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SOLUTION TO CHAPTER PROBLEMS

CHAPTER 2

1. Calculate the cost per foot for each method used to drill the same interval.

Insert bits

Number or bits = 2
Cost per bit = $10,000
Cost of rig = $1250/hr
Rotating hours = 180
Total time for two trips = 21 hrs
Footage = 4500 feet
Average penetration rate = 25.00 feet per hour

PDC bit and motor

Number or bits = 1
Cost per bit = $50,000
Cost of rig = $1250/hr
Cost of motor = $300/hr included in drilling and trip time
Rotating hours = 135
Trip time = 12 hrs
Footage = 4500 feet
Average penetration rate = 33.33 feet per hour

Solution:

Calculate the cost per foot for the insert bits.

C B + C r (t + T )
CT =
F

20000 + 1250 (180 + 21)


CT = = $60.28 /ft
4500

Calculate the cost per foot with the PDC bit and motor.

C B + C r (t + T )
CT =
F

50000 + (1250 + 300 )(135 + 12 )


CT = = $61.74 /ft
4500

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Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

The two insert bits yields the lowest cost per foot but not by much. With a motor, you will have
to assume that sometimes motors fail and then an extra trip will be required to change out the
motor.

Usually, motors are charged by circulating hours and the cost would not be included in trip time.
The cost per foot can also be calculated without including the motor costs in the trip time.

50000 + (1250 + 300 )(135 ) + (1250 )(12 )


CT = = $60.94 /ft
4500

The cost per foot does not change substantially. In order for the PDC bit to be more cost
effective, the PDC bit would have to drill faster. The insert bits averaged 25 feet per hour and
the PDC averaged 33.3 feet per hour. Typically, the increase in penetration rate with a PDC bit
will be better than the 30% in this illustration.

The hourly drilling cost also has a significant impact on the economics. Calculate the cost per
foot if the rig cost increases to $2000 per hour.

Calculate the cost per foot for the insert bits.

C B + C r (t + T )
CT =
F

20000 + 2000 (180 + 21)


CT = = $93.78 /ft
4500

Calculate the cost per foot with the PDC bit and motor.

C B + C r (t + T )
CT =
F

50000 + (2000 + 300 )(135 + 12 )


CT = = $86.24 /ft
4500

At the higher operating expense, the PDC bit is more economical. As the daily drilling cost
increases, more can be spent to make it drill faster with less improvement in penetration rate.

2. Calculate the cost per meter for each method used to drill the same interval.

Insert bits.

Insert bits

Number or bits = 2
Cost per bit = $10,000
Cost of rig = $1250/hr
Rotating hours = 180
Total time for two trips = 21 hrs
Footage = 1372 m
Average penetration rate = 7.62 meters per hour

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Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

PDC bit and motor

Number or bits = 1
Cost per bit = $50,000
Cost of rig = $1250/hr
Cost of motor = $300/hr included in drilling and trip time
Rotating hours = 135
Trip time = 12 hrs
Footage = 1372 m
Average penetration rate = 10.16 meters per hour

Solution:

Calculate the cost per meter for the insert bits.

C B + C r (t + T )
CT =
F

20000 + 1250(180 + 21)


CT = = $197.70 /m
1372

Calculate the cost per meter with the PDC bit and motor.

C B + C r (t + T )
CT =
F

50000 + (1250 + 300 )(135 + 12 )


CT = = $202.51 /m
1372

The two insert bits yields the lowest cost per meter but not by much. With a motor, you will
have to assume that sometimes motors fail and then an extra trip will be required to change out
the motor.

Usually, motors are charged by circulating hours and the cost would not be included in trip time.
The cost per meter can also be calculated without including the motor costs in the trip time.

50000 + (1250 + 300 )(135 ) + (1250 )(12 )


CT = = $199.89 /m
1372

The cost per meter does not change substantially. In order for the PDC bit to be more cost
effective, the PDC bit would have to drill faster. The insert bits averaged 7.62 meters per hour
and the PDC averaged 10.16 meters per hour. Typically, the increase in penetration rate with a
PDC bit will be better than the 30% in this illustration.

The hourly drilling cost also has a significant impact on the economics. Calculate the cost per
meter if the rig cost increases to $2000 per hour.

Calculate the cost per meter for the insert bits.

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Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

C B + C r (t + T )
CT =
F

20000 + 2000 (180 + 21)


CT = = $307 .58 /m
1372

Calculate the cost per meter with the PDC bit and motor.

C B + C r (t + T )
CT =
F

50000 + (2000 + 300 )(135 + 12 )


CT = = $282.87 /ft
1372

At the higher operating expense, the PDC bit is more economical. As the daily drilling cost
increases, more can be spent to make it drill faster with less improvement in penetration rate.

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Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

CHAPTER 4

Suggested Maximum Plastic Viscosity for Water Base Drilling Fluid

80

70

60
Plastic Viscosity, cp

50

40

30

20

10

0
1000 1200 1400 1600 1800 2000 2200 2400
Mud Weight, kg/cu m

Suggested Maximum Plastic Viscosity for Water Base Drilling Fluid

80

70

60

50
Plastic Viscosity, cp

40

30

20

10

0
8 10 12 14 16 18 20
Mud Weight, ppg

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Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

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Solutions To Chapter Problems

CHAPTER 5
1. Given the following information about a well, calculate the slip velocity of both the 1.0
inch and the 0.5 inch diameter particle.

Hole size, Dh 8 3/4 inch (222.3 mm)


Diameter of pipe, Dp 4 1/2 inch (114.3 mm)
Mud Weight, ρf 9.8 ppg (1170 kg/m3)
Flow Rate, Q 275 gpm (1.041 m3/min)
Particle Diameter, dp 0.5 inch (13 mm)
1.0 inch (25 mm)
100 rpm Reading, Ө100 22
50 rpm Reading, Ө50 17

Solution:

Calculate the power-law constants n and k.

⎛θ ⎞ ⎛ 22 ⎞
n = 3.32 log⎜⎜ 2 ⎟⎟ = 3.32 log⎜ ⎟ = 0.3718
⎝ θ1 ⎠ ⎝ 17 ⎠

Calculate the shear rate at 50 rpm

⎛ dv ⎞
⎜ ⎟ = 1.703W = (1.703 )(50 ) = 85
⎝ dr ⎠

Calculate k

θi 17
k= n
= = 3.2597
⎛ dv ⎞ 85 0.3718
⎜⎜ ⎟⎟
⎝ dr i ⎠

Calculate the annular velocity around the drill pipe

v =
24.5Q
=
(24.5 )(275 )
2
Dh − D p
2
(8.75 2
− 4 .5 2 ) = 119.6 ft/min
Calculate the viscosity at an annular velocity of 119.6 ft/min

⎡⎛ 2.4ν
n
⎞⎛ 2n + 1⎞⎤ 200k Dh − D p ( )
μ e = ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎥
⎢⎣⎜⎝ Dh − D p ⎟⎝ 3n ⎟⎠⎥ v
⎠ ⎦

⎡⎛ (2.4 )(119.6 ) ⎞⎛ (2)(0.3718 ) + 1 ⎞⎤ (200 )(3.2597 )(8.75 − 4.5) = 131 cp


0.3718

μ e = ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥
⎣⎝ 8.75 − 4.5 ⎠⎝ (3 )(0.3718 ) ⎠⎦ 119.6

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Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Calculate the slip velocity of the 0.5 inch diameter particle assuming Equation 5-6 is correct

0.71
⎡ d p1.6 (ρP − ρf ) ⎤
Vs = 346.6 ⎢ ⎥
⎢⎣ μe 0.6 ρf 0.4 ⎥⎦

0.71
⎡ (0.5)1.6 (21 − 9.8) ⎤
Vs = 346.6⎢ 0.4 ⎥
= 57 fpm
⎣⎢ (131) (9.8) ⎦⎥
0.6

Calculate the slip velocity of the 1.0 inch diameter particle assuming Equation 5-6 is correct

0.71
⎡ (1.0)1.6 (21 − 9.8) ⎤
Vs = 346.6⎢ 0.4 ⎥
= 126 fpm
⎢⎣ (131) (9.8) ⎥⎦
0.6

To make sure that Equation 5-6 is the correct equation, check the particle Reynold’s Number

15.46d p ρ f Vs
Rp =
μe

15.46 (0.5 )(9.8 )(57 )


Rp = = 33
131

15.46 (1.0 )(9.8 )(126 )


Rp = = 146
131

Since the Reynold’s Number is between 1 and 500, Equation 5-6 is correct

The annular velocity is 119.6 fpm, so the 0.5 inch diameter particle will come out of the hole, but
the 1.0 inch diameter particle will not. It will stay in the hole until it is broken into smaller pieces
and then it will come out of the hole.

What would happen if the hole was washed out to 12 1/4 inches? Would either particle come
out of the hole?

Calculate the annular velocity in the larger hole

v =
24.5Q
=
(24.5 )(275 )
2
Dh − D p
2
(12.25 2
− 4.5 2 ) = 52 ft/min
Since the annular velocity has changed, the viscosity will also change (In laminar flow, the
viscosity of the mud is a function of the shear rate or annular velocity.)

⎡⎛ (2.4 )(52 ) ⎞⎛ (2)(0.3718 ) + 1 ⎞⎤ (200 )(3.2597 )(12.25 − 4.5 ) = 322 cp


0.3718

μ e = ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥
⎣⎝ 12.25 − 4.5 ⎠⎝ (3 )(0.3718 ) ⎠⎦ 52

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Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Calculate the slip velocity

0.71
⎡ (0.5)1.6 (21 − 9.8) ⎤
Vs = 346.6⎢ 0.4 ⎥
= 39 fpm
⎣⎢ (322) (9.8) ⎦⎥
0.6

0.71
⎡ (1.0)1.6 (21 − 9.8) ⎤
Vs = 346.6⎢ 0.4 ⎥
= 86 fpm
⎣⎢ (322) (9.8) ⎦⎥
0.6

Calculate the Reynold’s Number to make sure that Equation 5-6 is used to calculate slip velocity

15.46 (0.5 )(9.8 )(39 )


Rp = =9
322

15.46 (1.0 )(9.8 )(86 )


Rp = = 40
131

The 0.5” diameter particle will still come out of the hole but the 1” diameter particle will not.

SI Solution:

Calculate the power-law constants n and k.

