Civil Engineering MCQ Questions Bank

C) principle of transmissibility of forces D) none of these
Engineering Answer: Option B

Mechanical 6. Two like parallel forces are acting at a distance of 24 mm apart
and their resultant is 20 N. If the line of action of the resultant is 6
1. A force while acting on a body may mm from any given force the two forces are
A) change its motion B) balance the forces, already acting A) 15 N and 5 N B) 20 N and 5 N
on it
C) 15 N and 10 N D) none of these
C) give rise to the internal stresses in it D) all of these
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
7. A smooth cylinder lying on its convex surface remains in
2. In order to determine the effects of a force, acting on a A) stable B) unstable C)neutral

body, we must know
Answer: Option B
A) magnitude of the force B) line of action of the force
8. Three forces acting on a rigid body are represented in
C) Nature of the force i.e. magnitude, direction and line of action by the three sides of a
whether the force is push or pull D) all of the above triangle taken in order. The forces are equivalent to a couple
whose moment is equal to
Answer: Option D
A) area of the triangle B) twice the area of the triangle
3. The unit of force in S.I. system of units of
C) half the area of the triangle D) none of these
A) dyne B) kilogram
Answer: Option B
C) newton D) watt
9. The principle of transmissibility of forces states that, when a
Answer: Option C force acts upon a body, its effect is
4. One kg force is equal to A) same at every point on its line of action
A) 7.8 N B) 8.9 N B) different at different points on its line of action
C)9.8 N D) 12 N C) minimum, if it acts at the center of gravity of the body
Answer: Option C D) maximum, if it acts at the center of gravity of the

body
5. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of
forces in a given direction is equal to the resolved part of their Answer: Option C
resultant in the same direction. This i s known as
A) principle of independence B) principle of resolution of

of forces forces
10. A couple produces
14. A smooth cylinder lying on a
A) translatory motion B) rotational motion
A) curved surface B) convex surface C) horizontal
C) combined translatory and rotational motion
Answer: Option C
D) none of the above
Answer: Option B 15. Two forces are acting at an angle of 120? The bigger force is
40N and the resultant is perpendicular to the smaller one. The
11. Which of the following statement is correct? smaller force is
A) The algebraic sum of the forces, constituting the couple is A) 20N B) 40N
zero
C)40N D)none of these
B) The algebraic sum of the forces, constituting the couple,
about any point is the same Answer: Option A
C) A couple cannot be balanced by a single force but can be 16. A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium, if
balanced only by a couple of opposite sense
A) all the forces are equally inclined B)sum of all the forces
D) all of the above is zero
Answer: Option D C) sum of resolved parts in the D) sum of resolved parts in

vertical direction is zero the horizontal direction is zero
12. The point, through which the whole weight of the body
acts, irrespective of its position, is known as Answer: Option C and D
A) moment of inertia B) Centre of gravity 17. Concurrent forces are those forces whose lines of action
C) Centre of percussion D) Centre of mass A) lie on the same line B) meet at one point
Answer: Option B C) meet on the same plane D) none of these
13. The term 'centroid' is

Answer: Option B
A) the same as centre of gravity B. the point of
suspension 18. The forces, which meet at one point and their lines of action
also lie on the same plane, are known as
C) the point of application of t he resultant of all the forces
tending to cause a body to rotate about a certain axis A) coplanar concurrent forces B) coplaner non-concurrent
Forces
D) none of the above C) non-coplaner concurrent D) non-coplaner non-
forces concurrent forces
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
19. The resultant of two forces P and Q (such that P > Q) acting 24. The forces which do not meet at one point and their lines of
along the same straight line, but in opposite direction, is g iven action do not lie on the same plane are known as
by
A)coplaner concurrent forces B) coplaner non-concurrent
A) P + Q B) P – Q forces
C) non-coplaner concurrent forces D)none of these
C) P / Q D) Q / P
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
25. The centre of gravity of a semi-circle lies at a distance of
20. The resultant of two equal forces P making an angle ?, is A) 3r/8 B) 4r/3π
given by
C) 8r / 3 D) 3r / 4π
A) 2 P sin θ/2 B) 2 P cos θ / 2
Answer: Option B
C) 2 P tan θ/2 D) 2 P cot θ/2 26. The centre of gravity of a right circular solid cone is at a
distance of
Answer: Option B
A) h / 2 B) h /3
21. The angle between two forces when the resultant is
maximum and minimum respectively are C) h / 4 D) h /6
A) 0° And 180° B)180° And 0° Answer: Option C

27. The centre of gravity of a quadrant of a circle lies along its
C) 90° And 180° D) 90° And 0° central radius (r) at a distance of
Answer: Option A A) 0.5 r B) 0.6 r
22. If the resultant of two equal forces has the same C) 0.7 r D) 0.8 r
magnitude as either of the forces, then angle between the two
forces is Answer: Option B
A) 30° B) 60° 28. The centre of gravity a T-section 100 mm x 150 mm x 50 mm

from its bottom is
C) 90° D) 120°
A) 50 mm B) 75 mm
Answer: Option D
C) 87.5 mm D) 125 mm
23. The resultant of the two forces P and Q is R. If Q is Answer: Option C
doubled, the new resultant is perpendicular to P. Then
29. Moment of inertia is the
A) P = Q B) Q = R
A) second moment of force B) second moment of area
C)Q = 2R D)none of these
C) second moment of mass D) all of these
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D 35. The unit of moment of inertia of an area is
30. Mass moment of inertia of a thin rod about its one end is A) kg-m2 B) kg-m-s2
A) same as B) twice C) kg/m2 D) m4
C) thrice D) four times Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D 36. Moment of inertia of a circular section about an axis

perpendicular to the section is
31. The moment of inertia of a square of side (a) about an axis
through its centre of gravity is A. π d3 / 16 B. πd3 / 32
A) a4/4 B) a4/8 C. π d4 / 32 D. π d4 / 64
C) a4/12 D) a4/36 Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C 37. According to lama’s theorem
32. The moment of inertia of a rectangular section 3cm wide A) The three forces must be equal
and 4cm deep about X-X axis is
B) the three forces must be at 120° to each other
A) 9 cm4 B) 12 cm4
C) the three forces must be in equilibrium
C0 16 cm4 D) 20 cm4
D) if the three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, then
Answer: Option C each force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the
other two
33. The moment of inertia of a square of side about its
diagonal is Answer: Option D
A) a2 / 8 B) a3 / 12
38. The moment of a force
C) a4 / 12 D) a4 / 16
A) is the turning effect produced by a force, on the body, on
Answer: Option C which it acts
B) is equal to the product of force acting on the body and the
perpendicular distance of a point and the line of action of the
34. Moment of inertia of a circular section about its force
diameter (d) is C) is equal to twice the area of the triangle, whose base is the line
representing the force and whose vertex is the point, about
A) π d3 / 16 B) π d3 / 32 which the moment is taken
C) πd4 / 32 D) π d4 / 64 D)all of the above
Answer: Option D Answer: Option D

39. According to the law of moments, if a number of coplaner Answer: Option A
forces acting on a particle are in equilibrium, then
43. Varingon's theorem of moments states that if a number of
A) their algebraic sum is zero coplaner forces acting on a particle are in equilibriu m, then
(B)their lines of action are at equal distances A) their algebraic sum is zero
C) the algebraic sum of their moments about any point in their B) their lines of action are at equal distances
plane is zero
C) the algebraic sum of their moments about any point in
D) the algebraic sum of their moments about any point is equal their plane is zero
to the moment of their resultant force about the sa me point
(D) the algebraic sum of their moments about any point is equal
Answer: Option C to the moment of their r esultant force about the same point
40. For any system of coplaner forces, the condition of Answer: Option D
equilibrium is that the
44. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and
A) algebraic sum of the horizontal components of all the forces height (h) about an axis passing through its C.G. and parallel to
should be zero the base, is
B) algebraic sum of the vertical components of all the forces A) bh3 / 4 B) bh3 / 8
should be zero
C) bh3 / 12 D) bh3 / 36
C) algebraic sum of moments of all the forces about any point
should be zero Answer: Option D
D)all of the above 45. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and
height (h) about an axis through its base, is
Answer: Option D
A) bh3 / 4 B) bh3 / 8
41. The forces, whose lines of action are parallel to each other
and act in the same directions, are known as C) bh3 / 12 D) bh3 / 36
A) coplaner concurrent forces B)coplaner non-concurrent Answer: Option C

forces
46. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and
C) like parallel forces D) unlike parallel forces height (h) about an axis passing through its vertex and parallel to
the base, is
Answer: Option C
A) nine times B) six times
42. If a number of coplaner forces acting at a point be in
equilibrium, the sum of clockwise moments must be C) four times D) two times
A) equal to B) less than C) greater than Answer: Option A

52. The moment of inertia of a thin disc of mass m and radius r,
47. The three forces of 100 N, 200 N and 300 N have their lines about an axis through its centre of gravity and perpendicular to
of action parallel to each other but act in the opposite the plane of the disc i s
directions. These forces are known as
A) mr2 / 2 B) mr2 / 4
A) coplaner concurrent forces B) coplaner non-concurrent
forces C) mr2 / 6 D) mr2 / 8
C) like parallel forces D) unlike parallel forces
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
53. The moment of inertia of a thin rod of mass m and length l,
48. The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder of mass m, radius about an axis through its centre of gravity and perpendicular to
r and length l about the longitudinal axis or polar axis is its length is
A) mr2 / 2 B) mr2 / 4 A) ml2 / 4 B) ml2 / 6
C) mr2 / 6 D) mr2 / 8 C) ml2 / 8 D) ml2 / 12
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
49. The moment of inertia of a thin spherical shell of mass m 54. The moment of inertia of a sphere of mass m and radius r,
and radius r, about its diameter is about an axis tangential to it, is
A) mr2 / 3 B) 2mr2 / 3 A) 2mr2 / 3 B) 2mr2 / 5
C) 2mr2 / 5 D) 3mr2 / 5 C) 7mr2 / 3 D) 7mr2 / 5
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D
50. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass m and 55. The moment of inertia of a solid cone of mass m and base
radius r is radius r about its vertical axis is
A) 2mr2 / 3 B) 2mr2 / 5 A) 3mr2 / 5 B) 3mr2 / 10
C) mr2 D) mr2 / 2 C) 2mr2 / 5 D) 4mr2 / 5
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
51. The friction experienced by a body, when at rest, is known 56. The ratio of static friction to dynamic friction is always
as
A) equal to one B) less than one
A) static friction B) dynamic friction
C) greater than one D) none of these
C) limiting friction D) coefficient of friction
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
57. The friction experienced by a body, when in motion, is 63. The static friction
known as
A) bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction between the two
A) rolling friction B) dynamic friction surfaces
C) limiting friction D) static friction B) is independent of the area of contact, between the two
surfaces
Answer: Option B
C) always acts in a direction, opposite to that in which the body
58. Static friction is always tends to move
A) equal to B) less than C) greater than D) all of the above
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D
59. The minimum force required to slide a body of weight W 64. The angle of inclination of the plane at which the body begins
on a rough horizontal plane is to move down the plane, is called
A) W sinθ B) W cosθ A) angle of friction B) angle of repose
C) W tanθ D) none of these C) angle of projection D) none of these
Answer: Option C Answer: Option A
60. A body will begin to move down an inclined plane if the 65. Coefficient of friction depends upon
angle of inclination of the plane is
A) area of contact only B) nature of surface only
A) equal to B) less than C) greater than
C) both (a) and (b) D) none of these
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
61. The force required to move the body up the plane will be
minimum if it makes an angle with the inclined plane 66. A ladder is resting on a smooth ground and leaning against a
rough vertical wall. The force of friction will act
Answer: Option A A) towards the wall at its upper and
62. In a screw jack, the effort required to lower the load is B) away from the wall at its upper end
A) less than B) equal to C) more than

C) downward at its upper end D) upward at its upper end
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
67. A ladder is resting on a rough ground and leaning against a 70. The efficiency of a lifting machine is the ratio of
smooth vertical wall. The force of friction will act
A) output to the input B) work done by the machine to the work
A) downward at its upper end B) upward at its upper end done on the machine
C) zero at its upper end D) perpendicular to the wall C) mechanical advantage to the velocity ratio D) all of the above
at its upper end
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
71. In actual machines, mechanical advantage is
68. The velocity ratio in case of an inclined plane inclined at A) equal to B) less than C) greater than
angle? to the horizontal and weight being pulled up the
inclined plane by vertical effort is Answer: Option B
A) sin θ B) cos θ 72. A machine having an efficiency less than 50%, is known as
C) tan θ D) cosec θ A) reversible machine B) non-reversible machine
Answer: Option A C) neither reversible nor non-reversible machine D) ideal machine
Answer: Option B
69. An ideal machine is one whose efficiency is
73. A machine having an efficiency greater than 50%, is known as
A) between 60 to 70% B) between 70 to 80%
A) reversible machine B) non-reversible machine
C) between 80 to 90% D) 100%
C) neither reversible nor non-reversible machine d)ideal machine
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
68. The mechanical advantage of a lifting machine is the ratio
of 74. A screw jack used for lifting the loads is
A) distance moved by effort to the distance moved by lo ad A) a reversible machine B) a non-reversible machine
B) load lifted to the effort applied C) an ideal machine D) none of these
C) output to the input D) all of the above Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B 75. A weight of 1000 N can be lifted by an effort of 80 N. If

the velocity ratio is 20, the machine is
69. In ideal machines, mechanical advantage is
A) reversible B) non-reversible C) ideal
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A

76. For a self-locking machine, the efficiency must be Answer: Option B
A) equal to 50% B) less than 50% 82. Which of the following statement is wrong?
C) greater than 50% D) 100% A) A force acting in the opposite direction to the motion of the
body is called force of friction
Answer: Option B
B) The ratio of the limiting friction to the normal reaction is
77. The maximum mechanical advantage of a lifting called coefficient of friction
machine is
C) A machine whose efficiency is 100% is known as an ideal
A) 1+m B) 1 -m machine
C) 1/ m D) m D) The velocity ratio of a machine is the ratio of lo ad lifted to the

effort applied
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
78. The maximum efficiency of a lifting machine is
83. The velocity ratio of a first system of pulleys with 4 pulleys is
A) 1/ m B) V.R. / m
A) 4 B) 8
C) m / V.R. D) 1 / m x V.R.
C) 16 D) 20
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
79. The velocity ratio for the first system of pulleys is.
Where n is the number of pulleys. 84. The velocity ratio of a single purchase crab winch can be
increased by
A) n B) n2
A) increasing the length of the handle
C) 2n D) 2n - 1
B) increasing the radius of the load drum
Answer: Option C
C) increasing the number of teeth of the pinion
80. The velocity ratio for the third system of pulleys is
D) all of the above
A) n B) n2
Answer: Option A
C) 2n D) 2n - 1
85. The velocity ratio of a simple wheel and axle with D and d as
Answer: Option D the diameters of effort wheel and load axle, is
81. If the number of pulleys in a system is equal to its velocity A) D+d B) D-d
ratio, then it is a
C) Dxd D) D /d
A) first B) second C) third
Answer: Option D 91. In a single threaded worm and worm wheel, the number
of teeth on the worm is 50. The diameter of the effort wheel is
86. A differential pulley block has larger and smaller 100 mm and that of load drum is 50 mm. The velocity ratio is
diameters of 100 mm and 80 mm respectively. Its velocity
ratio is A) 50 B) 100
A) 5 B) 10 C) 150 D) 200
C) 20 D) 40 Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B 92. The rate of change of displacement of a body is called
87. A framed structure is perfect, if the number of members A) velocity B) acceleration

are
C) momentum D) none of these
A) equal to B) less than
Answer: Option A
C) greater than D) either (b) or (c)
93. Which of the following are vector quantities?
Answer: Option A
A) Linear displacement B) Linear velocity
88. A framed structure is imperfect, if the number of
members are C) Linear acceleration D) all of these
A) equal to B) less than Answer: Option D
C) greater than D) either (b) or (c) 94. If the body falls freely under gravity, then the gravitational
acceleration is taken as
Answer: Option D
A) Plus 8.9 m/s2 B) minus 8.9 m/s2
89. A redundant frame is also called
C) Plus 9.8 m/s2 D) minus 9.8 m/s2
A) perfect B) imperfect C) deficient
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
95. If the gravitational acceleration at any place is doubled,
90. Which of the following is a scalar quantity? then the weight of a body will be
A) Force B) Speed A) g/2 B) g
C) Velocity D) Acceleration C) π2 g D) 2g

96. The acceleration of a body sliding down an inclined 100. The rate of change of momentum is directly proportional
surface is to the impressed force, and takes place in the same direction in
which the force acts. This statement is known as
A) g sinθ B) g cosθ
A) Newton's first law of motion B)Newton's second law of motion
C) g tanθ D) none of these
C) Newton's third law of motion D) none of these
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
97. According to Newton's first law of motion, 101. The law of motion involved in the recoil of gun is
A) everybody continues in its state of rest or of uniform A) Newton's first law of motion B)Newton's second law of motion
motion, in a straight line, unless it is acted upon by some
external force C) Newton's third law of motion D) none of these
B) the rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to Answer: Option C

the impressed force, and takes place in the same direction, in
which the force acts 102. If P is the force acting on the body, m is the mass of the
body and a is the acceleration of the body, then according to
C) to every action, there is always an equal and opposite Newton's second law of motion,
reaction
A) P + m.a = 0 B) P - m.a = 0
C) P x m.a = 0 D) P/m.a = 0
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
98. When a body falls freely under gravitational force, it 103. The matter contained in a body, is called
possesses
A) impulsive force B) mass
A) no B) minimum C) maximum
C) weight D) momentum
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
99. The total motion possessed by a body, is called 104. The force, by which the body is attracted, towards the
centre of the earth, is called
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
105. The force applied on a body of mass 100 kg to produce plane depends upon
an acceleration of 5 m/s2, is
A) angle of projection B) angle of inclination of the plane
A) 20N B) 100N
C) 500N D) none of these
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
110. The range of projectile will be maximum for a given velocity
106. If tension in the cable supporting a lift moving of projectile, when the angle of projection (?) is
downwards is half the tension when it is moving upwards, the
acceleration of the lift is A) π/ 2 B) 30° + π/2
A) g/ 2 B) g/3 C) 45° + π/2 D) 60° +π/2
C) g/ 4 D) none of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D 111. The range of projectile on a downward inclined plane is
107. Which of the following statement is correct in connection A) less than B) more than C) equal to
with projectiles?
Answer: Option B
A) A path, traced by a projectile in the space, is known as
trajectory 112. The unit of angular velocity is
B) The velocity with which a projectile is projected, is know n as A) m/min B) rad / s

the velocity of projection
C) revolutions / min D) all of these
C) The angle, with the horizontal, at which a projectile is
projected is known as angle of projection Answer: Option B, C
D) all of the above 113. The angular velocity (in rad / s) of a body rotating at N
revolutions per minute is
Answer: Option D
A) P N / 60 B) p N / 180
108. The range of a projectile is maximum, when the angle of
projection is C) 2 N / 60 D) 2p N/180
A) 30 θ B) 45 θ Answer: Option C
C) 60 θ D) 90 θ 114. The acceleration of a particle moving with simple harmonic

motion is
Answer: Option B
A) zero B) minimum C) maximum
109. The time of flight of a projectile on downward inclined
Answer: Option A
115. The unit of angular acceleration is 121. In order to double the period of simple pendulum, the
length of the string shoul d be
A) N-m B) m/s
A) halved B) doubled C) quadrupled
C) m / s2 D) rad / s2
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
122. A pendulum which executes one beat per second is known
116. Which of the following are vector quantities? as
A) Angular displacement B) Angular velocity A) simple pendulum B) compound pendulum
C) Angular acceleration D) all of these C) torsional pendulum D) second's pendulum
117. The motion of a particle round a fixed axis is 123. The length of a second's pendulum is
A) translatory B) rotary A) 94.9 cm B) 99.4 cm C. 100 cm
C) circular D) translatory as well as rotatory Answer: Option B
Answer: Option 124. When a rigid body is suspended vertically, and it oscillates
with a small amplitude under the action of the force of gravity,
118. In order to completely specify angular displacement by a the body is known as
vector, it must fix
A) simple pendulum B) compound pendulum
A) direction of the axis of rotation B) magnitude of
angular displacement C) torsional pendulum D) second's pendulum
C) sense of angular displacement D. all of these Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
125. In order to double the period of simple pendulum, the
119. The amplitude is always length of the string should be
A. equal to B) less than C) greater than A. halved B. doubled C. quadrupled

Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
126. The slope on the road surface generally provided on the
120. The velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic curves is known as
motion is
A) angle of friction B) angle of repose
A) zero B) minimum C) maximum
C) angle of banking D) none of these
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
132. The ideal angle of banking provided on the curves on
127. A pendulum which executes one beat per second is roads depends upon
known as
A) weight of the vehicle B. (velocity)2 of the vehicle
C) nature of the road surface D) coefficient of friction between
C) torsional pendulum D) second's pendulum the road and vehicle contact point
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
128. The length of a second's pendulum is 133. The total momentum of a system of masses (i.e. moving
bodies) in any one direction remains constant, unless acted upon
A) 94.9 cmB. 99.4 cm by an external force in that direction. This statement is called
C) 100 cm A) Newton's first law of motion B)Newton's second law of motion
Answer: Option B C) principle of conservation of energy D) principle of conservation

of momentum
129. When a rigid body is suspended vertically, and it
oscillates with a small amplitude under the action of the force Answer: Option D
of gravity, the body is known as
134. The bodies which rebound after impact are called
A) inelastic bodies B) elastic bodies
C) torsional pendulum D) second's pendulum
C) neither elastic nor inelastic bodies D) none of these
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
130. The centre of percussion is below the centre of gravity of
the body and is at a distance equal to 135. The coefficient of restitution for inelastic bodies is
A) h / kG B) h2 / kG A) zero B) one
C) k2G / h D) h x kG C) between zero and one D) more than one
131. The motion of a wheel of a car is 136

. During elastic impact, the relative velocity of the two bodies
A) purely translation B) purely rotational after impact is
C) combined translation and rotational D) none of these A) equal to B) equal and opposite to
Answer: Option C C) less than D) greater than
Answer: Option B
A) The kinetic energy of a body during impact remains constant.
137. Whenever a force acts on a body and the body
undergoes a displacement, then B)The kinetic energy of a body before impact is equal to the
kinetic energy of a body after impact.
A) work is said to be done B) power is being transmitted
C) The kinetic energy of a body before impact is less than the
C) body has kinetic energy of translation D) none of these kinetic energy of a body after impact.
Answer: Option A D) The kinetic energy of a body before impact is more than the
kinetic energy of a body after impact.
138. The unit of work in S.I. units is
Answer: Option D
A) newton B) erg
143. When two elastic bodies collide with each other,
C) kg-m D) joule
A) the two bodies will momentarily come to rest after collisi on
Answer: Option D
B) the two bodies tend to compress and deform at the surface of
139. One joule is equal to contact
A) 0.1 N - m B) 1 N -m C) the two bodies begin to regain their original shape
C) 10 N - m D) 100 N - m D) all of the above
140. Work done is said to be zero, when 144. Two balls of equal mass and of perfectly elastic material are
lying on the floor. One of the ball with velocity v is made to strike
A) some force acts on a body, but displacement is zero the second ball. Both the balls after impact will move with a
velocity
B) no force acts on a body but some displacement takes place
A) v B) v/2
C) either (a) or (b) D) none of the above
C) v/ 4 D) v /8
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
145. A body of mass m moving with a constant velocity v
141. Joule is the unit of strikes another body of same mass m moving with same velocity
but in opposite direction. The common velocity of both the
A) force B) work bodies after collision is
C) power D) energy A) v B) 2v
Answer: Option B C) 4v D) 8v
142. Which of the following statement is correct? Answer: Option B

146. One joule means that 151. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 2 m. If there is
no loss of velocity after rebounding, the ball will rise to a height
A) work is done by a force of 1 N when it displaces a body of
through 1 m
A) 1m B) 2m C) 3m D) 4m
B) work is done by a force of 1 kg when it displaces a body
through 1 m Answer: Option B
C) work is done by a force of 1 dyne when it displaces a body 152. The energy possessed by a body, for doing work by virtue of
through 1 cm its position, is called
D) work is done by a force of 1 g when it displaces a body A) potential energy B) kinetic energy
through 1 cm
C) electrical energy D) chemical energy
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
147. The rate of doing work is known as
153. When a body of mass m attains a velocity v from rest in time
A) potential energy B) kinetic energy t, then the kinet ic energy of translation is
C) power D) none of these A) mv2 B) mgv2
Answer: Option C C) 0.5 mv2 D) 0.5 mgv2
148. The unit of power in S.I. units is Answer: Option C
A) horsepower B) joule 154. The potential energy of a vertically raised body is
C) watt D) kg-m A) equal to B) less than C) greater than
149. One watt is equal to 155. When the spring of a watch is wound, it will possess
A) 0.1 joule / s B) 1 joule / s A) strain energy B) kinetic energy
C) 10 joules / s D) 100 joules / s C) heat energy D) electrical energy
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A
150. The unit of energy in S.I. units is 156. If two bodies having masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) have
equal kinetic energies, the momentum of body having mass m1 is
A) dyne B) watt
C) kg - m D) joule
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
157. The total energy possessed by a system of moving A) potential energy only B) kinetic energy of translation only
bodies
C) kinetic energy of rotation only D) kinetic energy of translation
A) is constant at every instant B) varies from point to point and rotation both
Answer: Option D
C) is maximum in the start and minimum at the end
4. forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet in
D) is minimum in the start and maximum at the end
A) one point B) two point C) plane
Answer: Option A
D) perpendicular planes E) different planes
158. The unit of force in S.I units is
Answer: Option A
A) Kilogram b) newton C) Watt
5. The angle between the reflecting surfaces of a prism square is
D) dyne E) joule
A) 30θ B) 45θ
Answer: Option B C) 60θ D) 75θ
Answer: Option B
Surveying 6. The obstacle, which obstructs vision but not chaining, is a
A) river B) pond
1. In plane surveying,
C) hill D) all of these
A) The curvature of the earth is taken into consideration
Answer: Option C
B) the surveys extend over small areas
7. The obstacle, which obstructs chaining but not vision, is a
C) the surveys extend over large areas
A) river B) hill
Answer: Option B
C) rising ground D) all of these
2. The point on the celestial sphere vertically below the
observer's position, is called
Answer: Option A
A) zenith B) celestial point
8. In a prismatic compass, the zero of the graduated ring is
located at
C) nadir D) pole
A) north end B) south end
Answer: Option C
C) east end D) west end
3. The wheels of a moving car possess
Answer: Option B
9. To avoid large centering error with very short legs, A) are parallel B) converge to the poles
observations are generally made
C) converge from north pole to south pole D) converge from
A) To chain pins south pole to north pole
B) By using optical system for centering the theodolite Answer: Option B
C) To a target fixed on theodolite tripod on which theodolite 14. The line in which the plane passing through the given point
may be fitted easily and the north and south poles intersects the surface of the earth,
is called
D) All the above
A) arbitrary meridian B) magnetic meridian
Answer: Option C
C) true meridian D) none of these
10. The curvature of the earth is taken into consideration if
the limit of survey is Answer: Option C
A) 50 to 100 km2 B) 100 to 200 km2 15. In a whole circle system, the bearing of a line is measured
C) 200 to 250 km2 D) more than 250 km2 A) always clockwise from the south point of the reference
meridian towards the line right round the circle
Answer: Option D
B) clockwise or anticlockwise from the east or west whichever is
11. The difference is length between the arc and the nearer the line towards north or south
subtended chord on the surface of the earth for a distance of
18.2 km is only C) clockwise or anticlockwise from the north or south whichever
is nearer the line towards east or west
A) 10 mm B) 30 mm
C) 50 mm D) 100 mm
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
16. In a duadrantal system, the bearing of a line is measured
12. The difference between the sum of the angles of a A) always clockwise from the south point of the refere nce
spherical triangle on the earth's surface and the angles of the meridian towards the line right round the circle
corresponding plane triangle for every 195.5 km2 of area is
only B) clockwise or anticlockwise from the east or west whichever is
nearer the line towards north or south
A. 1 second B. 5 second
C) clockwise or anticlockwise from the north or south whichever
C. 10 second D. 15 second
is nearer the line towards east or west
Answer: Option A D) none of the above
13. The true or geographical meridians through the various Answer: Option C
stations
17. In order to determine the natural features such as valleys, Answer: Option A
rivers, lakes etc., the surveying preferred is 21. In a whole circle bearing system, S 25° 15' E corresponds to
A) city surveying B) location surveying A) 115° 15' B) 154° 45'
CP cadastral surveying D) topographical surveying C) 205° 15' D) 334° 45'
18. The surveying used to determine additional details such as 22. The flying height of the camera is 1, 000 m above mean
boundaries of fields, is called ground level, the distance of the top of a Minar from a nadir point
is 10 cm and the relief displacement of Minar is 7.2 mm. The
A) city surveying B) location surveying height of the Minar, is
C) cadastral surveying D) topographical surveying A) 52 m B) 62 m
Answer: Option C C) 72 m D) 82 m
Different grades are joined together by a Answer: Option C
A) Compound curve B) Transition curve 23. On vertical photographs, height displacement is
C) Reverse curve D) Vertical curve A) positive for points above datum
Answer: Option D B) negative for points below datum
19. Which of the following methods of theodolite traversing is C) zero for points vertically below the air station
suitable for locating the details which are far away from transit
stations? D) All the above.
A) Measuring angle and distance from one transit station Answer: Option D
B) Measuring angles to the point from at least two stations 24. Assuming human normal vision distance 25 cm, smallest
measurable angle 20", and intraocular distance 6.5 cm, the
C) Measuring angle at one station and distance from other smallest depth to be discerned is
D) Measuring distance from two points on t raverse line A) 0.1 mm B) 0.5 mm
Answer: Option B C) 1.00 mm D) 1.1 mm.
20. The line of collimation method of reduction of levels, does Answer: Option A
not provide a check on
25. The main object of the astronomer to obtain
A) Intermediate sight B) Fore sights
A) astronomical latitude B) astronomical longitude
C) Back sights D) Reduced levels
C) Astronomical bearing D) all of these
Answer: Option D the distance of the plumb point from the principal poin t will be
26. Which of the following methods of contouring is most A) f sin θ B) f cos θ

suitable for a hilly terrain?
C) f tan θ D) f sec θ
A) Direct method B) Square method
Answer: Option C
C) Cross-sections method D) Tachometric method
32. Tilt of the staff in stadia tachometry increases the intercept if
Answer: Option D it is
27. The chord of a curve less than peg interval, is known as A) Away from the telescope pointing down hill
A) Small chord B) Sub-chord B) Towards the telescope pointing up-hill
C) Normal chord D) Short chord C) Away from the telescope pointing up-hill
Answer: Option B D) None of these
28. The size of a plane table is Answer: Option C
A) 750 mm × 900 mm B) 600 mm × 750 mm 33. A dumpy level is set up with its eye-piece vertically over a
peg. The height from the top of peg to the centre of the eye -piece
C) 450 mm × 600 mm D) 300 mm × 450 mm is 1.540 m and the reading on peg is 0.705 m. The level is then
setup over. The height of the eye-piece above peg is 1.490 m and
Answer: Option B a reading on is2.195 m. The difference in level between and is
29. If the reduced bearing of a line AB is N60°W and length is A) 2.900 m B) 3.030 m
100 m, then the latitude and departure respectively of the line
AB will be C) 0.770 m D) 0.785 m
A) +50 m, +86.6 m B) +86.6 m, -50 m Answer: Option C
C) +50 m, -86.6 m D) +70.7 m, -50 m 34. In a lemniscuses curve the ratio of the angle between the
tangent at the end of the polar ray and the straight, and the angle
Answer: Option B between the polar ray and the strai ght, is
30. The fundamental principle of surveying is to work from the A) 2 B) 3 C) 4/3 D) 3/2
A) whole to the part B) part to the whole Answer: Option D
C) lower level to higher level D) higher level to lower level 35. The bellow figure is a conventional sign of
Answer: Option A A) Mosque B) Temple
31. If f is the focal length of the camera len s and θ is the angle C) Church D) Idaho
of tilt,
Answer: Option D 41. In a whole circle bearing system N 25 ° 15' W corresponds to
36. The working from whole to the part is done in surveying in A) 115 ° 15' B) 154 ° 45'
order to ensure that
C) 205 ° 15' D) 334 ° 45'
A) survey work is completed more quickly
Answer: Option D
B. number of errors is minimum
42. If the fore bearing of a line is 36 ° 15', its back bearing will be
C. plotting is done more quickly
A) 36 ° 15' B) 126 ° 15'
D) errors and mistakes of one portion do not affect the
remaining portion C) 143 ° 45' D) 216 ° 15'
37. The representative fraction 1 / 2500 means that the scale 43. If the fore bearing of a line is
is
A) 36 ° 15' B) 126 ° 15'
A) 1 cm = 0.25 m B) 1 cm = 2.5 m
C) 143 ° 45' D) 216 ° 15'
C) 1 cm = 25 m D) 1 cm = 250 m
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
44. If the fore bearing of a line is N 26 ° 35' W, its back bearing
38. A plain scale is used to read will be
A) one dimension B) two dimensions A. S 26 ° 35' E B. S 26 ° 35' W
C) three dimensions D) all of these C. N 26 ° 35' E D. N 53 ° 25' W
39. A diagonal scale is used to read 45. When the whole circle bearing of two lines AB and AC are 115
° and 41 ° respectively, then the included angle BAC will be
A) two B) three C) four
A) 41 ° B) 74 °
Answer: Option B
C) 115 ° D) 156 °
40. A scale which has a common representative fraction, but Answer: Option B
read in different measures, is called a 46. The horizontal angle between the true meridian and a survey
line is called
A) plain scale B) diagonal scale A) magnetic bearing B) azimuth
C) shrunk scale D) comparative scale C. dip D) magnetic declination

47. In a direct vernier, the smallest division of a vern ier is 53. The horizontal angle between the true meridian and
magnetic meridian is known as
A. equal to B. shorter than
A) true bearing B) dip
C. longer than
C) local attraction D) magnetic declination
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
48. In a retrograde vernier, the smallest division of a vernier is
54. Due to the magnetic influence of the earth, the magnetic
A. equal to B. shorter than C. longer than needle of the prismatic compass will be inclined downward
towards the pole. This inclination of the needle with the
Answer: Option C horizontal is known as
49. If x is the smallest division on the main scale a nd n are the A) true bearing B) dip
number of divisions on the vernier, then the least count of the
vernier is C) local attraction D) magnetic declination
A. x+n B. x -n Answer: Option B
C. xxn D. x?n 55. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. High
oblique photographs
Answer: Option D
A) may have tilt up to 30° B) may include the image of the
50. An average length of a pace is horizon
C) may not include the image of the horizon D) none of these
A. 60 cm B. 80 cm
Answer: Option D
C. 100 cm D. 120 cm
56. The altitudes of a circumpolar star at culminations are 70°
Answer: Option B and 10°, both culminations being north of zenith. The latitude of
the place, is
51. The method of measuring distance by pacing is chiefly used
in A) 80° B) 70°
A. reconnaissance surveys B. preliminary surveys C) 40° D) 50°
C. location surveys D. all of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A 57. The true and mean suns occupy the same meridian at the
same time on
52. An invar tape is generally used for accurate measurement
of distance because it possesses A) April 15 B) June 14
A. zero B. low C. high C) September 1 D) December 25 E) all the above
Answer: Option B Answer: Option E

Answer: Option B
58. For the construction of highway (or railway)
63. The prime vertical passes through
(A) Longitudinal sections are required
A) the east point of the horizon B) the west point of the horizon
(B) Cross sections are required
C) the zenith point of the observer D) the nadir point of horizon
(C) Both longitudinal and cross sections are required
E) All the above.
(D) None of these
Answer: Option E
Answer: Option C
64. Hydrographic surveys deal with the mapping of
59. Detailed plotting is generally done by
A) Large water bodies B) Heavenly bodies
A) Radiation B) Traversing
C) Mountainous region D) Canal system
C) Resection D) All of the above
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
65. Bowditch rule is applied to
60. If the smallest division of a vernier is longer tha n the
smallest division of its primary scale, the vernier is known as A) An open traverse for graphical adjustment
A) Direct vernier B) Double vernier B) A closed traverse for adjustment of closing error
C) Retrograde vernier D) Simple vernier C) Determine the effect of local attraction D) None of the above
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
61. The method of reversal 66. Angles to a given pivot station obser ved from a number of
traverse stations when plotted, the lines to the pivot station
A) Is usually directed to examine whether a certain part is tru ly intersect at a common point
parallel or perpendicular to another
A) Angular measurements are correct and not the linear
B) Makes the erroneous relationship between parts evident measurements
C) Both (a) and (b) D) Neither (a) nor (b) B) Linear measurements are correct and not the angular
measurements
Answer: Option C
C) Angular and linear measurements are correct and not the
62. The line normal to the plumb line is known as plotting of traverse
A) Horizontal line B) Level line D) Angular and linear measurements and also plotting of the
traverse are correct
C) Datum line D) Vertical line
Answer: Option D
67. In levelling operation
A) photo principal point B) ground principal point
A) When the instrument is being shifted, the staff must not be
moved C.) ground isocentre D) photo isocentre E) all the above
B) When the staff is being carried forward, the instrument Answer: Option E
must remain stationary
72. The latitude of a place was obtained by subtracting the
C) Both (a) and (b) D) Neither (a) nor (b) declination of a star from its zenith distance, the observed star
was between
Answer: Option C
A) horizon and equator B) zenith and pole
68. The two point problem and three point problem are
methods of C) Equator and zenith D) pole and horizon.
A) Resection B) Orientation Answer: Option A
C) Traversing D) Resection and orientation 73. If S is the sum of three angles of a spherical triangle, the
spherical excess equals
Answer: Option D
A) S - 90° B) S - 180°
69. Ramsden eye-piece consists of
C) S - 270° D) S - 360°.
A) Two convex lenses short distance apart
Answer: Option B
B) Two concave lenses short distance apart
74. The want of correspondence in stereo-photographs
C) One convex lens and one concave lens short distance apart
A) is a good property B) is a function of tilt
D) Two Plano-convex lenses short distance apart, with the
convex surfaces facing each other C) is not affected by the change of flying height between
photographs
Answer: Option D
D) is minimum when θ is 3°.
70. The line of sight is kept as high above ground surface as
possible to minimize the error in the observed angles due to Answer: Option B
A) Shimmering B) Horizontal refraction C) Vertical refraction 75. The latitude of a place was obtained by subtracting the
zenith distance of a star from its declination, the observed star
D) Both shimmering and horizontal refraction was between
Answer: Option D A) horizon and equator B) equator and zenith
71. Homologous point is C) Zenith and pole D) pole and horizon.
Answer: Option C
76. If is the stadia distance, is the focal length and is the 81. At the equator, the amount of dip is
distance between the objective and vertical axis of the
tachometer, the multiplying constant, is A) 0° B) 45 °
A) f/I B) i/f C) (f + d) D) f/d C) 60 ° D) 90 °
77. The desired sensitivity of a bubble tube with 2 mm 82. At the magnetic poles, the amount of dip is
divisions is 30". The radius of the bubble tube should be
A) 0 ° B) 45 °
A) 13.75 m B) 3.44 m
C) 60 ° D) 90 °
(C) 1375 m D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
83. Which of the following statement is wrong?
78. Subtense bar is an instrument used for
A) The magnetic meridian coincides with the true meridian at all
(A) Levelling B) Measurement of angles the places
(C) Measurement of horizontal distances in plane areas B) The magnetic meridian does not vary from place to place on
the earth's surface.
(D) Measurement of horizontal distances in undulated areas
C) The magnetic declination at a place is constant
Answer: Option D
D) all of the above
79. Volume of the earth work may be calculated by
Answer: Option D
A) Mean areas B) End areas
84. The lines of earth's magnetic field run from
(C) Trapezoidal D) All the above
A) south to north B) north to south
Answer: Option D
C) east to west D) west to east
80. In a tropical year, the number of sidereal days are
Answer: Option B
A) one less than mean solar day
85. The lines passing through points at which the magnetic
B) one more than mean solar days declination is equal at a given time are called
C) equal to mean solar days A) isogonic lines B) agonic lines
D) none of these. C) isoclinic lines D) none of these

86. The position of a heavenly body on the celestial sphere Answer: Option B
can be completely specified by
91. When the magnetic bearing of the sun at noon is 185? 20',
A) its altitude and azimuth the magnetic declination will be
B) its declination and hour angle A) 5 °20' east B) 5 ° 20' west
C) its declination and right ascension C) 5 ° 20' north D) 5 ° 20' south
D) All the above. Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D 92. When the magnetic declination is 5? 20' east, the magnetic
bearing of the sun at noon will be
87. The angle between the axis of earth and the vertical at the
station of observation is called A) 95 ° 20' B) 174 ° 40'
A) Astronomical latitude B) astronomical co-latitude C) 185 ° 20' D) 354 °40'
C) co-declination of star D) declination of star. Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B 93. The magnetic bearing of a line is 55°30’ N and the magnetic
declination is 4°30' west. The true bearing of a line will be
88. The elevation of the star at elongation is obtained by
A) 30 ° B) 34 ° 30 ‘
A) sin α = sin φ cosec δ B) sin α = sin φ sec δ
C) 49 ° D) 51 °
C) Sin α = cos φ sec δ D) sin α = cos φ cosec δ.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
94. The magnetic bearing of a line is S 35? 30' E and the magnetic
89. The angle between the direction of star and the direction declination is 4? 10' east. The true bearing of a line will be
of earth's axis of rotation is called
A) S 31 ° 30' E B) S 31 ° 30' W
A) co-declination B) co-latitude
C) S 39 ° 50' E D) S 38 °50' W
C) Declination D) latitude
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
95. The theodolite is an instrument used for measuring very
90. The circle in which a plane tangent to the earth's surface at accurately
the point of observation, intersects the celestial sphere, is
called A) horizontal angles only B) vertical angles only
A) visible horizon B) sensible horizon C) horizontal and vertical angles D) linear measurements
C) celestial horizon D) true horizon E) none of the above Answer: Option C

A) transiting B) reversing
96. If θ and δ be the latitude of an observer and declination of
a heavenly body respectively, the upper culmination of the C) plunging D) any one of these
body will be south of zenith if its zenith distance, is
Answer: Option D
A) δ–θ B) θ -δ
101. When a star is between the pole and the hori zon, the
C) θ+δ D) (θ - δ). relationship between latitude (λ), zenith distance (z) and
declination δ, is
Answer: Option B
A) θ=z+δ B) θ=δ-z
97. Invar tapes used for measuring base lines, is made of
nickel-iron alloy containing nickel C) θ = 180° - (z + δ) D) θ = (z + δ) - 180°.
A) 24 B) 36% Answer: Option C
C) 40% D) 60%. 102. The distance between the minor contr ol point and the
principal point should be equal to
Answer: Option B
A) base line of the left photograph of stereo pair
98. Tacheometric formula for horizontal distances using
horizontal sights can also suitable be B) base line of the right photograph of stereo pair
A) The constants by sin2 (B) The constants by cos2 C) sum of the base lines of stereo pair
(C) The multiplying constant by cos2 D) mean of the base lines of the stereo pair.
99. Pick up the correct statement from the fol lowing: 103. The great circle whose plane is perpendicular to the axis of
rotation of the earth, is called
(A) The directions of plumb lines suspended at different poin ts
in a survey are not strictly parallel A) equator B) terrestrial equator
B) In surveys of small extent, the effect of curvature may be C) 0° latitude D) all the above.
ignored and the level surface of the earth is assumed as
horizontal Answer: Option D
C) In surveys of large extent, the effect of curvature of the 104. The Polaris describes a small circle round the pole whose
earth must be considered radius is approximately
D) All the above A) 1° B) 2°
Answer: Option D C) 3° D) 4°
100. The process of turning the telescope of a theodolite over Answer: Option A
its supporting axis through 180? in a vertical plane, is called
C. 600 km D. 500 km E. 400 km
105. In levelling operation Answer: Option D
(A) If second reading is more than first, it represents a rise 110. The plane at right angle to the zenith -nadir line and passing
through the centre of the earth, is called
(B) If first reading is more than second, it represents a rise
A) rational horizon B) true horizon
(C) If first reading is less than second, it represents a fall
C) Celestial horizon D) all the above.
(D) Both (b) and (c)
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
111. If α is the observed altitude, the refraction correction in
106. Over-turning of vehicles on a curve can be avoided by seconds, is
using
A) 58" cot α B) 58" tan α
A) Compound curve B) Vertical curve
C) 58 sin α D) 58 cos α.
(C) Reverse curve D) Transition curve
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
112. The value of geo-centric parallax to be added to the
107. Which of the following introduces an error of about 1 in observed altitude of sun is
1000 if 20 m chain is used?
A) 9" cos α B) 9" sin α
A) Length of chain 20 mm wrong
C) 9" tan α D) 9" cot α.
B) One end of the chain 0.9 m off the line
Answer: Option A
C) One end of chain 0.9 m higher than the other
113. With standard meridian as 82° 30' E the standard time at
D) All the above longitude 90° E is 8 h 30 m. The local mean time at the place will
be
Answer: Option D
A) 7 h 00 m B) 7 h 30 m
108. An aerial photograph may be assumed as
C) 8 h 00 m D. 8 h 30 m E. 9 h 00 m
A. parallel projection B. orthogonal projection
Answer: Option E
C. central projection D. none of these.
114. Straight, parallel and widely spaced contours represent
Answer: Option C
A) A steep surface B) A flat surface
109. If the equatorial distance between two meridians is 100
km, their distance at 60° latitude will be C) An inclined plane surface D) Curved surface
A. 1000 km B. 800 km Answer: Option C

120. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
115. The displacement of the pictured position of a point of h
elevation on a vertical photograph taken with a camera of 30 A) The horizontal angle between magnetic meridian and true
cm focal length, from an altitude of 3000 m, is meridian at a place is called magnetic declination or variance of
the compass
A) 4.4 mm B) 5.5 mm
B) The imaginary lines which pass through points at which the
C) 6.5 mm D) 7.5 mm E) 10 mm magnetic declinations are equal at a given time are called
isogonic lines
Answer: Option D
C) The isogonic lines through places at which the decl ination is
116. The net ground area of a vertical photograph 20 cm x 20 zero are termed agonic lines
cm on scale 1 : 10,000 having overlaps 60% and 30%, is
D) All the above
A) 0.50 sq km B) 0.56 sq km
Answer: Option D
C) 0.60 sq km D) 0.64 sq km.
121. The real image of an object formed by the objective must lie
Answer: Option D
A) In the plane of cross hairs B) At the centre of the telescope
117. If 16 flight lines are run perpendicular to an area 30 km
wide, their spacings on a photographical map on scale 1 : C) At the optical centre of the eye-piece
50,000 , will be
D) Anywhere inside the telescope
A) 1 cm B) 2 cm
Answer: Option A
C) 3 cm D) 4 cm E) 5 cm.
122. For a tachometer the additive and multiplying constants are
Answer: Option D respectively
118. The position of the sun when its north declination is A) 0 and 100 B) 100 and 0
maximum is known as
C) 0 and 0 D) 100 and 100
A) vernal equinox B) Autumnal equinox
Answer: Option A
C) Summer solstice D) winter solstice.
123. Correct distance obtained by an erroneous chain is:
Answer: Option C
A) (Erroneous chain length/Correct chain length) × Observed
119. The foot of the perpendicular on the picture plane distance
through the optical centre of the camera lens, is known as
B) (Correct chain length/Erroneous chain length) × Observed
A) isocentre B) principal point distance
C) Perspective centre D) plumb line. C) (Correct chain length/Observed distance) × Erroneous chain
length
C) oblique offsets D) none of these
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
124. The point where a vertical line through the optical centre
of the camera lens intersects the ground, is known as 130. An imaginary line joining the point of intersection of the
cross-hairs of the diaphragm and the optical centre of the object
A) ground principal point B) ground plumb point glass, is known as
C) iso-centre D) perspective centre A) fundamental line B) axis of telescope
Answer: Option B C) axis of level tube D) line of collimation
125. The mimiting length of the offset is Answer: Option D
A) 5m B) 10 m 131. A line joining the optical centre of the object glass and the
centre of the eye piece, is known as
C) 15 m D) 20 m
A) fundamental line B) axis of telescope
Answer: Option C
C) axis of level tube D) line of collimation
126. The instrument used for setting out an offset at a right
angle, is called Answer: Option B
A) open cross-staff B) french cross-staff 132. In the surveying telescopes, cross hairs are fitted in
C) adjustable cross-staff D) optical square A) centre of the telescope B) optical centre of the eye piece
Answer: Option A C) front of the eye piece D) front of the objective
127. The adjustable cross-staff is used for setting out an Answer: Option C
offset
133. In the surveying telescope, diaphragm is held
A. at an angle of 45° B.
at an angle of 60° A) inside the eye piece B) inside the objective
C. at a right angle D. at any angle C) nearer to the eye piece D) nearer to the objective
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C
128. For setting out an offset at an angle of 45 ° 134. The image formed by the objective in the plane of cross
hairs is
A. open B. French C. adjustable
A) real and straight B) real and inverted
Answer: Option B
C) virtual and straight D) virtual and inverted
129. An open cross-staff is commonly used for setting out
Answer: Option B
A. short offsets B. long offsets
Answer: Option E
135. The angle of intersection of the horizon glass and 140. An imaginary line tangential to the longitudinal curve of the
index glass in an optical square is level at the centre of the tube is called
A) 30° B) 45° A) horizontal axis B) vertical axis
C) 60° D) 75° C) axis of the level tube D) line of collimation
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
136. The horizon glass in an optical square is 141. An axis about which the telescope can be rotated in a
horizontal plane, is called
A) wholly silvered B) wholly unsilvered
A) horizontal axis B) vertical axis
C) one-fourth silvered and three-fourth unsilvered
C) axis of the level tube D) line of collimation
D) half silvered and half unsilvere
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
142. When the image formed by the objective is not situated in
137. The index glass in an optical square is the plane of cross-hairs,
A) wholly silvered B) wholly unsilvered A) the cross-hairs should be adjusted
C) one-fourth silvered and three-fourth unsilvered B) the eye-piece should be focussed
D. half silvered and half unsilvered C) the objective should be focussed
Answer: Option A D) the parallex should be removed
137. The moon rotates round the earth once in every Answer: Option C
A) 29 days B) 29.35 days 143. When the cross-hairs are not clearly visible,
C) 29.53 days D) 30 days. A) the cross-hairs should be adjusted
Answer: Option B B) the eye-piece should be focussed
139. The parallax of a point on the photograph is due to C) the objective should be focussed
A) ground elevation B) flying height D) the parallex should be removed
C) length of air base D) focal length of the camera Answer: Option B
E) All the above

144. A star may culminate at zenith if its declination is A) tangents of two adjacent parts B) sines of two adjacent parts
A) greater than the longitude of the place C) cosines of two adjacent parts D) cosines of two opposite
parts
B) less than the latitude of the place
E) Both (a) and (b) above.
C) equal to the latitude of the place
Answer: Option E
D) None of these
148. The difference of parallax for a given difference in elevation
Answer: Option C is independent of
145. For adjusting a quadrilateral whose both the diagonals A) focal length of the camera B) overall size of the photo graphs
are observed, the equations of conditions involved, are
C) percentage of overlap D) all the above
A) two angle equations and two side equations
Answer: Option D
B) one angle equation and three side equations
149. Limiting gradient for locating the base line on evenly -sloping
C) three angle equations and one side equation ground, is
D) None of these A) 1 in 12 B) 1 in 10
Answer: Option C C) 1 in 8 D) 1 in 6
146. The nearest star is so far away from the earth that the Answer: Option A
directions to it from two diametrically opposite points on the
earth differs less than 150. Polaris is usually observed for the determination of the
latitude when it is
A) 0.01 second B) 0.001 second
A) at culmination B) at elongation
C) 0.0001 second D) none of these.
C) neither at culmination nor at elon gation
Answer: Option C
D) Either at culmination or at elongation.
147. The station where observations are not made, but the
angles at the station are used in triangulation series, is known Answer: Option A
as
151. The capacity of telescope of producing a sharp image is
A) satellite station B) subsidiary station called its
C) Pivot station D) main station. A) definition B) brightness
Answer: Option C C) sensitivity D) magnification

A) Declination B) Azimuth
Answer: Option A
C) Dip D) Bearing
152. In levelling operation, Answer: Option C
A) The first sight on any change point is a back sight 156. For removing the parallel,
B) The second sight on any change point is a fore sight A) the eye-piece should be focused for distinct vision of cross-
hairs
C) The line commences with a fore sight and closes with a back
sight B) the image of the object should be brought in the plane of
cross-hairs
D) The line commences with a back sight and closes with a
foresight C) either (a) or (b) D) both (a) and (b)
153. The length of a traverse leg may be obtained by 157. The brightness of the image
multiplying the latitude and
A) is directly proportional to B) is inversely proportional to
A) Secant of its reduced bearing B) Sine of its reduced bearing
C) varies directly as the square of
C) Cosine of its reduced bearing
D) varied s inversely as the square of
D) Tangent of its reduced bearing
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
158. The ratio of the focal length of the objective to that of an
154. While working on a plane table, the correct rule is: eye-piece of a telescope is called its
A) Draw continuous lines from all instrument stations A) definition B) brightness
B) Draw short rays sufficient to contain the points s ought C) sensitivity D) magnification
C) Intersection should be obtained by actually drawing second Answer: Option D

rays
159. The power of a telescope to form distinguishable images
D) Take maximum number of sights as possible from each of objects separated by small angular distance is called its
station to distant objects
A) definition B) brightness
Answer: Option B
C) sensitivity D) resolving power
155. The vertical angle between longitudinal axis of a freely Answer: Option D
suspended magnetic needle and a horizontal line at its pivot, is
known
A) direct angle B) vertical angle
160. Transition curves are introduced at either end of a
circular curve, to obtain C) horizontal angle D) deflection angle
A) Gradually decrease of curvature from zero at the tangent Answer: Option D

point to the specified quantity at the junction of the transition
curve with main curve 164. The angle of field of the telescope
B) Gradual increase of super-elevation from zero at the A) is independent of the size of the object glass
tangent point to the specified am ount at the junction of the
transition curve with main curve B) increases as the size of the eye piece increases
C) Gradual change of gradient from zero at the tangent point C) decreases as the distance between eye piece and object
to the specified amount at the increases
junction of the transition curve with main curve
D) all of the above
D) None of these Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B 165. In order to measure a horizontal angle more accurately

than a vernier, a
161. Longitude of a place is the angular distance between the A) Method of repetition is used B. method of reiteration is used
meridian of the place and
C) method of deflection angles is used
A) the standard meridian B) the international date line
D) method of double observations is used
C) that of Greenwich D) both (a) and (c) of above
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
166. in measuring horizontal angles, the theodolite should be
162. The average eye base is assumed as turned
A) 58 mm B) 60 mm A) clockwise from the forward station to the back station
C) 62 mm D) 64 mm E) 72 mm B) clockwise from the back station to the forward station
Answer: Option D C) anticlockwise from the forward station to the back

station
163. An angle made by a survey line with the prolongation D) anticlockwise from the back station to the forward
of the proceeding line, is known as station
Answer: Option B
C. prismatic compass D. all of these
167. To obtain photographs of an area of 1000 m average Answer: Option D

elevation, on scale 1 : 30, 000, with a camera of 30 cm focal
length, the flying height is 172. An imaginary line lying throughout on the surface of the
earth and preserving a constant inclination to the horizontal, is
A) 4000 m B) 5000 m called
C) 6000 m D) 7000 m A) Contour line B) Contour gradient
Answer: Option C (C) Level line D) Line of gentle scope
Answer: Option B
168. If the image of a triangulation station of R.L. 500 m is 4
cm from the principal point of a vertical photo taken from an 173. The constant vertical distance between two adjacent
altitude of 2000 m, above datum, the height displacement will contours, is called
be
A) Horizontal interval B) Horizontal equivalent
A) 2 mm B) 4 mm
C) Vertical equivalent D) Contour interval
C) 6 mm D) 10mm
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
174. If a 30 m chain diverges through a perpendicular distance d
169. Rotation of the camera at exposure about its vertical from its correct alignment, the error in length, is
axis, is known as
A) swing B) tilt
A) (d²/60) m B) (d²/30) m
C) tip D) none of these
C) (d²/40) m D) (d/30) m
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
170. The optical square is used to measure angles by
175. The sensitivity of a bubble tube can be increased by
A) refraction B) reflection
A) Increasing the diameter of the tube
C) double refraction D) double reflection
B) Decreasing the length of bubble
Answer: Option B
C) Increasing the viscosity of liquid
171. The instrument, belonging to a class of reflecting
instrument, is D) Decreasing the radius of curvature of tube
A. line ranger B. box sextent Answer: Option A

