Professional Documents
Culture Documents
CHAPTER 2
1. Calculate the cost per foot for each method used to drill the same interval.
Insert bits
Number or bits = 2
Cost per bit = $10,000
Cost of rig = $1250/hr
Rotating hours = 180
Total time for two trips = 21 hrs
Footage = 4500 feet
Average penetration rate = 25.00 feet per hour
Number or bits = 1
Cost per bit = $50,000
Cost of rig = $1250/hr
Cost of motor = $300/hr included in drilling and trip time
Rotating hours = 135
Trip time = 12 hrs
Footage = 4500 feet
Average penetration rate = 33.33 feet per hour
Solution:
C B + C r (t + T )
CT =
F
Calculate the cost per foot with the PDC bit and motor.
C B + C r (t + T )
CT =
F
The two insert bits yields the lowest cost per foot but not by much. With a motor, you will have
to assume that sometimes motors fail and then an extra trip will be required to change out the
motor.
Usually, motors are charged by circulating hours and the cost would not be included in trip time.
The cost per foot can also be calculated without including the motor costs in the trip time.
The cost per foot does not change substantially. In order for the PDC bit to be more cost
effective, the PDC bit would have to drill faster. The insert bits averaged 25 feet per hour and
the PDC averaged 33.3 feet per hour. Typically, the increase in penetration rate with a PDC bit
will be better than the 30% in this illustration.
The hourly drilling cost also has a significant impact on the economics. Calculate the cost per
foot if the rig cost increases to $2000 per hour.
C B + C r (t + T )
CT =
F
Calculate the cost per foot with the PDC bit and motor.
C B + C r (t + T )
CT =
F
At the higher operating expense, the PDC bit is more economical. As the daily drilling cost
increases, more can be spent to make it drill faster with less improvement in penetration rate.
2. Calculate the cost per meter for each method used to drill the same interval.
Insert bits.
Insert bits
Number or bits = 2
Cost per bit = $10,000
Cost of rig = $1250/hr
Rotating hours = 180
Total time for two trips = 21 hrs
Footage = 1372 m
Average penetration rate = 7.62 meters per hour
Number or bits = 1
Cost per bit = $50,000
Cost of rig = $1250/hr
Cost of motor = $300/hr included in drilling and trip time
Rotating hours = 135
Trip time = 12 hrs
Footage = 1372 m
Average penetration rate = 10.16 meters per hour
Solution:
C B + C r (t + T )
CT =
F
Calculate the cost per meter with the PDC bit and motor.
C B + C r (t + T )
CT =
F
The two insert bits yields the lowest cost per meter but not by much. With a motor, you will
have to assume that sometimes motors fail and then an extra trip will be required to change out
the motor.
Usually, motors are charged by circulating hours and the cost would not be included in trip time.
The cost per meter can also be calculated without including the motor costs in the trip time.
The cost per meter does not change substantially. In order for the PDC bit to be more cost
effective, the PDC bit would have to drill faster. The insert bits averaged 7.62 meters per hour
and the PDC averaged 10.16 meters per hour. Typically, the increase in penetration rate with a
PDC bit will be better than the 30% in this illustration.
The hourly drilling cost also has a significant impact on the economics. Calculate the cost per
meter if the rig cost increases to $2000 per hour.
C B + C r (t + T )
CT =
F
Calculate the cost per meter with the PDC bit and motor.
C B + C r (t + T )
CT =
F
At the higher operating expense, the PDC bit is more economical. As the daily drilling cost
increases, more can be spent to make it drill faster with less improvement in penetration rate.
CHAPTER 4
80
70
60
Plastic Viscosity, cp
50
40
30
20
10
0
1000 1200 1400 1600 1800 2000 2200 2400
Mud Weight, kg/cu m
80
70
60
50
Plastic Viscosity, cp
40
30
20
10
0
8 10 12 14 16 18 20
Mud Weight, ppg
CHAPTER 5
1. Given the following information about a well, calculate the slip velocity of both the 1.0
inch and the 0.5 inch diameter particle.
Solution:
⎛θ ⎞ ⎛ 22 ⎞
n = 3.32 log⎜⎜ 2 ⎟⎟ = 3.32 log⎜ ⎟ = 0.3718
⎝ θ1 ⎠ ⎝ 17 ⎠
⎛ dv ⎞
⎜ ⎟ = 1.703W = (1.703 )(50 ) = 85
⎝ dr ⎠
Calculate k
θi 17
k= n
= = 3.2597
⎛ dv ⎞ 85 0.3718
⎜⎜ ⎟⎟
⎝ dr i ⎠
v =
24.5Q
=
(24.5 )(275 )
2
Dh − D p
2
(8.75 2
− 4 .5 2 ) = 119.6 ft/min
Calculate the viscosity at an annular velocity of 119.6 ft/min
⎡⎛ 2.4ν
n
⎞⎛ 2n + 1⎞⎤ 200k Dh − D p ( )
μ e = ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎥
⎢⎣⎜⎝ Dh − D p ⎟⎝ 3n ⎟⎠⎥ v
⎠ ⎦
μ e = ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥
⎣⎝ 8.75 − 4.5 ⎠⎝ (3 )(0.3718 ) ⎠⎦ 119.6
Calculate the slip velocity of the 0.5 inch diameter particle assuming Equation 5-6 is correct
0.71
⎡ d p1.6 (ρP − ρf ) ⎤
Vs = 346.6 ⎢ ⎥
⎢⎣ μe 0.6 ρf 0.4 ⎥⎦
0.71
⎡ (0.5)1.6 (21 − 9.8) ⎤
Vs = 346.6⎢ 0.4 ⎥
= 57 fpm
⎣⎢ (131) (9.8) ⎦⎥
0.6
Calculate the slip velocity of the 1.0 inch diameter particle assuming Equation 5-6 is correct
0.71
⎡ (1.0)1.6 (21 − 9.8) ⎤
Vs = 346.6⎢ 0.4 ⎥
= 126 fpm
⎢⎣ (131) (9.8) ⎥⎦
0.6
To make sure that Equation 5-6 is the correct equation, check the particle Reynold’s Number
15.46d p ρ f Vs
Rp =
μe
Since the Reynold’s Number is between 1 and 500, Equation 5-6 is correct
The annular velocity is 119.6 fpm, so the 0.5 inch diameter particle will come out of the hole, but
the 1.0 inch diameter particle will not. It will stay in the hole until it is broken into smaller pieces
and then it will come out of the hole.
What would happen if the hole was washed out to 12 1/4 inches? Would either particle come
out of the hole?
v =
24.5Q
=
(24.5 )(275 )
2
Dh − D p
2
(12.25 2
− 4.5 2 ) = 52 ft/min
Since the annular velocity has changed, the viscosity will also change (In laminar flow, the
viscosity of the mud is a function of the shear rate or annular velocity.)
μ e = ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥
⎣⎝ 12.25 − 4.5 ⎠⎝ (3 )(0.3718 ) ⎠⎦ 52
0.71
⎡ (0.5)1.6 (21 − 9.8) ⎤
Vs = 346.6⎢ 0.4 ⎥
= 39 fpm
⎣⎢ (322) (9.8) ⎦⎥
0.6
0.71
⎡ (1.0)1.6 (21 − 9.8) ⎤
Vs = 346.6⎢ 0.4 ⎥
= 86 fpm
⎣⎢ (322) (9.8) ⎦⎥
0.6
Calculate the Reynold’s Number to make sure that Equation 5-6 is used to calculate slip velocity
The 0.5” diameter particle will still come out of the hole but the 1” diameter particle will not.