⎛θ ⎞ ⎛ 22 ⎞
n = 3.32 log⎜⎜ 2 ⎟⎟ = 3.32 log⎜ ⎟ = 0.3718
⎝ θ1 ⎠ ⎝ 17 ⎠

Calculate the shear rate at 50 rpm

⎛ dv ⎞
⎜ ⎟ = 1.703W = (1.703 )(50 ) = 85
⎝ dr ⎠

Calculate k

⎡ ⎤
⎢ ⎥
⎢ θi ⎥ ⎡ 17 ⎤
k=⎢ n ⎥
× 0.479 = ⎢ 0.3718 ⎥ × 0.479 = 1.5614
⎢ ⎛⎜ dv ⎞⎟ ⎥ ⎣ 85 ⎦
⎢ ⎜ dr ⎟ ⎥
⎣⎝ i ⎠ ⎦

Calculate the annular velocity around the drill pipe

v =
(1.273 × 10 )Q = (1.273 × 10 )(1.041) = 36.5 m/min
6 6

D −D
h
2
p
2
(222.3 − 114.3 )
2 2

Calculate the viscosity at an annular velocity of 36.5 m/min

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Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

⎞⎛ 2n + 1 ⎞⎤ 5k (Dh − Dp )
n
⎡⎛ 200ν
μ e = ⎢⎜⎜ ⎟⎜
⎟⎝ 3n ⎟⎠⎥⎥
⎢⎣⎝ Dh − Dp ⎠ ⎦ v

⎡⎛ (200 )(36.5 ) ⎞⎛ (2)(0.3718 ) + 1 ⎞⎤ (5 )(1.5614 )(222.3 − 114.3 ) = 131 cp


0.3718

μ e = ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥
⎣⎝ 222 .3 − 114 .3 ⎠⎝ (3 )(0.3718 ) ⎠⎦ 36.5

Calculate the slip velocity of the 13 mm diameter particle assuming Equation 5-14 is correct

0.71
⎡ d p 1 .6 ( ρ P − ρ f ) ⎤
Vs = 0.349 ⎢ 0.6 0 .4

⎢⎣ μ e ρ f ⎥⎦

0.71
⎡ (13)1.6 (2500 − 1170) ⎤
Vs = 0.349⎢ ⎥ = 17.9 m/min
⎢⎣ (131) (1170)
0.6 0.4
⎥⎦

Calculate the slip velocity of the 25 mm diameter particle assuming Equation 5-14 is correct

0.71
⎡ (25)1.6 (2500 − 1170) ⎤
Vs = 0.349⎢ ⎥ = 37.7 m/min
⎣⎢ (131) (1170)
0.6 0.4
⎦⎥

To make sure that Equation 5-14 is the correct equation, check the particle Reynold’s Number

d p ρ f Vs
Rp =
60μe

Rp =
(13 )(1170 )(17.9 ) = 35
(60 )(131)

Rp =
(25 )(1170 )(37.7 ) = 140
(60 )(131)
Since the Reynold’s Number is between 1 and 500, Equation 5-14 is correct

The annular velocity is 36.4 m/min, so the 13 mm diameter particle will come out of the hole, but
the 25 mm diameter particle will not. It will stay in the hole until it is broken into smaller pieces
and then it will come out of the hole.

What would happen if the hole was washed out to 311.2 mm? Would either particle come out of
the hole?

Calculate the annular velocity in the larger hole

v =
(1.273 × 10 )Q = (1.273 × 10 )(1.041) = 15.8 m/min
6 6

D −D
h
2
p
(311.2 − 114.3 )
2 2 2

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Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Since the annular velocity has changed, the viscosity will also change (In laminar flow, the
viscosity of the mud is a function of the shear rate or annular velocity.)

⎡⎛ (200 )(15.8 ) ⎞⎛ (2)(0.3718 ) + 1 ⎞⎤ (5 )(1.5614 )(311.2 − 114.3) = 322 cp


0.3718

μ e = ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥
⎣⎝ 311.2 − 114.3 ⎠⎝ (3 )(0.3718 ) ⎠⎦ 15.8

Calculate the slip velocity

0.71
⎡ (13)1.6 (2500 − 1170) ⎤
Vs = 0.349⎢ ⎥ = 12.2 m/min
⎢⎣ (322) (1170)
0.6 0.4
⎥⎦

0.71
⎡ (25)1.6 (2500 − 1170) ⎤
Vs = 0.349⎢ ⎥ = 25.6 m/min
⎣⎢ (322) (1170)
0.6 0.4
⎦⎥

Calculate the Reynold’s Number to make sure that Equation 5-14 is used to calculate slip
velocity

Rp =
(13 )(1170 )(12.2) = 10
(60 )(322 )

Rp =
(25 )(1170 )(25.6 ) = 39
(60 )(322 )
The 13 mm diameter particle will still come out of the hole but the 25 mm diameter particle will
not.

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Solutions To Chapter Problems

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Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

2. Calculate the Carrying Capacity Index or CCI in the following well.

Hole size, Dh = 8 3/4 inch (222.3 mm)


Diameter of the pipe, Dp = 4 1/2 inch (114.3 mm)
Mud Weight, ρf = 9.8 ppg (1170 kg/m3)
Q = 275 gpm (1.041 m3/min)
Plastic Viscosity = 14 cp
Yield Point = 12 lbf/100 ft2 (6 Pa sec)

Solution:

Calculate the annular velocity

v =
24.5Q
=
(24.5 )(275 )
2
Dh − D p
2
(8.75 2
− 4 .5 2 ) = 119.6 ft/min
Calculate n and K

⎛ 2PV + YP ⎞ ⎧ (2)(14 ) + 12 ⎫
n = 3.32 log⎜ ⎟ = 3.32 log⎨ ⎬ = 0.6211
⎝ PV + YP ⎠ ⎩ 14 + 12 ⎭

K = 511(1−n ) (PV + YP ) = 511(1−0.6211) (14 + 12 ) = 276 cp

Calculate the Carrrying Capacity Index (CCI)

CCI =
ρ f Kv
=
(9.8)(276 )(119.6) = 0.81
400,000 400,000

The carrying capacity may be slightly low and the mud viscosity or annular velocity may have to
be increased.

The problem can also be solved using the chart in Figure 5-6.

Enter the chart at 12 lbf/100 ft2 and proceeding vertically to a viscosity of 14 cp. Read the K
viscosity on the left to be about 275 cp.

The CCI can be calculated

CCI =
ρ f Kv
=
(9.8)(275 )(119.6) = 0.81
400,000 400,000

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Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

2000
PV
1800 5 cp
10 cp
15 cp
1600 20 cp
25 cp
1400 30 cp
35 cp
40 cp
K Viscosity, equivalent cp

1200

1000

800

600

400

275
200

0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40

12 Yield Point, lb/100 sq ft

SI Solution:

Calculate the annular velocity

v =
(1.273 × 10 )Q = (1.273 × 10 )(1.041) = 36.4 m/min
6 6

D −D h
2
(222.3 − 114.3 )
p
2 2 2

Calculate n and K

⎛ 2PV + YP / 0.479 ⎞ ⎧ (2)(14 ) + (6 / 0.479 ) ⎫


n = 3.32 log⎜ ⎟ = 3.32 log⎨ ⎬ = 0.6111
⎝ PV + YP / 0.479 ⎠ ⎩ 14 + (6 / 0.479 ) ⎭

⎛ YP ⎞ (1−0.6111) ⎛ 6 ⎞
K = 511(1−n ) ⎜ PV + ⎟ = 511 ⎜14 + ⎟ = 300 cp
⎝ 0.479 ⎠ ⎝ 0.479 ⎠

Calculate the Carrrying Capacity Index (CCI)

CCI =
ρ f Kv
=
(1170 )(300 )(36.5) = 0.91
400,000 14,000,000

The carrying capacity may be slightly low and the mud viscosity or annular velocity may have to
be increased.

The problem can also be solved using the chart in Figure 5-6.

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Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Enter the chart at 6 Pa sec and proceeding vertically to a viscosity of 14 cp. Read the K
viscosity on the left to be about 300 cp.

The CCI can be calculated

CCI =
ρ f Kv
=
(1170 )(300 )(36.5) = 0.91
400,000 14,000,000

300

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Solutions To Chapter Problems

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Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Chapter 6
1. If the casing shoe in Example 6-5 is at 15,500 feet (4724 meters), what is the ECD at the
casing seat (mud weight is 1800 kg/m3)?

Solution:

From Equation 6-22, it is apparent that friction losses are linear:

n
⎡ 2.4v ⎛ 2n + 1 ⎞⎤ kl
P =⎢ ⎜ ⎟⎥
⎣⎢ Dh − D p ⎝ 3n ⎠⎦⎥ 300(Dh − D p )

From Example 6-5, the friction losses in 16,375 feet of drill pipe annulus was 371 psi; however,
only the friction losses from 15,500 feet to the surface needs to be considered. The friction
losses below 15,500 feet are gone by the time the fluid gets to the casing shoe. The friction
loss per foot of annulus is:

371
Pdpa = = 0.0227 psi/ft
16,375

The friction losses in 15,500 feet would be:

Pdpa = 0.0227 × 15,500 = 351 psi

The friction losses can also be calculated with Equation 6-22:


0.43
⎡ (2.4)(120 ) ⎛ (2)(0.43 ) + 1 ⎞⎤ (2.45)(15,500 )
Pdpa = ⎢ ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥ = 351 psi
⎣ 6.5 − 3.5 ⎝ (3)(0.43) ⎠⎦ 300(6.5 − 3.5)

The ECD at the casing shoe would be:

Pdpa + Pdca
ECD = ρ m +
(0.052)(TVD )
0 + 351
ECD = 15 + = 15.44 ppg
(0.052)(15,500)
SI Solution:

From Equation 6-42, it is apparent that friction losses are linear:

n
⎡ 200v ⎛ 2n + 1 ⎞ ⎤ 4kl
P =⎢ ⎜ ⎟⎥
⎣⎢ Dh − D p ⎝ 3n ⎠ ⎦⎥ 300(Dh − D p )

From Example 6-5, the friction losses in 4991 meters of drill pipe annulus was 2560 kPa;
however, only the friction losses from 4724 meters to the surface needs to be considered. The

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Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

friction losses below 4724 meters are gone by the time the fluid gets to the casing shoe. The
friction loss per meter of annulus is:

2560
Pdpa = = 0.5129 kPa/m
4991

The friction losses in 4724 meters would be:

Pdpa = 0.5129 × 4721 = 2421 kPa

The friction losses can also be calculated with Equation 6-42:

(4)(1.17)(4724 ) = 2418 kPa


0.43
⎡ (200 )(36.6) ⎛ (2)(0.43 ) + 1 ⎞⎤
Pdpa = ⎢ ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥
⎣165 .1 − 88.9 ⎝ (3)(0.43 ) ⎠⎦ (165.1 − 88.9)

The ECD at the casing shoe would be:

Pdpa + Pdca
ECD = ρ m +
(0.00981)(TVD )
0 + 2418
ECD = 1800 + = 1850 kg/m 3
(0.00981)(4724 )

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Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Chapter 7
1. Given the following information, calculate the jet nozzles sizes for both the horsepower
and impact force methods using three nozzles.

Diameter of the hole, Dh = 12 1/4 inch (311.2 mm)


Depth = 6300 feet (1920 m)
Drill Pipe 5 inch (127.0 mm), 19.5#/ft ID = 4.276 inches (108.6 mm)
Collars 8 inch (203.2 mm) OD by 3 inch (76.2 mm) ID, Length 800 feet (244 m)
Mud Weight = 10.2 ppg (1220 kg/m3)
PV = 15 cp YP = 10 lbf/100 ft2 (5 Pa sec)
Pumps - two National 9-P-100 with 6 inch (152.4 mm) liners
Maximum allowable surface pressure = 2500 psi (17,240 kPa)
Output per stroke = 3.4 gallons per stroke (0.0129 m3)
Maximum pump speed = 120 spm
Assume a pump rate of 400 and 700 gpm (1.51 & 2.65 m3/min) to make the calculations

Solution:

First, establish the limits. Calculate the maximum flow rate based on one or two pumps. Since
this is a 12 1/4 inch hole, two pumps will be used.

Qmax = 2 pumps x 3.4 gal/stk x 120 spm = 816 gpm

The friction losses in the system have to be calculated at two flow rates. In order to calculate
the friction losses, the power-law constants n and k must be calculated.

