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JEE (Advanced)-2022
OPEN TEST – I
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 23-01-2022
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
The test consists of total 57 questions.
Each subject (PCM) has 19 questions.
This question paper contains Three Parts.
Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section-B & Section-C.
Section – A (01 – 04, 20 – 23, 39 – 42): This section contains TWELVE (12) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
Section – A (05 –10, 24 – 29, 43 – 48): This section contains EIGHTEEN (18) questions. Each question has
FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
Section – B (11 – 13, 30 – 32, 49 – 51): This section contains NINE (09) questions. The answer to each
question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
Section – C (14 – 19, 33 – 38, 52 – 57): This section contains NINE (09) question stems. There are TWO
(02) questions corresponding to each question stem. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
decimal places.
MARKING SCHEME
Section – A (Single Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section – A (One or More than One Correct): Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following
marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial marks : +2 if three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and both
of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section – B: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
Section – C: Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +2 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered at the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 2
Physics PART – I
(A) 120 N
(B) 95 N
(C) 15 N
(D) 175 N
Ans. B
Sol.
N1
1m
3m
C
P
F
B
25g 2m
N2 N1
15g
N2
50 3N1 2 25g
N2 15g g
3 50g
N1
F N2 95N 3
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90
(A) J
3
80
(B) J
3
20
(C) J
3
7.2
(D) J
3
Ans. B
36 0.2 2g
Sol. aC 3.2 m/s2
10
0.2 2g
aB 2 m/s2
2
relative acceleration ar 3.2 2 1.2 m/s2
1 2 2
r ar t1 t1
2 1.2
For block vx = 2t1
1 1
Also for vertical motion 1 10t 22 t 2
2 5
vy=10t2, KE=m(vx2+vy2)/2
(A) 2
1
(B)
3
1
(C)
2 2
(D) 3
Ans. C
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 4
kQ1R kQ2R
Sol. E 0
3 3
R2 R2 R2 3R2
Q1 1
Q2 2 2
(A) F (B) F
time time
(C) F (D) F
Surface Radius of
charge loop
density ()
Ans. B
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Ans. A, B, C, D
Sol. N2 mg = 0
N2 = mg
N1 = ma
R
v2 N1
N1 + ma = m
R
N1 + ma = m2g a
N1 = mg
and a = g
N2
mg
F.B.D. of cube
aP,g aP,C aC,g
N1 ma
g
= g 2 v2
ar
R
g
v
6. A black body at temperature T = 400 K is emitting radiations at rate 200 W/m2. Another body of
surface area 2 m2 coefficeint of reflectivity (r) = 0.3 and zero coefficeint of transmission is at
temperature 800 K. The correct statement(s) about the another body is
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 6
Ans. A, C, D
Ans. C, D
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7 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
Ans. B, D
Ans. A, D
Sol. at v v
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 8
Ans. A, D
dI dx
Sol. L B
dt dt
I x
B
0
dI
L
dx
0
B
I x
L
1
U LI2 U x 2
2
F = IB
B2 2
F x
L
Fx
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9 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
20 cm 50 cm
Ans. 1
12. Two blocks of equal masses are placed one over the other as shown in the figures. Friction
between all the contact surfaces is = 0.8. Minimum values of the forces required to pull the
blocks are F1 and F2 respectively. Force F1 is horizontal and F2 is parallel to the inclined plane.
F
Find the ratio 1 .
F2
m
m
F1
m
Figure-A m
F2
60
Figure-B
Ans. 2
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 10
13. In the shown circuit all the sources of emf are ideal. I1 5 2V 5V
Current through 5 resistance is I1 and thorugh 10
I
resistance is I2. Find the ratio 1 . 20
I2 3V
5V 15
20
10
I2
5V 5V
10V
Ans. 4
Question Stem
A block of ice at 0C and mass M is kept inside isolated container of negligible heat capacity. Steam of
mass m at temperature 100C is kept inside the container. The ice melted and its tempeature becomes
20C. The steam of mass 0.2 kg at 100C is again let inside the container, due to which temperature
inside the container becomes 30C in steady state. Latent heat of ice and steam are 80 kcal/kg and 540
kcal/kg respectively. Specific heat capacity of water is Sw = 1 kcal/kg-C.
