DIAGNOSTIC TEST SCIENCE 8

Direction: Read each question carefully and 6. As a body falls freely in the absence
choose the letter of the best answer. of air, the sum of its potential energy
and its kinetic energy
1. Given the formula f=ma, what
happens to the acceleration when A. increases
force is increased, and mass remains B. decreases
constant? C. remains the same
D. decreases then increases
A. decreases
B. increases 7. Sound travels________
C. remains constant
D. remains the same A. in constant speed
B. faster in high temperature
2. Using the formula f=ma, what C. faster in colder air
happens to the acceleration when D. slower in humid air
mass is increased, and force remains
constant? 8. Color red appears above the rainbow
because it has________
A. decreases
B. increases A. high frequency
C. remains constant B. low wavelength
D. remains the same C. high frequency and low
wavelength
3. Action-Reaction forces differ from D. low frequency and high
Balanced Forces when there two wavelength
forces are _______
9. What is measured when a nurse
A. equal in size places a thermometer in the armpit
B. opposite in terms of direction during a check-up?
C. act along the same line of action
D. act upon the same object A. convection
B. heat
4. What law states that “For every C. radiation
action, there is an equal and opposite D. temperature
reaction”?
10. Given the formula V=IR, how much
A. Law of Inertia current is flowing through R1?
B. Law of Acceleration
C. Law of Interaction
D. Law of Universal Gravitation

5. As an object falls from a cliff, the

A. kinetic energy increases

B. potential energy increases A. 3 amperes
C. kinetic energy increases as B. 4 amperes
potential energy decreases C. 6 amperes
D. kinetic energy decreases as D. 24 amperes
potential energy increases

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DIAGNOSTIC TEST SCIENCE 8

11. Choose the most accurate statement 16. Among the illustrations below, which
about electromotive force. will NOT generate an earthquake?

A. It is measured in volts. A. C.
B. It gives the electrons a lesser
energy.
C. Creates a difference in the circuit.
D. This is the force which gains B. D.
electrons.

12. Ohm’s Law states that current in a 17. Give the difference between epicenter
circuit is _______ and focus.
A. Epicenter is the area where a rock under
A. directly proportional to emf stress breaks while focus is the area on the
B. directly proportional to resistance surface directly above the breaking point.
C. emf and resistance are directly B. Epicenter is the area where a rock under
proportional stress breaks while focus is the area on the
D. emf and resistance are inversely surface directly below the breaking point.
proportional C. Focus is the area where a rock under stress
breaks while epicenter is the area on the
13. The resistance of 11 Ω (Ohms) will surface directly below the breaking point.
allow 10 A (amperes) of current if the D. Focus is the area where a rock under stress
electromagnetic force is breaks while epicenter is the area on the
surface directly above the breaking point.
A. 0.91 volts
B. 110 volts 18. What is the difference between the
C. 1.1 volts "magnitude" and the "intensity" of an
D. 10 volts earthquake?
A. Intensity describes the effect of Earthquake
14. When connecting two bulbs at home, while magnitude is the energy released by an
which type of connection is more Earthquake.
appropriate? B. Intensity measures earthquake size while
magnitude is assessed by descriptive scale.
A. series C. Magnitude describes the effect of
B. parallel Earthquake while intensity is the energy
C. both series and parallel released by an Earthquake
D. neither series nor parallel D. Magnitude and intensity are the same

15. How does a circuit breaker functions
at home?
A. Protect the circuit from damage
caused by overload.
B. Interpret current flow after
protective relays detect a fault.
C. Protect branch circuit from
ground faults.
D. All of the above
19. Which of the following statement does
not describe an active or inactive fault?
A. active faults generate more earthquakes
B. active faults have moved one or more times
in the last 10,000 years
C. inactive faults can never be active again
D. inactive faults do not generate earthquakes
for a long period of time