⎛ 2PV + Yp ⎞
n = 3.32log⎜⎜ ⎟⎟
⎝ PV + Yp ⎠

⎡ (2)(15) + 10 ⎤
n = 3.32log⎢ ⎥ = 0.6777
⎣ 15 + 10 ⎦

PV + Yp
k=
511n

15 + 10
k= = 0.3652
5110.6777

Calculate the pressure losses in the drill pipe at 400 gpm:

Pdp =
( ) 0.81
7.68 × 10 −5 ρ m Q 1.81PV 0.19 l
D 4.83

Pdp =
( )
7.68 × 10 −5 (10.2) (400 )1.81 (15 )0.19 (5500 )
0.81

(4.276 )4.83
Reduce mud weight, plastic viscosity, length and diameter to a constant:

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Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Pdp = (0.00415 )(400 )


1.81
= 213 psi

Calculate the pressure losses in the drill pipe at 700 gpm:

Pdp = (0.00415 )(700 )


1.81
= 586 psi

Calculate the pressure loss in the drill collars at 400 gpm and 700 gpm:

Pdc =
( )
7.68 × 10 −5 (10.2)
0.81
(400 )1.81 (15)0.19 (800 )
(3)4.83

Pdc = (0.00334 )(400)


1.81
= 171 psi

Pdc = (0.00334 )(700 )


1.81
= 472 psi

Calculate the annular velocity in the drill pipe and drill collar annulus at 400 gpm:

24.5Q
v =
(
Dh2 − Dp2 )
v =
(24.5)(400 )
(12.25 2
− 82 ) = 114 fpm
v =
(24.5)(400 )
(12.25 2
− 52 ) = 78 fpm
Calculate the annular velocity in the drill pipe and drill collar annulus at 700 gpm:

24.5Q
v =
(
Dh2 − Dp2 )
v =
(24.5)(700 )
(12.25 2
− 82 ) = 199 fpm
v =
(24.5)(700 )
(12.25 2
− 52 ) = 137 fpm
Calculate the annular pressure losses at 400 gpm:
n
⎡⎛ 2.4v ⎞⎛ 2n + 1 ⎞⎤ kl
= ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎥
⎟⎝ 3n ⎟⎠⎥ 300(Dh − D p )
Pdca
⎢⎣⎜⎝ Dh − D p ⎠ ⎦

20 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

⎡⎛ (2.4 )(114 ) ⎞⎛ (2)(0.6777 ) + 1 ⎞⎤ (0.3652 )(800 ) = 4 psi


0.6777

Pdca = ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥


⎣⎝ 12.25 − 8 ⎠⎝ (3 )(0.6777 ) ⎠⎦ 300(12.25 − 8 )

⎡⎛ (2.4 )(78 ) ⎞⎛ (2)(0.6777 ) + 1 ⎞⎤ (0.3652 )(5500 ) = 9 psi


0.6777

Pdpa = ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥


⎣⎝ 12.25 − 5 ⎠⎝ (3 )(0.6777 ) ⎠⎦ 300(12.25 − 5 )

Calculate the annular pressure losses at 700 gpm:

⎡⎛ (2.4 )(199 ) ⎞⎛ (2)(0.6777 ) + 1 ⎞⎤ (0.3652 )(800 ) = 6 psi


0.6777

Pdca = ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥


⎣⎝ 12.25 − 8 ⎠⎝ (3 )(0.6777 ) ⎠⎦ 300(12.25 − 8 )

⎡⎛ (2.4 )(137 ) ⎞⎛ (2)(0.6777 ) + 1 ⎞⎤ (0.3652 )(5500 ) = 14 psi


0.6777

Pdpa = ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥


⎣⎝ 12.25 − 5 ⎠⎝ (3 )(0.6777 ) ⎠⎦ 300(12.25 − 5 )

Calculate the pressure losses in the circulating system (everything but the bit) at 400 gpm:

Pc = Pdp + Pdc + Pdca + Pdpa

Pc = 213 + 171 + 4 + 9 = 397 psi

Calculate the pressure losses in the circulating system (everything but the bit) at 700 gpm:

Pc = 586 + 472 + 6 + 14 = 1078 psi

Calculate what the pressure loss in the circulating system and the bit needs to be in order to
maximize the horsepower method:

Pc hp = 0.35Ps max = (0.35 )(2500 ) = 875 psi

Pbit hp = 0.65Ps max = (0.65 )(2500 ) = 1625 psi

Calculate what the pressure loss in the circulating system and the bit needs to be in order to
maximize the impact force method:

Pc if = 0.52Ps max = (0.52)(2500 ) = 1300 psi

Pbit if = 0.48Ps max = (0.48 )(2500 ) = 1200 psi

With the two flow rates, the slope can be calculated

log(Pc 2 ) − log(Pc1 )
s=
log(Q2 ) − log(Q1 )

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 21


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

log(1078 ) − log(397 )
s= = 1.7850
log(700 ) − log(400 )

With the slope, the same equation can be used to calculate the flow rate where the pressure
losses in the circulating system are equal to 875 psi for the horsepower method:

log(875 ) − log(397 )
1.7850 =
log(Q 2 ) − log(400 )

⎡ log (875 )−log(397 ) ⎤


⎢ 1.7850 ⎥ +log (400 )
Q2 = 10 ⎣ ⎦
= 623 gpm

With the slope, the same equation can be used to calculate the flow rate where the pressure
losses in the circulating system are equal to 1300 psi for the impact force method:

log(1300 ) − log(397 )
1.7850 =
log(Q2 ) − log(400 )

⎡ log (1300 )−log (397 ) ⎤


⎢ 1.7850 ⎥ +log (400 )
Q2 = 10 ⎣ ⎦
= 778 gpm

The flow rates can also be determined using graph paper if you do not want to calculate it. On a
piece of log-log paper, the two circulating pressures and flow rates are plotted. (1078 psi at 700
gpm and 397 psi at 400 gpm) as shown on the following graph. For the impact force method,
the 1300 psi line crosses the Pc line at approximately 778 gpm. For the horsepower method,
the 875 psi line crosses the Pc line at approximately 623 gpm. Usually it is easier to calculate
than to use graph paper.

22 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

10000

1300
1000
Pressure, psi

875

100

10
100 1000
Flow Rate, gpm

623 778

Using the bit pressure loss equation, the area of the jet nozzles and eventually the size of the jet
nozzles can be determined. Start with the horsepower method. For the horsepower method the
pressure losses at the bit need to be 1625 psi and the flow rate needs to be 623 gpm as
previously calculated:

Pbit hp =
(
9.14 10 −5 ρ mQ 2 )
2
An

1625 =
( )
9.14 10 −5 (10.2)(623)
2

2
An

An =
( )
9.14 10 −5 (10.2 )(623 )
2
= 0.4719 in 2
1625

Calculate the size of the nozzles for the horsepower method:

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 23


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Sn =
(1304 )An =
(1304 )(0.4719 ) = 14.33
Nn 3

The average nozzle size is 14.33 32nds so the nozzles would be 14-14-15.

For the impact force method, the area of the nozzles is calculated at 1200 psi and 778 gpm as
previously calculated:

1200 =
( )
9.14 10 −5 (10.2)(778)
2

2
An

An =
( )
9.14 10 −5 (10.2)(778 )
2
= 0.6857 in 2
1200

Calculate the size of the nozzles for the impact force method:

Sn =
(1304 )An =
(1304 )(0.6857 ) = 17.27
Nn 3

The average nozzle size is 17.27 32nds so the nozzles would be 16-18-18. It should be noted
that only even size nozzles are made above 15/32 nds, so 17’s would not be recommended.

SI Solution:

First, establish the limits. Calculate the maximum flow rate based on one or two pumps. Since
this is a 311.2 mm hole, two pumps will be used.

Qmax = 2 pumps x 0.0129 m3/stk x 120 spm = 3.096 m3

The friction losses in the system have to be calculated at two flow rates. In order to calculate
the friction losses, the power-law constants n and k must be calculated.

⎛ 2PV + Yp / 0.479 ⎞
n = 3.32log⎜⎜ ⎟⎟
⎝ PV + Yp / 0.479 ⎠

⎡ ( 2)(15) + (5 / 0.479 ) ⎤
n = 3.32log⎢ ⎥ = 0.6683
⎣ 15 + (5 / 0.479 ) ⎦

⎡ PV + Yp / 0.479 ⎤
k=⎢
511n ⎥ (0.479 )
⎣ ⎦

⎡15 + (5 / 0.479)⎤
k=⎢ 0.6777 ⎥ (0.479) = 0.1887
⎣ 511 ⎦

Calculate the pressure losses in the drill pipe at 1.51 m3/min:

24 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

0.78
5,310,000 ρ m Q1.78 PV 0.22 l
Pdp =
D 4.78

Pdp =
(5,310,000 )(1220 )0.81 (1.51)1.81 (15 )0.19 (1676 )
(108.6)4.83
Reduce mud weight, plastic viscosity, length and diameter to a constant:

Pdp = (691.38 )(1.51)


1.81
= 1458 kPa

Calculate the pressure losses in the drill pipe at 2.65 m3/min:

Pdp = (691.38 )(2.65 )


1.81
= 4035 kPa

Calculate the pressure loss in the drill collars at 1.51 m3/min and 2.65 m3/min:

Pdc =
(5,310,000 )(1220 )0.81 (1.51)1.81 (15)0.19 (244 )
(76.2)4.83

Pdc = (557.25 )(1.51)


1.81
= 1175 kPa

Pdc = (557.25 )(2.65 )


1.81
= 3252 kPa

Calculate the annular velocity in the drill pipe and drill collar annulus at 1.51 m3/min:

1,273,000Q
v =
(Dh2 − Dp2 )
v =
(1,273,000 )(1.51)
(311.2 2
− 203.2 2 ) = 34.6 mpm
v =
(1,273,000 )(1.51)
(311.2 2
− 127.0 2 ) = 23.8 mpm
Calculate the annular velocity in the drill pipe and drill collar annulus at 2.65 m3/min:

1,273,000Q
v =
(Dh2 − Dp2 )
v =
(1,273,000 )(2.65 )
(311.2 2
− 203.2 2 ) = 60.7 mpm
v =
(1,273,000 )(2.65 )
(311.2 2
− 127.0 2 ) = 41.8 mpm

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 25


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Calculate the annular pressure losses at 1.51 m3/min:

n
⎡ 200v ⎛ 2n + 1⎞⎤ 4kl
Pdca = ⎢ ⎜ ⎟⎥
⎣⎢ Dh − Dp ⎝ 3n ⎠⎦⎥ (Dh − Dp )

⎡⎛ (200 )(34.6 ) ⎞⎛ (2)(0.6683 ) + 1 ⎞⎤ (4)(0.1887 )(244 ) = 30 kPa


0.6683

Pdca = ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥


⎣⎝ 311.2 − 203.2 ⎠⎝ (3 )(0.6683 ) ⎠⎦ (311.2 − 203.2)

⎡⎛ (200 )(23.8 ) ⎞⎛ (2)(0.6683 ) + 1 ⎞⎤ (4 )(0.1887 )(1676 ) = 67 kPa


0.6683

Pdpa = ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥


⎣⎝ 311.2 − 127.0 ⎠⎝ (3 )(0.6683 ) ⎠⎦ (311.2 − 127.0 )
Calculate the annular pressure losses at 2.65 m3/min:

⎡⎛ (200 )(60.7 ) ⎞⎛ (2)(0.6683 ) + 1 ⎞⎤ (4)(0.1887 )(244 ) = 44 kPa


0.6683

Pdca = ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥


⎣⎝ 311.2 − 203.2 ⎠⎝ (3 )(0.6683 ) ⎠⎦ (311.2 − 203.2)

⎡⎛ (200 )(41.8 ) ⎞⎛ (2)(0.6683 ) + 1 ⎞⎤ (4 )(0.1887 )(1676 ) = 97 kPa


0.6683

Pdpa = ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥


⎣⎝ 311.2 − 127.0 ⎠⎝ (3 )(0.6683 ) ⎠⎦ (311.2 − 127.0 )
Calculate the pressure losses in the circulating system (everything but the bit) at 1.51 m3/min:

Pc = Pdp + Pdc + Pdca + Pdpa

Pc = 1458 + 1175 + 30 + 67 = 2730 kPa

Calculate the pressure losses in the circulating system (everything but the bit) at 2.65 m3/min:

