R.

Gupta's ®
Popular Master Guide

NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY (NTA)

CUET-UG
Common University Entrance Test for 21
Under Graduate Courses/Programmes

DOMAIN SPECIFIC SUBJECT

Biology/Biotechnology/
Biochemistry/Biological Studies
By
RPH Editorial Board
 R. Gupta’s® CUET-UG Entrance Exam Books
Book Book
Code Subjects Subjects
Code
R-2641 General Test (Section-III) R-2731 Books Series-8: Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics (Section-II)
R-2642 (Section-III)
R-2732 Books Series-9: Biology, Chemistry, Physics (Section-II)
R-2703 Books Series-1: English Language (Section-IA)
R-2714 Books Series-12: Business Studies (Section-II)
R-2715 Books Series-2: Accountancy/Book Keeping,
Economics/Business Economics, Business R-2716 Books Series-13: History (Section-II)
Studies (Section-II) R-2717 Books Series-14: Political Science (Section-II)
R-2751 Books Series-3: History, Political Science,
R-2718 Books Series-15: Geography/Geology (Section-II)
Geography/Geology (Section-II)
R-2711 Books Series-4: Home Science/Sociology/ R-2719 Books Series-16: Home Science (Section-II)
History (Section-II) R-2720 Books Series-17: Sociology (Section-II)
R-2300 Books Series-5: Legal Studies (Section-II)
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Book Code: R-2724

ISBN: 978-93-5477-366-2
HSN Code: 49011010
 EXAMINATION STRUCTURE
SECTION-II: DOMAIN SPECIFIC SUBJECT

No. of Questions Subject Time

40 Questions  Input text can be used for
45 minutes for
to be MCQ Based Questions
each Domain
attempted out  MCQs based on NCERT Class XII
Specific Subjects
of 50 Syllabus only

 Mode of the Test : Computer Based Test (CBT)

 Test Pattern : Objective type with Multiple Choice Questions

TESTS DESIGN
There are three Sections in the design of the test:
 Section IA : 13 Languages (As a medium and “Language”)
 Section IB : 20 Languages
 Section II : 27 Domain Specific Subjects
 Section III : General Test
Note: A candidate has the option to choose any Language/Domain specific Subjects/ General Test
or a combination there of as may be required for admission to specified course/s of the desired
University/ies while applying.
It is not mandatory to choose any one or more of the Tests/Subjects stated above. The choice of
Tests/Subjects would depend on the course/s opted by the candidate and the University/ies where
admission is sought.
A Candidate can take maximum of 09 Tests in following manner:
 Maximum of 02 languages from Section IA and Section IB taken together, maximum of 06
Domain Subjects from Section II and General Test from Section III.
 Maximum of 03 languages from Section IA and Section IB taken together, maximum of 05
Domain Subjects from Section II and General Test from Section III.

(iii)
 CONTENTS

SAMPLE PAPER

CUET (UG) – Biology / Biotechnology / Biochemistry / Biological Studies ..................... 1-8

SECTION-II: DOMAIN SPECIFIC SUBJECT

Biology / Biotechnology / Biochemistry / Biological Studies

1. Diversity in Living World ............................................................................ 3-5

2. Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants ........................................ 6-11

3. Cell Structure and Function ................................................................... 12-23

4. Plant Physiology .................................................................................... 24-32

5. Human Physiology ................................................................................. 33-41

6. Multiple Choice Questions ..................................................................... 42-88

    

(iv)
 SAMPLE PAPER (SOLVED) Sample Paper 1

CUET-UG

BIOLOGY / BIOTECHNOLOGY /
BIOCHEMISTRY / BIOLOGICAL STUDIES*
SECTION-II : DOMAIN SPECIFIC SUBJECT

1. In the figure of anatropous ovule given below, choose 4. Which of the following statements are true related to
the correct option for the characteristic distribution Seed X and Y?
of cells within the typical embryo sac:

Seed X Seed Y
(i) Seed X is dicot and endospermic or albuminous.
(ii) Seed X is dicot and non-endospermic or non-
albuminous.
(iii) Seed Y is m onocot and endospermic or
albuminous.
(iv) Seed Y is monocot and non-endospermic or non-
albuminous.

Number of Number of Number of Choose the correct option with the respect to the
cells at cells at nuclei left in nature of the seed:
chalazal micropylar central A. (i), (iii) B. (ii), (iii)
end end cell C. (i), (iv) D. (ii), (iv)
A. 3 2 3 5. Which of the following statements are correct with
B. 3 3 2 respect to hormones secreted by placenta?
C. 2 3 3 (i) Placenta secretes relaxin during later stage of
pregnancy.
D. 2 2 4
(ii) Placenta secretes high amount of FSH during
2. The coconut water from tender coconut is: pregnancy.
A. cellular endosperm (iii) Placenta secretes relaxin during initial stage of
B. free nuclear endosperm pregnancy.
C. both cellular and nuclear endosperm (iv) Placenta secretes hCG and hPL during pregnancy.
D. free nuclear embryo A. (i) and (iv) B. (i), (ii) and (iv)
3. Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of C. (iii) and (iv) D. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
presence of: 6. Figure A shows the front view of the human female
A. sporopollenin B. cellulose reproductive system and Figure B show s the
C. lignocellulose D. pectocellulose development of a fertilized human egg cell:
*40 Questions to be attempted out of 50 1 2724 (SP)—1
 2 Sample Paper

C. Glutamic acid is substituted by Valine in the

globin chain at the sixth position
D. Glutamic acid is substituted by Valine in the
globin chain at the sixth position
11. In human beings, where genotype AABBCC represents
dark skin colour, aabbcc represents light skin colour
and AaBbCc represents intermediate skin colour; the
pattern of genetic inheritance can be termed as:
A. Pleiotropy and codominance
B. Pleiotropy and incomplete dominance
C. Polygenic and qualitative inheritance
D. Polygenic and quantitative inheritance
Figure A 12. Which of the following combination of chromosome
numbers represents the correct sex determination
pattern in honey bees?
A. Male 32, Female 16 B. Male 16, Female 32
C. Male 31, Female 32 D. Female 32, Male 31
13. Mohan and Rakesh have defective haemoglobin due
to genetic disorders. Mohan has too few globin
molecules while Rakesh has incorrectly functioning
Figure B
globin molecules. Identify the disorder they are
Identify the correct stage of development of human suffering from.
embryo (Figure B) that takes place at the site X, Y Mohan Rakesh
and Z respectively in the human female reproductive A. Sickle cell anaemia– Thalassemia–an
system (Figure A). an autosome linked autosome linked
Choose the correct option from the table below: recessive trait dominant trait
X Y Z B. Thalassemia–an Sickle cell anaemia–
A. Morula Fertilized egg Blastocyst autosome linked an autosome linked
B. Unfertilized egg Fertilized egg Morula recessive blood recessive trait
C. Blastocyst Fertilized egg Unfertilized egg disorder
D. Fertilized egg Morula Blastocyst C. Sickle cell anaemia– Thalassemia–an
an autosome linked autosome linked
7. The correct sequence of hormone secretion from recessive trait recessive blood disorder
beginning of menstruation is: D. Thalassemia–an Sickle cell anaemia–an
A. FSH, progesterone, estrogen autosome linked autosome linked
B. estrogen, FSH, progesterone recessive blood dominant trait
C. FSH, estrogen, progesterone disorder
D. estrogen, progesterone, FSH
14. Which of the following is correct about mature RNA
8. The thalamus contributes to the fruit formation in: in eukaryotes?
A. banana B. orange A. Exons and introns do not appear in the mature
C. strawberry D. guava RNA
9. How many types of gametes would be produced if the B. Exons appear, but introns do not appear in the
genotype of a parent is AaBB? mature RNA
A. 1 B. 2 C. Introns appear, but exons do not appear in the
C. 3 D. 4 mature RNA
D. Both exons and introns appear in the mature RNA
10. Which of the following amino acid substitution is
responsible for causing sickle cell anemia? 15. In E.coli, the lac operon gets switched on when:
A. Valine is substituted by Glutamic acid in the A. lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
globin chain at the sixth position B. repressor binds to operator
B. Valine is substituted by Glutamic acid in the C. RNA polymerase binds to the operator
globin chain at seventh position D. lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase
2724 (SP)—1-II
 Sample Paper 3
16. 20. The mode of action of the copper ions in an IUD is
to:
A. increase the movement of sperms
B. decrease the movement of the sperms
C. make the uterus unsuitable for implantation
D. make the cervix hostile to the sperms
21. A cross is made between tall pea plants having green
pods and dwarf pea plants having yellow pods. In the
F2 generation, out of 80 plants how many are likely
to be tall plants?
AUG on the mRNA will result in the activation of
A. 15 B. 20
w hich of the follow ing RN A having correct
C. 45 D. 60
combination of amino acids:
Site A Site B 22. In Antirrhinum, RR is phenotypically red flowers,
A. UAC Methionine rr is white and Rr is pink. Select the correct phenotypic
B. Methionine UAC ratio in F1 generation when a cross is performed
C. Methionine AUG between RR × Rr:
D. AUG Methionine A. 1 Red : 2 Pink : 1 White
B. 2 Pink : 1 White
17. Concentration of which of the following substances
C. 2 Red : 2 Pink
will decrease in the maternal blood as it flows from
D. All Pink
embryo to placenta through the umbilical cord?
23.

What is the pattern of inheritance in the above pedigree

chart?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. Sex-linked dominant
D. Sex-linked recessive
Fig. The Human foetus within the uterus
(i) Oxygen 24. Genotypic ratio of 1 : 2 : 1 is obtained in a cross
(ii) Amino Acids between:
(iii) Carbon dioxide A. AB × AB B. Ab × Ab
(iv) Urea C. Ab × ab D. ab × ab
A. (i) and (ii) B. (ii) and (iv) 25. Observe structures A and B given below. Which of
C. (iii) and (iv) D. (i) and (iv) the following statements are correct?
18. In a fertilized ovule, n, 2n and 3n conditions occur 5' 5'
HOCH 2 O OH HOCH 2 O OH
respectively in:
A. antipodal, zygote and endosperm
B. zygote, nucellus and endosperm 4' C C 1' 4' C C 1'
H H H H
C. endosperm, nucellus and zygote. 3' 2' 3' 2'
D. antipodals, synergids and integusments H C C H H C C H

19. A female undergoing IVF treatment has blocked OH OH OH H

fallopian tubes. The technique by which the embryo A B
with more than 8 blastomeres will be transferred into A. A is having 2 -OH group which makes it less
the female for further development is: reactive and structurally stable, whereas B is
A. ZIFT B. GIFT having 2 -H group which makes it more reactive
C. IUT D. AI and unstable.
 4 Sample Paper

B. A is having 2 -OH group which makes it more
reactive and structurally unstable, whereas B is
having 2 -H group which makes it less reactive
and structurally stable.
C. A and B both have -OH groups which make it
more reactive and structurally stable.
D. A and B both are having -OH groups which make
it less reactive and structurally stable
26. What are minisatellites?
A. 10-40 bp sized small sequences within the genes
B. Short coding repetitive region on the eukaryotic
genome
C. Short non-coding repetitive sequence forming
large portion of eukaryotic genome
D. Regions of coding strands of the DNA
27. Given below is a dihybrid cross performed on
Drosophila.
Cross A
When yellow bodied (y), white eyed (w) Drosophila
females were hybridized with brown bodied (y+), red
eyed males (w+) and F1 progenies were intercrossed,
F 2 generation would have shown the following
ratio:
A. 1 : 2 : 1 because of linkage of genes
B. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 because of recombination of genes
C. Deviation from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio because of
segregation of genes
D. Deviation from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio because of
linkage of genes
28. Transcription unit is represented in the diagram given
below.

Identify site (i) factor (ii) Enzyme (iii) responsible for

y w y + w+ carrying out the process.
A. (i) Promoter Site, (ii) Rho factor (iii) RNA
Parental
y w polymerase
Yellow, white Wild type B. (i) Terminator Site, (ii) Sigma factor (iii) RNA
polymerase
C. (i) Promoter Site, (ii) Sigma factor (iii) RNA
y y
polymerase
w w
D. (i) Promoter Site, (ii) Sigma factor (iii) DNA
F1 generation
polymerase
y+ w +
Wild type Yellow, white 29. Choose the correct option wherein, the correct stages
Parental Recombinant of the development of human embryo takes place.
type (98.7%) types (1.3%) Ovary Fallopian Uterus
y+ w + y+ w Tube
A. Morula Fertilized egg Blastocyst
B. Unfertilized egg Fertilized egg Morula
Wild type White C. Unfertilized egg Fertilized egg Blastocyst
y w y w+ D. Fertilized egg Morula Blastocyst
30. Match the items given in column-A and B:
Yellow, white Yellow Column-A Column-B
F2 generation (a) Catalytic converter (i) Particulate matter
y+ w + y+ w (b) Electrostatic (ii) Carbon monoxide
precipitator and nitrogen oxides
y w y w (c) Earmuffs (iii) High noise level
Wild type White (d) Landfills (iv) Solid wastes
y w y w+
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
y w y w A. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Yellow, white Yellow
B. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn on C. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
the basis of this cross? D. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

31. Which one of the following has the largest population
in a food chain?
A. Producers B. Primary consumers
C. Secondary consumers D. Decomposers
32. Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria do
not kill the bacteria themselves because:
A. bacteria are resistant to the toxin
B. toxin is immature
C. toxin is inactive
D. bacteria encloses toxin in a special sac
33. Meiosis takes place in:
A. gemmule B. megaspore
C. meiocyte D. conidia
34. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by:
A. stolon B. offset
C. runner D. sucker
35. The term ‘clone’ cannot be applied to offspring formed
by sexual reproduction because:
A. offspring do not possess exact copies of parental
DNA
B. DNA of only one parent is copied and passed on
to the offspring
C. offspring are formed at different times
D. DNA of parent and offspring are completely
different
36. Amoeba and yeast reproduce asexually by fission and
budding respectively, because they are:
A. microscopic organisms
B. heterotrophic organisms
C. unicellular organisms
D. uninucleate organisms
37. In angiosperms, male gametes are formed by the
division of:
A. microspore mother cell
B. microspore
C. generative cell
D. vegetative cell
38. From among the sets of terms given below, identify
those that are associated with the gynoecium:
A. Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta
B. Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule
C. Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum
D. Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac
39. Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one strand,
because:
A. DNA molecule being synthesised is very long
B. DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses
polymerisation only in one direction (5 3)
C. it is a more efficient process
D. DNA ligase joins the short stretches of DNA
Sample Paper 5
40. Which of the following steps in transcription is
catalysed by RNA polymerase?
A. Initiation B. Elongation
C. Termination D. All of the above
41. Assertion : Primary transcripts in eukaryotes are
nonfunctional.
Reason : M ethyl guanosine triphosphate is
attached to 5 – end of hnRNA.
A. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is
the correct explanation of assertion.
B. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is
not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. Assertion is true but reason is false.
D. Both assertion and reason are false.
42. Assertion : E. coli having pBR322 with DNA insert
at BamHI site cannot grow in medium
containing tetracycline.
Reason : Recognition site for Bam HI is present
in tetR region of pBR322.
A. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason
is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B. Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason
is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C. Assertion is true but reason is false.
D. Both assertion and reason are false
Directions (Qs. No. 43-46): Read the following paragraph
and answer any four questions given below:
Ecological Indicators
The presence of dragonflies can reveal changes in the
water ecosystems more quickly than studying other animals
or plants. In fact, from the nymph to the adult stage, the
dragonfly has a significant, positive ecological impact.
Dragonfly eggs are laid and hatched in or near water, so
their lives impact both water and land ecosystems. Once
hatched, dragonfly nymphs can breathe underwater which
enables them to eat mosquito larvae, other aquatic insects
and worms, and even small aquatic vertebrates like tadpoles
and small fish and in the air. Adult dragonflies capture and
eat adult mosquitoes.
Community wide mosquito control programs that spray
insecticides to kill adult mosquitoes also kill dragonflies.
43. The approach to biological control includes:
A. Import and release of an insect pest to a new area
to provide hosts for natural enemies
B. Import and release of natural enemies from the
native home of an alien insect pest that has invaded
a new area
C. Preservation of natural enemies (predators &
parasitoids) that are already established in an area
D. Use of insecticides to reduce alien insect pests to
establish new equilibrium position.
 6 Sample Paper

44. Two diseases less likely to occur in a region with
plenty of dragonflies are _____ .
A. Yellow fever and Amoebic dysentery
B. Malaria and Yellow fever
C. Anthrax and Typhoid
D. Cholera and Typhoid
45. Dragonflies indicate positive ecological impact as:
A. The presence of dragonflies indicates polluted
water.
B. Dragonfly nymphs selectively eat mosquito
larvae.
C. They help to decrease the probability of diseases
spread by vectors.
D. Dragonfly do not cause any harm to beneficial
species.
46. The most effective stages in the life cycle of dragonfly
that eradicate mosquitoes are:
A. Larvae and Adult B. Caterpillar and Adult
C. Nymph and Adult D. Pupa and Adult
Directions (Qs. No. 47-50): Read the following paragraph
and answer any four questions given below:
Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder where the body
produces an abnormal hemoglobin called hemoglobin S.
Red blood cells are normally flexible and round, but when
the hemoglobin is defective, blood cells take on a “sickle”
or crescent shape. Sickle cell anemia is caused by mutations
in a gene called HBB.
It is an inherited blood disorder that occurs if both the
maternal and paternal copies of the HBB gene are defective.
In other words, if an individual receives just one copy of
the defective HBB gene, either from mother or father, then
the individual has no sickle cell anemia but has what is
called “sickle cell trait”. People with sickle cell trait usually
do not have any symptoms or problems but they can pass
the mutated gene onto their children. There are three
inheritance scenarios that can lead to a child having sickle
cell anemia:
— Both parents have sickle cell trait
— One parent has sickle cell anemia and the other
has sickle cell trait
— Both parents have sickle cell anemia
47. Sickle cell anemia is a/an _______ disease.
A. X linked B. autosomal dominant
C. autosomal recessive D. Y linked
48. If both parents have sickle cell trait, then there is
_______ of the child having sickle cell anemia.
A. 25% risk B. 50% risk
C. 75% risk D. No risk
49. If both parents have sickle cell trait, then there is
_______ of the child having sickle cell trait.
A. 25% risk B. 50% risk
C. 75% risk D. No risk
50. If one parent has sickle cell anemia and the other has
sickle cell trait, there is _______ that their children
will have sickle cell anemia and _______ will have
sickle cell trait.
A. 25% risk, 75% risk
B. 50% risk, 50% risk
C. 75% risk, 25% risk
D. No risk

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B B A B A C C C B D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D B B B A B A A C B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D C B B B C D C C A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D C C D A C A A B B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B A A B C C C A B B
 Sample Paper 7

R. Gupta's® USEFUL BOOKS FOR

Book Book
Code Subjects Subjects
Code
R-2641 General Test (Section-III) R-2731 Books Series-8: Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics (Section-II)
R-2642 (Section-III) R-2732 Books Series-9: Biology, Chemistry, Physics (Section-II)
R-2703 Books Series-1: English Language (Section-IA) Books Series-12: Business Studies (Section-II)
R-2714
R-2715 Books Series-2: Accountancy/Book Keeping, R-2716 Books Series-13: History (Section-II)
Economics/Business Economics, Business Studies (Section-II) R-2717 Books Series-14: Political Science (Section-II)
R-2751 Books Series-3: History, Political Science, R-2718 Books Series-15: Geography/Geology (Section-II)
Geography/Geology (Section-II)
R-2719 Books Series-16: Home Science (Section-II)
R-2711 Books Series-4: Home Science/Sociology/
R-2720 Books Series-17: Sociology (Section-II)
History (Section-II)
R-2300 Books Series-5: Legal Studies (Section-II) R-2721 Books Series-18: Physics (Section-II)

R-2704 Books Series-6: (Section-IA) R-2722 Books Series-19: Chemistry (Section-II)

R-2723 Books Series-20: Mathematics (Section-II)
R-2706 Books Series-7: Fine Arts/Visual Arts/
Commercial Arts (Section-II) R-2724 Books Series-21: Biology (Section-II)

R-2641 R-2703 R-2715 R-2751 R-2711

R-2300 R-2704 R-2706 R-2731 R-2732

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8 Sample Paper

R. Gupta's® USEFUL BOOKS FOR

Book
Subjects
Code
R-2448 CUCET—M.Com Entrance Exam

R-2569 CUCET—M.A. English Entrance Exam

R-2681 CUCET—M.A. English Previous Years' Papers (Solved)

R-2272 CUCET—M.A.

R-2260 CUCET—M.A. Mathematics Entrance Exam

R-2245 CUCET—M.A. History Entrance Exam

R-2308 CUCET—B.Ed. Entrance Exam

R-2309 CUCET—B.Ed. Previous Years' Papers (Sol.)

R-2524 CUCET—M.A. Political Science Entance Exam

R-2448 R-2569 R-2681 R-2272 R-2260

R-2245 R-2308 R-2309 R-2524

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 1

BIOLOGY / BIOTECHNOLOGY /
BIOCHEMISTRY /
BIOLOGICAL STUDIES

2732 (Biology)—1
 3
CHAPTER

1
DIVERSITY IN LIVING WORLD

BIOLOGY
Biology is the study of different aspects of living beings. This term Biology was coined by Lamarck and Traviranus in 1802. It has
three main general branches (zoology, botany and microbiology) but there are many specialized branches as follows.
Branch Science Study of
Aerobiology air borne organisms and structures with their distribution.
Agriculture farming, raising crops and animal husbandry
Agroforestry a type of land use in which in addition to crops, grasses and multipurpose shrubs and trees
are grown to stabilise soil and obtain useful articles like fodder, fruit, fuel, timber etc.
Agronomy soil management and production of crops.
Algalogy algae.
Anaesthesiology anaesthesia (induction of inability to feel pain)
Anatomy internal structure which can be seen by naked eye.
Animal Husbandry raising and management of domesticated animals.
Anthropology origin, development and culture of present and past races of humans.
Aquaculture rearing and management of aquatic animals.
Bacteriology bacteria
Bionics problem solving by human, animals and its technical application.
Botany study of plants in all their aspects.
Cell Biology cells in all their aspects.
Chemotaxonomy taxonomy based on chemicals present in organisms.
Chorology biogeography.
Cosmology structure and evolution of universe.
Cryobiology organisms, tissues, embryos, etc. cooled to low temperature.
Cybernetics communications and control as by brain, nervous system (neurobiology) and endocrine
system (endocrinology).
Cytology cell structure
Cytotaxonomy taxonomy (classification) based on cell constituents including chromosome number and
structure.
Dermatology skin and other body coverings.
Developmental Biology changes in structure and physiology during various stages of life.
Endocrinology endocrine glands, harmones and their effects.
Entomology insects.
Enzymology enzymes and their functions
Epidemiology distribution, causes and control measures of infectious diseases.
Ethnobotany relationships between primitive humans and plants.
Ethology animal behaviour.
3
 4

Etiology (Aetiology) life cycle of pathogen, especially on host and cause of disease.
Eugenics improvement of race by modifying fertility of different categories of individuals.
Evolution origin and development of various life forms.
Floriculture cultivation of plants for their flowers.
Forestry development and Management of forests.
Gastroenterology alimentary canal or stomach, intestine and their diseases.
Genecology genetic compositions of populations in relation to habitat or environment.
Geneology (genaeology) development of individual/race/pedigree.
Gene Therapy removal and replacement of defective genes with genes of desirable traits.
Genetic Engineering manipulation of genes for developing a desired genetic constitution.
Genetics heredity and variations
Geology earth
Gynaecology female reproductive organs.
Haematology blood.
Helminthology parasitic worms.
Histochemistry chemistry of living tissues.
Histology tissues.
Horticulture development and management of orchards and gardens.
Hygiene care for keeping good health.
Ichthyology fishes.
Immunology immunity or resistance to disease.
Kalology human beauty.
Karyology cell nucleus and chromosomes.
Kinesiology inter-relationship of anatomy and physiology with respect to movements.
Lichenlogy lichens.
Limnology (i) fresh water ecology (ii) snails.
Microbiology microorganisms or organisms less than 0.1 mm.
Morphology form and structrure it can be external or internal.
Mycology fungi.
Nematology roundworms (nematodes).
Neonatology new born.
Nephrology kidneys.
Neurology nervous system.
Occupational Therapy treating mental and physical defects with occupation.
Olericulture cultivation of vegetables.
Oncology cancers and tumours.
Ophthalmology eyes.
Organology different organs of the body.
Ornithology birds.
Paediatrics children.
Palaeobotany fossil plants and their impressions.
Parasitology parasites.
Parazoology sponges.
Pedology/Paedology edaphology.
Pharmacology synthesis and effects of medicines on organisms.
Photobiology effect of light on various biological processes.
Phycology (Algalogy) algae.
Physiology body functions.
Physiotherapy treatment of body defects through masses and exercise.
Pisciculture rearing, catching and management of fishes.
Platyhelminthology flatworms or platyhelminthes.
Pomology fruits and fruit yielding plants.
Radiology X-rays and other imaging techniques for medical diagnosis.
Radiotherapy treatment of disease with x-rays and radioactive substances.
Sericulture rearing silkworms for extraction of silk.
Silviculture (Sylviculture) cultivation of forest trees.
Speciation formation of new and distinct species.
 5

Systamatics biosystematics.
Taxonomy classification, nomenclature and identification of organisms.
Therapeutics treatment of disease.
Toxicology harmful effects of drug and other substances.
Urology structure, action functions and disorders of urinary tract (urinogential tract in males).
Venereology venereal diseases.
Virology viruses.
Zoogeography geographical distribution of animals.
Zoology animals in their various aspects.
Zootaxy classification of animals.
Zymology fermentation process.

ORIGINATORS/FATHERS

Branch Father Branch Father

Medicine Hippocrates (460 - 375B.C.). Antiseptic Surgery Joseph Lister.
Biology, Embryology Aristotle (384 - 322 B.C.). Bacteriology Koch.
and Zoology Microbiology Pasteur.
Botany and Ecology Theophrastus Palynology Erdtman.
(370-287 B.C.). Endocrinology Thomas Addison.
Anatomy Andreas Vesalius Palaeontology Leonardo da Vinci.
(1514-1564). Antibiotics Alexander Fleming
Plant Anatomy N. Grew (1641-1712). (1881-1955).
Microscopy (Protozoology) Antony van Leeuwenhoek Blood circulation William Harvey (1578-1657).
Microbiology (Bacteriology) (1632-1723 ). Blood Groups Landsteiner.
Cytology Robert Hooke (1635-1703). Green Revolution Norman E. Borlaug.
Taxonomy and Nomenclature Carolus (Carlvon) Indian Green Revolution M.S. Swaminathan.
Linnaeus (1707-1778). Bird man of India Salim Ali.
Embryology C.F. Wolff (1738-1794). Indian Palaeobotany Birbal Sahni.
Immunology Edward Jenner (1749-1823). Radiation Biology Muller.
Biochemistry Liebig. Genetics Gregor Johann Mendel.
Plant Physiology Stephen Hales (1677-1761). Eugenics Francis Galton.
Mycology Micheli. Biochemical/Human Genetics Archibald Garrod.
Experimental Genetics T. H. Morgan.
Bryology Hedwig. Genetic Engineering Paul Berg.
Parasitology Platter. DNA Fi

FAMOUS INDIAN BIOLOGIST P. Maheshwari Embryology

(Father of Indian Embryology)
A.K. Sharma Cytology P.N. Mehra Pteridology
B.B. Mundkur Plant Pathology Prof. Salim Ali Ornithology
B.K. Nair Palynology R. Mishra Ornithology
B.P. Pal Plant Breeding R.P. Roy Ecology
Birbal Sahni Palaeobotany (Father of S.R. Kashyap Cytogenetics, Tissue Culture and Plant
Indian Palaeobotany) Breeding
H. Santapau Taxonomy T.S. Sadasivan Mycology
Indira Hinduja in vitro Fertilization V. Puri Morphology
J.C. Bose Plant Physiology
J.J. Chinoy Plant Physiology Understanding Life
K.A. Chaudhari Xylotomy Even after all attempts, life has not been defined absolutely
K.C. Mehta Plant Pathology satisfactorily so far. It may be called that state of an animal or
Lalji Singh DNA Finger Printing a plant in which its organs are capable of performing their
M.S. Swaminathan Cytogenetics functions, or in which the performance of functions has not
O.P. Iyengar Phycology (Father of Indian Algology) permanently ceased.
 6
CHAPTER

2
STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION
IN ANIMALS AND PLANTS
5. Binomial Nomenclature
PRINCIPLES OF SYSTEMATICS
(i) This is scientific naming, first given by C. Linnaeus
AND FIVE KINGDOMS (1735) in his book Systema Naturae and
afterwards in ‘Species Plantarum’ (1753).
IMPOR TANT POINTS (ii) Used two Latin words for any organism, the first
1. Because the job of identifying and naming millions of being Generic name and the second a specific
species of the living world is a herculian task. Further, as name.
(iii) The generic name starts with a capital letter and
common names vary from country to country, the need
the species name with a small letter.
for a universal language such as Latin came into use.
(iv) No two animals or plants can have the same name.
2. Taxon is a group of any particular rank e.g. family and
(v) The scientific names are printed in italics or
rank in taxonomy. Taxonomy is the area of systematics
underlined if hand-written, followed with the name
which covers the principles and procedures of
of the author who first validly described it.
classification. (vi) Binomial nomenclature can include to trinomial
3. Classification (a part of systematics) a lists the unique nomenclature also by the addition of subspecies
characters of each taxon. or variety .
4. Hierarchy of categories in classification (vii) According to ‘Law of Priority ’, the first legitimate
(i) To make the hierarchy of classification, one or name is considered valid in case an organism is
more species are grouped into a genus , of genera given more than one name.
into a family, families intoorder , orders into class, 6. Types of Species
classes into phylum and various phyla into (i) Allopatic species: Species have different areas of
kingdom. geographic distribution.
(ii) The hierarchy of seven major categories are given (ii) Sympatric species: Species have same or
as below: overlapping areas of geographic distribution.
(1) Kingdom (the highest taxonomic category) (iii) Polytypic species: Species having two or more
(2) Division/phylum subspecies.
(3) Class (iv) Taxonomic species: Species having a definite
(4) Order binomial name.
(5) Family (v) Sibling species: True species, do not interbreed
(6) Genus but difficult to distinguish, morphologically.
(7) Species (the lowest and the basic (vi) Biospecies: Species erected on the basis of
taxonomic category) reproductive and genetic isolation of a natural
(iii) At times authors use a category called ‘Cohort’ , a population.
group of related species. It is usually placed (vii) Macrospecies: A large polymorphic species with
between order and class. several subdivisions.

6

(viii) Microspecies/Jordan’s species: A true breeding
genetic unit below the rank of species.
(ix) Morphospecies: Species erected on the basis of
morphological characters only.
(x) Paleospecies or Fossil species: Species found as
fossils only.
(xi) Neontological species: Living species of today.
(xii) Synchronic species: Two or more species belong-
ing to same time period.
(xiii) Agamospecies: Asexually reproducing species like
Amoeba and Euglena .
(xiv) Gamospecies: Sexually reproducing species.
(xvi) Allochronic species: Two or more species
belonging to different time periods.
(xvii) Keystone species: Species which determines the
biotic structure of the entire community by
predation or by any control mechanism. Sea-otters
that feed on invertebrates is classic example of
this species.
Systems of Classification. Three most impo rtant ones are :
Artificial system
(a) Organisms categorised on the basis of one or few
superficial (morphological) characters.
(b) Proposed by Theophrastus in his book, Historia
Plantarum
(c) This classification is based on Bauhin and
Linnaeus’s work.
(d) Linnaeus system : known as sexual system of
classification. Classified on the basis of number,
size and union of sex organs.
Natural system
(a) Organisms categorised on the basis of natural
characters like presence or absence of petals
(b) de Jussieu attempted this method for the first time
in his book
(c) This classification is based on de Candolle’s work
described in his book ‘ Theorie elementaire de la
botanique (1813); the word ‘Taxonomy’ was used
in this book
(d) It is based on idea of ‘ fixity of species ’. Approx.
202 families recognized in this system
Phylogenetic system
(a) Organisms categorised on the basis of relationship
with their ancestors
(b) Proposed by Darwin and Wallance
evolutionary theory was a base for this system
(c) This classification is based on Eichler’s system
of classification
(d) Adolph Engler and Kari A.E. Prantl published
this in their book, Die Naturlichen Pflanzen-
familien.
7. Conservative characters. There are characters which have
changed little during the evolutionary history.
7
8. Speciation is the process by which a new species diverges
from the existing one.
9. Classification of organisms have come a long way from
Linnaean two kingdom system to presently accepted five
kingdom system.
10. The main characteristics of five kingdoms are as follows :
(i) Kingdom Monera (Prokaryotes)
 Includes bacteria, cyanobacteria and archae-
bacteria.
 Unicellular, microscopic, solitary or colonial
forms.
 Can respire aerobically or anaerobically and
reproduce by asexual, sexual or vegetative
methods.
 Act as decomposers and mineralisers and some
may be concerned with nitrogen fixation also.
 No membrane bound organelles like
Mitochondria and Golgi complex. No nuclear
membrane.
 Mode of nutrition: autotrophic, chemo-
autotrophic, saprophytic, symbiotic or
parasitic.
(ii) Kingdom Protista (Unicellular Eukaryotes)
 Usually aquatic and planktonic (phyto-
planktons or zooplanktons).
 Organisation ranges from unicellular to
multicellular colonial forms.
 Some are commensals and some are parasites
(heterotrophic or absorptive mode of nutrition)
 Some coloured algae contain various types of
accessory pigments.
 Reproduction is by asexual as well as sexual
modes and both haploid as well as diploid forms
exist.
 Locomotion pseudopodial, ciliary or flagellar
depending on the type of locomotary append-
ages present.
 The phytoplanktons are producers whereas the
zooplanktons are consumers (holozoic
nutrition).
(iii) Kingdom Fungi (Multicellular Decomposers)
 Include non-green plants that are the important
decomposers and mineralizers.
 Hyphae constitute an entangled cottony mass
of filaments termed mycelium that may be
as
aseptate coenocytic or septate multicellular.
 Possess a cell wall made up of chitin or fungal
cellulose and membrane bound organelles.
 May be solitary unicellular types or
multicellular filamentous types called hyphae.
 Plastids absent.
 Mode of nutrition heterotrophic (absorption
and extracellular digestion), saprophytic or
parasitic.
 8

 Non-motile in forms but some may produce VIRUSES

motile zoospores.
 Embryo formation does not occur but various It can be described as an extremely small infectious agent which
fruiting bodies are formed. causes a variety of disease in plants and animals, e.g. small
 Most members pathogenic on plants as well as
pox, common cold. Viruses can only reproduce in living tissues.
Outside the living cell, they exist as inactive particles
animals and cause various diseases as rust,
surrounded by a protein coat.
smut and mildew (in higher plants.)
 Useful fungi include yeast, Penicillium etc. Some Common Viruses
used in bakery, brewery and antibiotic A. ssRNA Viruses
industries. 1. Tobamovirus Group
 Intercellular mycelia give out haustoria that  Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV)
absorb the nutrients from host cells.  Cucumber green mottle mosaic virus
 Asexual and sexual reproduction observed;  Tomato mosaic virus
 Sunhemp mosaic virus
members with no sexual reproduction known
2. Potecvirus Group
fungi imperfecti .
 Potato virus X
 Edible fungi: mushrooms and morels.
 Potato aucuba mosaic virus
(iv) Kingdom Plantae (Multicellular Producers)  Papaya mosaic virus
 Members consist of multicellular, green,  Cassava common mosaic virus
photosynthetic, primary producers of the 3. Carlavirus Group
biosphere.  Carnation latent virus
 Aquatic as well as terrestrial, large-bodied and  Chicory blotch virus
non-motile (except bryophytes which produce  Hop latent virus
motile zoospores.)  Poplar mosaic virus
 Cells bound by cellulosic cell wall and contain 4. Potyvirus Group
the photosynthetic pigments or chloroplast.  Potato virus Y
 Higher plants have complex cellular organiza-  Beet mosaic virus
tion and vascular tissues (tracheophytes). B. dsRNA Plant viruses ( Reovirus Group )
 Wound tumour virus (WTV)
 Reproduction: by vegetative and sexual
 Rice dwarf virus (RDV)
methods.
 Maize rough dwarf virus (MRDV)
 All plants produce seeds except bryophytes
 Rice black-streaked dwarf virus
and pteridophytes. C. dsDNA Plant viruses
 Nutrition: autotrophic, absorptive (insecti-  Cauliflower mosaic virus (CMV)
vorous plants) or parasitic (totally parasitic e.g.  Dahlia mosaic virus (DMV)
Cuscuta or partial parasite, e.g. Santalum. )
 Lower plants possess simple thalloid organiza- Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV)
tion and lack vascular tissue (bryophytes).  TMV: a rod-shaped virus. Each virus particle is about 300
(v) Kingdom Animalia (Multicellular Consumers) nm (3000 Å) long and 18 nm (180 Å) in diameter.
 Consist of multicellular, eukaryotic organisms,  Made up of protein coat and RNA
lacking cell wall, plastids and photosynthetic  The protein coat consists of 2130 identical protein
pigments. subunits termed capsomeres .
 Nutrition: by ingestion and subsequent  RNA is single stranded and can be infective by itself
digestion within the gastric cavity : some alone.
possess absorption type of nutrition (parasites). Animal Viruses: They have 6 classes
 Reproduction: asexual or sexual in lower forms (i) Ds DNA Viruses
while predominantly sexual in higher forms. Papovaviruses Polymo virus and SV 40
 Animals: main consumers in the food chain and
Poxviruses Vaccinia Virus
Adenoviruses Few human adenoviruses
may be primary consumers (herbivores) or
Herpesviruses Human herpes simplex types I
secondary consumers (carnivores) .
and II
 Bear locomotory appendages and are, therefore,
(ii) ss DNA Viruses
motile. Parvoviruses Adeno associated virus (AAV)
 Characterized by well developed muscular and (iii) ds RNA Viruses
nervous systems. Reoviruses Reovirus of humans
 9

