce drag during flight and therefore increase airspeed and reduce fuel
consumption.

7. Why is the function of the alternate (free fall) extension system?

A. This system separates the landing gear from the aircraft in an emergency situation.
B. To extend the landing gear if the normal system does not operate.
C. To extend the landing gear automatically if the airspeed decreases below a given
value.

8. Where is the center of gravity located on aircraft with nose wheel landing gear
and on aircraft with tail wheel landing gear?
A. Aft of the main landing gear.
B. Forward of the main landing gear.
C. Aft of main gear on aircraft with nose wheel, forward of main gear on aircraft with tail
wheel.
D. Aft of main gear on aircraft with tail wheel, forward of the main gear on aircraft with
nose wheel.

9. Jet aircraft use nose wheel landing gears and not tail wheel landing gears
beacause…
A. …the nose gear has better directional stability and it prevents nosing over during
brake applications.
B. …it’s an advantage if the auxiliary gear touches down first when the aircraft lands.
C. …there is a higher angle of attack after touchdown on aircraft with nose wheel landing
gear.

10. The nose landing gear on jet aircraft…

A. …has brakes and it retracts against the airstream and is steerable.
B. …has no brakes and it retracts with the airstream and is steerable.
C. …has no brakes and it extends with the airstream and is steerable.
11. Which statement is correct?
A. Small aircraft always have indirect steering systems. Commercial jet aircraft have
direct steering systems.
B. Large commercial jet aircraft use main wheel steering systems or steer directly with
the main wheel brakes.
C. Small aircraft only need the rudder for steering because they steer aerodynamically.
D. Small aircraft have direct steering systems. Commercial jet aircraft have indirect
steering systems.

12. Why are landing gear extension and retraction systems necessary?
A. To prevent a build up of ice on the gears during flight.
B. To decrease drag during flight and therefore decrease airspeed and reduce fuel
consumption.
C. To decrease drag during flight and therefore increase airspeed and reduce fuel
consumption.
D. Retractable landing gear is lighter than non-retractable landing gear.

13. On commercial jet aircraft the wheel well doors are closed…
A. …at all times.
B. …only during extension.
C. …during extension and retraction.
D. …at all times but not during extension and retraction.

2. Main Gear Components

1. Shock strut:
- Uses compressed nitrogen and hydraulic fluid.
What is the function of the gas and the hydraulic fluid?
A. The fluid works like a spring and the gas has a dampening function.
B. The gas works like a spring and the fluid has a dampening function.
C. The gas and the fluid are mixed to give a foam which absorbs the shocks.

2. Trunnion link:
- Mounted between shock strut and wing area.
What is the function of the trunnion link?
A. To prevent vibrations from going into the aircraft structure.
B. To give longitudinal support for the landing gear.
C. To transmit the static and dynamic forces from the gears into the aircraft structure.
3. What is the purpose ò a torsion link damper?
A. To help absorb the landing impact of heavy aircraft.
B. To improve steering capabilities when taxiing on narrow curves.
C. To decrease the landing vibrations through the torsion link.
4. What is the function of the drag strut?
A. It gives lateral support to the shock strut.
B. It stabilizes the shock strut in the force and aft direction during take-off and landing.
C. It locks the landing gear in the down position.
D. It retracts the landing gear.
5. The main purpose of the shock strut is to…
A. … reduce load on the airframe and to soften impact.
B. … store energy during landing impact and release it to bring the aircraft back to its
static position.
C. … soften the impact for more passenger comfort.
6. The shock strut has the highest efficiency when…
A. … its rebound characteristics ensure a rapid rebound after a hard landing.
B. … its rebound characteristics ensure that the wheels stay on the ground after a hard
landing.
C. … frequent bumps are encountered during taxiing.
7. The function of spherical bearings is to…
A. … allow retraction and extension of the landing gear.
B. … transfer the torque through drag loads into the structure.
C. … transmit vertical loads into airframe without transferring torque into structure /
outer cylinder.
8. The function of torsion links on a main gear is to…
A. … allow the inner cylinder to rotate and to move up and down in the outer cylinder.
B. … allow the inner cylinder to move up and down in the outer cylinder but not rotate.
C. … prevent vibration build-up in the landing gear during take-off and landing.
D. … give improved steering capabilities when taxiing on narrow curves.
9. What is the purpose of a torsion link damper?
A. To give improved steering capabilities when taxiing on narrow curves.
B. To help absorb the landing impact of heavy aircraft.
C. To decrease the landing and take-off vibrations through the torsion link.
10. The drag strut…
A. … gives lateral support to the shock strut.
B. … locks the landing gear in the down position.
C. … retracts the landing gear.
D. stabilizes the shock strut in the fore and aft directions during take-off and landing.
11. The side strut…
A. … gives lateral support to the shock strut.
B. … stabilizes the shock strut in the fore and aft directions during take-off and landing.
C. … prevents vibrations during landing and take-off.
D. … controls the steering of a 4-wheel landing gear.
12. On most aircraft the main gear is kept in a retracted position during flight by…
A. … an uplock roller and an engaged uplock hook.
B. … the side strut.
C. … a pressurized down lock actuator.
D. … a pressurized main gear actuator.
3. Main Gear Shock Strut
1/ The compressed nitrogen gas…
A/ … has a dampening function
B/…works like a spring to absorb the shocks
C/…is mixed with the hydraulic fluid
2/ When the shock strut is compressed, the volume of hydraulic fluid…
A/…increases
B/…decreases
C/…doesn’t change
3/ Which flow control device alters the cross section of the fluid passage?
A/ Laminar flow orifice
B/ Tapered metering pin
C/ Rebound valve
4/ Which option is correct?
A/ Dynamic seals-seal inner cylinder to gland housing. Static seals-seal outler cylinder to
gland housing
B/ Dynamic seals-seal outler cylinder to gland housing. Static seals-seal inner cylinder to
gland housing
5/ Which chapter tell you how to service the shock strut?
A/ ATA 32-Landing gear
B/ ATA 12-Servicing
C/ ATA 29- Hydraulic Power
6/ What is the correct dimension ‘X’ for a shock strut with a gas pressure of 1400
psi at an ambient temperature of ?
A/ 4.5 inches
B/ 2.7 inches
C/ 3.6 inches

