1.

Passage of ions and dipoles through to pores of

the cell membrane is affected by the following 10. Viscosity of blood tend to increase in the
characteristics of the membrane permeated smaller vessels due to
a) Lipid nature a) Constriction in the walls of vessels
b) Pore size b) Faster blood flow
c) Presence of charge c) Fahraeus Lindqvist effect
d) Hydrophilic nature d) Decrease in cross-sectional area
2. Osmosis 11. T’was an SRO movie and Paul had been standing
a) Is downhill transport almost shoulder-to-shoulder with the
b) Is movement mainly of solute particles enraptured movie fans for almost three hours.
through a semipermeable membrane His legs felt heavy and his shoes seemed two
c) Is inhibited when metabolic poisons act on sizes smaller. How do you explain this
the energy system of the cell phenomenon?
d) Utilized energy from cellular metabolism a) Increase blood flow to the capillaries due to
3. This organelle in the muscle cell controls the local opening of pre-capillary sphincters
concentration of Ca++ near the contractile b) Increase in venous and capillary pressures in
machinery and thereby influences the contraction the feet vessels
relaxation process c) Obstruction of lymphatic flow by
a) Centriole surrounding skeletal muscles
b) Endoplasmic reticulum d) Stimulation of sympathetic vasoconstrictor
c) Mitochondria fibers supplying arterioles in the legs and
d) Golgi complex feet
4. The ECF is considered the ‘internal environment’ of 12. Normally, venous pressure
the body because it is a) Is higher than capillary pressure
a) In equilibrium with the external b) Can be increased by contraction of
environment surrounding muscles
b) Constantly changing c) Is equal to pressure in corresponding
c) Essentially the same for all cells arteries
d) Made up of 60% of the total body water d) Mainly determined by cardiac activity
5. Active transport is characterized by the 13. Extracellular edema can be brought about by the
following; except following; except
a) Utilizes metabolic energy a) Increased capillary pressure
b) Utilizes carrier molecules in the cell b) Decreased plasma colloid osmotic pressure
membrane c) Decrease in interstitial fluid pressure
c) End-point is uniformity or equal d) Lymphatic obstruction
concentrations in the two sides of the 14. Because aortic pulse pressure can go as high
membrane 120 mmHg and right pulmonary artery
d) Rate of transport becomes constant as pressure averages at 25 mmHg during
saturation point is reached systole, the quantity of blood flowing
6. Blood flow to each tissue is almost always through the lungs is
precisely controlled in relation to a) Less than in the systemic circulation
a) Cardiac output b) More than in the systemic circulation
b) Tissue needs c) Equal to that in the systemic circulation
c) Blood pressure d) More than twice the wedge pressure ar
d) Blood volume recumbent position
7. Playing the most significant rile in determining 15. Diffusion and filtration system include the
blood flow in the circulatory system is following blood vessels
a) Radius of blood vessel a) Arteries
b) Length of the vessel b) Arterioles
c) Viscosity of blood c) Capillaries
d) Blood pressure d) Veins
8. The lymphatic system controls the 16. Streamline or laminar flow is characterized by the
a) Concentration of proteins in the interstitial following
fluid a) Each layer of fluid slides smoothly over an
b) Volume of the interstitial fluid adjacent layer
c) Interstitial fluid pressure b) Flow velocity increases toward the
d) All of the above periphery of the tube
9. The common denominator in all types of c) Velocity is inversely proportional to tube
circulatory shock is radius
a) Decreased blood pressure d) Resistance to flow is greatest at the center
b) Decreased in metabolic rate of the tube
c) Diminished tissue perfusion
d) Decreased in blood volume
17. Low pressure in the pulmonary circulation
indicates the following
a) Dilatable vessels
b) High resistance vessels
c) Lesser vessel diameter
d) Less viscous blood
18. According to Poiseuille’s law, an increase in
the following factor tend to retard fluid
flow
a) Radius of the tube
b) Viscosity of the fluid
c) Pressure head
d) Velocity of flow
19. According to the Vasodilator theory of local
blood flow regulation, increase in local blood
flow can be brought about by
a) Increased metabolic rate
b) Diminished oxygen supply
c) Increased in formation of vasodilator
substances
d) All of the above
20. Ted’s blood pressure is normally 120/80 mmHg.
This morning it rose to 15-/100 mmHg.