176. In an optical square, the angle between the first Answer: Option C
incident ray and the last reflected ray is
A) 60° B) 90°
A) It is difficult t o eliminate an error completely at first trial
C) 120° D) 150°
B) Instability of the instrument makes it almost impossible to
Answer: Option B adjust it satisfactorily
177. When the object lies on the left hand side of the chain
line, then while taking offset with an optical square, it is held C) Adjustment screws must be left bearing firmly but should
in never be forced
A) left hand upside down B) right hand upside down D) All the above
C) left hand upright D) right hand upright Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D 182. The properties of autogenously curve for automobiles are
given by
178. In chain surveying field work is limited to
A) True spiral B) Cubic parabola
A) Linear measurements only B) Angular measurements only
C) Bernoulli's Lemniscate D) Clothoid spiral
C) Both linear and angular measurements D) All the above
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
183. The station pointer is generally used in
179. The difference of levels between two stations A and B is
to be determined. For best results, the A) Triangulation surveying B) Astronomical surveying
instrument station should be
C) Hydrographical surveying D) Photogrammetric surveying
A) Equidistant from A and B B) Closer to the higher station
Answer: Option C
C) Closer to the lower station D) As far as possible from the
line AB 184. The length of a parallel of λ latitude between two meridians
is equal to difference in longitudes multiplied by
Answer: Option A
A) sin λ B) cos λ
180. The curve composed of two arcs of different radii having
their centres on the opposite side of the C) tan λ D) cot λ
curve, is known
Answer: Option B
A) A simple curve B) A compound curve
C) A reverse curve D) A vertical curve Answer: Option A

185. Pick up the correct statement from the following: 189. The nautical mile is the length of
A) An observation or the resulting reading with the level on a A) 1 minute of latitude B) 1 minute of longitude
levelling staff is called sight
C) 1 degree of latitude D) 1 degree of longitude.
B) A back sight is the first sight taken after setting up the
instrument in any position Answer: Option B
C) The first sight on each change point is a fore sight 190. The negative sign is assigned to
D) All the above A) reduction to mean sea level
Answer: Option D B) correction for horizontal alignment
186. The angle of intersection of a curve is the angle betwe en C) correction for slope D) correction for slope
A) Back tangent and forward tangent E. all the above
B) Prolongation of back tangent and forward tangent Answer: Option E
C) Forward tangent and long chord 191. The method of surveying by triangulation was first
introduced by the Dutchman Snell in
D) tangent and long chord
A) 1600 B) 1615
Answer: Option A
C) 1630 D) 1650
187. If is the perimeter D is the closing error in departure, t he
correction for the departure of a traverse side of length , Answer: Option B
according to Bowditch rule, is
192. The great circle along which the sun appears to trace on the
(A) D × L/l B) D × l²/L celestial sphere with earth as centre during the year, is called
C) L × l D D) D × l/L A) equator B) celestial equator
Answer: Option D C) ecliptic D) none of these.
188. In tacheometrical observations, vertical staff holding is Answer: Option C

generally preferred to normal staffing, due
To 193. The normal longitudinal overlap is generally kept
A) Ease of reduction of observations B) Facility of holding A) 50% B) 60%
C) Minimum effect of careless holding on the result C) 70% D) 75%
D) None of these Answer: Option B

194. Whole circle bearing of a line is preferred to a quadrantal 198. Triangulation surveys are carried out for providing
bearing merely because
A. planimetric control B. height control
A) Bearing is not completely specified by an angle
C. both planimetric and height control
B) Bearing is completely specified by an angle
D. none of these.
C) Sign of the correction of magnetic declination is different in
different quadrants Answer: Option C
D) Its Trigonometrically values may be extracted from ordinary 199. If the altitudes of a star at its upper and lower transits are
tables easily 60° 30' and 19° 30' respectively, the latitude o f the place, is
Answer: Option B A. 30° B. 35°
195. It is more difficult to obtain good results while measuring C. 40° D. 45°
horizontal distance by stepping
Answer: Option C
A) Up-hill B) Down-hill
200. A deflection angle in a traverse is equal to the
C) In low undulations D) In plane areas
A. difference between the included angle and 180?
Answer: Option A
B. difference between 360? and the included angle
C. sum of the included angle and 180?
A) The apparent error on reversal is twice the actual error
D. none of the above
B) The correction may be made equal to half the observed
discrepancy Answer: Option A
C) The good results may be obtained from a defective 201. The deflection angle may have any value between
instrument by reversing and taking the mean of two erroneous
results A. 0° and 45° B. 0° and 90°
D) All the above C. 0° and 120° D. 0° and 180°
197. Which of the following methods of plane table surveying 202. An angle measured clockwise from the proceeding survey
is used to locate the position of an inaccessible point? line to the following survey line is called
A) Radiation B) Intersection A. direct angle B. vertical angle
C) Traversing D) Resection C. horizontal angle D. deflection angle
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B 207. The deflection angle may be directly obtained by setting
the instrument to read
203. When the whole circle bearing of a traverse line is
between 90? and 180?, then A) 0° B) 90°
A) the latitude is positive and departure is negative C) 180° D) 270°
B) the departure is positive and l atitude is negative Answer: Option A
C) both the latitude and departure are positive 208. The direct angles may have any value between
D) both the latitude and departure are negative A) 0° and 90° B) 0° and 120°
Answer: Option B C) 0° and 180° D) 0° and 360°
204. The latitude and departure of a traverse line are both Answer: Option D
positive when the whole circle bearing of the line lies in the
209. An angle between the inclined line of sight and the
A) first quadrant B) second quadrant horizontal is called
C) third quadrant D) fourth quadrant

A) direct angle B) vertical angle
Answer: Option A
C) horizontal angle D) deflection angle
205. When the latitudes and departures are so adjusted that
the algebraic sum of the latitudes and departures are equal to Answer: Option B
zero, the operation is called
210. In locating the details of an object whose direct
A) balancing the latitude B) balancing the departure measurement is not possible due to some obstruction, the
method used is
C) balancing the traverse D) none of these
Answer: Option C A) by angles and distances from the same station
206. When the angular and linear measurements are B) by angle from one station and distance from the other
equally precise in traversing, the balancing of a traverse is station
done by
C) by distance from two different stations
A. transit rule B. empirical rule
D) by angles from two different stations
C. Bowditch's rule D. any one of these
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
216. In locating the details of inaccessible objects visible at
211. When the angular measurements of a traverse are least from transit stations, the method used is
more precise than the linear measurements, the balancing of a
traverse is done by A) by angles and distances from the same station
A) transit rule B) empirical rule B) by angle from one station and distance from the other
station
C) Bowditch's rule D) any one of these
C) by distances from two different stations
Answer: Option A
212. The method of surveying used for determining the
relative height of points on the surface of the earth is called Answer: Option D
A) levelling B) simple levelling 217. The traversing by the method of deflection angles is chiefly
used in
C) longitudinal levelling D) differential levelling
A) canals B) highways
Answer: Option A
C) railways D) all of these
213. A surface which is normal to the direction of gravity at
all points, as indicated by a plumb line, is known as Answer: Option D
A) datum surface B) leverl surface 218. The projection of a traverse line on a line perpendicular
to the meridian is known as
C) horizontal surface D) vertical surface
A) latitude of the line B) departure of the line
Answer: Option B
C) bearing of the line D) co-ordinate of the line
214. An arbitrary surface with reference to which the
elevation of points are measured and compared, is called Answer: Option B
A) datum surface B) level surface 219. Which of the following statement is wrong?
C) horizontal surface D) vertical surface A) The distance measured parallel to the north -south line is
called latitude of the line.
Answer: Option A
B) The distance measured parallel to the east -west line is
215. A line normal to the plumb line at all points is known as called departure of the line.
A) horizontal line B) vertical line C) The latitude is positive when measured downward or
southward.
C) level line D) line of collimation
D) The departure is negative when measured to the left or
Answer: Option C westward.
Answer: Option C
225. The projection of a traverse line on a line parallel to the
220. The vertical distance above or below the datum is meridian is known as
called
A) latitude B) departure
A) reduced level of the point B) elevation of the point
C) bearing
C) height of the instrument D) either (a) or (b)
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
226. If any closed traverse, if the survey work is correct, then
221. A back sight indicates the
A. the algebraic sum of latitudes should be equal to zero
A) shifting B) setting up
B. the algebraic sum of departures should be equal to zero
C) height
C. the sum of northings should be equal to the sum of
Answer: Option B southings
222. The sidereal day is the time interval between two D. all of the above
successive upper transits of
Answer: Option D
A) mean sun B) first point of Aries
227. The point on the photograph where bisector between the
C) first point of Libra D) the polar star vertical line through optical centre of the camera lens and the
plate perpendicular meets, is known as
Answer: Option B
A) principal point B) isocentre
223. The declination and right ascension of the sun becomes
23° 27' N and 90° respectively on C) plumb point D) perspective centre
A) March 21 B) June 21 Answer: Option B
C) September 21 D) December 22 228. In a truly vertical photograph,
Answer: Option B A) principal point coincides the isocentre
224. Stellar astronomy deals with B) iso-centre coincides the plumb point
A) plane surveying B) geodetic surveying C) plumb point coincides the principal point
C) star observations D) planet observations D) principal point, iso-centre and plumb point coincide
Answer: Option C E) all the above.
Answer: Option E
229. If a star whose declination is 60° N culminates at zenith, Answer: Option D
its altitude at the lower culmination, is
234. 23 cm x 23 cm photographs are taken from a flying height
A) 10° B) 20° with a camera of focal length of 3600 m and 15.23 cm
respectively. A parallax difference of 0.01 mm represents
C) 30° D) 40°
A) 1m B) 2m
Answer: Option C
C) 3m D) 4m
230. The longitudes of two places at latitude 60° N are 93° E
and 97° W. Their departure is Answer: Option A
A) 5100 nautical miles B) 5700 nautical miles 235. The great circle which passes through the zenith, nadir and
the poles, is known as
C) 120 nautical miles D) 500 nautical miles
A) meridian B) vertical circle
Answer: Option B
C) prime vertical D) none of these.
231. The point at which sun's declination changes from north
to south, is known as Answer: Option A
A) first point of Aeries B) first point of Libra 236. If two points differing by 1° of latitude and of the same
longitude is 110 km apart on the earth, then two astronomical
C) vernal Equinox D) autumnal Equinox positions on the moon is about
E) both (b) and (d) of the above. A) 10 km B) 25 km
Answer: Option E C) 30 km D) 50 km
232. A star in northern sphere is said to transit Answer: Option C
A) when its altitude is maximum 237. The distance between the projection centre and the
photograph, is called
B) when its azimuth is 180°
A) principal distance B) principal line
C) when it is in south D) all the above
C) isocentric distance D) focal length.
Answer: Option D
233. In observations of equal precision, the most probable Answer: Option A
values of the observed quantities are those that render the
sum of the squares of the residual errors a minimum, is the 238. The zenith is the point on the celestial sphere
fundamental principle of
A) east of observer B) west of observer
A) Gauss' Mid Latitude formula B) Delamber's method
C) north of observer D) south of observer
C) Legendr's method D) Least square method
Answer: Option D
239. Imaginary line passing through points having equal 243. Equation of time which is the difference between
magnetic declination is termed as apparent solar time and mean solar time at any instant, vanishes
during one year
A) Isogon B) Agonic line
A) once B) twice
C) Isoclinic line D) None of these
C) thrice D) four times
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
240. Which one of the following statements is correct?
244. To have greatest coverage of the area, the type of
A) When the axes of rotation of the graduated circle and the photography used, is
verniers are not coincident, the instrument possesses
eccentricity A) high oblique B) low oblique
B) The mean of the readings of the two verniers gives correc t C) vertical D) none of these.
reading free from the eccentricity
Answer: Option A
C) One Vernier may be used if the readings of two verniers
differ by a constant 245. The stereo plotting instruments are generally manufactured
on the principle of
D) All the above
A. optical projection B) optical mechanism projection
Answer: Option D
C) mechanical projection D) all the above
241. In geodetic surveys higher accuracy is achieved, if
Answer: Option D
A) Curvature of the earth surface is ignore d
246. International date line is located along
B) Curvature of the earth surface is taken into account
A) standard meridian B) Greenwich meridian
C) Angles between the curved lines are treated as plane angles
C) equator D) 180° longitude
D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
247. The correction for parallax, is
242. The bearings of the lines AB and BC are 146° 30' and 68°
30'. The included angle ABC is A) - 8".8 cos α B) + .8" sin α
A) 102° B) 78° C) + 8".8 cos α D) - 8".8 cos α.
C) 45° D) None of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
251. The angle between the plane of the equator and the plane
248. Transit rule of adjusting the consecutive coordinates of a of the ecliptic, is known as obliquity of the ecliptic and its va lue is
traverse is used where
A) 22° 30' B) 23° 27'
A) Linear and angular measurements of the traverse are of
equal accuracy C) 23° 30' D) 24° 0'
B) Angular measurements are more accurate than linear Answer: Option B

measurements
C) Linear measurements are more accurate than angular 252. Perspective centre relates to
measurements
A) parallel projection B) orthogonal projection
D) All of the above
C) central projection D) none of these
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
253. In a tropical year, the number of sidereal days, are
A) The lines of sight while observing back sight and fore sight
lie in the same horizontal plane A) 365 B) 365.2224
B) The staff readings are measurements made vertically C) 365.2422 D) 366.2422

downwards from a horizontal plane
Answer: Option D
C) The horizontal plane with reference to which staff readings
are taken, coincides with the level surface through the 254. Polaris is usually observed for the determination of the
telescope axis azimuth when it is
D) All the above A) at culmination B) at elongation
Answer: Option D C) neither at culmination nor at elongation
250. For true difference in elevations between two points and D) either at culmination or at elongation
, the level must be set up
Answer: Option B
A) At any point between A and B
255. The latitude (λ) of a place and the altitude (α) of the pole
B) At the exact midpoint of A and B are related by
C) Near the point A A) λ=α B) λ = 90° - α
D) Near the point B C) λ = α - 90° D) λ = 180° - α.

256. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The
angular distance of hevenly bodies on observer's meridian 261. If α, H, A and δ be the altitude, hour angle, azimuth and
measured from the pole, is declination of a circumpolar star at its elongation, in latitude λ,
the following relation holds good
A) co-declination B) co-altitude
A) B)
C) co-latitude D) polar distance
Answer: Option A C) D) all the above
257. Parallax bar measures Answer: Option D
A) parallax B) height
262. Places having same latitude
C) parallax difference D) height difference
A) lie on the parallel of the latitude
Answer: Option C
B) are equidistant from the nearer pole
258. The altitude of a heavenly body is its angular distance,
measured on the vertical circle passing through the body, C) are equidistant from both the poles
above
D) are equidistant from the equator E) all the above
A) equator B) horizon
Answer: Option E
C) pole D) none of these
263. The difference in longitude of two places expressed in time
Answer: Option B is equal to the difference in their
259. In a spherical triangle ABC, right angled at C, sin b equals A) sidereal time B) apparent solar time
A) sin a cos A B) cos a sin A C) mean solar time D) all the above
C) tan a cot A D) cot A tan a Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C 264. If the general ground level of any area is 10% of the flying
height, the principal points may be used as the centres of radia l
260. In a spherical triangle ABC right angled at C, sin b equals directions for small scale mapping even in tilted photograph up to
to
A) sin c sin B B) cos c cos B A) 1° B) 2°
C) tan c tanB D) sin c cos B

C) 3° D) 4°
E. cos c sin B
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
265. The slotted template method 270. The station which is selected close to the main trian gulation
station, to avoid intervening obstruction, is not known as
A) is prepared, by graphical method
A) satellite station B) eccentric station
B) is suitable for large areas with less control
C) false station D) pivot station
C) is rapid and accurate D) may be done on any scale
Answer: Option D
E) all the above
271. At western elongation, the pole star moves
Answer: Option E
A) eastward B) westward
266. The declination and right ascension of the sun becomes
23° 27' S and 270° respectively on C) northward D) southward
A) March 21 B) June 21 Answer: Option D
C) September 21 D) December 22 272. The relief displacement of a miner 72 m high on

photograph is 7.2 mm and its top appears 10 cm away from
Answer: Option D principal point. The flying height of th e camera, is
267. The principal line is the line joining the principal point and A) 500 m B) 1000 m
A) nadir B) isocentre C) 1500 m D) 2000 m
C) perspective centre D) none of these Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B 273. The hour angle of the heavenly body for Greenwich
meridian equals the hour angle of the body for any other
268. Longitudes are measured from 0° to meridian + longitude :
A) 180° eastward B) 180° westward A) mean sun B) true sun
C) 180° east or westward D) 360° eastward C) vernal equinox D) star E) all the above
Answer: Option C Answer: Option E
269. A fixed point of reference of known elevation is called 274. By raising the z-column of right projector, maximum y-
parallax is introduced in the model at
A) change point B) station point
A) position 1 B) position 2
C) bench mark D) datum
C) position 4 D) position 6 E) position 4 and 6
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option E
275. An imaginary line tangential to the longitudinal curve
of the bubble tube at its middle point is called 280. The equation which is obtained by multiplying each equation
by the coefficient of its un -knows and by adding the equations
A) axis of telescope B) axis of level tube thus formed, is known as
C) level line D) line of collimation A) observation equation B) conditional equation
Answer: Option B C) normal equation D) none of these
276. A staff reading taken on a bench mark or a point of Answer: Option C

known elevation is called
281. The smaller horizontal angle between the true meridian and
A) fore sight reading B) back sight reading a survey line, is known
C) intermediate sight D) any one of these A) Declination B) Bearing
Answer: Option B C) Azimuth D) Dip
277. A staff reading taken on a point whose elevation is to Answer: Option C

be determined as on a change point is called.
282. Contour interval is
A) fore sight reading B) back sight reading
A) Inversely proportional to the scale of the map
C) intermediate sight D) none of these
B) Directly proportional to the flatness of ground
Answer: Option A
C) Larger for accurate works
278. To find the true difference of level between two
points, the level should be kept D) Larger if the time available is more
A) at either of the two points Answer: Option A
B) exactly midway between the two points 283. Contour interval is
C) at any point on the line joining the two points D. A) The vertical distance between two consecutive contours
none of the above
B) The horizontal distance between two consecutive contours
Answer: Option B
C) The vertical distance between two points on same contour
279. The reduced level of the plane of collimation is
D) The horizontal distance between two points on same contour
Answer: Option A
C) greater than
Answer: Option A
284. The height of instrument is equal to Answer: Option A
A) reduced level of bench mark + back sight 289. Check lines (or proof lines) in Chain Surveying, are
essentially required
B) reduced level of bench mark + fore sight
A) To plot the chain lines B) To plot the offsets
C) reduced level of bench mark + intermediate sight
C) To indicate the accuracy of the survey work
D) back sight + fore sight
D) To increase the out-turn
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
285. A method of differential levelling is used in order to
find the difference in elevation between two points when 290. There are two stations A and B. Which of the following
statements is correct?
A) they are too far apart B) there are obstacles between them
A) The fore bearing of AB is AB
C) the difference in elevation between them is too great
B) The back bearing of AB is BA
D) all of the above
C) The fore and back bearings of AB differ by 180°
Answer: Option D
D) All the above
286. The collimation method for obtaining the reduced levels
of points does not provide a check on Answer: Option D
A) fore sights B) back sights 291. The Random errors tend to accumulate proportionally to
C) change points D) intermediate sights A) Numbers of operations involved
Answer: Option D B) Reciprocal of operations involved
287. The rise and fall method for obtaining the reduced C) Square root of the number of operation involved
levels of points provides a check on
D) Cube root of the number of operation involved
A) fore sights only B) back sights only
Answer: Option C
C) intermediate sights only D) all of these
292. In direct method of contouring, the process of locating or
Answer: Option D identifying points lying on a contour is called
288. Collimation method is used in A) Ranging B) Centring
A) profile levelling B) differential levelling C) Horizontal control D) Vertical control
C) check levelling D) both (a) and (b) Answer: Option D

293. Rise and fall method is used in. C) Inverse of the degree of the curve D) None of these
A) profile levelling B) differential levelling Answer: Option A
C) check levelling D) none of these 298. The conventional sign shown in below figure represents a
Answer: Option C A) Road bridge B) Railway bridge
294. The method of levelling in which the heights of C) Canal bridge D) Aqueduct
mountains are found by observing the temperature at which
water boils is known as Answer: Option A
A) barometric levelling B) reciprocal levelling 299. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
C) longitudinal levelling D) hypsometry A) While measuring a distance with a tape of length 100.005 m ,
the distance to be increasing by 0.005 m for each tape length
Answer: Option D
B) An increase in temperature causes a tape to increase in leng th
295. If the focal length of the object glass is 25 cm and the and the measured distance is too large
distance from object glass to the grunion axis is 15 cm, the
additive constant C) The straight distance between end points of a suspended tape
is reduced by an amount called the sag correction
A) 0.1 B) 0.4
D) A 100 m tape of cross section 10 mm × 0.25 mm stretches
C) 0.6 D) 1.33 about 10 mm under 5 kg pull
296. Diurnal variation of magnetic declination is 300. The instrument attached to the wheel of a vehicle in order
to measure the distance travelled, is called
A) Greater at equator than nearer the poles
A) passometer B) pedometer
B) Less at equator than nearer the poles
C) odometer D) speedometer
C) Less in summer than in winter
Answer: Option C
D) Same at all latitudes and during different months
301. It is more convenient and gives better results while
Answer: Option B measuring horizontal distance
297. Rankine's deflection angle in minutes is obtained by A) down the hill B) up the hill
multiplying the length of the chord by
C) in plane areas
A) Degree of the curve B) Square of the degree of the
curve Answer: Option A
302. In case of a double line river, contours are D) All the above
A) Stopped at the banks of the river Answer: Option D
B) Stopped at the edge of the river C) Drawn across the water 306. Which of the following statement is correct?
D) Drawn by parabolic curves having their vertex at the centre A) The line ranger is used for fixing intermediate points on
of the water the chain lines.
Answer: Option B B) The indirect ranging is resorted to when the ends of a line
are not intervisible due to high ground.
303. The branch of surveying in which both horizontal and
vertical positions of a point, are determined by making C) The chainman at the forward end of the chain is called
instrumental observations, is known leader
A) Tacheometry B) Tachemetry D) all of the above
C) Telemetry D) All the above Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D 308. The correction to be applied to each 30 m chain for a line
measured along a slope of θ is
304. Refraction correction
A) 30 (1 - sinθ ) B) 30 (1 – cosθ)
A) Completely eliminates curvature correction
C) 30 (1 - tanθ) D) 30 (1 – cotθ )
B) Partially eliminates curvature correction
Answer: Option B
C) Adds to the curvature correction
309. Direct ranging is possible only when the end stations are
D) Has no effect on curvature correction
A) close to each other B) not more than 100 m apart
Answer: Option B
C) mutually indivisible D) located at highest points in the sea
Answer: Option C
A) In the earth's magnetic field, a magnetic needle rests in
magnetic meridian 310. The error in measured length due to incorrect holding of
chain is
B) The angle between the true meridian and the magnetic
meridian is called magnetic variation A) compensating error B) cumulative error
C) One end of the magnetic needle supported at its centre of C) instrumental error D) negative error
gravity tends to dip down
towards the nearer magnetic pole of the earth Answer: Option A
311. If the plane table is not horizontal in a direction at right D) All of the above statements are correct
angles to the alidade, the line of sight is
parallel to the fiducially edge only for Answer: Option C
A) Horizontal sights B) Inclined sights upward 315. When the length of chain used in measuring distance is
longer than the standard length, the error in measured distance
C) Inclined sight downward D) None of these will be
Answer: Option A A) positive error B) negative error
312. The conventional sign shown in below figure represents a C) compensating error D) none of these
A) Bridge carrying railway below road Answer: Option B
B) Bridge carrying road below railway 316. If a chain is used at a temperature at which it was
calibrated, the error in measured length is positive.
C) Bridge carrying road and railway at the same level
A) equal to B) lower than
D) A level crossing
C) higher than
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
313. In optical reading instruments
317. If a chain is used at a temperature
A) The vertical circle is usually continuous from 0° to 359°
A) equal to B) lower than
B) The readings increase when the telescope is elevated in the
face left position C) higher than
C) The readings decrease when the telescope is elevated in the Answer: Option C
face right position
318. The error in measured length due to sag of chain or tape
D) All the above is known as
Answer: Option D A) positive error B) negative error
314. Select the correct statement C) compensating error D) instrumental error
A) A contour is not necessarily a closed curve. Answer: Option A
B) A contour represents a ridge line if the concave side of 319. When the measured length is less than the actual length,
lower value contour lies towards the higher value contour the error is known as
C) Two contours of different elevations do not cross each A) positive error B) negative error
other except in case of an overhanging cliff
C) compensating error D) instrumental error
Answer: Option B 323. Which of the following statement is correct?
320. Pick up the correct statement from the following: A) The error in measured length due to bad ranging is
compensating error.
A) If the slope of the curve of a mass diagram in the direction
of increasing abscissa is B) If the chain used in measuring a distance is too short, the
downward, it indicates an embankment error is positive error.
B) The vertical distance between a maximum ordinate and the C) The error in measured length due to careless holding of
next forward maximum ordinate chain is cumulative error.
represents the whole volume of the embankment
D) When the pull applied while measuring with a tape, is
C) The vertical distance between a minimum ordinate and the more than the standard pull for that tape, the error in measured
next forward maximum ordinate length is positive
represents the whole volume of a cutting
Answer: Option B
D) All the above
324. When (h) is the difference in heights between the
Answer: Option D extremities of a chain length (l), then the correction f or slope
required is
321. Rotation of the camera at exposure about horizontal axis
normal to the line of flight, is known as A) h/l B) h2 / l
A) swing B) tilt C) h2 / 2l D) h / el
C) tip D) none of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C 325. A line joining the apex of a triangle to some fixed point on
the opposite side is called a
33. At lower culmination, the pole star moves
A) check line B) tie line
C) base line D) none of these
C) northward D) southward
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
326. A line joining some fixed points on the main survey lines,
322. If δ is the declination of the star and φ is the latitude of is called a
the observer, then the azimuth of the star at elongation is
given by A) check line B) tie line
A) sin z = sec φ . cos δ B) cos z = sec φ . cos δ C) base line D) none of these
C) tan z = sec φ . cos δ D) none of these Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
327. The altitudes of a circumpolar star at culminations are 70° 332. A base line in a chain survey
and 10°, both culminations being north of zenith. The
declination of the star, is A) checks the accuracy of the framework
A) 80° B) 70° B) enables the surveyor to locate the interior details which are
far away from the main chain lines
C) 60° D) 50°
C) fixes up the directions of all other lines D) all of the above
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
328. The angle between the observer's meridian and
declination circle of a heavenly body, is known as 333. A plumb bob is required
A) hour angle B) azimuth A) when measuring distances along slopes in a hilly country
C) right ascension D) declination B) for accurate centering of a theodolite over a station mark
Answer: Option A C) for testing the verticality of ranging poles D) all of the above
329. For plane ground the scale of a vertical photograph will Answer: Option D
be same as that of a tiled photograph along the photo parallel
through 334. Chain surveying is most suitable when
A) isocentre B) plumb point A) area to be surveyed is small B) ground is fairly level and open
with simple details
C) principal point D) none of these
C) plans are required on a large scale D) all of the above
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
330. The sun's declination remains north between
335. In field astronomy, the quantities observed are entirely
A) March 21 to June 21 B) June 21 to September 21
A) lengths B) angles
C) September 21 to December 21 D) December 21 to Mach 21
C. heights D) all of these.
E) Both (a) and (b) of above.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option E
336. The orthogonal projection of the perspective centre on a
331. The time interval between successive transits of the tilted photograph, is called
moon, is
A) nadir B) isocentre
A) 24 hours 10 minutes B) 20 hours 25 minutes
C) principal point D) plumb point
C) 24 hours 50 minutes D) 23 hours 50 minutes
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
337. At the first point of Aeries, the sun moves 342. The principal plane contains
A) northward B) southward A) nadir point B) miso centre
C) from south to north of the equator C) principal point D) principal axis and principal line
D) from north to south of the equator. E) all the above
Answer: Option C Answer: Option E
338. The declination and right ascension of the sun are each 343. The point where vertical line passing through the
equal to zero on perspective centre intersects the plane of the photograph, is
known as
A) March 21 B) June 21
A) photo plumb point B) plumb point
C) September 21 D) December 22
C) nadir point D) isocentre
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
339. From the principal point the horizon point lies on the
principal line at a distance of 344. Chain surveying consists of the arrangement of
framework of triangles because a triangle is the only simple plane
A) f tan θ B) f sin θ figure which can be plotted uniquely if
C) f cot θ D) f cos θ A) three sides B) three angles
Answer: Option A C) one side and two angles D) one angle and two sides
340. The Polaris remains below horizon at Answer: Option A
A) 10° N B) 50° N Latitude 345. In a well-conditioned triangle, no angle should be less than
C) equator D) 5° S latitude A) 30° B) 40°
Answer: Option D C) 50° D) 60°
341. If δ is the declination of the star and φ is the latitude of Answer: Option A
the observer then the hour angle of the star at elongation is
given by 346. A check line in a chain surveying
A) Sin H = tan φ . cot δ B) cos H = tan φ . cot δ A) checks the accuracy of the framework
C) Tan H = tan φ . cot δ D) none of these. B) enables the surveyor to locate the interior details which
are far away from the main chain lines
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A A) checks the accuracy of the framework
347. At upper culmination, the pole star moves B) enables the surveyor to locate the interior details which
are far away from the main chain lines
C) northward D) southward
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
353. When the position of a point is to be located accurately by a
348. G.M.T. corresponding to given mean time, equals perpendicular offset, the direction of perpendicular is set out by
means of
A) L.M.T. - East longitude in time
A) theodolite B) optical square
B) L.M.T. + East longitude in time
C) dumpy level D) planimeter
C) L.M.T. - West longitude in time
Answer: Option B
D) None of the these
354. The accuracy in laying down the perpendicular offsets
Answer: Option A and in measuring them depends upon
349. Latitude of the observer's position is equal to altitude of A) scale of plotting B) length of offset
A) north pole B) pole star C) importance of the object D) all of these
C) celestial pole D) all the above Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C 355. Chain surveying is well adopted for
350. The altitude of a circumpolar star is maximum when it is A) Small areas in open ground
A) at east elongation B) at upper culmination B) Small areas with crowded details
C) at west elongation D) at lower culmination. C) Large areas with simple details
Answer: Option B (D) Large areas with difficult details
351. The coverage is least if photography is Answer: Option A
A) high oblique B) low oblique 356. Two contour lines, having the same elevation
C) vertical D) none of these (A) Cannot cross each other B) Can cross each other
Answer: Option C C) Cannot unite together D) Can unite together
352. A tie line in a chain surveying Answer: Option D

B) Bridge carrying road below railway
A) If the slope of the curve of a mass diagram in the dire ction
of increasing abscissa is downward, it indicates an C) Bridge carrying road and railway at the same level
embankment
D) A level crossing
B) The vertical distance between a maximum ordinate and th e
next forward maximum ordinate represents the whole volume Answer: Option A
of the embankment
361. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
C) The vertical distance between a minimum ordinate and th e
next forward maximum ordinate represents the whole volume A) Error due to refraction may not be completely eliminated by
of a cutting reciprocal levelling
D) All the above B) Tilting levels are commonly used for precision work
Answer: Option D C) The last reading of levelling is always a foresight

D) All of the above statements are incorrect
A) The diaphragm is placed between eyepiece and the
objective but nearer to the former Answer: Option D
B) The diaphragm is placed between the eyepiece and 362. In levelling operation
objective but nearer to the later
A) The first sight on any change point is a back sight
C) The outer component of the objective is a doubl e-convex
lens of crown glass (B) The second sight on any change point is a fore sight
D) All the above C) The line commences with a fore sight and closes with a back
sight
Answer: Option D
D) The line commences with a back sight and closes with a
359. If the whole circle bearing of a line is 270°, its reduced foresight
bearing is
Answer: Option D
A) N 90° W B) S 90° W
363. The length of a traverse leg may be obtained by multiplying
(C) W 90° D) 90° W the latitude and
Answer: Option C A) Secant of its reduced bearing B) Sine of its reduced bearing
360. The conventional sign shown in below figure represents a C) Cosine of its reduced bearing D) Tangent of its reduced bearing
A) Bridge carrying railway below road Answer: Option A

364. Pick up the correct statement from the following: 367. While working on a plane table, the correct rule is:
A) The length of the brass handle is included in the length of A) Draw continuous lines from all instrument statio ns
chain
B) Draw short rays sufficient to contain the points sought
B) The handles are on swivel joints to prevent twisting of the
chain C) Intersection should be obtained by actually drawing second
rays
C) The fifth tag from either end of the chain is numbered 5
D) Take maximum number of sights as possible from each station
D) All the above to distant objects
365. The process of determining the locations of the 368. At eastern elongation, the pole star moves
instrument station by drawing re sectors from the locations of
the known stations is A) eastward B) westward
A) Radiation B) Intersection C) northward D) southward.
C) Resection D) Traversing Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C 369. Circumpolar stars

200. When several contours coincide, it indicates
A) rotate round the north pole B) rotate round the celestial pole
A) a vertical cliff B) a valley
C) remain always above the horizon
C) a ridge
D) are seldom seen near the pole star
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
366. Which of the following statement is wrong?
370. A nautical mile is
A) A series of closed contour lines on the map indicates a
depression if the higher values are inside A) one minute arc of the great circle passing through two
points
B) A series of closed contour lines on a plane indicates a hill i f
the higher values are outside. B) one minute arc of the longitude C) 6080 ft
C) The uniformly spaced contour lines indicates a plane D) 1855.109 m E) all the above.
surface
Answer: Option E
D) all of the above
371. Contour lines cross ridge or valley lines at
Answer: Option D
A) 30° B) 45°
B) The effect of refraction in levelling is to increase the staff
C) 60° D) 90° reading
Answer: Option D C) The combined effect of curvature and refraction in levelling is

to increase the staff reading
372. The reduced level of a point on the ground is called
D) all of the above
A) spot level B) spot height
Answer: Option C
C) either (a) or (b) D) none of these
377. In levelling, the effect of refraction may be taken as
Answer: Option C
A) one-half B) one-third
373. In route surveys, the most suitable method of contouring
is C) one-fifth D) one-seventh
A) by squares B. by radial lines Answer: Option D
C) by cross-sections D. by tacheometer 378. In levelling, the correction for curvature (in metres) is equal,
where D = Distance from the level to the staff reading in
Answer: Option C kilometres.
374. The tachemometric method of contouring is A) 0.00785 D2 B) 0.0785 D2

particularly suitable
C) 0.0112 D2 D) 0.0673 D2
A) when a contoured map of hill is required
Answer: Option B
B) when the area is not very extensive
379. In levelling, the correction for combined curvature and
C) in surveys of roads or railways D) all of these refraction (in metres) is equal to
Answer: Option A A) 0.00785 D2 B) 0.0785 D2
375. The spacing of cross-sections in a hilly country is C) 0.0112 D2 D) 0.0673 D2

usually
Answer: Option D
A) 5m B) 10 m
380. The error which is not completely eliminated in reciprocal
C) 15 m D) 20 m levelling, is
Answer: Option D A) error due to curvature B) error due to refraction
376. Which of the following statement is correct? C) error due to non-adjustment of the line of collimation
A) In levelling, the effect of curvature is to decrease the staff D) error due to non-adjustment of bubble tube
reading
Answer: Option B
381. The method of surveying in which field work and 386. The line joining the points having the same elevation
plotting work are done simultaneously, is called above the datum surface, is called a
A) compass surveying B) levelling A) contour surface B) contour line
C) plane tabling D) chain surveying C) contour interval D) dontour gradient
382. The sum of the interior angles of a geometrical figure laid 387. The vertical distance between any two consecutive
on the surface of the earth differs from contours is called
that of the corresponding plane figure only to the extent of
one second for every A) vertical equivalent B) horizontal equivalent
A) 100 sq. km of area B) 150 sq. km of area C) contour interval D) contour gradient
C) 200 sq. km of area D) None of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C 388. The horizontal distance between any two consecutive
contours is called
383. An angle of deflection right, may be directly obtained by
setting the instrument to read A) vertical equivalent B) horizontal equivalent
A) Zero on back station B) 180° on back station C) contour interval D) contour gradient
C) 90° D) 270° on back station Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A 389. The contour lines can cross one another on map only in
the case of
384. The bellow picture is the conventional sign of
A) a vertical cliff B) a valley
A) Templen B) Mosque
C) a ridge D) an overhanging cliff
C) Fort D) Church
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
390. Surveys which are carried out to depict mountains, rivers,
385. Location of contour gradient for a high way is best set water bodies, wooded areas and other cultural details, are known
out from as
A) Ridge down the hill B) Saddle down the hill A) Cadastral surveys B) City surveys
C) Bottom to the ridge D) Bottom to the saddle C) Topographical surveys D) Guide map surveys

391. Setting out a curve by two theo dolite method, involves A) Levelling B) Centering
A) Linear measurements only B) Angular measurements only C) Orientation D) Setting
C) Both linear and angular measurements D) None of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B 396. Total latitude of a point is positive if it lies
392. Direct method of contouring is A) North of the reference parallel
A) A quick method B) Adopted for large surveys only B) South of the reference parallel
C) Most accurate method D) Suitable for hilly terrains C) East of the reference parallel D) West of the reference parallel
393. The method of plane tabling commonly used for

establishing the instrument stations only, is a 397. The area of a plane triangle ABC, having its base AC and
perpendicular height , is
A) method of radiation B) method of intersection
A) ½ bh B) ½ ba sin C
C) method of traversing D) method of resection
C) ½ bc sin A D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
394. According to Lehman's rule of plane tabling
A) the distance to the point sought from each of the three 398. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
rays is proportional to the distance of the three known poi nts
from the instrument station A) In astronomical telescope, the rays from the object after
refraction at the objective are brought to a focus before entering
B) when the instrument station is outside the great circle, the the eyepiece to produce a real inverted image in front of the eye
point sought is always on the same side of the ray drawn to piece
the most distant point as the intersection of the other two
rays B) In Galileo's telescope, the rays from the object get ref racted
at the objective and are intercepted by the eyepiece before a real
C) when looking in the direction of the reference points, the image is formed
point sought is on the same side of each of the three rays
C) A line passing through the optical centre of the objective
D) all of the above traversing through the eyepiece, is called line of sight
Answer: Option D D) All the above
395. The operation of revolving a plane table about its vertical Answer: Option D
axis so that all lines on the sheet become parallel to
corresponding lines on the ground, is known
A) Systematic angular errors B) Accidental linear errors
399. A reverse curve consists of
C) Systematic linear errors D) Accidental angular errors
A) a single curve of a circle connecting two straights
Answer: Option C
B) two arcs of different radii bending in the same direction
C) two arcs of equal radii bending in the same direction 404. In plane tabling, the instrument used to measure
horizontal and vertical distances directly, is known as
D) two arcs of equal or different radii bending in the opposite
directions A) plane alidade B) telescopic alidade
Answer: Option D C) tacheometer D) clinometer

Answer: Option B
400. When the centres of the arcs lie on the opposite sides of
the common tangent at the junction of the two curves, it is 405. The plane table surveying is
known as a
A) most suitable for preparing small -scale maps
A) simple curve B) vertical curve
B) particularly advantageous in magnetic areas
C) compound curve D) reverse curve
C) less costly than a theodolite survey D) all of the above
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
401. A simple circular cruve is designated by the
406. The operation of turning the table so that all the lines on
A) radius of the curve B) cruvature of the curve the paper are parallel to the corresponding lines on the ground, is
called
C) angle subtended at the centre by a chord of any length
A) levelling B) centering
D) angle subtended at the centre by a chord of particular
length C) setting D) orientation
402. The degree of the curve is the angle subtended by a 407. The plotting of small areas which can be commanded
chord of from a single station, is usually done on the plane table by the
method of
A) 15 m B) 20 m
A) radiation B) intersection
C) 25 m D) 30 m
C) traversing D) resection
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
403. Under ordinary conditions, the precision of a theodolite
traverse is affected by
Answer: Option D
408. When R is the radius of the curve (in metres), D is the
degree of curve (in degrees) and length of the chord is 30 m, 413. The method of intersection in plane tabling is commonly
then the relation between R and D is used for
A) R = 1520/D B) R = 1720/D A) locating the distant and inaccessible points
C) R = 4500/D D) R = 5400 / D B) locating the broken boundaries
Answer: Option B C) locating the points which may be used subsequently as

the instrument stations
409. The angle between the back tangent and forward
tangent of a curve is known as D) all of the above
A) deflection angle B) central angle Answer: Option D
C) angle of intersection D) none of these

414. A lemniscate curve will not be transitional throughout, if its
Answer: Option C deflection angle, is
410. The angle by which the forward tangent deflects from A) 45° B) 60°
the back tangent of a curve is called
C) 90° D) 120°
A) deflection angle B) central angle
Answer: Option A
C) angle of intersection D) none of these
415. If vertical angles of inclined sights do not exceed 10° and
Answer: Option A non-verticality of the staff remains within 1°, stadia system of
tacheometric observations are made on
411. A deflection angle is
A) Staff normal B) Staff vertical
A) less than 90θ B) more than 90θ but less than 180θ
C) Staff normal as well as vertical D) None of these
C) equal to the difference between the angle of intersection
and 180θ Answer: Option A
D) equal to the difference between the angle of intersection 416. The staff reading at a distance of 80 m from a level with the
and 360θ bubble at its centre is 1.31 m. When the bubble is moved by 5
divisions out of the centre, the reading is 1.39 m. The angular
Answer: Option C value of the one division of the bubble, is
412. The length of peg interval for flat curves is A) 28.8 sec B) 41.25 sec
A) 15 m B) 20 m C) 14.52 sec D) 25.05
C) 25 m D) 30 m Answer: Option B
417. When the length of a chord is less than the peg interval, Answer: Option D
it is known as
422. On a diagonal scale, it is possible to read up to
A) small chord B) short chord
A) One dimension B) Two dimensions
C) sub-chord D) normal chord
C) Three dimensions D) Four dimensions
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
418. With the rise of temperature, the sensitivity of a bubble
tube 423. In horizontal angles, the error due to imperfect levelling of
the plate bubble is
A) Decreases B) Increases
A) Large when sights are nearly level B) Large for long sights
C) Remains unaffected D) None of the above
C) Less for steeply inclined sights D) Large for steeply inclined
Answer: Option A sights
Answer: Option D
419. The imaginary line passing through the intersection of
cross hairs and the optical centre of the objective, is known as
424. Reduced bearing of a line is an angle between
A) Line of sight B) Line of collimation
A) North line and given line measured clockwise
C) Axis of the telescope D) None of these
B) North line and given line measured anticlockwise
Answer: Option B
420. During levelling if back sight is more than foresight C) East or west and the given line
A) The forward staff is at lower point D) Given line and the part of the meridian whether N end or S
end, lying adjacent to it
B) The back staff is at lower point
Answer: Option D
C) The difference in level, cannot be ascertained
425. If the chain line which runs along N-S direction is horizontal
D) None of these and the ground in E-W direction is sloping
Answer: Option B A) It is possible to set offsets correctly on east side
421. The autogenously curve of an automobile corresponds B) It is possible to set offsets correctly on east si de
to a
C) It is not possible to set offsets correctly on west side
A) cubic parabola B) clothoid spiral
D) It is possible to set offsets correctly on both sides
C) true spiral D) lemniscuses
Answer: Option D
426. A branch of surveying in which the horizontal and 431. When the curve is to be set out over a rough ground, the
vertical distances of points are obtained by instrumental method used is
observations, is known as
A) Rankine's method B) two theodolite method
A) chain surveying B) plane table surveying
C) tacheometric method D) either (b) or (c)
C) tacheometric surveying D) hydrographic surveying
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
432. Two theodolite method of setting out a curve involves
427. The principle of tacheometry is used
A) linear measurements only B) angular measurements only
A. for locating contours B) on hydrographic surveys
C) both linear and angular measurements D) none of these
C) for filling in detail in topographic surveys D) all of these
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
433. The curve of varying radius is known as
428. The additive constant for the tacheometer is
A) simple curve B) compound curve
A) f/i B) I /f
C) reverse curve D) transition cruve
C) f/d D) f +d
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
434. The object of introducing a transition curve at each end of
the circular curve is
429. The multiplying constant for the tacheometer is,
generally, kept as A) to obtain a gradual increase of curvature from zero at the
tangent point to the specified quantity at the junction of the
A) 20 B) 40 transition curve with the circular curve
C) 60 D) 100 B) to provide a satisfactory means of obtaining a gradual

increase of super-elevation from zero on the tangent point to the
Answer: Option D specified amount on the main circular curve
C) to accomplish gradually the transition from the tangent to the

430. The value of additive constant for th e tacheometer circular curve and from the circular curve to the tangent
varies from
D) all of the above
A) 0 to 15 cm B) 15 to 30 cm
Answer: Option D
C) 30 to 45 cm D) 45 to 60 cm
Answer: Option C
435. Pick up the correct statement from the following 439. A transition curve when inserted between the tangent
and the circular curve
A) The contour lines having the same elevation cannot unite
and continue as one line A) should meet the original straight tangentially
B) A contour cannot end abruptly, but must ultimately close B) should meet the circular curve tangentially
itself not necessarily within the
limits of map C) the rate of increase of curvature along the transition curve
should be same as that of increase of super-elevation
C) The direction of steepest slope at a point on a contour is at
right angles to the contour D) all of the above
D) All the above Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D 440. The curve used for ideal transition curve is a
436. An imaginary line joining the points of equal elevation on A) cubic parabola B) clothoid spiral
the surface of the earth, represents
C) cubic spiral D) lemniscate
A) Contour surface B) Contour gradient
Answer: Option D
C) Contour line D) Level line
441. The shift of a curve is
Answer: Option C
A) equal to B) one-half
437. In quadrantal bearing system, back bearing of a line may
be obtained from its forward bearing, by C) one-third D) one-fourth
A) Adding 180°, if the given bearing is less than 180° Answer: Option D
B) Subtracting 180°, if the given bearing, is more than 180° 442. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
C) Changing the cardinal points, i.e. substituti ng N for S and E A) The tangent screw enables to give small movement under
for W and vice-versa conditions of smooth and positive control
D) None of these B) Standing on the tripod is the levelling head or trip arch
Answer: Option C C) The levelling screws are used to tilt the instrument so that its
rotation axis is truly vertical
438. due to curvature of earth is proportional
D) All the above
A) d B) 1/d
Answer: Option D
C) d² D) 1/d²
Answer: Option C
443. Back bearing of a line is equal to A) 5" B) 10"
A) Fore bearing ± 90° B) Fore bearing ± 180° C) 15" D) 20"
C) Fore bearing ± 360° D) Fore bearing ± 270° Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B 448. Closed contours, with higher value inwards, represent a
444. To orient a plane table at a point roughly south of the A) Depression B) Hillock
mid-point of two inaccessible conical hill stations and in the
plains, a point is selected in line with AB and table is oriented C) Plain surface D) None of the above
at by bringing ab in line with AB. A ray is then drawn towards
and at the table is oriented by back ray method. The Answer: Option B
orientation so obtained, is
449. If is the difference in height between end points of a chain
A) Unique and correct B) Incorrect of length , the required slope correction is
C) Manifold and correct D) Not reliable A) h²/2l B) h/2l
Answer: Option C C) h²/l D) 2h²/2l
445. While setting a plane table at a station it was found that Answer: Option A
the error in centering was 30 cm away from the ray of length
40 m drawn from the station. If the scale of the plan is 1 cm = 450. The instrument which is used in plane tabling for obtaining
2 cm, the displacement of the end of the ray in plan from the horizontal and vertical distances directly without resorting to
true position will be chaining, is known as
A) 0.02 cm B) 0.15 cm A) Plane alidade B) Telescopic alidade
C) 0.2 cm D) 0.1 cm C) Clinometer D) Tacheometer
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
446. The type of surveying which requires least office work is
451. To the sum of the first and last ordinates, add twice the sum
A) Tachometry B) Trigonometrically levelling of the intermediate ordinates. The total sum thus obtained is
multiplied by the common distance between the ordinates. One -
C) Plane table surveying D) Theodolite surveying half of this product gives the required area. This rule of finding
the area is called
Answer: Option C
A) mid-ordinate rule B) trapezoidal rule
447. The main plate of a transit is divided into 1080 equal C) average ordinate rule D) Simpson's rule
divisions. 60 divisions of the Vernier coincide exactly with 59
divisions of the main plate. The transit can read angles Answer: Option B
accurate up to
452. The ratio of the length of long chord and the tangent Answer: Option D
length of a circular curve of radius R
457. To the sum of the first and last ordinates, add twice the sum
A) sin B) cos of the remaining odd ordinates and four times the sum of all the
even ordinates. The total sum thus obtained is multiplied b y one-
C) 2 sin D) 2 cos third of the common distance between the ordinates and the
result gives the required area. This rule of finding the area is
Answer: Option D called.
453. For a closed traverse the omitted measurements may be A) mid-ordinate rule B. trapezoidal rule
calculated
C) average ordinate rule D. Simpson's rule
A) Length of one side only B) Bearing of one side only
Answer: Option D
C) Both length and bearing of one side D) All the above
458. If in a closed traverse, the sum of the north latitudes is more
Answer: Option D than the sum of the south latitudes and also the sum of west
departures than the sum of the east departures, the bearing of
454. Horizontal distances obtained by thermometric the closing line is in the
observations
A) NE quadrant B) SE quadrant
A) Require slope correction B) Require tension correction
C) NW quadrant D) SW quadrant
C) Require slope and tension corrections
Answer: Option B
D) Do not require slope and tension corrections
459. The ratio of the angles subtended at the eye, by the virtual
Answer: Option D image and the object, is known as telescopes
455. A clinometer is used for A) Resolving power B) Brightness
A) Measuring angle of slope B) Correcting line of collimation C) Field of view D) Magnification
C) Setting out right angles D) Defining natural features Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A 460. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
456. In a perfect prismatic compass A) Mistakes arise from inattention, inexperience or carelessness
A) Magnetic axis and geometric axis of the needle coincide B) Systematic errors persist and have regular effects in the survey
performances
B) Ends of the needle and pivot are in same vertical and
horizontal planes C) Accidental errors occur in spite of every precaution is taken
C) Pivot is vertically over the centre of the graduated circle D) All the above
D) All the above Answer: Option D

461. Pick up the correct statement from the following: 465. To orient a plane table at a point with two inaccessible
points, the method generally adopted, is
A) Box sextant is used for the measurement of horizontal
angles A) Intersection B) Resection
B) Cross staff is used for setting out right angles C) Radiation D) Two point problem
C) Gradiometer is used for setting out any required gradient Answer: Option D
D) All the above 466. If a tacheometer is fitted with an anal -latic lens
Answer: Option D A) Additive constant is 100, multiplying constant is zero
462. Sensitiveness of a level tube is designated by B) Multiplying constant is 100, additive constant is zero
A) Radius of level tube B) Length of level tube C) Both multiplying and additive constants are 100
C) Length of bubble of level tube D) None of the above D) Both multiplying and additive constants are 50
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
463. The formula for the horizontal distances for inclined 467. Short offsets are measured with
sights, on staff held normal is (f/i) s f + d h
A) An ordinary chain B) An invar tape
A) Minus sign is used for angle of depression
C) A metallic tape D) A steel tape
B) Plus sign is used for angle of depression
Answer: Option A
C) Minus sign is used for angle of elevation
D) None of these 468. The representation of general topography of a very flat

terrain is possible only
Answer: Option A
A) By drawing contours at large interval
464. If D is the degree of the curve of radius R, the exact
length of its specified chord, is B) By drawing contours at small interval
A) Radius of the curve × sine of half the degree C) By giving spot levels at large interval
B) Diameter of the curve × sine of half the degree D) By giving spot levels to salient features at close interval
C) Diameter of the curve × cosine of half the degree Answer: Option D
D) Diameter of the curve × tangent of half the degree 469. Benchmark is established by
Answer: Option B A) Hypsometry B) Barometric levelling

473. True meridian of different places
C) Spirit levelling D) Trigonometrical levelling
A) Converge from the South Pole to the North Pole
Answer: Option C
B) Converge from the North Pole to the South Pole
470. Locating the position of a plane table station with
reference to three known points, is known as C) Converge from the equator to the poles
A) Intersection method B) Radiation method D) Run parallel to each other
C) Resection method D) Three point problem Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D 474. The angle between the prolongation of the preceding line
and the forward line of a traverse is called
471. If the intercept on a vertical staff is observed as 0.75 m
from a tachometer, the horizontal distance between A) Deflection angle B) Included angle
tachometer and staff
C) Direct angle D) None of the above
A) 7.5 m B) 25 m
Answer: Option A
C) 50 m D) 75 m
475. To set out a parallel from a given inaccessible point to a
Answer: Option D given line AB, the following observations are made: Distance AB
and angle PAM = a and angle PBA = b are measured where M is a
472. Simpson's rule for calculating areas states that the area point on the line BA produced. The perpendicular to the desired
enclosed by a curvilinear figure divided into an even number parallel line from A and B are:
of strips of equal width, is equal to
A) AB/(cot b - cot a) B) AB/(cos b - cos a)
A) Half the width of a strip, multiplied by the sum of two
extreme offsets, twice the sum of remaining odd offsets, and C) AB/(cot a - cot b) D) AB/(cot a - cos b)
thrice the sum of the even offsets
Answer: Option A
B) One-third the width of a strip, multiplied by the sum of two
extreme offsets, twice the sum of remaining odd offsets and 476. In case of a direct vernier scale
four times the sum of the even offsets
A) Graduations increase in opposite direction in which
C) One-third the width of a strip, multiplied by the sum of two graduations of the main scale increase
extreme offsets, four times the sum of the remaining odd
offsets, and twice the sum of the even offsets B) Smallest division is longer than smallest division of the main
scale
D) One-sixth the width of a strip , multiplied by the sum of the
two extreme offsets, twice the sum of remaining odd offsets C) Graduations increase in the same direction in which
and four times the sum of the even offsets graduations of the main scale increase
Answer: Option C
477. The ratio of the distances at which a stated length can be
distinguished by the telescope and the human eye, Answer: Option D
respectively, is called
482. The operation of making the algebraic sum of latitudes and
A) Brightness of telescope B) Magnification of telescope departures of a closed traverse, each equal to zero, is known
C) Resolving power of telescope D) None of these