7/ Is it possible to check the shock strut at different aircraft weights - e.g. empty or
take-off weight?
A/ No. The reference weight stated in the maintenance manual must be used
B/ Yes. A graph is provided by the manufacturer to take into account different aircraft
weights
C/ Yes. The gas pressure stays constant at different aircraft weights
8/ To make sure a shock strut is serviceable…
A/…you only need to measure the strut extension and check it against the maintenance
manual
B/…you only need to measure the gas pressure and cross check it – this automatically
gives correct extension
C/…the strut extension and the gas pressure must be checked against the maintenance
manual.

9/ When a shock strut is compressed the increase in pressure…

A/…causes the volume of the gas to decrease
B/…causes the volume of the hydraulic fluid to decrease
C/…does not change the volume of the gas
10/ Which option is an accurate list of the 3 different flow control devices?
A/ Laminar flow orifice, tapered metering pin and a check valve
B/ Laminar flow orifice, taperd metering pin and a rebound valve
C/ Laminar flow pin, high resistance orifice and a rebound valve

11/ The laminar flow orifice allows…

A/…high resistance laminar flow in 1 direction and causes low resistance tubulent flow
in the other
B/…low resistance laminar flow in 1 direction and cause turbulent high resistance flow in
the other
C/…Laminar flow in both directions

12/ The function of a wiper ring is to…

A/…keep the nitrogen and the hydraulic pressure in the shock strut
B/…keep all unwanted material out of the shock strut during extension
C/…keep all unwanted material out of the shock strut during compression

14/ Dynamic seal are used…

A/…to seal the outler cylinder to the gland housing
B/…in areas with steady or pulsating pressure
C/…to replace main gland seals
D/…to seal the inner cylinder to the gland housing in areas with linear or rotational
movement

15/ Spare seals in shock struts…

A/…are used to replace main seals which are faulty and cause leakage
B/…automatically replace faulty main seals
C/…can only be replaced by main gland seals in an overhaul shop
16/ What is the correct dimension ‘X’ for a gas pressure of 1200 psi at an ambient
temperature of ?
A/ 4 inches
B/ 4.5 inches
C/ 5 inches
D/ 5.5 inches
17/ When there is too much gas in a shock strut…
A/…the shock strut operates harshly
B/…the shock has to be serviced with less shock strut fluid
C/…the shock strut operation is softer which is an improvement to passenger comfort
D/…the shock strut can easily bottom during landing and this may result in structural
damage

4. Main Gear Types

1/ What forces the actuator piston to extend?
A/ The left piston area is larger than the right one
B/ The right piston area is larger than the left one
C/ The weight of the wheels move the piston
D/ The right side of the piston is connected to return
2/ When the nose gear turns a certain angle in 1 direction, the body gear…
A/…turn the same angle in the opposite direction
B/…turn a greater but proportional angle in the opposite direction
C/…turn a smaller but proportional angle in the opposite direction
D/…turn a smaller but propotional angle in the same direction

3/ The centerline gear is designed to absorb…

A/…landing, taxiing and take-off loads
B/…taxiing and take-off loads only
C/…take-off loads only

