FGSF

FOREST GOVERNANCE AND SOCIAL FORESTRY
1. Soil and water conservation management is the primary functions of the _______ component of the
agroforestry systems.
a. fascine c. rockwalls e. none of the mentioned
b. woody perennials d. all of the mentioned
2. It integrates the silvipastoral form of agroforestry.
a. Agriculture crops and trees
b. Agricultural crops and fish
c. Trees and livestock
d. Trees, agricultural crops and livestock
e. all of the mentioned
3. Section 68 of Presidential Decree 705 as amended penalizes the cutting, gathering and/or collecting
timber or other forest products without license, but not the possession or transport of forest products
without legal documents.
Section 69 of Presidential Decree 705 as amended penalizes the cutting, gathering and/or collecting
Section 68 of Presidential Decree 705 as amended penalizes the cutting, gathering and/or collecting
a. all the statements are true
b. the third statement is false
c. the first and second statement are false
d. the first and second statement are false
e. the third statement is true
4. It is the placement of crop residues and other organic material at the soil surface that primarily
minimize soil evaporation.
a. mulching c. cover cropping e. none of the mentioned
b. green manuring d. composting
5. It is plowing under of crop residues with the soil.
a. mulching c. cover cropping e. none of the mentioned
b. green manuring d. composting
6. It is the movement of rainwater beyond the rhizosphere.
a. infiltration c. scouring e. none of the mentioned
b. penetration d. leaching
7. Agroforestry is NOT:
a. an enterprise
b. purely the marriage of agriculture and forestry
c. a subsistence economy
d. a unique science from agriculture and forestry
e. none of the mentioned
8. Which method does not work well with tree growing innovations/solutions?
a. Result demonstration c. Farmers’ class e. none of the mentioned
b. Method demonstration d. Field trips
9. Community Forestry in the Philippines was established through:
a. DAO 123 series of 1989 c. DAO 122 series of 1993 e. none of the mentioned
b. DAO 123 series of 1990 d. DAO 123 series of 1993
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10. Forest policies are determined by the government alone.

The local government units (LGUs), private sector, and civil society are also participants in the forest
policy making process.
The indigenous cultural communities should not be involved in any manner in the formulation of forest
policies.
b. all the statements are false
c. the second statement is true
d. the second statement is false
e. the first statement is true
11. Agroforestry technologies are NOT developed through:
a. Top-down approach c. Indigenous ways e. none of the mentioned
b. Bottom-up approach d. all of the mentioned
12. SALT1 is known in literature as:
a. Sloping Agricultural Land Technology
b. Hedgerow Intercropping System
c. Taungya System
d. Agrisilvicultural System
13. The institution of the Forest Land Management Programme in 1990 has allowed families and
organizations to manage areas reforested through the National Forestation Program.
a. true c. maybe e. none of the mentioned
b. false d. it depends
14. Royal Decree of June 1863 established the Inspeccion General de Montes, the first forestry service in
the Philippines.
General Order 50 dated April 14, 1900 changed Inspeccion General de Montes to Department of
Environment and Natural Resources.
Act No. 1989 dated April 14, 1910 created the Forest School of the College of Agriculture at UPLB.
a. all statements are true
b. all statements are false
c. the second statement is false
d. the second statement is true
e. the first statement is false
15. Which of the following best describes LOI 1260?
a. Launches the Integrated Social Forestry Project
b. Consolidated the CTF, FOM, FAR
c. Provided CBFMA, PACBRMA
d. A and B only
e. A and C only
16. Agroforestry technologies are sustainable because they are:
a. Technologically Feasible c. Culturally acceptable e. none of the mentioned
b. Economically viable d. all of the mentioned
17. The following characteristics are true about field trips except one:
a. they expensive and difficult to coordinate
b. they allow less interaction with practitioners due to fixed itinerary
c. spouse consent is needed to avoid conflict during field trip
d. must be carefully planned and facilitated to avoid mere tourism
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18. Which principle(s) is/are NOT included in the Philippine Agenda 21?
a. Self-determination
b. Gender sensitivity
c. Holistic science and appropriate technology
d. Participatory democracy
19. The concept of sustainable development was popularized in 1987 through the Bruntland Commission
Report entitled:
a. Agenda 21 c. Our Common Future e. all of the mentioned
b. Our Common Goal d. Earth Summit
20. Forest policy is a course of action adopted and followed by a certain entity to pursue a set of
objectives regarding the use and management of forest resources.
Forest policies are expressed in our Republic Acts, Executive Orders, Presidential Decrees, Presidential
Proclamations, and DENR Administrative Issuances.
The revised Forestry Code of the Philippines is an example of a forest policy.
c. the third statements is false
d. the third statement is true
e. the first statements is false
21. The DENR link with other relevant units or agencies during this stage of CBFM implementation.
a. Formation of POs and diagnostic stage
b. Planning stage
c. Preparatory stage
d. Implementation stage
22. Which of the following does NOT contribute to global warming?
a. CO2 c. CFCs e. none of the mentioned
b. CH4 d. O2
23. In what year was the first people-oriented program implemented in the Philippines?
a. 1970 c. 1974 e. none of the mentioned
b. 1972 d. 1976
24. The twin objective of agroforestry is:
a. Production after protection
b. Production before protection
c. Production simultaneous with protection
d. all of the mentioned
25. Article II Section 18 of the 1987 Philippine Constitution provides for the state protection to people’s
right to a balanced and healthful ecology.
Article II Section 22 of the 1987 Philippine Constitution provides for the state protection to people’s right
to a balanced and healthful ecology.
Article XII Section 2 of the 1987 Philippine Constitution mandates the adaptation of the so-called
Regalian Doctrine towards the exploration, development and utilization of our natural resources.
c. the first statement is false
e. the third statement is false
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26. This spouses the Philippine Land Tenure System.

a. Maura Act c. Regalian Doctrine e. none of the mentioned
b. Administrative Code d. all of the mentioned
27. Which model works well in a community with a long gratifying relation with a government forestry
agency and very receptive to market signals?
a. top-down technology transfer model
b. farmer-back-to-farmer model
c. modified feedback technology transfer model
d. feedback technology transfer model
28. This stage in CBFM implementation encompasses all activities needed in obtaining the Community-
Based Forest Management Agreement?
a. Preparatory stage c. Planning stage e. all of the mentioned
b. Formation of POs and diagnostic stage d. Implementation stage
29. The Philippine government through the CBFM program envisioned to reforest several hectares of
denuded forest land. What is the estimated area?
a. 5,000,000 ha c. 9,000,000 ha e. none of the mentioned
b. 7,000,000 ha d. 600,000 ha
30. It modifies the Natural Vegetative Strips (NVS).
a. SALT2 c. SALT1 e. all of the mentioned
b. Multi-storey system d. Fallow system
31. Under the Regalian Doctrine, all our natural resources are State-owned and their exploration,
development, and utilization is under the full control and supervision of the State.
There are three modes by which corporations or associations may be allowed to explore, develop or
utilize the country’s natural resources, namely: co-production, joint-venture, or production-sharing
agreements.
In all these three modes, the maximum period is 27 years renewable for the same number of years and in
the case of forest resources, the corporation should at least 50% Filipino-onwed.
32. What goal number under the UN Millennium Development Goals directly addresses “ensuring
environmental security”?
a. goal no. 1 c. goal no. 5 e. goal no.8
b. goal no.3 d. goal no. 7
33. It is an imaginary line indicating equal points of elevation in a sloping area.
a. slope c. contour e. axis
b. tangent d. smothering
34. There are four (4) classes of lands of the public domain, namely: (a) agricultural, (b) forest or timber.
(c) mineral, and (d) ancestral lands.
The 1987 Philippine Constitution provides that only agricultural lands may be privatized.
The other three classes of lands of the public domain – forests or timber, mineral, and national parks –
will be State-owned.
b. the second and third statements are true
c. the first statement is true
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35. The rule of thumb in the establishment of hedgerows – the steeper the slopes, the distance between
hedgerows should be?
a. larger c. same e. none of the mentioned
b. narrower d. it depends
36. Which of the following situations contributed to the emergence of Community Forestry?
a. unequal opportunities in forest resource management
b. poor performance of the State in forest governance
c. realization of the national ideals of democracy and social justice
37. The dialect term in the word “pinugo” refers to:
a. bench terrace c. rice fields e. Ifugao
b. forest d. dikes
38. Maladaptation to climate change impacts pertains to:
a. strategies that reduce adverse effects of climate change
b. increases resilience and capacity to cope with current and future changes in climate
c. improved forest management practices to reduce emissions
39. Emission targets under the Kyoto Protocol must be achieved within the first commitment period.
a. 2000-2012 c. 2008-2010 e. 2008-2015
b. 2000-2010 d. 2008-2012
40. Republic Act 6269 dated June 1971 is the law which regulated the practice of forestry profession in
the Philippines.
Republic Act 6239 dated June 1971 is the law which regulated the practice of forestry profession in the
Philippines.
Republic Act 9275 which took effect on May 6, 2004 is otherwise known as Philippine Clean Water Act
of 2004.
41. It involves a wide range of activities linking rural people with forests, trees, and the products and
benefits to be derived from them.
a. Social Forestry c. Sustainable Development e. none of the mentioned
b. Community Forestry d. all of the mentioned
42. Which model hinders full participation of local people in the design of their farming system?
a. top-down technology transfer model
b. farmer-back-to-farmer model
c. modified feedback technology transfer model
d. feedback technology transfer model
43. Which is true about change agents?
a. change agents are necessary in the community even if the farmers have rejected the diffused
innovation
b. change agents can proceed to communicate the solutions identified and designated by the
research institution because the farmers are eager to adopt new innovations
c. change agents have the ability to communicate technical solutions effectively
d. A and C only
e. B and C only
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44. It is a process that consists of identifying and predicting the impacts of proposed project and
programs on the biogeophysical environment and on man’s health and well-being.
a. Climate Change Assessment
b. Environmental Impact Assessment
c. Project Evaluation
d. Project Impact Assessment
45. Presidential Decree 705 dated May 19, 1975 as amended is the Revised Forestry Code of the
Philippines.
Presidential Decree 70 dated May 19, 1975 is the Revised Forestry Code of the Philippines.
Presidential Decree 1559 is the Revised Forestry Code of the Philippines.
b. the second and third statements are false
c. all the statements are false
d. the first statement is false
e. the second statement is true
46. Under this law, communal forests have long been established.
a. RA 8375 c. EO 263 e. none of the mentioned
b. Act 2557 d. LOI 1260
47. Multilateral Environmental Agreements where Philippines is a signatory.
a. CBD c. CITES e. A and B only
b. UNFCCC d. all of the mentioned
48. Presidential Decree 1559 dated June 11, 1978 created the Forest Development Center (FDC).
Presidential Decree 1775 dated January 14, 1981 amended Section 80 of the Presidential Decree 705 by
authorizing PC/INP members to arrest offenders.
Executive Order 277 dated July 25, 1987 amended Section 68 of PD 705 by including “possession of
timber or other forest products without legal documents as required by existing forest laws and
regulations” as an offense.
49. The group of countries that can implement CBM afforestation/reforestation projects within their
countries:
a. Annex I countries c. Developing countries e. A and B only
b. Annex II countries d. all types of countries
50. Executive Order No.192 dated June 10, 1987 is the Reorganization Act of DENR.
Executive Order No.292 dated July 25, 1987 is the Reorganization Act of DENR.
Executive Order No. 2632 dated July 1995 established the Community-Based Forest Management.
a. all the statements are true first statement is true
51. Which is NOT an impact of climate change?
a. frequency occurrence of forest fire
b. loss of biodiversity
c. erosion of beaches and inundation of coastal areas
d. destruction of infrastructure through earthquake
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52. Which of the following is true about Free Prior Informed Consent (FPIC)?
a. it is a consensus of all ICCs/IPs members
b. it has to be in accordance with ICCs/IPs customary laws and practices
c. cannot be manipulated
d. obtained after disclosing fully the intent and scope of the activity
53. In the context of climate change, mitigation refers to human interventions to address anthropogenic
emissions by sources and removals by sinks of all GhG, including ozone-depleting substances and their
substitute.
a. true c. maybe e. undecided
54. Presidential Executive Order 318 mandated the DENR to adopt Community-Based Forest
Management as a “national strategy to achieve sustainable forestry and social justice.
55. Forest officers are authorized to enter into areas covered by license agreement, license, lease or
permit.
Forest officers are not authorized to administer oath and take acknowledgement official matters
connected with their office.
Forest officers are not authorized to arrest even without warrant to any person committing a forest
offense in his presence or has just committed a forest offense.
c. the first statement is true
e. the second and third statements are true
56. Which forestry activities are included in the REDD+?
a. curbing deforestation c. conserving forestry stocks e. all of the mentioned
b. curbing forest degradation d. sustainable forest management
57. The Republic Act No. 7586 dated June 1, 1992 is the National Integrated Protected Areas System Act
of 1992.