(iv) Positive strand RNA viruses  Wildfire disease of tobacco : Psuedomonas tabaci
Picornaviruses Poliovirus  Plant tumours or crown gallls : Agrobacterium
Togaviruses Dengue virus, yellow fever virus, tumefaciens
Semliki Forest Virus (SFV)
(v) Negative strand RNA viruses CAUSA TIVE AGENTS OF SOME HUMAN
Rhabdoviruses Rabies virus and vesicular DISEASES
stomatitis virus (VSV) Tuberculosis - Mycobacterium hominis
Paramyxoviruses Mumps virus, Measles virus and
Diptheria - Corynebacterium
Sendai virus
diptheriae
Orthomyxo viruses Human influenza virus
Bunya viruses Bunya wera viruses Cholera - Vibrio cholerae
Arenaviruses Lassa viruses Leprosy - Mycobacterium leprae
(iv) RNA-DNA Viruses Tetanus - Clostridium tetani
Retro viruses HIV, Rous sarcoma virus (RSV) Pneumonia - Diplococcus pneumoniae
Mouse leukemia virus Meningitis - Neisseria meningitides
Food poisoning - Clostridium botulinum
BACTERIA Plague - Pasteurella pestis
Rat-bite fever - Spirillum minus
1. They are single cell organisms thus the smallest living Enteritis - Escherichia coli
organisms. They include bacteria, blue green algae and Urinogential infection - Klebsiella sp.
viruses although viruses are not cellular on account of Bacillary dysentery - Shigella sp.
their complex genetic machinery. Undulant fever - Brucella sp.
2. Can live in extreme conditions of high temperature 80- Abscesses - Staphylococcus
90°C i.e., acidothermophillics as well as extreme low Anthrax - Bacillus anthracis
temperatures -190°C i.e., psychrophillic
3. Genetic material: naked circular DNA termed as nucleoid PATHOGENIC i.e. DISEASE PRODUCING
or prochromosome. PROTOZOANS
4. No cell organerally in cytoplasm except ribosomes.
5. Cellulose is generally absent in their cell walls except in I. Parasites of Mouth
few as Acetobacter xylinum and Zumosarcina. 1. Entamoeba gingivalis : A sarcodina that lives in the
6. Typical flagellum is absent, monofibrillar and is made up tarter of teeth and pockets of gums, they probably
of flagellin proteins. aggravate pyorrhoea in man. They are also found in
7. Bacteria have heterotrophic nutrition (saprotropic or dogs and cats. The human infection is caused by kissing.
parasitic or symbiotic). 2. Trichomonas tenax : A flagellate also lives in pus
8. Some are autotrophic, either photosynthetic (e.g. pockets formed between teeth and gums. It causes
cyanobacteria ; green and purple bacteria) or pyorrhoea . It is transmitted during kissing.
chmeosynthetic (or chemoautotrophic) 3. Leishmania braziliensis : A flagellate lives in the nasal
9. They are the only living organisms which can fix mucous membrane. It causes espundia. The infection
atmospheric nitrogen. is transmitted to man by the bite of sand-fly.
CAUSA TIVE AGENTS OF SOME ANIMAL II. Parasites of Digestive Tract
DISEASES 1. Entamoeba histolytica: It lives in the colon of man,
 Chicken cholera : Salmonella sp. sometimes in dogs and cats. It causes amoebic
 Sheep anthrax : Bacillus anthracis dysentery. It may reach liver, spleen, lungs and liver
 Eye diseases : Chalmydia trachomatis and causes amoebic abscesses. Infection takes place
 Pneumonia : Mycoplasma pneumoniae by swallowing of cysts.
2. Trichomonas hominis: It lives in large intestine of man,
CAUSA TIVE AGENT OF SOME PLANT monkeys, cats and dogs. It causes diarrhoea and
DISEASES dysentery. It is transmitted through infective cysts.
3. Chilomonas: It lives in large intestine of man and causes
 Fire blight of pear : Xanthomonas
diarrhoea and allied troubles. Transmission is by means
 Angular leafspot of cotton : Xanthomonas malvacearum
of infective cysts.
 Soft rot of potato, tomato, cabbage and turnip: Erwinia 4. Giardia intestinalis: It lives in large intestine of man
aroideae and causes diarrhoea. Transmission takes place by
 Black rot of potato : Erwinia atroseptica tetranucleated cyst with contaminated food and water.
2732 (Biology)—2
 10

5. Isopara hominis : It lives in the large intestine, some or kala-azar. Infection occurs by the bite of sand-
other species occur in dogs and cats. They cause fly, Phlebotomus.
diarrhoea and abdominal discomforts. Infection occurs 2. L. tropica : It occurs in the endothelial cells of
by oocysts through contamination. dermal tissues causing Oriental sores or
6. Sarocystis : It occurs in the muscles of oesophagus of cutaneous leishmaniasis in man. Infections
sheep causing weakness of muscles. Transmission occurs by the bite of sand-fly, Phlebotomus.
occurs by cysts. 3. L. infentum : It occurs in the spleen of children.
7. Nosema apis : It occurs in the intestine and malpighian It causes enlargement of spleen. Transmission is
tubules of honey bee causing Nosemia. bite of sand fly, Phlebotomus.
8. Balantidium coli : It lives in the colon of man causing (c) Plasmodium species: A number of species of
chronic ciliary dysentery. Transmission is by infective Plasmodium occur as intracellular parasites in red
cysts. blood corpuscles of man and birds. The female
9. Eimeria : It is found in the digestive tract of sheep, Anopheles is the vector.
birds and cattle. It causes diarrhoea. Transmission 1. Plasmodium vivax : It causes beningn tertian
occurs by oocysts. malaria.
10. Trichomonas gallinae : It is found in the epithelial lining 2. P. ovale: It causes beningn ovale tertian malaria.
of oesophagus and crops of fowl, pigeons and turkeys. 3. P. falciparum : It occurs malignant subtertian
It causes necrotic nodules. Transmission is through malaria.
droppings. 4. P. malariae : It causes quartan fever.
11. Histomonas meleagridis : It lives in the liver of turkeys 5. P. praecox : It causes malaria in birds.
and fowls causing black-head disease. Transmission 6. P. gallinaceum : It causes malaria in chicken and
occurs by ingesting contaminated eggs of caecal worm. phesants.
III. Parasites of Blood and Lymph (d) Babesia species: Many species of Babesia are found
in cattle, dogs and horses. These are:
(a) Trypanosoma species: A number of species of 1. Babesia begemina : It occurs in R.B.C. of cattles
Trypanosoma are parasites in the blood of man as causing Texas and Red water fever. It is
well as some other vertebrates. trasmitted by the bite of tick, Boophilus.
1. T. gambiense : It occurs in the human blood 2. B. canis : It occurs in R.B.C. of cattles, causing
causing African sleeping sickness. It gets jaundice and sometimes paralysis of hind-limbs.
transmitted through the bite of testse fly, Transmission occurs through the sicks.
Glossina palpalis. (e) Haemoproteus: It is found in the R.B.Cs. and
2. T. rhodesiense : In man it causes Rhodesian endothelial cells of blood vessels in birds.
sleeping sickness. It is transmitted through the
bite of testse fly. Glossina morsitans. IV. Parasites of Urogenital Tract
3. T. cruzi: In early stage it is found in the muscles,
1. Trichomonas vaginalis : It is found in the vagina of
heart, brain, spinal cord and in later stages in the
female causing vaginitis (annoying itch and abnormal
blood. It causes changas disease in South and
discharge) and in man it is found in urethra.
Central Africa. Infection is transmitted by the bite
Transmission is direct through intercourse.
of bug, Tritoma magista.
2. Trichomonas foetus : It occurs in the urogenital system
4. T. brucei : It causes nagana disease in
of sheep, horse and cattle and causes uterine and penial
domesticated cattles and it is transmitted by
disorders. Transmission is direct through intercourse.
Glossina morsitans.
3. Eimeria truncata : It occurs in the kidneys of goose
5. T. enevsi: It occurs in the blood of horse, dogs
causing death.
and camels, It causes surra disease. It is
transmitted by Tabanus fly. Plant Pathogenic Fungi
6. T. equiperdum: It is found in the blood and
germinal epithelium of horses, dogs and donkeys. Disease Organism
It causes dourine disease in horse. The disease Foot rot of seeding Pythium sp .
is transmitted during copulation. Late blight of potato Phytophthora sp.
(b) Leishmania species: It is a parasite of man and other Wilt of tomato Fusarium sp.
animals. Some of them are as follows: Leaf spot of turmeric Taphrina
1. Leishmania donovani : It is found in the Red rot of sugarcane Colletotrichum
endothelial cells of blood and lymph capillaries White rust of radish Albugo candida
and leucocytes in the spleen, liver , bone marrow Powdery mildew of pea Erysiphe polygoni
and lymph gland causing visceral leishmaniasis Rust of wheat Puccinia graminis
 11

Human Pathogenic Fungi Common names Zoological names

Disease Organism Eel Anguilla
Ring worm Microsporum audouini Electric fish Torpedo
Athletes foot Epidermophyton fuccosum Fresh water shark Wallago atter
Flat fish Cynoglossus
and Trichophyton sp.
Flying fish Exocoetus
Barber’s itch Trichophyton sp.
Flute fish Fistularia
Onychomycoses Microsporum sp. and Globe fish Tetradon
Trichophyton rubrum Garpike Lepidosteus
Aspergillosis Aspergillus fumigatus Hammer headed fish Sphyma
Candidiasis Candida albicans Mosquito fish Gambusia
Indian shad Hilas ilisha
SOME COMMON FISHES Porcupine fish Diodon
Pipe fish Syngnathus
Common names Zoological names Rabbit fish Chimaera
Saw fish Pristis
Africa lung fish Protopterus
Sucker fish Echeneis
American lung fish Lepidosiren Sea horse Hippocampus
Climbing perch Anabas Sting ray Trigon
Cat fish Clarius Sturgeon Acipencer
Coelacanth fish Latemeria Tiger shark Stegostoma
Dog fish Scloliodon Whale shark Rhyncodon
 12
CHAPTER
3
CELL STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION
Cell: Cell is a unit of structure and biological activity made of
an organised mass of protoplasm surrounded by a protective
and selectively permeable covering.
Cytology: It is the study of form, structure and contents of
cells as observed under the microscope. The term was coined
by Hertwig (1893) who also wrote a book on ‘Cells and Tissues’.
Cell Biology: Cell biology is the study of all aspects of cells
and their components including their structure, biochemistry,
development and physiology. It is a unifying subject that is
akin to studying life because of the fundamental processes of
cells are not only similar but are actually life processes that
make the cells living entities.
Tools and Techniques for Cell Study: Tools for cell study are
devices and instruments called microscopes. Techniques are
skills required to aid study of cells and their components. They
are histological preparations, cytochemistry, autoradiography,
cell fractionation, biochemical techniques and tissue culture.
Units of Measurement
1 mm = 0.1 cm = 0.001 m
1 micrometre/micron/m/ = 0.001 mm
= 10–3 mm = 10–6 m (10–4 cm)
1 nanometre/millimicron/nm/m = 0.001 m
= 10–3 m = 10–6 mm = 10–9 m = (10–7 cm)
1 angstrom/Å = 0.1 nm = 10–4 mm
= 10–7 mm 10–10 m (=10–8 cm)
Smaller units are picometre = 10 –12 m, femtometre =
10 m and attometre = 10–18 m.
–15
Common unit of measurement in microscopy (as well cytology)
and photometry is nm (nanometre) while unit for measurement
of cells in m (micrometre, previously called micron or ).
Microscopy: It is the practice of using microscopes for the
study of finer details of small objects including cells and tissues.
Size of Image with the
Instrument at retina
Magnificat ion 
Size of Image with
Unaided Eye at retina
12
Magnification of a microscope is roughly equal to the
multiple of magnifying power of objective lens and ocular lens
eye (eye piece), e.g., 45 × objective and 105 eye piece = 450 ×
magnification.
Microtomy: Microscopic examination requires sectioning and
staining. Sectioning is done by hand or machine known as
microtome (developed by W.His). Extremely thin sections
(20-100 nm) are obtained by ultramicrotome using glass or
diamond knife.
X-ray Crystallography (Bragg, 1913): X-ray microscope
(developed by Kirkpatrick) is useful in studying detailed
structures of chemicals present in solid state (e.g., haemoglobin,
insulin, DNA, RNA) due to diffraction of X-rays (wavelength
1 – 10 Å) by different atoms of the substance. Watson and
Crick (1953) found out the structure of DNA from X-ray
diffraction obtained by Astbury and Franklin (1953).
Cytochemistry: A number ofdyes or stains are known to colour
specific parts. Certain dyes can be used even in case of living
materials. They are calledvital stains, e.g., neutral red, methylene
blue. Fuelgen or Schiff’s reaction was developed by Fuelgen
and Rossenbeck (1924). It employs basic fuchsin after acid
hydrolysis.
Tracer Isotopes: Radioactive isotopes function like normal
elements but emit radiations. Thus they can be located by
Geiger counter or scintillation counter and autoradiography,
e.g., 3H, 14 C, 32 P, 35 S, 42 K. Instead of radioactive isotopes,
heavy isotopes like 15 N and 18 O can be used and are analysed
by mass spectroscopy (photosynthetic evolution of oxygen
from water by Ruben et al , 1941) and density gradients
centrifugation.
Autoradiography: Radioactive isotopes (3H, 14C, 32P, 35S) are
incorporated in intermediate or raw materials (e.g., CO2, uridine,
thymidine, amino acids) for studying metabolic pathways
including DNA  RNA  Protein pathway.
Svedberg Unit (S): It is a unit to measure sedimentation rate or
sedimentation coefficient of a particle in an analytical
ultracentrifuge . It is related to weight and volume of a material,
 13
e.g. 4S tRNA has a molecular weight of about 25000 daltons.
Microspectrophotometry: Solutions, gases and solids
containing chemicals are subjected to different radiations.
Absorption spectra are compared to know the chemicals.
CELL—THE BASIC UNIT OF LIFE
1. Robert Hooke coined the term ‘Cell’ for small structures
in a piece of cork under a microscope (1665). His
observations were published in his book, Micrographia.
2. Leeuwenhoek (1674) observed one celled structure like
bacteria, protozoans and blood cells. Dutrochet later
confirmed that plants were also made up of cells.
3. Cell is now defined as structural and functional unit of
the body. There are two general classes of cells:
Prokaryotic cells and Eukaryotic cells.
4. Theories in cytology
(i) Colloidal theory: Protoplasm is polyphasic colloidal
solution that generates energy of life.
(ii) Protoplasm theory: It states that an organism is
made up protoplasm and cells are simply an
accumulation of protoplasm.
(iii) Organismal theory: According to it an organism is
a continuous mass of protoplasm segmented into
cells. Idea of cell theory was first given by H.J.
Dutrochet (1824) .
(iv) Cell theory: The credit of forming the cell theory
goes to German botanist, M.J. Schleiden (1838)
and German zoologist, T. Schwann (1839) .
Outlines of cell theory include: (a) A cell is the basic
unit of life and (b) cells arise de novo.
(v) Modern cell theory or cell principle or cell doctrine.
It states that:
(a) all organism are made up of cells
(b) cells arise from pre-existing cells ( Omnis
cellulae cellula )
(c) all organisms atart their life from a single cell
(d) multiplication of cells and their growth leads
to the growth of an organism.
5. Cell size: Two important factors contribute to the cell size:
(i) Nucleocytoplasmic ratio and
(ii) Surface area of a cell
6. Cellular totipotency
(i) The capacity of a cell to form whole of the organism
is called totipotency , as called by Morgan .
(ii) Pluripotency means the ability to differentiate
completely after cell maturity.
(iii) German botanist, Gottlieb Haberlandt was the first
to culture plant tissues ‘ in vitro ’.
(iv) Callus is the mass of undifferentiated cells formed
by growth of a totipotent cell in culture.
(v) Callus was first time differentiated to whole plant
of tobacco by Skoog and Miller .
7. Comparison of sizes
Organs > 1 mm
Tissues 10 – 100m
Cells 0.3 – 10 m
Cell components 1 – 200 nm
Molecules and Atoms < 1 nm
8.
(i) Smallest cell is Mycoplasma gallisepticum (0.1 m)
which is also referred to as PPLO (Pleuro-pneumonia
like organism) or Jokers of plant kingdom.
(ii) Largest prokaryote is Spirillum volutans (15 m)
(iii) Largest plant cell is an alga,Acetabularia (8-10 cm)
(iv) Longest animal cell is egg of Ostrich (175 mm ×
158 mm)
(v) Longest cell fibre is Ramie fibre ofBoehmeria nivea
(550 mm)
(vi) Longest animal cell is a nerve cell (1 m long)
9. Prokaryotes: These cells are small in size and are exhibited
by bacteria and cyanobacteria (Blue-green algae)
They have the following characteristic features:
(i) The cell wall is made of murein derived from amino
acids (glutamic acid, alanine, glycine and lysine).
sometimes instead of lysine similar substance like
N-acetyl glucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid are
present.
(ii) Plasma membrane forms infoldings called
mesosomes or chondrioids which control DNA
replication, cell division and respiration as they store
respiratory enzymes.
(iii) Membrane bound organelles such as mitochondria,
plastids, ER and Golgi bodies are absent .
(iv) Vacuoles are absent , however, protosynthetic
prokaryotes including both bacteria and blue-green
algae possess gas bubbles.
(v) Flagella (if present) lack 9 + 2 fibrillar structure but
have a single fibril made up of flagellin proteins.
(vi) Cytoplasmic streaming (cyclosis) is absent .
(vii) These cells divide by simple fission.
(viii) Organized nucleus is absent but a simple structure
called nucleoid or chromatin body or genophore is
present. The nucleoid lacks nuclear envelope and
nucleolus but contains a single circular molecule
of double-stranded DNA which is also called a ring-
chromosome. The DNA does not have histone
proteins associated with it, but contain acidic
proteins.
10. Eukaryotes: These cells contain a membrane-bound
nucleus having nucleolus and chromosomes, and
membrane bound organelles. They are of two types: plant
cells and animals cells.
11. The plant cell: A typical plant cell can be differentiated
into three parts:
(a) Cell Wall (b) Protoplasm and (c) Vacuole.
12. Protoplasm: The term ‘protoplasm’ was first given by
Purkinje (1839) for the living substance of the cell.
 14
In 1846, Hugo Von Mohl introduced a distinction between
the protoplasm and cell sap. Protoplasm is a viscous
colourless fluid and is the seat for all the physiological
functions. Later in 1868, Huxley suggested that
‘protoplasm is the physical basis of life ’.
4. The plasma membrane is permeable but differentially
BIOMEMBRANES
1. All cells and most of the organelles are enveloped by a
thin membrane called plasma membrane. This was
discovered by Nageli and Crammer in 1855. It was called
‘plasmalemma’ by J.Q. Plowe (1931).
2. Feature of plasma membrane
Occurrence : Found in animals, plants, fungi
and bacterial cells
Thickness : 75 Å
Composition Lipids : They form the main bulk and exist
in form of phospholipids (30 to
40%). They mostly occur in form
of lecithin and have hydrophilic
heads and hydrophobic tails.
Proteins : They form the backbone with 40-
60% of the plasma membrane and
form structural components,
carrier molecules and enzymes.
They exist in intrinsic and
extrinsic forms.
Carbohydrates : They are about 1 to 6%.
Salts and Water : They are present in small
amounts.
3. Structure : Various models can be as under
(i) Danielli and Davson model: It is also called
bimolecular leaflet model or sandwich model or
lamellar model which was proposed by Danielli and
Davson (1934). According to this model, the two
globular proteins layers were thought to sandwich
a phospholipid bilayer.
(ii) Lattice model: It was proposed by Wolpers (1941).
According to him lipids were thought to be
distributed in the meshes of protein frame work.
(iii) Robertson unit membrane model: This concept of
Robertson (1959) explains that a phospholipid
bilayer is surrounded by two continuous protein
layers.
(iv) Fluid mosaic model: Finally in 1972 this model was
introduced by S. Singer and G. Nicholson.
According to it the protein molecules were put
within the phospholipid bilayer and two types of
globular proteins, extrinsic and intrinsic were
introduced in this model. This is the most acceptable
theory.
(v) Micellar model: This was proposed by Hillier and
Hoffman (1953). The model explains that lipid
micelles (globular subunits) form the building block
and the protein globules are arranged on either
sides.
(vi) Greater membrane model: It was given by
Lehminger. According to him. The inner surface of
the membrane is covered by unconjugated proteins
and outer surface by glycoproteins to which
oligosaccharide side chains are attached.
(selectively) and performs following functions.
(i) Transport
(a) Plasma membrane acts as a barrier but permits
few substances into and out of the cell.
(b) The nutrient materials are taken in while the
waste products are expelled out.
(ii) Cell recognition and Adhesion
(a) Cells like mammalian leucocytes are able to
differentiate between foreign cells and other
cell of blood by adhering to the foreign particles
and engulfing them by phagocytosis.
(b) Sialic acid (an amino-sugar) present on the
surface of plasma membranne is possible
involved in cell recognition and adhesion.
(iii) Antigen Specificity
(a) The specificity of antigens of the cells is
determined by the glycoproteins present on
the cell surface.
(b) The different blood group system is based on
the relationship between antigens on RBC and
antibodies in blood serum.
(iv) Hormone Receptors
(a) Hormone receptors are located on the outer
surface in the plasma membrane.
(b) These recognize the specific hormones and
relay the information of the hormone to the
anterior of the cell.
(v) Secretion
(a) Secretion occurs in the ribosome at the
endoplasmic reticulum and the secretory
products are condensed in Golgi complex.
(b) The secretory vesicles, from Golgi complex,
carrying the products, move to cell periphery
and fuse with the plasma membrane.
(vi) Oxidative Phosphorylation
(a) The inner membrane of the plasma membrane
has the electron transport chain that can
transfer electrons.
(b) Electrons from substrate pass along this chain
and cause reduction and oxidation of each
component.
(c) During the process free energy is decreased,
half of which is utilized in synthesis of ATP.
(d) This is called oxidative phosphorylation.
(vii) Endocytosis
(a) It is the process of transport of substances to
the interior of the cell by formation of vesicles.
(b) It includes phagocytosis (cell eating) and
pinocytosis (cell drinking).
 15
(c) Phagocytosis involves ingestion of solid
particles whereas pinocytosis refers to
ingestion of fluid material.
(viii) Exocytosis
(a) It is reverse of endocytosis and also called as
cell vomiting.
(b) Membrane of vesicles (formed in cell interior)
reach the periphery and fuse with plasma-
membrane thereby releasing their contents to
the outside of cell.
(ix) Chemoreception
(a) The chemoreceptors present in membranes of
bacteria and protozoa are proteins.
(b) In mammals, the binding proteins associated
with the cell membranes act as chemoreceptors
for taste and smell.
(c) In man, specific receptor proteins for four
distinct tastes sour, sweet, bitter and salty, have
been found to occur.
(x) Transmission
(a) The surface membrane of the nerve cells is
found to be involved in the transmission of
nerve impulses.
Separation and Protection
(b) Plasma membrane separates and protects the
living protoplasm from its non-living
environment.
(xi) Excitation: Membrane of excitable cells e.g. ( muscle
and nerve cells) is capable of series of reversible
structural and functional changes.
(xii) Enzymatic Action of the External Environment:
Several enzymes are integral part of plasma
membrane and by virtue of which the membranes
can act chemically on their immediate environment.
(xiii) Division and Fusion: Cell membranes can divide to
form new cells or vesicles within a plasma membrane,
both processes are intimately related.
(xiv) Regeneration and repair
(a) Plasma membrane is able to:
* reform rapidly over exposed regions of
cytoplasm.
* fuse with one another if ruptured.
* expand and contract during cell movement
or changes in cell shape.
(b) These abilities suggest fluid and dynamic
nature of membrane.
CELL ORGANELLES
I. Cell Wall
1. Monerans, plant protistans, fungi and plants have
characteristic cell wall around their plasma membrane
which is lacking in animals cells.
2. The cell wall is non-living which is secreted and
maintained by the protoplasm. It constitutes a frame-
work that provides mechanical support to the organisms.
3. In plants it is composed principally of cellulose.
4. Adjacent walls are cemented by calcium pectate which
forms middle lamella .
5. On the basis of development and structure, the plant
cell wall can be divided into three layers
(a) Primary wall
(b) Secondary wall
(c) Tertiary wall.
6. Plasmodesmata. In most of the plant cells, there are
bridges of cytoplasmic material called plasmodesmata
which establish the continuity between the adjacent
cells through the pores present in the cell wall. They
have a thin plasma membrane and may contain
microtubules.
II. Nucleus
1. It discovered by a English botanist, Robert Brown in
1831, and is designated as the ‘ Director of the cell. ’
2. It is the largest organelle within eukaryotic cells, ranges
from 5 to 25 mm in size.
3. Its nucleus is called karyology.
4. Some cells like those of sieve tubes of vascular plants
and RBCs of mammals do not posses nuclei at maturity.
As they can no longer divide, their life span is limited.
5. It consists of nuclear envelope or karyotheca
(i) nucleoplasm or nuclear sap or karyolymph or
karyoplasm
(ii) nucleolus
(iii) nuclear reticulum or chromatin reticulum .
6. The term ‘chromosome’ was coined by Waldeyer is
1888.
7. Their number is constant in the nucleus for a particular
species.
8. The lowest diploid number known among plants is 4,
found in Haplopappus gracillis whereas
Ophioglossum reticulatum has as high as 1,260
chromosomes.
9. Among animals Parascaris univalens has only 2
chromosomes while Aulacantha has 1,600
chromosomes per cell.
10. According to centromeric position chromosomes are
of five types :
(i) Telocentric chromosomes: centromere situated
on one end.
(ii) Acrocentric chromosomes: with centromere little
away from the tip and have one very small arm.
(iii) Sub-metacentric chromosomes: These are
L-shaped chromosomes with unequal arms.
(iv) Metacentric chromosomes: centromere in the
middle with equal arms. These are V-sphaped
chromosomes.
(v) Acentric : without centromere.
11. Structure of chromosomes
(i) The chromosome consists of proteinaceous
matrix and two spirally coiled chromonemata,
 16
each one of which contains a single DNA
molecule.
(ii) When the coils of chromonemata are easily
separable, they are referred to asparanemic coils.
(iii) When chromonemata remain so inter-twined that
their coils are not easily separable then such coils
are called plectonemic .
(iv) Each chromonema (singular) possesses bead-like
thickenings called chromomeres .
(v) However, recent studies have shown that each
individual chromosome in the eukaryotic cell
contains a single chromonema which represents
a single DNA molecule.
(vi) Each chromosome has one (sometimes two or
more) clear zone, called centromere or
kinetochore or Primary constriction .
12. Chemical composition of chromosomes
(i) DNA
(ii) RNA
(iii) Proteins: two major classes are found
(a) basic proteins called histones and
(b) a heterogenous, largely acidic group of
proteins collectively referred to as non-
histone chromosomal proteins.
13. Nucleosomes
(i) R.D. Kornberg and Thomas (1974) proposed a
model to explain the structure of nucleosome.
(ii) The term ‘nucleosome’ for chromatin subunits
was suggested by Oudet et al , in 1975.
(iii) Histones are of five types and they are designated
as H 1, H 2A, H 2B, H 3 and H 4.
14. Special chromosomes
A. Polytene chromosomes or Salivary gland
chromosomes
(i) These chromosomes were first observed by
Balbiani in 1881.
(ii) The name ‘polytene chromosome’ was
assigned to them by Killar .
(iii) They are found in the tissues of dipteran
larvae, such as salivary glands, gut, trachea,
fat body cells and malpighian tubules.
(iv) Polytene chromosomes are of rare
occurrence in plants, although observed by
W. Nageli (1962) in the embryo ofPhaseolus
coccineus .
(v) In Drosophila melanogaster the volume of
polytene chromosomes is about 1,000 times
greater than that of somatic chromosomes.
(vi) The total length is about 2,000 m as
compared to 7.5 m in other somatic
chromosomes.
B. Lampbrush chromosomes
(i) These chromosomes were first observed by
Flemming in 1882.
(ii) They were described in detail in shark
oocytes by Ruckert (1892) who also coined
the name ‘lampbrush chromosomes’ to
them.
(iii) They occur at the diplotene stage of meiotic
prophase in oocytes of amphibians and also
in the giant nucleus of the unicellular alga,
Acetabularia .
(iv) Each lampbrush chromosome has many fine
lateral projections or loops giving them a
characteristic ‘hairy’ appearance.
(v) They are best visualised inSalamander (5200
m) about three times longer than the
polytene chromosomes of Drosophila .
III. Endoplasmic Reticulum (Filamental
Structure)
1. Garneir for the first time had described them as
filamemtous structure, ergastoplasm.
2. They were first discovered by Claude (1951) under
electron microscope.
3. The term “endoplasmic reticulum” was first coined by
Porter et al. in 1945.
4. E.R. is abundant in liver, pancreas and other actively
synthesizing cells. E.R. is absent in RBC , ova,
embryonic cells and prokaryotes .
5. There are two types of endoplasmic reticulum :
Rough endoplasmic reticulum and Smooth endoplamic
recticulum
(i) Tubular forms with ribosomes. Tubular forms
without ribosomes.
(ii) It is more developed in cells actively engaged in
protein synthesis. It is abundant in the cells
engaged in glycogen and lipid metabolism .
6. However, rough ER may be converted into smooth ER
and vice versa, depending upon the metabolic
requirements of the cell.
7. Functions of endoplasmic reticulum
(i) It provides mechanical support to the cytoplasm.
(ii) It plays an important role in the intracellular
transport and storage of proteins and sometimes
lipids.
(iii) It synthesizes lipids and lipoproteins.
(iv) Smooth ER is involved in glycogenolysis.
(v) It forms other cellular organelles such as Golgi
bodies, peroxisomes, and glyoxysomes.
(vi) It forms nuclear envelope at the end of the
telophase stage of the cell division.
IV. Golgi Complex Structure
1. An Italian physician Camillo Golgi (1898) first
recognised this structure in nerve cells of Barn owl and
hence named after the discoverer.
2. These are also known as Lipochondrion, Golgi body or
Golgi apparatus or Idiosome.
 17
3. Composition: The Golgi complex is composed of about
60% protein and about 40% lipids and polysaccharides.
4. Functions
(i) It packs and transports certain materials like
proteins and polysaccharides out of the cell (cell
secretion).
(ii) It is the seat for formation of glycolipids and
glycoproteins.
(iii) It synthesises hemicellulose, cellulose and pectin
compounds during cell division and hence
involved in cell wall formation in plants.
(iv) It helps in storage of secretory products.
(v) It gives rise to lysosomes and vacuoles.
(vi) It forms acrosome in sperms.
V. Microtubules
1. They were first observed by de Robertis and Franchi
(1953) in nerve fibres.
2. They are found in all eukaryotic cells either free in
cytoplasm or forming part of centrioles, cilia and flagella.
They are about 250 Å in diameter, several micrometer in
length and with a wall of 60 Å thickness consisting of
13 subunits.
3. Functions
(i) Microtubules together with microfilaments
functions as cytoskeleton.
(ii) Microtubules maintain the shape of some cell
processes such as axons and dendrities.
(iii) They transport molecules and granules within
the cells and thus they function as micro-
circulatory system.
(iv) They help in spindle fibre formation during cells
division.
(v) They provide frame work for cyclosis.
VI. Centrosome
1. The first description of centrosome was given by Van
Beneden (1880).
2. The term ‘centrosome’ was coined by Boveri (1881).
3. It is found in cytoplasm near the nucleus in animal cells
and certain lower plants, however, it is absent in seed
plants, prokaryotes and Amoeba.
4. The radiating structure comprises, astral-rays , the
centrosphere and two small bodies called centrioles
or diplosomes .
5. Centrioles are independent, cylindrical bodies (0.2 ×
0.5 m) lying perpendicular to each other at a distance
0.8 m.
6. The wall of each centriole has nine triplets of
microtubules arranged in a circle.
7. The microtubules of centrioles are madeup of tubulin
and some lipids. The interior of centriole is filled with a
homogeneous cytoplasm of low density.
8. RNA and DNA have also been observed in them.
9. Both centrioles may give rise to a flagellum but in most
cases only one does and the other centriole remains at
right angle to the kinetosome or basal body.
10. They help in spindle formation during cell division of
animal cells.
VII. Cilia and Flagella
1. Cilia and flagella are composed of three major parts:
(i) a central axoneme or shaft ,
(ii) the surrounding plasma membrane, and
(iii) the interposed cytoplasmic matrix.
2. The axonemal elements of nearly all cilia and flagella
(as well as the tails of sperm cells) contain the same
‘9 + 2’ arrangement of microtubules.
3. In the centre of axoneme are two singlet microtubules
that run the length of the cilium.
4. Projections from the central microtubules occur
periodically along their length to form an enclosing
sheath .
5. Each of the central microtubules is composed of 13
protofilaments.
6. Nine doublet microtubules surround the central sheath.
One microtubule of each doublet ( i.e., A subfibre) is
composed of 13 protofilaments. The adjoining B subfibre
is ‘incomplete’, consisting of 11 protofilaments.
7. Radial spokes having a periodicity of 24, 32 and 40 nm
extend from each A subfibre inward to the central sheath.
8. Adjacent doublets are joined by nexin or interdoublet
links.
9. Extending from each A subfibre are two dynein arms –
an outer and inner arm.
10. Functions
1. Locomotion: Creation of water current for food
ingestion
2. Filtreation: internal circulation of fluids.
3. Sensory functions: cleaning of respiratory tract.
VIII. Microbodies:
They are minute spherical bodies in a cell bounded by single
unit membrane. The following kinds are recognized namely,
A. Lysosomes B. Spherosomes
C. Peroxisomes D. Glyoxysomes
E. Lomasomes.
IX. Plastids
1. One of the main distinguishing characteristic of most
plant cells is the presence of plastids .
2. The credit for the discovery of these organelles is
generally given to Schimper (1880).
3. The term ‘plastid’ was coined by E. Haeckel (1866).
4. Plastids generally contain pigments and may synthesise
and accumulate various substances. However, some
plastids are devoid of pigments and they serve primarily
for the storage of various substances.
2732 (Biology)—3
 18