4/ When the centerline gear is compressed the floating piston…

A/…moves up
B/…moves down
C/…keeps its position
5/ On 4 wheel landing gears the truck beam has a tilt mechanism to…
A/…bring the truck beam into a certain position before retraction because wheel wall
space is limited
B/…position the wheels so that the forward wheel touch grounf first on landing
C/…keep the 4 wheel truck beam in the correct track and therefore prevent wheel
shimmy
6/ The tilt mechanism is generally operated by…
A/…an electrical positioning actuator
B/…a mechanical positionging device which is operated by the torision links
C/…a hydraulic truck positioning actuator
7/ When the nose gear turns a certain angle in 1 direction, he body gears…
A/…turn the same angle in the opposite direction
B/…turn a greater but proportional angle in the opposite direction
C/…turn a smaller but proportional angle in the opposite direction
D/…turn a smaller but proportional angle in the same direction
8/ Some large aircraft have a centerline gear…
A/…to give better braking capabilities
B/…as an emergency gear in case 1 of the normal gears fails to extend
C/…to give heavy aircraft a larger footprint
D/…to improve steering when taxiing through narrow curves
9/ Some aircraft use a shortening mechanism to…
A/…shorten gear during retraction and to lengthen the gear during extension for some
drag on landing
B/…shorten the gear during extension and to increase ground to engine clearance
C/…shorten the gear during retraction, to fit the wheel well, to increase surface – engine
clearance on ground
D/…shorten the gear during extension, to allow a higher angle of attack on take-off and
landing
5. Nose Gear Component
1. On most jet aircraft the nose gear retracts…
A. … forward into the whell well
B. … backward into the whell well
2. When the nose landing gear is down and locked…
A. … the drag strut assembly is extended and takes some of the lateral forces on the
aircrafr
B. … the drag strut assembly is folded and takes some of the longitudinal forces on the
aircrafr
C. … the drag strut assembly is extended and takes some of the longitudinal forces on the
aircrafr
D. … the drag strut assembly is folded and takes some of the lateral forces on the aircrafr
3. The drag strut of a nose landing gear…
A. … stabilizes the shock strut in a fore and aft direction and takes some lateral forces
B. … stabilizes the shock strut in a fore against lateral forces
C. … takes some longitudinal forces and gives the primary support for the down and
locked position
4. A lockstay…
A. … is attached to the drag strut and controls the aligment of the folding drag strut
B. … is attached to the torsion links and locks the nose gear in the straight position after
retracton
C. … has 2 supports for the uplock sensors which detect the up and locked position
D. … give secondary lateral support
5. If the nose landing gear lockstay is overcentered this means that…
A. … the pivot point centers are in a straight line and a lock pin can be inserted
B. … the pivot point centers are not in a straight line and stops make sure that the
lockstay cannot move
C. … 2 springs can get the lockstay out of its overcentered position if the downlock
actuator fails
D. … the pivot point centers are no in a straight line but the lockstay can move in any
direction
6. Nose Gear Shock Strut
1. If the shock strut is inclined forward…
A. … the touch down strocke will be straight due to the attitude os the aircraf
B. … it’s easier to move the nose gear into the down and locked position
C. … this creates a castor angle which gives the wheels the tendency to move back to the
straight position
D. … this creates a castor angle which gives the wheels the tendency to stay in their last
position
2. The centering cams on a nose gear…
A. … engage when the shock absorber extends
B. … engage when the shock absober is compressed
C. … egage the keep the nose wheels straight in case the nose gear steering fails
D. … are only engage when the nose gear is up and locked
3. On this nose gear type the steering actuating cylinder transmits hydraulic power
through the rack and pinion mechanism and via…
A. … the plunger tube and upper and lower torque tube to the nose gear wheels
B. … the sliding tube and upper and lower torque tube to the nose gear wheels
C. … the rotating tube and upper and lower torque tube to the nose gear wheels
7. Steering
Câu 1: Nose wheel steering is controlled from the cockpit by …
A... the steering tiller and the control wheels.
B... the control wheels and the rudder pedals.
C... the rudder pedals and the steering tiller.

Câu 2: Which controls are used for steering at high speeds?

A. The steering tillers.
B.The rudder pedals.
C.The steering tillers or the rudder pedals

Câu 3: Why do jet aircraft use indirect nose wheel steering systems?
A.The distance from the cockpit to the nose gear is too long for direct mechanical
linkages.
B. Indirect steering systems permit greater deflection.
C. Mucle power is not sufficient to turn the nose wheel.

Câu 4: Which statement is correct?

A. When the interconnect actuator is extended, the rudder pedals are connectes to the
steering system.
B. When the interconnect actuator is retracted, the rudder pedals are connectes to the
steering system.

Câu 5: The rotating tube stops rotating…

A. When there is no diffirence between the position of the hand wheels and the position
of the nose gear.
B. When the handwheel is returned to neutral.
C. When the slide valve is moved fully to ther other slide.
Câu 6: Some large aircraft have main gear steering…
A. for longitudinal stability during landing.
B. for push backs.
C. to protect the tires form damage due to scrubbing when the main gears resist the turn.
D. for longitudinal stability during take-off.
Câu 7: When the nose gear turns a certain angle on 1 direction the steerable main
gear…
A... turn the same angle in the opposite diretion.
B... turn a greater but proportional angle in the opposite diretion.
C...turn a smaller but proportional angle in the opposite diretion.
D...turn a smaller but proportional angle in the same diretion.

Câu 8: The rudder pedals are used …

A. to steer the aircraft at low speeds and around narrow curves.
B. to steer the aircraft at high speeds like take-off
C. only in air to control the rudder

Câu 9: Large jet aircraft use…

A. indirect steering systems.
B. direct steering systems.
C. pneumatic steering systems.

Câu 10: A rudder pedals steering interconnect mechanism connects..

A. the rudder pedals to the braking system.
B. the rudder pedals to the nose wheel steering system when the aircraft is in air.
C. the rudder pedals to the nose wheel steering system when the aircraft is on ground.
Câu 11: The interconnect actuator is…
A... extend when the aircraft is on ground
B.. retracted when the aircraft is in the air
C.. retracted when the aircraft is on ground.
Câu 12: Which statement is correct?
A. On the ground the rudder pedals have priority over the steering tiller.
B. On the ground the rudder pedals are disconnect.
C. On the ground the steering tiller has priority over the rudder pedals.

