NEET 2021 -2022

Timing- 3 Hrs MM - 720

Ins: - 1- This question Booklet contains three parts A, B & C Part ‘A’ Physics, Part ‘B’ Chemistry and Part ‘C’ Biology

2- This question Booklet contains 200 questions. You have to attempt only 180 questions. 45 questions from

Physics, 45 from Chemistry and 90 from Biology.

3- Each correct answer provides you + 4 marks and wrong give you -1 mark.

PHYSICS- Part A
𝒅𝒙 𝒙
Q.1- ∫ = 𝒂𝒏 𝐬𝐢𝐧−𝟏 [ − 𝟏] the value of 𝒏
√𝟐𝒂𝒙− 𝒙𝟐 𝒂

(a) 0 (b) – 𝟏

(b) 1 (d) none of these

Q.2 – A car accelerates on a horizontal road due to the force exerted by

(a) the engine of the car (b) the drive of the car

(c) the earth (d) the road

Q.3- Consider the situation shown in figure The wall is smooth but the surfaces of 𝑨 and 𝑩 in contact are rough.

The friction on 𝑩 due to 𝑨 in equilibrium

A B F

(a) is upward (b) is downward

(b) is zero (d) the system cannot remain in equilibrium

Q.4- A car moves at a constant speed on a road as shown in figure. The normal force by the road on the car is 𝑵𝑨 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑵𝑩
When it is at the points 𝑨 and 𝑩 respectively 𝐀 𝐁
 (a) 𝑵𝑨 = 𝑵𝑩 (b) 𝑵𝑨 > 𝑵𝑩

(b) 𝑵𝑨 < 𝑵𝑩 (d) insufficient information to decide the relation of 𝑵𝑨 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑵𝑩

Q.5- A particle is rotated in a vertical circle by connecting it to a string of length 𝒍 and keeping the other end of the string fixed.

The minimum speed of the particle when the string is horizontal for which the particle will complete the circle is

(a) √𝒈𝒍 (b) √𝟐𝒈𝒍

(b) √𝟑𝒈𝒍 (d) √𝟓𝒈𝒍

𝒑𝑽
Q.6- The quantity 𝒌𝑻 represents

(a) Mass of the gas

(b) Kinetic energy of the gas

(c) Number of the moles of the gas

(d) Number of molecules in the gas

Q.7- 𝐀 vessel 𝑨 has volume 𝑽 and a vessel 𝑩 has volume 2V both contain some water which has a constant volume.

The pressure in the space above water in 𝑷𝒂 for vessel 𝑨 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑷𝒃 for vessel 𝑩

(a) 𝑷𝒂 = 𝑷𝒃 (b) 𝑷𝒂 = 𝟐𝑷𝒃

(b) 𝑷𝒃 = 𝟐𝑷𝒂 (d) 𝑷𝒃 = 𝟒𝑷𝒂

Q.8- Water equivalent of a body is measured in

(a) 𝐊𝐠 (b) 𝐜𝐚𝐥𝐨𝐫𝐢𝐞

(b) 𝐤𝐞𝐥𝐯𝐢𝐧 (d) 𝐦𝟑

Q.9- Shows two processes A and B on a system. Let ∆𝑸𝟏 𝒂𝒏𝒅 ∆𝑸𝟐 be the heat given to the system in process A and B

Respectively. Then P

(a) ∆𝑸𝟏 > ∆𝑸𝟐 (b) ∆𝑸𝟏 = ∆𝑸𝟐

(b) ∆𝑸𝟏 < ∆𝑸𝟐 (d) ∆𝑸𝟏 ≤ ∆𝑸𝟐

Q.10- Refer to figure let ∆𝑼𝟏 𝒂𝒏𝒅 ∆𝑼𝟐 be the changes in internal energy of the system in the processes 𝑨 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑩 then
 (a) ∆𝑼𝟏 > ∆𝑼𝟐 (b) ∆𝑼𝟏 = ∆𝑼𝟐

(b) ∆𝑼𝟏 < ∆𝑼𝟐 (d) ∆𝑼𝟏 ≠ ∆𝑼𝟐

Q.11- One end of a metal rod is kept in a furnace. In steady state, the temperature of the rod

(a) 𝐢𝐧𝐜𝐫𝐞𝐚𝐬𝐞𝐬 (b) 𝐝𝐞𝐜𝐫𝐞𝐚𝐬𝐞𝐬

(b) 𝐫𝐞𝐦𝐚𝐢𝐧𝐬 𝐜𝐨𝐧𝐬𝐭𝐚𝐧𝐭 (d) 𝐢𝐬 𝐧𝐨𝐧𝐮𝐢𝐟𝐨𝐫𝐦

Q.12- Figure shows some of the electric field lines corresponding to an electric field. The figure suggests that

A B C

(a) 𝐄𝑨 > 𝐄𝑩 > 𝐄𝑪 (b) 𝐄𝑨 = 𝐄𝑩 = 𝐄𝑪

(b) 𝐄𝑨 = 𝐄𝑪 > 𝐄𝑩 (d) 𝐄𝑨 = 𝐄𝑪 < 𝐄𝑩

Q.13- Consider the situation of figure the work done in taking a point charge from P to A is 𝑾𝑨, from 𝑷 to 𝑩 is 𝑾𝑩 and

From 𝑷 to 𝑪 is 𝑾𝑪.

(a) 𝐖𝑨 < 𝐖𝑩 < 𝐄𝑪 C q A p (b) 𝐖𝑨 > 𝐖𝑩 > 𝐖𝑪

(b) 𝐖𝑨 = 𝐖𝑩 = 𝐖𝑪 (d) 𝐧𝐨𝐧𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐭𝐡𝐞𝐬𝐞

Q.14-When the separation between two charges is increased, the electric potential energy of the charges

(a) 𝐢𝐧𝐜𝐫𝐞𝐚𝐬𝐞𝐬 (b) 𝐝𝐞𝐜𝐫𝐞𝐚𝐬𝐞𝐬

(c) Remains the same (d) may increases or decreases

Q.15- A dielectric slab is inserted between the plates of an isolated capacitor. The force between the plates will

(a) 𝐢𝐧𝐜𝐫𝐞𝐚𝐬𝐞𝐬 (b) 𝐝𝐞𝐜𝐫𝐞𝐚𝐬𝐞𝐬

(b) 𝐫𝐞𝐦𝐚𝐢𝐧𝐬 𝐮𝐧𝐜𝐡𝐚𝐧𝐠𝐞𝐝 (d) 𝐛𝐞𝐜𝐨𝐦𝐞 𝐳𝐞𝐫𝐨

Q.16- The net resistance of a voltmeter should be large to ensure that

(a) it does not get overheated

(b) it does not draw excessive current

(c) it can measure large potential differences

(d) it does not appreciably change the potential difference to be measured.

 Q.17- Two resistors 𝑨 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑩 have resistance 𝑹𝑨 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝑹𝑩 respectively with 𝑹𝑨 < 𝑹𝑩 The resistivities of their materials are

𝝆𝑨 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝝆𝑩

(a) 𝝆𝑨 > 𝝆𝑩

(b) 𝝆𝑨 = 𝝆𝑩

(c) 𝝆𝑨 < 𝝆𝑩

(d) the information is not sufficient to find relation between 𝝆𝑨 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝝆𝑩

̂ is perpendicular to the vector 4𝒋̂ − 𝟒𝒊̂ + 𝜶 𝒌,

Q.18- If a vector 𝟐𝒊̂ + 𝟑𝒋̂ + 𝟖𝒌 ̂ then the value of 𝜶 is

(a) 𝟏⁄𝟐 (b) −𝟏⁄𝟐

(b) 𝟏 (d) −𝟏

Q.19- The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are 𝒙 = 𝟓𝒕 − 𝟐𝒕𝟐 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝒚 = 𝟏𝟎𝒕 respectively, where 𝒙 and 𝒚 are in

Meters and 𝒕 in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at 𝒕 = 𝟐𝒔 is.

