1.

The study of the functioning of an organism in the presence of disease is called:

A) biology.
B) physiology.
C) pathophysiology
D) biochemistry.

2. The paramedic is in the BEST position to formulate an appropriate treatment plan for an ill
patient if the paramedic:
A) is able to identify the etiology of the patient's illness.
B) obtains a complete list of all the patient's medications.
C) performs a head-to-toe exam to detect all abnormalities.
D) gathers a reliable medical history from the patient's family.

3. Groups of cells form:

A) tissues.
B) organs.
C) an organism.
D) organ systems.

4. An organ is composed of:

A) a group of cells.
B) multiple organisms.
C) identical cells and tissues.
D) various types of tissues.

5. The __________, which are found within the cell's cytoplasm, operate in a cooperative and
organized fashion to maintain the life of the cell.
A) ribosomes
B) organelles
C) microfilaments
D) nuclear pores

6. What part of the cell produces the body's major energy source in the form of adenosine
triphosphate (ATP)?
A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Golgi complex
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
7. The ____________ of the cell contains ribonucleic acid (RNA).
A) nucleus
B) cytoplasm
C) Golgi complex
D) mitochondria

8. What type of tissue lines the intestines, blood vessels, and bronchiole tubes?
A) Muscle
B) Nervous
C) Epithelial
D) Connective

9. Endothelial cells that line the inside of blood vessels:

A) are nonliving cells made of protein.
B) are made of epithelial squamous cells.
C) regulate blood flow and coagulation.
D) are composed of specialized nervous tissue.

10. Which of the following statements regarding connective tissue is MOST correct?
A) Connective tissue is enclosed by fascia.
B) Connective tissue can transmit electrical impulses.
C) Skeletal muscle is a type of connective tissue.
D) Connective tissue binds other types of tissue together.

11. Nonstriated muscle is also called _________ muscle.

A) autonomic
B) smooth
C) skeletal
D) voluntary

12. Unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle is:

A) striated voluntary.
B) nonstriated voluntary.
C) nonstriated involuntary.
D) striated involuntary.

13. ___________ nerves exit from between the spinal vertebrae and extend to various parts of
the body.
A) Cranial
B) Connecting
C) Somatic
D) Peripheral

14. What structure conducts electrical impulses away from the cell body?
A) Axon
B) Synapse
C) Dendrite
D) Synaptic gap

15. Homeostasis is MOST accurately defined as:

A) a constant effort to preserve a degree of stability or equilibrium.
B) cellular oxygen delivery and carbon dioxide removal from the body.
C) the balance of water or hydration in the cells and body of an organism.
D) the inability of the body to maintain a constant internal environment.

16. Which of the following is an example of homeostatic failure?

A) A pH balance of 7.37 with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min
B) Severe vomiting and diarrhea and a heart rate of 120 beats/min
C) Salt and water retention and a blood pressure of 170/98 mm Hg
D) Core body temperature of 98.2°F and an ambient temperature of 28°F

17. In healthy adults, a loss of more than ____% of total body fluid is required to alter
homeostasis and cause illness.
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 30

18. An endogenous ligand is:

A) any medication that binds to a receptor and causes a reaction.
B) a molecule that is produced by the body and binds to a receptor.
C) any molecule that is not naturally occurring in the human body.
D) a synthetically made hormone that acts upon the endocrine system.

19. Unlike endocrine hormones, exocrine hormones:

A) are carried to their target organs or cell groups via the blood.
B) reach their targets via a specific duct that opens into an organ.
C) diffuse through intracellular spaces to reach their target organs.
D) move through body water and act upon the cell that secreted them.

20. All of the following are endocrine hormones, EXCEPT:

A) histamine.
B) insulin.
C) adrenalin.
D) thyroxine.

21. Enlargement of the heart due to chronically elevated blood pressure is called:
A) atrophy.
B) dysplasia.
C) hyperplasia.
D) hypertrophy.

22. An alteration in the size, shape, and organization of cells is called:

A) atrophy.
B) metaplasia.
C) dysplasia.
D) hypertrophy.

23. Approximately 45% of a person's body weight is:

A) interstitial fluid.
B) intracellular fluid.
C) extracellular fluid.
D) intravascular fluid.