Câu 13: Turning the steering tiller creates tension in the cable system and the
steering control valve..
A.. is first displaced and then positioned to neutral when tiller is moved back to the
straight position.
B.. is displaced and moves back to the neutral position when the nose gear has its desired
position

Câu 14: The purpose of the position sensors on this eclectically operated steering
system is
A.. to give feedback signals about the position of the rotating tube the BSCU.
B.. to give a signals to the BSCU about the compressed of extended position of the nose
gear shock strut
8. Doors
Câu 1: The forward doors are closed when the gear is extended…
A.. to protect the wheel well from foreign object
B.. to prevent inadvertent drag during take-off and landing
C.. to prevent a decrease in cabin pressurization.

Câu 2: The AFT nose gear doors are…

A.. closed when the nose gear is extended.
B.. open when the nose gear is extended.
Câu 3: What is the purpose of the ramps?
A. The wheels slide on the ramps into the uplock position during gear retraction.
B. The gear open the doors via the ramps during maintenance.
C. The ramps make sure that the main doors do not interfere with the gear during a free
fall extension.

Câu 4: When the ground control handle is moved to the open position…
A... the bypass valve is switched to bypass the door uplock and the doors open under the
effect of gravity.
B... the door uplock is unlocked and the bypass valve is switched so the doors open under
the effect of gravity
C... the door uplock and the bypass valve are unlocked.

Câu 5: What is the purpose of the ramps on main gear doors?

A. The wheels slide on the ramps into the uplock position during gear retraction.
B.. The gear open the doors via the ramps during maintenance.
C. The ramps make sure that the main doors do not interfere with the gear during a free
fall extension.
Câu 6: Which option lists the 2 main methods of locking the main gear doors in the
closed position?
A. 1. an uplock hook with roller; 2. a door actuator with an internal lock for the door
uplock position
B. 1. an uplock hook with roller; 2. a door actuator with is continuously kept under
pressure.
C.1. an door uplock link mechanism; 2. a door actuator with an in ternal lock for the door
uplock position.

9. Controls and indications

1. Selector valves for gears and doors:

- 4/3 way valve
Which of the following statement is correct about a 4/3 way valve type?
A. It has 3 hydraulic connections and 4 possible positions.
B. It has 4 hydraulic connection and can be used for 3 different applications.
C. The hydraulic connections have a 4/3 inch size.
D. It has 4 hydraulic connections and 3 possible positions.

2. Lever locked by de-energized solenoid.

Lock released when solenoid energized.
Flight is detected by…
A. … the airspeed.
B. … the flap position.
C. … the air / ground sensors.
D. … the engine oil pressure.

3. Indication lights panel:

- 1 set of lights for each landing gear
Which option is correct?
A. Red light = gear not locked in selected position; green light = gear down and locked;
no light = gear up and locked.
B. Green light = gear not locked in selected position; red light = gear down and locked;
no light = gear up and locked.
C. Red light = gear up and locked; green light = gear not locked in selected position; no
light = gear down and locked.
D. Red light = gear not locked in selected position; green light = gear up and locked; no
light = gear down and locked.
4. Which statement is correct about the operation of the landing gear control lever?
A. You can move the handle to all positions without restrictions.
B. To move the handle you must first push it in.
C. You can move the handle only if you first pull it out of detent.
Explanation: Yes, that’s correct, you must first pull the handle out of detent.

5. Which of the following statements is correct about the lock mechanism of the
landing gear control lever?
A. The UP position is prevented when the aircraft is on the ground.
B. The DOWN position is prevented when the aircraft is in flight.
C. The DOWN position is prevented when the aircraft is on the ground.
D. The UP position is prevented when the aircraft is not on the ground.
Explanation: Yes, this prevents a gear movement when the aircraft is on ground.

6. Which situation leads to this landing gear indication?

A. Gears down and locked and control lever in the UP position.
B. Gears up and locked and control lever in the DOWN position.
C. Always when the gears are in transit.
D. This indication is not possible.
Explanation: Yes, the green lights show the down and locked situation and the red light
shows a disagreement between lever and gear.

10. Extension / Retraction 1

1. Wing gear door safety valve:

- Installed in door close hydraulic line
What happens if the door safety valve changes position?
A. Pressure is applied to the open side of the door actuator.
B. Pressure is applied to both sides of the door actuator allowing the doors to open
slowly.
C. Pressure is removed from the close side of the door actuator.
2. The door operated gear sequence valve controls hydraulic fluid to…
A. … the nose gear lock actuator and the nose gear door actuator.
B. … the nose gear lock actuator and the nose gear actuator.
C. … the nose gear door actuator and the nose gear actuator.

3. Which valve controls the flow of hydraulic fluid to the gear actuator?
A. The gear operated door sequence valve.
B. The uplock operated door sequence valve.
C. The door operated gear sequence valve.
D. The downlock operated door sequence valve.