Ans. 1.69
Ans. 10.48
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11 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
Question Stem
Ans. 8.10
Ans. 50.50
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 12
Ans. 26.67
Ans. 12.50
f1 = 20 cm
x2 = R = 12.50 cm x1 80 cm x2 = R
f1 = 20 cm
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13 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
Chemistry PART – II
(A) Enantiomers
(B) Diastereomers
Ans. C
Sol. Since, the absolute configuration about the chiral carbon is (S) in each compound. Also,
configuration of Cl and H about double bond carbon is also same in each compound. So, both
compounds are identical.
21. The correct order of the rate constants for the following series of reactions Z CF3 ,CH3 ,OCH3 :
Br N
NO2 NO2
N
Z H Z
Ans. A
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 14
CF CH OCH
3
3 3
Decreasing electron withdrawing nature and hence decreasing rate of ArSN 2 .
22. The left half-cell of the electrochemical cell consists of an iron electrode (in excess) that is
oxidized during the action and an aqueous solution of iron (III) nitrate. The right half-cell consists
of graphite electrode and a mixture of iron (II) and (III) nitrates. Using the information on ion
mobility o , select the most suitable ionic compound (s) for the salt bridge:
Cation o ,m2 V 1 s1.109 , 25o C Anion o ,m2 V 1 s1.109 , 25o C
Ca2aq 61.6 Faq 51.5
K aq 73.5 CO32 aq 70.3
Ans. B
Sol. For the salt bridges, the most advantageous is to use salts in which the cation and the anion have
the same mobility which assure the absence of so called diffusion potential in the half-cell
boundary. Thus, the most suitable salts are KNO3 and NH4NO3 .
23. 50 mL of 0.10 M HX has been mixed with 100 mL of 0.05 M NaOH, then the concentration of the
conjugate base of HX in the resultant solution can’t be
(A) 0.032 M
(B) 0.028 M
(C) 0.036 M
Ans. C
Sol. If HX is a strong acid then maximum concentration of conjugate base is 0.033 M. Therefore, any
value higher than this is not possible.
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15 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
24. Which systematic diagram represents the “INCORRECT” chemical relations between iron and its
compounds?
Ag HCl
Fe2 SO4 3
Conc. H SO
2 4
FeCl3
Fe2 SO4 3
Conc. H SO
2 4
FeCl3
Fe2 SO4 3
dil. H SO
2 4
FeCl3
Fe2 SO4 3
Conc. H SO
2 4
FeCl2
Ans. A, C, D
Sol. Iron reacts with dry HCl gas to give FeCl2 . FeCl2 on heating with chlorine gas (dry) oxidises to
FeCl3 . Conc. H2SO4 being less volatile substitute more volatile HCl from FeCl3 , converting
FeCl3 into Fe2 SO 4 3 . Mg being more electropositive than iron reduces Fe2 SO 4 3 into Fe.
i NBS/H O
2
ii K 2 CO3 aq X
iii BF3 .Et 2O
Identify the correct statement(s) about (X):
(D) ‘X’ is a bicyclic compound and both rings in ‘X’ are of same size
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 16
Ans. A, C, D
Sol. Br
2 3
ii K CO aq
i NBS/H O
2
O
OH
BF3 .Et 2 O
N2H4 , KOH
X
26. On adding potassium iodide to an aqueous solution containing complex ion Ag NH3 2 , yellow
coloured precipitate of AgI is formed. Similarly, when hydroiodic acid was added to the complex
ion, Ag NH3 2 again yellow precipitate of AgI is formed. The correct statement(s) for these
observations is/are:
(A) Ag NH3 is less stable than AgI.