5. The plastids are of three types: 4. Structure of a mitochondrion

(a) Leucoplasts (i) Structurally, a mitochondrion consists of two
(b) Chromoplasts and membranes, an outer limiting membrane and an
(c) Chloroplasts. inner membrane.
(ii) The inner membrane is most frequently
X. Ribosomes convoluted to form a large number of infoldings
1. Ribosomes were first observed by Claude (1941) called cristae or mitochondrial crests.
who named them ‘microsomes’. (iii) The membranes of the mitochondrion separate it
2. Palade (1955) described them in animal cells under the into two distinct compartments.
electron microscope as dense particles or granules and (iv) An outer compartment sometimes called
Robert (1958) coined the term ‘ribosome’ . intermembranal space is formed between the
3. They are one of the smallest organelles of the cell. outer and inner membrane.
4. In prokaryotes, the ribosomes are free in the cytoplasm. (v) The inner compartment, also called mitochondrial
5. In eukaryotes, they are either free in the cytoplasmic chamber, is bound by the inner membrane.
matrix or attached to the membranes of endoplasmic (vi) This mitochondrial chamber is filled with dense
reticulum by glycoproteins called ribophorins. In proteinaceous material called the matrix,
eukaryotes, ribosomes are also found in mitochondria (vii) The mitochondrial matrix contains most of the
and chloroplasts. enzymes of Kreb’s cycle.
6. During protein synthesis, many ribosomes become (viii) The ribosomes in mitochondria are smaller than
attached to the mRNA molecule, forming polyribosome
a cytoplasmic eukaryotic ribosomes and there is
or polysome which is the site for polypeptide synthesis. considerable variation in the sizes of the subunits
7. They are approximately spheroid in shape with a and the monomers formed from them as given
diameter of 23 Å. below
8. Each ribosome consists of a large and a small subunits. Animal mitochondrial ribosome
9. Ribosomes are generally measured on the basis of their Type Sedimentation coefficient
sedimentation coefficient which is expressed in Monomer 50 – 60 S
Svedberg (S) units, as given under: Large Subunit 40 – 45 S
Small Subumit 30 – 35 S
Examples Ribosomes Subunits
1. Eukaryotes 80 S 60 S and 40 S (ix) The inner membrane in the crest region is covered
2. Prokaryotes 70 S 50 S and 30 S by the particles of 8.5 nm size. These particles
3. Fungi (Yeast 70 S 50 S and 30 S are called elementary or F 1 particles or oxysomes
and Neurospora ) or respiratory assemblies.
4. Mitochondria 50–60 S 40 S and 30 S (x) There are about 10 4 to 10 5 elementary particles
(Variable) per mitochondrion. These particles contains a
5. Chloroplast 70 S 50 S and 30 S special ATPase enzyme involved in oxidative
phosphorylation.
10. Composition : Ribosomes are composed of RNA 5. Composition: Mitochondria consists of approx. 65-70%
(rRNA) and protein present almost in equal amounts. proteins, 30-35% lipids and small amounts of DNA and
In addition, they have enzymes, lipids and metallic ions RNA.
(Mg, Ca, Mn and Fe). 6. Function of mitochondrion: They are seat for cellular
11. Important functions of ribosomes respiration and produce energy in the form of ATP (i.e.,
(i) Ribosomes are the site for protein synthesis in cellular currency) needed for cellular functions. Thus
the cell. they are called power houses .
(ii) It is the assembly shop or protein factory where
amino acids are linkled to form proteins. XII. Vacuole
(iii) It gives protection of mRNA and newly 1. Vacuoles are liquid-filled cavities, the presence of which
synthesized polypeptide chains from enzymes, is characteristic features of plant cells.
nucleases and proteases respectively. 2. In young dividing cells, vacuoles are small and
numerous and remain scattered throughout the
XI. Mitochondria cytoplasm while in mature cells there is a single large
1. They were first observed by Kolliker (1880) in the central vacuole in each cell and it is surrounded by a
muscle cells. thin membrane called tonoplast .
2. Flemming called them ‘fila’ (1882). 3. It is filled with a fluid called cell sap which is the solution
3. Altmann in 1894 described them as ‘biplasts’. of sugars, salts, organic acids, glucosides and alkaloids.
2732 (Biology)—3-II
 19
4. Many vacuoles contain a pigment called anthocyanin
which gives red colour in very acidic sap and blue to
purple colour in alkaline medium.
5. Due to the change of the colour of anthocyanin with
the change in pH, anthocyanin has been called
‘vegetable chameleon’ .
6. Functions of vacuoles-
(a) The vacuole acts as a sub-cellular storage organ
of useful metabolities.
(b) It also maintains turgidity of the cell which is
very useful for herbaceous plants.
NUCLEIC ACIDS
1. The nucleotides (containing C, H, O, N and P) are
monomers of nucleic acids. They consist of three unit
molecules
(i) a phosphate (Phosphoric acid)
(ii) a pentose sugar and
(iii) an organic nitrogen containing base.
2. Nucleotides are linked together by phosphate groups.
The phosphate group of one nucleotide binds to
hydroxyl group of another by what is called
Phosphodiester bond.
3. ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is a nucleotide used in
cells. It energy for synthesis
ATP  ADP + P + Energy
4. Nucleic acids include the largest molecule formed by
organisms.
5. Nucleic acids were first isolated by a Swiss scientist, F.
Miescher (1869) from the nuclei ofpus cells (dead white
blood cells or leukocytes) who named it nuclein .
6. Thereafter, it was found that nuclein had acidic
properties and then it was renamed as nucleic acid by
Altmann in 1899.
7. Unique among the macromolecules, the nucleic acids
can produce precise copies of them (replication)
8. Nucleic acids consist of a number of monomer units
called nucleotides .
9. Thus a nucleic acid is a chain of ribose or deoxyribose
sugars linked together by phosphodiester bonds (the
phosphate group of one nucleotide binds to the
hydroxyl group of another) and with an organic base
10. Each nucleotide is formed from one molecule of pentose
sugar, one phosphoric acid and one of the nitrogenous
bases.
11. Within the nucleotide the combination of base with the
pentose sugar constitutes a nucleoside . For example,
Nucleoside : Adenosine = Adenine + ribose
Nucleotide : Adenosine = Adenine + ribose + phosphate
DNA
1. DNA of mitochondria and chloroplasts is not
associated with histones.
2. In a deoxyribonucleic acid molecule,
Amount of Purines = Amount of pyrimidines
A + T = G + C
This is called Chargaff’s equivalence Rule (1950)
A+T
3. The ratio of is constant in any species.
G+C
4. DNA is made up of two long chains (strands) which are
right-handed coiled, antiparallel (i.e., one strand runs
in 5’ to 3’ direction and the other in the 3’ to 5’ direction)
and complimentary to each other. They are held
together by hydrogen bonds established between the
bases of pairs.
5. Base pairing occurs among adenine (A), thymine (T),
cytosine (C) and guanine (G)
6. Two hydrogen bonds are formed between A and T while
three between C and G.
7. Watson and Crick Model of DNA
(i) each nucleotide pair needs 3.4 Å space of double
helix
(ii) one complete turn of helix has of 10 nucleotide
pairs, occupying 34 Å space.
(iii) the diameter of DNA molecule  20 Å.
(iv) there is a fixed distance of 10.08 Å between the
two sugar moieties in opposite strands thus only
certain base pairs can fit into the structure.
(v) although, DNA is double helical in all the
organisms but single helical DNA has been found
f X 174, M13 and G1 phages of Escherichia coli .
Thus, DNA is rarely single helical.
(vi) if any long base-pair sequence exists at many
different places throughout the DNA, it is called
repetitive or repetitious DNA. The highly
repetitive DNA is also known as satellite DNA .
The repetitive DNA is not found in prokaryotes .
8. Various forms of DNA
A-DNA: It contains 11 base pairs/turn base pairs are
not perpendicular to axis but tilted
B-DNA: It is usually right handed DNA containing 10
base pairs/turns
C-DNA: It contains 9 base pairs/turns
Z-DNA: It is a left-handed DNA
Single-stranded DNA: Found in  × 174 and and S-13
viruses.
RNA
1. Ribonucleic acid (RNA ) is found in the nucleus as well
as in the cytoplasm and its main function is protein
synthesis but in many viruses, it functions as genetic
material.
2. RNA molecules are single stranded , however, double
stranded RNA is found in wound tumor plant virus,
rice dwarf virus and reovirus.
3. A single strand of RNA folds back, due to which pairing
of bases can occur easily
 20
4. The primary structure of RNA is similar to that of DNA
except for the following differences:
(i) Pentose sugar in RNA is ribose while in DNA, it
is deoxyribose
(ii) RNA contains uracil as one of the pyrimidine
bases while DNA contains thymine
(iii) RNA is generally single stranded while DNA is
double stranded.
5. Cellular organisms have three types of RNA : rRNA,
tRNA and mRNA.
(A) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) (Discovered by Jacob
and Monad in 1961)
(i) Occurs in ribosomes and forms 80% of the
total RNA in the cell.
(ii) Largest amongst RNAs.
(iii) In eukaryotic cells, ribosomes contain four
different types of rRNA namely 5S, 5.8S, 18S
and 28S.
(iv) In prokaryotic cells, the large sub-unit of
ribosomes contains 23 S and molecules while
their small sub-unit contains 16 S rRNA
molecule.
(v) Ribosomal RNA gets synthesized in the
nucleus by an enzyme called RNA
polymerase I, although its 5 S component is
synthesized outside the nucleous.
(B) Transfer RNA (tRNA )
(i) It is also known as S-RNA (soluble) or
adaptive RNA
(ii) It is about 10-15% of the total RNA of the
cell
(iii) Its molecule are the smallest ones with
75-85 nucleotides and function as adaptors
for carrying a molecule to site of protein
synthesis
(iv) tRNA is folded to form a clover leaf like
structure
(v) There are at least 20 types of tRNA molecule
in every cell, at least one corresponding to
each of the 20 amino acids required for
protein synthesis
(vi) The tRNA is synthesized in the nucleus by
an enzyme called RNA polymerase III
presumably it might be synthesized in the
nucleous
(C) Messenger RNA (mRNA )
(i) It constitues 5 to 10% of the total cellular
RNA.
(ii) It transcribes the genetic information coded
in the structure of DNA molecule and
translates into protein
(iii) It is hetrogeneous because the size of its
molecule varies greatly. On an average mRNA
contains 900-1500 nucleotides in E. coli.
(iv) The average life span of some mRNAs is
about two minutes after which the molecules
are broken down by ribonuclease. However,
it may survive for many hours or even days
in eukaryotes
(v) The mRNA is synthesized on DNA template
in the nucleus by an enzyme called RNA
polymerase II
(vi) The process through which RNA is
synthesized along the DNA template is called
transcription. It was discovered earlier by
Mulder.
CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
Cell Division and Cell Cycle
All living cells grow and divide. Splitting of cells is called cell
division . The period between the end of one division and the
end of next is termed as the cell cycle which is divided into
four periods. The first three periods ( G 1, S, G 2) constitute
interphase stage.
(i) G 1-phase. It is the time ‘gap’ between the end of mitosis
and the start of DNA synthesis. It is the pre-DNA
synthesis phase in which chromosomes are fully
extended and some proteins and RNA are synthesised.
It can vary from 3–4 hours to several days, months or
even years.
(ii) S-Phase. it is the DNA synthesis phase in which DNA
and histones are synthesised. This stage lasts for 7-8
hours.
(iii) G 2-Phase . It is the time ‘gap’ between the end of DNA
synthesis and the beginning of mitosis. This stage lasts
for 2-5 hours. During this stage, diploid cells contain
4X times the amount of DNA. It is followed by mitosis.
(iv) Mitosis or D-Phase . It represents only a small part of
life cycle of a cell. It’s duration is about an hour in most
cells.
Mitosis
1. The process of mitosis was first discovered in animal
cells by W. Flemming (1882) in Salamander ( Tritus
maculosa ) and in plant cells by Strasburger .
2. It occurs in the vegetative as well as reproductive cells
of eukaryotes. It results in the formation of two daughter
cells which receive exactly the same number and kind
of chromosomes which the parent cells had. In strict
etymological sense, mitosis refers to the nuclear division
(karyokinesis ) in eukaryotic cells. It has nothing to do
with the division of cytoplasm ( cytokinesis ).
3. Mitosis is a continuous process though for
understanding, it may be divided into four phases
(stages). (A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C) Anaphase
and (D) Telophase
A. Prophase
(i) In the beginning of this stage chromosomes
appear as thin threads and they start to
condense.
 21
(ii) Each prophasic chromosome consists of two
parts of filaments called chromatids .
(iii) The two identical chromatids of a single
chromosome are called sister chromatids
which are attached firmly to each other at a
specific point called centromere or
kinetochore .
(iv) An important change that occurs during late
prophase is the disintegration of the
nucleous with nucleoplasm.
(v) At the end of prophase, nuclear envelope
disappears, with the result nucleoplasm and
cytoplasm mix together, a process which
appears to play a role in the development of
spindle material.
B. Metaphase
(i) In the beginning of this stage, spindle
apparatus develops.
(ii) The spindle consists of spindle fibres which
are formed by the aggregation of micro-
tubules extending between the poles.
(iii) Now the chromosomes move to an imaginary
plane and lie perpendicular to the middle of
the spindle apparatus.
(iv) This plane is called equatorial plane or
metaphase plate . The chromosomes become
attached by their centromeres to some
spindle fibres. Many spindle fibres do not
make connection with chromosome
remaining extended from pole to pole. The
function of these spindle fibres is not known.
C. Anaphase
(i) The centromere divides in the beginning of
anaphase and this process is carried out
simultaneously in all the chromosomes
resulting in the separation of sister
chromatids which now are called daughter
chromosomes .
(ii) The centromeres of these chromosomes
move apart and the daughter chromosomes
begin their migration towards the poles of
the spindle apparatus due to shortening of
microtubules of the spindle fibres.
D. Telophase
(i) During telophase, the chromosomes
segregate at the poles; the spindle
apparatus in disassembled and a nuclear
envelope is formed from endoplasmic
reticulum around each chromosome
resulting in the formation of two daughter
nuclei.
(ii) Finally, chromosomes uncoil and a nucleolus
in reorganised in each daughter nucleus at
the chromosomal organizer site.
4. Cytokinesis
(i) It is the process of segmentation and separation
of cytoplasm into two parts each having a
nucleus.
(ii) In plants, cytokinesis occurs by cell plate
formation.
5. Significance of mitosis
(i) Mitosis provides the opportunity for the growth
and development to the organs and the
organisms.
(ii) It maintains the same genetic constitution (both
quantitatively and qualitatively) in the daughter
cells as in the parent cell.
Meiosis
1. Meiosis was first worked out by Strasburger in 1888.
Later in more detail byFarmer and Moore in 1905 who
also coined the term, ‘meiosis’ .
2. Meiosis is a complicated cell division which occur in
reproductive cells (germ cells) of sexually reproducing
organisms and reduces the number of chromosomes
to half.
3. It involves two nuclear divisions and one chromosomal
division.
4. In animals and a few lower plants meiosis occurs just
before the formation of gametes. Such type of meiosis
is called terminal or gametic meiosis .
5. However, in most of the plants, meiosis occurs at the
time of spore formation, such meiosis is called
intermediate or sporic meiosis and it can be observed
in angiosperms by examining the dividing pollen mother
cells.
6. Before the commencement of meiosis, there is an
interphase stage in which DNA synthesis has already
occured. Meiosis comprises two successive nuclear
divisions, of which first division is areduction division
whereby the chromosome number ( 2n) is reduced to
half (n) and the second division is mitotic in nature.
7. These two division of meiosis are:
A. Meiosis I or heterotypic division or reduction
division
B. Meiosis II or homotypic division or mitotic
division.
A. Meiosis I or reduction division: It consists of four
stages, namely Prophase I, Metaphase I, Anaphase I and
Telophase I.
1. Prophase I. It is the longest and very complex stage
and can be divided into five substages: Leptotene,
Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene and Diakinesis.
(i) Leptotene or leptonema or thin-thread stage
(Leptos = thin; nema = thread) :
(a) Nucleus increases in size and chromosomes
become more apparent as thin threads .
(b) Although DNA synthesis had already
occured in interphase, no longitudinal
doubleness of chromosomes is visibly
 22
evident owing to contraction. They show
bead-like thickenings called chromomeres.
(c) The tips ( telomeres ) of leptotene chromo-
somes are generally associated with the
nuclear envelope, this peculiar arrangement
is called ‘bouquet’ .
(ii) Zygotene or zygonema (Zygon = adjoining)
(a) During zygotene, homologous chromo-
somes pair up and the phenomenon of
pairing is called synapsis . Since each parent
contributes a haploid set of chromosomes
to a diploid offspring, all the diploid cells
possess pairs of morphologically and
genetically similar chromosomes, often
called homologous chromosomes .
(b) These chromosomes pair lengthwise with
each other and pairing may be initiated at
one or more sites along the length of the
chromosomes.
(iii) Pachytene or thick-thread stage (phacus = thick)
(a) It is a longest stage of prophase 1.
(b) At this stage, chromosomes contract
longitudinally and they become shortened,
thickened and coiled. Now, the pairs of
homologous chromosomes are called
bivalents.
(c) Each chromosome is a bivalent has two
chromatids by the middle of the pachytene
stage, as a result of which a bivalent really
consists of four chromatids and is called
‘tetrad’ .
(d) Electron micrographic studies have shown
that each chromatid has its own centromere.
Thus, in a tetrad, there arefour centromeres,
two homologous chromosomes and four
chromatids .
(e) During crossing over, at one point, only two
chromatids, one from each of the two
homologous chromosomes, take part. As the
chromosomes continue to contract, the
chiasmata have tendency to move towards
the ends of the paired homologous
chromosomes, a process called terminal-
ization .
(iv) Diplotene or diplonema or double-thread stage
(a) This stage is generally recognised by the
tendency of homologous chromosomes of
the bivalents (tetrads) to pull away
somewhat from each other due to repulsion.
(b) The separation is generally not complete and
they are held together by their chromatids
at one or more specific points called
chiasmata which represent the places of
exchange of chromosome.
(c) During crossing over, at one point, only two
chromatids, one from each of the two
homologous chromosomes, take part. As the
chromosomes continue to contract, the
chiasmata have tendency to move towards
the ends of the paired homologous
chromosomes, a process called terminali-
zation.
(v) Diakinesis. During this phase, bivalents totally
separate, nuclear membrane disappear and
terminalization is completed.
2. Metaphase I
(i) On the disappearance of the nuclear envelope,
spindle fibres appear.
(ii) The homologous chromosomes (tetrads) become
arranged at the equatorial plane (metaphase plate)
and a bundle of spindle microtubules attaches to
each centromere.
(iii) This attachment occurs in such a way that both
chromatids of a single chromosome are attached
to one pole and both chromatids of the other
homologous chromosome are attached to the
other pole.
3. Anaphase I
(i) The homologous chromosomes separate from
one another i.e., one chromosome with its two
sister chromatids or each homologous pair move
to opposite poles.
(ii) Thus, each pole has a haploid number of
chromosomes (instead of a diploid set as in
mitosis) i.e., a reduction in chromosome number
is achieved at this stage.
4. Telophase I
(i) Chromosomes with their chromatids reach the
poles.
(ii) Nuclear envelope and nucleolus reappear,
resulting in the formation of two haploid
daughter nuclei with each chromosome having
two chromatids.
Interkinesis
(i) Interkinesis is the period between the end
of telophase I and the onset of prophase II.
This period is quite short or completely
absent.
(ii) The DNA of the two nuclei produced by the
first meiotic division does not engage in
replication during interkinesis.
B. Meiosis II or homotypic division: It also consists of four
stages :
(a) Prophase II : It is very short stage. Chromosomes are
double, each with two chromatids joined together by a
centromere. At late prophase II nuclear envelope
disintegrates and spindle fibres are formed.
 23
(b) Metaphase II : Chromosomes become arranged on the
equatorial plane. Spindle microtubules attach to each
chromosome so that sister chromatids are connected
to opposite poles.
(c) Anaphase II : The sister chromatids of each chromosome
are separated from each other and move to opposite
poles, as each of the members of a pair of sister
centromeres split from each other. The separated
chromatids are now called daughter chromosomes.
(d) Telophase II : The daughter chromosomes reach the
poles and thus each pole receives a haploid set of
chromosomes. Nuclear envelope is formed around each
set of chromosomes and nucleus in organised. Thus,
four haploid nuclei are formed.
Cytokinesis : It occurs either by furrowing as in animal cells or
by cell plate formation in plant cell. In plants, cytokinesis is of
two types :
1. Successive type
(i) Here, after the first meiotic division, a wall is
formed separating the two nuclei and leading to
the formation of a dyad.
(ii) The wall formation in this case is centrifugal. Now,
the two cells of the dyad undergo the second
meiotic division which is followed by wall
formation resulting into a tetrad as in monocots .
2. Simultaneous type
(i) In this type of cytokinesis, the first meiotic
division is not followed by wall formation and
binucleated cell is formed, the two haploid nuclei
undergo second meiotic division forming four
nuclei.
(ii) Now, the wall formation occurs centripetally
resulting in the formation of a tetrad as in dicots .
Significance of meiosis
1. Meiosis causes restoration of the original number
of chromosomes in an individual.
2. It provides an opportunity to produce variations
in the individuals as a result of crossing over
while the variations are the root cause of
evolution.
3. Failure of meiosis will lead to the formation of
diploid gametes which on fusion form polypoids.
 24
CHAPTER

4
PLANT PHYSIOLOGY

(3) Transmembrane pathway : Water after passing

SOLUTE TRANSPORT AND
through cortex is blocked by casparian strips
PHOTOASSIMILATE TRANSLOCATION (deposition of wax like substance suberin) present
on endodermis. Water crosses at least two
WATER membranes from each cell in its path. These two
Most important constituent of the protoplasm. plasma membranes are found on entering and
80-90% of the fresh weight of most herbaceous plants exiting of water. Here, water may also enter through
and over 50% of the fresh weight of woody plants. tonoplast surrounding the vacuole i.e., also known
Acts as solvent, reactant or reagent and maintains as vacuolar pathway.
turgidity.
DIFFUSION
ABSORPTION AND MOVEMENT OF WATER The net movement of molecules or ions of a given substance
from a region of higher concentration to lower one by virtue
Water is mainly absorbed through the roots, especially
of their kinetic energy. The rate of diffusion of molecules
at the tips in the region of the root hairs.
is affected by temperature, density of diffusing molecules,
Pathways of water movement in root
medium in which diffusion takes place and concentration
(1) Apoplast pathway: Water moves exclusively
gradient.
through the cell wall without crossing any
Diffusion pressure: The potential ability of a substance
membranes. Apoplast or outer space is a non-living to diffuse from an area of its greater concentration to
continuous system made up of water-filled an area of lesser concentration is called diffusion
cellulosic cell wall and inter cellular spaces from pressure.
epidermis to xylem.
Ions Cell wall of Cell wall of Cytoplasm of PERMEABILITY
epidermis cortex endodermis The degree of diffusion of gases, liquids and dissolved
substances through a membrane. It depends on the membrane
composition, as well as the chemical nature of the solute.
Accumulate Cell walls
in xylem of Pericycle
It can be measured readily by determining the rate at
vessels which solute passes through a membrane under a
specific set of conditions.
(2) Symplast pathway: Water moves from one cell to
Membranes may be permeable, impermeable and
another cell through plasmodesmata. Symplast or
semipermeable.
inner space is a living continuous system formed
by cytoplasm and plasmodesmata from epidermis OSMOSIS
to xylem parenchyma. Migration of solvent from a hypotonic solution (lower
Ion Cytoplasm of Cytoplasm, cortex Xylem concentration) to hypertonic solution (higher concentration)
epidermis endodermis, pericycle vessel
through plasmodesmata
through a semi­perm eable membrane to keep the
concentration equal.
24
 25
Exosmosis : Water moves out of the cell due to
hypertonic solution (of higher concentration).
Endosmosis : Water enters the cell due to hypotonic
solution (of lower concentration).
Osmotic pressure : The pressure needed to prevent
the passage of pure water into an aqueous solution
through a differentially permeable membrane thereby
preventing an increase in the volume of the solution.
Osmotic pressure depends upon concentration of
solute particle, ionisation of solute particles, hydration
of solute particles and temperature.
Reverse osmosis : By applying additional pressure,
water can be made to move out of solution from
thistle funnel into water. This process can be used for
removing salts from saline waters.
Osmosis is driven by two factors : Concentration of
dissolved solutes in a solution and pressure difference.
Osmotic potential or solute potential (s) : Negative
of osmotic pressure, since they are equal but opposite
forces.
s  
e.g., Osmotic pressure of a plant is 200.5 atms but an
osmotic potential of –200.5 atms.
PLASMOLYSIS
The phenomenon of shrinkage of protoplasm from the cell
wall under the influence of some hypertonic solution is
called as plasmolysis. As plasmolysis begins (incipient
plasmolysis) the protoplasm is no more pressed against the
cell wall, and the cell wall is said to be in a flaccid condition.
However, further loss of water results in more shrikage of
protoplasm and the cell is called plasmolysed.
Continuous loss of water from plant cells results in
wilting and drooping of leaves and stems.
Plasmolysis is helpful in killing weeds from ‘tennis
courts’, preservation of meat, jelly etc., to determine
the osmotic pressure of cell, to know the living nature
of cell, explains the phenomenon of osmosis etc.
IMBIBITION
A physical process by which solvent is adsorbed by certain
substances making them swell. The solid particles which
adsorb water or any other liquid are called imbibants and
the liquid which is imbibed is known as imbibate.
Imbibition pressure (matrix potential) : The potential
maximum pressure that an imbibant will develop if it
is submerged in pure water.
Imbibition depends upon the affinity between
imbibant and imbibed (e.g., Rubber does not imbibe
water, but imbibes kerosene oil and swells) and the
water potential gradient between the surface of the
adsorbant and the liquid imbibed.
Dry seeds have a highly negative water potential.
Both living and dead plant cells possess large amounts
of carbohydrates, proteins and polypeptides etc.
which are hydrophilic colloids and therefore, have
very strong affinity for water.
TURGIDITY AND TURGOR PRESSURE
If a plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution or pure
water, water starts moving into the cell by osmosis. As the
volume of the protoplast increases, it begins to exert pressure
against the cell wall and stretches it. The pressure exerted
by the protoplast against the cell wall is called turgor
pressure (TP).
Wall pressure (WP) : The cell wall being rigid, exerts
an equal and opposite pressure on the protoplast which
is called wall pressure.
The two pressures are equal and opposite in direction.
As a result of this interplay of forces, the plant cell
under these conditions is said to be turgid.
DPD, OP AND TP
DPD (diffusion pressure deficit) or SP (suction
pressure) is the amount by which diffusion pressure of
a solution is lower than that of its pure solvent. DPD
was coined by B.S. Meyer (1938).
The greater the concentration of a solution, the greater
is its DPD.
When a flaccid cell was placed in pure water, the
suction pressure or DPD is roughly equal to the
osmotic pressure of cell.
SP or DPD  OP
But when the cell became turgid, the turgor pressure
resisted the entry of water into the cell and in that
condition
SP or DPD  OP – TP
Cell to cell movement of water depends upon the
DPD and not on osmotic pressure and turgor pressure.
THEORIES OF WATER TRANSLOCATION
The upward movement of water through stem is called
ascent of sap (water with dissolved minerals).
Goldlewski proposed relay pump theory and J.C.
Bose proposed pulsation theory to explain the
vitalistic view of ascent of sap.
The three most prominent theories are­
(1) Root pressure theory
Stocking (1956) defined the root pressure “a pressure
developed in the tracheory elements of xylem as a result of
metabolic activities of the root.
The development of root pressure is an active process
which depends upon active secretion of salts or other
solutes into the xylem sap, thereby lowering its
osmotic potential.
2732 (Biology)—4
 26
This theory can not account for water movement up
the xylem in tall trees.
(2) Capillarity
In capillarity, water moves upward in narrow tubes due to
the force of surface tension in small sized plants.
Boehm (1809) proposed that xylem vessels are narrow
and ascent of sap occurs through capillarity further supported
by atmospheric pressure.
According to this theory, water is first taken in due to
the force of adhesion between water and the wall of
thin xylem vessels. As the water flows upwards along
the wall, strong cohesive forces between water
molecules come into play to pull the water upward.
This continues until the forces of adhesion and
cohesion are balanced by the downward force of
gravity.
(3) Cohesion theory
Given by Henry Dixon in 1914. This depends upon the
force of cohesion between water molecules. The important
points are:
(i) Cohesion force : Water molecules are held together
by strong cohesion force (due to hydrogen bonds).
Another force of adhesion holds water to the walls of
xylem channels.
(ii) Continuous water column : Present in the xylem
channels of plant.
(iii) Transpiration pull : Transpiration from aerial parts
causes a suction pressure in the water column of the
plant. It is known as transpiration pull which lifts the
water upwardly.
Water column is continuous and cannot be pulled
away from xylem walls due to cohesive and adhesive
properties.
The value of cohesive force for plant sap has been
calculated to be 47 – 207 atm. by Dixon and Jolly.
Cohesive force is also called as tensile strength.
TRANSPIRATION
The loss of water in the form of vapours trom the living
tissues of aerial parts of the plant is called transpiration.
About 98% of water absorbed by land plant is
transpired.
Types of transpiration
(1) Cuticular : Cuticle provides a relatively impermeable
covering. If cutilcle is thin and green, about 20% of
the total transpiration takes place through it, but if its
thickness is increased, the extent of water vapour loss
is significantly reduced.
(2) Lenticular : Lenticels are small regions on bark etc.
and possess small loosely arranged cells called as
complementary cells.
According to Huber, this loss through lenticels is
only 1.0 per cent of the total transpiration.
(3) Stomatal : Stomata are tiny pores present on the
epidermal surface of leaves, young stems and in certain
fruits. Nearly 97 per cent of the total transpiration
takes place through these stomata.
STOMATA
Help in gaseous exchange at the time of respiration and
photosynthesis.
There are two kidney shaped guard cells which bound
a minute elliptical pore in a stoma. Guard cells are
modified epidermal cells.
The wall of guard cells near the pore is thick. The
outer wall is thin, elastic and semipermeable.
Loftfield classified stomata on the basis of their daily
movement into four main types­
(a) Alfalfa type : Open throughout the day and closed
all night e.g., radish, mustard, turnip, apple, pea.
(b) Potato type : Open throughout the day and night
except few hours following sunset e.g., cabbage,
pumpkin, onion.
(c) Barley type : Open only for a few hours in day e.g.,
barley, maize, oat, wheat.
(d) Equisetum type : Always open throughout day and
night e.g., Equisetum.
GUTTATION
The loss of water in the form of liquid is called guttation.
It generally occurs from tips and margins of leaves during
night or early morning when there is high atmospheric
humidity as during wet seasons.
Hydathodes or water pores are special pores on the
leaves in the region of guttation which are
permanently open pores as their guard cells are
immobile.
Gutted water possess minute quantities of both
inorganic and organic substances.
SOME IMPORTANT FACTS
DPD can become zero (fully turgid cell).
TP can also become zero (flaccid cell) but O.P. of a
cell can never be zero.
Cryoscopic osmometer : Measures osmotic potential
of solution by measuring its freezing point.
Tensiometer : Instrument for measuring soil water
tension.
Psychorometer : To measure relative humidity as
well as transpiration.
Manometer : To measure pressure like root pressure.
Barometer : To measure atmospheric pressure.
Porometer (F. Dawin, 1912) : To measure the size of
stomata.
Potometer : To measure the rate of transpiration.
Atmometer : To measure pull caused by evaporation
of water from a porous pot.
Term guttation was coined by Bergerstein (1887).
 27

CoCl2 Paper Method (Hygrometric method, Stahl,
1894)—Used to compare the rates of transpiration.
Blue light of visible light promotes stomatal opening.
Plants growing at high altitudes exhibit xeromorphy
i.e., adaptation to minimise transpiration.
Transpiration ratio : The amount of water lost per
unit of dry matter produced during the growing season
of a plant.
Stomatal frequency : Number of stomata per
unit area of leaf. Its value is 1000-60,000/cm 2 or
10 - 600/mm 2.
Permanent wilting coefficient (PWP or PWC):
Amount of soil water at which the plants growing in
it show first signs of permanent wilting.
Antitranspirants : Chemicals which have been found
to reduce the rate of transpiration without affecting
CO 2 uptake. They may be metabolic inhibitors (e.g.,
ABA-Abscissic acid, PMA - Phenyl mercuric acetate
and Aspirin) or film forming anti-transpirants (e.g.,
silicon emulsions and some low viscosity waxes).
NUTRITION IN PLANT
Mineral Nutrition : The study of source, mode of
absorption, distribution and metabolism of various
inorganic substances or minerals by plants for their
growth, development, structure, physiology and
reproduction.
Autotrophs : Organisms which use inorganic source
of carbon i.e., CO 2, Two types:
(a) Photoautotrophs (photosynthetic) : Use light
energy e.g., all green plants, blue green algae, green
and purple sulphur bacteria.
(b) Chemoautotrophs (chemosynthetic) : Use
chemical energy e.g., Nitrosomonas, Nitrosococcus
and some other nitrogen cycle bacteria.
Heterotrophs : Organisms which depend upon organic
sources of carbon. Two types­
(a) Photohetrotrophs : Use light energy e.g., some
purple nonsulphur bacteria.
(b) Chemoheterotrophs : Use chemical energy e.g., all
animals, fungi, most bacteria and some flowering
plants.
ESSENTIAL MINERAL ELEMENTS
Such elements without which the plant cannot
complete its life cycle.
Arnon and Stout (1939) proposed criteria of
essentiality of an element i.e., the element must be
directly involved in the nutrition of plant, must be
absolutely necessary for supporting normal growth
and reproduction and the requirement must be specific
and not replaceable by another element.
Based on the quantity in which they are required by
plants:
(a) Macro nutrients (major elements): Required by
plants in quantity of more than 1 milligram/gram
dry matter. Total 9 in number-C, H, O, N, P, K, S,
Mg and Ca.
(b) Micro nutrients (Micro or minor or rare or trace
elements): Required by plants in quantity less than
1 milligram/gram of dry matter. Total 8 in number-
Fe, Mn, Zn, Cu, Mo, B, Cl and Ni.
Sources of Essential Elements for Plants
Carbon: As atmospheric carbon dioxide
Hydrogen: Mainly in the form of water.
Oxygen: From the air or water or in the form of
inorganic ions.
Nitrogen: Absorbed by plants is the form of nitrate from
the soil. Nitrogen fixers (organisms) convert nitrogen
gas (N2) to anionic forms such as nitrate (NO 3–) or nitrite
(NO2–) or a reduced cationic form such as ammonium
(NH4+). These compounds enter plants through the root
and are assimilated as organic nitrogen.
Other elements: Absorbed from the soil e.g.,
phosphorus as phosphates and sulphur as sulphate
etc.

ROLE OF MACRO AND MICRO-NUTRIENTS

Element Obtained Specific role in Plants Deficiency symptoms
in the
form of

1 . Nitrogen NO 2 – , NO 3 – Constituent of proteins, vitamins, hormones, Stunted growth, chlorosis, development of

or NH –2 nucleic acids, coenzymes, ATP, chlorophyll
etc.
2 . Phosphorus HPO 4 – Constituent of nucleic acids, phospholipids,
coenzymes, nucleotides, NAD + , NADP + etc.
3 . Potassium K+ Involved in protein synthesis in opening and
closing of stomata, activates enzymes and
helps in maintenance of turgidity of cells.
4 . Calcium Ca 2+ As calcium pectate in the middle lamella of the
cell wall, activates certain enzymes involved
in selective permeability of cell membranes.
anthocyanin
Poor growth, leaves dull green, premature
fall of leaf and flower buds and delayed
seed germination.
Yellow edges of leaves, inward curving of
leaves, premature death.
Stunted growth, disintegration of apical
meristems and chlorosis.
 28

Element Obtained Specific role in Plants Deficiency symptoms

in the
form of

5 . Magnesium Mg 2+ Constituent of chlorophyll, maintains ribo- Interveinal chlorosis

some structure, activates enzymes in phosphate
metabolism
6 . Sulphur SO 4 2– Constituent of amino acids (methionine, Chlorosis, rolling of tips and leaf margins.
cysteine and cystine), vitamins, ferredoxin etc.
7 . Iron Fe 3+ Constituent of ferredoxin, cytochromes, Chlorosis
activates catalase, required for synthesis of
chlorophyll
8 . Manganese Mn 2+ Activates some enzymes necessary for O 2 Chlorosis, grey spots on leaves
(trace) evolution in photosynthesis.
9. Molybdenum Mo 3+ or Activates certain enzymes in nitrogen meta- Slight retardation of growth, whiptail in
(trace) Mo 4+ or bolism ascorbic acid synthesis. crucifers, loosening of cauliflower head.
MoO 2 2+
10. Boron BO 3 3– or Calcium metabolism, pollen germination, cell Suppression of flower formation, leaves
(trace) or B 4 O 7 2– differentiation, carbohydrate translocation becomes coppery in texture, heart rot or
brown heart of Sugar beet and Turnip.
11 . Copper Cu 2+ Constituent of several oxidising enzymes, Dieback, brown heart disease, blackening
(trace) plastocyanin, cytochrome oxidase of potato tuber, reclamation of leguminosae
12. Zinc (trace) Zn 2 + Activates various enzymes especially carboxy- Little leaf disease, mottle leaf disease of
lases, part of carbonic anhydrase and various apple and citrus, white bud, stunted growth,
dehydrogenases involved in synthesis of interveinal chlorosis.
growth hormone auxin (IAA).
13 . Chlorine Cl– Photolysis of water, with Na + and K + helps in Wilting, stunting of roots and swollen root
(trace) maintaining solute concentration and anion- tips, flower abscission, reduced fruiting
cation balance in cells, activator of amylase. bronze coloured leaves.