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Oroquieta City
DIAGNOSTIC TEST
20. Select the statement that most accurately
describes an earthquake.
A. big earthquakes usually occur in the
morning
B. earthquake can generate tsunami
C. the ground can open during an earthquake
D. people can predict earthquakes
21.Which wave travels the fastest across all
media?
A. love waves C. rayleigh waves
B. P- waves D. S-waves
22. What proof do we have that the Earth's
core is liquid?
A. diffraction of seismic waves
B. dispersion of seismic waves
C. refraction of seismic waves
D. reflection of seismic waves
23. The following statements describe a
typhoon EXCEPT,
A. a strong circulating wind
B. wind speed increase when it hits land
C. it moves east to west, heading north or
west
D. spiral arrangement of thunderstorms
24. Where do typhoons form?
A. at plate boundaries
B. in a river or stream
C. over the ocean
D. over the mountains
25. When it comes to typhoons, where are
they most likely to do the most damage?
A. in the forest C. in the Northpole
B. in the desert D. near seaboards
26. Pearl had heard that a storm with a Public
Storm Warning Signal No.3 would hit their
location. What does this imply?
A. 100 – 120 kph wind will deliver heavy
damage to high-risk structures
B. 121 – 170 kph wind will deliver heavy
damage to high-risk structures
C. 171 – 220 kph wind will deliver very heavy
damage to high-risk structures
D. 220 – 250 kph wind will deliver a
widespread damage to high-risk structures
DIVISION OF MISAMIS OCCIDENTAL
Oroquieta City
SCIENCE 8
27.
The figure above shows that tropical cyclones
generally move in northwest direction
because of _____
A. presence of the rain
B. warm water ocean
C. small-scale wind present in the area
D. large-scale winds that push the tropical
cyclone in that direction
28. How can you differentiate a meteor from
a comet when viewed them in the sky?
A. Comets moves slowly and appears in the
sky for a longer time while a meteor moves
swiftly and seems to fall on the ground.
B. Comets and meteors both moves slowly
and appears in the sky for a longer time.
C. Comets and meteors both moves swiftly
and seems to fall in the ground.
D. Comets moves swiftly and seems to fall on
the ground while meteor moves slowly and
appears in the sky for a longer time
29. Comets and asteroids are referred to by
astronomers as Near- Earth Object. Which of
the following characteristics do they have in
common?
A. origin C. shape
B. chemical composition D. orbit
30. The smallest particle of an element
A. atom C. molecule
B. compound D. particle
31. Particles of solid can _______
3
DIAGNOSTIC TEST SCIENCE 8

A. move freely A. 6 C. 14
B. change positions B. 8 D. 20
C. fill all available spaces in the
container 40. Isotopes can contain different number of
D. packed closely together in fixed positions A. electrons C. neutrons
B. protons D. nuclei
32. A substance is said to be in a gaseous
state if _______ 41. The number of neutrons in each atom of
35
A. it is hard and rigid 17 Cl is __________.
B. it takes the shape of the container A. 15 C. 18
C. the particles are closely together B. 17 D. 35
D. the shape and volume are definite
42. The periodic law states that there is a
33. The common characteristics of both solid periodic repetition of the physical and
and liquid is their particles are _______ chemical properties of elements when they
A. in contact with each other are arranged in order of _______
B. held together by strong forces A. increasing atomic mass
C. attracted with each other strongly B. increasing atomic number
D. able to move C. decreasing atomic mass
D. decreasing atomic number
34. Which change of phase represents
evaporation? 43. Which of the following elements is the
A. gas to liquid C. liquid to gas most metallic?
B. gas to solid D. solid to liquid A. Ca B. K C. Mg D. Se

35. What it is called when a solid turn into a 44. The representative elements are usually
gas? called
A. condensation C. sublimation A. group C. periods
B. fusion D. vaporization B. rows D. transition

36. The rate of evaporation of liquids depends 45. The periodic table has proven helpful in
on the ________ A. discovering more scientist
A. nature of the liquid B. differentiating metals from non- metals
B. surface area of the liquid C. establishing atomic mass
C. temperature of the liquid D. predicting new elements
D. items a, b, c
46.Which is the correct sequence of the
37. The following are examples of physical processes involved in the Human Digestive
change, EXCEPT System?
A. boiling water A. absorption-ingestion-excretion-assimilation
B. burning of candle B. assimilation-absorption-ingestion-excretion
C. brewing coffee C. ingestion-excretion-assimilation-absorption
D. dissolving salt in water D. ingestion-absorption-assimilation-excretion

