SAQ 29. Give the common name of the parasites.

PARASITE COMMON NAME

Fasciolopsis buski
Echinostoma ilocanum
Heterophyes heterophyes
Metagonimus yokogawai
Haplorchis yokogawai
1.Giant Intestinal Flukes
2.Garrison's Fluke
3.Von Seibold's Fluke
4.Yokogawai Fluke
5.Japanese Fluke

SAQ 30. Classify the ovum of the following parasites whether

Operculated, embryonate or
Operculated, non- embryonated

PARASITE OVUM

Fasciolopsis buski 1.Operculated, embryonated

Echinostoma ilocanum 2.Operculated, embryonated

Heterophyes heterophyes 3.Operculated, non- embryonated

Metagonimus yokogawai 4.Operculated, non- embryonated

Haplorchis yokogawai 5.Operculated, non- embryonated

SAQ 31. Give the disease associated with the parasite.

PARASITE DISEASE PRODUCED

Fasciolopsis buski 1.Fasciolopsiasis
Echinostoma ilocanum 2.Echinostomiasis
Heterophyes heterophyes 3.Heterophyiasis
Metagonimus yokogawai 4.Metagonimiasis
Haplorchis yokogawai 5.Haplorchiasis
POST-TEST 14
INTESTINAL FLUKES
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the most appropriate answer. Write only the letter that
corresponds to your chosen answer.
1. In the life cycle of Echinostoma ilocanum, the intermediate host requirement is
A. snail-crabs
B. snail-fish
C. snail-snail
D. snail-aquatic vegetation
2. Two generations of redia may develop as a result of intramolluscan metamorphosis
in the life
cycle of
A. Echinostoma ilocanum
B. Heterophyes heterophyes
C. Fasciolopsis buski
D. All of these
3. The type of cercaria of Fasciolopsis buski is more of
A. lophocercus
B. fork-tailed
C. microcercus
D. keel-tailed
4. The extra-intestinal lesion of Heterophyiasis is associated with what stage of the
parasite?
A. marita
B. ova
C. metacercaria
D. A & B only
5. What is the most important diagnostic feature of an adult Haplorchis yokogawai?
A. vitelline follicles
B. ovary
C. testis
D. intestinal ceca
SAQ 32. Answer the given question.
1. What is the common name of Paragonimus westermani?
The common name of Paragonimus westermani is Lung Fluke.
2. Describe briefly the ovum of Paragonimus westermani.
It is a bloody cord with distinct flattened operculum and thick opercular end

POST-TEST 15
LUNG FLUKES
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the most appropriate answer. Write the letter that
corresponds to your chosen answer.
1. Which of the following larval stages of Paragonimus is infective to the first
intermediate host?
A. cercaria
B. miracidium
C. metacercaria
D. redia
2. Which of the following larval stages of Paragonimus is infective to the second
intermediate host?
A. cercaria
B. miracidium
C. metacercaria
D. redia
3. The intramolluscan pattern of development in the snail host in the life cycle
of Paragonimus is
A. S-R-C
B. R1-R2-C
C. S-R1-R2-C
D. S1-S2-C
4. Embryonation of Paragonimus ovum takes place
A. in water
B. in snail host
C. while inside the gravid marita
D. in crabs or crayfish
5. In the life cycle of Paragonimus, the free swimming cercaria that comes out from the
snail host
is a
A. lophocercous cercaria
B. fork-tailed cercaria
C. microcercous cercaria
D. keel-tailed cercaria
SAQ 33. Give the common names of the following parasites:

PARASITES COMMON NAME

Schistosoma japonicum 1.Oriental Blood Fluke
Schistosoma haematobium 2.Vesicular Blood Fluke
Schistosoma mansoni 3.Intestinal Blood Fluke

SAQ 34.Describe the morphology of the ova of the following parasites:

PARASITES DESCRIPTION OF OVA
Schistosoma japonicum 1.Ovoid / subglobular with thin shell and indentory spore
Schistosoma haematobium 2.Elongated ovoid with thin shell-terminal spine
Schistosoma mansoni 3.Elongated ovoid with thin shell-lateral spine