4. The downlock operated door sequence valve…

A. … allows pressure to the open side of the door actuator when the gear is down and
locked.
B. … allows pressure to the up side of the gear actuator when the gear is down and
locked.
C. … removes pressure from the open side of the door actuator when the gear is down
and locked.
5. When the gear lever is placed to the gear down position, pressure is initially
applied…
A. … to the open port of the door actuator and to the open port of the uplock actuator
B. … to the open port of the door actuator and to the down port of the gear actuator
C. … to the open port of the door actuator and to the lock port of the downlock actuator
D. … to the open port of the door actuator and to the up port of the gear actuator
6. When the door safety valve changes its position…
A. … it blocks the pressure to the door actuator and connects the close port to the return
line.
B. … it blocks the pressure to the door actuator and connects the open port to the return
line.
C. … it releases the pressure to the door actuator into the return line.
11. Extension / Retraction 2
Câu 1: Which option is an accurate list of the components used by this extension
and retraction system for the sequencing of the landing gear and the doors ?
A. Proximity sensors, LGCIU, door operated gear sequence valve, gear operated door
sequence valve.
B. Uplock operated door sequence valve, downlock operated door sequence valve, gear
operated door sequence valve.
C. Proximity sensors, LGCIU, door selector valve, gear selectior valve.
Câu 2: This system has a solenoid controlled safety valve. The function of the safety
valve is to…
A. …provide the landing gear system with hydraulic supply at high airspeeds.
B. …block hydraulic supply to the landing gear system at high airspeeds.
C. …prevent inadvertent retraction of the landing gear on gound.
Câu 3: The purpose of a hydraulic fusse is …
A. …to close off the supply lines if a hydraulic leak occurs downstream of the valve.
B. …to close off the line if the airspeed is too high to extend the gear.
C. …to shut down the pressure line for gear extension in case of a serious pressure drop.
D. …to close off the supply lines if a hydraulic leak occurs upstream of the valve.
Câu 4: The LGCIU sequences the door selector valve and the gear selector valve by
using…
A. …position information given by door and gear proximity sensors and gear level
commands.
B. …position information given by door and gear proximity sensors.
C. …position information given by door and gear actuators and gear lever commands.
D. …position information given by door downlock and gear uplock proximity sensors
and gear lever commands.
12. Alternate Extension
Câu 1: How is the Boeing 747 alternate extension system operated?
A. mechanically.
B. electrically.
C. pneumatically.
D. hydraulically.
Câu 2: After an alternate landing gear extension the landing gear doors…
A. …remain in the open position.
B. …are closed hydraulically when the gear is in the down and locked position.
C. …are closed by the airstream.
Câu 3: Identify the valve which closes the normal hydraulic supply line when the
alternate extension handle is used.
Cut-out Valve (Free Fall)
Câu 4: When the alternate extension system is used the vent valves open to allow
fluid from the…
A. …close port of the door actuators and the down port of the gear actuators to the return
system.
B. … open port of the door actuators and the up port of the gear actuators to the return
system.
C. …open port of the door actuators and the down port of the gear actuators to the return
system.
D. …close port of the door actuators and the up port of the gear actuators to the return
system.
ATA 32.2 WHEELS & BRAKES
I. Introduction
1. This big bird hates take-offs and landings because…
A … it needs a very long runway.
B … it cannot run very fast.
C …it has no wheels and brakes.
2. Performance / maintenance of tires very important with high operating weights,
long taxi distances, short turnarounds.
A. …taxing
B. … take-off
C. …landing.
3. Life span of tire: calculated on number of take-offs and landings. A modern jet
aircraft tire can be used for approximately…
A. … 50 take-offs and landings.
 B. … 100 takes-offs and landings.
C. … 150 take-offs and landings.
4. What happens to the kinetic energy during braking ?
A. It changes into static energy.
B. It is converted into heat energy.
C. It is destroyed.
5. The thread of a tire wears most during…
A. …take-off
B. …landing
C. …taxiing
6. Each main gear tire on a large aircraft can carry a maximum load of…
A. …10000 kg.
B. …15000 – 20000 kg.
C. …over 20000 kg.
7. During braking…
A. …the kinetic energy is converted into heat energy.
B. …the kinetic energy is converted into friction.
C. …the aircraft mass is converted into friction.
D. …the kinetic energy is converted into static energy.
II. Wheels
1. A main gear tire on a large aircraft must be able to carry a load of
approximately…
A. …10000 kg.
B. …15000 kg.
C. …25000 kg.
D. …50000 kg.
2. Features common to main gear wheels and nose gear wheel.
What is the main difference between nose wheels and main wheels ?
A. The nose wheels have to be stronger because they carry more aircraft load.
 B. The main wheels have brakes.
C. There is no major difference.
3. Which component is used to reduce the risk of the tire bursting at high
temperatures ?
A. Inflating valve.
B. Fusible plug.
C. Spacer tube.
4. Most aircraft wheels are made of…
A. …steel.
B. …magnesium alloy
C. …titanium.
D. …aluminum alloy.
5. The inflating valve is installed…
A. …on the inboard half of the wheel.
B. …on the outboard half of the wheel.
C. …on the inboard and outboard halves of the wheel.
6. The brakes are installed..
A. …on the inboard half of the main gear wheels.
B. … on the outboard half of the main gear wheels.
C. …on the inboard and outboard halves of the main gear wheels.
7. The heat shield inside the wheel prevents…
A. …brake heat from damaging the wheels and tires under all conditions.
B. …brake heat from damaging the wheels and tires during normal braking.
C. …damage to the brakes due to overheat.
8. The fusible plug…
A. …prevents brake heat from damaging the wheels and tires during normal braking.
B. …reduces the risk of the retire bursting at high temperatures.
D. …protects the tire from overheat.
32-3: Tires
1. If the size of a tire is 960 x 340 x 14 this means that
A.The outside diameter is 960mm, the section width is 340mm and the rim diameter is
14 mm.
B.The outside diameter is 960 mm, the section width is 340mm and the rim diameter is
14inches.
C.The outside diameter is 960 mm, the rim diameter width is 340mm and the section is
14inches.
D.The outside diameter is 960 mm, the rim diameter width is 340mm and the section is
14 mm.