SI Solution:
⎛θ ⎞ ⎛ 22 ⎞
n = 3.32 log⎜⎜ 2 ⎟⎟ = 3.32 log⎜ ⎟ = 0.3718
⎝ θ1 ⎠ ⎝ 17 ⎠
⎛ dv ⎞
⎜ ⎟ = 1.703W = (1.703 )(50 ) = 85
⎝ dr ⎠
Calculate k
⎡ ⎤
⎢ ⎥
⎢ θi ⎥ ⎡ 17 ⎤
k=⎢ n ⎥
× 0.479 = ⎢ 0.3718 ⎥ × 0.479 = 1.5614
⎢ ⎛⎜ dv ⎞⎟ ⎥ ⎣ 85 ⎦
⎢ ⎜ dr ⎟ ⎥
⎣⎝ i ⎠ ⎦
v =
(1.273 × 10 )Q = (1.273 × 10 )(1.041) = 36.5 m/min
6 6
D −D
h
2
p
2
(222.3 − 114.3 )
2 2
⎞⎛ 2n + 1 ⎞⎤ 5k (Dh − Dp )
n
⎡⎛ 200ν
μ e = ⎢⎜⎜ ⎟⎜
⎟⎝ 3n ⎟⎠⎥⎥
⎢⎣⎝ Dh − Dp ⎠ ⎦ v
μ e = ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥
⎣⎝ 222 .3 − 114 .3 ⎠⎝ (3 )(0.3718 ) ⎠⎦ 36.5
Calculate the slip velocity of the 13 mm diameter particle assuming Equation 5-14 is correct
0.71
⎡ d p 1 .6 ( ρ P − ρ f ) ⎤
Vs = 0.349 ⎢ 0.6 0 .4
⎥
⎢⎣ μ e ρ f ⎥⎦
0.71
⎡ (13)1.6 (2500 − 1170) ⎤
Vs = 0.349⎢ ⎥ = 17.9 m/min
⎢⎣ (131) (1170)
0.6 0.4
⎥⎦
Calculate the slip velocity of the 25 mm diameter particle assuming Equation 5-14 is correct
0.71
⎡ (25)1.6 (2500 − 1170) ⎤
Vs = 0.349⎢ ⎥ = 37.7 m/min
⎣⎢ (131) (1170)
0.6 0.4
⎦⎥
To make sure that Equation 5-14 is the correct equation, check the particle Reynold’s Number
d p ρ f Vs
Rp =
60μe
Rp =
(13 )(1170 )(17.9 ) = 35
(60 )(131)
Rp =
(25 )(1170 )(37.7 ) = 140
(60 )(131)
Since the Reynold’s Number is between 1 and 500, Equation 5-14 is correct
The annular velocity is 36.4 m/min, so the 13 mm diameter particle will come out of the hole, but
the 25 mm diameter particle will not. It will stay in the hole until it is broken into smaller pieces
and then it will come out of the hole.
What would happen if the hole was washed out to 311.2 mm? Would either particle come out of
the hole?
v =
(1.273 × 10 )Q = (1.273 × 10 )(1.041) = 15.8 m/min
6 6
D −D
h
2
p
(311.2 − 114.3 )
2 2 2
Since the annular velocity has changed, the viscosity will also change (In laminar flow, the
viscosity of the mud is a function of the shear rate or annular velocity.)
μ e = ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎥
⎣⎝ 311.2 − 114.3 ⎠⎝ (3 )(0.3718 ) ⎠⎦ 15.8
0.71
⎡ (13)1.6 (2500 − 1170) ⎤
Vs = 0.349⎢ ⎥ = 12.2 m/min
⎢⎣ (322) (1170)
0.6 0.4
⎥⎦
0.71
⎡ (25)1.6 (2500 − 1170) ⎤
Vs = 0.349⎢ ⎥ = 25.6 m/min
⎣⎢ (322) (1170)
0.6 0.4
⎦⎥
Calculate the Reynold’s Number to make sure that Equation 5-14 is used to calculate slip
velocity
Rp =
(13 )(1170 )(12.2) = 10
(60 )(322 )
Rp =
(25 )(1170 )(25.6 ) = 39
(60 )(322 )
The 13 mm diameter particle will still come out of the hole but the 25 mm diameter particle will
not.
Solution:
v =
24.5Q
=
(24.5 )(275 )
2
Dh − D p
2
(8.75 2
− 4 .5 2 ) = 119.6 ft/min
Calculate n and K
⎛ 2PV + YP ⎞ ⎧ (2)(14 ) + 12 ⎫
n = 3.32 log⎜ ⎟ = 3.32 log⎨ ⎬ = 0.6211
⎝ PV + YP ⎠ ⎩ 14 + 12 ⎭
CCI =
ρ f Kv
=
(9.8)(276 )(119.6) = 0.81
400,000 400,000
The carrying capacity may be slightly low and the mud viscosity or annular velocity may have to
be increased.
The problem can also be solved using the chart in Figure 5-6.
Enter the chart at 12 lbf/100 ft2 and proceeding vertically to a viscosity of 14 cp. Read the K
viscosity on the left to be about 275 cp.
CCI =
ρ f Kv
=
(9.8)(275 )(119.6) = 0.81
400,000 400,000
2000
PV
1800 5 cp
10 cp
15 cp
1600 20 cp
25 cp
1400 30 cp
35 cp
40 cp
K Viscosity, equivalent cp
1200
1000
800
600
400
275
200
0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40
SI Solution:
v =
(1.273 × 10 )Q = (1.273 × 10 )(1.041) = 36.4 m/min
6 6
D −D h
2
(222.3 − 114.3 )
p
2 2 2
Calculate n and K
⎛ YP ⎞ (1−0.6111) ⎛ 6 ⎞
K = 511(1−n ) ⎜ PV + ⎟ = 511 ⎜14 + ⎟ = 300 cp
⎝ 0.479 ⎠ ⎝ 0.479 ⎠
CCI =
ρ f Kv
=
(1170 )(300 )(36.5) = 0.91
400,000 14,000,000
The carrying capacity may be slightly low and the mud viscosity or annular velocity may have to
be increased.
The problem can also be solved using the chart in Figure 5-6.
Enter the chart at 6 Pa sec and proceeding vertically to a viscosity of 14 cp. Read the K
viscosity on the left to be about 300 cp.
CCI =
ρ f Kv
=
(1170 )(300 )(36.5) = 0.91
400,000 14,000,000
300
Chapter 6
1. If the casing shoe in Example 6-5 is at 15,500 feet (4724 meters), what is the ECD at the
casing seat (mud weight is 1800 kg/m3)?
Solution:
n
⎡ 2.4v ⎛ 2n + 1 ⎞⎤ kl
P =⎢ ⎜ ⎟⎥
⎣⎢ Dh − D p ⎝ 3n ⎠⎦⎥ 300(Dh − D p )
From Example 6-5, the friction losses in 16,375 feet of drill pipe annulus was 371 psi; however,
only the friction losses from 15,500 feet to the surface needs to be considered. The friction
losses below 15,500 feet are gone by the time the fluid gets to the casing shoe. The friction
loss per foot of annulus is:
371
Pdpa = = 0.0227 psi/ft
16,375
Pdpa + Pdca
ECD = ρ m +
(0.052)(TVD )
0 + 351
ECD = 15 + = 15.44 ppg
(0.052)(15,500)
SI Solution:
n
⎡ 200v ⎛ 2n + 1 ⎞ ⎤ 4kl
P =⎢ ⎜ ⎟⎥
⎣⎢ Dh − D p ⎝ 3n ⎠ ⎦⎥ 300(Dh − D p )
From Example 6-5, the friction losses in 4991 meters of drill pipe annulus was 2560 kPa;
however, only the friction losses from 4724 meters to the surface needs to be considered. The
friction losses below 4724 meters are gone by the time the fluid gets to the casing shoe. The
friction loss per meter of annulus is:
2560
Pdpa = = 0.5129 kPa/m
4991
Pdpa + Pdca
ECD = ρ m +
(0.00981)(TVD )
0 + 2418
ECD = 1800 + = 1850 kg/m 3
(0.00981)(4724 )
Chapter 7
1. Given the following information, calculate the jet nozzles sizes for both the horsepower
and impact force methods using three nozzles.