POST-TEST 16
BLOOD FLUKES
Give the differential characteristics of the three Schistosomes.
Male

POINT OF
S. japonicum S. haematobium S. mansion
DIFFERENTIATION

2.Fine 3.Coarse
Cuticle (trabeculation) 1. None

4.Superior
5.Urinary Bladder
Caecal junction Mesenteric 6.Intestine

Number and arrangement of 9.7-9

7. 7 8.4-5
testes

Female

POINT OF
S. japonicum S. haematobium S. mansion
DIFFERENTIATION

12.Anterior
10.Centrally Located 11.Posterior Mid
Position of ovary Mid portion
portion

13.800 eggs 14.20-100 eggs 15.few eggs

Uterus

SAQ 39. Given are parasites that can accidentally produce a disease to the human
host. Give the infective stage for each parasite.
PARASITE INFECTIVE STAGE TO MAN
Echinococcus granulosus Embryonated egg
Echinococcus multiceps Embryonated egg
Multiceps multiceps Embryonated egg
POST-TEST 19
CYCLOPHYLLIDEA 2: Echinococcus granulosus, Echinococcus multiceps and
Multiceps multiceps
Answer the following questions.
1. Explain the “water lily sign” in an X-ray of a patient with Echinococcosis.
It is mistaken as liver cancer in the x-ray findings
2. The larval stage of Multiceps multiceps can invade the sheep brain to produce the
disease known as “gid”. How will you characterize the disease in sheep?
It is numerous minute irregular spaces
3. Explain why a diagnostic puncture of the hydatid cyst should not be performed.
It is because of its ability to cause anaphylactic reactions
4. Very briefly, differentiate between the cysts of Echinococcus granulosus and
Echinococcus multilocularis.
E. Granulosus - unilocular cyst
E. multilocularis - multiocular cyst
SAQ 40. Give the common name of the following parasites:

PARASITE COMMON NAME

Hymenolepis nana 1. Drawf Tapeworm
Hymenolepis diminuta 2.Rat Tapewrom

SAQ 41. Give the manner of transmission for each parasitic infection

PARASITE MANNER OF TRANSMISSION

Hymenolepis nana 1. Ingestion of egg
Hymenolepis diminuta 2. Ingestion of egg

POST-TEST 20
Cyclophyllidea 3: Hymenolepis nana and Hymenolepis diminuta
Give the different characteristics of Hymenolepis nana and Hymenolepis diminuta.

POINT OF
Hymenolepis nana Hymenolepis diminuta
DIFFERENTIATION
Scolex 1.armed 6.unarmed
Egg 2.(+) polar filament 7. (-) filament
Ovary 3.bilobed 8.bilobed
Testes 4. 3 testes 9.3 testes
Uterus 5.80-120 10.80-120

SAQ 42.Identify the intermediate hosts utilized in the life cycle of the given parasites.

INTERMEDIATE
PARASITE
HOST
Dipylidium
1.flea
caninum
Reillatina garrisoni 2.rat

POST-TEST 21
CYCLOPHYLLIDEA 4: Dipylidium caninum and Reillatina spp.
Answer briefly the following questions.
1. Explain why Dipylidiasis is a common infection among children.
It is because of their immune system which is not yet fully developed
2. How does one acquire Dipylidiasis?
It is acquired via ingestion
3. What is the infective stage of Reillatina garrisoni?
The infective stage is the cystecercoid Larvae
4. How does one acquire Reillatiniasis?
It is also acquired via ingestion
SAQ 27. Give the common name of the following liver flukes of medical importance.

