PRACTICE TEST 3

SECTION 1. LISTENING
Part 1. For question 1-5, listen to two academics called John Farrendale and Lois Granger taking part in a
discussion on the subject of attitudes to work and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to what
you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.

1. Lois concurred with John’s viewpoint that ____.

A. most people tremble at the prospect of unemployment.
B. problems surface when unemployment coincides with other harrowing events.
C. some people are better equipped to tackle unemployment than others.
D. the psychological effects of unemployment can be overplayed.
2. Lois agrees with the listener who insinuated that ____.
A. not everybody can expect a high level of job satisfaction.
B. people should make provisions for redundancy as they would for retirement.
C. voluntary work may be more gratifying than paid work.
D. work is only one facet of a contented life.
3. What is John’s outlook on people who deem work as a ‘means to an end’?
A. He defers to the fact that they have chosen a viable alternative.
B. He feels they may be missing out on something important.
C. He is inclined to think it will instigate predicaments for them later.
D. He suspects their level of allegiance to the job.
4. On being asked about so-called ‘slackers’ at work, John points out that _______.
A. people often jump to uncalled-for conclusions about them
B. such a perspective has become progressively beyond the pale
C. their stances are deplorable in a free labour market
D. they accept the notion that work is a necessary evil
5. Lois quotes the psychologist Freud in such a way as to _______.
A. dispute that an aspiration to work is understandable
B. lend weight to John’s concepts about increased social mobility
C. provide a dissimilitude to the hypothesis of Bertrand Russell
D. substantiate how erudite postulations have shifted over time

Part 2. For question 1-5, listen to a radio news bulletin about dogs and decide whether the following
statements are true (T) or false (F). Write your answer in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. In French advertisements, dogs are being used in lieu of models. F
2. Parisian dog-owners take their pets for beauty treatments. T
3. The popularity of a film is instrumental in the appetite for dogs as models. T
4. French people are well-known to be dog-lovers. F
5. The bulletin is aimed at amusing its audience. T
Part 3. Listen to a part of a lecture about farming practices and complete the notes with the missing
information. Write no more than three words taken from the recording for ech answer in the spaces
provided.
Problems:
- (1) erosion
- pollution from various sources, including chemical fertilizers.
Conventional farming methods Organic farming methods
- (2) monoculture - (4) crop rotating
- synthetic fertilizer and chemicals used for (3) pest- covering crops
control - use of insects as natural (5) predators
- genetically-modified seeds - addition of manure and green waste
- pesticide and fungicide sprayed on crops after
picking.
- no need for documentation of production practices

Part 4. For questions 6–15, listen to a piece of news from the BBC about technology development in New
York and fill in the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the
recording for each answer in the spaces provided.
· The project New York Wi-fi Orchestra:
o aims at connecting various people as well as turning New York into an unparalleled, outlandish (1)
collaboration.
o successful mainly due to free access to municipal wi-fi.
o inspires New York government to plan a project to provide high speed wireless connection across
the (2) boroughs
·  2015: the introduction of a new product that is capable of
o displaying advertisements.
o allowing people to (3) charge their phone, find their best route, and even make free phone call.
The grand plan is also expected to play a role in (4) future proofing the Big Apple producing the gigabit
network.
The authority is also working with the (5) consorting consortium of specialist companies including New York
Control Group that invents the (6) Wi-Fi hubs used in the project.
Despite this good news
o New Yorkers seem to be of concern regarding how good the speed and coverage will be in some
areas. o people with less (7) disposable income might not be interested in the project.
o those that are not living within New York wouldn’t be happy.
The new system also contributes to address the (8) digital divide
o A lot of (9) lower income folks will be able to make use of a bigger data plan.
o It is hoped that the project will make New York become the most (10) tech-friendly and
innovative city in the world.
SECTION 2. LEXICO - GRAMMAR
Part 1. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. Little did I imagine The Amazing Race would entail long-winded journey and ups and downs ____.
A. aplenty B. inexhaustibly C. profusely D. superabundant
2. I haven’t seen Jane for nearly ten years, ____ I had got married and had two children.
A. for that duration B. at that point C. during which time D. in that time
3. It stands to reason that a touch of humor and optimism can work ____.
A. on all cylinders B. spectacles C. wonders D. your fingers to the bone
4. Researchers have made a(n) ____ plea for more sponsorship so that they can continue their project.
A. compassionate B. dispassionate C. encompassed D. impassioned
5. At first, she was ____ dumbfounded to hear that he wanted to break up, and then came the stirring of
autohypnotic perturbation.
A. exceedingly B. out-and-out C. somewhat D. utterly
6. In the hands of a reckless driver, a car becomes a ____ weapon.
A. lethal B. fatal C. mortal D. venal
7. It’s a shame they did not pick you, but it does not ____ out the possibility that you might get a job in a
different department.
A. rule B. strike C. cancel D. draw
8. There’s a small hard ____ on my wrist. I think I’d better see the doctor.
A. swelling B. lump C. bruise D. rash
9. The inconsiderate driver was ____ for parking his vehicle in the wrong place.
A. inflicted B. harassed C. condemned D. confined
10. At first Tom insisted hqe was right, but then began to ____.
A. back down B. follow up C. drop off D. break up

Part 2. The passage below contains 5 errors. Write the errors and corrections in the numbered boxes.
Essential oils → oil (also known as volatile oil) are the basic materials of aromatherapy. They are
made from fragrant essences found in many plants. These essences are made from → in special plant cells,
often under the surface of leaves, bark, or peel, using energy from the sun and elements from the air, soil, and
water. If the plant is crushed, the essence and its unique fragrance is → are released.
When essences are extracted from plants in natural ways, they become essential oils. They may be
distilled with steam and/or water, or mechanically press → pressed. Oils that are made with chemical
processes are not considered true essential oils.
There are many essential oils used in aromatherapy, including those from Roman chamomile,
geranium, lavender, tea tree, lemon, cedar-wood, and bergamot. Every → Each type of essential oil has a
different chemical composition that affects how it smells, how it is absorbed, and how it is used by the body.
Even the oils from varieties of plants within the same species may have chemical compositions different from
each other. The same applies to plants that are grown or harvested in different ways or locations.

Part 3. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable prepositions. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes.
1. These flowers belong with the plants classified as grasses.
2. The figures in the government report differ with those in our study.
3. In two studies involving 3221 participants there was no difference between the omega‐3 PUFA and placebo
group in mini‐mental state examination score at final follow‐up
4. If somebody chips in, we can get the kitchen painted by noon.
5. He was just an important cog in the machine of organized crime.

Part 4. Write the correct from of each bracketed word in the corresponding numbered boxes.
HECTOR BERLIOZ
Hector Berlioz (1) ____________ (DUBIOUS) fitted the notion of the Romantic artist of the
nineteenth century: idiosyncratic, eccentric, (2)________________ (ORTHO), rebellious, (3)______________
(CALCITE), impetuous and highly strung. And, true to the Romantic ideal of art and life as one, his music
mirrored his (4) ________________ (TEMPER) – and still polarises opinion. There are those who hail Berlioz
as one of music’s great (5)________________ (BLAZE); others hear little more than (6)________________
(BLOW) rhetoric. Did the German poet, Heine, capture the character of the Frenchman when he said Berlioz
‘had not sufficient talent for his genius’?
Whatever his technical (7)________________ (SHORT), there is no doubt that with the Symphonie
fantastique Berlioz shattered musical boundaries. The symphony’s wild swings of emotion, its (8)
________________ (NIGHT) imagery, and its (9)_______________ (DISGUISE) depiction of the mental
state of its creator, were utterly unlike anything ever composed before. It was an astonishing achievement for a
(10) ________________ (DOMINATE) untrained composer of just twenty-six and Berlioz never again
plunged quite so deeply into the dark abyss of the psyche as here.
1. indubitably
2. unorthodox
3. recalcitrant
4. temperament
5. trailblazers
6. overblown
7. shortcomings
8. nightmarish
9. undisguised
10. predominantly

SECTION 3. READING COMPREHENSION

Part 1. Choose the word that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage. Circle A, B, C or D to
indicate your answer.
Jean Piaget, the pioneering Swiss philosopher and psychologist, became famous for his theories on
child development. A child (1) ____ , he became interested in the scientific study of nature at an early age. He
developed a special fascination for biology, having some of his work published before graduating from high
school. When, (2) ____ 10, his observations led to questions that could be answered only by access to the
university library, Piaget wrote and published some notes on the sighting of an albino sparrow in the (3) ____
that this would persuade the librarian to stop treating him like a child. It worked. Piaget was (4) ____ on a path
that led to his doctorate in zoology and a lifelong conviction that the way to understand anything is to know
how it evolves.
Piaget went on to spend much of his (5) ____ life listening to and watching children, and poring over
reports of researchers who were doing the same. He found, to put it (6) ____, that children don’t think like
adults. After thousands of interactions with young people often barely old enough to talk, Piaget began to
suspect that behind their cute and seemingly illogical (7) ____ were thought processes that had their own kind
of order and their own special logic. Albert Einstein, the renowned physicist, deemed this a discovery “so
simple that only a genius could have thought of it.”.
Piaget’s insight opened a new window into the inner workings of the mind. Several new fields of
science, among them developmental psychology and cognitive theory, came into being as a result of his
research. Although not an educational reformer, he championed a way of thinking about children that provided
the foundation for today’s education reform movements. One might say that Piaget was the first to (8) ____
children’s thinking seriously. Others who shared this respect for children may have fought harder for
immediate change in schools, but Piaget’s influence on education remains deeper and more pervasive.
Piaget has been (9) ____ by generations of teachers inspired by the belief that children are not empty
vessels to be filled with knowledge, as traditional academic thinking had it, but active builders of knowledge -
little scientists who are constantly creating and testing their own theories of the world. And while he may not
be as famous as Sigmund Freud, Piaget’s contribution to psychology may be longer lasting. As computers and
the Internet give children greater autonomy to explore ever larger digital worlds, the ideas he (10) ____
become ever more relevant.

1. A. prodigy B. talent C. genius D. gifted

2. A. aging B. age C. be aged D. aged
3. A. purpose B. target C. hope D. aim
4. A. launched B. introduced C. led D. initiated
5. A. professional B. academic C. vocational D. whole
6. A. shortly B. succinctly C. clearly D. simply
7. A. sentences B. speech C. words D. utterances
8. A. get B. take C. make D. have
9. A. respected B. revered C. venerated D. adored
10. A. created B. believed C. pioneered D. propagandized

Part 2. Fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided
below the passage.
HOWARD’S CAREER AS A PALAEONTOLOGIST
Howard became a paleontologist because of a (1) rise in interest rates when he was six years old.
His father, a cautious man with a large mortgage and thoughts focussed merely on how the economic situation
would affect him, announced that the projected holiday to Spain was no longer (2) feasible. A chalet was
rented on the English coast instead and thus, on a dank August afternoon, Howard picked up a coiled fossil
shell, called an ammonite, on the beach.
He know for a long time that he wanted to become a paleontologist, and (3) towards the end of his
time at university he became clear as to what sort of paleontologist he wanted to be. He found the focus of his
interest reaching further and further back in time. The more spectacular areas were not for him, he realized,
turning his back on the Jurassic, on (4) dinosaurs. He was drawn particularly to the beginnings, to that
ultimate antiquity (5) where everything is decided, from which, against all odds, we derive. So he studied
delicate creatures revealed on the surface of grey rocks.
Work on his doctoral (6) thesis came to an end, and, he knew, possibly a bitter one. Would he get a
job? Would he get a job in the sort of institution he sought? He was far from being without self-esteem and
knew that his potential was good. But he knew that whose who deserve do not always get, and that while the
objectives of science may be pure and uncompromising, the process of appointment to an academic position is
not. When the Assistant Lectureship at Tavistock College in London came up, he applied at once, though (7)
without high hopes.
(8) on the morning of Howard’s interview, the professor who would chair the panel had a row with
his wife. As a consequence he left home in a state of irritation and inattention, drove his car violently into a
gatepost and ended up in the Casualty Department of the local hospital. The interview took place without him
and without the support he had intended to give to a candidate who had been a student of his.
The professor who replaced him on the panel was a hated colleague, whose main concern was to
oppose the appointment of his enemy’s protege; he was able to engineer without much difficulty that Howard
got the job. Howard, surprised at the evident (9) favoritism from a man he did not know, was fervently
grateful until, months later, a colleague kindly enlightened him as to the correct interpretation of events.
Howard was only slightly chagrined. It would have been nice to think that he was the obvious candidate, or
that he had captivated those present with his ability and personality. But by then the only thing that really
mattered was that he had the job and that he could support (10) himself by doing the sort of work he wanted to
do.

Part 3. Read the following passage and complete the statements that follow by circling A, B, C, or D to
indicate your answer which you think fits best
[1] Canadian English is a regional variety of North American English that spans almost the entire continent.
Canadian English became a separate variety of North American English after the American Revolution, when
thousands of Loyalists, people who had supported the British, left the United States and fled north to Canada.
Many Loyalists settled in southern Ontario in the 1780s, and their speech became the basis for what is called
General Canadian, a definition based on the norms of urban middle-class speech.
[2] Modern Canadian English is usually defined by the ways in which it resembles and differs from American
or British English. Canadian English has a great deal in common with the English spoken in the United States,
yet many Americans identify a Canadian accent as British. Many American visitors to Canada think the
Canadian vocabulary- sounds British – for example, they notice the British "tap" and "braces" instead of the
American "faucet" and "suspenders." On the other hand, many British people identify a Canadian accent as
American, and British visitors think the Canadians have become Americanized, saying "gas" and "truck" for
"petrol" and "lorry."
[3] People who live outside North America often find it difficult to hear the differences between Canadian and
American English. There are many similarities between the two varieties, yet they are far from identical.
Canadian English is instantly recognizable to other Canadians, and one Canadian in a crowded room will
easily spot the other Canadian among the North Americans.
[4] There is no distinctive Canadian grammar. The differences are mainly in pronunciation, vocabulary, and
idioms. Canadian pronunciation reflects the experience of a people struggling for national identity against two
strong influences. About 75 percent of Canadians use the British "zed" rather than the American "zee" for the
name of the last letter of the alphabet. On the other hand, 75 percent of Canadians use the American
pronunciation of "schedule," "tomato," and "missile." The most obvious and distinctive feature of Canadian
speech is probably its vowel sound, the diphthong "/ou/." In Canada, "out" is pronounced like "oat" in nearby
U.S. accents. There are other identifying features of Canadian vowels: for example, "cot" is pronounced the
same as "caught" and "collar" the same as "caller."
[5] An important characteristic of the vocabulary of Canadian English is the use of many words and phrases
originating in Canada itself, such as "kerosene" and "chesterfield" ("sofa"). Several words are borrowed from
North American Indian languages, for example, "kayak," "caribou," "parka," and "skookum" ("strong"). The
name of the country itself has an Indian origin; the Iroquois word "kanata" originally meant "village." A
number of terms for ice hockey – "face-off," "blue-line," and "puck" – have become part of World Standard
English.
[6] Some features of Canadian English seem to be unique and are often deliberately identified with Canadian
speakers in such contexts as dramatic and literary characterizations. Among the original Canadian idioms,
perhaps the most famous is the almost universal use of "eh?" as a tag question, as in "That's a good movie, eh?"
"Eh" is also used as a filler during a narrative, as in "I'm walking home from work, eh, and I'm thinking about
dinner. I finally get home, eh, and the refrigerator is empty."
[7] The traditional view holds that there are no dialects in Canadian English and that Canadians cannot tell
where other Canadians are from just by listening to them. The linguists of today disagree with this view. While
there is a greater degree of homogeneity in Canadian English compared with American English, several dialect
areas do exist across Canada. Linguists have identified distinct dialects for the Maritime Provinces,
Newfoundland, the Ottawa Valley, southern Ontario, the Prairie Provinces, the Arctic North, and the West.