A) Balancing the sights B) Balancing the departures
Answer: Option C
C) Balancing the latitudes D) Balancing the traverse
478. The radius of a simple circular curve is 300 m and length
of its specified chord is 30 m. The degree of the curve is Answer: Option D
A) 5.73° B) 5.37° 483. Dumpy level is most suitable when
C) 3.57° D) 3.75°
A) The instrument is to be shifted frequently
Answer: Option A
B) Fly levelling is being done over long distance
479. If the shift and the length of the transition curve, then,
total tangent length of the curve, is C) Many readings are to be taken from a single setting of the
instrument
A) (R - S - L/2 ) B) (R + S - L/2)
D) All of the above
C) (R + S L/2 ) D) (R - S L/2)
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
480. A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a 484. The systematic errors which persist and have regular effects
in the performance of a survey operation are due to
A) Steep slope B) Gentle slope
A) Carelessness B) Faulty instrument
C) Uniform slope D) Plane surface
C) Inattention D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
481. In an internal focusing telescope
485. The instrument used for accurate centering in plane table
A) The objective is at a fixed distance from the diaphragm survey is
B) The focusing is done by the sliding of a divergent lens A) Spirit level B) Alidade
C) The focusing divergent lens is situated at about the middle C) Plumbing fork D) Trough compass
of the tube
Answer: Option C
D) All the above
486. During secular variation of magnetic meridian at
different places 491. Accuracy of elevation of various points obtained from
contour map is limited to
A) Range of oscillations is B) Period of oscillation is constant
constant A) ½ of the contour interval B) ¼ th of the contour interval
C) Range and period of oscillation D) Period of oscillation only
both vary varies C) 1/3 rd of the contour interval D) 1/5 th of the contour interval
487. While viewing through a level telescope and moving the 492. The curvature of the earth's surface, is taken into account
eye slightly, a relative movement occurs between the image of only if the extent of survey is more than
the levelling staff and the cross hairs. The instrument is
(A) 100 sq km B) 160 sq km
A) Correctly focused B) Not correctly focussed
C) 200 sq km D) 260 sq km
C) Said to have parallax D) Free from parallax
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
488. Intersection method of detailed plotting is most suitable 493. An imaginary line lying throughout the surface of ground
for and preserving a constant inclination to the horizontal is known
as
A) Forests B) Urban areas
A) Contour line B) Horizontal equivalent
C) Hilly areas D) Plains
C) Contour interval D) Contour gradient
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
489. While measuring a chain line between two stations and
intervened by a raised ground
494. The theodolites used for making tacheometric observations
A) Vision gets obstructed B) Chaining gets obstructed by optical wedge system, are
C) Both vision and chaining get obstructed D) All the above A) Provided with stadia hairs in front of eye piece
Answer: Option A B) Not provided with stadia hairs at all
490. Mistakes which may produce a very serious effect upon C) Fitted with a glass wedge inside the teles cope
the final results arise due to
A) In attention B) In experience D) Fitted with a glass wedge in front of telescope
C) Carelessness D) All of these Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
495. Numbers of links per metre length of a chain are Answer: Option D
A) 2 B) 5 500. When the bubble of the level tube of a level, remains

central
C) 7 D) 10
A) Line of sight is horizontal B) Axis of the telescope is horizontal
Answer: Option B
C) Line of collimation is horizontal
496. Offsets are measured with an accuracy of 1 in 40. If the
point on the paper from both sources of error (due to angular D) Geometrical axis of the telescope is horizontal
and measurement errors) is not to exceed 0.05 cm on a scale
of 1 cm = 20 m, the maximum length of offset should be Answer: Option A
limited to
501. Accurate measurement of deflection angles with a transit
A) 14.14 m B) 28.28 m not properly adjusted may be made by
C) 200 m D) None of these A) Setting the Vernier A at zero at back station and then
plunging the telescope
Answer: Option B
B) Setting the Vernier A at zero at back station and turnin g the
497. The 'point of curve' of a simple circular curve, is instrument to the forward station
A) Point of tangency B) Point of commencement C) Taking two back sights one with the telescope normal and the
other with telescope inverted
C) Point of intersection D) Mid-point of the curve
D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
498. Prolongation of chain line across an obstruction in chain
surveying, is done by 502. The resection by two point problem as compared to three
point problem
A) Making angular measurements
A) Gives more accurate problem B) Takes less time
B) Drawing perpendiculars with a chain
C) Requires more labour D) None of the above
C) Solution of triangles D) All the above
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
503. ABCD is a regular parallelogram plot of land whose angle
499. Resolving power of a telescope depends on BAD is 60°. If the bearing of the lin e AB is 30°, the bearing of CD,is
A) The diameter of the aperture A) 90° B) 120°
B) The pupil aperture of the eye C) 210° D) 270°
C) The diameter of the object glass D) All the above Answer: Option C
504. Pick up the correct statement from the following: 508. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A) If the image of the object does not fall on the plane of the A) The framework which consists of a series of connected lines ,
cross-lines, parallax exists the lengths and directions of which are found from
measurements, is called a traverse
B) Parallax has nothing to do with the eyepiece
B) The system of a series of lines which forms a circuit which
C) The eyepiece is adjusted for clear vision of the cross hairs ends at the starting point, is called a closed traverse
D) All the above C) The traverse that starts from a point already fixed in some
survey system and ends on another such point, is called a
Answer: Option D controlled traverse
505. The Huygens telescope eye piece D) All the above
A) Is aplanatic B) Achromatic Answer: Option D
C) Both (a) and (b) D) Neither (a) nor (b) 509. The co-ordinate of a point measured perpendicular to the
parallel, is called
Answer: Option C
A) Total latitude B) Meridian distance
506. The bearing of lines OA and OB are 16° 10' and 332° 18',
the value of the included angle BOA is C) Total departure D) Consecutive co-ordinate
A) 316° 10' B) 158° 28' Answer: Option A
C) 348° 08' D) 43° 52' 510. The bearing of C from A is N 30° E and from B, 50 metres
east of A, is N 60° W. The departure of C from A is
Answer: Option D
A) 50 m B) 50 m
507. For a curve of radius 100 m and normal chord 10 m, the
Rankine's deflection angle, is C) 25 m D) 25 m
A) 0°25'.95 B) 0°35'.95 Answer: Option D
C) 1°25'.53 D) 2°51'.53 511. If h1 and h2 are the differences in level between ground and
the formation levels, m is the slope of the sloping sides. D is the
Answer: Option D distance between the cross sections then, Pr ismoidal correction
for a level section is
The reduced bearing of a line is N 87° W. Its whole circle
bearing is A) D/2m(h1 - h2) B) D/3m(h1 - h2)
A) 87° B) 273° C) D/6m(h1 - h2)2 D) D/6m(h1 - h2)3
C) 93° D) 3° Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
512. While surveying a plot of land by plane tabling, the field bearing of the closing error will be approximately the same as
observations that of the leg in which the gross error consists
A) And plotting proceed simultaneously D) All the above
B) And plotting do not proceed simultaneously Answer: Option D
C) And recorded in field books to be plotted later 516. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
D) All the above A) The eyepiece plays no part in defining the line of sight
Answer: Option A B) The diaphragm plays no part in defining the l ine of sight
513. The back staff reading on a B.M. of R.L. 500.000 m is C) The optical centre of the objective plays no part in defining the
2.685 m. If foresight reading on a point is 1.345 m, the line of sight
reduced level of the point, is
D) None of these
A) 502.685 m B) 501.345 m
Answer: Option A
C) 501.340 m D) 504.030 m
517. In an adjusted level, when the bubble is central, the axis of
Answer: Option C the bubble tube becomes parallel to
514. If is in kilometers, the curvature correction is A) Line of sight B) Line of collimation
A) 58.2 L2 mm B) 64.8 L2mm C) Axis of the telescope D) None of these
C) 74.8 L2 mm D) 78.4 L2mm Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D 518. Ranging is an operation of
515. Pick up the correct statement from the following: A) Reconnaissance B) Judging the distance
A) To locate a gross error in bearing that may exist in C) Determination of slope D) Establishing intermediate points
controlled theodolite trav erse, we may plot the traverse from between terminals
each end. The traverse station having the same coordinates by
each route is the one where the error lies Answer: Option D
B) To locate a gross error in bearing, in a controlled travers e, 519. Permanent adjustments of a level are
we plot the traverse and the station through which
perpendicular to sector of the closin g line passes is the station A) 2 in number B) 3 in number
at which the error was made
C) 4 in number D) 6 in number
C) To locate a gross error due to taping in a controlled
traverse, we plot the traverse to a convenient scale. The Answer: Option A
520. Systematic errors are those errors Answer: Option B
A) Which cannot be recognized 524. Orientation of a plane table by solving two point problems is
only adopted when
B) Whose character is understood
A) Saving of time is a main factor B) Better accuracy is a main
C) Whose effects are cumulative and can be eliminated factor
D) None of these C) Given points are inaccessible D) None of these
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C
521. A dumpy level was set up at mid-point between pegs A 525. If is the speed of a locomotive in km per hour, g is the
and B, 80 m apart and the staff readings were 1.32 and 1.56. acceleration due to gravity, is the distance between running faces
When the level was set up at a point 10 m from A on BA of the rails and is the radius of the circular curve, the required
produced, the staff readings obtained at A and B were 1.11 super elevation is
and 1.39. The correct staff reading from this set up at S should
be A) gV²/GR B) Rg/GV²
A) 1.435 B) 1.345 C) GR/gV² D) GV²/gR
C) 1.425 D) None of these Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B 526. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
522. A transit is oriented by setting its vernier A to read the A) Spherical aberration may be reduced by diminishing the
back azimuth of the preceding line. A back sight on the aperture
preceding transit station taken and transit is rotat ed about its
vertical axis. The vernier A reads B) Spherical aberration may be minimized by replacing the single
lens by a combination of the lenses
A) Azimuth of the forward line B) Bearing of the forward line
C) In telescope objectives, a combination of convex lens and
C) Back bearing of the forward line concave lens is used
D) Equal to 360°-azimuth of the forward line D) All the above
523. Two hill tops and 20 km apart are intervened by a third 527. The method generally preferred to for contouring an
top. If the top most contour of the three hill tops are of the undulating area, is
same value, state whether the line of sight AB
A) Chain surveying B) Plane table surveying
A) Passes clear of hill top C B) Passes below the hill top C
C) Tacheometrical surveying D) Compass surveying
C) Grazes the hill top C D) None of these
Answer: Option C
528. The bearings of two traverse legs AB and BC are N52° 45' 532. Measuring with a 30 m chain, 0.01 m too short, introduces
E and N34° 30' E respectively. The deflection angle is
A) Positive compensating error B) Negative compensating error
A) 18° 15' E B) 18° 15' N
C) Positive cumulative error D) Negative cumulative error
C) 18° 15' W D) 18° 15' L
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
533. Staff readings on pegs x and y from X station are 1.755 m
529. In a theodolite and 2.850 m, and from station Y on staff head at Y and X are
0.655 m and 1.560 m. If reduced level of X is 105.5 m, the
A) The telescope axis is perpendicular to transit axis reduced level of Y is
B) The axis of rotation is perpendicular to transit axis A) 104.0 m B) 104.5 m
C) The telescope axis, the transit axis and the rotation axis C) 105.0 m D) 105.5 m
pass through the centre of theodolite
Answer: Option B
D) All the above
534. Metric chains are generally available in
Answer: Option D
A) 10 m and 20 m length B) 15 m and 20 m length
530. For taking offsets with an optical square on the right C) 20 m and 30 m length D) 25 m and 100 m length
hand side of the chain line, it is held
Answer: Option C
A) By right hand upside down B) By left hand upright
C) By right hand upright D) By left hand upside down 535. The bearing of AB is 190° and that of CB is 260° 30'. The
included angle ABC, is
Answer: Option B
A) 80° 30' B) 99° 30'
531. The magnetic meridian at any point, is the direction
indicated by a freely suspended C) 70° 30' D) None of these
A) Magnetic needle Answer: Option C
B) And properly balanced magnetic needle 536. Planimeter is used for measuring
C) Properly balanced and uninfluenced by local attractive force A) Volume B) Area
D) Magnetic needle over an iron pivot C) Contour gradient D) Slope angle

537. Bergschrund is a topographical feature in D) Clockwise from the back station
A) Plains B) Water bodies Answer: Option D
C) Hills D) Glaciated region 542. An ideal vertical curve to join two gradients, is
Answer: Option B A) Circular B) Parabolic
538. A relatively fixed point of known elevation above datum, C) Elliptical D) Hyperbolic
is called
Answer: Option B
A) Bench mark B) Datum point
543. The bubble tube is nearly filled with
C) Reduced level D) Reference point
A) Alcohol or chloroform B) A liquid which is very mobile
Answer: Option A
C) A liquid having low freezing point D) All the above
539. The power of a lens
Answer: Option D
A) Is reciprocal of its focal length
544. Perpendicular offset from a tangent to the junction of a
B) Is positive if it is a convex lens transition curve and circular curve is equal to
C) Is negative if it is a concave lens D) Is measured in Diopter A) Shift B) Twice the shift
Answer: Option D C) Thrice the shift D) Four times the shift
540. The approximate formula for radial or perpendicular Answer: Option D

offsets from the tangent, is
545. Determining the difference in elevation between two
A) x/2R B) x²/2R points on the surface of the earth, is known as
C) x/R D) x²/R A) Levelling B) Simple levelling
Answer: Option B C) Differential levelling D) Longitudinal levelling
541. The included angles of a theodolite traverse, are Answer: Option C

generally measured
546. The distance between terminal points computed from a
A) Clockwise from the forward station subsidiary traverse run between them, is generally known, as
B) Anti-clockwise from the back station A) Traverse leg B) A base
C) Anti-clockwise from the forward station C) Traverse base D) All the above
Answer: Option C
547. Pick up the method of surveying in which field Answer: Option B
observations and plotting proceed simultaneously from the
following 552. The limiting length of an offset does not depend upon
A) Chain surveying B) Compass surveying A) Accuracy of the work B) Method of setting out perpendiculars
C) Plan table surveying D) Tacheometric surveying C) Scale of plotting D) Indefinite features to be surveyed
548. In a telescope the object glass of focal length 14 cm, is 553. Which one of the following procedures for getting accurate
located at 20 cm from the diaphragm. The focusing lens is orientation is the most distinctive feature of the art of plane
midway between them when a staff 16.50 m away is focused. tabling?
The focal length of the focusing lens, is
A) 5.24 cm B) 6.24 cm A) Radiation B) Intersection
C) 7.24 cm D) 8.24 cm C) Traversing D) Resection
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
549. The main principle of surveying is to work
554. In a closed traverse, sum of south latitudes exceeds the sum
A) From part to the whole B) From whole to the part of north latitudes and the sum of east departures exceeds the
sum of west departures, then, the closing line will lie in
C) From higher level to the lower level
A) North-west quadrant B) North-east quadrant
D) From lower level to higher level
C) South-east quadrant D) South-west quadrant
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
550. The rise and fall method of reduction of levels, provides a
check on 555. If the declination of the needle is 10° W
A) Back sights B) Fore sights A) Each of the whole circle reckoning has to be micros by 10°
C) Intermediate sights D) All of these B) In the quadrantal method, the correction is positive in the 1st
and 3rd quadrants
Answer: Option D
C) In the quadrantal method, the corrections is ne gative in 2nd
551. The surface of zero elevation around the earth, which is and 4th quadrants
slightly irregular and curved, is known as
D) All the above
A) Mean sea level B) Geoid surface
Answer: Option D
C) Level surface D) Horizontal surface
556. If the rate of gain of radial acceleration is 0.3 m per sec3 D) It is provided with a prism to facilitate reading of its graduated
and full centrifugal ratio is developed. On the curve the ratio circle
of the length of the transition curve of same radius on road
and railway, is Answer: Option D
A) 2.828 B) 3.828 561. The most reliable method of plotting a theodolite traverse,
is
C) 1.828 D) 0.828
A) By consecutive co-ordinates of each station
Answer: Option A
B) By independent co-ordinates of each station
557. The apparent error on reversal is
C) By plotting included angles and scaling off each traverse leg
A) Equal to the actual error B) Twice the actual error
D) By the tangent method of p lotting
C) Thrice the actual error D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
562. The distance between steps for measuring downhill to
558. If the long chord and tangent length of a circular curve of obtain better accuracy
radius R are equal the angle of deflection, is
A) Decreases with decrease of slope
A) 30° B) 60°
B) Increases with increase of slope
C) 90° D) 120°
C) Decreases with increase of slope
Answer: Option D
D) Decreases with decrease of weight of the chain
559. Cross hairs in surveying telescopes, are fitted
Answer: Option C
A) In the objective glass B) At the centre of the telescope
563. The boundary of water of a still lake represents
C) At the optical centre of the eye piece
A) Level surface B) Horizontal surface
D) In front of the eye piece
C) Contour line D) A concave surface
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
560. Prismatic compass is considered more accurate than a
surveyor's compass, because 564. The 10 mm markings on a levelling staff placed at 20 m are
separated by
A) It is provided with a better magnetic needle
A) 1/1000 radian B) 1/1500 radian
B) It is provided with a sliding glass in the object vane
C) 1/2000 radian D) 1/2500 radian
C) Its graduations are in whole circle bearings
Answer: Option C
565. For high sensivity of the bubble tube 670. The orthographical projection of a traverse leg upon the
reference meridian, is known as
A) A liquid of low viscosity is used
A) Departure of leg B) Latitude to the leg
B) A liquid of low surface tension is used
C) Co-ordinate of the leg D) Bearing of the leg
C) The bubble space should be long D) All the above
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
571. The distances AC and BC are measured from two fixed
567. The radius of curvature of the arc of the bubble tube is points A and B whose distance AB is known. The point C is plotted
generally kept by intersection. This method is generally adopted in
A) 10 m B) 25 m A) Chain surveying B) Traverse method of surveys
C) 50 m D) 100 m C) Triangulation D) None of these
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A
568. The direction of steepest slope on a contour, is 572. The defect of a lens whereby rays of white light proceeding
from a point get dispersed into their components and conveyed
A) Along the contour B) At an angle of 45° to the contour to various foci, forming a blurred and colored image is known as
C) At right angles to the contour D) None of these A) Chromatic aberration B) Spherical aberration
Answer: Option C C) Astigmatism D) Coma
Answer: Option A
569. The difference of level between a point below the plane
of sight and one above, is the sum of two staff readings and an 573. A uniform slope was measured by the method of stepping. If
error would be produced equal to the difference in level between two points is 1.8 m and the slope
distance between them is 15 m, the error is approximately e qual
A) The distance between the zero of gradient and the foot of to
the staff A) Cumulative, + 0.11 m B) Compensating, ± 0.11 m
B) Twice the distance between the zero of graduation and the C) Cumulative, - 0.11 m D) None of these
foot of the staff
Answer: Option A
C) Thrice the distance between the zero of graduation and the
foot of the staff 574. In a constant level tube, size of the bubble remains constant
because upper wall is
D) None of the above
A) Of relatively larger radius B) Of relatively smaller radius
Answer: Option B
C) Flat D) Convex downwards
Answer: Option A
579. Contours of different elevations may cross each other only
in the case of
575. In tangential tacheometry, an ordinary level staff is used
A) An overhanging cliff B) A vertical cliff
A) Leaning towards the instrument for inclined sights upward
C) A saddle D) An inclined plane
B) Leaning away from the instrument for inclined sights
downwards Answer: Option A
C) Vertical in all cases D) None of these 580. In chain surveying, perpendiculars to the chain line are set
out by
Answer: Option C
A) A theodolite B) A prismatic compass
576. Stadia tacheometry was discovered by James Watt in the
year C) A level D) An optical square
A) 1670 B) 1770 Answer: Option D
C) 1870 D) 1900 581. A lens or combination of lenses in which the following

defect is completely eliminated is called aplanatic
Answer: Option B
A) Spherical aberration B) Chromatic aberration
577. Surveys which are carried out to provide a national grid
of control for preparation of accurate maps of large areas are C) Coma D) Astigmatism
known
Answer: Option A
A) Plane surveys B) Geodetic surveys
582. The diaphragm of a stadia theodolite is fitted with two
C) Geographical surveys D) Topographical surveys additional
Answer: Option B A) Horizontal hairs B) Vertical hairs
578. In reciprocal levelling, the error which is not completely C) Horizontal and two vertical hairs D) None of these
eliminated, is due to
Answer: Option A
A) Earth's curvature
583. Magnetic bearing of a survey line at any place
B) Non-adjustment of line of collimation
A) Remains constant B) Changes systematically
C) Refraction D) Non-adjustment of the bubble tube
C) Varies differently in different months of the year
Answer: Option C
D) Is always greater than true bearing
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
584. The first reading from a level station is
589. The chaining on sloping ground is
A) Foresight B) Intermediate sight
A) Easier along the falling gradient
C) Back-sight D) Any sight
B) Easier along the up gradient
Answer: Option C
C) Equally convenient along falling as well as up gradient
585. While rotating the theodolite in the horizontal plane, the
bubble of the bubble tube takes up the same position in its D) All the above
tube, it indicates
Answer: Option A
A) The rotation axis is vertical B) The trunnion axis is horizontal
590. The additional lines which are measured to show the
C) The line of collimation is perpendicular to vertical axis correctness of the chain surveying are called:
D) None of the above A) Check clines B) Proof lines
Answer: Option A C) Tie lines D) All of these
586. Cross-staff is used for Answer: Option D
A) Setting out right angles B) Measuring contour gradient 591. The best method of interpolation of contours, is by
C) Taking levels D) Measuring distances A) Estimation B) Graphical means
Answer: Option A C) Computation D) All of these
587. The staff intercept will be Answer: Option C
A) Greater farther off the staff is held 592. Greater accuracy in linear measurements, is obtained by
B) Smaller, farther off the staff is held A) Tacheometry B) Direct chaining
C) Smaller, nearer the staff is held C) Direct taping D) All the above
D) Same, wherever the staff is held Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B 593. If the whole circle bearing of a line is 180°, its r educed
bearing is
588. A bearing of a line is also known as
A) S 0° E B) S 0° W
A) Magnetic bearing B) True bearing
C) S D) N
C) Azimuth D) Reduced bearing Answer: Option C
599. If deflection angles are measured in a closed traverse, the
594. For indirect ranging, number of ranging rods required, is difference between the sum of the right-hand and that of the left
hand angles should be equal to
A) 1 B) 2
A) 0° B) 90°
C) 3 D) 4
C) 180° D) 360°
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
595. An ideal transition curve is
600. The accuracy of measurement in chain surveying, does not
A) Cubic parabola B) Cubic spiral depend upon
C) Clothoid spiral D) True spiral A) Length of the offset B) Scale of the plotting
Answer: Option C C) Importance of the features D) General layout of the chain lines
596. Ranging in chain survey means Answer: Option D
A) Looking at an isolated point not on the line 601. The true meridian of a place is the line in which earth's
surface is intersected by a plane through
B) Establishing an intermediate point on the line
A) East and west point’s B) Zenith and nadir points
C) Determining the distance between end points
C) North and south geographical poles
D) Determining the offset distance
D) North and south magnetic poles
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
597. A well-conditioned triangle has no angle less than
602. The area of any irregular figure of the plotted map is
A) 20° B) 30° measured with
C) 45° D) 60° A) Pantograph B) Sextant
Answer: Option B C) Clinometer D) Planimeter
598. Deviation of the actual road gradient from the proposed Answer: Option D
contour gradient uphill side, involves
603. The construction of optical square is based, on the principle
A) Embankment on the centre line of optical
B) Excavation on the centre line A) Reflection B) Refraction
C) Earth work on the centre line D) None of these C) Double refraction D) Double reflection

Answer: Option A
604. The angle of intersection of a contour and a ridge line, is
609. The angle between two plane mirrors of optical square, is
A) 30° B) 45°
A) 20° B) 30°
C) 60° D) 90°
C) 45° D) 60°
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
605. The 'fix' of a plane table from t hree known points, is
good, if 610. With usual notations, the expression V²/gR represents
A) Middle station is nearest B) Middle station is farthest A) Centrifugal force B) Centrifugal ratio
C) Either the right or left station is nearest D) None of these C) Super elevation D) Radial acceleration
606. Removal of parallax, may be achieved by focussing 611. Profile levelling is usually done for determining
A) The objective B) The eye-piece A) Contours of an area B) Capacity of a reservoir
C) The objective and the eye-piece D) None of these C) Elevations along a straight line D) Boundaries of property
607. A back sight 612. Perpendicularity of an offset may be judged by eye, if the
length of the offset is
A) Is always taken on a point of known elevation or can be
computed A) 5m B) 10 m
B) Is added to the known level to obtain the instrument heig ht C) 15 m D) 20 m
C) Taken on an inverted staff is treated as negative Answer: Option C
D) All the above 613. If the radius of a simple curve is 600 m, the maximum length
of the chord for calculating offsets, is taken
Answer: Option D
A) 15 m B) 20 m
608. You have to observe an included angle with better
accuracy than what is achievable by a vernier, you will prefer C) 25 m D) 30 m
the method of
Answer: Option D
A) Repetition B) Reiteration
C) Double observations D) Exactness

Model Test-01
614. A sewer is laid from a manhole to a manhole, 250 m
away along a gradient of 1 in 125. If the reduced level of the 1. The main principle of surveying is to work
invert at is 205.75 m and the height of the boning rod is 3 m,
the reduced A) from part to the whole B) from whole to the part
level of the sight rail at , is
C) from higher level to the lower level
A) 208.75 m B) 202.75 m
D) From lower level to higher level
C) 206.75 m D) 211.75 m
2. One of the tacheometric constants is additive, the other
Answer: Option C constant, is
615. For preparation of a contour plan for a route survey A) subtractive constant B) multiplying constant
A) Method of squares is used C) dividing constant D) indicative constant
B) Method of trace contour is used 3. If θ is the slope of the ground and l is the measured distance,
the correction is
C) Method of cross profile is used
A) 2l sin2 θ/2 B) 2l cos2 θ/2
D) Indirect method of contouring is used
C) 2l tan2 θ/2 D) 2l cot2 θ/2
Answer: Option C
4. For true difference in elevations between two points A and B,
616. Geodetic surveying is undertaken the level must be set up
A) For production of accurate maps of wide areas A) at any point between A and B
B) For developing the science of geodesy B) at the exact midpoint of A and B
C) Making use of most accurate instruments and methods of C) Near the point A D) near the point B
observation
5. Accuracy of 'fix' by two point problem, is
D) All the above
A) bad B) good
Answer: Option D
C) not reliable D) unique
617. Subtense tacheometry is generally preferred to if ground
is 6. A bearing of a line is also known as
A) Flat B) Undulating A) magnetic bearing B) true bearing
C) Mountainous D) Deserts C) azimuth D) reduced bearing
Answer: Option B Answer 1.B 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.C 6.B

7. While viewing through a level telescope and moving the eye 12. If the radius of a simple curve is R, the length of the chord for
slightly, a relative movement occurs between the image of the calculating offsets by the method of chords produced, should not
levelling staff and the cross hairs. The instrument is exceed
A) Correctly focused B) not correctly focused A) R/10 B) R/15
C) Said to have parallax D) free from parallax C) R/20 D) R/25
8) Pick up the correct statement from the following : 13. The intercept of a staff
A) the eyepiece plays no part in defining the line of sight A) is maximum if the staff is held truly normal to the line of sight
B) the diaphragm plays no part in defining the line of sight B) is minimum if the staff is held truly normal to the line of sight
C) the optical centre of the objective plays no part in defining C) decreases if the staff is tilted away from normal
the line of sight
D) increases if the staff is tilted towards normal
D) none of these
14. Hydrographic surveys deal with the mapping of
9. If θ is the slope of the ground and l is the measured
distance, the correction is A) large water bodies B) heavenly bodies
A) 2l sin2 θ/2 B) 2l cos2 θ/2 C) mountaineous region D) canal system
C) 2l tan2 θ/2 D) 2l cot2 θ/2 15. The most reliable method of plotting a theodolite traverse, is
10. For the construction of highway (or railway) A) by consecutive co-ordinates of each station
A) longitudinal sections are required B) by independent co-ordinates of each station
B) cross sections are required C) by plotting included angles and scaling off each traverse leg
C) both longitudinal and cross sections are required D) by the tangent method of plotting
D) none of these 16. True meridians are generally preferred to magnetic meridians
because
11. The sensitiveness of a level tube decreases if
A) these converge to a point
A) radius of curvature of its inner surface is increased
B) these change due to change in time
B) diameter of the tube is increased
C) these remain constant. D. None of these
C) length of the vapour bubble is increased
Answer 7.C 8.A 9.A 10.C 11.D
D) both viscosity and surface tension are increased 12.C 13.B 14.A 15.B 16.C
17. In quadrantal bearing system, back bearing of a line may C) dip D) bearing
be obtained from its forward bearing, by
22. The diaphragm of a stadia theodolite is fitted with two
A) adding 180°, if the given bearing is less than 180° additional
B) changing the cardinal points, i.e. substituting N for S and E A) horizontal hairs B) vertical hairs
for W and vice-versa
C) horizontal and two vertical hairs D) none of these
C) subtracting 180°, if the given bearing, is more than 180°
23. The best method of interpolation of contours, is by
D) none of these
A) estimation B) graphical means
18. The difference of level between a point below the plane of
sight and one above, is the sum of two staff readings and an C) computation D) all of these
error would be produced equal to
24. Measuring with a 30 m chain, 0.01 m too short, introduces
A) the distance between the zero of gradient and the foot of
the staff A) positive compensating error B) negative compensating err or
B) twice the distance bet ween the zero of graduation and the C) positive cumulative error D) negative cumulative error
foot of the staff
25. The latitude of a traverse leg is obtained by multiplying its
C) thrice the distance between the zero of graduation and the length by
foot of the staff
A) tangent of its reduced bearing B) sign of its reduced bearing
C) cosine of its reduced bearing D) cosecant of its reduced
19. An ideal vertical curve to join two gradients, is bearing
A) circular B) parabolic
26. The angle between two plane mirrors of optical square, is
C) elliptical D) hyperbolic
A) 20° B) 30°
20. Pick up the method of surveying in which field
observations and plotting proceed simultaneously from the C) 45° D) 60°
following
27. Setting out a curve by two theodolite method, involves
A) chain surveying B) compass surveying
A) linear measurements only B) angular measurements only
C) plan table surveying D) tacheometric surveying
C) both linear and angular measurements D) none of these
21. The vertical angle between longitudinal axis of a freely
suspended magnetic needle and a horizontal line at its pivot, is
known
Answer 17.B 18.B 19.B 20.C 21.C 22.A
A) declination B) azimuth 23.C 24.C 25.C 36.C 27.B
28. Orientation of a plane table by solving two point problem C) enlarging or reducing plans D) setting out right angles
is only adopted when
34. The operation of making the algebraic sum of latitudes and
A. saving of time is a main factor departures of a closed traverse, each equal to zero, is known
B. better accuracy is a main factor A) Balancing the sights B) balancing the departures
C. given points are inaccessible D. none of these C) Balancing the latitudes D) balancing the traverse
29. True meridian of different places 35. Cross hairs in surveying telescopes, are fitted
A) converge from the south pole to the north pole A) in the objective glass B) at the centre of the telescope
B) converge from the north pole to the south pole C) at the optical centre of the eye piece
C) converge from the equator to the poles D) in front of the eye piece
D) run parallel to each other 36. An ideal transition curve is
30. A relatively fixed point of known elevation above datum, A) cubic parabola B) cubic spiral
is called
C) clothoid spiral D) true spiral
A) bench mark B) datum point
37. Metric chains are generally available in
C) reduced level D) reference point
A) 10 m and 20 m length B) 15 m and 20 m length
31. On a diagonal scale, it is possible to read up to
C) 20 m and 30 m length D) 25 m and 100 m length
A) one dimension B) two dimensions
38. If the angular measurements of a traverse are more precise
C) three dimensions D) four dimensions than its linear measurements, balancing of the traverse, is done
by
32. Centering error of a theodolite produces an error
A) Bowditch's rule B) Transit rule
A. in all angles equally
C) Empirical rule D) all of the above
B. which does not vary with the direction or pointing
39. Plotting of inaccessible points on a plane table, is done by
C. which varies with the direction of pointing and inversely
with the length of sight A. intersection B. traversing
D. none of these C. radiation D. none of these
13. Pantagraph is used for Answer 28.C 29.C 30.A 31.C 32.C 33.C
34.D 35.D 36.C 37.C 38.B 39.A
A) measuring distances B) measuring areas
40. In levelling operation 45. When the bubble of the level tube of a level, remains central
A) when the instrument is being shifted, the staff must not be A) line of sight is horizontal B) axis of the telescope is horizontal
moved
C. line of collimation is horizontal
B) when the staff is being carried forward, the instrument
must remain stationary D. geometrical axis of the telescope is horizontal
C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) 46. Deviation of the actual road gradient from the proposed
contou'r gradient up hill side, involves
41. Two hill tops A and B 20 km apart are intervened by a
third top C. If the top most contour of the three hill tops are of A. embankment on the centre line
the same value, state whether the line of sight AB
B. excavation on the centre line
A) passes clear of hill top C B) passes below the hill top C
C. earth work on the centre line D. none of these
C) grazes the hill top C D) none of these
47. The construction of optical square is based, on the principle
42. The sum of the interior angles of a geometrical figure laid of optical
on the surface of the earth differs from that of the
corresponding plane figure only to the extent of one second A. reflection B. refraction
for every
C. double refraction D. double reflection
A) 100 sq. km of area B) 150 sq. km of area
48. If the smallest division of a vernier is longer than the smallest
C) 200 sq. km of area D) none of these division of its primary scale, the vernier is known as
43. For setting out a simple curve, using two theodolites. A. direct vernier B. double vernier
A) offsets from tangents are required C. retrograde vernier D. simple vernier
B) offsets from chord produced are required 49. The least count of a vernier scale is
C) offsets from long chord are required A. sum of the smallest divisions of main and vernier scales
D) deflection angles from Rankine's formula are required B. value of one division of the primary scale divided by total
number of divisions of vernier scale
E) none of these
C. value of one division of vernier scale divided by total number
44. The systematic errors which persist and have regular of divisions of primary scale
effects in the performance of a survey oper ation, are due to
D. none of these
A) carelessness B) faulty instrument
C) inattention D) none of these Answer 40.C 41.B 42.C 43.E 44.B

45.A 46.B 47.A 48.C 49.B
50. A traverse deflection angle is 56. The longitudinal section of the surface of bubble tube is
A) less than 90 B) more than 90° but less than 180° A) straight B) circular
C) the difference between the included angle and 180° C) parabolic D) elliptic
D) the difference between 360° and the included angle 57. Imaginary line passing through points having equal magnetic
declination is termed as
51. Which one of the following procedures for getting
accurate orientation is the most distinctive feature of the art A) isogon B) agonic line
of plane tabling
C) isoclinic line D) none of these
A) radiation B) intersection
58. Prismatic compass is considered more accurate than a
C) traversing D) resection surveyor's compass, because
52. The Random errors tend to accumulate proportionally to A) it is provided with a better magnetic needle
A) numbers of operations involved B) it is provided with a sliding glass in the object vane
B) reciprocal of operations involved C) its graduations are in whole circle bearings
C) square root of the number of operation involved D) it is provided with a prism to facilitate reading of its graduated
circle
D) cube root of the number of operation involved
59. In reciprocal levelling, the error which is not completely
53. The 'point of curve' of a simple circular curve, is eliminated, is due to
A) point of tangency B) point of commencement A) earth’s curvature B) non-adjustment of line of collimation
C) point of intersection D) mid-point of the curve C) refraction D) non-adjustment of the bubble tube
54. The curve composed of two arcs of different radii having 60. Removal of parallax, may be achieved by focussing
their centres on the opposite side of the curve, is known
A) the objective B) the eye-piece
A) a simple curve B) a compound curve
C) the objective and the eye-piece D) none of these
C) a reverse curve D) a vertical curve
61. Back bearing of a line is equal to
55. The direction of steepest slope on a contour, is
A. Fore bearing ± 90° B. Fore bearing ± 180°
A) along the contour
C. Fore bearing ± 360° D. Fore bearing ± 270°
B) at an angle of 45° to the contour
Answer 50.C 51.D 52.C 53.B 54.C 55.C
C) at right angles to the contour D) none of these 56.B 57.A 58.D 59.C 60.C 61.B
62. In a constant level tube, size of the bubble remains C) north and south geographical poles D) north and south
constant because upper wall is magnetic poles
A) of relatively larger radius B) of relatively smaller radius 67. While rotating the theodolite in the horizontal plane, the
bubble of the bubble tube takes up the same position in its tube,
C) flat D) convex downwards it indicates
63. The ratio of the angles subtended at the eye, by the virtual A) the rotation axis is vertical B) the trummion axis is horizontal
image and the object, is known as telescope's
C) the line of collimation is perpendicular to vertical axis
A) resolving power B) brightness
C) field of view D) magnification
68. Diurnal variation of magnetic declination is
64. Simpson's rule for calculating areas states that the area
enclosed by a curvilinear figure divided into an even number A) greater at equator than nearer the poles
of strips of equal width, is equal to
B) less at equator than nearer the poles C) less in summer
A) half the width of a strip, multiplied by the sum of two than in winter
extreme offsets, twice the sum of remaining odd offsets, and
thrice the sum of the even offsets D) same at all latitudes and during different months
B) one third the width of a strip, multiplied by the sum of two 69. The main plate of a transit is divided into 1080 equal
extreme offsets, twice the sum of remaining odd offsets and divisions. 60 divisions of the vernier coincide exactly with 59
four times the sum of the even offsets divisions of the main plate. The transit can read angles accurate
up to
C) one third the width of a strip, multiplied by the sum of two
extreme offsets, four times the sum of the remaining odd A) 5" B) 10"
offsets, and twice the sum of the even offsets
C) 15" D) 20"
D) one sixth the width of a strip, multiplied by the sum of the
two extreme offsets, twice th e sum of remaining odd offsets 70. A clinometer is used for
and four times the sum of the even offsets
A) measuring angle of slope B) correcting line of collimation
65. The 'fix' of a plane table from three known points, is
good, if C) setting out right angles D) defining natural features
A) middle station is nearest B) middle station is farthest 71. In tacheometrical observations, vertical staff holding is
generally preferred to normal staffing, due to
C) either the right or left station is nearest D) none of these
A. ease of reduction of observations B. facility of holding
66. The true meridian of a place is the line in which earth's
surface is intersected by a plane through C. minimum effect of careless holding on the result D. none of
these
A) east and west point’s B) zenith and nadir points Answer 62. A 63. D 64. B 65. A 66. C
67. A 68. B 69. D 70. A 71. C
72. The slope correction may be ignored if 78. The distance between steps for measuring downhill to obtain
better accuracy
A) the slope of the ground is less than 3°
A) decreases with decrease of slope
B) to slope of the ground is say 1 in 19
B) increases with increase of slope
C) Both (a) and (b) D. neither (a) nor (b)
C) decreases with increase of slope
73. The method of finding out the difference in elevation
between two points for eliminating the effe ct of curvature and D) decreases with decrease of weight of the chain
refraction, is
79. Ramsden eye-piece consists of
A) reciprocal levelling B) precise levelling
A) two convex lenses short distance apart
C) differential levelling D) flying levelling
B) two concave lenses short distance apart
74. Surveys which are carried out to depict mountains, rivers,
water bodies, wooded areas and other cultural details, are C) one convex lens and one concave lens short distance apart
known as
D) two plano-convex lenses short distance apart, with the
A) cadastral surveys B) city surveys convex surfaces facing each other.
C) topographical surveys D) guide map surveys 80. Systematic errors are those errors
75. ABCD is a rectangular plot of land. If t he bearing of the A) which cannot be recognized B) whose character is understood
side AB is 75°, the bearing of DC is
C) whose effects are cumulative and can be eliminated
A) 75° B) 255°
D) none of these
C) 105° D) 285°
81. The whole circle bearing of a line is 290°. Its reduced bearing
76. The reduced bearing of a line is N 87° W. Its whole circle is
bearing is
A) N 20° E B) N 20° W
A) 87° B) 273°
C) N 70° W D) S 70° E
C) 93° D) 3°
82. Which one of the following mistakes/errors may be
77. Total latitude of a point is positive if it lies cumulative + or - :
A) north of the reference parallel A) bad ranging B) bad straightening
B) south of the reference parall el C) erroneous length of chain D) sag
C) east of the reference parallel Answer 72.C 73.A 74. C 75. A 76. B 77. A
78. C 79. D 80. C 81. C 82. C
D) west of the reference parallel
83. The minimum range for sliding the focusing lens in the 88. An angle of deflection right, may be directly ob tained by
internal focusing telescope for focusing at all distances beyond setting the instrument to read
4 m is
A) zero on back station B) 180° on back station
A) 5 mm B) 10 mm
C) 90° D) 270° on back station
C) 15 mm D) 20 mm
89. Magnetic declination at any place
84. The horizontal angle between true meridian and magnetic
meridian, is known A) Remains constant B) does not remain constant
A) bearing B) magnetic declination C) Fluctuates D) changes abruptly
C) dip D) convergence 90. The apparent error on reversal is
85. Transition curves are introduced at either end of a circular A) Equal to the actual error B) twice the actual error
curve, to obtain
C) Thrice the actual error D) none of these
A) gradually decrease of curvature from zero at the tangent
point to the specified quantity at the junction of the transiti on 91. If L is in kilometers, the curvature correction is
curve with main curve
A) 58.2 L2 mm B) 64.8 L2 mm
B) gradual increase of super-elevation from zero at the
tangent point to the specified amount at the junction of the C) 74.8 L2 mm D) 78.4 L2 mm
transition curve with main curve
92. With usual notations, the expression V^2/gR represents
C) gradual change of gradient from zero at the tangent point
to the specified amount at the junction of the transition curve A) centrifugal force B) centrifugal ratio
with main curve
C) super elevation D) radial acceleration
D) none of these
93. The orthographical projection of a traverse leg upon the
86. Grid lines are parallel to reference meridian, is known as
A) magnetic meridian of the central point of the grid A) departure of leg B) latitude to the leg
B) line representing the central true meridian of the grid C) co-ordinate of the leg D) bearing of the leg
C) geographical equator D) none of these 94. The method of finding out the difference in elevation
between two points for eliminating the effect of curvature and
87. The tangent to the liquid surface in a level tube, is parallel refraction, is
to the axis of the level tube at A) Reciprocal levelling B) Precise levelling
A) every point of the bubble B) either end of the bubble C) Differential levelling D) Flying levelling
C) the mid-point of the bubble D) nowhere Answer 83. D 84. B 85. B 86. B 87. C 88. A
89.B 90. B 91. D 92. B 93. B 94.A
95. A tape of length and weight kg/m is suspended at its ends 101. The slope correction may be ignored if
with a pull of
correction is A) The slope of the ground is less than 3°
A) l3W²/24P² B) l²W3/24P² B) To slope of the ground is say 1 in 19
C) l²W²/24P3 D) lW²/24P C) Both (a) and (b) D) Neither (a) nor (b)
96. Accuracy of 'fix' by two point problem, is 102. Closed contours of decreasing values towards their centre,
represent
A) Bad B) Good
A) A hill B) A depression
C) Not reliable D) Unique
C) A saddle or pass D) A river bed
97. The 'fix' of a plane table station with three known points,
is bad if the plane table station lies 103. Pantograph is used for
A) In the great triangle B) Outside the great triangle A) Measuring distances B) Measuring areas
C) On the circumference of the circumscribing circle C) Enlarging or reducing plans D) Setting out right angles
D) None of these 104. The longitudinal section of the surface of bubble tube is
98. The magnetic bearing of a line is 32° and the magnetic A) Straight B) Circular
declination is 10° 15' W. The true bearing is
C) Parabolic D) Elliptic
A) 21° 45' B) 42° 15'
105. Diaphragm of a surveying telescope is held inside
C) 42° 15' W D) 21° 45' W
A) Eye-piece B) Objective
99. Contour lines of different elevations can unite to form
one line, only in the case of C) Telescope tube at its mid-point
A) A vertical cliff B) A saddle D) Telescope at the end nearer the eye-piece
C) A water shed line D) A hill top 106. One of the tacheometric constants i s additive, the other
constant, is
100. The whole circle bearing of a line is 290°. Its reduced
bearing is A) Subtractive constant B) Multiplying constant
A) N 20° E B) N 20° W C) Dividing constant D) Indicative constant
C) N 70° W D) S 70° E Answer 95. A 96. C 97. C 98. A 99. A 100. C

101. C 102. B 103. C 104. B 105. D 106. B
D) all of the above
Irrigation Engineering
Answer: Option D
1. Borrow pits should preferably be located in
5. The consumptive use of water for a crop
A) field on the left side of the canal
A) Is measured as the volume of water per unit area
B) field on the right side of the canal
B) Is measured as depth of water on irrigated area
C) fields on both sides of the canal
C) be supplied partly by precipitation and partly by irrigation
D) central half width of the section of the canal.
D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
2. Irrigation canals are generally aligned along
6. Canals taken off from ice-fed perennial rivers, are known
A) ridge line B) contour line
A) Permanent canals B) Ridge canals
C) valley line D) straight line
C) Perennial canals D) Inundation canals
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
3. The length of a meander is the distance along the river
between the tangent point of one curve to the tangent point of 7. In gravity canals, F.S.L. is
A) reverse curve B) next curve of the same order A) Always at the ground level
C) reverse curve plus the width of the river B) Always below the ground level
D) none of these. C) Generally 4 to 5 metres above the ground level
Answer: Option B D) Only a few cm above the ground level
Answer: Option D
4. The irrigation engineering may be defined as
8. The field capacity of a soil is 25%, its permanent wilting point
A) the process of artificially supplying water to soil for raising is 15% and specific dry unity weight is 1.5. If the depth of root
crops zone of a crop, is 80 cm, the storage capacity of the soil, is
B) a science of planning and designing an efficient and A) 8 cm B) 10 cm

economic irrigation system
C) 12 cm D) 14 cm
C) the engineering of controlling and harnessing the various
natural sources of water, by the construction of dams, canals and Answer: Option C
finally distributing the water to the agricultural fields
9. The irrigation is necessary in an area A. Sodium carbonate B. Potassium sulphate
A) where there is a scanty rainfall C. Calcium sulphate D. none of these
B) where the rainfall is non-uniform Answer: Option D

14. F.S.L. of a canal at its head with respect to parent channel is
C) where commercial crops require more water kept
D)all of the above A) at the same level B) 15 cm lower
Answer: Option D C) 15 cm higher D) none of these
10. The irrigation water is said to be unsatisfactory, if it contains Answer: Option B
A) chemicals toxic to plants or to persons using plants as food 15. The measure to remove water logging of land, is
B) chemicals which react with the soil to produce unsatisfact ory A) to reduce percolation from canals and water courses
moisture characteristics
B) to increase outflow from the ground water reservoir
C) bacteria injurious to persons or animals eating plants irrigated
with water C) both (a) and (b)
D) all of the above D) neither (a) nor (b)
11. Sandy soils with good drainage become impermeable 16. Attracting groynes are built
after prolonged use, if it is irrigated with a wat er containing
A) perpendicular to the bank
A) 25% B) 50%
B) inclined down stream
C) 75% D) 85%
C) inclined up stream D) none of these
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
12. For irrigation purposes, the p-H value of water should be
17. Retrogression of the bed level of a ri ver downstream a
A) between 3 and 6 B) between 6 and 8.5 weir, occurs due to
C) between 8.5 and 11 D) more than 11 A) heavy impact of water B) increase of the bed level
Answer: Option B C) less percentage of silt D) soft soil strata
13. Which of the salt present in water is harmful for Answer: Option C
cultivation purposes?
18. If water table is comparatively high, the irrigation canal C) Montague type falls D) Vertical type falls
becomes useless, due to
Answer: Option B
A) Large amount of seepage
22. In a canal syphon, the flow is
B) Water logging of the cultivated are as
A) under atmospheric pressure B) pipe flow
C) Uncertain water demand D) All the above
C) with critical velocity D) under negative pressure.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
19. If A is the area of the surface,
density of water, then 23. When a canal and a drainage approach each other at the
same level, the structure so provided, is
A) Total pressure on the surface is e
A) an aqueduct B) a syphon
B) Depth of the point at which total pressure acts is equal t o its
moment of inertia dividedby C) a level crossing D) inlet and outlet
C) Depth of the centre of pressure is 2/3H vertically below the Answer: Option C
surface
24. For smooth entry of water in a canal, the angle between
D) All the above head regulator and water is generally kept
Answer: Option D A) 80° B) 90°
20. In a syphon aqueduct C) 110° D) 120°
A) Drainage passes over the canal and F.S.L. of the canal is below Answer: Option C
the bottom of the drainage trough
25. In a Sarda type fall, the rectangular crest, may be used
B) Drainage passes over the canal and F.S.L. of the canal is above for discharge upto
the bottom of the drainage
trough A) 6 cumecs B) 10 cumecs
C) Canal passes over the drainage and H.F.L. of the drainage i s C) 14 cumecs D) 20 cumecs
above the bottom of the canal trough
Answer: Option C
D) Canal passes over the drainage and H.F.L. of the drainage is
below the bottom of the canal trough 26. When an oven-dried sample of soil is kept open in the
atmosphere, it absorbs some amount of water. This water is
Answer: Option C known as
21. To hold hydraulic jumps, baffle walls are provided in A. capillary water B. gravitational water
A) Sarda type falls B) English type falls C. hygroscopic water D. all of these
Answer: Option C
27. Pick up the correct sequence of the part of a cana l system A) delta B) duty
from the following
C) base period D) crop period
A) Head work-distributary-branch canal-minor
Answer: Option A
B) Head works-main canal-branch canal-distributary-minor
32. A part of water which exists in the porous space of the
C) Head works-main canal-branch canal-minor-distributary soil by molecular attraction, is known as
D) Heads works-branch canal-main canal distributary, minor A) capillary water B) gravitational water
Answer: Option B C) hygroscopic water D) all of these
28. The field capacity of a soil depends upon Answer: Option A
A) Capillary tension in soil B) Porosity of soil 33. Super-fluous water is also called
C) Both (a) and (b) D) Neither (a) nor (b) A) capillary water B) gravitational water
Answer: Option C C) hygroscopic water D) all of these
29. Which of the following statement is correct? Answer: Option B
A) The gravity water is harmful to the crops. 34. A useful soil moisture for plant growth is
B) The hygroscopic water remains attached to the soil A) capillary water B) gravitational water
molecules by chemical bonds.
C) hygroscopic water D) all of these
C) The capillary water is utilised by the plants
Answer: Option A
D) all of the above
35. The amount of water required to fill up the pore spaces in
Answer: Option C soil particles by replacing all air held in pore spaces, is known as
30. The ratio between the area of a crop irrigated and the A) field capacity B) saturation capacity
quantity of water required during its entire period of the growth,
is known as C) available moisture D) all of these
A) delta B) duty Answer: Option B
C) base period D) crop period 36. The moisture content of the soil, after free drainage has
removed most of the gravity water, is known as
Answer: Option B A) field capacity B) saturation capacity
31. The total depth of water require d by a crop during the C) wilting co-efficient D) available moisture
entire period the crop is in the field, is known as
Answer: Option A
37. The duty is largest 42. The water content at which plants can no -longer extract
sufficient water from the soil for its growth, is called
A) at the head of the main canal B) at the head of the water
course A) field capacity B) saturation capacity
C) on the field D) at all place
C) permanent wilting point D) available moisture
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
38. The time (in days) that crop takes from the instant of its
sowing to that of its harvest, is known as 43. Available moisture may be defined as the
A) base B) crop C) kor A) moisture content at permanent wilting point
Answer: Option B B) difference in water content of the soil between field capacity
and permanent wilting
39. The whole period of cultivation from the time when
irrigation water is first supplied for preparation of the ground to C) maximum moisture holding capacity D. all of these
its last watering before harvesting, is called
Answer: Option B
A) base period B) crop period
44. The field capacity of a soil depends upon
C) kor period D) none of these
A) capillary tension in soil B) porosity of soil
Answer: Option A
C) either (a) or (b) D) both (a) and (b)
40. Crop ratio is the ratio of area irrigated
Answer: Option D
A) in Rabi season to Kharif season
45. Consumptive use of water by a crop is equal to
B) in Kharif season to Rabi season
A) the depth of water consumed by evaporation
C) under perennial crop to total crop
B) the depth of water consumed by transpiration
D) under perennial crop to non-perennial crop
C) the depth of water consumed by evaporation and
Answer: Option B transpiration during crop growth, including water consumed by
accompanying weed growth
41. The duty of irrigation water will be less if
A) area irrigated is more B) water supply required is less
Answer: Option C
C) water supply required is more D) none of these
46. The consumptive use of water of a crop
Answer: Option C
A) is measured as the volume of water per unit area
B) is measured as depth of water on irrigated area 51. The depth of rice root zone, is
C) may be supplied partly by precipitation and partly by A) 50 cm B) 60 cm

irrigation
C) 70 cm D) 80 cm E) 90 cm
D) all of the above
Answer: Option E
Answer: Option D
52. The saturation line is the line up to which banks get
47. The area in which crop is grown at a particular time or saturated after the canal runs for some time. The saturation
crop season, is called gradient in ordinary loam soil, is generally
A) gross commanded area B) culturable commanded area A) 2:1 B) 3:1
C) culturable uncultivated area D) none of these C) 4:1 D) 5:1
48. The first watering before sowing the crop, is known as 53. The depth of the crest of a scouring sluice below the
crest of a head regulator, is generally kept
A) kor watering B) paleo
A) 0.20 m B) 1.20 m
C) delta D) none of these
C) 2.20 m D) 3.20 m
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
49. For a unique design of a channel by Kennedy's theory
54. A river training work is generally required when the river is
A) Its breadth must only be known
A) meandering B) aggrading
B) Its depth must only be known
C) degrading D) all the above
C) Its breadth and depth ratio must only be known
Answer: Option A
D) All the above
55. For a given discharge in a channel, Blench curves give the
Answer: Option C relationship between the loss of head (HL) and
50. The structure constructed to allow drainage water to flow A) specific energy up-stream B) specific energy down-stream
under pressure through an inverted syphon below a canal, is
called C) critical depth of water down-stream
A) Syphon B) Super passage
D) depth of water down-stream
C) Super-aqueduct D) Syphon aqueduct
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
56. The main cause of silting up a channel, 61. A deficit of sediments in flowing water may cause a river
A) Non-regime section B) Inadequate slope A) meandering type B) aggrading type
C) Defective head regulator D) All the above C) degrading type D) sub-critical type.
57. A river training work is generally required when the river is 62. Meandering of a river generally occurs, in
A) Meandering B) Aggrading A) rocky stage B) delta stage
C) Degrading D) All the above C) boulder stage D) trough stage
58. When a canal is carried over a natural drainage, the 63. The velocity of drainage water in the barrels of a syphon -
structure provided, is known as aqueduct, is normally limited to
A) syphon B) aqueduct A) 1 to 2 m per second B) 2 to 3 m per second
C) super passage D) syphon-aqueduct C) 3 to 4 m per second D) 4 to 5 m per second.
59. For the stability of a structure against seepage pressure 64. According to Khosla, the exist gradient of surface flow
according to Khosla's creep theory, the critical gradient is
A) depends upon the b/d ratio
A) zero B) 0.25
B) is independent of the b/d ratio
C) 0.50 D) 1.00
C) is independent of the depths of d/s cut off wa lls
Answer: Option D
D) none of these.
60. Groynes are generally built
Answer: Option A
A) perpendicular to the bank
B) inclined up stream up to 30°
A) permanent canals B) ridge canals
C) inclined downstream upto 30°
C) perennial canals D) inundation canals
D) all the above.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
66. The top of the capillary zone C) super passage D) syphon-aqueduct
A) lies below the water table at every point Answer: Option C
B) lies above the water table at every point 71. The crops require maximum water during
C) coincides the water table at every point A) first watering before sowing the crops B) last watering before
harvesting
D) none of these. C) first watering when the crop has grown a fwd centimetres
Answer: Option B D) all of the above
67. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. Answer: Option C
Culturable commanded area is the gross area of an irrigation
canal system less 72. The maximum depth in soil strata, in which the crop
spreads its root system, and derives water from the soil, is called
A) populated area B) alkaline area
A) kot depth B) root zone depth
C) forest area D) fallow land.
C) delta D) overlap allowance
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
68. The top soil of a water logged field becomes more
alkaline and infertile if its p H value is 73. The depth of root zone is 90 cm for
A) 6 B) 8 A) wheat B) sugar cane
C) 9 D) 11 C) rice D) cotton
69. The main function of a diversion head works of a canal 74. The duty of a crop is 432 hectares per cumec when the
from a river, is base period of the crop is 100 days. The delta for the crop will be
A) to remove silt B) to control floods A) 100 B) 200
C) to store water D) to raise water level C) 432 D) 864
70. When a canal flowing under pressure is carried below a 75. The average delta of rice crop is nearly
natural drainage such that its F.S.L. does not touch the underside
of the supporting structure, the structure so provided, is called A) 30 cm B) 60 cm
A) syphon B) aqueduct C) 120 cm D) 150 cm
Answer: Option C
76. For the conditions enumerated to provide a crossing at A) 23.0 cm B) 19.0 cm
C1 You will probably provide
C) 17.5 cm D) 13.5 cm
A) an aqueduct B) a super-passage
Answer: Option D
C) a syphon aqueduct D) none of these
82. The average duty for sugar-cane in hectares/cumec is
Answer: Option B
A) 200 B) 400
77. If the straight sides of a triangular section of a lined canal
with circular bottom of radius R, make an angle θ with C) 600 D) 800
horizontal, the perimeter of the canal is
Answer: Option D
A) R(θ + tan θ) B) 2R(θ + tan θ)
83. The optimum depth of kot watering is 19 cm for
C) R(θ + cos θ) D) 2R(θ + cos θ)
A) wheat B) sugar-cane
Answer: Option D
C) rice D) cotton
78. The crest level of a canal diversion head work, depends
upon Answer: Option C
A) F.S.L. of the canal B) discharge perimeters
84. Outlet discharge for a particular crop is given by
C) pond level D) all the above
A) Area / Outlet factor B) Outlet factor / Area
Answer: Option D
C) Area x Outlet factor D) none of these
79. The downstream expansion head of a guide bank is
extended to subtend an angle at the centre, equal to Answer: Option A
A) 30° B) 45° 85. The optimum depth of kor watering for wheat in the
plains of north India is
C) 60° D) 90° A) 13.5 cm B) 16.5 cm
Answer: Option B C) 19 cm D) 21 cm
80. The main cause of silting up a channel, Answer: Option A
A) non-regime section B) inadequate slope 86. The kor depth for rice is 19 cm and kor period is 14 days.
The outlet factor for the crop in hectares per cumec will be
C) defective head regulator D) defective outlets
A) 437 B) 637
Answer: Option E
C) 837 D) 1037
81. In north Indian Plains, optimum depth of kor watering for
wheat, is Answer: Option B
87. Bed bars in a canal are provided C) 17.5 cm D) 13.5 cm
A) to watch the general behaviour of canal Answer: Option B
B) to measure the discharge 93. Where steep land is available, the method of irrigation
adopted is
C) to raise the supply level D) to control the silting
A) free flooding B) border flooding
Answer: Option A
C) check flooding D) basin flooding
88. The most suitable location of a canal head work, is
Answer: Option A
A) boulders stage of the river B) delta stage of the river
94. For closed growing crops (such as wheat), the method of
C) rock stage of the river D) trough stage of the river irrigation used is
Answer: Option D A) free flooding B) border flooding
89. Useful soil moisture for plant growth, is C) check flooding D) basin flooding
A) capillary water B) gravity water Answer: Option B
C) hygroscopic water D) chemical water 95. Check flooding method of irrigation is used for
Answer: Option A A) closed growing crops B) tracts with flat gradients
90. A hydraulic structure is designed to withstand C) crops which can stand inundation of water for sometime
A) seepage forces B) hydraulic jump D) crops such as sugarcane, potatoes etc.
C) hydraulic pressure D) all the above Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D 96. When a canal flowing under pressure is carried below a
natural drainage such that its F.S.L. does not touch the underside
91. The structure constructed to allow drai nage water to flow of the supporting structure, the structure so provided, is called
called A) Syphon B) Aqueduct
A) syphon B) super passage
C) Super passage D) Syphon-aqueduct
C) aqueduct D) syphon aqueduct
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D 97. The Lacey's regime velocity is proportional to
92. The optimum depth of kor watering for a rice crop, is A) R1/2 S3/4 B) Q3/4 S1/3
A) 23.0 cm B) 19.0 cm C) R3/4 S1/3 D) R2/3 S1/2