(a) 𝟓 𝐦/𝒔𝟐 (b) −𝟒 𝒎/𝒔𝟐

(b) −𝟖 𝒎/𝒔𝟐 (d) 𝟎

Q.20- A boat is sent across a river with a velocity of 𝟖 𝐤𝐦 𝐡−𝟏 If the resultant velocity of boat is 10 𝐤𝐦 𝐡−𝟏 , then the velocity

Of the river is

(a) 𝟏𝟐. 𝟖 𝐤𝐦 𝒉−𝟏 (b) 𝟔 𝒌𝒎 𝒉−𝟏

(b) −𝟖 𝒌𝒎 𝒉−𝟏 (d) 𝟏𝟎 𝐤𝐦 𝐡−𝟏

Q.21- The force ‘F’ acting on a particle of mass ‘m’ is indicated by the force-time graph shown below. The change in momentum

Of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8 s is:

0 2 4 6 8 t(s)

-3

(a) 𝟐𝟒 𝐍𝐬 (b) 𝟐𝟎 𝐍𝐬

(b) 𝟏𝟐 𝐍𝐬 (d) 𝟔 𝐍𝐬
Q.22- A satellite in a force free space sweeps stationary interplanetary dust at a rate (dM/dt)= 𝜶 𝒗 . the acceleration of satellite is

−𝟐𝛂𝒗𝟐 −𝜶𝒗𝟐
(a) 𝑴
(b) 𝑴

−𝛂𝒗𝟐
(b) 𝟐𝑴
(d) −𝛂𝒗𝟐

Q.23- A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most likely to break when.

(a) The mass is at the highest point

(b) The wire is horizontal

(c) The mass is at the lowest point

(d) Inclined at an angle of 𝟔𝟎𝟎 from vertical

Q.24- A force F = 20 + 10𝒚 acts on particle in y- direction where F is in newton and y in meter. Work done by this force to move

The particle from 𝒚 = 𝟎 𝒕𝒐 𝒚 = 𝟏 𝒎 is

(a) 𝟑𝟎 𝐉 (b) 𝟓 𝐉

(b) 𝟐𝟓 𝐉 (d) 𝟐𝟎 𝐉

Q.25- If the kinetic energy of a particle is increasing 300% the momentum of the particle will increase by

(a) 𝟐𝟎% (b) 𝟐𝟎𝟎%

(b) 𝟏𝟎𝟎 % (d) 𝟓𝟎%

Q.26- Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate o 15 kg /s to operate a turbine. The losses due to to frictional force are 10%

Of the input energy. How much power is generated by the turbine? G = 10 m/𝒔𝟐

(a) 𝟕. 𝟎 𝐤𝐖 (b) 𝟏𝟎. 𝟐 𝒌𝑾

(b) 𝟖. 𝟏 𝒌𝑾 (d) 𝟏𝟐. 𝟑 𝐤𝐖

Q.27- In an experiment of simple pendulum, the errors in the measurement of length of the pendulum (L) and time period (T)
𝑳
Are 3% v and 2% respectively? The maximum percentage errors in the value of 𝑻𝟐 is

(a) 𝟓 % (b) 𝟕 %

(b) 𝟖 % (d) 𝟏 %
∆𝑽
Q.28- A quantity X is given by ∈𝟎 𝑳 ∆𝒕 where ∈𝟎 is permittivity of free space, L is a length. ∆𝑽 is a potential difference and ∆𝒕

Is a time interval. The dimensional formula for X is the same as that of

(a) 𝐫𝐞𝐬𝐢𝐬𝐭𝐚𝐧𝐜𝐞 (b) 𝐜𝐡𝐚𝐫𝐠𝐞

(b) 𝐯𝐨𝐥𝐭𝐚𝐠𝐞 (d) 𝐜𝐮𝐫𝐫𝐞𝐧𝐭

Q.29- The displacement 𝒙 of a body varies with time 𝒕 as
𝟏 𝟐
𝒙= 𝟑
𝒕 + 𝟏𝟔𝒕 + 𝟑

Where x is in metres and t is in seconds the time taken by the body to come to rest is

(a) 𝟏𝟐 𝐬 (b) 𝟐𝟒 𝒔

(b) 𝟑𝟎 𝐬 (d) 𝟑𝟔 𝐬

Q.30- A bullet loses 1/20 of its velocity in passing through a plank. The least number of planks required to stop the bullet is

(a) 𝟐𝟎 (b) 𝟐𝟏

(b) 𝟏𝟎 (d) 𝟏𝟏

Q.31- The height 𝒚 and the horizontal distance 𝒙 of a projectile on a certain planet are given by 𝒚 = 𝟖𝒕 − 𝟓𝒕𝟐 and 𝒙 = 𝟔𝒕 metres

Where 𝒕 is in seconds. The velocity of projection is

(a) 𝟔 𝐦/𝐬 (b) 𝟖 𝐦/𝐬

(b) 𝟏𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 (d) 𝐧𝐨𝐭 𝐨𝐛𝐭𝐚𝐢𝐧𝐚𝐛𝐥𝐞 𝐟𝐫𝐨𝐦 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐝𝐚𝐭𝐚

Q.32- An insect crawls up a hemispherical surface very slowly the coefficient of friction between the insect and the surface is

1/3. If the line joining the center of the hemispherical surface to the insect makes an angle 𝜶 with the vertical, the maximum

Possible value of 𝜶 is given by

(a) 𝐜𝐨𝐭 𝛂 = 𝟑 (b) 𝐭𝐚𝐧 𝛂 = 𝟑

(b) 𝐬𝐞𝐜 𝛂 = 𝟑 (d) 𝐜𝐨𝐬𝐞𝐜 𝛂 = 𝟑

Q.33- Two masses of 1 g and 4 g are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes of their linear momenta is

(a) 𝟒 ∶ 𝟏 (b) √𝟐 ∶ 𝟏

(b) 𝟏 ∶ 𝟐 (d) 𝟏 ∶ 𝟏𝟔

Q.34-A bullet when fired at a fixed target, has its velocity decreased to 50% after penetrating 30 cm into it the additional thickness

It will penetrate before coming to rest is

(a) 𝟏𝟎 𝐜𝐦 (b) 𝟏𝟓 𝐜𝐦

(b) 𝟐𝟎 𝐜𝐦 (d) 𝟑𝟎 𝐜𝐦
 Q.35- A body is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering constant power the distance moved by the body in time 𝒕

Is proportional to

(a) 𝐭 𝟏/𝟐 (b) 𝐭 𝟑/𝟒

(b) 𝐭 𝟑/𝟐 (d) 𝐭 𝟐

Q.36- A rope of rubber of density 𝟏. 𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎𝟑 𝐤𝐠/𝐦𝟑 and young’s modulud 𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎𝟔 𝐤𝐠/𝐦𝟐 𝟖𝐦 in length, is hung from the ceiling

Of a room. The increase in length due to its own weight is

(a) 𝟗. 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟐 𝐦 (b) 𝟏𝟗. 𝟐 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟕 𝐦

(b) 𝟗. 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑 𝐦 (d) 𝟗. 𝟔 𝐦

Q.37- A small drops having radii in the ratio 1 : 2 fall from a great height through the atmosphere their momenta on reaching the

Are in the ratio

(a) 𝟏 ∶ 𝟒 (b) 𝟏 ∶ 𝟖

(b) 𝟏 ∶ 𝟏𝟔 (d) 𝟏 ∶ 𝟑𝟐

Q.38- 27 identical drops of water are falling down vertically in air reach with a terminal velocity 𝟎. 𝟏𝟓 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 if they combine to

From a single bigger drop, what will be its terminal velocity?