2
(B) Ag NH3 ionizes less than AgI.
2
(D) IUPAC name of Ag NH3 2 is “Diamminesilver (I) ion”.
Ans. A, C, D
Sol. AgI is more stable than Ag NH3 2 . HI neutralises NH3 for ming NH4 ion, thus it cannot act as
ligand.
(D) A piece of iron or zinc when placed in Cu2 salts solution, precipitates copper.
Ans. A, B, D
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28. The apparatus shown was used to investigate the electrolysis of aqueous sodium sulphate
solution to which a few drops of universal indicator solution had been added. The solution was
initially pale green in colour. Colour of universal indicator at different pH values is given below:
pH range Colour
<3 Red
3–6 Orange-yellow
7 Green
8 – 11 Blue
> 11 Violet
Electrode (B)
Electrode (A)
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 18
(A) Current conducted through the electrolyte is due to the movement of ions.
(C) When a current was passed through the electrolyte for 15 minutes, 8.5 cm3 of gas was
collected above the positive electrode, then the volume of the gas collected above the
negative electrode at same pressure and temperature and in the same duration is
25 cm3 .
Ans. A, B, D
29. The graph below shows the change in the mass as copper (II) sulphate pentahydrate
CuSO4 .5H2O when heated. Decomposition takes place where the gradient is steepest leaving
various decomposition products indicated by ‘A’ to ‘E’ in the diagram shown below: (Atomic mass:
Cu = 63.5 u, S = 32 u, O = 16 u, H = 1 u)
10
A
20
B
30
C
40
50
Percentage mass loss
60
D
70
E
80
90
100
Temperature (oC)
Select the correct statement (s) among the following:
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19 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
(A) Conversion of (D) to (E) is a redox reaction with n-factor of one of the product as 4.
Ans. A, B, D
Ans. 20
OH
Ph
Me 3C
Me 3C
CH3
OH
So, x = 12, and y = 8.
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 20
31. How many of the following statement(s) regarding oxides (M2O), peroxides (M2O2) and
superoxide (MO2) of alkali metals are correct?
(i) Order of size of oxide, peroxide and superoxide ions is O2 O22 O2 .
(ii) Thermal stability order is O2 O22 O2 .
(iii) Thermal stability order with a particular alkali metal is : superoxide < peroxide < oxide.
(iv) Lattice energy of oxides, peroxides and superoxides decreases down the group for alkali
Metals.
(v) In the formation of oxides, peroxides and superoxides, the entropy decreases in the order :
oxide peroxide superoxide .
(vi) Heat of formation is in the order : oxide > peroxide > superoxide.
(vii) Heat of formation decreases down the group for oxides, peroxides and superoxides.
(viii) Compared to the difference in lattice energies between monoxides and peroxides is less
than between monoxides and superoxides.
(ix) Compared to the difference in lattice energies between monoxides and peroxides is less than
between peroxides and superoxides.
(x) All oxides, peroxides and superoxides form basic solutions when dissolved in water.
(xi) Thermal stability of oxides and peroxides decreases down the group while those of
superoxides increases down the group.
(xii) The difference between the lattice enthalpies of monoxides and peroxides decreases down
the group.
Ans. 8
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21 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
32. In a solution of 0.010 M barium nitrate and 0.010 M lead (II) nitrate, when the more soluble
fluoride (other than NaF) begins to precipitate, the concentration of the cation for the less soluble
fluoride that remains in solution, when NaF is added, is a 10b M. So, the value of 10 a b
is………
K sp of PbF2 4 10 8 and K sp BaF2 1.44 10 6
(Round off the answer to the nearest integer)
Ans. 32
F 2 103 M
For BaF2 :
BaF2 s Ba2 aq 2F aq
2
1.44 10 6 0.01 F
F 1.2 10 2 M
The PbF2 will precipitate first because a lower value for the concentration of fluoride ion is
needed for its precipitation.