Answer: Option C A) predicting maximum discharge
98. In a barrage, the crest level is kept B) deciding capacity of reservoir
A) low with large gates B) high with large gates C) fore casting flood D) all of these
C) high with no gates D) low with no gates Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A 104. In a Sarda type fall, the rectangular crest, may be used for
discharge upto
99. Sprinklar irrigation is adopted for A) 6 cumecs B) 10 cumecs
A) level B) uneven C) hilly C) 14 cumecs D) 20 cumecs
100. The method of irrigation used for orchards is 105. The measure to remove water logging of land, is
A) free flooding B) border flooding A) To reduce percolation from canals and water courses
C) check flooding D) basin flooding B) To increase outflow from the ground water reservoir
Answer: Option D C) Both (a) and (b) D) Neither (a) nor (b)
101. The hydrology is a science which deals with the Answer: Option C
A) occurrence of water on the earth 106. Borrow pits should preferably be located in
B) distribution of water on the earth A) Field on the left side of the canal
C) movement of water on the earth D) all of these B) Field on the right side of the canal
Answer: Option D C) Fields on both sides of the canal
102. The knowledge of hydrology is necessary in civil D) Central half width of the section of the canal
engineering for
Answer: Option D
A) designing and construction of irrigation structures
107. The science which deals with the physical features and
B) designing and construction of bridges and culverts conditions of water on the earth surface is called
C) flood control works D) all of these A) hydrometry B) hydrography
Answer: Option D C) hydrosphere D) hydraulics
103. The hydrology helps in Answer: Option B

108. The earth's water circulatory system, is known as 113. The sinuosity of a meander is the ratio of
A) water cycle B) hydrologic cycle A) Meander length and the width of meander
C) precipitation cycle D) all of these B) Meander length and half width of the river
Answer: Option B C) Curved length and the straight distance D) None of these
109. The fall of moisture from the atmosphere to the earth Answer: Option C
surface in any form, is called
114. According to Khosla, the exits gradient of surface flow
A) evaporation B) transpiration
A) Depends upon the b/d ratio
C) precipitation D) none of these
B) Is independent of the b/d ratio
Answer: Option C
C) Is independent of the depths of d/s cut off walls
110. In Montague type fall
D) None of these
A) A straight glacis is provided B) A circular glacis is provided
Answer: Option A
C) A parabolic glacis is provided D) No glacis is provided
115. A hydraulic structure is designed to withstand
Answer: Option C
A) Seepage forces B) Hydraulic jump
111. According to Lacey, depth of scour in a river depends upon
the straightness of the reach. If D is the depth of scour in regime C) Hydraulic pressure D) All the above
flow in a right angled bend, it is
Answer: Option D
A) 1.25 D B) 1.50 D
116. The state of the soil when plants fail to extract sufficient
C) 1.75 D D) 2.00 D water for their requirements, is
Answer: Option D A) maximum saturated point B) permanent wilting point
112. The most suitable section of a lined canal, is C) ultimate utilisation p oint D) none of these
A) Triangular section with circular bottom for small canals Answer: Option D
B) Trapezoidal section with rounded corners for large canals 117. The length and width of a meander and also the width of
the river, vary roughly as
C) Both (a) and (b) D) None of these A) square root of the discharge B) discharge
Answer: Option C C) square of the discharge D) cube of the discharge
Answer: Option A
118. An outlet is said to be proportional if its flexibility, is B) To measure the discharge C) To raise the supply level
A) Zero B) Less than one D) To control the silting
C) More than one D) One Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D 123. The sensitivity of a rigid module, is
119. If the straight sides of a triangular section of a lined canal A) 2.00 B) 1.50
with circular bottom of radius D, make the horizontal, the
hydraulic mean depth is C) 1.00 D) zero
A) D B) D/2 Answer: Option D
C) D/3 D) D/5 124. Canals constructed for draining off water from water
logged areas, are known
Answer: Option B
A) drains B) inundation canals
120. According to Bligh's creep theory, percolating water flows
along C) valley canals D) contour canals
A) Straight path under the foundation of the dam Answer: Option A
B) Circular path under the foundation of the dam 125. A minimum of 90 cm free board is provided if the
discharge in the canal is between
C) The outline of the base of the foundation of the dam
A) 30 to 33 cumecs B) 30 to 60 cumecs
D) None of these
C) Over 60 cumecs D) Over 100 cumecs
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
121. For a standing crop, the consumptive use of water is e qual
to the depth of water 126. If straight sides of a triangular section of a lined canal with
circular bottom of radius R, make an angle θ with horizontal, the
A) Transpired by the crop B) Evaporated by the crop area of its cross-section, is
C) Transpired and evaporated by the crop A) R(θ + tan θ) B) R(θ + cot θ)
D) Used by the crop in transpiration, evaporation and also t he C) R2(θ + tan θ) D) R2(θ + cot θ)
quantity of water evaporated from adjacent soil
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
127. In Montague type fall
122. Bed bars in a canal are provided
A) a straight glacis is provided B) a circular glacis is provided
A) To watch the general behaviour of canal
133. If the straight sides of a triangular section of a lined canal
C) a parabolic glacis is provided D) no glacis is provided. with circular bottom of radius D, make an angle θ with
horizontal, the hydraulic mean depth is
Answer: Option C
A) D B) D/2
128. The water face of the guide banks, is protected by
C) D/3 D) D/4
A) one men stone pitching B) two man stone pitching
Answer: Option B
C) three man stone pitching D) four man stone pitching
134. The uplift pressure on the roof of an inverted syphon, is
Answer: Option A maximum when
129. If average particle size of the silt in millimetres is m, the A) drain in running dry B) canal is running dry
Lacey's silt factor f is proportional to
A) m B) m3 C) canal is running with F.S.L. D) drain is running with
H.F.L.
C) m1/2 D) m1/3
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
135. The ratio of the rate of change of discharge of an outlet
130. Disposal of extra excavated earth of canals, is util ised to and parent channel, is known as
provide a spoil bank on
A) left side B) right side A) efficiency B) sensitivity
C) both sides D) all the above. C) flexibility D) modular limit
131. According to Lacey, depth of scour in a river depends 136. The ratio of the head recovered to the head put in, is
upon the straightness of the reach. If D is the depth of scour in known as
regime flow in a right angled bend, it is
A) efficiency B) sensitivity
A) 1.25 D B) 1.50 D
C) flexibility D) modular limit
C) 1.75 D D) 2.00 D
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
137. A fall which maintains its depth, is
132. The field capacity of a soil depends upon
A) a trapezoidal notch fall B) a low weir fall
A) capillary tension in soil B) porosity of soil
C) a rectangular notch fall D) all the above
C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b).
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
138. An outlet is said to be proportional if its flexibility, is A) ridge canal B) perennial canal
A) zero B) less than one C) inundation canal D) canal
C) more than one D) one Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D 144. Liquid precipitation consists of
139. The ratio of the discharge over a trapezoidal crest to a A) snow B) hail
rectangular crest of Sarda falls of identical parameters, is
C) sleet D) rainfall
A) 1.084 B) 1.074
Answer: Option D
C) 1.064 D) 1.054
145. The precipitation caused by natural rising of warmer
Answer: Option A lighter air in colder and denser surroundings, is called
140. For standing crops in undulating sandy fields, the best A) convective precipitation B) orographic precipitation
method of irrigation, is
C) cyclonic precipitation D) none of these
A) sprinkler irrigation B) free flooding
Answer: Option A
C) check method D) furrow method
146. The precipitation caused by lifting of warm moisture
Answer: Option A laden air masses due to topographic barriers, is called
141. Garnett's diagrams are used for graphical solution of A) convective precipitation B) orographic precipitation
design equations of a canal by
C) cyclonic precipitation D) none of these
A) Lacey's theory B) Kennedy's theory
Answer: Option B
C) Gibb's theory D) Lindlay theory
147. The process of loosing water from the leaves of plants, is
Answer: Option B termed as
142. In a concrete canal the approximate permissible velocity A) surface evaporation B) water surface evaporation
of water should not exceed
C) transpiration D) precipitation
A) 0.5 m/sec B) 1 m/sec
Answer: Option C
C) 1.5 m/sec D) 2 m/sec
148. The amount of precipitation is measured by
Answer: Option D
A) rain gauge B) osmoscope
143. For diversion of flood water of rivers, the type of canal
constructed, is C) turbidimeter D) all of these
154. The commonly used rain gauge is
Answer: Option A
A) weighing bucket type B) tipping bucket type
149. Process of meandering is due to
C) float type D) none of these
A) sediment load of streams
Answer: Option C
B) discharge and hydraulic properties of streams
155. The standard height of a standard rain gauge is
C) relative erodibility of the bed and banks D) all the above
A) 10 cm B) 20 cm
Answer: Option D
C) 30 cm D) 40 cm
150. For cereal crops the most commonly adopted method of
irrigation, is Answer: Option C
A) free flowing method B) check method
156. For Madras catchments, the flood discharge is estimated
C) furrow method D) sprinkling method from Q = CA2/3. This formula is known as
Answer: Option B A) Dicken's formula B) Ryve's formula
151. The ratio of the rate of change of discharge of an outlet C) Nawab Jang Bahadur formula D) Inglis formula
to the rate of change in level of water surface in a distributary at
its normal depth, is known as Answer: Option B
157. According to Fanning's formula, the flood discharge (Q)
C) flexibility D) modular limit in cumecs is given by
Answer: Option B A) Q = CA2/3 B) Q = CA3/4
152. Lacey's equation for calculating flood discharge in rivers, is C) Q = CA5/6 D) Q = CA7/8
A) V = 10.8 R1/2 S1/2 B) V = 10.8 R2/3 S1/2 Answer: Option C
C) V = 10.8 R2/3 S1/3 D) V = 10.8 R1/3 S2/3 158. The velocity of drainage water in the barrels of a syphon -
aqueduct, is normally limited to
Answer: Option C
A) 1 to 2 m per second B) 2 to 3 m per second
153. To hold hydraulic jumps, baffle walls are provided in
C) 3 to 4 m per second D) 4 to 5 m per second
A) Sarda type falls B) English type falls
Answer: Option B
C) Montague type falls D) Vertical type falls
159. For the design of major hydraulic structures on the canals,
Answer: Option B the method generally preferred to, is based on
A) Bligh's theory B) Electrical analogy method 164. Irrigation canals are generally aligned along
C) The relaxation method A) Ridge line B) Contour line
D) Khosla's method of independent variables C) Valley line D) Straight line
160. Inglis formula is used for estimating flood discharge for 165. In a canal syphon, the flow is
A) the catchments of former Bombay Presidency A) Under atmospheric pressure B) Pipe flow
B) the catchments of oil Hyderabad State C) With critical velocity D) Under negative pressure
C) the Madras catchments D) none of the above Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A 166. The main function of a diversion head works of a canal from
a river, is
161. In order to estimate the high flood discharge in fan - A) To remove silt B) To control floods
shaped catchment, the formula used is
C) To store water D) To raise water level
A) Dicken's formula B) Ryve's formula
Answer: Option D
C) Inglis formula D) Fanning's formula
167. Regime conditions in a channel may occur if
Answer: Option C
A) Discharge is constant
162. The estimation of flood can be made
B) Channel flows uniformly in incoherent alluvium as that
A) by physical indication of past floods transported in suspension
B) by flood discharge formulae C) Silt grade and silt charge are constant D) All the above
C) by unit hydrograph D) all of these Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D 168. A river is said to be of
163. Which of the following method is useful for obtaining A) Aggrading type if it builds up its bed to a certain slope
values of flood discharges for a high recurrence interval?
B) Degrading type if it cuts its bed to a certain slope
A) California method B) Hazen's method
C) Meandering type if it flows in sinuous curve
C) Gumbel's method D) all of these
D) All the above
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
169. A graph showing variations of discharge with time, at a 174. The ratio of the rate of change of discharge of an outlet and
particular point of a stream is known as parent channel, is known as
A) mass inflow curve B) logistic curve A) Efficiency B) Sensitivity
C) hydrograph D) none of these C) Flexibility D) Modular limit
170. The graphical representation of average rainfall and 175. The width of a dowla is generally kept between 30 to 60 cm
rainfall excess (i.e. rainfall minus infiltration) rates over specified and its height above the road level should invariably be more
areas during successive unit time intervals during a storm is than
known as
A) 10 cm B) 20 cm
A) hydrograph B) unit hydrograph
C) 30 cm D) 40 cm
C) hyetograph D) none of these
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
176. Lacey's equation for calculating flood discharge in rivers, is
171. A hydrograph representing one cm of run off from a
rainfall of some unit duration and specific area distribution is A) V = 10.8 R1/2 S1/2 B) V = 10.8 R 2/3 S1/2
known as
C) V = 10.8 R2/3 S1/3 D) V = 10.8 R 1/3 S2/3
A) hyetograph B) flood hydrograph
Answer: Option C
C) unit hydrograph D) S-hydrograph
177. A deficit of sediments in flowing water may cause a river
Answer: Option C
A) Meandering type B) Aggrading type
172. Run-off is measured in
C) Degrading type D) Sub-critical type
A) m3/ s B) m3/min
Answer: Option C
C) m3/h D) none of these
178. Side slopes generally kept for canals in loam soil, are:
Answer: Option A
A) 1 : 1 in cutting and 1½ : 1 in filling
173. A canal sligned nearly parallel to the contours of a
country, is known as B) 1½ : 1 in cutting and 2 : 1 in filling
A) side slope canal B) contour canal C) Neither (a) nor (b) D) Both (a) and (b)
C) water shed canal D) ridge canal Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
179. The water shed canal is also called
C) volume of excavation is in excess of the embankment filling
A) side slope canal B) contour canal
D) canal alignment is meandrous
C) ridge canal D) all of these
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
185. The borrow pits should, preferably, be taken from
180. Irrigation canals are generally aligned along
A) the field on the right side of canal
A) contour line B) water shed
B) the field on the left side of the canal
C) straight line D) valley line
C) the central half width of the section of the canal
Answer: Option B
D) any one of the above
181. A canal aligned at right angles to the contour of a
country, is known as Answer: Option C
A) side slope canal B) contour canal 186. In case of small channels, the borrow pits should start
from a distance not less than
C) water shed canal D) branch canal
A) 2m B) 3m
Answer: Option A
C) 4m D) 5m
182. The alignment of a canal
Answer: Option D
A) should be such, so as to ensure minimum number of
cross drainage works 187. When the quantity of the earth is much in excess of the
quantity required for filling, it has to be deposited in the form of
B) on a water shed is the most economical spoil banks. The spoil banks are made on
C) should avoid valuable properties D) all of the above A) the right side B) the left side
Answer: Option D C) both the sides D) all of these
183. Inundation canals draw their supplies from rivers Answer: Option D
whenever there is a
188. A land is said to be water-logged when
A0 low B) high C) medium
A) the air circulation is stopped in the root zone due to the rise
Answer: Option B in water table
184. A spoil bank is formed when the B) it is submerged in flood
A) canal has steel bed slope B) canal section is too large C) the doil pores within a depth of 40 cm are saturated
D) all of the above A) free board B) dowel
Answer: Option A C) inspection roadway D) berm
189. A contour canal Answer: Option D
A) is most suitable in hilly areas B) irrigates only on one side 193. The infertility of the soil in water -logged areas is due to
C) is aligned parallel to the contour of the country A) inhibiting activity of the soil bacteria B) growth of weeds
D) all of the above C) increasing of harmful salts D) all of these
190. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the 194. Water logging is caused due to
parts of a canal system?
A) Head works, distributary, branch canals and minor A) inadequate drainage facilities B) over irrigation
B) Head works, main canal, branch canal, distributary and minor C) presence of impermeable strata D) all of these
C) Head works, main canal, branch canal, minor and distributary Answer: Option D
D) none of the above 195. The soil becomes, practically, infertile if its p -H value is
Answer: Option B A) 0 B) 7
191. In a canal section, which is in partial filling and partial C) 11 D) 14

cutting
Answer: Option C
A) the full supply level of the canal is above the natural surface
level 196. The measure adopted to reclaim the water -logged area is
B) the bed level of the canal is below the natural surface level A) installation of lift irrigation schemes B) lining of canals
C. the full supply level of the canal is below the natural surface C) lowering the full supply level D) all of these
level
Answer: Option A
D) the bed level of the canal is above the natural surface level
197. The gap or margin of height, between full supply level
E) both (a) and (b) (F.S.L.) and top of the bank is called
Answer: Option E A) free board B) dowel
192. The narrow strip of land left at the ground level between C) inspection roadway D) berm
the inner toe of the bank and top edge of the cutting, is known
as Answer: Option A
A) 10 cm B) 20 cm
198. The berms when fully formed
C) 30 cm D) 40 cm
A) reduce the absorption losses and prevents leaks
Answer: Option C
B) protect the bank from erosion because of wave action
203. The most economical section of a lined canal is
C) provide a scope for future widening the channel D.
all of the above A) rectangular section with circu lar bottom for small discharges
Answer: Option D B) triangular section with circular bottom for small disch arges
199. Which of the following statements is wrong? C) trapezoidal section with rounded corners for higher discharge
A) The top of dowel is kept above the free supply level by a D) none of the above
margin of free board.
E) both (b) and (c)
B) The dowels are provided as a measure of safety for
automobiles driven on the service roads Answer: Option E
C) The dowels act as curbs on the side of roadway towards the 204. Lining of a canal is necessary
canal
A. to minimise the seepage lossses in canal
B. to prevent erosion of bed and sides due to high velocities
Answer: Option D
C. to increase the discharge in canal section by increasing the
200. The free board in a channel is governed by the velocity
A) size of the canal B) location of the canal D. all of the above
C) water surface fluctuations D) all of these Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
205. Lining of a canal
201. The saturation gradient in an ordinary loam soil is
A. assures economical water distribution
A) 1:1 B) 2 :1
B. reduces possibility of breaching
C) 3:1 D) 4 :1
C. increases available head for power generation
Answer: Option D
D. all of the above
202. The height of dowel above the road level should not be
more than Answer: Option D
211. The sodium carbonate lining consists of at lest
206. The width of dowel is, usually, kept from
A) 6% sodium carbonate and 10% clay
A) 0.1 m to 0.3 m B) 0.3 m to 0.6 m
B) 10% sodium carbonate and 6% clay
C) 0.6 m to 0.9 m D) 0.9 m to 1.2 m
C) 1% sodium carbonate and 6% clay
Answer: Option B
D) 1% clay and 6% sodium carbonate
207. For the stability of a structure against seepage pressure
according to Khosla's creep theory, the critical gradient is Answer: Option A
A) Zero B) 0.25 212. For the repairing of an old but sound concrete lining, the
lining preferred is
C) 0.50 D) 1.00
A) shotcrete lining B) precast concrete lining
Answer: Option D
C) soil cement lining D) sodium carbonate lining
208. If B and d are the bed width and depth of a channel in
metres, the combined losses due to evaporation and seepage in Answer: Option A
cumecs per kilometre length of the channel, is
213. The weed growth in a canal leads to
A) (1/50) × (B + d)2/3 B) (1/100) × (B + d)2/3
A) decrease in silting B) decrease in discharge
C) (1/150) × (B + d)2/3 D) (1/200) × (B + d)2/3
C) increase in discharge D) increase in velocity of flow
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
209. The length of a meander is the distance along the river
between the tangent point of one curve to the tangent point of 214. Garret's diagram gives the graphical method of designing
a channel based on
A) Reverse curve B) Next curve of the same order
A) Lacey's theory B) Gibb's theory
C) Reverse curve plus the width of the river D) None of these
C) Kennedy's theory D) Khosla's theory
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
210. The top of the capillary zone
215. Kennedy, in his silt theory, assumed that the silt is kept in
A) Lies below the water table at every point suspension because of eddies generated from the
B) Lies above the water table at every point A) bed only B) sides only
C) Coincides the water table at every point D) None of these C) whole perimeter D) any one of these

216. The depth of rice root zone, is Answer: Option D
A) 50 cm B) 60 cm 221. Kennedy gave a relation between
C) 80 cm D) 90 cm A) velocity and hydraulic mean depth B) area and velocity
Answer: Option D C) critical velocity and the depth of flowing water
217. If the irrigation efficiency is 80%, conveyance losses are D) all of the above
20% and the actual depth of watering is 16 cm, the depth of
water required at the canal outlet, is Answer: Option C
A) 10 cm B) 15 cm 222. A channel is said to be in scouring when the critical

velocity ratio is
C) 20 cm D) 25 cm
Answer: Option D
C) greater than
218. In a barrage, the crest level is kept
Answer: Option C
A) Low with large gates B) High with large gates
223. The main cause of silting in channel is
C) High with no gates D) Low with no gates
A) non-regime section B) inadequate slope
Answer: Option A
C) defective head regulator D) all of these
219. An outlet which maintains a constant discharge irrespective
of fluctuation in the water levels of the supplying channel or Answer: Option D
water course, is known as
224. Lacey assumed that silt is kept in suspension because of
A) Non-modular outlet B) Semi-modular outlet the normal components of eddies generated from the
C) Flexible modular outlet D) Right modular outlet A) bed only B) side only
Answer: Option D C) whole perimeter D) none of these
220. In case of a trapezoidal notch fall Answer: Option C
A) Top length of the piers should not be less than their thickness 225. Lacey gave a relation between
B) Splay upstream from the notch section is 45° A) velocity and hydraulic mean depth B) area and velocity
C) Splay downstream from the notch section is 22½° C) both (a) and (b) D) none of these
D) All the above Answer: Option C

226. Finally formed berms in canals are provided for 231. The channel after attaining its secti on and longitudinal
slope, will be said to be in
A) Protection of banks erosion by the waves
A) initial B) final C) permanent
B) Control of seepage losses
Answer: Option B
C) Strengthening of banks D All the above
232. The perimeter discharge (P-Q) relation is given by the
Answer: Option D equation
227. Process of meandering is due to A) P = 2.25 Q1/2 B) P = 2.25 Q3/2
A) Sediment load of streams C) P = 4.75 Q1/2 D) P = 4.75 Q3/2
B) Discharge and hydraulic properties of streams Answer: Option C
C) Relative erodibility of the bed and banks D) All the above 233. A structure constructed in an irrigation canal for the
purpose of wasting some of its water, is known as a
Answer: Option D
A) fall B) escape
228. The ratio of the rate of change of discharge of an outlet to
the rate of change in level of water surface in a distributary at its C) regulator D) none of these
normal depth, is known as
Answer: Option B
A) Efficiency B) Sensitivity
234. Escapes are also known as
C) Flexibility D) Modular limit
A) outlet B) safety valves C) regulators
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
229. The ratio of the head recovered to the head put in, is
known as 235. The capacity of escape channel should not be less than
A) Efficiency B) Sensitivity
A) 20% B) 30%
C) Flexibility D) Modular limit
C) 40% D) 50%
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
230. If H and d are the water depth and drop in the bed level at
a Sarda fall, the width B of the trapezoidal crest, is given by 236. A fall, which maintains the depth is a
A) B = 0.22 (H + d) B) B = 0.33 (H + d) A) trapezoidal notch fall B) rectangular notch fall
C) B = 0.44 (H + d) D) B = 0.55 (H + d) C) low weir fall D) all of these

237. The scour depth D of a river during flood, may be calculated 242. The Sarda canal has a
from the Lacey's equation
A) glacis type fall B) vertical drop fall
A) D = 0.47 (Q/f) B) D = 0.47 (Q/f)1/2
C) Ogee fall D) rapid fall
C) D = 0.47 (Q/f)1/3 D) D = 0.47 (Q/f)2/3
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
243. In Sarda type fall, the length of the crest is kept
238. For the conditions enumerated to provide a crossing at C1
You will probably provide A) more than B) equal to C) less than
A) An aqueduct B) A super-passage Answer: Option B
C) A syphon aqueduct D) None of these 244. A baffle wall is a sort of low weir constructed at the end
of the cistern to
Answer: Option B
A) head up water to its upstream to such a height that
239. When a canal and a drainage approach each other at the hydraulic jump is formed
same level, the structure so provided, is
B) withstand the actual impact of the high velocity jet to
A) An aqueduct B) A syphon dissipate the energy
C) A level crossing D) Inlet and outlet C) both (a) and (b) D) none of the above
240. The difference in level between the top of a ban k and 245. A parabolic glacis type fall is commonly known as
supply level in a canal, is called
A) Montague fall B) Inglis fall
A) Berm B) Free board
C) Sarda fall D) vertical type fall
C) Height of bank D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
246. When the water is thrown into a well over a crest from
241. If L is total length of a canal in kilometres, P is total where it escapes near its bottom, th e type of fall is called
perimeter of it s lining in metres and C is the cost of lining per
square metre, the additional expenditure involved on lining, is A) rapid fall B) cylinder fall
A) 100 PLC B) PLC/1000 C) pipe fall D) glacis fall
C) PL/1000C D) PC/100L Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
247. The crest level of a canal diversion head work, depends
upon A) rapid fall B) cylinder fall
A) F.S.L. of the canal B) Discharge perimeters
C) sudden fall D) hydraulic jump
C) Pond level D) All the above
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
253. The cylinder or well fall is quite suitable and economical for
248. The most suitable location of a canal head work, is A) low discharges and low drops
A) Boulders stage of the river B) Delta stage of the river B) low discharges and high drops
C) Rock stage of the river D) Trough stage of the river C) high discharges and low drops
Answer: Option D D) high discharges and high drops
249. The length and width of a meander and also the width of Answer: Option B
the river, vary roughly as
254. The discharge (Q) over trapezoidal crest of Sarda fall is
A) Square root of the discharge B) Discharge
A) same B) less C) more
C) Square of the discharge D) Cube of the discharge
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
255. The Inglis type fall makes use of
250. A land is said to be water-logged if its soil pores within
A) straight B) horizontal C) vertical
A) A depth of 40 cm are saturated
Answer: Option B
B) A depth of 50 cm are saturated
256. The fall which can be used as a meter fall, is
C) Root zone of the crops are saturated D) All the above
A) vertical drop fall B) flumed glacis fall
Answer: Option C
C) unflumed glacis fall D) none of these
251. V and R are the regime mean velocity and hydraulic mean
depth respectively in metres. Lacey's silt factor f is Answer: Option A
A) 2V² R B) 3V²/4R 257. The ratio of the rate of change of discharge of an outlet
to the rate of change of the discharge of the distributing channel,
C) 5V²/2R D) 2V²/5R is termed as
A) proportionality B) flexibility
Answer: Option C
C) sensitivity D) efficiency
252. A sudden fall of level of ground along the alignment of a
canal joined by an inclined bed is called a Answer: Option B
258. A counter berm is 263. A device which ensures a constant discharge of water
passing from one channel to another irrespective of water level
A) A horizontal benching provided on the inside slope in each within certain specified limits, is called
B) A horizontal benching provided on the outside slope A) flume B) module
C) A vertical benching provided on the outer edge of the bank C) meter D) none of these
D) A vertical benching provided on the inner edge of the bank Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B 264. An outlet in which the discharge depends upon the
difference in level between the water levels in distributing
259. In a flexible outlet, the discharge depends upon the channel and the water course, is known as
A) non-modular outlet B) semi-module outlet
A) water level in distributary B) water level in water course
C) modular outlet D) rigid module
C. difference of water levels between distributary an d water
course Answer: Option A
D) none of the above 265. While deciding the alignment of a proposed canal taking off
from a river at B, three alignments of approximately equal
Answer: Option A lengths are available. These cross a drainages at C1, C2and C3
where drainage bed levels C1 > C2 > C3, you will provide at site
260. When discharge of an outlet is independent of the water C3
levels in the water course and the distributary, the outlet is
termed as a A) An aqueduct B) A syphon aqueduct
A) flexible outlet B) non-modular outlet C) A super passage D) A syphon
C) semi-module outlet D) rigid module Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D 266. Canals constructed for draining off water from water
logged areas, are known
261. Gibb's module is a type of A) Drains B) Inundation canals
A) non-moduler outlet B) semi-modular outlet C) Valley canals D) Contour canals
C) rigid modular outlet D) upon flume outlet Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C 267. The Lacey's regime velocity is proportional to
262. In a proportional outlet, the rat e of change of its A) R1/2 S3/4 B) Q 3/4 S1/3
discharge is
A) equal to B) more than C) less than C) R3/4 S1/3 D) R2/3 S1/2
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C

273. A fall in a canal bed is generally provided, if
268. The ratio of the hed recovered to the head put in an
outlet, is called A) Ground slope exceeds the designed bed slope
A) proportionality B) flexibility B) Designed bed slope exceeds the ground slope
C) sensitivity D) efficiency C) Ground slope is practically the same as the designed bed slope
Answer: Option D D) None of these
269. In a proportional outlet, the rate of change of its Answer: Option A

discharge is
A) equal to B) more than C) less than 274. If the straight sides of a triangular section of a lined canal
with circular bottom of radius R, make
Answer: Option A A) R B) 2R
270. The state of the soil when plants fail to extract sufficient C) R D) 2R
water for their requirements, is
A) Maximum saturated point B ) Permanent wilting point Answer: Option D
C) Ultimate utilisation point D) None of these 275. According to G.W. Pickles the effect of confining the flood
water of a river between levee, is to increase
Answer: Option D
A) Rate of flood wave
271. The useful moisture of soil, is equal to its
B) Water surface elevation during floods
A) Field capacity B) Saturation capacity
C) Maximum discharge
C) Moisture content at permanent wilting point
D) Surface slope of streams above the levied portion
D) Difference between filed capacity and permanent wilting
point within the root zone of plants Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D 276. F.S.L. of a canal at its head with respect to parent channel is
kept
272. Groynes are generally built A) At the same level B) 15 cm lower
A) Perpendicular to the bank C) 15 cm higher D) None of these
B) Inclined up stream up to 30° Answer: Option B
C) Inclined downstream upto 30° D) All the above 277. The depth of the crest of a scouring sluice below the crest of
a head regulator, is generally kept
Answer: Option B
A) 0.20 m B) 1.20 m
C) 2.20 m D) 3.20 m 283. Garnett's diagrams are used for graphical solution of design
equations of a canal by
Answer: Option B A) Lacey's theory B) Kennedy's theory
278. Useful soil moisture for plant growth, is C) Gibb's theory D) Lindlay theory
A) Capillary water B) Gravity water Answer: Option B
C) Hygroscopic water D) Chemical water 284. To control the silt entry into a distributary at head
regulator, King's vanes are provided which are the walls
Answer: Option A
A) Of R.C.C. or steel plate 8 cm thick
279. A minimum of 90 cm free board is provided if the discharge
in the canal is between B) the depth of water in the main canal
A) 30 to 33 cumecs B) 30 to 60 cumecs C) Spaced at interval of 1½ times their heights D) All the above
C) Over 60 cumecs D) Over 100 cumecs Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C 285. Effective precipitation for a crop may be defined as
280. According to Kennedy, the critical velocity (V0) in metres in A) Total precipitation minus the loss due to evaporation
a channel is the mean velocity which keeps the channel free from
silting or scouring. Its value is given by (where m is critical B) Total precipitation minus the loss due to infiltration
velocity ratio and D is the depth of the channel).
C) Total precipitation during the crop period
A) V0 = 0.84 mD0.64 B) V0 = 0.55 mD0.64
D) Available water stored in soil within root zone of the crop
C) V0 = 0.84 mD0.54 D) V0 = 0.55 mD0.54
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
286. The ratio of the head recovered to the head put in an
281. The flexibility of a hyper-proportional outlet is outlet, is called
A) proportionality B) flexibility
A) greater than B) equal to C) less than
C) sensitivity D) efficiency
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
282. For the pipe outlet to be proportional, the outlet is set at
287. An outlet is said to be proportional, if its flexibility is
A) 0.3 times B) 0.5 times
A) equal to zero B) less than unity
C) 0.8 times
C) equal to unity D) more than unity
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
288. The setting for a sub-proportional outlet is 294. The sensitivity of a rigid module is
A) more B) less C) same A) equal to zero B) less than unity
Answer: Option B C) equal to unity D) more than unity
289. The ratio between the depths of water levels over crest Answer: Option A
on the downstream and upstream of the module, is known as
A) flexibility B) sensitivity constructed, is
C) drowning ratio D) module ratio A) Ridge canal B) Perennial canal
Answer: Option C C) Inundation canal D) Canal
290. Which of the following is a type of non-modular outlet? Answer: Option C
A) Submerged pipe outlet B) Open-flume outlet 296. Solution of Laplacian equation in three dimensions d² /dx² +
d² / dy² + d² /dz² = 0 of water in a syphon, is done by
C) Kennedy's gauge outlet D) all of these
A) Analytical method B) Khosla's method
Answer: Option A
C) Method of relaxation D) Unwin's method
291. Attracting groynes are built
Answer: Option C
A) Perpendicular to the bank B) Inclined down stream
297. In north Indian Plains, optimum depth of kor watering for
C) Inclined up stream D) None of these wheat, is
Answer: Option B A) 23.0 cm B) 19.0 cm
292. The optimum depth of kor watering for a rice crop, is C) 17.5 cm D) 13.5 cm
A) 23.0 cm B) 19.0 cm Answer: Option D
C) 17.5 cm D) 13.5 cm 298. Which of the following is a type of semi -module outlet?
Answer: Option B A) Submerged pipe outlet B) Open flume outlet
293. For cereal crops the most commonly adopted method of C) Kennedy's gauge outlet D) all of these
irrigation, is
A) Free flowing method B) Check method Answer: Option C
C) Furrow method D) Sprinkling method 299. The slope of a canal, for a discharge of 300 cumecs,
should be
Answer: Option B A) 1 in 4000 B) 1 in 6000
C) 1 in 8000 D) 1 in 10000 305. A diversion head work is constructed to
Answer: Option C A) raise water level at the head of the canal
B) regulate the intake of water into the canal

300. If D is the depth of water upstream of the throat above its
sill, B is the width of the throat, to achieve critical flow in an C) reduce fluctuations in the supply level of the river
open venturi flume, the theoretical maximum flow Q, is
D) all of the above
A) Q = 1.71 BD1/2 B) Q = 1.71 BD
Answer: Option D
C) Q = 1.71 BD3/2 D) Q = 1/71 BD2/3 306. A weir is generally aligned at right angle to the direction
of the main river flow because
Answer: Option C A) it is economical B) less length of weir is required
301. In a barrage, crest level is kept C) it gives better discharge capacity D) all of these
A) low with large gates B) high with large gates Answer: Option D
C) high with small gates D) low with small gates 307. A weir fails due to
Answer: Option A A) rupture of floor due to uplift
302. The loss of head per unit length of creep is called B) rupture of floor due to suction caused by standing wave
A) coefficient of creep B) percolation coefficient C) scour on the upstream and downstream of the weir
C) Lane's coefficient D) none of these D) all of the above
303. According to Khosla's theory, the undermining of the 308. A solid construction put across the river to raise its water
floor starts from the level and divert the water into the canal, is known as
A) starting end B) tail end
A) marginal bund B) weir
C) intermediate point D) foundation bed
C) barrage D) dam
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
304. According to Khosla's theory, the critical hydraulic
gradient for alluvial soils is approximately equal to 309. When the difference in weir crest and downstream river
A) 1 B) 1.5 bed is limited into 3 metres, the weir, generally used is
A) vertical drop weir B) drystone slope weir
C) 2 D) 2.5
C) concrete slope weir D) parabolic weir
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
310. According to Khosla's theory, the exit gradient in the 315. Okhla weir on Yamuna river, in Delhi, is an example of
absence of a downstream cut-off is
A) vertical drop weir B) drystone slope weir
A) zero B) unity
C) concrete slope weir D) parabolic weir
C) infinity D) none of these
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
316. In Bligh's creep theory, it is assumed that the percolation
311. A hydraulic jump is formed when water creep
A) along the contact of the base profile of the apron with
A) a sub-critical flow strikes against a super-critical flow the sub-soil
B) a super-critical flow strikes against a sub -critical flow B) in a straight path under the floor
C) the two flows of super-critical velocity meet each other C) in a straight path under the foundation work
D) the two flows of sub-critical velocity meet each other D) none of the above
312. For low navigation dams, the type of gate used is 317. In Lane's weighted creep theory, he proposed a weight of
A) rolling gate B) bear trap gate A) three for vertical creep and one for horizontal cr eep
C) vertical lift gate D) drum gate B) three for horizontal creep and one for vertical creep
Answer: Option B C) two for vertical and two for horizontal creep
313. The crest of the under-sluices should be lower than the D) any one of the above
crest of the head regulator (if silt excluder is provided by at least
Answer: Option A
A) 1 to 1.2 m B) 1.8 to 2 m
318. Retrogression of the bed level of a river downstream a
C) 2 to 2.5 m D) 4 to 5 m weir, occurs due to
A) Heavy impact of water B) Increase of the bed level
Answer: Option B
C) Less percentage of silt D) Soft soil strata
314. The smooth entry, the regulators are aligned at an angle
of Answer: Option C
319. Meandering of a river generally occurs, in
A) 60° B) 80° A) Rocky stage B) Delta stage
C) 110° D) 130° C) Boulder stage D) Trough stage

320. The level of a canal diversion head work depends upon 325. Disposal of extra excavated earth of canals, is utilised to
provide a spoil bank on
A) discharge perimeter B) pond level
A) Left side B) Right side
C) full supply level of canal D) all of these
C) Both sides D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
321. Rivers on alluvial plains may be
326. The method used for training of rivers is
A) meandering type B) aggrading type
A) guide bank B) dyke or levee
C) degrading type D) all of these
C) groyne D) all of these
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
322. In a concrete canal the approximate permissible velocity of
water should not exceed 327. A river training work is generally required when the river is
A) aggrading type B) degrading type
C) meandering type D) stable type
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
323. Lacy's regime condition is obtained if
328. A groyne
A) Silt grade in the channel is variable
A) contracts a river channel to improve its de pth
B) Discharge in the channel is variable
B) silts up the area in the vicinity by creating a slack flow
C) Silt charge in the channel is variable
C) trains the flow along a certain course
D) Channel flows in unlimited, incoherent alluvium of the sam e
character as that transported material D) all of the above
324. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. 329. A deflecting groyne in a river is
canal system less A) inclined towards upstream B) perpendicular to bank
A) Populated area B) Alkaline area C) inclined towards downstream D) none of these
C) Forest area D) Fallow land Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
330. Rivers on alluvial plains may be 334. A groyne with a curved head is known as
A) meandering type B) aggrading type A) hockey groyne B) burma groyne
C) degrading type D) all of these C) denehy groyne D) none of these
331. A river meandering through an alluvial plain has a series 335. When the bed level of the canal is higher than the
of consecutive curves of reversed order connected with short highest flood level (H.F.L.) of the drainage, then the cross
straight sketches, is called drainage work is said to be
A) crossing B) meandering belt A) aqueduct B) super-passage
C) meandering length D) none of these C) canal syphon D) syphon aqueduct

336. When the drain is over the canal, the structure provided
332. The degree of sinuosity is the ratio between the is known as
A) meander length and width of meander A) aqueduct B) super-passage
B) meander length and the width of river C) canal syphon D) syphon aqueduct
C) curved length and the straight air distance Answer: Option B
D) none of these 337. When the levels are such that the F.S.L. of the canal is
much above the bed level of the drainage trough, so that the
Answer: Option C canal runs under syphonic action under the trough, the structure
provided is known as
333. Tortuosity of a meandering river is the ratio of
A) syphon aqueduct B) level crossing
A) meander length to width of meander
C) canal syphon D) super syphon
B) meander length to width of river
Answer: Option C
C) curved length along the river to the direct axial length o f
the river 338. When the irrigation canal and t he drain are at the same
level, then the cross drainage work is achieved by providing a
D) direct axial length of the river to the curved length along
the river A) aqueduct B) super-passage
Answer: Option C C) level crossing D) canal syphon
Answer: Option C
339. The tortuosity of a meandering river is always 344. In case of syphon aqueduct, the H.F.L. of the drain is
A) equal to B) less than A) much below the bottom of the canal trough
C) greater than B) much higher above the canal bed
Answer: Option C C) in level with the canal bed D) none of the above
340. The basic factor which controls the process of Answer: Option B
meandering is
345. In a super-passage, the F.S.L. of the canal is
A) discharge B) valley slope
A) lower than the underside of the trough carrying drainage
C) bed and side resistance D) all of these water
Answer: Option D B) above the bed level of the drainage trough
341. When river flows in a plain country, its stage is known as C) in level with the drainage trough
A) delta B) boulder D) none of the above
C) trough D) rocky Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C 346. In a syphon, the underside of the trough carrying

drainage water is
342. The width and length of mender as well as width of river,
vary approximately with A) lower than B) higher than C) in level with
A) discharge B) square of discharge Answer: Option B
C) square root of discharge D) cube root of discharge 347. The bed of a canal is lowered in case of
Answer: Option C A) syphon aqueduct B) canal syphon
343. The floor of the aqueduct is subjected to uplift pressure C) level crossing D) all of these
due to
Answer: Option B
A) seepage of water from the canal to the drainage
348. In a concrete canal the approximate permissible velocity of
B) sub-soil water table in the drainage bed water should not exceed
C) both (a) and (b) A) 0.5 m/sec B) 1 m/sec
D) none of the above C) 1.5 m/sec D) 2 m/sec

349. When a canal is carried over a natural drainage, the C) Silt charge in the channel is variable
structure provided, is known as
D) Channel flows in unlimited, incoherent alluvium of the same
A) Syphon B) Aqueduct character as that transported material
C) Super passage D) Syphon-aqueduct Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B 354. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following.
350. The downstream expansion head of a guide bank is canal system less
extended to subtend an angle at the centre,equal to A) Populated area B) Alkaline area
A) 30° B) 45° C) Forest area D) Fallow land
C) 60° D) 90° Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B 355. A fall which maintains its depth, is
351. For smooth entry of water in a canal, the angle between A) A trapezoidal notch fall B) A low weir fall
head regulator and water is generally kept
C) A rectangular notch fall D) All the above
A) 80° B) 90°
Answer: Option D
C) 110° D) 120°
356. A current meter measures the velocity of flow, if it is held
Answer: Option C
A) On the surface of water B) At the bottom of channel
352. In rigid module, the discharge
C) At any point within the cross-section D) None of these
A) Is independent of water levels in the distributary and water
course Answer: Option C
B) Depends upon the water level in distributary 357. The width of a meander belt is the transverse distance
between
C) Depends upon the water level in the water course (A) Apex point of one curve and apex point of the reserve curve
D) Depends upon the water levels of both, i.e. distributary and B) Apex point and the crossing
water course
C) Two banks of meandering river D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
353. Lacy's regime condition is obtained if
358. The saturation line is the line up to which banks get
A) Silt grade in the channel is variable saturated after the canal runs for some time.The saturation
gradient in ordinary loam soil, is generally
B) Discharge in the channel is variable
A) 2:1 B) 3 :1
Model Test
C) 4:1 D) 5 :1
1. A counter berm is
Answer: Option C
A) a horizontal benching provided on the inside slope
359. The sensitivity of a rigid module, is
B) a horizontal benching provided on the outside slope
A) 2.00 B) 1.50
C) a vertical benching provided on the outer edge of the bank
C) 1.00 D) Zero
D) a vertical benching provided on the inner edge of the bank
Answer: Option D
2. The ratio of the rate of change of discharge of an outlet and
360. The ratio of the discharge over a trapezoidal crest to a parent channel, is known as
A) 1.084 B) 1.074
C) 1.064 D) 1.054
3. According to Lacey, depth of scour in a river depends upon
Answer: Option A the straightness of the reach. If D is the depth of scour in regime
flow in a right angled bend, it is
361. The top soil of a water logged field becomes more alkaline
and infertile if its pH value is A) 1.25 D B) 1.50 D
A) 5 B) 7
C) 1.75 D D) 2.00 D
C) 9 D) 11
Answer: Option D constructed, is
362. For standing crops in undulating sandy fields, the best A) ridge canal B) perennial canal
A) Sprinkler irrigation B) Free flooding C) inundation canal D) canal
C) Check method D) Furrow method 5. The ratio of the discharge over a trapezoidal crest to a
Answer: Option A
A) 1.084 B) 1.074
363. The uplift pressure on the roof of an inverted syphon, is
maximum when C) 1.064 D) 1.054
A) Drain in running dry B) Canal is running dry
C) Canal is running with F.S.L. D) Drain is running with H.F.L. answer 1. B 2. C 3. D 4.C 5.B
Answer: Option D
6. If water table is comparatively high, the irrigation canal C. root zone of the crops are saturated D. all the above
becomes useless, due to
12. An outlet is said to be proportional if its flexibility,
A) large amount of seepage
A. zero B. less than one
B) water logging of the cultivated areas
C. more than one D. one
C) uncertain water demand D) spread of malaria
E) all the above irrigation, is
7. If average particle size of the silt in millimetres is m, the A. free flowing method B. check method
Lacey's silt factor f is proportional to
C. furrow method D. sprinkling method
A) m B) m^3
14. The ratio of the rate of change of discharge of an outlet to
C) m^1/2 D) m^1/3 the rate of change in level of water surface in a distributary at its
8. The water face of the guide banks, is protected by
A. efficiency B. sensitivity
A) one men stone pitching B) two man stone pitching
C. flexibility D. modular limit
C) three man stone pitching D) four man stone pitching
15. The width of a dowla is generally kept between 30 to 60 cm
9. To hold hydraulic jumps, baffle walls are provided in and its height above the road level should invariably be more
than
A) Sarda type falls B) English type falls
A. 10 cm B. 20 cm
C) Montague type falls D) Vertical type falls C. 30 cm D. 40 cm
10. While deciding the alignment of a proposed canal taking off 16. In a concrete canal the approximate permissible velocity of
from a river at B, three alignments of a pproximately equal water should not exceed
lengths are available. These cross a drainages at C1, C2 and C3
where drainage bed levels C1 > C2 > C3, you will provide at site A. 0.5 m/sec B. 1 m/sec
C3
C. 1.5 m/sec D. 2 m/sec
A. an aqueduct B. a syphon aqueduct 17. The uplift pressure on the roof of an inverted syphon, is
maximum when
C. a super passage D. a syphon
A. drain in running dry B. canal is running dry
11. A land is said to be water-logged if its soil pores within
C. canal is running with F.S.L. D. drain is running with H.F.L.
A. a depth of 40 cm are saturated
Answer 6. E 7. C 8.A 9.B 10.A 11.C
B. a depth of 50 cm are saturated 12.D 13.B 14.B 15.C 16.D 17.D
18. If the straight sides of a triangular section of a lined canal 25. The state of the soil when plants fail to extract sufficient
with circular bottom of ra dius D, make an angle θ with water for their requirements, is
horizontal, the hydraulic mean depth is
A) maximum saturated point B) permanent wilting point
A) D B) D/2
C) ultimate utilisation point D) none of these
C) D/3 D) D/4
26. A deficit of sediments in flowing water may cause a river
19. Garnett's diagrams are used for graphical solution of design
equations of a canal by A0 meandering type B) aggrading type
A) Lacey's theory B) Kennedy's theory C) degrading type D) sub-critical type
C) Gibb's theory D) Lindlay theory 27. The Lacey's regime velocity is proportional to
20. A current meter measures the velocity of flow, if it is held A) R1/2 S3/4 B) Q3/4 S1/3
A) on the surface of water B) at the bottom of channel C) R3/4 S1/3 D) R2/3 S1/2
C) at any point within the cross -section D) none of these 28. In a barrage, the crest level is kept
21. The ratio of the head recovered to the head put in, is known A) low with large gate B) high with large gates
as
A. efficiency B. sensitivity C) high with no gates D) low with no gates
C. flexibility D. modular limit 29. The field capacity of a soil is 25%, its permanent wilting point
is 15% and specific dry unity weight is 1.5. If the depth of root
22. The field capacity of a soil depends upon zone of a crop, is 80 cm, the storage capacity of the soil, is
A) Capillary tension in soil B) porosity of soil A) 8 cm B) 10 cm
C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) C) 12 cm D) 14 cm
23. Lacey's equation for calculating flood discharge in rivers, is 30. Meandering of a river generally occurs, in
A) V = 10.8 R^1/2 S^1/2 B) V = 10.8 R^2/3 S^1/2 A) rocky stage B) delta stage
C) V = 10.8 R^2/3 S^1/3 D) V = 10.8 R^1/3 S^2/3 C) boulder stage D) trough stage
For standing crops in undulating sandy fields, the best method of 31. In north Indian Plains, optimum depth of kor watering for
irrigation, is wheat, is
A) sprinkler irrigation B) free flooding A) 23.0 cm B) 19.0 cm
C) check method D) furrow method C) 17.5 cm D) 13.5 cm
Answer 18.B 19.B 20.C 21.A 22.C 23.C 24.A Answer 25.D 26.C 27.C 28.A 29.C 30.D 31.D
32. the most suitable location of a canal head work, is 38. According to Khosla, the exist gradient of surface flow
A) boulders stage of the river B) delta stage of the river A) depends upon the b/d ratio B) is independent of the b/d ratio
C) rock stage of the river D) trough stage of the river C) is independent of the depths of d/s cut off walls
33. The down stream expansion head of a guide bank is extended D) none of these
to subtend an angle at the centre, equal to
39. The length and width of a meander and also the width o f the
A) 30° B) 45° river, vary roughly as
C) 60° D) 90° A) square root of the discharge B) discharge
34. If the optimum depth of kor watering for a crop is 15.12 cm, C) square of the discharge D) cube of the discharge
the outlet factor for the crop for four week period in hectares
per cumec, is 40. The structure constructed to allow drainage water to flow
A) 1000 B) 1200 called
A) syphon B) super passage
C) 1400 D) 1600
C) aqueduct D) syphon aqueduct
35. If the irrigation efficiency is 80%, conveyance losses are 20%
and the actual depth of watering is 16 cm, the depth of water 41. The velocity of drainage water in the barrels of a syphon-
required at the canal outlet, is aqueduct, is normally limited to
A) 10 cm B) 15 cm A) 1 to 2 m per second B) 2 to 3 m per second
C) 20 cm D) 25 cm C) 3 to 4 m per second D) 4 to 5 m per second
36. In gravity canals, F.S.L. is 42. For a standing crop, the consumptive use of wate r is equal to
the depth of water
A) always at the ground level
A) transpired by the crop B) evaporated by the crop
B) always below the ground level
C) transpired and evaporated by the crop
C) generally 4 to 5 metres above the ground level
D) used by the crop in transpiration, evaporation and also the
D) only a few cm above the ground level quantity of water evaporated from ad jacent soil
A) permanent canals B) ridge canals

Answer 32.D 33.B 34.D 35.D 36.D 37.C
C) perennial canals D) inundation canals 38.A 39.A 40. D 41.B 42.D
43. A current meter measures the velocity of flow, if it is held 50. The water face of the guide banks, is protected by
A) on the surface of water B) at the bottom of channel A) one men stone pitching B) two man stone pitching
C) at any point within the cross -section D) none of these C) three man stone pitching D) four man stone pitching
44. An outlet is said to be proportional if its flexibility, is 51. Garnett's diagrams are used for graphical solution of design
equations of a canal by
A) zero B) less than one
A) Lacey's theory B) Kennedy's theory
C) more than one D) one
C) Gibb's theory D) Lindlay theory
45. To hold hydraulic jumps, baffle walls are provided in
A) Sarda type falls B) English type falls irrigation, is
C) Montague type falls D) Vertical type falls A) free flowing method B) check method
46. The field capacity of a soil depends upon C) furrow method D) sprinkling method
A) capillary tension in soil B) porosity of soil 53. Lacey's equation for calculating flood discharge in rivers, is
C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) A) V = 10.8 R1/2 S1/2 B) V = 10.8 R2/3 S1/2
47. According to Lacey, depth of scour in a river depends upon C) V = 10.8 R2/3 S1/3 D) V = 10.8 R1/3 S2/3
the straightness of the reach. If D is the depth of scour in regime
flow in a right angled bend, it is 54. The uplift pressure on the roof of an inverted syphon, is
maximum when
A) 1.25 D B) 1.50 D A) drain in running dry B) canal is running dry
C) 1.75 D D) 2.00 D C) canal is running with F.S.L. D) drain is running with H.F.L.
48. In a concrete canal the approximate permissible velocity of 55. The ratio of the rate of change of discharge of an outlet to
water should not exceed the rate of change in level of water surface in a distributary at its
constructed, is
Answer 43.C 44.D 45.B 46.C 47.D 48.D
A) ridge canal B) perennial canal 49.C 50.A 51.B 52.B 53.C 54.D 55.C
C) inundation canal D) canal

56. The ratio of the head recovered to the head put in, is known 62. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following.
as Culturable commanded area is the gross area of an irrigation
A) efficiency B) sensitivity canal system less
C) flexibility D) modular limit A) Populated area B) Alkaline area
57. For standing crops in undulating sandy fields, the best C) Forest area D) Fallow land
63. Attracting groynes are built
A) sprinkler irrigation B) free flooding
A) Perpendicular to the bank B) Inclined down stream
C) check method D) furrow method
C) Inclined up stream D) None of these
58. The ratio of the discharge over a trapezoidal crest to a
rectangular crest of Sarda falls of identical parameters, is 64. A current meter measures the velocity of flow, if it is held
A) 1.084 B) 1.074 A) On the surface of water B) At the bottom of channel
C) 1.064 D) 1.054 C) At any point within the cross -section D) None of these
59. The ratio of the rate of change of discharge of an outlet and 65. Retrogression of the bed level of a river downstream a weir,
parent channel, is known as occurs due to
A) Heavy impact of water B) Increase of the bed level
C) Less percentage of silt D) Soft soil strata
66. When a canal is carried over a natural drainage, the
30. According to Lacey, in regime conditions structure provided, is known as
A) silt is kept in suspension by vertical components of eddies A) Syphon B) Aqueduct
B) entire cross-section of the channel is generated at all points by C) Super passage D) Syphon-aqueduct
the forces normal to the wett ed perimeter
67. For standing crops in undulating sandy fields, the best
C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b) method of irrigation, is
A) Sprinkler irrigation B) Free flooding
61. For low navigation dams, the type of gate used is
C) Check method D) Furrow method
A) rolling gate B) bear trap gate
68. Meandering of a river generally occurs, in
C) vertical lift gate D) drum gate
A) Rocky stage B) Delta stage
C) Boulder stage D) Trough stage