(a) 𝟎. 𝟑 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 (b) 𝟏. 𝟑𝟓 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 (b) 𝟎 . 𝟒𝟓𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 (d) 𝟎 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 (e) 𝟎. 𝟗𝟓 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏

Q.39- If the surface tension of water is 𝟎 . 𝟎𝟓𝐍𝐦−𝟏 then the capillary rise in a tube of diameter 1 mm is (angle of contact = 00)

(a) 𝟏. 𝟐𝟐 𝐜𝐦 (b) 𝟐. 𝟒𝟒 𝐜𝐦

(b) 𝟑. 𝟏𝟐 𝐜𝐦 (d) 𝟑. 𝟖𝟔 𝐜𝐦

Q.40- A mercury drop of radius 1 cm is sprayed into 𝟏𝟎𝟔 drops of equal size the energy expended in joules is (surface tension of

Mercury is × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑 𝐍/𝐦 )

(a) 𝟎. 𝟎𝟓𝟕 (b) 𝟓. 𝟕

(b) 𝟓. 𝟕 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟒 (d) 𝟓. 𝟕 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟔

Q.41- If the temperature of a patient is 𝟒𝟎𝟎 𝐂 his temperature on the Fahrenheit scale will be

(a) 𝟕𝟐𝟎 𝐅 (b) 𝟗𝟔𝟎 𝐅

(b) 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐂 (d) 𝟏𝟎𝟒𝟎 𝐂

Q.42- The temperature, of a gas is measured with a

(a) Platinum resistance thermometer (b) Pyrometer

(c) gas thermometer (d) vapour pressure thermometer

Q.43- An ideal gas at 𝟐𝟕𝟎 𝑪 is compressed adiabatically to 𝟖/𝟐𝟕 of its original volume if 𝛄 = 𝟓/𝟑, then the rise in temperature is

(a) 𝟒𝟓𝟎𝟎 𝐂 (b) 𝟑𝟕𝟓𝟎 𝐂

(b) 𝟐𝟐𝟓𝟎 𝐂 (d) 𝟒𝟎𝟓𝟎 𝐂

Q.44- In which of the following processes, the internal energy of a system remains constant?

(a) 𝐚𝐝𝐢𝐚𝐛𝐚𝐭𝐢𝐜 (b) 𝐢𝐬𝐨𝐜𝐡𝐥𝐨𝐫𝐢𝐜

(b) 𝐢𝐬𝐨𝐭𝐡𝐞𝐫𝐦𝐚𝐥 (d) 𝐢𝐬𝐨𝐛𝐚𝐫𝐢𝐜

Q.45- Relation between the colour and the temperature of a star is given by

(a) 𝐖𝐢𝐞𝐧′ 𝐬 𝐃𝐢𝐬𝐩𝐥𝐚𝐜𝐞𝐦𝐞𝐧𝐭 𝐋𝐚𝐰 (b) 𝐏𝐥𝐚𝐧𝐤 ′ 𝐬 𝐋𝐚𝐰

(b) 𝐇𝐮𝐛𝐛𝐥𝐞′ 𝐬 𝐋𝐚𝐰 (d) 𝐇𝐢𝐩𝐩𝐚𝐜𝐫𝐮𝐬 𝐑𝐮𝐥𝐞

(e) 𝐅𝐫𝐚𝐮𝐧𝐡𝐨𝐟𝐞𝐫 𝐃𝐢𝐟𝐟𝐫𝐚𝐜𝐭𝐢𝐨𝐧 𝐋𝐚𝐰

Q.46- The value of 𝑪𝒗 for one mole of neon gas is

(a) (𝟏⁄𝟐)𝑹 (b) (𝟑⁄𝟐)𝑹

(b) (𝟓⁄𝟐)𝑹 (d) (𝟕⁄𝟐)𝑹

Q.47- A body cools in 7 minutes from 600 C to 400 C what time in minutes does it take to cool from 400 C to 280C if the surrounding

Temperature is 100C? Assume Newton’s Law of cooling

Q.48- The dimension of (1/2) 𝜺𝟎 𝑬𝟐 (𝜺𝟎 permittivity of free space; E electric field) is

(a) 𝑴𝒍𝒕−𝟏 (b) 𝑴𝒍𝒕−𝟏 𝑻−𝟐

(b) 𝑴𝒍𝒕−𝟐 (d) 𝑴𝒍𝒕−𝟏 𝑻−𝟏

Q.49- Kirchhoff’s two laws for electrical circuits are manifestations of the conservation of

(a) 𝒄𝒉𝒂𝒓𝒈𝒆 𝒐𝒏𝒍𝒚 (b) 𝒃𝒐𝒕𝒉 𝒆𝒏𝒆𝒓𝒈𝒚 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝒎𝒐𝒎𝒆𝒏𝒕𝒖𝒎

(b) 𝒆𝒏𝒆𝒓𝒈𝒚 𝒐𝒏𝒍𝒚 (d) 𝒃𝒐𝒕𝒉 𝒄𝒉𝒂𝒓𝒈𝒆 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝒆𝒏𝒆𝒓𝒈𝒚

Q.50- A cell of emf of 2.0 v and internal resistance 0.1 Ω is connected with a resistance of 3.9 ohm The voltage across the cell

Terminals will be

(a) 𝟎. 𝟓 𝑽 (b) 𝟏. 𝟗𝟎 𝑽

(b) 𝟏. 𝟗𝟓 𝑽 (d) 𝟐. 𝟎𝟎 𝑽
 PART- B CHEMISTRY
Q.51- Which of the following structure I most stable?

F F F

CL F Cl Cl F

F F F

1 2 3

Choose the correct option

(a) 𝐎𝐧𝐥𝐲 𝟏 (b) 𝐎𝐧𝐥𝐲 𝟐

(b) 𝐎𝐧𝐥𝐲 𝟑 (d) 𝐀𝐥𝐥 𝐭𝐡𝐫𝐞𝐞 𝐡𝐚𝐯𝐞 𝐬𝐚𝐦𝐞 𝐬𝐭𝐚𝐛𝐢𝐥𝐢𝐭𝐲

Q.52 - Which of the following will have 𝐬𝐩𝟑 𝐝𝟑 hydridisation

(a) 𝐁𝐫𝐅𝟓 (b) 𝐏𝐂𝐥𝟓

(c) 𝐗𝐞𝐅𝟔 (d) 𝐒𝐅𝟔

Q.53 - Pick out the in correct statement from the following

(a) sp hybrid orbitals are equivalent and are at an angle of 1800 with each other

(b) sp2 hybrid orbitals are equivalent and bond angle between any two of them is 1200

(c) sp3d2 hybrid orbitals are equivalent and are oriented towards corners of a regular octahedron

(d) sp3d3 hybrid orbitals are not equivalent

Q.54- Which of the following does not exist on the basis of molecular orbital theory?