PHOTOSYNTHESIS Chlorophyll a (C55H72O5N4Mg) possess a CH3 (methyl)

Synthesis of organic compounds (carbohydrates) from
inorganic raw materials (CO 2 and Hydrogen donor) by
green plants in the presence of light (solar energy)
Light energy
CO 2 2H 2O 
Green plants
 CH 2O n H 2 O O 2
This equation was given by C.B. Van Niel for
photosynthesis.
Only 0.2% of the light energy falling on earth is
utilised by photosynthetic organisms.
Cyanobacteria: Where photosynthesis was first
appeared.
SITE FOR PHOTOSYNTHESIS
Mainly leaves, though all green parts containing
chloroplasts have the potential to carry on photo-
synthesis.
Chlorophyll (green pigment) is present in chloroplasts
i.e., localised.
PHOTOSYNTHETIC PIGMENTS: 3 TYPES
(1) Chlorophyll
Total 9 types; chlorophyll ‘a’ and chlorophyll ‘b’ are
important types of chlorophyll.
Chlorophyll : Molecule consist of a porphyrin ring
(hydrophilic) and a phytol tail (lipophilic).
Porphyrin ring : Flat, square structure having smaller
pyrrole rings with a magnesium atom at the centre.
group and chlorophyll b (C55H70O6N4Mg) possess a -
CHO (aldehyde) group. The head is joined to a long
hydrocarbon tail i.e., Phytol.
Chlorophyll a : most abundant, only pigment in all
photosynthetic plants.
Chlorophyll absorbs light near both ends of the visible
spectrum i.e., blue and red light and transmit or reflect
green light i.e., why looks green in colour.
Chlorophyll synthesis in flowering plants require light
and iron.
Algae, bryophytes, pteridophytes and gymnosperms
develop chlorophyll even in absence of light.
Raw materials for chlorophyll synthesis are glycine
(amino acid) and succinyl co-A.
Fluorescence : isolated chlorophyll a in pure form
emits red colour. It is known as fluorescence.
Phosphorescence : The delayed emission of long wave
radiation from an activated molecule is called
phosphorescence.
(2) Carotenoids
Yellow to orange pigments, absorb light strongly in
the blue-violet range.
Called shield pigments because protect chlorophyll
from photo oxidation by light of high intensity and
also from oxygen produced during photosynthesis.
Absorb light and transfer it to chlorophyll for use in
photosynthesis.
 29
Two types: (a) Carotenes : (Orange coloured) -
hydrocarbons (tetrapenes)
(b) Xanthophylls : (Yellow) - contain oxygen
(3) Phycobilin
Water soluble, open tetrapyrrole pigments found in
red algae and blue green algae.
Found in phycobilisomes attached to thylakoids and
transform light energy to chlorophyll. 3 types i.e.,
Phycocyanin (blue), Allophycocyanin (blue) and
Phycoerythrin (red).
Quantasome
Present as small units on the membranes of thylakoids.
This term coined by Park and Biggins (1964) for a
group of pigment molecules required for carrying out
a photochemical reaction.
Each quantasom e consists of about 250-300
chlorophyll m olecules, carotenoids, quinone
compounds, sulpholipids, phospholipids, proteins etc.
PHOTORESPIRATION (DICKER AND TIO,
1959)
Respiration which is initiated in chloroplasts and takes
place in light only is called Photorespiration.
The enzyme Rubisco catalyses the carboxylation
reaction where CO 2 combines with RuBP, called
oxygenation.
Also called Photosynthetic Carbon Oxidation Cycle
and involves an interaction of three organelles i.e.,
chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria.
The function of photorespiration is to recover some of
the carbon from the excess glycolate. However, there
is a wasteful loss of carbon as CO2 and loss of energy.
It is stimulated by high light intensity, high
temperature, ageing of leaf and high oxygen
concentration.
Two molecules of phosphoglycolate (2C) produced
by oxygenation of RuBP are changed into one
molecule of phosphoglycerate (3C) and one molecule
of CO 2.
75% of carbon lost to oxygenation is recovered by
PCO cycle.
HATCH-SLACK PATHWAY OR
C4-PATHWAY OR DICARBOXYLIC ACID
PATHWAY
C4 plants possess a characteristic leaf anatomy (Kranz
anatomy). In which vascular bundles are surrounded
by two rings of cells i.e. inner ring (bundle sheath
cells having starch-rich chloroplasts lacking grana)
and outer ring (mesophyll cells).
It C4 plants CO2 is picked up by phosphoenol pyruvate
(PEP - 3 Compound) in the cytoplasm of mesophyll
cells and form oxaloacetate (4C) which is converted
to malic acid or aspartic acid (4–C) for transport to
bundle sheath cells.
In bundle sheath cells, CO 2 is released and is
assimilated through Calvin cycle. Pyruvate is released
which passes back into mesophyll cells where PEP is
regenerated.
The C4 Pathway is more efficient than the C3 Pathway
due to the absence of photorespiration.
SIGNIFICANCE OF PHOTOSYNTHESIS
Helps in conversion of solar energy into organic
matter.
Consumes atmospheric carbon dioxide and yields
carbohydrates and molecular oxygen.
Evolves molecular oxygen for use by other living
organisms and maintains the level of atmospheric
oxygen which is continuously consumed by plants
and animals during respiration.
Produces carbohydrates and used by plants and
animals to synthesize organic acids, proteins, fats,
nucleic acids, pigments, hormones, vitamins, alkaloids
and other metabolites.
RESPIRATION
RESPIRATION
It is an energy liberating enzymatically controlled multistep
catabolic process of stepwise breakdown of organic
substances inside the living cells.
RESPIRATORY SUBSTRATES
The organic substances which can be catabolised to liberate
energy inside the living cells e.g., carbohydrates, fats and
proteins.
TYPE OF RESPIRATION
1. Aerobic : Takes place inside the mitochondria in the
presence of molecular oxygen in most of plants and
animals called aerobes. Divided into 4 phases-
Glycolysis, oxidative decarboxylation, Krebs or TCA
cycle and Electron Transport system.
2. Anaerobic (Fermentation) : Involves the production
of energy from the food nutrients in the absence of
oxygen.
Respiratory Ratio or Quotient (RQ)
The ratio of the volume of carbon dioxide released to the
volume of oxygen taken in respiration in the given period
of time at standard temperature and pressure.
 30
Moles of CO 2 produced
RQ 
Moles of O 2 absorbed
It provides the nature of the substrate being respired by
a particular tissue.
(1) Carbohydrate RQ = 1 or unity
(2) Fats RQ = 0.7 i.e., less than one
(3) Proteins RQ = less than unity (usually 0.5 to 0.9)
(4) Fermentation RQ =  or infinity
(5) Succulents RQ = 0 or zero
(6) Maturing fatty seeds RQ = more than one
(7) Organic acids RQ = more than one
(8) Germinating fatty seeds RQ = less than one
GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT
 Plant growth : A vital process which brings about a
slow, permanent and irreversible increase in size or
volume or mass accompanied by an increase in dry
weight.
 Development : A process in which there is sequence
of qualitative changes, towards a higher or more
complex state. Plants exhibit a regular sequence of
seed germination, growth, differentiation, maturation,
seed formation and senescence.
 The growth of a multicellular organism can be divided
into 3 phases i.e., cell division, cell expansion and
cell differentiation.
DORMANCY AND SEED GERMINATION
 Internal inhibition of germination of an otherwise
viable seed even when it is placed in most favourable
external conditions is called as dormancy.
 The suspension of growth of a viable seed may be due
to exogenous control such as a change in
environmental conditions and is called as quiescence.
 Dormancy of seed may be due to : Tough seed coats
(e.g., Capsella, Lepidium), rudimentary embryos
(Eranthis hiemalis), impermeable seed coat
(Chenopodium, Brassica, Xanthium), mechanically
resistant seed coats, excess salts (Atriplex), after
ripening (Oat, Barley, Wheat/and even by the presence
of germination inhibitors e.g., abscisic acid, phenolic
acids, short-chain fatty acids and coumarin).
 Natural breaking of seed dormancy : Leaching of
inhibitors and salts ; development and after-ripening
of embryo ; development of growth hormones ;
destruction of inhibitors by heat, cold, light and
oxidation ; weakening of impermeable and tough
seed coats by mechanical abrasions, microbial activity
and digestive eyzymes of the alimentary canal of
animals.
 Artificial breaking of seed dormancy : By
mechanical scarification (machine threshing, chipping
or filing), chemical scarification (hot water, fat
solvents, mineral acid etc.), vigrous shaking, pressure
(about 2000 kg for 5-20 min), chilling treatment,
light (red light breaks dormancy and induces seed
germination in Lettuce and Tobacco), counter acting
inhibitors (soaking seeds in KNO3, thiourea, ethylene
chlorohydrin, gibberellin etc.).
 Seed germination : This is the first step towards plant
growth. After seed dormancy and necessary conditions
for growth are present, the dormant embryo resumes
metabolic activities and growth. This process is called
seed germination.
 Water, oxygen and temperature are the essential
condition for seed germination. Red region of visible
spectrum is most effective for the onset of seed
germination.
 Internal factors for seed germination are completion
of after-ripening, completion of seed-dormancy,
maturity of embryo, presence of sufficient food and
viability.
 Vivipary : Phenomenon of producing young ones in
advanced state of development. Seed germinate inside
the fruit, while still attached to the parent plant. It is
found in mangrove plants e.g., Rhizophora, Sonneratia
and Heritiera, such plants grow in marshy land. The
seedling of such plant is heavy and falls down into
salt rich marshy water with plumule remaining outside.
PLANT HORMONES
AUXIN
 Weak organic acids with the acidic group.
 Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA) and other natural or
synthetic growth regulating substances having
structures and functions similar to IAA are called
auxins.
 First plant growth hormone to be discovered.
 First indication of their existence came from the work
of Darwin (1880).
 F.W. Went (1928) proved that the coleoptile tips
contained a substance auxin and found that the degree
of curvature of coleoptile is proportional to the
amount of active substance in the agar blocks. This
test is known as avena curvature test.
 Maximum concentration of auxins are found in the
growing tips of the plant. From tip, it is transported
towards the base.
 Same concentration of auxin exhibit different
responses in different parts of the plant.

Uses of Some Synthetic Auxins
Type of Auxin Examples
Indoles and Naphthyls NAA
(Naphthalene acetic acid)
IBA (Indole butyric acid)
IPA (Indole propionic acid)
Phenoxyacetic acids 2, 4–D
(2, 4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid)  Prevents fruit drop (abscission)
Benzoic acids 2, 3, 6-trichlorobenzoic acid
2, 4, 6-trichlorobenzoic acid
GIBBERELLINS (GA)
 The discovery of gibberellin (GA) was based upon the
observations made in Japan in early 1800s on the
bakane or foolish seedling disease of rice.
 Widely distributed in nature particularly in
angiosperms.
 Chemically, all GA are terpenes and weak acids.
 Found in abundance in young, expanding organs;
being synthesised especially in embryos, young apical
leaves, buds seeds and root tips.
Functions
Overcoming genetic dwarfism (help in stem elongation) ;
bolting (elongation of intermodes to floweing in hosette
plants) and flowering (e.g., Cabbage) ; breaking of
dormancy and germination of seeds (after imbibition of
water, the embryo secretes gibberellin which diffuses to the
aleurone layer, stimulating the synthesis of several enzymes
including amylase, proteases, lipases) ; breaking of bud
dormancy ; control of flowering (promote flowering in
some long days plants even under short day conditions,
control of fruit growth; promoting growth (in both stems
and leaves) ; overcoming vernalisation; stimulate maleness
(e.g., cucurbits and Cannabis) ; increases fruit yield etc.
 Gibberellin bioassay is performed through dwarf
maize/pea test and cereal endosperm test.
 Yabuta (1935) coined the term gibberellin.
 About 100 different types of gibberellins have been isolated.
They are denoted as GA1, GA2, GA3 and so on.
 Antigibberellins like maleic hydrazide, phosphon D
and chorocholins chloride (CCC) are also called
antiretardants.
CYTOKININS
 Skoog (1954 – 1956) found that coconut milk
contained a substance which stimulated cell division
in tobacco pith cultures.
31
Uses
 Flower initiation in litchi and pineapple
 Root initiation in cuttings.
 Help in natural fruit setting.
 Methyl ester of NAA is used to prevent
sprouting of potatoes.
 Induces rooting of cuttings.
 Induces rooting of cuttings.
 Help in natural fruit setting.
 Flower initiation in litchi and pineapple
 Selective weed killer i.e., kills broad leaved
plant (dicots) but does not affect mature
monocots
Powerful weed killers
 Miller and his colleagues isolated and purified the
substance in crystalline form from herring sperm
DNA. This substance was identified as 6-furfuryl
aminopurine. They named this compound kinetin
because of its property to activate cell division
(cytokinesis).
 First naturally occurring cytokinin to be chemically
identified was from young maize (Zea mays) grains in
1963, and was called zeatin.
 Cytokinins are quite abundant wherever rapid cell
division occurs, especially in growing tissues such as
embryos, developing fruits and roots. In mature plants,
these are frequently synthesized in the roots and move
to the shoots through xylem.
 Functions : Cell division and differentiation (in the
presence of auxins, cytokinin promote cell division
even in non-meristematic tissues); control of apical
dominance (cytokinin stimulate the growth of lateral
buds); delaying senescence (by controlling protein
synthesis and mobilisation of resources) ; induce
flowering ; breaking the dormancy of seeds and
initiation of interfascicular cambium.
 The common bioassays for cytokinins include
promotion of cell division in tobacco pith culture,
expansion of excised radish cotyledons, delay in
senescence etc.
ETHYLENE
 Crocker et al. (1935) identified ethylene as natural
plant hormone.
 Ethylene is formed from amino acid methionine.
 Auxin IAA is known to stimulate ethylene formation.
 Only gaseous natural plant growth regulator.
 It does not generally move through the air spaces in
the plants. Rather, it escapes from the plants surface.
 32
Functions
Apical dominance (in pea seedlings and suppresses the
growth of apical buds); stem swelling (transverse
expansion of stem); leaf abscission (formation of
abscission zone is leaves, flowers and fruits); epinasty
(leaf bending); fruit growth and ripening (a rise in the
rate of respiration); accelerates flowering; sex expression
(increases the number of female flowers and fruits in
c u c u m be r p la n ts) a n d g ra v iperceptio n ( r e d u c e s
sensitivity to gravity, seedlings develop tight epicotyl
hook).
 Commercial compound “Ethaphone (2-chloroethyl
phosphoric acid) breaks down to release ethylene in
plants.
ABSCISIC ACID (ABA)
 Fredericle Addicott (1963) and P.F. Wareing (1964)
discovered this hormone.
 Liu and Crans (1961) isolated ABA from mature cotton
fruit.
 It is also called stress hormone or dormin because the
production of hormone is stimulated by drought, water
logging and other adverse environmental condition.
 Chemically, ABA is a Terpenoid.
 ABA synthesized in the leaves, stems, fruits and seeds
and distributed through the vascular system especially
phloem.
 Isolated chloroplasts can synthesize it either from
mevalonic acid or xanthophyll like violoxanthin.
Functions
Growth inhibitor (antagonistic to all the three growth
promoters) ; bud dormancy (by inhibiting growth processes);
senescence (of leaves) ; abscission (of leaves, flowers and
fruits in plants) ; stomatal closure ; hardiness (promotes
cold hardiness and inhibits growth of pathogens) ; promotes
flowering (in some short day plants) etc.
 It is a stress hormone i.e., helps the plants to cope
with adverse environmental conditions.
 ABA is sprayed on tree crops to regulate fruit drop at
the end of the season.
VERNALIZATION
 Term Vernalization was coined by Lysenko (1928)
to refer to the method of accelerating the flowering
ability of biennials or winter annuals, by exposing
their soaked seeds to low temperature for a few weeks.
 The various requirements of vernalization are:
(i) Actively dividing cells
(ii) Proper nourishment
(iii) Proper hydration
(iv) Continuous low temperature for a few days
(v) Aerobic respiration.
 The site of vernalization is believed to be shoot apical
meristem.
 Vernalisation effect is reversible and the reverse
process is called devernalization.
 The vernalisation stimulus can be transmitted between
plants by grafting hence the stimulus is believed to
be a hormone called vernalin.
 A. Lang discovered that during vernalization, the
levels of gibberellins increase and also that the
application of gibberellins to unvernalised plants can
substitute for vernalization.
SENESCENCE
 The sum of deteriorative processes which naturally
terminate that functional life of an organism.
 Ageing is a sum total of changes in the total plant or
its constituents w hile senescence represents
degenerative and irreversible changes in a plant.
 Senescence may be whole plant senescence (e.g.,
monocarpic plants) ; shoot senescence (some
perennials e.g., banana, gladiolus) ; sequential or
progressive senescence (perennials e.g., mango,
Eucalyptus) and simultaneous or synchronous leaf
senescence (perennial polycarpic deciduous plants e.g.,
maple, elm, poplar etc.).
 Senescense can be delayed by removing flowers from
the plants.
ABSCISSION
 Shedding of leaves, foliage branches, floral parts, fruits
etc. without causing any injury is called abscission.
 It generally occurs due to change in the hormonal
balance.
 Abscission zone is usually located at the base of
petiole which is made up of two distinct layers i.e.,
(i) The abscission (or separation) layer where
breakdown of cells takes place and
(ii) The protective layer, which develops next to
abscission layer to protect the exposed surface.
 Abscisic acid is known to play an important role in
abscission.
 33
CHAPTER
5
HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY
BLOOD AND CIRCULATION
Circulatory System or Internal Transport includes blood
vascular system (blood, heart and blood vessels) and
lymphatic system (lymph and lymph vessels). It helps in
transportation of water, heat, hormones, nitrogenous waste,
nutrients, respiratory gases, intermediate metabolites etc.
Circulation of body fluids can be of following types :
1. Intracellular circulation : Takes place inside the
individual cells through cyclosis or cytoplasmic
streaming e.g., Amoeba, Paramecium.
2. Extracellular circulation : Fluid circulation
outside the cells. It can be extra organismic
circulation (outside water circulates in the body of
an organism) or intra organismic circulation
(involves circulation of body fluid). It includes
parenchymal circulation (e.g., in flatworms),
coelomic circulation (e.g., in round worms,
arthropods etc.) and blood vascular system (e.g., in
higher invertebrates and all chordates).
TYPE OF BLOOD VASCULAR SYSTEM
A. Open Circulatory System
Found in arthropods and most molluscs (except cephalopod
and tunicates). The main blood vessels arising from the
heart pour the blood into tissue spaces called sinuses. In
arthropods and molluscs, these sinuses join to form a body
cavity with blood called the haemocoel.
Blood flows at a very low velocity and at low pressure
due to absence of smooth muscles; direct contact i.e., direct
exchange of materials: respiratory pigment (if present) is
dissolved in the blood plasma etc.
B. Closed Circulatory System
Formed in some annelids e.g., Pheretima, Sepia and all
vertebrates. The blood flows around the blood through the
specific blood vessels (arteries, veins and capillaries).
33
Blood flows at high pressure due to the presence of
smooth circular muscles in the walls of arteries and
arterioles; there is no direct contact between the blood
tissues and blood.
Annelids are the simplest animals to have closed
circulatory system.
Haemocytometer : Instrument used to determine RBC count.
Anaemia : RBC count decreases.
Polycythemia : RBC count increases much more than the
normal level.
Erythrocytopenia : Decrease in the number of RBCs which
leads to hypoxia i.e., O2 deficiency in the body tissues.
Erythropoeisis : Formation of red blood cells form the
organs (Erythropoeitic organs).
Spleen (blood bank of body) : Stores excess of erythrocytes.
The RBCs due to the presence of haemoglobin carriers
out the most important function of blood. i.e., transport of
gases.
Leucocytosis : Rise in WBC count.
Leucopenia : Fall of WBC count below 4000.
Leukaemia : Pathological increase in number and
denotes one type of neoplastic disease (blood cancer).
Leucopoiesis : Formation of leucocytes takes place in
bone marrow, Peyer’s patches, lymph nodes, thymus, spleen
etc.
HUMAN HEART
Mesodermal in origin; hollow; muscular structure; situated
behind the sternum and between the lungs in the thoracic
cavity, with its apex resting on the diaphragm; looks like a
blunt cone, which is 12 cm in length and 9 cm in width at
the broadest point; automatic pumping organ; heavier in
man (average 280-340 g) than in woman (average 230 –
280 g; form about 0.45% of body weight in males and
about 0.4% of body weight in females.
2732 (Biology)—5
 34
HEART BEAT AND PULSE
The rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the heart to
pump out and receive blood to and from the body parts is
called heart beat. In an adult healthy person, the normal rate
of heart beat at rest is about 70 – 72 times per minute. The
human heart contracts more than 2.5 billion times in a life
time. In newly born baby heart rate is 40 times per minute.
A wave of distension passess (arterial pulse) along the
arteries which can be felt by placing a fingertip on the
artery near the wrist. Factors like exercise, rise of body
temperature, shock and tension, rise in blood pressure, vaso-
constrictor decrease in pH value increase the rate of heart
beat.
Heart Sound
Produced due to closure of valves :
1. First sound (Lubb) : Longer duration (0.16 – 0.90 sec),
louder one, created by the closure of the arterio
ventricular valves immediately after the start of the
ventricular systole.
2. Second sound (Dubb) : Shorter duration (0.10 sec),
created by the closure of the semilunar valve at the
end of the ventricular systole.
The pause between the end of the second sound and
the beginning of the first sound coincides with
ventricular diastole.
PACE MAKER
The heart beat is triggered into action by the pacemaker.
The pacemaker region in called sinoatrial (SA) node. It is
present in the right auricle between the precaval and the
former. The SA node causes rhythmic depolarisation which
are conducted via auricles to auriculo­ventricular (AV) node.
SA node controls the heart beat and it is the natural
pacemaker of the heart. Failure of atrial impulse to pass
into ventricles for a few seconds to few hours is called
ventricular escape (Stokes-Adams syndrome). In such cases
an artificial pacemaker is connected to the right ventricle
for controlling the rhythm. The artificial pacemaker consists
of a pulse - generator containing cell (solid state lithiilm
cell) to produce electrical impulse, the lead in the form of
a wire (transmits the impulse) and an electrode which is
connected to the portion of the heart, where impulse is to
be transmitted. Pacemaker are however, liable to be
influenced by microwave ovens, metal detectors, diathermy,
electric showers, automobile ignition, cellular phones etc.
DISORDERS RELATED TO THE
CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
1. Hypertension
Presistent high blood pressure. In a healthy individual the
normal arterial systolic and diastolic pressure is 120 mm Hg
and 80 mm Hg, respectively. But an increase in the blood
pressure beyond 140 mm Hg (systolic) and 90 mm Hg
(diastolic) is referred to as high blood pressure. It can
potentially harm the heart, brain and kidneys. It compels
heart to work excessively due to which the congestive heart
disease may set is at an early age. In brain, it causes
haemorrhage or infarctions, leading to various disabilities.
In the long run it also affects kidneys, leading to renal
failure.
Hypertension is commonly called silent killer because
it may be present for years with no distinct symptoms.
2. Atherosclerosis (Atheroma)
Characterised by the formation of fibrolipid plague (angina)
in the arterial intima especially in the coronary arteries. It
results into the reduction of the lumen size of the artery and
consequently, the flow of blood is also reduced. The
proliferation of smooth muscles takes place due to these
plaques provide a rough surface to the platelets causing the
release of platelet derived growth factor (PDGF). In
myocardial infarction, the patient suffers from severe chest
pain, breathlessness, restlessness, nausea and vomitting.
Vasodilator drugs like nitroglycerin give immediate relief
from pain.
3. Arteriosclerosis
Caused by deposition of calcium salts or cholesterol in
the walls of blood vessels or increased fibrous tissue in
their walls. The arteries become hard, narrow and less
elastic and is referred to as the “hardening of the arteria”.
It leads to hypertension w hich som etim es causes
haemorrhage of blood vessels of brain or visceral organs
causing cerebral haemorrhage or visceral haemorrhage.
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
INTRODUCTION
Catabolic process w hich involves exchange of
environmental oxygen and body’s carbon dioxide through
a liquid medium to utilitize the oxygen for the oxidation
of glucose in the mitocondria to produce the energy.
Respiration is a physico-chemical process.
Respiration may be direct or indirect.
Direct respiration
Exchange of gases takes place on the principle of diffusion
through moist body surface. Found in unicellular organisms
like aerobic bacteria protists and metazoans like sponges,
coelenterates, flatworms, round worms etc.
Indirect respiration
A respiratory surface is present for exchange of gases. In
this the transportation of gases between the respiratory
organs and the body cells is brought about by the blood of
the circulatory system e.g., through skin (annelids and
amphibians), gills (most of crustaceans, molluscs, all fishes
and some amphibians); lungs (snails, some amphibians, all
reptiles, birds and mammals).
2732 (Biology)—5-II
 35
Aerobic respiration
Takes place in the presence of molecular oxygen. It involves
intake of oxygen and liberation of carbon dioxide.
Anaerobic respiration
Takes place in the absence of molecular oxygen, also called
as fermentation. In muscles, lactic acid is formed as a
product which is later oxidised aerobically in muscles and
liver. Mammalian RBCs exhibit anaerobic respiration as
these lack the mitochondria.
Internal respiration or tissue respiation
The uptake of oxygen by tissue cells, oxidation of
respiratory substrate (cellular respiration), liberation of
energy and elimination of carbon dioxide evolved.
External respiration
Intake of oxygen by the blood from water or air in the
respiratory organs and elimination of carbon dioxide.
Breathing or ventilation
Refers to the bringing in of fresh air and taking out of foul
air. Rate of breathing is 12 – 14 (14 – 18 in adolescents)
times per minute in human adults and 18 – 22 times/min in
children (40 – 60/min in neonates).
RESPIRATORY DISORDERS
1. Bronchitis : Inflammation of the bronchi.
Characterised by hypertrophy and hyperplasia of
the sero-mucous gland and goblet cells lining of
the bronchi.
Symptoms : Regular coughing with thick greenish
yellow sputum indicating infections and excessive
secretion of mucus.
Caused due to cigarette smoking and exposue to
air pollutants like carbon monoxide.
Prevention and cure : By avoiding smoking,
irritating chemicals and pollutants. Bronchodilator
drugs provide symptomatic relief. Intake of suitable
antibiotics cure infection.
2. Bronchial asthma : Due to narrowing of bronchi and
spasms in bronchial muscles (smooth).
Generally caused due to the hypersensitivity of
the bronchiole to the foreign substances present in
the air passing through it.
Symptoms : Coughing, or difficulty in breathing,
mainly during expiration. Mucous glands become
overactive producing a lot of mucus that clogs
bronchioles and bronchi.
Prevention and cure : Avoiding exposure to the
foreign substance or allergens; hypersensitisation;
treatm ent includes antibiotic therapy,
bronchodilator drugs as well as inhalers for
symptomatic relief.
3. Emphysema : Inflammation or abnormal distension of
the bronchiole or alveolar sac which results into the
loss of elasticity of these parts.
Caused due to cigarette smoking and chronic
bronchitis.
Lung size increases but ventilation is poor.
Prevention and cure : By avoiding exposure to
cigarette smoke and pollutants. its a chronic lung
disease resulting in irreversible distension and loss
of elasticity of alveoli which can not be cured
permanently.
Sym ptom atic treatm ent involves use of
branchiodilators, antibiotics and oxygen therapy.
4. Pneumonia : Acute infection due to inflammation of
the alveoli of the lung.
Caused mainly due to infection of the bacteria,
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Infants, elderly persons and immuno compromised
individuals are susceptible to it.
In this disease, most of the air space of the alveolar
sac is occupied by the fluid with dead WBC.
Prevention and cure : By proper and timely
vaccination, can be cured by the use of antibiotics,
symptomatic treatment like bronchodilator drugs.
5. Occupational lung disease : Due to exposure of
potentially harmful substances such as gas, fumes or
dusts, present in the work place.
Silicosis and asbestosis occur due to chronic
exposure of silica and asbestos dust in the mining
industry.
Characterised by fibrosis (i.e., proliferation of
fibrous connective tissue) of upper part of lung,
causing inflammation.
Prevention and cure : Symptoms appear after
chronic exposure of 10–15 years or more. These
are incurable. Preventive measures include-to
minimise the exposure of harmful dust at the work
place, harm of the exposure to such dusts to the
workers should be preinformed, regular health
checkup, protective gears and cloths, brief holiday
from duty at short intervals for such workers.
Sym ptom atic treatm ent involves use of
branchiodilators and antibiotics to rem ove
underlying secondary infection.
6. SARS (Severe acute respiratory syndrome)- Typical
pneumonia, caused due to a variant of common cold
Corona virus which spreads by droplet and other
methods.
7. Whooping cough (Pertussis) : Cough with inspiratory
whoop caused by Bordetella (Haemophilus) pertussis.
8. Asphyxia (Suffocation) : The O2 content of blood falls
while the CO 2 content rises and paralyses the respiratory
centre. Breathing stops and death takes place.
DIGESTIVE SYSTEM OF HUMAN
Consists of alimentary canal or gut and some accessary
digestive organs.
 36
Alimentary canal : Coiled, muscular tube, extending
from mouth to the anus, complete, about 6–9 metres
long, consists of many specialised sections.
Arranged sequentially, these are mouth, oral or buccal
cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine,
large intestine, rectum and anus.
Buccal or oral cavity : Has two lateral walls (cheeks),
an anterior roof (hard palate), a posterior roof (soft
palate) and a pair of jaws the upper maxilla and lower
mandible.
Tongue or lingua : A thick, musculo-sensory organ,
present on the floor of buccal cavity, greatly protrusible,
posteriorly attached to the floor of buccal cavity by a
soft ligamentous fold (frenulum). Dorsum is lined by a
straitified squamous epithelium posses a median
groove and three types of lingual papillae
(i) Circumvallate or Vallate papillae : 8 – 12 in
number, largest in size, in a /\ – shaped manner, at
the the back of the tongue.
(ii) Fungiform papillae : Numerous, mushroom-
shaped, red coloured, present on the tip and sides
of the tongue.
(iii) Filiform papillae : Most abundant, smallest size,
conical-shaped, present on anterior two-third part
of the tongue.
(iv) Foliate papillae : 4–5 transverse fold, at each
border of the tongue near the base.
Different areas for different taste i.e., sweet
(tip), salt (tip and sides), sour (sides) and bitter
(base).
Basal region of tongue possess two tonsils or
lingual tonsils. Other types of tonsils are
pharyngeal (adenoids) or palatine
(posterolateral walls).
TEETH (DENTENES)
Each half of the jaw holds four types of teeth.
(i) Incisors or cutting teeth
Chiesel shaped, present in anterior part of buccal cavity,
used for cutting, chopping or gnawing.
(ii) Canine or tearing teeth
More pointed, dagger shaped, used for tearing or ripping or
shredding.
(iii) Premolars and molars (cheek or grinding teeth)
Broad, have 2 – 4 cusped crown, located in the posterior
part of the buccal cavity, used for shearing, crushing and
grinding.
Dental formula i.e., arrangement of teeth, I12, C1/1, PM2/2,
3/3
M or 2123/2123 = 32
Teeth are developed in two sets i.e. milk (or temporary
or deciduous teeth and permanent (or successional) teeth.
Dental formula of milk teeth is I1/2, C1/1, PM 0/0. M 2/2 or 2102/
2102 = 20.
(iv) Wisdom teeth
Third pair of molars of permanent set erupt between the
eighteenth and twenty-fifth year and sometimes never erupt.
Human teeth are the codont (embeded injaw sockets
i.e., alveoli), diphyodont (milk teeth are replaced by
permanent teeth in the adult), heterodont (four types of
teeth).
Stomach
Most distensible part, thick, muscular, J-shaped organ present
on the left side of upper part of abdominal cavity, suspended
by a mesentery i.e., mesogaster. Four parts i.e.,
(i) Cardiac stomach : Broad upper part, receives
oesophagous through cardiac aperture guarded
by cardiac sphincter which prevents regurgitation
of food.
(ii) Fundus : Apex of stomach, contains gas or air.
(iii) Body : Main part, dome shaped.
(iv) Pyloric entrum : Lower, narrow part, opens in the
duodenum by pyloric aperture or pylorus which is
guarded by pyloric sphincter, it regulates passage
of food into intestine.
Stomach helps in mechanical churning and chemical
digestion of food. It acts as food reservoir.
Small Intestine
Longest part, about 20 ft or 6 metres, narrow, tubular, divided
into three parts.
(i) Duodenum : Widest, shortest (about 25 cm), most
flexed part, forms a C-shaped curve, receives bile
pancreatic duct.
(ii) Jejunum : Middle part, about 8 ft long.
(iii) Ileum : Longest part (12 ft), opens into the large
intestine, the opening is guarded by an ileo-caecal
valve.
Small intestine is the main region where digestion and
absorption of food takes place.
Large intestine or colon
About 5 feet (1.5 metres) long, shorter but wider than small
intestine, forms an arc around the small intestine. Three
parts.
(i) Caecum : Small, pouch like, ends into a tubular
structure (13 cm long) called vermiform appendix.
Caecum and vermiform appendix are vestigial as they
are not involved in cellulose digestion.
(ii) Colon : Long sized, sacculated structure, differentiated
into four regions i.e., ascending colon (extending upto
liver on the right side); transverse colon (crosses the
abdominal cavity below the pancreas); descending
colon (running downward on the left side and sigmoid
or pelvic colon (S-shaped), enters the pelvis and joins
the rectum). It is related with conservation of water,
sodium or other minerals and formation of faeces.
(iii) Rectum : Slightly dilated part, about 13 cm long and
related to temporary storage of faeces, leads into and
canal (3-8 cm long), opens out by anus and guarded
by two anal sphincter muscles.
 37

THE ACCESSORY DIGESTIVE ORGANS
A. Tongue
Gustatory receptors, located in the buccal cavity, muscular
organ with bony attachments (styloid process and hyoid
bone).
B. Digestive glands
1. Salivary glands
(i) Parotid glands : Largest, present just below the
external ear, saliva is carried by the parotid ducts to
the second upper molar tooth.
(ii) Submaxillary glands : Lie beneath the jaw angles,
secretion is carried by sub-maxillary or Wharton’s
ducts which open below the tongue.
(iii) Sublingual glands : Smallest sized, lie beneath the
tongue and open at the floor of buccal cavity by a
number of small sublingual or Bartholin’s ducts or
ducts of Rivinus.
Saliva = 95% water + 0.2% minerals + 0.3% organic
compounds like mucin and a starch splitting enzyme
ptyalin (salivary amylase).
2. Liver
Largest sized, weighs about 1.5 kg, reddish brown gland,
present in the posterior concavity of the diaphragm in the
right upper part of abdomen, multilobulated gland, two
main (larger right and smaller left lobe) and two smaller
lobes (quadrate and caudate lobes).
Gall bladder : Present on the lower surface of right
liver lobe, thin walled, pear shaped sac, stores bile secreted
by the liver. Bile is drained from the liver by a bile duct
which is made by the joining of a cystic duct from the gall
bladder and a common hepatic duct from different liver
lobes.
Bile duct and pancreatic duct (from pancreas) join to
form hepatopancreatic duct just near the duodenum. This
duct opens in duodenum which is guarded by a sphincter
of oddi.
3. Pancreas
Second largest gland, yellow coloured, 12–15 cm long,
compound racemose gland, present in the loop of
duodenum, made up of head, body and tail, heterocrine
gland, glandular cells secrete the pancretatic juice which
is drained by a pancreatic duct which joins bile duct. Liver
and pancreas act as endocrine and exocrine glands, whereas
the gall bladder acts as a storing organ.
MOBILITY OF HUMAN GUT
The ability of alimentary canal to undergo movements
through contraction and expansion of parts. It is required
for propelling food, churning food, mixing food with
digestive secretions, absorption and egestion.
The food is tasted in the oral cavity and mixed with
saliva which is a mixture of water and electrolytes, derived
from the blood plasma, mucus salivary amylase or ptyalin
enzyme and lysozyme (antibacterial agent), all secreted by
the salivary glands.
Swallowing
Mixture of food and saliva i.e. bolus pushed inward through
the pharynx into the oesophagus. It involves coordinated
activity of tongue, soft palate, pharynx and oesophagus.

GASTROINTESTINAL SECRETIONS AND DIGESTION

Exocrine tissues : Salivary glands, secretory cells in the stomach and intestinal epithelium, and the secretory cells of the
liver and pancreas.
Exocrine secretion : Consists of aquedus mixtures of substances i.e., water, ions, mucus and enzymes.
Role of digestive enzymes in digestion in mammals (Humans)
Gland Enzyme pH Site of action Substrats Products of action
Salivary Salivary amylase 6.7 Buccal cavity, Starch ‘Limit’ dextrins, maltose,
Gland or ptyalin Oesophagous, isomaltose
(Saliva) Parts of stomach
Gastric (i) Pepsinogen  Pepsin 1,2 – 8 Stomach Protein casein Peptones paracasein (curd)
Gland (milk)
(Gastric (ii) Proprennin  Rennin Stomach Casein Paracasein
Juice) (calf)
(iii) Hydrochloric acid Stomach Pepsinogen Pepsin
(iv) Gastric lipase (infants) Stomach Milk fat Fatty acids and glycerol
Pancreas (i) Pancreatic Amylase 8.8 Small intestine Starch ‘Limit’ dextrins, maltose,
(Pancreatic glycogen Isomaltose
juice) (ii) Trypsinogen enterokinase Protein Peptides
 
(Trypsin) Chymotrypsinogen Chymotrypsin
Percarboxy Carboxypeptidases
Peptidases
(iii) Elastase Elastin Large peptides
(iv) Lipase Fat Fatty acids, monoglycerides,
Glycerol
 38

Gland Enzyme pH Site of action Substrats Products of action

(v) Chymotrypsinogen  casein (milk) Paracasein (curd)
Chymotrypsin
(vi) Carboxypeptidases Larger Smaller peptides
peptides
(vii) Amino peptidases Larger Oligopeptides
(viii) DNAase DNA Deoxy ribonucleotides
(xi) RNAase RNA Deoxy ribonucleotides
Small (i) Enteropeptidase or 8.3 Small Intestine Trypsiogen Trypsin
Intestine Enterokinase
(Intestinal) (ii) Aminopeptidases Peptides Smaller peptides, amino acids
(juice) (iii) Dipeptidases Dipeptides Amino acids
(iv) Nucleotidases Nucleotides Nucleosidases, inorganic
Phosphoric phosphate
acid
(v) Nucleosidases Nucleosides Sugars, purines
(vi) Isomaltase ‘Limit’ dextrin 2 Glucose
Isomaltose
(vii) Maltase Maltose 2 Glucose
(viii) Sucrase (Invertase) Sucrose Glucose, fructose
(ix) Lactase Lactose Glucose, galactose
(x) Lipase Triglycerides Monoglycerides, fatty acids
Liver Bile Bile Salts, no enzymes 8.0 Dueod enum Fats Fat droplets

HORMONAL CONTROL OF DIGESTION IN HUMAN

The activities of gastrointestinal (GI) tract are coordinated by nervous and endocrine systems of the body. Gastrointestinal
peptide hormones are the hormones secreted by the endocrine cells found scattered in the mucosa of stomach and intestine,
These hromones regulate the digestive activities. Most of the gastroinestinal hormones are “local hormones” as act upon
the same part of gut which secrete them.

Hormone Source Stimulus Target/Action

1. Gastrin G-cells or Argentaffin Vagus nerve activitiy; peptides (i) Stimulates secretion of gastric
juice.
cells of Pyloric stomach and proteins stomach (ii) Constricts cardiac sphincter and
d uo d enu m

2. Secretin S–cells of mucosa of Acidic chyme entry into (i) Release of sodium bicarbonates
duodenum and jejunum d uo d enu m in pancreatic juice
(ii) Stops up secretion of bile
(iii) Inhibits secretion of gastrin

3. Cholecystokinin I-cells of mucosa of Presence of fats in duodenum (i) Release of enzymes in pancreatic
(CCK) juice
(ii) Release of bile from gall bladder

4. Gastric Inhibitory Upper part of small K cells in duoenum and Jejunum (i) Stimulates insulin secretion
peptide (GIP) intestine i.e., duodenum Antrum of stomach
(ii) Inhibits gastric secretion and
motility

5. Duocrinin Du od en um Acidic chyme in intestine Activates Brunner‘s glands for

producing mucus and HCO 3

6. Enterocrinin Du od en um Acidic chyme in intestine Release of enzymes from

Lieberkuhn’s crypts

7. Motilin Du od en um Food/acidity Mobility of stomach and intestine.

8. Villikinin Intestinal epithelium Food in duodenum Accelerates movement of villi

 39

Some Important Minerals and their Functions

Mineral Functions
1. Calcium Component of bones and teeth; required for blood clotting, muscle contraction, ATP-ase, nerve impulse
transmission, heart functioning etc. Deficiency causes tetany and rickets.
2. Chlorine Chief anion of extracellular fluid, involved in HCl synthesis and acid-base balance.
3. Copper Synthesis of haemoglobin; co-factor for enzymes e.g. oxidases, component of haemocyanin. Deficiency
causes causes anaemia.
4. Iodine Metabolic control as part of thyroid hormone thyroxine. Deficiency produces goitre.
5. Iron Formation of Hb and myoglobin, respiratory enzymes e.g. cytochromes and, O 2 transport enzymes.
Deficiency causes anaemia.
6. Phosphorus Bone and teeth formation, part of nucleic acids, energy metabolism, phosphorylation, maintain normal
blood pH (buffer action). Deficiency reduces growth, metabolism and causes rickets in children.
7. Potassium Osmotic balance; muscle contraction; nerve-impulse conduction. Deficiency causes rickets among children.
8. Sodium Osmotic balance; acid-base balance; muscle contraction; nerve impulse conduction, bile salts.
9. Sulphur Components of hormones (e.g. insulin), necessary for normal metabolism. Deficiency causes skin patches.
10. Zinc Component of at least 70 enzymes e.g. carbonic anhydrase and some peptidases.
11. Flourine Maintain enamel and prevents dental caries. Deficiency causes dental caries.
12. Magnesium Co-factor of enzymes e.g. Hexokinase. Causes heart and vascular irregularities.
13. Manganese Normal reproductive function, co-factor for enzymes. Deficiency causes reproductive failure.
14. Molybdenum Co-factor for nitrogenase enzyme. Causes whiptail disease in cauliflower.

