REVIEW INNOVATIONS

THIRD EVALUATION EXAMINATION REVIEW FOR NOVEMBER 2021 CE BOARD EXAM

Part 1: Mathematics, Surveying & Transportation B. 1360 D. 1470
Engineering 11. A polygon has 170 diagonals. How many sides does it
1. Find the equation of the line through (4, 0) and is parallel have?
to the altitude from A to BC of the triangle A(1, 3), B(2, - A. 20 C. 22
6) and C(-3, 0). B. 21 D. 23
A. 5x + 6y + 20 = 0 C. 5x - 6y - 20 = 0
B. 5x + 6y - 20 = 0 D. 5x - 6y + 20 = 0 12. One essential step to ensure the success of a microgravity
bean seed germination project is that 10 gallons of a 70%
2. Find the value of k so that the radius of the circle x2 + y2 – concentrated nutrient solution be administered to the
kx + 6y – 3 = 0 is equal to 4. bean seeds. If the payload specialist has some 90%
A. 3 C. 5 nitrogen and some 30% nitrogen, how many gallons from
B. 4 D. 6
30% nitrogen solution should she mix in order to obtain
3. A trough has an open top 0.30 m by 6m and closed vertical the desired solution?
ends which are equilateral triangles 30 cm on each side. A. 2.50 gallons C. 6.67 gallons
It is filled with water to half its depth. Find the volume of B. 7.50 gallons D. 3.33 gallons
the water in m3.
A. 0.041 C. 0.072 13. A grain elevator operator wants to mix two batches of
B. 0.038 D. 0.058 corn with a resultant mix of 54 pounds per bushel. If he
uses 20 bushels of 56 pounds per bushel corn, which of
4. The lateral area of a right circular cone is 386 m2. If its the following gives the amount of 50 pounds per bushel
diameter is one-half its altitude, determine its altitude in corn needed?
meters. A. 20 bushels C. 15 bushels
A. 20.5 C. 23.9 B. 10 bushels D. 5 bushels
B. 21.4 D. 22.5
14. From the letters of the word MATHEMATICS, how many
5. A right prism has a base in the shape of regular octagon
arrangements can be made if the vowels are to be
inscribed in a square 10 cm by 10 cm. If its altitude of 15
cm, find its volume in cubic centimeter. together?
A. 1250.12 C. 1302.56 A. 10,080 C. 120,960
B. 1242.64 D. 1230.45 B. 15,120 D. 75,600

6. Find the new endpoints of the segment joining A(-2, -3) 15. There were twice as many tickets sold to non-students
and M(6, 1) if it is extended through M, six times its own than to students for a basketball game in the UAAP last
length. season. Student tickets were at P60 while non-student
A. (45, 52) C. (34, 12) tickets were at P110. If the total revenue for the game was
B. (54, 25) D. ( 62, 26) P15,400, then how many tickets were sold to non-
7. Find the distance between the lines x + 2y = 6 and 2x + students?
A. 90 C. 100
4y = -9. B. 110 D. 120
A. 4.70 C. 6.16
B. 5.78 D. 3.14
16. A student finds the average of 10 positive integers. Each
8. A soft clay spherical in shape, has a radius of 10 cm. If integer contains two digits. By mistake, the boy
cubes 2 cm on each side are to be made out of this clay, interchanges the digits of one number, say ba for ab. As a
how many cubes can be made? consequence, the average becomes 1.8 less than what it
A. 524 C. 522 should have been. What was the difference of the two
B. 523 D. 525 digits a and b?
A. 8 C. 6
9. What is the sum of interior angles of pentadecagon? B. 2 D. 4
A. 2440 C. 2240
B. 2340 D. 2520
17. Inside a box are 5 balls; three whites and two blacks. If
10. Find the supplement of an angle whose complement is balls are randomly drawn and tallied according to color,
620. what is the chance that at least once after the first tally the
A. 1250 C. 1520 colors have the same number of tallies?