(a) 𝐇𝟐+ (b) 𝐇𝐞+

𝟐

(c) 𝐇𝐞𝟐 (d) 𝐋𝐢𝟐

Q.55- Which of the following are correctly classified

(a) Intermolecular (b) Intramolecular

(c) H- bonding (d) H- bonding

(a) HF H2O
 (b) CH3OH HF
(c) H2O O - nitrophenol
(d) HF P - nirophenol

Q.56- Which one of the following alkenes will react faster with H2 under catalytic hydrogenation conditions (R= Alkyl substituent)

(a) R H (b) R R

R H R R

(c) R R (d) R R

R H R H

Q.57- predict the product C obtained in the following 𝐈

(a) 𝐂𝐇𝟑 𝐂𝐇 𝐂𝐇𝟐 𝐂𝐇𝟐 𝐥 (b) 𝐂𝐇𝟑 𝐂𝐇𝟐 𝐂𝐇𝟐 𝐂 𝐇

𝐂𝐋 𝐈 𝐈 𝐂𝐋

(c) 𝐂𝐇𝟑 𝐂𝐇𝟐 𝐂𝐇 𝐂𝐇𝟐 𝐂𝐥 (d) 𝐂𝐇𝟑 𝐂𝐇𝟐 𝐂 𝐂𝐇𝟑

𝐂𝐋

Q.58- Which of the following compounds with molecular formula, 𝐂𝟓 𝐇𝟏𝟎 yields acetone on ozonolysis?

(a) 𝟐 − 𝐦𝐞𝐭𝐡𝐲𝐥 − 𝟐 − 𝐛𝐮𝐭𝐞𝐧𝐞 (b) 𝟑 − 𝐦𝐞𝐭𝐡𝐲𝐥 − 𝟏 − 𝐛𝐮𝐭𝐞𝐧𝐞

(c) 𝐂𝐲𝐜𝐥𝐨𝐩𝐞𝐧𝐭𝐚𝐧𝐞 (d) 𝟐 − 𝐦𝐞𝐭𝐡𝐲𝐥 − 𝟏 𝐛𝐮𝐭𝐞𝐧𝐞

Q.59- Benzene reacts with 𝐂𝐇𝟑 𝐂𝐥 in the presence of anhydrous 𝐀𝐥𝐂𝐥𝟑 to form
(a) 𝐭𝐨𝐥𝐮𝐞𝐧𝐞 (b) 𝐜𝐡𝐥𝐨𝐫𝐨𝐛𝐞𝐧𝐳𝐞𝐧𝐞
(c) 𝐛𝐞𝐧𝐳𝐲𝐥𝐜𝐡𝐥𝐨𝐫𝐢𝐝𝐞 (d) 𝐱𝐲𝐥𝐞𝐧𝐞
Q.60- 𝑯𝟑 𝑪 𝐂𝐇 𝐂𝐇 = 𝐂𝐇𝟐 + 𝐇𝐁𝐫 𝑨

𝐂𝐇𝟑

𝑨 (Predominantly) is 𝐁𝐫

(a) 𝐂𝐇𝟑 𝐂𝐇 𝐂𝐇𝟐 𝐂𝐇𝟐 𝐁𝐫 (b) 𝐂𝐇𝟑 𝐂 𝐂𝐇𝟐 𝐂𝐇𝟑

𝐂𝐇𝟑 𝐂𝐇𝟑

(C) 𝐂𝐇𝟑 𝐂𝐇 𝐂𝐇 𝐂𝐇𝟑 (d) 𝐂𝐇𝟑 𝐂𝐇 𝐂𝐇 𝐂𝐇𝟑

𝐁𝐫 𝐂𝐇𝟑 𝐂𝐇𝟑 𝐁𝐫
 Q.61- Which out of A, B , C and D is /are not correctly categorized.

Nucleophile Electrophile

A 𝐇𝐒 − 𝐂𝐥+

B 𝐁𝐅𝟑 (𝐂𝐇𝟑 )𝟑 𝐍

C 𝐇𝟐 𝐍 − −𝐂 = 𝟎

D 𝐑 𝟑𝐂 − 𝐗 𝐂𝟐 𝐇𝟓 𝐎−

(X = halogen)

(a) 𝐁, 𝐂 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝐃 (b) 𝐂 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝐃

(c) 𝐂 𝐨𝐧𝐥𝐲 (d) 𝐁 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝐃
Q.62-The polarity is produced in the molecule by the interaction of two π – bonds or between a π – bond and lone pair of
Electrons present o an adjacent atom. The above statement is true for which of the following.
(a) 𝐢𝐧𝐝𝐮𝐜𝐭𝐢𝐯𝐞 𝐞𝐟𝐟𝐞𝐜𝐭 (b) 𝐭𝐞𝐦𝐩𝐨𝐫𝐚𝐫𝐲 𝐞𝐟𝐟𝐞𝐜𝐭
(c) 𝐑𝐞𝐬𝐨𝐧𝐚𝐧𝐜𝐞 𝐞𝐟𝐟𝐞𝐜𝐭 (d) 𝐇𝐲𝐩𝐞𝐫𝐜𝐨𝐧𝐣𝐮𝐜𝐭𝐢𝐨𝐧
Q.63- Hyper conjugation is most useful for stabilizing which of the following carbocation’s?
(a) 𝐧𝐞𝐨 − 𝐩𝐞𝐧𝐭𝐲𝐥 (b) 𝐭𝐞𝐫𝐭 − 𝐛𝐮𝐭𝐲𝐥
(c) 𝐢𝐬𝐨 − 𝐩𝐫𝐨𝐩𝐲𝐥 (d) 𝐄𝐭𝐡𝐲𝐥

Q.64- Which of the following is an example of elimination reaction?

(a) 𝐂𝐡𝐥𝐨𝐫𝐢𝐧𝐚𝐭𝐢𝐨𝐧 𝐨𝐟 𝐦𝐞𝐭𝐡𝐚𝐧𝐞 (b) 𝐃𝐞𝐡𝐲𝐝𝐫𝐚𝐭𝐢𝐨𝐧 𝐨𝐟 𝐞𝐭𝐡𝐚𝐧𝐨𝐥

(c) 𝐍𝐢𝐭𝐫𝐚𝐭𝐢𝐨𝐧 𝐨𝐟 𝐛𝐞𝐧𝐳𝐞𝐧𝐞 (d) 𝐇𝐲𝐝𝐫𝐨𝐱𝐲𝐥𝐚𝐭𝐢𝐨𝐧 𝐨𝐟 𝐞𝐭𝐡𝐲𝐥𝐞𝐧𝐞

Q.65- 𝐂𝐇𝟑 − 𝐁𝐫 + 𝐍𝐇𝟑 → 𝐂𝐇𝟑 − 𝐍𝐇𝟐 + 𝐇𝐁𝐫 The above reaction is classified as

(a) 𝐬𝐮𝐛𝐬𝐭𝐢𝐭𝐮𝐭𝐢𝐨𝐧 (b) 𝐚𝐝𝐝𝐢𝐭𝐢𝐨𝐧

(c) 𝐞𝐥𝐢𝐦𝐢𝐧𝐚𝐭𝐢𝐨𝐧 (d) 𝐫𝐞𝐚𝐫𝐫𝐚𝐧𝐠𝐞𝐦𝐞𝐧𝐭

Q.66- Which one is formed when sodium phenoxide is heated with ethyl iodide?

(a) 𝐩𝐡𝐞𝐧𝐞𝐭𝐨𝐥𝐞 (b) 𝐄𝐭𝐡𝐲𝐥 𝐩𝐡𝐞𝐧𝐲𝐥 𝐚𝐥𝐜𝐨𝐡𝐨𝐥

(c) 𝐏𝐡𝐞𝐧𝐨𝐥 (d) 𝐍𝐨𝐧𝐞 𝐨𝐟 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐚𝐛𝐨𝐯𝐞

Q.67- How many isomers of 𝐂𝟓 𝐇𝟏𝟏 𝐎𝐇 will be primary alcohols ?