Pc = 4035 + 3252 + 44 + 97 = 7428 kPa

Calculate what the pressure loss in the circulating system and the bit needs to be in order to
maximize the horsepower method:

Pc hp = 0.35Ps max = (0.35 )(17,240 ) = 6034 kPa

Pbit hp = 0.65Ps max = (0.65 )(17,240 ) = 11,206 kPa

Calculate what the pressure loss in the circulating system and the bit needs to be in order to
maximize the impact force method:

Pc if = 0.52Ps max = (0.52 )(17,240 ) = 8965 kPa

Pbit if = 0.48Ps max = (0.48 )(17,240 ) = 8275 kPa

With the two flow rates, the slope can be calculated

26 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

log(Pc 2 ) − log(Pc1 )
s=
log(Q2 ) − log(Q1 )

log(7428 ) − log(2730 )
s= = 1.7796
log(2.65 ) − log(1.51)

With the slope, the same equation can be used to calculate the flow rate where the pressure
losses in the circulating system are equal to 6034 kPa for the horsepower method:

log(6034 ) − log(2730 )
1.7796 =
log(Q2 ) − log(1.51)

⎡ log (6034 )−log (2730 ) ⎤


⎢ 1.7796 ⎥ +log (1,51)
Q2 = 10 ⎣ ⎦
= 2.36 m 3 /min

With the slope, the same equation can be used to calculate the flow rate where the pressure
losses in the circulating system are equal to 8965 kPa for the impact force method:

log(8965 ) − log(2730 )
1.7796 =
log(Q2 ) − log(1.51)

⎡ log (8965 )−log (2730 ) ⎤


⎢ 1.7796 ⎥ +log (1.51)
Q2 = 10 ⎣ ⎦
= 2.95 m 3 /min

The flow rates can also be determined using graph paper if you do not want to calculate it. On a
piece of log-log paper, the two circulating pressures and flow rates are plotted. (7428 kPa at
2.65 m3/min and 2730 kPa at 1.51 m3/min) as shown on the following graph. For the impact
force method, the 8965 kPa line crosses the Pc line at approximately 2.95 m3/min. For the
horsepower method, the 6034 psi line crosses the Pc line at approximately 2.36 m3/min. Usually
it is easier to calculate than to use graph paper.

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 27


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Using the bit pressure loss equation, the area of the jet nozzles and eventually the size of the jet
nozzles can be determined. Start with the horsepower method. For the horsepower method the
pressure losses at the bit need to be 11,206 kPa and the flow rate needs to be 2.36 m3/min as
previously calculated:

Pbit hp =
(153,000 )ρ mQ 2
2
An

11,206 =
(153,000)(1220)(2.36)2
2
An

An =
(153,000 )(1220 )(2.36 )2 = 304 .6 mm 2
11,206

Calculate the size of the nozzles for the horsepower method:

Sn =
(1.27 )An =
(1.27 )(304.6) = 11.36
Nn 3

The average nozzle size is 11.36 mm so the nozzles would be 11.1-11.1-11.9.

28 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

For the impact force method, the area of the nozzles is calculated at 8275 kPa and 2.95 m3/min
as previously calculated:

8275 =
(153,000)(1220)(2.95)2
2
An

An =
(153,000 )(1220 )(2.95 )2 = 442.4 mm 2
8275

Calculate the size of the nozzles for the impact force method:

Sn =
(1.27 )An =
(1.27 )(442.4) = 13.68
Nn 3

The average nozzle size is 13.41 mm so the nozzles would be 12.7-12.7-14.3. It should be
noted that only even size nozzles are made above 15/32 nds (11.9 mm), so 17’s (13.5 mm)
would not be recommended.

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 29


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

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30 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

2. The rig is preparing to trip for a bit and the standpipe pressure has been measured at
two flow rates. What jet nozzle sizes should the next bit have if the impact force is maximized
using three nozzles?

TD = 9000 feet (2743 m)


Mud Wt. = 12.1 ppg (1450 kg/m3)
Jets = 14-14-14 (11.1-11.1-11.1)
Normal circulation rate (Q2) = 310 gpm (1.17 m3/min)
Pressure at normal circulation rate (Ps2) = 1200 psi (8270 kPa)
Slow pump rate (Q1) = 200 gpm (0.76 m3/min)
Pressure at slow pump rate (Ps1) = 500 psi (3450 kPa)
Max allowable standpipe pressure = 2424 psi (16,710 kPa)
Max flow rate =390 gpm (1.48 m3/min)

Solution:

In order to maximize the hydraulics, the slope of the circulating pressure versus the flow rate
must be determined. However, the circulating pressure is everything but the bit so the bit
pressure losses must be subtracted from the standpipe pressure. First, calculate the current
area of the nozzles with three 14’s.

π ⎡⎛ S1 ⎞ ⎤
2 2 2 2 2 2
⎛ S2 ⎞ ⎛ S3 ⎞ ⎛ S4 ⎞ ⎛ S5 ⎞ ⎛ S6 ⎞
An = ⎢⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ + ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ + ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ + ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ + ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ + ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ + ....⎥
4 ⎢⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎥⎦

π ⎡⎛ 14 ⎞ ⎤
2 2 2
⎛ 14 ⎞ ⎛ 14 ⎞
An = ⎢⎜ ⎟ + ⎜ ⎟ + ⎜ ⎟ ⎥ = 0.4510 in2
4 ⎢⎣⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎥⎦

Calculate the bit pressure losses at 200 and 310 gpm:

Pbit =
(
9.14 10 −5 ρ m Q 2 )
2
An

Pbit =
( )
9.14 10 −5 (12.1)(200 )
2
= 218 psi
0.4510 2

Pbit =
( )
9.14 10 −5 (12.1)(310 )
2
= 523 psi
0.4510 2

Calculate the pressure losses in the circulating system at 200 gpm, Pc1:

Pc 2 = Ps − Pbit = 500 − 218 = 282 psi

Calculate the pressure losses in the circulating system at 310 gpm, Pc2:

Pc 2 = Ps − Pbit = 1200 − 523 = 677 psi

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 31


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Calculate the slope of the circulating pressure loss versus the flow rate:

log(Pc 2 ) − log(Pc1 )
s=
log(Q2 ) − log(Q1 )

log(677 ) − log(282 )
s= = 2.00
log(310 ) − log(200 )

In order to maximize the impact force, the pressure losses in the circulating system must be
determined using Equation 7-22.

⎛ 2 ⎞
Pc if = ⎜ ⎟Ps max
⎝s + 2⎠

⎛ 2 ⎞
Pc if = ⎜ ⎟(2424 ) = 1212 psi
⎝2 + 2⎠

Whatever pressure remains must be the pressure loss through the bit nozzles:

Pbit if = Ps − Pc = 2424 − 1212 = 1212 psi

The slope of the pressure losses in the circulating system versus flow rate can be used to
determine the flow rate where the pressure losses in the circulating system are equal to 1212
psi.

log(1212 ) − log(282 )
2.00 =
log(Q2 ) − log(200 )

⎡ log (1212 )−log(282 ) ⎤


⎢ 2.00 ⎥ +log(200 )
Q2 = 10 ⎣ ⎦
= 415 gpm

Unfortunately, the pump’s maximum flow rate is only 390 gpm, so it is not possible to pump 415
gpm. The hydraulics will have to be done at 390 gpm. The pressure losses in the circulating
system are not 1212 psi at 390 gpm, so the pressure losses in the circulating system must be
calculated for 390 gpm. The pressure losses in the circulating system can be calculated from
the slope.

log(Pc 2 ) − log(282)
2.00 =
log(390 ) − log(200 )

Pc 2 = 10 (2.00 )[log(390 )−log(200 )]+log(282 ) = 1072 psi

If the pressure losses in the circulating system are 1072 psi, then whatever is left over will be
the pressure loss through the jet nozzles.

Pbit = Ps − Pc = 2424 − 1072 = 1352 psi

32 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

With the flow rate and the bit pressure losses, the area of the jet nozzles and the size of the jet
nozzles can be determined.

Pbit =
(
9.14 10 −5 ρ m Q 2 )
2
An

Rearranging:

An =
(
9.14 10 −5 ρ m Q 2
=
) ( )
9.14 10 −5 (12.1)(390 )
2
= 0.3527 in 2
Pbit 1352

Calculate the size of the nozzles for the impact force method:

Sn =
(1304 )An =
(1304 )(0.3527 ) = 12.4
Nn 3

Need 12-12-13 for nozzles. Remember, these are the nozzle sizes at the depth in and nozzles
will get slightly smaller as drilling progresses. Therefore, 12-12-13 was selected rather than 12-
13-13, which would still be acceptable. It depends upon how much hole the bit will drill.

3. The rig is preparing to trip for a bit and the standpipe pressure has been measured at
two flow rates. What jet nozzle sizes should the next bit have if the impact force is maximized
using three nozzles?

TD = 2743 m (9000 ft)


Mud Wt. = 1450 kg/m3 (12.1 ppg)
Jets = 11.1 - 11.1 - 11.1 (14 -14 -14)
Q2 = 1.17 m3/min (310 gpm)
Ps2 = 8270 kPa (1200 psi)
Q1 = 0.76 m3/min (200 gpm)
Ps1 = 3450 kPa (500 psi)
Max allowable standpipe pressure = 16,710 kPa (2424 psi)
Max flow rate =1.48 m3/min (390 gpm)

Solution SI:

In order to maximize the hydraulics, the slope of the circulating pressure versus the flow rate
must be determined. However, the circulating pressure is everything but the bit so the bit
pressure losses must be subtracted from the standpipe pressure. First, calculate the current
area of the nozzles with three 14’s.

An =
π
4
[S1
2 2 2 2
+ S 2 + S3 + S 4 + S5 + S 6 + ....
2 2
]
An =
π
4
[(11.1) 2 2 2
]
+ (11.1) + (11.1) = 290 mm 2

Calculate the bit pressure losses at 1.17 and 0.76 m3/min:

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 33


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

153,000 ρ mQ 2
Pbit = 2
An

153,000(1450 )(0.76 )
2
Pbit = = 1520 kPa
290 2

153,000(1450 )(1.17 )
2
Pbit = = 3603 kPa
290 2

Calculate the pressure losses in the circulating system at 0.76 m3/min, Pc1:

Pc 2 = Ps − Pbit = 8270 − 1520 = 1930 kPa

Calculate the pressure losses in the circulating system at 1.17 m3/min, Pc2:

Pc 2 = Ps − Pbit = 8270 − 3603 = 4667 kPa

Calculate the slope of the circulating pressure loss versus the flow rate:

log(Pc 2 ) − log(Pc1 )
s=
log(Q2 ) − log(Q1 )

log(4667 ) − log(1930 )
s= = 2.05
log(1.17 ) − log(0.76 )

In order to maximize the impact force, the pressure losses in the circulating system must be
determined using Equation 7-22.

⎛ 2 ⎞
Pc if = ⎜ ⎟Ps max
⎝s + 2⎠

⎛ 2 ⎞
Pc if = ⎜ ⎟(16,710 ) = 8259 kPa
⎝ 2.05 + 2 ⎠

Whatever pressure remains must be the pressure loss through the bit nozzles:

Pbit if = Ps − Pc = 16,710 − 8259 = 8451 kPa

The slope of the pressure losses in the circulating system versus flow rate can be used to
determine the flow rate where the pressure losses in the circulating system are equal to 8259
kPa.

log(8259 ) − log(1930 )
2.05 =
log(Q 2 ) − log(0.76 )

34 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

⎡ log(8259 )− log (1930 ) ⎤


⎢ 2.05 ⎥ + log (0.76 )
Q2 = 10 ⎣ ⎦
= 1.55 m3 /min

Unfortunately, the pump’s maximum flow rate is only 1.48 m3/min, so it is not possible to pump
1.55m3/min. The hydraulics will have to be done at 1.48 m3/min. The pressure losses in the
circulating system are not 8259 kPa at 1.48 m3/min, so the pressure losses in the circulating
system must be calculated for 1.48 m3/min. The pressure losses in the circulating system can
be calculated from the slope.

log(Pc 2 ) − log(1930 )
2.05 =
log(1.48 ) − log(0.76 )

Pc 2 = 10 (2.05 )[log(1.48 )−log(0.76 )]+ log(1930 ) = 7550 kPa

If the pressure losses in the circulating system are 7550 kPa, then whatever is left over will be
the pressure loss through the jet nozzles.

