HR 1

1. Which one of the following is a minor penalty as per the provisions of CDA
Rules?
a) Withholding of one increment for one year
b) Withholding of one increment permanently
c) Withholding of one increment due to non-satisfactory performance
d) a & b

2. An Assistant without any technical qualification becomes eligible for promotion

to the cadre of Senior Assistant if he puts in atleast the following the number of
years of service in Assistant cadre
a) 3 years
b) 7 years
c) 5 years
d) Technical qualification is compulsory and hence he is not eligible
irrespective of the number of years of service

3. Which of the following components are not taken into consideration for
calculating Encashment of Earned Leave on retirement?
a) Basic
b) DA
c) HRA
d) None of the above

4. A sportsman gets the following number of years of age relaxation at the time of
recruitment in our company:
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 7

5. Under the Group Mediclaim Scheme for employees of GIPSA companies, a

Senior Assistant shares the premium upto eligible sum insured in the following
ratio
a) 1/3rd by employee and 2/3rd by company
b) 1/4th by employee and 3/4th by company
c) 1/3rd by company and 2/3rd by employee
d) 1/4th by company and 3/4th by employee
6. Your Branch Manager visits Singapore on LTS. The maximum amount of
reimbursement for one block shall be
a) Two times II AC Rail Fare for 3000 KMs
b) II AC Rail Fare for 6000 KMs
c) Not eligible for foreign travel and hence no amount is payable
d) Two times air fare of Air India from Delhi to Trivandrum route

7. Rule No.21 of the CDA Rules deals with

a) Right of Appeal
b) Period of Limitation of Appeals
c) Memorial
d) Subsistence Allowance

8. Mid Academic Year Allowance payable to an employee who is transferred on

promotion as Senior Assistant, as per the Amendment Scheme-2010 shall be
a) Rs.1,000/- one time payment
b) Rs.680/- per month
c) Rs.500/- per month
d) None of the above

9. Which of the following statements are not incorrect with regard to Leave Rules?
a) Casual Leave can be combined with Earned Leave
b) Maternity Leave cannot be allowed on probation
c) Quarantine Leave is allowed to employees who suffer from infectious
disease
d) Maximum CL available in a calendar year is 12 days

10. Employees who are promoted to the following cadre are placed under probation,
as per the Promotion Policy:
a) Class III to Scale I
b) Scale III to Scale IV
c) (a) & (b)
d) For promotion to any cadre, probation is not applicable

11. How many number of Stagnation Increments were available for an Assistant as
per Amendment Scheme-2005?
a) 7
b) 6
c) 5
d) 4
12. An employee abandons his post if he absents from duty without leave or overstays
his leave for a continuous period of ________ without any intimation in writing
a) 1 month
b) 48 hours
c) 90 days
d) This rule is not applicable for GIPSA Officers

13. For employees on Administration, which of the following statements is true?

a) Maximum loan for Two-wheeler for Officers is Rs.75,000/-
b) Maximum loan for Two-wheeler for Class III & IV employees is
Rs.50,000/-
c) Maximum loan for Two-wheeler for Dev.Officers (Admn) is Rs.50,000/-
d) All the above

14. With the following information, please arrive at the marks eligible for the
employee under the Criterion ‘Seniority’ for promotion to the cadre of Scale I
Officer under Para 13.1 of the Promotion Policy-2008:
The employee joined the company as Assistant on 27.07.1987
The employee is promoted as Senior Assistant on 19.03.2005
Cut-off date for the promotion exercise 31.12.2012
a) 30
b) 16
c) 14
d) 7

15. Maximum Gratuity payable to employees as per Gratuity Act is

a) Rs.5,00,000/-
b) Rs.3,50,000/-
c) Rs.10,00,000/-
d) None of the above

16. As per the provisions of Development Officers’ Scheme, the limit of any single
claim per event is restricted to Rs.___________ while calculating Incentive
a) Rs.5,00,000/-
b) Rs.3,00,000/-
c) Rs.10,00,000/-
d) None of the above
17. One of the employees working in your office is an office-bearer of a registered
Trade Union. Which one of the following is not a misconduct as per CDA Rules
in respect of that employee?
a) Habitual late or irregular attendance
b) Sleeping while on duty
c) Slowing down of work
d) Statement made to Press in connection with any Trade Dispute without the
sanction of competent authority

18. Which one of the following statements is not true with regard to Adoption Leave?
a) Can be availed once during the service of childless female employee
b) For legally adopting child below one year of age
c) Maximum period of six months or till the child reaches 1 year of age
whichever is earlier
d) For adoption of only one child

19. The Collective Cashier working in your Office gets promoted as Scale I Officer
on 4.5.2013. She has not availed her LTS for the Block years 2010-11 and 2012-
13 in the pre-promoted cadre. Her eligible LTS Block after promotion shall be
a) Two Blocks 2010-11 and 2012-13 lapses and hence she cannot avail the
same
b) She can avail one Block 2012-13 only before 31.12.2013
c) She can avail her two Blocks 2010-11 and 2012-13 before 31.12.2013 and
avail Block 2013-14 after 1.1.2014
d) She can avail only Block 2013-14

20. As per the General Insurance (Rationalisation of Pay Scales and other Conditions
of Service of Development Staff) Amendment Scheme, 2010, the allowance for
technical qualification on acquiring MBA Qualification is
a) Rs.820/-
b) Rs.820/- subject to approval of MBA course by AICTE
c) Rs.820/- subject to approval of MBA course by AICTE & DEC
d) None of the above

21. To become eligible for Pension, an employee must have rendered atleast ____
years of service on the date of retirement
a) 10 years
b) 20 years
c) 5 years
d) 33 years
22. The Halting Allowance payable to a Development Officer on official tour, if the
period of stay at a particular place is 15 hours, shall be
a) 30% of the DHA
b) Development Officers are not entitled for DHA as they are already
drawing Conveyance Allowance
c) 50% of the DHA
d) 100% DHA

23. The Vehicle Loan for purchase of a Two-Wheeler applicable to Class III & IV
employees is
a) 80% of the cost of the vehicle subject to a maximum of Rs.50,000/-
b) Maximum Rs.50,000/-
c) 80% of the cost of the vehicle subject to a maximum of Rs.75,000/-
d) Maximum Rs.75,000

24. Para 25A of the Promotion Policy for SCS Staff-2008 deals with
a) Assured Career Progression Scheme
b) Minimum one promotion in life time for Assistants
c) Bridge Test
d) Fast Track

25. As per Rule No.32 of the CDA Rules, the period of Limitation for Appeal shall be
a) Three months from the date of order
b) Three months from the date of receipt of order
c) One month from the date of receipt of order
d) No Time Limit specified under Rule No.32 for preferring Appeal

26. A Class I Officer transferred under Transfer & Mobility Policy is eligible for the
following allowance:
a) Disturbance Allowance
b) Protection of CCA
c) Protection of HRA
d) None of the above

27. Interest free advance granted for employees affected by Natural Calamities is
limited to
a) Rs.7,500/-
b) Rs.10,000/-
c) One month Gross Salary
d) Rs.15,000/-
28. Submission of Property Returns is mandatory as per the following Rule of the
CDA Rules
a) Rule No.16
b) Rule No.16A
c) Rule No.16B
d) Rule No.30

29. Which of the following was created by the Government under General Insurance
Business Nationalisation Act?
a) GIC
b) GIPSA
c) General Insurance Council
d) LPA

30. An employee travels in a Private Car registered in the name of his/her spouse.
What will be the criterion for calculating the maximum subsidy payable?
a) Taxi fare for the distance travelled
b) II AC Train Fare for the distance travelled
c) Actual fuel expenses
d) Not eligible for reimbursement as the car is not registered in the name of
employee

31. Which of the following is not a benefit given to SC/ST candidates at the time of
recruitment?
a) Relaxation in age
b) Lower passing marks in written test
c) Railway fare for attending interview
d) Reimbursement of Hotel Charges for attending interview

32. In the Check-off exercise followed in GIPSA companies, the following conditions
are stipulated for Unions/Associations to be considered for the exercise:
a) The Union/Association should be registered under Trade Unions Act 1926
b) The Association which is not registered under Trade Unions Act, 1926 can
be considered provided it is registered under Societies Registration Act,
1912
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) Only (a)
33. Which of the Article of the Constitution of India provides that Official Language
of the Union shall be Hindi in Devnagri script?
a) Article 141
b) Article 226
c) Article 343
d) Article 356

34. Class III employees are eligible for Transfer Grant of One Month Basic Pay in
one of the following cases:
a) Transferred on promotion to another station
b) Transferred on TMP to another station
c) Transferred on management exigency to a hardship area
d) None of the above

35. As per the Amendment Scheme-2010, the Entertainment Allowance payable to an

AO(D) is as below:
a) Rs.750/- per month
b) Rs.900/- per month
c) Rs.500/- per month
d) AO(D) is not eligible for Entertainment Allowance

36. The amount of Invalid Pension shall not be less than the ordinary rate of
a) Full Pension
b) 2/3rd Pension
c) Family Pension
d) Minimum Pension

37. What is the term used to describe the process of helping a new employee to settle
quickly into their job so that they become efficient and productive workers?
a) Induction
b) Counselling
c) Overtime
d) Performance Appraisal