1. According to the passage, how did Canadian English become a distinct variety of North American
English?
A. Linguists noticed that Canadians spoke a unique dialect.
B. A large group of Loyalists settled in one region at the same time.
C. Growth of the middle class led to a standard school curriculum.
D. Canadians declared their language to be different from U.S. English.
2. The word “norms” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. patterns B.history C. words D.ideas
3. The phrase “a great deal in common with” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. different words for B. the same problems as
C. many similarities to D. easier pronunciation than
4. In paragraph 2, what point does the author make about Canadian English?
A. Canadian English is more similar to American than to British English.
B. American and British visitors define Canadian English by their own norms.
C. Canadian English has many words that are not in other varieties of English.
D. Canadians speak English with an accent that Americans cannot understand.
5. The phrase “the two varieties” in paragraph 3 refers to ____.
A. People who live outside North American B. Canadian English and American English
C. General Canadian and North American D. British English and Canadian English
6. The word “spot” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. describe B. ignore C. prefer D. find
7. Which sentence below best expresses the essential information in the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
A. Canadian English has been strongly influenced by both British and American English.
B. Canada is the only nation where people can deliberately choose which pronunciation they prefer.
C. Canadians have tried to distinguish themselves as a nation, and this effort is shown in their
pronunciation.
D. Many newcomers to Canada must work hard to master the national style of pronouncing English.
8. All of the following words originated in North American Indian languages EXCEPT ____.
A. Kerosene B. Parka C. Canada D. Kayak
9. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5 about vocabulary?
A. Vocabulary is the most distinctive feature of Canadian English.
B. World Standard English has a very large vocabulary.
C. Canadians use more North American Indian words than Americans do.
D. Much of the vocabulary for ice hockey originated in Canada.
10. The author discusses the expression "eh" in paragraph 6 as an example of ____.
A. an idiom that uniquely characterizes Canadian speech
B. an expression that few people outside Canada have heard
C. a style of Canadian drama and literature
D. a word that cannot be translated into other languages

Part 4. Read the following passages and answer the questions.

THE BIRTH OF SUBURBIA
A. There is no single pivotal moment that could be separated out from any other as the conception of the
suburban lifestyle; from the early 1800s, various types of suburban development have sprung up and evolved
in their own localised ways, from the streetcar suburbs of New York to the dormitory towns outside of London.
It is William Levitt, however, who is generally regarded as the father of modern suburbia. During World War
II, Levitt served in the United States Navy where he developed expertise in the mass construction of military
housing, a process that he streamlined using uniform and interchangeable parts. In 1947, the budding developer
used this utilitarian knowledge to begin work with his father and architect brother constructing a planned
community on Long Island, New York. With an emphasis on speed, efficiency, and cost-effective production,
the Levitts were soon able to produce over 30 units a day.

B. William Levitt correctly predicted the demand for affordable, private, quiet, and comfortable homes from
returning Gls after World War II and with the baby boom starting to kick in. All the original lots sold out in a
matter of days, and by 1951, nearly 18,000 homes in the area had been constructed by the Levitt & Sons
Company. Levittown quickly became the prototype of mass-produced housing, spurring the construction of
similar projects in Pennsylvania, New Jersey, and even Puerto Rico, followed by a new industry, and soon a
new way of life and a new ideal for the American family.

C. One of the major criticisms of suburbia is that it can lead to isolation and social dislocation. With properties
spread out over great swathes of land, sealed off from one another by bushes, fences and trees, the emphasis of
suburban life is placed squarely on privacy rather than community. In the densely populated urban settlements
that predated suburbs (and that are still the foremost way of life for some people), activities such as childcare
and household chores as well as sources of emotional and moral support were widely socialised. This insured
that any one family would be able to draw on a pool of social resources from their neighbours, building
cohabitants and family on nearby streets. Suburbia breaks these networks down into individual and nuclear
family units resulting in an increase in anti-social behaviour even amongst the wealthy. Teens from wealthy
suburban families, for example, are more likely to smoke, drink alcohol, and use drugs than their poorer urban
peers, and are also more likely to experience depression and anxiety.

D. Another major problem with the suburban lifestyle is its damaging ecological impact. The comparison of
leafy, quiet, and low-density suburbs with life in the concrete towers of sooty, congested urban conurbations is
actually quite misleading; as it turns out, if you want to be kind to the natural environment, the key is to stay
away from it. Suburbia fails the environmental friendliness test on a number of counts. Firstly, due to their low
population density, suburbs consume natural land at a much higher rate than high-density row housing or
apartment buildings. Secondly, they encourage the use of personal motor vehicles, often at a rate of one per
family member, at the expense of public transport. It is also much less efficient to provide electricity and water
to individual suburban houses instead of individual units in an apartment building. In his comparison of urban
and suburban pollution, Edward L. Glaeser concluded that we need to “build more sky towers – especially in
California”. Virtually everywhere, he found cities to be cleaner than suburbs. And the difference in carbon
dioxide emissions between high-density cities and their suburbs (for example, in New York) was the highest.
Urban residents of New York can claim on average to produce nearly 15,000 pounds of carbon dioxide less
than their suburban peers.

E. Another negative aspect of suburban life is its stifling conformity and monotony of social experience. It was
not just the nuts and bolts and the concrete foundations of suburban houses that got replicated street upon
street, block upon block, and suburb upon suburb; it was everything from the shops and cultural life to people’s
hopes, dreams, and aspirations. Suburbia gave birth to the “strip mall”, a retail establishment that is typically
composed of a collection of national or global chain stores, all stocked with a centrally dictated, homogenous
array of products. The isolation and lack of interaction in suburbs has also encouraged the popularity of
television, a passively receptive medium for the viewer that, in the early days at least, offered an extremely
limited scope of cultural exposure compared with the wealth of experiences available in the inner city.
Meanwhile, much of the inner-city “public sphere” has been lost with suburban flight. The public sphere is the
area of social life in which people come together to freely discuss and identify social problems. In the city, this
has traditionally occurred around newsstands, in coffee houses, salons, theatres, meeting halls, and so on.
Suburbia has not found a way to replace this special type of social experience, however. Social meeting points
in the suburbs tend to be based exclusively around specific interests such as sports or cultural clubs, with no
broad forms of daily social interaction.

F. These points do not suggest the idea of suburbia itself is flawed, but that it has not been executed in a way
that takes into account the full spectrum of human needs and desires. This likely reflects the hasty, thrown-
together nature of early suburban development. With the baby boom rippling across Western countries and
demand for family-friendly housing skyrocketing, developers and city planners were unable to develop
sophisticated models. Now, however, we should take time to consider what has gone wrong and how we can
reconfigure the suburb. How can we imbue suburban life with the lost sphere of public discussion and debate?
How can people maintain their sought-after privacy without sacrificing a sense of community? How can we
use new technologies to make suburbs environmentally friendly? These are questions for which the developers
of tomorrow will have to find answers in case the dream of suburbia becomes the nightmare of disturbia.

For questions 1–5, locate the paragraph in which the following information is mentioned. Write the letter of
each paragraph in the corresponding boxes.
1. A motive in constructing taller buildings D
2. Where people might discuss issues of societal concern in urban locations E
3. The founder of what is broadly understood as contemporary ‘suburbs’ A
4. Examples of problems suffered by the youth that suburban lifestyle can make worse B
th
5. A model for suburban development in the latter half of the 20 century B

For questions 6-10, decide whether each of the following statements is

T if the statement agrees with the information or
F if the statement contradicts the information or
NG if there is no information on this

6. A good principle for ecological preservation is to avoid human interference. T

7. Suburban development fosters the use of both public and private forms of transport. F
8. People cannot relate to each other in suburbs because their lives are too different. F
9. There is not much variety amongst the goods at a strip mall. T
10. There are no ways for people to get together and interact in suburbs. F

Part 5. Put each of the headlines with a sentence from the story below. Write only the correct letter (A - J) in
the box.
1. Cops Hunt 4 After $5m Heist   D
2. US Said To Be Against Trade Deal  C
3. UN Offers Hope On Saudi Fine  B
4. Brighter News On Job Front  J
5. Thousand To Go At Auto Plant  H
6. Fall In Aid To Jobless  E
7. Call To Altar Falls Flat  A
8. Indian Crew Plucked From Waves  F
9. 5 Die In Floods, Landslide  C
10. Unease Causes House Price Wobble  I

A. Rev. Parsley, worried about falling church attendance figures, came up with the idea after watching a
programme on British TV whilst on vacation there.
B. The UN official, who declined to be named, said the money would not have to be paid if the kingdom came
into line with the rest of the nations.
C. The weather is not forecast to improve over the next few days which will only make the rescuers' task even
more difficult.
D. A getaway vehicle was found burnt out in an alleyway some six miles across town from where the bank was
held up.
E. The government is believed to have been surprised at the rise in unemployment figures and this could
explain the shortfall in funds.
F. The trawler got into trouble off Sri Lanka as waves as high as 20 feet threatened to engulf the vessel.
G. If agreed, the agreement would see a huge increase in Asian imports into the American market and this has
worried some politicians.
H. Increased competition from the Far East has also led to lower profits and job losses have been on the cards
since the spring.
I. Not only are people worried about inflation but the latest interest rates rise has also caused less movement on
the property market than is usual for this time of year.
J. Added to this are the effects of the recently signed trade treaty with Europe which many struggling
companies had called for.

Your answer:
1 2 3 4 5
6 7 8 9 10
 PRACTICE TEST 4
I. LISTENING
1. You will hear an interview with a woman called Emma Stoneham, who works as a manager in the
horse racing industry. For question 1- 5, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to
what you hear.
1. Emma first got interested in horse racing as a result of
A. a family connection. B. an educational visit.
C. a passion for horses. D. peer-group pressure.

2. What does Emma say about her qualifications?

A. She chose to study certain subjects against her father’s wishes.
B. She decided to do courses that dealt directly with horse racing.
C. She did a postgraduate course that few people knew about.
D. She was fortunate to be accepted on a special course.

3. How does Emma feel about what she calls the ‘big names’ in horse racing?
A. She represents having to plan her events to suit them.
B. She respects the contribution they make to the sport.
C. She believes that they shouldn’t receive special treatment.
D. She accepts that she needs to put on particular events to attract them.

4. How did Emma feel after cancelling the midwinter race meeting?
A. worried that inadequate precautions had been taken.
B. angry that bad weather hadn’t been predicted.
C. satisfied that she’s made the right decision.
D. grateful for the good advice she’d received.

5. As a result of cancelling the meeting, Emma has had to

A. put on additional race meetings.
B. make changes to her financial planning.
C. sell some land belonging to the racecourse.
D. postpone making improvements to facilities.

2. Read the statements, listen and decide whether they are true (T) or false (F).
1. The speaker has come from the Theosophical Society.
2. One of the main points of the talk is to save money.
3. He thinks students should do more housework.
4. He argues that plastic containers won't biodegrade quickly.
5. He warns that asthma sufferers should be careful with her recipes.
3. Listen to a talk about airports and supply the blanks with the missing Information. You can
write your answers in the form of NOTES (no more than 5 words).
1. What are the stages of waiting?
…………………………………………………………………………….………………………………
2. How much waiting time does Anna Harrison suggest reducing?
……………………………………………………………………………….………………………………
3. What concepts are absent from the design of passenger terminal buildings ?
……………………………………………………………………………….………………………………
4. What does Anna Harrison focus on analyzing?
……………………………………………………………………………….………………………………
5. What academic degree is Anna Harrison doing?
……………………………………………………………………………….………………………………

4. Listen and fill in the gaps (NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS)

You will hear a report on how English has become a global language. For questions 1-9, complete the
sentences with a word or short phrase.
The spread of English around the globe means it is now termed a (1) _____________ .
English first started to spread when explorers made (2) ______________ to the other side of the world.
The influence of Britain in the past and the influence of American business are the (3) _______________
which give English its present significance.
The number of people whose (4) _____________ is English is significantly greater in the USA than in the UK.
It is difficult to (5) ___________ the communicative functions of English in some countries.
It is sometimes suggested that English is (6) _____________ superior to other languages.
People tend to (7) ___________ languages using subjective rather than (8) ____________.
English sentence structure is (9) ____________.
Language success is (10) ____________ on a variety of different things.

II. GRAMMAR AND LEXICOLOGY

1. Choose the best answer
1. The altitude _______ his breathing, making him a bit spaced out and disorientated.
A. played downed B. played havoc with C. played himself in D. played up to
2. These men share a tendency toward balladeering that _______ me the wrong way.
A. bothers B. provokes C. riles D. rubs
3. I’m afraid the results of the X-ray examination are quite ________.
A. undecided B. indecisive C. inconclusive D. irresolute
4. A lot of people who have had a ___________ deal in life will show surprising cheerfulness.
A. bad B. rough C. raw D. clean
5 . The accused man was released on _________ pending the hearing of the case.
A. deposit B. bond C. deposition D. bail
6. The main cause of the strike was the management’s refusal to give further consideration to the question of
pay ________.
A. differences B. differentials C. subsides D. dissimilarities
7. The Chairman ruled the speaker’s question ______.
A. out of line B. out of tune C. out of order D. out of condition
8. When several companies showed interest in buying the film rights to his novel, he knew he had
__________.
A. upped the ante B. scooped the bag C. caught the fat one D. hit the jackpot
9. The tournament isn’t over yet, not by a long ___________.
A. talk B. chalk C. walk D. hawk
10. The rumor that his job was in jeopardy caused Pete to______ with concern.
A. frown B. beam C. grimace D. howl

2. There are five mistakes in the following passage. Find out and correct them
Television lie at the heart of American culture, offer → offering a combination of news and amusement. It is
not surprising, therefore, that daytime talk shows, the ultimate blend of information and entertainment, are
earning top rate → ratings. Talk show producers and hosts claim that the purpose of air → airing all sorts of
problems on national television is to benefit viewers. They say they provide useful information and have
helped to create a more sensitive and educational → educated public. Many of those who have appeared as
guests say doing so changed their lives, and the shows can certainly take the credit for giving a lot of people
information they would not otherwise have had. So do the shows provide a service by allowing people to work
through issues that would otherwise be swept under the carpet? Or is there a danger that viewers will regard
the self-centered and thoughtful → thoughtless behavior they see in these programs as a model of how to live
their own lives?

3. Fill a preposition into each gap

These days, there is a growing band of 'shoestring renovators' who, in a climate where finance is hard to come
by, are scaling (1) back their refurbishment plans and coming up with imaginative ways to transform their
homes. Extra money is in short supply so things are done (2) on the cheap - not in a nasty way but in a way
that makes use of materials that other people don't want. Sarah and her husband are an example of this way of a
tight budget: the loan on an old cottage they bought was reduced by the bank so they had no choice but to do
most of the work themselves.
Sarah spent every spare minute for a year painting and decorating. She sourced materials and furniture from
eBay and recycled friends' unwanted possessions. Do-It-Yourself, however, is not (3) without its hazards:
Steve, Sarah's husband, knocked himself (4) out cold for two hours by hitting his head on a low beam above
the front door. Another time, they only just managed to save their new kitchen furniture from being ruined
after a mains water pipe burst. However, the upside is that the project has opened up a new avenue for Sarah -
people have seen her work and have suggested she start up her own home-styling business. And the cottage
next door is for sale so more creative furniture sourcing could lie just (5) around the corner!