Supposing his kidneys are normal, his renal- body
fluid mechanism is expected to respond by
a) Kidneys will further retain water until a
diuretic is given
b) Blood volume will remain elevated until a
vasodilator is given
c) The rise in blood pressure will cause
pressure natriuresis
d) Increase thirst and increase in water intake
21. T’was a crisply cold December morning when
Joshua and his mom and dad were walking
calmly towards the village chapel to attend the
early dawn mass. Breathing in the fresh cool
morning air, they were filled with some kind of
peace and serenity. As the air is conducted in the
upper respiratory passages, it undergoes the
following; except
a) Filtration
b) Humidification
c) Cooling
d) Warming
22. The ultimate goal of pulmonary ventilation is to
a) Expand the lungs
b) Conduct fresh air into the alveoli
c) Oxidize nutrients for energy production
d) Aerate the blood
23. Systemic blood supply to the lungs is the
bronchial artery which has the following
function(s)
a) To provide nutrition to the airways, larger
pulmonary vessels and pleura
b) To add water vapor to inspired air
c) To transport oxygenated blood from the
alveoli to the right auricle
d) A and B only
24. Fresh inspired air fills up the anatomic dead
space which
a) Extends from the nose and oral cavity until
the tertiary bronchi
b) Is decreased by tracheostomy
c) Is normally greater than the physiologic
dead space
d) Is always pathological and impairs
pulmonary function
25. Lung efficiency depends on how closely the
following two factors match
a) Diffusion and transport
b) Depth of inspiration and expiration
c) Alveolar ventilation and perfusion
d) External and internal respiration
26. If respiratory rate is 15/min, tidal volume =
500 ml and physiologic dead air space = 150
ml, how much is the alveolar ventilation
a) 4200 ml
b) 5000 ml
c) 5250 ml
d) 6500 ml
27. The importance of residual volume is the
following
a) Keeps the lungs inflated at the end of the
normal expiration
b) Makes the lungs fully expanded during
inspiration
c) Provides air in the alveoli to aerate the
blood even between breaths
d) Allows warming of air in alveoli before
diffusion into the pulmonary blood
28. Normal quiet expiration is entirely a passive
process, because
a) No nerve impulses are sent to the effector
muscles
b) Only inertial work of breathing is
performed
c) No thoracic pressure and volume changes
occur
d) All of the above
29. This refers to the maximum amount of air a
person can expel from the lungs after first
filling the lungs to their maximum extent and
then expiring to the maximum extent
a) Tidal volume
b) Inspiratory capacity
c) Vital capacity
d) Expiratory reserve volume
30. The potent effect of CO2 on the neurons in the
respiratory center, is due to the following
characteristic
a) High utilization coefficient
b) Ability to react with carbonic anhydrase
c) Low molecular weight
d) High kinetic energy
31. Mrs. P. del Rosario was admitted to the hospital
for a transfusion of whole blood due to a chronic
anemia. Her blood type was B, Rh (+)
but inadvertently she was given Type A, Rh (+)
blood. This transfusion was futile and fatal
because
a) Donor’s RBC with A agglutinogens were
destroyed by the patient’s anti-B
agglutinins
b) Patient’s anti-B agglutinins were destroyed
by the donor’s A agglutinogens
 c) Patient’s RBC with A agglutinogens were
destroyed by the donor’s anti-B agglutinins
d) Donor’s RBC with A aglutinogens were
destroyed bu the donor’s B agglutinogens
While walking down a dark alley one starless night,
Paulo’s right foot accidentally stepped on a piece
of broken glass which pierced through his rubber
sandals.
He immediately raised his right foot as his arms
swayed sidewards as he balanced himself.