38. Officers of the following Scale are not eligible for becoming members of any
Union/Association as per the provisions of Check-Off in GIPSA companies:
a) Scale IV
b) Scale V
c) Branch Manager/Divisional Manager
d) (b) & (c)
39. The maximum scheme loan eligible to a Scale I Officer under the Housing Loan
Scheme of the company is
a) Rs.3,25,000/-
b) Rs.8,55,000/-
c) Rs.7,45,000/-
d) Rs.5,50,000/-

40. Minimum number of persons required for registration of a Trade Union under the
Trade Union Act, 1926 is
a) 5
b) 7
c) 100
d) 101
ANSWERS

1 (a)
2 (b)
3 (c)
4 (c)
5 (b)
6 (a)
7 (d)
8 (d)
9 (d)
10 (a)
11 (b)
12. (c)
13. (d)
14. (b)
15. (c)
16. (a)
17. (d)
18. (c)
19. (c)
20. (d)
21. (a)
22. (d)
23. (a)
24. (b)
25. (b)
26. (d)
27. (d)
28. (b)
29. (a)
30. (c)
31. (d)
32. (c)
33. (c)
34. (a)
35. (d)
36. (c)
37. (a)
38. (b)
39. (c)
40. (b)
 HR 2

1. As per Leave Rules the minimum no of days privilege leave granted

a. 5 days
b. 8 days
c. 15 days
d. 30 days

2. L.T.S. can be clubbed for

a. Any no. of block year
b. Two block years
c. Only one block year availed at a time
d. Clubbing LTS not allowed.

3. Rule No. 18 of GI (conduct, Discipline and appeal Rule 1975 related to

a. Acceptance of Gifts
b. Private Trading
c. Employee in Debt
d. Employee not to be absent from duty without
permission or be late in attendance

4. Which of following is not a major penalty.

a. Dismissal
b. Compulsory Retirement
c. Censure
d. Withholding of one more increments permanently.

5. During suspension of an employee the subsistence allowance may be increased to

75% after
a. subsequent to period of 3 months
b. subsequent to period of 6 months
c. subsequent to period of 9 moths
d. Non of the above

6. Rule No. 31 of GI CDA Rules speaks about

a. Right of appeal
b. Transmission of appeal
c. Consideration of appeal
d. Review

7. In case of T.P. Orphan Claims that the dealing Office should take provision in his
books for the first year. One of the following method, while closing the account
a. 100% provision
b. 50% provision
c. 1/3 of the provision
d. None of the above
8. Bank Reconsillation not to be done by
a. Any staff Member not related to Accounts Dept.
b. Accounts Office
c. Cashier / person in charge of Micro Office
d. Person looking after Accounts Dept.

9. In year end account closing the following provision should be made on statutory
provision
a. Outstanding expenses
b. Claim incurred but not reported
c. Reserve for unexpired risks
d. All the above 3

10. In all class of General Insurance policies the following method of premium
remittance can be accepted. Except one method choose the same
a. Cash
b. Cheque (insured)
c. Demand draft / pay order
d. Third party cheque / Agency charge

11. In cheque dishonour cases which is the correct procedure to be followed :

a. Policy should be cancelled immediately.
b. Continuous cover can be granted after payment of cash
c. Re presentation of cheque also grant continuous cases
d. Another charges may be accepted to give continuous
coer.
 HR 3

1. No. of leaves shall accrue during the period the employee is on

a. CL
b. RH
c. EL
d. None of the above

2. The terminal dues which can not be attached by even an order of the court is
a. PF
b. Gratuity
c. Leave Encashment
d. GSLI

3. When the employee is dismissed on the grounds of moral turpitude which one
of the following is not forfeited?
a. Gratuity
b. GLSI
c. Leave Encashment
d. Pension

4. Official tour by train commences from the time of

a. Delayed departure of the train
b. Departure from office
c. Departure from residence
d. Scheduled departure of the train

5. One day EL occurs after how many working days inclusive of public and
weekly holidays?
a. 12 days
b. 10 days
c. 11 days
d. 13 days

6. For the purpose of availing LTS, a family an be split into

a. Not more than 2 groups
b. Not more than 3 groups
c. Not more than 4 groups
d. Not more than 1 group

7. Under the CDA rules which one of the following is true of minor penalty
a. Which can be imposed by any officer
b. Which does not have financial impact
c. Which is for a maximum period of one year
d. Which can be imposed without enquiry

8. The penalty of ‘removal from service’ can be imposed by

a. Reporting authority
b. Appointing authority
c. Promoting authority
d. Disciplinary authority
9. An employee is deemed to have abandoned his post if he remains on un-
authorized absence for a continuous period of
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days

10. Non cumulative reduction in Time Scale of Pay for three years is a
a. Major Penalty
b. Minor Penalty
c. Moderate Penalty
d. None of the above

11. Withholding of increments permanently is a

a. Major penalty
b. Moderate penalty
c. Minor Penalty
d. None of the above

12. During the pendency of enquiry proceeding if an employee is found suitable

for promotion, then consideration of his promotion is
a. Deferred
b. Rejected
c. Kept in a sealed cover
d. None of the above

13. Only the following can act as a Defense Asst.

a. Asst. C
b. Sr.Asst.
c. Employee
d. Defense Personnel

14. The authority for forfeiture of Gratuity is vested with

a. Disciplinary Authority
b. Appointing Authority
c. GM (P)
d. CMD

15. Proceedings can be initiated against retired employee under Pension rules for
misconduct within committed
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years

16. A minor penalty action can be initiated by

a. Reporting Authority
b. Appointing Authority
c. Disciplinary Authority
d. Appellate Authority
 HR 4

1. General Insurance (conduct, discipline & appeal) rules were frame in which year.
a. 1973
b. 1975
c. 1976
d. 1978

2. CDA Rules are not applicable to

a. Class I officers
b. Class III & IV Employees
c. Class I Officers on deputation from Govt. Sector
d. P.T.S.

3. Which of the following Act of Omission & Commission shall not be treated as
misconduct
a. Taking/ Giving bribes
b. Sleeping on duty
c. Gambling within office
d. Occasional late attendance

4. An employee may be suspended under the following circumstances except

a. Contemplating Disciplinary Proceeding
b. Criminal offence under investigation/ ___
c. Detained in custody for more than 48 hours
d. Smoking in office premises

5. The following are treated as Minor Penalties except

a. Suspension from duty
b. Censure
c. Witholding one or more increments for a specified period
d. Recovery from pay the pecuniary loss to the company

6. Leave rules permit leave on following grounds, except one

a. C.L.
b. E.L.
c. S.L.
d. Paternity leave

7. Special leave is
a. Home Guard duties
b. Appearing in Ins. Institute Exams
c. Trade Union Activities
d. All three above

8. Casual Leave admissibility per Annum is

a. 15 days
b. 22 ½ days
c. 12 days
d. 10 days
9. Accrual of one day Earned Leave is based on duties spent on
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 11 days
d. 14 ½ days

10. Types of leave which can’t be given in conjunction with

a. C.L. & Exam
b. E.L. & S.L.
c. E.L. & Quarantine
d. C.L. & S.L.

11. Leave Travel Subsidy can be availed for a block of

a. One year
b. Three years
c. Four year
d. Two years

12. LTS for Class I Officers can be granted for a block of two years on
a. Even to odd years
b. Odd to even years
c. Both are correct
d. Both are incorrect

13. LTS for Class III & IV employees can be granted for a block of two years on
a. Even to odd years
b. Odd to even years
e. Both are correct
c. Both are incorrect

14. Encashment of E.L. for officers can be granted for 15 days once in a block of two
years
a. Even to add years
b. Odd to even years
c. Both are correct
d. Both are incorrect

15. D.H.A. permissible under T.E. rules for a period less than six hours is
a. 30%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 20%

16. C.V.C. guidelines stipulates Bids for acquiring office premises on lease/ purchase
as under:
a. Technical Bid
b. Financial Bid
c. Preliminary Scrutiny
d. Both (a) & (b)
17. Carpet area prescribed for Divisional office is
a. 3000 sq. ft. + 10%
b. 2500 sq. ft. + 10%
c. 3500 sq. ft. + 10%
d. 2000 sq. ft. + 10%

18. Carpet area prescribed for Branch office is

a. 1000 sq. ft. + 10% Addl
b. 1500 sq. ft. + 10%
c. 850 sq. ft. + 10%
d. 1200 sq. ft. + 10%

19. Regional office premises committee constitution requires the following minimum
members to complete the quorum
a. Officer from Estate Dept., officer from A/cs Dept., officer from Technical
Dept.
b. Officer from Estate Dept., officer from IA & ID Dept., officer from
Technical Dept.
c. Officer from A/cs Dept., officer from Technical Dept., officer from
Personnel Dept.
d. All the above three options

20. For a work/ purchase valued at more Rs. 2 lacs can be done by calling
a. 5 quotations
b. 3 quotations
c. Sealed tenders
d. Open tenders

21. Officers on transfer are permitted to have residential accommodation except

a. Company owned accommodation
b. Company leased accomoation
c. Self leased accommodation
d. Employee’s own property on self leasing