4. Complete the passage with appropriate form of each word chosen from the given ones in the box.
mere addict likely vary digest
resist control treat circulate retire
In today’s health-conscious society, more and more attention is being paid to the benefits of exercise, a
balanced diet and a healthy lifestyle. People want to maintain their fitness throughout their lives and into a
healthy (l) retirement For some, a radical change to the habits of a lifetime is needed; others will (2). . merely
continue their present healthy lifestyle.
To start with, habits which are harmful to ‘health should be (3). . controlled Not only can cigarette smoking
cause bronchial disease and lung cancer, but recent tests have shown that even passive smoking can cause lung
cancer. Excessive alcohol consumption can cause liver disease, and alcohol is also (4) . . addictive it is better
to limit oneself to a ‘safe’ number of units per week. Help in controlling these habits is available at NHS and
private clinics, or alternative (5) . treatments such as acupuncture and hypnosis may be useful.
‘We are what we eat’, and therefore it is essential to maintain a well-balanced, (6) varied diet, in order to
provide the body with all its needs , and to control weight. Vitamins taken in fruit and. vegetables help to give
(7). . resistence to infection, while more fiber in the diet makes for better (8) digestion . and help to avoid
bowel cancer. In addition, it is important to cut salt and fat intake, in order to reduce the (9) ……... of heart
disease and (10) circulatory problems. Another point to remember is that eating fewer sugar foods will result
in less tooth decay and better weight control.

III. READING
1. From the words listed below, choose the one which best fits the space, A, B, C or D.
LONDON’S BLACK CABS
Black cabs, officially known as Hackney Carriages, are (1) _______ London and are special for a number
of reasons. For a start, they are the only taxis in the city that can be hailed from the kerb with a raised hand
signal to get the driver’s attention. Currently, it is estimated that there are 20,000 black cabs (2) _______ on
the capital’s streets. Their origin, in fact, can be (3) _______ the name ‘Hackney Carriage’ said to derive from
the French word haquenée referring to the type of horse used to pull the carriages in the days of horse-drawn
carriages. The first horse-drawn Hackney coaches appeared on London’s streets in the 17 th century during the
reign of Queen Elizabeth I. As transport developed and motor cars were (4) _______, motor cabs replaced the
horse-drawn carriages. Since the end of the 19 th century, various car manufacturers’ vehicles have been used as
motor cabs but it was not until the mid-20 th century that the cabs we have been (5) _______ over the last
decades first appeared.
It is such a(n) (6) _______ of becoming a black cab driver in London and it is (7) _______. If you want to
gain this honour you will need to have passed the infamous test known as ‘the Knowledge’, which was first
introduced in 1851 following (8) _______ of complaints by passengers whose cab drivers got lost. This
incredibly difficult test can take around three or four years to prepare for and you can often catch a glimpse of
those drivers who are doing just this zipping around London on their mopeds, with a map (9) _______ to a
clipboard on their handlebars. These people are essentially trying not only to master the 25,000 or so streets
within a six-mile radius of Charing Cross, but also to work out the most direct routes from place to place. They
must know thousands of ‘points of interest’ such as hotels, hospitals, places of worship, theatres, stations,
sports and leisure facilities, to name but a few. Practically everywhere and anywhere that a potential passenger
would wish to be taken to or from must be known, so a nodding acquaintance, for a black cab driver, is (10)
_______, and perhaps this is the most difficult part, knowing the quickest way to get from one place to another.
Little wonder so few people are successful.

1. A. commensurate with B. equivalent to C. synonymous with D. tantamount to

2. A. hereabouts B. hither and thither C. or thereabouts D. there and then

3. A. ferreted out from B. hunted down from C. mapped out to D. traced back to
4. A. all the rage B. of high standing C. of repute D. in vogue
5. A. clued in on B. genned up on C. in the know about D. no stranger to
6. A. handiwork B. procurement C. realisation D. undertaking
7. A. beyond you B. no brainer C. no mean feat D. over your head
8. A. droves B. hordes C. packs D. swarms
9. A. chained B. fastened C. linked D. sealed
10. A. beyond measure B. beyond redemption C. beyond the pale D. beyond the veil

2. Fill in each blank with a suitable word

Population growth increased significantly as the Industrial Revolution gathered pace from (1) 1700 onwards.
The last 50 years have seen a yet more (2) rapid increase in the rate (3) of population growth due to medical
advances and substantial increases in (4) agricultural productivity, particularly beginning in the 1960s, made
by the Green Revolution. In 2007 the United Nations Population Division projected that the world's population
will likely surpass 10 billion in 2055. In the future, world population has been expected to reach (5) a peak of
growth, from there it will decline due to economic reasons, health concerns, land exhaustion (6) and
environmental hazards. According to one report, it is very likely that the world's population will stop growing
before the end of the 21st century. Further, there is some likelihood that population will actually decline before
2100. Population has already declined in the last decade or two in Eastern Europe, the Baltics and in the
Commonwealth of Independent States.
The population pattern (7) of less-developed regions of the world in recent years has been marked by
gradually declining birth rates following an earlier sharp reduction in death rates. This transition from high
birth and death rates to low (8) birth and death rates is often referred (9) to as (10) the demographic transition.

3. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
Preschools – educational programs for children under the age of five – differ significantly from one country to
another according to the views that different societies hold regarding the purpose of early childhood education.
For instance, in a cross-country comparison of preschools in China, Japan, and the United States, researchers
found that parents in the three countries view the purpose of preschools very differently. Whereas parents in
China tend to see preschools primarily as a way of giving children a good start academically, Japanese parents
view them primarily as a way of giving children the opportunity to be members of a group. In the United
States, in comparison, parents regard the primary purpose of preschools as making children more independent
and self-reliant, although obtaining a good academic start and having group experience are also important.

While many programs designed for preschoolers focus primarily on social and emotional factors, some are
geared mainly toward promoting cognitive gains and preparing preschoolers for the formal instruction they
will experience when they start kindergarten. In the United States, the best-known program designed to
promote future academic success is Head Start. Established in the 1960s when the United States declared the
War on Poverty, the program has served over 13 million children and their families. The program, which
stresses parental involvement, was designed to serve the “whole child”, including children’s physical health,
self-confidence, social responsibility, and social and emotional development.

Whether Head Start is seen as successful or not depends on the lens through which one is looking. If, for
instance, the program is expected to provide long-term increases in IQ (intelligence quotient) scores, it is a
disappointment. Although graduates of Head Start programs tend to show immediate IQ gains, these increases
do not last. On the other hand, it is clear that Head Start is meeting its goal of getting preschoolers ready for
school. Preschoolers who participate in Head Start are better prepared for future schooling than those who do
not. Furthermore, graduates of Head Start programs have better future school grade. Finally, some research
suggests that ultimately Head Start graduates show higher academic performance at the end of high school,
although the gains are modest.
In addition, results from other types of preschool readiness programs indicate that those who participate
and graduate are less likely to repeat grades, and they are more likely to complete school than readiness
program, for every dollar spent on the program, taxpayers saved seven dollars by the time the graduates
reached the age of 27.

The most recent comprehensive evaluation of early intervention programs suggests that, taken as a group,
preschool programs can provide significant benefits, and that government funds invested early in life may
ultimately lead to a reduction in future costs. For instance, compared with children who did not participate in
early intervention programs, participants in various programs showed gains in emotional or cognitive
development, better educational outcomes, increased economic self-sufficiency, reduced levels of criminal
activity, and improved health-related behaviors. Of course, not every program produced all these benefits, and
not every child benefited to the same extent. Furthermore, some researchers argue that less-expensive
programs are just as good as relatively expensive ones, such as Head Start. Still, the results of the evaluation
were promising, suggesting that the potential benefits of early intervention can be substantial. 
Not everyone agrees that programs that seek to enhance academic skills during the preschool years are a good
thing. In fact, according to developmental psychologist David Elkind, United States society tends to push
children so rapidly that they begin to feel stress and pressure at a young age. Elkind argues that academic
success is largely dependent upon factors out of parents’ control, such as inherited abilities and a child’s rate of
maturation. Consequently, children of a particular age cannot be expected to master educational material
without taking into account their current level of cognitive development. In short, children require
development appropriate educational practice, which is education that is based on both typical development
and the unique characteristics of a given child.

1. According to paragraph 1, parents in Japan tend to think of preschool primarily as a place where children
can …..
A. get a good academic start B. expand their emotional development
C. become more independent D. experience being part of a group
2. The word “whereas” in the passage is closest in meaning to …..
A. Although B. Because C. Moreover D. Already
3. The word “focus” in the passage is closest in meaning to *
A. consider B. respect C. concentrate D. advise
4. It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that the Head Start program was designed to serve children who 
A. come from families that do not have a lot of money
B. are not doing very well in kindergarten
C. were born in the 1950s
D. need programs that focus primarily on social and emotional factors
5. According to paragraph 3, the Head Start program had NOT been successful at which of the following? 
A. helping children adjust to school
B. providing long-term increase in IQ scores
C. improving school performance throughout high school
D. preventing children from being placed in special-education classes

6. In paragraph 4, the author mentions the “results from other types of readiness programs” to 
A. provide support for the idea that preschool readiness programs have been somewhat successful
B. question the idea that Head Start is more effective than other preschool readiness programs
 C. indicate school completion is usually the most reliable indicator of success in most readiness
programs
D. emphasize that participating in readiness programs can be increased if costs are reduced
7. According to paragraph 4, a cost-benefit analysis of one preschool readiness program revealed that 
A. only one dollar’s worth of benefit was gained for every seven dollars spent on the program
B. the benefits of the program lasted only until the participants reached age 27
C. taxpayers saved seven dollars for every dollar spent on the program
D. to be successful, the program would need to receive about seven times as much money as it
currently receives
8. The word “comprehensive” in the passage is closest in meaning to 
A. easily understood B. thorough C. respectable D. objective
9. Paragraph 5 mentions that participants in early intervention programs have been shown to do all of the
following better than nonparticipants EXCEPT 
A. take care of their health B. support themselves financially
C. take care of their own children D. have increased emotional development
10. According to paragraph 5, which of the following is true about the benefits of early intervention programs? 
A. These programs produce good short-term benefits but few long-term benefits.
B. Only the most expensive programs provide substantial benefits.
C. The Head Start program provides a range of benefits that no other program can provide.
D. Some children benefit more than others do from these programs.

4. Read the passage and do the tasks below.

Questions 1- 6: Read the passage and choose the heading for each section.
List of headings
I. Different personality types mentioned
II. Recommendation of combined styles for group
III. Historical explanation of understanding personality
IV. A lively and positive attitude person depicted
V. A personality likes challenge and direct communication
VI. Different characters illustrated
VII. Functions of understanding communication styles
VIII. Cautious and considerable person cited
IX. Calm and Factual personality illustrated
X. Self-assessment determines one’s temperament

Example: Section A: III ; Section C: I

1. Section B: VII
2. Section D: IV
3. Section E: IX
4. Section F: VIII
5. Section G: V
6. Section H: II
Section A - Historical explanation of understanding personality
As far back as Hippocrates' time (460-370 B.C.) people have tried to understand other people by characterizing
them according to personality type or temperament. Hippocrates believed there were four different body fluids
that influenced four basic types of temperament. His work was further developed 500 years later by Galen.
These days there are any number of self-assessment tools that relate to the basic descriptions developed by
Galen, although we no longer believe the source to be the types of body fluid that dominate our systems.

Section B
The values in self-assessments that help determine personality style. Learning styles, communication styles,
conflict-handling styles, or other aspects of individuals is that they help depersonalize conflict in interpersonal
relationships. The depersonalization occurs when you realize that others aren't trying to be difficult, but they
need different or more information than you do. They're not intending to be rude: they are so focused on the
task they forget about greeting people. They would like to work faster but not at the risk of damaging the
relationships needed to get the job done. They understand there is a job to do. But it can only be done right
with the appropriate information, which takes time to collect. When used appropriately. understanding
communication styles can help resolve conflict on teams. Very rarely are conflicts true personality issues.
Usually they are issues of style, information needs, or focus.

Section C - Different personality types mentioned

Hippocrates and later Galen determined there were four basic temperaments: sanguine, phlegmatic,
melancholic and choleric. These descriptions were developed centuries ago and are still somewhat apt,
although you could update the wording. In today's world, they translate into the four fairly common
communication styles described below.

Section D
The sanguine person would be the expressive or spirited style of communication. These people speak in
pictures. They invest a lot of emotion and energy in their communication and often speak quickly. Putting their
whole body into it. They are easily sidetracked onto a story that may or may not illustrate the point they are
trying to make. Because of their enthusiasm, they are great team motivators. They are concerned about people
and relationships. Their high levels of energy can come on strong at times and their focus is usually on the
bigger picture, which means they sometimes miss the details or the proper order of things. These people find
conflict or differences of opinion invigorating and love to engage in a spirited discussion. They love change
and are constantly looking for new and exciting adventures.

Section E
Tile phlegmatic person - cool and persevering - translates into the technical or systematic communication style.
This style of communication is focused on facts and technical details. Phlegmatic people have an orderly,
methodical way of approaching tasks, and their focus is very much on the task, not on the people, emotions, or
concerns that the task may evoke. The focus is also more on the details necessary to accomplish a task.
Sometimes the details overwhelm the big picture and focus needs to be brought back to the context of the task.
People with this style think the facts should speak for themselves, and they are not as comfortable with
conflict. They need time to adapt to change and need to understand both the logic of it and the steps involved.
Section F
Tile melancholic person who is softhearted and oriented toward doing things for others translates into the
considerate or sympathetic communication style. A person with this communication style is focused on people
and relationships. They are good listeners and do things for other people - sometimes to the detriment of
getting things done for themselves. They want to solicit everyone's opinion and make sure everyone is
comfortable with whatever is required to get the job done. At times this focus on others can distract from the
task at hand. Because they are so concerned with the needs of others and smoothing over issues, they do not
like conflict. They believe that change threatens the status quo and tends to make people feel uneasy, so people
with this communication style, like phlegmatic people need time to consider the changes in order to adapt to
them.

Section G
The choleric temperament translates into the bold or direct style of communication. People with this style are
brief in their communication - the fewer words the better. They are big picture thinkers and love to be involved
in many things at once. They are focused on tasks and outcomes and often forget that the people involved in
carrying out the tasks have needs. They don't do detail work easily and as a result can often underestimate how
much time it takes to achieve the task. Because they are so direct, they often seem forceful and can be very
intimidating to others. They usually would welcome someone challenging them. But most other styles are
afraid to do so. They also thrive on change, the more the better.

Section H
A well-functioning team should have all of these communication styles for true effectiveness. All teams need
to focus on the task, and they need to take care of relationships in order to achieve those tasks. They need the
big picture perspective or the context of their work, and they need the details to be identified and taken care of
for success. We all have aspects of each style within us. Some of us can easily move from one style to another
and adapt our style to the needs of the situation at hand - whether the focus is on tasks or relationships. For
others, a dominant style is very evident, and it is more challenging to see the situation from the perspective of
another style.