BaF2 starts precipitating when the conc. Of F reaches to 1.2 102 M .
Since, PbF2 s is present then
PbF2 s Pb2 aq 2F aq
2
4 108 Pb2 1.2 102
8
10
Pb 1.2 4 1.2
2
10 4
2.77 10 4 2.8 10 4
a 2.8, b 4
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 22
-1
0.00135
0.00140 1/T (K ) 0.00145 0.00150 0.00155 0.00160
-8
(0.001412 (0.001572)
-9
B
-10
(a graph of lnKeq
against 1/T)
- 11
lnKeq
- 12
independent in the temperature range given in the graph. R 8.314 J mol1 K 1
Let, the Ho of the reaction be ‘x’ kJ and standard free energy change Go of the reaction at
689.65 K be ‘y’ (kJ).
Ho 1 So
Sol. nK eq … (1)
R T R
o
1 H
So, the slope of nK eq against from the graph.
T
R
Ho 12 9
Slope 18750
R 0.001572 0.001412
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23 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
Ho
18750
R
18750 8.314
or Ho 155.88 kJ
1000
Ho 1 So
Sol. nK eq
R T R
S o
12 18750 0.001572
R
S o
So, 17.475
R
So 17.475 8.314 145.28 JK 1
So, Go Ho TSo
155.88 103 689.65 145.28
Go 155880 100192.35
55,687.65 J
Go 55.68 kJ
1 eqvt A
excess B C
NH4 SH Br2 /H2 O NaNO2
dil. HCl
273 K 278 K
Br2 / H2 O Sn / HCl
F E D
excess
excess G
273 K 278 K H
NaNO /HCl excess
NH4 SH 2
H3PO2 1 eqvt
H3 O CuCN
K J I
HCN
[Atomic masses : C = 12; N = 14; Br = 80; H = 1; Cl = 35.5]
Ratio of the number of halogen atoms present in a molecule of (B) to that of the number of
halogen atoms present in a molecule of (F) is ‘x’ and the ratio of molecular weights of ‘D’ to that of
(K) is ‘y’.
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 24
Ans. 0.40
Sol. +
NH2 NH2 N2 Cl Br
Br Br Br Br Br Br
; ; ; ;
Br Br Br Br
; ; ; ;
Br Br
+
NH2 NH2 NH2 N2 Cl
(E) (F) (G) (H)
H
; ;
+ CN COOH
N2 Cl
(I) (J) (K)
Ans. 2.95
Range (2.94 – 2.96)
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19.86
K.Emax(Joules)
13.24
6.62
Here, frequency ' ' is to be multiplied by 1015 and maximum kinetic energy (KEmax) to be
19
multiplied by 10 .
The work function of the metal be ‘x’ eV.
Planck’s constant h 6.62 1034 J.s and speed of light (c) = 3 108 m / sec .
Let, electronic charge e 1.6 10 19 Coulamb .
If a light radiation of wavelength 100 nm is allowed to strike surface of the metal (taken in the
experiment for which above graph has been plotted), then, maximum speed of photoelectron
ejected is found to be y 106 m / s .
Sol. h o
6.62 10 34 1 1015 J
6.62 10 19 J
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27 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
39. Let PQR be equilateral with side length a. On side PQ produced a point A is taken such that P
lies in between A and Q. If r1 is in radius of APR and r2 be ex-radius of AQR with respect to
r r
side QR, then 1 2 is equal to
a
3
(A)
2
(B) 2
(C) 2
1
(D)
2
Ans. A
40. A person has 6 cards A, K, 2, Q, 10, 9. The person randomly draws the cards one by one with
replacement till he gets 3 consecutive A. If Pn represents the probability that atleast n cards are
drawn, then 216Pn 5Pn 3 30Pn 2 180Pn 1 is (For n > 3)
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Ans. A
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 28
1 5 1 5 5
Sol. Pn Pn 3 Pn 2 Pn1
6 6 6 6 6
216Pn 5Pn 3 30Pn 2 180Pn1 0
1 0 0
tr A n PBnP
41. Let A and B be 3 3 matrices and P 0 0 1 , B = PAP, then lim is equal to
n tr An
0 1 0
(where |A | 0, tr represents trace of square matrix)