The Republic Act No. 7942 dated March 3, 1995 is the Philippine Mining Act of 1995.
The Republic Act No. 9147 dated July 30, 2001 is the Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection
Act of 2001.
d. the first statement is true
e. the second and third statement are false
58. The revised implementing rules and regulations of Executive Order 263 further strengthen, reinforce,
simplify and harmonize the process in the implementation of programs and projects supporting the
CBFM strategy was issued by this legal document.
b. DAO 29 series of 2004 d. all of the mentioned
59. DENR Bureau most directly concerned with environmental matters.
a. FMB c. EMB e. PAWB
b. ERDB d. BMG
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60. Which statement is true?

a. it is all right for change agents to endorse the planting of trees in nutrient-poor farms of
subsistence farmers during the rainy season.
b. it is crucial for extension agents to provide subsidies like seedlings or fertilizers when asking
farmers to undertake planting of fast-wood tree species in their agricultural fields.
c. farm forestry works best when there is ready market for fast-wood species that the farmers are
encourage to raise.
d. only A and B
e. only B and C
61. The establishment and management of Community-Based Projects in protected areas will be
implemented by the Protected Area Management Board through its Protected Area Superintendent in
coordination with the Regional Office of the DENR.
62. Executive Order No. 318 dated June 2, 2004 seeks to promote Sustainable Forest Management in the
Philippines.
Executive Order No. 785 dated February 26, 2009 mandates the Presidential Task Force on Climate
Change to Develop the National Climate Change Framework.
Executive Order No. 725 dated September 5, 1981 seeks to facilitate the establishment on Industrial Tree
Plantations in the country.
d. the first statement is true
e. the second and third statements are false
63. Examples of climate change adaptation practices.
a. CDM and REDD
b. adopting agroforestry practices
c. planting of drought resistant tree species
d. A only
e. B and C
64. Climate Change Act of 2009.
a. RA 1160 c. RA 9729 e. EO 1160
b. RA 9587 d. EO 9729
65. The implementing rules and regulations of Executive Order 263 were issued through _______.
b. DAO 29 series of 1998 d. all of the mentioned
66. Republic Act No. 9175 dated November 7, 2002 is the Chainsaw Act of 2002.
Republic Act No. 8371 dated October 29, 1997 is the Indigenous Peoples Rights Act of 1997.
Republic Act No. 9147 dated July 30, 2001 is the Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act
67. Under the Philippines national framework strategy on climate change, among the mentioned climate
change drivers are:
a. energy c. land-use change and forestry e. all of the mentioned
b. transport d. agriculture
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68. The State can have as much as _______ share out of the gross sales of products/income derived from
the utilization of the government owned forest plantations inside CBFM areas.
a. 75% c. 12% e. none of the mentioned
b. 12.5% d. 0.5%
69. Republic Act No. 8749 dated June 23, 1999 is Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999.
Republic Act No. 9003 dated January 26, 2000 is Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2000.
Republic Act No. 9275 which took effect on May 6, 2004 is the Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004.
70. DAO 2004-29 is the Revised Rules and Regulations for the Implementation of the CBFM strategy.
DAO 25 dated June 29, 1992 is the NIPAS implementing rules and regulations.
DAO 2005-10 dated May 14, 2005 is the implementing rules and regulations of the Philippine Clean Air
Act of 1999.
71. Mass media is very important when:
a. potential adopters are evaluating the technology for trial
b. creating interest in the innovation intended for dissemination
c. convincing the early adopters group to adopt the innovation for easier spread to the rest of the
community
d. demonstrating the new procedure to the community
72. DAO 98-41 dated June 24, 1998 covers the implementation of CBFM in watershed reservations.
DAO 98-10 dated March 4, 1998covers the implementation of CBFM in mangrove areas.
DAO 90-15 refers to the Regulation Governing the Utilization, development and Management of
Mangrove Resources.
73. Which report popularized the concept of sustainable development at the global level?
a. Our Common Future
b. Climate Change National Framework Strategy
c. Philippine Agenda 21
d. State of the World’s Forest
74. Which of the following provided for the implementation of CBFM strategies/projects inside
watershed reservations?
a. NIPAS law c. Administrative Code e. none of the mentioned
b. LGU Code d. all of the mentioned
75. It is an agroforestry system that failed in the country for it is more focused on plantation
establishment rather than human settlement.
a. Taungya c. SALT 3 e. all of the mentioned
b. Homegardens d. SALT 1
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76. The establishment and management of CBFM projects within watershed reservations are guided by:
a. DAO 96-29 c. DAO 98-41 e. none of the mentioned
b. DAO 98-10 d. DAO 98-42
77. DAO No. 97-32 dated October 10, 1997 refers to the 1997 Rules for Administrative Adjudication of
Illegal Forest Products.
DAO 2000-21 dated February 28, 2000 prescribes the requirements for cutting, transport and disposition
of naturally grown timber inside private lands.
DAO 59 dated September 30, 1993 consists of the Revised Rules and Regulations Governing the
Transport/Shipment of Logs, lumber, plywood, veneer, non-timber Forest Products and other Forest
Based Products/Commodities.
78. SALT 2 is:
a. Sloping Agricultural Land Technology
b. Simple-Agro-Livestock Technology
c. Sustainable Agroforest Land Technology
d. Agrisilvipastoral
79. Which is not a principle of sustainable development?
a. meeting the needs of the present generation
b. Inter-generational and interspecies equity
c. maximizing resource conservation
80. Emission reduction targets of Annex 1 parties under Kyoto Protocol is 5% below their carbon
emission level during the year ______.
a. 1990 c. 1992 e. 2010
b. 1970 d. 1997
81. Farmer’s rejection of an innovation could be:
a. a reflection of the farm’s non-readiness than the farmer’s own attitude towards innovations
b. that he has very little freedom to risk meager resources
c. that adaptation might cause him criticism and ridicule among his peers
82. Agroforestry should NOT be implemented in:
a. primary forest c. denuded area e. all of the mentioned
b. secondary forest d. both A and B
83. Under the Climate Change Act of 2009, which entity is mandated to formulate the National
Framework Strategy on Climate Change?
a. DENR c. LGUs e. none of the mentioned
b. Climate Change Commission d. Senate Committee on Climate Change
84. Which of the following constitute the core objectives of Community Forestry?
a. sustainable management of forest resources
b. social justice
c. partnership between forest dependent communities and DENR
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85. Agroforestry is a:
a. rehabilitation tool c. farming system e. none of the mentioned
b. land-use management d. all of the mentioned
86. This DENR Administrative Order allowed cutting/harvesting and utilization of the mangrove species
of the CBFMA holders.
b. DAO 98-10 d. DAO 98-42
87. What section of PD 705 which states that the cutting, gathering and/or collecting of timber or other
products without license is a case of qualified theft.
a. section 67 c. section 69 e. none of the mentioned
b. section 68 d. section 72
88. What does REDD means?
a. Reducing Emission, Degradation and Deforestation
b. Reducing Emission through Deforestation and Forest Degradation
c. Reducing Emission from Deforestation and Forest Degradation
d. Reducing Emission from Forest Degradation and Deforestation
89. Which of the following goals define the national economy under Article 12 of our 1987 Constitution?
a. a more equitable distribution of opportunities, income and wealth
b. a sustained increase in the amount of goods and services produced by the nation for the
benefits of the people
c. an expanding productivity as the key to raising the quality of life for all, especially, the
unprivileged
90. Republic Act 2706 created the rainforestation Administration in what year?
b. 1950 d. 1970
91. It is the entry of water in the soil surface.
a. infiltration c. scouring e. none of the mentioned
b. penetration d. leaching
92. Which of the following provided for the classification of public lands in the Philippine Constitution?
a. Article 12, section 3 c. Article 16, section 2 e. none of the mentioned
b. Article 4, section 12 d. Article 3, section 5
93. This Act provided for the establishment and management of National Integrated Protected Areas
System, defining its scope and coverage for other purposes.
a. RA 9729 c. RA 7586 e. none of the mentioned
b. RA 8371 d. RA 91775
94. Agroforestry is an old-aged practice but it is a new evolving science as exemplified by the ______.
a. Muyong System c. Rice-forest coupled Agroforestry System e. none of the mentioned
b. Payoh-pinugo System d. all of the mentioned
95. What section of NIPAS Act provides for the establishment of a trust fund to be known as Integrated
Protected Areas Fund (IPAF) for purposes of financial projects of the System?
96. It is an agroforestry system that is characterized by the presence of stratified canopy.
a. homegardens c. intercropping e. none of the mentioned
b. multistory d. all of the mentioned
97. Republic Act 9175 is otherwise known as?
a. Mining Act c. Climate Change Act e. none of the mentioned
b. Chainsaw Act d. Clean Air Act
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98. Sustainable Forest Management in the Philippines is promoted under which policy?
a. EO 263 c. EO 247 e. none of the mentioned
b. EO 318 d. EO 26
99. Soil particle _______ is the first process in soil erosion.
a. transport c. sedimentation e. none of the mentioned
b. detachment d. movement
100. DAO 74 series of 1987 imposed the Nationwide Ban on the Cutting of Almaciga Trees.
DAO 64 dated July 31, 2000 contains the Regulations in the Cutting/Gathering and/or Utilization of
Anahaw Palms.
DAO No. 4 dated January 10, 1989 contains the Revised Regulations Governing Rattan Resources
including cutting, gathering, transporting and disposal.
101. It is a part of forestland set aside for the use of the residents of a municipality from which said
residents may cut, collect and remove forest products for their personal use.
a. Communal Forest c. Community Forestry e. none of the mentioned
b. Forest Stewardship d. Ancestral Domain
102. It is an inter-agency national program created by Letter of Instruction No. 1260 dated July 28, 1982
designed to promote the socio-economic of forest occupants and communities dependent on the forest
land for their livelihood, provide tenure and at the same time protect and improve the quality of the
environment.
a. Integrated Social Forestry
b. Community Forestry Program
c. Community-Based Forest Management Program
d. Forest Occupancy Management
103. It refers to all lands and natural resources occupied and possessed by indigenous cultural
communities by themselves or through their ancestors, communally or individually in accordance with
their customs and traditions since time immemorial up to the present.
a. Ancestral domain c. Land grant e. none of the mentioned
b. Ancestral land d. Forest reserve
104. It is the application of dead, decomposed or partly decomposed plant and animal manure to growing
plants.
a. organic farming c. green manuring e. none of the mentioned
b. inorganic farming d. mulching
105. Green manuring, mulching and use of animal manure are examples of:
a. Organic farming methods c. Water retention methods e. none of the mentioned
b. Inorganic farming methods d. Agroforestry methods
106. Which of the following farming methods is unique from the rest?
a. inorganic farming c. green manuring e. none of the mentioned
b. mulching d. use of animal manure
107. This term refers to the growing of tree crops.
a. tree farming c. reforestation e. none of the mentioned
b. agroforestry d. enrichment planting
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108. It is defined as the system of land management whereby forest and agricultural products are
produced on appropriate and suitable areas simultaneously or sequentially for social, economic and
ecological benefits of the community.
a. agroforestry c. social forestry e. none of the mentioned
b. communal tree farming d. socialized farming
109. Which of the following is not an attribute of agroforestry?
a. only trees are produced either simultaneously or sequentially on the same unit of land
b. the practice increases yield and services per unit area
c. the system is consistent with the cultural patterns of the local communities
d. the practice is consistent with sound ecological principles
110. Which of the following is not a criterion for a well-designed agroforestry system?
a. susceptibility c. adaptability e. none of the mentioned
b. productivity d. sustainability
111. It is a form of agroforestry that combines the production of agricultural crops, tree crops and animals
in the same unit of land.
a. Agri-silvi-pastoral c. Agro-silvicultural e. none of the mentioned
b. Aqua-silvi-cultural d. Silvi-pastural
112. It is a form of agroforestry that combines the production of trees and fish.
a. Aqua-silvicultural c. Silvi-pastoral e. none of the mentioned
b. Agri-silvicultural d. Agri-silvi-pastoral
113. In agroforestry, which of the following is not a variation of agri-silvicultural systems?
a. Improved fence system c. Living fence system e. none of the mentioned
b. Improved fallow system d. Multi-storey system
114. In agroforestry, which of the following is not a variation of silvi-pastoral systems?
a. Protein band system c. Living fence system e. none of the mentioned
b. Improved fallow system d. Tree-crop grazing system
115. It is a type of farming in which a portion of the forest is cleared, dried and burned and the land is
cultivated for growing agricultural crops for about three years and then left to fallow for a longer period
to rejuvenate the soil.
a. Fallowing c. Swidden or shifting cultivation e. none of the mentioned
b. Kaingin making d. Taungya system
116. This agroforestry system started in Burma where farmers were involved by the government in
reforestation while allowing them to plant food crops simultaneously while trees are still young until
canopies close.