The work environment can influence communication styles either by the type of work that is required or by the
predominance of one style reflected in that environment. Some people use one style at work and another at
home. The good news about communication styles is that we all have the ability to develop flexibility in our
styles. The greater the flexibility we have, the more skilled we usually are at handling possible and actual
conflicts. Usually it has to be relevant to us to do so, either because we think it is important or because there
are incentives in our environment to encourage it. The key is that we have to want to become flexible with our
communication style. As Henry Ford said, "Whether you think you can or you can't, you're right!”

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage.

TRUE If the statement agrees with the information

FALSE If the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this

7. Melancholic and phlegmatic people have similar characteristics. T

8. It is the sanguine personality that needed most in the workplace. NG
9. It is possible for someone to change type of personality. T
10. Work surrounding can affect which communication style is the most effective. T

5. You are going to read some reviews of art events. For questions 1 - 10, choose from the reviews
(A-F). The reviews may be chosen more than once.
In which review is the following mentioned?
Institutions could suffer because of a thoughtless act. 1D

Many different styles offered by artists in Europe. 2F

A substantial amount of time needed to complete one piece of work. 3B

Land and sea treated very differently. 4C

Paintings about other paintings. 5E

Man's negative impact on the environment. 6A

Finding ways to payoff debts. 7D

A primitive style of interior decoration. 8B

Showing how something is set up for public viewing. 9E

Fantasy images based on a real environment. 10 C

Reviews of art events

A - Ben Cook and Phil Whiting
Landscape, such a dominant theme in Cornwall, has the chalk and cheese treatment from two artists showing
in Penzance this month. At Cornwall Contemporary Gallery Ben Cook " uses abstract vocabulary to make
almost entirely conceptual references. His use of found objects and time spent surfing drew him to look at the
processes involved in surfboard manufacture. Based on these, his constructions and paintings combine areas
of high resist, high speed, water deflecting sheen with those tempered by wax to produce mottled, opaque, non-
slip surfaces that smack of stone and solidity. Phil Whiting is a painter. His vigorous use of materials - acrylics
in thick impasto inks, charcoal applied with a brush, knife and 'whatever' - recalls a terrain smarting from the
brute force of man's misuse of it. This is not the celebrated, picturesque Cornwall we so often see but its dirty,
rain-soaked underbelly, a landscape left bereft by voracious mining and haphazard industrial development.

B - Shanti Panchal
It is almost thirty years since Shanti Panchal first came from India to study art in London, where he has lived
ever since. This retrospective at Chelmsford Museum elucidates his distinctive, radical water-colourist's
achievement. Growing lip in a Gujarati village, he decorated local houses with Images of birds and animals.
As a Bombay art student, cave paintings and images from Jain temples inspired him, and as a student in
Europe, he was drawn to medieval icons. It is erroneous to say that his work is characterised by poignant
nostalgia for India. The paintings are not nostalgic. Rather they evoke with subtle clarity what it is like to be
exiled and dispossessed while at the same time rooted inalienably in
nature and the cosmos.
Every watercolour is multi-layered, giving a similar surface to Buddhist cave paintings. It can take days in
order to face Nhat is going to happen in a piece. Each picture takes weeks and sometimes months. Recent
pictures include portraits and even a homage to Frida Kahlo, a painter that Shanti respects immensely.

C - Iwan Gwyn Parry

Ian Gwyn Parry's first solo exhibition at Martin Tinney Gallery in Cardiff is a significant event. Until now the
artist has shown mostly in North Wales. Now there is an opportunity to experience, further south, a coherent
and powerful assemblage of his latest work. It is clear the show will be something special. For these
remarkable landscapes and seascapes appear to have emerged from deep within his psyche and are a highly
imaginative response to a coastal terrain familiar to the artist. There is a strong sense of mysticism, the painting
suffused with ethereal vapours and incandescent light; there are restless swathes of deep orange and yellow.
The seascapes are haunting and elemental while the landscapes are more reflective studies in grey, black and
white. His oil The Irish Sea, for example is on an awesome scale, its seething waters of churning paint
intensely lit by a low sun. Definitely a show not to be missed.

D - Art auctions
Of the top three Modern British sales last month, it was Christie's who kicked off the, proceedings, but not
without controversy. Bury district council, in their wisdom, auctioned a major painting by LS. Lowry so as to
cover a £10 million shortfall in their finances. The £1.2 million hammer price, less expenses, will not make all
that much difference but the
issue has raised the wrath of the Museums Association, who in future, could block lottery and National Arts
Collection Fund resources in all aspects of museum and gallery development. Bury may well live to regret
their foolhardy action as current and future donators will also not be encouraged to gift works of art which
could be sold on a whim. Bonhams followed ten days later with a good but not exceptional sale of which a
solid 70% was sold and totaled £2.3 million.
It was then Sotheby's turn to shine which they succeeded in doing, with 80% of lots sold and an impressive
total of £7.7 million, though some way behind their arch rival. Records were broken for works by Sir Winston
Churchill, former British Prime Minister.

E - Andrew Grassie
Andrew Grassie's exhibition at Maureen Paley Gallery is aptly entitled 'Installation', since it provides a look
backstage at the rituals involved in hanging an exhibition before it officially opens to the public. To achieve
this, Grassie devised and followed a pre-determined strategy, namely: "Install a series of paintings at the
gallery depicting last year's previous exhibitions during their installation. Each painting should hang at the very
spot from which the image was taken, enabling the viewer to compare views of the space." The result is five
jewel-like paintings, each one painstakingly copied from a mid-installation photograph taken by Grassie before
the opening of the previous year's shows. The paintings are executed with such detail that it is difficult at times
to uncover the illusion that these are photographs rather than paintings.

F - Story
Alexia Goethe has selected fourteen artists, including six resident in the UK and four from Leipzig, for her
show 'Story'. She seeks to demonstrate that whatever technique is used - painting, text, video, photograph or
concept - and regardless of style, the artist is telling a story. The tales being told made me come away feeling a
sense of recovery. Tales of politics, war, social unrest, personal tragedy, to name just a few, are depicted here.
Jin Meng who now resides in Europe, produces exquisitely framed views from the present onto China's past.
Political statues, glimpsed from a deserted bedroom, evoke the vast changes sweeping his birthplace. Jean
Tinguely's kinetic assemblages illustrate how the mechanical is subverted into the amusing and the desirable.
This is an eclectic mix of treasures that can't fail to shock, amuse and move.

PRACTICE TEST 5
A. LISTENING
Part 1:You will hear a radio discussion about children who invent imaginary friends. For questions 1-5,
choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
1. In the incident that Liz describes,
A. her daughter asked her to stop the car. B. she had to interrupt the journey twice.
C. she got angry with her daughter. D. her daughter wanted to get out of the car.
2. What does the presenter say about the latest research into imaginary friends?
A. It contradicts other research on the subject.
B. It shows that the number of children who have them is increasing.
C. It indicates that negative attitudes towards them are wrong.
D. It focuses on the effect they have on parents.
3. How did Liz feel when her daughter had an imaginary friend?
A. always confident that it was only a temporary situation.
B. occasionally worried about the friend’s importance to her daughter.
C. slightly confused as to how she should respond sometimes.
D. highly impressed by her daughter’s inventiveness.
4. Karen says that one reason why children have imaginary friends is that
A. they are having serious problems with their real friends.
B. they can tell imaginary friends what to do.
C. they want something that they cannot be given.
D. they want something that other children haven’t got.
5. According to Karen, how should parents react to imaginary friends?
A. They should pretend that they like the imaginary friend.
B. They shouldn’t get involved in the child’s relationship with the friend.
C. They should take action if the situation becomes annoying.
D. They shouldn’t discuss the imaginary friend with their child.

Part 2: Listen to a lecture about population growth and decide whether these statements are TRUE (T) or
FALSE (F).
1. Birth rate is the average number of children born in a year, per thousand people.
2. Fertility rate in UK was first reported to have been so high in 2008.
3. Fertility rate in the UK is higher than it was twenty years ago because a higher proportion of women are
having children.
4. 10% of of women in their mid-forties do not have children nowadays.
5. Fertility rates are low partly because parents do not have time to have children.
Part 3: You will hear a talk given by a woman called Shona Ferguson about changes in a town called
Barford. Listen and give short answers to the questions. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS AND/OR
A NUMBER taken from the recording.
1. In Shona’s opinion, why do fewer people use buses in Barford these days?
……………………………………………………………………
2. What change in the road network is known to have benefited the town most?
………………………………………………………………………
3. What is the problem affecting shopping in the town centre?
……………………………………………………………
4. What does Shona say about medical facilities in Barford?
………………………………………………………………………
5. Which field is the largest number of people employed in ?
………………………………………………………………………
Part 4: Listen to a piece of news about eating protein and complete the summary below. WRITE NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER in the corresponding numbered boxes.

People in poor countries might suffer from protein (1) ________________________, but the rest of us, even
those who eat (2) ________________________ food, are consuming more of it than the suggested daily
consumption of (3) ______________ grams for women and (4) ______________________ grams for men.
One (5) ________________________ company, after researching for over (6) ______________ years, claims
that most (7) ________________________ are simultaneously eating more protein and fewer
(8)___________________, taking (9) ________________________ to the gym and carrying protein snacks in
their cars, fearing they might (10) ____________________.

B. LEXICO AND GRAMMAR

Part 1: Choose the word/ phrase that best completes each of the following sentences. Write your answer in
the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. The police have been ordered not to ________ if the students attack them.
A. combat B. rebuff C. retaliate D. challenge
2. To get his proposal accepted, the Finance Manager had to ________ heavy pressure from colleagues.
A. fend off B. laugh off C. send off D. push off
3. When attacked by his opponents, the general ________ with strong justification for his policy.
A. hit back B. struck up C. leapt up D. pushed forward
4. The reason why he gets into trouble so often is that he has a ________ temper.
A. fast B. rapid C. speedily D. quick
5. I could see the lantern ________ in the dark.
A. gleaming B. glowing C. glistening D. glimmering
6. We had to pay for our food but not for the drinks. They were on the ________.
A. house B. cafe C. compliment D. consumption
7. This emerald bracelet is ______; it is the only one of its kind in the world.
A. only B. original C. peerless D. genuine
8. That window needs a new _______of glass.
A. pane B. slice C. mirror D. portion
9. Local people are concerned about pollution from _______oil well.
A. maritime B. sea-going C. off-shore D. coastline
10. She applied for paid leave but her boss rejected her application ________.
A. out of hand B. in hand C. at hand D. on hand

Part 2: The text below contains 5 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write the corrections in the space
provided. There is an example at the beginning (0)
To Griffin, Your answers
I was laying in that easy state between sleep and wake when the image of a half (0)Line1:laying->
drawn flower came into my head. Gradually it grew and changed, lines appeared lying
and disappeared, it was so real and clear. I could see the picture and not the hand Line 2:__________
that created it. Eventually a noise from outside broke my concentration and → but Line 3:__________
the image evaporated. It was your drawing Griffin, the first hundred pictures I Line 4:__________
witnessed without knowing who making them. For 13 years I have waited for a Line 5:__________
clue, nothing → anything that would help me to locate the artist. You seemed Line 6:__________
destined to be a mystery forever, until a few months ago I came across an article in Line 7:__________
Grafica about a one man post card company. It said the art was all “Moss's own Line 8:__________
work,” and there was a photo of your fish card. It was the same piece I'd seen being Line 9:__________
drawn three years before. Finally I knew who you were. I counselled me to be Line 10:_________
cautious and find out what you were really like before revealing myself fully.  Line 11:_________
Sabine

Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. Write your answer
in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. Despite all our efforts, we are sorry to announce that the agreement has fallen out
2. Living in so isolated a region, one needs a car to get easily around
3. The statements that she gave were borne out by the other witnesses, so the suspect was found guilty by the
magistrate.
4. The terrified woman said the bus had been held up by a gang of masked terrorists who had kidnapped the
male passengers.
5. It’s unbelievable how the new lecturer can get his ideas across. Attending his classes is sheer fun.

Part 4: Write the correct form of each bracketed word in corresponding numbered boxes.
RAIN MAKING
When it rains, it does not always pour. During a typical storm, a (16. COMPARE) _______________. small
amount of the locked up moisture in each cloud reaches the ground as rain. So the idea that human intervention
—a rain dance, perhaps— might encourage the sky to give up a little (17. ADD) _______________. water has
been around since prehistoric times. More recently, would-be rain makers have used a more direct (18.
PROCEED) _______________. that of throwing various chemicals out of aeroplanes in an effort to wring
more rain from the clouds, a practice known as ‘cloud seeding’. Yet such techniques, which were first
developed in the 1940s, are (19. NOTORIETY) _______________. difficult to evaluate. It is hard to (20.
CERTAIN) _______________., for example, how much rain would have fallen anyway. So, despite much
anecdotal evidence of the advantages of cloud seeding, which has led to its adoption in more than 40 countries
around the world, as far as scientists are concerned, results are still (21.CONCLUSIVE) _______________.
That could be about to change. For the past three years (22. RESEARCH) _______________. have been
carrying out the most extensive and (23. RIGOUR) _______________. evaluation to date of a revolutionary
new technique that will substantially boost the volume of (24. RAIN) _______________. The preliminary (25.
FIND) _______________. of their experiments indicate that solid evidence of the technique’s effectiveness is
now within the scientists’ grasp.
1. comparatively
2. additionally
3. procedure
4. notoriously
5. ascertain
6. inconclusive
7. researchers
8. rigorous
9. rainfall
10. findings

C. READING
Part 1: For questions 1–10, read the following passages and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits
each gap. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in corresponding numbered boxes.
MUDDINGFIELD FESTIVAL
Every year hordes of people in their teens and twenties travel from (1)__________the country and descend on
the tranquil village of Muddingfield for a three-day music festival, where they (2)__________ away their time
listening to their favourite rock musicians. Attracted by the spectacular rural (3)__________ and an
impressive line-up of performing artists, the number of pop fans attending has exploded in recent years,
leaving narrow country lanes (4)__________ with traffic and the local police force contending with an ever-
increasing (5)__________ of complaints and disturbances to deal with.
Two years ago, however, things finally came to a head. Whereas in previous years, there had always been
(6)__________ space at the festival site, in 2006 an estimated crowd of ninety thousand were crammed into
three fields and there was a(n) (7)__________ lack of basic facilities such as toilets.
Fortunately, it was decided that (8)__________ the scale and evident popularity of the festival, it could not
simply be called off. Working together, the local council and the festival organisers (9)__________ up a
scheme to move the festival to a new location in national parkland on the lower slopes of the Grey Mountains,
a mere stone’s throw away from Muddingfield Village. In this way, it was eventually possible to (10)
__________ overcrowding while maintaining the essential character of the event.

1. A. over and out B. over and under C. in and out D. up and down
2. A. draw B. pass C. while D. drive
3. A. siting B. sighting C. setting D. settlement
4. A. heavy B. burdened C. saturated D. choked
5. A. litany B. diary C. testimony D. line
6. A. overflowing B. ample C. massive D. significant
7. A. necessary B. anxious C. worried D. serious
8. A. given B. seeing C. taking D. owing
9. A. raised B. brought C. drew D. came
10. A. alleviate B. calm down C. scale down D. renovate
Part 2: Read the text below and think of one word which best fits each space. Use only ONE WORD for
each space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Until the nineteenth century, the ownership of land was the only certain basis of power in England. It is
true that both power and money (1) coukd be acquired by (2) different means: by trade, by commerce, by
fighting, by useful services to the government or by personal service to the king and queen. But wealth
unsupported by power was (3) there to be plundered, power based only on personal abilities was at the mercy
of time and future, and the power to be (4) gained through trade or commerce was limited. Before the
nineteenth century (5) the wealth of England lay in the countryside as opposed to the towns; landowners (6)
rather than merchants were the dominating (7) class and ran the country so that their own interests were the
last to suffer. Even (8) though the economic balance began to change, they were so thoroughly in (9) change
of administration and legislation, that their political and social supremacy continued. As a rule, from the
Middle Ages until the nineteenth century, anyone who had made money by whatever means, and was
ambitious for (10) himself and his family, automatically invested in a country estate.

Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the text. Write
your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes.
THE DISAPPEARING MENHADEN
Most people have never heard of it, and they certainly have not eaten it in its original form, but the Atlantic
Ocean menhaden is the most important fish in the ocean. However, it is disappearing at an alarming rate. The
east coast of the United States once teemed with immense schools, some as many as a mile across, but the
devastation of the menhaden stocks over the last sixty years has led to severe dislocations in the oceans’
ecosystems. The decline of the menhaden has had particularly disastrous effects on fish species that feed on it,
on bird species that use it as a food source, and on how clean the oceans are.
Menhaden are a small fish belonging to the haddock family, and they are not very palatable to humans,
having a foul, oily taste and consisting of many small bones. Commercial fishing of menhaden since the end
of World War II has primarily been for the production of feed for livestock, with ground-up fish used to
make meal for chickens, pigs, and cows. Companies use spotter planes to find large schools and direct fishing
boats to the location. Catches have declined almost forty percent since the 1960s and show no sign of
leveling off or increasing. Unlike other species that are protected by government quotas, menhaden are not,
most likely because they are not a species consumed directly by humans. This is unfortunate since the loss of
the menhaden spells an eco-disaster of epic proportions.
Of principal importance are the many species of fish and other animals that feed on menhaden. They are the
main diet for bluefish and striped bass, and both species have shown a serious decline in numbers. The striped
bass was once the prized catch of the Chesapeake Bay area, but the specimens brought in by rod and reel now
are weak sisters compared to the past. Not only do they lack the bulk of their ancestors, but they are also
dying at alarming rates. Fish are not the only predators of menhaden, as birds also depend on them as a
source of nourishment. Large colonies of osprey all along the eastern seaboard have disappeared in recent
years, with the numbers of nests and birds reduced by fifty percent in some areas over the last ten years. There
are similar statistics for loons in Chesapeake Bay.
The greatest threat from the loss of the menhaden is that the oceans have lost one of their great natural
filterers. Menhaden swim in massive schools with their mouths open, allowing water to flow through their
gills, which serve to absorb oxygen and grab plankton and other detritus from the water. They act like gigantic
vacuum cleaners for the ocean. The cleaner water allows sunlight to penetrate to greater depths, which
stimulates plant life that harbors other fish and shellfish and produces oxygen for the water. With the decline
of the menhaden, this process is in serious jeopardy. Chemical run-off from farms, lawns, and houses ends up
in the oceans, increasing the nitrogen and phosphorus levels in the water. Algae grow in great numbers in
these conditions, block the sunlight, and deplete oxygen of the water. In addition, the algae sink to the ocean
floor and prevent shellfish and oxygen-producing plants from growing. Entire coastal areas are lifeless, with
the algae’s killing the fish. Menhaden reduce the levels of these chemicals, but now that there are fewer
menhaden, the algae have taken over.
The large companies that process menhaden disagree with the findings of environmental scientists. Since
there is no accurate way to count the amount of menhaden in the oceans, they claim that the fewer menhaden
are a result of a cyclical event and that the stocks will grow again in time. Yet, much of the menhaden catch
consists of smaller fish, often less than one year old. These fish have not had a chance to mature long enough
to become reproductive, and thus the commercial fishing companies are destroying future menhaden stocks in
order to make a profit at the moment. The largest companies have had to lay off many employees, and many
of their vessels sit idle at the wharf. In the long run, the menhaden will probably rebound once their numbers
have reached the point where catching them is no longer profitable. Hopefully, laws will soon be in place to
protect them from their greatest predator, mankind.

Question 1: According to paragraph 1, the Atlantic Ocean menhaden is______.

A. eaten only by other fish and not at all by humans
B. not in any immediate danger of disappearing from the ocean
C. eaten by birds and other fish as a part of their diets
D. quite well-known to most people in the United States
Question 2: The word palatable in the passage is closest In meaning to________.
A. stable B. partial C. disgusting D. edible
Question 3: According to paragraph 2, all of the following are reasons for the decline of the menhaden
stocks EXCEPT ____.
A. People desire directly to consume them as a food fish.
B. Improved fishing technology has helped catch more fish.
C. Farmers have a strong dependence on fish-fed livestock.
D. There is a lack of laws providing government protection.
Question 4: It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that humans consume menhaden _______.
A. for the healthy benefits from eating its oily flesh
B. directly from the oceans in their original form
C. only in the eastern coastal areas of the United States
D. as a result of eating livestock raised on menhaden meal
Question 5: Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the underlined
sentence in the passage?
A. In the past the Chesapeake Bay striped bass fishery was more valuable than it is nowadays.
B. The Chesapeake Bay area is prized for the striped bass that can be caught by fishermen there.
C. There are prizes given for the best striped bass caught by sport fishermen in Chesapeake Bay.
D. The striped bass caught by sport fishermen in Chesapeake Bay are not as large as those caught in the
past.
Question 6: The word predators in the passage is closest in meaning to_______.
A. hunters B. stalkers C. watchers D. chasers
Question 7: According to paragraph 4, the main influence on the oceans as a result of declining menhaden
numbers is_______.
A. an overabundance of plankton near the coast
 B. increased human dumping of chemicals in the ocean
C. the decline of fish stocks that feed on menhaden
D. an increase in the number of lifeless areas
Question 8: The word their in the last paragraph refers to______________________
A. menhaden stocks B. many employees
C.largest companies D. commercial fishing companies
Question 9: According to paragraph 5, large commercial fishing companies argue that the shrinking menhaden
stocks are the result of _______. .
A. a lack of oxygen in the ocean as a result of too much algae
B. environmental factors that are totally beyond their control
C. fishing technology that has developed in recent years
D. a normal cycle that will end some time in the near future
Question 10: In paragraph 5, why does the author mention the fact that commercial fishing companies are
catching smaller and younger fish?
A. To prove that the declining menhaden stocks are not an illusion
B. To explain why they have had to lay off employees and leave boats idle
C. To counter their disagreements with the environmental scientists
D. To show that menhaden stocks are not safe for the future

Part 4 : Read the following passage and do the tasks that follows. Write your answer in the space provided.
THE EVOLUTION OF LANGUAGE
A. Language everywhere changes over time; it has to. A central reason that necessitates modification is to
allow for developments in our world to be expressed. For example, the technological revolution alone has been
responsible for the addition of a plethora of words to our vocabulary: hard drive, software, modem to name just
a few. The Japanese writing script katakana, which was originally introduced in the 9th century as a means by
which Buddhist monks could correctly interpret Chinese pronunciations, is now most commonly used to
embrace foreign words for which there is no original Japanese character; pizza or hamburger for example.
Likewise the western world’s exposure to and familiarity with foreign cultures now means that words such as
sushi, nam bread and kebab, for example, are used by diners on a regular basis.

B. However, expansion of our vocabulary is just one element involved in how and why language evolves.
Given the variation of dialects or regional accents present in most language systems, it is clear that an
individual’s interpretation of what is actually correct and commonly used will vary quite dramatically, since
this perception is based upon a combination of factors including the age, educational level and region of the
country a person is from. As we go about our daily lives and interact with others from different backgrounds
and experiences, the language we hear is often taken on board and incorporated into the way in which we
communicate ourselves. Many phrases with American origins are now commonplace in British English for
example, due to the frequency with which they are heard on television and in the movies.

C. Changes in language are often driven by the young and many such changes are commonly considered by
older people to be a disintegration of standards rather than an evolution and an improvement. Let’s consider an
Americanism commonly used by youngsters in all pans of the English speaking world. Used  as an alternative
to “Tom said…” it is now commonplace to hear “Tom goes, the pay rise was unacceptable.” or, “Tom was all,
the pay rise was unacceptable.”; much to the horror of many traditionalists. However, this modification could
also be considered to be adding to and not detracting from our ability to communicate effectively. To illustrate,
let’s consider the original phrase “Tom said”; it is used solely to show’ the listener that we are reporting the
words of Tom, while the modern variation, “Tom goes” has literally the same meaning. However, if the
speaker chooses instead to use the latter phrase, “Tom was all”, they are also able to convey the message that
Tom had an emotional reaction to the situation they are reporting, therefore a much more effective method of
communicating information has been created, some may say. However, should the now’ commonly used
texting abbreviations such as ‘gr8t’ (great) and ‘l8r’ (later) become permanent replacements of the original
words, it is likely that even the most liberal amongst us would be horrified.

D. Variations on language are usually more readily accepted into informal language prior to them being
absorbed for use in formal writing. Examples of words that we now commonly use, but were once considered
incorrect, are ‘pea’ and ‘hopefully’. Let’s take pea; it derived from the word ‘pease’, which being an
uncountable noun has the same form regardless of whether one or more pease were being spoken about.
However, this was commonly overlooked and misunderstood, and through error the singular form of the
vegetable became ‘pea’. More recently ‘hopefully’ was considered by many to be an inappropriate alternative
to ‘I hope’; at best only accepted in informal use. The word hopefully is now’ fully acceptable in both informal
speech and formal writing.

E. Some people believe that traditional usages of language are always more superior and refined than modern
variations even when the reasons behind the rule were dubious in the first place. For example, it was once
seriously frowned upon to split an infinitive in a sentence and even today it is considered grammatically
incorrect to do so. To demonstrate, let’s consider the following sentence: ‘The examiner asked me to quietly
leave the room’; this was considered incorrect as the word ‘quietly’ splits the infinitive of the verb ‘to leave’.
The origins of this rule hail back to the 17th century when scholars believed that the English language should
be adapted to follow the rules of Latin; then considered the perfect language. Since splitting infinitives in Latin
is impossible, it was decided that splitting infinitives in English, even though possible, was not acceptable,
Given that initial motivations behind the rule were questionable and the clarity of meaning of the sentence is
not compromised in the ‘incorrect’ form, it could be argued that this grammar rule is a prime example of an
unnecessary sanction which is likely to be abandoned in the future.

F. As language evolves, changes in grammar structures which would result in confusion of the actual meaning
of the sentences are unlikely; however, the meanings of words are often modified or altered beyond
recognition by different generations and can be easily misinterpreted by other social groups. Take, for
example, the modern version of the word ‘bad’ meaning ‘great’ when used in contemporary slang. Many slang
words remain dated in the era in which they are developed, for example words like ‘to beef, meaning to
complain (introduced in the 1920’s) are not only dated but may not even be understood in a modern context,
while others such as ‘guy’ become absorbed into mainstream language. Who knows what future generations
will add to the ever changing environment of communication?

Questions 1 – 5: Reading Passage 1 has six paragraphs A-F.

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B, C, E and F from the list of headings below.

List of Headings

i. Historical acceptance of change

ii. The Generation Gap
 iii. Influences on speech
iv. Ancient writing in Asia
v. Cultural evolution and its impact on language
vi. Slang expected in the future
vii. Questioning logic
viii. Lifespan of vocabulary
Example: Paragraph A: Answer: v
1. Paragraph B iii
2. Paragraph C ii
3. Paragraph D i
4. Paragraph E vii
5. Paragraph F viii

Questions 6 – 10
Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in Reading Passage 1?
Write:
YES                             if the statement reflects the claims of the writer
NO                              if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN              if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
 Write the correct answer YES, NO or NOT GIVEN in boxes 5-10 on your answer sheet.
6. If language were static, it would negatively affect our ability to incorporate other cultures into our own
way of life. Y
7. The language we grow up knowing and that we adopt through new experiences have equal effects on
the way we speak. NG
8. Some older variations of language are more expressive than more modern forms. NG
9. All modern adaptations of language are suitable for mainstream use. N
10. All word usage has changed over time due to misunderstandings of meaning. N

Part 5:
You are going to read an article containing reviews of recently-published books. For questions 1-10,
choose from reviews (A-F). The reviews may be chosen more than once.
Book Corner
A round-up of the latest fiction and non-fiction from Beth Young.
A  Reading a new novelist is a bit like asking a stranger out on a date. You never quite know if this is the
start of a beautiful relationship. You check the blurbs, the publicity photograph, and flick through the book to
look for the two essentials: entertainment and substance. Beginner’s Greek by James Collins is certainly big on
the latter, weighing in at 400-plus pages. And the quotes on the back cover have the effect of a bunch of
friends saying to you, ‘Go on, you’ll get on brilliantly’. Early indications are that this blind date could lead to a
deeper relationship. Beginner’s Greek is described by The New York Times as a “great big sunny lemon
chiffon pie of a novel” about romantic love amongst the American middle classes. It is indeed delicious.
B  In Manil Suri’s second outing The Age of Shiva we have a broad-sweeping, epic novel with an
unforgettable heroine so wilful yet flawed that it calls to mind that other famous leading lady, Scarlett O’Hara
in Gone With the Wind. The story begins at a firework party in Delhi where Meera falls disastrously in love.
We follow her journey to Bombay, marriage and obsessive motherhood, with occasional flashbacks to a
childhood that was marred by political turmoil. Mathematics professor, Suri, captures the fluidity of the role of
women with a beautiful kind of precision.
C  Devotees of playwright David Mamet, whose screen work includes Wag The Dog and the award-
winning Glengarry Glen Ross may be less than enamoured of Ira Nadel’s new biography, David Mamet: A
Life in the Theatre. It may seem churlish to question the minutia of incidents that abound in this
comprehensive tome, but whilst Nadel is clearly striving for accuracy one feels there ought to have been more
sifting, more mining for the gold amongst the biographical trivia. In addition, Nadel’s tone is somewhat dry
and academic and seems at odds with the brilliance of David Mamet’s own writing. That said, the book offers
a sound introduction to the life and career of the man hailed as one of America’s most outstanding writers.
D  Can any Mother help me? is the true story of a desperately lonely mother who, in 1935, appealed to
other women through the letters page of a women’s magazine. Writing under a pseudonym, the woman known
as Ubique (meaning ‘everywhere’) little realised that she would be the trigger for the launch of a new and
private magazine that would last for the next fifty years. The Cooperative Correspondence Club was formed to
offer comfort and support to wives, often well-educated women, who craved stimulation beyond the drudgery
of family life. Jenna Bailey has done a superb job of organising and editing this compendium, adding her own
insightful commentary.
E  Subtitled, The Life and Times of Henry Howard, Earl of Surrey, Jessie Child’s debut historical
biography, Henry VIII's Last Victim, was the worthy winner of last year’s Elizabeth Longford Prize. Henry
Howard’s victim status is owing to the fact that he was the final person to be executed by King Henry VIII, a
mere nine days before the king himself expired. Although killed ostensibly for treason, the Earl of Surrey’s
only real crime it seems was leading an unsuccessful army campaign in France. Only 29, he was also a
distinguished poet with a fine literary voice, a persona which refutes his reputation as the spoilt son of the
Duke of Norfolk.
F  This is the 25th outing for T. Keneally but he’s lost none of his writing powers. The Widow and Her
Hero takes real life events during the Second World War as its inspiration and builds a tale of love and
intrigue. Grace looks back on her life to recall her courtship with the hero of the title, the handsome Captain
Leo Waterhouse. Leo is tragically killed whilst on a secret mission but it is many years before Grace discovers
the facts about his death. Keneally made fans galore when Schindler’s Ark was published and later made into
the award-winning Steven Spielberg film, Schindler’s List. The Widow and Her Hero will bring him even
more fans.