Answer 56.A 57.A 58.A 59.B 60.C 61.B
Answer 62.D 63.B 64.C 65.C 66.B 67.A 68.D
Concrete Technology A) 1 : 3 : 6 mix B) 1 : 1 : 2 mix
1. For quality control of Portland cement, the test C) 1 : 2 : 4 mix D) 1 : 1.5 : 3 mix
essentially done is
Answer: Option A
A) setting time B) soundness
6. The purpose of reinforcement in pre-stressed concrete is
C) tensile strength D) consistency
A) To provide adequate bond stress
E) all the above.
B) To resist tensile stresses
Answer: Option E
C) To impart initial compressive stress in concrete
2. If 1500 g of water is required to have a cement paste
1875 g of normal consistency, the percentage of water is, D) All of the above
A) 20% B) 25% Answer: Option C
C) 30% D) 35% 7. To minimise the effect of differential settlement, the area of a

footing should be designed for
Answer: Option B
A) Dead load only B) Dead load + live load
3. Wp and Wf are the weights of a cylinder containing
partially compacted and fully compacted concrete. If the C) Dead load + fraction of live load
compaction factor is 0.95, the workability of concrete is
D) Live load + fraction of dead load
A) extremely low B) very low
Answer: Option C
C) low D) high
8. Due to circumferential action of the spiral in a spirally
Answer: Option D reinforced column
A) Capacity of column is decreased
4. For given water content, workability decreases if the
concrete aggregates contain an excess of B) Ductility of column reduces
A) thin particles B) flat particles C) Capacity of column is decreased but ductility of column
increases
C) elongated particles D) flaky paticles
D) Both the capacity of column and ductility of column increase
E) all the above
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option E
9. For concreting of heavily reinforced sections without
5. M10 grade of concrete approximates vibration, the workability of concrete expressed as compacting
factor should be
14. Workability of concrete is directly proportional to
A) 0.75 - 0.80 B) 0.80 - 0.85
A) Aggregate cement ratio B) Time of transit
C) 0.85 - 0.92 D) Above 0.92
C) Grading of the aggregate D) All of above
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
10. For ensuring quality of concrete, use
15. Critical section for shear in case of flat sla bs is at a distance of
A) single sized aggegates B) two sized aggregate
A) Effective depth of slab from periphery of column/drop panel
C) graded aggregates D) coarse aggregates
B) d/2 from periphery of column/capital/ drop panel
Answer: Option C
C) At the drop panel of slab D) At the periphery of column
11. According to I.S. : 456, the number of grades of concrete
mixes, is Answer: Option B
A) 3 B) 4 16. For road pavements, the cement generally used, is
C) 5 D) 6 E) 7 A) Ordinary Portland cement B) Rapid hardening cement
Answer: Option E C) Low heat cement D) Blast furnace slag cement
12. The practical utility of concrete technology for civil Answer: Option B
engineers is to
17. For a slab supported on its four edges with corners held
A) enable them to know how to stock properly the materials down and loaded uniformly, the Marcus correction factor to the
required for concrete moments obtained by Grashoff Rankine's theory
B) enable them to perform different tests concerning concrete A) Is always less than 1 B) Is always greater than 1
C) make them conversant with fundamental principles of C) Can be more than 1 D) Can be less than 1
concrete
Answer: Option A
D) all of the above
18. Addition of pozzolana to ordinary port land cement, causes
Answer: Option D
A) Decrease in early strength
13. The strength and durability of concret e depends upon
B) Reduction in chemical action with sulphates
A) size of aggregates B) grading of aggregates
C) Increase in shrinkage D) All the above
C) moisture contents of aggregates D) all of these
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
19. The breaking up of cohesion in a mass of concrete is called 24. Ferro-concrete is another name given to
A) workability B) bleeding A) plain cement concrete B) reinforced cement concrete
C) segregation D) creep C) prestressed cement concrete D) none of these
20. The workability of concrete is defined as the 25. Reinforced cement concrete is equally strong in taking
A) ease with which it can be mixed, transported and placed in A) tensile and compressive stresses
position in a homogeneous state
B) compressive and shear stresses
B) breaking up of cohesion in a mass of concrete
C) tensile, compressive and shear stresses
C) separation of water or water-cement mixture from the
freshly mixed concrete D) tensile and shear stresses
D) none of the above Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A 26. Plain cement concrete is strong in taking
21. The continuous strain, which the concrete undergoes due A) tensile stress B) compressive stress
to application of external loads, is called
C) shear stress D) all of these
A) workability B) bleeding
Answer: Option B
C) segregation D) creep
27. The cement concrete in which high compressive stresses
Answer: Option D are artificially induced before its actual use, is called
22. Segregation in concrete results in A) plain cement concrete B) reinforced cement concrete
A) honey combing B) porous layers C) prestressed cement concrete D) lime concrete
C) surface scaling D) all of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D 28. For heat and sound insulation purposes, we shall use
23. Harshness in concrete is due to the excess of A) vacuum concrete B) air-entrained concrete
A) water B) finer particles C) saw dust concrete D) both (b) and (c)
C) middle sized particle D) coarser particles Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
A) vacuum concrete B) light weight concrete
29. In lime concrete, lime is used as
C) prestressed concrete D) sawdust concrete
A) coarse aggregate B) fine aggregate
Answer: Option A
C) binding material D) admixture
35. The removal of excess air after placing concrete helps in
Answer: Option C increasing the strength of concrete by
30. The type of lime used in lime concrete is A) 15 to 20% B) 20 to 30%
A) fat lime B) poor lime C) 30 to 50% D) 50 to 70%
C) slaked lime D) hydraulic lime Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D 36. The cement concrete prepared by mixing aluminium in it,
is called
31. The lime concrete has
A) air-entrained concrete B) cellular concrete
A) less B) more C) same
C) aerated concrete D) any one of the above
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
32. The temperature reinforcement in the vertical slab of a T -
shaped R.C. retaining wall is 37. The light-weight concrete is prepared by
A) Not needed B) Provided equally on inner and front faces A) mixing Portland cement with sawdust in specified
proportion in the concrete
C) Provided more on inner face than on front face
B) using coke-breeze, cinder or slag as aggregate in the
D) Provided more on front face than on inner face concrete
Answer: Option D C) mixing aluminium in the concrete D. none of tha above
33. Bulking of sand is maximum if moisture content is about Answer: Option B
A) 2% B) 4% 38. The sound absorption coefficient of light weight concrete is

nearly
C) 6% D) 10 %
A) twice B) three times
Answer: Option B
C) four times D) six times
34. The cement concrete, from which entrained air and
excess water are removed after placing it in position, is called Answer: Option A
39. Diagonal tension in a beam Answer: Option B
A) Is maximum at neutral axis 43. In making precast structural units for partition and wall
lining purposes, the concrete should be
B) Decreases below the neutral axis and increases above the
neutral axis A) sawdust concrete B) air-entrained concrete
C) Increases below the neutral axis and decreases above the C) light-weight concrete D) vacuum concrete
neutral axis
Answer: Option C
D) Remains same
44. The mixture of different ingredients of cement, is burnt at
Answer: Option C
A) 1000°C B) 1200°C
40. According to IS: 4561978, the column or the strut is the
member whose effective length is greater than C) 1400°C D) 1600°C
A) The least lateral dimension Answer: Option C
B) 2 times the least lateral dimension 45. The risk of segregation is more for
C) 3 times the least lateral dimension A) wetter mix
D) 4 times the least lateral dimension B) larger proportion of maximum size aggregate
Answer: Option C C) coarser grading D) all the above.
41. When shear stress exceeds the permissible limit in a slab, Answer: Option D
then it is reduced by
46. After casting, an ordinary cement concrete on drying
A) Increasing the depth B) Providing shear reinforcement
A) expands B) mix
C) Using high strength steel
C) shrinks D) none of these
D) Using thinner bars but more in number
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
47. To obtain cement dry powder, lime stones and shales or
42. In counterfort retaining walls, the main reinforc ement in the their slurry, is burnt in a rotary kiln at a temperature between
stem at support is
A) Not provided B) Provided only on inner face A) 1100° and 1200°C B) 1200° and 1300°C
C) Provided only on front face C) 1300° and 1400°C D) 1400° and 1500°C
D) Provided both on inner and front faces Answer: Option D

48. Due to shrinkage stresses, a simply supported beam having 53. Permissible compressive strength of M 300 concrete
reinforcement only at bottom tends to grade is
A) 100 kg/cm2 B) 150 kg/cm2
A) Deflect downward B) Deflect upward
C) 200 kg/ cm2 D) 300 kg/cm2
C) Deflect downward or upward D) None of the above
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
54. Proper proportioning of concrete, ensures
49. The bulk density of aggregates does not depend upon :
A) desired strength and workability
A) size and shape of aggregates
B) desired durability C) water tightness of the structure
B) specific gravity of aggregates
D) resistance to water E) all the above
C) grading of aggregates D) size and shape of the container
Answer: Option E
Answer: Option D
55. The main object of compaction of concrete, is:
50. Curing
A) To eliminate air holes B) To achieve maximum density
A) reduces the shrinkage of concrete
C) To provide intimate contact between the concrete and
B) preserves the properties of concrete embedded materials
C) prevents the loss of water by evaporation D) All the above
D) all of the above. Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D 56. Which of the following has high tensile strength?
51. While compacting the concrete by a mechanical vibrator, A) Plain hot rolled wires B) Cold drawn wires
the slump should not exceed
A) 2.5 cm B) 5.0 cm C) Heat treated rolled wires
C) 7.5 cm D) 10 cm D) All have same tensile strength
52. An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least dimension is 57. Concrete gains strength due to
less than
A) 1/5th of mean dimension B) 2/5th of mean dimension A) Chemical reaction of cement with sand and coarse aggregates
C) 3/5th of mean dimension D) 4/5th of mean dimension B) Evaporation of water from concrete
Answer: Option C C) Hydration of cement D) All the above

Answer: Option C C) complete mechanisation of concrete preparation and its
placing process
58. The following proportion of the ingredients of concrete
mix, is not in conformation to arbitrary meth od of proportioning D) all of the above
A) 1:1:2 B) 1:2:4 Answer: Option D
C) 1:3:6 D) 1 : 4 : 10 63. To determine the modulus of rupture, the size of test

specimen used is
Answer: Option D
A) 150 × 150 × 500 mm B) 100 × 100 × 700 mm
59. The ratio of the length to breadth of a wooden float, is
C) 150 × 150 × 700 mm D) 100 × 100 × 500 mm
A) 4.5 B) 5.5
Answer: Option C
C) 6.5 D) 7.5
64. Tricalcium aluminate (C3A)
Answer: Option D
A) Reacts fast with water
60. Workability improved by adding
B) Generates less heat of hydration
A) air-entraining agent B) foaming agent
C) Causes initial setting and early strength of cement
C) oily-agent D) aluminium compound
D) Does not contribute to develop ultimate strength
E) all the above
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option E
65. If the various concrete ingredients i.e. cement, sand and
61. The commonly used material in the manufacture of cement is aggregates are in the ratio of 1:3:6, the grade of concrete, is
A) sand stone B) slate A) M 100 B) M 150
C) lime stone D) graphite C) M 200 D) M 250
62. The characteristic, which makes the concrete a versatile and 66. Admixtures which cause early setting and hardening of
widely used material of modern consturction, is the possibility of concrete are called
A) controlling the properties of concrete by using appropriate A) Workability admixtures B) Accelerators

ingredients
C) Retarders D) Air entraining agents
B) moulding the concrete in any desired shape
Answer: Option B
67. The material used as an ingredient of concrete is usually A) 900° to 1000°C B) 1000°C to 1200°?C
A) cement B) aggregate C) 1200°C to 1500°C D) 1500°C to 1600°C
C) water D) all of these Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D 73. Which of the following ingredient of cement when added
in excess quantity, causes the cement to set slowly?
68. A suitable admixture added at the time of preparing the
concrete mix, makes the concrete. A) Lime B) silica
A) water proof B) acid proof C) alumina D) iron oxide
C) highly strong D) all of these Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D 74. Lime when added in excess quantity
69. The function of aggregates in concrete is to serve as A) makes the cement unsound
A) binding material B) filler B) cuses the cement to expand and disintegrate
C) catalyst D) all of these C) lowers the clinkering temperature of cement
Answer: Option B D) both (a) and (b)
70. Calcareous material used in the manufacture of cement Answer: Option D

consists of
75. In order to provide colour, hardness and strength to the
A) lime stone B) chalk cement, the ingredient used is
C) shells D) all of these A) lime B) silica
Answer: Option D C) alumin D) iron oxide
71. In the manufacture of cement, the dry or wet mixture of Answer: Option D
calcareous and argillaceous materials is burnt in a
76. After the final grinding, the cement is sieved through IS
A) country kiln B) continuous flare kiln sieve number
C) rotary kiln D) all of these A) 9 B) 12
Answer: Option C C) 24 D) 48
72. In the manufacture of cement, the dry or wet mixture of Answer: Option A
calcareous and argillaceous materials is burnt at a temperature
between
77. Argillaceous materials contain 82. Efflorescence in cement is caused due to the excess of
A) calcium B) lime C) alumina A) silica B) lime
Answer: Option C C) alkalies D) iron oxide
78. The proportion of lime, silica, alumina and iron oxide in a Answer: Option C
good Portland cement should be
83. The presence of tricalcium silicate in cement
A) 63 : 22 : 6 : 3 B) 62 : 22 : 3 : 6
A) hydrates the cement rapidly
C) 22 : 63 : 6 : 3 D) 22 : 63 : 3 : 6
B) generates less heat of hydration
Answer: Option A
C) offers high resistance to sulphate attack
79. The chemical ingredient of cement which provides quick
setting property to the cement is D) all of these
A) lime B) silica Answer: Option A
C) alumina D) iron oxide 84. The presence of dicalcium silicate in cement
Answer: Option C A) hydrates the cement slowly
80. The presence of lime in cement B) generates less heat of hydration
A) makes the cement sound C) has more resistance to sulphate attack D) all of these
B) provides strength to the cement Answer: Option D
C) lowers the clinkering temperature D) all of these 85. The tricalcium aluminate in cement has the property of
Answer: Option B A) reacting fast with water B) causing initial setting of cement
81. The gypsum is added to the cement for C) generating large amount of heat hydration D) all of these
A) providing high strength to the cement Answer: Option D
B) controlling the initial setting time of cement 86. High percentage of tricalcium silicate and low percentage
of dicalcium silicate in cement results in
C) lowering the clinkering temperature of cement
A) rapid hardening B) high erly strength
D) all of the above
C) high heat generation D) none of these
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
87. For construction of structures in sea water, the cement C) low heat cement D) blast furnace slag cement
generally preferred to, is
Answer: Option B
A) Portland-pozzolana cement B) Quick setting cement
93. Which of the following statement is correct?
C) Low heat Portland cement D) Rapid hardening cement
A) The high early strength is obtained by adding tricalcium
Answer: Option A silicate in cement
88. Curing of pavements, floors, roofs and slabs, is done by B) The dicalcium silicate provides good ultimate strength to
cement
A) Membrane method B) Ponding method
C) The tetra calcium alumino ferrite has poor cementing value
C) Covering surface with bags D) Sprinkling water method
D) all of the above
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
89. The bulk density of aggregates, depends upon
94. The sum of the percentage of tricalcium silicate and
A) Shape B) Grading dicalcium silicate for Portland cement varies from
C) Compaction D) All the above A) 50 to 60% B) 60 to 70%
Answer: Option D C) 70 to 80% D) 80 to 90%
90. In symmetrically reinforced sections, shrinkage stresses in Answer: Option C

concrete and steel are respectively
95. Rapid hardening cement is used
A) Compressive and tensile B) Tensile and compressive
A) where high early strength is desired
C) Both compressive D) Both tensile
B) where form work is to be removed as early as possible
Answer: Option B
C) for constructing road pavements D) all of the above
91. Internal friction between the ingredients of concrete, is
decreased by using Answer: Option D
A) less water B) fine aggregates 96. The cement, widely used in retaining walls, is
C) rich mix D) more water and coarse aggregates A) rapid hardening cement B) low heat cement
Answer: Option D C) sulphate resisting cement D) ordinary Portland cement
92. For road pavements, the cement generally used, is

Answer: Option B
A) ordinary Portland cement B) rapid hardening cement
97. Construction joints are generally provided in concret e 102. Blast furnace slag cement is used for
A) roads B) retaining walls A) dams B) bridge abutments
C) lining of canals D) lining of tunnels C) retaining walls D) all of these
E) all the above Answer: Option D
Answer: Option E 103. Blast furnace slag cement
98. Separation of coarse aggregates from mortar during A) develops low heat of hydration B) has less early strength
transportation, is known
C) develops high heat of hydration D) has high early strength
A) bleeding B) creeping
E) Both (a) and (b)
C) segregation D) shrinkage
Answer: Option E
Answer: Option C
99. Grading of sand causes great variation in 104. Which of the following cements is expected to have the
highest compressive strength after 3 days.
A) workability of concrete B) strength of concrete
C) durability of concrete D) handing and placing of concrete
C) high alumina cement D) sulphate resisting cement
E) all the above
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option E
105. For a structure subjected to the action of sea water, the
100. Shrinkage in concrete can be reduced by using cement used is
A) low water cement ratio B) less cement in the concrete A) rapid hardening cement B) low heat cement
C) proper concrete mix D) presaturated aggregates C) high alumina cement D) sulphate resisting cement
E) all the above Answer: Option C
Answer: Option E 106. The strength of concrete using air entraining cement gets
reduced by
101. Ordinary concrete is not used for concrete grade
A) 5 to 10% B) 10 to 15%
A) M 100 B) M 150
C) 15 to 20% D) 20 to 25%
C) M 200 D) M 400
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
107. 1.S. Sieve Nos. 10 mm and 4.75 mm are geneally used for 112. ISI has specified full strength of concrete after
grading of
A) 7 days B) 14 days
A) coarse aggregates B) fine aggregates
C) 21 days D) none of these
C) neither (a) nor (b) D) both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
113. Percentage of pozzolanic material containing clay upto
108. Addition of pozzolana to ordinary port land cement, causes 80% used for the manufacture of pozzolana cement, is
A) decrease in early strength A) 30% B) 40%
B) reduction in chemical action with sulphates C) 50% D) 60%
C) increase in shrinkage D) reduction bleeding Answer: Option A
E) all the above 114. The process of hardening the concrete by keeping its
surface moist is known
Answer: Option E
A) placing B) wetting
109. Too wet concrete may cause
C) curing D) compacting
A) weakness of concrete B) excessive laitance
Answer: Option C
C) segregation D) lower density
115. The grade of concrete not recommended by I.S. : 456, is
E) all the above
A) M 100 B) M 200
Answer: Option E
C) M 300 D) M 500
110. Batching error means inaccuracy in the quantity of
Answer: Option D
A) aggregates B) cement
116. C.R.R.I. charts are used to obtain a relatioship between
C) water D) all the above strength of concrete and
Answer: Option D A) water cement ratio B) workability
111. You are asked to construct a massive dam, the typ e of C) grading of aggregate D) fineness modulus
cement you will use, is
A) ordinary Portland cement B) rapid hardening cement Answer: Option A
C) low heat cement D) blast furnace slag cement 117. Proper batching ensures
Answer: Option C A) economy B) durability

C) workability D) strength 123. Workability of concrete for a given water content is good
if the aggregates, are
E) all the above Answer: Option E
A) rounded aggregate B) irregular aggregate
118. Water required per bag of cement, is
C) angular aggregate D) flaky aggregates.
A) 7 kg B) 14 kg
Answer: Option A
C) 21 kg D) 35 kg
124. For compacting plain concrete road surface of thickness
Answer: Option D less than 20 cm, we use
119. "Colocrete" is the commercial term for A) internal vibrator B) screed vibrator
A) high alumina cement B) coloured cement C) form vibrator D) none of these
C) low heat cement D) rapid hardening cement Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B 125. Specified compressive strengh of concrete is obtained

from cube tests at the end of
120. Pezzolana is essentially a silicious material containing clay
upto A) 3 days B) 7 days
A) 20% B) 40% C) 14 days D) 28 days
C) 60% D) 80% Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D 126. An aggregate is said to be flaky, if its least dimension is

less than
121. In the manufacture of possolana cement, the amount of
pozzolana material added to ordinary Portland cement clinkers is A) 2/3 mean dimension B) 3/4 mean dimension
about
C) 3/5 mean dimension D) 5/8 mean dimension
A) 20% B) 30%
Answer: Option C
C) 40% D) 50%
127. The percentage of the aggregate of F.M. 2.6 to be
Answer: Option B combined with coarse aggregate of F.M. 6.8 for obtaining the
aggregates of F.M. 5.4, is
122. The degree of grinding of cement is called
A) 30% B) 40%
A) fineness B) soundness
C) 50% D) 60%
C) impact value D) bulking
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
128. The hardening is the phenomenon by virtue of which Answer: Option D
A) the cement does not undergo large change in volume when 133. The final operation of finishing floors, is known as
treted with water
A) screeding B) floating
B) the plastic cement paste changes into hard mass
C) trowelling D) finishing
C) the cement paste sets and develops strength
Answer: Option C
134. The internal dimensions of a ware house are 15 m x 5.6
Answer: Option C m, and the maximum height of piles is 2.70 m, the maximum
number of bags to be stored in two piles, are
129. The phenomenon by virtue of which the cement does not
undergo large change in volume when treated with water, is A) 1500 bags B) 2000 bags
known as
C) 2500 bags D) 3000 bags
A) fineness B) soundness
Answer: Option D
C) setting time D) none of these
135. The maximum thickness of concrete floor of a cement
Answer: Option B warehouse, is
130. The compressive strength of an ordinary Portland cement (1 A) 10 cm B) 15 cm

: 3 cement mortar cube) after 7 days test should not be less than
C) 20 cm D) 25 cm
A) 11 N/mm2 B) 17.5 N/mm2
Answer: Option D
C) 22 N/mm2 D) 27.5 N/mm2
136. The compaction of concrete, improves
Answer: Option B
A) density B) strength
131. Vicat's apparatus is used to perform
C) durability D) all the above
A) fineness test B) soundness test
Answer: Option D
C) consistency test D) compressive strength test
137. The light weight aggregates are obtained from
Answer: Option C
A) sedimentary rocks B) metamorphic rocks
132. The knowledge of a standard consistency of a cement
paste is essential to perform C) igneous rocks D) volcanic source
A) setting time test B) soundness test Answer: Option D
C) compressive strength test D) all of these

138. In Vicat's apparatus, the diameter of Vicat plunger is Answer: Option D
A) 5 mm B) 10 mm 143. If the depth of moist sand in a cylinder is 15 cm and the

depth of the sand when fully inundated with water is 12 cm, the
C) 15 mm D) 20 mm bulking of the moist sand, is
Answer: Option B A) 10% B) 12%
139. The length of Vicat plunger in Vicat's apparatus varies C) 15% D) 25%
from
Answer: Option D
A) 20 to 30 mm B) 30 to 40 mm
144. Segregation is responsible for
C) 40 to 50 mm D) 50 to 60 mm
A) honey-combed concrete B) porous layers in concrete
Answer: Option C
C) surface scaling in concrete D) sand streaks in concrete
140. The percentage of water for making a cement paste of
normal consistency varies from E) all the above
A) 15 to 25% B) 25 to 35% Answer: Option E
C) 35 to 50% D) 50 to 60% 145. Addition of pozzolana to cement
Answer: Option B A) decreases workability B) increases strength
141. To perform the initial setting time test, the water is C) increases heat of hydration D) none of these
added to the cement at the rate of
Answer: Option D
A) 0.72 P B) 0.78 P
146. The datum temperature for maturity by Plowman, is
C) 0.85 P D) 0.95 P
A) 23°C B) 0°
Answer: Option C
C) - 5.6°C D) - 11.7°C
Answer: Option D
A) Sand stones may be divided into calcareous, siliceous and
ferruginous sand stones 147. Permissible compressive strength of M 150 concrete grade
is
B) Concrete using sand stones, cracks due to excessive shrinkage
A) 100 kg/cm2 B) 150 kg/cm2
C) Broken bricks produce a concrete having good fire resisting
qualities C) 200 kg/cm2 D) 250 kg/cm2
D) All the above Answer: Option B

148. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
Answer: Option C
A) Admixtures accelerate hydration
153. Slump test of concrete is a measure ofits
B) Admixtures make concrete water proof
A) consistency B) compressive strength
C) Admixtures make concrete acid proof
C) tensile strength D) impact value.
D) Admixtures give high strength
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
154. Pozzolana cement is used with confidence for
149. For a reinforced concrete section, the shape of shear stress construction of
diagram is
A) dams B) massive foundations
A) Wholly parabolic B) Wholly rectangular
C) abutments D) R.C.C. structures
C) Parabolic above neutral axis and rectangular below neutral axis
E) all the above
D) Rectangular above neutral axis and parabolic below neutral
axis Answer: Option E
Answer: Option C 155. Efflorescence in cement is caused due to an excess of
150. Allowable shear strength of concrete, depends upon A) alumina B) iron oxide
A) Shear strength B) Tensile strength C) silica D) alkalis
C) Compressive strength D) None of these Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A 156. Le-chatelier apparatus is used to perform
151. In slump test, each layer of concrete is compacted by a st eel A) fineness test B) soundness test
rod 60 cm long and of 16 mm diameter for
C) consistency test D) compressive strength test
A) 20 times B) 25 times
Answer: Option B
C) 30 times D) 50 times
157. Initial setting time of ordinary Portland cemen t is
Answer: Option B
A) 15 min B) 30 min
152. The individual variation between test strength of sample
should not be more than C) 60 min D) 10 h
A) ±5 % of average B) ± 10 % of average
Answer: Option B
C) ± 15 % of average D) ±20 % of average
158. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: 163. According to Indian standard specifications for the
compressive strength test of cement, the cement and standard
A) Concrete for which preliminary tests are conducted, is called sand mortar in the ratio of
controlled concrete
A) 1:1 B) 1:2
B) Bulking of sand depends upon the fineness of grains
C) 1:3 D) 1:4
C) Concrete mix 1 : 6 : 12, is used for mass concrete in piers
Answer: Option C
D) All the above
164. During field test, the cement is said to be pure and of
Answer: Option D good quality when
A) the colour of cement is uniformly greenish grey
159. The slab is designed as one way if the ratio of long span to
short span is B) a handful of cement, thrown into a bucket of water, floats
A) Less than 1 B) Between 1 and 1.5 C) hand is thrusted into a bag of cement, it feels cool
C) Between 1.5 and 2 D) Greater than 2 D) all of the above
160. For the construction of cement concrete dams, the 165. The inert mineral material used for the manufacture of
maximum permissible size of the aggregates, is mortars and concretes is
A) 40 mm B) 50 mm A) cement B) water
C) 60 mm D) 70 mm C) aggregate D) admixture
161. The load carrying capacity of a helically reinforced column 166. According to IS : 383 - 1970, a good a aggregate for
as compared to that of a tied column is about concrete construction should be
A) 5 % less B) 10 % less A) chemically inert B) sufficiently strong
C) 5 % more D) 10 % more C) sufficiently hard and durable D) all of these
162. To hydrate 500kg of cement full water needed, is 167. For reinforced concrete, the aggregate used is
A) 100 kg B) 110 kg
A) sand B) gravel
C) 120 kg D) 130 kg
C) crushed rock D) all of these
167. In a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement in D) Decreased by 25% for bars in compression
the stem at mid span is provided on
Answer: Option B
A) Front face only B) Inner face only
172. For the manufacture of concrete of low density, the
C) Both front face and inner face D) None of the above aggregate used is
Answer: Option A A) furnace clinker B) coke breeze
168. Under normal conditions using an ordinary cement, the C) saw dust D) all of these
period of removal of the form work, is:
Answer: Option D
A) 7 days for beam soffits
173. The material having particle size varying from 0.002 to
B) 14 days for bottom slabs of spans 4.6 m and more 0.06 mm is termed as
C) 21 days for bottom beams over 6 m spans D) All the above A) silt B) clay
Answer: Option D C) sand D) none of these
169. Water cement ratio is generally expressed in volume of Answer: Option A

water required per
174. An aggregate is said to be
A) 10 kg B) 20 kg
A) coarse B) fine C) cyclopean
C) 30 kg D) 50 kg
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
175. The aggregate which pass through 75 mm IS sieve and
170. The minimum cover in a slab should neither be less than the entirely retain on 4.75 mm IS sieve is known as
diameter of bar nor less than
A) cyclopean aggregate B) coarse aggregate
A) 10 mm B) 15 mm
C) fine aggregate D) all-in-aggregate
C) 25 mm D) 13 mm
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
176. The maximum particle size of coarse aggregate is
171. The average permissible stress in bond for plain bars in
tension is A) 45 mm B) 55 mm
A) Increased by 10% for bars in compression C) 65 mm D) 75 mm
B) Increased by 25% for bars in compression Answer: Option D
C) Decreased by 10% for bars in compression

182. The maximum particle size of fine aggregate is
177. If the engineer-in-charge approves, the 10 cm cubes may
be used for the work test of concrete provided maximum A) 2.5 mm B) 4.75 mm
nominal size of aggregate, does not exceed
C) 5.85 mm D) 6.5 mm
A) 10 cm B) 15 cm
Answer: Option B
C) 20 cm D) 25 cm
183. The aggregate which pass through 4.75 mm IS sieve and
Answer: Option C entirely retain on 75 micron IS sieve is called
178. The diameter of the Vicat plunger is 10 mm and its length A) cyclopean aggregate B) coarse aggregate
varies from
A) 20 mm to 30 mm B) 30 mm to 40 mm
Answer: Option C
C) 40 mm to 50 mm D) 50 mm to 60 mm
184. The minimum particle size of coarse aggregate is
Answer: Option C
A) 2.5 mm B) 4.75 mm
179. Separation of water or water sand cement from a freshly
concrete, is known C) 5.85 mm D) 6.5 mm
A) bleeding B) creeping Answer: Option B
C) segregation D) flooding 185. The minimum particle size of fine aggregate is
Answer: Option A A) 0.0075 mm B) 0.075 mm
180. Slump test of concrete is a meausre ofits C) 0.75 mm D) 0.95 mm
A) consistency B) compressive strength Answer: Option B
C) tensile strength D) impact value 186. The aggregates of
Answer: Option A A) irregular B) angular
181. Saw dust can be rendered chemically inert by boiling it in C) rounded D) flaky
water containing
Answer: Option C
A) ferrous sulphate B) potassium chloride
187. The aggregates of
C) ammonia D) nitric acid
A) irregular B) angular
Answer: Option A
C) rounded D) flaky
188. The factor which affects workabilit y, is 193. For the construction of thin R.C.C. structures, t he type of
cement to be avoided, is
A) water content and its temperature
A) Ordinary Portland cement B) Rapid hardening cement
B) shape and size of the aggregates
C) Low heat cement D) Blast furnace slag cement
C) grading and surface textures of the aggregates
Answer: Option D
D) air entraining agents E) all the above
194. Which of the following R.C. retaining walls is suitable for
Answer: Option E heights beyond 6 m?
189. If the effective working time is 7 hours and per batch A) L-shaped wall B) T-shaped wall
time of concrete is 3 minutes, the output of a concrete mixer of
150 litre capacity, is C) Counterfort type D) All of the above
A) 15, 900 litres B) 16, 900 litres Answer: Option C
C) 17, 900 litres D) 18, 900 litres 195. For batching 1:3:6 concrete mix by volume, the ingredients
required per bag of 50 kg cement, are:
Answer: Option D
A) 70 litres of sand and 120 litres of aggregates
190. The bulk density of aggregates, is generally expressed as
B) 70 kg of sand and 140 litres of aggregates
A) tonnes/cubic metre B) kg/cubic metre
C) 105 litres of sand and 140 litres of aggregates
C) kg/litre D) g/cm3
D) 105 litres of sand and 210 litres of aggregates
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
191. The grade of concrete M 150 means that compressive
strength of a 15 cm cube after 28 days, is 196. A concrete using an air entrained cement
A) 100 kg/cm2 B) 150 kg/cm2 A) Has strength less than 10% to 15%
C) 200 kg/cm2 D) 250 kg/cm2 B) Has more resistance to weathering
Answer: Option B C) Is more plastic and workable
192. Allowable shear strength of concrete, depends upon D) Is free from segregation and bleeding
A) shear strength B) tensile strength Answer: Option C
C) compressive strength D) none of these.

197. The most useless aggregate is one whose surface texture is A) silt B) clay
A) smooth B) granular C) sand D) none of these
C) glassy D) honey combed and porous Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C 203. The surface where two successive placements of concrete
meet, is known as
198. To obtain a very high strength concrete, use very fine
grained A) Contraction joint B) Expansion joint
A) Granite B) Magnetite C) Construction joint D) Both (a) and (b)
C) Barite D) Volcanic scoria Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A 204. A beam curved in plan is designed for
199. An ordinary Portland cement when tested for its A) Bending moment and shear B) Bending moment and torsion
fineness, should not leave any residue on I.S. seive No. 9, more
than C) Shear and torsion D) Bending moment, shear and torsion
A) 5% B) 10%
Answer: Option D
C) 15% D) 20%
205. 'Ware house pack' of cement means
Answer: Option B
A) Full capacity of the ware house
200. The top diameter, bottom diameter and the height of a
slump mould are : B) Pressure exertion of the bags of upper layers
A) 10 cm, 20 cm, 30 cm B) 10 cm, 30 cm, 20 cm C) Pressure compaction of the bags on lower layers
C) 20 cm, 10 cm, 30 cm D) 20 cm, 30 cm, 10 cm D) Packing the ware house
201. For the manufacture of concrete of low density, the 206. High carbon content in the steel causes
aggregate used is
A) Decrease in tensile strength but increase in ductility
A) furnace clinker B) coke breeze
B) Increase in tensile strength but decrease in ductility
C) saw dust D) all of these
C) Decrease in both tensile strength and ductility
Answer: Option D
D) Increase in both tensile strength and ductility
202. The material having particle size varying from 0.002 to
0.06 mm is termed as Answer: Option B
207. An aggregate is said to be Answer: Option B
A) coarse B) fine C) cyclopean 213. If the engineer-in-charge approves, the 10 cm cubes may be
used for the work test of concrete provided maximum nominal
Answer: Option C size of aggregate, does not exceed
208. The aggregate which pass through 75 mm IS sieve and A) 10 cm B) 15 cm

entirely retain on 4.75 mm IS sieve is known as
C) 20 cm D) 25 cm
A) cyclopean aggregate B) coarse aggregate
Answer: Option C
214. Particles of 0.002 mm size are that of
Answer: Option B
A) Clay B) Sand
209. The maximum particle size of coarse aggregate is
C) Gravel D) None of these
A) 45 mm B) 55 mm
Answer: Option A
C) 65 mm D) 75 mm
215. Ultimate strength of cold drawn high steel wires
Answer: Option D
A) Increases with increase in diameter of bar
210. The maximum particle size of fine aggregate is
B) Decreases with increase in diameter of bar
A) 2.5 mm B) 4.75 mm
C) Does not depend on diameter of bar
C) 5.85 mm D) 6.5 mm
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
211. The aggregate which pass through 4.75 mm IS sieve and
entirely retain on 75 micron IS sieve is called 216. The cement whose strength is a little lower than the
ordinary cement during the first three months but attains
A) cyclopean aggregate B) coarse aggregate afterwards the same strength, is known as
C) fine aggregate D) all-in-aggregate A) Low-heat Portland cement
Answer: Option C B) Rapid hardening Portland cement
212. The minimum particle size of coarse aggregate is C) Portland blast slag cement
A) 2.5 mm B) 4.75 mm D) Portland pozzolana cement
C) 5.85 mm D) 6.5 mm Answer: Option A

217. The minimum particle size of fine aggregate is
D) its length is equal to 1.8 times its mean dimension
A) 0.0075 mm B) 0.075 mm
Answer: Option D
C) 0.75 mm D) 0.95 mm
222. Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio
Answer: Option B is determined by
218. The aggregates of A) tensile strength test B) slump test
A) irregular B) angular C) compaction factor test D) flexural strength test
C) rounded D) flaky Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C 223. For concreting tunnel linings, tran-portation of concrete

is done by
219. The aggregates of
A) pans B) wheel borrows
A) irregular B) angular
C) containers D) pumps
C) rounded D) flaky
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
224. The operation of removing humps and hollows of uniform
concrete surface, is known as
220. The aggregate is said to be flaky when
A) floating B) screeding
A) its least dimension is three-fifth of its mean dimension
C) trowelling D) finishing
B) its least dimension is equal to its mean dimension
Answer: Option B
C) its length is equal to its mean dimension
225. The void ratio of
D) its length is equal to 1.8 times its mean dimension
A) single size coarse aggregate is roughly 0.45.
Answer: Option A
B) graded coarse aggregate is roughly 0.040
221. The aggregate is said to be elongated when
C) fine aggregate is roughly 0.45
A) its least dimension is three-fifth of its mean dimension
D) all the above
B) its least dimension is equal to its mean dimension
Answer: Option D
C) its length is equal to its mean dimension
226. If the aggregate completely passes through a 50 mm A) rounded spherical B) irregular
sieve and retained on 40 mm sieve, then the partic ular aggregate
is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less than C) flaky D) none of these
A) 27 mm B) 37 mm Answer: Option A
C) 47 mm D) 57 mm 232. For the construction of cement con -certe dams, the

maximum permissible size of the aggregates, is
Answer: Option A
A) 40 mm B) 50 mm
227. The value of bulk density for angular and flaky aggregates is
C) 60 mm D) 70 mm
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
233. Permissible compressive strength of M 200 concrete grade
228. The value of bulk density of the aggregate depends upon is
A) 100 kg/cm2 B) 150 kg/cm2
A) size distribution of aggregate B) shape of aggregate
C) 200 kg/cm2 D) 250 kg/cm2
C) specific gravity of aggregate D) all of these
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
234. The aggregate containing moisture in pores and having
229. An aggregate which may contain some moisture in the its suface dry, is known as
pores but having dry surface is known as
A) moist aggregates B) very dry aggregates
A) very dry aggregate B) dry aggregate
C) dry aggregates D) saturated surface dry aggregate
C) saturated surface dry aggregate D) moist aggregate
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
235. The commercial name of white and coloured cement in
230. An aggregate having all the pores f illed with water but India, is
having dry surface is called A) colocrete B) rainbow cement
A) very dry aggregate B) dry aggregate C) silvicrete D) snowcem
C) saturated surface dry aggregate D) moist aggregate Answer: Option E
Answer: Option C 236. To hydrate 500kg of cement full water needed, is

A) 100 kg B) 110 kg
231. The type of aggregates of same nominal size, which
contain less voids when compacted, are C) 120 kg D) 130 kg
Answer: Option D
237. Ratio of permissible stress in direct compression and A) 0.43 d B) 0.55 d
bending compression is
C) 0.68 d D) 0.85 d
A) Less than 1 B) Between 1 and 1.5
Answer: Option A
C) Between 1.5 and 2.0 D) Greater than 2
242. Concrete gains strength due to
Answer: Option A
A) chemical reaction of cement with sand and coarse aggregates
238. The lower water cement ratio in concrete, introduces
B) evaporation of water from concrete
A) Smaller creep and shrinkage
C) hydration of cement D) All the above.
B) Greater density and smaller permeability
Answer: Option C
C) Improved frost resistance
243. If aggregates completely pass through a sieve of size 75
D) All the above mm and are retained on a sieve of size 60 mm, the particular
aggregate will be flaky if its minimum dimension is less than
Answer: Option D
A) 20.5 mm B) 30.5 mm
239. In T-shaped R C. retaining walls, the main reinforcement in
the stem is provided on C) 40.5 mm D) 50.5 mm
A) The front face in one direction Answer: Option C
B) The front face in both directions 244. Non-uniform compaction may cause the concrete
C) The inner face in one direction A) porous B) non-homogeneous
D) The inner face in both directions C) reduced strength D) all the above.
240. The aggregate containing moisture in pores and having its 245. Log Angles machine is used to test the aggregate for
surface dry, is known as
A) crushing strength B) impact value
A) Moist aggregates B) Very dry aggregates
C) abrasion resistance D) water absorption
C) Dry aggregates D) Saturated surface dry aggregate
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
246. If fineness modulus of sand is 2.5, it is graded as
241. According to ISI recommendations, the maximum depth of
stress block for balanced section of a beam of effective depth d is A) very fine sand B) fine sand
C) medium sand D) coarse sand C) 2400 bagsD) 2700 bags
247. Internal friction between the ingredients of concrete, is 251. Pozzolanic properties exist in
decreased by using
A) shales B) fly ash
A) Less water B) Fine aggregates
C) pumicite D) diatomaceous clay
C) Rich mix D) More water and coarse aggregates
E) all the above
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option E
252. An aggregate which passes through 25 mm I.S. sieve and is
A) The quality of water governs the strength of concrete retained on 20 mm sieve, is said to be flaky if its least dimension
is less than
B) 10% excess of water reduces the strength of concrete by 15%
A) 22.5 mm B) 18.5 mm
C) 30% excess of water reduces the strength of concrete by 50%
C) 16.5 mm D) 13.5 mm
D) All the above
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
253. Expansion joints are provided if the length of concrete
249. In pre-stressed concrete structures exceeds
A) Forces of tension and compression change but lever arm A) 10 m B) 15 m

remains unchanged
C) 15 m D) 45 m
B) Forces of tension and compressions remain unchanged but
lever arm changes with the Answer: Option D
moment
C) Both forces of tension and compression as well as lever arm
change A) fly ash B) hydrated lime
D) Both forces of tension and compression as well as lever arm C) calcium chloride D) bentonite
remain unchanged
E) all the above
Answer: Option B
250. If the effective plan area of a warehouse is 54 sq. m, and Answer: Option E
maximum height of piles permitted is 270 cm, the number of
cement bags to be stored, is 255. If the slump of a concrete mix is 60 mm, its workability is
A) 2000 bags B) 2200 bags A) very low B) low

C) medium D) high 260. The strength and quality of concrete, depend upon:
Answer: Option C A) grading of aggregates B) surface area of aggregates
256. The property of fresh concrete, in which the water in the C) shape of aggregates D) surface texture of aggregates
mix tends to rise to the surface while placing and compacting, is
called E) all the above
A) Segregation B) Bleeding Answer: Option E
C) Bulking D) Creep 261. The process of mixing, transporting, placing and

compacting concrete using Ordinary Port land Cement should not
Answer: Option B take more than
257. Workability of concrete for a given water content is good if A) 30 minutes B) 40 minutes
the aggregates, are
C) 60 minutes D) 75 minutes
A) Rounded aggregate B) Irregular aggregate
Answer: Option A
C) Angular aggregate D) Flaky aggregates
262. Sand requiring a high water cement ratio, belongs to
Answer: Option A
A) Zone I B) Zone II
258. For preparing ordinary concrete, the quantity of water used,
is C) Zone III D) Zone IV
A) 5% by weight of aggregates plus 20% of weight of cement Answer: Option A
B) 10% by weight of aggregates plus 10% of weight of cement 263. Ordinary Portland cement is manufactured from
C) 5% by weight of aggregates plus 30% of weight of cement A) lime stone and clay B) gypsum and lime
D) 30% by weight of aggregates plus 10% of weight of cement C) pozzolana D) lime, pozzolana and clay.
259. Finer grinding of cement 264. A flaky aggregate is said to be elongated if its length is
A) Affects only the early development of strength A) equal to the mean size B) twice the mean size
B) Affects only the ultimate strength C) thrice the mean size D) four times the mean size
C) Both (A) and (B) D) Does not affect the strength Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
265. The light weight aggregates are obtained from Answer: Option D
A) Sedimentary rocks B) Metamorphic rocks 270. To prevent segregation, the maximum height for placing
concrete, is
C) Igneous rocks D) Volcanic source A) 100 cm B) 125 cm
Answer: Option D C) 150 cm D) 200 cm
266. For a good concrete Answer: Option A
A) aggregates should be hard and durable 271. If the various concrete ingredients i.e. cement, sand and
aggregates are in the ratio of 1:3:6, the grade of concrete, is
B) cement should be sufficient to produce the required strength
A) M 100 B) M 150
C) water should be free from organic materials
C) M 200 D) M 250
D) mixing of ingredients should be done thoroughly so as to
produce homogeneity Answer: Option A
E) All the above 272. Water cement ratio is generally expressed in volume of
water required per
Answer: Option E A. 10 kg B. 20 kg
267. If the effective plan area of a warehouse is 54 sq. m, and C. 30 kg D. 50 kg

maximum height of piles permitted is 270 cm, the number of
cement bags to be stored, is Answer: Option D
A) 2000 bags B) 2200 bags 273. The deleterious materials present in the aggregate
C) 2400 bags D) 2700 bags A) prevent normal hydration of cement
Answer: Option D B) reduce the strength and durability of concrete
268. Gypsum is added for C) modify the setting action and cause efflorescence
A) colour B) strength D) all of the above
C) controlling setting time D) none of these Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C 274. The sum of percentages of all deleterious materials in the
aggregate shall not exceed
269. A concrete having a slump of 6.5 cm, is said to be A) 5% B) 10%
A) dry B) earth moist C) 15% D) 20%
C) semi-plastic D) plastic Answer: Option A

275. Strength of concrete with passage of time C) decreases resistance to weathering D) increases strength
A) increases B) decreases Answer: Option A
C) fluctuates D) remains constant 281. The resistance of an aggregate to compressive forces is

known as
Answer: Option A
A) crushing value B) impact value
276. Higher workability of concrete is required if the structure is
C) abrasion value D) none of these
A) made with cement concrete B) thick and reinfored
Answer: Option A
C) thin and heavily reinforced D) thick and heavily reinfored
282. The resistance of an aggregate to wear is known as
Answer: Option D
A) shear value B) crushing value
277. Setting time of cement increases by adding
C) abrasion value D) impact value
A) gypsum B) hydrogen peroxide
Answer: Option C
C) calcium chloride D) sodium oxide
283. The resistance of an aggregate to the effect of hydration
Answer: Option A of cement and weather is called
278. The shuttering of a hall measuring 4 m x 5 m, can be A) crushing value B) impact value
removed after
C) abrasion value D) soundness
A) 5 days B) 7 days
Answer: Option D
C) 10 days D) 14 days
284. Bulking of sand is
Answer: Option B
A) compacting of sand B) segregating sand of particular size
279. If 50 kg of fine aggregates and 100 kg of coarse agregates
are mixed in a concrete whose water cement ratio is 0.6, the C) increase in volume of sand due to presence of moisture upto
weight of water required for harsh mix, is certain extent
A) 8 kg B) 10 kg D) none of the above
C) 12 kg D) 14 kg Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C 285. With the moisture content of 5 to 10% by weight, the
bulking of sand is increased by
280. The entrained air in concrete
A) 20% B) 30%
A) increases workability B) decreases workability
C) 40% D) 50% Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D 291. When the sand is fully saturated, its volume is
286. Permissible compressive strength of M 200 concrete A) equal to B) less than C) more than
grade is
Answer: Option A
A) 100 kg/cm2 B) 150 kg/cm2
292. The ratio of the volume of moist sand to the volume of
C) 200 kg/cm2 D) 250 kg/cm2 dry sand is known as
Answer: Option C A) crushing value B) impact value
287. In slump test, each layer of concrete is compacted by a C) bulking factor D) none of these
steel rod 60 cm long and of 16 mm diameter for
Answer: Option C
A) 20 times B) 25 times
293. The fineness modulus of an aggregate is roughly
C) 30 times D) 40 times proportional to
A) specific gravity of the aggregate
Answer: Option B
B) shape of the aggregate
288. If the average compressive strength is 4000 kg/cm2 and
standard deviation is 500, the co-efficient of variation is C) average size of particles in the aggregate
A) 10% B) 12.5% D) grading of the aggregate
C) 15% D) 18.5 % Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B 294. The value of finencess modulus for fine sand may range
between
289. According to IS : 382-1963, a good aggregate should be
A) 1.1 to 1.3 B) 1.3 to 1.6
A) chemically inert B) sufficiently strong
C) 1.6 to 2.2 D) 2.2 to 2.6
C) hard and durable D) all the above
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
295. If the fineness modulus of sand is 3, then the sand is
290. The 28 days cube strength of mass concrete using graded as
aggregates of maximum size 5 cm for gravity dams should be
A) very fine sand B) fine sand
A) between 150 to 300 kg/cm2 B) between 350 to 600 kg/cm2
C) medium sand D) coarse sand
C) between 150 to 500 kg/cm2 D) below 200 kg/cm2
Answer: Option D
296. For the construction of thin R.C.C. structures, the type of Answer: Option D
cement to be avoided, is
302. The presence of
A) sodium carbonate and bicarbonate B) calcium chloride
C) low heat cement D) blast furnace slag cement
C) sodium chloride D) sodium sulphate
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
297. Vicat apparatus is used for
303. The presence of calcium chloride in water
A) fineness test B) consistency test
A) accelerates setting of cement
C) test for setting time D) test for tensile strength
B) accelerates hardening of cement
Answer: Option B
C) causes little effect on quality of concrete
298. Concrete is unsuitable for compaction by a vibrator if it is
D) all of these
A) dry B) earth moist
Answer: Option A
C) semi-plastic D) plastic
304. If sea water is used for preparing concrete mix, it
Answer: Option D
A) reduces strength B) corrodes steel reinforcement
299. Inert material of a cement concrete mix, is
C) causes efflorescence D) all of these
A) water B) cement
Answer: Option D
C) aggregate D) none of these
305. The standard sand now used in India is obtained from
Answer: Option C
A) Ennore (Chennai) B) Mumbai
300. Sands of zone I are
C) Orissa D) Jaipur
A) coarse B) medium
Answer: Option A
C) medium to fine D) fine
306. Insufficient quantity of water
Answer: Option A
A) makes the concrete mix harsh
301. The cement becomes useless if its absorbed moisture
content exceeds B) makes the concrete mix unworkable
A) 1% B) 2%
C) causes segregation in concrete
C) 3% D) 5%
D) causes bleeding in concrete 311. Excess quantity of water
Answer: Option B A) makes the concrete mix harsh
307. A concrete using an air entrained cement B) makes the concrete mix unworkable
A) has strength less than 10% to 15% C) causes segregation in concrete
B) has more resistance to weathering D) causes bleeding in concrete
C) is more plastic and workable Answer: Option D
D) is free from segregation and bleeding 312. The rule of water cement ratio was established by
Answer: Option C A) Duff Abram B) Plowman
308. Placing of concrete should preferably be done at a C) W. Simms D) Dr. Karl Terzaghi
temperature of
Answer: Option A
A) 0°C B) 10°C
313. According to the rule of water cement ratio, the strength
C) 20°C D) 27 ± 2°C of concrete wholly depends upon
Answer: Option d A) the quality of cement
309. The aggregate impact value of the aggregate used in B) the quality of cement mixed with aggregate
A) building concrete is less than 45 C) the amount of water used in preparation of concrete mix
B) road pavement concrete is less than 30 D) all of the above
C) runway concrete is less than 30 Answer: Option C
D) all the above 314. Hydration of cement is due to the chemical action of
water with
Answer: Option D
A) dicalcium silicate B) tricalcium silicate
310. The maximum percentage of chemical ingredient of
cement is that of C) tricalcium aluminate D) all of these
A) magnesium oxide B) iron oxide Answer: Option D
C) aluminium D) lime 315. The development of first 28 days strength is on a ccount

of the hydration of
Answer: Option D
A) dicalcium silicate B) tricalcium silicate
C) tricalcium aluminate D) tetra calcium alumino ferrite C) covering surface with bags D) sprinkling water method
316. Sand generally contains salt if it is obtained from: 321. If the water cement ratio is more, then the
A) nala beds B) river beds A) strength of concrete will be less
C) sea beds D) all the above B) durability of concrete will be less
Answer: Option C C) capillary voids will be more in the physical structure of

hydrated cement
317. The impurity of mixing water which affects the setting
time and strength of concrete, is D) all of the above
A) sodium sulphates B) sodium chlorides Answer: Option D
C) sodium carbonates and bicarbonates 322. Water-cement ratio is, usually, expressed in
D) calcium chorides A) litres of water required per bag of cement
Answer: Option C B) litres of water required per kg of cement
318. On a grading curve, the gap grading is represented by C) both (a) and (b) D) none of these
A) a horizontal line B) a vertical line Answer: Option A
C) N.W. inclined line D) N.E. inclined line 323. The concrete mix is said to be workable if it has
Answer: Option A A) compatibility B) movability
319. Bulking of sand is C) stability D) all of these
A) mixing of different sizes of sand particles Answer: Option D
B) mixing of lime with sand 324. The internal friction between the ingredients of concrete
is minimised by
C) maximum water with sand
A) adopting coarse aggregates B) using more water
D) swelling of sand when wetted.
C) reducing the surface area D) all of these
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
320. Curing of pavements, floors, roofs and slabs, is done by
325. For the improvement of workability of concrete, the
A) membrane method B) ponding method shape of aggregate recommended is
A) irregular B) angular 330. The use of air-entraining agents in concrete
C) round D) flaky A) increases workability of concrete B) decreases bleeding
Answer: Option C C) decreases strength D) all of these
326. The surface where two successive placements of Answer: Option D

concrete meet, is known as
331. The workability of concrete is expressed by
A) Contraction joint B) Expansion joint
A) water-cement ratio B) slump value
C) Construction joint D) both (a) and (b)
C) compaction factor D) both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
327. An excess of flaky particles in concrete aggregates
332. The workability of concrete can be improved by adding
A) decreases the workability
A) hydrated lime B) flyash
B) increases the quantity of water and sand
C) calcium chloride D) all of these
C) affects the durability of concrete
Answer: Option D
D) more than 15% are not desirable
333. The steel mould used for slump test is in the form of a
E) all the above
A) cube B) cylinder
Answer: Option E
C) frustrum of a cone D) none of these
328. 1.S.I. has specified the full strength of concrete after
Answer: Option C
334. The top diameter, bottom diameter and height of the
C) 21 days D) 28 days mould used for slump test are respectively
Answer: Option D A) 100 mm, 200 mm, 300 mm B) 200 mm, 100 mm, 300 mm
329. The minimum percentage of chemical ingredient of C) 200 mm, 300 mm, 100 mm D) 100 mm, 300 mm, 200 mm
cement is that of
Answer: Option A
A) magnesium oxide B) iron oxide
335. For high degree of workability, the slump value should
C) alumina D) lime vary between
Answer: Option A A) 0 to 25 mm B) 25 to 50 mm
C) 50 to 80 mm D) 80 to 100 mm Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D 341. For high degree of workability, the compaction factor is
336. The specifications of a cement bag for storage, are A) 0.65 B) 0.75
A) weight 50 kg B) height 18 cm C) 0.85 D) 0.95
C) plan area 3000 sq. cm D) volume 35 litres Answer: Option D
E) all the above 342. The aggregate impact value of the aggregate used in
Answer: Option E A) Building concrete is less than 45
337. The bulk density of aggregates, depends upon B) Road pavement concrete is less than 30
A) shape B) grading C) Runway concrete is less than 30 D) All the above
C) compaction D) all the above Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D 343. For walls, columns and vertical faces of al l structural
members, the form work is generally removed after
338. Horizontal construction joints in concrete walls are
generally provided at A) 24 to 48 hours B) 3 days
A) soffit level B) window sill level C) 7 days D) 14 days
C) floor level D) all the above Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D 344. Efflorescence in cement is caused due to an excess of
339. For a concrete mix 1:3:6 and water cement ratio 0.6 both A) Alumina B) Iron oxide
by weight, the quantity of water required per bag, is
C) Silica D) Alkalis
A) 10 kg B) 12 kg
Answer: Option D
C) 14 kg D) 16 kg
345. Minimum pitch of transverse reinforcement in a column is
Answer: Option C
A) The least lateral dimension of the member
340. Le-Chatelier's apparatus is used for testing
B) Sixteen times the smallest diameter of longitudinal
A) soundness of cement B) hardness of cement reinforcement bar to be tied
C) strength of cement D) durability of cement C) Forty-eight times the diameter of transverse reinforcement
D) Lesser of the above three values C) to provide initimate contact between the concrete and
embedded materials
Answer: Option D
D) all the above.
346. 'Ware house pack' of cement means
Answer: Option D
A) full capacity of the ware house
351. An aggregate is known as cyclopean aggregate if its size is
B) pressure exertion of the bags of upper layers more than
C) pressure compaction of the bags on lower layers A) 4.75 mm B) 30 mm
D) packing the ware house C) 60 mm D) 75 mm
347. If a grading curve is horizontal bet-wen the portions of 20 352. Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio is
mm I.S. Sieve and 4.75 mm I.S. Sieve, the graded aggregates do determined by
not contain
A) Tensile strength test B) Slump test
A) 20 mm particles B) 10 mm particles
C) Compaction factor test D) Flexural strength test
C) 4.75 mm particles D) all the above
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
353. If the average compressive strength is 4000 kg/cm2
348. The size of fine aggregates does not exceed and standard deviation is 500, the co -efficient of variation is
A) 2.75 mm B) 3.00 mm A) 10 % B) 12.5 %
C) 3.75 mm D) 4.75 mm C) 15 % D) 18.5 %
349. An aggregate is known as cyclopean aggregate if its size is 354. The effect of creep on modular ratio is
more than
A) To decrease it B) To increase it
A) 4.75 mm B) 30 mm
C) Either to decrease or to increase it D) To keep it unchanged
C) 60 mm D) 75 mm
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
355. The type of aggregates not suitable for high strength
350. The main object of compaction of concrete, is: concrete and for pavements subjected to tension, is
A) to eliminate air holes B) to achieve maximum density A) Rounded aggregate B) Irregular aggregate
C) Angular aggregate D) Flaky aggregate 361. The maximum percentage of chemical ingredient of cement
is that of
Answer: Option A
A) Magnesium oxide B) Iron oxide
356. Particles of 0.002 mm size are that of
C) Silica D) Lime
A) clay B) sand
Answer: Option D
C) gravel D) none of these
362. The commercial name of white and coloured cement in
Answer: Option A India, is
357. Workability of concrete mix having very low water - A) Colorcrete B) Silvicrete
cement ratio should be obtained by
C) Snowcem D) All the above
A) flexural strength test B) slump test
Answer: Option D
C) compaction factor test D) any one of these
Answer: Option C 363. An excess of flaky particles in concrete aggregates
358. The workability of concrete by slump test is expressed as A) Decreases the workability
A) minutes B) mm / h B) Increases the quantity of water and sand
C) mm2 / h D) mm C) More than 15% are not desirable D) All the above
359. The slump test of concrete is used to mesure its 364. Increase in the moisture content in concrete
A) consistency B) mobility A) Reduces the strength B) Increases the strength
C) homogeneity D) all of these C) Does not change the strength D) All of the above
360. If the slump of concrete mix is 70 mm, its workability is 365. The 28 days cube strength of mass concrete using
considered to be aggregates of maximum size 5 cm for gravity dams should be
A) very low B) low A) Between 150 to 300 kg/cm2 B) Between 350 to 600 kg/cm2
C) medium D) high C) Between 150 to 500 kg/cm2 D) Below 200 kg/cm2