24. Cerebrospinal fluid and synovial fluid are MOST appropriately classified as ____________
fluids.
A) interstitial
B) intravascular
C) intracellular
D) extracellular

25. Dehydration is generally a more serious concern in elderly patients than in younger adults
because:
A) geriatric patients tend to lose more water through perspiration.
B) total body water constitutes only 45% of body weight in older people.
C) renal function increases significantly in patients over 60 years of age.
D) a person's total body water increases by 10% for each 10 years of life.
26. The net effect of osmosis is to:
A) equalize the amount of water on both sides of the cell membrane.
B) shift extracellular fluid to the intracellular and intravascular fluids.
C) passively transport a solution to an area of lower solute concentration.
D) equalize the concentrations of a solute on both sides of the cell membrane.

27. The movement of water and a dissolved substance from an area of high pressure to an area
of low pressure is called:
A) filtration.
B) active transport.
C) facilitated diffusion.
D) passive transport diffusion.

28. When comparing two solutions, the solution that has a higher solute concentration and a
higher osmotic pressure is referred to as a/an __________ solution.
A) isotonic
B) hypotonic
C) hypertonic
D) crystalloid

29. Lactated Ringer's is a/an __________ solution because its solute concentration is equal to
that of the inside of the cell.
A) colloid
B) isotonic
C) hypotonic
D) crystalloid

30. If the sodium potassium pump is impaired due to insufficient potassium in the body:
A) the cells will shrink and eventually die.
B) sodium accumulates and causes the cells to swell.
C) excess sodium fills the extracellular space.
D) water shifts from the cell and into the extracellular fluid.

31. Plasma comprises approximately ___% of the blood.

A) 25
B) 35
C) 45
D) 55
32. What type of pressure is generated by dissolved proteins in the plasma that are too large to
penetrate the capillary membrane?
A) Capillary hydrostatic pressure
B) Tissue hydrostatic pressure
C) Capillary colloidal osmotic pressure
D) Tissue colloidal osmotic pressure

33. Ascites is defined as:

A) an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.
B) lower extremity edema caused by lymphatic obstruction.
C) fluid buildup in the lungs due to decreased cardiac function.
D) fluid backup in the periphery due to right atrial dysfunction.

34. The cardinal sign of overhydration is:

A) edema.
B) dyspnea.
C) hypertension.
D) tachycardia.

35. Acute pulmonary edema:

A) commonly results from right-sided heart failure.
B) results in excess elimination of carbon dioxide.
C) is characterized by progressively worsening dyspnea.
D) impairs oxygen diffusion into the pulmonary capillaries.

36. Edema in an upper extremity following a mastectomy is the result of:

A) localized vasoconstriction.
B) decreased lymphatic drainage.
C) obstruction of a large blood vessel.
D) surgery-induced inflammation.

37. When blood osmolarity increases:

A) the kidneys excrete more water from the body through diuresis in an attempt to normalize the
blood's osmolarity.
B) osmoreceptors located in the hypothalamus stimulate the release of vasopressin, which causes
the body to retain water.
C) the pituitary gland releases antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which stimulates the kidneys to
reabsorb water and decrease the blood's osmolarity.
D) volume-sensitive receptors in the atria stretch, causing the release of natriuretic proteins that
normalize the blood's osmolarity.

38. Baroreceptors, which are located in the carotid artery, aorta, and kidneys, are MOST
sensitive to changes in:
A) fluid volume.
B) blood pressure.
C) acid-base balance.
D) sodium concentrations.

39. The MOST prevalent cation of the extracellular fluid is:

A) sodium.
B) chloride.
C) potassium.
D) bicarbonate.

40. Renin is a protein that is released into the bloodstream by the _________ in response to
changes in __________.
A) kidneys, blood pressure.
B) liver, acid-base balance.
C) pancreas, insulin levels.
D) hypothalamus, body temperature.

41. When renin is released:

A) the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II is inhibited, which facilitates excretion of
sodium via the kidneys.
B) the lungs convert the plasma protein angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, which dilates the renal
blood vessels and increases kidney function.
C) the pancreatic alpha cells secrete the hormone glucagon, which facilitates the conversion of
glycogen to glucose in the liver.
D) the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which
stimulates sodium reabsorption by the renal tubules.

42. Aldosterone acts on the kidneys by:

A) increasing potassium reabsorption into the blood and enhancing sodium elimination in the
urine.
B) dilating the renal vasculature, thus enhancing renal blood flow and facilitating sodium
excretion.
C) increasing sodium reabsorption into the blood and enhancing potassium elimination in the
urine.
D) constricting the renal vasculature, thus slowing renal blood flow and decreasing the
glomerular filtration rate.