a. Naalad system c. Swidden farming e. none of the mentioned
b. Muyong system d. Taungya system
117. Ideally, a rural development-oriented project should not be:
a. central-based c. need-responsive e. none of the mentioned
b. participative d. partnership-oriented
118. It is an approach in conducting social research wherein the researcher observes and records people’s
behavior that seems relevant and takes part in the subject’s activities whenever possible.
a. observation c. participant’s observation e. none of the mentioned
b. structural interview d. census
119. It is a method used in conducting social research wherein a series of questions possibly significant to
the study is prepared and asked to encourage the subject to talk hoping to learn meaningful information
during the discussion.
a. unstructured interview c. use of questionnaires e. none of the mentioned
b. structured interview d. census
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120. It is an approach used in social research where information is gathered from a person who has a
good knowledge of hi/her community and culture and is willing to talk about these as well as the relevant
problems.
a. structured interview c. use of key informant e. none of the mentioned
b. use of questionnaires d. census
121. It is defined as the modification in social and culture through time such as modification in social
institutions, ideas, values and other products of human interaction.
a. socio-cultural change c. social change e. none of the mentioned
b. cultural change d. innovation
122. It includes all alterations that take place in the total way of life in a given society.
a. social change c. socio-cultural change e. none of the mentioned
b. cultural change d. technological change
123. It denotes revisions that occur in people’s application of their technical knowledge and skill as they
adapt to the environment.
a. technological change c. technology transfer e. none of the mentioned
b. social change d. innovation
124. It refers to variations or modifications in any aspect of a social process, pattern, or form.
a. cultural change c. social change e. none of the mentioned
b. socio-cultural change d. technological change
125. What is the highest among the following levels of acceptance of innovations by individual member
of a society?
a. evaluation of the innovation
b. interest in the innovation
c. awareness of the innovation
d. adoptation of the innovation
126. What is the lowest among the following levels of acceptance of innovations by individual member
of a society?
a. evaluation of the innovation
b. interest in the innovation
c. awareness of the innovation
d. trial of the innovation
127. It is defines as the process of sharing ideas, thoughts, attitudes, innovations or technologies. The
process implies the interchange of ideas between the source and the receiver.
a. communication c. coordination e. none of the mentioned
b. internal channel d. broadcasting
128. It is a set of elements such as people and things that are related to achieve mutual goals. It is a
process that changes inputs from the environment to certain output.
a. organization c. framework e. none of the mentioned
b. system d. project
129. It is a sign or set of signs which predispose a person to act or make a decision.
a. data c. information e. none of the mentioned
b. census d. zodiac
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130. This Program provides opportunities for people to participate in forest plantation development. Its
objectives, among others are: to increase the supply of wood and other products; accelerate rehabilitation
of the country’s denuded forest lands; conserve/protect existing natural forest and generate additional
source of income of people in the uplands.
a. Socialized Industrial Forest Management Program
b. Integrated Social Forestry Program
c. Communal Tree Farm Program
d. Community Forestry Program
131. It refers to a tract of land planted primarily to trees and other products to support manufacturing and
processing facilities and/or to supply wood and energy requirements.
a. Communal Tree Farm c. Industrial Tree Plantation e. none of the mentioned
b. Community Forestry Area d. Integrated Social Forestry
132. The DENR awards Social Industrial Forest Management Agreement to qualified individual/family
and association of cooperatives. In case of married individuals, SIFMA is issued in the name of:
a. both spouses c. the husband e. none of the mentioned
b. the wife d. the household head
133. It refers to the certificate issued by the DENR to an indigenous cultural community identifying and
recognizing their claim over their traditional areas, which they have possessed and occupied since time
immemorial in accordance with their customs and traditions.
a. Certificate of Ancestral Domain Claim
b. Certificate of Ancestral Land Claim
c. Certificate of Stewardship Contract
d. Certificate of Community Forest Stewardship
134. Grasslands and brushlands under the jurisdiction of DENR that are subject to vested rights, licensees
and permits may be made available for Socialized Industrial Forest Management Agreement provided
that a _______ is executed by the holder of such claim or right.
a. prior expressed and written agreement c. verbal consent e. none of the mentioned
b. tacit approval d. deed of assignment
135. What is the size of the area that may be awarded for individual or single family under the Socialized
Industrial Forest Management Program?
a. 1 to 10 hectares c. 1 to 5 hectares e. none of the mentioned
b. 5 to 10 hectares d. 2 to 7 hectares
136. What is the size of the area that may be awarded to an association or cooperative under the
Socialized Industrial Forest Management Program?
a. over 10 ha to 500 ha c. 10 to 100 ha e. none of the mentioned
b. 10 to 300 ha d. over 10 to 1,000 ha
137. The Socialized Industrial Forest Management Agreement being issued by the DENR to qualified
applicants have a duration of _______.
a. 25 years renewable for another 25 years
b. 20 years renewable for another 20 years
c. 25 years
d. 50 years non-renewable
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138. This is a forest management program of the DENR which grants rights to organized communities to
manage, develop and utilize forest resources on a sustainable basis.
a. Coastal Environment Program
b. Low-Income Upland Communities
c. Community Forestry Program 4
d. Ancestral Domains Management Program
139. Refers to a group of people, which may be an association, cooperative, federation or other legal
entity, established by the community to undertake collective action to address community concerns and
needs and mutually share the benefits from the endeavor.
a. society c. Local Government Unit e. none of the mentioned
b. People’s Organizations d. community
140. It refers to the DENR strategy to identify, delineate and recognize the rights of indigenous cultural
communities to their ancestral lands/domains. This is principally governed by DAO No. 02, series of
1993.
a. Ancestral Domains Management Program
b. Indigenous Peoples Right Act
c. Ancestral Domain Management Plan
d. Community-Based Forest Management
141. Who among the following members of a local community organization are not included among the
qualified participants under the Community-Based Forest Management Program as provided for under
DAO No. 96-29.
a. Government employees with the consent of their head of agency
b. those actually tilling portions of the CBFM site
c. those traditionally utilizing the resources for all or substantial portion of their livelihood
d. those actually residing within or adjacent to the CBFM area
142. As a term used in Social Forestry, what does IEC stands for?
a. Information, education and communication
b. Inter-agency Education Committee
c. Information and Extension Council
d. Informal Education Campaign
143. There are four stages in the implementation framework of the Community-Based Forest
Management Program. Which of the following activities is not included in the preparatory stage?
a. Information, education and communication campaign
b. Application for a CBFM agreement
c. Establishment Institutional Linkages
d. Identification of CBFMP sites
144. It refers to the document defining the terms and procedures for the access, use and protection of
natural resources within the CBFM area.
a. Community Resource Management Framework
b. Resource Use plan
c. Annual Work Plan
d. Strategic Action Plan
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145. Which of the following is not a tenurial instrument issued under the CBFM Program?
a. CBFM Agreement
b. Forest Occupancy Management
c. Certificate of Stewardship Contract
d. Certificate of Ancestral Domain Claim
146. What is the duration of a Community-Based Forest Management Agreement between the DENR and
the participating people’s organization?
b. 25 years only
c. 20 years renewable for another 20 years
147. What is the duration of the Certificate of Stewardship Contract issued by the DENR to qualified
participants?
b. 25 years only
c. 20 years renewable for another 20 years
148. What is the maximum area for a Certificate of Stewardship Contract under the Community-Based
Forest Management Program?
a. 7 hectares c. 5 hectares e. none of the mentioned
b. 10 hectares d. 50 hectares
149. Who is the approving authority for Community-Based Forest Management Agreement covering
5,000 hectares and below?
a. RED c. USEC for Field Operations e. none of the mentioned
b. PENRO d. Secretary of the DENR
150. Who approves the grant of a Community-Based Forest Management Agreement for areas covering
more than 30,000 hectares?
a. RED c. USEC for Field Operations e. none of the mentioned
b. PENRO d. Secretary of the DENR
151. Which of the following instruments issued by the DENR is different from the rest?
a. Community-Based Forest Management Agreement
b. Timber License Agreement
c. Timber Production Sharing Agreement
d. Industrial Forest Management Agreement
152. One approach to increase the level of public awareness or certain activities or issues is through print
media. Which of the following does not belong to the said category?
a. leaflets c. slide presentation e. none of the mentioned
b. flyers d. newspaper
153. One approach to increase the level of public awareness or certain activities or issues is through the
broadcast media. Which of the following does not belong to the said category?
a. community consultation c. spot reports e. none of the mentioned
b. jingles d. radio program
154. One of the mass methods to increase the level of public awareness on certain issues or undertakings
is through visual media. Which of the following does not belong to the category?
a. exhibits c. flyers e. none of the mentioned
b. billboards d. streamers
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155. One of the mass methods to increase the level of public awareness on certain issues or undertakings
is through audiovisual media. Which of the following does not belong to the category?
a. documentary film c. radio-drama e. none of the mentioned
b. slide presentation d. movie film clips
156. With the devolution of Integrated Social Forestry functions to local government units, one ISF
model site in each province has been retained under the supervision of the DENR. This model site is
referred to as CPEU which stands for:
a. Center for People Empowerment in the Uplands
b. Center for Performance Enhancement in the Uplands
c. Center for Participatory Education in the Uplands
d. Community Project on Empowering Uplands
157. It is defined as the active involvement and participation of the local people in planning and
execution of tree growing and management to meet their own needs.
a. Community Forestry c. Community Organizing e. none of the mentioned
b. Integrated Social Forestry d. Community Planning
158. Social Forestry evolved from the concept of forestry for local community. Where was the concept
first popularized?
a. India c. Philippines e. none of the mentioned
b. Thailand d. Indonesia
159. Social Forestry is not the same as:
a. Corporate Forestry c. Community Forestry e. none of the mentioned
b. Village Forestry d. Rural Forestry
160. The socio-economic development of upland residents is essential and that basic needs are to be met
through participatory community organizations and that the whole process create community-based
strategies for the management and protection of forest resources. These are the basic propositions of:
a. Industrial Forestry c. Social Forestry e. none of the mentioned
b. Corporate Forestry d. Urban Forestry
161. The aims of Social Forestry are to be achieved by mobilizing forest occupants to participate through
community organizations which _______ the forest occupants would set up and manage.
a. Barangay Council c. DENR and LGU e. none of the mentioned
b. Forest Occupants d. Cooperative Development Authority
162. It is defined as the branch of forestry which deals with the study of man and the forest and their
interrelationships in order to promote the socio-economic well-being of uplanders especially the poor
forest occupants and the same time protect and improve the quality of the environment.
a. Communal Forestry c. Social Forestry e. none of the mentioned
b. Community Forestry Program d. Forest Occupancy Management Program
163. Which of the following does not describe the word paradigm?
a. Frame of reference c. innovation e. none of the mentioned
b. assumption d. model
164. It is believed that “paradigm shift” is a consequence of “paradigm crises”. Which of the following is
not among the identified symptoms of a paradigm?
a. ability of the paradigm to explain and solve extant problem
b. blurring of traditional rules
c. rapid spread of new experiments
d. questioning of old practices
165. Which of the following does not describe Community-Based Resource Management?
a. systems-focused c. community-driven e. none of the mentioned
b. socially-oriented d. commercially-oriented
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166. Which of the following characterizes the old forestry paradigm?