2. Which tires are used on most propeller power general aviation aircraft?
A. Type 3
B. Type 7
C. Type 8
3. The ply rating is
A. greater than the number of plies.
B. The same as the number of plies.
C. less than the number of plies.

4. On conventional tires
A. The cords run diagonally and the cords of adjacent plies cross each other.
B. The cords run radially from bead to bead.
 C. All the cords run in the same diagonal direction.

5. Which option is an advantage of a radial tire compared to a conventional tire?

A. It is less expensive.
B. It is lighter.
C. It can be retreaded more times.

D. Normal slippery action on the thin film of water is

A. viscous hydroplaning
B. dynamic hydroplaning
C. reverted rubber hydroplaning
E. What is the rim diameter of this tire (34 x 9.25 -16)?
A. 34 inches
B. 9.25 inches
C. 16 inches

F. Which parts of the tire is highlighted?

A. The beads
B. The carcass
C. The tread
D. The sidewalls
G. A layer of the tire carcass is called a…
A. Sidewall
B. Tread
C. Ply

H. Which plies are highlighted?

A. Belt plies
B. Carcass plies

32 – 4 Tire Servicing and Inspection

1. This indicates that the tire
A. has the normal wear pattern.
B. is over inflated.
C. is under inflated.

2. How often is tire pressure checked?

A. Before each flight or each day.
B. Weekly
C. After 10 flights.

3. Aircraft tires are inflated with…

A. Air.
B. Nitrogen.
 C. Oxygen.

4. A tire which reaches its normal wear limit

A. must be replaced immediately.
B. can continue in service for a maximum of 15 landings.
C. must be replaced after the next landing.

5. A tire with flat spots

A. must be replaced immediately.
B. can continue in service if it is not worn the base of the grooves and if no shimmy
is experienced.
C. is not a problem. All tires have flat spots.

6. The correct deflection of a loaded tire is…

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 32%
7. Which option is correct?
A. Over inflated tire – deflection is more than 32%. Under inflated tire – deflection is
less than 32%
B. Over inflated tire – deflection is less than 32%. Under inflated tire – deflection is
more than 32%
C. Over inflated tire – deflection is more than 32%. Under inflated tire – deflection is
more than 32%
D. Over inflated tire – deflection is less than 32%. Under inflated tire – deflection is
less than 32%

8. At an ambient temperature of 45 the tire pressure is…

A. 190 psi
B. 210 psi
C. 220 psi
D. 180 psi
9. Why are tires inflated with nitrogen and not compressed air?
A. Air cannot be compressed as much as nitrogen.
B. Nitrogen is much lighter than air.
C. Air includes oxygen.
D. Nitrogen is cheaper.

10. Which tire is under inflated?

A. The tire on the left.
B. The tire on the right.
C. All tires are correctly inflated.
D. It’s impossible to say.

11. This condition is associated with…

A. Viscous hydroplaning.
B. Dynamic hydroplaning
C. Reverted rubber hydroplaning.

12. Excessive shoulder wear is caused by…

A. Viscous hydroplaning.
B. Dynamic hydroplaning
C. Under inflation of tires.
 D. Over inflation of tires.

Lesson 5: TPIS
1. Identify the pressure transducer on the graphic on the right of the screen

2. What is the function of the wheel interface unit?

A. It generates an electrical signal from the tire pressure input
B. It transfers the electrical pressure transducer signal from the rotating part to the
fixed part of the wheel
C. It generates the power supply for the pressure transducer
D. It compensates the tire pressure by a wheel temperature signal
3. Click on the tire pressure indication on the ECAM display that is too low
Yes, 90 psi is too low for tire pressure

ATA 32.2: Wheels & Brakes: Lesson 6: Brakes

4.Is it possible to supply the normal and the alternate braking system at the same
time?
A. No
B. Yes
C. Only if the normal system is operated first
5.Which option is correct?
A. Carbon heat packs are lighter than steel heat packs but steel heat packs can
withstand higher temperatures
B. Carbon heat packs are lighter than steel heat packs and can withstand higher
temperatures
 C. Steel heat packs are lighter than carbon heat packs but carbon heat packs can with
stand higher temperatures
D. Steel heat packs are lighter than carbon heat packs and can with stand higher
temperature