43. The tension exerted on a cell due to water movement across the cell membrane is referred to
as:
A) osmosis.
B) tonicity.
C) diffusion.
D) active transport.

44. A patient with kidney or liver failure would MOST likely develop:
A) severe dehydration.
B) an increase in isotonic fluid.
C) cellular shrinkage and death.
D) excessive hypertonic fluid levels.

45. Orthostatic hypotension is a common manifestation of:

A) dehydration.
B) fluid overload.
C) hypernatremia
D) left-sided heart failure.

46. Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause hyponatremia?
A) Mild fever
B) A seizure
C) Acute nausea
D) Diuretic use

47. Hyperkalemia is MOST accurately defined as:

A) excess potassium in the cells.
B) a relative deficit of sodium.
C) an elevated serum potassium level.
D) a critically low magnesium level.

48. All of the following factors would cause potassium to shift into the cell, EXCEPT:
A) alkalosis.
B) epinephrine release.
C) increased vagal tone.
D) insulin administration.
49. A diabetic patient who failed to take his or her insulin and presents with peaked T waves on
the cardiac monitor and muscle weakness is MOST likely:
A) hypocalcemic.
B) hyperkalemic.
C) hypokalemic.
D) hypoglycemic.

50. Which of the following medications does NOT shift potassium into the cells?
A) Insulin
B) Albuterol
C) Bicarbonate
D) 50% dextrose

51. Muscle cramps and paresthesias in a malnourished patient with alcoholism are MOST likely
the result of:
A) hypocalcemia.
B) hypernatremia.
C) hyperkalemia.
D) hypermagnesemia.

52. Half of the body's magnesium is stored in the:

A) bones.
B) kidneys.
C) skeletal muscle.
D) extracellular fluid.

53. A patient with chronic renal insufficiency who has been taking laxatives and presents with
confusion, muscle weakness, and decreased deep tendon reflexes MOST likely has:
A) decreased serum sodium levels.
B) an overall decrease in serum potassium.
C) an increased serum level of magnesium.
D) increased intracellular magnesium levels.

54. Acid-base balance normally remains in a physiologic pH range of:

A) 7.25-7.35
B) 7.35-7.45
C) 7.45-7.55
D) 7.55-8.25
55. The MOST major challenge to pH homeostasis is:
A) hyperventilation.
B) CO2 elimination.
C) acute fluid loss.
D) acid production.

56. A pH of 7.23 would cause all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) CNS depression.
B) hyperactive reflexes.
C) confusion and disorientation.
D) decreased respiratory function.

57. Tetany of the respiratory muscles would MOST likely be caused by:
A) severe alkalosis.
B) a pH of 7.33.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) excessive hydrogen ions.

58. A person who ingests excessive amount of salicylate would MOST likely experience:
A) alkalosis.
B) bradycardia.
C) a fall in pH.
D) hypoventilation.

59. Compensatory respiratory alkalosis would MOST likely occur in a patient with:
A) a pH of 7.50.
B) metabolic acidosis.
C) acute insulin shock.
D) chronic antacid ingestion.

60. A patient who overdosed on heroin and is unconscious with slow, shallow respirations would
MOST likely experience:
A) decreased PaCO2 levels.
B) acute metabolic acidosis.
C) excess CO2 elimination.
D) a pH well above 7.45.
61. Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to cause hyperventilation?
A) Ketoacidosis
B) Severe infection
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Metabolic alkalosis

62. When cells are hypoxic for more than a few seconds:
A) they produce substances that may damage other local or distant body systems.
B) the respiratory system rapidly decompensates and breathing becomes slow.
C) an increase in cytochrome production occurs and the body makes more energy.
D) lysosomes quickly release enzymes that attempt to rebuild the structure of the cell.

63. What chemical induces hypoxia by blocking oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria
and preventing oxygen metabolism?
A) Lead
B) Ethanol
C) Cyanide
D) Carbon monoxide

64. An infectious disease would LEAST likely occur in a patient:

A) with metastatic cancer.
B) with migraine headaches.
C) who is over 70 years of age.
D) with long-term diabetes.

65. Foreign material such as bacteria and other microorganisms are engulfed and destroyed by:
A) basophils.
B) phagocytes.
C) eosinophils.
D) lymphocytes.