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REVIEW INNOVATIONS 3rd Evaluation Examination CE Board November 2021
A. 4/5 C. 1/5 25. Determine how high is the paraboloid formed of the
B. 2/5 D. 3/5 water surface, in meter(s).
A. 1.26 C. 2.46
18. In a poker hand, what is the probability that all 5 cards B. 1.91 D. 1.35
are of the same suit? 26. Determine the amount of water in liters that will be
A. 33/66,640 C. 33/16,660 spilled out.
B. 33/46,660 D. 33/66,610 A. 140 C. 340
B. 152 D. 146
19. A coin is so unbalanced that you are likely to get two 27. What should have been the least height of the vessel, in
heads in two successive throws as you are to get tails in meters, so that no water is spilled out?
one. What is the probability of getting heads in a single A. 2.87 C. 3.15
throw? B. 2.55 D. 2.40
A. 0.168 C. 0.681
B. 0.618 D. 0.816 Situation 3. Water flows from point 1 to point 2 at the rate
of 280 l/s in a 300-mm diameter pipe. The elevation of
20. Point P is randomly chosen inside the square ABCD. point 2 is 360 m. When the gate valve near point 2 is
Lines AP and PB are then drawn. What is the probability closed, the difference in pressure between point 2 and
that angle APB is obtuse? point 1 is 80 kPa. When the valve is opened, the difference
A. 0.252 C. 0.181 in pressure between point 1 and point 2 is 170 kPa.
B. 0.484 D. 0.393 28. What is the elevation of point 1, in meters?
A. 386.51 C. 368.15
21. Assume that a single depth charge has a probability of 1/2 B. 362.92 D. 327.62
of sinking a submarine, 1/4 of damage and 1/4 of missing. 29. What is the head loss between points 1 and 2 when the
Assume also that two damaging explosions sink the sub. valve is opened?
What is the probability that 4 depth charges will sink the A. 25.48 m C. 28.17 m
sub? B. 18.72 m D. 15.06 m
A. 251/256 C. 25/256 30. What is the velocity at point 2, in m/s?
B. 51/256 D. 125/256 A. 3.11 C. 3.28
B. 3.96 D. 3.57

Part 2: Hydraulics and Geotechnical Engineering Situation 4. A layer of sand 5 meters deep overlies a 4 m
Situation 1. The truck carries an open container of water as thick bed of clay. Assume sand has saturated unit weight
shown. If it has a constant acceleration of 2 m/s2, & dry unit weight of 20.9 kN/m3 & 17.4 kN/m3
respectively, while the clay has saturated unit weight of
17.8 kN/m3. Determine the effective stress 9 m below the
ground surface if:
31. The water table is at the ground level.
A. 118.96 kPa C. 87.41 kPa
B. 88.29 kPa D. 107. 03 kPa
32. The water table is at 2 meters below ground level and the
sand above remains saturated with capillary moisture.
A. 118.96 kPa C. 87.41 kPa
B. 88.29 kPa D. 107. 03 kPa
33. If the water table is at the top of the clay.
A. 118.96 kPa C. 87.41 kPa
B. 88.29 kPa D. 107. 03 kPa

22. Determine the angle of inclination of the surface of the Situation 5. At a site the subsoil consists of a 8 m thick layer
water. of dry sand (G = 2.65, e = 0.85 , D10 = 0.14 mm) which is
A. 14.5° C. 12.5° underlain by a 6 m thick clay layer (G = 2.75, w = 22%)
B. 13.5° D. 11.5° below which there exists a thick layer of hardpan. The
23. What is the pressure at the bottom corner A? water table is located at a depth of 6 m below the ground
A. 24.6 C. 34.6
B. 14.6 D. 44.6 level. Determine the following:
24. What is the pressure at the bottom corner B? 34. Height of capillary rise. Assume C = 0.5 cm2
A. 24.6 C. 34.6 A. 470 mm C. 420 mm
B. 14.6 D. 44.6 B. 540 mm D. 590 mm
35. Effective stress at the bottom of the clay layer.
Situation 2. An open cylindrical vessel 1.3 m in diameter and A. 167.9 kPa C. 152.1 kPa
2.1 m high is 2/3 full of water. If rotated about the vertical B. 173.2 kPa D. 177.5 kPa
36. Effective stress at the interface of dry and saturated sand.
axis at a constant angular speed of 90 rpm.
A. 122.6 kPa C. 94.8 kPa
B. 102.2 kPa D. 82.5 kPa