371. Permissible compressive strength of M 150 concrete grade
366. A compaction factor of 0.88 indictes that the workability is
of concrete mix is
A) 100 kg/cm2 B) 150 kg/cm2
A) very low B) low
C) 200 kg/cm2 D) 250 kg/cm2
C) medium D) high
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
372. Cement used for normal concrete construction, is obtained
367. More water should not be added in the concrete mix, as by burning a mixture of
to increase
A) Siliceous and argillaceous materials
A) strength B) durability
B) Argillaceous and calcareous materials
C) water-cement ratio D) all of these
C) Siliceous and calcareous materials
Answer: Option C
D) Siliceous, argillaceous and calcareous materials
368. The main object of proportioning concrete is to obtain
Answer: Option D
A) required strength and workability B) desired durability
373. As compared to ordinary Portland cement, high alumina
C) water tightness D) all of these cement has
A) Higher initial setting time but lower final setting time
Answer: Option D
B) Lower initial setting time but higher final setting time
369. As per IS : 459-1978, the concrete mixes are designated
into C) Higher initial and final setting times
A) 4 grades B) 5 grades D) Lower initial and final setting times
C) 6 grades D) 7 grades Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D 374. Bulking of sand is
370. Which of the following grade is not recommended by IS A) Mixing of different sizes of sand particles
456-1978?
B) Mixing of lime with sand
A) M 10 B) M 20
C) Maximum water with sand
C) M 40 D) M 55
D) Swelling of sand when wetted
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
375. The concrete mix of grade M 25 means that the
compressive strength of 15 cm cubes at 28 days after mixing is C) 1:2:4 D) 1:3:6
A) 15 N/mm2 B) 20 N/mm2 Answer: Option B
C) 25 N/mm2 D) 30 N/mm2 380. For a longitudinal reinforcing bar in a column, the minimum
cover shall neither be less than the diameter of bar nor less than
Answer: Option C
A) 15 mm B) 25 mm
376. The test conducted in the laboratory on the specimen
made out of trial concrete mix is called C) 30 mm D) 40 mm
A) preliminary test B) slump test Answer: Option D
C) works test D) none of these 381. Workability of concrete is measured by
Answer: Option A A) Vicat apparatus test B) Slump test
377. In performing preliminary test C) Minimum void method D) Talbot Richard test
A) the moulds requred for test specimens should be rigid Answer: Option B
B) the mxi should be stored in air=tight containers 382. The size of fine aggregates does not exceed
C) the aggregates should be dry D) all of the above A) 2.75 mm B) 3.00 mm
Answer: Option D C) 3.75 mm D) 4.75 mm
378. In order to prepare a test specimen, it is necessary to Answer: Option D
A) mix the cement and fine aggregate (sand) by dry hand 383. The main reason for providing number of reinforcing bars
at a support in a simply supported beam is to resist in that zone
B) mix the coarse aggregate
A) Compressive stress B) Shear stress
C) mix water to the cment, fine aggregate and coa rse
aggregates C) Bond stress D) Tensile stress
D) all of the above Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D 384. The entrained air in concrete
379. The ratio of different ingredients (cement, sand and A) Increases workability B) Decreases workability
aggregate) in concrete mix of grade M 20 is
C) Decreases resistance to weathering D) Increases strength
A) 1:1:2 B) 1 : 1.5 : 3
Answer: Option A
385. In preliminary test, the concrete is placed in the mould in
C) 1:2:4 D. 1:3:6
A) two B) three
Answer: Option A
C) four D) five
390. The importance of storing the various ingredients of
Answer: Option B concrete is
386. The preliminary test should be repeated if the difference A) to maintain the uniformity of grading
of compressive strength of three test specimens exceeds
B) to maintain the uniformity of moisture
A) 0.5 N / mm2 B) 1 N / mm2
C) to maintain the strength of materials
C) 1.5 N / mm2 D) 2 N / mm2
D) both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
387. The mass concrete in piers and abutments, the grade of
concrete mix used, is 391. The main requirement, which a ware-house should fulfil
is that
A. 1:1:2 B. 1 : 1.5 : 3
A) its walls should be water proof masonry construction
C. 1:2:4 D. 1:3:6
B) its roof should be leak-proof
Answer: Option D
C) it must have large number of windows
388. In performing the works test
D) its plinth should be very high
A) the mould for test specimen should be made of non-
absorbent material E) Both (a) and (b)
B) the mould should be constructed in such a way that there Answer: Option E
is leakage of water from test specimen during moulding
392. The term 'ware-hourse pack' means
C) the base plate of the mould should be of non-absorbent
material A) the total capacity of ware -house
D) all of the above B) packing of ware-house
Answer: Option D C) pressure compaction of bags on lower layers
389. For highly loaded columns, the concrete mix used is of D) pressure exertion of bags on upper layers
proportion
Answer: Option C
A) 1:1:2 B) 1 : 1.5 : 3
393. If the proportions of different ingredients (cement, sand
and aggregate) are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 4, then the grade of 398. The capcity of a ware-house depends upon the
concrete is
A) floor area occupied by one cement bag
A) M 10 B) M 15
B) height to which the cement bags are piled
C) M 20 D) M 25
C) either (a) or (b) D) both (a) and (b)
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
394. If 30% excess water is added, the strength of concrete is
reduced by 399. If the effective plan area of a ware house is 54 m2, and
the maximum height of pile permitted is 2.7 m, then the number
A) 30% B) 40% of cement bags to be stord is
C) 50% D) 60% A) 2000 B) 2200
Answer: Option C C) 2500 D) 2700
395. The concrete in which preliminary tests are performed Answer: Option D
for designing the mix is called
400. The process of proper and accurate measurement of all
A) rich concrete B) controlled concrete concrete materials for uniformity of proportions and aggregate
grading is called
C) lean concrete D) ordinary concrete
A) proportioning B) grading
Answer: Option B
C) mixing D) batching
396. The maximum quantity of aggregate per 50 kg of cement
should not exceed Answer: Option D
A) 100 kg B) 200 kg 401. The importance of batching is to obt ain
C) 350 kg D) 450 kg A) strength B) workability
Answer: Option D C) durability D) all of these
397. The minimum quantity of cement to be used in Answer: Option D

controlled concrete is specified as
402. Weight batching is done by
A) 120 kg / cm3 B) 160 kg / cm3
A) spring dial scale B) platform weighing machine
C) 220 kg / cm3 D) 280 kg / cm3
C) portable weigh batchers D) all of these
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
403. The concrete in which no preliminary tests are performed 408. The measuring 50 litres of aggregate, the inner
for designing the mix is called dimensions of a farma should be
A) rich concrete B) controlled concrete A) 25 cm x 25 cm x 40 cm B) 29 cm x 29 cm x 48 cm
C) lean concrete D) ordinary concrete C) 30 cm x 30 cm x 50 cm D) 31 cm x 31 cm x 52 cm
404. The ordinary concrete is no used for 409. The mixer, which produces a steady stream of concrete
as long as it is in operation, is known as
A) M 10 B) M 20
A) non-tilling batch mixer B) tilting type batch mixer
C) M 25 D) M 40
C) continuous mixer D) none of these
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
405. The controlled concrete is used for
410. The process of mixing, transporting, placing and
A) one grade of concrete mix compacting the cement concrete should not take more than
B) three grades of concrete mix A) 30 minutes B) 60 minutes
C) five grades of concrete mix C) 90 minutes D) 120 minutes
D) all the seven grades of concrete mi Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D 411. For continuous transportation of concrete, the method

used is
406. The water used for ordinary concrete is equal to 5% by
weight of aggregate plus A) transport of concrete by pans
A) 10% B) 20% B) transport of concrete by wheel barrows
C) 30% D) 40% C) transport of concrete by belt concrete conveyors
Answer: Option C D) transport of concrete by pumps
407. For reinforced cement concrete lintels and slabs, the Answer: Option C
nominal size of coarse aggregate should not exceed.
412. For concreting of tunnel lining, the concrete is
A) 10 mm B) 15 mm transported by
C) 20 mm D) 40 mm A) pumps B) pans
Answer: Option B C) wheel barrows D) containers

413. Which of following proportion of different ingredient of 418. The concrete can be lifted by pumps through a maximum
concrete mix confirm to the arbitrary mothod of mixing? vertical distance of
A. 1:2:5 B. 1:3:7 A) 10 m B) 20 m
C. 1:4:8 D. 1:5:9 C) 30 m D) 50 m
414. The factor which effect the design of concrete mix is 419. The diameter of the pipe line used for transportation of
concrete by pumps should not exceed
A) fineness modulus B) water-cement ratio
A) 10 cm B) 20 cm
C) slump D) all of these
C) 30 cm D) 40 cm
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
415. If 50 kg of fine aggregates and 100 kg of coarse
aggregates are mixed in a concrete whose water-cement ratio is 420. The property of the ingredients to separate fr om each other
0.6, the weight of water required for harsh mix is while placing the concrete is called
A) 8 kg B) 10 kg A) Segregation B) Compaction
C) 12 kg D) 14 kg C) Shrinkage D) Bulking
416. The number of bags of cement required per cubic metre 421. The process of mixing, transporting, placing and compacting
of 1 ; 2 ; 4 concrete will be approximately concrete using Ordinary Port land Cement should not take more
than
A) 2 to 3 B) 3 to 4 A) 30 minutes B) 40 minutes
C) 4 to 5 D) 5 to 6 C) 60 minutes D) 90 minutes
417. The Indian standard code specifies that the crushing 422. The strength of concrete after one year as compared to 28
strength for which the mix should be designed in the laboratory days strength is about
should be
A) 10 to 15% more B) 15 to 20% more
A) 1.25 B) 1.5
C) 20 to 25% more D) 25 to 50% more
C) 2 D) 2.5
Answer: Option C
423. According to IS: 4561978, the flexural strength of concrete C) Coarser grading D) All the above
is
Answer: Option D
A) Directly proportional to compressive strength
428. Specified compressive strength of concrete is obtained from
B) Inversely proportional to compressive strength cube tests at the end of
C) Directly proportional to square root of compressive strength A) 3 days B) 7 days
D) Inversely proportional to square root of compressive strength C) 21 days D) 28 days
424. Slump test is done for 429. If the permissible stress in steel in tension is 140 N/mm²,
then the depth of neutral axis for a singly reinforced rectangular
A) Clay B) Sand balanced section will be
C) Lime D) Concrete A) 0.35 d B) 0.40 d
Answer: Option D C) 0.45 d D) Dependent on grade of concrete also
425. Di-calcium silicate (C2S) Answer: Option B
A) Hydrates rapidly 430. A construction joint is provided where
B) Generates less heat of hydration A) Bending moment is small B) Shear force is small
C) Hardens rapidly C) The member is supported by other member
D) Provides less ultimate strength to ceme nt D) All the above
426. The limits of percentage p of the longitudinal reinforcement 431. Sand generally contains salt if it is obtained from:
in a column is given by
A) Nala beds B) River beds
A) 0.15% to 2% B) 0.8% to 4%
C) Sea beds D) None of these
C) 0.8% to 6% D) 0.8% to 8%
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
432. According to IS: 4561978, minimum slenderness ratio for a
427. The risk of segregation is more for short column is
A) Wetter mix A) Less than 12 B) Less than 18
B) Larger proportion of maximum size aggregate

C) Between 18 and 24 D) More than 24 Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A 438. Water cement ratio is
433. Le-Chatelier's apparatus is used for testing A) Volume of water to that of cement
A) Soundness of cement B) Hardness of cement B) Weight of water to that of cement
C) Strength of cement D) Durability of cement C) Weight of concrete to that of water
Answer: Option A D) Both (a) and (b) of the above
434. According to Whitney's theory, depth of stress block for a Answer: Option D
balanced section of a concrete beam is limited to Where d is
effective depth of beam 439. For a concrete mix 1:3:6 and water cement ratio 0.6 both b y
weight, the quantity of water required per bag, is
A) 0.43 d B) 0.537 d
A) 10 kg B) 12 kg
C) 0.68 d D) 0.85 d
C) 14 kg D) 16 kg
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
435. Construction joints are generally provided in concrete
440. To prevent segregation, the maximum height for placing
A) Roads B) Retaining walls concrete, is
C) Lining of canals D) All the above A) 100 cm B) 125 cm
Answer: Option D C) 150 cm D) 200 cm
436. If a grading curve is horizontal between the portions of 20 Answer: Option A

mm I.S. Sieve and 4.75 mm I.S. Sieve, the graded aggregates do
not contain 441. For a simply supported beam of span 15 m, the minimum
effective depth t o satisfy the vertical deflection limits should be
A) 20 mm particles B) 10 mm particles
A) 600 mm B) 750 mm
C) 4.75 mm particles D) All the above
C) 900 mm D) More than 1 m
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
437. Most common method of pre-stressing used for factory
production is 442. For compacting plain concrete road surface of thickness less
than 20 cm, we use
A) Long line method B) Freyssinet system
A) Internal vibrator B) Screed vibrator
C) Magnel-Blaton system D) Lee-Macall system
C) Form vibrator D) None of these B) There will be no differential settlement
Answer: Option B C) The settlement of exterior columns will be more than interior
columns
443. C.R.R.I. charts are used to obtain a relatio nship between
strength of concrete and D) The settlement of interior columns will be more than exterior
columns
A) Water cement ratio B) Workability
Answer: Option C
C) Grading of aggregate D) Fineness modulus
448. Expansion joints are provided if the length of concret e
Answer: Option A structures exceeds
444. For the design of retaining walls, the minimum factor of A) 10 m B) 15 m

safety against overturning is taken as
C) 15 m D) 45 m
A) 1.5 B) 2.0
Answer: Option D
C) 2.5 D) 3.0
449. To prevent segregation, the concrete should not be
Answer: Option B thrown from a height of more than
445. If the depth of moist sand in a cylinder is 15 cm and the A) 1/2 m B) 1m

depth of the sand when fully inundated with water is 12 cm, the
bulking of the moist sand, is C) 1.5 m D) 2m
A) 10 % B) 12 % Answer: Option B
C) 15 % D) 25 % 450. The process of consolidating concrete mix after placing it

in position is termed as
Answer: Option D
A) curing B) wetting
446. If aggregates completely pass through a sieve of size 75 mm
and are retained on a sieve of size 60 mm, the particular C) compaction D) none of these
aggregate will be flaky if its minimum dimension is less than
Answer: Option C
A) 20.5 mm B) 30.5 mm
451. When the concrete mix is too wet, it causes
C) 40.5 mm D) 50.5 mm
A) segregation B) low density
Answer: Option C
C) excess laitance at the top D) all of these
447. If the foundations of all the columns of a structure are
designed on the total live and dead load basis, then Answer: Option D
A) There will be no settlement of col umns

452. Saw dust can be rendered chemically inert by boiling it in C) Flaky D) None of these
water containing
Answer: Option A
A) Ferrous sulphate B) Potassium chloride
458. The factor which effect the quality of compaction, is
C) Ammonia D) Nitric acid
A) density of concrete B) strength of concrete
Answer: Option A
C) durability of concrete D) all of these
453. A concrete having a slump of 6.5 cm, is said to be
Answer: Option D
A) Dry B) Earth moist
459. For compacting large sections of mass concrete in
C) Semi-plastic D) Plastic structures, the type of vibrator used is
Answer: Option D A) internal vibrator B) screed vibrator
454. To obtain a very high strength concrete, use very fine C) both (a) and (b) D) either (a) or (b)
grained
A) Granite B) Magnetite Answer: Option A
C) Barite D) Volcanic scoria 460. For compacting plain concrete or one-way reinforced
concrete floors, the vibrator used is
Answer: Option A
A) internal vibrator B) screed vibrator
455. Vicat apparatus is used for
C) form vibrator D) all of these
A) Fineness test B) Consistency test
Answer: Option B
C) Test for setting time D) Test for tensile strength
461. When vibrators are used for compaction, the consistency
Answer: Option B of concrete depends upon the
A) type of mix B) placing conditions
456. Which of the following losses of pre-stress occurs only in
pre-tensioning and not in posttensioning? C) efficiency of vibrator D) all of these
A) Elastic shortening of concrete B) Shrinkage of concrete Answer: Option D
C) Creep of concrete D) Loss due to friction 462. The levelling operation that removes humps and hollows
and give a true, uniform concrete surface is called
Answer: Option A
457. The type of aggregates of same nominal size, which contain
less voids when compacted, are C) trowelling D) compacting
A) Rounded spherical B) Irregular Answer: Option A

463. Pre-stress loss due to friction occurs C) Shape of aggregates D) All the above
A) Only in post-tensioned beams B) Only in pre-tensioned beams Answer: Option D
C) In both post-tensioned and pre-tensioned beams 468. The final operation of finishing the concrete surface is
called
Answer: Option A
C) trowelling D) none of these
464. In the method of voids for determination of the quantity of
cement paste, it is assumed that Answer: Option C
A) Voids in coarse aggregates are filled by fine aggregates 469. The process of hardening the concrete mixes by keeping
its surface moist for a certain period is called
B) Voids in fine aggregates are filled by the cement paste
A) floating B) curing
C) Volume of fine aggregates is equal to total voids in coarse
aggregates plus 10% extra C) screeding D) none of these
D) All the above Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D 470. The object of curing is to
465. As compared to ordinary Portland cement, use of pozzolana A) prevent the loss of water by evaporation
cement
B) reduce the shrinkage of concrete
A) Reduces workability B) Increases bleeding
C) preserve the properties of concrete
C) Increases shrinkage D) Increases strength
D) all of these
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
466. The following proportion of the ingredients of concrete mix,
is not in conformation to arbitrary method of proportioning 471. After the curing of 28 days, the concrete gains strength
upto
A) 1:1:2 B) 1:2:4
A) 40% B) 67%
C) 1:3:6 D) 1 : 4 : 10
C) 100% D) 122%
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
467. The strength and quality of concrete, depend upon:
472. Proper curing of cement concrete, is good for its
A) Grading of aggregates B) Surface area of aggregates
A) volume stability B) strength
C) wear resistance D) all of these C) Do not carry reinforcement across them D) All the above
473. The factor of safety for 478. Under normal circumstances, the beam soffits may be
removed after
A) Steel and concrete are same
A) 2 days B) 7 days
B) Steel is lower than that for concrete
C) Steel is higher than that for concrete D) None of the above
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
479. The permissible diagonal tensile stress in reinforced brick
474. The preliminary test is repeated if the difference of work is
compressive strength of three test speci mens,exceeds
A) About 0.1 N/mm² B) Zero
A) 5 kg/cm2 B) 8 kg/cm2
C) 0.3 N/mm² to 0.7 N/mm² D) About 1.0 N/mm²
C) 10 kg/cm2 D) 15 kg/cm2
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
480. Separation of water or water sand cement from a freshly
475. Setting time of cement increases by adding concrete, is known
A) Gypsum B) Hydrogen peroxide A) Bleeding B) Creeping
C) Calcium chloride D) Sodium oxide C) Segregation D) Flooding
476. According to IS: 4561978, the maximum reinforcement in a 481. The critical section for finding maximum bending moment
column is for footing under masonry wall is located
A) 2% B) 4% A) At the middle of the wall B) At the edge of the wall
C) 6% D) 8% C) Halfway between the middle and edge of the wall
Answer: Option C D) At a distance equal to effective depth of footing f rom the

edge of the wall
477. According to the recommendations of IS : 456 -1978, the
expansion joints Answer: Option C
A) Are provided where plane changes abruptly 482. On a grading curve, the gap grading is represented by
B) Are provided to ensure minimum resistance A) A horizontal line B) A vertical line

C) N.W. inclined line D) N.E. inclined line
C) 2500 bags D) 3000 bags
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
483. The impurity of mixing water which affects the setting time
and strength of concrete, is 488. High temperature
A) Sodium sulphates B) Sodium chlorides A) Increases the strength of concrete
C) Sodium carbonates and bicarbonates D) Calcium bicarbonates B) Decreases the strength of concrete
Answer: Option C C) Has no effect on the strength of concrete D) None of these
484. If the size of panel in a flat slab is 6 m × 6 m, then as per Answer: Option B
Indian Standard Code, the widths of column strip and middle strip
are 489. Horizontal construction joints in concrete walls are
A) 3.0 m and 1.5 m B) 1.5 m and 3.0 m generally provided at
C) 3.0 m and 3.0 m D) 1.5 m and 1.5 m A) Soffit level B) Window sill level
Answer: Option C C) Floor level D) All the above
485. The concrete mix which causes difficulty in obtaining a Answer: Option D
smooth finish, possess
490. Stress strain curve of high tensile steel
A) Segregation B) Internal friction
A) Has a definite yield point
C) Hardness D) Bleeding
B) Does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by
Answer: Option C 0.1% proof stress
486. While designing the pile as a column, the end conditions are C) Does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by
nearly 0.2% proof stress
A) Both ends hinged B) Both ends fixed D) Does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by
2% proof stress,
C) One end fixed and other end hinged
Answer: Option C
D) One end fixed and other end free
491. Addition of pozzolana to cement causes
Answer: Option C
A) Reduction in permeability B) Loss of heat of hydration
487. The internal dimensions of a ware house are 15 m × 5.6 m,
and the maximum height of piles is 2.70 m, the maximum C) Reduction in bleeding D) All the above
number of bags to be stored in two piles, are
A) 1500 bags B) 2000 bags Answer: Option D
492. In a spherical dome the hoop stress due to a concent rated
load at crown is C) Center D) Anywhere
A) Compressive everywhere B) Tensile everywhere Answer: Option B
C) Partly compressive and partly tensile D) Zero 498. Permissible compressive strength of M 200 concrete grade is
Answer: Option B A) 100 kg/cm2 B) 150 kg/cm2
493. I.S. Sieve Nos. 10 mm and 4.75 mm are generally used for C) 200 kg/cm2 D) 250 kg/cm2
grading of
Answer: Option C
A) Coarse aggregates B) Fine aggregates
499. Vertical sides of columns may be stripped after
C) Neither (a) nor (b) D) Both (a) and (b)
A) 1 to 2 days B) 7 days
Answer: Option D
494. Log Angles machine is used to test the aggregate for
Answer: Option A
A) Crushing strength B) Impact value
500. In concrete walls, construction joints should be provided
C) Abrasion resistance D) Water absorption at the
Answer: Option C A) floor level B) soffit level of lintels
495. You are asked to construct a massive dam, the type of C) sill level of windows D) all of these
cement you will use, is
Answer: Option D
A) Ordinary Portland cement B) Rapid hardening cement
501. The construction joints in cement concrete
C) Low heat cement D) Blast furnace slag cement
A) should be located where bending moment is large
Answer: Option C
B) should be located where shear force is large
496. An ideal ware house, is provided
C) should not be provided at the corners
A) Water proof masonry walls B) Water proof roof
D) should be spaced at a distance of 3 m apart in case of
C) Few windows which remain generally closed D) All the above huge structures
497. Normally pre-stressing wires are arranged in the 502. The construction joints are generally provided in concrete
A) Upper part of the beam B) Lower part of the beam A. roads B. retaining walls
C) lining of tunnels D) all of these 508. The most useless aggregate is, whose surface texture is
Answer: Option D A) smooth B) glossy
503. The minimum percentage of chemical ingredient of cement C) granular D) porous

is that of
Answer: Option B
A) Magnesium oxide B) Iron oxide
509. The bulk density of aggregates depends upon its
C) Alumina D) Lime
A) shape B) grading
Answer: Option A
C) compaction D) all of these
504. Poisson's ratio for concrete
Answer: Option D
A) Remains constant B) Increases with richer mixes
510. The minimum diameter of longitudinal bars in a column is
C) Decreases with richer mixes D) None of the above
A) 6 mm B) 8 mm
Answer: Option B
C) 12 mm D) 16 mm
505. Shrinkage in concrete can be reduced by using
Answer: Option C
A) Low water cement ratio B) Less cement in the concrete
511. The high strength of rapid hardening cement at early stage,
C) Proper concrete mix D) All the above is due to its
A) Finer grinding B) Burning at high temperature
Answer: Option D
C) Increased lime cement D) Higher content of tricalcium
506. The shuttering of a hall measuring 4 m × 5 m, can be
removed after Answer: Option C
A) 5 days B) 7 days 512. Sand requiring a high water cement ratio, belongs t o
C) 10 days D) 14 days A) Zone I B) Zone II
Answer: Option B C) Zone III D) Zone IV
507. The approximate value of the ratio between direct tensile Answer: Option A
strength and flexural strength is
513. Minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced
A) 0.33 B) 0.5 concrete as per IS: 4561978 is
C) 0.75 D) 1.0 A) M 15 B) M 20
Answer: Option B C) M 10 D) M 25
Answer: Option A C) 0.3 % D) 3%
514. An aggregate is said to be flaky if i ts least dimension is less Answer: Option C

than
A) 1/5th of mean dimension B) 2/5th of mean dimension 520. While compacting the concrete by a mechanical vibrator,
the slump should not exceed
C) 3/5th of mean dimension D) 4/5th of mean dimension
A) 2.5 cm B) 5.0 cm
Answer: Option C
C) 7.5 cm D) 10 cm
Answer: Option B
A) Fly ash B) Hydrated lime
521. Non-uniform compaction may cause the concrete
C) Calcium chloride D) All the above
A) Porous B) Non-homogeneous
Answer: Option D
C) Reduced strength D) All the above
516. Workability of concrete is inversely proportional to
Answer: Option D
A) Time of transit B) water-cement ratio
522. Modulus of rupture of concrete is a measure of
C) The air in the mix D) Size of aggregate
A) Flexural tensile strength B) Direct tensile strength
Answer: Option A
C) Compressive strength D) Split tensile strength
517. Inert material of a cement concrete mix, is
Answer: Option A
A) Water B) Cement
523. M10 grade of concrete approximates
C) Aggregate D) None of these
A) 1 : 3 : 6 mix B) 1 : 1 : 2 mix
Answer: Option C
C) 1 : 2 : 4 mix D) 1 : 1.5 : 3 mix
518. Sands of zone I are:
Answer: Option A
A) Course B) Medium
524. Higher workability of concrete is required if the structure is
C) Medium to fine D) Fine
A) Made with cement concrete B) Thick and reinforced
Answer: Option A
C) Thin and heavily reinforced D) Thick and heavily reinforced
519. According to Whitney's theory, ultimate strain of concrete is
assumed to be Answer: Option D
A) 0.03 % B) 0.1 %
525. The diameter of the Vicat plunger is 10 mm and its length A) 100 mm B) 150 mm
varies from
C) 200 mm D) 250 mm
A) 20 mm to 30 mm B) 30 mm to 40 mm
Answer: Option B
C) 40 mm to 50 mm D) 50 mm to 60 mm
531. The bulk density of aggregates does not depend upon:
Answer: Option C
A) Size and shape of aggregates B) Specific gravity of aggregates
526. Gypsum is added for
C) Grading of aggregates D) Size and shape of the container
A) Colour B) Strength
Answer: Option D
C) Controlling setting time D) None of these
532. How long will it take for the concrete to achieve 100% of its
Answer: Option C strength?
527. Modulus of elasticity of steel as per IS: 4561978 shall be A) 7 days B) 14 days
taken as
A) 20 kN/cm² B) 200 kN/cm²
Answer: Option D
C) 200 kN/mm² D) 2 × 106 N/cm²
533. A higher modular ratio shows
Answer: Option C
A) Higher compressive strength of concrete
528. The grade of concrete M 150 means that compressive
strength of a 15 cm cube after 28 days, is B) Lower compressive strength of concrete
A) 100 kg/cm2 B) 150 kg/cm2 C) Higher tensile strength of steel
C) 200 kg/cm2 D) 250 kg/cm2 D) Lower tensile strength of steel
529. The cement becomes useless if its absorbed moisture 534. For the construction of cement concrete floor, the
content exceeds maximum permissible size of aggregate, is
A) 1% B) 2% A) 4 mm B) 6 mm
C) 3% D) 5% C) 8 mm D) 10 mm
530. In reinforced concrete footing on soil, the minimum 535. The specifications of a cement bag for storage, are
thickness at edge should not be less than
A) Weight 50 kg B) Height 18 cm A) Top face perpendicular to wall
C) Plan area 3000 sq. cm D) All the above B) Bottom face perpendicular to wall
Answer: Option D C) Both top and bottom faces perpendicular to wall
536. For preparing a test-specimen, it is necessary D) None of the above
A) To mix cement and fine aggregate by dry hand Answer: Option A
B) To mix coarse aggregates 541. Separation of coarse aggregates from mortar during
transportation, is known
C) To mix water to the cement, fine aggregates and coarse
aggregates A) Bleeding B) Creeping
D) All the above C) Segregation D) Shrinkage
537. A continuous beam is deemed to be a deep beam when the 542. A flaky aggregate is said to be elongated if its length is
ratio of effective span to overall depth (1/D) is less than
A) Equal to the mean size B) Twice the mean size
A) 1.5B) 2.0
C) Thrice the mean size D) Four times the mean size
C) 2.5D) 3.0
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
543. If a beam fails in bond, then its bond strength can be
538. If fineness modulus of sand is 2.5, it is graded as increased most economically by
A) Very fine sand B) Fine sand A) Increasing the depth of beam
C) Medium sand D) Coarse sand B) Using thinner bars but more in number
Answer: Option B C) Using thicker bars but less in number
539. Maximum quantity of water needed per 50 kg of cemen t for D) Providing vertical stirrups
M 15 grade of concrete is
A) 28 liters B) 30 liters Answer: Option B
C) 32 liters D) 34 liters 544. Ordinary Portland cement is manufactured from
Answer: Option C A) Lime stone and clay B) Gypsum and lime
540. The main reinforcement in the heel of a T-shaped R.C. C) Pozzolana D) Lime, pozzolana and clay
retaining wall is provided on
545. The void ratio of 550. The percentage of reinforcement in case of slabs, when high
strength deformed bars are used is not less than
A) Single size coarse aggregate is roughly 0.45
A) 0.15 B) 0.12
B) Graded coarse aggregate is roughly 0.040
C) 0.30 D) 1.00
C) Fine aggregate is roughly 0.45 D) All the above
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
551. Addition of pozzolana to cement
546. The produce impermeable concrete
A) Decreases workability B) Increases strength
A) Thorough mixing of concrete is required
C) Increases heat of hydration D) None of these
B) Proper compaction of concrete is required
Answer: Option D
C) Proper curing of concrete is required ( D) All the above
552. The minimum cover to the ties or spirals should not be less
Answer: Option D than
547. Pozzolanic properties exist in A) 15 mm B) 20 mm
A) Shales B) Fly ash C) 25 mm D) 50 mm
C) Pumicite D) All the above Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D 553. If the slump of a concrete mix is 60 mm, its workability is
548. For the construction of the retaining structures, the type of A) Very low B) Low
concrete mix to be used, is
C) Medium D) High
A) 1 : 3 : 6 B) 1 : 2 : 4
Answer: Option C
C) 1 : 1½ : 3 D) 1 : 4 : 8
554. Cube strength of controlled concrete to be used for pre -
Answer: Option C tensioned and post-tensioned work respectively should not be
less than
549. The process of hardening the concrete by keeping its
surface moist is known A) 35 MPa and 42 MPa B) 42 MPa and 35 MPa
A) Placing B) Wetting C) 42 MPa and 53 MPa D) 53 MPa and 42 MPa
C) Curing D) Compacting Answer: Option B

Model Test 7. 1S. Sieve Nos. 10 mm and 4.75 mm are geneally used A
for grading of N
1. Wp and Wf are the weights of a cylinder containing partially A) coarse aggregates B) fine aggregates S
compacted and fully compacted concrete. If the compaction W
factor Wp/Wf is 0.95, the workability of concrete is C) neither (a) nor (b) D) both (a) and (b) E
r
A) extremely low B) very low 8. Specified compressive strengh of concrete is
obtained from cube tests at the end of
C) low D) high A) 3 days B) 7 days
1.D
2. For given water content, workability decreases if the concrete C) 14 days D) 28 days
aggregates contain an excess of 2.E
9. According to the recommendations of IS : 456 -1978,
A) thin particles B) flat particles the expansion joints
3.A
C) elongated particles D) flaky paticles A) are provided where plane changes abruptly
4.C
E) all the above B) are provided to ensure minimum resistance
3. M10 grade of concrete approximates C) are supported on separate columns 5.D
A) 1 : 3 : 6 mix B) 1 : 1 : 2 mix D) do not carry reinforcement across them

6.C
C) 1 : 2 : 4 mix D) 1 : 1.5 : 3 mix E) all the above.
4. For ensuring quality of concrete, use 10. Too wet concrete may cause 7.D
A) single sized aggegates B) two sized aggregate A) weakness of concrete B) excessive laitance
8.D
C) graded aggregates D) coarse aggregates C) segregation D) lower density E) all the above
5. According to I.S. : 456, the number of grades of concrete 11. Addition of pozzolana to cement
mixes, is 9.E
A) decreases workability B) increases strength
A) 3 B) 4
C) increases heat of hydratio D) decreases curing
10.E
C) 5 D) 7 time
6. The mixture of different ingredients of cement, is burnt at E) none of these

11.E
A. 1000°C B) 1200°C 12. The final operation of finishing floors, is known as
C) 1400°C D) 1600°C A) screeding B) floating

12.C
C) trowellin D) finishing
13. To obtain cement dry powder, lime stones and shales or their A
slurry, is burnt in a rotary kiln at a temperature between 20. Ordinary concrete is not used for concrete grade N
S
A) 1100° and 1200°C B) 1200° and 1300°C A) M 100 B) M 150 W
E
C) 1300° and 1400°C D) 1400° and 1500°C C) M 200 D) M 250 r
13.
14. While compacting the concrete by a mechanical vibrator, the 21. Water required per bag of cement, is D
slump should not exceed
A) 2.5 cm B) 5.0 cm A) 7 kg B) 14 kg 14.
B
C) 7.5 cm D) 10 cm C) 21 kg D) 35 kg
15.
15. An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less 22. An aggregate is said to be flaky, if its least dimension C
than is less than
A) 1/5th of mean dimension B) 2/5th of mean dimension 16.
A) 2/3 mean dimension B) 3/4 mean dimension A
C) 3/5th of mean dimension D) 4/5th of mean dimension
C) 3/5 mean dimension D) 5/8 mean dimension 17.
16. The increased cohesiveness of concrete, makes it C
23. Percentage of pozzolanic material containing c lay
18.
A) less liable to segregation B) more liable to segregation upto 80% used for the manufacture of pozzolana cement,
D
is
C) more liable to bleeding
19.
A) 30% B) 40%
D
D) more liable for surface scaling in frosty weather
C) 50% D) 60%
20.
17. The commonly used material in the manufacture of cement is
D
24. C.R.R.I. charts are used to obtain a relatioship
A) sand stone B) slate between strength of concrete and 21.
D
C) lime stone D) graphite A) water cement ratio B) workability
22.
18. For the construction of cement concrete floor, the maximum C) grading of aggregate D) fineness modulus C
permissible size of aggregate, is
23.
25. ISI has specified full strength of concrete after
A
A) 4 mm B) 6 mm
A) 7 days B) 14 days 24.
C) 8 mm D) 10 mm A
C) 21 days D) 28 days E) none of these
19. The process of proper and accurate measurement of 25.
concrete ingredients for uniformity of propor tion, is known 26. Batching error means inaccuracy in the quantity of E
26.
A) grading B) curing A) aggregates B) cement
D
C) mixing D) batching C) water D) all the above
27. The preliminary test is repeated if the difference of C) Minimum void method D) Talbot Richard test A
compressive strength of three test specimens, exc eeds N
34. You are asked to construct a massive dam, the type of S
A) 5 kg/cm2 B) 8 kg/cm2 cement you will use, is W
A) ordinary Portland cement B) rapid hardening cementE
C) 10 kg/cm2 D) 15 kg/cm2 r
C) low heat cement D) blast furnace slag cement 27.
28. Pick up the correct proportions of chemical ingredients of D
cement 35. Pick up the correct statement from the following: 28.
A
A) Lime : Silica : Alumina : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3 A) Segregation is necessary for a workable concrete
29.
B) Silica : Lime : Alumina : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3 B) Consistency does not affect the workability of concrete D
C) Alumina : Silica : Lime : Iron oxide : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3 C) If the slump increases, workability decreases 30.
C
D) Iron oxide : Alumina : Silica : Lime : 63 : 22 : 6 : 3 D) If the concrete mix is dry, the slump is maximum
31.
29.Transport of concrete by pumps, is done for a distance of E) None of these B
A) 100 m B) 200 m 36. Workability of concrete for a given water content is 32.
good if the aggregates, are B
C) 300 m D) 400 m
A) rounded aggregate B) irregular aggregate 33.
30. The high strength of rapid hardening cement at early stage, is B
due to its C) angular aggregate D) flaky aggregates.
34.
A) finer grinding B) burning at high temperature 37. The light weight aggregates are obtained from C
C) increased lime cement D) higher content of tricalcium A) sedimentary rocks B) metamorphic rocks 35.
E
31. Vicat's apparatus is used for C) igneous rocks D) volcanic source
36.
A) fineness test B) consistency test 38. For compacting plain concrete road surface of A
thickness less than 20 cm, we use
C) setting time test D) soundness test 37.
A) internal vibrator B) screed vibrator D
32. M 150 grade of concrete approximates
C) form vibrator D) none of these 38.
A) 1 : 3 : 6 mix B) 1 : 1 :2 mix B
39. Percentage of pozzolanic material containing clay
C) 1 : 2 : 4 mix D) 1 : 1.5 : 3 mix upto 80% used for the manufacture of pozzolana cement, 39.
is A
33. Workability of concrete is measured by A) 30% B) 40%
A) Vicat apparatus test B) Slump test C) 50% D) 60%

A
40. The rock which is not calcareous, is : 47. Separation of coarse aggregates from mortar during N
transportation, is known S
A) lime stone B) maul W
A) bleeding B) creeping E
C) chalk D) laterite r
C) segregation D) shrinkage 40.
41. Internal friction between the ingredients of concrete, is D
decreased by using 48. The maximum thickness of concrete floor of a cement
warehouse, is 41.
A) less water B) fine aggregates D
A) 10 cm B) 15 cm
42.
C) rich mix D) more water and coarse aggregates
B
C) 20 cm D) 25 cm
42. For road pavements, the cement generally used, is 43.
49. For construction of structures in sea water, the A
A) ordinary Portland cement B) rapid hardening cement cement generally preferred to, is
44.
A) Portland-pozzolana cement B) quick setting cement
B
C) low heat cement D) blast furnace slag cement
C) low heat Portland cement D) rapid hardening cement 45.
43. Allowable shear strength of concrete, depends upon A
50. If the effective plan area of a warehouse is 54 sq. m,
A) shear strength B) tensile strength and maximum height of piles permitted is 270 cm, the
46.
number of cement bags to be stored, is
D
C) compressive strength D) none of these
A) 2000 bags B) 2200 bags
44. The grade of concrete M 150 means that compressive 47.
strength of a 15 cm cube after 28 days, is C) 2400 bags D) 2700 bags
C
A) 100 kg/cm2 B) 150 kg/cm2 51. Sand requiring a high water cement ratio, belongs to
48.
D
C) 200 kg/cm2 D) 250 kg/cm2 A) lime stone and clay B) gypsum and lime
45. The cement whose strength is a little lower than the ordinary C) pozzolana D) lime, pozzolana and clay 49.
cement during the first three months but attains afterwards the A
same strength, is known as 52. An aggregate which passes through 25 mm I.S. sieve
and is retained on 20 mm sieve, is said to be flaky if its 50.
A) low-heat Portland cement B) rapid hardening Portland cement least dimension is less than D
51.
C) Portland blast slag cement D) Portland pozzolana cement A) 22.5 mm B) 18.5 mm
B
46. To hydrate 500kg of cement full water needed, is C) 16.5 mm D) 13.5 mm 52.
53. If fineness modulus of sand is 2.5, it is graded as D
A) 100 kg B) 110 kg A) very fine sand B) fine sand
53.
C) 120 kg D) 130 kg C) medium sand D) coarse sand B
A
54.The type of aggregates not suitable for high strength concrete 60. Expansion joints are provided if the length of N
and for pavements subjected to tension, is concrete structures exceeds S
W
A) rounded aggregate B) irregular aggregate A) 10 m B) 15 m E
R
C) angular aggregate D) flaky aggregate C) 15 m D) 45 m 54.
A
55. For the construction of cement con -certe dams, the 61.A flaky aggregate is said to be elongated if its length is
maximum permissible size of the aggregates, is 55.
A) 40 mm B) 50 mm A) equal to the mean size B) twice the mean size A
C) 60 mm D) 70 mm C) thrice the mean size D) Four times the mean size 56.
C
56. If the engineer-in-charge approves, the 10 cm cubes may be 62. Strength of concrete with passage of time
used for the work test of concrete provided maximum nominal A) increases B) decreases
57.
size of aggregate, does not exceed
B
C) fluctuates D) remains constant
A) 10 cm B) 15 cm
63. If aggregates completely pass through a sieve of size 58.
C) 20 cm D) 25 cm 75 mm and are retained on a sieve of size 60 mm, the D
particular aggregate will be flaky if its minimum
57. High temperature dimension is less than 59.
A) 20.5 mm B) 30.5 mm D
A) increases the strength of concrete
C) 40.5 mm D) 50.5 mm
B) decreases the strength of concrete 60.
64. Gypsum is added for D
C) has no effect on the strength of concrete D) none of these
A) colour B) strength 61.
58. The aggregate containing moisture in pores and having its B
suface dry, is known as C) controlling setting time D) none of these
62.
A
A) moist aggregates B) very dry aggregates 65. The process of mixing, transporting, placing and
compacting concrete using Ordinary Port land Cement 63
C) dry aggregates D) saturated surface dry aggregate should not take more than .C
A) 30 minutes B) 40 minutes
59. Water cement ratio is
C) 60 minutes D) 75 minutes 64
.C
A) volume of water to that of cement
66. The entrained air in concrete
B) weight of water to that of cement 65
A) increases workability B) decreases workability .A
C) weight of concrete to that of water
C) decreases resistance to weathering 66
D) both (a) and (b) of the above .A
D) increases strength
67. Efflorescence in cement is caused due to an excess of 74. The dimensions of a 35 litre forma for measuring A
aggregates by volume, are : N
A) alumina B) iron oxide S
A) length 30 cm, breadth 25 cm, height 30 cm W
C) silica D) alkalis E
B) length 39 cm, breadth 25 cm, height 32 cm R
68. If the effective working time is 7 hours and per batch time of
concrete is 3 minutes, the output of a concrete mixer of 150 litre C) length 27 cm, breadth 27 cm, height 48 cm 67.
capacity, is D
D) length 220 cm, breadth 25 cm, height 40 cm
A) 15, 900 litres B) 16, 900 litres 68.
75. The shuttering of a hall measuring 4 m x 5 m, can be D
C) 17, 900 litres D) 18, 900 litres removed after
A) 5 days B) 7 days 69.
69. Saw dust can be rendered chemically inert by boiling it in A
water containing C) 10 days D) 14 days
70.
A) ferrous sulphate B) potassium chloride 76. If 50 kg of fine aggregates and 100 kg of coarse C
agregates are mixed in a concrete whose water cement
C) ammonia D) nitric acid ratio is 0.6, the weight of water required for harsh mix, is 71.
B
70. Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio is A) 8 kg B) 10 kg
72.
determined by
A
A) tensile strength test B) slump test C) 12 kg D) 14 kg
73.
C) compaction factor test D) flexural strength test 77. Log Angles machine is used to test the aggregate for
C
71. The operation of removing humps and hollows of uniform A) crushing strength B) impact value 74.
concrete surface, is known as C
C) abrasion resistance D) water absorption
A) floating B) screeding 75.
78. To prevent segregation, the maximum height for B
C) trowelling D) finishing placing concrete, is
76.
72. The type of aggregates of same nominal size, which contain A) 100 cm B) 125 cm C
less voids when compacted, are
C) 150 cm D) 200 cm
A) rounded spherical B) irregular 77.
C
79. A concrete having a slump of 6.5 cm, is said to be
C) flaky D) none of these 78.
A) dry B) earth moist A
73. Permissible compressive strength of M 200 concrete grade is
C) semi-plastic D) plastic 79.
A) 100 kg/cm2 B) 150 kg/cm2 D
C) 200 kg/cm2 D) 250 kg/cm2

80. An ordinary Portland cement when tested for its finenes s, C) 20 cm, 10 cm, 30 cm D) 20 cm, 30 cm, 10 cm A
should not leave any residue on I.S. seive No. 9, more than N
88. Cement used for normal concrete construction, is S
A) 5% B) 10% obtained by burning a mixture of W
E
C) 15% D) 20% A) silicious and argillaceous materials R
80.
81. For concreting tunnel linings, tran-portation of concrete is B) argilaceous and calcareous materials B
done by
C) silicious and catcareous materials
81.
A) pans B) wheel borrows
D
D) silicious, argillaceous and calcareous materials
C) containers D) pumps 82.
89. Setting time of cement increases by adding C
A) gypsum B) hydrogen peroxide 83.
A) In properly graded aggregates, bulk density is more A
C) calcium chloride D) sodium oxide
84.
B) In single size aggregates, bulk density is least
A
C) In single size aggregates, bulk density is maximum 85.
A) Admixtures accelerate hydration C
D) None of these
B) Admixtures make concrete water proof 86.
83. Slump test of concrete is a measure of its A
C) Admixtures make concrete acid proof
A) consistency B) compressive strength
D) Admixtures give high strength
C) tensile strength D) impact value
91. Higher workability of concrete is required if the 88.
84. To obtain a very high strength concrete, use very fine grained structure is D
A) made with cement concrete B) thick and reinfored
89.
A) Granite B) Magnetite
A
C) thin and heavily reinforced D) thick and heavily
C) Barite D) Volcanic scoria reinfored
90.
85. The diameter of the Vicat plunger is 10 mm and its length 92. Water cement ratio is generally expressed in volume A
varies from of water required per 91.
A) 20 mm to 30 mm B) 30 mm to 40 mm A) 10 kg B) 20 kg D
92.
C) 40 mm to 50 mm D) 50 mm to 60 mm C) 30 kg D) 45 kg
D
93. If the slump of a concrete mix is 60 mm,its workability
86. The top diameter, bottom diameter and the height of a slump is
93.
mould are : A) very low B) low
C
A) 10 cm, 20 cm, 30 cm B) 10 cm, 30 cm, 20 cm C) medium D) high
94. The most useless aggregate is one whose surface texture is 101. Pick up the correct statement from the following: A
N
A) smooth B) granular A) Calcium chloride acts as a retarder S
W
C) glassy D) honey combed and porous B) Calcium chloride acts as an accelerator E
r
95. During erection, the pile of length is supported by a crane at a C) Gypsum (calcium sulphate) acts as a retarder 94.
distance of C
A) 0.207 l B) 0.293 l D) Both (b) and (c)
95.
C) 0.707 l D) 0.793 l C
102. 1% of voids in a concrete mix would reduce its
strength by about 96.
96. In case of hand mixing of concrete, the extra cement to be B
added is A) 5% B) 10 %
97.
A) 5% B) 10 % C) 15% D) 20 %
B
C) 15% D) 20 % 103. Slump test of concrete is a measure of its
98.
C
97. The maximum value of hoop compression in a dome is given A) Consistency B) Compressive strength
by 99.
C) Tensile strength D) Impact value D
A) wR / 4d B) wR/2d
104. Maximum percentage reinforcement in case of
100.
C) wR/d D) 2wR/d slabs is limited to
C
98. In a spherical dome subjected to concentrated load at crown A) 2 B) 4
or uniformly distributed load, the meridional force is always 101.
C) 6 D) 8 D
A) Zero B) Tensile 102.
105. The ratio of various ingredients (cement, sand,
A
C) Compressive D) Tensile or compressive aggregates) in concrete of grade M 200, is
103.
99. In working stress design, permissible bond stress in the case A) 1 : 2 : 4 B) 1:3:6 A
of deformed bars is more than that in plain bars by
C) 1 : 1½ : 3 D) 1:1:2 104.
A) 10 % B) 20 % B
106. The datum temperature for maturity by Plowman,
C) 30% D) 40 % is 105.
C
100. The mixture of different ingredients of cement, is burnt a t A) 23°C B) 0°
106.
C
A) 1000°C B) 1200°C C) - 5.6°C D) - 11.7°C
C) 1400°C D) 1600°C
107. If the storey height is equal to length of RCC wall, the 114. The bulk density of aggregates, is generally A
percentage increase in strength is expressed as N
A) tonnes/cubic metre B) kg/cubic metre S
A) 0 B) 10 w
C) kg/litre D) g/cm3 E
C) 20 D) 30 r
115. The most useless aggregate is one whose surface
107.
108. Strength of concrete increases with texture is
B
A) Smooth B) Granular
A) Increase in water-cement ratio 108.
C) Glassy D) Honey combed and porous B
B) Increase in fineness of cement
116. The ratio of the length to breadth of a wooden 109.
C) Decrease in curing time D) Decrease in size of aggregate float, is C
A) 4.5 B) 5.5
109. The recommended value of modular ratio for reinforced 110.
brick work is C) 6.5 D) 7.5 C
A) 18 B) 30 117. For concreting tunnel linings, transportation of 111.
concrete is done by C
C) 40 D) 58
A) Pans B) Wheel borrows 112.
110. A T-shaped retaining wall mainly consists of A
C) Containers D) Pumps
A) One cantilever B) Two cantilevers 113.
118. Percentage of pozzolanic material containing cl ay D
C) Three cantilevers D) Four cantilevers upto 80% used for the manufacture of pozzolana
cement, is 114.
C
111. An aggregate is said to be flaky, if its least dimension is less
than A) 30 % B) 40 %
115.
A) 2/3 mean dimension B) 3/4 mean dimension
C
C) 50% D) 60 %
C) 3/5 mean dimension D) 5/8 mean dimension 116.
119. The percentage of the aggregate of F.M. 2.6 to be D
112. In a pile of length , the points of suspension from ends for combined with coarse aggregate of F.M. 6.8 for 117.
lifting it are located at obtaining the aggregates of F.M. 5.4, is D
A) 0.207 l B) 0.25 l A) 30 % B) 40 % 118.

A
C) 0.293 l D) 0.333 l C) 50% D) 60 % 119.
C
113. To obtain cement dry powder, lime stones and shales or 120. The operation of removing humps and hollows of
their slurry, is burnt in a rotary kiln at a temperature between uniform concrete surface, is known as
120.
A) 1100° and 1200°C B) 1200° and 1300°C A) Floating B) Screeding
B
C) 1300° and 1400°C D) 1400° and 1500°C C) Trowelling D) Finishing
121. Minimum thickness of load bearing RCC wall should be 128. Vicat's apparatus is used for A
N
A) 50 mm B) 100 mm A) Fineness test B) Consistency test S
W
C) 150 mm D) 200 mm C) Setting t ime test D) Soundness test E
r
122. The fineness modulus of fine aggregate is in the range of 129. For a continuous slab of 3 m × 3.5 m size, the
minimum overall depth of slab to satisfy vertical 121.
A) 2.0 to 3.5 B) 3.5 to 5.0 deflection limits is B
C) 5.0 to 7.0 D) 6.0 to 8.5 A) 50 mm B) 75 mm 122.

A
123. The load factors for live load and dead load are taken C) 100 mm D) 120 mm
123.
respectively as
B
130. For the construction of R.C.C. slabs, columns,
A) 1.5 and 2.2 B) 2.2 and 1.5 beams, walls, etc. the grade of concrete mix used, is 124.
D
C) 1.5 and 1.5 D) 2.2 and 2.2 A) 1:3:6 B) 1 : 1½ : 3 125.
C
124. Permissible compressive strength of M 300 concrete grade is C) 1:2:4 D) 1:1:2 126.
A) 100 kg/cm2 B) 150 kg/cm2 131. Transport of concrete by pumps, is done for a 127.
distance of A
C) 200 kg/cm2 D) 300 kg/cm2
A) 100 m B) 200 m 128.
125. Maximum distance between expansion joints in structures B
as per IS: 456 1978 is C) 300 m D) 400 m
129.
A) 20 m B) 30 m 132. The final operation of finishing floors, is known as B
C) 45 m D) 60 m A) Screeding B) Floating
130.
C
126. The percentage of voids in cement is approximately C) Trowelling D) Finishing
131.
A) 25 % B) 40 % 133. Slump test of concrete is a measure of its D
C) 60% D) 80 % A) Consistency B) Compressive strength 132.