PARASITES COMMON NAME

 1. Sheep Liver Fluke and Temperate Liver
Fasciola hepatica
Fluke

Clonorchis sinensis 2. Chinese Liver Fluke and Oriental Liver Fluke

Opistorchis felineus 3. Cat Liver Fluke

Opistorchis viverrini 4. Southeast Asian Liver Fluke

SAQ 28. Give the specific habitat of the adult forms

PARASITES SPECIFIC HABITAT

Fasciola hepatica 1. Hepatic Biliary Ducts

Clonorchis sinensis 2. Hepatic Biliary Duct

Opistorchis felineus 3. Distal Biliary Capillaries

Opistorchis viverrini 4. Distal Biliary Capillaries

POST-TEST 13
Liver Flukes
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the most appropriate answer. Write the letter that
corresponds to your chosen answer.
A 1. Which of the following would best describe the ovum of Fasciola hepatica?
A. operculated, embryonated
B. non-operculated, embryonated
C. operculated, non-embryonated
D. non-operculated, non-embryonated
C 2. The presence of cephalic cone is a feature of an adult
A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Opistorchis felineus
C. Fasciola hepatica
D. Opistorchis viverrini
B 3. A motile metacercarial larva penetrating the intestinal layer to reach the liver is
observed in the life cycle of
A. Opistorchisfelineus
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Clonorchissinensis
D. Opistorchis viverrini
A 4. Which of the following pattern of intramollus can development is observed in
the life cycle of Clonorchis sinensis?
A. S-R-C
B. S1-S2-C
C. S-R1-R2-C
D. R1-R2-C
A 5. Ingestion of improperly cooked infected fish containing the metacercaria is the
mode of
transmission of the following infection, EXCEPT:
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Opistorchis felineus
C. Clonorchis sinensis
D. Opistorchis viverrini
SAQ 18: Identify the organ/tissue serving as habitat of the following parasites:

PARASITE HABITAT
Capillaria philippinensis 1. Jejunum
Trichuris trichiura 2.Colon and Cecum
Trichinella spiralis 3. Striated muscle
SAQ 19: Give the infective stage of the following parasites to produce a disease:

PARASITE INFECTIVE STAGE

Capillaria philippinensis 1. Larvae
Trichuris trichiura 2. Embryonated egg
Trichinella spiralis 3.Embryonated egg

POST-TEST 8
APHASMIDIA: Trichuris trichiura, Trichinella spiralis and Capillaria philippinensis
Answer briefly the following questions:
1. Describe the manner of attachment of an adult Trichuris in the definitive host.
It stays in the small intestine for about 5-10 days and it matures in the colon
2. Differentiate the two generations of adult female Capillaria philippinensis.
The first generation causes autoinfection while the second is not capable of
autoinfection
3. What is the muscle of predilection of Trichinella spiralis larva?
Skeletal muscle is the muscle of predilection of Trichinella spiralis larva
4. Explain how an individual can get infected with Capillaria philippinensis?
Capillaria Philippinensis infect individual by ingestion of the fish in larval stage
SAQ 20: Give the specific disease produced by the following parasites:

Parasite Disease Produced

Ascaris lumbricoides 1. Ascariasis
Enterobius vermicularis 2.Enterobiasis
Toxocara canis/cati 3.Toxocariasis
Anisakis spp. 4. Anisakiasis

POST-TEST 9
PHASMIDIA 1: Ascaris lumbricoides, Toxocara cati/canis, Anisakis spp. and
Enterobius vermicularis
Answer the following questions briefly:
 1. In what condition do you usually find unfertilized Ascaris ova in the stool?
Eposiodes of diarrhea
2. Explain the mechanism of lung involvement in Ascariasis.
The ascaris needs to go to the lungs to complete its life cyle and then comes
back to the intestines.
3. How can one get Anisakis infection? What is its mode of transmission?
Eating raw or undercooked fish infected with larvae or anisakis
4. Why is direct fecal smear not utilized in the diagnosis of Toxocariasis?
It cannot detect any toxocara egg in the stool
5. What are the common names applied to Enterobius vermicularis?

• Pinworm
• Seatworm
• Family affair parasite

6. Enumerate the possible manners of transmission to produce Enterobiasis?

• Fecal-oral route
• Direct person to person contact
• Indirect contact with contaminated hands, dust food or object

SAQ 21: Identify those species of hookworm with blood-lung phase and those that do
not have a blood-lung phase in their life cycle.

Species of Hookworm with blood-lung Species of Hookworm with no blood-lung

phase in their life cycle phase in their life cycle

1. Necator Americanus 2. Ancylostoma

SAQ 22: Answer the question briefly.