32. The following cord reflex(es) exhibited include
the following
a) Flexor reflex, right foot
b) Cross extensor reflex, right foot
c) Stretch reflex, right foot
d) Golgi tendon reflex, arms
33. A powerful feedback mechanism that begins
with tissue inflammation and ends finally with
the removal of the cause of inflammation is
provided by the following:
a) Tumor necrosis factor
b) Interleukin-1
c) Colony stimulating factors
d) AOTA
34. One of the most important of all products of the
complement cascade which has a direct effect of
rupturing the cell membranes of bacteria and
other invading organism is:
a) C5a
b) C3b
c) C5b,6,7,8,9
d) C5b,6,7
35. The following is/are correct of the intrinsic
pathway for initiating clotting:
a) Involves activation of factor XII and release
of platelet phospholipids
b) Initiated by tissue factor such as a
traumatized vascular wall
c) More explosive than the extrinsic pathway
d) With severe trauma, clotting can occur in as
little as 15 seconds
36. The following is/are correct of agglutinins:
a) Present when the corresponding
agglutinogen is absent
b) Immediately after birth, quantity of
agglutinins in the plasma is almost zero
c) May have a maximum of 10 binding sites
thereby causing more RBCs to clumo
together on a single agglutinin
d) AOTA
37. The most essential regulator of RBC production
is:
a) Tissue oxygenation
b) Erythropoeitin
c) Folic acid and cyanocobalamin
d) CFU-erythrocyte
Case 1: Anna is almost at the doorstep of her
dream of becoming an international flight
stewardess. She can almost picture herself
elegantly dressed, flashing her winning grin to all
passengers. She has everything calculated well
except for her medical exams, particularly the
ECG taken a day before. This could be crucial
since she has been experiencing occasional chest
pains lately. Can her cardiac status stand the
rigorous schedule of international flights?
38. In this case, Anna’s ECG tracing can give a
clue to the following conditions except
a) Calculate her cardiac output
b) Detect myocardial ischemia
c) Show conduction abnormalities
d) Demonstrate electrolyte alterations
39. Her could have erroneous results if
a) All the 12 conventional leads were recorded
b) The standardization is not indicated at the
start of the tracing
c) In lead III, the (+) electrode was placed on
the left leg and the (-) electrode was placed
on the left arm
d) In V4, the electrode was placed on the 5th
ICS- Left MCL
40. In her ECG, the P wave should tell us about the
following:
a) Her atrial depolarization
b) Her atrial repolarization
c) The start of her ventricular depolarization
d) Her P wave is quite insignificant and can be
disregarded
41. Her P wave was negative in aVR. What could
this mean?
a) There might be chamber enlargement if her
atria
b) There could be a conduction abnormality
from the SA node to the AV node
c) It is a normal finding
d) An echocardiogram is indicated to assess
the valves and chambers
42. A scrutiny of her QRS complex showed that it
was normal in voltage and was positive in leads
V5 and V6 and was bi-phasic in leads V3 and V4.
This would show:
a) Probable ventricular hypertrophy pattern
b) Electrolyte imbalance
c) Ischemic process
d) It is a normal finding
43. Her T wave would show us the following
information:
a) If tall and peaked it could indicate
hyperkalemia
b) If inverted in particular leads, it could
demonstrate ischemia
c) Its configuration could be distorted by
ventricular hypertrophy
d) AOTA
44. There was no U wave seen in her tracing. If it
was seen its significance could be:
a) Further repolarization of her ventricles
b) Electrolyte abnormalities particularly
hypokalemia
c) Ventricular hypertrophy
d) AOTA

45. The upright deflection of her QRS in V4-V6
shows that:
a) The depolarization dipole is moving
towards the electrode
b) This is normal QRS progression
c) The direction of the movement of the dipole is
towards the left
d) AOTA
Case 2: six hours PTA, Joseph, 46 y.o.,
complained of constricting substernal chest pain
while playing basketball with friends. In contrast
to his other episodes of chest pains in the past,
this chest pain lasted more than 10 minutes and
wasn’t relieved by rest. He at once took his usual
sublingual nitroglycerin tablets, but there was no
relief/ he was rushed to CDH ER and his
attending physician’s admitting diagnosis was
myocardial infarct.