n
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans. B
1
42. Let f x , x [0, 1] and a [2, 3], then which of the following is correct?
sin x x a
2 2
Ans. B
1
Sol. f x sin2x 2 x a < 0 x (0, 1)
sin2 x x a 2
2
(A) N is divisible by 5
(B) N is divisible by 3
(C) N > 13000
(D) N is divisible by 61
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29 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
Ans. A, B, C, D
1 e = 2
n 2 iab
gcd a,n
Sol. N = 13725 if n is odd, then n
b 1
x2 y2
44. Chords at right angles are drawn through P() lying on ellipse 1 and chords joining
4 1
extremities meets normal at Q, then which of the following is/are correct?
Ans. A, B, C
6cos 3 sin
Sol. Coordinate of Q are, ,
5 5
1
45. Let f : [1, ) R is a differentiable function such that f x and f(1) = 1, then which
x f2 x
2
(B) lim f x 2
x
Ans. A, B, C, D
1
46. If all roots of the equation x8 – 4x7 + b6x6 + b5x5 + b4x4 + b3x3 + b2x2 + b1x + 0 are positive
28
and real, then which of the following is/are correct?
b 2b 6
(A) 0.7
b4
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 30
b 2b 6
(B) 0.5
b4
b3b5 14
(C)
b4 5
b2
(D) 7
b1
Ans. A, C, D
cos x
47. Let g x , then which of the following is/are correct?
x 1 x
1
(A) g 0
2
1
(B) g x dx 0
0
1 1
(C) g =
2 2
1
(D) g(x) < 0 x , 1
2
Ans. A, B, D
1 1 1 1 1
Sol. g x g x g x g x g 0
2 2 2 2 2
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31 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
10
48. The value of 20r C20 20 r C10 is equal to
r 0
39
(A) C9
41
(B) C10
41
(C) C31
39
(D) C30
Ans. B, C
49. The area bounded by region {(x, y) : |x + ay + a2| 1 a [0, 1]} is A, then [A] is
(where [.] denotes greatest integer function)
Ans. 3
0 1 1
2 1 x dx x 2 1 x dx 2 1 x 2 x dx
1
Sol. Required area =
2
1 0 0
1 4 23
= 2 =
2 3 6
Ans. 6
r1 r2 2 r1r2
2 r1r2 r1 r2 2 r1r2
r1r2 2 1 r1 r2 2 2 1
51. Let P(x) ad Q(x) be polynomials with real coefficients such that P(x) (x 2 – 3x + 2) = Q(x) (x2 + 3x +
2). Then minimum number of real roots of the equation P(x)·Q(x) + x 4 – 5x2 + 4 = 0 is
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AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22 32
Ans. 4
Sol. Let g(x) = P(x)·Q(x) + x4 – 5x2 + y, the g(–2) = 0, g(2) = 0, g(–1) = 0, g(1) = 0
Question Stem
52. If there exist infinite number of lines passing through P and intersecting both the lines, then the
value of s is
Ans. 0.00
53. If there exist unique line passing through P and intersecting both the lines L1 and L2, then number
of values of s such that P lies on the plane x + y = 1 is
Ans. 0.00
Question Stem
Let P(–1, ), Q(2, ) be focii of the ellipse which touches y = x at (1, 1). If length of major axis of ellipse is
3
17 , then
2
Ans. 0.50
Ans. 2.75
Let y = f(x) satisfy the differential equation (x + 2)(x + y + 2)dy = y 2dx, for x > 0 and f(1) = 6, then
Ans. 1.00
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33 AITS-OT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/22
Ans. 0.00
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