In which review are the following mentioned?

Your answers:
1) A story in which someone is unaware of the impact of their action. 1.___D___
2) A description of the opening scene. 2.___B___
3) An author who exemplifies source material with their own analysis. 3.___D___
4) A humorous comparison with a real-life situation. 4.___A___
5) A character who finds out the truth about a situation. 5.___F___
6) A hint that the author’s future writing career will be positive. 6.___A___
7) A book that would be appreciated by people without much previous 7.___C___
knowledge of the subject.
8) A book which has already won critical acclaim. 8.__E____
9) A book which includes too much factual detail. 9.__C____
10) A mention of the profession of the author. 10._B_____
 PRACTICE TEST 6
I. LISTENING
Part 1. You will hear part of a lecture on Wildlife. Listen carefully and answer questions from 1 to 5.
Write ONE WORDS only for each answer. You will hear the piece twice.
The European Starling.
Length: 12 inches
Color: black or grey, white spots.
Nesting sites: Trees and (1) _________________.
Diet: Insects and fruit.
Natural range: British Isles, Finland
Population: British Isles, Finland: in decline
USA: (2) _________________ million birds
Some of the problems created by large numbers of starlings.
On wildlife: They compete with other species for nesting places.
On agriculture: They feed on (3) _________________ crops.
They cause financial (4) _________________.
On human life: They may cause diseases.
Possible solutions.
There are three approaches in theory. The best one, of course, is (5) _______________.

Part 2: Listen to the latest world environmental report on the most precious substance on Earth: water
and complete the gaps in the summary of the passage below with the correct word or phrase you hear.

The Earth's surface is two-thirds water, yet most of this is undrinkable or unusable because it is either
seawater or (1) ............................... Of the 1% that is available as (2) .... ...........................water, most is used
for (3) ............................... or goes to industry. Freshwater contamination is the major problem since it is all
too easy to pollute rivers and streams with pesticides, industrial waste, and (4)............................... In poor
and (5)............................. countries, the addition of sewage to sources of water leads to (6) ..........................
and death. In China, a United Nations report estimates that over 78% of people drink from (7) ........................
water supplies. Although humankind has made enormous efforts to control the supply of fresh water by
constructing more than (8).......................... dams throughout the world, falling water (9)...........................,
shrinking rivers and lakes, and loss of wildlife are the result. School project kits are available by telephoning
this number: (10).... ...........................

II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

Part 1. Choose the word/ phrase that best completes each of these sentences.
1. Jerry has been burning the midnight ……… over the last few days; his final exam is soon.
A. lamp B. light C. candle D. oil
2. In my first year at university I lived in the halls of …………… .
A. abode B. residence C. dwelling D. accommodation
3. Books taken from the short …………… section are due to be returned the next day.
A. borrowing B. credit C. loan D. return
4. You are bound to find information on the stock market crash of 1987 in the newspaper …………… .
A. files B. archives C. records D. collections
5. We did our best to fix the broken computer but our efforts bore no …………… .
A. success B. fruit C. luck D. end
6. I knew my mother would …………… a face the minute she saw my new haircut.
A. drag B. lift C. pull D. raise
7. There are a lot of computer programmes nowadays, but really good ones are few and far ………… .
A. between B. apart C. away D. amongst
8. He is such a kind and caring young boy - he wouldn’t hurt a …………… .
A. bird B. worm C. fly D. bug
9. In the last century, it was widely _______ that Indian fakirs were capable of superhuman feats.
A. held B. grasped C. kept D. shaken
10. You shouldn’t have criticized him in front of his friends. It was extremely ................ of you.
A. insensitive B. unfortunate C. insensible D. unconscious

Part 2. Read the text and find 10 mistakes and correct them. You should indicate in which line the mistake
is.
How noisy do you like a car to be? For me, the quieter the better, but evidently not everyone feels like I
do. Recent research in the US and Europe has shown that 80% of motorists like to hear some noises -
especially from the engine - since they drive.
Approximately 60% welcomed the blinking of indicators which provide audible as well as visible
confirmation that these are working. Other noise resources - among them the horn and the sound of braking -
were rated relatively unimportant, as indeed was tyre rumble, which I find very surprising. Cars have become
so quiet mechanically and far little prone to create wind noise, that the boom and roar made by tyres running
on coarsely-textured road surfaces is now firmly at the top of my list of motoring dislike.
In the aforementioned research, participants were asked to listen to sound samples obtained from a
variety of engines running below different conditions. The researchers wanted to know which engine-produced
sounds pleased drivers most. The result clearly showed that scientifically measured and subjective perceived
sound qualities are not the same thing. The difficulty facing car designers must be in deciding just how such
consumer tastes vary according to the kinds of cars they have in mind. The buyer of a top-of-the-range sports
car would, they conclude, feel cheating if the powerful engine did not sing like an operatic tenor with moderate
speeds and below like a wild animal when the needle neared the red line. So noises might, I suppose, be
anathema to the driver of a luxury saloon car, however.

Part 3. Complete each of these sentences with a suitable preposition or particle.

1. Good hygiene helps keep …………… the levels of infection.
2. I am greatly indebted ………… her family for their kindness.
3. He’s a reserved person. He keeps himself …………… himself.
4. I tried to phone her but I couldn’t get …………
5. Why do I have to keep …………… at you to keep your room tidy?
6. The children were late and had to make a dash …………… the school bus.
7. We were totally entranced …………… the prima ballerina’s dancing.
8. Firefighters were ...................... the scene immediately.
9. I’ve met Elizabeth Taylor …………… the flesh. I even shook her hand.
10. There is nothing we can do with this fridge. It’s ………… repair.
 Part 4. Complete the text by writing the correct form of the words in brackets .
Many years ago, a young man was traveling one night through a forest (1.inhabit)….........................….
by Duergars, an evil race of fairies, who liked nothing better than to lure (2. suspect) ……...............….humans
to their death.
As he was making his way down the narrow path, he looked at the (3. tower)…...............…….pine trees.
Black (4. thunder)… ...............…….heavy with rain were racing across the sky, and he knew that he would
soon have to find shelter. Presently he saw the glow of a fire on the hillside and left the path to clamber up the
steep slope that led to the (5. enter) ............................. of the cave.
He stood at the entrance and looked in. It was a vast, empty cavern whose sides rose up to a (6. vault)
….............…ceiling. On the ground in the centre a space had been cleared and a warm fire was throwing (7.
flicker) ..............…….. shadows across the floor. He went cautiously towards the fire and sat down.
As his eyes slowly grew used to the dim light, the (8. menace)… ...............……face of a Duergar begun to
(9. emergence)……. ............... . The creature was sitting (10. motion)… ..............….on the opposite side of
the fire; it stared at him through its slanting green eyes but said nothing.

III. READING COMPREHENSION

I. Choose the word that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage.
Many students in the UK 1_____ doing a gap year before going to university. Critics question whether it is a just
a long glorified holiday or if it's really 2_____ doing. Does it 3_____ help students in their careers? Some
educational establishments do encourage students to take a gap year and recommend that students 4_____
advantage of the opportunities available. However, most of them would prefer it if the students 5_____ some
kind of voluntary work instead of just having a holiday. There are numerous organisations which organise
these 6_____ for students and it's a good idea to check them out online. One of the main advantages is that it's
a great way to get to know more 7_____ different cultures and, for many, it is also a painless way to learn
another language by speaking to local people. Volunteers who stay in local homes say that they get the chance
to experience local culture and customs and, in 8_____, to try a variety of food which they wouldn't otherwise
have tried. When I was 18 years old, I had set my 9_____ on going to work in Africa for a year, but
unfortunately my parents wouldn’t let me go and insisted that I went to university immediately. I'm 49 years
old and still haven’t had my gap year! Maybe one day I'll get 10_____ to doing it.

1. A think B believe C regard D consider

2. A value B worth C afford D benefit
3. A currently B actually C absolutely D certainly
4. A get B have C take D make
5. A made B did C worked D acted
6. A travels B journeys C trips D voyages
7. A of B about C from D than
8. A common B particular C individual D specific
9. A mind B heart C thoughts D plans
10. A over B about C around D through

Part 2. Fill ONE suitable word in each blank.

Violence is alive and well on television. Yet there appears to be a difference in the quality, variety, and
pervasiveness of today’s televised violence. Some observers believe that, as a 1._________ of more than three
decades of television, viewers have developed a kind of immunity to the horror of violence. By the age of 16,
for example, the average young person will 2. __________ seen some 18,000 murders on television. One
extension of this phenomenon may be an appetite for more varied kinds of violence. 3. _________ the basis of
the amount of exposure, certain things that initially would have been beyond the pale have become more
readily accepted.
Violence on TV has been more prevalent than in recent years, in large measure because there are 4.
________ situation comedies and more action series. But also because some 25 million of the nation’s 85
million homes with television now receive one of the pay cable services 5. _________ routinely show uncut
feature films containing graphic violence as early as 8 in the evening.
The evidence is 6. ___________ so overwhelming that just as witnessing violence in the home may
contribute to children learning and acting out violent behavior, violence on TV and in the movies may lead to
the same result. Studies have 7. _________ that a steady diet of watching graphic violence or sexually violent
films such as those shown on cable TV has caused some men to be more willing to accept violence 8.
__________ women. Not only actual violence, but the kind of violence coming through the television screen is
causing concern. One of the principal developments is the increasing sophistication of the weaponry. The
simple gunfight of the past has been augmented by high-tech crimes like terrorist bombings. Programs in the
past used the occasional machine gun, but 9. __________ weapons as the M-60 machine gun and Uzi semi-
automatic have become commonplace today on network shows.
Many people are no 10. __________ concerned about televised violence because they feel it is the way
of the world. It is high time that broadcasters provided public messages on TV screens that would warn
viewers about the potentially harmful effects of viewing violence.

Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions.
Smart Energy

The next few decades will see great changes in the way energy is supplied and used.  In some major oil
producing nations, 'peak oil' has already been reached, and there are increasing fears of global warming. 
Consequently, many countries are focusing on the switch to a low carbon economy. This transition will lead to
major changes in the supply and use of electricity.  [1] Firstly, there will be an increase in overall demand, as
consumers switch from oil and gas to electricity to power their homes and vehicles.  [2]Secondly, there will be
an increase in power generation, not only in terms of how much is generated, but also how it is generated, as
there is growing electricity generation from renewable sources. [3] To meet these challenges, countries are
investing in Smart Grid technology.  [4] This system aims to provide the electricity industry with a better
understanding of power generation and demand, and to use this information to create a more efficient power
network.
Smart Grid technology basically involves the application of a computer system to the electricity network.  The
computer system can be used to collect information about supply and demand and improve engineer's ability to
manage the system.  With better information about electricity demand, the network will be able to increase the
amount of electricity delivered per unit generated, leading to potential reductions in fuel needs and carbon
emissions.  Moreover, the computer system will assist in reducing operational and maintenance costs.
Smart Grid technology offers benefits to the consumer too.  They will be able to collect real-time information
on their energy use for each appliance.  Varying tariffs throughout the day will give customers the incentive to
use appliances at times when supply greatly exceeds demand, leading to great reductions in bills.  For example,
they may use their washing machines at night.  Smart meters can also be connected to the internet or telephone
system, allowing customers to switch appliances on or off remotely.  Furthermore, if houses are fitted with the
apparatus to generate their own power, appliances can be set to run directly from the on-site power source, and
any excess can be sold to the grid.
With these changes comes a range of challenges.  The first involves managing the supply and demand. 
Sources of renewable energy, such as wind, wave and solar, are notoriously unpredictable, and nuclear power,
which is also set to increase as nations switch to alternative energy sources, is inflexible.  With oil and gas, it is
relatively simple to increase the supply of energy to match the increasing demand during peak times of the day
or year.  With alternative sources, this is far more difficult, and may lead to blackouts or system collapse. 
Potential solutions include investigating new and efficient ways to store energy and encouraging consumers to
use electricity at off-peak times.
A second problem is the fact that many renewable power generation sources are located in remote areas, such
as windy uplands and coastal regions, where there is currently a lack of electrical infrastructure.  New
infrastructures therefore must be built.  Thankfully, with improved smart technology, this can be done more
efficiently by reducing the reinforcement or construction costs.
Although Smart Technology is still in its infancy, pilot schemes to promote and test it are already underway. 
Consumers are currently testing the new smart meters which can be used in their homes to manage electricity
use.  There are also a number of demonstrations being planned to show how the smart technology could
practically work, and trials are in place to test the new electrical infrastructure.  It is likely that technology will
be added in 'layers', starting with 'quick win' methods which will provide initial carbon savings, to be followed
by more advanced systems at a later date.  Cities are prime candidates for investment into smart energy, due to
the high population density and high energy use.  It is here where Smart Technology is likely to be promoted
first, utilising a range of sustainable power sources, transport solutions and an infrastructure for charging
electrically powered vehicles.  The infrastructure is already changing fast.  By the year 2050, changes in the
energy supply will have transformed our homes, our roads and our behaviour.