Solution:
First, establish the limits. Calculate the maximum flow rate based on one or two pumps. Since
this is a 12 1/4 inch hole, two pumps will be used.
The friction losses in the system have to be calculated at two flow rates. In order to calculate
the friction losses, the power-law constants n and k must be calculated.
⎛ 2PV + Yp ⎞
n = 3.32log⎜⎜ ⎟⎟
⎝ PV + Yp ⎠
⎡ (2)(15) + 10 ⎤
n = 3.32log⎢ ⎥ = 0.6777
⎣ 15 + 10 ⎦
PV + Yp
k=
511n
15 + 10
k= = 0.3652
5110.6777
Pdp =
( ) 0.81
7.68 × 10 −5 ρ m Q 1.81PV 0.19 l
D 4.83
Pdp =
( )
7.68 × 10 −5 (10.2) (400 )1.81 (15 )0.19 (5500 )
0.81
(4.276 )4.83
Reduce mud weight, plastic viscosity, length and diameter to a constant:
Calculate the pressure loss in the drill collars at 400 gpm and 700 gpm:
Pdc =
( )
7.68 × 10 −5 (10.2)
0.81
(400 )1.81 (15)0.19 (800 )
(3)4.83
Calculate the annular velocity in the drill pipe and drill collar annulus at 400 gpm:
24.5Q
v =
(
Dh2 − Dp2 )
v =
(24.5)(400 )
(12.25 2
− 82 ) = 114 fpm
v =
(24.5)(400 )
(12.25 2
− 52 ) = 78 fpm
Calculate the annular velocity in the drill pipe and drill collar annulus at 700 gpm:
24.5Q
v =
(
Dh2 − Dp2 )
v =
(24.5)(700 )
(12.25 2
− 82 ) = 199 fpm
v =
(24.5)(700 )
(12.25 2
− 52 ) = 137 fpm
Calculate the annular pressure losses at 400 gpm:
n
⎡⎛ 2.4v ⎞⎛ 2n + 1 ⎞⎤ kl
= ⎢⎜ ⎟⎜ ⎥
⎟⎝ 3n ⎟⎠⎥ 300(Dh − D p )
Pdca
⎢⎣⎜⎝ Dh − D p ⎠ ⎦
Calculate the pressure losses in the circulating system (everything but the bit) at 400 gpm:
Calculate the pressure losses in the circulating system (everything but the bit) at 700 gpm:
Calculate what the pressure loss in the circulating system and the bit needs to be in order to
maximize the horsepower method:
Calculate what the pressure loss in the circulating system and the bit needs to be in order to
maximize the impact force method:
log(Pc 2 ) − log(Pc1 )
s=
log(Q2 ) − log(Q1 )
log(1078 ) − log(397 )
s= = 1.7850
log(700 ) − log(400 )
With the slope, the same equation can be used to calculate the flow rate where the pressure
losses in the circulating system are equal to 875 psi for the horsepower method:
log(875 ) − log(397 )
1.7850 =
log(Q 2 ) − log(400 )
With the slope, the same equation can be used to calculate the flow rate where the pressure
losses in the circulating system are equal to 1300 psi for the impact force method:
log(1300 ) − log(397 )
1.7850 =
log(Q2 ) − log(400 )
The flow rates can also be determined using graph paper if you do not want to calculate it. On a
piece of log-log paper, the two circulating pressures and flow rates are plotted. (1078 psi at 700
gpm and 397 psi at 400 gpm) as shown on the following graph. For the impact force method,
the 1300 psi line crosses the Pc line at approximately 778 gpm. For the horsepower method,
the 875 psi line crosses the Pc line at approximately 623 gpm. Usually it is easier to calculate
than to use graph paper.
10000
1300
1000
Pressure, psi
875
100
10
100 1000
Flow Rate, gpm
623 778
Using the bit pressure loss equation, the area of the jet nozzles and eventually the size of the jet
nozzles can be determined. Start with the horsepower method. For the horsepower method the
pressure losses at the bit need to be 1625 psi and the flow rate needs to be 623 gpm as
previously calculated:
Pbit hp =
(
9.14 10 −5 ρ mQ 2 )
2
An
1625 =
( )
9.14 10 −5 (10.2)(623)
2
2
An
An =
( )
9.14 10 −5 (10.2 )(623 )
2
= 0.4719 in 2
1625
Sn =
(1304 )An =
(1304 )(0.4719 ) = 14.33
Nn 3
The average nozzle size is 14.33 32nds so the nozzles would be 14-14-15.
For the impact force method, the area of the nozzles is calculated at 1200 psi and 778 gpm as
previously calculated:
1200 =
( )
9.14 10 −5 (10.2)(778)
2
2
An
An =
( )
9.14 10 −5 (10.2)(778 )
2
= 0.6857 in 2
1200
Calculate the size of the nozzles for the impact force method:
Sn =
(1304 )An =
(1304 )(0.6857 ) = 17.27
Nn 3
The average nozzle size is 17.27 32nds so the nozzles would be 16-18-18. It should be noted
that only even size nozzles are made above 15/32 nds, so 17’s would not be recommended.
SI Solution:
First, establish the limits. Calculate the maximum flow rate based on one or two pumps. Since
this is a 311.2 mm hole, two pumps will be used.
The friction losses in the system have to be calculated at two flow rates. In order to calculate
the friction losses, the power-law constants n and k must be calculated.
⎛ 2PV + Yp / 0.479 ⎞
n = 3.32log⎜⎜ ⎟⎟
⎝ PV + Yp / 0.479 ⎠
⎡ ( 2)(15) + (5 / 0.479 ) ⎤
n = 3.32log⎢ ⎥ = 0.6683
⎣ 15 + (5 / 0.479 ) ⎦
⎡ PV + Yp / 0.479 ⎤
k=⎢
511n ⎥ (0.479 )
⎣ ⎦
⎡15 + (5 / 0.479)⎤
k=⎢ 0.6777 ⎥ (0.479) = 0.1887
⎣ 511 ⎦
0.78
5,310,000 ρ m Q1.78 PV 0.22 l
Pdp =
D 4.78
Pdp =
(5,310,000 )(1220 )0.81 (1.51)1.81 (15 )0.19 (1676 )
(108.6)4.83
Reduce mud weight, plastic viscosity, length and diameter to a constant:
Calculate the pressure loss in the drill collars at 1.51 m3/min and 2.65 m3/min:
Pdc =
(5,310,000 )(1220 )0.81 (1.51)1.81 (15)0.19 (244 )
(76.2)4.83
Calculate the annular velocity in the drill pipe and drill collar annulus at 1.51 m3/min:
1,273,000Q
v =
(Dh2 − Dp2 )
v =
(1,273,000 )(1.51)
(311.2 2
− 203.2 2 ) = 34.6 mpm
v =
(1,273,000 )(1.51)
(311.2 2
− 127.0 2 ) = 23.8 mpm
Calculate the annular velocity in the drill pipe and drill collar annulus at 2.65 m3/min:
1,273,000Q
v =
(Dh2 − Dp2 )
v =
(1,273,000 )(2.65 )
(311.2 2
− 203.2 2 ) = 60.7 mpm
v =
(1,273,000 )(2.65 )
(311.2 2
− 127.0 2 ) = 41.8 mpm
n
⎡ 200v ⎛ 2n + 1⎞⎤ 4kl
Pdca = ⎢ ⎜ ⎟⎥
⎣⎢ Dh − Dp ⎝ 3n ⎠⎦⎥ (Dh − Dp )
Calculate the pressure losses in the circulating system (everything but the bit) at 2.65 m3/min:
Calculate what the pressure loss in the circulating system and the bit needs to be in order to
maximize the horsepower method:
Calculate what the pressure loss in the circulating system and the bit needs to be in order to
maximize the impact force method:
log(Pc 2 ) − log(Pc1 )
s=
log(Q2 ) − log(Q1 )
log(7428 ) − log(2730 )
s= = 1.7796
log(2.65 ) − log(1.51)
With the slope, the same equation can be used to calculate the flow rate where the pressure
losses in the circulating system are equal to 6034 kPa for the horsepower method:
log(6034 ) − log(2730 )
1.7796 =
log(Q2 ) − log(1.51)
With the slope, the same equation can be used to calculate the flow rate where the pressure
losses in the circulating system are equal to 8965 kPa for the impact force method:
log(8965 ) − log(2730 )
1.7796 =
log(Q2 ) − log(1.51)
The flow rates can also be determined using graph paper if you do not want to calculate it. On a
piece of log-log paper, the two circulating pressures and flow rates are plotted. (7428 kPa at
2.65 m3/min and 2730 kPa at 1.51 m3/min) as shown on the following graph. For the impact
force method, the 8965 kPa line crosses the Pc line at approximately 2.95 m3/min. For the
horsepower method, the 6034 psi line crosses the Pc line at approximately 2.36 m3/min. Usually
it is easier to calculate than to use graph paper.