Explain why prevalence of Strongyloides is difficult to establish.
because their eggs can hatch inside the host and develop into rhabditiform and
filariform

POST-TEST 10
PLASMODIA 2: Hookworms and Strongyloides stercoralis

Answer the following questions briefly.

1. What is “hyper-infection syndrome”? What is the probable explanation for
the development of “hyper-infection syndrome?
Hyper-infection syndrome is the ability of the parasite to transform from
rhabditiform to filariform inside the body without going out to the rest of the body
2. Describe the blood picture of a patient with chronic Ancylostoma
duodenale infection.
Microcytic hypochromic Red Blood Cells
3. What do you mean by “parthenogenic parasite”?
Pathogenic Parasite is the female parasite that does not need a male parasite for
reproduction
4. What is Wakana disease? How can one get this disease?
It is a disease which is caused by the migrating of larva that was ingested
ancylostoma duodenale larva
5. Give some complications of Hookworm infections?

• Anemia
• Delayed Puberty
• Loss of mental ability
• Murmur

SAQ 23: Give the insect vector utilized in the life cycle of the following parasites:

PARASITE INSECT VECTOR

Wuchereria bancrofti 1. Anopheles, Culex, Aedes
Bruglia malayi 2. Mansoma
Loa loa 3.Deer Fly
Onchocerca volvulus 4. Similium
SAQ 24: Differentiate the microfilaria of given parasites based on the body curves, the
presence or absence of sheath and the arrangement of body nuclei.

PRESENCE /
ARRANGEMENT OF BODY
PARASITE BODY CURVES ABSENCE
NUCLEI
OF SHEATHS

Wuchereria 1. Graceful
2. Sheathed 3. Equidistant
bancrofti Curves
Bruglia malayi 4. Bony Body 5. Sheathed 6. Uneven distribution
Loa loa 7. Irregular 8. Unsheathed 9. Non-equidistant
Onchocerca
10. Involuted 11. Unsheathed 12. Both ends with nuclei
volvulus

SAQ 25: Differentiate the habitat of the given parasites by identifying its location in the
host and its periodicity.

LOCATION OF ADULT FORMS IN THE

PARASITE PERIODICITY
HOST
Wuchereria bancrofti 1. Lymphatic Vessels 2. Nocturnal
Bruglia malayi 3. Lymphatic Vessels 4. Nocturnal
Loa loa 5. Subcutaneous 6. Diurnal
Onchocerca volvulus 7. Subcutaneous 8. Diurnal

SAQ 26: Differentiate the tissue / organ of predilection of the following parasites

PARASITE TISSUE / ORGAN AFFECTED

Wuchereria bancrofti 1. Lymphatic Vessels
Bruglia malayi 2. Lymphatic Vessels
Loa loa 3. Subcutaneously / Eyes
Onchocerca volvulus 4. Eyes
POST-TEST 11
PHASMIDIA: Blood and Tissue Nematodes
Answer the following questions briefly.
1. When is the best time to collect blood sample in a patient suspected of
having Bancroftian
filariasis? Why?
It occurs nocturnally so it is best to collect blood at night
2. Explain the development of “leopard skin” in patient with Onchocerciasis.
The development is due to the immune mechanism with filariasis and phagocitize
3. What is a “Mazzoti reaction? Give its clinical significance.
Microfilaria in skin analysis preventive damage may be made by Mazzonited
4. Explain the pathogenesis of elephantiasis in patient with Bancroftian filariasis.
The patient infected with male and female species will undergo proliferation from
mature to adult that will cause obstruction on lymph vessels that makes the
parasites dead which will lead to antigen formation followed by antibody
projection resulting to hyperplasia and will undergo fibrosis which will result to
thickening of the skin
5. Describe the eye lesion associated with Loa loa infection.