22. Purchase of briefcase to officers is reimbursed on the expiry of

a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 5 years

23. In the following sequence for acquiring company property, tick the odd choice
a. Agreement for sale
b. Sale deed
c. Mutation
d. Registration of property

24. Domestic enquiry under vigilance comprises of all except one

a. Preliminary learning
b. Regular learning
c. Defence proceedings
d. Equiry by CBI
 HR 5

Q.1 If an employee has number of days leave to his credit

a. He cannot be treated on unauthorized leave under any circumstances
b. He may be treated on Unauthorized absence in certain cases
c. His leave must be exhausted first before treating him on unauthorized absence
d. None of the above

Q.2 As per leave rules of our companies

a. Employee has right for his leave and can be taken anytime
b. Prior approval is required for taking any type of leave
c. Leaves cannot be demanded as a matter of right
d. None of the above

Q.3 For availing LTS, an employee must avail the following leave
a. Only CL
b. Only PL
c. Either CL or PL
d. Only Sat/Sunday

Q.4 Performance appraisal (CR) is required for the purpose of releasing

a. Functional allowance
b. FPA
c. Graduation allowance
d. Stagnation increment

Q.5 In Transfer & Mobility policy for officers, which period is considered as Normal
Period of Posting (NPP)
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 5 years

Q.6 In a departmental enquiry, who acts as a judge?

a. Presenting officer
b. Charged officer
c. Investigating officer
d. None of the above

Q.7 Which of the following is not a penalty under CDA rules

a. Censure letter
b. Warning letter
c. Withholding of one increment for a specified period
d. Withholding of one increment permanently

Q.8 As per CDA rules

a. First memorial than appeal
b. First appeal than memorial
c. Appeal and memorial go simultaneously
d. No difference between memorial and appeal
 HR 6

1. Which statement is correct ? - Statement A: The Appellette Authority may place

an employee under suspension where disciplinary proceedings against him is
pending. Statement B: Where a care against the employee in respect of any
criminal offence is under mitigation or trial.
a. Statement A
b. Statement B
c. Both
d. None of the above
2. Which leave period is not considered for calculation of earned leave?
a. Examination Leave
b. C.L.
c. Sick Leave
d. Special Leave
3. On how many occasions earned leave for duration of less than 7 days can be
sanctioned?
a. Once in a year
b. Twice in a year
c. Thrice in a year
d. Cannot be sanctioned at all.
4. For how many days during the total service period an employee can avail
maternity leave?
a. Unlimited
b. 365 days
c. 90 days
d. 180 days
5. How many times an eligible employee can appear for competitive examination
under Para (31) ?
a. Once
b. Twice
c. Thrice
d. Unlimited
6. One of the following action will not attract vigilance proceedings?
a. Misappropriation of funds
b. Causing pecuniary loss to the company by wrong action
c. Remaining absent without proper sanctioned leave
d. Remaining absent for one day without prior sanction of C.L.
7. As per transfer and mobility policy a person can apply for a transfer to his place
of choice only after completion of :
a. Two years
b. Three years
c. Five years
d. Management discretion
8. An employee has to complete how many minimum completed years of service for
entitlement of pension. Choose the correct answer.
a. 10 years
b. 15 years
c. 20 years
d. 28 years
 HR 7

1. Source and Designation of CVOS in PSU Insurance Companies are

a) From Ministry and equivalent to DGM
b) From LIC and equivalent to GM
c) From other PSU Insurance Companies and equivalent to DGM
d) From the same company

2. Vigilance department works in close * with

a) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
b) Central Vigilance Commission
c) Central Bureau of Investigation
d) Ministry of Finance and Economic Affairs

3. CDA Rules of General Insurance stands for

a) Central Department of Appraisal Rules
b) Character Discipline * Rules
c) Conduct Discipline Approval Rules
d) Confidential Departmental * Rules

4. Officer depending on behalf of the company in department enquiry is

a) Presiding officer
b) Enquiry officer
c) Defending officer
d) Defaulting officer

5. In departmental enquiry and after major penalty is imposed, the defaulting officer
may go for memorial to
a) TG overseeing GM
b) CVO
c) CMD of the company
d) President of India

6. A suspended employee is eligible for * allow maximum up to what percentage of

his salary
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%

7. Casual leaves cannot be tagged up with

a) Holidays
b) Privileged Leaves
c) Sick Leaves
d) Examination Leaves

8. Maximum how may days CLs can be taken at a time.

a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
9. Who is not free from CDA rules in our company
a) CMD
b) GM
c) Non Executive Director
d)

10. For which benefit it is * to take leave

a) Leave travel subsidy
b) Leave encashment
c) Transfer benefit
d) Hospitalization Expenses Reimbursement

11. If one employee is having only 25 days of PL in his account. Maximum how
many days leave encashment he can avail
a) 20
b) 15
c) 10
d) Nil

12. Under Preventing Corruption Act, a * servant can be prosecuted for

a) Wrongful gain
b) Misappropriation
c) Wrongful loss to *
d) All of the above

13. Perquisite Tax is not applicable in

a) Reimbursement of fuel for the use of vehicle on company’s loan
b) * on a leased accommodation
c) Subsidized housing loans
d) Leave travel subsidy

14. If one employee received a gift item, above what price of the gift he is required to
intimate company
a) Rs. 500/-
b) Rs. 1500/-
c) Rs. 2500/-
d) Rs. 5000/-

15. On promotion to which cadre one officer will be on probation

a) AM
b) Dy. Manager
c) Manager
d) CMD

16. In which cadre delegation of formal authority is not required

a) Manager
b) Dy. Manager
c) AM
d) Vigilance Officer
17. For suspending an employee which condition is to be fulfilled
a) He is charge sheeted by company
b) He is arrested by police
c) He is under * for more than 48 hours
d) He is convicted by a Court
18. Which cadre is outside the purview of Transfer of Morbidity Policy
a) AM
b) Dy. Manager
c) Manager
d) CM

19. For entitlement to avail retirement pension minimum how many years service has
to be completed
a) 10 years
b) 15 years
c) 20 years
d) 25 years

20. For entitlement of benefit of Gratuity minimum hw many years of service has to
be completed
a) 10 years
b) 15 years
c) 20 years
d) 30 years

21. Maximum how many days PL can be encashed at the time of retirement
a) 6 months
b) 8 months
c) 10 months
d) No limit

22. Notional extension of service for compensation of pension for VRS optees under
Pension Schemes
a) 5 years
b) Maximum 5 years
c) Maximum 7 years
d) 10 years

23. Which of there is not a minor penalty

a) Sensor
b) With holding one or more increment for a specified period
c) With holding one or more increment permanently
d) Recovering from pay or the amount as may be due to him of the while or
part of precautionary loss caused.

24. Which one of the following cities, does not fall under the category A for travel
rules
a) Mumbai
b) New Delhi
c) Bangalore
d) Patna
 HR 8
1. As per Leave Rules, two types of leave from amongst the following cannot
be availed in conjunction
a. Earned leave with Casual leave
b. Earned leave with Sick leave
c. Casual leave with Sick leave
d. Quarantine leave with Sick leave

2. As per LTS rules for officers in Scale IV, where the entitlement is by air and
the employee has traveled partly by air and partly by rail in AC Ist class total
travel not exceeding 1900 kms, what will be the basis of reimbursement
a. Full reimbursement by air for 1900 Kms
b. Full reimbursement by rail AC II tier fare for 1900 Kms
c. Full reimbursement by rail AC Ist Class fare for 1900 Kms
d. Prorata reimbursement by air on actuals and balance on AC II tier basis
for rail journey.

3. If the services of a person who has opted for pension, is terminated by way of
imposing a major penalty, which of the following benefits are not payable ?
a. Provident Fund
b. Voluntary Provident Fund
c. Pension
d. None of the above

4. Qualification pay is granted for the following qualifications in case of

supervisory and clerical staff
a. A.I.I.I.
b. F.I.I.I.
c. M.B.A
d. All of the above

5. Hill Station Allowance is payable for the cities having mean sea level above
a. 1000 mts
b. 1200 mts
c. 1500 mts
d. 2000 mts

6. In Encashment of earned leave, which of the following allowance is not paid

a. Basic Pay
b. Dearness Allowance
c. HRA
d. Conveyance Allowance

7. Which of the following does not constitute a misconduct under CDA rules?
a. Sleeping in office during office hours
b. Taking bribes
c. Accepting gifts valued Rs. 250/- at a time.
d. Accepting a watch valued at Rs. 1000/-
8. Which of the following does not constitute a major penalty under CDA rules?
a. Termination from service
b. Withholding of one increment permanently
c. Withholding of one increment for 2 years
d. Compulsory Retirement

9. Which one of the following is not a minor penalty under CDA rules?
a. Censure
b. Withholding one increment for 6 months
c. Reduction in time scale
d. Recovery of pecuniary loss caused to company from salary

10. Dismissal from services order can be issued by

a. Officer in charge
b. Competent Authority for imposing major penalty
c. Appellate Authority
d. The Appointing Authority

11. Leased Accomodation for a Scale III officer in Metro cities is allowed upto
a. 2000
b. 3000
c. 4000
d. ……… (Answer to be filled)

12. An employee under suspension is entitled to

a. Living allowance
b. Subsistence Allowance
c. Dearness Allowance
d. Family Allowance

13. Briefcase allowance is made for officers once after a period of

a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 5 years

14. Uniform is provided to

a. Sweeper and substaff
b. Clerical employees
c. Part-time sweepers
d. Casual Labourers

15. Which of the following does not constitute misconduct under CDA rules?
a. Habitual late or irregular attendance
b. Absence from employee’s appointed place of work without permission or
sufficient cause.
c. Commission of any act amounting to criminal offence involving moral
turpitude
d Absence from duty for one day without permission.
 HR 9

1. What procedure is to be followed for acquiring office premises on rent as per CVC
Guidelines ?

a. Advertisement in the news paper

b. Placing the advertisement on the website of the company.
c. Putting the Advertisement on the notice board of the company
d. All the above.