a. the value of forest is mainly defined in terms of commercially exploitable timber
b. forests have diverse functions and services which are not easy to value
c. management of forest resources is undertaken by foresters in partnership with stakeholders
d. the practice of forestry is founded on the theories and methods of biophysical and social
service
167. Which of the following characterizes the new forestry paradigm?
a. the practice of forestry is founded on the theories and methods of biophysical and social
service
b. the goal of forestry development is to maximize productivity and efficiency
c. foresters are principally concerned with the health of trees and forests
d. people participated in forest management through employment
168. Kaingin farming has long been viewed as a technical problem in forest management in the
Philippines. It was first recognized as socio-economic problem during the National Kaingin Conference
held in:
b. 1965 d. 1975
169. Maslow has identified five categories of people’s needs in hierarchical order. Which of the
following is the basic people’s need?
a. security c. self-esteem e. none of the mentioned
b. physiological d. belongingness
170. These are several methods of conducting extension work. Which of the following is different from
the rest?
a. home and farm visits c. print e. none of the mentioned
b. broadcast d. audio-visual
171. Which of the following is not a group method of conducting extension work?
a. community meetings c. field trips e. none of the mentioned
b. visits d. method demonstrations
172. Which of the following is not a characteristic of extension in social forestry or community-based
forestry?
a. it is a one-way process of transferring knowledge, attitude and skills
b. it is catalysts for people in discussing problems, making decisions and taking action
c. it helps people identify areas of assistance
173. It refers to a group of people or homogenous societies identified by self-ascription and ascription by
others, who have continuously lived as organized community on communally bounded and defined
territory and who have under a claim of ownership since the immemorial, occupied, possessed and
utilizes such territories.
a. indigenous people c. migrant farmers e. none of the mentioned
b. upland communities d. indigenous cultural minorities
174. It refers to upland farmers who were originally lowland residents and who settled in the highlands
and practices slash and burn or shifting cultivation.
a. kaingineros c. indigenous peoples e. none of the mentioned
b. upland migrants d. migrant farmers
175. It is a means to create conditions for development through people’s participation. It is a strategy for
mobilizing people to become fully and collectively involved in activities that aim to improve their lives.
a. participatory planning c. community organizing e. none of the mentioned
b. participatory development d. community planning
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176. In adopting or using a new idea or practice, people tend to go through certain stages. Which of the
following occurs first?
a. interest stage c. evaluation stage e. none of the mentioned
b. trial stage d. awareness stage
177. Agroforestry is a combination of:
a. agriculture and forestry c. agronomy and forestry e. none of the mentioned
b. agricultural and forest species d. farm systems and silvicultural
178. SALT is the acronym for:
a. Sustainable Agricultural Land Technology
b. Sustainable Agricultural Land Technique
c. Sloping Agricultural Land Technology
d. Sustainable Agricultural Land Technique
179. It refers to the national program of the government intended to optimize land productivity, enhance
ecological stability and improve the socio-economic conditions of forest occupants. It recognizes that
forest occupants can be effective partners of the government in conserving the remaining forest resources
in the country.
a. Industrial Forest Management Program
c. Forest Land Management Program
d. Integrated Environmental Management for Sustainable Development
180. Which of the following is not a guiding principle of the Community-Based Forest Management
strategy?
a. autonomy c. people empowerment e. none of the mentioned
b. participatory approach d. sustainable development
181. In the implementation of the Community-Based Forest Management strategy, information
dissemination is undertaken during the:
a. diagnostic and PO formation phase
b. planning phase
c. preparatory phase
d. implementation phase
182. In the implementation of the Community-Based Forest Management strategy, community profiling
is undertaken during the:
b. planning phase
183. In the implementation of the Community-Based Forest Management strategy, interim resource
access and product transport permits are issued during _______.
b. planning phase
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184. Which of the following does not constitute a sound social forestry principles?
a. community members are illiterate (lack of knowledge) thus needing constant assistance and
direction from forestry professional
b. community problems can be solved only through holistic approach
c. simple, low cost and locally available materials should be used in promoting forestry
technologies
d. development is achieved when upland communities are transformed into self-reliant
communities
185. It is a system of enhancing or sharing with the knowledge values, attitudes and skill of individuals or
groups towards forest and forest conservation.
a. Forest Information c. Forest Communication e. none of the mentioned
b. Forest Extension d. Forest Education
186. It refers to an instrument used in locating points that have the same elevation or within a given
contour line in a sloping area. This instrument is useful in locating the direction and location of proposed
hedgerows in an agroforestry area.
a. gabion c. caliper e. none of the mentioned
b. stadia d. A-frame
187. This refers to vegetative structure intended to serve as a catchment area for soil that erode in an
agroforestry site.
a. firelines c. firebreaks e. none of the mentioned
b. boundaries d. hedgerows
188. Which of the following is not an objective of social forestry?
a. hiring of community members as project workers
b. strengthening of rural communities/institutions
c. improvement of the socio-economic status of rural communities
d. promotion of social equity
189. Which of the following is one of the characteristics of social forestry?
a. involves direct participation of beneficiaries
b. large-scale in scope
c. species planted are purely agricultural crops
d. people are hired by the government to implement the project
190. One of the objective of social forestry is to:
a. discourage community participation
b. develop foresters as agents of development
c. encourage top-down management approach
d. develop individualism among community members
191. This program was conceived in 1971 through the promulgation of Forestry Administrative Order
No. 62 entitled “Kaingin Management and Land Settlement Regulations”
a. Family Approach to Reforestation Program
b. Forest Occupancy Management Program
c. Integrated Social Forestry Program
d. Communal Tree Farming Program
21
192. It refers to a contiguous area of 10 hectares or more of disturbed dipterocarp forest that has an
average basal area of at least 5𝑚2 /ha of all trees that are presently commercial species with diameter at
breast height or diameter above buttress of less than 65 cm.
a. degraded residual forest c. residual production forest e. none of the mentioned
b. production forest d. residual forest
193. It refers to a body of written and/or unwritten rules, usage, customs and practices traditionally and
continually recognized, accepted and observed by respective Indigenous Peoples.
a. communal claim c. customary laws e. none of the mentioned
b. civil laws d. community regulations
194. It refers to a group of people or a homogenous society identified by self-ascription and ascription by
others, who have continuously lived as community on communally bounded and defined territory,
sharing common bonds of language, customs, tradition and other distinctive cultural traits.
a. Indigenous Cultural Communities/Indigenous Peoples
b. Cultural minorities
c. Migrant communities
d. Upland occupants
195. It sustains the view that ancestral domains and all resources found therein serve as the material bases
of the cultural identity of indigenous peoples. It also generally holds the view that ancestral domains are
the indigenous people’s private but community property which belongs to all generations and therefore
cannot be sold, disposed or destroyed.
a. indigenous concept of ownership
b. concept of individual claim
c. concept of corporate claim
d. concept of ownership as defined under the Civil Code
196. The act by which the national government confers and transfer power and authority, hereto
performed by national agencies, together with the corresponding personnel, equipment, assets, liabilities,
records and other opportunities, to the various LGUs to perform specific functions and responsibilities.
a. deregulation c. devolution e. none of the mentioned
b. deployment d. delegation
197. It is the guarantee of peaceful possession and use of specific forest land area and the resources found
therein, covered by an agreement contract or grant which cannot be altered or abrogated without due
process.
a. tax declaration c. tenure e. none of the mentioned
b. Memorandum of Agreement d. title
198. It refers to specific activities designed to accomplish specific objectives. Such activities are bounded
by definite time frame and performed by a multi-disciplinary team.
a. plan c. project e. none of the mentioned
b. framework d. course
199. What is the initial step in a project development cycle?
a. project preparation c. project identification e. none of the mentioned
b. project appraisal d. project implementation
200. It is a step in the project development cycle whereby in the process of project implementation work
outputs are gathered and recorded so that project management may keep tract of their level of
performance in relation to the planned activities.
a. monitoring c. reporting e. none of the mentioned
b. post-evaluation d. impact assessment
201. Which of the following is not a criterion in project appraisal?
a. political endorsement c. market feasibility e. none of the mentioned
b. technical feasibility d. socio-economic feasibility
22
202. It is defined as the study or analysis of project results in order to assess the extent to which the
objectives of a project have been achieved or realized.
a. monitoring c. evaluation e. none of the mentioned
b. research d. project implementation
203. It refers to acknowledged claims, privileges, prerogatives or ownership over land and/or natural
resources to which one is entitled by reason of law, license, contract or tradition.
a. usufruct right c. prior vested right e. none of the mentioned
b. human right d. suffrage
204. Which of the following is the flagship program of the DENR in the Social Reform Agenda?
a. Respect, Protection & Management of Ancestral Domains
b. Comprehensive Integrated Delivery of Social Services
c. Agricultural Development
d. Socialized Housing
205. It is the process of utilizing human and material resources towards the attainment of specific
objectives.
a. business c. supervision e. none of the mentioned
b. management d. planning
206. It is the land tenure issued to individual participants under the Community-Based Forest
Management Program.
a. Certificate of Stewardship Contract
b. Forest Land Management Agreement
c. Socialized Industrial Forest Management Agreement
d. Forest Occupancy Management Permit
207. The practice of forestry in the Philippines started as early as ______ with the creation of the
“Inspeccion General de Montes”.
b. 1853 d. 1900
208. Who was the first head of the “Inspeccion General de Montes”.
a. Don Juan Gonzales Valdez c. Captain George P. Ahern e. none of the mentioned
b. Director Florencio Tamesis d. Sr. Narciso Fernadez
209. When was the kaingin making first banned and prohibited inside forest lands?
b. 1874 d. 1945
210. On the basis of a recommendation of the Spanish Ministry of Foreign Affairs, a ______ was issued
on November 13, 1884, which embodied definite laws and regulations governing the operation of the
Philippine Forestry Services.
a. General Order
b. Direccion General de Administacion Civil
c. Inspeccion General de Montes
d. Royal Decree
211. As early as 1894, by virtue of a Royal Decree, no land of the public domain was allowed to be sold
unless properly surveyed its boundaries marked out, measured and certified as ______ by the Inspeccion
General de Montes.
a. titled c. alienable and disposable e. none of the mentioned
b. forestland d. occupied and developed
23
212. On April 14, 1900, the US Military Governor in the Philippines issued General Order No. 50
creating the _______.
a. Forestry Bureau c. Bureau of Forest Development e. none of the mentioned
b. Environmental Department d. Bureau of Forestry
213. Who was the first Director of the Forestry Bureau?
a. Edmundo V. Cortes c. Juan G. Valdez e. none of the mentioned
b. Florencio Tamesis d. Jorge P. Ahern
214. It was enacted on May 7, 1904 and contained the forest policies of the Philippines.
a. Forest Act c. Revised Forest Code e. none of the mentioned
b. Forest Code d. Forestry Decree
215. The first school of Forestry in the country was established on _____.
a. April 14, 1910 c. February 4, 1916 e. none of the mentioned
b. January 19, 1910 d. October 10, 1907
216. Who was the first Filipino Director of the Bureau of Forestry?
a. Juan Utleg c. Martin Reyes e. none of the mentioned
b. Florencio Tamesis d. Jose Viado
217. Who served the longest term as Director of the Bureau of Forestry Development?
a. Ireneo Domingo c. Edmundo V. Cortes e. none of the mentioned
b. Jose Viado d. Cirilo Serna
218. The Filipinization of the Philippine forest service started when Florencio Tamesis was appointed as
Director of the Bureau of Forestry in:
b. 1947 d. 1957
219. By virtue of RA No. 826, the Parks and Wildlife Commission was created in ________.
b. 1958 d. 1960
220. In 1957, the Forest Products Research Institute was created and attached to the University of the
Philippines. Later on June 21, 1969 with the enactment of RA No. 5526, the Institute was named ______
and integrated with the National Science Development Board.
a. Forest Research Institute
b. Forest Products Research and Industries Development Commission
c. Forest Products Research and Development Institute
d. Ecosystem Research and Development Bureau
221. Republic Act No. 2706 which created the Reforestation Administration was enacted in:
b. 1970 d. 1940
222. On November 1, 1972, three agencies were merged by virtue of Presidential Decree No. 1 resulting
to the creation of Bureau of Forest Development. Which of the following was not included in the merger?
a. Forest Research Institute c. Reforestation Administration e. none of the mentioned
b. Bureau of Forestry d. Parks and Wildlife Office
223. What issuance stipulated the formal organization of the Bureau of Forest Development?
a. PD No. 704 c. PD No. 607 e. none of the mentioned
b. PD No. 1559 d. PD No. 705
224. During the Aquino administration, a government-wide organization was undertaken. This resulted in
the reorganization of the Bureau of Forest Development into the Forest Management Bureau pursuant to:
a. EO No. 192 c. EO No. 292 e. none of the mentioned
b. EO No. 92 d. EO No. 182
225. The Forest Research Institute was created on December 18, 1974 pursuant to:
b. PD No. 704 d. PD No. 1
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226. What agency was created in 1972 and given the task of formulating the national research program
and approving, coordinating and monitoring all government-financed research activities in agriculture,
forestry, fisheries and other natural resources?
a. Philippine Council for Agriculture and Resources Research
b. Forest Products Research and Development Commission
c. Forest Research Institute
d. Forestry Development Center
227. This year (1998), the Society of Filipino Foresters celebrate its _______ anniversary.
a. 50th c. 25th e. none of the mentioned
th th
b. 40 d. 45
228. In what year was the Definitive Forest Laws and Regulations or the Royal Decree of the King of
Spain issued?
b. 1889 d. 1894
229. The provisions in Article II of the 1987 Constitution are mandates, which the State has to
implement. The number of the provisions under the Declaration of Principles and State Policies has
increased to ______ compared to only 10 in the 1973 and 5 in the 1935 Constitution respectively.
b. 20 d. 28
230. It is stated in Section 13, Article II of the 1987 Constitution that the “State shall recognize the vital
role of the ______ in the nation-building and shall promote their physical, moral, spiritual, intellectual
and social well-being”.
a. youth c. women e. none of the mentioned
b. children d. farmers
231. Section 14, Article II of the Constitution reads as “The State recognizes the role of the women in
nation-building and ensure the fundamental ______ before the law of women and men.
a. equity c. justice e. none of the mentioned
b. equality d. rights
232. Section 16, Article II of the Constitution provides for the State protection and advancement of the
rights of people to a balanced and healthful ecology in accordance with the rhythm and harmony of:
a. nature c. society e. none of the mentioned
b. environment d. people
233. Section 21, Article II of the Constitution provides for the promotion of a comprehensive ______ and
agrarian reform.