• Do not cause bleeding

• Psychosomatic result on patient

SAQ 25: Give the manner of transmission of the following parasites to produce a
disease

MANNER OF
PARASITE
TRANSMISSION
Angiostrongylus
Ingestion of infected larva
cantonensis
Gnathostoma spinigerum Ingestion of infected larva

Dracunculus medinensis Ingestion of infected larva

SAQ 26: Give the intermediate host/s required to complete the life cycle of the give
parasites

PARASITE INTERMEDIATE HOST/S

Angiostrongylus cantonensis Snails / Crustaceans
Gnathostoma spinigerum Fish
Dracunculus medinensis Copepods

POST-TEST 12
PHASMIDIA 4: Angiostrongylus cantonensis, Gnathostoma spinigerum and
Dracunculus medinensis
Answer the following questions briefly.
1. Explain why a female Angiostrongylus cantonensis is often described as
having a “barber’s pole” appearance.
The female Angiostrongylus cantonensis is described as having barber's pole
appearance because the uterus is coiled around the blood filled intestine.
2. Differentiate between Gnathostomiasis interna and Gnathostomiasis externa clinically.
Gnathostomiasis interna: vomiting, urticaria, eosinophilia ; Gnathostomiasis
externa: migration, intermittent, subcutaneous edema
3. Why is there a high prevalence of Dracunculiasis during summer?
The is a high prevalence of Dracunculiasis during summer because there is an
increased water consumption and Drancunculus medinensis is transmitted by
drinking contaminated water from open ponds.
SAQ 14. Enumeration
A. Give the four (4) political provinces known to be “hotspots” for falciparum malaria.

1. Bohol
2. Catanduanes
3. Cebu
4. Leyte

B. Give four (4) possible routes of transmission for malaria.

1. bite of an infected mosquito

2. organ transplant
3. blood transfusion
4. transplacental

SAQ 15. Determine the association of the items in the first column with the headings of
the second and third column. Put (X) to indicate the appropriate association.

SPOROGONY SCHIZOGONY
Intermediate host X
Definitive host X
Sexual phase X
Asexual phase X
Tissue phase X
Erythrocytic phase X
Exflagellation X
Gametocyte formation X

SAQ 16. Give the indication/s for doing the following peripheral blood smear for
malaria detection.

Thin Smear Thick Smear

it identifies the morphology

it quantifies the parasite that is present

POST TEST 6
CLASS SPOROZOA (Blood Parasites Producing Malaria)
Supply the word or group of words in the space provided in the box

Plasmodium Plasmodium Plasmodium Plasmodium

Point of differentiation
vivax malariae falciparum knowlesi
 malignant,
benign,
Type of fever quartan tertian, tertian
tertian
subtertian
Erythrocytic Cycle benign quartan malignant tertian
12-24 18-19-34
Number of chromatin dots in 6-12 rosette
cluster of cluster of pattern
the mature schizont stage pattern
grapes grapes
schuffner;s ziemann's maurer's
Stipplings dots
dots dots clefts
Multiple infection infection infection infection infection

Clinical forms of
Condition Intestinal
amoebiasis
Patient X had bouts of alternate constipation and diarrhea but
stool is negative for gross blood. Stool examination revealed Amoebiasis
trophozoites and cysts of Entamoeba histolytica.
Patient R’s routine stool examination revealed cysts of E.
Amoebic dysentery
histolytica.
Patient W was admitted to the hospital because of signs and
symptoms of partial GI obstruction. His stool is positive for Amoeba
trophozoites and some cysts of E. histolytica.
Patient B was admitted to the hospital because of severe
Severe Amoebic
dehydration and profuse diarrhea. His stool is positive for E.
dysentery
histolytica trophozoites.