2.The term ‘Insurance Market’ broadly covers

a.Insurance Companies
b.Insurance buyers
c.Insurance Intermediaries
d.All above.

3.Till 1971 in total number of insurance companies operating in the insurance market were;

a.307
b.207
c.107
d.None of the above

4.The Corporate Agents as per the IRDA (Licensing of insurance Agents) Regulations could be;

a.Firms, Companies, Co-op. Society

b.Banks, Regl. Rural Banks, Co-op. banks,
c.Local authorities, NGOs
d.All above

5.As per code of conduct prescribed in the IRDA regulation an insurance agent shall not to
(Tick the right statement)

a.interfere with any proposal introduced by any other insurance agent

b.disclose his licence to the prospect on demand
c.disclose the scales of commission in respect of the insurance products offered for sales
d.indicate the premium to be charged by the insurer for the insurance product offered for sale

6.Regarding advertisement by Insurance intermediaries IRDA regulations provide that

a.Only duly licensed intermediaries may advertise or solicit insurance through advertisement
b.Agents or Intermediaries cannot advertise or solicit insurance through advertisement
c.Only duly licensed intermediaries may advertise or solicit insurance through advertisement
if the insurer in writing approves it.
d.None of the ab

7.Regarding advertisement by Insurance intermediaries IRDA regulations provide that

a.Only duly licensed intermediaries may advertise or solicit insurance through advertisement
b.Agents or Intermediaries cannot advertise or solicit insurance through advertisement
c.Only duly licensed intermediaries may advertise or solicit insurance through advertisement
if the insurer in writing approves it.
d.None of the above.

1
8.For the purpose of audit of financial statements, the auditor shall ensure that

a.Premium has been recognized as income over the contract period

b.Premium has been recognized as income over the period of risk
c.Premium has been recognized as income over the contract period or the period
of risk, whichever is applicable
d.Premium has been recognized as and when collected

9.The Auditor shall verify that real estate-investment property has been measured

a.At historical cost

b.At historical cost less accumulated depreciation
c.At historical cost less accumulated depreciation and impairment loss
d.At market value

10.The auditors who are required to express their opinion on whether the balance sheet
gives a true and fair view of the insurers’ affairs as at the end of the financial year are

a.Internal Auditors
b.Statutory Auditors
c.Govt. Auditors
d.Auditor for Tax Audit

11.The auditors will verify that the financial statements are prepared in accordance with

a.the requirements of the Insurance Act,1938

b.the requirements of the IRDA Act, 1999
c.the requirements of the Companies Act,1956
d.All above

12.The Auditors shall verify that the investments in the Balance Sheet have been valued
in accordance with

a.the provisions of the IRDA Act, 1999

b.the provisions of the IRDA Act, 1999 and IRDA Reg. on Accounts and Audit
c.the provisions of the Companies Act, 1956 and Accounting Standard (AS) 13
d.Market Value

13.The auditors express opinion on the accounting policies to the effect that

a.The Accounting Policies are appropriate and in compliance with applicable Accounting Standards
b.The Accounting Policies are appropriate and in compliance with applicable Accounting
Standards and IRDA Regulations
c.The Accounting Policies are appropriate and in compliance with IRDA regulations
d.The Accounting Policies are appropriate.

14.The auditor shall express their opinion that the Revenue Account gives

a.a true and fair view of the surplus or the deficit for the financial period
b.a true and correct view of the surplus or deficit for the financial period
c.a fair view of the surplus or the deficit for the financial period
d.None of the above.

2
15.As per IRDA (Accounts and Audit) Regulation the auditors are required

a.to review the management report

b.to certify that they reviewed the management report
c.to certify that they have reviewed the management report and there is no apparent
mistake or material inconsistencies with F S
d.not to certify or review the management report

16.As per IRDA (Accounts &Audit) Regulation, the auditor’s report shall specify that
a.The actuarial valuation of liabilities is duly certified by the appointed actuary
b.The valuation of liabilities is based on the assumptions for such valuations
c.Valuation in accordance with the guidelines and norms issued by ASI
d.Valuation is made in accordance with above all provisions.

17.For claim audit the auditor should look into the following aspect(s)

a.Legal Aspects
b.Technical Aspects
c.Financial aspects
d.All Above.

18.For Corporate underwriting audit, the internal auditor shall examine

a.Underwriting Policy and practice

b. Risk management Policy & Reinsurance Policy
c.Underwriting Results
d.All above

19.For investment audit, the Auditors look into the following aspects

a.Verification and Valuation of Investments

b.Verification of Exposure Risks
c.Verification of performing and non-performing status of insvestments
d. All above

20. Accounts audit covers the following aspects

a.Verifications of Financial Statements

b.Recognition of Premium Income
c.Valuation of Assets and Liabilities and Solvency Margins
d.All above.

21.For motor TP claims audit, the auditors need not consider the following aspects

a.The Investigation Report & Income Statement

b. Charge Sheet, Post-mortem Report & Police Report
c. Policy particulars& 64VB compliance
d.Premium charged and claim ratio

22. To verify the admissibility of FLOP claim, auditor shall first look into:

a.The admissibility of Material damage claim in Fire Policy

b.Whether the claim under Fire policy is payable
c.The admissibility of FLOP policy claim with reference to its coverage, exclusions,
terms, conditions, clauses irrespective of the admissibility of claim
d.None of the above
3
23. The auditor will examine the Receipts & Payments Accounts (cash flow statement)
to verify mainly;
a.Liquidity of the company
b. Solvency of the company
c.Profitability of the company
d.All above

24. In case CBI seeks sanction for prosecution of an employee of a public sector general
insurance company and the competent authority does not intend to accord sanction, which
would be the most appropriate option

a. CBI would initiate action against the Competent Authority

b. The CVO of the company will resolve the dispute between the CBI and the Competent
Authority by taking final decision regarding the course of action
c. The matter will be reported to CVC and the competent authority will take further action
after considering CVC’s advice.
d. None of the above

25.Chief Technical Examiner’s Organisation functions under the administrative control of

a.CPWD
b.GIPSA
c.IRDA
d.CVC

26. Complaint under the Public Interest Disclosure should be addressed to

a.CMD
b.CVO
c.CBI
d.CVC

27. Encircle the most appropriate option

A person who complains under Public Interest Disclosure is referred to as

a.Detective
b.Sleuth
c.Spy
d.Whistle - blower

28. The IRDA Regulation that deal with Audit Requirements is called:

a.IRDA (Preparation of Financial Statements and Auditor’s Report of Insurance

Companies Regulation, 2000.
b.IRDA (Preparation of Financial Statements and Auditor’s Report of General Insurance Companies)
Regulation, 2000.
c.IRDA (Preparation of Auditor’s Report of Insurance Companies) Regulation, 2000.
d.IRDA (Preparation of Auditor’s Report of general Insurance Companies) Regulation, 2000.

4
29. The Report of the Auditors on the Financial Statements of every insurance
company shall be inconformity with the requirements specified in schedule(s)
to the particular regulation thereof.

a.Schedule A
b.Schedule B
c.Schedule C
d.All above

30. The Audit Committee in an Insurance Company is constituted by one of the following ways:

aThe specified provisions in the Companies Act1956 (As Amended)

b.The specified provisions in the Insurance Act,1938 (As Amended)
c.The specified provisions in the IRDA Act, 1999 (As Amended)
d.The specified provisions in a specified IRDA Regulations

31. The Financial Statements of a general insurance company to be audited are:

a.The Revenue Account (Policyholders’ Account)

b.The Balance Sheet and Profit & Loss Account (Shareholders’ Account)
c.The Receipts and Payments account (Cash Flow Statement)
d.All above

32. C&AG Audit of Government companies is carried out as per the provisions:

a.The Provisions Sec. 617 of The Companies Act 1956 (As amended)
b.The Provisions Sec. 618 of The Companies Act 1956 (As amended)
c.The Provisions Sec. 619 of The Companies Act 1956 (As amended)
d.All above

33. For the purpose of PSU Audits laws and regulations applicable are

a.The Provisions of the Companies Act and the Insurance Act

b.The IRDA regulations and the Insurance Principles
c.The Accounting Standards (AS) & the Auditing and Assurance Standards (AAS)
issued by the Institute Chartered Accountants of India
d.All above

34. Insurers can resort to non-price competition by

a.Giving free riders

b.Minimizing exclusions
c.Imposing Warranty
d.Creating insurance awareness among the public