Using the bit pressure loss equation, the area of the jet nozzles and eventually the size of the jet
nozzles can be determined. Start with the horsepower method. For the horsepower method the
pressure losses at the bit need to be 11,206 kPa and the flow rate needs to be 2.36 m3/min as
previously calculated:
Pbit hp =
(153,000 )ρ mQ 2
2
An
11,206 =
(153,000)(1220)(2.36)2
2
An
An =
(153,000 )(1220 )(2.36 )2 = 304 .6 mm 2
11,206
Sn =
(1.27 )An =
(1.27 )(304.6) = 11.36
Nn 3
For the impact force method, the area of the nozzles is calculated at 8275 kPa and 2.95 m3/min
as previously calculated:
8275 =
(153,000)(1220)(2.95)2
2
An
An =
(153,000 )(1220 )(2.95 )2 = 442.4 mm 2
8275
Calculate the size of the nozzles for the impact force method:
Sn =
(1.27 )An =
(1.27 )(442.4) = 13.68
Nn 3
The average nozzle size is 13.41 mm so the nozzles would be 12.7-12.7-14.3. It should be
noted that only even size nozzles are made above 15/32 nds (11.9 mm), so 17’s (13.5 mm)
would not be recommended.
2. The rig is preparing to trip for a bit and the standpipe pressure has been measured at
two flow rates. What jet nozzle sizes should the next bit have if the impact force is maximized
using three nozzles?
Solution:
In order to maximize the hydraulics, the slope of the circulating pressure versus the flow rate
must be determined. However, the circulating pressure is everything but the bit so the bit
pressure losses must be subtracted from the standpipe pressure. First, calculate the current
area of the nozzles with three 14’s.
π ⎡⎛ S1 ⎞ ⎤
2 2 2 2 2 2
⎛ S2 ⎞ ⎛ S3 ⎞ ⎛ S4 ⎞ ⎛ S5 ⎞ ⎛ S6 ⎞
An = ⎢⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ + ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ + ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ + ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ + ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ + ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ + ....⎥
4 ⎢⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎥⎦
⎣
π ⎡⎛ 14 ⎞ ⎤
2 2 2
⎛ 14 ⎞ ⎛ 14 ⎞
An = ⎢⎜ ⎟ + ⎜ ⎟ + ⎜ ⎟ ⎥ = 0.4510 in2
4 ⎢⎣⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎝ 32 ⎠ ⎥⎦
Pbit =
(
9.14 10 −5 ρ m Q 2 )
2
An
Pbit =
( )
9.14 10 −5 (12.1)(200 )
2
= 218 psi
0.4510 2
Pbit =
( )
9.14 10 −5 (12.1)(310 )
2
= 523 psi
0.4510 2
Calculate the pressure losses in the circulating system at 200 gpm, Pc1:
Calculate the pressure losses in the circulating system at 310 gpm, Pc2:
Calculate the slope of the circulating pressure loss versus the flow rate:
log(Pc 2 ) − log(Pc1 )
s=
log(Q2 ) − log(Q1 )
log(677 ) − log(282 )
s= = 2.00
log(310 ) − log(200 )
In order to maximize the impact force, the pressure losses in the circulating system must be
determined using Equation 7-22.
⎛ 2 ⎞
Pc if = ⎜ ⎟Ps max
⎝s + 2⎠
⎛ 2 ⎞
Pc if = ⎜ ⎟(2424 ) = 1212 psi
⎝2 + 2⎠
Whatever pressure remains must be the pressure loss through the bit nozzles:
The slope of the pressure losses in the circulating system versus flow rate can be used to
determine the flow rate where the pressure losses in the circulating system are equal to 1212
psi.
log(1212 ) − log(282 )
2.00 =
log(Q2 ) − log(200 )
Unfortunately, the pump’s maximum flow rate is only 390 gpm, so it is not possible to pump 415
gpm. The hydraulics will have to be done at 390 gpm. The pressure losses in the circulating
system are not 1212 psi at 390 gpm, so the pressure losses in the circulating system must be
calculated for 390 gpm. The pressure losses in the circulating system can be calculated from
the slope.
log(Pc 2 ) − log(282)
2.00 =
log(390 ) − log(200 )
If the pressure losses in the circulating system are 1072 psi, then whatever is left over will be
the pressure loss through the jet nozzles.
With the flow rate and the bit pressure losses, the area of the jet nozzles and the size of the jet
nozzles can be determined.
Pbit =
(
9.14 10 −5 ρ m Q 2 )
2
An
Rearranging:
An =
(
9.14 10 −5 ρ m Q 2
=
) ( )
9.14 10 −5 (12.1)(390 )
2
= 0.3527 in 2
Pbit 1352
Calculate the size of the nozzles for the impact force method:
Sn =
(1304 )An =
(1304 )(0.3527 ) = 12.4
Nn 3
Need 12-12-13 for nozzles. Remember, these are the nozzle sizes at the depth in and nozzles
will get slightly smaller as drilling progresses. Therefore, 12-12-13 was selected rather than 12-
13-13, which would still be acceptable. It depends upon how much hole the bit will drill.
3. The rig is preparing to trip for a bit and the standpipe pressure has been measured at
two flow rates. What jet nozzle sizes should the next bit have if the impact force is maximized
using three nozzles?
Solution SI:
In order to maximize the hydraulics, the slope of the circulating pressure versus the flow rate
must be determined. However, the circulating pressure is everything but the bit so the bit
pressure losses must be subtracted from the standpipe pressure. First, calculate the current
area of the nozzles with three 14’s.
An =
π
4
[S1
2 2 2 2
+ S 2 + S3 + S 4 + S5 + S 6 + ....
2 2
]
An =
π
4
[(11.1) 2 2 2
]
+ (11.1) + (11.1) = 290 mm 2
153,000 ρ mQ 2
Pbit = 2
An
153,000(1450 )(0.76 )
2
Pbit = = 1520 kPa
290 2
153,000(1450 )(1.17 )
2
Pbit = = 3603 kPa
290 2
Calculate the pressure losses in the circulating system at 0.76 m3/min, Pc1:
Calculate the pressure losses in the circulating system at 1.17 m3/min, Pc2:
Calculate the slope of the circulating pressure loss versus the flow rate:
log(Pc 2 ) − log(Pc1 )
s=
log(Q2 ) − log(Q1 )
log(4667 ) − log(1930 )
s= = 2.05
log(1.17 ) − log(0.76 )
In order to maximize the impact force, the pressure losses in the circulating system must be
determined using Equation 7-22.