a. rural development c. land allocation e. none of the mentioned
b. urban development d. enterprise development
234. Section 22, Article II of the Constitution provides that the “State recognizes and promotes the rights
of ______ within the framework of national unity and development”.
a. urban poor c. Indigenous Cultural Community e. none of the mentioned
b. cultural minorities d. upland farmers
235. Section 23 under the Declaration of Principles and State Policies in the 1987 Constitution provides
that the “State shall ______ non-governmental community based of sectoral organizations that promote
the well-being of the nation”.
a. federate c. encourage e. none of the mentioned
b. select d. organize
236. Section 24, Article II of the 1987 Constitution provides that the “State recognizes the vital role of
communication and ______ in nation building”.
a. autonomy c. information e. none of the mentioned
b. investments d. regulations
25
237. Section 7, Article X of the 1987 Constitution provides that “local government units shall be entitled
to an equitable share in the proceeds and development of the national wealth within their respective areas,
in the manner provided by law including sharing the same with the inhabitants by way of _____”.
a. direct benefits c. tax holidays e. none of the mentioned
b. credit d. salaries
238. Which specific part of the Constitution states that “Public office is a public trust”? Public officers
and employees must at all times be accountable in the people, serve them with utmost responsibility,
integrity, loyalty and efficiency, act with patriotism and justice and lead modest lives”.
a. Section 1, Article XI c. Section 2, Article XII e. none of the mentioned
b. Section 7, Article X d. Section 6, Article XIII
239. Section 1, Article XII of the Constitution provides that the “State shall promote industrialization and
full employment based on sound agricultural development and agrarian reform, through industries that
make full and efficient use of ______ and natural resources”.
a. environment c. biological e. none of the mentioned
b. human d. machineries
240. What section in the Constitution states that “All lands of the public domain, waters, minerals, coal,
petroleum and other mineral oils, all forces of potential energy, fisheries, forests or timber, wildlife, flora
na fauna and other natural resources are owned by the State”?
a. Section 16, Article II c. Section 3, Article XII e. none of the mentioned
b. Section 2, Article XII d. Section 16, Article XIII
241. Which of the following categories is not a classification of lands of public domain as provided under
the Constitution?
a. agricultural lands c. forest lands e. none of the mentioned
b. ancestral domain d. mineral lands
242. What particular section of the Constitution provides for the protection of the rights of indigenous
cultural communities to their ancestral lands to ensure their economic, social and cultural well-being?
a. Section 2, Article III c. Section 5, Article XII e. none of the mentioned
b. Section 1, Article III d. Section 1, Article XII
243. It is defined in the Constitution as bonafide associations of citizens with demonstrated capacity to
promote the public interest and with identifiable leadership, members and structures.
a. Bureaucracy c. People’s Organization e. none of the mentioned
b. Board of Directors d. society
244. Section 16, Article XIII of the Constitution states that the “right of people and their organizations to
effective and reasonable ______ at all levels of social, political and economic decision-making shall not
be abridged”.
a. attendance c. participation e. none of the mentioned
b. information d. notification
245. The Constitution provides that the public domain and other natural resources may be utilized or
disposed of in accordance with the principles of agrarian reform of ________.
a. mortgage c. stewardship e. none of the mentioned
b. cooperative d. credit system
246. When did the prohibition of logging in old-growth forests start to take effect?
a. June 1, 1991 c. January 1, 1992 e. none of the mentioned
b. January 1, 1990 d. January 1, 1991
247. The shift of logging from virgin forests to residual forests is governed by DAO No. 91-24. This
order required Timber Licensing Agreement and Timber Production Sharing Agreement holders a _____
estimate on any statistically sound timber inventory on their residual forests.
b. 10% d. 5%
26
248. Except in Palawan and Samar, what is the cutting cycle for second growth forests per DAO No. 92-
12?
a. 25 years c. 45 years e. none of the mentioned
b. 40 years d. 35 years
249. Per DAO No. 93-28 when the logging operations in second growth forests of TLA holders is found
to be destructive, the licensee shall be penalized with a fine of _______ times the regular forest charges
per cubic meter of damaged marked tree.
b. 2 d. 4
250. It provides for the rules and regulations governing the extraction, assessment, processing and
transport of Narra resources.
a. DAO No. 58, series of 1993
b. DAO No. 54, series of 1993
c. DAO No. 59, series of 1990
d. DAO No. 06, series of 1993
251. It is the average per cubic meter price of logs of a given species group at a specified pricing point
for the previous calendar year determined as prescribed in DAO No. 91-65. It is used as basis for
computing forest charges.
a. FOB market price c. retail price e. none of the mentioned
b. shadow price d. wholesale price
252. It prescribes that rules and regulations in the identification, delineation and recognition of ancestral
land/domain claims of the indigenous peoples.
a. DAO No. 02, series of 1993
b. DAO No. 05, series of 1993
c. DAO No. 16, series of 1993
d. DAO No. 19, series of 1993
253. It prescribes the rules and regulations in the management of certified ancestral domain claims of the
indigenous peoples.
a. DAO No. 96-34 c. DAO No. 90-34 e. none of the mentioned
b. DAO No. 92-14 d. DAO No. 93-04
254. The ban in the use of highlead system in dipterocarp forest started in:
b. 1985 d. 1995
255. What is the maximum yarding distance in any logging set-up in second growth forest as prescribed
in DAO No. 03, series of 1992?
a. 1,000 meters c. 2 kilometers e. none of the mentioned
b. 500 meters d. 1,500 meters
256. An order declaring a moratorium on all commercial logging in the province of Palawan:
b. DAO No. 89-04 d. DAO No. 96-34
257. Under DAO No. 46, series of 1992, what species was delisted from the list of premium hardwood
species?
a. Vitex parviflora c. Samanea saman e. none of the mentioned
b. Instia bijuga d. Leucaena leucocephala
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258. DAO No. 56, series of 1992 designated the Pagbilao Mangrove Swamp Experimental Forest in
Pagbilao, Quezon as Genetic Resource Area and ______.
a. National Training Site for Mangrove
b. Regional Mangrove Training Center
c. National Coastal Training Center
d. National Marine Training Center
259. Lands of the public domain which has not been subject of the present system of classification.
a. public forest c. forest land e. none of the mentioned
b. forest reserve d. forest reservation
260. It refers to those lands of the public domain which have been the subject of the present system of
classification and declared as needed for forest purposes.
a. permanent forest c. forest land e. none of the mentioned
b. forest reservation d. public forest
261. These refer to those lands of the public domain which have been the subject of the present system of
classification and declared as not needed for forest purposes.
a. coastal lands c. alienable and disposable lands e. none of the mentioned
b. grazing lands d. watershed
262. It is a forest land reservation established to protect or improved water yield and reduces
sedimentation.
a. critical watershed c. critical watershed e. none of the mentioned
b. watershed reservation d. forest reserve
263. It is an area drained by a stream fixed body of water, its tributaries having a common outlet for
surface run-off.
a. forest land c. slope e. none of the mentioned
b. watershed reservation d. watershed
264. It is a drainage area of river system supporting existing and proposed hydroelectric power, irrigation
works or domestic water facilities needing immediate protection and rehabilitation.
a. watershed c. critical watershed e. none of the mentioned
b. watershed reservation d. degraded watershed
265. It refers to the portion of forest land which is subjected to shifting and/or permanent slash-and-burn
cultivation.
a. kaingin c. communal forest e. none of the mentioned
b. communal tree farm d. ancestral domain
266. Section 17 of PD No. 705, as amended by PD No. 1559 provides that all boundaries between
permanent forest and alienable or disposable lands shall be clearly marked and maintained on the found.
When concrete monuments are used, what should be the interval between two monuments?
a. not more than 500 meters c. between 500 to 1,000 meters e. none of the mentioned
b. less than 1,000 meters d. 500 meters
267. Under Section 24 of PD 705, what is the required intensity of inventory prior to timber utilization in
forest lands?
a. at least 10% c. at least 15% e. none of the mentioned
b. at least 5% d. at least 20%
268. Section 43 of PD No. 705 provides that mangroves and other swamps released to the Bureau of
Fisheries and Aquatic Resources for fishpond purposes which are not utilized or which have been
abandoned for _______ years from the date of said released shall be reverted to the category of
forestland.
b. 5 d. 3
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269. Under Section 48 of PD No. 705, mineral reservations which are not the subject of mining
operations or where mining operations have been suspended for _______ years, shall be placed under
forest management.
a. more than 10 c. more than 5 e. none of the mentioned
b. more than 3 d. more than 2
270. It refers to the development strategy prescribed under Section 51 of PD No. 705 for the management
of forest occupancy.
a. Agroforestry c. Communal Tree Farm e. none of the mentioned
b. Agricultural Development d. Reforestation
271. Forestlands, mineral lands and national parks are considered:
a. inalienable c. alienable e. none of the mentioned
b. disposable d. alienable and disposable
272. Pursuant to RA No. 7161 and based on 1994 FOB market price survey, what is the rate of forest
charges per cubic meter of the Philippine Mahogany group?
a. P3,000 c. P1,000 e. none of the mentioned
b. P750 d. P500
273. Pursuant to RA No. 7161 and based on 1994 FOB market price survey, what is the rate of forest
charges per cubic meter of those considered as premium species?
b. P2,000 d. P5,000
274. Pursuant to RA No. 7161 and DAO No. 95-19, what is the rate of forest charges per cubic meter of
timber cut from planted trees and other forest products harvested from industrial tree plantations and
private lands covered by existing titles and approved land applications?
a. none of the mentioned c. P50 e. all of the mentioned
b. P100 d. P10
275. Which of the following belong to the premium species category?
a. Apitong c. Narra e. none of the mentioned
b. Yakal d. Guijo
276. From the species groupings where the rate of forest charges are based on FOB market price, which
of the following does not belong to the premium species category?
a. Akle c. Ipil e. none of the mentioned
b. Apitong d. Kamagong
of the following does not belong to the premium species category?
a. Molave c. Tindalo e. none of the mentioned
b. Teak d. Guijo
of the following belongs to the premium species category?
a. Yakal c. Tanguile e. none of the mentioned
b. Ebony d. Almon
279. Which of the following does not belong to the Philippine Mahogany group?
a. Bagtikan c. Molave e. none of the mentioned
b. Mayapis d. White Lauan
280. Which of the following does not belong to the Philippine Mahogany group?
a. Tanguile c. Almon e. none of the mentioned
b. Mahogany d. Red Lauan
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281. Which Executive Order mandates the DENR as the primary government agency responsible for the
sustainable management and development of the country’s natural resources?
a. EO No. 192, series of 1987
b. EO No. 292, series of 1987
c. EO No. 278, series of 1987
d. EO No. 277, series of 1987
282. Which of the following is not included in the exemption to the export ban under DAO No. 19, series
of 1989 as amended?
a. lumber produced from imported logs
b. furniture and toys produced from local logs
c. picture frames and decorative articles produced from imported logs
d. wooden furniture produced from local or imported logs
283. It is a privilege granted by the State to a person or a juridical person to occupy and possess, in
consideration of a specified rental, any forest land of the public domain in order to undertake any
authorized activity.
a. permit c. license agreement e. none of the mentioned
b. license d. lease
284. It is a privilege granted by the State to a person or juridical person to utilize any forestland without
any right of occupation or possession.
a. license c. license agreement e. none of the mentioned
b. lease d. permit
285. It is a privilege granted by the State to a person or a juridical person to utilize limited forest
resources or undertake a limited forest activity within any forestland without any right of occupation and
possession.
a. license c. permit e. none of the mentioned
b. lease d. license agreement
286. It is an office established under PD No. 1559 responsible for conducting basic policy researches in
forestry and developing effective machinery for forestry policy formulation and implementation.
a. Forest Management Bureau
b. Forestry Development Center
c. Ecosystems Research and Development Bureau
d. Natural Resources Management Program Office
287. After the EDSA revolution, a government-wide reorganization was undertaken. For the DENR, its
reorganization was implemented pursuant to:
b. EO No. 208 d. EO No. 145
288. It is the primary government agency responsible for the conservation, management, development
and proper use of the country’s environment and natural resources.
a. Department of Environment and Natural Resources
b. Natural Resources Development Corporation
c. Environment Management Bureau
d. National Resources Development Corporation
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289. It is an office attached to the DENR, which serves as the country’s central mapping agency.
a. National Mapping and Resource Information Authority
b. Natural Resources Development Corporation
c. Land Management Bureau
d. Forest Management Bureau
290. It is an office under the DENR, which recommends policies and programs on matters pertaining to
forest development and conservation.
b. Forestry Development Center
d. Environmental Management Bureau
291. It is an office under the DENR, which recommends integrated research programs and provides
scientific assistance in the study and development of technologies relevant in the Philippines ecosystems
and natural resources.
b. Forest Research Agency
c. Environmental Research Office
d. Ecosystems Research and Development Bureau
292. It is an office under the DENR, which formulates and recommends policies and programs on matters
relating to environmental management conservation and pollution control.