(a) 𝟓 (b) 𝟒
(c) 𝟐 (d) 𝟑

Q.68- Which of the following is responsible for depletion of the Ozone layer in the upper strata of the atmosphere
 (a) 𝐏𝐨𝐥𝐲𝐡𝐚𝐥𝐨𝐠𝐞𝐧𝐬 (b) 𝐅𝐞𝐫𝐫𝐨𝐜𝐞𝐧𝐞𝐬
(c) 𝐅𝐮𝐥𝐥𝐞𝐫𝐞𝐧𝐞𝐬 (d) 𝐅𝐫𝐞𝐨𝐧𝐬

Q.69- The enzyme which hydrolyses triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol, is called

(a) 𝐦𝐚𝐥𝐭𝐚𝐬𝐞 (b) 𝐥𝐢𝐩𝐚𝐬𝐞

(c) 𝐳𝐲𝐦𝐚𝐬𝐞 (d) 𝐩𝐞𝐩𝐬𝐢𝐧

Q.70- The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanols is

(a) 𝐂𝒏 𝑯𝟐𝒏 𝑶𝟐 (b) 𝑪𝒏 𝑯𝟐𝒏 𝑶

(c) 𝐂𝒏 𝑯𝟐𝒏+𝟏𝑶 (d) 𝐂𝒏 𝑯𝟐𝒏+𝟐𝑶

Q.71- The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H yet the dipole moment of (𝑵𝑯𝟑 )

1.5 D is larger than that of NF3 (0.2 D) this is because

(a) In NH3 as well as in NF3 in the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction.
(b) In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction whereas in NF3 these are in opposite directions
(c) In NH3 as well as NF3 , the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in opposite directions
(d) In Nh3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the opposite directions whereas in NF3, these are in the same directions

Q.72- Which of the following is not a correct statement?

(a) The electron-deficient molecules can act as Lewis acids

(b) The canonical structures have no real existence.

(c) Every AB5 molecule does infact have square pyramid structure.

(d) Multiple bonds are always shorter than corresponding single bonds.

Q.73- The correct order of C-O bond length among CO, 𝑪𝑶𝟐−
𝟑 , 𝑪𝑶𝟐 is

(a) 𝐂𝐎𝟐 < 𝑪𝑶𝟐−

𝟑 < 𝑪𝑶 (b) 𝑪𝑶 < 𝑪𝑶𝟐−
𝟑 < 𝑪𝑶𝟐

(c) 𝑪𝑶𝟐−
𝟑 < 𝑪𝑶𝟐 < 𝑪𝑶 (d) 𝑪𝑶 < 𝑪𝑶𝟐 < 𝑪𝑶𝟐−
𝟑

Q.74- In the case of alkali metals, the covalent character decreases in the order
(a) 𝑴𝑪𝒍 > 𝑴𝑰 > 𝑴𝑩𝒓 > 𝑴𝑭 (b) 𝑴𝑭 > 𝑴𝑪𝑰 > 𝑴𝑩𝒓 > 𝑴𝑰
(c) 𝑴𝑭 > 𝑴𝑪𝑰 > 𝑴𝑰 > 𝑴𝑩𝒓 (d) 𝑴𝑰 > 𝑴𝑩𝒓 > 𝑴𝑪𝑰 > 𝑴𝑭
Q.80- What is the dominant intermolecular force on bond that must be overcome in converting liquid CH3OH to a gas?

(a) 𝐇𝐲𝐝𝐫𝐨𝐠𝐞𝐧 𝐛𝐨𝐧𝐝𝐢𝐧𝐠 (b) 𝑫𝒊𝒑𝒐𝒍𝒆 − 𝒅𝒊𝒑𝒐𝒍𝒆 𝒊𝒏𝒕𝒆𝒓𝒂𝒄𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏

(c) 𝐂𝐨𝐯𝐚𝐥𝐞𝐧𝐭 𝒃𝒐𝒏𝒅𝒔 (d) 𝐋𝐨𝐧𝐝𝐨𝐧 𝐝𝐢𝐬𝐩𝐞𝐫𝐬𝐢𝐨𝐧 𝐟𝐨𝐫𝐜𝐞

Q.81- The mole fraction of the solute in one molal aqueous solution is

(a) 𝟎. 𝟎𝟐𝟕 (b) 𝟎. 𝟎𝟑𝟔

(c) 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟖 (d) 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟗
Q.82- A solution containing 10g per dm3 of urea (molecular mass = 60 g mol-1) is isotonic with a 5% solution of a non- volatile

Solute is

(a) 𝟐𝟓𝟎 𝐠 𝒎𝒐𝒍−𝟏 (b) 𝟑𝟎𝟎 𝒈 𝒎𝒐𝒍−𝟏

(c) 𝟑𝟓𝟎 𝒈 𝒎𝒐𝒍−𝟏 (d) 𝟐𝟎𝟎 𝒈 𝒎𝒐𝒍−𝟏

Q.83- A solution of acetone in ethanol

(a) Shows a negative deviation from raoult’s law

(b) Shows a positive deviation from Roult’s law

(c) Behaves like a near ideal solution

(d) Obeys Roult’s law

Q.84- During osmosis, flow of water through a semi- permeable membrane is

(a) From solution having higher concentration only

(b) From both sides of semi-permeable membrane with equal flow rates

(c) From both sides of semi-permeable membrane with unequal flow rates

(d) ) from solution having lower concentration only

Q.85- A 0.0020 m aqueous solution an ionic compound Co (NH3)5 (NO2) Cl freezes at -0.007320C. Number of moles of ions

Compound produces on being dissolved in water will be (kf = -1.860C /m)

(a) 𝟐 (b) 𝟑
(c) 𝟒 (d) 𝟏

Q.86- An aromatic molecule will

(a) 𝐡𝐚𝐯𝐞 𝟒𝐧𝛑 𝐞𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐭𝐫𝐨𝐧𝐬 (b) 𝐡𝐚𝐯𝐞 𝟒𝐧 + 𝟐𝛑 𝐞𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐭𝐫𝐨𝐧𝐬

(c) 𝐛𝐞 𝐩𝐥𝐚𝐧𝐚𝐫 (d) 𝐛𝐞 𝐜𝐲𝐜𝐥𝐢𝐜

Q.87- Which of the following will give yellow precipitate with I2/NaOH?
(a) 𝐈𝐂𝐇𝟐 𝐂𝐎𝐂𝐇𝟐 𝐂𝐇𝟑 (b) 𝐂𝐇𝟑 𝐂𝐎𝐎𝐂𝐎𝐂𝐇𝟑
(c) 𝐂𝐇𝟑 𝐂𝐎𝐍𝐇𝟐 (d) 𝐂𝐇𝟑 𝐂𝐇(𝐎𝐇)𝐂𝐇𝟐 𝐂𝐇𝟑

Q.88- In which of the following ionization process bond order increases and magnetic behavior changes.
(a) 𝐍𝟐 → 𝑵+ 𝟐 (b) 𝐎𝟐 → 𝑶+𝟐
(c) 𝐂𝟐 → 𝑪+ 𝟐 (d) 𝐍𝐎 → 𝑵𝑶 +

Q.89- The maximum number of hydrogen bonds in which water molecule can participate is:

(a) 𝟏 (b) 𝟐
(c) 𝟑 (d) 𝟒
 Q.90- in a regular octahedral molecule, MX6, the number of X-M-X bonds at 1800 is:

(a) 𝐓𝐡𝐫𝐞𝐞 (b) 𝐓𝐰𝐨

(c) 𝐒𝐢𝐱 (d) 𝐅𝐨𝐮𝐫

Q.91- For the chemical reaction 𝑵𝟐(𝒈) + 𝟑𝑯𝟐(𝒈) 2NH3(g)

The correct option is

𝒅[𝑯𝟐 ] 𝒅[𝑯𝟐 ] 𝟏 𝒅 [𝑯𝟐 ] 𝟏 𝒅[𝑵𝑯𝟑 ]