⎛ 2 ⎞
Pc if = ⎜ ⎟Ps max
⎝s + 2⎠
⎛ 2 ⎞
Pc if = ⎜ ⎟(16,710 ) = 8259 kPa
⎝ 2.05 + 2 ⎠
Whatever pressure remains must be the pressure loss through the bit nozzles:
The slope of the pressure losses in the circulating system versus flow rate can be used to
determine the flow rate where the pressure losses in the circulating system are equal to 8259
kPa.
log(8259 ) − log(1930 )
2.05 =
log(Q 2 ) − log(0.76 )
Unfortunately, the pump’s maximum flow rate is only 1.48 m3/min, so it is not possible to pump
1.55m3/min. The hydraulics will have to be done at 1.48 m3/min. The pressure losses in the
circulating system are not 8259 kPa at 1.48 m3/min, so the pressure losses in the circulating
system must be calculated for 1.48 m3/min. The pressure losses in the circulating system can
be calculated from the slope.
log(Pc 2 ) − log(1930 )
2.05 =
log(1.48 ) − log(0.76 )
If the pressure losses in the circulating system are 7550 kPa, then whatever is left over will be
the pressure loss through the jet nozzles.
With the flow rate and the bit pressure losses, the area of the jet nozzles and the size of the jet
nozzles can be determined.
153,000 ρ mQ 2
Pbit = 2
An
Rearranging:
An =
153,000 ρ mQ 2
=
(153,000 )(1450 )(1.48 )2 = 230 mm 2
Pbit 9160
Calculate the size of the nozzles for the impact force method:
Sn =
(1.27 )An =
(1.27 )(230 ) = 9.87 mm
Nn 3
Need 9.5-9.5-10.3 for nozzles. Remember, these are the nozzle sizes at the depth in and
nozzles will get slightly smaller as drilling progresses. Therefore, 9.5-9.5-10.3 was selected
rather than 9.5-10.3-10.3, which would still be acceptable. It depends upon how much hole the
bit will drill.
Chapter 10
1. Calculate the adjusted collapse resistance of 9-5/8 inch, 53.5#/ft, P110 (244.5 mm, 79.6
kg/m, P110) casing with 300,000 lbs (136,078 kg) tension hanging below it.
Solution:
From the API tables at the end of Chapter 10 (below), the cross sectional area of the steel is
15.547 in2. Calculate the axial tension in the casing with 300,000 lbs hanging below it:
T 300,000
σa = = = 19,297 psi
As 15.547
From the API table for P110 casing (above), the adjusted collapse for 15,000 psi stress is 7630
psi and for 20,000 psi stress is 7500. The adjusted collapse resistance can be interpolated from
the table.
⎡ (P − Pc 2 )(σ a1 − σ a ) ⎤
Pc = Pc1 − ⎢ c1 ⎥
⎣ (σ a1 − σ a2 ) ⎦
2. Design the intermediate casing in Example 10-3 with 7 5/8” casing (193.7 mm). The
collapse and burst pressure lines will remain the same. Calculate the total cost. You only have
the following casing available to choose from.
Solution:
The casing design starts with the collapse at the bottom. From Example 10-3, the collapse
pressure needs to exceed 7280 psi. From the API tables for 7 5/8 inch casing, there are three
casings that have a collapse resistance greater than 7280 psi. They are the 7 5/8 inch, 33.7#/ft,
P110, 7 5/8 inch, 39#/ft, N80 and the 7 5/8 inch, 39#/ft, P110. The least expensive casing
would be the N80, so start with the 7 5/8 inch, 39.0#/ft, N80, LTC on bottom.
Since the casing is below the neutral point, it does not have to be adjusted for axial tension.
Calculate the design factor for collapse on bottom.
The collapse resistance is greater than one, so it is OK. To reduce the cost, use the next
lightest casing, which is 7 5/8 inch, 33.7#/ft, N80. Calculate the maximum setting depth of the
casing. The collapse resistance from the API Tables is 6560 psi.
x = 9011 feet
Since it is below the neutral point of 7900 feet, it does not have to be adjusted for axial tension.
Round off the setting depth to 9000 feet. Calculate the design factor for collapse.
x = 6580 feet
This is above the neutral point so the collapse resistance must be adjusted for axial tension.
Assume a setting depth of 6500 feet and calculate the tension at the bottom of the 29.7#/ft, N80.
The cross sectional area of the 29.7#/foot casing can be obtained from the API Tables and is
8.541 in2. Calculate the axial stress in the casing at 6500 feet.
T6,500 47,180
σa = = = 5524 psi
As 8.541
The adjusted collapse can be interpolated from the API Table for N80 and L80 casing. At 5000
psi stress, the adjusted collapse is 4720 psi. At 10,000 psi stress, the adjusted collapse is 4630
psi. Calculate the adjusted collapse resistance at 5524 psi stress.
⎡ (P − Pc 2 )(σ a1 − σ a ) ⎤
Pc = Pc1 − ⎢ c1 ⎥
⎣ (σ a1 − σ a2 ) ⎦
The cross sectional area of the 29.7#/foot casing can be obtained from the API Tables and is
8.541 in2. Calculate the axial stress in the casing at 6400 feet.
T6,400 50,550
σa = = = 5919 psi
As 8.541
The adjusted collapse can be interpolated from the API Table for N80 and L80 casing. At 5000
psi stress, the adjusted collapse is 4720 psi. At 10,000 psi stress, the adjusted collapse is 4630
psi. Calculate the adjusted collapse resistance at 5919 psi stress.
The 7 5/8 inch, 29.7#/ft, N80, LTC cannot be run to the surface. Calculate the minimum setting
depth based on a maximum surface pressure of 7720 psi, a gas gradient of 0.128 psi/ft inside
casing and a fresh water gradient outside casing:
( )
Pb x = Pb 0 + Gg (x ) − (0.052 )(MW )(x )
x = 2715 feet
Burst Strength
DFb =
Pb 2,800
6890
DFb = = 1.00
7720 + (0.128 )(2800 ) − (0.052)(8.34 )(2800 )
Since the design factor is one or greater, the setting depth of 2800 feet is OK.
Heavier casing will be required at the surface. The next heaviest casing is 33.7#/ft, N80. From
the API Tables, it has a burst rating of 7900 psi. Since that exceeds the maximum anticipated
surface pressure, it can be run to the surface. Check the design factor for burst.
Burst Strength
DFb =
Pb 0
7900
DFb = = 1.02
7720
Check the design factor for tension to make sure they are OK. Start with the design factor at
2800 feet on top of the 7 5/8 inch, 29.7#/ft, N80, LTC casing. Calculate the tension at 2800 feet.
From the API Tables, the joint strength of the 29.7#/ft, N80, LTC is 575,000 pounds. Calculate
the design factor for tension:
Since the design factor for tension exceeds 1.80, it is OK. Calculate the tension at the surface
on top of the 7 5/8 inch, 33.7#/ft, N80, LTC casing.