46. If you were Joseph’s cardiologist, which of the
following cardiac enzymes would you request?
a) CK Mb
b) AST
c) LDH
d) AOTA
47. The enzyme levels were not very conclusive.
Another cardiac enzyme test was repeated after 2
days/ it was most probably:
a) AST
b) Troponin T/I
c) LDH
d) Any of the above
48. The utility and advantage of Tropinin T/I over
the other studies could be because:
a) It is more specific when there is a
concomitant skeletal muscle injury that is
below the results
b) It could also be more specific when here is a
small myocardial infarction that is below the
detection limit of CK Mb
c) It could detect infarct has happened for
some days since tropinin T could remain
elevated for 14 days
d) AOTA
49. On the 4th day post admission, Joseph
developed arrythmia. Its causation could be
explained by the following mechanisms:
a) A probable block in the different points of
impulse transmission in the heart
b) There might be spontaneous generation of
abdominal impulses in almost any part of
the conducting system
c) Abnormal rhythmicity of the pacemaker
50. The side by side relationship between myosin
and action filaments is achieved by the
following
a) Large numbers of filament molecules of a
protein called titin
b) Strong insertion of action filaments into the 2
discs by alpha actinin
c) Interaction of myosin and actin filaments
through the cross-bridges
d) d) Absence of the cross-bridges at the very
most center in myosin
51. A pure actin filament without the presence of
the troponin-tropomyosin complex binds
instantly and strongly with the heads of the
myosin molecules in the presence of the
following
a) Ca ions
b) Mg ions
c) ATP
d) B and C
52. Every muscle of the body is composed of a
mixture of so-called fast and slow muscle fibers.
The differences between these 2 types of fibers
include the following
a) Fast muscle fibers are rich in red myoglobin
b) Fast fibers have less extensive blood supply
c) Slow fibers have fewer mitochondria than
fast fibers
d) Slow fibers have large amounts of glycotic
enzymes
53. Which of the following substances is most
important for skeletal muscle contraction but
not for smooth muscle contraction?
a) Myosin-ATPase
b) Actin
c) Troponin
d) Ca-ATPase
54. Which statement below correctly describes the
channels located on the end-plate membranes
of skeletal muscles?
a) The channels are activated by acetylcholine
b) The channels are primarily permeable to Na
c) When all post synaptic channels are open,
the membrane potential becomes positive
d) The number of open channels increases
when the membrane depolarizes
55. On which of the following sensory systems is
the transducer and spike generator located on
the same cell?
a) Hearing
b) Olfaction
c) Vision
d) Taste
56. The following statements are true of the taste
sensation except
a) Most taste buds are located around the
circumvallate papillae
b) Each taste bud can be exited by more than
one of the primary taste stimuli, when the
taste substance is in low concentration
c) The extreme degree of adaptation that occurs
in taste sensation occurs in the CNS itself
d) Phenylthiocarbamide is used frequently to
detect taste blindness
57. Which type of receptor is activated by
acetylcholine and blocked by atropine?