38. The number of an element indicates the

number of _______ in the atom.
A. electrons and neutrons
B. electrons and protons
C. neutrons only
D. protons and neutrons
14
39. The 6C atom contains ________ protons

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DIAGNOSTIC TEST SCIENCE 8

47. Too much intake of fast foods can damage 53. What can individuals in the same species
the liver, which may affect the production of able to do?
enzyme called pepsin. What does pepsin do in A. live in one place C. sleep
the digestion? B. reproduce D. fight
A. breaks down glucose
B. breaks down proteins 54.What kingdom does mushroom and yeast
C. digest carbohydrates belong?
D. digest fats A. animalia C. plantae
B. monera D. fungi
48. Give the difference between mitosis and
meiosis. 55. Residents in Brgy. Cagay-anon eat snakes
A. Mitosis produces gametes while meiosis caught in the rice fields. What is its effect in
produces somatic cells. their community?
B. Mitosis and meiosis cell divide once. A. production of rice will increase because
C. Mitosis produces 2 daughter cells while rats will increase
meiosis produces 4 daughter cells B. production of rice will increase because
D. Mitosis produces sperm cells while meiosis snakes will increase
produces eggs cells C. rats will increase because their predator
decreases
49.Which of the following is the function of D. rats will decrease because their predator
meiosis? decreases
A. growth C. replace
B. repair D. reproduce 56. Which of the following animals is
considered as a primary consumer?
50. After meiosis, daughter cells have 23 A. eagle C. lion
chromosomes. Which of the following B. horse D. snake
explains why human cells have 46
chromosomes? For question number 57, refer your answer in
A. chromosome duplicates after puberty the diagram.
B. chromosomes can be acquired in the
environment after the child was born
C. all cells of the grand parents are fused
D. both parents contribute during fertilization

51. In Cruz family, 90% of the family members

have black hair and only 10% have brown
hair. What conclusion can you derived from
this observation?
A. black hair is dominant
B. black hair is recessive
C. brown hair is dominant
D. brown and black hair are both dominant
52. Sexual reproduction in the offspring
resulted with ______
A. identical traits as the parents
B. identical traits as their neighbor
C. combination of traits from their parents
D. combination of traits from their neighbors
57. What is the best way to explain the
diagram above?
A. Animals breath in nitrogen and release
oxygen which is used by plants.
B. Animals breath in carbon dioxide and
release oxygen which is used by plants.
C. Animals breath in nitrogen and release
carbon dioxide which is used by plants.
D. Animals breath in oxygen and release
carbon dioxide which is used by plants

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 DIAGNOSTIC TEST SCIENCE 8

58. How is it possible for a tiger to take carbon

from the grass?
A. eats the grass
B. eats animal that consumes the grass
C. breaths in carbon given out by the plant
D. absorbs the carbon from the grass

59. What is the effect of burning plastics in the

environment?
A. prevents air pollution
B. reduce plastics in the environment
C. reduces carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
D. releases toxic gases which contributes to
climate change

60. Which of these activities is good for the

environment?
A. reforestation C. dynamite fishing
B. illegal mining D. deforestation

DIVISION OF MISAMIS OCCIDENTAL 6

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DIAGNOSTIC TEST SCIENCE 8

Answer Key
1. B 31. D
2. A 32. B
3. D 33. A
4. C 34. C
5. C 35. D
6. C 36. D
7. B 37. B
8. D 38. B
9. D 39. A
10. C 40. C
11. A 41. C
12. A 42. B
13. B 43. B
14. B 44. A
15. D 45. D
16. D 46. D
17. D 47. B
18. A 48. C
19. C 49. D
20. B 50. D
21. B 51. A
22. C 52. C
23. B 53. B
24. C 54. D
25. D 55. C
26. B 56. B
27. D 57. D
28. A 58. B
29. C 59. D
30. A 60. A

DIVISION OF MISAMIS OCCIDENTAL 7

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DIAGNOSTIC TEST SCIENCE 8

DIVISION OF MISAMIS OCCIDENTAL 8

Oroquieta City