66. In the presence of infection, white blood cells release endogenous chemicals called
_________, which produce fever.
A) pyrogens
B) histamines
C) leukotrienes
D) catecholamines

67. Unlike bacteria, viruses:

A) are unable to replicate.
B) are treated effectively with antibiotics.
C) do not produce an immune response.
D) do not produce exotoxins or endotoxins.

68. Apoptosis is MOST accurately defined as:

A) hypoxic cell death.
B) normal cell death.
C) pathologic cell death.
D) premature cell death.

69. If an injury leading to cell degeneration is of sufficient intensity and duration:

A) ischemia will result in simple necrosis.
B) the cell will undergo coagulation necrosis.
C) the cell will become inflamed and may burst.
D) irreversible cell injury will lead to cell death.

70. Which of the following disease processes is more common in women?

A) Gout
B) Lung cancer
C) Osteoporosis
D) Parkinson's disease

71. The prevalence of a particular disease refers to:

A) the frequency with which the disease occurs.
B) how acutely the disease negatively affects a person.
C) the number of cases in a particular population over time.
D) the number of deaths from the disease in a given population.

72. Most immunologic diseases that exhibit familial tendencies:

A) are caused by immunosuppression.
B) involve an overactive immune system.
C) are outgrown by the age of 25 years.
D) are caused by immune system hypoactivity.

73. Allergies are acquired following:

A) most bacterial infections.
B) initial exposure to an allergen.
C) indirect exposure to an allergen.
D) repeated exposure to an allergen.

74. Recurrent episodes of rheumatic fever would MOST likely cause:

A) metastatic brain cancer.
B) frequent streptococcal infections.
C) progressive failure of the liver.
D) permanent damage to the heart valves.

75. An inflammatory condition of the respiratory system that results in intermittent wheezing
and excess mucus production is called:
A) sinusitis.
B) asthma.
C) bronchitis.
D) emphysema.

76. Major risk factors for lung cancer include:

A) female sex and age over 40 years.
B) frequent respiratory infections and asthma.
C) cigarette smoking and exposure to asbestos.
D) chewing tobacco use and a history of allergies.

77. Early signs or symptoms of breast cancer include:

A) a small, painless lump in the breast.
B) swollen lymph glands in the axilla.
C) significant weight loss and vomiting.
D) nipple discharge and breast tenderness.

78. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus:

A) need exogenous insulin to survive.
B) are less likely to develop ketoacidosis.
C) experience excessive cellular uptake of glucose.
D) control their disease with dietary modification.

79. Hemolytic anemia is a disease characterized by:

A) decreased production of red blood cells.
B) premature death of white blood cells.
C) an overproduction of red blood cells.
D) increased destruction of red blood cells.
80. Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is MOST correct?
A) Hemophilia is caused by excessive production of factor VIII.
B) Hemophilia is an inherited disorder, is characterized by excessive bleeding, and occurs only
in males.
C) Hemophilia is characterized by factor VIII deficit and is passed from asymptomatic fathers to
daughters.
D) Hemophilia is generally not an inherited disorder and affects males and females in equal
numbers.

81. Patients with congenital prolongation of the Q-T interval are at GREATEST risk for:
A) sudden asystole.
B) ventricular arrhythmias.
C) coronary artery disease.
D) acute myocardial infarction.

82. Syncope is probably NOT caused by a life-threatening arrhythmia if it occurs:

A) immediately after a person is startled.
B) following exercise or heavy exertion.
C) in a person whose cousin has syncope.
D) in conjunction with chest pain or pressure.

83. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by:

A) enlargement or thickening of the heart muscle.
B) progressive shrinking of the right side of the heart.
C) a significant reduction of blood return to the atria.
D) generalized thinning of the left and right ventricles.

84. Generally, the only physical finding in a patient with a prolapsed mitral valve is:
A) a chronically irregular heart rate.
B) sharp chest pain following strenuous exertion.
C) dyspnea and palpitations while in a sitting position.
D) a clicking sound heard during cardiac auscultation.

85. A person with a normal total cholesterol level:

A) is at high risk for an acute cardiac event if his or her HDL levels are elevated.
B) will probably not develop coronary artery disease, even if his or her HDL levels are low.
C) will likely not experience an acute cardiac event, even if his or her LDL levels are elevated.
D) is still at risk for coronary artery disease if his or her lLDL levels are elevated.
86. Gout is a condition in which:
A) calcium deposits affect the joints.
B) uric acid accumulates in the blood.
C) the kidneys fail to excrete sodium.
D) synovial fluid is progressively destroyed.