a) Nicotinic
b) Muscarinic
c) Beta adrenergic
 d) Alpha adrenergic d) Large intestine secretions
58. The association area of the central cortex that
provides a high level of interpretative meaning 67. The following statements are true about bile
for signals from all surrounding sensory areas is salts except
the a) Important in the emulsification of fats
a) Prefrontal association area b) Aid in the absorption of fat soluble vitamins
b) Limbic association area c) They are not reabsorbed into the blood from
c) Parieto-occipitotemporal association area the small intestine
d) Secondary somatic sensory area d) No exception
59. In transmission of a neuronal signal from a 68. This hormone stimulates secretion of bile by
presynaptic neuron to a postsynaptic neuron, a the liver
certain amount of time is consumed in the a) CCK
following process(es): b) Histamine
a) Discharge of the transmitter substance by c) Secretin
the presynaptic terminal d) Gastrin
b) Action of the transmitter on the membrane 69. The absorption of glucose by the small
receptor intestine is via
c) Action of the receptor to increase the a) Sodium cotransport
membrane permeability b) Diffusion
d) AOTA c) Solvent drag
60. Which of the following is a feature of both the d) Active transport
stretch and the withdrawal reflexes? 70. These provide the greatest surface are for the
a) After discharge absorption in the small intestine
b) Reciprocal innervation a) Valvulae conniventes
c) Simultaneous stimulation of alpha and b) Villi
gamma motor neurons c) Microvilli
d) Reduction of Ia fiber activity during d) Taenia coli
contraction 71. In athletes on training, the changes that occur
61. The following events occur when the stapes hit inside their hypertrophied muscles include the
the oval window: following except:
a) Increase in pressure in the scala vestibule a) Increase in the number of myofibrils
b) Movement of the basilar fibers b) Increase in mitochondrial enzymes
c) Excitation of hair cells c) Decrease in stored triglyceride
d) AOTA d) Increase in ATP and phosphocreatine
62. Factors that control GI functions are the 72. The final common denominator of
following except: cardiovascular function in exercise is to
a) Enteric nervous system a) Deliver oxygen and other nutrients to the
b) Autonomic nervous system muscles
c) Hormones b) To remove CO2 and other waste products of
d) No exception metabolism from muscles
63. The following conditions that make the GI cell c) To increase CO in response to increase
membrane more excitable except: venous return
a) Stretching if the muscle d) To strengthen the cardiac muscles to reduce
b) Stimulation by acetylcholine cardiovascular disease
c) Parasympathetic stimulation 73. What metabolic systems in exercise is utilized
d) Sympathetic stimulation by the muscle from power surges of a few
64. What factor would likely delay gastric seconds
emptying a) Glycogen-lactic system
a) Increase food volume in the stomach b) Aerobic system
b) Stretching of the stomach wall c) Phosphagen system
c) Gastrin secretion d) AOTA
d) Distention of the duodenum 74. Most substances in the plasma are freely
65. Mass movement in the colon filtered from the glomerulus except
a) Propel the feces from the cecum to the a) Glucose
sigmoid b) Proteins
b) Occur 12-24x per day c) Sodium
c) A modified type of peristalsis d) Bicarbonate
d) AOTA 75. This characteristic feature is not associated with
66. This contributes the greatest amount in the total the glomerulus
volume of intestinal juices a) Composed of anastomosing network of
a) Saliva capillaries
b) Gastric secretion b) Has a low hydrostatoc pressure
c) Small intestine secretions c) Capillaries are covered by the epithelial
 cells Paraventricular nuclei
d) Fluid filtered flows into the Bowman’s capsule d)
76. The forces that oppose filtration across the 85. The permeability of the late distal tubule and
glomerular capillaries are the following except cortical collecting duct to water is controlled by
a) Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure the concentration of what hormone?
b) Glomerular hydrostatic pressure a) Angiotensin
c) Glomerular capillary colloid osmotic b) Aldosterone
pressure c) Vasopressin
d) Net filtration pressure d) Epinephrine
77. Which of these hormones increase the 86. Which of the following substances are not
glomerular filtration rate? reabsorbed by the proximal tubule?
a) Epinephrine a) Protein
b) Norepinephrine b) Amino acids
c) Prostaglandin c) Urea
d) Angiotensin d) Glucose
78. Which of the following is not a major function of 87. The kidneys conserve water by excreting a
autoregulation in the kidneys? concentrated urine with the basic requirement
a) Maintain a relatively constant GFR such as:
b) Allow precise control of renal excretion of a) High level of ADH
water b) High osmolality of the renal medullary
c) Allow control of renal excretion of solutes interstitial fluid
d) Maintain a constant blood pressure c) High level of urea excretion
79. About 65% of the filtered load of sodium and d) A and B
water are reabsorbed by 88. Which of the following feature is a synaptic
a) Proximal tube function of neurons?