6.All jet aircraft brakes

A. …have the same construciton
B. …are disc brakes
C. …are single disc brakes

7. The torque tube of a brake is connected to

 A. …the wheel
B. …the rotors
C. …the stators

8. Which component changes the hydraulic pressure into brake force?

A. The pistons
B. The heat pack
C. The torque tube

9. A brake with 14 brake pistons?

A. …can use all pistons at the same time in the event of an emergency
 B. …alternates between each set of 7 pistons on a flight by flight basis
C. …uses 7 pistons for normal braking and 7 pistons for alternate braking

10. What prevents supply to all 14 pistons?

1. The automatic selector
2. The shuttle valve
3. The pilot switches from normal to alternate system

11. A brake with 7 brake piston…

 A. …uses 4 pistons for normal braking and 3 for alternate braking
B. …uses all 7 pistons for normal and for alternate braking
C. …has only a normal brake system

12. The heat pack in a disc brake consists of…

A. …alternate carbon rotors and steel stators
B. …steel stators only
C. …steel or carbon rotors only
D. …steel or carbon rotors and stators
13. Which brakes can withstand higher temperature?
A. Steel brakes
B. Carbon brakes
C. Carbon and steel brakes can withstand the same tempratures…steel or carbon
rotors and stators

1. The brake pedals are used for...

A. ...rudder control and braking only.
B. ... braking only.
C. ...braking and nose wheel steering.
D. ...rudder control, braking and nose wheel steering.
2. Large, heavy aircraft need power brakes...
A...because the pilot cannot apply sufficiently high brake pressure.
B... to el iminate the need for 2 brake systems.
C...because they have rore than 1 brake.

3. What type of transmission is used between the brake pedals and the brake
metering valve.
A. Electrical transmission.
B. Cable transmission only.
C. Cable transmission or hydraul ic transmission.
4. Differential braking means that...
A... the pilot can operate the left brakes and the co-pilot can operate the right brakes.
B... the brakes can be appl ied with different brake pressures.
C... the left brake pedals operate the left brakes and the right pedals operate the right
brakes.

5. The inflight braking system...

A... assists the speed brakes.
B... stops the wheel rotation dur ing gear retraction.
C...prevents a touchdown with appl ied brakes.

6. How many brake systers are required on large aircraft?

A. 1.
 B. A minimum of 2 independent systems.
C. 4 - 1 for each brake.
7. How much voltage does the servovalue receive in the brake release position.
A. Zero voltage - this means zero brake pressure.
B. Maximum voltage - this means maximum brake pressure.
C. Maximum voltage - this means zero brake pressure.
8. What is the purpose of inflight braking ?
A. The pilots need inflight braking if there is high a ir traffic.
B. Inflight braking is used to release the wheels dur ing flight.
C. Inflight braking is used to stop the rotation of the wheels dur ing gear retraction.
9. On electrically controlled brake systems...
A... the transmitter unit amplifies the brake pedal position.
B...a servovalve amplifies the brake pedal position.
C... the electrical power operates the brake.

10. If there is a broken cable to the servoval ve on an electrical brake system...

 A... the brakes are released automatically.
B... there is no effect on the normal brake system.
C... the brakes receive maximum brake pressure, when the brake pedals are depressed.

11. Which component gives art if icial feel at the brake pedals?
A. The master cylinders.
B. The transmitter unit.
C. The servovalves.

12. The inflight braking system...

A...stops the wheel rotation dur ing flight.
 B... stops the wheel rotation after take-off.
C...stops the wheel rotation dur ing gear retraction.

P9: Hydraulically Controlled Brakes

1. How long do you think the pressure can increase in this case?
A. Until the pilot releases the brake pedals
B. The pressure can increase up to the level of system pressure
C. Until it is limited by the regulation valve
2. Pressure from left side of manifold also supplies piston 3. Why is piston number 3 in
this position with pressure supplied to both sides
A. The right side pressure is higher than the left side pressure
B. The right side pressure was there first
C. The active piston areas are different at the left and right sides
3. What component in the automatic selector changes position when the supply changes
over to the brake accumulator?
A. None
B. Piston number 2
C. Piston number 3
4. Why is anti-skid function not possible under this condition?
A. The anti-skid system automatically switches to off
B. The brake accumulator pressure is too low
C. The brakes cannot be released because the anti-skid return line is closed
5. Is it possible to pressurize the brake accumulator without the yellow system supply?
A. Yes
B. No
6. The low pressure transmission on a power brake system ...
A. ... connects the brake pedals with the brake metering valve
B. ... supplies the brakes with low hydraulic pressure
C. ... is the release pressure for the brakes
7. The main components of a low pressure transmission are ...
A. ... a pedal position transmitter and a brake servovalve.
 B. ... the pedals, a cable system, a brake metering valve and a servovalve
C. ... the pedals, a reservoir, 2 master cylinders and a brake metering valve
8. The master cylinders ...
A. ... produce the brake pressure
B. ... build up pressure to control the brake metering valve
C. ... have nothing to do with artificial feel at the brake pedals
9. The main function of the brake metering valve is to ...
A. ... regulate the brake pressure separately for each brake on the main gear wheels
B. ... reduce the brake pressure in proportion to the anti-skid signal
C. ... regulate the brake pressure in proportion to the brake pedal force
10. What happens when the brake accumulator supplies the brakes
A. Nothing
B. The anti-skid return line is automatically closed
C. The anti-skid system must be switched off