VITAMINS Term vitamin coined by C. Funk (1911) who discovered

Vitamins are organic compounds, always taken from outside
the body along with food in small amounts (mg or mg/day)
so called micro-nutrients and are vital for certain metabolic
activities of life.
Absence or deficiency causes avitaminosis or deficiency
disease while excess causes hypervitaminosis and
metabolic disorders.
vitamin B 1.
On the basis of solubility vitamins are of two types :
(i) Fat soluble vitamins : Derived from 5-carbon
hydrocarbon – Isoprene soluble in organic solvents.
e.g. vitamin A, D, E, and K.
(ii) Water soluble vitamins : Vitamin B and C.

Some Important Vitamins

Some important Vitamins Vitamins Functions Deficiency Symptoms
(A) Fat Soluble Vitamins
1. Vitamin A Body growth, principal component of retinal pigments; promotes Xerophthalmia,
(Retinol) normal vision, growth of bones and teeth, and maintenance of
epithelial tissue. Night blindness,
Keratomalacia, Retarded growth
2. Vitamin D Antirachitic, absorption and retention of Ca and P, growth Rickets in children,
(Calciferol) and maintenance of bone Osteomalacia in women
3. Vitamin E Prevents oxidative breakdown of vitamins, also for Reversible sterility in rats,
(Tocopherol) normal functions of gonads. Erythrocyte breakdown.
4. Vitamin K Prothrombin formation in liver Haemorrhage
(Phylloquinone)
(B) Water Soluble Vitamins

1. Vitamin C Absorption of iron, formation of dentine collagen Scurvy

(Ascorbic acid) and bone matrix, amino acid oxidation, anti-oxidant, recovery
from toxicity and burns
2. Vitamin B complex Beri-Beri
(i) Vitamin B 1 Formation of cocarboxylase enzyme involved in
(Thiamine) decarboxylation (citric acid cycle)
(ii) Vitamin B 2 Maintenance of skin and oral mucosa, component Cheilosis, glossitis
(Riboflavin) of FMN and FAD
 40

Some important Vitamins Vitamins Functions Deficiency Symptoms

(iii) Vitamin B 3 Participates in metabolism as coenzyme A Dermatitis in chicken, Early
(Pantothenic acid) ageing in man
(iv) Vitamin B 5 In oxidation-reduction reactions as coenzyme NAD or NADP Pellagra
(Niacin)
(v) Vitamin B 6 Component of coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate Anaemia, convulsions,
(Pyridoxine) impairment of antibody
synthesis
(vi) Vitamin H or B 4 Involved in carboxylation and decarboxylation Dermatitis, muscular pain,
(Biotin) growth failure
(vii) Folic acid Formation and nucleoturation of RBCs Macrocytic anaemia
(viii) Vitamin B 12 Important for nucleoprotein synthesis and formation of Pernicious anaemia
(Cyanoco- RBCs, Myelin formation
balamine)

Nutritional Disorders
Nutritional Disorders Deficiency symptoms

I. Protein Kwashiorkor (Protein energyStu n ted g ro wth in th e ch ild ren ; lo ss o f ap p etite; an aem ia; b u lgin g ey e;
malnutrition, PEM) protruded belly; darkening of the skin; repeated diarrhoea; atrophy of muscles,
oedema of hands, feet and face
2 . Protein and Calorie Marasmus Shrieveled appearence, subcutaneous fat used, ribs prominent, skin dry and wrinkled,
stunted growth and repeated diarrhoea, extreme thinning of limbs (emaciation).
3 . Iron Anaemia, failure to mature RBC Reduced number and size of RBC, reduced haemoglobin content, reduced learning
ability, increased risk of infection and even death during child birth.
4 . Iod ine Goitre Enlargement of thyroid gland, cretinism in childhood causes retarded physical,
mental and sexual growth.
5 . Flouride Dental caries Appearence of cavities in the teeth due to acids produced during anaerobic respiration
of bacteria.
6 . Vitamin C Scurvy Bleeding gums, loosening and falling of teeth, pain in muscles
(Ascorbic acid) and joints, loss of weight and poor wound healing.
7 . Vitamin A Xerophthalmia, Night blindness Non-functioning of lacrymal glands; dryness and keratinization
(Retinol) (Nyctalopia) of conjunctiva and cornea. Inability to see at night
8 . Vitamin D Rickets in children Weak and soft bones, distorted skeleton, poor muscular
(Calciferol) Osteomalacia in adult development.
9 . Vitamin B 12 Pernicious Anaemia Enlarged size but reduced number of erythrocytes.
(Cyanocobalamin)
10 . Vitamin K Haemorrhage (Menadione) Deficiency of prothrombin in the blood, deficiency of factor VII, IX and X required
for blood coagulation.
11 . Vitamin B 1 Beri-beri Muscular dystrophy (dry beri-beri), heart enlargement, indigestion nervous disorder,
polyneuritis (wet beri-beri)
(Thiamine)
12 . Folic acid Macrocytic anaemia Impairment of antibody synthesis, stunted growth.
13 . VitaminB 5 Pellagra (4 – D syndrome) Dermatitis, dementia, diarrhoea and death.
(Niacin)
14 . VitaminB 6 Marasmus Convulsions, dermatitis, impairment of antibody synthesis
15 . VitaminB 2 Cheilosis Cracking of skin at corners of mouth and base of nose
16 . Vitamin E Sterility In adult female, foetus is resorbed in the uterus after sometime.
(Tocopherol) Atrophy of seminiferous tubules of testes in adult male.
17 . Vitamin B 3 Ageing Poor growth, early ageing and greying of hair.

HUMAN EXCRETORY SYSTEM

One pair of kidneys, one pair of ureters, a urinary bladder
and a urethra.
1. Kidney: Primary or major excretory organ, one pair, large
sized, 10 cm long × 5 cm broad × 3 cm thick, bean shaped,
dark red 125-170 gm in weight in adults, slightly flattened
structure, present in upper part of abdominal cavity along
dorsal body walt one on either side of vertebral column.
Concavity of kidney (hilum or hilus renalis) is always
inward directed. Each kidney is embeded in renal fat.
Asymmetrical in position, right kidney is slightly posterior
in position and is probably pushed by well developed liver.
There are extra-coelomic, retroperitoneal and
metanephros in position. Each kidney is made up of about
one million uriniferous or renal tubules or nephrons.
 41
2. Ureters: One pair, long, 25 – 30 mm, muscular tubular,
narrow, arising from the hilum of kidney by its upper
broader part (renal pelvis) , open in dorsal wall of urinary
bladder, lined by transitional epithelium.
3. Urinary bladder: Large, thin walled distensible, pear
shaped sac, present in pelvis region of abdominal cavity,
wall lined with smooth muscles ( detrusor muscles ),
temporarily stores urine, lined bytransitional epithelium.
Upper broader part (body of bladder) is concerned with
storage of urine, lower narrow part is neck of bladder.
Internal urethral orifice (at narrow part) guarded by two
sphincters; inner smooth muscle fibres and outer striated
muscle fibre. Trigone – Small triangular area in the wall
of bladder, formed of 3 openings (2 openings of ureters
and 1 internal urethral orifice at the lower most end of
trigone).
4. Urethra: Muscular, tubular, extends from neck of bladder
to outside. In female about 4 cm long and opens out
directly by external urethral orifice above the vaginal
orifice in vulva. In male urethra (20 cm long) joins the
ejaculatory duct to form urinogenital canal which passes
through the penis and opens by urinogenital aperture at
the tip of penis and is differentiated into 3 parts –
prostatic (about 2.5 cm through prostate gland and
receiving sperm ducts), membranous (about 2.5 cm, free)
and penile (about 15 cm and inside penis).
2732 (Biology)—6
 42

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Darwin’s finches provide an excellent evidence in favour 9. The first (initiating) step in photosynthesis is
of organic evolution. These are related to which of the A. Ionisation of water
following evidences B. Attachment of CO 2 to 5-carbon sugar
A. Embryology C. Excitation of chlorophyll by a photon of light
B. Palaeontology (or fossils) D. Formation of ATP
C. Anatomy 10. In most fungi, the food material is stored in the form of
D. Biogeography (or geographic distribution) A. Starch B. Glucose
2. Which one of the following is correctly matched pair of a C. Sucrose D. Glycogen
certain plant family and its one example or
A. Malvaceae  Cotton A. Starch B. Oil
B. Leguminosae Mango (or Sunflower) C. Paramylum D. Glycogen
C. Cucurbitaceae  Orange 11. Feed back inhibition of an enzymatic reaction is caused
D. Brassicaceae— Wheat by
3. Relative Biological Effectiveness (RBE) usually refers to A. substrate B. enzyme
the damages caused by C. end product D. rise in temperature
A. Low temperature B. High temperature 12. Small proteins produced by vertebrate cells naturally in
C. Radiation D. Pollution response to viral infections and which inhibit
4. The greatest biomass of autotrophs in the world’s oceans multiplication of viruses are called
is that of A. Immunoglobulins B. Interferons
A. Benthic brown algae, coastal red algae and daphnids C. Antitoxins D. Lipoproteins
B. Benthic diatoms and marine viruses 13. Which one of the following statements is correct with
C. Sea grasses and slime molds reference to honey bees?
D. Free-floating microalgae, cyanobacteria and A. Bees wax is a waste (excretory) product of honey
nanoplankton bees
B. Communication among honeybees was discovered
5. Enzymes are absent in by Von Frisch
A. Algae B. Fungi C. Apis indica is largest wild bee in India
C. Cyanobacteria D. Viruses D. Honey is predominantly sucrose and arabinose
6. An institution where valuable plant material-likely to 14. Lysosomes are the reservoirs (store houses) of
become irretrievably lost in the wild or in cultivation- is A. Hydrolytic enzymes
preserved in a viable condition is known as B. Secretory glycoproteins
A. Genome B. Gene library C. RNA and protein
C. Gene bank C. Herbarium D. Fats (or sugars of ATP)
7. For yielding one molecule of glucose, the Calvin cycle 15. Black rust of wheat is caused by a member species of the
turns genus
A. Two times B. Four times A. Mucor B. Rhizopus
C. Six times D. Eight times C. Aspergillus D. Puccinia
8. Photochemical reactions in the chloroplast are directly 16. The first successfully cloned mammal (animal) that
involved in gained worldwide publicity was
A. Photolysis of water and phosphorylation of ADP to A. Molly (a sheep) B. Polly (a sheep)
ATP C. Chance (a bull) D. Dolly (a sheep)
B. Formation of phosphoglyceric acid 17. As per geological times scale, hominids evolved during
C. Synthesis of glucose and starch A. Miocene B. Pliocene
D. Fixation of carbon dioxide C. Pleistocene D. Oligocene
42
 43

18. Plasmids are suitable vectors for gene cloning because 28. Which one of the following correctly matches a sexually
A. These are small circular DNA molecules which can transmitted disease (STD) with its pathogen?
integrate with host chromosomal DNA A. AIDS— Bacillus anthracis
B. These are small circular DNA molecules with their B. Syphilis— Treponema pallidum
own replication origin site C. Urethritis— Entamoeba gingivalis
C. These can shuttle between prokaryotic and eukaryotic D. Gonorrhoea— Leishmania donovani
cells 29. Removal of apical (terminal) bud of a flowering plant (or
D. These often carry antibiotic resistance genes pruning of a flowering plant) leads to
19. A bacterium which has found extensive use in genetic A. formation of new apical buds
engineering work in plants is B. formation of adventitious roots on the cut side
A. Bacillus coagulans C. early flowering (or stopping of floral growth)
B. Clostridium septicum D. promotion of lateral branches
C. Xanthomonas citri (or Pseudomonas ) 30. The cell organelle involved in the glycosylation of
D. Agrobacterium tumefaciens proteins is
20. Enzymes enhance the rate of a reaction by A. Ribosome
A. lowering the activation energy of the reaction B. Peroxisome
B. combining with the product as soon as it is formed C. Mitochondria
C. forming a reactant-product complex D. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. changing the equilibrium point of the reaction 31. Water enters a cell due to
21. One of the most important reasons why wild plants A. O. P. B. S. P.
should thrive is that these are good sources of C. T. P. D. W. P.
A. unsaturated edible oils 32. Proteinaceous pigment which controls the activities
B. highly nutritive animals feed concerned with light is
C. genes for resistance to diseases and pests A. Phytochrome B. Chlorophyll
D. rare and highly sought after fruits of medical C. Anthocyanin D. Carotenoids
importance 33. Glycolate induces opening of stomata in
22. Producing a giant mouse in the laboratory was possible A. Presence of oxygen
through B. Low CO 2 concentration
A. gene mutation B. gene manipulation C. High CO 2 concentration
C. gene synthesis D. gene duplication D. Absence of CO 2
23. Industrial production of ethanol form starch is brought 34. Enzyme first used for nitrogen fixation is
about by a certain species of A. Nitrogenase B. Nitroreductase
A. Azotobacter B. Lactobacillus C. Transferase D. Transaminase
C. Saccharomyces D. Penicillium 35. Passive absorption of minerals depends on
24. A water fern which is used as a green manure in rice A. Temperature
fields is B. Temperature and metabolic inhibitor
A. Salvinia B. Mucor C. Metabolic inhibitor
C. Aspergillus D. Azolla D. Humidity

25. The endangered largest living lemur Idri idri is inhabitant 36. Maximum number of bases in plasmids discovered so far
of is
A. Madagascar B. Mauritius A. 50 kilo base B. 500 kilo base
C. Sri Lanka D. India C. 5000 kilo base D. 5 kilo base
37. Half life period of C 14 is
26. ATP is a
A. 500 years B. 5000 years
A. Nucleotide B. Nucleosome
C. 50 years D. 5 × 10 14 years
C. Purine Base D. Nucleoside
38. Which one is correctly matched?
27. The largest known ovules, largest male and female
A. Vit. E – Tocopherol B. Vit D – Riboflavin
gametes, and largest plants are found among
C. Vit. B – Calciferol D. Vit. A – Thiamine
A. Tree ferns and some monocots
B. Angiosperms 39. Ratio of complementary genes is
C. Gymnosperms A. 9 : 3 :4 B. 12 : 3 : 1
D. Dicotyledonous plants C. 9 : 3 : 3 : 4 D. 9 : 7
 44

40. When dominant and recessive alleles express together it C. Endocarp and less developed mesocarp
is called D. Epicarp and mesocarp
A. Co-dominance B. Dominance
51. Bicarpellary gynoecium and oblique ovary occurs in
C. Amphidominance D. Pseudodominance
A. Mustard B. Banana
41. A and B genes are linked. What shall be the genotype of C. Pisum D. Brinjal
progeny in a cross between AB/ab and ab /ab
A. AAbb and aabb B. AaBb and aabb 52. In Hydra , waste material of food digestion and
C. AABB and aabb D. none nitrogenous waste material are removed from
A. Mouth and mouth
42. Which statement is correct about centre of origin of B. Body wall and body wall
plants C. Mouth and bodywall
A. More diversity in varieties
D. Mouth and tentacles
B. Frequency of dominant gene is more
C. Climatic conditions more favourable 53. What is the best pH of the soil for cultivation of plants?
D. None of these A. 3.4 – 5.4 B. 6.5 – 7.5
43. Probability of four sons to a couple is C. 4.5 – 8.5 D. 5.5 – 6.5
1 1 54. Which fish selectively feeds on the larva of mosquito?
A. B. A. Gambusis B. Rohu
4 8
1 1 C Clarias D. Exocoetus
C. D.
16 32 55. Which one of the following is correct match?
44. Before the European invaders which vegetable was/were A. Reserpine – Tranquiliser
absent in India B. Cocain – Opiatic narcotic
A. Potato and Tomato C. Morphine – Hallucinogenic
B. Simla mirch and Brinjal D. Bhang – Analgesic
C. Maize and Chichinda
56. What is B. O. D.?
D. Bitter gourd
A. The amount of O 2 utilised by organisms in water
45. Which of the following is the pair of biofertilizers B. The amount of O 2 utilized by microorganisms for
A. Azolla and BGA decomposition
B. Nostoc and legume C. The total amount of O 2 present in water
C. Rhizobium and grasses D. All of the above
D. Salmonella & E. coli
57. In grasses what happens in microspore mother cell for
46. Two nonallelic genes produce the new phenotype when the formation of mature pollen grains?
present together but fail to do so independently, it is A. One meiotic and two mitotic divisions
called B. One meiotic and one mitotic divisions
A. Epistasis
C. One meiotic division
B. Polygene
D. One mitotic division
C. Non complementary gene
D. Complementry gene 58. What is the intensity of sound in normal conversation?
47. Which of the following cut the DNA at specific places? A. 10 – 20 decible B. 30 – 60 decible
A. Restriction endonuclease (E  Co RI) C. 70 – 90 decible D. 120 – 150 decible
B. Ligase 59. Adventive embryony in citrus is due to
C. Exonuclease A. Nucellus B. Integuments
D. Alkaline phosphatase C. Zygotic embryo D. Fertilized egg
48. Tetradyanamous condition occurs in 60. L. S. D. is
A. Cruciferae B. Malvaceae A. Hallucinogenic B. Sedative
C. Solanaceae D. Liliaceae C. Stimulant D. Tranquiliser
49. Which is correct pair for edible part?
61. Which of the following is important for speciation?
A. Tomato – Thalamus
A. seasonal isolation
B. Maize – Cotyledons
C. Guava – Mesocarp B. reproductive isolation
D. Date palm – Pericarp C. behavioural isolation
D. temporal isolation
50. Edible part of Banana is
A. Epicarp 62. In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity is
B. Mesocarp and less developed endocarp called
 45

A. biotic potential B. fertility 74. Mainly which type of hormones control the menstrual
C. carrying capacity D. birth rate cycle in human beings
63. Some bacteria are able to glow in Streptomycin containing A. FSH B. LH
C. FSH, LH, Estrogen D. Progesteron
medium due to
A. natural selection 75. There is no life on moon due to the absence of
B. induced mutation A. Ca B. water
C. reproductive isolation C. light D. temperature
D. genetic drift 76. When both ovaries are removed from rat which hormone
64. Which of the following are homologous organs? is decreased in blood?
A. wings of birds and locust A. oxytocin
B. wings of birds (Sparrow) and pectoral fins of fish B. prolactin
C. wings of bat and butterfly C. estrogen
D. legs of frog and cockroach D. gonadotrophic releasing factor
65. Which is a reducing sugar? 77. Which cartilage is present on the end of long bones?
A. galactose A. calcified cartilage B. hyaline cartilage
B. gluconic acid C. elastic cartilage D. fibrous cartilage
C. -methyl galactoside 78. In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane
D. sucrose A. upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic
66. Reason of fast speciation in present day crop plants is B. polar layer is hydrophobic
A. mutation B. isolation C. phospholipids form a bimolecular layer middle part
C. polyploidy D. sexual reproduction D. proteins form a middle layer
67. Cause of mimicry is 79. According to fossils discovered upto present time, origin
A. attach (offence) B. protection (defence) and evolution of man was started from which country?
C. both A and B D. isolation A. France B. Java
68. Change in the sequence of nucleotide in DNA is called C. Africa D. China
as 80. Melanin protects from
A. mutagen B. mutation A. U.V. rays B. visible rays
C. recombination D. translation C. infrared rays D. X-rays
69. Which of the following is a correct match? 81. Choose the correct sequence of stages of growth curve
A. Down syndrome – 21 st chromosome for bacteria
B. Sickel cell anaemia – X-chromosome A. lag, log, stationary, decline phase
C. Haemophilia – Y-chromosome B. lag, log, stationary phase
D. Parkinson disease – X & Y chromosome C. stationary, lag, log, decline phase
D. decline, lag, log phase
70. The semilog of per minute growing bacteria is ploted
against time. What will be the shape of graph? 82. Which of the following statements is true for lymph?
A. sigmoid A. WBC and serum
B. hyperbole B. all components of blood except RBC’s and some
C. ascending straight line proteins
D. descending straight line C. RBCs, WBCs and plasma
71. Hydrolytic enzymes which act at low pH are called as? D. RBCs, proteins and platelets
A. proteases B. -Amylases 83. Impulse of heart beat originates from
C. hydrolases D. peroxidases A. S.A. node B. A.V. node
C. vagus nerve D. cardiac nerve
72. Acromegaly is caused by
A. excess of S.T.H. 84. What will happen if ligaments are cut or broken?
B. excess of thyroxin A. bones will move freely at joints
C. deficiency of thyroxin B. no movement at joint
D. excess of adrenaline C. bone will become unfixed
73. Genetic drift operates in D. bone will become fixed
A. small isolated population 85. Continuous bleeding from an injured part of body is due
B. large isolated population to deficiency of
C. fast reproductive population A. vitamin-A B. vitamin-B
D. slow reproductive population C. vitamin-K D. vitamin-E
 46

86. Which of the following statement is correct about node 97. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a GTP
of ranvier? molecule is needed in
A. axolemma is discontinuous A. association of 30S m-RNA with formyl-met-t-RNA
B. myelin sheath is discontinuous B. association of 50S subunt of ribosome with initiation
C. both neurilemma and myelin sheath are discontinuous complex
D. covered by myelin sheath C. formation of formyl-met-t-RNA
D. binding of 30S subunit of ribosome with m-RNA
87. Stool of a person contains whitish grey colour due to
malfunction of which type of organ 98. Sycon belongs to a group of animals, which are best
A. pancrease B. spleen described as
C. kidney D. liver A. multicellular with a gastrovascular system
B. multicellular having tissue organization, but no body
88. Adrenaline directly affects on cavity
A. S.A. node C. unicellular or acellular
B. -cells of langerhans D. multicellular without any tissue oganization
C. dorsal root of spinal cord
D. epithelial cells of stomach 99. Viruses are no more “alive” than isolated chromosomes
because
89. Which of the following is used in the treatment of thyroid A. they both require oxygen for respiration
cancer? B. both require the environment of a cell to replicate
A. I 131 B. U 238 C. they require both RNA and DNA
C. Ra 224 D. C 14 D. they both need food molecules
90. Number of wild life is continuously decreasing. What is 100. Cellular totipotency is demonstrated by
the main reason of this? A. all eukaryotic cells
A. predation B. only bacterial cells
B. cutting down of forests C. only gymnosperm cells
C. destruction of habitats D. all plant cells
D. hunting
101. Which one of the following concerns photophosp-
91. Genetic map is one that horylation?
A. show the stages during the cell division A. ADP + Inorganic PO 4 ATP
B. show the distribution of various species in a region Light energy
C. establishes sites of the genes on a chromosome B. AMP + Inorganic PO 4     ATP
D. establishes the various stage in gene evolution Light energy
C. ADP + AMP     ATP
92. Coconut milk factor is Light energy
D. ADP + Inorganic PO 4     ATP
A. abscisic acid B. cytokinin
C. an auxin D. a gibberellin 102. What is true about T - lymphocytes in mammals?
A. They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris
93. Which one of the following triplet codes, is correctly
B. These are produced in thyroid
matched with its specificity for an amino acid in protein
C. There are three main types–cytotoxic T-cells, helper
synthesis of as ‘start’ or ‘stop’ codon?
T-cells and suppressor T-cells
A. UGU–Leucine B. UAC–Tyrosine
D. These originate in lymphoid tissues
C. UCG–Start D. UUU–Stop
103. In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide sequence)
94. Tobacco mosaic virus is tubular filament of size
of mt-DNA and Y chromosomes were considered for the
A. 300 × 20 nm B. 700 × 30 nm
study of human evolution, because
C. 300 × 10 nm D. 300 × 5 nm
A. their structure is known in greater detail
95. ELISA is used to detect viruses where the key reagent is B. they can be studied from the samples of fossil remains
A. DNA probe C. they are small, and therefore, easy to study
B. RNase D. they are uniparental in origin and do not take part in
C. alkaline phosphatase recombination
D. catalase
104. Which one of the following is a matching pair of an animal
96. Convergent evolution is illustrated by and a certain phenomenon it exhibits?
A. starfish and cuttle fish A. Chameleon – Mimicry
B. dogfish and whale B. Taenia – Polymorphism
C. rat and dog C. Pheretima – Sexual dimorphism
D. bacterium and protozoan D. Musca – Complete metamorphosis
 47

105. Which fractions of the visible spectrum of solar radiations 115. Which one of the following is wrong in relation to
are primarily absorbed by carotenoids of the higher photorespiration?
plants? A. It is a characteristics of C 4 plants
A. Red and violet B. Violet and blue B. It is a characteristics C 3 plants
C. Blue and green D. Green and red C. It occurs in chloroplasts
106. Species are considered as D. It occurs in daytime only
A. artificial concept of human mind which cannot be 116. Stomata of a plant open due to
defined in absolute terms A. influx of hydrogen ions
B. real units of classification devised by taxonomists B. influx of calcium ions
C. real basic units of classification C. influx of potassium ions
D. the lowest units of classification D. efflux of potassium ions
107. Random genetic drift in a population probably results 117. Stomata of CAM plants
from
A. open during the night and close during the day
A. constant low mutation rate
B. never open
B. large population size
C. are always open
C. highly genetically variable individuals
D. open during the day and close at night
D. interbreeding within this population
108. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron, 118. The major portion of the dry weight of plants comprises
which of the following is to be expected? of
A. The urine will be more concentrated A. carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen
B. The urine will be more dilute B. carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
C. There will be no urine formation C. nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
D. There will be hardly any change in the quality and D. calcium, magnesium and sulphur
quantity of urine formed 119. In Drosophila, the sex is determined by
109. During prolonged fasting, in what sequence are the A. the ratio of pairs of X-chromosomes to the pairs of
following organic compounds used up by the body? autosomes
A. First carbohydrates, next proteins and lastly lipids B. whether the egg is fertilized or develops
B. First proteins, next lipids and lastly carbohydrates parthenogenetically
C. First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins C. the ratio of number of X-chromosomes to the sets of
D. First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly proteins autosomes
110. What used to be described as Nissl granules in a nerve D. X and T chromosomes
cell are now identified as? 120. Christmas disease in another name for
A. Ribosomes B. Mitochondria A. Down’s syndrome
C. Cell metabolites D. Fat granules B. sleeping sickness
111. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are generally C. haemophilia B
located in D. hepatitis B
A. nuclear genome 121. One of the parents of a cross has mutation in its
B. cytosol mitochondria. In that cross, that parent is taken as a male.
C. chloroplast genome During segregation of F2 progenies that mutation is found
D. mitochondrial genome in
112. The apical meristem of the root is present A. one-third of the progenies
A. only in adventitious roots B. none of the progenies
B. in all the roots C. all of the progenies
C. only in radicals D. fifty percent of the progenies
D. only in tap roots 122. When a fresh water protozoan possessing a contractile
113. Diffuse porous woods are characteristic of plant growing vacuole, is placed in a glass containing marine water, the
in vacuole will
A. temperate climate B. tropics A. increase in number B. disappear
C. alpine region D. cold winter regions C. increase in size D. decrease in size
114. In which one of the following is nitrogen not a 123. One of the following is very unique feature of the
constituent? mammalian body
A. Invertase B. Pepsin A. homeothermy
C. Idioblast D. Bacteriochlorophyll B. presence of diaphragm
 48

C. four chambered heart A. actinin B. troponin

D. rib cage C. myosin D. actin
124. Chemically hormones are 133. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
A. biogenic amines only A. Glossina palpalis – Sleeping sickness
B. proteins, steroids and biogenic amines B. Culex pipiens – Filariais
C. proteins only C. Aedes aegypti – Yellow fever
D. steriods only D. Anopheles culifacies – Leishmaniasis
125. When CO 2 concentration in blood increases, breathing 134. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
becomes? matched?
A. shallower and slow A. Streptomyces – Antibiotic
B. there is no effect on breathing B. Serratia – Drug addiction
C. slow and deep C. Spirulina – Single cell protein
D. faster and deeper D. Rhizobium – Biofertilizer
126. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly 135. A major component of gobar gas is
matched? A. ammonia B. methane
A. Vitamin B12 — Pernicious anaemia C. ethane D. butance
B. Vitamin B 6 — Loss of appetite 136. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium which can
C. Vitamin B1 — Beri-beri also form symbiotic association with the water fernAzolla
D. Vitamin B2 — Pellagra is
127. Uricotelism is found in A. Tolypothrix B. Chlorella
A. mammals and birds C. Nostoc D. Anabaena
B. fishes and fresh water protozoans
137. In the ABO system of blood groups, if both antigens are
C. birds, reptiles and insects present but no antibody, the blood group of the individual
D. frogs and toads
would be
128. Duodenum has characteristic Brunner’s glands which A. B C. O
secrete two hormones called C. AB D. A
A. kinase, estrogen
138. Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a
B. secretin, cholecystokinin hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency?
C. prolactin, parathormone
A. Luteinizing hormone — failure of ovulation
D. estradion, progesterone B. Insulin — Diabetes insipidus
129. Mast cells of connective tissue conation C. Thyroxine — Tetany
A. vasopressin and relaxin D. Parathyroid hormone — Diabetes mellitus
B. heparin and histamine 139. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily
C. heparin and calcitonin because of their
D. serotonin and melanin A. power of adaptability in diverse habitat
130. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than B. property of producing large number of seeds
normal cells because they are C. nature of some pollination
A. starved of mutation D. domestication by man
B. undergoing rapid division
140. In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced by
C. different in structure
guanine, it is the case of
D. non-dividing
A. frameshift mutation B. transcription
131. Certain characteristic demographic features of C. transition D. transversion
developing countries are
141. An ovule which becomes curved so that the nucellus
A. high fertility, low or rapidly falling mortality rate, rapid
and embryo sac lie at right angles to the funicle is
population growth and a very young age distribution
B. high fertility, high density, rapidly rising mortality rate A. hemitropous B. campylotropous
and very young age distribution C. anatropous D. orthotropous
C. high infant mortality, low fertility, population growth 142. Ovulation in the human female normally takes place
and a very young age distribution during the menstrual cycle
D. high mortality, high density, uneven population A. at the mid secretory phase
growth and a very old age distribution B. just before the end of the secretory phase
132. ATP ase enzyme needed for muscle contraction is located C. at the beginning of the proliferative phase
in D. at the end of the proliferative phase
 49
143. Injury to vagus nerve in human is not likely to affect:
A. atongue movements
B. gastrointestinal movements
C. pancreatic secretion
D. cardiac movements
144. Which of the following hormones is not a secretion
product of human placenta?
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Prolactin
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
145. You are required to draw blood from a patient and to
keep it in a test tube for analysis of blood corpuscles and
plasma. You are also provided with the following four
types of test tubes. Which of them will you not use for
the purpose?
A. Test tube containing calcium bicarbonate
B. Chilled test tube
C. Test tube containing heparin
D. Test tube containing sodium oxalate
146. The cardiac pace maker in a patient fails to function
normally. The doctors find that an artificial pace maker is
to be grafted in him. It is likely that it will be grafted at the
site of
A. Atrioventricular bundle
B. Purkinje system
C. Sinuatrial node
D. Atrioventricular node
147. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually high
quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin content. Which of the
following conclusions is most likely to be correct? The
patient has been inhailing polluted air containing usually
high content of
A. Carbon disulphide B. Chloroform
C. Carbon dioxide D. Carbon monoxide
148. What is a keystone species?
A. A species which makes uup only a small proportion
of the total biomass of a community, yet has a huge
impact on the community’s organization and survival
B. A common species that has plenty of biomass, yet
has a fairly low impact on the community’s
organization
C. A rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass
and on other species in the community
D. A dominant species that constitutes a large proportion
of the biomass and which effects many other species
149. DNA finger printing refers to
A. molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
B. analysis of DNA samples using imprinting device
C. techniques used for molecular analysis of different
specimens of DNA.
D. techniques used for indentification of finger prints of
individuals
150. Flagella of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells differ in
A. type of movement and placement in cell
B. location in cell and mode of fuctioning
C. microtubular organisation and type of movement
D. microtubular organisation and function
151. The man organelle involved in modification and routine
of newly synthesized proteins to then destinations is
A. Mitochondria
B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
C. Lysosome
D. Chloroplast
152. There are two opposing views about origin of modern
man. According to one view Homo erectus in Asia were
the ancestors of modern man. A study of variation of
DNA however suggested African origin of modern man.
What kind of observation on DNA variation could
suggest this
A. Greater variation in African than in Asia
B. Variation only in Asia and no variation in Africa
C. Greater variation in Asia than in Africa
D. Similar variation in Africa and Asia
153. The world’s is highly prized wool yielding Pashmina breed
is
A. Sheep
B. Goat
C. Goat-sheep cross
D. Kashmir sheep-Afghan sheep cross
154. Grey crescent is the area
A. At the point of entry of sperm into ovum
B. Just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into ovum
C. At the animal pole
D. At the vegetal pole
155. Photosynthesis in C 4 plants is relatively less limited by
atmospheric CO 2 levels because
A. Four carbon acids are the primary initial CO 2 fixation
products
B. The primary fixation of CO 2 is mediated via PEP
carxylase
C. Effective pumping of CO 2 into bundles heath cells
D. Rubisco in C 4 plants has higher affinity for CO 2
156. At what stage of the cell cycle are histone proteins
synthesised in a eukaryotic cell
A. During entire prophase
B. During telo telophase
C. During S-phase
D. During G-2 stage of prophase
157. There exist a close association between the algae and
the fungus within a lichen. The fungus
A. Fixes the atmospherics nitrogen for the alga
B. Provides protection, anchorage and absorption for
the alga
C. Provides food for the alga
D. Release oxygen for the alga
2732 (Biology)—7
 50

158. For retting of jute the fermenting microbe used is C. Loss of antibody mediated immunity
A. Helicobactor pylori D. Loss of cell mediated immunity
B. Methophilic bacteria 168. Prolonged liberal irrigation of agricultural fields is likely
C. Streptococcus lactin to create the problem of
D. Butyric acid bacteria A. Acidity B. Aridity
159. A student wishes to study the cell structure under a light C. Metal toxicity D. Salinity
microscope having 10X eyepiece and 45X objective. He 169. Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in
should illuminate the object by which one of the following A. Grana B. Pyrenoid
colours of light so as to get the best possible resolution C. Stroma D. Both grana and stroma
A. Yellow B. Green 170. Three crops that contribute maximum to global food grain
C. Blue D. Red production are
160. The net pressure gradient the cause the fluid to filter out A. Wheat, rice and maize
of the glomeruli into the capsule is B. Wheat, maize and sorghum
A. 20 mm Hg B. 75 mm Hg C. Rice, maize and sorghum
D. Wheat, rice and barley
C. 30 mm Hg D. 50 mm Hg
171. Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are generally
161. At which latitude, heat gain through insolation
located in
approximately equal heat loss through terrestrial radiation A. Mitochondrial genome
A. 66° North and South B. Cytosol
B. 22 1/2 ° North and South C. Chloroplast genome
C. 40° North and South D. Nuclear genome
D. 42 1/2 ° North and South
172. Which one of the following hydrolyses internal
162. A man and a women, who do not show any apparent phosphodrister, bonds in a polynucletide chain?
signs of a certain inherited disease, have seven children A. Lipase B. Exonuclease
(2 daughters and 5 sons). Three of the sons suffer from C. Endonuclease D. Protease
the given disease but none of the daughters are affected 173. Match items in Column I with those in Column II
which of the following mode of inheritance do you Column I Column II
suggest from this disease (a) Peritrichous (i) Ginkgo
A. Austosomal dominant flagellation
B. Sex-linked dominant (b) Living fossil (ii) Macrocystes
C. Sex-limited recessive (c) Rhizopore (iii) Escherichia coli
D. Sex-linked recessive (d) Smallest flowering (iv) Selaginella
plant
163. In ornithine cycle, which of the following waste are
(e) Largest perrenial (v) Wolffia
removed from the blood? alga
A. Urea and Urine B. Ammonia and urea Select the correct answer from the following
C. CO 2 and ammonia D. CO 2 and urea (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
164. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a A. (iii) (i) (iv) (v) (ii)
A. Repetitive DNA B. RNA B. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (v)
C. Simple protein D. Ribonucleo protein C. (v) (iii) (ii) (v) (i)
D. (i) (ii) (v) (iii) (ii)
165. During transcription holoenzyme RNA polymerase binds
to a DNA sequence and the DNA assume a saddle like 174. The name of Norman Borlaug is associated with
A. Green revolution B. Yellow revolution
structure at the point. What is that sequence called
C. White revolution D. Blue revolution
A. CAAT box B. GGTT box
C. AAAT box D. TATA box 175. G-6-P Dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with
haemolysis of
166. Centromere is required for A. Lymphocytes B. RBCS
A. Transcription C. Platelets D. Leucocytes
B. Crossing over
C. Cytoplasmic cleavage 176. In which one pair both the plants can be vegetatively
propagated by leaf pieces?
D. Movement of chrosomes towards poles
A. Bryophylum and Kalanchoe
167. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to B. Chrysanthemum and Agave
A. A reduction in a haemoglobin content of blood C. Agave and Kalanchoe
B. A reduction in stem cell production D. Asparagus and Bryophylum
2732 (Biology)—7-II
 51