1  According to paragraph 1, what has happened in some oil producing countries?

A. They are unwilling to sell their oil any more.
B. They are not producing as much oil as they used to. 
C. The supply of oil is unpredictable. 
D. Global warming is more sever here than in other countries. 
2  Where in paragraph 1 can the following sentence be placed? 
There is also likely more electricity generation centres, as households and communities take up the opportunity
to install photovoltaic cells and small scale wind turbines. 
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
3  Which of the following is NOT a benefit of Smart Grid technology to consumers?
A. It can reduce their electricity bills. 
B. It can tell them how much energy each appliance is using. 
C. It can allow them to turn appliances on and off when they are not at home. 
D. It can reduce the amount of energy needed to power appliances
4  According to paragraph 4, what is the problem with using renewable sources of power?
A. They do not provide much energy. 
B. They often cause system failure and blackouts. 
C. They do not supply a continuous flow of energy. 
D. They can't be used at off-peak times. 
5  In paragraph 5, what can be inferred about cities in the future?
A. More people will be living in cities in the future than nowadays. 
 B. People in cities will be using cars and buses powered by electricity. 
C. All buildings will generate their own electricity. 
D. Smart Grid technology will only be available in cities. 
6  The word 'remote' in paragraph 5 could be best replace by:
A isolated  B crowded  C attractive  D alone 
7  The word 'underway' in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to:
A permanent  B complete  C beneficial  D in progress 
8  What is the main idea of the final paragraph? (paragraph 6).
A. To describe who will benefit from Smart Grid technology first. 
B. To outline the advantages of Smart Grid technology. 
C. To summarise the main ideas in the previous paragraphs. 
D. To describe how, where and when Smart Technology will be introduced. 
9  In paragraph 6, what can be inferred about the introduction of Smart Grid Technology?
A. The technologies which produce most benefits will be introduced first. 
B. The cheapest technologies will be introduced first. 
C. The technologies which are most difficult to put into place will be introduced first. 
D. Technologically advanced systems will be introduced first. 
10. Why are cities the best candidates for investment into smart energy?
A. because of their low energy use B. because they are densely populated
C. As Smart Technology cannot be promoted there D. due to poor transport system

Part 4. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.
JARGON
A
Jargon is a loaded word. One dictionary defined it, neatly and neutrally, as ‘the technical vocabulary or idiom
of a special activity or group’, but this sense is almost completely overshadowed by another: ‘obscure and
often pretentious language marked by a roundabout way of expression and use of long words’. For most
people, it is this second sense which is at the front of their minds when they think about jargon. Jargon is said
to be a bad use of language, something to be avoided at all costs. No one ever describes it in positive terms
(‘that was a delightful piece of rousing jargon’). Nor does one usually admit to using it oneself: the myth is that
jargon is something only other people employ.
B
The reality, however, is that everyone uses jargon. It is an essential part of the network of occupations and
pursuits that make up society. All jobs present an element of jargon, which workers learn as they develop their
expertise. All hobbies require mastery of jargon. Each society grouping has its jargon. The phenomenon turns
out to be universal - and valuable. It is the jargon element which, in a job, can promote economy and precision
of expression, and thus help make life easier for the workers. It is also the chief linguistic element which shows
professional awareness (‘know-how’) and social togetherness (‘shoptalk’).
C
When we have learned to command it, jargon is something we readily take pleasure in, whether the subject
area is motorcycles, knitting, cricket, baseball or computers. It can add pace, variety and humour to speech - as
when, with an important event approaching, we might slip into NASA-speak, and talk about countdown, all
systems go, and lift-off. We enjoy the mutual showing-off which stems from a fluent use of terminology, and
we enjoy the in-jokes which shared linguistic experience permits. Moreover, we are jealous of this knowledge.
We are quick to demean anyone who tries to be part of our group without being prepared to take on its jargon.
D
If jargon is so essential a part of our lives, why then has it had such a bad press? The most important reason
stems from the way jargon can exclude as well as include. We may not be too concerned if we find ourselves
faced with an impenetrable wall of jargon when the subject matter has little perceived relevance to our
everyday lives, as in the case of hydrology, say, or linguistics. But when the subject matter is one where we
feel implicated, and think we have a right to know, and the speaker uses words which make it hard for us to
understand, then we start to complain; and if we suspect that the obfuscation is deliberate policy, we
unreservedly condemn, labeling it gobbledegook and calling down public derision upon it.
E
No area is exempt, but the fields of advertising, politics and defence have been especially criticized in recent
years by the various campaigns for Plain English. In these domains, the extent to which people are prepared to
use jargon to hide realities is a ready source of amusement, disbelief and horror. A lie is a lie, which can be
only temporarily hidden by calling it an ‘inoperative statement’ or ‘an instance of plausible deniability’. Nor
can a nuclear plant explosion be suppressed for long behind such phrases as ‘energetic disassembly’,
‘abnormal evolution’ or ‘plant transient’.
F
While condemning unnecessary or obscuring jargon in others, we should not forget to look out for it in
ourselves. It is so easy to ‘slip into’ jargon, without realizing that our own listeners/ readers do not understand.
It is also tempting easy to slip some jargon into our expression, to ensure that others do not understand. And it
is just as easy to begin using jargon which we ourselves do not understand. The motivation to do such
apparently perverse things is not difficult to grasp. People like to be ‘in’, to be part of an intellectual or
technical elite; and the use of jargon, whether understood or not, is a badge of membership. Jargon, also, can
provide a lazy way into a group or an easy way of hiding uncertainties and inadequacies: when terminology
slips plausibly from the tongue, it is not essential for the brain to keep up. Indeed some people have developed
this skill to professional levels. And certainly, faced with a telling or awkward question, and the need to say
something acceptable in public, slipping into jargon becomes a simple way out, and can soon become a bad
habit.

Questions 1-5
The Reading has six paragraphs, A-F. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of
headings below.
LIST OF HEADINGS
i The benefits of simple language
ii A necessary tool
iii A lasting way of concealing disasters
iv The worst offenders
v A deceptively attractive option
vi Differing interpretations
vii Publicising new words
viii Feeling shut out
ix Playing with words

1. Paragraph A ……………
2. Paragraph B ……………
Paragraph C …… ix ……
3. Paragraph D ……………
4. Paragraph E……………
5. Paragraph F……………

Questions 6-10
Complete the summary using the list of words A-H below.
THE UP-SIDE OF JARGON
Jargon plays a useful part in many aspects of life including leisure. For example, when people take up
pastimes, they need to develop a good (6)…………… of the relevant jargon. During discussion of these or
other areas of interest, conversation can become more exciting and an element of (7)……… can be introduced
by the use of shared jargon.
Jargon is particularly helpful in the workplace. It leads to more (8)…………… in the way colleagues
communicate during work hours. Taking part in (9)………… during moments of relaxation can also help them
to bond better.
It is interesting that members of a group, whether social or professional, often demonstrate a certain (10)
…………… towards the particular linguistic characteristics of their subject area and tend to regard new people
who do not wish to learn the jargon with contempt.

A know-how B possessiveness C shop-talk D efficiency

E pleasure F command G humour H feeling

PRACTICE TEST 7
PART A. LISTENING
Section 1. You will hear part of a radio interview in which the comedian and writer Jane Clarkson is
talking about her work. For questions 1- 5, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to
what you hear.
1 What did Jane find difficult about writing a book?
A She couldn’t travel around the country. B She didn’t get any instant reaction to her work.
C She had to spend time looking after her daughter. D She found the process itself very challenging.
2 According to Jane, why did some critics dislike her novel?
A They didn’t think the book was funny. B They were dismissive of her initial success.
C They thought her male colleagues were better writers.
D They thought she should stick to being a comedian.
3 Which aspect of Jane’s work as a comedian helped her to write?
A her patience B her ability to listen
C her habit of watching people D her rational way of thinking
4 According to Jane, how do many people react to female comedians?
A They’re convinced women can’t tell jokes. B They’re afraid the women will break down.
C They find women’s humour too intense. D They find women’s jokes embarrassing.
5 What was the disadvantage of the stage image which Jane developed?
A It frightened the audience. B It made the audience angry.
C People thought it reflected her real personality. D People did not take her seriously any more.
Section 2. Listen to the recording and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F).
1. The speaker has come from the Theosophical Society.
2. One of the main points of the talk is to save money.
3. She thinks students should do more housework.
4. She argues that plastic containers won't biodegrade quickly.
5. She warns that asthma sufferers should be careful with her recipes.

Section 3. Listen to the talk about women in the workplace and answer the following questions
1. How is the situation for women in the workplace changing?
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. In which management role that women constitute 17% of the staff?
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
3. How many percent of employees think that gender equality is a priority?
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
4. What is the action companies should take to understand the problem of gender inequality?
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
5. What should companies do to make sure opportunities and advancement are equitable?
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
Section 4: Listen and fill in the blanks with the missing information
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Over the past few years as first lady, I have had the (1)______________ of traveling all across this country and
everywhere I’ve gone and the people I've met and the stories I’ve heard, I have seen the very best of the
(2)______________.
See, our life before moving to Washington was, was filled with simple joys. Saturdays at soccer games,
Sundays at grandma’s house, and a date night for Barack and me was either dinner or movie because as an
exhausted mum I couldn’t stay awake for both. Even back then when Barack was a senator and
(3)______________ to me he was still the guy who picked me up for our dates in a car that was so
(4)______________ that I could actually see the pavement going by in a hole in the passenger side door. He
was the guy whose (5)______________ was a coffee table he'd found in a dumpster.
 Well today, after so many (6)______________ and moments that’ve tested my husband in ways I never could
have imagined, I have seen first-hand that being president doesn’t change who you are. No it
(7)______________who you are.
When it comes to the health of our families, Barack refused to listen to all those folks to told him to leave
(8)______________ for another day, another president. He didn’t care whether it was the easy thing to do
politically, no that's not how he was raised. He cared that it was the right thing to do.
 When we were first married our combined monthly student loan bill was actually higher than our
(9)______________.
Yeah!! We were so young, so in love, and so in debt. If we wanna give all of our children a foundation for their
dreams and opportunities worthy of their promise. If we wanna give them that sense of (9)______________,
that belief that here in America there was always something better out there if you're willing to work for it.
Then we must work like never before, and we must once again come together and stand together for the man
we can trust to keep moving this great country forward.
My husband, our president, Barack Obama.
Thank you, God bless you, God bless America.
PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Section 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences.
1. The decision was ......................... to a later meeting.
A. cancelled B. arranged C. deferred D. delayed
2. Tempers began to ................... as the lorries forced their way through the picket lines.
A. break B. fray C. grate D. fire
3. The old ship will be towed into harbour and ............................... .
A. broken up B. broken down C. broken in D. broken off
4. Making private calls on the office phone is severely .......... on in our department.
A. frowned B. criticised C. regarded D. objected
5. Apart from the ..................... cough and cold. I’ve been remarkably healthy all my life.
A. odd B. opportune C. irregular D. timely
6. The company was declared bankrupt when it had ...................... more debts than it could hope to repay.
A. inflicted B. incurred C. entailed D. evolved
7. Architectural pressure groups fought unsuccessfully to save a terrace of eighteenth century houses from.....
A. disruption B. abolition C. demolition D. dismantling
8. Before I went to drama school, I had to ............. quite a lot of family pressure for me to study medicine.
A. resist B. restrain C. refuse D. reconcile
9. Strong protests were made .................. with demands for an international enquiry.
A. joined B. added C. coupled D. included
10. What her problems all seemed to ............................. to was lack of money.
A. analyse B. condense C. boil down D. sum up

Section 2. The passage below contains 5 mistakes. UNDERLINE the mistakes and WRITE THEIR
CORRECT FORMS in the numbered blanks below the passage.
By the mid-1990s, the academic world finally appeared to be coming round to a conclusion as the public:
that human behaviour is a mix of nature, nurture and simple happenstance. Nowadays, for the media, the story
was still resistible: the discovery of a link between genes and political allegiance. “Leftwing liberals are born
not bred”, declared the headlines, over reports that scientists in the US had revealed that people with a specific
gene were more likely to hold liberal political views. In the face of it, the finding was just the latest
contribution to the nature versus nurture debate – the question of whether we’re born with traits instill in us by
our genes or acquire them in later life. Behind all the media coverage lies an unnerving implication: just as we
have no choice over our eye colour, who we become in life is dictated by our DNA.
Many of the media put the claim squarely into the nature ‘box’ of the debate and moved on, wait ing for the
next ‘born, not made’ story. The resilience of the debate is astonishing – and also disturbing. The belief in the
primacy of genes has underpinned such outrage as the forcible sterilization of ‘feebleminded’ people in 1930s
America and the ethnic cleansing in the Balkans of the 1990s.

Section 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle.
1. Gareth Bale is a brilliant young footballer who is ______________ the up and up.
2. Jan's good at keeping secrets, so you'll have to worm it _____________  her!
3. None of us could fathom ___________  why the experiment wasn't working.
4. Jim seems to be___________  the misapprehension that tomorrow’s a holiday. It isn't.
5. That’s enough TV! It’s time to knuckle _____________  and get on with your homework now.
Section 4. Write the correct form of each bracketed word. Write your answer in the corresponding
numbered boxes.
POWER NAPS
Power napping is an effective, and under-used tool. It is a quick, intense sleep
which (1) DRAMA improves alertness. These naps are especially useful for 1___________________
those whose sleep is constrained by a (2) DEMAND schedule: for example, 2___________________
mothers of small children or travelling business (3) EXECUTE. However, the 3___________________
conditions must be right and practice is required for maximum effect.
Power naps should be short, between ten and twenty-five minutes, to prevent 4___________________
(4) ORIENT on awakening in such a short time, but (5) ACQUIRE of the 5___________________
habit is simply a question of practice. At the (6) OUT, it is more important to 6___________________
relax for a while than actually fall asleep.
Power napping is not a good idea if you find it difficult to wake up at the (7) 7___________________
DESIGN time or have problems sleeping at night after a power nap in the
day. The kind of dozing that can (8) COMPANY a sensation of 8___________________
overwhelming (9) SLEEP is not a true power nap, but a desperate attempt to 9___________________
compensate for a poor sleep routine.
However, with practice, you will find that power naps can lead to a welcome 10__________________
(10) ENHANCE of your performance when you need it most.

PART C. READING COMPREHENSION

Section 1. Choose the option A, B, C, or D that best fits each blank in the following passage.
The popular writer J K Rowling has agreed to end her part in the (1) _____ of the world’s forests by
having her books printed on paper which is environmentally friendly. The multimillionaire author,
Whose novels about a teenage wizard have consumed 6.5 million trees so far, is one of a number of
highprofile authors who have (2) _____ their support for the environment by stipulating that only recycled
paper (3) _____ for their books. Techniques (4) _____ in Canada mean that, for the first time, paper made from
such materials as office waste paper can be used to make books. The Canadian edition of Rowling’s last book
was printed without chopping down a single tree, saving an (5) _____ 40,000 of them.
In the past, it was difficult to print books on recycled paper because the paper was not strong enough to
(6) _____ a lifetime’s reading. Technological advances mean that paper which is (7) _____ from waste
material is now just as durable as paper made from virgin fibre in terms of quality and strength.
Despite the high cost of developing recycled paper that has the required strength and whiteness needed
for books, there will not (8) _____ be a price rise for the reader. Instead, publishers are likely to (9) _____ for
the higher paper cost by using cheaper book covers, as (10) _____ in Canada.
1. A. demolition B. desolation C. destruction D. destitution
2. A. contracted B. pledged C. secured D. undertaken
3. A. be used B. is used C. using D. to be used
4. A. founded B. inaugurated C. led D. pioneered
5. A. estimated B. assessed C. established D. evaluated
6. A. experience B. withstand C. confront D. encounter
7. A. manufactured B. constructed C. devised D. formed
8. A. certainly B. naturally C. absolutely D. necessarily
9. A. balance B. compensate C. return D. refund
10 A. developed B. arose C. happened D. followed
Section 2. Read the text and think of a word that best fits each gap. Use ONLY ONE word in each gap.
Over the last century the world has become increasingly smaller. Not geographically, of course, but in the
sense that media, technology and the opening of borders has enabled the world’s citizens to view, share and
gain (1)__________ to a much wider range of cultures, societies and world views. In this (2)__________ pot
that the world has become, today’s child is privy (3)__________ facets of the human experience that his
immediate predecessors had no inkling even existed. It (4)__________ to reason that in order to absorb,
configure and finally form opinions about this information-laden planet, children must be supplied with certain
tools. (5)__________ in this list of ‘tools’ are: education, social skills, cultural awareness and the acquisition
of languages, the most important of these being the latter. Until recently, a child who had the ability to speak
more than
one language would have been considered a very rare entity. (6)__________ one-language phenomenon could
be attributed to a combination of factors. One of them is that the monolingual environment in which a child
was raised played a strong role, (7)__________ did the limited, biased education of the past. With regard to
immigrants, the sad fact was that non-native parents tended to withhold the teaching of the mother tongue so
that the child would acquire the ‘more prestigious’ language of the adopted country. Nowadays, the situation
has (8)__________ an almost complete reversal. In the majority of North American and European countries,
most children are given the opportunity to learn a second or (9)__________a third language. Children acquire
these foreign languages through various and diverse means. In many countries, learning a foreign language is a
compulsory subject in the state school curriculum. Other children rely on language schools or private tuition to
achieve their goal. In other instances, children are (10)__________ to bilingual parents, who, if they so desire,
may teach the children two languages.