From the API Tables, the joint strength of the 33.7#/ft, N80, LTC is 674,000 pounds. Calculate
the design factor for tension:
DESIGN FACTORS
SECTION CASING DESCRIPTION TOTAL
JOINT
NUMBER SIZE, WT., GRADE, CONN. BOTTOM LENGTH WEIGHT
COLLAPSE STRENGTH BURST
INTERMEDIATE CASING
1 7⅝, 39.0#/ft, N80, LT&C 10,000 1,000 39,000 1.21 HIGH HIGH
2 7⅝, 33.7#/ft, N80, LT&C 9,000 2,600 87,620 1.01 HIGH HIGH
3 7⅝, 29.7#/ft, N80, LT&C 6,400 3,600 106,920 1.00 3.65 1.00
4 7⅝, 33.7#/ft, N80, LT&C 2,800 2,800 94,360 HIGH 2.68 1.02
10,000 327,900
The cost of the casing (ignoring joint make-up loss) would be as follows:
2. SI Units Design the intermediate casing in Example 10-3 with 193.7 mm casing (7 5/8”).
The collapse and burst pressure lines will remain the same. Calculate the total cost. You only
have the following casing available to choose from.
Solution:
The casing design starts with the collapse at the bottom. From Example 10-3, the collapse
pressure needs to exceed 50,194 kPa. From the Schlumberger tables for 193.7 mm casing,
there are three casings that have a collapse resistance greater than 50,194 kPa. They are the
193.7 mm, 50.15 kg/m, P110, 193.7 mm, 58.04 kg/m, N80 and the 193.7 mm, 58.04 kg/m,
P110. The least expensive casing would be the N80, so start with the 193.7 mm, 58.04 kg/m,
N80, LTC on bottom.
Since the casing is below the neutral point, it does not have to be adjusted for axial tension.
Calculate the design factor for collapse on bottom. The collapse pressure rating is 60,812 kPa.
The collapse resistance is greater than one, so it is OK. To reduce the cost, use the next
lightest casing, which is 193.7 mm, 50.15 kg/m, N80. Calculate the maximum setting depth of
the casing. The collapse resistance from the Schlumberger tables is 45,230 kPa.
x = 2744 m
Since it is below the neutral point of 2408 m, it does not have to be adjusted for axial tension.
Round off the setting depth to 2740 m. Calculate the design factor for collapse.
The next lightest casing is 44.20 kg/m, N80. From the tables, it has a collapse resistance of
33,026 kPa. Calculate the maximum setting depth of the casing.
x = 2004 m
This is above the neutral point so the collapse resistance must be adjusted for axial tension.
Assume a setting depth of 1970 m and calculate the tension at the bottom of the 44.20 kg/m,
N80.
Calculate the cross sectional area of the 44.20 kg/m pipe with an outside diameter of 193.7 mm
and an inside diameter of 174.6 mm from the Schlumberger tables.
As =
π
4
( 2
× D p − Di
2
)
As =
π
4
( )
× 193.7 2 − 174.6 2 = 5525 mm 2
The adjusted collapse can be interpolated from the following collapse tables (Schlumberger I-
Handbook) for N80 casing. At 34,500 kPa stress, the adjusted collapse is 32,500 kPa. At
68,900 kPa stress, the adjusted collapse is 31,900 kPa. Calculate the adjusted collapse
resistance at 39,001 kPa stress.
⎡ (P − Pc 2 )(σ a1 − σ a ) ⎤
Pc = Pc1 − ⎢ c1 ⎥
⎣ (σ a1 − σ a2 ) ⎦
The cross sectional area of the 44.20 kg/m casing remains at 5525 mm2. Calculate the axial
stress in the casing at 1960 m.
The adjusted collapse can be interpolated from the Schlumberger Table for N80 casing. At
34,500 kPa stress, the adjusted collapse is 32,500 kPa. At 68,900 kPa stress, the adjusted
collapse is 31,900 kPa. Calculate the adjusted collapse resistance at 39,892 kPa stress.
Since the design factor is greater than one, the assumed setting depth is OK. There is no
lighter casing available so switch to burst. From the Schlumberger Tables, the burst of the
193.7 mm, 44.20 kg/m, N80, LTC is 47,505 kPa, which is less than the maximum anticipated
surface pressure.
The 193.7 mm, 44.20 kg/m, N80, LTC cannot be run to the surface. Calculate the minimum
setting depth based on a maximum surface pressure of 53,228 kPa, a gas gradient of 2.90
kPa/m inside casing, and a fresh water gradient outside casing:
( )
Pbx = Pb 0 + Gg (x ) − (0.00981)(MW )(x )
x = 828 m
Burst Strength
DFb =
Pb 830
47,505
DFb = = 1.00
53,228 + (2.90 )(830 ) − (0.00981)(1000 )(830 )
Since the design factor is one or greater, the setting depth of 830 m is OK.
Heavier casing will be required at the surface. The next heaviest casing is 50.15 kg/m, N80.
From the Schlumberger Tables, it has a burst rating of 54,469 kPa. Since that exceeds the
maximum anticipated surface pressure, it can be run to the surface. Check the design factor for
burst.
Burst Strength
DFb =
Pb 0
54,469
DFb = = 1.02
53,228
Check the design factor for tension to make sure they are OK. Start with the design factor at
830 m on top of the 193.7 mm, 44.20 kg/m, N80, LTC casing. Calculate the tension at 830 m.
From the Schlumberger Tables, the joint strength of the 44.20 kg/m, N80, LTC is 260,816 kg.
Calculate the design factor for tension:
Since the design factor for tension exceeds 1.80, it is OK. Calculate the tension at the surface
on top of the 193.7 mm, 50.15 kg/m, N80, LTC casing.
From the Schlumberger Tables, the joint strength of the 50.15 kg/m, N80, LTC is 305,722 kg.
Calculate the design factor for tension:
DESIGN FACTORS
SECTION CASING DESCRIPTION TOTAL
JOINT
NUMBER SIZE, WT., GRADE, CONN. BOTTOM LENGTH WEIGHT
COLLAPSE STRENGTH BURST
INTERMEDIATE CASING
1 193.7mm, 58.04 kg/m, N80, LT&C 3,048 308 17,876 1.21 HIGH HIGH
2 193.7mm, 50.15 kg/m, N80, LT&C 2,740 780 39,117 1.00 HIGH HIGH
3 193.7mm, 44.20 kg/m, N80, LT&C 1,960 1,130 49,946 1.00 3.60 1.00
4 193.7mm, 50.15 kg/m, N80, LT&C 830 830 41,625 HIGH 2.68 1.02
3,048 148,563
The cost of the casing (ignoring joint make-up loss) would be as follows:
3. Design the drill string for a well with the following requirements and drill string.
Solution:
First determine the weight per foot of the drill collars based on the OD and ID.
( 2
W f = 2.67 D p − Di
2
) = 2.67(8 2
)
− 2.8125 2 = 150 lbs/ft
Calculate the required length of the drill collars using the 1.10 design factor.
Get the tensile strength of the drill pipe from API RP7G.
The 4 1/2 inch, 16.60#/ft, Grade E drill pipe has a tensile rating of 260,165 pounds for Premium
Used drill pipe.
The 4 1/2 inch, 16.60#/ft, Grade S drill pipe has a tensile rating of 468,297 pounds for Premium
Used drill pipe
The maximum pull on the Grade E with the 1.10 design factor would be:
Tst 260,165
Pmax = = = 236,513 pounds
DF 1.10
The maximum weight of the Grade E that can be used with 75,000 pounds over pull is:
Wmax = Pmax − Wtc − Over Pull = 236,513 - 73,530 - 75,000 = 87,983 pounds
The maximum length of Grade E drill pipe that can be used is:
Wmax 87,983
Lmax = = = 5300 feet
Wf 16.60
The maximum pull on the Grade S with the 1.10 design factor would be:
Tst 468,297
Pmax = = = 425,725 pounds
DF 1.10
The maximum weight of Grade S that can be used with 75,000 pounds over pull is:
W max = Pmax − W tc − Over Pull − W max (Grade E ) = 425,725 - 73,530 - 75,000 - 87,983 = 189,212 pounds
The maximum length of Grade S drill pipe that can be used is:
W max 189,212
Lmax = = = 11,398 feet
Wf 16.60
3. SI Units Design the drill string for a well with the following requirements and drill string.
Solution:
First determine the weight per foot of the drill collars based on the OD and ID.