b) Descending loop of Henle a) An impulse may be locked in its
c) Ascending loop of Henle transmission
d) Collecting duct b) Each impulse may be changed from a single
80. The part of the loop of Henle that is virtually impulse into repetitive impulse
impermeable to water c) Each impulse may be integrated with
a) Descending thin segment impulses from other neurons
b) Ascending thin segment d) AOTA
c) Thick ascending segment 89. What chemical substance is believed to be the
d) Tip of Henle major transmitter substance associated with the
81. What type of brain waves are found in the EEG of production of sleep?
a normal adult person who is awake, quiet and in a) Serotonin
a resting state of cerebration? b) Acetylcholine
a) Alpha waves c) Dopamine
b) Beta waves d) Norepinephrine
c) Theta waves 90. The most important receptors for determining
d) Delta waves joint angulation in midranges of motion are
82. Which of the following is not a metabolic effect of a) Pacinian corpuscles
growth hormone? b) Muscle spindles
a) Increase rate of protein synthesis c) Golgi tendon apparatus
b) Decrease mobilization of fatty acids d) Krause corpuscles
c) Decrease rate of glucose utilization 91. Research work has suggested that this chemical
d) Enhance conversion of fatty acids to acetyl- agent might be the single agent most responsible
CoA for causing tissue damage type of pain
83. Which of the following features is related to a) Serotonin
testosterone? b) Histamine
a) Serves to inhibit the descent of testes during c) Substance P
the last third month of pregnancy d) Bradykinin
b) Secretion after puberty causes secondary 92. The following are physiologic effects of
sexual characteristics to develop glucocorticoids except
c) Decrease the total quantity of bone matrix a) Increase glucose levels in the plasma
d) Cause calcium retention b) Decrease protein synthesis and decrease
84. The most important temperature receptors for cellular protein catabolism
long term control of body temperature are c) Increase proteins in plasma and liver
neurons located in d) Increase levels of blood amino acids
a) Preoptic area of the hypothalamus 93 Given the following plasma electrolyte levels,
b) Supraoptic nuclei . what could possible be the adrenal disorder: Na:
c) Postoptic area 145 mg/dl; K: 2.4 mg/dl; Cl: 96 mg/dl;
HCO3: 41 mg/dl
 a) Normal b) She has damaged kidneys
b) Adrenal insufficiency c) Her parathyroid gland was probably
c) Primary aldosteronism accidentally removed
d) SIADH d) Her bones were unable to provide
94 The following inhibits the production of insulin calcium
. by the pancreas
a) Glucose
b) Somatostatin
c) Glucagon
d) Amino acids
95 Mr. Johns, a 65 y.o male, recently underwent
. disarticulation of his right big toe for a non
healing ulcer. His physician told him that he had
adult-onset diabetes. What are the effects of
insulin deficiency on the tissues that brought
about Mr. Johns condition?
a) Inadequate blood supply to the tissues
secondary to structural changes of the blood
vessel
b) Peripheral neuropathy
c) Increased utilization and decreased storage
of proteins
d) AOTA
96 The rate of iodide trapping by the thyroid cells is
. influenced by several factors, the most important
being the following
a) Leve; of T3 in the plasma
b) Concentration of TSH
c) Rate of storage of thyroglobulin
d) Rate of transport of thyroxine and
triiodothyronine to the tissues
97 Parathyroid hormone maintains normal ionized
. serum calcium concentration by the following
mechanisms of action on the bone
a) Inhibits osteoclastic function
b) Decrease formation of new osteoclasts
c) Increases osteoblast-initiated recruitment of
osteocytes and osteoclasts
d) AOTA
98 The following factors stimulate calcitonin
. synthesis and secretion except
a) Cholecystokinin
b) Glucagons
c) Beta-adrenergic agonists
d) Beta-adrenergic antagonists
99 Which of the follwing is not true of a typical
. menstrual cycle?
a) Menstruation is induced by an increased in
estrogen and progesterone
b) The increase in FSH on day 28 is induced
by loss of steroid negative feedback
c) Non dominant follicles undergo atresia due to
decrease in FSH
d) The ratio of LH to FSH increases before
ovulation
100 A 28 y.o female underwent thyroidectomy.
. Four days post-operatively, she had CP arrest. Her
calcium blood level was 6.2 mg/dl. What could
most likely cause her calcium blood level reach this
value?
a) She had burst of secretion of her calcitonin
prior to the removal of her thyroid gland