C
127. The most commonly used admixture which prolongs the C) Tensile strength D) Impact value 133.
setting and hardening time is A
134. An ordinary Portland cement when tested for its
A) Gypsum B) Calcium chloride fineness, should not leave any residue on I.S. sieve No. 9, 134.
more than B
C) Sodium silicate D) All of the above A) 5% B) 10 %
C) 15% D) 20 %
Building Materials D) three times their original dimensions.
1. In a mortar, the binding material is
Answer: Option C
A) cement B) sand
6. Clay and silt content in a good brick earth mu st be at least
C) surkhi D) cinder
A) 50 % B) 40 %
Answer: Option A
C) 30 % D) 25 %
2. Lacquer paints
Answer: Option A
A) are generally applied on structural steel
7. Which of the following is the purest form of iron?
B) are less durable as compared to enamel paints
A) Cast iron B) Wrought iron
C) consist of resin and nitro-cellulose
C) Mild steel D) High carbon steel
D) contain alcohol as thinner E) all the above
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option E 8. If the iron ore contains clay as an impurity, the flux added
during calcination, is
3. Wrought iron contains carbon upto
A) Clay B) Lime stone
A) 0.25% B) 1.0%
C) Argillaceous iron ore D) All the above
C) 1.5% D) 2%
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
9. The stretcher bond in brick masonry can be used only when
4. Pick up the polymineralic rock from the following:
the thickness of wall is
A) Quartz sand B) Pure gypsum
A) 90 mm B) 180 mm
C) Magnesite D) Granite
C) 190 mm D) 280 mm
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
5. Elastomers can extend upto 10. Advantage of a clamp compared to a kiln for burning bricks is
that
A) five times their original dimensions
A) It takes less time for burning
B) seven times their original dimensions
B) It gives more output of first class bricksm
C) ten times their original dimensions
C) It has less initial cost
D) It is suitable when bricks are required in large numbers
C) sedimentary rock D) igneous rock
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
11. Bitumen felt
16. Slate in the form of tiles is used
A) is used as water proofing material
A) for paving B) as road metal
B) is used as damp proofing material
C) as an excellent roof covering material
C) is made from bitumen and hessian fibres
D) for the manufacture of cement
D) all the above
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
17. Granite is mainly composed of
12. In the cement the compound quickest to react with
water, is A) quartz and mica B) felspar and mica
A) Tricalcium aluminate
C) quartz and felspar D) quartz, felspar and mica
B) Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite
Answer: Option D
C) Tricalcium silicate D) Dicalcium silicate
18. Sandstone consists of
Answer: Option A
A) quartz and lime B) quartz and silica
13. The rocks formed due to solidification of molten mass
laying below or above the earth surface, are called C) quartz, lime and silica D) silica, lime and alumina
A) aqueous rocks B) sedimentary rocks Answer: Option C
C) metamorphic rocks D) igneous rocks 19. The compressive strength of granite is
Answer: Option D A) 50 to 70 MN/m2 B) 70 to 130 MN/m2
14. Granite is an example of C) 130 to 170 MN/m2 D) 170 to 200 MN/m2
A) aqueous rocks B) sedimentary rocks Answer: Option B
C) metamorphic rocks D) igneous rocks 20. In order to dry the quarry sap of a freshly quarried slone,
it should be exposed to open air for a period of
Answer: Option D
A) one month B) four months
15. Marble is an example of
C) six to twelve months D) two years
A) aqueous rock B) metamorphic rock
Answer: Option C
21. Laterite is chemically classified as
C) Volcanic rocks D) Igneous rocks
A) caleareous rock B) argillaceous rock
Answer: Option A
C) sillcious rock D) metamorphic rock
27. A good building stone is one which does not absorb more
Answer: Option B than
22. Gneiss is chemically classified as A) 5% B) 10%
A) calcareous rock B) argillaceous rock C) 15% D) 25%
C) silicious rock D) none of these Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C 28. The initial setting time of lime -pozzolana, is
23. Which of the following is an example of agrillaceous A) 30 minutes B) 60 minutes

rock?
A) Kaolin B) Slate
Answer: Option D
C) Laterite D) all of these
29. The clay to be used for manufacturing bricks for a large
Answer: Option D project, is dugout and allowed to weather throughout
24. Which of the following is an example of silicious rock? A) the monsoon B) the winter
A) Granite B) Gneiss C) the summer D) none of these
C) Quartzite D) all of these Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D 30. The rocks which are formed due to cooling of magma at a
considerable depth from earth's surface are called
25. Which of the following has more fire resisting character istics?
A) Plutonic rocks B) Hypabyssal rocks
A) Marble B) Lime stone
C) Compact sand stone D) Granite
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C 31. Quartzite is a
26. The rocks which are formed due to cooling of magma at a A) metamorphic rock B) argillaceous rock
considerable depth from earth's surface are called
C) calcareous rock D) silicious rock
Answer: Option D
32. Plywood has the advantage of
A) 1:2 B) 1 :3
A) Greater tensile strength in longer direction
C) 1:4 D) 1 :6
B) Greater tensile strength in shorter direction
Answer: Option B
C) Same tensile strength in all directions D) None of the above
38. The variety of pig iron used for manufacture of wrought iron,
Answer: Option C is
A) Bessemer pig B) Grey or foundry pig
33. Due to attack of dry rot, the timber
C) White forge pig D) Mottled pig
A) Cracks B) Shrinks
Answer: Option C
C) Reduces to powder D) None of these
39. If the furnace is provided with insufficient fuel at low
Answer: Option C temperatures, the type of pig iron produced, is called
34. Excess of alumina in brick earth makes the brick A) Bessemer pig B) Grey or foundry pig
A) Impermeable B) Brittle and weak C) White or forge pig D) Mottled pig
C) To lose cohesion D) To crack and warp on drying Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D 40. Stainless steel contains
35. The constituent of cement which is responsible for all the A) 18% of chromuim and 8% nickel
undesirable properties of cement is
B) 8% of chromium and 18% of nickel
A) Di-calcium silicate B) Tri-calcium silicate
C) 12% of chromium and 36% of nickel
C) Tri-calcium aluminate D) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite
D) 36% of chromium and 12% of nickel.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
36. Inner part of a timber log surrounding the pitch, is called
41. Pick up the hypabyssal rock from the following:
A) Sapwood B) Cambium layer
A) Granite B) Dolerite
C) Heart wood D) None to these
C) Basalt D) All the above
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
37. For testing compressive and tensile strength of cement, the
cement mortar is made by mixing cement and standard sand in 42. Depending on the chemical composition and mechanical
the proportions of properties, iron may be classified as
A) cast iron B) wrought iron Answer: Option D
C) steel D) all the above 48. Oil varnish generally consists of
Answer: Option D A) Synthetic resin and spirit B) Oil, wax and resin
43. If is the percentage of water required for normal con sistency, C) Resin, oil and turpentine D) Spirit, oil and wax
water to be added for determination of initial setting time, is
Answer: Option C
A) 0.70 P B) 0.75 P
49. For testing compressive strength of ce ment, the size of cube
C) 0.80 P D) 0.85 P used is
A) 50 mm B) 70.6 mm
Answer: Option D
C) 100 mm D) 150 mm
44. Wrought iron contains carbon about
Answer: Option A
A) 1.5% to 5.5% B) 0.5% to 1.75%
50. For sanitary pipes and chemical stonewares,
C) 0.1% to 0.25% D) none to these
A) Salt glazing is used B) Lead glazing is used
Answer: Option C
C) Opaque glazing is used D) None of these
45. The main constituent of fly -ash, is
Answer: Option A
A) aluminium oxide B) silica
51. The most commonly used retarder in cement is
C) ferrous oxide D) All of these
A) Gypsum B) Calcium chloride
Answer: Option D
C) Calcium carbonate D) None of the above
46. Bitumen in
Answer: Option A
A) solid state, is called asphalt
52. The rocks which are formed due to cooling of magma at a
B) semi fluid state, is called mineral tar relatively shallow depth from the earth's surface are called
C) fluid state, is called petroleum D) all the above A) Plutonic rocks B) Hypabyssal rocks
Answer: Option D C) Volcanic rocks D) Igneous rocks
47. The plastics made from cellulose resin Answer: Option B
A) are as clear as glass B) are tough and strong 53. The ratio of the thickness of web to that of flange of steel
rolled structural beams and channels is
C) possess excellent electrical properties D) All the above
A) Less than 1 B) Equal to 1
C) Greater than 1 C) silica 40% ; lime 40% ; other ingredients 20%
D) Less than 1 in beams but greater than 1 in channels D) silica 70% ; lime 20% ; other ingredients 10%.
54. Kaolin is chemically classified as 59. Non acid-resistant asbestos is:
A) metamorphic rock B) argillaceous rock A) Tremolite asbestos B) Chrysotile asbestos
C) calcareous rock D) silicious rock C) Amosite asbestos D) None of these
55. Which one of the following is acid resistant asbestos: 60. The pressure acting on the stones in stone masonry
construction should be
A) actinolite asbestos B) amosite asbestos
A) Along the direction of bedding planes
C) anthophylite asbestos D) crocidolite asbestos
B) At 45° to the direction of bedding planes
E) All the above
C) At 60° to the direction of bedding planes
Answer: Option E
D) Perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes
56. Due to attack of dry rot, the timber
Answer: Option D
A) cracks B) shrinks
61. Pick up the constituent of good brick earth whose excess
C) reduces to powder D) none of these causes the raw bricks shrink and warp during drying and burning,
from the following:
Answer: Option C
A) Alumina B) Lime
57. Brittleness of cold is due to an excess of
C) Iron-oxi de D) Magnesia
A) sulphur B) carbon
Answer: Option A
C) phosphorus D) silicon
62. The type of bond provided in brick masonry for carrying
Answer: Option C heavy loads is
58. For the manufacture of Portland cement, the proportions A) Single Flemish bond B) Double Flemish bond
of raw materials used, are
C) English bond D) Zigzag bond
A) lime 63% ; silica 22% ; other ingredients 15%
Answer: Option C
B) lime 22% ; silica 63% ; other ingredients 15%
63. Asbestos cement C) elasticity D) all of these
A) is brittle B) warps due to changes in humidity Answer: Option D
C) strength is lowered when saturated by water 69. Blister steel
D) all the above A) Is obtained by cementation process
Answer: Option D B) Is full of fissures and cavities
64. Gniess is obtained from C) Can be easily welded D) All the above
A) igneous rocks B) metamorphic rocks Answer: Option D
C) sedimentary rocks D) sedimentary metamorphic rocks 70. Gypsum is a
Answer: Option D A) Mechanically formed sedimentary rock B) Igneous rock
65. The rocks formed by gradual deposition, are called C) Chemically precipitated sedimentary rock
A) sedimentary rocks B) igneous rocks D) Metamorphic rock
C) metamorphic rocks D) none of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A 71. Seasoning of timber is done
66. Galvanising means covering iron with a thin coat of A) To make it water proof B) To paint its surface
A) tin B) zinc C) To increase its temperature D) To remove water
C) glaze D) coal tar Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B 72. Which of the following is a rock?
67. For preparing porcelains, the clay should be A) Quartz B) Mica
A) sufficiently pure B) of high degree of tanacity C) Gypsum D) None of the above
C) of good plasticity D) All the above Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D 73. The tendency of a stone is, to split along:
68. Polymerization helps to improve the property of A) Texture B) Fracture
A) strength B) rigidity C) Cleavage D) Structure
Answer: Option C
74. Good quality stones must A) grey B) green
A) be durable B) be free from clay C) brown D) all of these
C) resist action of acids D) all the above Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D 80. Which of the following stone is best suited for construction
of piers and abutments of a railway bridge?
75. Sewer pipes are made of
A) Granite B) Sand stone
A) earthen ware B) stone ware
C) Lime stone D) Quartzite
C) refractory clay D) terracota
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
81. Cast iron contains carbon approximately
76. Fibre glass
A) 1.5% to 5.5% B) 0.05% to 1.75%
A) retains heat-longer
C) 0.250 % D) None to these
B) has a higher strength to weight ratio
Answer: Option A
C) is shock proof and fire retardent
82. Which of the following trees yields hard wood?
D) does not decay E) all the above
A) Deodar B) Chir
Answer: Option E
C) Shishum D) Pine
77. The specific gravity of stone should not, in any case be
less than Answer: Option C
A) 1 B) 1.5
83. Soundness of cement is tested by
C) 2 D) 2.5
A) Vicat's apparatus B) Le-chatelier apparatus
Answer: Option D
C) Compressive strength testing apparatus D) None of these
78. Argillaceous rocks have their main constituent as
Answer: Option B
A) carbonates of lime B) clay or alumina
84. First class timber has an average life of
C) silica or sand D) all of these
A) Less than one year B) 1 to 5 years
Answer: Option B
C) 5 to 10 years D) More than 10 years
79. The colour of granite is
Answer: Option D
85. A fine-grained granite 90. Bitumen may be dissolved in
A) offers higher resistance to weathering A) Carbondioxide B) Water
B) can be easily polished and worked C) Sodium chloride D) Carbon disulphide
C) is used for exterior facing of buildings Answer: Option D
D) all of these 91. Which of the following ingredients of the brick earth enables
the brick to retain its shape?
Answer: Option D
A) Alumina B) Silica
86. A limestone found in seams of great thickness in non -
crystalline texture with earthy appearance, is called C) Iron D) Magnesia
A) granular limestone B) compact limestone Answer: Option B
C) magnesium limestone D) lankar 92. Number of bricks required for one cubic metre of brick
masonry is
Answer: Option B
A) 400 B) 450
87. A limestone containing about 30% of alumina and silica is
called C) 500 D) 550
A) granular limestone B) compact limestone Answer: Option C
C) magnesium limestone D) kankar 93. Which one of the following is used for preparing porcelain?
Answer: Option D A) Clay B) Feldspar
88. The compressive strength of sandstone is C) Quartz D) All of these
A) 40 MN/m2 B) 55 MN/m2 Answer: Option D
C) 65 MN/m2 D) 80 MN/m2 94. The main ingredients of Portland cement are
Answer: Option C A) Lime and silica B) Lime and alumina
89. The specific gravity of sandstone is C) Silica and alumina D) Lime and iron
A) 1.1 to 1.8 B) 1.8 to 2.65 Answer: Option A
C) 2.65 to 2.95 D) 2.95 to 3.4 95. After storage, the strength of cement
Answer: Option C A) Decreases B) Increases

C) Remains same D) May increase or decrease Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A 101. A bull nose brick is not used for
96. The silicious sandstone which has been subjected to A) Rounding off sharp corners B) Pillars
metamorphic action, is called
C) Decoration purpose D) Arches
A) moorum B) laterite
Answer: Option D
C) quartzite D) dolomite
102. The most common admixture which is used to accelerate
Answer: Option C the initial set of concrete is
97. For railway ballast, the stone should be A) Gypsum B) Calcium chloride
A) soft with a uniform texture C) Calcium carbonate D) None of the above
B) hard, heavy, strong and durable Answer: Option B
C) hard, tough, resistant to abrasion and durable 103. Chlorite, a green colour mineral is mainly derived from the
decomposition of
D) hard, dense, durable, tough and easily workable
A) Augite B) Biotite
Answer: Option D
C) Hornblende D) All of these
98. The quarrying of stone by the method of wedging is
successfully carried out in Answer: Option A
A) sandstones B) limestones 104. The ultimate tensile strength of structural mild steel is
about
C) marbles D) all of these
A) 160 N/mm² B) 260 N/mm²
Answer: Option D
C) 420 N/mm² D) 520 N/mm²
99. When quarrying is to be done in hard stone and compact
rocks, the usual method of quarrying is Answer: Option C
A) by wedging B) by channelling machine 105. The percentage of alumina and silica in good fire clay vary
respectively is
C) by blasting D) all of these
A) 25, 75 B) 30, 70
Answer: Option C
C) 35, 65 D) All of these
100. The compressive strength of felspar is
Answer: Option A
A) equal to B) less than C) more than
106. The most powerful explosive used in blasting is 112. The proportions of lime and sand in the mortar normally
used in brick construction are
A) blasting power B) dynamite A) 1:2 B) 1 :4
C) gun cotton D) cordite C) 1:6 D) 1 :8
107. The dressing of stone is done 113. Index number expressing the relative sizes of both coarse
and fine aggregates, is called
A) immediately after quarrying B) after seasoning
A) Proportioning of aggregates B) Fineness modulus
C) after three months of quarrying D) just before building
C) Grading of aggregates D) None of these
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
108. The crushing strength of a stone depends upon its
114. Which of the following sedimentary rocks changes into
A) texture B) specific gravity quartzite by metamorphic action?
C) workability D) both (a) and (b) A) Sand stone B) Lime stone
Answer: Option D C) Shale D) Gypsum
109. For the construction of retaining walls, a Answer: Option A
A) soft B) hard C) heavy 115. A first class brick should not absorb water more than
Answer: Option C A) 10% B) 15%
110. Early attainment of strength in rapid ha rdening cement is C) 20% D) 25%

mainly due to
A) Gypsum B) Finer grinding Answer: Option C
C) Tri-calcium silicate D) Tri-calcium aluminate 116. A first class brick should have a minimum crushing
strength of
Answer: Option B A) 7 MN/m2 B) 10.5 MN/m2
111. Which of the following cements contains maximum C) 12.5 MN/m2 D) 14 MN/m2
percentage of dicalcium silicate?
Answer: Option B
A) Ordinary Portland cement B) Low heat cement
117. The percentage of alumina in a good brick clay should
C) Rapid hardening cement D) Sulphate resisting cement vary from
Answer: Option B A) 20 to 30% B) 30 to 40%

C) 40 to 50% D) 50 to 60% 123. The percentage of silica in a good brick clay should vary
from
Answer: Option A
A) 20 to 30% B) 30 to 40%
118. Which of the following stresses is used for identifying the
quality of structural steel? C) 40 to 50% D) 50 to 60%
A) Ultimate stress B) Yield stress Answer: Option D
C) Proof stress D) None of the above 124. Excess pf alumina in the clay
Answer: Option B A) makes the brick brittle and weak
119. Quick lime B) makes the brick crack and warp on drying
A) Generates heat when added to water C) changes colour of the brick from red to yellow
B) Reacts with carbon dioxide D) improves impermeability and durability of the brick
C) May be used for white-washing D) All the above Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D 125. Excess of silica in the clay
120. A mortar joint in masonry which is normal to the face of A) makes the brick brittle and weak
wall is known as
A) Bed joint B) Wall joint B) makes the brick crack and wrap on drying
C) Cross joint D) Bonded joint C) changes the colour of the brick from red to yellow
Answer: Option C D) improves impermeability and durability of the brick
121. A volatile substance added to a paint to make its applicati on Answer: Option A
easy and smooth, is known as
A) Base B) Solvent 126. Which of the following constituent, when present in
excess quantity in clay causes the bricks to m elt and distort
C) Vehicle D) None to these during burning?
A) Alumina B) Silica
Answer: Option B
C) Lime D) Alkalies
122. Jumper is a tool used for
Answer: Option C
A) Testing of stones B) Quarrying of stones
127. The alkaline salt present in the bricks, absorbs moisture
C) Dressing of stones D) None of the above from the air which on drying
Answer: Option B A) leaves pores and makes the bricks porous

B) leaves high powder deposit on the brick 133. The size of mould for bricks should be
C) makes the bricks brittle and weak D) all of these A) equal to B) smaller than C) larger than
128. Pick up the volcanic rock from the following: 134. Efflorescence is caused if
A) Granite B) Dolerite A) the alkaline salt is present in the bricks
C) Basalt D) All the above B) the clay used for making bricks contain pyrite
Answer: Option C C) the water used for pugging the clay contains gypsum
129. Strength of cement concrete primarily depends upon D) all of the above
A) Quality of water B) Quantity of aggregate Answer: Option D
C) Quantity of cement D) Water-cement ratio 135. The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients
to make bricks, is known as
Answer: Option D A) tempering B) pugging
130. The main function of alumina in brick earth is C) kneading D) moulding
A) To impart plasticity B) To make the brick durable Answer: Option C
C) To prevent shrinkage D) To make the brick impermeable 136. The bricks after moulding should be dried in
Answer: Option A A) open air B) sun for 3 to 8 days
131. Which of the following pairs gives a correct combination of C) air for 3 to 8 days but not in sun D) hot air for 3 days
the useful and harmful constituents respectively of a good brick
earth? Answer: Option C
A) Lime stone and alumina B) Silica and alkalies
137. The indentation marks left on bricks during the process of
C) Alumina and iron D) Alkalies and magnesium moulding, are known as
Answer: Option B A) fillets B) frogs
132. Hydraulic lime is obtained by C) projections D) marks
A) Burning of lime stone B) Burning of kankar Answer: Option B
C) Adding water to quick lime D) Calcination of pure clay 138. The frog of a brick is normally made on its
Answer: Option B A) longer face B) shorter face

C) bottom face D) top face A) silicosis B) fibrosis of lungs
Answer: Option D C) bronchitis D) pneumonitis E) All of these
139. The commonly used lime in white washing, is Answer: Option E
A) white lime B) fat lime 145. The average out-turn of first class bricks in clamp burning
is about
C) hydraulic lime D) lime
A) 50% B) 60%
Answer: Option B
C) 70% D) 80%
140. Shingle is
Answer: Option B
A) decomposed laterite B) crushed granite
146. The average out-turn of first class bricks in kiln burning is
C) water bound pebbles D) air weathered rock
A) 50 to 60% B) 60 to 70%
Answer: Option A
C) 70 to 80% D) 80 to 90%
141. Pick up the plutonic rock from the following:
Answer: Option D
147. The burning of bricks in kilns is complete within
C) Basalt D) All the above
A) 12 B) 24
Answer: Option A
C) 48 D) 96
142. The lime which contains mainly calcium oxide and slacks
with water, is Answer: Option B
A) fat lime B) quick lime 148. The bricks after burning in kilns require about
C) hydraulic lime D) poor lime A) 4 B) 8
Answer: Option B C) 10 D) 12
143. Seasoning is Answer: Option D
A) a process of removing sap B) creosoting 149. The bricks should be burnt at temperature from
C) painting with sodium silicate D) coating with tar A) 300°C to 500° C B) 500° C to 700° C
Answer: Option A C) 700° C to 1000° C D) 1000° C to 1200° C
144. Inhaling of fly-ash over a long period causes Answer: Option D

150. Minimum required water cement ratio for a workable C) Wrought iron D) Steel
concrete, is
Answer: Option D
A) 0.30 B) 0.40
156. The type of briek suitable for panal walls for multi -
C) 0.50 D) 0.60 storeyed buildings is
Answer: Option B A) hollow bricks B) perforated bricks
151. Rocks formed due to alteration of original structure due C) either (a) or (b) D) none of these
to heat and excessive pressure are called
Answer: Option C
A) sedimentary rocks B) igneous rocks
157. The compressive strength of second elass bricks should
C) metamorphic rocks D) none of these bot be less than
Answer: Option C A) 7.5 MN/m2 B) 9 MN/m2
152. The compound of Portland cement which contributes to C) 10.5 MN/m2 D) 12 MN/m2
the strength after two to three years is
Answer: Option A
A) Tricalcium silicate B) Di-calcium silicate
158. Jhama bricks are
C) Tricalcium aluminate D) Tetracalcium alumino ferrite
A) well burnt having smooth and even surface
Answer: Option B
B) slightly over burnt having rough surface
153. For slaking of 10 kg of CaO, the theoretical amount of
water is C) under burnt and can be easily broken
A) 2.2 kg B) 1.5 kg
D) over burnt with irregular shape
C) 3.2 kg D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
159. The compressive strength of perforated bricks should not
154. Clay and silt content in a good brick earth must be at least be less than
A) 4 MN/m2 B) 5 MN/m2
A) 50% B) 40%
C) 6 MN/m2 D) 7 MN/m2
C) 30% D) 25%
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
160. The compressive strength of paving bricks should not be
155. Bessemer process is used for the manufacture of less than
A) Pig iron B) cast iron A) 20 MN/m2 B) 30 MN/m2

C) 40 MN/m2 D) 50 MN/m2 A) quality of free lime B) ultimate strength
Answer: Option C C) durability D) initial setting
161. The portion of the brick without a triangular corner equal Answer: Option A
to half the width and half the length, is called
167. The length of a curved tile varies from
A) closer B) queen closer
A) 10 to 12 cm B) 12 to 15 cm
C) king closer D) squint brick
C) 15 to 20 cm D) 20 to 22.5 cm
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
162. The standard size of masonry bricks, is
168. For one cubic metre of brick masonry, the number of
A) 18 cm x 8 cm x 8 cm B) 19 cm x 9 cm x 9 cm bricks required are
C) 20 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm D) 21 cm x 11 cm x 11 cm A) 400 B) 450
163. Which one of the following is an air binding material ? Answer: Option D
A) Gypsum B) Acid-resistant cement 169. The dolomite bricks are
C) Quick lime D) All of these A) ordinary bricks B) acid refractory bricks
Answer: Option D C) basic refractory bricks D) neutral refractory bricks
164. A good quality stone absorbs water less than Answer: Option C
A) 5% B) 10% 170. Lime is used
C) 15% D) 20% A) as a matrix for concrete B) for plastering walls, ceilings etc.
Answer: Option A C) for improving soil for agricultural purposes
165. Plywood is made from D) all of the above
A) common timber B) bamboo fibre Answer: Option D
C) teak wood only D) asbestos sheets 171. The commonly used colour pigment in paints, is
Answer: Option C A) ambers B) carbon black
166. Soundness test of cement determines C) iron oxide D) lamp black E) all the above
Answer: Option E 177. Varnish is a transparent or semi-transparent solution of
resinuous substances in
172. The slag which floats on the surface of the molten iron
generally contains A) alcohol B) linseed
A) Lime (CaO) 45% B) Silica (SiO2) 35% C) turpentine D) all the above
C) Alumina (Al2O3) 12% Answer: Option D
D) MgO, CaSO4, KMnO2 and FeO 8% E) all the above 178. Initial setting time of cement for asbestos cement
products should be not less than
Answer: Option E
173. Minimum of 40% of iron, is available in
A) Magnetite B) Red haemetite
Answer: Option D
C) Limonite D) Black band
179. The variety of pig iron used for the manufacture of steel
Answer: Option D by Bessemer process, is
174. If the iron ore contains clay as an impurity, the flux added A) Bessemer pig B) Grey pig
during calcination, is
C) White forge pig D) Mottled pig
A) clay B) lime stone
Answer: Option A
C) argillaceous iron ore D) all the above
180. For melting one tonne of cast iron
Answer: Option B
A) 700 m3 air is required B) 20 kg limestone is required
175. Cast steel is manufactured by
C) one quintal coke is required D) all the above
A) Cementation process B) Crucible process
Answer: Option D
C) Bessemer process D) Open hearth process
181. Vanadium steel is generally used for
Answer: Option B
A) railway switches and crossing B) bearing balls
176. For the manufacture of plywood, veneers are placed so
that grains of adjacent veneers C) magnets D) axles and springs
A) run at right angles B) parallel Answer: Option D
C) inclined at 45° D) inclined at 60° 182. The process of manufacturing steel by heating short
lengths of wrought iron bars mixed with charcoal in fire clay
Answer: Option A crucibles and collecting the molten iron into moulds, is known as
A) Cementation process B) Crucible process 188. The rocks in which argil (or clay) predominates, are called
C) Bessemer process D) Open hearth process A) sillicious rocks B) argillaceous rocks
Answer: Option B C) calcareous rocks D) igneous rocks
183. A 1st class brick immersed in water for 24 hours, should Answer: Option B
not absorb water (by weight) more than
189. A badly mixed cement concrete results in
A) 10% B) 15%
A) segregation B) bleeding
C) 20% D) 25%
C) honey combing D) none to these
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
184. The proportions of charcoal, saltpetre and sulphur in gun
powder by weight, are respectively: 190. Chemically, marble is known as
A) 15, 75, 10 B) 75, 10, 15 A) metamorphic rock B) argillaceous rock
C) 10, 15, 75 D) 10, 75, 15. C) calcareous rock D) silicious rock
185. Geologically, marble is known as 191. Inner part of a timber log surrounding the pitch, is called
A) sedimentary rock B) igneous rock A) sapwood B) cambium layer
C) metamorphic rock D) stratified rock C) heart wood D) none to these
186. The commonly used drying oil for oil paints, is 192. The filler used in plastic bitumen, is
A) olive oil B) linseed oil A) shale powder B) talc powder
C) kerosine oil D) accetate of lead C) asbestos powder D) plastic powder
187. Initial setting of cement is caused due to 193. Resins are
A) Tri-calcium silicate B) Di-calcium silicate A) not soluble in water B) soluble in spirit
C) Tri-calcium aluminate D) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite C) used in varnishes D) left behind on evaporation of oil
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C C) product left immediately after the calcination of pure
limestone
194. The foliated structure is very common in
D) lime quickly treated with water
Answer: Option C
C) metamorphic rocks D) none of these
200. Refractory bricks are used for
Answer: Option C
A) retaining walls B) columns
195. Turpentine oil is used in paints as
C) piers D) combustion chambers.
A) thinner B) vehicle
Answer: Option D
C) base D) drier
201. The rock generally used for roofing, is
Answer: Option A
A) granite B) basalt
196. The hardest rock is
C) slate D) pumice
A) marble B) diamond
Answer: Option C
C) talc D) quartz
202. Apiece of sawn timber whose cross-sectional dimensions
Answer: Option B exceed 5 cm, in one direction and 20 cm in the other direction, is
called a
197. Wrought iron is manufactured from pig iron by A) cant B) deal
A) refining B) pudding C) baulk D) strip
C) shingling D) rolling E) all the above Answer: Option C
Answer: Option E 203. Quick lime (or caustic lime)
198. Fibre boards can be A) is obtained by the calcination of pure lime stone
A) distempered B) painted B) has great affinity to moisture
C) painted and distempered D) used for furniture C) is amorphous D) All the above
199. Quick lime is a 204. Name the type of cement from t he following for canal
linings
A) carbonate of lime B) oxide of calcium
A) sulphate resisting cement B) rapid hardening cement
C) quick setting cement D) pozzuolana cement Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A 210. Mastic asphalt is generally used for
205. The lime which consists almost entir ely of calcium oxide, A) damp proof course B) water proof layer
is called
A) poor lime B) rich lime C) partition walls D) both (a) and (b)
C) hydraulic lime D) limestone Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B 211. The most fire resistant paints are :
206. The lime which contains more than 30% of clayey A) enamel paints B) aluminium paints
impurities in the form of silica, alumina and iron oxide, is known
as C) asbestos paints D) cement paints
A) poor lime B) rich lime
Answer: Option C
C) hydraulic lime D) limestone
212. If P is the percentage of water required for normal
Answer: Option A consistency, water to be added for determination of initial setting
time, is
207. Eminently hydraulic lime is one in which the percentage A) 0.70 P B) 0.75 P
of silica, alumina and iron oxide is
C) 0.80 P D) 0.85 P
A) 5 to 10% B) 10 to 25%
Answer: Option D
C) 25 to 30% D) 30 to 40%
213. A pug mill is used for
Answer: Option C
A) softening brick earth B) moulding brick earth
208. The hydraulic lime which resembles very much with
Portland cement in its chemical composition is called. C) tempering brick earth D) providing brick earth
A) feebly hydraulic lime B) moderately hydraulic lime Answer: Option C
C) eminently hydraulic lime D) none of these 214. A good brick earth should contain :
Answer: Option C A) about 20% to 30% of alumina
209. Poor or lean lime B) about 50% to 60% of silica
A) slakes rapidly with considerable evolution of heat C) not more than 5% of lime
B) takes very long time to develop adequate strength D) about 5 to 6% of oxide of lime E) All the above
C) has high plasticity D) none of the above Answer: Option E

215. The commonly used lime for works under water or in damp 220. The most important tool in brick laying for lifting and
situations is spreading mortar and for forming joints is
A) fat lime B) lean lime A) Trowel B) Square
C) feebly hydraulic lime D) eminently hydraulic lime C) Bolster D) Scutch
216. The fuel generally used for burning limestone is 221. Which of the following is a mineral?
A) coal B) charcoal A) Basalt B) Granite
C) firewood D) any one of these C) Quartz D) Syenite
217. During the process of burning limestone, clay forms 222. Age of a tree may be ascertained by
certain compound which
A) Radius of its stem B) Circumference of its stem
A) gives hydraulic lime B) gives power of quick setting
C) Number of branches D) Number of annual rings
C) does not allow to be dissolved in the outside water when
used in damp situations Answer: Option D
D) all of the above 223. The maximum water-cement ratio for durable concrete is
Answer: Option D A) 0.2 B) 0.4
218. The process of adding the required quantity of water to C) 0.6 D) 0.8
quick lime in order to convert it into hydrated lime, is known as
Answer: Option D
A) calcination B) hydration
224. The durability of cement concrete is usually improved by
C) slaking D) quenching
A) increasing the quantity of coarse sand
Answer: Option C
B) increasing the quantity of cement
219. The advantage of adding pozzolana (or surkhi) to lime is to
C) decreasing the water-cement ratio
A) reduce shrinkage B) increase resistance to cracking
D) decreasing the proportion of fine aggregate
C) increase resistance to chemical attack D) all of these
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
225. The commonly used lime in white washing is 231. The density of concrete
A) quick lime B) fat lime A) does not change B) increases C) decreases
C) lean lime D) hydraulic lime Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B 232. The shrinkage of concrete
226. The lime mortar is made from A) does not change B) increases C) decreases
A) quick lime B) fat lime Answer: Option B
C) lean lime D) hydraulic lime 233. The shrinkage of ordinary concrete is about
Answer: Option D A) 0.1 to 0.3 mm/m B) 0.3 to 0.6 mm/m
227. Quick lime on reaction with water gives C) 0.6 to 1.2 mm/m D) 1.2 to 2.1 mm/m
A) hydraulic lime B) slaked lime Answer: Option B
C) hydrated lime D) poor lime 234. According to Indian standard specifications, the full
strength of concrete is achieved after
Answer: Option B
228. Hydraulic lime generates
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
235. According to Indian standard specifications, the c oncrete
229. The constituent in lime which retard the slaking action should be cured under a humidity of
and increase the rapidity of setting, is
A) 30% B) 50%
A) silica B) sulphate
C) 70% D) 90%
C) alkalies D) alumina
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
236. The slump test of concrete is used to measure its
230. The main constituent of a Portland cement is
A) consistency B) tensile and compressive strength
A) lime B) alumina
C) impact value D) homogeneity
C) iron oxide D) alkalies
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
237. The silica in Portland cement should be 242. The central part of a tree is called
A) 10 to 20% B) 20 to 25% A) heart wood B) pith
C) 25 to 40% D) 40 to 60% C) sap wood D) cambium layer
238. The dry process of mixing is usually employed in the 243. The defect caused due to over-maturity and unventilated
manufacture of Portland cement when the raw material is storage of the wood during its transit, is called
A) blast furnace slag B) chalk A) knot B) rind gall
C) clay D) all of these C) foxiness D) heart shake
239. The clinker is formed at a temperature of 244. The defect caused by imperfect seasoning, is called
A) 500° C B) 1000° C A) wet rot B) dry rot
C) 1200° C D) 1500° C C) honeycombing D) cup shake
240. The amount of gypsum, usually, added in the 245. The purpose of seasoning of timber is to
manufacture of cement is
A) change the direction of grains B) remove voids
A) 0.1 to 0.5% B) 0.5 to 1%
C) reduce moisture content D) all of these
C) 1 to 3% D) 3 to 5%
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
246. The moisture content in timber for framework should not
241. Gypsum is added in the manufacture of Portland cement exceed
A) while mixing the raw materials A) 5% B) 10%
B) during burning in the rotary kiln C) 15% D) 20%
C) at the beginning of grinding the clinker Answer: Option C
D) at the end of grinding the clinker into powder 247. Portland pozzolana cement possesses
Answer: Option D A) higher resistance to chemical attack

B) lower heat of hydration C) lower shrinkage on drying 253. Iron ore may contain
D) water tightness E) all the above A) carbon B) silicon C) sulphur
Answer: Option E D) phosphorus and manganese E) all the above
248. The cementing property in cement is mainly due to Answer: Option E
A) lime B) silica 254. Wrought iron is used for
C) iron oxide D) alumina A) structural works in beams B) small sized water pipes
Answer: Option A C) columns and struts D) none to these
249. The setting and hardening of cement paste is mainly due Answer: Option B
to the hydration and hydrolysis of
255. The timber having maximum resistance against white
A) tri-calcium silicate B) di-calcium silicate ants, is obtained from
C) tri-calcium aluminate D) all of these A) chir B) shisham
Answer: Option D C) sal D) teak
250. The compound responsible for the initial setting of Answer: Option B
cement, is
A) tri-calcium aluminate B) tetra-calcium alumino ferrite 256. Knots in timber are
C0 both (a) and (b) D) none of these A) defects caused by crushing fibres
Answer: Option C B) splits radiating from the centre
251. The ultimate strength of cement is provided by C) speckled strains D) signs of branches cut off
A) silica B) di-calcium silicate Answer: Option D
C) tri-calcium silicate D) tri-calcium aluminate 257. Lime concrete is generally used for
Answer: Option B A) wall foundations B) flooring at ground level
252. A good quality cement should have higher percentage of C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b).
A) silica B) free lime Answer: Option B
C0 di-calcium silicate D) tri-calcium silicate 258. Bituminous fells are used for
Answer: Option D A) covering A.C. sheets B) covering sloping roofs

C) D.P.C. D) none to these C) Vicat's apparatus D) all of these
259. The strength of white cement is 265. The minimum compressive strength of Ilnd class bricks
should be
Answer: Option B
C) 100 kg/cm2 D) 120 kg/cm2
260. The percentage of the slag component of Portland-slag
cement varies from Answer: Option A
A) 10 to 40% B) 40 to 70% 266. Stuco paints are suitable for
C) 70 to 80% D) 80 to 90% A) stone masonry B) brick walls
Answer: Option B C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b).
261. The rapid hardening Portland cement has a Answer: Option C
A) lower heat of hydration B) higher heat of hydration 267. Duco is one of the patent forms of
C) lower shrinkage coefficient A) emulsion paints B) plastic paints
Answer: Option B C) bituminous paints D) aluminium paints
262. The initial setting of cement is caused due to E) cellulose paints
A) di-calcium silicate B) tri-calcium silicate Answer: Option E
C) tri-calcium aluminate D) tri-calcium alumino ferrite 268. Bulking of sand is caused due to
Answer: Option C A) surface moisture B) air voids
263. The fineness of cement is tested by C) viscosity D) clay contents
A) air-permeability method B) Le-chateliermethod Answer: Option A
C) Vicat's apparatus D) all of these 269. The normal curing period for lime mortar, is:
Answer: Option A A) one day B) 3 days
264. The soundness of cement is tested by C) 7 days D) 10 days
A) air permeability method B) Le-chateliermethod Answer: Option C

270. Vicat's apparatus is used to determine the C) 45° D) 90°
A) initial setting time of cement B) final setting time of cement Answer: Option D
C) normal consistency of cement D) all of these 276. The type of steel used for precision levelling staff, is
Answer: Option D A) Titanium steel B) Carbon steel
271. Lime putty C) Invar D) Stainless steel
A) Is made from hydraulic lime Answer: Option C
B) Is made by adding lime to water 277. German silver is an alloy of
C) Can be used only upto three days D) All of above A) zinc, lead and nickel B) silver, gold and lead
Answer: Option D C) copper, nickel and zinc D) copper, brass and zinc
272. The stone suitable for rubble masonry should be. Answer: Option C
A) Hard B) Tough 278. The time required for air seasoning of soft wood is
C) Heavy D) Light A) 15 to 30 days B) 30 to 60 days
Answer: Option A C) 60 to 90 days D) 90 to 120 days
273. Spalling hammer is used for Answer: Option C
A) Driving wooden headed chisels B) Rough dressing of stones 279. The time required for seasoning of timber in kilm
seasoning is
C) Carving of stones D) Breaking small projection of stones
A) 2 to 5 days B) 5 to 10 days
Answer: Option B
C) 10 to 20 days D) 20 to 40 days
274. Bullet proof glass is made of thick glass sheet sandwiched
by a layer of Answer: Option C
A) Steel B) Stainless steel
280. The timber whose thickness is less than 5 cm and the
C) High test plastic D) Chromium plate width exceeds 12 cm, is called a
Answer: Option C A) board B) plank
275. Plywood is made by bonding together thin layers of wood in C) batten D) log
such a way that the angle between grains of any layer to grains of
adjacent layers is Answer: Option A
A) 0° B) 30°
281. According to IS 399-1963, the weight of the timber is C) Varnish D) None of the above
specified at
Answer: Option C
A) 8% moisture content B) 10% moisture content
287. An assembled product made up of veneers and adhesives
C) 12% moisture content D) 14% moisture content is called
Answer: Option C A) board B) plank
282. Quick lime is C) plywood D) batten
A) Calcium carbonate B) Calcium oxide Answer: Option C
C) Calcium hydroxide D) None of the above 288. The thickness of five-ply sheet varies from
Answer: Option B A) 3 to 6 mm B) 6 to 9 mm
C) 9 to 16 mm D) 16 to 20 mm
283. The initial setting time for ordinary Portland cement as per
IS specifications should not be less than Answer: Option B
A) 10 minutes B) 30 minutes 289. The thickness of lamin boards vary from
C) 60 minutes D) 600 minutes A) 5 to 12 mm B) 12 to 15 mm
Answer: Option B C) 12 to 25 mm D) 25 to 30 mm
284. Plywood is normally available Answer: Option C
A) 1 mm thick B) 2 mm thick 290. The wood generally used for railway sleepers is
C) 2 to 3 mm thick D) 3 mm to 4 mm thick A) mango B) kail
Answer: Option D C) babul D) deodar
285. In a mortar, the binding material i s Answer: Option B
A) Cement B) Sand 291. The chief ingredient of a paint is
C) Surkhi D) Cinder A) alcohol B) drier
Answer: Option A C) oil D) pigment
286. The vehicle used in case of enamel paints is usually Answer: Option D
A) Linseed oil B) Water 292. The liquid medium used in oil paints is
A) thinner B) alcohol C) 2.5 to 3.0 D) 3.0 to 3.5
C) linseed oil D) turpentine Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C 298. The pigment in paints is mixed to give desired
293. Sand stone is A) smoothness B) colour
A) Sedimentary rock B) Metamorphic rock C) appearance D) durability
C) Igneous rock D) Volcanic rock Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A 299. The liquid part of the paint is called
294. For the manufacture of Portland cement, the proportions of A) pigment B) vehicle
raw materials used, are
C) solvent D) drier
A) Lime 63% ; silica 22% ; other ingredients 15%
Answer: Option B
B) Lime 22% ; silica 63% ; other ingredients 15%
300. The liquid medium used in enamel paints is
C) Silica 40% ; lime 40% ; other ingredients 20%
A) thinner B) alcohol
D) Silica 70% ; lime 20% ; other ingredients 10%
C) turpentine D) varnish
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
295. A good building stone should not absorb water more than
301. The metallic oxide used in the form of powder in a paint
A) 5% B) 10 % is called
C) 15 % D) 20 % A) extender B) base
Answer: Option A C) vehicle D) drier
296. Good quality stones must Answer: Option B
A) Be durable B) Be free from clay 302. The base in a paint is added to
C) Resist action of acids D) All the above A) improve the quality of paint B) make smooth surface
Answer: Option D C) hide the surface to be painted D) all of these
297. Specific gravity for most of the building stones lies between Answer: Option C
A) 1.5 to 2.0 B) 2.0 to 2.5

303. Initial setting time of cement for asbestos cement products C) 30 m D) 40 m
should be not less than
Answer: Option D
309. The commonly base used in a paint is
A) iron oxide B) zinc oxide
Answer: Option D
C) titanium white D) any one of these
304. The age of a tree can be known by examining
Answer: Option D
A) Cambium layer B) Annular rings
310. The thinner used for oil paints is
C) Medullary rays D) Heart wood
A) water B) turpentine
Answer: Option B
C) carbon tetrachloride D) any one of these
305. Percentage of silica in a good brick earth lies between
Answer: Option B
A) 5 to 10 % B) 20 to 30 %
311. Linseed oil in paint is used as a
C) 50 to 60 % D) 70 to 80 %
A) base B) thinner
Answer: Option C
C) carrier D) pigment
306. As per IS specifications, the maximum final setting time for
ordinary Portland cement should be Answer: Option C
A) 30 minutes B) 1 hour 312. Linseed oil is rapidly soluble in
C) 6 hours D) 10 hours A) alcohol B) turpentine
Answer: Option D C) naptha D) all of these
307. Shingle is Answer: Option D
A) Decomposed laterite B) Crushed granite 313. The commonly used extender in a paint is
C) Water bound pebbles D) Air weathered rock A) barium sulphate B) gypsum
Answer: Option A C) alcohol D) any one of these
308. Expansion Joints in masonry walls are provided in wall Answer: Option D
lengths usater than
314. Cast steel is manufactured by
A) 10 m B) 20 m
A) Cementation process B) Crucible process A) 5% B) 10%
C) Bessemer process D) Open hearth process C) 15% D) 20%
315. The foliated structure is very common in 320. The commonly used solvent in oil paints is
A) Sedimentary rocks B) Igneous rocks A) turpentine B) naptha
C) Metamorphic rocks D) None of these C) either (a) or (b) D) none of these
316. Cross cut saw is used for 321. The best primer used for structural steel work is
A) Cutting soft stones B) Cutting hard stones A) white lead B) red lead
C) Cutting large blocks of stones D) Dressing stones C) zinc oxide D) iron oxide
317. Pig iron is manufactured from the ores by 322. Crushing strength of a good building stone should be more
than
A) dressing B) calcination and roasting
A) 50 MPa B) 100 MPa
C) smelting D) all the above
C) 150 MPa D) 200 MPa
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
318. Quick lime
323. Generally wooden moulds are made from
A) generates heat when added to water
A) Ply wood B) Shishum wood
B) reacts with carbon dioxide
C) Deodar wood D) Teak wood
C) may be used for white-washing
Answer: Option B
D) when mixed with water forms slaked lime
324. The nominal size of the modular brick is
E) all the above
A) 190 mm × 90 mm × 80 mm B) 190 mm × 190 mm × 90 mm
Answer: Option E
C) 200 mm × 100 mm × 100 mm D) 200 mm × 200 mm × 100 mm
319. The drier in an oil paint should not be more than
Answer: Option C
325. Age of a tree may be ascertained by
Answer: Option B
A) radius of its stem B) circumference of its stem
331. Bitumen is generally obtained from
C) number of branches D) number of annual rings.
A) Organic material B) Synthetic material
Answer: Option D
C) Petroleum product D) Coal
326. The portion of a brick cut to form angles other than right
angles in plan, is known as Answer: Option C
A) queen closer B) king closer 332. The main constituent which imparts hydraulicity to
hydraulic lime is
C) closer D) squint brick
A) Calcium oxide B) Silica
Answer: Option D
C) Clay D) Water
327. Plywood is obtained by gluing wooden sheets at
Answer: Option C
A) 100 to 150 N/cm2 B) 100 to 130°C
333. Calcination of iron ores is done
C) both (a) and (b) D) Neither (a) nor (b)
A) To remove moisture B) To remove carbonic acid
Answer: Option C
C) By roasting in heaps D) All the above
328. The low voltage porcelain is mainly used for
Answer: Option D
A) switch block B) insulating tubes
334. Which of the following cements is suitable for use in
C) lamp sockets D) All of these massive concrete structures such as large dams?
Answer: Option D A) Ordinary Portland cement B) Low heat cement
329. The initial setting time of hydraulic lime, is C) Rapid hardening cement D) Sulphate resisting cement
A) 30 minutes B) 60 minutes Answer: Option B
C) 90 minutes D) 120 minutes 335. The commonly used thinner in oil paints, is
Answer: Option D A) Naphtha B) Turpentine
330. PVC stands for C) Both (a) and (b) D) None the these
A) plastic very compact B) polythene vinyl chloride Answer: Option C
C) polythene vinyl carbon D) polythene vanadium carbide

336. Generally wooden moulds are made from
A) Half brick thick B) One brick thick
A) ply wood B) shisham wood
C) One and a half bricks thick D) Two bricks thick
C) deodar wood D) teak wood
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
342. The pigment used in paints for corrosive resistance, is
336. Cement paints usually
A) White lead B) Ferrous oxide
A) contain hydrated lime
C) Zinc white D) Red lead
B) contain 5% to 10% colour pigments
Answer: Option D
C) are prepared with white cement
343. Slate is formed by metamorphic action on
D) contain 5% sodium chloride E) all the above
A) Shale B) Lime stone
Answer: Option E
C) Sand stone D) Granite
338. The cement becomes unsound by the presence of excess
Answer: Option A
A) sulphur B) magnesia
344. Sea sand used in structures causes
C) lime D) All of these
A) Dampness B) Efflorescence
Answer: Option D
C) Disintegration D) All of these
339. The kiln which may work throughout the year, is
Answer: Option D
A) Clamp B) Bull's kiln
C) Hoffman's kiln D) none of these
A) Plastics are chemical resistant B) Plastics are durable
Answer: Option C
C) Plastics are ductile D) Plastics are excellent electric insulators
340. The minimum compressive strength of 1st class bricks
should be Answer: Option C
346. Quartzite, a metamorphic stone is
C) 100 kg/cm2 D) 120 kg/cm2
A) hard B) brittle
Answer: Option C
C) crystalline D) compact E) All the above
341. Minimum thickness of wall where single Flemish bond can
be used is Answer: Option E
C) 60° D) parallel
347. The percentage of water for normal consistency, is
Answer: Option A
A) 5% to 15% B) 10% to 25%
353. Dextrin is
C) 15% to 25% D) 20% to 30%
A) animal glue B) starch glue
Answer: Option C
C) albumin glue D) rubber based adhesive
348. The main ingredient of a good quality brick earth, is
Answer: Option D
A) magnesia B) lime
354. Formula for quick lime, is
C) silica D) alumina
A) CaCO3 B) Ca(OH)2
Answer: Option D
C) CO3CO2 D) none to these
349. Bitumen is generally obtained from
Answer: Option A
A) organic material B) synthetic material
355. Stones used for ornamental work must be
C) petroleum product D) coal
A) soft B) hard
Answer: Option C
C) light D) heavy
350. The steel which contains fissures and cavities, is
manufactured by Answer: Option A
356. The presence of original rounded surface on the
C) Bessemer process D) Open hearth process manufactured piece of timber, is called
Answer: Option A A) Wane B) Torn grain
351. Pick up the volcanic rock from the following: C) Diagonal grain D) Chipmark
A) Granite B) Dolerite Answer: Option A
C) Basalt D) All the above 357. Smith's test of stones is performed to find out
Answer: Option C A) the presence of soluble matter of stone
352. In stone masonry, stones (stratified rocks) are so placed B) the compressive strength of the stone
that the direction of pressure to the plane of bedding is
C) the hardness of the stone D) the toughness of the stone
A) right angles B) 45°
Answer: Option A
358. The most durable varnish is 364. The cracks caused by shrinkage of the exterior surface of
the wood exposed to atmosphere, are called:
A) water varnish B) spirit varnish
A) radial shakes B) heart shakes
C) turpentine varnish D) oil varnish
C) wind cracks D) twisted fibres
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
359. Softer variety of steel may be obtained by
365. The process of decarbonising the pig iron completely and
A) Cementation process B) crucible process then adding proper percentage of carbon for manufacturing
steel, is called
A) Cementation process B) crucible process
Answer: Option C
360. The vehicle used in bronze paints is usually
Answer: Option A
A) linseed oil B) naptha
366. In paints, the pigment is responsible for
C) water D) nitro-cellulose lacquer
A) durability B) colour
Answer: Option D
C) smoothness D) glassy face
361. Bituminous paint consists of bitumen dissolved in
Answer: Option B
A) spirit B) naptha
367. The operation of removal of impurities or clay adhering to
C0 linseed oil D) either (a) or (b) iron ores, is known as
Answer: Option D A) dressing B) calcination
362. The bitumen paints are used for providing C) roasting D) smelting
A) rough B) smooth C) protective Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C 368. Portland cement manufactured from pure white chalk and
clay but free from iron-oxide, is known as
363. The commonly used cement in cement paints is
A) quick setting cement B) rapid hardening cement
A) white cement B) Portland cement
C) white cement D) low heat Portland cement
C) alumina cement D) rapid hardening cement
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
369. The solvent used in cement paints is D) plastered surfaces not exposed to weather
A) thinner B) turpentine Answer: Option D
C) water D) spirit 375. Dry rot
Answer: Option C A) cracks the timber B) reduces the strength of timber
370. Enamel paint is made by adding C) reduces the timber to powder D) shrinks the timber
A) white lead in varnish B) bitumen in varnish Answer: Option C
C) white lead in lacquer D) zinc white in spirit 376. Which one of the following polymers is obtained from
condensation polymerization?
Answer: Option A
A0 phenol formaldehyde B) carbamide
371. The paint which has high reflective property is
C) melamine-formaldehyde D) all of these
A) cellulose paint B) casein paint
Answer: Option D
C) bronze paint D) enamel paint
377. The weight of 1 m3 of brick earth, is about
Answer: Option C
A) 1200 kg B) 1500 kg
372. Which of the following paint is highly resistant to fire?
C) 1800 kg D) 2000 kg
A) Cement paint B) Asbestos paint
Answer: Option C
C) Aluminium paint D) enamel paint
378. Pozzolana (or surkhi) is used in lime
Answer: Option B
A) to impart hydraulicity B) to prevent shrinkage
373. Sprit varnish consists of
C) to decrease the cost of construction
A) spirit and wax B) spirit and shellac
D) to decrease the setting time.
C) turpentine, spirit and wax D) turpentine, spirit and shellac
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
379. Mastic asphalt is normally used for
374. Distemper is used on
A) sound insulation B) water proofing
A) brick walls B) concrete surfaces
C) fire proofing D) none to these
C) plastered surfaces exposed to weather
Answer: Option B
380. The base material for distemper is C) Bessemer process D) Open hearth process
A) chalk B) lime Answer: Option C
C) clay D) lime putty 386. Lime stone is not a
Answer: Option A A) sedimentary rock B) stratified rock
381. The steel which contains fissures and cavities, is C) aqueous rock D) metamorphic rock
manufactured by
Answer: Option D
387. The size of modular bricks, is
A) 10 x 10 x 9 cm B) 19 x 9 x 9 cm
Answer: Option A
C) 22.5 x 10 x 8.5 cm D) 22.5 x 8.0 x 9 cm
382. Pick up the volcanic rock from the following:
Answer: Option B
388. A piece of timber whose thickness and width are
C) Basalt D) All the above respectively 5 cm and 10 cm is called
Answer: Option C A) slate B) plank
383. In stone masonry, stones (stratified rocks) are so placed C) board D) strip
that the direction of pressure to the plane of bedding is
Answer: Option D
A) right angles B) 45°
389. The trunk of tree left after cutti ng all the branches is known
C) 60° D) parallel as
A) Log B) Batten
Answer: Option A
C) Plank D) Baulk
384. The most durable varnish is
Answer: Option A
390. The weight of a good quality brick when immersed in water
C) turpentine varnish D) oil varnish for a period of 16 hours should not exceed the weight of dry
brick
Answer: Option D
A) 20 % B) 15 %
385. Softer variety of steel may be obtained by
C) 10 % D) None of these
A) Cementation process B) crucible process
Answer: Option A
391. Calcination of iron ores is done
C) kutcha D) none of these
A) to remove moisture B) to remove carbonic acid
Answer: Option B
C) by roasting in heaps D) after dressing E) all the above
397. Pug mill is used for
Answer: Option E
A) Preparation of clay B) Moulding of clay
392. Strength of cement concrete pr imarily depends upon
C) Drying of bricks D) Burning of bricks
A) quality of water B) quantity of aggregate
Answer: Option A
C) quantity of cement D) water-cement ratio.
398. Pick up the synthetic resin from the following:
Answer: Option D
A) Urea resin B) Phenolic resin
393. Rapid hardening cement contains
C) Resorcinol resin D) All of these
A) Tri-calcium silicate B) Tri-calcium aluminate
Answer: Option D
C) Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite D) Dicalcium silicate
399. Addition of pozzolana to ordinary Portland cement
Answer: Option A increases
394. Bitumen emulsion is A) Bleeding B) Shrinkage
A) a liquid containing bitumen in suspension B) a paint C) Permeability D) Heat of hydration
C) used as anti-corrosive paint D) all the above Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D 400. Plastics are compounds of carbon with element
395. The cast iron when heated to red heat with powdered A) Hydrogen B) Nitrogen
red haemetite in an oven for increasing its toughness, is
converted to C) Oxygen D) All of these
A) grey cast iron B) white cast iron Answer: Option D
C) mottled cast iron D) toughed cast iron 401. Paints with white lead base are suitable for painting of
Answer: Option C A) Wood work B) Iron work
396. Jhumb bricks are C) Both wood work and iron work D) None of the above
A) under burnt B) over burnt Answer: Option A

402. Plastic bitumen is generally used for 407. The rocks having alumina or clay as their major constituents
are known as
A) road pavements B) expansion joints
A) Siliceous rocks B) Argillaceous rocks
C) crack fillings D) none to these
C) Calcareous rocks D) Sedimentary rocks
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
403. The commonly used thinner in oil paints, is
408. The practical limit of moisture content achieved in air dryi ng
A) naptha B) turpentine of timber is
A) 5% B) 15 %
C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)
C) 25 % D) 35 %
404. In a rock calcium carbonate predominates. State whether Answer: Option B

it is :
A) Sillicious rock B) Argillaceous rock 409. Glazing of clay products, is done
C) Calcareous rock D) None of these A) To improve their appearance
Answer: Option C B) To protect them from atmospheric effect
405. In order of increasing percentage of silica, the correct C) To protect them from corrosive action D) All the above
sequence is
A) sandy clay, calcareous clay, pure clay Answer: Option D
B) calcareous clay, pure clay, sandy clay 410. The yield strength and tensile st rength of low carbon steel
may be improved by the addition of
C) pure clay, sandy clay, calcareous clay
A) Manganese B) Chromium
D) None of these
C) Nickel D) Vanadium
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
406. Based on flow quality, the sequence of pipes is
411. Three basic raw materials which are needed in large
A) A.C. pipes, G.I. pipes, C.I. pipes, PVC pipes quantities for production of st eel are
B) C.I. pipes, G.I. pipes, A.C. pipes, PVC pipes A) Iron ore, coal and sulphur B) Iron ore, carbon and sulphur
C) C.I. pipes, G.I. pipes, PVC pipes, A.C. pipes C) Iron ore, coal and lime stone
D) None of these D) Iron ore, carbon and lime stone

412. The pigment used in paints for corrosive resistance, is Answer: Option D
A) white lead B) ferrous oxide 418. To give a brilliant finish, the type of varnish used, is
C) zinc white D) red lead A) Water varnish B) Spirit varnish
Answer: Option D C) Turpentine varnish D) Oil varnish
413. A well seasoned timber may contain moisture up to Answer: Option B
A) 4 to 6% B) 6 to 8% 419. Which of the following should be used for hearting of

thicker walls?
C) 8 to 10% D) 10 to 12%
A) Headers B) Stretchers
Answer: Option D
C) Brick bats D) Queen closer
414. The stones obtained by blasting are used as
Answer: Option A
A0 ballast in railways B) aggregates for concrete
420. A heavy stone is suitable for
C) roadmetal D) All the above
A) Arches B) Rubble masonry
Answer: Option D
C) Roads D) Retaining walls
415. Oil varnish generally consists of
Answer: Option D
A) synthetic resin and spirit B) oil, wax and resin
421. The percentage of alumina in a good brick earth lies
C) resin, oil and turpentine D) spirit, oil and wax. between
Answer: Option C A) 5 to 10 % B) 20 to 30 %
416. The cracks which extend from bark towards the sap wood C) 50 to 60 % D) 70 to 80 %
in the cross section of a tree, are called
Answer: Option B
A) radial shakes B) star shakes
422. Pig iron made from haematite ores free from sulphur,
C) heart shakes D) cup shakes phosphorus and copper, is known as
Answer: Option B A) Bessemer pig B) Grey or foundry pig
417. Sea sand used in structures causes C) White or forge pig D) Mottled pig
A) dampness B) efflorescence Answer: Option A
C) disintegration D) All of these

423. The compound of Portland cement which reacts C) Magnese steel D) Vanadium steel
immediately with water and also sets first is
Answer: Option C
A) Tri-calcium silicate B) Di-calcium silicate
429. Le-Chatelier's device is used for determining the
A) Setting time of cement B) Soundness of cement
Answer: Option C
C) Tensile strength of cement
424. Refractory bricks resist
D) Compressive strength of cement
A) high temperature B) chemical action
Answer: Option B
C) dampness D) all the above
430. Red short iron cracks when bent due to the presence of
Answer: Option A
A) Sulphur B) Carbon
425. In arches, stratified stones are placed so that their planes
are C) Phosphorus D) Silicon
A) parallel B) perpendicular
Answer: Option A
C) radial D) none of these
431. Percentage of carbon content in mild steel is
Answer: Option C
A) Less than 0.25 B) Between 0.25 and 0.7
426. The fire clay contains pure
C) Between 0.7 and 1.5 D) Greater than 1.5
A) lime B) oxide of iron
Answer: Option A
C) hydrated aluminium silicate D) magnesium
432. The method of addition polymerization is used for obtaining:
Answer: Option C
A) Polystyrene B) Polypropylene
427. For sanitary pipes and chemical stonewares, C) Polyvinylchloride D) All of these
A) salt glazing is used B) lead glazing is used Answer: Option D
C) opaque glazing is used D) None of these. 433. Which of the following metamorphic rocks has the most
weather resisting characteristics?
Answer: Option A
A) Marble B) Quartzite
428. The steel used for rails under heavy traffic and on sharp
curves, is C) Slate D) Lime stone
A) Nickel steel B) Chrome steel Answer: Option B