87. Common signs and symptoms of ulcerative colitis include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) pus or blood in the stools.
B) recurrent abdominal pain.
C) bloating after milk ingestion.
D) fever, chills, and diarrhea.

88. What disease is characterized by erosions in the mucous membrane lining of the
gastrointestinal tract, specifically the stomach?
A) Peptic ulcer disease
B) Crohn's disease
C) Cholethiasis
D) Cholecystitis

89. Common health risks associated with obesity include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) diabetes.
B) infertility.
C) hypotension.
D) insulin resistance.

90. Muscular dystrophy is characterized by:

A) progressive deterioration of involuntary muscles, specifically the diaphragm.
B) weakness and wasting of groups of skeletal muscles, leading to increasing disability.
C) relaxation of the vascular smooth muscles, resulting in progressive hypoperfusion.
D) involuntary rapid, jerky motions and mental deterioration, leading to dementia.

91. Stage 1 of Alzheimer's disease is characterized by:

A) impaired cognition and impaired abstract thinking.
B) inability to carry out activities of daily living.
C) indifference to food and urinary incontinence.
D) memory loss and subtle personality changes.

92. Gross distortions of reality, withdrawal from social contacts, and bizarre behavior are MOST
 characteristic of:
A) depression.
B) schizophrenia.
C) bipolar disorder.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

93. How does the body respond to hypoperfusion?

A) Decreased preload, stroke volume, and heart rate
B) Catecholamine release and increased systemic vascular resistance
C) Splenic retention of red blood cells secondary to systemic hypoxia
D) A compensatory decrease in cardiac output and cardiac oxygen demand

94. When oxygen does not reach the cell, the cell reverts to:
A) anaerobic metabolism and produces lactic acid.
B) aerobic metabolism and produces carbon dioxide.
C) fat metabolism and begins producing ketoacids.
D) anaerobic metabolism and produces bicarbonate.

95. The MOST common cause of cardiogenic shock is:

A) untreated hypertension.
B) blunt force chest trauma.
C) acute myocardial infarction.
D) sustained pulmonary hypertension.

96. What type of shock occurs when blood flow becomes blocked in the heart or great vessels?
A) Cardiogenic
B) Peripheral
C) Distributive
D) Obstructive

97. The MOST common type of exogenous hypovolemic shock is:

A) severe diarrhea.
B) internal hemorrhage.
C) excess plasma loss.
D) external bleeding.

98. Distributive shock occurs when:

A) central vasoconstriction forces blood from the core of the body.
B) blood pools in expanded vascular beds and tissue perfusion decreases.
C) microorganisms attack the blood vessels, resulting in vasodilation.
D) a significant decrease in cardiac contractility causes decreased perfusion.

99. Anaphylactic shock is characterized by:

A) labored breathing and hypertension.
B) wheezing and widespread vasodilation.
C) intracellular hypovolemia and hives.
D) a deficiency of circulating histamines.

100. A loss of normal sympathetic nervous system tone causes:

A) neurogenic shock.
B) obstructive shock.
C) profound vasoconstriction.
D) a reduced absolute blood volume.

101. In decompensated shock, systolic blood pressure is:

A) less than 90 mm Hg in adult males.
B) less than 80 mm Hg in adult females.
C) less than the fifth percentile for the age.
D) usually undetectable due to vasodilation.

102. Strength of a person's peripheral pulses is related to:

A) heart rate and preload.
B) stroke volume and pulse pressure.
C) physical size and blood pressure.
D) cardiac output and heart rate.

103. Which of the following statements regarding multiple organ dysfunction syndrome
(MODS) is MOST correct?
A) MODS typically develops within 20 to 30 minutes following resuscitation from cardiac
arrest.
B) At the cellular level, MODS results in aerobic metabolism, metabolic alkalosis, and impaired
cellular function.
C) Signs and symptoms of MODS include compensatory hypertension, bradycardia, and a fever
greater than 105°F.
D) MODS occurs when injury or infection triggers a massive systemic immune, inflammatory,
and coagulation response.

104. The inflammatory response to irritation or injury is characterized by all of the following
 signs, EXCEPT:
A) pain.
B) cyanosis.
C) redness.
D) swelling.