(
Wf = 0.00615 D p − Di
2 2
) = 0.00615(203,2 2
)
− 71.4 2 = 223 kg/m
ρm 1140
B = 1− = 1− = 0.85
7850 7850
Calculate the required length of the drill collars using the 1.10 design factor.
Get the tensile strength of the drill pipe from Schlumberger I-Handbook.
The 114.3 mm, 24.7 kg/m, Grade E drill pipe has a tensile rating of 118,009 kg for Premium
Used drill pipe.
The 114.3 mm, 24.7 kg/m, Grade S drill pipe has a tensile rating of 212,416 kg for Premium
Used drill pipe
The maximum pull on the Grade E with the 1.10 design factor would be:
Tst 118,009
Pmax = = = 107,281 kg
DF 1.10
The maximum weight of the Grade E that can be used with 33,400 daN over pull is:
The maximum length of Grade E drill pipe that can be used is:
Wmax 40,101
Lmax = = = 1624 m
Wf 24.7
The maximum pull on the Grade S with the 1.10 design factor would be:
Tst 212,416
Pmax = = = 193,105 kg
DF 1.10
The maximum weight of Grade S that can be used with 75,000 pounds over pull is:
Wmax = Pmax − Wtc − Over Pull − Wmax (Grade E ) = 193,105 - 33,133 - (33,400/0.981) - 40,101 = 85,864 kg
The maximum length of Grade S drill pipe that can be used is:
Wmax 85,864
Lmax = = = 3476 m
Wf 24.7
Chapter 12
1. Given the following two surveys, calculate the ΔTVD , ΔN and the ΔE using the
average angle method and the radius of curvature method.
Solution:
⎛I +I ⎞ ⎛ 1 + 1.01 ⎞
ΔTVD = ΔMD × cos⎜ 1 2 ⎟ = (200 − 100 ) × cos⎜ ⎟ = 99.98 feet
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛I +I ⎞ ⎛ A + A2 ⎞ ⎛ 1 + 1.01 ⎞ ⎛ 0 + 180 ⎞
ΔN = ΔMD × sin⎜ 1 2 ⎟ × cos⎜ 1 ⎟ = (200 − 100 ) × sin⎜ ⎟ × cos⎜ ⎟ = 0.00 feet
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛I +I ⎞ ⎛ A + A2 ⎞ ⎛ 1 + 1.01 ⎞ ⎛ 0 + 180 ⎞
ΔE = ΔMD × sin⎜ 1 2 ⎟ × sin⎜ 1 ⎟ = (200 − 100 ) × sin⎜ ⎟ × sin⎜ ⎟ = 1.75 feet
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠
ΔTVD =
(180 )(ΔMD )(sin I 2 − sin I1 ) = (180 )(200 − 100 )[sin(1.01) − sin(1)] = 99.98 feet
π (I 2 − I1 ) π (1.01 − 1)
ΔN =
(180 )2 (ΔMD )(cos I1 − cos I 2 )(sin A2 − sin A1 )
π 2 (I 2 − I1 )(A2 − A1 )
ΔN =
(180 )2 (200 − 100 )[cos(1) − cos(1.01)][sin(180 ) − sin(0 )] = 0.00 feet
π 2 (1.01 − 1)(180 − 0 )
ΔE =
(180 )2 (200 − 100 )[cos(1) − cos(1.01)][cos(0 ) − cos(180 )] = 1.12 feet
π 2 (1.01 − 1)(180 − 0 )
⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞
D2 = tan −1 ⎜⎜ 2 ⎟ − 1 = tan −1 ⎜ ⎟ − 1 = 0.0351
⎟ ⎜ (0.9994 )2 ⎟
⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
2 ⎛D ⎞ 2 ⎛ 0.0351 ⎞
Fc = × tan⎜ 2 ⎟ = × Tan ⎜ ⎟ = 1.000103
D2 ⎝ 2 ⎠ 0.0351 ⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛ ΔMD ⎞
ΔN = ⎜ ⎟[(sin I 2 × cos A2 ) + (sin I1 × cos A1 )](Fc )
⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛ 200 − 100 ⎞
ΔN = ⎜ ⎟[(sin (0.0176 ) × cos (3.1416 )) + (sin (0.0175 ) × cos(0.000 ))](1.000103 ) = −0.01 feet
⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛ ΔMD ⎞
ΔE = ⎜ ⎟[(sin I 2 × sin A2 ) + (sin I1 × sin A1 )](Fc )
⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛ 200 − 100 ⎞
ΔE = ⎜ ⎟[(sin (0.0176 ) × sin (3.1416 )) + (sin(0.0175 ) × sin (0.000 ))](1.000103 ) = 0.00 feet
⎝ 2 ⎠
Results:
Method ΔTVD ΔN ΔE
Average Angle 99.98 0.00 1.75
Radius of Curvature 99.98 0.00 1.12
Minimum Curvature 99.99 -0.01 0.00
The difference between the methods is how they handle changes in azimuth at low inclinations.
The average angle method assumes the inclination remained between 1 and 1.01 degrees at an
azimuth of 90° [(0+180)/2], which it did not. The radius of curvature method also assumes that
the inclination remained between 1 and 1.01 degrees, but the wellbore started out going north
while curving to the right. By the lower survey, the direction is south. The minimum curvature
says that the wellbore direction was north at the upper survey and that the inclination dropped to
zero degrees and then built back up to 1.01 degrees to the south by the lower survey. That is
why there is no displacement in the horizontal plane.
It is assumed that the minimum curvature method is probably the most correct.
Solution:
The dogleg severity can be calculated with Equations 12-16 through 12-18.
100
DLS = cos−1{(sinI1 × sinI2 )[(sin A1 × sin A2 ) + (cos A1 × cos A2 )] + (cosI1 × cosI2 )}
ΔMD
⎛ 100 ⎞
DLS = ⎜ ⎟ cos −1 {(sin (1) × sin (1.01))[(sin (0 ) × sin (180 )) + (cos (0 ) × cos (180 ))] + (cos (1) × cos (1.01))}
⎝ 200 − 100 ⎠
2 2
⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎛ I − I1 ⎞⎤
DLS =
( 2 )( 100 )
sin −1
(sin I 1 )(sin I 2 )⎢ sin ⎛⎜ A 2 − A 1 ⎞⎟ ⎥ + ⎢ sin ⎜ 2 ⎟⎥
Δ MD ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠⎦ ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠⎦
(2)(100 )
2 2
2
100 ⎡ ⎛ I + I1 ⎞ ⎤
DLS = (I 2 − I1 ) 2
+ ⎢ sin ⎜ 2 ⎟ (A 2 − A 1 )⎥
Δ MD ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎦
DLS =
100
(1.01 − 1) + ⎡⎢sin⎛⎜ 1.01 + 1⎞⎟(180 − 0)⎤⎥ = 3.16 o /100 feet
2
100 ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎦
Equation 12-16 and 12-17 calculates the dogleg severity based upon the minimum curvature
where the inclination drops to zero and the builds back up to 1.01 degrees in 100 feet. Equation
12-18 calculates the dogleg severity as if the inclination remains between 1 and 1.01 degrees
and the wellbore turns 180 degrees. This is the same as the radius of curvature equations.
3. Given the following two surveys, calculate the ΔTVD, ΔN and the ΔE using the average
angle method and the radius of curvature method.