Pbit = Ps − Pc = 16710 − 7550 = 9160 kPa

With the flow rate and the bit pressure losses, the area of the jet nozzles and the size of the jet
nozzles can be determined.

153,000 ρ mQ 2
Pbit = 2
An

Rearranging:

An =
153,000 ρ mQ 2
=
(153,000 )(1450 )(1.48 )2 = 230 mm 2
Pbit 9160

Calculate the size of the nozzles for the impact force method:

Sn =
(1.27 )An =
(1.27 )(230 ) = 9.87 mm
Nn 3

Need 9.5-9.5-10.3 for nozzles. Remember, these are the nozzle sizes at the depth in and
nozzles will get slightly smaller as drilling progresses. Therefore, 9.5-9.5-10.3 was selected
rather than 9.5-10.3-10.3, which would still be acceptable. It depends upon how much hole the
bit will drill.

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 35


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

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36 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Chapter 10
1. Calculate the adjusted collapse resistance of 9-5/8 inch, 53.5#/ft, P110 (244.5 mm, 79.6
kg/m, P110) casing with 300,000 lbs (136,078 kg) tension hanging below it.

Solution:

From the API tables at the end of Chapter 10 (below), the cross sectional area of the steel is
15.547 in2. Calculate the axial tension in the casing with 300,000 lbs hanging below it:

T 300,000
σa = = = 19,297 psi
As 15.547

From the API table for P110 casing (above), the adjusted collapse for 15,000 psi stress is 7630
psi and for 20,000 psi stress is 7500. The adjusted collapse resistance can be interpolated from
the table.

⎡ (P − Pc 2 )(σ a1 − σ a ) ⎤
Pc = Pc1 − ⎢ c1 ⎥
⎣ (σ a1 − σ a2 ) ⎦

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 37


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

⎡ (7630 − 7500)(15000 − 19297) ⎤


Pc = 7630 − ⎢ ⎥ = 7518 psi
⎣ (15000 − 20000) ⎦

38 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

2. Design the intermediate casing in Example 10-3 with 7 5/8” casing (193.7 mm). The
collapse and burst pressure lines will remain the same. Calculate the total cost. You only have
the following casing available to choose from.

7 5/8”, 29.7#/ft, N80, LTC $20.04/ft


7 5/8”, 29.7#/ft, P110, LTC $23.28/ft
7 5/8”, 33.7#/ft, N80, LTC $22.74/ft
7 5/8”, 33.7#/ft, P110, LTC $26.42/ft
7 5/8”, 39.0#/ft, N80, LTC $26.32/ft
7 5/8”, 39.0#/ft, P110, LTC $30.58/ft

Solution:

The casing design starts with the collapse at the bottom. From Example 10-3, the collapse
pressure needs to exceed 7280 psi. From the API tables for 7 5/8 inch casing, there are three
casings that have a collapse resistance greater than 7280 psi. They are the 7 5/8 inch, 33.7#/ft,
P110, 7 5/8 inch, 39#/ft, N80 and the 7 5/8 inch, 39#/ft, P110. The least expensive casing
would be the N80, so start with the 7 5/8 inch, 39.0#/ft, N80, LTC on bottom.

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 39


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Since the casing is below the neutral point, it does not have to be adjusted for axial tension.
Calculate the design factor for collapse on bottom.

Adjusted Collapse 8820


DFc = = = 1.21
Pc 10,000 7280

The collapse resistance is greater than one, so it is OK. To reduce the cost, use the next
lightest casing, which is 7 5/8 inch, 33.7#/ft, N80. Calculate the maximum setting depth of the
casing. The collapse resistance from the API Tables is 6560 psi.

Pcx = (0.052 )(MW )(x )

6560 = (0.052 )(14 )(x )

x = 9011 feet

Since it is below the neutral point of 7900 feet, it does not have to be adjusted for axial tension.
Round off the setting depth to 9000 feet. Calculate the design factor for collapse.

Adjusted Collapse 6560


DFc = = = 1.00
Pc 9,000 (0.052 )(14 )(9000 )
The next lightest casing is 29.7#/ft, N80. From the API Tables, it has a collapse resistance of
4790 psi. Calculate the maximum setting depth of the casing.

4790 = (0.052 )(14 )(x )

x = 6580 feet

This is above the neutral point so the collapse resistance must be adjusted for axial tension.
Assume a setting depth of 6500 feet and calculate the tension at the bottom of the 29.7#/ft, N80.

T6,500 = (7,900 − 6,500 )(33.7 # / ft ) = 47,180 pounds

The cross sectional area of the 29.7#/foot casing can be obtained from the API Tables and is
8.541 in2. Calculate the axial stress in the casing at 6500 feet.

T6,500 47,180
σa = = = 5524 psi
As 8.541

The adjusted collapse can be interpolated from the API Table for N80 and L80 casing. At 5000
psi stress, the adjusted collapse is 4720 psi. At 10,000 psi stress, the adjusted collapse is 4630
psi. Calculate the adjusted collapse resistance at 5524 psi stress.

⎡ (P − Pc 2 )(σ a1 − σ a ) ⎤
Pc = Pc1 − ⎢ c1 ⎥
⎣ (σ a1 − σ a2 ) ⎦

40 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

⎡ (4720 − 4630)(5000 − 5524) ⎤


Pc = 4720 − ⎢ ⎥ = 4711psi
⎣ (5000 − 10000) ⎦

Calculate the design factor for collapse at 6500 feet:

Adjusted Collapse 4711


DFc = = = 0.996
Pc 6,500 (0.052 )(14 )(6500 )
Since the design factor is less than one, the casing cannot be set that deep. Try 6400 feet:

T 6,400 = (7,900 − 6,400 )(33.7 # / ft ) = 50,550 pounds

The cross sectional area of the 29.7#/foot casing can be obtained from the API Tables and is
8.541 in2. Calculate the axial stress in the casing at 6400 feet.

T6,400 50,550
σa = = = 5919 psi
As 8.541

The adjusted collapse can be interpolated from the API Table for N80 and L80 casing. At 5000
psi stress, the adjusted collapse is 4720 psi. At 10,000 psi stress, the adjusted collapse is 4630
psi. Calculate the adjusted collapse resistance at 5919 psi stress.

⎡ (4720 − 4630)(5000 − 5919) ⎤


Pc = 4720 − ⎢ ⎥ = 4703 psi
⎣ (5000 − 10000) ⎦

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 41


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Calculate the design factor for collapse at 6400 feet:

Adjusted Collapse 4703


DFc = = = 1.01
Pc 6,400 (0.052 )(14 )(6400 )
Since the design factor is greater than one, the assumed setting depth is OK. There is no
lighter casing available so switch to burst. From the API Tables, the burst of the 7 5/8 inch,
29.7#/ft, N80, LTC is 6890 psi, which is less than the maximum anticipated surface pressure.

The 7 5/8 inch, 29.7#/ft, N80, LTC cannot be run to the surface. Calculate the minimum setting
depth based on a maximum surface pressure of 7720 psi, a gas gradient of 0.128 psi/ft inside
casing and a fresh water gradient outside casing:

( )
Pb x = Pb 0 + Gg (x ) − (0.052 )(MW )(x )

6,890 = 7,720 + (0.128)(x ) − (0.052)(8.34)(x )

x = 2715 feet

Round off to 2800 feet and check the design factor:

42 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Burst Strength
DFb =
Pb 2,800

6890
DFb = = 1.00
7720 + (0.128 )(2800 ) − (0.052)(8.34 )(2800 )

Since the design factor is one or greater, the setting depth of 2800 feet is OK.

Heavier casing will be required at the surface. The next heaviest casing is 33.7#/ft, N80. From
the API Tables, it has a burst rating of 7900 psi. Since that exceeds the maximum anticipated
surface pressure, it can be run to the surface. Check the design factor for burst.

Burst Strength
DFb =
Pb 0

7900
DFb = = 1.02
7720

Check the design factor for tension to make sure they are OK. Start with the design factor at
2800 feet on top of the 7 5/8 inch, 29.7#/ft, N80, LTC casing. Calculate the tension at 2800 feet.

T2800 = (7900 − 6400 )(33.7 ) + (6400 − 2800 )(29.7 ) = 157,470 pounds

From the API Tables, the joint strength of the 29.7#/ft, N80, LTC is 575,000 pounds. Calculate
the design factor for tension:

Joint Strength 575,000


DFt = = = 3.65
T2800 157,470

Since the design factor for tension exceeds 1.80, it is OK. Calculate the tension at the surface
on top of the 7 5/8 inch, 33.7#/ft, N80, LTC casing.

T0 = 157,470 + (2800 - 0 )(33.7) = 251,830 pounds

From the API Tables, the joint strength of the 33.7#/ft, N80, LTC is 674,000 pounds. Calculate
the design factor for tension:

Joint Strength 674,000


DFt = = = 2.68
T0 251,830

The design factor for tension exceeds 1.80, so it is OK.

The final casing design would be as follows:

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 43


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

CASING DESIGN DATA SUMMARY

WELL: POOL: STATE: DATE:

DESIGN FACTORS
SECTION CASING DESCRIPTION TOTAL
JOINT
NUMBER SIZE, WT., GRADE, CONN. BOTTOM LENGTH WEIGHT
COLLAPSE STRENGTH BURST

INTERMEDIATE CASING

1 7⅝, 39.0#/ft, N80, LT&C 10,000 1,000 39,000 1.21 HIGH HIGH

2 7⅝, 33.7#/ft, N80, LT&C 9,000 2,600 87,620 1.01 HIGH HIGH

3 7⅝, 29.7#/ft, N80, LT&C 6,400 3,600 106,920 1.00 3.65 1.00

4 7⅝, 33.7#/ft, N80, LT&C 2,800 2,800 94,360 HIGH 2.68 1.02

10,000 327,900

GAS GRAVITY 0.6 MINIMUM DESIGN FACTORS

BOTTOMHOLE PRESSURE: 9,000 psi COLLAPSE: 1.00

SURFACE PRESSURE: 7,720 psi BURST: 1.00

MUD WEIGHT FOR COLLAPSE: 14.0 ppg TENSION: 1.80

MUD WEIGHT IN ANNULUS 8.34 ppg

The cost of the casing (ignoring joint make-up loss) would be as follows:

Weight Length Cost/ft Cost

39.0#, N80 1000’ 26.32 26,320


33.7#, N80 2600’ 22.74 59,124
29.7#, N80 3600’ 20.04 72,144
33.7#, N80 2800’ 22.74 63,672
Total $221,260

44 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

2. SI Units Design the intermediate casing in Example 10-3 with 193.7 mm casing (7 5/8”).
The collapse and burst pressure lines will remain the same. Calculate the total cost. You only
have the following casing available to choose from.