105. The chief white blood cell of the immune response is the:
A) lymphocyte.
B) neutrophil.
C) monocyte.
D) eosinophil.

106. Red bone marrow is essential for the formation of:

A) calcium.
B) interstitial fluid.
C) mature blood cells.
D) granular leukocytes.

107. After T lymphocytes leave the bone marrow, they mature in the:
A) thymus gland.
B) lymph nodes.
C) hypothalamus.
D) liver and spleen.

108. _____________ are the MOST abundant white blood cells, are largely responsible for
protecting the body against infection, and are key components of the first response to
foreign body invasion.
A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) B lymphocytes
D) Basophils

109. Which of the following statements regarding basophils is MOST correct?

A) Basophils release chemicals that destroy parasitic invaders.
B) Basophils account for approximately 70% of the leukocytes.
C) Basophils travel to the tissues, where they become macrophages.
D) Basophils release histamine and other chemicals that dilate blood vessels.

110. Unlike basophils, mast cells:

A) do not release leukotrienes.
B) do not circulate in the blood.
C) circulate freely in the bloodstream.
D) play a major role in allergic reactions.

111. An injection of immunoglobulin is an example of:

A) native immunity.
B) passive acquired immunity.
C) innate immunity.
D) active acquired immunity.

112. The induction phase of the immune response begins when:

A) part of the immune system recognizes an antigen.
B) the body is initially exposed to a foreign substance.
C) an antibody binds to a specific antigen and destroys it.
D) biologic mediators release histamine and other chemicals.

113. B lymphocytes produce antibodies when they are activated by:

A) mast cells.
B) eosinophils.
C) helper T cells.
D) phagocytes.

114. Opsoninization is a process in which:

A) antibodies bind to and inactivate toxins produced by bacteria.
B) antibodies cause antigens to clump together to facilitate phagocytosis.
C) a mother passes IgG and IgM antibodies to the fetus via breast milk.
D) an antibody coats an antigen to facilitate its recognition by immune cells.

115. If nonencapsulated bacteria enter the body:

A) exogenous antibiotic therapy is not effective.
B) antibodies coat them so phagocytosis can occur.
C) macrophages begin to destroy them immediately.
D) antibodies are not produced and released into the blood.

116. Older people have increased levels of autoantibodies, which:

A) increase the person's risk of infection.
B) are antibodies directed against the patient.
C) predispose the patient to ischemic stroke.
D) causes a decreased level of macrophages.

117. The two MOST common causes of inflammation are:

A) fever and phagocytosis.
B) infection and injury.
C) hypercarbia and hypoxemia.
D) immunosuppression and fever.

118. During the acute inflammatory response:

A) transient arteriolar constriction is followed by arteriolar dilation, which allows an influx of
blood under increased pressure.
B) active hyperemia causes the blood vessels to constrict, which diverts blood flow away from
the affected site.
C) increased vessel wall permeability forces fluid out of the interstitial spaces, resulting in cell
shrinkage and eventual death.
D) chemical mediators, which are primarily produced by monocytes, cause localized
constriction of the vessels adjacent to the affected site.

119. Slow-reacting substances of anaphylaxis (SRS-A) are also known as:

A) histamine.
B) mast cells.
C) eosinophils.
D) leukotrienes.

120. Aspirin and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) reduce inflammation and
pain by:
A) inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis.
B) decreasing circulating pyrogen levels.
C) thinning the blood and reducing platelets.
D) promoting mast cell synthesis of prostaglandins.

121. __________ is the protein that bonds to form the fibrous component of a blood clot.
A) Kinin
B) Plasmin
C) Fibrin
D) Collagen

122. The destruction of a blood clot is called:

A) adhesion.
B) fibrinolysis.
C) chemotaxis.
D) agglutination.

123. Factor ____ is the antihemophilic factor.

A) VII
B) VIII
C) IX
D) XI

124. Interleukins function by:

A) releasing prothrombin from the liver and converting it to thrombin.
B) stimulating macrophages to help engulf and destroy foreign substances.
C) keeping leukocytes at the infection site until they can perform their task.
D) attracting white blood cells to the sites of injury and bacterial invasion.

125. When nerve cells and cardiac myocytes are injured:

A) they are replaced by regeneration from remaining cells.
B) their cells divide completely and thus heal completely.
C) a slow influx of blood flow causes progressive repair.
D) scar tissue forms because these cells cannot be replaced.