b. Environmental Management Bureau
d. Ecosystems Research and development Bureau
293. It is an office under the DENR, which formulates and recommends policies and guidelines for the
establishment of Integrated Protected Areas Systems and preservation of biodiversity.
a. Parks and Wildlife Nature Center
b. Parks and Wildlife Bureau
c. Environmental Management Bureau
d. Protected Areas and Wildlife Bureau
294. Republic Act No. 7586 of 1992 is otherwise known as:
a. National Integrated Protected Areas System (NIPAS)
b. Indigenous Peoples Right Act (IPRA)
c. Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Law
d. Local Government Code
295. Under Section 63 of PD 705, every corporation holding a license agreement, license, lease or permit
within the forest land is required to sell at least _____% of its subscribed capital stock in favor of the
employees, laborers and the general public.
b. 20 d. 10
296. Under Section 70 of PD 705, what is the range of imprisonment to be imposed upon any person who
shall, without authority under a lease or permit, graze or cause to graze livestock in forest lands/grazing
lands?
a. 1 to 2 years c. 6 months to 2 years e. none of the mentioned
b. 3 to 6 months d. 6 months to 1 year
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297. Under Section 69 of PD 705, what is the range of fine to be imposed upon conviction of any person
who commits unlawful occupation or destruction of forest lands/grazing lands?
a. P2,000 to P6,000 c. P500 to P20,000 e. none of the mentioned
b. P500 to P1,000 d. P6,000 to P10,000
298. PD No. 705 declared some areas with slope of below 18% as needed for forest purposes. Which of
the following areas are not include in the list?
a. titled lands which are contiguous with certified alienable and disposable lands
b. those which have already been reforested
c. strips of mangrove of swamplands at least 20 meters wide
d. appropriate located road-right-of-way
299. It is the first Forestry service in the country.
a. Inspeccion General de Montes
b. Bureau of Forest Development
c. Bureau of Forestry
d. Forest Management Bureau
300. It refers to the law that regulates the practice of the forestry profession.
a. RA No. 6293 of January 1971
b. RA No. 6239 of January 1972
c. RA No. 6239 of January 1971
d. RA No. 6293 of January 1972
301. It is a part of the public domain characterized by extreme weather conditions, acidic soil, steep
slopes and poor vegetative cover.
a. rangeland c. pine forest e. none of the mentioned
b. mossy forest d. dipterocarp forest
302. As of 1998, the approximate remaining forest cover is ____% of the total forest land area.
a. 55.1 c. 50 e. none of the mentioned
b. 30 d. 18.8
303. A vision and strategy to enable the Philippines to become a newly industrialized country at the end
of the century.
a. Philippine 2000 c. Social Reform Agenda e. none of the mentioned
b. Philippine Agenda 21 d. Human and ecological Security
304. The principle applied by sovereign powers which recognizes that unless otherwise titled, all lands
belong to the State.
a. Regalian Doctrine c. Social Reform Agenda e. none of the mentioned
b. Colonialism d. Right of Eminent Domain
305. Under the current organizational structure of the DENR, the forestry sector in the regional office is
under the direct supervision of the:
a. Deputy Regional Director for Forestry
b. Regional Director for Forestry
c. Assistant Regional Director for Forestry
d. Regional Technical Director for Forestry
306. It provides for the banning of the issuance by courts of preliminary injunction in cases involving
concessions, license and other permits issued by public administrative officer or bodies for the
exploitation of natural resources.
b. PD No. 605 d. PD No. 1020
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307. DAO 19, series of 1993 governs the implementation of:

a. Community Forestry Program
c. Coastal Environment Program
d. Coastal Community and Fisheries Program
308. Republic Act No. 8371 provide for the creation of a National Commission on the Indigenous People
composed of ______ commissioners.
a. six (6) c. seven (7) e. none of the mentioned
b. five (5) d. four (4)
309. Republic Act No. 8371 recognizes, protects and promotes the rights of indigenous cultural
communities/indigenous peoples. It also creates a national commission on indigenous peoples and
establishes the implementing mechanisms, appropriates funds thereof and for other purposes. This law is
also commonly referred to as:
a. The Ancestral Domains Law
b. The Indigenous Peoples Rights Act of 1996
c. The Indigenous Peoples Rights Act of 1997
d. The Magna Carta for the Indigenous Peoples
310. Including the Autonomous Region of Muslim Mindanao, the Philippines is divided into _____
administrative regions.
b. 15 d. 12
311. It is the corporate arm of the DENR.
a. Natural Resources Development Corporation
b. National Resources Development Corporation
c. National Development Corporation
d. Natural Resources Development Company
312. It is the line of conduct, which the administration of an organization adopts on particular issues. It is
also a course of plan of administrative action.
a. memorandum c. regulation e. none of the mentioned
b. policy d. constitution
313. The Philippine has a total land area of approximately:
a. 30 million hectares c. 20 million hectares e. none of the mentioned
b. 35 million hectares d. 40 million hectares
314. Under the PD 705, no forest land _____% in slope or over may be utilized for grazing purposes.
b. 50 d. 55
315. Which of the following should be given top priority in the disposition of confiscated logs, lumber
and other forest products?
a. needy victims of disasters as certified by the DSWD
b. projects of the DPWH related to the restoration of public facilities
c. school building program of the DepEd, Culture and Sports
d. health centers requested by the DOH in local government units
316. What DENR administrative order covers the rules and regulations for the implementation of the
Community-Based Forest Management Strategy?
b. DAO No. 96-30 d. DAO No. 93-23
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317. Executive Order No. 263 mandates the adoptation of Community-Based Forest Management as the
national ______ to ensure the sustainable development of country’s forest lands resources.
a. strategy c. project e. none of the mentioned
b. process d. system
318. What Article in the 1987 Constitution deals with “National Economy and Patrimony”?
a. Article XII c. Article VI e. none of the mentioned
b. Article III d. Article X
319. It refers to the agreed upon course of action directed towards certain forestry goals and objectives.
a. forest policy c. forest inventory e. none of the mentioned
b. forest planning d. forest management
320. It refers to the issuance by the DENR attesting that a certain project under consideration will not
bring about unacceptable environmental impact and that proponent has complied with the requirements
of the Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) system.
a. Environmental Impact Statement
b. Environmental Clearance Certificate
c. Environmental Compliance Certificate
d. Environmental Compliance Permit
321. It is defined as meeting the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of the
future generation to meet their own needs.
a. sustainable development c. selective logging e. none of the mentioned
b. economic development d. preservation
322. It refers to any solid particulate matter capable of being gas-borne and consisting essentially of fused
ash and/or partially burned materials like coal, wood, bagasse and other combustible matter.
a. fumes c. smoke e. none of the mentioned
b. fly ash d. acid mist
323. It refers to any air-borne colloidal system which is formed by chemical reaction or by any processes
such as combustion, distillation, sublimation, or condensation, and containing particulate matters of size
generally less than 10 micron.
a. fumes c. acid mist e. none of the mentioned
b. fly ash d. smoke
324. it refers to gas-borne particulates resulting from incomplete combustion consisting predominantly,
but not exclusively, of carbon, ashes or other combustible materials.
a. smoke c. fly ash e. none of the mentioned
b. acid mist d. fumes
325. To be sustainable, the rate of _____ of a renewable resource like timber should not exceed
regeneration rate.
a. use c. production e. none of the mentioned
b. conservation d. preservation
326. This element in the traditional practice of shifting cultivation makes the system feasible and
considered sustainable.
a. long fallow period c. crop rotation e. none of the mentioned
b. cropping mix d. small farm size
327. It is a practice in upland farming wherein the land is allowed to rest for a considerable period to
regain its soil fertility.
a. fertilization c. organic farming e. none of the mentioned
b. fallow d. rotation cropping
328. It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing projects or
undertakings and designing appropriate preventive, mitigating and enhancement measures.
a. Sector Analysis c. Environmental Impact Assessment e. none of the mentioned
b. Scooping d. Environmental Impact Statement
34
329. It is an outcome of the 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janiero, the UN statement of environmental
principles towards sustainable development.
a. Global Environment Outlook
b. Agenda 21
c. Conference on the Human Environment
d. Social Reform Agenda
330. It is referred to as the Philippine Environmental Code.
b. PD No. 1152 d. PD No. 1125
331. It was created to provide the mechanism for implementing the principles of sustainable development
in the country.
a. Philippine Council for Sustainable Development
b. Philippine Technical Working Group for Sustainable Development
c. Philippine Agenda 21 Council
d. Social Reform Council
332. This refers to the document(s) of studies on the environmental impacts of a project including the
discussions on direct and indirect consequences upon human welfare and ecological integrity as well as
the appropriate mitigating and enhancement measures.
a. Environmental Guarantee
b. Environmental Compliance Certificate
c. Environmental Impact Assessment
d. Environmental Impact Statement
333. What was established under Presidential Decree No. 1586?
a. Philippine Environmental Impact Statement System
b. Philippine Environmental Policy
c. Philippine Council for Sustainable Development
d. Social Reform Agenda
334. It refers to a project that has high potential for significant negative environmental impact.
a. Potential Project
b. Environmental Project
c. Environmentally Critical Project
d. High Impact Project
335. Per DAO 96-37, a project within an environmentally critical area which has been in operation prior
to _____ which either expanded its daily production capacity or area, or modified its process is not
covered by the Environmental Impact Statement System.
b. 1982 d. 1995
336. Sustainable development is viewed to mean not going beyond the _____ of our environment and
natural resources.
a. carrying capacity c. demand e. none of the mentioned
b. supply d. biodiversity
337. Which of the following is not a principle of sustainable development?
a. ecological soundness c. global cooperation e. none of the mentioned
b. cultural, moral and spiritual insensitivity d. development of full human potential
338. Which of the following is not a principle of sustainable development?
a. maximum production c. participatory democracy e. none of the mentioned
b. gender sensitivity d. ecological soundness
35
339. This is the entire process of organization, administration and procedures institutionalized for
purposes of assessing the significance of the effects of any project on the quality of the environment and
designing appropriate mitigating and enhancement measures.
a. Environmental Risk Assessment
b. Environmental Impact Statement
c. Environmental Assessment System
d. Environmental Impact Statement System
340. It is the stage in the Environmental Impact Statement System where information and assessment
requirement are established or the range of actions, alternatives and impacts to be examined are defined.
a. Scoping c. Initial Environmental Examination e. none of the mentioned
b. Risk Assessment d. Environmental Planning
341. It refers to the document required from proponent of projects located within Environmentally
Critical Area describing the environmental impact of, and mitigation and enhancement measures for the
proposed project.
a. Environmental Impact Assessment
c. Initial Environmental Examination
d. Environmental Risk Assessment
342. It is the result of a process mutually agreed upon by the DENR, key stakeholders, and project
proponent to ensure that the valid concerns of stakeholders are fully considered and/or resolved in the
decision-making process for granting or denying issuance of an Environmental Compliance Certificate.
a. social acceptability c. public management e. none of the mentioned
b. conflict management d. public consultation and hearings
343. Which of the following is considered as Environmentally Critical Area?
a. areas traditionally occupied by cultural communities or tribes
b. major wood processing project
c. geothermal power plants
d. golf course projects
344. Which of the following projects are not covered by the Environmental Impact Statement System?
a. countryside business and barangay entities covered by RA No. 6810
b. smelting plants
c. logging
d. recharged areas of aquifer
345. The formal scoping report required under the Environmental Impact Statement System shall be
submitted by:
a. project proponent
b. stakeholders
d. Support non-government organization
346. In storm prone areas, it is recommended that mangrove forest strips ______ meters wide inward
along a shoreline fronting seas, oceans and water bodies and ______ meter strip on both sides of river
channel for riverbank protection.
a. 50 then 50 c. 100 then 25 e. none of the mentioned
b. 100 then 50 d. 50 the 25
36
347. The enforcement of rules and regulations regarding testing and apprehension of smoke-beching
vehicles and collection of appropriate fees and charges is a function of the:
a. LGU c. EMB e. none of the mentioned
b. FMB d. Pollution Adjudication Board
348. This is a package of interventions which the government shall pursue to ensure the welfare and
integration of disadvantage group or basic sectors of the society into the political and economic
mainstream.
a. Social Reform Agenda
b. Social Reform Agenda
c. Philippine 2000
d. Master Plan for Sustainable Management
349. Under the Community-Based Forest Management Program participating organized communities
may be granted access to forest land and resources provided they employ certain harvesting methods.