434. The weight of a good quality brick when immersed in water C) Resorcinol resin D) Urea resin E) All of these
for a period of 16 hours should not exceed the weight of dry brick
Answer: Option E
A) 20% B) 15%
440. To retard the initial setting time of cement, the compound
C) 10% D) None of these responsible, is
Answer: Option A A) Tri-calcium silicate B) Gypsum
435. Snowcrete is one of the patent forms of C) Di-calcium silicate D) Tri-calcium aluminate
A) distempers B) water proof cement paints Answer: Option B
C) enamel paints D) cellulose paints 441. Seasoning of timber is done for
Answer: Option B A) Increasing moisture content B) Decreasing moisture content
436. The usual percentages of clay and metal in cermet are : C) Increasing strength of timber D) None to these
A) 50%, 50% B) 60%, 40% Answer: Option B
C) 70%, 30% D) 80%, 20%. 442. The steel used for the manufacture of rails, is
Answer: Option D A) Bessemer steel B) Mild steel
437. The rocks which are formed due to cooling of magma at a C) Cast steel D) Stainless steel
relatively shallow depth from the earth's surface are called
Answer: Option A
443. Durability of building stone is affected by its
C) Volcanic rocks D) Ignoeous rocks
A) Chemical composition B) Texture
Answer: Option B
C) Resistance to atmosphere D) All the above
438. The base material for distemper, is
Answer: Option D
A) chalk B) lime
444. Crushing strength of a first class brick should not be less
C) lime putty D) cement wash than
Answer: Option A A) 3.5 N/mm² B) 7.0 N/mm²
439. Pick up the synthetic resin from the following: C) 10.5 N/mm² D) 14.0 N/mm²
A) Malamine resin B) Phenolic resin Answer: Option C

445. The steel used in R.C.C. work is Answer: Option A
A) stainless steel B) mild steel 451. The main constituent of cement which is responsible for
initial setting of cement is
C) high carbon steel D) wrought iron
A) Di-calcium silicate B) Tri-calcium silicate
Answer: Option B
C) Tri-calcium aluminate D) All of the above
446. Mastic asphalt is
Answer: Option C
A) water proof B) fire proof
452. In brick masonry the bond produced by laying alternate
C) elastic D) all the above headers and stretchers in each course is known as
Answer: Option D A) English bond B) Double Flemish bond
447. Non acid-resistant asbestos is : C) Zigzag bond D) Single Flemish bond
A) tremolite asbestos B) chrysolite abestos Answer: Option B
C) amosite asbestos D) none of these 453. In stone masonry, if stones are so placed that their layers
are parallel to the direction of load, they
Answer: Option B
A) Split easily B) Are affected by moisture
448. Stones used for the construction of retaining walls must be
C) Both (A) and (B) D) None of these
A0 soft B) hard
Answer: Option C
C) light D) heavy
454. Granite is not suitable for ordinary building purpose because
Answer: Option D
A) It cannot be polished B) It is not a fire proof material
449. Plastics are compounds of carbon with element
C) It is costly D) It has less crushing strength
A) hydrogen B) nitrogen
Answer: Option C
C) oxygen D) All of these
455. Glazing is used to make earthenware
Answer: Option D
A) Hard B) Soft
450. Pick up the constituent of good brick earth whose excess
causes the raw bricks shrink and warp during drying and burning, C) Porous D) Impervious
from the following:
A) Alumina B0 Lime Answer: Option D
C) Ironoxide D) Magnesia. 456. In the cement the compound quickest to react with water, is
A) Tri-calcium aluminate B) Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite Answer: Option D
C) Tri-calcium silicate D) Di-calcium silicate 462. Which of the following gradients exerts maximum influence
on properties of steel?
Answer: Option A
A) Iron B) Carbon
457. Cast iron is used for
C) Manganese D) Sulphur
A) structural works in beams B) small sized water pipes
Answer: Option B
C) columns and struts D) none to these
463. Stainless steel contains
Answer: Option C
A) 18% of chromium and 8% nickel
458. Stainless steel resists corrosion due to
B) 8% of chromium and 18% of nickel
A) carbon B) sulphur
C) 12% of chromium and 36% of nickel
C) vanadium D) chromium
D) 36% of chromium and 12% of nickel
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
459. Commonly used thinner in
464. Excess of silica in brick earth results in
A) lacquer paints, is alcohol
A) Cracking and warping of bricks B) Loss of cohesion
B) cellulose paints is ethyle acetate C) oil paints, is naptha
C) Enhancing the impermeability of bricks D) None of the above
D) distemper, is water E) all the above
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option E
465. Which one of the following is acid resistant asbesto s?
460. Good quality sand is never obtained from
A) Actinolite asbestos B) Amosite asbestos
A) river B) nala
C) Anthophylite asbestos D) All the above
C) sea D) gravel powder
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
466. The slump recommended for mass concrete is about
461. Pick up the rock which is not a sedimentary rock from the
following: A) 25 mm to 50 mm B) 50 mm to 100 mm
A) gravel B) sand stone C) 100 mm to 125 mm D) 125 mm to 150 mm
C) gypsum D) dolerite Answer: Option A

467. For a good building stone, its specific gravity should the C) White lead D) Titanium white
greater than
A) 1.5 B) 1.7 Answer: Option C
C) 2.2 D) 2.7 473. For preparing porcelains, the clay should be
Answer: Option D A) Sufficiently pure B) Of high degree of tenacity
468. Blister steel C) Of good plasticity D) All the above
A) is obtained by cementation process Answer: Option D
B) is full of fissures and cavities C) can not be forged 474. Quick lime (or caustic lime)
D) can be easily welded E) all the above A) Is obtained by the calcination of pure lime stone
Answer: Option E B) Has great affinity to moisture
469. The most important constituent of varnish, is C) Is amorphous D) All the above
A) drier B) solvent Answer: Option D
C) resin D) all the above 475. The commonly used lime in white washing, is
Answer: Option D A) White lime B) Fat lime
470. The coefficient of hardness of stones used in road work C) Hydraulic lime D) Quick lime
should be greater than
Answer: Option B
A) 10 B) 12
476. For slaking of 10 kg of CaO, the theoretical amount of water
C) 15 D) 17 is
Answer: Option D A) 2.2 kg B) 1.5 kg
471. Manganese steels C) 3.2 kg D) None of these
A) Are non-magnetic B) Possess high electrical resistance Answer: Option C
C) Possess low coefficient of expansion D) All the above 477. Plywood is made from
Answer: Option D A) Common timber B) Bamboo fibre
472. The most commonly used base for timber painting, is C) Teak wood only D) Asbestos sheets
A) Red lead B) Zinc white Answer: Option C

478. Quartzite is a C) King closer D) Squint brick
A) Metamorphic rock B) Argillaceous rock Answer: Option C
C) Calcareous rock D) Siliceous rock 484. A 1st class brick immersed in water for 24 hours, should not
absorb water (by weight) more than
Answer: Option D
A) 10 % B) 15 %
479. The plastics made from cellulose resin
C) 20 % D) 25 %
A) Are as clear as glass B) Are tough and strong
Answer: Option C
C) Possess excellent electrical properties D) All the above
485. The preparation of surface of stone to obtain plain edges or
Answer: Option D to obtain stones of required size and shape is known as
P480. olymerization helps to improve the property of A) Quarrying of stones B) Blasting of stones
A) Strength B) Rigidity C) Seasoning of stones D) Dressing of stones
C) Elasticity D) All of these Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D 486. The hardest rock is
481. For filling cracks in masonry structures, the type of bitumen A) Marble B) Diamond
used, is
A) Cut-back bitumen B) Bitumen-emulsion C) Talc D) Quartz
C) Blown bitumen D) Plastic bitumen Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D 487. Wrought iron is used for
482. Pick up the plutonic rock from the following: A) Structural works in beams B) Small sized water pipes
A) Granite B) Dolerite C) Columns and struts D) None to these
C) Basalt D) All the above Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A 488. The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to
make brick is known as
483. The portion of the brick withou t a triangular corner equal to
half the width and half the length, is called A) Kneading B) Moulding
A) Closer B) Queen closer C) Pugging D) Drying
Answer: Option A
489. The silica is used for preparing C) 15% to 25% D) 20% to 30%
A) Silica bricks B) Coke oven Answer: Option C
C) Lining for glass furnaces D) All of these 485. The type of steel used for precision levelling staff, is
Answer: Option D A) Titanium steel B) Carbon steel
490. The timber having maximum resistance against white ants, C) Invar D) Stainless steel
is obtained from
Answer: Option C
A) Chir B) Shishum
496. Formula for quick lime, is
C) Sal D) Teak
A) CaCO3 B) Ca(OH)2
Answer: Option B
C) CO3CO2 D) None to these
491. Duco is one of the patent forms of
Answer: Option A
A) Emulsion paints B) Plastic paints
497. The process of decarbonising the pig iron completely and
C) Bituminous paints D) Cellulose paints then adding proper percentage of carbon for manufacturing
steel, is called
Answer: Option D A) Cementation process B) Crucible process
492. Quartzite, a metamorphic stone is C) Bessemer process D) Open hearth process
A) Hard B) Brittle Answer: Option A
C) Crystalline D) All the above 498. Which one of the following polymers is obtained from
condensation polymerization?
Answer: Option D
A) Phenol formaldehyde B) Carbamide
493. A piece of timber whose thickness and width are
respectively 5 cm and 10 cm is called C) Melamine-formaldehyde D) All of these
A) Slate B) Plank Answer: Option D
C) Board D) Strip 499. The portion of a brick cut to form angles other than right
angles in plan, is known as
Answer: Option D
A) Queen closer B) King closer
494. The percentage of water for normal consistency, is
C) Closer D) Squint brick
A) 5% to 15% B) 10% to 25%
Answer: Option D
500. The sequence of refractory materials according to 505. The moisture content in a well seasoned timber is
increasing melting points is :
A) 4 % to 6 % B) 10 % to 12 %
A) Dolomite, Magnesia, Bauxite, Chromite
C) 15 % to 20 % D) 100 %
B) Bauxite, Chromite, Dolomite, Magnesia
Answer: Option B
C) Magnesia, Bauxite, Dolomite, Chromite
506. The cement becomes unsound by the presence of excess
Answer: Option B
A) Sulphur B) Magnesia
501. Veneering means
C) Lime D) All of these
A) carving out designs on timber planks
Answer: Option D
B) chemically treating timber planks
507. Rapid hardening cement contains
C) thick layer of superior wood glued to inferior wood
A) Tri-calcium silicate B) Tri-calcium aluminate
D) thin layer of superior wood glued to inferior wood.
C) Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite D) Di-calcium silicate
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
502. Laterite is a/an
508. In order of increasing percentage of silica, the correct
A) volcanic rock B) argillaceous rock sequence is
C) calcareous rock D) silicious rock A) Sandy clay, calcareous clay, pure clay
Answer: Option B B) Calcareous clay, pure clay, sandy clay
503. A stone is rejected if it absorbs water more than C) Pure clay, sandy clay, calcareous clay D) None of these
A) 5% B) 10% Answer: Option B
C) 15% D) 20% 509. Which of the following timbers is suitable for making sports
goods?
Answer: Option B A) Mulberry B) Mahogany
504. The most valuable timber may be obtained from C) Sal D) Deodar
A) chir B) shisham Answer: Option A
C) sal D) teak 510. The stones obtained by blasting are used as
Answer: Option D A) Ballast in railways B) Aggregates for concrete

C) Road metal D) All the above A) Water proof B) Fire proof
Answer: Option D C) Elastic D) All the above
511. Pick up the compound responsible for early strength of Answer: Option D
cement from the following:
517. The frog of the brick in a brick masonry is generally kept on
A) Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite B) Tricalcium silicate
A) Bottom face B) Top face
C) Tricalcium aluminate D) Dicalcium silicate
C) Shorter side D) Longer side
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
512. Mastic asphalt is
518. For obtaining vinyl chloride acetate, the method used, is
A) acid resisting material B) non-corrosive material
A) Addition polymerization B) Condensation polymerization
C) corrosive material D) heating-resisting material
C) Co-polymerization D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
513. Which one of the following is used for preparing porcelain
519. Whitworth compressed steel is obtained when molten steel
A) clay B) feldspar is subjected to a pressure of
C) quartz D) minerals E) All of these A) 5 kg/mm2 B) 9 kg/mm2
Answer: Option E C) 13 kg/mm2 D) 15 kg/mm2
514. The commonly used base for iron and steel work, is Answer: Option B
A) red lead B) zinc white 520.The normal consistency of ordinary Portland cement is about
C) white lead D) titanium white A) 10 % B) 20 %
Answer: Option A C) 30 % D) 40 %
515. Upto a maximum of 72% of iron, is available in Answer: Option C
A) Magnetite B) Red haemetite 521. Lacquer is
C) Limonite D) Siderite A) Oil paint B) Distemper
Answer: Option A C) Spirit varnish D) None to these
516. Mastic asphalt is Answer: Option C

522. For lime concrete, 527. Plaster of Paris is obtained by calcining
A) slump is 50 to 75 mm A) Bauxite B) Gypsum
B) flexural strength at 90 days is 0.2 N/mm2 C) Lime stone D) None of these
C) compressive strength at 90 days is 1.5 N/mm2 Answer: Option B
D) compressive strength at 26 days is 1.2 N/mm2 528. A ferrous metal is
E) all the above A) cast iron B) wrought iron
Answer: Option E C) steel D) all the above
523. Pig iron made from heamatite ores free from sulphur, Answer: Option D
phosphorus and copper, is known as
529. For making fly-ash building bricks, the following mix of
A) Bessemer pig B) Grey or foundry pig fly-ash, sand and lime, is
C) White or forge pig D) Mottled pig A) 80 : 13 : 7 B) 70 : 20 : 10
Answer: Option A C) 60 : 35 : 5 D) none of these
524. The material generally not used as extender in paints, is Answer: Option A
A) powdered silica B) Gypsum 530. Water paint is a
C) talc D) zinc white A) white wash B) colour wash
Answer: Option D C) whiting D) distemper E) all the above
525. Pick up the non-inflammable plastic from the following: Answer: Option E
A) Cellulose acetate plastics B) Polyvinyl chloride plastics 531. Seasoning of timber is done
C) Phenol formaldehyde plastic D) Urea formaldehyde plastic A) to make it water proof B) to paint its surface
Answer: Option B C) to increase its temperature D) to remove water
526. The most commonly used synthetic abrasive is Answer: Option D
A) aluminium carbide B) boric acid 532. The specific gravity of marble, is
C) silicon D) All of these A) 2.50 B) 2.60
Answer: Option D C) 2.66 D) 2.72

Answer: Option D C) base D) drier
533. For light and ornamental casting, the most unsuitable pig Answer: Option D
iron, is
A) Bessemer pig B) Grey or foundry pig 539. The rocks having alumina or clay as their major
constituents, are known as
C) White or forge pig D) Mottled pig
A) siliceous rocks B) argillaceous rocks
Answer: Option D
C) calcareous rocks D) sedimentary rocks
534. Seasoning of timber is essential to remove
Answer: Option B
A) knots from timber B) sap from timber
540. The curved swellings from the growth of layers or
C) twisted fibre from timbe r D) roughness of timber wounds left after branches are cut off in an irregular manner, are
known as
Answer: Option B A) knots B) rindgalls
535. The melting point of silica is : C) burls D) none of these
A) 1570°C B) 1630°C Answer: Option B
C) 1730°C D) 1850°C 541. Spirit varnish generally consists of
Answer: Option C A) oil, wax and resin B) alcohol, wax and turpentine
536. A bull nose brick is not used for C) pigment and synthetic resin D) spirit and shellac
A) rounding off sharp corners B) pillars Answer: Option D
C) decoration purpose D) arches 542. The tendency of a stone is, to split along:
Answer: Option D A) texture B) fracture
537. Red short iron cracks when bent due to the presence of C) cleavage D) structure
A) sulphur B) carbon Answer: Option C
C) phosphorus D) silicon 543. Acrylic is the name of
Answer: Option A A) cellulose resin B) alkyd resin
538. Linseed oil is used in paints as C) methyl metha crylate D) cumarone-indene
A) thinner B) vehicle Answer: Option C

544. Plaster of Paris is obtained by calcining 549. Glazing of clay products, is done
A) bauxite B) gypsum A) to improve their appearance
C) kankar D) lime stone B) to protect them from atmospheric effect
Answer: Option B C) to protect them from corrosive action
545. For high grade instruments the steel preferred to, is D) all the above
A) cast steel B) bessemer steel Answer: Option D
C) mild steel D) whitworth compressed steel 550. Lime mortar is generally made with
Answer: Option A A) quick lime B) fat lime
546. The plastics prepared from Vinyl resin are C) hydraulic lime D) plain lime
A) odourless B) non-toxic Answer: Option C
C) transparent D) colourless 551. Duco paints are
Answer: Option E A) plastic paints B) cellulose paints
547. Chlorite, a green colour mineral is mainly derived from C) emulsion paints D) bituminous paints
the decomposition of
E) oil paints
A) augite B) biotite
Answer: Option E
C) horn blende D) All of these
552. Steel contains carbon approximately
Answer: Option A
A) 1.50% to 5.6% B) 0.05% to 1.75%
548. During smelting process, the combination of fuel in the
furnace C) 0.25% D) none to these
A) forms carbon dioxide Answer: Option B
B) carbon dioxide with carbon forms carbon mono-oxide 553. Cast iron contains carbon approximately
C) carbon mono-oxide reacts with Fe2O3 to form iron and A) 1.5% to 5.5% B) 0.05% to 1.75%
liberates CO2
C) 0.250% D) none to these
D) all the above
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
554. In a rock calcium carbonate predominates. State whether it C) Methyl methacrylate D) Cumarone-indene
is:
A) Siliceous rock B) Argillaceous rock Answer: Option C
C) Calcareous rock D) None of these 560. Plastic asphalt is
Answer: Option C A) used as a water proofing layer over roof
555. The cracks which extend from bark towards the sap wood in B) a mixture of cement and asphalt
the cross section of a tree, are called
C) a natural asphalt D) a refinery product
A) Radial shakes B) Star shakes
Answer: Option B
C) Heart shakes D) Cup shakes
561. For obtaining vinyl chloride acetate, the method used, is
Answer: Option B
A) addition polymerization B) condensation polymerization
556. The steel used for rails under heavy traffic and on sharp
curves, is C) co-polymerization D) none of these
A) Nickel steel B) Chrome steel Answer: Option C
C) Manganese steel D) Vanadium steel 562. The yield strength and tensile strength of low carbon
steel may be improved by the addition of
Answer: Option C
A) manganese B) chromium
557. The steel used in R.C.C. work is
C) nickel D) venadium
A) Stainless steel B) Mild steel
Answer: Option D
C) High carbon steel D) Wrought iron
563. Bitumen completely dissolves in
Answer: Option B
A) carbon bisulphide B) chloroform
558. Pick up the rock which is not a sedimentary rock from the
following: C) benzol D) coaltar
A) Gravel B) Sand stone Answer: Option E
C) Gypsum D) Dolerite 564. Good quality cement contains higher percentage of
Answer: Option D A) Tricalcium silicate B) Di-calcium silicate
559. Acrylic is the name of C) Tri-calcium aluminate D) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite
A) Cellulose resin B) Alkyd resin Answer: Option A

565. The PVC doors and windows are preferred as they are C) Light D) Heavy
A) Rust proof B) Rot proof Answer: Option B
C) Water proof D) All of these 571. Soundness of cement is tested by
Answer: Option D A) Vicat's apparatus B) Le-chatelier apparatus
566. The sequence of refractory materials according to C0 compressive strength testing apparatus
increasing melting points is:
D) none of the these
A) Dolomite, Magnesia, Bauxite, Chromites
Answer: Option B
B) Bauxite, Chromites, Dolomite, Magnesia
572. The PVC doors and windows are preferred as they are
C) Magnesia, Bauxite, Dolomite, Chromites D) None of these
A) rust proof B) rot proof
Answer: Option B
C) termile proof D) water proof E) all of these
567. Upto a maximum of 72% of iron, is available in
Answer: Option E
A) Magnetite B) Limonite
573. Based on its dry weight, a freshly felled tree may contain
C) Siderite D) Iron pyrites water
A) 25% B) 50%
Answer: Option A
C) 75% D) 100%
568. The melting point of silica is:
Answer: Option D
A) 1570°C B) 1630°C
574. Forge pig may be converted to wrought iron by
C) 1730°C D) 1850°C
A) rolling B) pudding
Answer: Option C
C) shingling D) refining
569. Lime stones are generally known as
Answer: Option B
A) Aqueous rocks B) Sedimentary rocks
575. To give a brilliant finish, the type of varnish used , is
C) Stratified rocks D) All the above
Answer: Option D
C) turpentine varnish D) oil varnish
570. Stones used for rubble masonry must be
Answer: Option B
A) Soft B) Hard
576. The property by virtue of which lime sets under water, is C) Calcareous rock D) Siliceous rock
known as
A) Slacking B) Setting Answer: Option B
C) Hydraulicity D) Calcining 582. The softest rock is
Answer: Option C A) marble B) diamond
577. The lime which contains high percentage of calcium oxide, is C) talc D) quartz
generally called
Answer: Option C
A) Fat lime B) Rich lime
583. Bitumen may be dissolved in
C) White lime D) None of these
A) carbondioxide B) water
Answer: Option D
C) sodium chloride D) carbon disulphide
578. Second class bricks
Answer: Option D
A) Are of dark brown colour
584. Whitworth compressed steel is obtained when molten
B) Produce a metallic sound when struck steel is subjected to a pressure of
C) Are well burnt D) Are under burnt A) 5 kg/mm2 B) 9 kg/mm2
Answer: Option B C) 13 kg/mm2 D) 15 kg/mm2
579. Wrought iron contains carbon upto Answer: Option B
A) 0.25 % B) 1.0 % 585. Mild steel is used for
C) 1.5 % D) 2% A. structural works in beams, joints and girders
Answer: Option A B) small sized water pipes
580. The variety of pig iron used for manufacture of wrought C) columns and struts D) none of these
iron, is
A) Bessemer pig B) Grey or foundry pig Answer: Option A
C) White forge pig D) Mottled pig 586. Lime stones are generally known as
Answer: Option C A) aqueous rocks B) sedimentary rocks
581. Kaolin is chemically classified as C) stratified rocks D) all the above
A) Metamorphic rock B) Argillaceous rock Answer: Option D

587. Sewer pipes are made of 592. The method of addition polymerization is used for
obtaining:
A) Earthen ware B) Stone ware
A) polyethylene B) polypropylene
C) Refractory clay D) All the above
C) polyvinylchloride D) polystyrene E) All of these
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option E
588. The process of manufacturing steel by heating short lengths
of wrought iron bars mixed with charcoal in fire clay crucibles and 593. A rock contains only one mineral. It is called
collecting the molten iron into moulds, is known as
A) homogeneous B) non-homogeneous
C) monomineralic D) polymineralic
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
594. Pegmatite is a/an
589. The rock generally used for roofing, is
A) intrusive igneous rock B) extrusive igneous rock
A) Granite B) Basalt
C) sedimentary rock D) metamorphic rock
C) Slate D) Pumice
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
595. The percentage of alumina and silica in good fire clay vary
590. The lime which contains mainly calcium oxide and slacks respectively is
with water, is A) 25, 75 B) 30, 70
A) Fat lime B) Quick lime
C) 35, 65 D) All of these
C) Hydraulic lime D) Poor lime
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
596. The term frog means
591. The standard size of masonry bricks, is
A) an apparatus to lift the stone
A) 18 cm × 8 cm × 8 cm
B) a depression on a face of brick
B) 19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
C) vertical joint in a brick work D) soaking brick in water
C) 20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm
Answer: Option B
D) 21 cm × 11 cm × 11 cm
597. Asphalt is obtained from
Answer: Option B
A) petroleum distillation B) bitumen distillation
C) plastic distillation D) none of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A 603. To retard the initial setting time of cement, the
compound responsible, is
598. The proportions of charcoal, saltpetre and sulphur in gun
powder by weight, are respectively: A) Tricalcium silicate B) Gypsum
A) 15, 75, 10 B) 75, 10, 15 C) Di-calcium silicate D) Tri calcium aluminate
C) 10, 15, 75 D) 10, 75, 15 Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A 604. Dorry's testing machine is used for
599. Knots in timber are A) crushing test of stone B) hardness test of stone
A) Defects caused by crushing fibres C) impact test of stone D) water absorption test
B) Splits radiating from the centre Answer: Option B
C) Speckled strains D) Signs of branches cut off 605. Stones used for rubble masonry must be
Answer: Option D A) soft B) hard
600. Portland cement manufactured from pure white chalk and C) light D) heavy
clay but free from iron-oxide, is known as
Answer: Option B
A) Quick setting cement B) Rapid hardening cement
606. Index number expressing the relative sizes of both coarse
C) White cement D) Low heat Portland cement and fine aggregates, is called
Answer: Option C A) proportioning of aggregates B) fineness modulus
601. The minimum compressive strength of 1st class bricks C) grading of aggregates D) none of these
should be
A) 75 kg/cm2 B) 90 kg/cm2 Answer: Option B
C) 100 kg/cm2 D) 120 kg/cm2 607. Dolomite is a lime stone which contains carbonate of
magnesia upto
Answer: Option C
A) 15% B) 20%
602. The cast iron when heated to red heat with powdered red
haematite in an oven for increasing its toughness, is converted to C) 25% D) 45%
A) Grey cast iron B) White cast iron Answer: Option E
C) Mottled cast iron D) Toughed cast iron

608. A well seasoned timber may contain moisture up to C) Mild steel D) Whitworth compressed steel
A) 4 to 6 % B) 6 to 8 % Answer: Option A
C) 8 to 10 % D) 10 to 12 % 614. The portion of the brick cut across its width and having its
length equal to that of a full brick, is known as
Answer: Option D
A) closer B) queen closer
609. The usual percentages of clay and metal in cermet are:
C) king closer D) prince closer
A) 50%, 50% B) 60%, 40%
Answer: Option B
C) 70%, 30% D) 80%, 20%
615. Seasoning of timber is done for
Answer: Option D
A) increasing moisture content B) decreasing moisture content
610. The specific gravity of marble, is
C) increasing strength of timber D) none to these.
A) 2.50 B) 2.60
Answer: Option B
C) 2.66 D) 2.72
616. Bitumen felt is used for
Answer: Option D
A) water proofing B) damp proofing
611. Plastic asphalt is
C) both (a) and (b) D) neither (a) nor (b)
A) Used as a water proofing layer over roof
Answer: Option C
B) A mixture of cement and asphalt
617. According to ISI, bitumen is classified into
C) A natural asphalt D) A refinery product
A) 2 grades B) 4 grades
Answer: Option B
C) 6 grades D) 10 grades.
612. The commonly used base for iron and steel work, is
Answer: Option E
A) Red lead B) Zinc white
618. Lime putty
C) White lead D) Titanium white
A) is made from hydraulic lime
Answer: Option A
B) is made by adding lime to water
613. For high grade instruments the steel preferred to, is
C) can be used only upto three days
A) Cast steel B) Bessemer steel
D) may be obtained from drying lime water mix passing 624. For a 50 kg cement bag water required, is
through IS sieve No. 300
A) 16.5 litres B) 18.5 litres
E) all of above
C) 20.5 litres D) 22.5 litres
Answer: Option E
Answer: Option D
619. The most important constituent of an oil paint, is
625. The presence of sand in brick earth prevents:
A) Thinner B) Vehicle
A) cracking of bricks B) shrinkage of bricks
C) Pigment D) All the above
C) warping of bricks D) none of these
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
620. Brass is an alloy of
626. The property by virtue of which lime sets under water, is
A) Copper and zinc B) Zinc and lead known as
A) slacking B) setting
C) Tin and silver D) Zinc and nickel
C) hydraulicity D) calcining
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
621. Pick up the polymineralic rock from the following:
627. Percentage content of silica in window glass, is
A) Quartz sand B) Pure gypsum
A) 40 to 45 B) 50 to 55
C) Magnesite D) Granite
C) 60 to 65 D) 70 to 75
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
622. Pick up the hypabyssal rock from the following:
628. The coefficient of hardness of stones used in road work
A) Granite B) Dolerite should be greater than
C) Basalt D) All the above A) 10 B) 12
623. The rocks formed by gradual deposition, are called Answer: Option D
A) Sedimentary rocks B) Igneous rocks 629. The steel used for the manufacture of rails, is
C) Metamorphic rocks D) None of these A) Bessemer steel B) mild steel
Answer: Option A C) cast steel D) stainless steel

Answer: Option A A) 2 grades B) 4 grades
630. Rocks formed due to alteration of original structure due to C) 8 grades D) 10 grades
heat and excessive pressure are called
Answer: Option D
A) Sedimentary rocks B) Igneous rocks
636. Slump test for concrete is carried out, to determine
C) Metamorphic rocks D) None of these
A) strength B) durability
Answer: Option C
C) workability D) water content
631. Geologically, marble is known as
Answer: Option C
A) Sedimentary rock B) Igneous rock
637. Basalt is
C) Metamorphic rock D) Stratified rock
A) sedimentary rock B) metamorphic rock
Answer: Option C
C) extrusive igneous rock D) intrusive igneous rock.
632. Iron ore may contain
Answer: Option C
A) Carbon B) Silicon
638. The frog of a brick is normally made on its
C) Phosphorus and manganese D) All the above
A) top face B) bottom face
Answer: Option D
C) longer face D) shorter side
633. French polish is
Answer: Option A
A) oil paint B) distemper
639. The most important constituent of an oil paint, is
C) spirit varnish D) none to these
A) thinner B) vehicle
Answer: Option C
C) pigment D) base E) all the above
634. In stone masonry, if stones are so placed that their layers
are parallel to the direction of load, they Answer: Option E
A) split easily B) are affected by moisture 640. Granite mainly composed of quartz and felsper particles,
is obtained from
A) sedimentary rocks B) metamorphic rocks
Answer: Option C
C) igneous rocks D) all the above
635. According to ISI, bitumen is classified into
Answer: Option C
641. The size of mould for bricks, is generally kept Answer: Option B
A) A little large to specified size B) A little small to specified size 647. Pig iron obtained from the furnance which is properly
provided with fuel at a very high temperature, is called
C) Equal to specified size D) 10% larger than specified size
A) Bessemer pig B) Grey or foundry pig
Answer: Option A
C) White or forge pig D) Mottled pig
642. For construction of structures under water, the type of lime
used, is Answer: Option B
A) Hydraulic lime B) Fat lime 648. Bullet proof glass is made of thick glass sheet sandwiched
by a layer of
C) Quick lime D) Pure lime
A) steel B) stainless steel
Answer: Option A
C) high test plastic D) chromium plate
643. French polish is
Answer: Option C
A) Oil paint B) Distemper
649. Refractory bricks are
C) Spirit varnish D) None to these
A) neutral refractory bricks B) acid refractory bricks
Answer: Option C
C) basic refractory bricks D) all the above
644. Ultimate strength to cement is provided by
Answer: Option D
650. Porcelain is used as :
A) sanitary wares B) electric insulators
Answer: Option B
C) storage vessels D) reactor chambers
645. Wrought iron contains carbon about
Answer: Option D
A) 1.5% to 5.5% B) 0.5% to 1.75%
651. Durability of building stone is affected by its
C) 0.1% to 0.25% D) None to these
A) chemical composition B) texture
Answer: Option C
C) resistance to atmosphere D) location in structure
646. Galvanising means covering iron with a thin coat of
E) all the above
A) Tin B) Zinc
Answer: Option E
C) Glaze D) Coal tar
652. The rocks in which argil (or clay) predominates, are called Answer: Option A
A) Siliceous rocks B) Argillaceous rocks 657. Magnese steels
C) Calcareous rocks D) Igneous rocks A) are non-magnetic B) possess high electrical resistance
Answer: Option B C) possess low coefficient of expansion
653. Name the type of cement from the following for canal D) are used for the manufacture of rails E) all the above
linings:
A) Sulphate resisting cement B) Rapid hardening cement Answer: Option E
C) Quick setting cement D) Pozzolana cement 659. Pick up the metal refractory from the following:
Answer: Option A A) Molyblendum B) Tungsten
654. Soundness test of cement determines C) Zicronium D) All of these
A) Quality of free lime B) Ultimate strength Answer: Option D
C) Durability D) Initial setting 660. According to IS 399-1963, the weight of the timber is
specified at
Answer: Option A
A) 8% moisture content B) 10% moisture content
655. Turpentine oil is used in paints as
C) 12% moisture content D) 14% moisture content
A) Thinner B) Vehicle
Answer: Option C
C) Base D) Drier
661. The size of mould for bricks, is generally kept
Answer: Option A
A) a little large to specified size
656. Stucco paints are suitable for
B) a little small to specified size
A) Stone masonry B) Brick walls
C) equal to specified size D) 10% larger than specified size
C) Both (A) and (B) D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
662. Most commonly used solvent in oil paints, is
657. Stones used for ornamental work must be
A) petroleum B) spirit
A) Soft B) Hard
C) coaltar D) turpentine.
C) Light D) Heavy
Answer: Option A
663. Lime stone is not a B) Seven times their original dimensions
A) Sedimentary rock B) Stratified rock C) Ten times their original dimensions
C) Aqueous rock D) Metamorphic rock D) Three times their original dimensions
664. The presence of sand in brick earth prevents: 670. With storage, strength of cement
A) Cracking of bricks B) Shrinkage of bricks A) increases B) decreases
C) Warping of bricks D) None of these C) remains the same D) none to these
665. Refractory bricks are 671. The commonly used raw material in the manufacture of
cement, is
A) Neutral refractory bricks B) Acid refractory bricks A) slate B) sand stone
C) Basic refractory bricks D) All the above C) lime stone D) basalt
667. A prime coat is given to steel work with 672. The most commonly used base for timber painting, is
A) An oxide of iron paint A) red lead B) zinc white
B) A mixture of white lead and lead paint C) white lead D) titanium white
C) A special paint D) Cement paint Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B 673. Pick up the most favourable condition for the rapid
growth of fungus for dry rot from the following:
668. Teak wood is suitable for
A) absence of sun light B) dampness
A) Sports articles B) Furnitures
C) presence of sap D) stagnant air
C) Railway sleepers D) All the above
E) All the above
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option E
669. Elastomers can extend upto
674. The rocks formed from molten magma, are called
A) Five times their original dimensions
C) metamorphic rocks D) none of these 680. Bitumen paints offer
Answer: Option B A) pleasing surface B) hard surface
675. Bitumen in C) smooth surface D) protective surface
A) Solid state, is called asphalt Answer: Option D
B) Semi fluid state, is called mineral tar 681. The lime which contains high percentage of calcium
oxide, is generally called
C) Fluid state, is called petroleum D) All the above
A) fat lime B) rich lime
Answer: Option D
C) white lime D) none of these
676. Varnish is a transparent or semi-transparent solution of
resinous substances in Answer: Option D
A) Alcohol B) Linseed
682. For construction of structures under water, the type of lime
C) Turpentine D) All the above used, is
A) hydraulic lime B) fat lime
Answer: Option D
C) quick lime D) pure lime
677. Refractory bricks are used for
Answer: Option A
A) Retaining walls B) Columns
683. A prime coat is given to steel work wi th
C) Piers D) Combustion chambers
A) an oxide of iron paint
Answer: Option D
B) a mixture of white lead and lead paint
678. Minimum required water cement ratio for a workable
concrete, is C) a special paint D) cement paint
A) 0.30 B) 0.40 Answer: Option B
C) 0.50 D) 0.60 684. The harmonious mixing of the clay ingredients, is known as
Answer: Option B A) weathering B) blending
679. Minimum of 40% of iron, is available in C) tempering D) None of these
A) Magnetite B) Red haematite Answer: Option B
C) Limonite D) Black band 685. Brass is an alloy of
Answer: Option D A) copper and zinc B) zinc and lead

C) tin and silver D) zinc and nickel A) laterite B) marble
Answer: Option A C) limestone D) sandstone E) All the above
686. Portland pozzolana cement possesses Answer: Option E
A) Higher resistance to chemical attack 692. The colour of statuary marble used for sculptor's work, is
B) Lower heat of hydration A) red B) blue
C) Lower shrinkage on drying D) All the above C) white D) green
687. Dextrin is 693. Second class bricks
A) Animal glue B) Starch glue A) are of dark brown colour
C) Albumin glue D) Rubber based adhesive B) produce a metallic sound when struck
Answer: Option D C) are well burnt D) are under burnt
688. Brittleness of cold is due to an excess of Answer: Option B
A) Sulphur B) Carbon 694. Teak wood is suitable for
C) Phosphorus D) Silicon A) sports articles B) furnitures
689. Gneiss is obtained from C) railway sleepers D) all the above
A) Igneous rocks B) Metamorphic rocks Answer: Option B
C) Sedimentary rocks D) Sedimentary metamorphic rocks 695. Plywood is normally available
Answer: Option D A) 1 mm thick B) 2 mm thick
690. The commonly used colour pigment in paints, is C) 2 to 3 mm thick D) 3 mm to 4 mm thick
A) Ambers B) Carbon black Answer: Option D
C) Iron oxide D) All the above 696. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
Answer: Option D A) Plastics are chemical resistant B) Plastics are durable
691. The wedging is adopted for quarrying costly stratified C) Plastics are ductile D) Plastics are excellent electric insulators
rock such as
Answer: Option C C) Partition walls D) Both (A) and (B)
697. The variety of pig iron used for the manufacture of steel by Answer: Option D
Bessemer process, is
703. The cracks caused by shrinkage of the exterior surface of
A) Bessemer pig B) Grey pig the wood exposed to atmosphere, are called:
C) White forge pig D) Mottled pig A) Radial shakes B) Heart shakes
Answer: Option A C) Wind cracks D) Twisted fibres
698. Vanadium steel is generally used for Answer: Option C
A) Railway switches and crossing B) Bearing balls 704. Pig iron is manufactured from the ores by
C) Magnets D) Axles and springs A) Dressing B) Calcination and roasting
Answer: Option D C) Smelting D) All the above
699. A badly mixed cement concrete results in Answer: Option D
A) Segregation B) Bleeding 705. Refractory bricks resist
C) Honey combing D) None of these A) High temperature B) Chemical action
Answer: Option C C) Dampness D) All the above
700. Chemically, marble is known as Answer: Option A
A) Metamorphic rock B) Argillaceous rock 706. Commonly used thinner in
C) Calcareous rock D) Siliceous rock A) Lacquer paints, is alcohol B) Cellulose paints is ethyl acetate
Answer: Option C C) Oil paints, is naphtha D) All the above
701. The filler used in plastic bitumen, is Answer: Option D
A) Shale powder B) Talc powder 707. The curved swellings from the growth of layers or wounds
left after branches are cut off in an irregular manner are known
C) Asbestos powder D) Plastic powder as
Answer: Option C A) Knots B) Rindgalls
702. Mastic asphalt is generally used for C) Burls D) None of these
A) Damp proof course B) Water proof layer Answer: Option B

708. The most fire resistant paints are: C) Lamp sockets D) All of these
A) Enamel paints B) Aluminium paints Answer: Option D
C) Asbestos paints D) Cement paints 714. Bitumen completely dissolves in
Answer: Option C A) Carbon bisulphide B) Chloroform
709. The operation of removal of impurities or clay adhering to C) Coal tar D) All of these
iron ores, is known as
Answer: Option D
A) Dressing B) Calcination
715. A stone is rejected if it absorbs water more than
C) Roasting D) Smelting
A) 5% B) 10 %
Answer: Option A
C) 15 % D) 20 %
710. Pozzolana (or surkhi) is used in lime
Answer: Option B
A) To impart hydraulicity B) To prevent shrinkage
716. The most commonly used synthetic abrasive is
C) To decrease the cost of construction
A) Aluminium carbide B) Boric acid
D) To decrease the setting time
C) Silicon D) All of these
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
711. The size of modular bricks, is
717. Snowcrete is one of the patent forms of
A) 10 × 10 × 9 cm B) 19 × 9 × 9 cm
A) Distempers B) Water proof cement paints
C) 22.5 × 10 × 8.5 cm D) 22.5 × 8.0 × 9 cm
C) Enamel paints D) Cellulose paints
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
712. Plywood is obtained by gluing wooden sheets at
718. Cast iron is used for
A) 100 to 150 N/cm2 B) 100 to 130°C
A) Structural works in beams B) Small sized water pipes
C) Both (A) and (B) D) Neither (A) nor (B)
C) Columns and struts D) None to these
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
713. The low voltage porcelain is mainly used for
A) Switch block B) Insulating tubes

719. The initial setting time of hydraulic lime, is Answer: Option D
A) 30 minutes B) 60 minutes 725. Good quality cement contains higher percentage of
C) 90 minutes D) 120 minutes A) Tri-calcium silicate B) Di-calcium silicate
Answer: Option D C) Tri-calcium aluminate D) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite
720. PVC stands for Answer: Option A
A) Plastic very compact B) Polythene vinyl chloride 726. Seasoning of timber is essential to remove
C) Polythene vinyl carbon D) Polythene vanadium carbide A) Knots from timber B) Sap from timber
Answer: Option B C) Twisted fibre from timber D) Roughness of timber
721. Cement paints usually Answer: Option B
A) Contain hydrated lime B) Contain 5% to 10% colour pigments 727. The term frog means
C) Contain 5% sodium chloride D) All the above A) An apparatus to lift the stone
Answer: Option D B) A depression on a face of brick
722. The kiln which may work throughout the year, is C) Vertical joint in a brick work D) Soaking brick in water
A) Clamp B) Bull's kiln Answer: Option B
C) Hoffman's kiln D) None of these 728. Mastic asphalt is normally used for
Answer: Option C A) Sound insulation B) Water proofing
723. The main ingredient of a good quality brick earth, is C) Fire proofing D) None to these
A) Magnesia B) Lime Answer: Option B
C) Silica D) Alumina 729. The steel which contains fissures and cavities, is
manufactured by
Answer: Option D
724. The most durable varnish is
A) Water varnish B) Spirit varnish
Answer: Option A
C) Turpentine varnish D) Oil varnish
730. Softer variety of steel may be obtained by C) Radial D) None of these
A) Cementation process B) Crucible process Answer: Option C
C) Bessemer process D) Open hearth process 736. Based on flow quality, the sequence of pipes is
Answer: Option C A) A.C. pipes, G.I. pipes, C.I. pipes, PVC pipes
731. Bitumen emulsion is B) C.I. pipes, G.I. pipes, A.C. pipes, PVC pipes
A) A liquid containing bitumen in suspension B) A paint C) C.I. pipes, G.I. pipes, PVC pipes, A.C. pipes
C) Used as anti-corrosive paint D) All the above D) None of these
732. Plastic bitumen is generally used for 737. Good quality sand is never obtained from
A) Road pavements B) Expansion joints A) River B) Lake
C) Crack fillings D) None to these C) Sea D) Gravel powder
733. The rocks which are formed due to pouring of magma at the 738. Lime mortar is generally made with
earth's surface are called
A) Quick lime B) Fat lime
C) Hydraulic lime D) Plain lime
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
739. Pick up the compound responsible for early strength of
734. The compound of Portland cement which reacts cement from the following:
immediately with water and also sets first is
A) Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite B) Tri-calcium silicate
C) Tri-calcium aluminate D) Di-calcium silicate
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
740. Linseed oil is used in paints as
735. In arches, stratified stones are placed so that their planes
are A) Thinner B) Vehicle
A) Parallel B) Perpendicular C) Base D) Drier

C) Vanadium D) Chromium
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
741. The fire clay contains pure
747. Asphalt is obtained from
A) Lime B) Oxide of iron
A) Petroleum distillation B) Bitumen distillation
C) Hydrated aluminium silicate D) Magnesium
C) Plastic distillation D) None of these
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
742. The base material for distemper, is
748. Percentage content of si lica in window glass, is
A) Chalk B) Lime
A) 40 to 45 B) 50 to 55
C) Lime putty D) Cement wash
C) 60 to 65 D) 70 to 75
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
743. Slacking of lime is affected by
749. Most commonly used solvent in oil paints, is
A) Keeping it exposed to air B) Immersing the lime in water
A) Petroleum B) Spirit
C) Crushing the lime lumps D) None of these
C) Coal tar D) Turpentine
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
744. Stones used for the construction of retaining walls must be
750. The harmonious mixing of the clay ingredients, is known as
A) Soft B) Hard
A) Weathering B) Blending
C) Light D) Heavy
C) Tempering D) None of these
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
745. Permanent magnets are made of high carbon steel and
751. The initial setting time of lime -pozzolana, is
A) 15% of cobalt B) 20% of cobalt
C) 35% of cobalt D) 45% of cobalt
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
746. Stainless steel resists corrosion due to
A) Carbon B) Sulphur
752. The most important constituent of varnish, is Answer: Option B
A) Drier B) Solvent 758. The clay to be used for manufacturing bricks for a large
project, is dugout and allowed to weather throughout
C) Resin D) All the above
A) The monsoon B) The winter
Answer: Option D
C) The summer D) None of these
753. A ferrous metal is
Answer: Option A
A) Cast iron B) Wrought iron
759. If the furnace is provided with insufficient fuel at low
C) Steel D) All the above temperatures, the type of pig iron produced,is called
Answer: Option D A) Bessemer pig B) Grey or foundry pig
754. For making fly-ash building bricks, the following mix of fly- C) White or forge pig D) Mottled pig
ash, sand and lime, is
Answer: Option C
A) 80 : 13 : 7 B) 70 : 20 : 10
760. Depending on the chemical composition and mechanical
C) 60 : 35 : 5 D) None of these properties, iron may be classified as
Answer: Option A A) Cast iron B) Wrought iron
755. Spirit varnish generally consists of C) Steel D) All the above
A) Oil, wax and resin B) Alcohol, wax and turpentine Answer: Option D
C) Pigment and synthetic resin D) Spirit and shellac 761. The main constituent of fly -ash, is
Answer: Option D A) Aluminium oxide B) Silica
756. Duco paints are C) Ferrous oxide D) All of these
A) Plastic paints B) Cellulose paints Answer: Option D
C) Emulsion paints D) Oil paints 762. A pug mill is used for
Answer: Option D A) Softening brick earth B) Moulding brick earth
757. Steel contains carbon approximately C) Tempering brick earth D) Providing brick earth
A) 1.50% to 5.6% B) 0.05% to 1.75% Answer: Option C
C) 0.25 % D) None to these

763. Based on its dry weight, a freshly felled tree may contain B) Flexural strength at 90 days is 0.2 N/mm2
water
C) Compressive strength at 90 days is 1.5 N/mm2
A) 25 % B) 50 %
D) All the above
C) 75 % D) 100 %
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
769. A good brick earth should contain:
764. Forge pig may be converted to wrought iron by
A) About 20% to 30% of alumina B) About 50% to 60% of silica
A) Rolling B) Pudding
C) Not more than 5% of lime D) All the above
C) Shingling D) Refining
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
770. The compound of Portland cement which contributes to the
765. The softest rock is strength after two to three years is
A) Marble B) Diamond A) Tri-calcium silicate B) Di-calcium silicate
C) Talc D) Quartz C) Tri-calcium aluminate D) Tetra-calcium alumino ferrite
766. Mild steel is used for 771. Bessemer process is used for the manufacture of
A) Structural works in beams, joints and girders A) Pig iron B) Cast iron
B) Small sized water pipes C) Wrought iron D) Steel
C) Columns and struts D) None of these Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A 772. Which one of the following is an air binding material?
767. Mastic asphalt is A) Gypsum B) Acid-resistant cement
A) Acid resisting material B) Non-corrosive material C) Quick lime D) All of these
C) Corrosive material D) Heating-resisting material Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B 773. A good quality stone absorbs water less than
768. For lime concrete, A) 5% B) 10 %
A) Slump is 50 to 75 mm C) 15 % D) 25 %
Answer: Option A C) Painted and distempered D) Used for furniture
774. The material generally not used as extender in paints, is Answer: Option D
A) Powdered silica B) Gypsum 780. The slag which floats on the surface of the molten iron
generally contains
C) Talc D) Zinc white A) Lime (CaO) 45% B) Silica (SiO2) 35%
Answer: Option D C) Alumina (Al2O3) 12% and MgO, CaSO4, KMnO2 and FeO 8%
775. Pick up the non-inflammable plastic from the following: D) All the above
A) Cellulose acetate plastics B) Polyvinyl chloride plastics Answer: Option D
C) Phenol formaldehyde plastic D) Urea formaldehyde plastic 781. For the manufacture of plywood, veneers are placed so that
grains of adjacent veneers
Answer: Option B
A) Run at right angles B) Parallel
776. For light and ornamental casting, the most unsuitable pig
iron, is C) Inclined at 45° D) Inclined at 60°
A) Bessemer pig B) Grey or foundry pig Answer: Option A
C) White or forge pig D) Mottled pig 782. The commonly used drying oil for oil paints, is
Answer: Option D A) Olive oil B) Linseed oil
777. Initial setting of cement is caused due to C) Kerosene oil D) Acetate of lead
A) Tri-calcium silicate B) Di-calcium silicate Answer: Option D
C) Tri-calcium aluminate D) Tetra calcium alumino ferrite 783. Lime concrete is generally used for
Answer: Option C A) Wall foundations B) Flooring at ground level
778. Wrought iron is manufactured from pig iron by C) Both (A) and (B) D) Neither (A) nor (B)
A) Refining B) Pudding Answer: Option B
C) Shingling D) All the above 784. Bituminous fells are used for
Answer: Option D A) Covering A.C. sheets B) Covering sloping roofs
779. Fibre boards can be C) D.P.C. D) None to these
A) Distempered B) Painted Answer: Option A

785. temperature, is called Answer: Option D
A) Bessemer pig B) Grey or foundry pig 791. The normal curing period for lime mortar, is:
C) White or forge pig D) Mottled pig A) 1 day B) 3 days
Answer: Option B C) 7 days D) 10 days
786. Pick up the metal refractory from the following: Answer: Option C
A) Molybdenum B) Tungsten 792. German silver is an alloy of
C) Zirconium D) All of these A) Zinc, lead and nickel B) Silver, gold and lead
Answer: Option D C) Copper, nickel and zinc D) Copper, brass and zinc
787. With storage, strength of cement Answer: Option C
A) Increases B) Decreases 793. For the manufacture of stainless steel, steel is mixed with
C) Remains the same D) None to these A) Chromium B) Nickel
Answer: Option B C) Tungsten D) None of these
788. The commonly used raw material in the manufacture of Answer: Option A
cement, is
A) Slate B) Sand stone 794. The presence of original rounded surface on the
manufactured piece of timber, is called
C) Lime stone D) Basalt
A) Wane B) Torn grain
Answer: Option C
C) Diagonal grain D) Chipmark
789. The rocks formed from molten magma, are called
Answer: Option A
A) Sedimentary rocks B) Igneous rocks
795. In paints, the pigment is responsible for
C) Metamorphic rocks D) None of these
A) Durability B) Colour
Answer: Option B
C) Smoothness D) Glassy face
790. Bitumen paints offer
Answer: Option B
A) Pleasing surface B) Hard surface
796. The plastics prepared from Vinyl resin are
C) Smooth surface D) Protective surface
A) Odourless B) Non-toxic
C) Transparent D) All of these Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D 802. A rock contains only one mineral. It is called
797. Ground glass A) Homogeneous B) Non-homogeneous
A) Is made by grinding its one side C) Monomineralic D) Polymineralic
B) Is made by melting powdered glass paints surface Answer: Option C
C) Is used for getting light without transparency 803. Pegmatite is a/an
D) All the above A) Intrusive igneous rock B) Extrusive igneous rock
Answer: Option D C) Sedimentary rock D) Metamorphic rock
798. The wedging is adopted for quarrying costly stratified rock Answer: Option A
such as
A) Laterite B) Marble 804. Dorry's testing machine is used for
C) Limestone D) All the above A) Crushing test of stone B) Hardness test of stone
Answer: Option D C) Impact test of stone D) Water absorption test
799. Granite mainly composed of quartz and feldspar particles, Answer: Option B
is obtained from
805. Dolomite is a lime stone which contains carbonate of
A) Sedimentary rocks B) Metamorphic rocks magnesia upto
C) Igneous rocks D) All the above A) 15 % B) 20 %
Answer: Option C C) 25 % D) 45 %
800. The frog of a brick is normally made on its Answer: Option D
A) Top face B) Bottom face 806. The portion of the brick cut across its width and having its
length equal to that of a full brick, is known as
C) Longer face D) Shorter side
A) Closer B) Queen closer
Answer: Option A
C) King closer D) Prince closer
801. Slump test for concrete is carried out, to determine
Answer: Option B
A) Strength B) Durability
C) Workability D) Water content

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C) principle of transmissibility of forces D) none of these

Engineering Answer: Option B

2. In order to determine the effects of a force, acting on a A) stable B) unstable C)neutral

4. One kg force is equal to A) same at every point on its line of action

A) 7.8 N B) 8.9 N B) different at different points on its line of action

C)9.8 N D) 12 N C) minimum, if it acts at the center of gravity of the body

Answer: Option C D) maximum, if it acts at the center of gravity of the

A) principle of independence B) principle of resolution of

Answer: Option D C) sum of resolved parts in the D) sum of resolved parts in

Answer: Option B C) meet on the same plane D) none of these

13. The term 'centroid' is

A) 0° And 180° B)180° And 0° Answer: Option C

Answer: Option A A) 0.5 r B) 0.6 r

A) 30° B) 60° 28. The centre of gravity a T-section 100 mm x 150 mm x 50 mm

A) same as B) twice C) kg/m2 D) m4

C) thrice D) four times Answer: Option D

Answer: Option D 36. Moment of inertia of a circular section about an axis

C) a4/12 D) a4/36 Answer: Option C

Answer: Option C 37. According to lama’s theorem

C) πd4 / 32 D) π d4 / 64 D)all of the above

Answer: Option D Answer: Option D

A) coplaner concurrent forces B)coplaner non-concurrent Answer: Option C

A) equal to B) less than C) greater than Answer: Option A

A) mr2 / 2 B) mr2 / 4 A) ml2 / 4 B) ml2 / 6

C) mr2 / 6 D) mr2 / 8 C) ml2 / 8 D) ml2 / 12

Answer: Option A Answer: Option D

A) mr2 / 3 B) 2mr2 / 3 A) 2mr2 / 3 B) 2mr2 / 5

C) 2mr2 / 5 D) 3mr2 / 5 C) 7mr2 / 3 D) 7mr2 / 5

Answer: Option B Answer: Option D

A) 2mr2 / 3 B) 2mr2 / 5 A) 3mr2 / 5 B) 3mr2 / 10

C) mr2 D) mr2 / 2 C) 2mr2 / 5 D) 4mr2 / 5

Answer: Option B Answer: Option B

A) equal to B) less than C) greater than D) all of the above

Answer: Option C Answer: Option D

A) W sinθ B) W cosθ A) angle of friction B) angle of repose

C) W tanθ D) none of these C) angle of projection D) none of these

Answer: Option C Answer: Option A

Answer: Option A A) towards the wall at its upper and

A) less than B) equal to C) more than

C) tan θ D) cosec θ A) reversible machine B) non-reversible machine

Answer: Option A C) neither reversible nor non-reversible machine D) ideal machine

B) load lifted to the effort applied C) an ideal machine D) none of these

C) output to the input D) all of the above Answer: Option B

Answer: Option B 75. A weight of 1000 N can be lifted by an effort of 80 N. If

Answer: Option A Answer: Option A

C) 1/ m D) m D) The velocity ratio of a machine is the ratio of lo ad lifted to the

Answer: Option B 92. The rate of change of displacement of a body is called

87. A framed structure is perfect, if the number of members A) velocity B) acceleration

A) equal to B) less than Answer: Option D

A) Force B) Speed A) g/2 B) g

Answer: Option B Answer: Option D

B) the rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to Answer: Option C

A) g/ 2 B) g/3 C) 45° + π/2 D) 60° +π/2

C) g/ 4 D) none of these Answer: Option C

Answer: Option D 111. The range of projectile on a downward inclined plane is

B) The velocity with which a projectile is projected, is know n as A) m/min B) rad / s

C) 60 θ D) 90 θ 114. The acceleration of a particle moving with simple harmonic

A) Angular displacement B) Angular velocity A) simple pendulum B) compound pendulum

C) Angular acceleration D) all of these C) torsional pendulum D) second's pendulum

Answer: Option D Answer: Option D

A) translatory B) rotary A) 94.9 cm B) 99.4 cm C. 100 cm

C) circular D) translatory as well as rotatory Answer: Option B

C) sense of angular displacement D. all of these Answer: Option B