177. According to IUCN Red List, what is the status of Red C. Central cell
Panda ( Ailurus fulgens ) D. Only two egg cells
A. Vulnerable species 184. Which of the following statements is true for a filiform
B. Critically endangered species apparatus?
C. Extinct species A. It is located at the chalazal end.
D. Endangered species B. It is located at the micropylar end.
178. Which of the following substances, if introduced into C. They play an important role in guiding the pollen
the blood stream, would cause coagulation of blood at tubes into the synergid.
the site of its introduction D. Both (B) and (C)
A. Fibrinogen B. Prothrombin 185. Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the following diagram of a mature
C. Heparin D. Thromboplastin pollen grain.
179. E. coli cells with a mutated gene of the lac operon cannot
grow in medium containing only lactose as the source of
energy because
A. In the presence of glucose, E. coil cells do not utilize
lactose
B. They cannot transport lactose from the medium into
the cell
C. The lac operon is constitutively active in these cells A. A-Generative cell, B-Vegetative cell
D. They cannot synthesize function betagalactosidase B. A-Vegetative cell, B-Generative cell
C. A-Vacuole, B-Nucellus
180. Top-shade multiciliate male gametes, and the mature D. A-Nucleus, B-Vacuole
speed bears only one embryo with two cotyledons, are
characteristics features of 186. Match the terms in column I with the items in column II.
A. Polypetalous angiosperms Column I Column II
B. Gamopetalous angiosperms (a) Autogamy (i) Transfer of pollen grains from
C. Conifers anther to stigma of the same
D. Cycads flower
(b) Geitonogamy (ii) Transfer of pollen grains from
181. The function of tapetum in microsporangium is. anther to stigma of flower of
A. It nourishes the developing pollen grains. another plant of similar type.
B. It performs the function of protection. (c) Xenogamy (iii) Transfer of pollen grains from
C. It helps in dehiscence of anther to release pollen the anther to the stigma of
grains. another flower of the same
D. It undergoes meiotic divisions to form microspore plant
tetrads (a) (b) (c)
182. Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the given diagram of a transverse A. (i) (iii) (ii)
section of a young anther. B. (i) (ii) (iii)
C. (iii) (ii) (i)
D. (ii) (i) (iii)
187. Study the diagram given below and choose the correct
option against ‘A’ and ‘B’

A. A-Tapetum, B-Sporogenous tissue

B. A-Sporogenous tissue, B-Tapetum
C. A-Connective, B-Epidermis
D. A-Endothecium, B-Tapetum
A. Ovule; A-Egg; B-Polar body
183. The egg apparatus in the embryo sac consists of B. Embryo sac; A-Antipodals; B-Egg
A. Two synergids and one egg cell C. Anther; A-Endothecium; B-Connective
B. One synergid and two egg cells D. Stigma; A-Central cell; B-Antipodals
 52

188. Which of the following statements is correct about the 196. Match the items in column I with the items in column II.
majority of angiosperms? Column I Column II
A. Egg has five antipodal cells (a) Remains of nucellus (i) scutellum
B. Reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother in a seed
cells. (b) Formation of seed (ii) perisperm
C. A small central cell is present in the embryo sac without fertilisation
D. Egg has filiform apparatus (c) Cotyledon in the (iii) polyembryony
seeds of grasses
189. Choose the odd one out: (d) Occurrence of more (iv) Apomixis
Vegetative cell, intine, synergids, germ pore than one embryo in a seed
A. Germ pore B. Synergids Codes:
C. Exine D. Vegetative cell (a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
190. In the given diagram label the part ‘A’ and state its
B. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
function
C. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
D. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
197. Which of the following is not a method to prevent
autogamy in plants?
A. Pollen release and stigma receptivity are not
synchronised
B. Anther and stigma are placed at different positions
C. Self-incompatibility
D. Bisexual flowers
A. Suspensor – Protects the radicle 198. The microspores are generally formed in a cluster of
B. Root cap – Gives protection to the plant A. 4 B. 3
C. Cotyledon – Contains reserved food material that are C. 2 D. 5
used by embryo 199. Choose the incorrect statement.
D. Coleoptile – Gives protection to the radicle A. The hollow foliar structure that encloses the leaf
191. The meiocyte of rice has 24 chromosomes. The number primordia in a grass embryo is called coleoptile
of chromosomes in its endosperm is B. In apple, the thalamus also contributes to fruit
A. 24 B. 12 formation and becomes edible.
C. 48 D. 36 C. In Zostera, the pollen grains are long and ribbon-like
and released inside the water.
192. The common function of nucellus and cotyledons is D. Sepals and petals are concealed in entomophilous
A. Reproduction B. Pollination flowers
C. Nourishment D. Both (B) and (C) 200. The type of tissue present in the fertilised ovules of an
193. A bilobed dithecous anther has 500 microspore mother angiosperm plant to supply food and nourishment to the
cells per microsporangium. How many male developing embryo is
gametophytes can this anther produce? A. Tapetum B. Sporogenous tissue
A. 10,000 B. 25,000 C. Endosperm D. Synergids
C. 20,000 D. 8,000 201. Assertion (A) : There are a few species of plants in
194. Choose the correct order of stages of development of a which fruits develop without fertili-
sation
dicotyledonous embryo.
A. Zygote  embryo  globular embryo  heart Reason (R) : Parthenocarpic fruits are seedless
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct
shaped embryo
explanation of (A)
B. Zygote  globular embryo  mature embryo
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is notthe correct
C. Embryo  proembryo  mature embryo  globular explanation of (A)
embryo C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Zygote  proembryo  globular embryo  mature D. Both (A) and (R) are false
embryo
202. Assertion (A) : In apomixis plants of new genetic vari-
195. The thick fruit wall is also called ations are not produced.
A. Theca B. Pericarp Reason (R) : In apomixis, reductional division takes
C. Pomocarp D. None of these place.
 53

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct A. Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not the correct B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A) explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false D. Both (A) and (R) are false
203. Assertion (A) : Megaspore mother cell undergoes 208. Assertion (A) : Generally, each sporogenous cell is a
meiosis to produce four haploid potential pollen of a microspore mother
megaspores. cell.
Reason (R) : Female gametophyte is produced from Reason (R) : Each cell of the sporogenous tissue is
a single megaspore. capable of giving rise to a microspore
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct tetrad.
explanation of (A) A. Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
explanation of (A) B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not thecorrect
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
204. Assertion (A) : The pollen grain represents male
209. Assertion (A) : Perisperm is the residual endosperm
gametophyte.
present in seeds.
Reason (R) : Pollen grains are shed at four celled
Reason (R) : Endosperm is developed from the
stage.
antipodal cell of the embryo sac.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not the correct B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A). explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false D. Both (A) and (R) are false
205. Assertion (A) : Exine is made up of sporopollenin. 210. Assertion : Geitonogamy involves a pollinating
Reason (R) : Pollen grains are well preserved as agent
fossils. Reason : Genetically geitonogamy is similar to
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct autogamy.
explanation of (A). A. Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
explanation of (A) B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not the correct
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false explanation of (A)
D. Both (A) and (R) are false C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
206. Assertion (A) : As the seed matures, its water content D. Both (A) and (R) are false
is reduced and seeds become relatively Directions (Qs. 211 to 215): Read the following and answer
dry (10-15% moisture by mass) any four questions given below:
Reason (R) : Micropyle facilitates the entry of Apomixis is a mode of reproduction which does not
oxygen and water into the seed during involve formation of zygote through gametic fusion. It is
germination. therefore akin to asexual reproduction. In plants apomixis
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct commonly mimics sexual reproduction but produces seeds
explanation of (A) without fertilisation. Eg. some species of Asteraceae and
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not the correct grasses. Apomixis can be introduced in hybrid varieties.
explanation of (A) Scientists are busy in identifying genes for apomixis so
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false that they can be introduced in hybrid varieties.
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
211. In many laboratories, active research is on to comprehend
207. Assertion (A) : Chasmogamous flowers produce assured the genetics of apomixis as;
seed set. A. Apomixis generates genetically different individuals
Reason (R) : Chasmogamous flowers do not open at B. Apomixis is the method to produce seeds without
all. fertilisation
 54

C. Hybrid plants are directly formed by apomixis 219. The endosperm nucleus is
D. Transfer of apomictic genes into hybrid varieties that A. Tetraploid B. Triploid
shall prevent hybrid vigour loss over the years C. Diploid D. Haploid
212. Apomixis is a form of 220. Assertion (A) : Nuclear endosperm is formed by
A. Vernalisation B. Parthenogenesis subsequent nuclear division without
C. Parthenocarpy D. None of the above wall formation.
213. In plants, apomixis pertains to plant development Reason (R) : Tender coconut water is an example of
A. From root cuttings such an endosperm where the endo-
B. From cuttings of stem sperm remains nuclear throughout the
C. Without gametic fusion development of the fruit.
D. Fusion of gametes A. Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct
214. ______ produces seeds without fertilisation explanation of (A)
A. Asteraceae B. Fabaceae B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not thecorrect
C. Solanaceae D. Liliaceae explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
215. Assertion (A) : In apomixis plants of new genetic D. Both (A) and (R) are false
sequence are produced.
Reason (R) : In apomixis, two individuals of the same 221. The region outside seminiferous tubule is called
genetic sequence meet. interstitial space which contains all except
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the correct A. immunologically active cells
explanation of (A) B blood vessels
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not the correct C. sertoli cells
explanation of (A) D. leydig cells
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false 222. Decline of which hormone during menstrual cycle results
D. Both (A) and (R) are false in the degeneration of corpus luteum?
Directions (Qs. 216 to 220): Read the following and answer A. Progesterone B. Estrogen
any four questions given below: C. Both (A) and (B) D. LH

The endosperm makes the main source of food for the 223. How many sperms and ova will be produced from 50
embryo. Generally, the endosperm nucleus divides after the primary spermatocytes and 50 oocytes respectively?
division of the zygote, but in several cases the endosperm A. 200 sperms, 50 ova
is formed to a great extent even before the first division of B. 100 sperms, 200 ova
the zygote. There are three general types of endosperm C. 100 sperms, 50 ova
formation: ( a) nuclear type ( b) cellular type and ( c) helobial D. 50 sperms, 100 ova
type. The endosperm is usually triploid but haploid 224. For normal fertility in males
endosperm is also found. Endosperm may either be A. atleast 60% sperms should have normal shape and
completely consumed by the developing embryo before seed size and atleast 40% should show vigorous motility
maturation or it may persist in mature seed. B. 40% sperms should be normal shape and size and
216. One of the following is an example of seed with persistent vigorous motility
endosperm C. 60% sperms with normal and shape and size and
A. Pea B. Groundnut remaining 40% with high motility
C. Gram D. Castor D. 40% with normal shape and size and 60% with high
motility
217. Significance of endosperm development that precedes
embryo formation 225. Which pituitary hormone regulates sertoli cells?
A. To nourish the growing embryo A. estrogen B. progestrone
B. To enhance seed development C. FSH* D. LH
C. To nourish the ovule developing into a seed 226. Which one of the following hormones is responsible for
D. To provide nutrition to the embryo sac uterine contractions during parturition?
218. If the endosperm of a dicot plant contains 30 chromo- A. relaxin B. vasopressin
somes, find the number of chromosomes present in the C. oxytocin D. prolactin
root cells of the plant 227. In human foetus the limbs and digits develop after:
A. 40 B. 10 A. 8 weeks B. first trimester
C. 20 D. 15 C. 5th month D. 12 weeks
 55

228. Foetal ejection reflex in human female induces 233. Match between the following parts of the sperm and
A. release of hormones from placenta their function and choose the correct option
B. growth and development of ovarian follicles Column I Column II
C. release of oxytocin from maternal pituitary (a) head (i) enzymes
D. release of prolactin from pituitory (b) middle piece (ii) sperm motility
(c) acrosome (iii) energy
229. Which of the following dipictss the correct pathway for
(d) tail (iv) genetic material
transport of sperms?
A. rete testes, epididymis, vasdeferens, vasa efferentia Codes:
B. rete testes, vasdeferens, vasa efferentia, epididymis (a) (b) (c) (d)
C. rete testes, vasa efferentia, epididymis, vasdeferens A. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
D. rete testes, vasdeferens, epididymis, vasa efferentia B. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
C. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
230. Which of the following statements are correct regarding D. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
menstrual cycle?
A. LH induces rupturing of graafian follicle 234. Identify the wrongly labelled part:
B. proliferative phase is characterized by increased
production secretion of progesterone
C. corpus luteum secretes large amount of estrogen
D. both FSH and LH attain peak level at secretory phase
231. Match the columns and find the correct option
Column I Column II
(a) Proliferative phase (i) Break down of
endometrial lining
(b) Secretary phase (ii) Follicular phase
(c) Menstruation (iii) Luteal phase A. primary follicle B. ovum
Codes: C. graafian follicle D. corpus luteum
(a) (b) (c) 235. Urethral meatus refers to the
A. (ii) (iii) (i) A. urinogenital duct
B. (i) (iii) (ii) B. opening of vas deferens into urethra
C. (iii) (ii) (i) C. external opening of urinogenital duct
D. (iii) (i) (ii) D. muscles surrounding urinogenital duct
232. Given below diagram refers to the T.S. of testis showing 236. In the given diagram find out A, B, C and D
somniferous tubules.

A. A-umbilical cord, B-placental villi, C-yolk sac, D-embryo

B. A-yolk sac B-umbilical cord C-embryo D-placental villi
C. A-placental villi B-yolk sac C-embryo D-umbilical cord
D. A-placental villi B-embryo C-yolk sac D-umbilical cord
A, B, C and D in the above figure represent : 237. Study the given diagram
A. A-Sertoli cells, B-Secondary spermatocytes
C-Interstitial cells, D-sperms
B. A-Interstitial cells, B-Spermatogonia, C-Sertoli cells,
D-Sperms
C. A-Sertoli cells, B-Spermatozoa, C-Interstitial cells,
D-Sperms A is the embryonic stage that gets transformed into B,
D. A-Sertoli cells, B-Spermatogonia, C-Interstitial cells, which in turn getsimplanted in the endometrium in human
D-Sperms females.
 56
Identify A, B and its parts C and D
A. A-Morula, B-blastomere, C-blastula D-inner cell mass
B. A-blastula, B-gastrula, C-trophoblast, D-inner cell
mass
C. A-morula B- blastocyst C-stem cells D-trophoblast
D. A-blastocyst B-trophoblast C-stem cells D-morula
238. A human female has maximum number of primary oocytes
in her ovaries
A. at birth
B. just prior to puberty
C. early fertile years
D. middle age of fertile years
239. Hormones secreted by placenta to maintain pregnancy
are
A. hCG, hPL, progestogen, prolactin
B. hCG, progestogen, oestrogen, glucocorticoids
C. hCG, hPL, progestogen, oestrogen
D. hCG, hPL, oestrogen, relaxin, oxytocin
240. Read the following statements.
I. Each testes has 25 compartments called testicular
lobules.
II. Each testicular lobule contains one to three highly
coiled seminiferous tubules in which sperms are
produced.
III. Sertoli cells provide nutrition to testicles
IV. Sertoli cells are activated by FSH
Which of above statements are incorrect?
A. I and II B. only I
C. II and IV D. III and IV
241. Assertion (A) : Menstruation only occurs if the released
ovum is not fertilized
Reason (R) : Lack of menstruation may be indicative
of pregnancy
A. (A) and (R) both are correct statements and (R) is
correct explanation for (A)
B. (A) and (R) both are correct statements, but (R) is not
correct explanation for (A)
C. (A) is correct statement, but (R) is wrong statement
D. (A) is wrong statement, but (R) is correct statement
242. Assertion (A) : Menstrual phase is followed by luteal
phase
Reason (R) : During follicular phase the pituitary
hormones gradually increase
A. (A) and (R) both are correct statements and (R) is
correct explanation for (A)
B. (A) and (R) both are correct statements, but (R) is not
correct explanation for (A)
C. (A) is correct statement, but (R) is wrong statement
D. (A) is wrong statement, but (R) is correct statement
243. Assertion (A) : The embryo at 8 to 16 blastomeres is
called morula
Reason (R) : The morula continuously divides to
transform into trophoblast
A. (A) and (R) both are correct statements and (R) is
correct explanation for (A)
B. (A) and (R) both are correct statements, but (R) is not
correct explanation for (A)
C. (A) is correct statement, but (R) is wrong statement
D. (A) is wrong statement, but (R) is correct statement
244. Assertion (A) : The secretions of acrosome help the
sperm enter into the cytoplasm of the
ovum through zona pellucida
Reason (R) : This induces the completion of mitotic
division of secondary oocyte
A. (A) and (R) both are correct statements and (R) is
correct explanation for (A)
B. (A) and (R) both are correct statements, but (R) is not
correct explanation for (A)
C. (A) is correct statement, but (R) is wrong statement
D. (A) is wrong statement, but (R) is correct statement
245. Assertion (A) : Placenta acts like endocrine tissue and
produces hormones like LH and FSH
Reason (R) : Increased production of hormones is
essential for fetal growth
A. (A) and (R) both are correct statements and (R) is
correct explanation for (A)
B. (A) and (R) both are correct statements, but (R) is not
correct explanation for (A)
C. (A) is correct statement, but (R) is wrong statement
D. (A) is wrong statement, but (R) is correct statement
246. Assertion (A) : Major organ systems are formed by the
end of first trimester
Reason (R) : Stem cells have the potency to give rise
to all tissues and organs
A. (A) and (R) both are correct statements and (R) is
correct explanation for (A)
B. (A) and (R) both are correct statements, but (R) is not
correct explanation for (A)
C. (A) is correct statement, but (R) is wrong statement
D. (A) is wrong statement, but (R) is correct statement
247. Assertion (A) : The endometrium undergoes cyclical
changes during menstrual cycle
Reason (R) : The perimetrium exhibits strong
contractions during parturition
A. (A) and (R) both are correct statements and (R) is
correct explanation for (A)
B. (A) and (R) both are correct statements, but (R) is not
correct explanation for (A)
C. (A) is correct statement, but (R) is wrong statement
D. (A) is wrong statement, but (R) is correct statement
 57

248. Assertion (A) : All copulations do not lead to pregnancy 252. Identify correctly matched pair
Reason (R) : Fertilisation can occur only if sperm and A. 2–uterus B. 3-ovary
ovum reach ampullary isthmic junction C. 5-vagina D. 6-endometrium
simultaneously 253. Which of the following is incorrect for 4?
A. (A) and (R) both are correct statements and (R) is A. they occur in pairs
correct explanation for (A) B. both release 2 eggs every cycle
B. (A) and (R) both are correct statements, but (R) is not C. they contain gamete mother cells
correct explanation for (A) D. they produce eggs only during reproductive phase
C. (A) is correct statement, but (R) is wrong statement
254. Which structure receives egg after fertilization?
D. (A) is wrong statement, but (R) is correct statement
A. 4 B. 6
249. Assertion (A) : Cilia lining fallopian tube help to pick C. 2 D. 8
up and push the ovum into oviduct
255. Assertion (A) : Infundibulum is funnel shaped part
Reason (R) : Cilia show their movement towards closer to ovary
uterus Reason (R) : The edges of infundibulum helps in
A. (A) and (R) both are correct statements and (R) is collection of ovum after ovulation
correct explanation for (A) A. (A) and (R) both are correct statements and (R) is
B. (A) and (R) both are correct statements, but (R) is not correct explanation for (A)
correct explanation for (A) B. (A) and (R) both are correct statements, but (R) is not
C. (A) is correct statement, but (R) is wrong statement correct explanation for (A)
D. (A) is wrong statement, but (R) is correct statement C. (A) is correct statement, but (R) is wrong statement
250. Assertion (A) : Corpus luteum secretes female hormone D. (A) is wrong statement, but (R) is correct statement
progesterone Directions (Qs. 256 to 260): Read the following and answer
Reason (R) : After ovulation the ruptured follicle any four questions given below:
turns into corpus luteum In mammals, the first part of oogenesis starts in the
A. (A) and (R) both are correct statements and (R) is germinal epithelium, which gives rise to the development of
correct explanation for (A) ovarian follicles, the functional unit of ovary.
B. (A) and (R) both are correct statements, but (R) is not
correct explanation for (A) Oogenesis consists of several sub processes: oocyto-
C. (A) is correct statement, but (R) is wrong statement genesis ootido genesis, and finally maturation to form an ovum.
D. (A) is wrong statement, but (R) is correct statement Folliculogenesis is a separate sub process that accompanies
all three oogenetic sub processes.
Directions (Qs. 251 to 255): Read the following and answer
any four questions given below: 256. Which cell division is involved in the formation of
secondary oocyte?
Human female reproductive system consists of a pair of A. Mitosis B. Meiosis I
ovaries, accessory glands, ducts associated with formation of C. Amitosis D. Meiosis II
gametes and production of sex hormones.
257. Number of chromosomes in first polar body of humans
Study the figure and answer the following questions: A. 23 B. 46
C. 21 D. 1
258. At fetal life which of the following female germ cells are
found
A. oocytes B. primary oocyte
C. oogonia D. secondary oocytes
259. At puberty only – number of primary follicles are left in
each ovary
A. 10,000-25,000 B. 20,000 -30,000
C. 60,000 -80,000 D. 8,000-10,000

251. Which of the following is correct for labelled part 3? 260. Assertion (A) : In human beings ovum is released from
A. connects ovary to uterus ovary at ootid stage
B. collects ovum from ovary Reason (R) : The secondary oocyte divides into
C. secretes sex hormones unequal daughter cells, a large ootid
D. both (B) and (C) and a small polar body
2732 (Biology)—8
 58

A. (A) and (R) both are correct statements and (R) is Column I Column II
correct explanation for (A) (a) gonorrhoea (i) HIV
B. (A) and (R) both are correct statements, but (R) is not (b) syphilis (ii) Neisseria
correct explanation for (A) (c) genital warts (iii) Treponema
C. (A) is correct statement, but (R) is wrong statement (d) AIDS (iv) Human Papilloma virus
D. (A) is wrong statement, but (R) is correct statement Codes:
261. Given below are four methods and their modes of action (a) (b) (c) (d)
in achieving contraception. A. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
B. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Select their correct matching from that four options. C. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Method Mode of action D. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(a) The pill (i) prevents sperms reaching cervix
(b) Condom (ii) prevents implantation 266. A country whit high rate of population growth took
(c ) Vasectomy (iii) prevents ovulation measures to reduce it. The figure below shows sex
(d) Copper- T (iv) semen contain no sperms pyramids of population – A and B twenty years apart.

Codes: Select the correct interpretation about them

(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
B. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
C. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
D. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
262. Amniocentesis is a method to:
(i) Detect genetic disorders in an unborn baby
(ii) Prenatal sex determination A. “A” is more recent and shows slight reduction in
(iii) Medical termination of pregnancy growth rate
(iv) Fertilize the egg
B. “B” is earlier pyramid and shows stabilised growth
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
rate
B. (i) and (ii) are correct
C. “B” is more recent and showing that the population
C. (ii) and (iv) are correct
is very young
D. (i) and (iii) are correct
D. “A” is earlier pyramid and no change had occurred in
263. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive the growth rate
due to the
A. suppression of gonadotropins 267. Which of the following approaches does not give the
B. hyper secretion of gonadotropins. defined action of contraceptive?
C. suppression of gametic transport A. Vasectomy – Prevents spermatogenesis
D. suppression of fertilisation. B. Barrier methods – Prevent fertilization
C. Intra-uterine devices – Increases phagocytosis of
264. Which part of the figure is being cut and tied in the sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilizing
below showing in particular ? capacity of sperms
D. Hormonal contraceptives – Prevent /related entry of
sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilization
268. Amniocentesis is a technique used to
A. determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
B. pin point specific cardiac ailments in embryo
C. determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in
embryo
D. All of these
A. Ovary B. Uterine 269. Prevalence of arthritis by age group for US men (blue)
C. Ovarian duct D. Vas deferens and women (pink) in 2003– 2005 (top panel) and current
265. Match the sexually transmitted diseases (column-I) with and projected prevalence of arthritis for US men and
their causative agent (column-II) and select the correct women (bottom panel). The graphs are based on data
option? from the Centres for Disease Control website.
 59

A. copper –T
B. implants
C. vasectomy/tubectomy
D. barrier method
274. Which of the following birth control measures can be
considered as the safest?
A. The rhythm method
B. The use of physical barriers
C. Termination of unwanted pregnancy
D. Sterilization techniques
275. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
vasectomy?
A. It prevents the production of sperm in the testes.
From the above diagram, what exactly we get inference? B. It prevents the production of semen.
A. Arthritis increases as the age increases. C. It prevents the movement of sperm into the urethra.
B. Arthritis decreases as the age increases D. It prevents a man from having an erection.
C. Arthritis increases as the age increases in men and 276. Progesterone pill helps in preventing pregnancy by not
women allowing
D. Arthritis decreases as the age increases in men and A. Ova formation B. Fertilization
women C. Implantation D. None of these
270. Cu ions released from copper releasing intrauterine 277. The first case of IVF-ET technique success, was reported
devices (IUDs) by
A. Prevent ovulation A. Louis Joy Brown and Banting Best
B. make uterus unsuitable for implantation B. Patrick Steptoe and Robert Edwards
C. decrease phagocytosis of sperms C. Robert Steptoe and Gilbert Brown
D. suppress sperm motility D. Baylis and Starling Taylor
271. Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy?
278. Which technique is used to detect AIDS?
A. Irreversible sterility
A. Northern blot and ELISA
B. No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
B. Immunoblot and ELISA
C. No sperm occurs in epididymis
D. Vasa deferentia are cut and tied C. Western blot and ELISA
D. Southern blot and ELISA
272. Progestin-estradiol combined contraceptive pills inhibit
ovulation by: 279. Which of the following represents the correct match of a
A. Negative feedback on the release of estrogen from sexually transmitted disease with its pathogen?
ovary required for follicular development in follicular A. Syphilis — Treponema pallidum
phase B. Gonorrhoea — Entamoeba histolytica
B. Preventing the uterine physiological and morpho- C. Urethritis — Bacillus anthracis
logical changes required for implantation D. Softsore — Bacillus brevis
C. Inhibiting the secretion of FSH and LH that are 280. The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
necessary for ovulation
(GIFT) is recommended for those females
D. Both (A) and (C)
A. who cannot produce an ovum
273. Which of the following contraceptive methods has poor B. who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
reversibility? C. who cannot provide suitable environment for
fertilisation
D. All of these
281. Assertion (A) : Second trimester abortion are much
more complicated.
Reason (R) : After 12 weeks the foetus becomes
intimately associated with the maternal
tissues.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
 60

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct Reason (R) : Transfer of early embryos with up to 8
explanation of (A) blastomeres into the fallopian tube of
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false the female is called ZIFT
D. Both (A) and (R) are false A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
282. Assertion (A) : Reusable contraceptives are not full B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
proof method of contraception. explanation of (A)
Reason (R) : Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
are barrier methods which prevent D. Both (A) and (R) are false
conceptions by blocking through cervix.
287. Assertion (A) : Syphilis, gonorrhoea and AIDS are
They are reusable.
some common STDs
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) Reason (R) : STDs are transmitted through sexual
intercourse.
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
explanation of (A)
283. Assertion (A) : Introduction of sex education in C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
schools be encouraged. D. Both (A) and (R) are false
Reason (R) : This will encourage children to believe 288. Assertion (A) : Coitus interrupts has a high failure rate
in myths about sex related aspects. for a method of contraception.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct Reason (R) : The Pre-ejaculate fluid secreted by
explanation of (A) bulbourethral glands is known to have
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct sperms.
explanation of (A) A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false explanation of (A)
D. Both (A) and (R) are false B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
284. Assertion (A) : ‘Saheli’ is an oral pill which has high explanation of (A)
contraceptive value and very little side C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
effects D. Both (A) and (R) are false
Reason (R) : It contains progestin, with no estrogen 289. Assertion (A) : Amniocentesis is often missemployed.
and non-steroidal preparation centchro- Reason (R) : Amniocentesis is meant for determining
man the genetic disorders in the foetus, but
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct it is being used to determine the sex of
explanation of (A) the foetus, leading to death of the
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct normal female foetus.
explanation of (A) A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false explanation of (A)
D. Both (A) and (R) are false B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
285. Assertion (A) : Lactational amenorrhea is a natural C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
method of contraception. D. Both (A) and (R) are false
Reason (R) : Ovulation does not take place during
290. Assertion (A) : Rapid decline in death rate, MMR and
the period of intense lactation following
IMR have lead to a staggering rise in
child birth.
population.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Reason (R) : Such an alarming growth rate has lead
explanation of (A)
to an absolute scarcity of even the most
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
basic requirements, i.e. food and shelter.
explanation of (A)
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
explanation of (A)
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
286. Assertion (A) : Transfer of an ovum collected form a explanation of (A)
donor into the fallopian tube of another C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
female who cannot produce an ovum. D. Both (A) and (R) are false
 61
Directions (Qs. 291 to 295): Read the following and answer
any four questions given below:
Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding
chances of ovum and sperms meeting. Periodic abstinence
is one such method in which the couples avoid or abstain
from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle when
ovulation could be expected. As chances of fertilisation are
very high during this period, it is called the fertile period.
Therefore, by abstaining from coitus during this period,
conception could be prevented. Withdrawal or coitus
interruptus is another method in which the male partner
withdraws his penis from the vagina just before ejaculation
so as to avoid insemination. Lactational amenorrhea
(absence of menstruation) method is based on the fact that
ovulation and therefore the cycle do not occur during the
period of intense lactation following parturition. Therefore,
as long as the mother breast-feeds the child fully, chances
of conception are almost nil. In barrier methods, ovum and
sperms are prevented from physically meeting with the help
of barriers. Such methods are available for both males and
females. Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber/latex
sheath that are used to cover the penis in the male or
vagina and cervix in the female, just before coitus so that
the ejaculated semen would not enter into the female
reproductive tract. This can prevent conception. ‘Nirodh’ is
a popular brand of condom for the male. Use of condoms
has increased in recent years due to its additional benefit
of protecting the user from contracting STIs and AIDS.
Both the male and the female condoms are disposable, can
be self-inserted and thereby gives privacy to the user.
Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are also barriers made
of rubber that are inserted into the female reproductive tract
to cover the cervix during coitus. They prevent conception
by blocking the entry of sperms through the cervix. They
are reusable. Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams are
usually used along with these barriers to increase their
contraceptive efficiency.
291. There are different contraceptive methods to avoid
conceiveness. There are different tools/devices acting
as contraceptive devices. Which of the above the
following picture denotes implants and copper related
devices.
A. A and B B. C and B
C. C and A D. D and E
292. Name the type of permanent contraceptive method in
males from the above picture.
A. Vasectomy B. Tubectomy
C. Implants D. Diaphragm
293. Which of the following contraceptive devices help in
reducing the sperm motility?
A. Diaphragm B. Condom
C. Implants D. Copper T
294. Which of the following contraceptive device come under
barrier method?
A. Diaphragm B. IUDs
C. Implants D. Copper T
295. Assertion (A) : Contraceptives are methods to prevent
unwanted pregnancies.
Reason (R) : Unwanted pregnancies can only be
prevent by using oral contraceptives.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
Directions (Qs. 296 to 300): Read the following and answer
any four questions given below:
A discussion on reproductive health is incomplete
without a mention of infertility. A large number of couples
all over the world including India are infertile, i.e., they are
unable to produce children inspite of unprotected sexual
co-habitation. The reasons for this could be many–physical,
congenital, diseases, drugs, immunological or even
psychological. In India, often the female is blamed for the
couple being childless, but more often than not, the problem
lies in the male partner. Specialised health care units
(infertility clinics, etc.) could help in diagnosis and corrective
treatment of some of these disorders and enable these
couples to have children. However, where such corrections
are not possible, the couples could be assisted to have
children through certain special techniques commonly
known as assisted reproductive technologies (ART). In vitro
fertilisation (IVF–fertilisation outside the body in almost
similar conditions as that in the body) followed by embryo
transfer (ET) is one of such methods. In this method,
popularly known as test tube baby programme, ova from
the wife/donor (female) and sperms from the husband/donor
(male) are collected and are induced to form zygote under
simulated conditions in the laboratory. The zygote or early
embryos (with upto 8 blastomeres) could then be transferred
into the fallopian tube (ZIFT–zygote intra fallopian transfer)
and embryos with more than 8 blastomeres, into the uterus
(IUT – intra uterine transfer), to complete its further
 62

development. Embryos formed by in-vivo fertilisation (fusion

of gametes within the female) also could be used for such
transfer to assist those females who cannot conceive.
Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the
fallopian tube (GIFT – gamete intra fallopian transfer) of
another female who cannot produce one, but can provide
suitable environment for fertilisation and further development
is another method attempted. Intra cytoplasmic sperm
injection (ICSI) is another specialised procedure to form an
embryo in the laboratory in which a sperm is directly injected A. P and Q B. Q and R
into the ovum. Infertility cases either due to inability of the C. R and S D. S and P
male partner to inseminate the female or due to very low 299. Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT
sperm counts in the ejaculates, could be corrected by procedure.
artificial insemination (AI) technique. In this technique, the A. Ova collected from female are transferred to the
semen collected either from the husband or a healthy donor fallopian tube to facilitate zygote formation
is artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the B. Zygote is collected from a donor are transferred to
uterus (IUI – intra-uterine insemination) of the female. the fallopian tube
Though options are many, all these techniques require C. Zygote is collected from a donor are transferred to
extremely high precision handling by specialised the uterus
professionals and expensive instrumentation. D. Ova collected from female donor are transferred to
Surgical methods, also called sterilisation, are generally the uterus
advised for the male/female partner as a terminal method to 300. Assertion (A) : In tubectomy, a small part of fallopian
prevent any more intervention blocks gamete transport and tubes is cut and tied up.
thereby prevent conception. Sterilisation procedure in the Reason (R) : In vasectomy, a small part of vas
male is called ‘vasectomy’ and that in the female, deferens is cut and tied up.
‘tubectomy’. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
is removed or tied up through a small incision on the explanation of (A)
scrotum (Figure) whereas in tubectomy, a small part of the B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
fallopian tube is removed (Figure) or tied up through a explanation of (A)
small incision in the abdomen or through vagina. These C (A) is true, but (R) is false
techniques are highly effective but their reversibility is very D. Both (A) and (R) are false
poor.
301. Which of the following combination of chromosomes
296. A woman unable to conceive after many years of regular number represents the correct sex determination pattern
unprotected coitus went to specialized clinic. On complete in honey bee?
examination, woman was found to be normal while male A. Males = 32, Females = 16
partner was diagnosed with infertility. Male partner is B. Males = 16, Females = 32
unable to copulate the female. The Couple was advised C. Males = 31, Females = 32
to opt for assisted reproductive technology (ART). D. Females = 32, Males = 30
A. ZIFT – zygote intra fallopian tube transfer 302. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
B. IUI – intra uterine insemination A. Starch synthesis in Pea plant : Multiple alleles
C. AI – artificial insemination B. ABO Blood groups : Co-dominance
D. GIFT – gamete intra fallopian tube transfer C. Flower colour in snapdragon : Incomplete Dominance
297. Test tube baby means a baby born when D. T. H. Morgan : Linkage
A. It is developed in the test tube. 303. The disorder caused due to the absence of one X-chromo-
B. It is develops from a non- fertilized egg some i.e. 45 with XO such females are sterile. Identify the
C. The ovum is fertilized externally and thereafter syndrome
implanted in uterus A. Turner’s syndrome
D. It is developed by tissue culture method. B. Down’s syndrome
298. Tubectomy is sterilization process in females and in C. Klinefelter’s syndrome
D. Edward syndrome
tubectomy a small fallopian tube is cut and tied, hence
there is no possibility of fertilisation. The following 304. The study of family history about the inheritance of a
diagram shows the uterine tubes of four women (P, Q, R, S) particular trait in several generations of a family
 63