(a) 𝟑 = 2 (b) = −
𝒅𝒕 𝒅𝒕 −𝟑 𝟑 𝒅𝒕 𝟐 𝒅𝒕

𝒅[𝑵𝟐 ] 𝒅[𝑵𝑯𝟑 ] 𝒅[𝑵𝟐 ] 𝟏 𝒅[𝑵𝑯𝟑 ]

(c) − =𝟐 (d) − =
𝒅𝒕 𝒅𝒕 𝒅𝒕 𝟐 𝒅𝒕

Q.92- For the reaction 𝟐𝑵𝟐 𝑶𝟓 4NO2 + O2, rate and rate constant are 1.02 × 10-4 and 3.4 × 10-5 s-1 respectively, then conc of

N2O5 at that time will be

(a) 𝟏. 𝟕𝟑𝟐 (b) 𝟑

(c) 𝟏. 𝟎𝟐 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟒 (d) 𝟑. 𝟒 × 𝟏𝟎𝟓

Q.93- If the rate of a reaction is equal to the rate constant, the order of the reaction is

(a) 𝟐 (b) 𝟑
(c) 𝟎 (d) 𝟏

Q.94- The rate of reaction between two reactants A and B decreases by a factor of 4, if the concentration of reactant B is

Doubled. The order of this reaction with respect to reactant B is

(a) −𝟏 (b) −𝟐
(c) 𝟏 (d) 𝟐

Q.95- The plot of concentration of the reactant 𝒗𝒔 time for a reaction is a straight line with a negative slope. This reaction follows

(a) 𝐳𝐞𝐫𝐨 𝐨𝐫𝐝𝐞𝐫 𝐫𝐚𝐭𝐞 𝐞𝐪𝐮𝐚𝐭𝐢𝐨𝐧 (b) 𝒇𝒊𝒓𝒔𝒕 𝒐𝒓𝒅𝒆𝒓 𝒓𝒂𝒕𝒆 𝒆𝒒𝒖𝒂𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏
(c) 𝒔𝒆𝒄𝒐𝒏𝒅 𝑶𝒓𝒅𝒆𝒓 𝒓𝒂𝒕𝒆 𝒆𝒒𝒖𝒂𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏 (d) 𝒕𝒉𝒊𝒓𝒅 𝒐𝒓𝒅𝒆𝒓 𝒓𝒂𝒕𝒆 𝒆𝒒𝒖𝒂𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏

Q.96- If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 min, 50% of the same reaction would be completed in approximately

(log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69)

(a) 𝟓𝟎 𝒎𝒊𝒏 (b) 𝟒𝟓 𝒎𝒊𝒏

(c) 𝟔𝟎 𝒎𝒊𝒏 (d) 𝟒𝟎 𝐦𝐢𝐧

Q.97- half-life period of a first Order reaction is 1386 s. The specific rate constant of the reaction is

(a) 𝟓. 𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑 𝒔−𝟏 (b) . 𝟎. 𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟐 𝒔−𝟏

 (c) 𝟎. 𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑 𝒔−𝟏 (d) 𝟓. 𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑 𝒔−𝟏

Q.98- The activation energy for a simple chemical reaction A B is 𝑬𝒂 in forward direction. The activation energy for

Reverse reaction

(a) can be less than or more than Ea

(b) is always double of Ea

(c) is negative of Ea

(d) is always less than Ea

Q.99- for a first-order reaction, the half-life period is independent of

(a) initial concentration

(b) cube root of initial concentration

(c) first power of final concentration

(d) Square root of final concentration

𝒅[𝑨]
Q.100- 3A 2B, rate of reaction + 𝒅𝒕
is equal to

𝟑 𝒅[𝑨] 𝟐 𝒅[𝑨]
(a) − 𝟐 𝒅𝒕
(b) − 𝟐 𝒅𝒕
𝟏 𝒅[𝑨] 𝒅[𝑨]
(c) − (d) +𝟐
𝟑 𝒅𝒕 𝒅𝒕
 PART C- BIOLOGY
Q.101- Sphincter of oddi is present at:

(a) junction of jejunum and duodenum

(b) ileo-caecal junction

(c) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum

(d) Gastro-oesophageal junction

Q.102- Which cells of “crypts of leiberkuhn” secrete antibacterial lysozyme

(a) 𝐩𝐚𝐧𝐞𝐭𝐡 𝐜𝐞𝐥𝐥𝐬 (b) 𝐙𝐲𝐦𝐨𝐠𝐞𝐧 𝐜𝐞𝐥𝐥𝐬

(c) 𝐤𝐮𝐩𝐟𝐟𝐞𝐫 𝐜𝐞𝐥𝐥𝐬 (d) 𝐀𝐫𝐠𝐞𝐧𝐭𝐚𝐟𝐟𝐢𝐧 𝐜𝐞𝐥𝐥𝐬

Q.103- Which one of the following correctly represents the normal adult human dental formula?
𝟑 𝟏 𝟑 𝟏 𝟐 𝟏 𝟑 𝟑
(a) 𝟑 , 𝟏 , 𝟐 , 𝟏 × 𝟐 (b) , , ,
𝟐 𝟏 𝟐 𝟑
×𝟐

𝟐 𝟏 𝟐 𝟑 𝟑 𝟏 𝟑 𝟑
(c) , , , ×𝟐 (d) , , , × 𝟐
𝟐 𝟏 𝟐 𝟑 𝟑 𝟏 𝟑 𝟑

Q.104- The contraction of gall bladder is due to

(a) 𝐆𝐚𝐬𝐭𝐫𝐢𝐧 (b) 𝐂𝐡𝐨𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐲𝐬𝐭𝐨𝐤𝐢𝐧𝐢𝐧

(c) 𝐒𝐞𝐜𝐫𝐞𝐭𝐢𝐧 (d) 𝐄𝐧𝐭𝐞𝐫𝐨𝐠𝐚𝐬𝐭𝐫𝐨𝐧𝐞

Q.105- Burner’s glands occur in

(a) Submucosa of duodenum (b) submucosa of stomach

(c) Mucosa of oesophagus (d) mucosa of ileum

Q.106- Emulsification of fat is carried out by

(a) Bile pigments (b) Bile salts

(c) HCL (d) Pancreatic juice

Q.107- Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys

(a) Certain types of bacteria (b) all viruses

(c) Most virus-infected cells (d) certain fungi

Q.108- Select the correct statement

(a) Expiration is initiated due to contraction of diaphragm
(b) Expiration occurs due to external intercostal muscles.
(c) Inspiration Intrapulmonary pressure is lower than the atmospheric pressure
(d) Inspiration occurs when atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure.
Q.109- Match the items given in column 1 with those in column 2 and select the correct option given below.

Column 1 Column 2

A. Tidal volume 1. 2500 – 3000 ml

B. Inspiratory Reserve volume 2. 1100 – 1200 mL

C. Expiratory Reserve volume 3. 500 – 550 mL

D. Residual volume 4. 1000 – 1100 mL

A B C D

(a) 3 2 1 4

(b) 3 1 4 2

(c) 4 3 2 1

(d) 1 4 2 3

Q.110- Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of

(a) Inspiratory reserve volume (b) Tidal volume

(c) Expiratory reserve volume (d) Residual volume

Q.111- The partial pressures in mm Hg of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are:

(a) PO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3 (b) PO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40

(c) PO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45 (d) PO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40

Q.112- Approximately seventy percent of carbondioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs:

(a) As bicarbonate ions (b) in the form of dissolved gas molecules

(c) By binding to R.B.C (d) as carbamino- haemoglobin

Q.113- There is no DNA in

(a) Mature RBCs (b) a mature sepermatozoan

(c) Hair root (d) an enucleated ovum

Q.114- In the ABO system of blood groups, if both antigens are present but no antibody, the blood group of the

Individual would be

(a) B (b) O

(c) AB (d) A

Q.115- The genotype of B-group father of an O-group child is

(a) IOIO (b) IBIB

 (c) IAIB (d) IOIB

Q.116- match the column-1 with column-2

Column 1 Column 2

A. P-wave 1. (1) Depolarisation of ventricles

B. QRS complex 2. (2) Repolarisation of ventricles

C. T- Wave 3. (3) Coronary ischemia

D. Reduction in the size of T-wave 4. (4) Depolarisation of atria

5. (5) Repolarisation of atria

A B C D

(a) 4 1 2 3

(b) 4 1 2 5

(c) 2 1 5 3

(d) 2 3 5 4

Q.117- In ureotelic animals, urea is formed by the

(a) Arginine cycle (b) Cori’s cycle

(c) Ornithine (d) EM pathway

Q.118- Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by

(a) Platyhelminthes (b) Aschelminthes

(c) Annelida (d) Ctenophora

Q.119- Which of the following does not favour the formation of large quantities of dilute urine?