35. The Audit Committee that oversees, reviews and evaluates the financial results and
their disclosures is constituted

a.Under the directives of The Controller & Auditor General of India.

b.Under the provisions of the IRDA Act, 1999
c.Under the Provisions of the Insurance Act
d.Under the provisions of Sec.292Aof the Companies Act,1956 (As amended)

5
36. The Audit Committee legally constituted is required to

a.oversee, review and evaluate the financial results of the company

b.examine the reporting process and disclosures of performance of the company
c.review the audit of all the offices of the company, discuss with the statutory auditor
and recommend the same to the Board
d.All above

37. The Statutory Auditor of PSU Insurance Company is appointed by

a.The C&AG
b.Shareholders in AGM
c.The Board of Directors
d.The Regulatory Authority

38. The Audited Annual Accounts of PSU Insurance Company is submitted to:

a.The Lok Sabha of the Parliament U/S 619A & Sec 619B of the Co’s Act
b.The Rajya Sabha of the Parliament U/S 619A & 619B of the Co’s Act
c.Both the Sabhas of the Parliament U/S 619A & 619B of the Co’s Act
d.None of the above

39. In the audit report the auditor is required to comment on valuation of liabilities to the effect that;

a.The actuarial valuation is true and correct

b.The actuarial valuation is true and fair
c.The actuarial valuation is proper and justified
d.The actuarial valuation has been certified by the appointed actuary and the said certificate
has been relied upon for their opinion.

40. In the audit report the auditor is required to comment on Management Report to the effect that:

a.There is no apparent mistake or material inconsistency with the financial statements

b.There is no mistake or inconsistency with the financial statements
c.Management is true and correct
d.None of the above

41. In the audit report the auditor is required to comment on Investment with:

a.Investments have been valued in accordance with the provisions of the Insurance Act
b.Investments have been valued in accordance with the provisions of the Insurance Act
and the prescribed IRDA Regulations
c.Investments have been valued in accordance with the provisions of the prescribed
IRDA Regulations
d.None of the above

42. The Statutory Audit Report of PSU Company is required to addressed to;

a.The Members
b.The Government
c.The IRDA
d.The Board

6
43. The certification on company’s compliance of Sec. 40 (C) of the Insurance Act, 1938
in regard to debit of all management expenses to Revenue Account is required to be done by:

a.The C&AG Auditor

b.The Internal Auditor
c.Statutory Auditor
d.Special Auditor

44. The Statutory Auditor comments on amortization of expenses on account of Pension,

Gratuity and Leave Encashment in accordance with the requirements of;

a.Accounting Standard (AS) 15

b.Accounting Standard (AS) 22
c.Accounting Standard (AS) 18
d.None of the above

45. Certificate to the effect that no part of the assets of Policyholders Funds has been
directly applied in contravention of the Insurance Act, 1938 is given by

a.The C&AG Auditor

b.The Internal Auditor
c.The Statutory Auditor
d.The Special Auditor

46. Which of the following is not the duty of an auditor ?

a. To give an accurate statement to the board members about the state of affairs
of a company and to follow the Company’s Act 1985
b. To meet the objectives of the Company’s Act 1985 and also the Articles of
Association of the company
c. To be reasonably skillful and careful in identifying the true nature of the accounts
d. To advise the directors on the items that have to be selected for inclusion in the
financial statements , the methods for measuring them and presenting them

47. Which of the following committees makes recommendations regarding the audit fee ,
and the selection and replacement of auditors ?

a. Audit committee
b. Nomination committee
c. Remuneration committee
d. Executive directors’ committee

7
 HR 10
01. Which of the following does not constitute a misconduct under CDA Rules of the
Company?
a. Sleeping whilst on duty.
b. Irregular attendance
c. Smoking within the premises of the establishment.
d. Remaining absent for a day without sanction of leave from the competent authority.
02. In case of Officers on marketing side where petrol expenses are deducted for leave period,
the deduction of petrol will be :
a. @ 3 liters per day.
b. @ 2 liters per day.
c. @ pro-rata to his monthly monthly/quarterly eligibility.
d. No deduction.
03. A security guard employed in Regional Office through contractor is caught red handed
while stealing a computer. You being, the competent authority, will take which of the
following action :
a. Lodge F.I.R. with the Police authorities against the security guard.
b. Take action against him under CDA Rules.
c. Imposed penalty of dismissal on him without holding departmental enquiry.
d. Refer the matter to vigilance for necessary action.
04. Issuing a pink slip in HR means :
a. Quantum jump in annual salary
b. Elevation to higher cadre
c. Showing the door with all dues cleared
d. Transfer to a different city within the same Company
05. As per CVC guidelines enquiry should be completed and report of EO submitted to the
Disciplinary Authority by EO :
a. within 90 days of receipt of order of appointment of EO/PO.
b. within 120 days of receipt of order of appointment of EO/PO.
c. within 180 days of receipt of order of appointment of EO/PO.
d. within 240 days of receipt of order of appointment of EO/PO.
06. As per amended CVC guidelines the disciplinary cases in respect of following officers are
st nd
to be referred to CVC for 1 & 2 stage advice :
a. Scale-III and above.
b. Scale-IV and above.
c. Scale-V and above.
d. Scale-VI and above.
07. Which of the following does not constitute a vigilance angle:
a. Submission of false/forge certificates.
b. False mediclaim.
c. Drunken and unruly behaviour.
d. False LTS.
08. The ‘Regional Complaints Committee’ for redressal of sexual harassment cases for our
women employees consists of :
a. All lady officers of the Company.
b. One lady officer of our company, one lady member from local NGO and one male
officer from the Personnel Department of the Company.
c. One lady officer from local NGO, one Lady Officer each posted in Personnel and
Legal Department at RO.
d. One lady officer each from Personnel and Legal Deptt. Of RO and one local lady
Sub-Judge.
09. An employee was put under suspension w.e.f. 01-01-2007 on discovery of a fraud
committed by him. As per rules he was paid subsistence allowance @ 50% of last drawn
emoluments. He did not cooperate during the investigation and refused to record his
statement before the I.O. He refused to receive the charge sheet. He did not attend the
enquiry proceedings and did not acknowledge notice from EO for participating the enquiry.
EO published notice in the newspapers on 01-07-2007 giving him last opportunity to attend
the enquiry. He joins enquiry on 02-07-2007 and submits a representation for increase in
his subsistence allowance to 75% since more than 6 months have elapsed since his
suspension. You are the competent authority and which of the following action will you take
:
a. Allow increase in subsistence allowance to 75%.
b. Decrease subsistence allowance to 25%.
c. Continue to pay 50% of subsistence allowance.
d. Revoke his suspension from the date of joining the enquiry proceedings.
10. Communication in an organization is a purposeful business activity enabling both
organization and individual to achieve the objective.
a. True
b. False
c. Not an HR principle
d. Applicable for manufacturing concerns
11. In case of transport of household goods by road following transfer of officers,
reimbursement of transport expenses will be :
a. Based on notional rail freight for eligible load.
b. Based on the fixed mileage allowance per k.m. per ton for eligible load.
c. Actual expenses.
d. Officers are not eligible for this benefit.
12. Which of the followings are not an HR function :
a. HR planning and Recruitment
b. Training and Development
c. Growth of business attaining business targets
d. Job design and Job enrichment

13. On retirement/Voluntary Retirement the transfer benefit provision for shifting to home town
/ place of choice is applicable for :
a. all classes of employees.
b. Class-I & II Officers.
c. Class-I Officers
d. None of the above.
14. Where both husband and wife are employed in any of the four PSU insurance companies,
the LTS benefit will be claimed by :
a. Both the employees as per their eligibility.
b. Either of the two as per their options.
c. the employee drawing higher basic pay.
d. Only by the husband.
15. Employees seeking voluntary retirement under Pension Schemes after completion of 20
years of service or under Rationalization Scheme after attaining 55 years of age are
eligible for:
a. All benefits other than leave encashment.
b. All benefits as applicable for retirement on attaining the age of superannuation.
c. All benefits as applicable in case of resignation.
d. All benefits other than shifting to home town / place of choice.
16. Earned Leave in excess of which of the following number of days cannot be granted at a
stretch even if sufficient leave balance is there (except retirement cases):
a. 90 days.
b. 120 days.
c. 180 days.
d. 240 days.
17. LTS can be availed when a person is on the following sanctioned leave:
a. EL/CL/SL
b. EL/CL
c. EL/CL/ML
d. Any kind of leave.
18. An employee in RC cadre who is getting graduation allowance, will be entitled on
promotion to Assistant cadre :
a. Salary fixation benefit on the graduation allowance in RC cadre.
b. Will continue to get graduation allowance.
c. Will stop getting graduation allowance instead will be given 2 advance graduation
increments.
d. Will stop getting graduation allowance without any other benefit.
19. Employees who have got computer increment are eligible for payment of Fixed Personal
Allowance one year after reaching ceiling of the scale as per the rate of the allowance
applicable to :
a. Their scale/grade of pay at the time of grant of FPA.
b. Their scale/grade of pay applicable for pre-promoted cadre.
c. Their scale/grade of pay applicable as on date of grant of computer increment.
d. FPA provision does not exist.
20. In case of Officers eligible to travel by air, distance travelled by air during LTS journey will
be computed as :
a. Actual distance travel as per Air route.
b. The road distance between the two places by shortest route.
c. The rail distance between two places by shortest route.
d. Any of the above which is more beneficial to the Officer.
21. A Scale-IV Officer travels from Delhi to Jaipur (distance 250 k.ms. ) by air and pays
Rs.5,000/- for the ticket. Then he travels by taxi from Jaipur to Ahmedabad and back to
Jaipur (distance 750 k.ms. each way) and pays Rs.30,000/- as fare. He travels from Jaipur
to Delhi again by air and pays Rs.5,000/- as fare. Reimbursement as per LTS rules will be:
a. Rs.10,000/- only.
b. Rs.10,000 + A.C. II fair by rail for 1750 k.ms. each way.
c. Rs.10,000/- + A.C. II fair by Rajdhani for 1750 k.ms. each way.
d. Rs.40,000/-.
22. An Officer on marketing side provided car under 9A(iv) Scheme opting for transfer to
administration side is required to :
a. Deposit with the Company written down value (WDV) of the vehicle in lump-sum
within 3 months from the date of exit from marketing side.
b. Has option to deposit written down value as (a) above or get the amount converted
to loan as per conveyance scheme for Officers on administration side.
c. Written down value will be treated as loan @ 5% interest and will be recovered in
balance of 96 EMI.
d. Sell the car and deposit the amount with the Company to clear his accounts.
23. As per Para 13.1 and 13.2 of the amended Promotion Policy for Supervisory, Clerical &
Subordinate Staff Scheme, the distribution of vacancies for promotion to Scale-I Officer
from Class-III is :
a. 50% for departmental channel & 50% for competitive channel.
rd rd
b. 2/3 for departmental channel and 1/3 for competitive channel.
th th
c. 3/4 for departmental channel and 1/4 for competitive channel.
d. 40% for departmental channel and 60% for competitive channel.
24. As per CDA Rules, abandonment of post occurs :