193.7 mm, 44.20 kg/m, N80, LTC $65.75/m


193.7 mm, 44.20 kg/m, P110, LTC $76.38/m
193.7 mm, 50.15 kg/m, N80, LTC $74.61/m
193.7 mm, 50.15 kg/m, P110, LTC $86.68/m
193.7 mm, 58.04kg/m, N80, LTC $86.35/m
193.7 mm, 58.04kg/m, P110, LTC $100.33/m

Casing setting depth is 3048 meters


Mud weight is 1680 kg/m3
Collapse pressure at 3048 meters is 50,194 kPa
Collapse pressure at the surface is 0 kPa
Burst pressure at 3048 meters is 32,150 kPa
Burst pressure at the surface is 53,228 kPa
Average gas gradient inside casing is 2.90 kPa/m
Fluid on outside of casing for burst is fresh water at 1000 kg/m3
The neutral point for axial tension (buoyancy) is 2408 meters

Solution:

The casing design starts with the collapse at the bottom. From Example 10-3, the collapse
pressure needs to exceed 50,194 kPa. From the Schlumberger tables for 193.7 mm casing,
there are three casings that have a collapse resistance greater than 50,194 kPa. They are the
193.7 mm, 50.15 kg/m, P110, 193.7 mm, 58.04 kg/m, N80 and the 193.7 mm, 58.04 kg/m,
P110. The least expensive casing would be the N80, so start with the 193.7 mm, 58.04 kg/m,
N80, LTC on bottom.

Since the casing is below the neutral point, it does not have to be adjusted for axial tension.
Calculate the design factor for collapse on bottom. The collapse pressure rating is 60,812 kPa.

Adjusted Collapse 60,812


DFc = = = 1.21
Pc 3048 50,194

The collapse resistance is greater than one, so it is OK. To reduce the cost, use the next
lightest casing, which is 193.7 mm, 50.15 kg/m, N80. Calculate the maximum setting depth of
the casing. The collapse resistance from the Schlumberger tables is 45,230 kPa.

Pcx = (0.00981)(MW )(x )

45,230 = (0.00981)(1680 )(x )

x = 2744 m

Since it is below the neutral point of 2408 m, it does not have to be adjusted for axial tension.
Round off the setting depth to 2740 m. Calculate the design factor for collapse.

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 45


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Adjusted Collapse 45,230


DFc = = = 1.00
Pc 2740 (0.00981)(1680 )(2740 )

The next lightest casing is 44.20 kg/m, N80. From the tables, it has a collapse resistance of
33,026 kPa. Calculate the maximum setting depth of the casing.

33,026 = (0.00981)(1680 )(x )

x = 2004 m

46 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 47


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

This is above the neutral point so the collapse resistance must be adjusted for axial tension.
Assume a setting depth of 1970 m and calculate the tension at the bottom of the 44.20 kg/m,
N80.

T1970 = (2408 − 1970)(50.15 kg/m) = 21,966 kg

Calculate the cross sectional area of the 44.20 kg/m pipe with an outside diameter of 193.7 mm
and an inside diameter of 174.6 mm from the Schlumberger tables.

As =
π
4
( 2
× D p − Di
2
)
As =
π
4
( )
× 193.7 2 − 174.6 2 = 5525 mm 2

Calculate the axial stress in the casing at 1970 m.

9810 × T1970 (9810 )(21,966 )


σa = = = 39,001 kPa
As 5525

The adjusted collapse can be interpolated from the following collapse tables (Schlumberger I-
Handbook) for N80 casing. At 34,500 kPa stress, the adjusted collapse is 32,500 kPa. At
68,900 kPa stress, the adjusted collapse is 31,900 kPa. Calculate the adjusted collapse
resistance at 39,001 kPa stress.

⎡ (P − Pc 2 )(σ a1 − σ a ) ⎤
Pc = Pc1 − ⎢ c1 ⎥
⎣ (σ a1 − σ a2 ) ⎦

⎡ (32,500 − 31,900)(34,500 − 39,001) ⎤


Pc = 32,500 − ⎢ ⎥ = 32,421 kpa
⎣ (34,500 − 68,900) ⎦

Calculate the design factor for collapse at 1970 m:

Adjusted Collapse 32,421


DFc = = = 0.9986
Pc 1970 (0.00981)(1680 )(1970 )
Since the design factor is less than one, the casing cannot be set that deep. Try 1960 m:

T1960 = (2408 − 1960)(50.15 kg/m) = 22,467 kg

The cross sectional area of the 44.20 kg/m casing remains at 5525 mm2. Calculate the axial
stress in the casing at 1960 m.

9810 × T1970 (9810 )(22,467 )


σa = = = 39,892 kPa
As 5525

48 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

The adjusted collapse can be interpolated from the Schlumberger Table for N80 casing. At
34,500 kPa stress, the adjusted collapse is 32,500 kPa. At 68,900 kPa stress, the adjusted
collapse is 31,900 kPa. Calculate the adjusted collapse resistance at 39,892 kPa stress.

⎡ (32,500 − 31,900)(34,500 − 39,892) ⎤


Pc = 32,500 − ⎢ ⎥ = 32,406 kpa
⎣ (34,500 − 68,900) ⎦

Calculate the design factor for collapse at 1960 m:

Adjusted Collapse 32,406


DFc = = = 1.00
Pc 1960 (0.00981)(1680 )(1960 )

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 49


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Since the design factor is greater than one, the assumed setting depth is OK. There is no
lighter casing available so switch to burst. From the Schlumberger Tables, the burst of the
193.7 mm, 44.20 kg/m, N80, LTC is 47,505 kPa, which is less than the maximum anticipated
surface pressure.

The 193.7 mm, 44.20 kg/m, N80, LTC cannot be run to the surface. Calculate the minimum
setting depth based on a maximum surface pressure of 53,228 kPa, a gas gradient of 2.90
kPa/m inside casing, and a fresh water gradient outside casing:

( )
Pbx = Pb 0 + Gg (x ) − (0.00981)(MW )(x )

47,505 = 53,228 + (2.90 )(x ) − (0.00981)(1000 )(x )

x = 828 m

Round off deeper to 830 m and check the design factor:

Burst Strength
DFb =
Pb 830

47,505
DFb = = 1.00
53,228 + (2.90 )(830 ) − (0.00981)(1000 )(830 )

Since the design factor is one or greater, the setting depth of 830 m is OK.

Heavier casing will be required at the surface. The next heaviest casing is 50.15 kg/m, N80.
From the Schlumberger Tables, it has a burst rating of 54,469 kPa. Since that exceeds the
maximum anticipated surface pressure, it can be run to the surface. Check the design factor for
burst.

Burst Strength
DFb =
Pb 0

54,469
DFb = = 1.02
53,228

Check the design factor for tension to make sure they are OK. Start with the design factor at
830 m on top of the 193.7 mm, 44.20 kg/m, N80, LTC casing. Calculate the tension at 830 m.

T830 = (2408 − 1960)(50.15) + (1960 − 830)(44.20) = 72,413 kg

From the Schlumberger Tables, the joint strength of the 44.20 kg/m, N80, LTC is 260,816 kg.
Calculate the design factor for tension:

Joint Strength 260,816


DFt = = = 3.60
T830 72,413

50 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Since the design factor for tension exceeds 1.80, it is OK. Calculate the tension at the surface
on top of the 193.7 mm, 50.15 kg/m, N80, LTC casing.

T0 = 72,413 + (830 - 0 )(50.15 ) = 114,038 kg

From the Schlumberger Tables, the joint strength of the 50.15 kg/m, N80, LTC is 305,722 kg.
Calculate the design factor for tension:

Joint Strength 305,722


DFt = = = 2.68
T0 114,038

The design factor for tension exceeds 1.80, so it is OK.

The final casing design would be as follows:

CASING DESIGN DATA SUMMARY

WELL: POOL: STATE: DATE:

DESIGN FACTORS
SECTION CASING DESCRIPTION TOTAL
JOINT
NUMBER SIZE, WT., GRADE, CONN. BOTTOM LENGTH WEIGHT
COLLAPSE STRENGTH BURST

INTERMEDIATE CASING

1 193.7mm, 58.04 kg/m, N80, LT&C 3,048 308 17,876 1.21 HIGH HIGH

2 193.7mm, 50.15 kg/m, N80, LT&C 2,740 780 39,117 1.00 HIGH HIGH

3 193.7mm, 44.20 kg/m, N80, LT&C 1,960 1,130 49,946 1.00 3.60 1.00

4 193.7mm, 50.15 kg/m, N80, LT&C 830 830 41,625 HIGH 2.68 1.02

3,048 148,563

GAS GRAVITY 0.6 MINIMUM DESIGN FACTORS

BOTTOMHOLE PRESSURE: 62,051 kPa COLLAPSE: 1.00

SURFACE PRESSURE: 53,228 kPa BURST: 1.00


3
MUD WEIGHT FOR COLLAPSE: 1680 kg/m TENSION: 1.80
3
MUD WEIGHT IN ANNULUS FOR BURST 1000 kg/m

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 51


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

The cost of the casing (ignoring joint make-up loss) would be as follows:

Weight Length Cost/m Cost

58.04 kg, N80 308 m 86.35 26,596


50.15 kg, N80 780 m 74.61 58,196
44.20 kg, N80 1130 m 65.75 74,298
50.15 kg, N80 830 m 74.61 61,926
3048 m Total $221,016

52 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

3. Design the drill string for a well with the following requirements and drill string.

Drill a 12 1/4 inch (311.2 mm) hole to 10,000 feet (3048 m)


The maximum bit weight will be 65,000 lbs (29,100 daN)
The drill collars are 8 inch OD (203.2 mm) by 2 13/16 inch ID (71.4 mm)
4 1/2 inch (114.3 mm), 16.60#/ft (24.7 kg/m), Grade E, Premium (3.826 inch ID, 97.2
mm ID)
4 1/2 inch (114.3 mm), 16.60#/ft (24.7 kg/m), Grade S-135, Premium (3.826 inch ID,
97.2 mm ID)
Use a 1.10 design factor for collars
Design factor of 1.10 with overpull of 75,000 lbs (33,400 daN) on the drill pipe
Mud weight is 9.5 ppg (1140 kg/m3)

Solution:

First determine the weight per foot of the drill collars based on the OD and ID.

( 2
W f = 2.67 D p − Di
2
) = 2.67(8 2
)
− 2.8125 2 = 150 lbs/ft

Calculate the buoyancy factor.

B = 1 − (0.015 )(ρ m ) = 1 − (0.015 )(9.5 ) = 0.86

Calculate the required length of the drill collars using the 1.10 design factor.

W (DF ) (65,000 )(1.10 )


Lc = = = 554 feet
Wf B (150 )(0.86 )
Calculate the number of drill collars required and the weight of the drill collars in drilling fluid.

Number or collars = 554/30 = 18.5 drill collars so use 19 collars

Wtc = 19 × 30 × 150 × 0.86 = 73,530 pounds

Get the tensile strength of the drill pipe from API RP7G.

The 4 1/2 inch, 16.60#/ft, Grade E drill pipe has a tensile rating of 260,165 pounds for Premium
Used drill pipe.