Which of the following methods is not recommended?
a. highly mechanical c. ecological sustainable e. none of the mentioned
b. environment-friendly d. labor-intensive
350. The issuance dated May 18, 1996 that prescribes the guidelines and procedures for the prospecting
of biological and genetic resources in the Philippines.
b. EO No. 263 d. EO No. 291
351. What DENR administrative order provides for the implementing rules and regulations on the
prospecting of biological and genetic resources in the Philippines?
b. DAO No. 93-02 d. DAO No. 93-58
352. It refers to the research, collection and utilization of biological and genetic resources for purposes of
applying the knowledge derived there from for scientific and/or commercial purposes.
a. biotechnology c. commercial research agreement e. none of the mentioned
b. bioprospecting d. academic research agreement
353. It refers to identified portions of land and water set aside by reason of their unique physical and
biological significance, managed to enhance biological diversity and safeguard against destructive human
exploitation.
a. buffer zone c. watershed e. none of the mentioned
b. forest reserve d. protected area
354. Pursuant to Executive Order No. 247, when the bioprospecting activity is to be conducted within
ancestral domain, the applicant shall obtain a _______ from the concerned indigenous people in
accordance with the customary laws of the concerned community.
a. prior informed consent c. commercial research agreement e. none of the mentioned
b. prospecting contract d. academic research agreement
355. It refers to the customary utilization of biological and genetic resources by the local community and
indigenous peoples in accordance with written and unwritten usages, customs and practices traditionally
observed, accepted and recognized by them.
a. bioprospecting use c. customary right e. none of the mentioned
b. traditional use d. sustainable development
356. This refers to the Act providing for the establishment and management of a National Protected
Areas System and also known as NIPAS Act of 1992.
a. RA No. 7901 c. RA No. 7161 e. none of the mentioned
b. RA No. 7160 d. RA No. 7586
37
357. The administrative order that provides for the implementing rules and regulations of the NIPAS Act
of 1992.
a. DAO 25, series of 1992 c. DAO 02, series of 1992 e. none of the mentioned
b. DAO 45, series of 1992 d. DAO 23, series of 1992
358. Pursuant to the NIPAS Act, DAO No. 92-27 provides that all mossy forest shall form part of the
National Integrated Protected Areas System and shall be considered as:
a. protected nature reserves c. strict nature reserves e. none of the mentioned
b. wildlife sanctuaries d. buffer zones
359. Which of the following does not fall within the category of protected area under the NIPAS Act of
1992?
a. buffer zones c. protected landscapes e. none of the mentioned
b. strict nature reserves d. natural monument
360. It is defined as a relatively large area not materially altered by human activity, where extractive
resource uses are not allowed and which is maintained to protect outstanding natural and scenic areas of
national and international significance for scientific, educational and recreational uses.
a. natural park c. protected landscape e. none of the mentioned
b. national park d. natural monument
361. These are defined as areas of national significance which are characterized by the harmonious
interaction of man and land while providing opportunities for public enjoyment through recreation and
tourism within the normal lifestyle and economic activity of these areas.
a. protected landscape/seascape c. national park e. none of the mentioned
b. resource reserve d. natural park
362. It refers to the classification of all designated protected areas to maintain essential ecological
processes and the life support systems to preserve genetic diversity, to ensure sustainable use of resources
found therein, and to maintain their natural conditions to the greatest extent possible.
a. National Integrated Protected Areas System
b. Protected Areas Classification System
b. Protected Areas and Wildlife Development
d. Protected Areas Strategic Planning
363. It refers to a forest reservation essentially of natural wilderness character, which has been withdrawn
from settlement, occupancy or any form of exploitation except in conformity with an approved
management plan and set aside such exclusively to conserve the area or preserve the scenery, the natural
and historic objects, wild animals and plants therein and to provide enjoyment of these features in such
areas.
a. Protected Landscape c. Natural Park e. none of the mentioned
b. National Park d. Strict Nature Reserve
364. These are identified areas outside the boundaries of and immediately adjacent to classified protected
areas that need special development control in order to avoid or minimize harm to the protected area.
a. buffer zones c. riverbanks e. all of the mentioned
b. critical watershed d. ecotone
365. Under the NIPAS, each established protected area shall be administered by a ______.
a. Protected Areas and Wildlife Division
b. Protected Areas Management Committee
c. Protected Area Management Board
d. Protected Area Management Council
366. The final decision to include protected areas as integral part of the NIPAS is the function of:
a. Congress c. DENR e. none of the mentioned
b. Sangguniang Panlalawigan d. Protected Area Management Board
38
367. Unless otherwise provided by law, protected areas disestablished by Congress shall revert to the
category of:
a. alienable and disposable lands c. public forest e. none of the mentioned
b. national park d. mining reservation
368. Under the NIPAS Act and its Implementing Rules and Regulations, which of the following is not a
function of the PAMB?
a. supervise, manage and administer the National Integrated Protected Areas System
b. decide matters relating to planning, resource protection and general administration of the
protected area in accordance with the General Management Planning Strategy
c. Control and regulate the construction, operation and maintenance of roads, trails, water works,
sewerage, fire protection and sanitation systems within the protected area
d. monitor and evaluate the performance of protected area personnel, NGOs and the communities
concerned
369. As provided under the NIPAS Act, the members of the PAMB shall serve for a term of ____ years.
a. three (3) c. five (5) e. none of the mentioned
b. two (2) d. six (6)
370. As provided under the NIPAS Act, who shall serve as the chairperson of the PAMB?
a. DENR Regional Executive Director
b. Director, Protected Areas and Wildlife Bureau
c. Regional Technical Director for Environment
d. Regional Technical Director for Forestry
371. Aside from the DENR Regional Executive Director in whose jurisdiction the protected area is
located, who among the other members of the PAMB serves as an “ex-officio” member?
a. Municipal Mayor c. Barangay Captain e. none of the mentioned
b. Provincial Development Officer d. Municipal Agriculturist
372. Pursuant to Section 21 of the NIPAS Act, any person found guilty by a competent court of justice of
hunting, destroying, disturbing, or mere possession of any plants or animals or products without a permit
from the concerned PAMB shall be imprisoned and/or fines in the amount of ______ exclusive of the
value of the things damaged.
a. P5,000 – P100,000 c. P10,000 – P200,000 e. none of the mentioned
b. P10,000 – P100,000 d. P5,000 – P200,000
373. Pursuant to Section 21 of the NIPAS Act, any person found guilty by a competent court of justice of
mutilating, defacing or destroying objects of natural beauty, or objects of interest to cultural communities
shall be imprisoned for:
a. 1 to 6 years c. 1 to 3 years e. none of the mentioned
b. 2 to 5 years d. 2 to 4 years
374. An executive issuance which regulates access to biological resources in the Philippine.
b. EO 15 d. EO 115
375. It is defined as the “degree of nature’s variety and variability described in terms of number,
frequency and type of living organism in a given area including the structural and functional interactions
which they are part of”.
a. bioprospecting c. biodiversity e. none of the mentioned
b. environment d. ecology
39
376. Which of the following is considered as one of the issues associated with the problems of
biodiversity loss or decline?
a. implementation of appropriate conservation measures
b. poverty and rapid population growth
c. adequate support for research on resource inventories, conservation and management
programs
d. appreciation of indigenous culture and knowledge
377. Which of the following issues is perceived as one of the factors contributing to the decline or loss of
biodiversity?
a. information of ethnobiology
b. lack of appreciation of indigenous culture and knowledge
c. adequacy of present methods for studying biodiversity
d. implementation of policies on biodiversity conservation
378. It refers to plantation establishment activities in reforestation which includes, among others,
construction of infrastructure, seedling production, site preparation and replanting, maintenance and
protection, and silvicultural treatments.
a. development planning c. enrichment planting e. none of the mentioned
b. project implementation d. comprehensive site development
379. It refers to activities implemented to prevent and suppress forest destruction particularly those
resulting from illegal logging, squatting, burning and other damages caused by pests or natural
calamities.
a. Forest protection c. Silviculture e. none of the mentioned
b. Forest conservation d. Silvics
380. Buffer zone or “added protection layer” is exemplified by a strip of land along the edge of normal
high waterline of rivers and streams with channels of at least 5 meters wide.
a. 20 meter c. 10 meter e. none of the mentioned
b. 30 meter d. 50 meter
381. Natural or artificial restocking of an area with forest.
a. reforestation c. deforestation e. none of the mentioned
b. afforestation d. regeneration
382. Establishment of a forest on area not previously forested.
a. deforestation c. afforestation e. none of the mentioned
b. reforestation d. regeneration
383. Establishment of a forest on an area recently cleared of forest with insufficient vegetation of forest
area.
a. afforestation c. regeneration e. none of the mentioned
b. reforestation d. planting
384. Reforestation does not aim to:
a. convert existing dipterocarp forest into a plantation of fast-growing species
b. rehabilitate watershed
c. promote production of timber and non-timber forest products
d. enrich logged-over areas
385. It is a decree with requires all citizen to plant trees every month for 5 consecutive years.
b. PD No. 1153 d. PD No. 1151
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386. It is a multi-sectoral group created in each established protected area and vested with powers to
administer the implementation of the Natural Integrated Protected Area System.
a. Protected Area Management Board
b. Provincial Special Task Force on Ancestral Domains
c. Multi-Sectoral Forest Protection Committee
d. Protected Area Technical Working Group
387. These are large rectangular wire cages filled with stones/rocks and which are employed in erosion
control techniques.
a. rip-raps c. weirs e. none of the mentioned
b. A-frames d. gabions
388. After a forest fire has been controlled, it is important that all burning objects such as branches and
stumps be extinguished so that no members are left. This stage of fire suppression is referred to as:
a. direct attack c. mopping up e. none of the mentioned
b. back firing d. cleaning up
389. It is the first reforestation project and was established in 1937.
a. Cebu Reforestation Project
b. Magsaysay Reforestation Project
c. Makiling Reforestation Project
d. Arayat Reforestation Project
390. These are strips of vegetation consisting of mixture of trees, shrubs and vines planted to reduce wind
velocity and can result in decreased destruction on houses, gardens and agri-crops.
a. shelterbelts c. windbreaker e. none of the mentioned
b. windshield d. firebreak
391. This refers to the introduction of valuable species in forest areas where economical species are
lacking to improve species composition.
a. enrichment planting c. regeneration e. none of the mentioned
b. afforestation d. multiple cropping
392. This refers to the removal of undesirable species at an early stage of the plantation to retain only the
best or desired stems up to maturity.
a. weeding c. pruning e. none of the mentioned
b. sanitation cutting d. thinning
393. Thinning must start as soon as crown competition sets in order to:
a. provide enough growing space for the remaining crop
b. avoid growth of climbers
c. prevent the stand from pest and diseases
d. provide windbreak
394. It refers to vegetation of less inflammable species with dense foliage, planted closely around 20-
meter wide which provide protection to fire sensitive stands.
a. firebreaks c. shelterbelts e. none of the mentioned
b. firelines d. contour lines
395. This refers to strips of about 10 meters wide on which all inflammable vegetation is cleared before
the dry seasons to reduce fire hazard in plantations.
a. firelines c. shelterbelts e. none of the mentioned
b. firebreaks d. contour
396. This one way to reduce damage of pests and diseases in the forest whereby infested, dead and
overmature species are removed in favor of the healthy ones.
a. sanitation cutting c. liberation cutting e. none of the mentioned
b. refining d. thinning
41
397. Which of the following is not a fire suppression method?

a. mopping up c. defense measure e. none of the mentioned
b. direct attack d. firebreak
398. This refers to a fire suppression method wherein slow burning is done from a fireline to the direction
of the main fire so that burning ends when both fires met.
a. backfiring c. fireline e. none of the mentioned
b. direct attack d. firebreak
399. Which of the following is a fire suppression method?
a. backfiring c. fireline e. none of the mentioned
b. prescribed burning d. firebreak
400. This refers to a strip of vegetation consisting of a one or more species of plants or trees which serves
as protection of croplands from the destructive effects of strong winds.
a. shelterbelt c. buffer zone e. none of the mentioned
b. firebreak d. terrace
401. Wilderness areas are intended for:
a. environmental protection c. agroforestry e. none of the mentioned
b. timber production d. forage production
402. It is a type of gravity erosion wherein an entire mass of soil moves downhill as a unit without any
evidence of clefts or cracks on the surface.
a. landslide c. sheet erosion e. none of the mentioned
b. soil creep d. rill erosion
403. Deforestation is not attributed to:
a. selective logging
b. public land conversion
c. population increase and provide incidence in upland areas
d. destruction of forest through selective logging methods
404. Which of the following is not cause of forest denudation?
a. reforestation c. firewood collection e. none of the mentioned
b. spread of agriculture d. timber harvesting
405. It refers to a levy being imposed by the government on timber and other forest products cut in a
forestland by a permittee and TLA/TPSA holders.
a. inspection fee c. license/permit fee e. none of the mentioned
b. performance bond d. forest charges
406. It refers to a land that has been depleted of its natural forest cover and is predominantly covered by
grasses, herbaceous species or bare soil.
a. open and denuded land c. degraded residual forest e. none of the mentioned
b. brushland d. residual production forest
407. Which of the following wood products is not allowed for exportation?
a. lumber from government-owned reforestation projects
b. finished wood products
c. semi-finished wood products
d. knock-down finished or semi-finished wood products
408. Following the shift of logging from old growth to second growth forests, high-lead yarding was
banned in dipterocarp forest.