SAQ 2. Give the stage/s of Entamoeba histolytica compatible with the items given
below:

Transfer stage Cyst

Pathogenic stage Cyst

Diagnostic stage Cyst

Infective stage Cyst

Vegetative stage Trophozoite

Non-motile stage Cyst

Feeding stage Trophozoite

SAQ 3. Answer the questions given in the table:

Describe the movement of Entamoeba Describe the movement of Entamoeba

histolytica trophozoite in a diarrheic stool. coli trophozoite in a diarrheic stool.
Active Movement in diarrheal stool Slow movement in diarrheal stool

SAQ 4. Supply the answers in the given table: Clinical forms of Amoebiasis Stage/s of
E. histolytica seen in body specimen

Stage/s of E. histolytica seen in body

Clinical forms of Amoebiasis
specimen
Asymptomatic/Carrier Stage Cyst

Amoebic liver abscess Trophozoite

Acute dysenteric amoebiasis Trophozoite

Amoeboma Trophozoite

Pulmonary amoebiasis Trophozoite

Chronic non -dysenteric
Cyst
amoebiasis

POST TEST 1
CLASS LOBOSEA (Pathogenic and Non -Pathogenic Amoeba)
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the most appropriate answer. Encircle only the letter that
corresponds to your chosen answer.

1. In the life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica, cyst develops as a result of ___ nuclear
division.
A. one B. two C. three D.
four
2. Development of trophozoites in the life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica is observed in
the
A. Cecum B. Ileum C. duodenum D.
rectosigmoid
3. Which of the following would best describe an infective stage of Entamoeba coli?
A. Single nucleus B.
Engulfed red blood cells
C. Ectoplasmic protrusion represents the pseudopod D. Chromatoidal
body represents stored protein.
4. Which of the following would best describe the chromatoidal body of Endolimax
nana?
A. Cigar – shaped B. “splintered – glass” C. comma –
shaped D. tear – drop shaped
5. Prominent glycogen mass is a feature of which of these parasites?
A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Endolimax nana C.
Iodamoeba buetschlii D. Entamoeba coli
6. Identification of the trophozoite stage of Entamoeba histolytica in a fresh preparation
is based on
A. Engulfed red blood cells B. The parasite’s explosive movement C.
single “bull’s eye” nucleus D. All of these
7. Which characteristic movement of the trophozoite given below is associated with
Entamoeba coli?
A. Sluggish B. Sliding and gliding C. “cork –
screw” D. progressive
8. Which stain used in the laboratory has an affinity to chromatoidal body?
A. Iron – hematoxylin B. Iodine/Lugol’s stain C.
Both D. Neither
9. From your observation of the different cysts under this exercise, which item
combination given below is correct if these parasites are arranged chronologically from
smallest to biggest?
A. Endolimax nana, Entamoeba coli, Entamoeba histolytica B.
Entamoeba histolytica, Endolimax nana, entamoeba coli
C. Endolimax nana, Entamoeba histolytica, Entamoeba
coli D. Entamoeba coli, Entamoeba histolytica, Endolimax nana
10. To produce a ripe cyst of Entamoeba coli, the parasite has to undergo ___ nuclear
division.
A. One B. Two C.
Three D. Four
SAQ 5. Describe the mode of entry of Naegleria fowleri to produce a primary
meningoencephalitis.

It enters through nasal cavity and olfactory bulb which is aided by flagella that helps
the organism to be propelled to its target
SAQ 6. Put an X in the box that corresponds to your answer:

Naegleria Acanthamoeba
Condition
fowleri spp.
Shows resistance to chlorination X
Infection with this parasite runs a very rapid and
X
fatal course
Infection with this parasite may mimic a viral
X
keratitis
The infection produces a chronic form of
X
menigoencephalitis

POST-TEST 2
CLASS LOBOSEA (Free -Living Amoeba)
ASSOCIATION TYPE:

Write A – If the numbered item is associated with Naegleria fowleri infection.

B – If the numbered item is associated with Acanthamoeba spp.
infection.
C – If the numbered item is associated with both A and B.
D – If neither A nor B is associated with the numbered item.

__B__1. The presence of wrinkled, double – walled cyst or mitotic divisions is thought
to be the hall mark of this infection.
__A__2. The organisms do not survive in sea water or brackish water with a salt
content of 0.5% or higher.
__B__3 The organisms may disseminate and produce granuloma in many tissues.
__A__4. The amoebae may be recognized by their distinctive “target – like” large
nucleolus in the center of the nucleus in fixed smears stained by a variety of methods.
__C__5. The upper respiratory tract and the eyes appear to be portals of entry for this
infection.
SAQ7. Classify the parasites by putting an (X) on the appropriate box labeled
PATHOGENIC or HARMLESS COMMENSAL.