(a) Caffeine (b) Renin

(c) Atrial-natriuretic factor (d) Alcohol

Q.120- Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the nephron will result in:

(a) More concentrated urine

(b) no change in quality and quantity of urine

(c) no urine formation

(d) More diluted urine

Q.121- Artificial light, extended work- time and reduced sleep-time disrupt the activity of
 (a) Posterior pituitary gland (b) Thymus gland

(c) Pineal gland (d) Adrenal gland

Q.122- GNRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction , acts on:

(a) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.

(b) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH.

(c) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin

(d) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin.

Q.123- Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function

(a) Oxytocin- posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands.

(b) Melatonin- pineal gland, regulates the normal rhytm of sleepwake cycle.

(c) Progesterone - corpus- luteum, stimulatiuon of growth and activities of female secondary sex organs

(d) Atrial natriuretic factor- ventricular wall increases the blood pressure.

Q.124- Norepinephrine

(a) Is released by sympathetic fibres

(b) Is released by parasympathetic fibres

(c) Increases the heart rate

(d) Decreases blood pressure

Q.125- Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

(a) Glucagon- beta cells (source)

(b) Somatostatin- Delta cells (source)

(c) Corpus luteum- Relaxin (secretion)

(d) Insulin- Diabetes mellitus (disease)

Q.126- Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency?

(a) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus (b) Relaxin – Gigantism

(c) prolactin- Cretinism (d) Parathyroid hormone- tetany

Q.127- Insulin is

(a) Vitamin (b) lipid

(c) Hormone (d) enzyme

Q.128- Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action?

(a) Calcium (b) Sodium

(c) cAMP (d) cGMP

Q.129- Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by

(a) Sutton (b) Boveri

(c) Morgan (d) Mendel

Q.130- The production of gametes by the parents, the formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood

(a) Wenn diagram (b) pie diagram

(c) A pyramid diagram (d) punnet square

Q.131- Select the incorrect statement

(a) Male fruit fly is heterogametic.

(b) In male grasshoppers, 50% of sperms have no sex-chromosome

(c) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny depends on the type of sperm rather than egg
(d) Human males have one, of their sex chromosome much shorter than the other.

Q.132- Which of the following characteristics represent ‘inheritance’ of blood groups in humans?

(a) Dominance (b) Co-dominance

(c) Multiple allele (d) Incomplete dominance

(e) Polygenic inheritance

(a) B, C and E (b) A, B and C

(c) A, C and E (d) B, D and E

Q.133- The genotypes of a husband and wife are IAIB and IAi. Among the blood types of their children, how many

Different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?

(a) 3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes (b) 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes

(c) 4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes (d) 3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes

Q.134- A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that

This cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is

Containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result in

(a) Aneuploidy (b) Polyploidy

(c) Somaclonal variation (d) polyteny

Q.135- Which is the most common mechanism of genetic variation in the population of sexually reproducing organism

(a) Chromosomal aberrations (b) Genetic drift

(c) Recombination (d) Transduction

Q.136- A man with blood group ‘A’ marries a woman with blood group ’B’ What are all the possible bloods groups

Of their off springs?

(a) A, B and AB only (b) A, B, AB and O

(c) O only (d) A and B only

Q.137- Multiple alleles are present

(a) At different loci on the same chromosome

(b) At the same locus of the chromosome

(c) On non-sister chromatids

(d) On different chromosomes

Q.138- In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based

On this data the, frequency of allele A in the population is:

(a) 0.4 (b) 0.5

(c) 0.6 (d) 0.7

Q.139- A person with unknown blood group under ABO system, has suffered much blood loss in an accident and

Needs immediate blood transfusion His one friend who has a valid certificate of his own blood type offers

Blood donation without delay. What would have been the type of blood group of the donor friend?

(a) Type B (b) Type AB

(c) Type O (d) Type A

Q.140Which one of the following conditions of the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal human female child

(a) Two X chromosomes

(b) Only one Y chromosome

(c) Only one X chromosome

(d) One X and One Y chromosome

Q.141- The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by

(a) Test cross (b) dihybrid cross

 (c) Pedigree analysis (d) back cross

Q.142- Inheritances of skin colour in humans is an example of

(a) Point mutation (b) polygenic inheritance

(c) Codominance (d) chromosomal aberration

Q.143- phenotype of an organism is the result of

(a) Cytoplasmic effects and nutrition

(b) Environmental changes and sexual dimorphism

(c) Genotype and environment interactions

(d) Mutations and linkages

Q.144- Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are generally located in

(a) Cytosol (b) chloroplast genome

(c) Mitochondrial genome (d) nuclear genome

Q.145- The recessive genes located on X-chromosome in humans are always

(a) Lethal (b) sub-lethal

(c) expressed in males (d) expressed in females

Q.146- The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel are now known to be located on how many

Different chromosomes?

(a) Four (b) Seven

(c) Six (d) Five

Q.147- The linkage map of X- chromosome of fruit by has 66 units, with yellow body gene (y) at one end and bobbed

Hair (b) gene at the other end. The recombination frequency between these two genes (y and b) should be

(a) 100 % (b) 66%

(c) > 50 % (d) < 50 %

Q.148- On selfing a plant of F1 generation with genotype ’’AABbCC”, the genotypic ratio in F2 generation will be

(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 1

(c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (d) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1

Q.149- How many base pairs are found in one genome of man?

(a) 7 × 104 (b) 2.8 × 107

 (c) 3 × 109 (d) 4 × 109

Q.150- A child of O-group has B-group father. The genotype of father will be

(a) IOIO (b) IBIB

(c) IAIB (d) IBIO

Q.151- Cross between AaBB and aaBB will form

(a) 1 AaBB: 1aaBB (b) All AaBB

(c) 3 AaBB: 1 aaBB (d) 1 AaBB: 3 aaBB

Q.152- In our society women are blamed for producing female children. Choose the correct answer for the sex

Determination in humans

(a) Due to some defect in the women

(b) Due to some defect like aspermia in man

(c) Due to the genetic make-up of the particular sperm which fertilizes the egg

(d) Due to the genetic make-up following conditions

Q.153- Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in the given ex

(a) Homozygous sex chromosomes determine female sex in birds

(b) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper

(c) XO conditions in human as found in turner syndrome, determines female sex.

(d) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosophila.

Q.154- In which mode of inheritance do you expect more maternal influence the offspring?

(a) Cytoplasmic (b) Y-linked

(c) X- linked (d) Autosomal

Q.155- Barr body in human female is formed by

(a) Inactivation of paternal X- chromosome

(b) Inactivation of maternal X- chromosome

(c) Inactivation of both X- chromosomes

(d) Inactivation of either the paternal or maternal X – chromosome

Q.156- pneumatic bones are expected to be found in

(a) pigeon (b) house lizard

 (c) frog’s tadpole (d) flying fish

Q.157- Which of the following is an example of sex linked disease?