Section 3. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C, or D to answer the questions.
When people learn to play video games, they are learning a new literacy. Of course, this is not the way
the word "literacy" is normally used. Traditionally, people think of literacy as the ability to read and write.
Why, then, should we think of literacy more broadly, in regard to video games or anything else, for that
matter? There are two reasons.
First, in the modem world, language is not the only important communicational system. Today images,
symbols, graphs, diagrams, artifacts, and many other visual symbols are particularly significant. Thus, the idea
of different types of "visual literacy" would seem to be an important one. For example, being able to “read” the
images in advertising is one type of visual literacy. And, of course, there are different ways to read such
images, ways that are more or less aligned with the intentions and interests of the advertisers. Knowing how to
read interior designs in homes, modernist art in museums, and videos on MTV are other forms of visual
literacy.
Furthermore, very often today words and images of various sorts are juxtaposed and integrated in a
variety of ways. In newspapers and magazines as well as in textbooks, images take up more and more of the
space alongside words. In fact, in many modem high school and college textbooks in the sciences images not
only take up more space, they now carry meanings that are independent of the words in the text. If you can’t
read these images, you will not be able to recover their meanings from the words in the text as was more usual
in the past. In such multimodal texts (texts that mix words and images), the images often communicate
different things from the words. And the combination of the two modes communicates things that neither of
the modes does separately. Thus, the idea of different sorts of multimodal literacy seems an important one.
Both modes and multimodality go far beyond images and words to include sounds, music, movement, bodily
sensations, and smells.
 None of this news today, of course. We very obviously live in a world awash with images. It is our first
answer to the question why we should think of literacy more broadly. The second answer is this: Even though
reading and writing seem so central to what literacy means traditionally, reading and writing are not such
general and obvious matters as they might at first seem. After all, we never just read or write; rather, we
always read or write something in some way.
So there are different ways to read different types of texts. Literacy is multiple, then, in the sense that
the legal literacy needed for reading law books is not the same as the literacy needed for reading physics texts
or superhero comic books. And we should not be too quick to dismiss the latter form of literacy. Many a
superhero comic is replete with post-Freudian irony of a sort that would make a modem literary critic's heart
beat fast and confuse any otherwise normal adult.
Literacy, then, even as traditionally conceived to involve only print, is not a unitary thing but a multiple
matter. There are, even in regard to printed texts and even leaving aside images and multimodal texts, different
"literacies."
Once we see this multiplicity of literacy (literacies), we realize that when we think about reading and
writing, we have to think beyond print. Reading and writing in any domain, whether it is law, rap songs,
academic essays, superhero comics, or whatever, are not just ways of decoding print, they are also caught up
with and in social practices... Video games are a new form of art. They will not replace books; they will sit
beside them, interact with them, and change them and their role in society in various ways, as indeed, they are
already doing strongly with movies. (Today many movies are based on video games and many more are
influenced by them.) We have no idea yet how people "read" video games, what meanings they make from
them. Still less do we know how they will "read" them in the future.

1. According to the first paragraph, the traditional definition of ’’literacy” is ______.

A. the ability to analyze literature B. the ability comprehend basic cultural cues
C. the ability to read and write D. the ability to compose poetry
2. All are mentioned as being types of "visual literacy” EXCEPT ______.
A. musical tones B. interior design
C. diagrams D. Modem Art
3. An example from a science textbook of the phenomenon the author describes in the third paragraph could be
______.
A. a genetic tree that coincides with the discussion of specific mammal classes in the text
B. a diagram of a specific chemical reaction that is used to explain a broad definition in the text
C. an illustration of a plant cycle that accompanies a chapter on photosynthesis
D. a cartoon that references the same methods discussed in the text about laboratory safety
4. What is an example of a "multimodal” text?
A. A dictionary B. A movie script C. A photo album
D. An art book that describes the art as well as reproduces images of the original prints
5. The phrase "beyond print” is closest in meaning to ______.
A. reading to understand the underlying meanings and themes of the author's words-not just a literal
interpretation
B. reading text that defines different types of wheat and grains
C. to read the text from right to left rather than left to right
D. to read books that use recycled paper and other green alternatives
6. In the seventh paragraph, the author suggests that literacy is multiple, meaning that ______.
A. to be "literate" can mean participating in any form of expression
 B. one's literacy increases exponentially as greater mastery of reading and writing is achieved
C. different genres and modes of expression require different background knowledge and perspectives to
understand them
D. literacy can only be gained by exploring every type of media and expression
7. Why does the author give the example of superhero comics to explain multiple literacies?
A. To explain that comic books are written for children and purely for entertainment. They require only a
basic knowledge of the action that occurs in the story.
B. To once again refer to his earlier points about "multimodal" texts
C. To insist that even when an author may intend multiple meanings and interpretations, they are rarely
successful in conveying those to readers
D. Things that may seem on the surface to be only meant for a particular group of people can actually have
very profound meanings to those who possess other types of literacy
8. The author suggests that all of the following require different types of literacy and the ability to decode
meaning EXCEPT ______
A. Rap music B. Comic books C. Academic papers D. Symphonies
9. The author says that video games ______.
A. are not yet entirely understood in terms of literacy, but are already impacting other forms of expression
such as filmmaking.
B. are unrealistic and should not fall into the same categories as the other texts he describes
C. are too violent to risk experimenting with for the purposes of understanding literacy
D. are irrelevant in academic discussion because no one has yet determined how to explain the ways that
people understand them
10. What would be the most logical information for the next paragraph to contain if the article continued?
A. A technological definition of video games, how they are made, and how they are played
B. A historical explanation of the very first video game and its evolution
C. Examples of the way that some people currently interpret video games and what they mean to them
D. A price comparison of video game consoles and whether or not quality has a direct impact on literacy

Section 4. Read the passage and answer the questions as required. Write all your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes.

A. Our daily lives are largely made up of contacts with other people, during which we are constantly
making judgments of their personalities and accommodating our behavior to them in accordance with
these judgments. A casual meeting of neighbors on the street, an employer giving instructions to an
employee, a mother telling her children how to behave, a journey in a train where strangers eye one
another without exchanging a word - all these involve mutual interpretations of personal qualities.

B. Success in many vocations largely depends on skill in sizing up people. It is important not only to such
professionals as the clinical psychologist, the psychiatrist or the social worker, but also to the doctor or
lawyer in dealing with their clients, the businessman trying to outwit his rivals, the salesman with
potential customers, the teacher with his pupils, not to speak of the pupils judging their teacher. Social
life, indeed, would be impossible if we did not, to some extent, understand, and react to the motives and
qualities of those we meet; and clearly we are sufficiently accurate for most practical purposes,
although we also recognize that misinterpretations easily arise - particularly on the part of others who
judge us!
C. Errors can often be corrected as we go along. But whenever we are pinned down to a definite decision
about a person, which cannot easily be revised through his 'feed-back', the inadequacies of our
judgments become apparent. The hostess who wrongly thinks that the Smiths and the Joneses will get
on well together can do little to retrieve the success of her party. A school or a business may be saddled
for years with an undesirable member of staff, because the selection committee which interviewed him
for a quarter of an hour misjudged his personality.

D. Just because the process is so familiar and taken for granted, it has aroused little scientific curiosity
until recently. Dramatists, writers and artists throughout the centuries have excelled in the portrayal of
character, but have seldom stopped to ask how they, or we, get to know people, or how accurate is our
knowledge. However, the popularity of such unscientific systems as Lavater's physiognomy in the
eighteenth century, Gall's phrenology in the nineteenth, and of handwriting interpretations by
graphologists, or palm-readings by gipsies, show that people are aware of weaknesses in their
judgments and desirous of better methods of diagnosis. It is natural that they should turn to psychology
for help, in the belief that psychologists are specialists in 'human nature'.

E. This belief is hardly justified: for the primary aim of psychology had been to establish the general laws
and principles underlying behavior and thinking, rather than to apply these to concrete problems of the
individual person. A great many professional psychologists still regard it as their main function to study
the nature of learning, perception and motivation in the abstracted or average human being, or in lower
organisms, and consider it premature to put so young a science to practical uses. They would disclaim
the possession of any superior skill in judging their fellow- men. Indeed, being more aware of the
difficulties than is the non-psychologist, they may be more reluctant to commit themselves to definite
predictions or decisions about other people. Nevertheless, to an increasing extent psychologists are
moving into educational, occupational, clinical and other applied fields, where they are called upon to
use their expertise for such purposes as fitting the education or job to the child or adult, and the person
to the job. Thus a considerable proportion of their activities consists of personality assessment.

F. The success of psychologists in personality assessment has been limited, in comparison with what they
have achieved in the fields of abilities and training, with the result that most people continue to rely on
unscientific methods of assessment. In recent times there has been a tremendous amount of work on
personality tests, and on carefully controlled experimental studies of personality. Investigations of
personality by Freudian and other 'depth' psychologists have an even longer history. And yet
psychology seems to be no nearer to providing society with practicable techniques which are
sufficiently reliable and accurate to win general acceptance. The soundness of the methods of
psychologists in the field of personality assessment and the value of their work are under constant fire
from other psychologists, and it is far from easy to prove their worth.

G. The growth of psychology has probably helped responsible members of society to become more aware
of the difficulties of assessment. But it is not much use telling employers, educationists and judges how
inaccurately they diagnose the personalities with which they have to deal unless psychologists are sure
that they can provide something better. Even when university psychologists themselves appoint a new
member of staff. They almost always resort to the traditional techniques of assessing the candidates
through interviews, past records, and testimonials, and probably make at least as many bad
 appointments as other employers do. However, a large amount of experimental development of better
methods has been carried out since 1940 by groups of psychologists in the Armed Services and in the
Civil Service, and by such organizations as the (British) National Institute of Industrial Psychology and
the American Institute of Research.

List of Headings
i. The advantage of an intuitive approach to personality assessment
ii. Overall theories of personality assessment rather than valuable guidance
iii. The consequences of poor personality assessment
iv. Differing views on the importance of personality assessment
v. Success and failure in establishing an approach to personality assessment
vi. Everyone makes personality assessments
vii. Acknowledgement of the need for improvement in personality assessment
viii. Little progress towards a widely applicable approach to personality assessment
ix. The need for personality assessments to be well-judged
x. The need for a different kind of research into personality assessment

Question 1-6. Choose the correct headings for the paragraphs below.
Example : Paragraph A vi
1. Paragraph B ______ 2. Paragraph C ______ 3. Paragraph D ______
4. Paragraph E ______ 5. Paragraph F ______ 6. Paragraph G ______
Question 7. Choose THREE letters A-F. Write your answers in box 7.
Which THREE of the following are stated about psychologists involved in personality assessment?
A. 'Depth' psychologists are better at it than some other kinds of psychologist.
B. Many of them accept that their conclusions are unreliable.
C. They receive criticism from psychologists not involved in the field.
D. They have made people realize how hard the subject is.
E. They have told people what not to do, rather than what they should do.
F. They keep changing their minds about what the best approaches are.
Questions 8 - 10. Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in the Reading Passage. In
boxes 8 - 10 write
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
8. Unscientific systems of personality assessment have been of some use.
9. People make false assumptions about the expertise of psychologists.
10. It is likely that some psychologists are no better than anyone else at assessing personality.

Section 5. Read the following article about how to be environmentally friendly and decide in which
paragraph (A-E) the following are mentioned. For each question 1-10, write your answer (A, B, C, D or E)
in the corresponding numbered boxes. Write one letter for each answer. The paragraphs may be chosen
more than once.
A. FAIR TRADE
Farmers in developing countries are some of the most vulnerable people on earth, prey to world commodity
markets, middle men and the weather. So-called “fair trade” arrangements guarantee cooperative groups a
price above the world market and a bonus on top. The growing fair-trade market has distributed hundreds of
millions of pounds to more than 50 million people worldwide. But critics say that fair trade will never lift a
country out of poverty; indeed, it may keep it there, because the money generated from sales goes almost in its
entirety to rich countries which promote the products. As a simple guide, only about 5% of the sale price of a
fair-trade chocolate bar may actually go to the poor country.

B. ORGANIC FOOD
For food to be organic it must be free of added chemicals, both in the growing of the food and in the killing of
the pests that might damage the crop. In a world where many manufactured chemicals have never been
properly tested for safety, this is a very big selling point. Parents are thus prepared to pay a premium for
organic food, especially when chemicals suspected of causing a variety of problems have been found, albeit in
tiny quantities, in most children’s blood. The problem is that many farmers have not switched to organic in
sufficient numbers to satisfy this growing market. As a result, supermarkets are often forced to fly vegetables
as they can label “organic” halfway round the world, at a great cost to the planet in extra greenhouse gases.
Environmentalists are now urging shoppers to buy locally produced vegetables, even if they are not organic
and have been sprayed with pesticides.

C. BEING CARBON NEUTRAL

If you want to make yourself feel better about the planet, there are lots of ways for you to ease your conscience
by becoming “carbon neutral”. One of the most appealing methods is to pay for someone to plant trees,
preferably creating or regenerating new forests. The theory is that trees grow by absorbing carbon dioxide and
giving out oxygen, storing the carbon in their trunks. But woods and forests create their own mini-climate,
which collects and stores water and creates rainclouds. Added to this, there is the potential problem that
planting trees often releases carbon stored in the soil - and what happens if the forests catch fire, or are
chopped down and harvested for timber? Another and perhaps better solution might be to invest in small-scale
hydro-electric schemes, so that people who live in the Himalayas, for example, and currently do not have
electricity, can develop a 21st century lifestyle without polluting the planet.

D. ECO-TOURISM
The idea of “green” tourism is to persuade local people not to chop down forests, shoot elephants or wipe out
tigers, but to preserve them so rich tourists visit and peer at the wildlife through binoculars. Unfortunately, the
best money is made from reintroducing animals for trophy hunting by the very rich - an idea which does not
always meet with approval and has caused much debate. While tourists may help sustain some national parks,
they often create as many problems as they solve. One is that they tend to demand all mod cons in their hotels,
such as a great deal of water for showers; a luxury sometimes not available for locals. Eco-tourism, when
properly managed, can offer the locals and the animals a brighter future. Sometimes, though, the only winners
are a few business people who own hotels.

E. RECYCLING
A great shift has taken place in the way we think about rubbish. Where once we were happy to bury it in
landfills or dump it at sea, we are now being urged by national and local governments to recycle it and think of
waste as a resource. The wheelie-bin culture is being replaced by a series of kerbside collections of paper,
metals, plastic, bottles, clothes and compost. The idea is to cut landfill as well as saving the planet. It is,
however, having some unexpected consequences. Most of Britain’s plastic and paper is now being sent for
recycling in China or India, which creates more greenhouse gases just to get it there, plus workers then have to
separate it. Meanwhile, some paper and bottles carefully sorted out by householders end up being dumped in
landfills after all, because the demand for recycled materials constantly fluctuates.

In which section is the following mentioned?

a controversial pastime that raises considerable money 1. ______
an action which creates a different weather pattern 2. ______
an undesirable result of unnecessary global transportation 3. ______
(NB. You must provide two different options) 4. ______
inadequate research into harmful substances 5. ______
people at the greatest risk from factors beyond their control 6. ______
a benefit for those the scheme was not originally intended for 7. ______
(NB. You must provide two different options) 8. ______
the bringing of a source of energy to remote areas 9. ______
a failure to adapt in order to meet increasing demands 10. ______