a. If he absents himself from duty without leave or overstays his leave for a
continuous period of 120 days without intimation in writing.
b. If he absents himself from duty without leave or overstays his leave for a
continuous period of 90 days .
c. If he absents himself from duty without leave or overstays his leave for a
continuous period of 180 days without intimation in writing.
d. If he absents himself from duty without leave or overstays his leave for a
continuous period of 240 days without intimation in writing.
25. As per the amended Promotion Policy for Supervisory, Clerical & Subordinate Staff
Scheme, the number of marks allotted for interview for promotion to Scale-I Officer from
Class-III is :
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
26. The main functions of management are :
a. Planning & organizing
b. Staffing and leading
c. Budgeting and controlling
d. All the above
27. Delay in deposit of premium by a Development Officer in the Office as per IPC is a case of
:Temporary misappropriation.
a. Misappropriation.
b. Adjustment.
c. Violation of 64-VB.
28. The general positive principles involved in taking care of disciplinary problems are : Make
disciplinary actions
a. Corrective, progressive and impartial
b. punitive and subjective with no opportunity to explain
c. both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
29. The organizations under the purview of CVC are :
a. All Government Departments
b. Government and Govt. owned Public Sector Undertakings
c. Central Government and Government owned PSUs.
d. All of the above
30. PSU Insurers Employees’ Provident Fund is deposited with :
a. Government of India
b. LIC
c. P.F. Trustees of the Company
d. P.F. Commissioner
31 Select the correct statement on Training:-
a. Training sometimes interrupts smooth functioning of office.
b. Training must be done in-house.
c. Training is a continuous process of Development of human resources.
d. Training is beneficial for selected employees.
32. As per the amended Promotion Policy for Supervisory, Clerical & Subordinate Staff
Scheme, the number of attempts allowed for promotion to Scale-I Officer from Class-III
under Competitive channel is:-
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
33. 24 hours hospitalization clause as per MBIS for employees is not waived in respect of
which of the following :
a. dog bite
b. dental surgery
c. pyrexia of unknown origin.
d. lithotripsy
34. Mileage allowance for transportation of goods by road from Delhi to Chennai (approx.
distance 2400 K.Ms.) on transfer for Officer is :
a. Rs.1.10 per ton per k.m.
b. Rs.1.40 per ton per k.m.
c. Rs.1.50 per ton per k.m.
d. Rs.2.10 per ton per k.m.
35. In case of pension optee who is imposed major penalty of removal/dismissal from service,
pension is payable :
a. @ 50% of entitled/earned pension.
b. @ 25% of entitled/earned pension.
c. @ 75% of entitled/earned pension.
d. No pension is payable.
36. Normal period of posting (NPP) as per TMP for Officers is :
a. 3 years.
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 4 years
37. If an Officer is allowed to retain Company’s accommodation in the previous place of
posting on transfer, he cannot be provided company’s accommodation at his new place of
posting till such time. In such a situation :
a. The Officer would not be eligible for 30 days DHA benefit on transfer.
b. The Officer will be eligible for 30 days DHA benefit.
c. The Officer will be eligible for 30 days DHA benefit only after vacating the
accommodation at the previous place of posting.
d. Both (b) and (c) above.
38. For which of the following Confidential Report is not required :
a. Promotion
b. Stagnation Increment
c. Permission for visiting abroad
d. None of the above
39. According to Abrham Maslow’s Theory hierarchy of human needs, which of the following
are human needs :
a. Physiological and Safety needs
b. Love and esteem needs
c. Self actualization needs
d. All the above
40. Which of the following does not fall under special provisions of CDA Rules in relation to
dismissal of an employee without holding a domestic enquiry:
a. When the employee is convicted in a criminal charge.
b. In the interest of the security of the Company it is not expedient to hold enquiry.
c. When an employee has abandoned his post.
d. Termination of the employee during probation period.
41. Who amongst the following is best suited to counsel an employee in need of counseling :
a. Immediate supervisor.
b. Incharge of the Department/Boss.
c. HR Manager.
d. CEO of the Company.
42. In HR attrition means :
a. Remaining in the Company
b. Leaving the Company for better avenues
c. Lay-off and Retrenchment
d. Promotion to higher cadre
43. Decision making is defined as :
a. Making the best choice among alternative course of action.
b. As a basic human need.
c. Main HR function.
d. Essential element of leadership
44. Officers in Scale-I, II and III cadre are eligible for maximum number of stagnation
increments :
a. 1, 3 and 2 respectively
b. 2, 4 and 2 respectively
c. 2, 3 and 2 respectively
d. 1, 3 and 2 respectively
45. Benefit of mid-academic year allowance on transfer is allowed to :
a. All classes of employees
b. Only Class-I Officers
c. Class-I and II Officers
d. Class-I Officers and Class-III/IV employees
46. Amount of conveyance allowance to Development Officers (Administration) stands revised
to :
a. Rs.150 per month
b. Rs.250 per month
c. Rs.300 per month
d. They are not eligible for conveyance allowance
47. Stagnation Increment to Development Officers (Administration) can be sanctioned :
a. Provided their cost ratio is within the stipulated limit.
b. Provided their performance and conduct is satisfactory.
c. Both (a) & (b) above.
d. Stagnation Increment is not applicable for them.
48. Normally upon death of an Officer due to accident whilst in service, the family would be
eligible for following terminal benefits :
a. PF, pension and commutation (if pension optee).
b. Gratuity, leave encashment, GSLI, GTIS (if pension optee), GIS, GPA, ex-gratia in
lieu of compassionate appointment, Relief from welfare society.
c. All the (b) above except leave encashment.
d. All the (b) above except ex-gratia.
49. Incidental expenses to Class-I Officers are payable as per T.E. rules :
a. @ 100% of DHA applicable for Class-C city for each completed journey.
b. @ 50% of DHA applicable for Class-C city for each completed journey.
c. @ 100% of DHA applicable for the city to which journey is undertaken.
d. @ 50% of DHA applicable for the city to which journey is undertaken.
50. Direct Recruit Officers on completion of the initial induction training on posting are eligible
for :
a. All the transfer benefits
b. None of the transfer benefits
c. None of the transfer benefits except fare for travel and leased accommodation at
the place of posting.
d. Transfer Grant plus benefits under (c ) above.
51. Normally permission to Officers for shifting their family/household goods and retention of
Company’s accommodation is allowed for a period upto :
a. 6 months of transfer
b. 6 months of transfer or beginning of the next academic year whichever is earlier.
c. 6 months of transfer or beginning of the next academic year whichever is later.
d. 6 months of transfer or ending of the next academic year whichever is later.
52. If an employee requests for waiving of the notice period upon seeking voluntary retirement,
the same can be waived by :
a. Head Office only
b. GM(P) at Head Office
c. The Appointing Authority who is authorized to accept VRS request
d. Chief Regional Manager or Chief Manager at HO
53. Which of the following is not a step to organizing :
a. Establishment of the objectives of the enterprise.
b. Effective communication.
c. Identification of the activities necessary to achieve the objectives.
d. Creating and delegating authority.
54. The maximum upper age limit prescribed for recruitment of physically challenged employee
is :
a. 28 years
b. 30 years
c. 35 years
d. 40 years
55. Qualification Allowance payable to Class-I Officers are as follows :
a. Only for acquiring CA/MBA qualifications
b. For Fellowship and CA/MBA qualifications
c. For Actuarial qualifications
d. Not eligible for any qualification allowance.
56. An Officer on transfer had to retain Company’s flat for children’s education. He is eligible to
get Company’s flat at his new place of posting only when :
a. actually reports at the new place of posting.
b. After claiming 30 days DHA at his new place of posting.
c. Immediately on vacating the flat at the previous place of posting.
d. After bringing the children to the new place of posting.
57. A new recruit on training is eligible for grant of leave as follows :
a. All types of leave
b. one day EL on every 11 days of service.
c. 12 days of CL only
d. pro-rata i.e. one CL for every 30 days and one EL for every 11 days of service.
58. Following rule applies as regards reimbursement of 75% of tution fee for pursuing
Management course:
a. full time/part time regular course from a recognized University/ institution
applicable only for Class–I officers.
b. full time/part time/correspondence course from a recognized University/ institution
applicable only for class –I officers.
c. full time/part time regular course from a recognized University/ institution
applicable only for class –I and Class –II officers.
d. full time/part time regular course from a recognized University/ institution
applicable only for class –I ,class-II and class-III .
59. An employee posted in Delhi proceeds on LTS journey from Delhi to Shimla. He returns
from Shimla to Delhi and proceeds to Jaipur. He returns from Jaipur to Delhi. During the
LTS journey he incurs travel expenses amounting to Rs.2000/- on local sight seeing. He
will be eligible for LTS expenses :
a. for the entire journey from Delhi to Shimla to Jaipur via (Delhi) and back to Delhi
except travel expenses incurred on local sight seeing
b. for the entire journey from Delhi to Shimla to Jaipur via (Delhi) and back to Delhi
including expenses on local sightseeing.
c. For the journey from Delhi to Shimla and back to Delhi excluding the expenses on
local sightseeing.
d. For the journey from Delhi to Shimla and back to Delhi including the expenses on
local sightseeing at Shimla.