A. Hybridization B. Mutations by the absence of phenylalanine hydroxylase in affected

C. Aberrations D. Pedigree analysis individual
305. The phenomenon in which an allele of one gene A. Thalassemia B. Phenyl ketonuria
suppresses the expression of an allele of another gene is C. Sickle cell anemia D. Colour blindness
known as 315. The mechanism that causes a Gene to move from one
A. Dominance B. Inactivation linkage group to another is called
C. Epistasis D. Suppression A. Inversion B. Duplication
306. If one parent has blood group A and other parent has C. Translocation D. Crossing over
blood group B the off springs have which blood group? 316. Parents having genotype IA IB would show the blood
A. A, B only B. O only group as AB. This is because of
C. B only D. A, B, AB, O A. Pleiotrophy B. Co-dominance
307. Which of the following possess Homogametic male? C. Segregation D. Incomplete Dominance
A. Plants B. Birds 317. The Chromosome movement during meiosis has been
C. Insects D. Man worked out and noted that behaviour of genes was
308. Which of the following statements indicates the Paralle- parallel to the behaviour of chromosomes
lism in Genes and Chromosomes? A. Schledien B. Morgan
I. They occurs in pairs C. Sturtevant D. Sutton and Boveri
II. They segregate during the gamete formation 318. There are more than two alleles governing the one
III. They shows linkage character
IV. The independent pairs segregate independently A. Co-dominance B. Epistasis
A. (I) and (III) B. (II) and (III) C. Multiple alleles D. Dominance
C. (I), (II) and (III) D. (I), (II) and (IV)
319. The classical example of point mutations
309. A cross between an organism with unknown genotype A. Hemophilia B. Sickle cell anemia
and a recessive parent is used to determine whether the C. Phenylketonuria D. Cystic fibrosis
individual is Homozygous (or) Heterozygous trait
A. Test Cross B. Dihybrid Cross 320. It is an Autosomal disorder that is caused by the trisomy
C. Pedigree Analysis D. Back Cross of 21st chromosome
A. Turner’s syndrome
310. The Royal disease is
B. Edward syndrome
A. Colour Blindness B. Mongolism
C. Klinefelter’s syndrome
C. Hemophilia D. Sickle cell anemia
D. Down’s syndrome
311. Which of the following Amino acid substitution is
321. Assertion (A) : Monogenes produce continues varia-
responsible for causing Sickle cell anemia?
tion in the expression of traits
A. Valine is substituted by Glutamic acid in the globin
chain at the sixth position Reason (R) : Monogenic inheritance controls the
B. Valine is substituted by Glutamic acid in the Beta- quantitative traits
globin chain at the seventh position A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
C. Glutamic acid is substituted by valine in the Globin explanation of (A)
chain at the sixth position B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
D. Glutamic acid is substituted by Valine in the Beta- explanation of (A)
chain at the sixth position C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
312. Which of the following will not result in variations among
the siblings? 322. Assertion (A) : The persons with Klinefelter syndrome
A. Independent assortment are sterile males.
B. Crossing over Reason (R) : Klinefelter syndrome is due to trisomy.
C. Linkage A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
D. Mutations explanation of (A)
313. The diagrammatic representation of a Chromosome in B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
the cell explanation of (A)
A. Homo type B. Karyotype C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
C. Holo type D. Idiogram D. Both (A) and (R) are false
314. Name the inborn error of metabolism that is inherited as 323. Assertion (A) : In Pigeon males are homogenetic and
an Autosomal recessive trait, the disease is characterized female are hetrogemetic.
 64

Reason (R) : In pigeons, males have ZZ sex chromo- C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
somes, and females have ZW sex D. Both (A) and (R) are false
chromosomes. 328. Assertion (A) : A change in nitrogen base at the third
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct position of a codon causes change in
explanation of (A) the expression of Codon
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct Reason (R) : A Codon is mostly read by all the three
explanation of (A) nitrogen bases
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
D. Both (A) and (R) are false explanation of (A)
324. Assertion (A) : The law of Independent Assortment can B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
be studied by means of Dihybrid cross. explanation of (A)
Reason (R) : The law of Independent assortment is C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
applicable only to linkages. D. Both (A) and (R) are false
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 329. Assertion (A) : Phenylpyruvic acid is excreted through
explanation of (A) urine in case of phenylketonuria
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct Reason (R) : The affected individual lacks enzyme
explanation of (A) phenylalanine hydroxylase.
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
D. Both (A) and (R) are false explanation of (A)
325. Assertion (A) : Down’s syndrome is the genetic B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
disorder caused due to the presence of explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
additional copy of X chromosome.
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
Reason (R) : Both X chromosomes passes into single
egg due to non-disjunction during 330. Assertion (A) : The Turner’s syndrome is caused due
oogenesis. to absence of one X or Y chromosome.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct Reason (R) : Such individuals shows masculine as
explanation of (A) well as the feminine development.
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
D. Both (A) and (R) are false explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
326. Assertion (A) : In human beings 23 pairs of chromo- D. Both (A) and (R) are false
somes are present in the diploid cells.
Directions (Qs. 331 to 335): Read the following and answer
Reason (R) : 22 pairs of chromosomes are equal in
any four questions given below:
male and female. But, one pair of sex
chromosomes are common in male and Haemophilia is a genetic disorder of rare blood condition
female. where people do not have the clotting factor which enables
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct their blood to clot when bleeding. It’s an inherited disease
explanation of (A) that’s usually passed from mother to son. Haemophilia has
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct been called a “royal disease”. This is because the haemophilia
explanation of (A) gene was passed from Queen Victoria, who became Queen
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false of England in 1837, to the ruling families of Russia, Spain and
D. Both (A) and (R) are false Germany. Queen Victoria’s gene for hemophilia was caused
by spontaneous mutation. Of her children, one son, Leopold,
327. Assertion (A) : In Snapdragon flower, a cross made had haemophilia, and two daughters, Alice and Beatrice,
between true breeding white and red were carriers. Beatrice’s daughter married into the Spanish
coloured flowers produces a pink royal family. She passed the gene to the male heir to the
coloured flower in F 1 generation. Spanish throne. Queen Victoria’s other daughter, Alice, had
Reason (R) : This happens due to Incomplete domi- a carrier daughter, Alix. Alix became Empress Alexandra at her
nance. marriage to Russia’s Czar Nicholas in 1894. Their son, born
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct in 1904 and named Alexis, inherited haemophilia from his
explanation of (A) mother. Haemophilia is a recessive disorder and it can be
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct only appear in a generation if mother is carrier for disease
explanation of (A) and father has haemophilia or both parents have haemophilia.
 65

331. Haemophilia is a/an ___________ disease. 338. Which of the following is an example of gene with multiple
A. X linked phenotypic affect?
B. Autosomal dominant A. Drosophila white eye mutation
C. Autosomal recessive B. Kernel colour in wheat
D. Y linked C. Height in human beings
332. If the mother is carrier and father is normal than the D. Skin colour in human beings
chances of having normal son would be 339. Which of the following statements is not correct
A. 0% B. 25% regarding genes with multiple phenotypic effect?
C. 50% D. 75% A. It is not essential that all the traits are equally
333. If the maternal grandfather of a boy is haemophilic, influenced
maternal grandmother is normal and father is normal then B. Occasionally a number of related changes are caused
what are the chances that he could have haemophilia by a gene
disease? C. It occurs due to effect of gene on two or more inter
A. 25% B. 50% related metabolic pathways
C. 75% D. 0% D. None of these
334. If haemophilia is not present in a population than sudden 340. Assertion (A) : In a garden pea plant the gene which
appearance of haemophilia in a population would be due controls the flower colour also controls
to the colour of the seed coat and presence
A. Recombination B. Mutation of red spots in the leaf axils
C. Replication D. None of these Reason (R) : A pleiotropic gene influences more than
335. Assertion (A) : Haemophilia is a genetic disorder of rare one trait
blood condition where people do not A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
have the clotting factor. explanation of (A)
Reason (R) : Due to low thromboplastin concen- B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
tration. explanation of (A)
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
explanation of (A) D. Both (A) and (R) are false
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct 341. Sickle cell anemia is caused
explanation of (A) A. When valine is replaced by glutamic acid in beta
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false polypeptide chain
D. Both (A) and (R) are false B. When glutamic acid is replaced by valine in beta
Directions (Qs. 336 to 340): Read the following and answer polypeptide chain
any four questions given below: C. When glutamic acid is replaced by valine in alpha
According to Mendel, one gene control the expression of polypeptide chain
one character only the ability of a gene to have multiple D. When valine is replaced by glutamic acid in alpha
phenotypic affect because it influences a number of characters polypeptide chain
is an exception. The gene having a multiple phenotypic affect 342. Arrange the following events in the order of synthesis
because of its ability to control two or more characters can be of a protein
seen in cotton. In cotton, a gene for the lint also influences the (i) A peptide bond forms
height of plant, size of ball, number of ovules and viability of (ii) A tRNA matches its anticodon to the codon in the
the seeds. A-site
336. Genes with multiple phenotypic effects are known as (iii) The movement of second tRNA complex from A-site
A. hydrostatic genes to P-site
B. duplicate genes (iv) The large subunit attaches to the small subunit and
C. pleiotropic genes the initiator tRNA fits in the P-site
D. complimentary genes (v) A small subunit binds to the mRNA
337. Which of the following disorder is an example of genes (vi) The activated amino acid tRNA complex attaches the
with multiple phenotypic effects? initiation codon on mRNA
A. phenylketonuria A. (iv), (v), (iii), (ii), (i), (vi)
B. heamophilia B. (iv), (vi), (v), (ii), (i), (iii)
C. sickle cell anaemia C. (v), (iv), (iii), (ii), (vi), (i)
D. Both (A) and (C) D. (v), (vi), (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
2732 (Biology)—9
 66

343. Read the following and select the correct statement/ 348. Select the two correct statements out of the four (l-IV)
statements. given below about Lac operon.
(a) 23 sRNA act as a enzyme in prokaryotes. I. Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor
(b) In prokaryotes DNA is monocistronic and inactivate it.
(c) Francis Crick proposed the Central Dogma of Molecular II. In the absence of lactose the repressor binds with the
biology. operator region
(d) In Eukaryotes three types of RNA polymerases are III. The z-gene codes for region
present. IV. This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacques
A. (a) only B. (a) and (b) Monad
C. (a) and (c) D. (a) and (d) The correct statement are:
344. The significant aspect of reverse transcription is A. II and III B. I and III
A. the flow information from DNA to RNA C. II and IV D. I and II
B. the flow information from RNA to DNA 349. DNA finger printing is a technique in molecular biology.
C. the flow information from RNA to proteins Arrange the following steps in sequence.
D. Both (A) and (C) 1. Blotting of DNA fragment to nitro cellulose.
345. Match the names of scientists in column I with their 2. Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease.
achievements in column II and choose the correct answer 3. Deletion of DNA by restriction endonuclease.
given below: 4. Isolation of DNA.
Column I Column II 5. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis.
(a) Watson and Crick (i) DNA fingerprinting C. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3 B. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
(b) R. W. Holley (ii) Decipher genetic code C. 4, 3, 5, 1, 2 D. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
(c) Marshal Nirenberg (iii) Double helix of DNA 350. Which of the following does not take part in stabilizing
(d) Jacob and Monod (iv) Clover model of tRNA the cloverleaf model of the tRNA?
(e) Alec Jeffrey (v) Lac operon concept A. Base stacking
Codes: B. Base and sugar-phosphate backbone interaction
C. Ionic bond
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
D. Hydrogen bond
A. (iii) (iv) (i) (v) (ii)
B. (iii) (iv) (ii) (v) (i) 351. mRNA bearing multiple ribosomes is known as ______.
C. (iii) (ii) (i) (v) (iv) A. Small subunit-mRNA-initiator tRNA complex
D. (iii) (v) (iv) (i) (ii) B. mRNA ribosome complex
C. Polyamine-ribosome complex
346. The base pairs of DNA double helix is given below. Select
D. Polysome
the suitable mRNA strand that derived from transcription
is 352. Which of the following will form a palindromic sequence?
A. ATTGCAAT B. AGTCCTGA
3-ATTTCC-5
C. GTTCCAAG D. GTTGGAAC
5-TAAAGG-3
353. What were the main criteria taken under consideration
A. UAAAGG B CUUUCC for the experiment by Hershey and Chase?
C. GAAAGG D. CCUUUC A. DNA contains phosphorus, protein contains sulphur
347. Match the codons with their respective amino acids and B. Protein contains phosphorus, DNA contains sulphur
choose the correct answer. C. Both DNA and protein contains phosphorus and not
Column I Column II sulphur
(a) UUU (i) Serine D. Both DNA and protein contains sulphur and not
(b) GGG (ii) Methionine phosphorus
(c) UCU (iii) Phenylalanine 354. Which of the following is not a part of a nucleotide?
(d) AUG (iv) Glycine Which of the following is not a part of a nucleoside?
(e) AUG (v) Proline A. Ester linkage, Deoxyribose sugar
Codes: B. Phosphate group, Base
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) C. Base, Glycosidic linkage
A. (iii) (iv) (i) (v) (ii) D. Hydrogen bond, Phosphate
B. (iii) (i) (iv) (v) (ii) 355. What were the main criteria taken under consideration
C. (iii) (iv) (v) (i) (ii) for the experiment by Hershey and Chase?
D. (ii) (iv) (i) (v) (iii) A. DNA contains phosphorus, protein contains sulphur
2732 (Biology)—9-II
 67
B. Protein contains phosphorus, DNA contains sulphur
C. Both DNA and protein contains phosphorus and not
sulphur
D. Both DNA and protein contains sulphur and not
phosphorus
356. Which of the following combination is a correct
observation for the transformation experiment performed
by Griffith?
A. Type IIIS (living) + mouse = dead
B. Type IIIS (heat killed) + mouse = dead
C. Type IIR (living) + mouse = dead
D. Type IIIS (heat killed) + type IIR (living) + mouse =
living
357. Replication fork is the junction between the two ______.
A. Unreplicated DNA
B. Newly synthesized DNA
C. Newly separated DNA strands and newly synthesized
DNA strands
D. Newly separated DNA strands and the unreplicated
DNA
358. Pick the correct pair with respect to primers used in DNA
replication.
A. RNA primer – for prokaryotes only
B. NA primer – for eukaryotes only
C. DNA primer – for both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
D. RNA primer – for both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
359. Given in E. coli. lac operon, pick up the correct statement:
The structural gene is polycistronic as it has three genes
(z, y & a).
A. (i) y codes for -galactosidases which catalyze the
hydrolysis of lactose (a disaccharide) into glucose
and galactose.
(ii) z codes for -galactoside permease, a transport
protein that pumps lactose into the cell.
(iii) a codes for -galactoside transacetylase, which
transfers an acetyl group to galactose.
(iv) Only z & y are required for lactose catabolism.
B. (i) z codes for -galactosidases which catalyze the
hydrolysis of a disaccharide.
(ii) y codes for -galactoside permease, a transport
protein that pumps lactose into the cell.
(iii) a codes for transacetylase, which transfers an
acetyl group to galactose.
(iv) Only a & y are required for lactose catabolism.
C. (i) z codes for -galactosidases which catalyze the
hydrolysis of lactose (a disaccharide) into glucose
and galactose.
(ii) y codes for -galactoside permease, a transport
protein that pumps lactose into the cell.
(iii) a codes for -galactoside transacetylase, which
transfers an acetyl group to galactose.
(iv) Only z & y are required for lactose catabolism.
D. (i) z codes for -galactosidases which catalyze the
hydrolysis of lactose (a disaccharide) into glucose
and galactose.
(ii) a codes for -galactoside permease, a transport
protein that pumps lactose into the cell.
(iii) y codes for -galactoside transacetylase, which
transfers an acetyl group to galactose.
(iv) Only z & y are required for lactose catabolism.
360. For the translation to be initiated which of the following
does not occur?
A. Ribosome recruitment to the mRNA
B. Positioning of ribosome on ‘GUG’
C. Addition of charged tRNA to the A site
D. Binding of the large and small subunits of the ribosome
361. Assertion : Transcription is the mode in which DNA
passes its genetic information to RNA.
Reason (R) : Transcription takes place in the
cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells.
A. (A) and the (R) are true and the (R) is a correct
explanation of the (A)
B. (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not a correct
explanation of the (A)
C. (A) is true, but the (R) is false
D. (A) and (R) are false
362. Assertion (A) : Enzymes required for DNA replication
are efficient enzymes
Reason (R) : They can polymerise large number of
nucleotides in very short time
A. (A) and the (R) are true and the (R) is a correct
explanation of the (A)
B. (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not a correct
explanation of the (A)
C. (A) is true, but the (R) is false
D. (A) and (R) are false
363. Assertion (A) : The two strands of DNA are antiparallel
Reason (R) : Only antiparallel polynucleotides form
a stable double helix.
A. (A) and the (R) are true and the (R) is a correct
explanation of the (A)
B. (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not a correct
explanation of the (A)
C. (A) is true, but the (R) is false
D. (A) and (R) are false
364. Assertion (A) : DNA replication occurs in small
replication forks and not in its entire
length.
Reason (R) : Replication of DNA does not initiate
randomly and DNA polymerases on
their own cannot initiate replication.
A. (A) and the (R) are true and the (R) is a correct
explanation of the (A)
B. (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not a correct
explanation of the (A)
 68
C. (A) is true, but the (R) is false
D. (A) and (R) are false
365. Assertion (A) : tRNA is called an ‘adapter’
Reason (R) : tRNA on one hand bind to a specific
amino acid and on the other hand reads
the codon of the amino acid bound to it
through its anticodon
A. (A) and the (R) are true and the (R) is a correct
explanation of the (A)
B. (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not a correct
explanation of the (A)
C. (A) is true, but the (R) is false
D. (A) and (R) are false
366. Assertion (A) : The double helical structure of the DNA
present on saliva, hair follicles, bones,
blood and sperm serve as a useful tool
in the forensic studies. This can be done
as the DNA from an individual’s tissue
shows the same degree of polymorphism
Reason(R) : Polymorphism arises due to Recombi-
nation
A. (A) and the (R) are true and the (R) is a correct
explanation of the (A)
B. (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not a correct
explanation of the (A)
C. (A) is true, but the (R) is false
D. (A) and (R) are false
367. Assertion (A) : The DNA dependent DNA polymerases
catalyses the polymerization reaction in
5 3 direction.
Reason (R) : The DNA polymerase enzymes can
initiate the process of replication on
their own.
A. (A) and the (R) are true and the (R) is a correct
explanation of the (A)
B. (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not a correct
explanation of the (A)
C. (A) is true, but the (R) is false
D. (A) and (R) are false
368. Assertion (A) : The viruses were cultivated on a
medium containing radioactive Uranium
(U) by Alfred Hershey and Martha
Chase.
Reason (R) : Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
wanted to figure out that it was the
protein from the bacteriophage that was
entering into the bacteria.
A. (A) and the (R) are true and the (R) is a correct
explanation of the (A)
B. (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not a correct
explanation of the (A)
C. (A) is true, but the (R) is false
D. (A) and (R) are false
369. Assertion (A) : The anticodon loop of the tRNA
contains bases that are complementary
to the codes.
Reason (R) : The stop codons are UAA, UAG and
UGA.
A. (A) and the (R) are true and the (R) is a correct
explanation of the (A)
B. (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not a correct
explanation of the (A)
C. (A) is true, but the (R) is false
D. (A) and (R) are false
370. Several decades ago, the “one gene-one enzyme”
hypothesis was in vogue. It seemed straight forward that
a single protein gene coded for a single protein. In
prokaryotic organisms (bacteria), this was easy to show.
The known bacterial genes had a defined starting and
stopping place and the DNA letters in between spelled
out a discrete amino acid sequence. The eukaryotes
(organisms with a nucleus; everything from yeast, to
plants, to humans) do not have a simple gene structure.
Our protein genes are broken up into a series of “exons”
(the parts that code for protein) and “introns” (non-coding
intervening sequences). To make a protein, the gene is
first transcribed into RNA, then the introns are spliced
out, the exons are stitched together, and the remainder is
translated into protein. Even though complex, the one
gene-one enzyme hypothesis was still applied to
eukaryotic protein genes.
Assertion (A) : Researchers first identified parts of
genes that are spliced out of mRNA and
not included in the final protein product
by observing that not all of the original
gene hybridizes to the cognate mRNA.
These regions are called Introns.
Reason (R) : Scientists first observed that some areas
of genes are removed before mRNA
translation by visualizing that not all of
a gene hybridizes with its cognate
mRNA, and hence there are pieces that
are spliced out and not used.
A. (A) and the (R) are true and the (R) is a correct
explanation of the (A)
B. (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not a correct
explanation of the (A)
C. (A) is true, but the (R) is false
D. (A) and (R) are false
Directions (Qs. 371 to 375): Read the following and answer
any four questions given below:
DNA: More than just a super hard drive
Bill Gates, one of the founders of Microsoft, declared,
‘DNA is like a computer program but far, far more advanced
than any software ever created.’
 69
Actually, DNA is far more complicated than simply
coding for proteins, as we are discovering all the time. For
example, because the DNA letters are read in groups of
three, it makes a huge difference which letter we start from.
E.g. the sequence GTTCAACGCTGAA … can be read from
the first letter, GTT CAA CGC TGA A … but a totally
different protein will result from starting from the second
letter, TTC AAC GCT GAA …
This means that DNA can be an even more compact
information storage system. This partly explains the
surprising finding of The Human Genome Project that there
are ‘only’ about 35,000 genes, when humans can
manufacture over 100,000 proteins : Bacteria and yeast are
the most commonly used hosts for the process of cloning
in Human Genome Project. Not all types of fungi can be
used for this process. But yeast and bacterium can be
employed. Both BAC (Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes) and
YAC (Yeast Artificial Chromosomes) act as a suitable vector
for the process of cloning in HGP whereas bacteria and
yeast act as the host for cloning in HGP. The methodologies
for the HGP are involved in two major processes. One among
them is ESTs (Expressed Sequence Tags). It is used to
identify all the genes that are expressed as RNA in HGP.
When one base pair is stacked over the other in a helical
fashion, the DNA will be stable. A right-handed curving
fashion is seen in the DNA. When repeating structures are
present, the DNA will not be stable. The sum of Purines, A
and G, is equal to the sum of Pyrimidines, C and T ( i.e.,
A + G = C + T). Adenine and Thymine form a double
hydrogen bond. Likewise, Guanine and Cytosine form a triple
hydrogen bond. The resistance showed by thymine towards
all the photochemical mutations is what makes the DNA
more stable.
371. Which is the correct complementary strand for
AGAATTCGC?
A. CTCCGGATA B. GAGGCCTAT
C. TCTTAAGCG D. GTGGCCATA
372. Which of the following methodology is used to identify
all the genes that are expressed as RNA in Human
Genome Project (HGP)?
A. Sequence Annotation
B. Expressed Sequence Tags
C. Karyotyping
D. Ammonification.
373. Which of the following is a suitable host for the process
of cloning in Human Genome Project (HGP)?
A. Virus B. All types of fungi
C. Bacteria D. Protozoan
374. Which of the following ensures the stability of the helical
structure of a DNA?
A. Presence of repetitive structures of a DNA code
B. Stacking of one base pair over the other
C. Presence of aneuploidy
D. Occurrence of chromosomal rearrangements
375. The presence of which base makes the DNA more stable?
A. Adenine B. Cytosine
C. Thymine D. Guanine
OR
What is name of this nitrogenous base?
A. Adenine B. Cytosine
C. Thymine D. Guanine
Directions (Qs. 376 to 380): Read the following and answer
any four questions given below:
Prokaryotic Transcriptional Activators and Repressors
The organization of prokaryotic genes in their genome
is notably different from that of eukaryotes. Prokaryotic
genes are organized, such that the genes for proteins
involved in the same biochemical process or function are
located together in groups. This group of genes, along with
their regulatory elements, are collectively known as an
operon. The functional genes in an operon are transcribed
together to give a single strand of mRNA known as
polycistronic mRNA.
Transcription of prokaryotic genes in an operon is
regulated by two types of DNA binding proteins known as
activators and repressors. Activators bind to the promoter,
the site of transcription initiation, and aid in the binding of
RNA polymerase, the key enzyme involved in transcription.
Repressors bind to operators, short regulatory sequences
in the operon between the promoter and the genes, and
inhibit the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter. A
structural pre-requisite for activators and promoters is that
they should be able to exist in two alternate conformations,
one where they can bind to the DNA and one where they
cannot. Another characteristic feature specific to activators
is that they have two binding surfaces to simultaneously
bind to both RNA polymerase and DNA. This recruitment
of the two molecules brings the polymerase closer to the
promoter and aids in its binding. Activators have no catalytic
role to play in transcription and their function is limited to
facilitating the binding of the enzyme and DNA. In the
absence of an activator, RNA polymerase can still bind to
DNA and show low levels of expression. If a repressor is
present in this system, then the basal expression of that
gene is prevented.
Regulation of the expression of prokaryotic genes is
largely dependent on the nutrient availability and
requirements of the organisms. These nutrients control the
binding of activators and repressors to the operon and
 70

ensure that only the required set of genes is expressed. C. (A) is true, but the (A) is false
Operons are usually either inducible or repressible. Inducible D. (A) and (R) are false
operons, such as the bacterial lac operon, are normally “off”
381. One of the choices is the correct sequences of infectious
but will turn “on” in the presence of a small molecule called
Agent and Diseases with Vector.
an inducer (e.g., allolactose). When glucose is absent, but
Name of Causative Vector
lactose is present, allolactose binds and inactivates the lac
Disease Agent
operon repressor—allowing the operon to generate enzymes
A. Typhoid Salmonella typhi Mosquito
responsible for lactose metabolism.
B. Malaria Rhino virus Anopheles
Repressible operons, such as the bacterial trp operon, mosquito
are usually “on” but will turn “off” in the presence of a C. Chicken gunia Flavis virus Helminthes
small molecule called a corepressor (e.g., tryptophan). When D. Filariasis Wucheraria malai Female Culex
tryptophan—an essential amino acid—is abundant, mosquito
tryptophan binds and activates the trp repressor—
preventing the operon from making enzymes required for 382. The Gametocytes of the Malarial parasites are developed
its synthesis. For example, the presence of tryptophan in a in one of the following organs in the hosts?
cell leads to its binding to a repressor which prevents the A. Livercells – Human host
transcription of the trp operon and subsequent production B. Salivary glands – Anopheles female mosquito
of tryptophan. C. RBC – Human host
376. Which of the following statements is true about gene D. Intestine – Anopheles female mosquito
regulation in bacteria? 383. The fungal Disease caused by Ring worm is spread by
A. Activator proteins bind near promoters and increase one of the following causative organism:
efficiency of translation (i) Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Small-molecule “sensors” usually bind DNA and
(ii) Microsporum
change its 3D structure allosterically.
(iii) Entamoeba histolytica
C. Genes with related functions are often grouped
(iv) Epidermophyton
together and have a single start codon.
D. Repressor proteins block transcription by binding to A. (i) and (iv) B. (ii) and (iv)
operator sequences. C. (i) and (iii) D. (ii) and ( iii)

377. Repressors are active only when they are at the proximity 384. The Presence of various Barriers in Innate immunity is to
of the RNA polymerase as they directly associate with prevent of Pathogen entering through different corners
the pre-initiation complex. State whether this is true or in our body. Some of the cells represented are located in
false. different barriers. Identify them according to their
A. True B. False location.
C. Both (A) and (B) D. None of these (i) Skin (ii) PMNL
378. In bacteria, transcription is initiated by DNA Polymerase. (iii) Tears (iv) Interferons
A. True B. False (v) Mucous
C. Both (A) and (B) D. None of these A. (i) and (iii) – Physiological Barrier
B. (ii) and (iv) – Cellular Barrier
379. In addition to the RNA Polymerase, there are also a
C. (i) and (v) – Physical Barrier
number of DNA. Binding proteins that facilitate the
D. (i) and (iv) – Cytokine Barrier
process of transcription.
A. True B. False 385. Identify the correct sequence of HIV life cycle from the
C. Both (A) and (B) D. None of these Depicted diagram.
380. Assertion (A) : The expression of Tryptophan operon
is dependent of the availability of
Tryptophan in culture media.
Reason (R) : The presence of tryptophan in a cell
leads to its binding to a repressor which
prevents the transcription of the trp
operon and subsequent production of
tryptophan.
A. (A) and the (R) are true and the (R) is a correct
explanation of the (A)
B. (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not a correct
explanation of the (A)
 71

A. New viral RNA is produced by the infected cell, Viral A. Hashish causes after thought perception and
DNA incorporates into host cell, Viral RNA is hallucination.
introduced into cell, Virus infects normal cell. B. Barbiturates causes relaxation and temporary
B Virus infects normal cell, Viral RNA is introduced into euphoria.
cell, Viral DNA incorporates into host cell, New viral C. Opium stimulates Nervous system and causes
RNA is produced by the infected cell Hallucination.
C. Virus infects normal cell, Viral DNA incorporates into D. Morphine leads to Delusions and disturbed emotions.
host cell, Viral RNA is introduced into cell, New viral
RNA is produced by the infected cell. 390. Match the Column-I and Column-II
D. New viral RNA is produced by the infected cell, Virus Column I Column II
infects normal cell, Viral RNA is introduced into cell, (a) Malaria (i) Plasmodium
Viral DNA incorporates into host cell. (b) Ringworm (ii) Rhino virus
(c) Cold (iii) Retrovirus
386. A Cartoon of Antibody is displayed below with unlabelled (d) AIDS (iv) Filarial worm
parts. Identify the parts? (e) Elephentasis (v) Microspore
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
A. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (v)
B. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (v)
C. (i) (v) (ii) (iii) (iv)
D. (ii) (v) (iii) (iv) (i)
391. Identify the wrongly matched pair:
A. Typhoid – Widaltest
B. Plague – Viral Disease
C. Malignant malaria – Plasmodium
D. Common cold – Rhino virus.
A. (P) Antigen binding site
(Q) Disulphide bridge 392. The Normal cells of human body have genes called
(R) Light chain cellular oncogenes which are present in inactive form
(S) Heavy chain but certain mutations may transfer these cells into
B. (P) Disulphide bridge A. Photo oncogenes B. Oncogenes
C. Neogenes D. Carcinogens
(Q) Heavy chain
(R) Light chain 393. The Latest method of Treatment of cancer with Biological
(S) Antigen binding site modifications is known as:
C. (P) Antigen binding site A. Radiotherapy B. Chemotherapy
(Q) Light chain C. Immunotherapy D. Surgery
(R) Heavy chain 394. Heroine is a depressant, odorless, bitter and crystalline
(S) Disulphide bridges compound, it is extracted from latex of:
D (P) Disulphide bridges A. Cannabis sativa
(Q) Light chain B. Claviceps purperia
(R) Antigen binding site C. Papever somniferum
(S) Heavy chain D. Atropa bellodona
387. Withdrawal symptoms are not shown by: 395. The Inflammation of lower limbs in Filariasis is due to.
A. Stimulants B. Sedatives A. Bite of female culex mosquito
C. Hallucinogens D. Opiates B. Blockage of Blood vessels
388. Which of the following is correct for LSD, Morphine, C. Deforestation of Genital organs
and Hashish respectively? D. Blockage of lymph vessels
A. Cleviceps, Papever somniferum, Cannabis 396. Cancer cells are Damaged by radiations while others are
B. Cleviceps, Cannabis, Papever somniferous not due to cancer cells:
C. Cleviceps, Cannabis, Rawolfia A. Being starved
D. Cleviceps, Papever somniferous, Cannabis B. Being different in nature
389. Which one of the following statement is correct regarding C. Immature and undergoing rapid division
Psychotropic drugs specified? D. Mature and undergoing rapid division
 72

397. A Cartoon of Malarial parasite life cycle is given with 401. Assertion (A) : Virus infected cells secrete protein called
marked letters P, Q, R, and S. Identify the correct sequence interferon which protect. Non-infected
from the choice given below. cells from further viral infection.
Reason (R) : Interferons prevent replication of
viruses by directly interfering with.Their
ability to replicate with an infected cell.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
402. Assertion (A) : It is true that when male mosquito bites
there is no chance of infection of
malaria.
Reason (R) : Female anopheles mosquito is res-
ponsible for malaria transmission.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
A. (P) Parasites reach the liver through blood explanation of (A)
(Q) Red blood cells burst to release Toxicants known B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
as Sporozoin explanation of (A)
(R) Female mosquito takes up gametocytes with C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
blood meal D. (R) is true and (A) is false
(S) Sporozoites
B. (P) Parasites reach the liver through blood 403. Assertion (A) : When some organ in our body fails to
(Q) Sporozoites function, Transplantation is successful
(R) Red blood cells burst to release from any donor.
(S) Toxicants known as Sporozoin Reason (R) : The Body is able to differentiate self
C. (P) Parasites reach the liver through blood and Non self and the cell medicated
(Q) Female mosquito takes up gametocytes with immune response is responsible for graft
blood meal rejection.
(R) Sporozoites A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(S) Red blood cells burst to release Toxicants known explanation of (A)
as Sporozoin B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
D. (P) Sporozoites explanation of (A)
(Q) Red blood cells burst to release Toxicants known C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
as Sporozoin
D. (R) is true and (A) is false
(R) Parasites reach the liver through blood
(S) Female mosquito takes up gametocytes with 404. Assertion (A) : Allergy is due to the release of chemicals
blood meal like histamine and serotonine from mast
cells.
398. The Yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mammary
glands of lactation has abundant antibodies (IgA) to Reason (R) : Excessive secretions of mast cells is the
protect the infant. This type of immunity is called result of Allergy.
A. Passive immunity B. Active immunity A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
C. Acquired immunity D. Auto immunity explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
399. Which of the following responses is responsible for
explanation of (A)
rejection of Kidney Graft?
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
A. Cell Mediated Immune Response
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
B. Auto Immune Response
C. Humoral Immune Response 405. Assertion (A) : Drugs like amphetamines, benzodiaze-
D. Inflammatory Immune Response pines are normally used as medicines
400. Use of Anti Histamines and Steroids give a quick relief to help patients cope with mental illness
from: like depression and Insomnia.
A. Allergy B. Nausea Reason (R) : Therefore these drugs are very useful
C. Cough D. Headache to the mankind in all aspects.
 73

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct C. (A) is correct statements, but (R) is not correct
explanation of (A) statements
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct D. (R) is correct statements but (A) is not correct
explanation of (A) statements
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
Directions (Qs. 411 to 415): Read the following and answer
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
all the questions given below:
406. Assertion (A) : Vaccination is the only way to develop
The Disease caused by filarial worm Wuchereria bancroft ,
antibodies.
also known as Filarial bancroft and W. vmalayi . These
Reason (R) : Antibodies can be formed naturally and nematodes, commonly called human filarial worms, are
artificially also. endoparasites and are commonly found in the lymphatic vessel
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct and lymph nodes of human beings particularly in the growing
explanation of (A) regions man is the only definitive host of W. boncrofti, while a
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct large number of mosquito act as secondary hosts. In India
explanation of (A) culex mosquito is responsible for the transmission of Filariasis.
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. (R) is true but (A) is false 411. Identify the Diseases transmitted by mosquitoes.
A. Elephentasis, Malaria, Dengue
407. Assertion (A) : Alveoli of lungs get filled with fluid. B. Wuchereria, Ascarises, Teaniasis
Reason (R) : Vaccination provide active immunity C. AIDS, Syphilis, Filariasis
against typhoid. D. Filariasis, Dengue, Typhoid.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) 412. This disease can be transmitted during the day if the
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct parasitic worms are sucked by:
explanation of (A) A. Anopheles sp. B. Culex sp.
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false C Houseflies D. Ades sps.
D. Both (A) and (R) are false 413. Identify the Digenetic parasite from the following:
408. Assertion (A) : Warts and Black moles on our body are A. Ascaris, Taenia
belongs to Benign tumors. B. Plasmodium, Wuchereria
C. Entamoeba, Wuchereria
Reason (B) : The Malignant tumors on the other
D. Plasmodium, Microsporum
hand are the mass of proliferating Neo-
plastic tumors. 414. Filarial worm is an endoparasite infected in one of the
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct following organs:
explanation of (A) A. Blood vessels B. Urinary vessels
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct C. Lymph vessels D. All the above
explanation of (A) 415. Assertion (A) : Elephantiasis is an example of mosquito-
C (A) is true, but (R) is false borne disease
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
Reason (R) : The causative worms block the flow of
409. Assertion (A) : Papaver somniferum is cultivated to lymph in the body due to their accumul-
obtain drugs ation in the lymph nodes.
Reason (B) : Morphine is obtained from its latex A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct for (A)
explanation of (A) B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
explanation of (A) C. (A) is correct statement, but (R) is false
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false D. (R) is correct statement, but (A) is false.
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
Directions (Qs. 416 to 420): Read the following and answer
410. Assertion : Immuno suppressant medicines are any four questions given below:
provided after organ Transplantation
A Group of teenagers were involved in drug abuse. They
Reason (R) : To suppress B-cells and T-cells used syringes and needles to inject drugs. They indulged in
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation this habit when they became adults. Administration of drugs
for (A) through needles became a piece of cake for them. Chetan was
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct the most drug abuser amongst and used to take part in high
explanation for (A) profile parties. In a span of time he started losing weight and
2732 (Biology)—10
 74

suffered persistent diarrhea. He developed constant low fever 424. Example of a natural insect repellant
used to catch frequent infections. When he consulted a doctor A. Citronella oil B. Coconut oil
suggested for HIV test and showed +Ve for AIDS after C. Linseed oil D. Rapseed oil
Diagnoses. 425. Antibiotics are the most effective on
416. Select the incorrect statement: A. Bacteria B. Virus
A. AIDS is a disorder of cell mediated immune system of C. Fungi D. Algae
the body. 426. Which of the following microbes are used for the
B. AIDS is caused by Human immune deficiency commercial production of citric acid?
Disorder A. Xanthomonas citri B. Asparagine
C. AIDS patients suffer from Severe combined C. Asparagus D. Aspergillus
immunodeficiency Disorder.
D. AIDS is not observed on 1st December as world AIDS 427. Which of the following is widely used as a successful
biofertiliser in Indian rice field?
Day.
A. Rhizobium B. Acacia arabica
417. How do you think Chetan gets HIV? C. Acalypha indica D. Azolla pinnata
A. Through transmission of HIV infected blood.
428. Which of the following is a non-symbiotic biofertiliser?
B. Sexual intercourse with an infected partner
A. VAM B. Azotobacter
C. Sharing towel with infected friend.
C. Anabaena D. Rhizobium
D. Use of contaminated needles and syringes to inject
drugs. 429. Vitamin whose content increases following the
conversion of milk into curd is
418. How can AIDS be prevented? A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin D
A. Blood test for HIV of blood donor before transfusion C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin E
to a patient.
B. Use of Disposal needles for injection of medicines 430. BOD of wastewater is estimated by measuring the amount
and vaccination of
C Having safe and protected sex with partner by using A. Total organic matter
condoms. B. Biodegradable organic matter
D. All the above C. Oxygen evolution
D. Oxygen consumption
419. What is the best Diagnostic method for AIDS?
A. ELISA B. WIDAL 431. Which one of the following is not a nitrogen-fixing
organism?
C. AMES D. PAPS
A. Anabaena B. Nostoc
420. Assertion (A) : After getting into the body of a person, C. Azotobacter D. Pseudomonas
the HIV enters macrophages.
432. Mycorrhiza does not help the host plant in
Reason (R) : Here RNA is replicated to form viral DNA A. Enhancing its phosphorus uptake capacity
by Reverse Transcription mechanism. B. Increasing its tolerance to drought
A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct C. Enhancing its resistance to root pathogens
explanation for (A) D. Increasing its resistance to insects
B. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct
explanation for (A) 433. Which of the following antibiotics was extensively used
C (A) is correct statement, but (R) is wrong to treat American soldiers wounded in World War II?
D. (R) is correct statement, but (A) is wrong A. Neomycin B. Bacitracin
C. Chloramphenicol D. Penicillin
421. The gut of ruminants containing
434. Integrated Pest Management (IPM) discourages the
A. Halophiles B. Acidophiles
excessive used of
C. Methenogenes D. All of the above
A Biological methods
422. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used B. Chemical pesticides
A. Baking B. Bleaching C. Mechanical methods
C. Biofuel D. None of the above D. All of the above
423. Bacillus thuringiensis is used for 435. Organic farming does not include
A. Fermentation of beer A. Green manures
B. Bio pesticide B. Chemical fertilisers
C. Antibiotic C. Farmyard manures
D. Pesticide D. Compost
 75