Solution:
⎛I +I ⎞ ⎛ 1 + 1.01 ⎞
ΔTVD = ΔMD × cos⎜ 1 2 ⎟ = (130 − 100 ) × cos⎜ ⎟ = 30.00 m
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛I +I ⎞ ⎛ A + A2 ⎞ ⎛ 1 + 1.01 ⎞ ⎛ 0 + 180 ⎞
ΔN = ΔMD × sin⎜ 1 2 ⎟ × cos⎜ 1 ⎟ = (130 − 100 ) × sin⎜ ⎟ × cos⎜ ⎟ = 0.00 m
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛I +I ⎞ ⎛ A + A2 ⎞ ⎛ 1 + 1.01 ⎞ ⎛ 1 + 180 ⎞
ΔE = ΔMD × sin⎜ 1 2 ⎟ × sin⎜ 1 ⎟ = (130 − 100 ) × sin⎜ ⎟ × cos⎜ ⎟ = 0.53 m
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ 2 ⎠
ΔTVD =
(180 )(ΔMD )(sin I 2 − sin I1 ) = (180 )(200 − 100 )[sin(1.01) − sin(1)] = 30.00 m
π (I 2 − I1 ) π (1.10 − 1)
ΔN =
(180 )2 (ΔMD )(cos I1 − cos I 2 )(sin A2 − sin A1 )
π 2 (I 2 − I1 )(A2 − A1 )
ΔN =
(180 )2 (130 − 100 )[cos(1) − cos(1.01)][sin(180 ) − sin(0)] = 0.00 m
π 2 (1.01 − 1)(180 − 0 )
⎛ 1 ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞
D2 = tan −1 ⎜⎜ 2 ⎟ − 1 = tan −1 ⎜ ⎟ − 1 = 0.0351
⎟ ⎜ (0.9994 )2 ⎟
⎝ D1 ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
2 ⎛D ⎞ 2 ⎛ 0.0351 ⎞
Fc = × tan⎜ 2 ⎟ = × Tan ⎜ ⎟ = 1.000103
D2 ⎝ 2 ⎠ 0.0351 ⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛ ΔMD ⎞
ΔN = ⎜ ⎟[(sin I 2 × cos A2 ) + (sin I1 × cos A1 )](Fc )
⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛ 200 − 100 ⎞
ΔN = ⎜ ⎟[(sin (0.0176 ) × cos (3.1416 )) + (sin (0.0175 ) × cos(0.000 ))](1.000103 ) = 0.00 m
⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛ ΔMD ⎞
ΔE = ⎜ ⎟[(sin I 2 × sin A2 ) + (sin I1 × sin A1 )](Fc )
⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛ 200 − 100 ⎞
ΔE = ⎜ ⎟[(sin (0.0176 ) × sin (3.1416 )) + (sin(0.0175 ) × sin (0.000 ))](1.000103 ) = 0.00 m
⎝ 2 ⎠
Results:
Method ΔTVD ΔN ΔE
Average Angle 30.00 0.00 0.53
Radius of Curvature 30.00 0.00 0.33
Minimum Curvature 30.00 0.00 0.00
The difference between the methods is how they handle changes in azimuth at low inclinations.
The average angle method assumes the inclination remained between 1 and 1.01 degrees at an
azimuth of 90° [(0+180)/2], which it did not. The radius of curvature method also assumes that
the inclination remained between 1 and 1.01 degrees, but the wellbore started out going north
while curving to the right. By the lower survey, the direction is south. The minimum curvature
says that the wellbore direction was north at the upper survey and that the inclination dropped to
zero degrees and then built back up to 1.01 degrees to the south by the lower survey. That is
why there is no displacement in the horizontal plane.
It is assumed that the minimum curvature method is probably the most correct.
The dogleg severity can be calculated with Equations 12-16 through 12-18.
30
DLS = cos−1{(sinI1 × sinI 2 )[(sinA1 × sinA2 ) + (cosA1 × cosA2 )] + (cosI1 × cosI 2 )}
ΔMD
30
DLS = cos−1{(sin(1) × sin(1.01))[(sin(0) × sin(180)) + (cos(0) × cos(180))] + (cos(1) × cos(1.01))}
(130 − 100)
2 2
− A1 ⎞ ⎤ ⎡ ⎛ I − I1 ⎞ ⎤
DLS =
( 2 )( 30 )
sin −1 (sin I 1 )(sin I 2 )⎡⎢ sin ⎛⎜ A 2 ⎟⎥ + ⎢ sin ⎜ 2 ⎟⎥
Δ MD ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠⎦ ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠⎦
(2)(30)
2 2
DLS = sin −1
(sin(1))(sin(1.01))⎡⎢sin⎛⎜ 180 − 0 ⎞⎟⎤⎥ + ⎡⎢sin⎛⎜ 1.01 − 1⎞⎟⎤⎥ = 2.01o /30 m
(130 − 100) ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠⎦ ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠⎦
2
30 ⎡ ⎛ I + I1 ⎞ ⎤
DLS = (I 2 − I1 )
2
+ ⎢ sin ⎜ 2 ⎟ (A 2 − A 1 )⎥
Δ MD ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎦
DLS =
30
(1.01 − 1) + ⎡⎢sin⎛⎜ 1.01 + 1⎞⎟(180 − 0)⎤⎥ = 3.16o /30 m
2
(130 − 100) ⎣ ⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎦
Equation 12-16 and 12-17 calculates the dogleg severity based upon the minimum curvature
where the inclination drops to zero and the builds back up to 1.01 degrees in 100 feet. Equation
12-18 calculates the dogleg severity as if the inclination remains between 1 and 1.01 degrees
and the wellbore turns 180 degrees. This is the same as the radius of curvature equations.
Chapter 14
1. The following well has taken a kick and has been shut in. Calculate the density of the kill
mud and the initial circulating pressure. Calculate the final circulating pressure and the drill pipe
pressure schedule (Wait and Weight Method).
Solution:
Calculate the density of the kill mud based on the bottomhole pressure.
Pb 4626
ρ m1 = = = 11.12 or 11.2 ppg
D(0.052 ) (8000 )(0.052)
The mud weight should always be rounded up since rounding down will not kill the well.
2
Di 3.826 2
Cdp = = = 0.0142 bbls/ft
1029 .4 1029 .4
2
Di 2.75 2
Cdc = = = 0.00735 bbls/ft
1029 .4 1029 .4
Cds 110.43
STB = = = 1405 strokes
bbls / stk 0.0786
ρ m1 ⎛ 11.2 ⎞
FCP = (Pc ) = (850 )⎜ ⎟ = 915 psi
ρm ⎝ 10.4 ⎠
STROKES PRESSURE
0 1150
200 1117
400 1084
600 1051
800 1018
1000 985
1200 952
1405 915
2. The following well has taken a kick and has been shut in. Calculate the density of the kill
mud and the initial circulating pressure. Calculate the final circulating pressure and the drill pipe
pressure schedule (Wait and Weight Method).
Solution:
Calculate the density of the kill mud based on the bottomhole pressure.
Pb 32,021
ρ m1 = = = 1338 or 1340 kg/m 3
D (0.00981) (2440 )(0.00981)
The mud weight should always be rounded up since rounding down will not kill the well.
πDi 2 π (97.2)2
Cdp = = = 0.00742 m 3 / m
(
= (4 ) 1000 2
) (4)(1000 2
)
Determine the capacity of the drill collars in m3/m.
πDi 2 π (69.9 )2
Cdc = = = 0.00384 m 3 / m
(
= (4 ) 1000 2
) (4)(1000 2
)
Calculate the capacity of the drill string in m3.
Cds 17.60
STB = 3
= = 1408 strokes
m / stk 0.0125
ρ m1 ⎛ 1340 ⎞
FCP = (Pc ) = (5900 )⎜ ⎟ = 6330 kPa
ρm ⎝ 1250 ⎠
STROKES PRESSURE
0 8000
200 7763
400 7526
600 7289
800 7052
1000 6815
1200 6578
1405 6330