60. Which of the following is not an essential element of delegation ?

a. Determining the jobs to be delegated
b. Job enrichment and Job designing.
c. Actual delegation i.e. assigning duties to the subordinates and giving them
authority.
d. Responsibility and accountability of the subordinates to whom the job is delegated.
61. Union plays a vital role in HR maintaining harmonious relations between employees and
the Management. Which of the following is not true in this regard :
a. Union works as a link between employees and the Management.
b. Discussing and putting up the demand of the employees before the management.
c. Arm twisting the management to get maximum benefit for employees.
d. Providing a platform to the employees to voice their grievances and demands.
 HR 11

Q. NO. QUESTION
1. Which of the motivational needs is the first to be satisfied in Maslows
Hierarchy of needs theory:
A. safety needs
B. Physiological needs
C. Security needs
D. Esteem & Self Actualisation needs

Q. NO. QUESTION
2. Span of control or Authority in Human Resource Management is related to:
A. Power of Officer
B. Number of persons an Officer can control
C. Direction of control
D. Direction of command

Q. NO. QUESTION
3. Line Organisation is a type of organization in which :
A. Functions are arranged on Departmental lines
B. There is direct vertical Senior- Subordinate relationship line
C. Functions are arranged on specialist lines
D. Functions are arranged on Specialist & Departmental lines

Q. NO. QUESTION
4. Which of the following is not the part of wages
A. House Rent Allowance ( HRA )
B. Basic Pay and Dearness Allowance
C. Commission payable on promotion of sales or business and both
D. Contribution paid or payable by employer to PF or Pension fund

Q. NO. QUESTION
5. Minimum number of members of the Trade Union required for its
registration under the Trade Union Act, 1926 is ;
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 20
Q. NO. QUESTION
6. Gratuity under Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 is not payable under which of
the following circumstances :
A. on employee’s superannuation
B. on employee’s retirement or resignation
C. on employee serving the employer for less than 5 years ( other than death or
disablement cases )
D. on employee’s death or disablement due to accident or disease

Q. NO. QUESTION
7. The General Insurance Business ( Nationalisation ) Act was passed in ;
A. 1970
B. 1971
C. 1972
D. 1973
Q. NO. QUESTION
8. The General Insurance Business ( Nationalisation ) Act was passed to give
effect to the Policy of the State as specified in the Constitution’s Article ;
A. 39
B. 40
C. 41
D. 42

Q. NO. QUESTION
9. Which was the Appointed Day for transfer of shares as per The General
Insurance Business ( Nationalisation ) Act
A. 01.01.1972
B. 02.01.1972
C. 01.01.1973
D. 02.01.1973

Q. NO. QUESTION
10. Which of the following was created by the Government under The General
Insurance Business ( Nationalisation ) Act
A. General Insurance Council
B. GIPSA
C. GIC
D. LPA

Q. NO. QUESTION
11. How many Indian Insurance Companies were merged by The General
Insurance Business ( Nationalisation ) Act
A. 101
B. 102
C. 106
D. 107

Q. NO. QUESTION
12. Appointing Authority for Scale I Officers is;
A. DGM
B. DGM (P) at Head Office
C. DGM I/C
D. GM (P) at Head Office

Q. NO. QUESTION
13. Which of the following is not a Entry Grade
A. Sub-staff & Driver
B. Assistant
C. Stenographer
D. AO ( Scale I )

Q. NO. QUESTION
14. For which cadres recruitment can be done only through requisition from the
employment exchange ;
A. Record Clerks
B. Assistants
C. Stenographers
D. Sub-staff & Drivers
Q. NO. QUESTION
15. A candidate can belong to SC category, if
A. he /she belongs to any religion
B. he / she is a Hindu only
C. he / she is a Muslim only
D. he/ she is a Hindu or a Sikh only

Q. NO. QUESTION
16. Date of Birth is confirmed at the time of recruitment to ;
A. Determine Seniority
B. to convey greetings from Company’s side
C. to ensure, we are not employing a minor
D. to decide place of posting

Q. NO. QUESTION
17. The maximum age of recruitment, after giving all relaxations to SC / ST/
OBC/ PH / EXSM is ;
A. 40
B. 44
C. 45
D. 46

Q. NO. QUESTION
18. The primary ‘ Proof of Age’ at the time of recruitment is ;
A. Birth Certificate
B. Date of Birth on SSC/ Matriculation certificate
C. Horoscope
D. Any of the above

Q. NO. QUESTION
19. If a person claims to be of ST category, he can be
A. only Christian
B. only Hindu
C. only Buddhist
D. of any religion

Q. NO. QUESTION
20. Which of the following disease does not qualify for quarantine leave :
A. Cholera
B. Chickenpox
C. Diptheria
D. Typhus fever

Q. NO. QUESTION
21. Which of the following is not authorised absence from duty :
A. Absence for Vasectomy
B. Absence for Tubectomy
C. Absence for IUCD insertion
D. Absence for Miscarriage
Q. NO. QUESTION
22. Special Leave may not be sanctioned for :
A. Cyclone
B. Riots
C. Floods
D. Transporter’s strike

Q. NO. QUESTION
23. Which of the following is payable under the Mediclaim Policy
A. Root canal treatment
B. Convalescence
C. Naturopathy
D. Ayurvedic treatment

Q. NO. QUESTION
24. Which of the following is not a benefit given to SC/ ST candidates at the
time of recruitment
A. Relaxation in age
B. Lower passing marks in written test
C. Railway fare for attending interview
D. Reimbursement of Hotel stay for interview

Q. NO. QUESTION
25. A reserve category candidate will be considered to have been recruited on
own merit if;
A. he does not take age relaxation
B. does not avail relaxed qualifying percentage in written exam or educational qualification
C. Any of the above
D. All of the above

Q. NO. QUESTION
26. Under CDA Rules the property Returns are required to be filed by
employees,
A. at the time of confirmation in employment
B. at the time of promotion
C. at the time of applying for the Passport
D. Annually

Q. NO. QUESTION
27. Which of the following is not a Authority under Industrial Disputes Act :
A. Conciliation Officer
B. Works committee
C. Labour Courts
D. Inquiry Officer

Q. NO. QUESTION
28. Employer is liable to pay compensation to workmen if the injury is caused
to him by accident that
A. has arisen out of & in the course of employment
B. has arisen out of the employment
C. has arisen in the course of employment
D. took place in the establishment
Q. NO. QUESTION
29. Whether Retired Officer can be appointed as an ‘Inquiry Officer’
A. Can be at the discretion of CMD
B. Can be at the discretion of CVC
C. Not at all
D. Very well

Q. NO. QUESTION
30. Which of the following “Misconduct” does not fall in the definition of
vigilance angle
A. Demanding and / or accepting illegal gratification
B. Obtaining valuable thing, without consideration or with inadequate consideration
C. Possession of assets disproportionate to known source of income
D. Unauthorised absence

Q. NO. QUESTION
31. Whether General Insurance ( CDA ) Rules , 1975 are applicable to Part- time
employees
A. NO
B. May be , if he has availed Housing or Vehicle loan from the Company
C. May be, if his employment has been confirmed
D. YES, in all circumstances

Q. NO. QUESTION
32. Which of the following is not a Misconduct under CDA Rules;
A. Frequent purchase & / or sale of shares
B. Private Trading
C. Participation of Politics & standing for elections
D. None of the above