P10 Parking brake

1. How is the parking brake released?

A. It is released automatically during take-off
B. By pushing the parking brake lever back to the zero position
C. By pressing the brake pedals
2. The parking brake ...
A. ... always needs system pressure
B. ... can only be set with anti-skid on
C. ... can be supplied from the brake accumulator
3. When the parking brake is set ...
A. ... all return lines are closed.
B. ... some hydraulic lines are automatically closed to prevent an internal
leakage
 C. ... no hydraulic supply is need to brake the aircraft
4. How do you set a mechanical parking brake (for example on boeing aircraft) ?
A. First depress the brake pedals and then pull the parking brake lever
B. Depress the brake pedals
C. Pull the parking brake lever
5. How is “parking brake set” indicated?
A. It is not indicated
B. It is only indicated with a red light on the electric box at the nose gear
C. It is indicated with a red light on the electric box and also on the EICAS
display
32.2-11
1.Which brakes are served by the highlighted reserve anti-skid valve?
A. The brakes on wheels 2 and 4
B. The brakes on wheels 1 and 4
C. The brakes on wheels 3 and 4

2.Wheel spin up:

Anti-skid circuits regulate maximum skid value
The maxium skid value for optimal braking is...
 A. ...20% to 50%
B. ...10% to 15%

3. Brake release signal for each wheel:

 2 sets of 4 green lines
Why do the release signals appear during the approach after landing gear extension?
A. To show that all wheels are blocked by the brakes.
B. To show that the brakes are fully released
4. The anti-skid system....
A. ...only prevents a tire burst.
B. ...protects the tires and gives more effective braking.
C. ...Only gives maximum braking.

5. During braking the main wheel speed is..

A. ...lower than the aircraft speed.
B. ...the same as the aircraft speed.
C. ... higher than the aircraft speed.

6. During looked wheel detection the anti-skid valve

A. .. reduces the brake pressure
A. ... increases the brake pressure
B. .... regulates the brake pressure
7. During approach...
A. ...the pilot’s feet must be removed from the brake pedas
B. ...the anti skid system is switched off.
C. ..the anti-skid system sends full release signals to the anti-skid valves.

8. Which statement is correct?

A. The normal anti-skid system and the alternate anti-skid systems are identical.
B. The normal anti-skid system has 4 anti-skid valves and the alternate anti-skid
system has 2 anti-skid valves.
 C. The normal anti-skid system has 2 anti-skid valves and the alternate anti-skid
system has 4 anti-skid valves.
D. The normal anti-skid system and the alternate anti-skid systems use the same anti-
skid valves.

9. Brakes supplied with brake pressure via:

 Brake metering valve

10. Wheel 1 begins to skid:

 Anti-skid valve receives anti-skid release signal
 Pressure supplt closes
 Brake pressure connected to anti-skid return line

1. The time between touchdown and brake application is:

Answer: decressed if the autobrake system is used.

2. what happens during braking with reverse thrust ?

Answer: The brake pressure is reduced

3. what is the function of the autobrake system?

Answer: To stop the aircraft automatically

4. A 1 second delay in applying the brakes increases the landing distance by

approximately:

Answer 60 meters

5. The autobrake system begins braking :

Answer when the auto speedbrake system extends the spoilers

6. The autobrake system:

Answer regulates a constant preselected deceleration

7. what happens if the pilot uses the brake pedal during autobraking?

Answer: the autobrake function is disengaged

1. Which statement is correct about temperature sensing with thermocouple

 A. A resistor increases its resistance with an increase in temperature
B. A resistor decreases its resistance with an increase in temperature
C. A thermocouple generates an AC voltage proportional to the temperature
D. A thermocouple generates an AC voltage proportional to the temperature

2. Cold junction inside junction box on each gear :

 Where temperature compensation performed
What type of wire is used for the input to an output from
A. Copper for input and output
B. Copper for input an alumel for output
C. Alumel and chromel for input and copper for output
D. Alumel and chromel for output and copper for input

3. Which of the following conditions activate the brake cooling fans ?

A. The start automatically when the HOT light in the pushbutton illuminates
B. The always start when the BRK FAN pushbutton is pressed
C. They start when the BRK FAN pushbutton is pressed and the landing gear is
down and locked
D. They They start when the BRK FAN pushbutton is pressed and the HOT light is
on

4. Which statement is correct about the sensor that measures the brake temperatures ?
A. A thermistor changes its resistance proportional to the brake temperature
B. A thermocouple generates a DC voltage that is proportional to the brake
temperature
C. A thermocouple changes its resistance proportional to the brake temperature
D. A thermistor generates a DC voltage that is proportional to the brake temperature

5. Which of the following conditions activate the brake cooling fans ?

A. They start automatically when the HOT light in the pushbutton illuminates
B. They always start when the BRK FAN pushbutton is pressed
C. They start start when the BRK FAN pushbutton is pressed and the landing
gear is down and locked
D. They start start when the BRK FAN pushbutton is pressed and the HOT light is on