436. Enzyme which has the fibrinolytic effect is A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
A. Protease B. Amylase explanation of (A)
C. Lipase D. Streptokinase B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
437. Monascus purpureus is a yeast commercially used in the explanation of (A)
production of C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
A. Citric acid D. Both (A) and (R) are false
B. Ethanol 444. Assertion (A) : Lichen is important for chemical
C. Blood cholesterol lowering statins industries.
D. Streptokinase for removing clots from blood vessels Reason (R) : Litmus and Orcein are formed from
438. The purpose of biological treatment of waste water is to lichens.
A. Reduce BOD A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
B. Increase BOD explanation of (A)
C. Reduce sedimentation B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
D. Increase sedimentation explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
439. Methanogens do not produce D. Both (A) and (R) are false
A. Oxygen
B. Methane 445. Assertion (A) : Beer and wine are called soft liquors
C Hydrogen sulphide while gin, rum, etc. are hard liquors.
D. Carbon dioxide Reason (R) : Beer and wine are made without
distillation.
440. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
designing novel explanation of (A)
A. Biofertiliser B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
B. Bio-metallurgical techniques explanation of (A)
C. Bio-mineralisation process C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Bio-insecticidal plants D. Both (A) and (R) are false
441. Assertion (A) : Besides curdling of milk, LAB also 446. Assertion (A) : Energy value of biogas is lower than
improve its nutritional quality by that of organic matter.
increasing vitamin-B12.
Reason (R) : Biogas minimises the chances of spread
Reason (R) : LAB, when present in human stomach, of fecal pathogens
check disease causing microbes. A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
explanation of (A) B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
explanation of (A) C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false D. Both (A) and (R) are false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
447. Assertion (A) : The kneaded flour shows leavening,
442. Assertion (A) : Vitamin B2 is found in cereals, green when yeast is added to it.
vegetables, brewer’s yeast, egg white, Reason (R) : Enzymes secreted by yeast cause
milk and liver. leavening.
Reason (R) : It can be commercially produced by A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
some yeasts. explanation of (A)
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A) explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
explanation of (A) D. Both (A) and (R) are false
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
448. Assertion (A) : Secondary treatment of sewage is also
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
called biological treatmentwhile primary
443. Assertion (A) : Yeasts such as Saccharomyces treatment is called physical treatment.
cerevisiae are used in baking industry. Reason (R) : Primary sewage treatment depends only
Reason (R) : Carbon dioxide produced during fer- upon sedimentation properties of
mentation causes bread dough to rise materials present in sewage and filtr-
by thermal expansion. ation.
 76
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
449. Assertion (A) : After 24 hours, toddy becomes unpala-
table.
Reason (R) : The fermentation of toddy is continued
by naturally occurring yeasts.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
450. Assertion (A) : All microbes cause diseases
Reason (R) : All microbes are harmful
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
Directions (Qs. 451 to 455): Read the following and answer
any four questions given below:
Biogas is a mixture of gases (containing predominantly
methane) produced by the microbial activity and which may
be used as fuel. You have learnt that microbes produce
different types of gaseous end-products during growth and
metabolism. The type of the gas produced depends upon the
microbes and the organic substrates they utilise. In the
examples cited in relation to fermentation of dough, cheese
making and production of beverages, the main gas produced
was CO 2. However, certain bacteria, which grow anaerobically
on cellulosic material, produce large amount of methane along
with CO 2 and H 2. These bacteria are collectively called
methanogens, and one such common bacterium is
Methanobacterium. These bacteria are commonly found in
the anaerobic sludge during sewage treatment. These bacteria
are also present in the rumen (a part of stomach) of cattle.
A lot of cellulosic material present in the food of cattle is also
present in the rumen. In rumen, these bacteria help in the
breakdown of cellulose and play an important role in the
nutrition of cattle. Do you think we, human beings, are able
to digest the cellulose present in our foods? Thus, the
excreta (dung) of cattle, commonly called gobar, is rich in
these bacteria. Dung can be used for generation of biogas,
commonly called gobar gas.
451. Which one is involved in biogas production?
A. Strptococcus B. Methanococcus
C. Thermococcus D. Halococcus
452. In biogas the maximum constituent is
A. Butane B. Propane
C. Methane D. Ethane
453. In the process of fermentation the chief gas produced is
A. CO2 B. CH4
C. SO2 D. CO
454. The spent slurry of biogas plant
A. Used as fertilizer B. In biogas production
C. Alcohol making D. To produce STP
455. Besides dung the weed that can be used in biogas
production is
A. Solariumn nigrum
B. Eichornia crassiper
C. Parthenium hysterrophorus
D. Hydrilla
Directions (Qs. 456 to 460): Read the following and answer
any four questions given below:
The very familiar beetle with red and black markings –
the Ladybird, and Dragonflies are useful to get rid of aphids
and mosquitoes, respectively. An example of microbial
biocontrol agents that can be introduced in order to control
butterfly caterpillars is the bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis
(often written as Bt). These are available in sachets as dried
spores which are mixed with water and sprayed onto
vulnerable plants such as brassicas and fruit trees, where
these are eaten by the insect larvae. In the gut of the larvae,
the toxin is released and the larvae get killed. The bacterial
disease will kill the caterpillars, but leave other insects
unharmed. Because of the development of methods of
genetic engineering in the last decade or so, the scientists
have introduced B. thuringiensis toxin genes into plants.
Such plants are resistant to attack by insect pests. Bt-cotton
is one such example, which is being cultivated in some
states of our country. A biological control being developed
for use in the treatment of plant disease is the fungus
Trichoderma. Trichoderma species are free-living fungi that
are very common in the root ecosystems. They are effective
biocontrol agents of several plant pathogens. Baculoviruses
are pathogens that attack insects and other arthropods. The
majority of baculoviruses used as biological control agents
are in the genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus . These viruses are
excellent candidates for species-specific, narrow spectrum
insecticidal applications. They have been shown to have
no negative impacts on plants, mammals, birds and fish or
even on non-target insects. This is especially desirable when
beneficial insects are being conserved to aid in an overall
integrated pest management (IPM) programme, or when an
ecologically sensitive area is being treated.
456. The following is very familiar beetle with red and black
markings and is used to get rid of aphids
A. Dragon fly B. Blister beetle
C. Lady bird D. Praying mantis
 77

457. Biological control of pest is A. Binding of DNA to the cell wall

A. Expensive B. Self perpetuating B. Uptake of DNA through membrane transport proteins
C. Polluting D. Poisonous C. Uptake of DNA through transient pores in the bacterial
458. We need to replace chemical pesticides by some other cell wall
ways as D Expression of antibiotic resistance gene
A. These are costly 466. An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps in
B. Non-biodegradable the selection of:
C. Problematic storage A. Competent bacterial cells
D. Destroy plants B. Transformed bacterial cells
459. Cochineal insect is used as bioherbicide to control the C. Recombinant bacterial cells
overgrowth of D. None of the above
A. Weeds B. Cacti 467. Which of the following contributed in popularising the
C. Eichorrnia D. Scale insects PCR (polymerase chain reactions) technique?
460. A common biochemical agent for the control of plant A. Easy availability of DNA template
disease is B. Availability of synthetic primers
A. Glomus C. Availability of cheap deoxyribonucleotides
B. Trichoderma D. Availability of ‘Thermostable’ DNA polymerase
C. Bacillus thuringiensis 468. While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the following
D. Baculovirus enzymes is not required?
461. Which of the following should be chosen for best yield A. Lysozyme
if one were to produce a recombinant protein in large B. Ribonuclease
amounts? C. Deoxyribonuclease
A. Laboratory flask of largest capacity D. Protease
B. A stirred-tank bioreactor without in-lets and out-lets 469. The most important feature in a plasmid to serve as a
C. A continuous culture system vector in gene cloning experiment is:
D. Any of the above
A. Origin of replication (ori)
462. A bacterial cell was transformed with a recombinant DNA B. Presence of a selectable marker
molecule that was generated using a human gene. C. Presence of sites for restriction endonuclease
However, the transformed cells did not produce the D. Its size
desired protein. Reasons could be:
470. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are
A. Human gene may have intron which bacteria cannot
separated on the basis of their:
process
A. Charge only
B. Amino acid codons for humans and bacteria are
B. Size only
different
C. Charge to size ratio
C. Human protein is formed but degraded by bacteria
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
463. Which of the following steps are catalysed by Taq DNA 471. Which of the following is not required in the preparation
polymerase in a PCR reaction? of a recombinant DNA molecule?
A. Denaturation of template DNA A. Restriction endonuclease
B. Annealing of primers to template DNA B DNA ligase
C. Extension of primer end on the template DNA C. DNA fragments
D. All of the above D E. coli

464. The role of DNA ligase in the construction of a
recombinant DNA molecule is
A. Formation of phosphodiester bond between two DNA
fragments
B. Formation of hydrogen bonds between sticky ends
of DNA fragments
C Ligation of all purime and pyrimidine bases
D. None of the above
465. Significance of ‘heat shock’ method in bacterial trans-
formation is to facilitate:
472. ‘Restriction’ in Restriction enzyme refers to:
A. Cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA by the
enzyme
B. Cutting of DNA at specific position only
C. Prevention of the multiplication of bacteriophage by
the host bacteria
D. All of the above
473. Which of the given statements is correct in the context
of visualizing DNA molecules separated by agarose gel
electrophoresis?
 78

A. DNA can be seen in visible light 5-GAATTC-3

B. DNA can be seen without staining in visible light 3CTTAAG-5
C. Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible A. Replication completed
light B. Deletion mutation
D. Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under C. Start codon at the 5' end
exposure to UV light D. Palindromic sequence of base pairs
474. The transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to 481. Assertion (A) : In a genetic engineering process, it is
another through the mediation of a viral vector is termed necessary to prepare sterile ambience.
as: Reason (R) : Sterile ambience inhibits the growth of
A. Transduction B. Conjugation undesirable microbes during manu-
C. Transformation D. Translation facture of product.
475. Which of the following enzymes catalyse the removal of A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
nucleotides from the ends of DNA? explanation of (A)
A. Endonuclease B. Exonuclease B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
C DNA ligase D. Hind – II explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
476. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
blunt ends?
A. Sal I B. Eco RV 482. Assertion (A) : Golden rice is Vitamin A enriched rice
C. Xho I D. Hind III variety developed through conventional
breeding method.
477. The given figure is the diagrammatic representation of
Reason (R) : From wild rice varieties Beta carotene
the E. coli vector pBR322. Which one of the given
genes were transferred into cultivated
options correctly identifies its certain component(s)?
rice varieties.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
483. Assertion (A) : Genetic engineering can overcome the
drawbacks of traditional hybridization.
Reason (R) : Genetic engineering can create desired
A. Ori-original restriction enzyme
DNA sequences to meet specific requi-
B. Rop-reduced osmotic pressure
rements.
C. Hind III, Eco RI-selectable markers
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
D. ampR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes
explanation of (A)
478. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
agarose gel electrophoresis? explanation of (A)
A. The larger the fragment size, the farther it during gel C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
moves D. Both (A) and (R) are false
B. The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
484. Assertion (A) : A piece of DNA inserted into an alien
C. Positively charged fragments move to farther end
organism generally replicate if not
D. Negatively charged fragments do not move
inserted into a chromosome.
479. PCR and restriction fragment length polymorphism are Reason (R) : Chromosomes have specific sequences
the methods for called “ori” region where DNA replica-
A. Study of enzymes tion is terminated.
B. Genetic transformation A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
C. DNA sequencing explanation of (A)
D. Genetic fingerprinting B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
480. Given below is a sample of portion of DNA strand giving explanation of (A)
the base sequence on the opposite strands? What is so, C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
special shown in it? D. Both (A) and (R) are false
 79

485. Assertion (A) : All Restriction enzymes produce sticky 490. Assertion (A) : Protein encoding gene is expressed in
ends. heterologous host is known as recombi-
Reason (R) : Restriction enzymes are produced in nant protein
both prokaryotic and eukaryotic organi- Reason (R) : In continuous culture systems fresh
sms medium is continuously added and
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct spent medium is drained.
explanation of (A) A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
explanation of (A) B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false explanation of (A)
D. Both (A) and (R) are false C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
486. Assertion (A) : DNA move from cathode to anode D. Both (A) and (R) are false
Reason (R) : Separation DNA in gel electrophoresis Directions (Qs. 491 to 495): Read the following and answer
is based on charge any four questions given below:
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Natural plant genetic engineer
explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct We have learnt the lesson of transferring genes into plants
explanation of (A) and animals from bacteria and viruses which have known this
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false for ages – how to deliver genes to transform eukaryotic cells
D. Both (A) and (R) are false and force them to do what the bacteria or viruses want. The
genus Agrobacterium has been divided into a number of
487. Assertion (A) : E. coli having pBR322 with DNA insert
species. A. tumifaciens causes crown gall disease and
at BamH I site cannot grow in medium
A. rhizogenes causes hairy root disease. A. tumifaciens is a
containing tetracycline.
soil bacterium that can genetically transform plant cells with a
Reason (R) : Recognition site for BamH I is present segment of DNA (T-DNA) from a tumor-inducing plasmid (Ti
in tetR region of pBR322. plasmid) with the resultant production of a crown gall, which is
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct a plant tumor. Virulent strains ofAgrobacterium contain tumor-
explanation of (A) inducing (Ti) or Ri plasmids. A. rhizogenes contain Ri plasmid
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct possessing different gene segments. The transferred DNA (T-
explanation of (A)
DNA) is referred to as the T-region when located on the Ti or
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
Ri plasmid. During infection with Agrobacterium , a piece of
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
DNA is transferred from the bacterium to the plant cell. Similarly,
488. Assertion (A) : A bacterial cell with no restriction retroviruses in animals have the ability to transform normal
enzymes will be easily infected and cells into cancerous cells. Retroviruses differ from most other
lysed by bacteriophages viruses by having both DNA and RNA genomes at different
Reason (R) : Restriction enzymes catalyse synthesis times in their life cycle. However, having both types of genomes
of protective coat around bacterial cell requires retroviruses to go through some molecular gymnastics
that prevents bacteriophage attack. to recreate a 5' promoter to synthesize the RNA genome and to
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct synthesize a copy of the primers for synthesis of the DNA
explanation of (A) genome. In addition, retroviruses have an efficient means of
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct integrating their DNA genome into the cell DNA. These features
explanation of (A) make retroviruses genetic engineers of cells, because they add
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false genes to the cell genome and do not necessarily kill their host
D. Both (A) and (R) are false cell by replication, using instead the cellular transcription
machinery to synthesize their RNA genomes.
489. Assertion (A) : Use of chitinase enzyme is necessary
for isolation of DNA from yeast cells 491. T-DNA is present in
but not in case of Spirogyra. A. All bacterial cells B. Agrobacterium
Reason : Fungal cell wall is made up of chitin. C. Rhizobium D. None of the above
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 492. The introduction of T-DNA into plants involves
explanation of (A) A. Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct B. Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
explanation of (A) C. Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumifaciens
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false D. Altering the pH of the soil, then heat-shocking the
D. Both (A) and (R) are false plants.
 80

493. Hairy root disease is caused by A. It is isolated from Escherichia coli RY 13.
A. Agrobacterium tumifaciens B. Its recognition sequence is
B. Agrobacterium rhizogenes 5-AAGCTT-3
C. Both (A) & (B) 3-TTCGAA-5.
D. None of the above C. It produces complementary blunt ends
D. None of these
494. Which of the following convert normal cell to tumor cell
in animal? 497. Following statements describe the characteristics of the
A. Agrobacterium tumifaciens enzyme restriction endonuclease. Identify the incorrect
B. Agrobacterium rhizogenes statement.
C. Retroviruses A. The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic
D. All of the above nucleotide sequence in the DNA.
B. The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position
495. Assertion (A) : Agrobacterium transfer complete Ti within the DNA.
plasmid in to plant cell C. The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts
Reason (R) : Disarmed Ti plasmid is used for genetic only one of the two strands.
transformation of animal D. The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at
A. If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct specific sites on each strand.
explanation of (A) 498. The term “molecular scissors” generally refers to
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct A. DNA polymerases
explanation of (A) B. RNA polymerases
C. If (A) is true, but (R) is false C. Restriction endonucleases
D. If both (A) and (R) are false D. DNA ligases
Directions (Qs. 496 to 500): Read the following and answer 499. Which of the following enzyme(s) are produced by
any four questions given below: bacteria during bacteriophage infection?
Anti-phase system in bacteria A. Restriction endo nucleases
B. Methylases
Bacteria are under constant attack from bacteriophages C. Restriction exo nucleases
(phages), bacterial parasites that are the most abundant D. Both Restriction endo nucleases and Methylases
biological entity on earth. To resist phage infection, bacteria
500. Assertion (A) : Genetic engineering requires both
have evolved an impressive arsenal of anti-phage systems.
nucleases and ligases.
Restriction-modification (RM) systems are a ubiquitous and
extremely diverse mode of anti-phage defense. They are Reason (R) : DNA Ligases produce the nick in the
recombinant DNA molecule.
normally made up of two activities: a restriction endonuclease
A. If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
and a methyltransferase. The restriction endonuclease
explanation of (A)
recognizes short DNA motifs, usually 4- to 8-base-pairs long
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
palindromic nucleotide sequences and cuts the bacteriophage
explanation of (A)
DNA. These DNA motifs exist in both the bacterial host and
C. If (A) is true, but (R) is false
invading phage, but the host protects its genome by using the D. If both (A) and (R) are false
methyltransferase to modify its own DNA to avoid recognition
by the restriction enzyme. An invading phage is usually not 501. Silencing of a gene could be achieved through the use
methylated and will therefore be cut upon injection. RM of:
systems are classified into four major types based their A. RNAi only
mechanism of action and subunit composition. Both type I B. antisense RNA only
and III systems translocate along DNA and cleave away from C. both RNAi and antisense RNA
D. None of the above
the recognition sites. Type II, known for their use in molecular
cloning, cleave within or near the recognition site. Type IV 502. For transformation, microparticles coated with DNA to
systems lack a methylase and only contain a restriction be bombarded with gene gun are made up of
endonuclease, which cleaves only modified DNA. The first A. Silver or platinum B. Silicon or platinum
Type II restriction endonuclease–Hind II, isolated from C. Platinum or zinc D. Gold or tungsten
Haemophilus influenzae Rd, similarly, Eco RI isolated from 503. The first clinical gene therapy was done for the treatment
Escherichia coli RY 13. of:
496. Which of the following statements is correct regarding A. AIDS
EcoRI restriction endonuclease enzyme? B. Cancer
 81

C. Cystic fibrosis A. Vitamin B B. Vitamin C

D. SCID (Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency resulting C. Omega 3 D. Vitamin A
form deficiency of ADA) 514. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing
504. In RNAi, genes are silenced using: are
A. ss DNA B. ds DNA A. T-DNA
C. ds RNA D. ss RNA B. BAC and YAC
505. The trigger for activation of toxin ofBacillus thuringiensis C. Expression vectors
is: D. T/A cloning vectors
A. Acidic pH of stomach 515. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of
B. High temperature A. Fish B. Cow
C. Alkaline pH of gut C. Mice D. Pig
D. Mechanical action in the insect gut
516. The Genetically Modified (GM) brinjal in India has been
506. Antitrypsin is: developed for
A. An antacid A. Insect-resistance
B. An enzyme B. Enhancing self-life
C. Used to treat arthritis C Enhancing mineral content
D. Used to treat emphysema D. Drought-resistance
507. A protoxin is: 517. Human insulin is being commercially produced from a
A. A primitive toxin transgenic species of
B denatured toxin A. Rhizobium B. Escherichia
C. Toxin produced by protozoa C. Saccharomyces D. Mycobacterium
D. Inactive toxin 518. Production of a human protein in bacteria by genetic
508. Choose the correct option regarding Retrovirus: engineering is possible because
A. An RNA virus that synthesises DNA during infection A. Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA splicing reactions
B. A DNA virus that synthesises RNA during infection B. The human chromosome can replicate in bacterial cell
C. A ssDNA virus C. The mechanism of gene regulation is identical in
D. A dsRNA virus humans and bacteria
D. The genetic code is universal
509. Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer
of foreign DNA into crop plants? 519. Producing a giant mouse in the laboratory was possible
A. Trichoderma harzianum through
B. Meloidogyne incognita A. Gene mutation B. Gene synthesis
C. Agrobacterium tumifaciens C. Gene manipulation D. Gene duplication
D. Penicillium expansum 520. Introduction of food plants developed by genetic
510. In transgenics, expression of transgene in target tissue engineering is not desirable because
is determined by A. Economy of developing countries may suffer
A. Enhancer B. Transgene B. These products are less tasty as compared to the
C. Promoter D. Reporter already existing products
C. This method is costly
511. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic D. There is danger of introduction viruses and toxins
engineering experiments are with introduced crop
A. Nitrosamines and Klebsiela
B. Escherichia and Agrobacterium 521. Assertion (A) : “Cry” proteins are named so because
C. Nitrobacteria and Azotobacter they are crystal proteins
D. Rhizobium and Diplococcus Reason (R) : “Cry” proteins are solubilized in acidic
environment of insect midgut and then
512. The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked
release toxic core fragments after
together by proteolytic action.
A. Phosphodiester bonds A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
B. Covalent bonds explanation of (A)
C. Disulphide bridges B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
D. Hydrogen bonds explanation of (A)
513. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant where C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
the incorporated gene is meant for biosynthesis of D. Both (A) and (R) are false
2732 (Biology)—11
 82
522. Assertion (A) : The RNAi can be introduced in an
organism by insertion of gene encoding
complementary RNA only.
Reason (R) : There are no methods by which in vitro
synthesized complementary RNA can
be inserted in an organism to induce
RNAÍ (RNA interference).
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
523. Assertion (A) : Plantibodies are animal antibodies
produced in plants.
Reason (R) : Plantibodies are just a theoretical
concept.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
524. Assertion (A) : Human insulin can be produced into
bacterial cells using biotechnology
Reason (R) : To produce human insulin the A, B and
C polypeptides of the human insulin are
produced separately in the bacterial
cells, extracted and combined by
creating disulphide bonds.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
525. Assertion (A) : The first clinical gene for ADA therapy
was given to cure SCID.
Reason (R) : The normal gene was delivered into the
patient’s cells using retroviral vector
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
526. Assertion (A) : Complementary pairing between
nucleotides is used to diagnose
presence of a specific DNA segment in
a mixture.
Reason (R) : DNA probes having radioactive
isotopes help to detect DNA by auto-
radiography.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
527. Assertion (A) : ELISA test is based on antigen-antibody
interactions where a pathogen can be
detected by the presence of antibodies
(proteins, glycoproteins, etc.) on it.
Reason (R) : The pathogen antibody to be identified
is immobilized on the surface of
specially constructed ELISA plates and
is then tested.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
528. Assertion (A) : Biotechnology produces transgenic
microorganisms that function as micro
factories for proteins.
Reason (R) : Transgenic microorganisms can be
developed to produce proteins of
human use like insulin.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
529. Assertion (A) : Organisations like GEAC are necessary
to monitor GM researches and to test
the safety of introducing GM organisms
for public services.
Reason (R) : GM researches can have unpredictable
results which even can be disastrous
when genetically modified organisms
are introduced into the ecosystem.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
530. Assertion (A) : Rice Tec’s patent of Basmati is an example
of bio piracy
Reason (R) : Rice Tec developed semi-dwarf varieties
of Basmati by using Indian Basmati rice
lines.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
2732 (Biology)—11-II
 83
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
Directions (Qs. 531 to 535): Read the following and answer
any four questions given below:
COVID-19 molecular diagnosis
Many diagnostic tests for coronavirus disease 2019
(COVID-19) are available so far. These tests are largely based
on two different techniques, 1) reverse transcription
polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) – the current standard
test for COVID-19, 2) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
(ELISA) – quick and technically simple assays that are easily
read and offer relatively high throughput. The application
of nucleic acid-based testing to disease diagnosis and
therapy at high accuracy and reduced cost offers
revolutionary progress in human and animal genomics and
this has altered the fundamental of medicine. Polymerase
Chain Reaction (PCR) is a revolutionary method developed
in 1983 by Kary Mullis. PCR has proved to be a valuable
method and remained the most frequently used molecular
technique in molecular pathology laboratories and it is an
extremely versatile technique for copying DNA with the aid
of DNA polymerase. PCR has variations such as reverse
transcription PCR (RT-PCR) for amplification of RNA and
quantitative PCR which allow for quantitative measurement
of DNA or RNA molecules. The Multiplex PCR (mPCR)
which is employed for the simultaneous identification of
several gene sequences belonging to the same pathogen or
originating from a mixture of different pathogens. Enzyme-
linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is a labelled immu-
noassay that is considered the gold standard of immunoassays.
This immunological test is very sensitive and is used to
detect and quantify substances, including antibodies,
antigens, proteins, glycoproteins, and hormones. The
detection of these products is accomplished by complexing
antibodies and antigens to produce a measurable result. An
antibody is a type of protein produced by an individual’s
immune system. This protein type has specific regions that
bind to antigens. An antigen is a protein that can come
from some foreign source and, when bound to an antibody,
induces a cascade of events through the body’s immune
system. This interaction is utilized in ELISA testing and
allows for identifying specific protein antibodies and
antigens, with only small amounts of a test sample. ELISA
testing is used to diagnose HIV infection, pregnancy tests,
and blood typing, among others.
531. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : PCR technique is helpful in detecting
bacterial and viral diseases even when
symptoms of the disease are not yet
visible.
Statement 2 : Very low concentrations of bacteria or
viruses in human body can be detected
by amplification of their nucleic acids
using the PCR technique.
A. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
B. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
C. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
532. For effective treatment of a disease
A. Early diagnosis is required but understanding of its
pathophysiology is not required
B. Early diagnosis is not required but understanding of
its pathophysiology is required
C. Early diagnosis and understanding of its
pathophysiology is required
D. Neither early diagnosis nor understanding of its
pathophysiology is required.
533. Early Covid -19 infection is detected by
A. ELISA B. RT-PCR
C. Probe D. All of the above
534. In RT- PCR, RT stand for
A. Removal of Transcriptase
B. Reverse Terminator
C. Reverse Transcription
D. All of the above
535. Assertion (A) : Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
(ELISA) is an immunological test.
Reason (R) : ELISA is based on Antigen and anti-
body interaction.
A. If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
C. If (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. If both (A) and (R) are false
Directions (Qs. 536 to 540): Read the following and answer
any four questions given below:
Bio pesticide–Bt Crops
The Bt is a short form of ubiquitous soil bacterium
Bacillus thuringiensis . This bacterium is gram positive and
spore forming that forms parasporal crystals during
stationary phase of its growth cycle. The synthesized
crystalline proteins called ‘endotoxins’ are highly toxic to
certain insects. They kill the insect by acting on the
epithelium tissues of midgut of caterpillars. These protein
often appear microscopically as distinctly shaped crystals
and constitute about 20-30% of dry weight of sporulated
cultures. These proteins are characterized by their
insecticidal activity and are therefore grouped into four
classes i.e. Lepidoptera-specific (Cry I), Lepidoptera and
Diptera-specific (Cry II), Coleopteran-specific (Cry III) and
Diptera-specific (Cry IV). Different strains of Bt produce
more than 25 different but related insecticidal crystal proteins
(ICPs). These are toxic to larvae of different insects including
 84

disease vectors and many agricultural pests. Cotton C. quantity of the reserpine produced
bollworms belong to the order Lepidoptera and therefore D. the potency of the reserpine produced
are sensitive to Bt Cry I and Cry II proteins, which are 543. Following are the examples of recent extinctions:
specific to them. Other beneficial insects are unaffected by (i) quagga (ii) thylacine
these proteins. About 22 classes of Cry including 126 Cry (iii) Nile perch (iv) Steller’s Sea Cow
genes have been isolated along with a Crt gene and 3 Vip A. (i), (ii) and (iii) B. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(Vegetative insecticidal protein) genes. The most popular C. (i), (ii) and (iv) D. (i), (iii) and (iv)
and effectively utilized are Cry I Ac, Cry I Ab in different
crops. 544. The most important cause of loss of biodiversity today
is ______
536. The genetically-modified (GM) cotton in India has been A. habitat loss and fragmentation
developed for B. over-exploitation
A. Insect-resistance C. alien species invasions
B. Enhancing shelf life D. co-extinctions
C. Enhancing mineral content
D. Drought-resistance. 545. In the below graph of Species-Area relationship, Z
represents
537. Bt toxin protein crystals present in bacterium Bacillus
thuringiensis , do not kill the bacteria themselves because
A. Bacteria are resistant to the toxin
B. Toxins occur as inactive protoxins in bacteria
C. Bacteria enclose toxins in a special sac
D. None of these
538. Cry II Ab and Cry I Ab produce toxins that control
A. Cotton bollworms and corn borer, respectively
B. Corn borer and cotton bollworms, respectively Showing species are relationship
C. Tobacco budworms and nematodes, respectively A. Area B. Regression coefficient
D. Nematodes and tobacco budworms, respectively. C. Species richness D. Y-intercept
539. Which of the following Cry gene is Lepidoptera and 546. The main difference between “Sixth Extinction” and the
Diptera-specific previous five extinctions is that the sixth extinction:
A. Cry I B. Cry II _____
C. Cry IV D. Cry III A. is mainly occurring on islands
540. Assertion (A) : Cry proteins are insect specific and B. is mainly affecting plants
crop specific. C. is occurring at a faster rate
Reason (R) : Cotton bollworms belong to the order D. does not involve human activities
Lepidoptera and therefore are sensitive 547. Which of the following is not a reason that accounts for
to Bt Cry I and Cry II proteins, greater biodiversity of tropics?
A. If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct A. availability of more solar energy
explanation of (A) B. more niche specialization
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct C. more time for species diversification
explanation of (A) D. large seasonal variations in environmental factors
C. If (A) is true, but (R) is false
548. The relation between species richness and area for a
D. If both (A) and (R) are false
wide variety of taxa on a logarithmic scale is a ______
541. One out of the following is not responsible for A. rectangular hyperbola
biodiversity loss ______. B. straight line
A. Alien species invasion C. sigmoid curve
B. Co-extinction D. sine curve
C. Ex-situ conservation 549. One of the ex situ conservation methods for endangered
D. Deforestation
species is ______
542. The medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria shows genetic A. wildlife sanctuaries
variation in terms of B. cryopreservation
A. its geographic distribution C. biosphere reserves
B. the taste of the reserpine produced D. national parks.
 85

550. Which of the following statements is not true about C. low levels of species richness and high degree of
biodiversity? endemism
A. The biodiversity decreases with the increasing D. high levels of species richness and high degree of
altitude. endemism
B. The biodiversity decreases with the increasing
latitude. 558. Which one of the following is not included under in situ
C. The fishes show greatest biodiversity among conservation?
vertebrates. A. National park
D. The biodiversity of bryophytes is greater than that of B. Botanical garden
angiosperms C. Sanctuary
D. Biosphere reserve
551. In India, we find mangoes with different flavours, colours,
fibre content, sugar content and even shelf-life. The large 559. The region of biosphere reserve, which is legally
variation is on account of ______ protected and where no human activity is allowed is
A. species diversity B. induced mutations known as ______
C. genetic diversity D. hybridisation. A. core zone B. buffer zone
552. What is applicable to both Lantana and Eicchornia? C. transition zone D. restoration zone
A. They are on the verge of extinction due to over- 560. Red data book provides data about ______
exploitation by humans. A. Extinct plants only
B. They are alien species that became invasive in certain B. Endangered animals only
environments causing threat to indigenous bio- C. Endangered plants and animals
diversity. D. Extinct plants and animals
C. They are mutualists and likely to undergo co-
extinction in recent future. 561. Assertion : In tropical rain forests, soil profile is
D. They are keystone species and are vital to the stability nutrient-rich.
of tropical ecosystems. Reason : Excessive growth of micro-organisms
in the soil depletes its organic content.
553. Which of the following is not an invasive species?
A. Nelumbo (lotus) A. (A) and the (R) are true and the (R) is a correct
B. Parthenium hysterophorus explanation of the (A)
C. Lantana camara B. (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not a correct
D. Eichhornia crassipes explanation of the (A)
C. (A) is true, but the (R) is false
554. Earth Summit at Rio-de-Janero was related to ______ D. (A) and (R) are false
A. Soil fertility
B. Survey of natural resources 562. Assertion (A) : Diversity observed in the entire
C. Conservation of biodiversity geographical area, is called Beta
D. Prevention of afforestation diversity.
555. Biosphere reserves differ from National Parks and Wildlife Reason (R) : Bio-diversity decreases from high
sanctuaries because in the former ______ altitude to low altitude.
A. human beings are not allowed to enter A. (A) and the (R) are true and the (R) is a correct
B. people are an integral part of the system explanation of the (A)
C. plants are paid greater attention than the animals B. (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not a correct
D. living organisms are brought from all over the world explanation of the (A)
and preserved for posterity C. (A) is true, but the (R) is false
D. (A) and (R) are false
556. Alexander von Humbolt described for the first time ______
A. Population growth equation 563. Assertion (A) : Communities that comprise of more
B. Law of limiting factor species tend to be more stable.
C. Ecological biodiversity Reason (R) : A higher number of species results in
D. Species area relationships less animal variation in total biomass.
557. The hot spots of biodiversity conservation are A. (A) and the (R) are true and the (R) is a correct
characterized by: explanation of the (A)
A. high levels of species richness and low degree of B. (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not a correct
endemism explanation of the (A)
B. low levels of species richness and high degree of C. (A) is true, but the (R) is false
endemism D. (A) and (R) are false
 86

564. Assertion (A) : Decrease in species diversity occurs as 565. Assertion (A) : A stable community should not show
we ascend a high mountain. too much variation in productivity from
Reason (R) : Decrease in species diversity occurs year to year.
with increase in altitude due to fall in Reason (R) : A stable community must be resistant
temperature. to invasions by the alien species.
A. (A) and the (R) are true and the (R) is a correct A. (A) and the (R) are true and the (R) is a correct
explanation of the (A) explanation of the (A)
B. (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not a correct B. (A) and (R) are true, but the (R) is not a correct
explanation of the (A) explanation of the (A)
C. (A) is true, but the (R) is false C. (A) is true, but the (R) is false
D. (A) and (R) are false D. (A) and (R) are false

ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D A C D D C C A C D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C B B A D D B B B A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C B C D A A C B D D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
B A B A A B B A D A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B A C A A D A A D B
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
D C C A A B C B A A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
B A A B A C C B A C
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
C A A C A C B C C A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A B A C C B D A A C
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
C B B A C B A D B D
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
D C D D B C D B C A
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
D B B C A C A B C C
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
B B B B D D C B B B
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
A C D B B D C A A C
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A D A B C C D A A C
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
B A B B B C B D C A
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
C D C D D D D D A A
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A C D A B A D D D D
 87

181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
B B A D B A B B B C
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
D C D D B C D A D C
201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210
A C B C A B D A D B
211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220
D B C A D D A C B A
221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230
C A A A C C A C C A
231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
A D B C C C C A C B
241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250
B D A C D A C A A B
251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260
A A B C A B A B C C
261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270
C B A C A A A C C D
271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280
C C C D C A B D A A
281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290
A B C A A B B B A B
291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300
B A B A C C C C B B
301 302 303 304 305 306 307 308 309 310
B A A D C D B D A C
311 312 313 314 315 316 317 318 319 320
D C D B C B D C B D
321 322 323 324 325 326 327 328 329 330
A B A C A B A D A D
331 332 333 334 335 336 337 338 339 340
A C B B A C D A D A
341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350
B D A, D B B A A C D C
351 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360
D A A D A A D D C C
361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370
C A A B A C C D B A
371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380
C B C B C D B B A A
381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390
D C B A B C A A B C
391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400
B B C C D C A A A A
401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410
A B A D C D B B A B
411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420
A D B C A D D D A A
 88

421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430
C A B A A D D B C D
431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440
D D D B B D C A A D
441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450
B B A A B B A A A D
451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460
B C A A B C B B A B
461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469 470
B A C A C B D C A B
471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480
D A D A B B D B D D
481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490
A D A D D C A C A B
491 492 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500
B C B C D A C C D C
501 502 503 504 505 506 507 508 509 510
C D D C C D D A C C
511 512 513 514 515 516 517 518 519 520
B C D B C A B D D D
521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530
C D C C B B D B A A
531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540
A C B C A A B A B A
541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550
C D C A B C D B B D
551 552 553 554 555 556 557 558 559 560
C B A C B D D B A C
561 562 563 564 565
C D C A B

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