Q. NO. QUESTION
33. Reduction to lower stage in the time scale for a period not exceeding three
years without cumulative effect , as per General Insurance (CDA) Rules is a
A. Major Penalty
B. Minor Penalty
C. No Penalty
D. Appeal Penalty

Q. NO. QUESTION
34. Submission of Property Returns in Mandatory as per General Insurance
(CDA) Rule no. :
A. Rule 16 ( 2)
B. Rule 16 ( 4)
C. Rule 16 ( 1)
D. Rule 15 ( 2)

Q. NO. QUESTION
35. No traveling allowance and Transfer Grant is admissible following transfer
of an employee in case,
A. Transfer is within 100 Kms
B. Transfer is within 150 Kms
C. No change of residence is involved
D. No change of State is involved
Q. NO. QUESTION
36. What is not true about HRM
A. HRM consider employees as resources
B. HRM consider employees as factors of production
C. HRM is proactive process
D. All the above NOT TRUE

Q. NO. QUESTION
37. The Earned Leave to the new recruit during the initial training period is as
follows:
A. EL shall not accrue
B. EL shall accrue and can be availed
C. EL shall accrue and can not be availed
D. No provision of Earned Leave is applicable

Q. NO. QUESTION
38. Maternity Leave may be granted to a female employee having less than 3
living children not exceeding no of days per confinement:
A. 80 days
B. 90 days
C. Six months
D. Three months

Q. NO. QUESTION
39. LTS benefit is not admissible to an employee who is :
A. Facing inquiry proceedings
B. Under Suspension
C. Under alcoholic condition
D. No such restriction is applicable

Q. NO. QUESTION
40. Which of the Article of the Constitution of India provides that Official
Language of the Union shall be HINDI in DEVNAGRI script :
A. Article 141
B. Article 226
C. Article 343
D. Article 356

Q. NO. QUESTION
41. Following is true with regard to reimbursement of cost of Brief Case /
Leather Bags to Officers:
A. The reimbursement will be allowed during the Notice Period to Officers who have opted for
VRS/ who have submitted resignation from services of the Company
B. The reimbursement will be allowed during the Notice Period to Officers who have opted for
VRS from services of the Company
C. The reimbursement will not be allowed during the Notice Period to Officers who have
opted for VRS/ who have submitted resignation from services of the Company
D. The reimbursement will not be allowed during the Notice Period to Officers who have have
submitted resignation from services of the Company
Q. NO. QUESTION
42. Following provision is applicable while considering grant of Leased
Residential Accommodation to Officers unto Scale IV
A. In exceptional cases relaxation in revised lease rent limit may be allowed untp a maximum of
10 % in A,B,C cities and upto 25 % in Metro cities .
B. In exceptional cases relaxation in revised lease rent limit may be allowed untp a maximum of
25 % in A,B,C cities and upto 10 % in Metro cities .
C. The relaxation of Lease rent limits provision is no more applicable
D. Relaxation of lease rent limit is allowed depending upon merit of each case.

Q. NO. QUESTION
43. Maximum Natural Calamity advance that can be availed by an employee is:
A. Rs. 7500/-
B. Rs. 15,000/-
C. Rs. 15000/- for each Natural calamity without any overall limit
D. Rs. 7500/- for each Natural calamity without any overall limit

Q. NO. QUESTION
44. Pre-revised portion of following allowances is taken into consideration for
certain benefits like Salary Fixation, PF, Pension, Leave Encashment etc.,in
cases of Asstts. and Sr. Assistants
A. Special Functional allowance, Graduation allowance, Technical qualification allowance
B. Special Functional allowance, Technical qualification allowance
C. Only pre-pre revised portion of Fixed Personal Allowance ( FPA ) is taken into
consideration for PF, Pension, Gratuity and Leave Encashment
D. None of the above is true

Q. NO. QUESTION
45. The revision in Transfer Grant Benefit from Rs. 500/- & Rs. 1000/- to One
Month Basic Pay in respect of Class III & IV employees is applicable only
for:
A. those Class III/ IV employees who have been posted on Promotion or TMP to another station
B. those Class III/ IV employees who have been posted on Promotion to another station
C. those Class III/ IV employees who have been posted on transfer to another station
D. the said rule is not applicable for Class III/ IV employees

Q. NO. QUESTION
46. The following is true regarding completed journey while on tour for the
purpose of payment of incidentals to all classes of employees:
A. If two or more journeys are completed on the same calendar day from midnight to midnight,
these will be treated as two or more journeys
B. If two or more journeys are completed on the same calendar day from midnight to midnight,
these will be treated as maximum two journeys only
C. If two or more journeys are completed on the same calendar day from midnight to
midnight, these will be treated as one completed journey only
D. If two or more journeys are completed on the same calendar day from midnight to midnight,
these will be treated as NIL journeys
Q. NO. QUESTION
47. LTS benefit is admissible as under , if both husband and wife are employed
:
A. If both husband and wife are employed in the Company both of them will get benefit
according to their eligibility
B. If both husband and wife are employed in different GIPSA Companies, both of them will get
benefit according to their eligibility
C. If both husband and wife are employed i.e one in GIPSA company and the other in any
other organization, both of them will get benefit according to their eligibility provided it is
for different journeys
D. If both husband and wife are employed i.e one in GIPSA company and the other in any other
organization, our employee will get benefit according to their eligibility provided he gives an
undertaking that the spouse has not claimed / will not claim LTS benefit from his / her employer

Q. NO. QUESTION
48. Benefit of mid-academic year allowance on transfer is not allowed to :

A. Class I Officers
B. Class-I Officers who are transferred on promotion
C. Class I officers who are transferred to the new place on their request after 3 years
D. Class-I Officers who are transferred and who immediately shift their family to the new
place

Q. NO. QUESTION
49. Scale I & II officers on marketing side ( other than Branch and Div.
Incharges ) are eligible for fixed monthly entertainment allowance of :

A. ranging from Rs. 250/- to Rs. 450/- per month depending upon the premium procured by them
B. They are not eligible for the said allowance

C. Rs. 300/- per month

D. As per the rare applicable for Branch Incharges

Q. NO. QUESTION
50. Which of the following is not a stage of sound recruitment process
A. Formulation of organisational objective
B. The size of the organisation.
C. resource analysis
D. candidate specification

Q. NO. QUESTION
51. Job Analysis can be done by the following methods except
A. Performance
B. observation
C. structured questionnaires
D. job description

Q. NO. QUESTION
52. Which of the following is not a step to make interview more effective
A. training the interview officials
B. structure the questions
C. multiple interview
D. none of the above
Q. NO. QUESTION
53. All the followings are types of transfers except
A. productive
B. replacement
C. Enrichment
D. Routine

Q. NO. QUESTION
54. training needs can not be identified by
A. Appraisal reports
B. Direct observation of behaviour at work
C. interviewing employees
D. simulation

Q. NO. QUESTION
55. Benefits that are required by an Act to provide to all employees are called
A. Medical Benefits
B. Direct Benefits
C. Indirect Benefits
D. Statutory Benefits

Q. NO. QUESTION
56. Communicating effectively is very important for organizations and it has
been done mostly in following ways except
A. Information dissemination
B. Employer Feedback
C. Employee Feedback
D. none of the above

Q. NO. QUESTION
57. The amount of invalid pension shall not be less than the ordinary rate of
A. Full Pension
B. Half Pension
C. Family Pension
D. None of the above

Q. NO. QUESTION
58. What is the term used to describe the process of helping a new employee to
settle quickly into their job so they become efficient and productive workers
A. action learning
B. discovery learning
C. sitting
D. induction

Q. NO. QUESTION
59. Which of the following is the best term to describe people who guide and
suggest suitable learning experiences for their juniors
A. human resource directors
B. line managers
C. coaches
D. mentors
Q. NO. QUESTION
60. The following are areas in which an organisation may develop Human
Resource strategies
A. employee relations
B. development
C. reward
D. all of the above

Q. NO. QUESTION
61. In addition to recruiting new employees, organisations can consider
following planning for their existing employees in order to meet demand for
increased skill levels.

A. career
B. succession
C. both A & B above
D. none of the above

Q. NO. QUESTION
62. Improved employee relations may be achieved through action plans that
focus on better

A. communication
B. employee involvement
C. consultation
D. all of the above

Q. NO. QUESTION
63. The ratio of applicants to the number of positions to be filled is known as
the _____________________ ratio

A. reliability
B. selection
C. aptitude
D. personality

Q. NO. QUESTION
64. Following tests are not usually used as part of the selection process

A. Interest
B. motivation
C. Both of the above
D. Interview

Q. NO. QUESTION
65. Which of the following is the oldest method of training

A. On the Job
B. Lectures
C. Apprenticeship
D. Seminar
Q. NO. QUESTION
66. Which is not the ingredient of Leadership

A. Ability to understand people

B. Power
C. Style of Leader
D. Seniority

Q. NO. QUESTION
67. Following are the steps involved in instituting a formal disciplinary
procedure except:

A. To issue a charge-sheet
B. to hold a domestic Inquiry
C. supply of the report of the Inquiry Officer to the charge-sheeted employee
D. Issuance of warning letter