126. Wounds that heal by primary intention:

A) do not utilize fibrin or fibronectin.
B) heal without the formation of a scab.
C) are generally clean wounds with opposed margins.
D) have a more pronounced and prolonged inflammatory phase.

127. Which of the following disease processes would MOST likely cause delayed or
dysfunctional wound healing?
A) Diabetes
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Heart disease
D) Hypertension

128. Angiogenesis is MOST accurately defined as:

A) the growth of new blood vessels.
B) the destruction of blood vessels.
C) rerouting of intact blood vessels.
D) regrowth of damaged blood vessels.

129. In general, a child's immune system is not fully developed until he or she is between:
A) 1 and 2 years of age.
B) 2 and 3 years of age.
C) 3 and 4 years of age.
D) 4 and 5 years of age.

130. The body's rejection of an organ following transplantation is MOST likely the result of:
A) autoimmunity.
B) hypersensitivity.
C) an infection.
D) isoimmunity.

131. A type 1 hypersensitivity reaction is:

A) a local reaction that primarily involves IgG antibodies.
B) an acute reaction that occurs in response to a stimulus.
C) an allergic response that occurs within hours of antigen exposure.
D) a cytotoxic reaction and destroys many of the body's healthy cells.

132. Unlike an allergic reaction, an autoimmune reaction:

A) targets an antigen or allergen.
B) is generally predictable.
C) targets a person's own tissues.
D) does not involve antibodies.

133. All of the following diseases are autoimmune diseases, EXCEPT:

A) rheumatoid arthritis.
B) type 1 diabetes.
C) HIV infection.
D) myasthenia gravis.

134. If the cause of a disease is unknown, it is said to be:

A) idiopathic.
B) organic.
C) functional.
D) pathologic.
135. Type O blood contains:
A) neither A or B antigens but contains both A and B plasma antibodies.
B) erythrocytes with type A antigens and plasma with type B antibodies.
C) A and B surface antigens, but the plasma contains no ABO antibodies.
D) both A and B surface antigens and both A and B plasma antibodies.

136. If an Rh-negative person receives Rh-positive blood:

A) thrombocytopenia will occur.
B) antibodies will not be released.
C) a transfusion reaction will not occur.
D) hemolysis and anemia can result.

137. The resistance stage of the stress reaction is characterized by:

A) an immediate release of the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine, which causes
the fight or flight response
B) a reduction of cortisol in the body, which predisposes the person to acute inflammatory
processes.
C) stimulation of the adrenal glands to secrete hormones that increase blood glucose levels and
maintain blood pressure.
D) adrenal gland depletion, which leads to decreased blood glucose levels, physical exhaustion,
and immunocompromise.

138. Severe, prolonged stress:

A) is frequently a direct cause of death.
B) results in the destruction of cholesterol and fat.
C) causes the body to lose its ability to fight disease.
D) results in chronically low levels of cortisol.

Answer Key - Chapter06

1. C
2. A
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. A
8. C
9. C
10. D
11. B
12. D
13. D
14. A
15. A
16. C
17. D
18. B
19. B
20. A
21. D
22. C
23. B
24. A
25. B
26. D
27. A
28. C
29. B
30. B
31. D
32. C
33. A
34. A
35. D
36. B
37. C
38. B
39. A
40. A
41. D
42. C
43. B
44. B
45. A
46. D
47. C
48. C
49. B
50. D
51. A
52. A
53. C
54. B
55. D
56. B
57. A
58. C
59. B
60. A
61. D
62. A
63. C
64. B
65. B
66. A
67. D
68. B
69. D
70. C
71. C
72. B
73. B
74. D
75. B
76. C
77. A
78. A
79. D
80. B
81. B
82. C
83. A
84. D
85. D
86. B
87. C
88. A
89. C
90. B
91. D
92. B
93. B
94. A
95. C
96. D
97. D
98. B
99. B
100. A
101. C
102. B
103. D
104. B
105. A
106. C
107. A
108. A
109. D
110. B
111. B
112. A
113. C
114. D
115. C
116. B
117. B
118. A
119. D
120. A
121. C
122. B
123. B
124. D
125. D
126. C
127. A
128. A
129. B
130. D
131. B
132. C
133. C
134. A
135. A
136. D
137. C
138. C