(a) AIDS (b) Colour blindness

(c) Syphilis (d) gonorrhoea

Q.158- In human beings, 45 chromosomes/single X/XO abnormality causes

(a) Down’s syndrome (b) Kinefelter’s syndrome

(c) Turner’s syndrome (d) Edward’s syndrome

Q.159- Which one is a hereditary disease?

(a) Cataract (b) Leprosy

(c) Blindness (d) Phenylketonuria

Q.160- Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding mutations?

(a) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frame-shift mutations.

(b) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations

(c) UV and gamma rays are mutagens.

(d) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation.

Q.161- DNA fragments are:

(a) Negatively charged (b) Neutral

(c) Either positively or negatively charge depend on their size (d) positively charged

Q.162- A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as

(a) Polysome (b) Polymer

(c) Polypeptide (d) Okazaki fragment

Q.163- A sequential expression of a set of human genes

(a) messenger RNA (b) DNA

(c) Ribosome (d) transfer RNA.

Q.164- If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence at ATCTG, what would be the complementary RNA

Strand sequence

(a) TTAGU (b) UAGAC

(c) AACTG (d) ATCGU

Q.165- DNA template sequence of CTGATAGC is transcribed over RNA as

(a) GUCTUTCG (b) GACUAUCG

(c) GAUTATUG (d) UACTATCU

Q.166- Select the correct match

(a) Alec jeffreys-streptococcus pneumoniae

(b) Alfred Hershey and – TMV

(c) Francois Jacob and- Lac operon Jacques Monod

(d) Matthew Meselson – pisum sativum and F. Stahl

Q.167- In the progress of transcription in Eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase I transcribes

(a) precursor of mRNA, hnRNA

(b) mRNA with additional processing, capping and tailing

(c) tRNA, 5 srRNA and snRNAs

(d) tRNAs- 28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S

Q.168- Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called

(a) Tailing (b) transformation

(c) Splicing (d) capping

Q.169- Telomerase is an enzyme which is a

(a) Simple protein (b) RNA

(c) Ribonucleoprotein (d) repetitive DNA

Q.170- out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types of amino acid. It is called

(a) Degeneracy of genetic code (b) overlapping of gene

(c) Wobbling of codon (d) universality of codons

Q.171- Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(a) Algin and carrageenan are products of algae

(b) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria

(c) Chlorella and spirullina are used as space food

(d) Mannitol is stored food in rhodophyceae

Q.172- Kelp (branched form) and Sargassum (filmentous form) belong to

 (a) green algae (b) brown algae

(c) red algae (d) blue-green algae

Q.173- Which one of the following statements is Wrong?

(a) Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment
(b) Algin is obtained from red algae and carrageenan from brown

(c) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria

(d) Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food.

Q.174- An alga, Which can be employed as food for human

(a) Ulothrix (b) Chlorella

(c) Spirogyra (d) polysiphonia

Q.175- In brown algae, asexual reproduction takes place by

(a) Most rhodophytes grow at great depths, chlorophy11 can only absorb light specifically in the red area of the

Spectrum

(b) The wavelengths of light that are absorbed by chlorophy11 are passed to phycoerythrin present in algae

(c) Phycoerythrin absorbs all the light waves

(d) Light reaching the greatest depth in water is in the blue green region of the spectrum, which is absorbed by

Phycoerythrin

Q.176- The plant having capacity of absorbing water, used to replace cotton and used as a fuel is

(a) Marchanita (b) Riccia

(c) Sphagnum (d) Funaria

Q.177- In brown algae, asexual reproduction takes place by

(a) Aplanospores (apple –shaped and non-motile)

(b) Biflagellate gametes (pear – shaped and have two unequal flagella

(c) Endospores (round and have one flagella)

(d) Multiflagellate gametes and are sickle- shaped

Q.178- Storage bodies’ prenoids in the chloroplast contain

(a) Protein and starch (b) carbohydrate and protein

(c) Polysaccharide and protein (d) starch and lipid

Q.179- Gemmae are asexual buds, which originate from small receptacles called Gemma cups. These are found in
 (a) Funaria (b) Marchantia

(c) Fern (d) Sphagnum

Q.180- Funaria, polytrichum and Sphagnum are the examples of

(a) Liverworts (b) ferns

(c) Mosses (d) peteridophytes

Q.181- In a moss, the sporophyte

(a) is partially parasitic on the gametophyte

(b) Produces gametes that give rise to the gametophyte

(c) Arises from a spore produced from the gametophyte

(d) Manufactures food for itself, as well as for the gametophyte

Q.182- In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires

(a) Insects (b) birds

(c) Water (d) wind

Q.183- Which of the following pteridophytes is heterosporous in nature?

(a) Selaginella and Salvinia (b) Adiantum and Equisetum

(c) Psilotum and Lycopodium (d) Adiantum and Psilotum

Q.184- Which one of the following is a correct statement

(a) Pteridophytes gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage

(b) In gymnosperms, female gametophyte is free-living

(c) Antheridiophores and archegoniophores are present in pteridophytes

(d) Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes

Q.185- Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of

(a) Broad hardy leaves (b) superficial stomata

(c) Thick cuticle (d) the presence of vessels

Q.186- In which of the following gametophyte is not independent free-living?

(a) Funaria (b) Marchantia

(c) Pteris (d) pinus

Q.187- Select the correct statement?

 (a) Salvinia, ginkgo and pinus all are gymnosperms

(b) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees

(c) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well-adapted to extremes of climate

(d) Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous

Q.188- Which one is not the feature of Cycas?

(a) Unbranched stem

(b) Pinnate leaves

(c) The male or female cones may be borne on the different trees

(d) Archegonia is absent

Q.189- The dominant generation in haplontic life cycle of algae is

(a) Sporophyte (b) gametophyte

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

Q.190- Identify the correct statements from those given below.

(1) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses.

(2) Life cycle of all seed bearing plants is diplontic.

(3) Life cycle of any sexually reproducting plant has alternation of generation between haplontic, diplontic or

Intermediate.

(4) In angiosperms, male sex organ (stamen) and female sex organ (pistil) are borne in a flower.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2. 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) all are correct

Q.191- Floridians starch is reserve food in

(a) Phaeophyceae (b) Chlorophyceae

(c) Rhodophyceae (d) Cyanophyceae

Q.192- Phycoerythrin is present in

(a) Polysiphonia (b) Laminaria

(c) Kelps (d) Chlamydomonas

Q.193- Peat moss is

 (a) Funaria (b) fern

(c) Algae (d) Sphagnum

Q.194- Which of the following plant groups lacks true roots, stem and leaves?

(a) Angiosperms (b) Gymnosperms

(c) Pteridophytes (d) Bryophytes

Q.195- Female reproductive part of bryophytes is called.

(a) Antheridium (b) oogonium

(c) Archgonium (d) sporangium

Q.196- In bryophyte, an adult plant body is

(a) Sporophyte (b) epiphyte

(c) Sporophy11 (d) gametophyte

Q.197- Bryophytes mostly occur in

(a) Dry area (b) terrestrial area

(c) Humid, damp and shaded localities (d) in water

Q.198- Bryophytes include

(a) Liverworts and mosses (b) lycopods and mosses

(c) Lycopods and liverworts (d) liverworts and volvox

Q.199- Natural system of classification is based upon

(a) Evolutionary relationship of organisms

(b) Cytological information

(c) Structural embryology

(d) All of the above

Q.200- Phylogenetic system of classification was given by

(a) Engler and prantl (b) Aristotle

(c) Linnaeus (d) Bentham and Hooker