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REVIEW INNOVATIONS 3rd Evaluation Examination CE Board November 2021
Situation 6. A sample of clay is brought back from the field, A. 0.502 C. 0.346
extruded from the Shelby tube, and trimmed to the B. 0.267 D. 0.189
following dimensions: height = 150 mm, diameter = 75
mm. It weighs 13.2 N. The water content has been
determined to be 25%. Find the following parameters for
the clay, assume the unit weight of solids is 27 kN/m3:
37. Natural unit Weight.
A. 15.94 kN/m3 C. 19.92 kN/m3
B. 18.24 kN/m3 D. 17.22 kN/m3
38. Degree of Saturation.
A. 99.1% C. 92.7%
B. 82.6% D. 87.4%
39. Determine the field dry unit weight of the soil.
A. 69% C. 58%
B. 37% D. 41%

Part 3: Structural Engineering and Construction

Situation 7. The homogenous 860-kg bar AB in Figure MEC-
104 is supported by a ball and socket joint at A and two
cables attached to B.

Figure MEC-101 44. Which of the following most nearly gives the minimum
coefficient of static friction required to prevent sliding at
point B?
A. 0.502 C. 0.346
B. 0.267 D. 0.189
45. If the coefficient of friction at all contact points is 0.48,
which of the following statements is true?
A. The ladder will not slide.
B. The ladder will slide at point A.
C. The ladder will slide at point B.
D. The ladder will slide at A and B.

Situation 9. The 500-kg crate is supported by the three

cables.

40. Which of the following most nearly gives the tension (in
kN) in cable BC?
A. 7.64 C. 8.60
B. 7.01 D. 8.11
41. Which of the following most nearly gives the tension (in
kN) in cable BD?
A. 7.64 C. 8.60
B. 7.01 D. 8.11
42. Which of the following most nearly gives the vertical
reaction (in kN) at A?
A. 12.87 C. 20.27
B. 15.66 D. 16.27

Situation 8. As shown in the figure, a stepladder consisting

of two legs pinned together at C is resting on a rough floor.
A worker weighing 800 N is required to climb to a height 46. Determine the tension (in N) in cable AD.
of 1.3 m to be able to change a light bulb. The uniform legs A. 2,389.24 C. 1,790.70
AC and BC weigh 110 N and 70 N, respectively. B. 1,935.94 D. 1,627.87
43. Which of the following most nearly gives the minimum 47. Determine the tension (in N) in cable BD.
coefficient of static friction required to prevent sliding at A. 2,389.24 C. 1,790.70
B. 1,935.94 D. 1,627.87
point A?
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REVIEW INNOVATIONS 3rd Evaluation Examination CE Board November 2021
48. Determine the tsension (in N) in cable CD. Situation 12. Data of a 3m cantilever beam section is given
A. 2,389.24 C. 1,790.70 below.
B. 1,935.94 D. 1,627.87
B×H = 300 mm × 600 mm
Bar diameter = 16 mm
Situation 10. The weight of the cylindrical tank (radius = 0.7 Clear concrete cover to 10 mm diameter ties = 40 mm
m) is negligible in comparison to the weight of water it Unit weight of concrete = 24 kN/m3
contains. The coefficient of static friction between the Concrete fc’ = 28 MPa
tank and the horizontal surface is µs. Steel fyl = 415 MPa
ϕ=0.90
The beam will carry a 6kN/m superimposed dead load
and 5.6 kN/m live load. Use 2010/2015 NSCP.
55. Which of the following most nearly gives the total
factored uniform load (kN/m)?
A. 16.16 C. 11.60
B. 21.35 D. 25.21
56. Which of the following most nearly gives the critical
factored moment (kN-m)?
A. 24.01 C. 96.05
B. 113.45 D. 72.72
57. Determine the required number of tension bars.
A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 D. 5