Parasite Pathogenic Harmless Commensal

Giardia lamblia X
Chilomastix mesnili X
Trichomonas vaginalis X
Trichomonas tenax X
Trichomonas hominis X
Dientamoeba fragilis X

SAQ8. Put an (X) to appropriate box labeled TROPHOZOITE and CYST after each
parasite.

Parasite Trophozoite Cyst

Giardia lamblia X X
Chilomastix mesnili X X
Trichomonas vaginalis X
Trichomonas tenax X
Trichomonas hominis X
Dientamoeba fragilis X

SAQ 9. Give the appropriate specimen/s to establish the diagnosis of the following
diseases/infection given below.

Specimen/s to establish the

Disease
diagnosis
Intestinal Giardiasis Stool

Trichomonas vaginitis Urine

Chilomastix mesnili infection Stool

Dientamoeba fragilis infection Stool

Trichomonas hominis
Stool
infection
Trichomonas tenax infection Jejunum

Dientamoeba fragilis infection Stool

POST TEST 3
CLASS ZOOMASTIGOPHOREA (Atrial Flagellates)
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the most appropriate answer. Encircle only the letter that
corresponds to your chosen answer.
_____ 1. “Cork-screw” or “screw-driver” motility is exhibited by which of this
trophozoite?
A. Giardia lamblia B. Chilomastix mesnili C.
Dientamoeba fragilis D.Trichonomas vaginalis
_____ 2. Tetracoccic karyosome as viewed under fixed stain is a feature of
A. Chilomastix mesnili B. Dientamoeba fragilis C.
Trichomonas hominis D. Giardia lamblia
_____ 3. A doubly refractile cyst wall best describes the cyst of
A. Trichomonas tenax B. Dientamoeba fragilis C. Giardia
lamblia D. Chilomastix mesnili
_____ 4. When viewed in a fixed stain, Trichomonas vaginalis will have this diagnostic
feature:
A. rigid axostyle B. conspicuous cytostome C.
prominent siderophil granules D. single nucleus
_____ 5. In Giardiasis, a commonly documented extra-intestinal form is an involvement
of this organ:
A. gall bladder B. pancreas C.
liver D. appendix
_____ 6. Which of the following is TRUE in the life cycle of Giardia lamblia?
A. The cyst is the infective stage and the trophozoite is a pathogenic
stage.
B. The cyst is a pathogenic stage and the trophozoite is a infective stage.
C. Both cysts and trophozoites are pathogenic stages.
D. Both cysts and trophozoites are infective stages.
_____ 7. The type of stool associated with Giardia lamblia infection is:
A. mucoid B. steatorrheic C. bloody,
mucoid D. scyballic
_____ 8. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the Trichomonad parasites?
A. All have conspicuous cytostome. B. All move in
a jerky-tumbling fashion.
C. They have identical costa and axostyle. D. They exist in
both trophozoite and cystic stages.
_____ 9. Which parasite is associated with “ping-pong” infection?
A. Trichomonas tenax B. Trichomonas hominis C.
Trichomonas vaginalis D. All of these
_____ 10. Which of the following organisms may not be observed in a diarrheic stool?
A. Trichomonas hominis B. Giardia lamblia C.
Dientamoeba fragilis D. Trichomonas tenax
SAQ10. Identify the infective stage of the ff. parasites to man and to the insect vector.

Parasite Man Insect vector

Trypanosoma gambiense Typomastigote Tsetse Fly
Trypanosoma rhodesiense Typomastigote Tsetse Fly
Trypanosoma cruzi Typomastigote Reduviid Bug
Leishmania tropica Promastigote Phlebotomus Spp.
Leishmania braziliense Promastigote Phlebotomus Spp.
Leishmania donovani Promastigote Phlebotomus Spp.

SAQ 11. Given are the old terminologies for the developmental stages of Leishmania
and Trypanosoma spp. Write down in the space provided in the table the new
terminology for each of these stages.