The 4 1/2 inch, 16.60#/ft, Grade S drill pipe has a tensile rating of 468,297 pounds for Premium
Used drill pipe

The maximum pull on the Grade E with the 1.10 design factor would be:

Tst 260,165
Pmax = = = 236,513 pounds
DF 1.10

The maximum weight of the Grade E that can be used with 75,000 pounds over pull is:

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 53


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Wmax = Pmax − Wtc − Over Pull = 236,513 - 73,530 - 75,000 = 87,983 pounds

The maximum length of Grade E drill pipe that can be used is:

Wmax 87,983
Lmax = = = 5300 feet
Wf 16.60

The maximum pull on the Grade S with the 1.10 design factor would be:

54 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Tst 468,297
Pmax = = = 425,725 pounds
DF 1.10

The maximum weight of Grade S that can be used with 75,000 pounds over pull is:

W max = Pmax − W tc − Over Pull − W max (Grade E ) = 425,725 - 73,530 - 75,000 - 87,983 = 189,212 pounds

The maximum length of Grade S drill pipe that can be used is:

W max 189,212
Lmax = = = 11,398 feet
Wf 16.60

The drill string would consist of the following:

570 feet of 8 inch drill collars (19),

5300 feet of 4 1/2 inch, 16.60#/ft, Grade E drill pipe and

4130 feet of 4 1/2 inch, 16.60#/ft, Grade S drill pipe

3. SI Units Design the drill string for a well with the following requirements and drill string.

Drill a 12 1/4 inch (311.2 mm) hole to 10,000 feet (3048 m)


The maximum bit weight will be 65,000 lbs (29,100 daN)
The drill collars are 8 inch OD (203.2 mm) by 2 13/16 inch ID (71.4 mm)
4 1/2 inch (114.3 mm), 16.60#/ft (24.7 kg/m), Grade E, Premium (3.826 inch ID, 97.2
mm ID)
4 1/2 inch (114.3 mm), 16.60#/ft (24.7 kg/m), Grade S-135, Premium (3.826 inch ID,
97.2 mm ID)
Use a 1.10 design factor for collars
Design factor of 1.10 with overpull of 75,000 lbs (33,400 daN) on the drill pipe
Mud weight is 9.5 ppg (1140 kg/m3)

Solution:

First determine the weight per foot of the drill collars based on the OD and ID.

(
Wf = 0.00615 D p − Di
2 2
) = 0.00615(203,2 2
)
− 71.4 2 = 223 kg/m

Calculate the buoyancy factor.

ρm 1140
B = 1− = 1− = 0.85
7850 7850

Calculate the required length of the drill collars using the 1.10 design factor.

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 55


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

W (DF ) (28,900 / 0.981)(1.10 )


Lc = = = 171 m
Wf B (223 )(0.85 )
Calculate the number of drill collars required and the weight of the drill collars in drilling fluid.

Number or collars = 171/9.2 = 18.6 drill collars so use 19 collars

Wtc = 19 × 9.2 × 223 × 0.86 = 33,133 kg

Get the tensile strength of the drill pipe from Schlumberger I-Handbook.

The 114.3 mm, 24.7 kg/m, Grade E drill pipe has a tensile rating of 118,009 kg for Premium
Used drill pipe.

The 114.3 mm, 24.7 kg/m, Grade S drill pipe has a tensile rating of 212,416 kg for Premium
Used drill pipe

The maximum pull on the Grade E with the 1.10 design factor would be:

Tst 118,009
Pmax = = = 107,281 kg
DF 1.10

The maximum weight of the Grade E that can be used with 33,400 daN over pull is:

56 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Wmax = Pmax − Wtc − Over Pull = 107,281 - 33,133 - (33,400/0.981) = 40,101 kg

The maximum length of Grade E drill pipe that can be used is:

Wmax 40,101
Lmax = = = 1624 m
Wf 24.7

The maximum pull on the Grade S with the 1.10 design factor would be:

Tst 212,416
Pmax = = = 193,105 kg
DF 1.10

The maximum weight of Grade S that can be used with 75,000 pounds over pull is:

Wmax = Pmax − Wtc − Over Pull − Wmax (Grade E ) = 193,105 - 33,133 - (33,400/0.981) - 40,101 = 85,864 kg

The maximum length of Grade S drill pipe that can be used is:

Wmax 85,864
Lmax = = = 3476 m
Wf 24.7

The drill string would consist of the following:

175 m of 203.3 mm drill collars (19),

1624 m of 114.3 mm, 24.7 kg/m, Grade E drill pipe and

1249 m of 114.3 mm, 24.7 kg/m, Grade S drill pipe

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Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

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58 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Chapter 12
1. Given the following two surveys, calculate the ΔTVD , ΔN and the ΔE using the
average angle method and the radius of curvature method.

MD1 = 100 feet MD2 = 200 feet


I1 = 1.00º I2 = 1.01º
A1 = 0º A2 = 180º

Solution:

Calculate using the average angle method.

⎛I +I ⎞ ⎛ 1 + 1.01 ⎞
ΔTVD = ΔMD × cos⎜ 1 2 ⎟ = (200 − 100 ) × cos⎜ ⎟ = 99.98 feet
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠

⎛I +I ⎞ ⎛ A + A2 ⎞ ⎛ 1 + 1.01 ⎞ ⎛ 0 + 180 ⎞
ΔN = ΔMD × sin⎜ 1 2 ⎟ × cos⎜ 1 ⎟ = (200 − 100 ) × sin⎜ ⎟ × cos⎜ ⎟ = 0.00 feet
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠

⎛I +I ⎞ ⎛ A + A2 ⎞ ⎛ 1 + 1.01 ⎞ ⎛ 0 + 180 ⎞
ΔE = ΔMD × sin⎜ 1 2 ⎟ × sin⎜ 1 ⎟ = (200 − 100 ) × sin⎜ ⎟ × sin⎜ ⎟ = 1.75 feet
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠

Calculate using the radius of curvature method.

ΔTVD =
(180 )(ΔMD )(sin I 2 − sin I1 ) = (180 )(200 − 100 )[sin(1.01) − sin(1)] = 99.98 feet
π (I 2 − I1 ) π (1.01 − 1)

ΔN =
(180 )2 (ΔMD )(cos I1 − cos I 2 )(sin A2 − sin A1 )
π 2 (I 2 − I1 )(A2 − A1 )

ΔN =
(180 )2 (200 − 100 )[cos(1) − cos(1.01)][sin(180 ) − sin(0 )] = 0.00 feet
π 2 (1.01 − 1)(180 − 0 )

180 2 (ΔMD)(cos I1 − cos I 2 )(cos A1 − cos A2 )


ΔE =
π 2 (I 2 − I1 )(A2 − A1 )

ΔE =
(180 )2 (200 − 100 )[cos(1) − cos(1.01)][cos(0 ) − cos(180 )] = 1.12 feet
π 2 (1.01 − 1)(180 − 0 )

Calculate using the minimum curvature method.

D1 = cos(I 2 − I1 ) − {sin I 2 × sin I1 × [1 − cos(A2 − A1 )]}

D1 = cos(0.0176 − 0.0175 ) − {sin(0.0176 ) × sin(0.0175) × [1 − cos(3.1416 − 0.000 )]} = 0.9994

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 59


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞
D2 = tan −1 ⎜⎜ 2 ⎟ − 1 = tan −1 ⎜ ⎟ − 1 = 0.0351
⎟ ⎜ (0.9994 )2 ⎟
⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎝ ⎠

2 ⎛D ⎞ 2 ⎛ 0.0351 ⎞
Fc = × tan⎜ 2 ⎟ = × Tan ⎜ ⎟ = 1.000103
D2 ⎝ 2 ⎠ 0.0351 ⎝ 2 ⎠

⎛ ΔMD ⎞ ⎛ 200 − 100 ⎞


ΔTVD = ⎜ ⎟(cos I 1 + cos I 2 )(Fc ) = ⎜ ⎟(cos (0.0175 ) + cos (0.0176 ))(1.000103 ) = 99.99 feet
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠

⎛ ΔMD ⎞
ΔN = ⎜ ⎟[(sin I 2 × cos A2 ) + (sin I1 × cos A1 )](Fc )
⎝ 2 ⎠

⎛ 200 − 100 ⎞
ΔN = ⎜ ⎟[(sin (0.0176 ) × cos (3.1416 )) + (sin (0.0175 ) × cos(0.000 ))](1.000103 ) = −0.01 feet
⎝ 2 ⎠

⎛ ΔMD ⎞
ΔE = ⎜ ⎟[(sin I 2 × sin A2 ) + (sin I1 × sin A1 )](Fc )
⎝ 2 ⎠

⎛ 200 − 100 ⎞
ΔE = ⎜ ⎟[(sin (0.0176 ) × sin (3.1416 )) + (sin(0.0175 ) × sin (0.000 ))](1.000103 ) = 0.00 feet
⎝ 2 ⎠

Results:

Method ΔTVD ΔN ΔE
Average Angle 99.98 0.00 1.75
Radius of Curvature 99.98 0.00 1.12
Minimum Curvature 99.99 -0.01 0.00

The difference between the methods is how they handle changes in azimuth at low inclinations.
The average angle method assumes the inclination remained between 1 and 1.01 degrees at an
azimuth of 90° [(0+180)/2], which it did not. The radius of curvature method also assumes that
the inclination remained between 1 and 1.01 degrees, but the wellbore started out going north
while curving to the right. By the lower survey, the direction is south. The minimum curvature
says that the wellbore direction was north at the upper survey and that the inclination dropped to
zero degrees and then built back up to 1.01 degrees to the south by the lower survey. That is
why there is no displacement in the horizontal plane.

It is assumed that the minimum curvature method is probably the most correct.

60 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

2. Calculate the dogleg severity for the following surveys.

MD1 = 100 feet MD2 = 200 feet


I1 = 1.00º I2 = 1.01º
A1 = 0º A2 = 180º

Solution:

The dogleg severity can be calculated with Equations 12-16 through 12-18.

100
DLS = cos−1{(sinI1 × sinI2 )[(sin A1 × sin A2 ) + (cos A1 × cos A2 )] + (cosI1 × cosI2 )}
ΔMD

⎛ 100 ⎞
DLS = ⎜ ⎟ cos −1 {(sin (1) × sin (1.01))[(sin (0 ) × sin (180 )) + (cos (0 ) × cos (180 ))] + (cos (1) × cos (1.01))}
⎝ 200 − 100 ⎠

DLS = 2.01o /100 feet

2 2
⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎛ I − I1 ⎞⎤
DLS =
( 2 )( 100 )
sin −1
(sin I 1 )(sin I 2 )⎢ sin ⎛⎜ A 2 − A 1 ⎞⎟ ⎥ + ⎢ sin ⎜ 2 ⎟⎥
Δ MD ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠⎦ ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠⎦

(2)(100 )
2 2

DLS = sin −1 (sin (1))(sin (1.01))⎡⎢sin⎛⎜ 180 − 0 ⎞⎟⎤⎥ ⎡ ⎛ 1.01 − 1 ⎞⎤


+ ⎢sin⎜ ⎟⎥ = 2.01 /100 feet
o
(200 − 100 ) ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠⎦ ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠⎦

2
100 ⎡ ⎛ I + I1 ⎞ ⎤
DLS = (I 2 − I1 ) 2
+ ⎢ sin ⎜ 2 ⎟ (A 2 − A 1 )⎥
Δ MD ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎦

DLS =
100
(1.01 − 1) + ⎡⎢sin⎛⎜ 1.01 + 1⎞⎟(180 − 0)⎤⎥ = 3.16 o /100 feet
2

100 ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎦

Equation 12-16 and 12-17 calculates the dogleg severity based upon the minimum curvature
where the inclination drops to zero and the builds back up to 1.01 degrees in 100 feet. Equation
12-18 calculates the dogleg severity as if the inclination remains between 1 and 1.01 degrees
and the wellbore turns 180 degrees. This is the same as the radius of curvature equations.

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 61


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

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62 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

3. Given the following two surveys, calculate the ΔTVD, ΔN and the ΔE using the average
angle method and the radius of curvature method.

MD1 = 100 m MD2 = 130 m


I1 = 1.00º I2 = 1.01º
A1 = 0º A2 = 180º

Solution:

Calculate using the average angle method.