Situation 13. A double-angle tension member, 100 mm x

100 mm x 8 mm is subjected to a tensile load, P = 210 kN.
The diagonal member is on a slope 2V:1H and is
connected to the supporting beam by a wide tee.
49. Assuming a full tank, find the smallest force P (in N)
S1 = 38 mm t1 = 20 mm
required to tip the tank. S2 = 75 mm t2 = 18 mm
A. 1,269 C. 8,693 S3 = 100 mm t3 = 16 mm
B. 9,556 D. 1,645
Allowable strength and stresses:
50. Assuming a full tank, find the smallest µs that would allow
Yield strength, Fy = 248 MPa
tipping to take place. Ultimate strength, Fu = 400 MPa
A. 0.134 C. 0.291 Bolt shear strength, Fv = 150 MPa
B. 0.159 D. 0.218 Bolt tensile stress, Ft = 195 MPa
51. If the force P = 1000 N initiates tipping, determine the Bolt bearing stress, Fp = 1.2Fu
depth of water in the tank (in m).
Assume that the bolts are equally loaded.
A. 0.23 C. 1.58
B. 0.32 D. 1.85

Situation 11. Data of a beam section is given below.

B×H = 300 mm × 600 mm
Bar diameter = 20 mm
Clear concrete cover to 10 mm diameter ties = 40 mm
Concrete fc’ = 35 MPa
Steel fyl = 415 MPa
ϕ=0.90
The beam is simply supported with a span of 6m. It will
carry a 6kN/m total factored dead load and 96kN
factored load at midspan.
52. Which of the following most nearly gives the critical
factored moment (kN-m).
A. 171.0 C. 112.3
B. 262.8 D. 131.4
53. Determine the required number of tension bars.
A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 D. 5
54. If a 25kN service live load is added at midspan, determine
the required number of tension bars.
A. 4 C. 6
B. 5 D. 7

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REVIEW INNOVATIONS 3rd Evaluation Examination CE Board November 2021
58. Determine the required diameter “d1” (mm) of the 3 bolts stress in the web at the toe of fillet is 0.66F y. Allowable
in shear connecting the double-angle member to the wide bending stress of steel base plate is 0.75Fy.
tee. Properties of the wide flange:
A. 16 C. 12
B. 20 D. 25 bf = 225 mm tw = 12 mm
59. Determine the required diameter “d2” (mm) of the four d = 600 mm tf = 18 mm
bolts in tension connecting the wide tee to the flange of k = 40 mm
the supporting beam.
A. 16 C. 12 64. Determine the maximum beam reaction based on bearing
B. 20 D. 25 on concrete wall in kN.
60. Determine the required diameter “d2” (mm) of the four A. 742 C. 852
bolts connecting the wide tee to the flange supporting B. 672 D. 921
beam. 65. Determine the maximum beam reaction based on
A. 16 C. 12 bending of the base plates at a distance k from the axis of
B. 20 D. 25 the web in kN.
A. 74 C. 85
Situation 14. Refer to Figure. The butt connection shows 8 – B. 78 D. 92
22 mm diameter A325 bolts spaced as follows: 66. Determine the maximum beam reaction based on web
yielding stress over a distance N+2.5k.
S1 = 40 mm S2 = 80 mm
S3 = 50 mm S4 = 100 mm
A. 594 C. 552
B. 572 D. 621
Thickness of plates:
t1 = 16 mm t2 = 12 mm
Steel strength and stresses are: ~o0o~
Yield strength, Fy = 248 MPa Nothing Follows
Ultimate strength, Fu = 400 MPa
Allowable tensile stress on the gross area = 148 MPa
Allowable tensile stress on the net area = 200 MPa
Allowable shear stress on the net area = 120 MPa
Allowable bolt shear stress, Fv = 120 MPa

Calculate the allowable tensile load, T (kN), under the

following conditions:
61. Based on the gross area of the plate.
A. 571 C. 762
B. 381 D. 286
62. Based on the net area of the plate.
A. 528 C. 264
B. 352 D. 432
63. Based on block shear strength.
A. 230 C. 480
B. 307 D. 608

Situation 15. A wide flange beam is supported by a wall 300

mm thick using steel bearing plates 400 mm x 200 mm x
20 mm. All steel are A-36 with Fy = 250 MPa. Concrete
Strength f’c = 24 MPa. Assume the allowable bearing
strength of concrete is 0.35f’c. Allowable compressive

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