Developmental stages of New terminology applied to these

parasites stages
Leishmania stage Amastigote

Crithidia stage Promastigote

Leptomonad stage Epimastigote

Trypanosoma stage Typomastigote

POST TEST 4
CLASS ZOOMASTIGOPHOREA (Blood and Tissue Flagellates)
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the most appropriate answer. Encircle only the letter that
corresponds to your chosen answer.
1. A double peak of temperature in a day is a significant manifestation in a patient with
A. Chagas` disease B. Uta C. Kala azar D.
African sleeping sickness
2. Which of the following is a blood picture associated with Dumdum fever?
A. leukocytosis, neutrophilia B. leukocytopenia,
lymphocytosis C. pancytopenia D. thrombocytopenia,
leukopenia
3. The following diseases are transmitted by a bite of infected fly, EXCEPT:
A. Chagas` disease B. Visceral leishmaniasis C. West African
sleeping sickness D. East African sleeping sickness
4. In Chagas` disease, the dividing form of parasite seen in the heart muscle is the
A. metacyclic trypomastigote B. amastigote C.
pleomorphic trypomastigote D. epimastigote
5. Which stage of Leishmania tropica is infective to man?
A. amastigote B. epimastigote C.
promastigote D. trypomastigote
6. Which stage of Trypanosoma cruzi is infective to reduviid bug?
A. amastigote B. epimastigote C.
promastigote D. trypomastigote
7. Skin and mucous membrane involvement is seen in which of these infections?
A. Uta B. Kala azar C.
Espundia D. All of these
8. Mott cells maybe observed in the CSF of patients with sleeping sickness syndrome
and this is usually derived from an abnormal _____.
A. red Cell B. plasma cell C.
parasite D. eosinophil
SAQ 12. Supply the missing word or group of words.

1. Balantidium coli multiply asexually by ______Tranverse Binary

Fusion_____________.
2. Balantidium coli also undergo sexual reproduction
by ______conjugation________ with exchange of micronuclei.

SAQ 13. Put an (X) in the appropriate space in the box to signify whether the given
stage is a trophozoite or a cyst of Balantidium coli.

Balantidium coli trophozoite Balantidium coli cyst

Vegetative stage X
Transfer stage X
Pathogenic stage X X
Diagnostic stage X X

POST TEST 5
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the most appropriate answer. Encircle only the letter that
corresponds to your chosen answer.
1. An important reservoir of Balantidium coli is
A. cattle B. fish C.
pig D. dog
2. The most common extra-intestinal lesion in Balantidiasis is seen in the
A. vaginal canal B. liver C. gall
bladder D. brain
3. The trophozoite stage of Balantidium coli is characterized by this movement in a
diarrheic stool:
A. gliding and sliding B. jerky and tumbling C.
Sluggish D. slow erratic oscillation
4. In the life cycle of Balantidium coli, multiplication of the trophozoite is observed in
the
A. large intestine B. small intestine C.
both D. neither
5. The type of stool associated with Balantidium coli infection is
A. mucoid B. gruelly C. bloody,
mucoid D. watery
SAQ 17. Determine the tissue/organ affected by the following parasites

Parasites Tissue/Organ of predilection

Toxoplasma gondii small intestine
Isospora belli/hominis small intestine
Cryptosporidium brush border
Sarcocystis lindemanni skeletal muscle
Pneumocystis carinii lungs

POST TEST 7
CLASS SPOROZEA (Minor Sporozoa)
1. What type of host is cat in the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii? What type of host is
man in the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii?
Definitive host eat incidental
2. Explain what “vertical transmission” is in relation to the manner of transmission of
Toxoplasmosis.
It is acquired from transplacental transmission
3. What procedure can you do to identify Pneumocystis carinii from the lungs?
Grocott-Gomori's Methenamin Silver stain (GMS)
4. Identify the possible infective stage/s of the following parasites to produce a human
disease?

Toxoplasma
oocyst
gondii
Cryptosporidium oocyst
Isospora belli
oocyst
spp.
Sarcocystis
trophozoite
lindemani
Pneumocystis
cyst
carinii