⎛I +I ⎞ ⎛ 1 + 1.01 ⎞
ΔTVD = ΔMD × cos⎜ 1 2 ⎟ = (130 − 100 ) × cos⎜ ⎟ = 30.00 m
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠

⎛I +I ⎞ ⎛ A + A2 ⎞ ⎛ 1 + 1.01 ⎞ ⎛ 0 + 180 ⎞
ΔN = ΔMD × sin⎜ 1 2 ⎟ × cos⎜ 1 ⎟ = (130 − 100 ) × sin⎜ ⎟ × cos⎜ ⎟ = 0.00 m
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠

⎛I +I ⎞ ⎛ A + A2 ⎞ ⎛ 1 + 1.01 ⎞ ⎛ 1 + 180 ⎞
ΔE = ΔMD × sin⎜ 1 2 ⎟ × sin⎜ 1 ⎟ = (130 − 100 ) × sin⎜ ⎟ × cos⎜ ⎟ = 0.53 m
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠

Calculate using the radius of curvature method.

ΔTVD =
(180 )(ΔMD )(sin I 2 − sin I1 ) = (180 )(200 − 100 )[sin(1.01) − sin(1)] = 30.00 m
π (I 2 − I1 ) π (1.10 − 1)

ΔN =
(180 )2 (ΔMD )(cos I1 − cos I 2 )(sin A2 − sin A1 )
π 2 (I 2 − I1 )(A2 − A1 )

ΔN =
(180 )2 (130 − 100 )[cos(1) − cos(1.01)][sin(180 ) − sin(0)] = 0.00 m
π 2 (1.01 − 1)(180 − 0 )

180 2 (ΔMD)(cos I1 − cos I 2 )(cos A1 − cos A2 )


ΔE =
π 2 (I 2 − I1 )(A2 − A1 )

(180 ) (130 − 100 )[cos(1) − cos(1.01)][cos(0 ) − cos(180 )]


2
ΔE = = 0.33 m
π 2 (1.01 − 1)(180 − 0 )

Calculate using the minimum curvature method.

D1 = cos(I 2 − I1 ) − {sin I 2 × sin I1 × [1 − cos(A2 − A1 )]}

D1 = cos(0.0176 − 0.0175 ) − {sin(0.0176 ) × sin(0.0175) × [1 − cos(3.1416 − 0.000 )]} = 0.9994

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 63


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞
D2 = tan −1 ⎜⎜ 2 ⎟ − 1 = tan −1 ⎜ ⎟ − 1 = 0.0351
⎟ ⎜ (0.9994 )2 ⎟
⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎝ ⎠

2 ⎛D ⎞ 2 ⎛ 0.0351 ⎞
Fc = × tan⎜ 2 ⎟ = × Tan ⎜ ⎟ = 1.000103
D2 ⎝ 2 ⎠ 0.0351 ⎝ 2 ⎠

⎛ ΔMD ⎞ ⎛ 200 − 100 ⎞


ΔTVD = ⎜ ⎟(cos I 1 + cos I 2 )(Fc ) = ⎜ ⎟(cos (0.0175 ) + cos (0.0176 ))(1.000103 ) = 30.00 m
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠

⎛ ΔMD ⎞
ΔN = ⎜ ⎟[(sin I 2 × cos A2 ) + (sin I1 × cos A1 )](Fc )
⎝ 2 ⎠

⎛ 200 − 100 ⎞
ΔN = ⎜ ⎟[(sin (0.0176 ) × cos (3.1416 )) + (sin (0.0175 ) × cos(0.000 ))](1.000103 ) = 0.00 m
⎝ 2 ⎠

⎛ ΔMD ⎞
ΔE = ⎜ ⎟[(sin I 2 × sin A2 ) + (sin I1 × sin A1 )](Fc )
⎝ 2 ⎠

⎛ 200 − 100 ⎞
ΔE = ⎜ ⎟[(sin (0.0176 ) × sin (3.1416 )) + (sin(0.0175 ) × sin (0.000 ))](1.000103 ) = 0.00 m
⎝ 2 ⎠

Results:

Method ΔTVD ΔN ΔE
Average Angle 30.00 0.00 0.53
Radius of Curvature 30.00 0.00 0.33
Minimum Curvature 30.00 0.00 0.00

The difference between the methods is how they handle changes in azimuth at low inclinations.
The average angle method assumes the inclination remained between 1 and 1.01 degrees at an
azimuth of 90° [(0+180)/2], which it did not. The radius of curvature method also assumes that
the inclination remained between 1 and 1.01 degrees, but the wellbore started out going north
while curving to the right. By the lower survey, the direction is south. The minimum curvature
says that the wellbore direction was north at the upper survey and that the inclination dropped to
zero degrees and then built back up to 1.01 degrees to the south by the lower survey. That is
why there is no displacement in the horizontal plane.

It is assumed that the minimum curvature method is probably the most correct.

64 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

4. Calculate the dogleg severity for the following surveys.

MD1 = 100 m MD2 = 130 m


I1 = 1.00º I2 = 1.01º
A1 = 0º A2 = 180º
Solution:

The dogleg severity can be calculated with Equations 12-16 through 12-18.

30
DLS = cos−1{(sinI1 × sinI 2 )[(sinA1 × sinA2 ) + (cosA1 × cosA2 )] + (cosI1 × cosI 2 )}
ΔMD

30
DLS = cos−1{(sin(1) × sin(1.01))[(sin(0) × sin(180)) + (cos(0) × cos(180))] + (cos(1) × cos(1.01))}
(130 − 100)

DLS = 2.01o /30 m

2 2
− A1 ⎞ ⎤ ⎡ ⎛ I − I1 ⎞ ⎤
DLS =
( 2 )( 30 )
sin −1 (sin I 1 )(sin I 2 )⎡⎢ sin ⎛⎜ A 2 ⎟⎥ + ⎢ sin ⎜ 2 ⎟⎥
Δ MD ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠⎦ ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠⎦

(2)(30)
2 2

DLS = sin −1
(sin(1))(sin(1.01))⎡⎢sin⎛⎜ 180 − 0 ⎞⎟⎤⎥ + ⎡⎢sin⎛⎜ 1.01 − 1⎞⎟⎤⎥ = 2.01o /30 m
(130 − 100) ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠⎦ ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠⎦

2
30 ⎡ ⎛ I + I1 ⎞ ⎤
DLS = (I 2 − I1 )
2
+ ⎢ sin ⎜ 2 ⎟ (A 2 − A 1 )⎥
Δ MD ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎦

DLS =
30
(1.01 − 1) + ⎡⎢sin⎛⎜ 1.01 + 1⎞⎟(180 − 0)⎤⎥ = 3.16o /30 m
2

(130 − 100) ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎦

Equation 12-16 and 12-17 calculates the dogleg severity based upon the minimum curvature
where the inclination drops to zero and the builds back up to 1.01 degrees in 100 feet. Equation
12-18 calculates the dogleg severity as if the inclination remains between 1 and 1.01 degrees
and the wellbore turns 180 degrees. This is the same as the radius of curvature equations.

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 65


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

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66 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Chapter 14
1. The following well has taken a kick and has been shut in. Calculate the density of the kill
mud and the initial circulating pressure. Calculate the final circulating pressure and the drill pipe
pressure schedule (Wait and Weight Method).

Depth (TVD and MD) = 8000 ft


Mud Wt = 10.4 ppg
SIDPP, Pdp = 300 psi
SICP, Pa = 450 psi
Slow (reduced) pump pressure = 850 psi
Slow (reduced) pump rate = 170 gpm
Pump output = 3.3 gal/stroke (0.0786 bbls/stk)
Drill pipe = 4 ½” OD by 3.826” ID (0.0142 bbls/ft)
Drill collars = 6 ¼” OD by 2 ¾” ID, 463 feet (0.00735 bbls/ft)
Hole size = 8 ¾”

Solution:

Calculate the bottomhole pressure.

Pb = ρ m D + Pdp = (0.052 )(10.4 )(8000 ) + 300 = 4626 psi

Calculate the density of the kill mud based on the bottomhole pressure.

Pb 4626
ρ m1 = = = 11.12 or 11.2 ppg
D(0.052 ) (8000 )(0.052)

The mud weight should always be rounded up since rounding down will not kill the well.

Determine the initial circulating pressure.

ICP = Pc + Pdp = 850 + 300 = 1150 psi

Determine the capacity of the drill pipe in bbls/ft.

2
Di 3.826 2
Cdp = = = 0.0142 bbls/ft
1029 .4 1029 .4

Determine the capacity of the drill collars in bbls/ft.

2
Di 2.75 2
Cdc = = = 0.00735 bbls/ft
1029 .4 1029 .4

Calculate the capacity of the drill string in bbls.

Cds = Cdp l + Cdc l = (0.0142)(8000 − 463 ) + (0.00735 )(463 ) = 110.43 bbls

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 67


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Calculate the strokes to the bit.

Cds 110.43
STB = = = 1405 strokes
bbls / stk 0.0786

Calculate the final circulating pressure.

ρ m1 ⎛ 11.2 ⎞
FCP = (Pc ) = (850 )⎜ ⎟ = 915 psi
ρm ⎝ 10.4 ⎠

Determine the reduction in drill pipe pressure per 200 strokes.

psi ICP − FCP 1150 − 915


= × 200 = × 200 = 33 psi
200 strokes STB 1408

Construct the drill pipe pressure schedule.

STROKES PRESSURE
0 1150
200 1117
400 1084
600 1051
800 1018
1000 985
1200 952
1405 915

2. The following well has taken a kick and has been shut in. Calculate the density of the kill
mud and the initial circulating pressure. Calculate the final circulating pressure and the drill pipe
pressure schedule (Wait and Weight Method).

Depth (TVD and MD) = 2440 m


Mud Wt = 1250 kg/m3
SIDPP, Pdp = 2100 kPa
SICP, Pa = 3100 kPa
Slow (reduced) pump pressure = 5900 kPa
Slow (reduced) pump rate = 50 spm
Pump output = 12.5 liters/stroke
Drill pipe = 114.3 mm OD by 97.2 mm ID (0.00742 m3/m)
Drill collars = 158.8 mm OD by 69.9 mm ID, 141.1 m (0.00384 m3/m)
Hole size = 222.3 mm

68 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

Solution:

Calculate the bottomhole pressure.

Pb = ρ m D + Pdp = (0.00981)(1250 )(2440 ) + 2100 = 32,021 kPa

Calculate the density of the kill mud based on the bottomhole pressure.

Pb 32,021
ρ m1 = = = 1338 or 1340 kg/m 3
D (0.00981) (2440 )(0.00981)

The mud weight should always be rounded up since rounding down will not kill the well.

Determine the initial circulating pressure.

ICP = Pc + Pdp = 5900 + 2100 = 8000 kPa

Determine the capacity of the drill pipe in m3/m.

πDi 2 π (97.2)2
Cdp = = = 0.00742 m 3 / m
(
= (4 ) 1000 2
) (4)(1000 2
)
Determine the capacity of the drill collars in m3/m.

πDi 2 π (69.9 )2
Cdc = = = 0.00384 m 3 / m
(
= (4 ) 1000 2
) (4)(1000 2
)
Calculate the capacity of the drill string in m3.

Cds = Cdp l + Cdc l = (0.00742 )(2440 − 141.1) + (0.00384 )(141.1) = 17.60 m 3

Calculate the strokes to the bit.

Cds 17.60
STB = 3
= = 1408 strokes
m / stk 0.0125

Calculate the final circulating pressure.

ρ m1 ⎛ 1340 ⎞
FCP = (Pc ) = (5900 )⎜ ⎟ = 6330 kPa
ρm ⎝ 1250 ⎠

Determine the reduction in drill pipe pressure per 200 strokes.

kPa ICP − FCP 8000 − 6330


= × 200 = × 200 = 237 kPa
200 strokes STB 1408

Construct the drill pipe pressure schedule.

Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved. 69


Drilling Practices
Solutions To Chapter Problems

STROKES PRESSURE
0 8000
200 7763
400 7526
600 7289
800 7052
1000 6815
1200 6578
1405 6330

70 Copyright © 2008 OGCI/PetroSkills. All rights reserved

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