a. ground skidding c. high-lead yarding e. none of the mentioned
b. cable yarding d. ground-lead yarding
42
409. It refers to any forest land extensively planted to tree crops primarily to supply raw materials
requirements of existing or proposed wood processing plants and related industries.
a. Industrial Tree Plantation c. Plantation Forest e. none of the mentioned
b. Tree Farm d. Tree Plantation
410. Which of the following is not a group for cancellation of a SIFMA?
a. failure of the SIFMA holder to develop the area within 2 years
b. The SIFMA holder has transferred his/her rights over the area to another person without the
knowledge and concurrence of the DENR
c. the SIFMA holder has allowed the entry of persons into the area for the purpose of building
residential houses
d. the SIFMA holder cuts or allows cutting of naturally grown trees within or adjacent to the
SIFMA area
411. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to be loyal to the _____, to observe the provisions of the
Constitution and the laws of the land and to protect duly constituted assembly.
a. country c. president e. none of the mentioned
b. family d. flag
412. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to consider ________ and human values as the guiding
principles in decision-making exercise of ability and application of skills, and as a moral responsibility.
a. economic gain c. personal interest e. none of the mentioned
b. public welfare d. life history
413. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to communicate with the public and develop national
awareness of the social, political and economic aspects of forest and to serve as a dynamic agent of
change in bringing about ________ consciousness.
a. forest extension c. forest conservation e. none of the mentioned
b. forest utilization d. logging
414. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to develop and maintain a high professional prestige, uphold
the dignity and high standards of the forestry profession and take pride in its practice; and to put honesty,
integrity and ______ above material and pecuniary interest.
a. confidentiality c. personal interest e. none of the mentioned
b. financial gain d. moral values
415. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to win the respect and confidence of the members of other
professions, respect their opinions, and be willing to ________ with open but independent mind.
a. work with them c. work against them e. none of the mentioned
b. work for them d. dominate them
416. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to respect the interest and integrity of co-foresters and observe
_______ in making comments on or criticism of the ideas and work of colleagues in the profession.
a. pride c. authority e. none of the mentioned
b. prudence d. influence
417. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to be fair and just in dealing with co-workers and subordinates,
to always work for their welfare, use and accept _______ as the criterion for advancement and
recognition.
a. connection c. merit e. none of the mentioned
b. award d. influence
418. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to provide exemplary _______ to employees, clients and
public; to be honest in all dealings while handling properly information classified or confidential.
a. award c. offer e. none of the mentioned
b. information d. service
43
419. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to contribute to forestry knowledge and share knowledge with
other professionals; to develop professionally and be ______ on developments in forestry.
a. up-to-date c. behind e. none of the mentioned
b. critical d. supportive
420. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to always take into account the ecological values and needs of
the ________ in the development of and deriving benefits from the forest.
a. agency c. licensee e. none of the mentioned
b. society d. community
421. Development of ability to project oneself into the feeling of others is necessary for social forestry
field works. This ability is referred to as:
a. sympathy c. empathy e. none of the mentioned
b. apathy d. loyalty
422. A government employee surveyed, classified and recommended the release of a forest land as
alienable and disposable (A&D) contrary to lawful criteria. Which of the following should not be a
scenario after his conviction in court?
a. the employee is promoted c. the employee is imprisoned e. none of the mentioned
b. the employee is fined d. the land that is questioned is not released as A&D
423. Involvement in Social Forestry necessitates understanding of the interaction between the people and
the forest. As such, this task required a good mix of one’s skills and knowledge both in natural and
_______ aspect of forest management.
a. social c. physical e. none of the mentioned
b. biological d. award
424. Refers to the relief features on the walls, ceilings and floors of any cave or lava tube which are part
of the surrounding bedrock, including but not limited to anastomoses scallops, meander niches,
petromorphs and rock penilants in solution caves and similar features unique to volcanic caves.
a. sinkhole c. speleothem e. none of the mentioned
b. vug d. speleogen
425. Provided for the Philippine Environmental Impact System in the Philippines.
a. PD 705 c. PD 7942 e. none of the mentioned
b. PD 1586 d. PD 9003
426. RA 7942 is an act instituting a new system of mineral resources exploration, development,
utilization, and conservation and as known as the Philippine Mining Act of 1995. In what section of its
policy stated that a ten percent (10%) share of all royalties and revenues to be derived by the government
from the development and utilization of the mineral resources within mineral reservations shall be
allotted for special projects and other administrative expenses related to the exploration and development
of other mineral reservations?
427. Private land refers to the land of the public domain which has been classified as agricultural lands
and subject to management and disposition or concession under existing laws. Public lands refers to any
land belonging to any private persons which includes alienable and disposable land being claimed by a
holder, claimant, or occupant who has already acquired a vested right thereto under the law, although the
corresponding certificate or evidence of title or patent has not been actually issued.
a. first statement is true and second statement is false
b. both statements are true
c. first statement is false and second statement is true
d. both statements are false
e. undecided
44
428. It is the mass of lands of public domain which has not been subject to the present system of
classification for the determination of which lands are needed for forest purposes and which are not.
a. forest lands c. public forest e. none of the mentioned
b. permanent forest d. forest reservations
429. A short-term privilege or authority granted by the State to a person to utilize any limited forest
resources or undertake a limited activity within forest land without any right of occupation and
possession therein.
a. license c. lease e. none of the mentioned
b. license agreement d. permit
430. Section 11 of PD 1559 further amending PD 705, otherwise known as the “Revised Forestry Code
of the Philippines” provides that there shall be established in the College of Forestry, University of the
Philippines at Los Baños , in coordination with the Department of Natural Resources and the wood
industry. A Forestry Development Center shall conduct basic policy researches in forest policy
formulation and implementation.
e. undecided
431. The signatory of PD 705 also known as “Revised Forestry Code of the Philippines”
a. Pres. Ferdinand E. Marcos c. Pres. Fidel V. Ramos e. none of the mentioned
b. Pres. Corazon C. Aquino d. Pres. Diosdado Macapagal
432. Cutting, gathering and/or collecting timber, or other forest products without license is prohibited as
amended by Executive Order 277, Section 1, Section 2 of this law further amended PD 705 by adding
Sec. 68-A. Reward to Informants and Sec. 68-B. Administrative Authority of the Department Head or his
duly authorized representative to order confiscation.
e. undecided
433. RA 7942, an act instituting a New System of Mineral Resources Exploration, Development,
Utilization and Conservation, was promulgated on:
a. March 3, 1995 c. April 3, 1995 e. none of the mentioned
b. February 3, 1995 d. May 3, 1995
434. This refers to the document issued by the government agency concerned certifying that the project
under consideration will not bring about an acceptable impact and that the proponents has complied with
the requirements of the environmental impact statement system.
a. IEE c. ECA e. none of the mentioned
b. ECC d. EIA
435. An agreement enter into between the government and one or more contractors in accordance with
section 26 of the Mining Act in the Philippines.
a. Mineral Production Sharing Agreement
b. Co-production agreement
c. joint venture agreement
d. Exploration agreement
45
436. These are lands to be reforested and/or afforested as amended by PD 1559 except:
I. bare or grass-covered tracts of forestlands
II. brushlands or tracts of forestlands generally covered with brush, which need to be
developed to increase their productivity
III. open tracts of forestlands interspersed with patches of forest
IV. private lands
a. IV c. I & II e. none of the mentioned
b. I, II & III d. all of the mentioned
437. Project or program that has high potential for significant negative environmental impact.
a. ECA c. Co-located projects/undertakings e. none of the mentioned
b. ECP d. Project or Undertaking
438. Proclamation No. 176 was declared as the “Year of the Mountains”, and the month of June of every
year thereafter as the “Month of Mountains” in this particular year.
b. 1993 d. 1995
439. The Local Government Code of 1991.
b. RA 9072 d. RA 8041
440. The Chainsaw Act of 2002.
b. RA 7942 d. RA 9175
441. Act provides for the moratorium for the non-cutting of our primary growth forest is provided under
EO 26. It was approved by President Benigno Aquino in February 3, 2010. Which of these statement is
true?
e. undecided
442. Any person caught for actual unlawful use of chainsaw shall be penalized with:
I. imprisonment of seven years and one day to eight years
II. a fine not less than 30,000 pesos and not more than 50,000 pesos
a. I only c. I & II e. none of the mentioned
b. II only d. all of the mentioned
443. Proclamation No. 1481 declared April 22, 1990 as:
a. Year of the Forest c. Ocean Month e. none of the mentioned
b. Year of Biodiversity d. Earth Day
444. The Water Code of the Philippines.
b. RA 1067 d. RA 9003
445. In the year 2012, Society of Filipino Foresters Incorporated will celebrate its _____ anniversary.
a. 27th c. 44th e. none of the mentioned
th th
b. 54 d. 64
446. The only Forester among the Secretary of the DENR.
a. Sec. Jose L. Atienza c. Sec. Ramon Paje e. none of the mentioned
b. Sec. Elisea G. Guzon d. Sec. Antonio Cerelles
447. The Father of Philippine Forestry.
a. George P. Ahern c. Felipe Salvoza e. none of the mentioned
b. Florencio Tamesis d. Luis Reyes
46
448. The year the College of Forestry in UP los Baños was established.
b. 1911 d. 1920
449. The first Forestry service in the Philippines.
a. Inspeccion de Montes c. Inspeccion General de Montes e. none of the mentioned
b. Inspeccion General d. Inspeccion de General
450. The total land area of the Philippines.
a. 30 miles c. 3,000,000 sq. km. e. none of the mentioned
b. 300,000 sq. km d. 30,000 sq. km.
451. Any person who shall provide any information leading to the apprehension and conviction of any
offender for any violation of EO 277 or other forest laws, rules and regulations, or confiscation of forest
products, shall be given a reward in the amount of:
a. thirty per centum (30%) c. ten per centum (10%) e. none of the mentioned
b. twenty per centum (20%) d. all of the mentioned
452. The implementing rules and regulations for the Philippine Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)
System.
b. DAO 1989-123 d. DAO 1999-29
453. Refers to forest lands which have been reserved by the President of the Philippines for any specific
purpose.
a. Mineral lands c. Game refuge e. none of the mentioned
b. National Park d. Seashore Park
454. The standard mapping scale as mandated by the NIPAS Act of 1992.
a. 1:20,000 c. 1:40,000 e. none of the mentioned
b. 1:30,000 d. 1:50,000
455. The merger of the following Forestry agencies created the Bureau of Forest Development.
I. Bureau of Forestry, Reforestation Administration, Southern Cebu Reforestation
Development Project and Parks and Wildlife office
II. Forest Management Bureau, Land Management Bureau, Mines and Geo-Sciences
Bureau and Environmental Management Bureau
III. Bureau of Forestry, FORPRIDICOM, Forest Management Bureau and Parks and
Wildlife Office
VI. Land Management Bureau, Forest Management Bureau and Parks and Wildlife
Office
e. undecided
456. RA 7161 provides for the forest charges of forest products. Its implementing rules and guidelines
are under DAO 2000-63. In what year the implementing rules and guidelines based upon?
b. 2000 d. 1999
457. Which of the following is true based on the rules set by DAO 2004-29?
I. CBFMA is non-transferable
II. in case of death or incapacity of the holder, the instrument shall be transferred to
his/her next kin.
a. I c. I & II e. none of the mentioned
b. II d. all of the mentioned
47
458. The approving authority of CBFM areas more than 5,000 to 20,000 hectares.
a. PENRO c. RTD e. none of the mentioned
b. CENRO d. RED
459. One of the strategies of extension works effective in the Philippines where farmers are brought to
another location with similar situation to their own where viable technology has been developed.
a. Cross-farm visit c. On-farm, Farmer Run Field Trial e. none of the mentioned
b. Farmer Based Extension
460. In forestry, an agreed upon course of action directed toward certain goals or objectives is referred to
as:
a. Goals c. Forest Policy e. none of the mentioned
b. Memorandum of Agreement d. Stewardship
461. The mandatory retirement age for Government and Private employee is 65, while members of the
judiciary is:
b. 60 d. 70
462. A large forest planted to trees crops for the primary purpose of providing the raw materials
requirements of wood processing.
a. Industrial Tree Plantation c. Tree farm management unit e. none of the mentioned
b. Forest Management Unit d. Agro-forest Farm
463. It discourages the recruitment and training of qualified personnel for the organization is a
disadvantage of a:
a. Line organization c. Line staff organization e. none of the mentioned
b. Staff organization d. all of the mentioned
464. The process of allocating land to specific use or combination of uses is called:
a. Land use valuation c. Land use evaluator e. none of the mentioned
b. Land use planning d. Land capability
465. It is a schematic model or diagram which assists the manager to design organizational relationships.
a. Functional chart c. Flow chart e. none of the mentioned
b. Organizing d. all of the mentioned
466. These are lands belonging to the national cultural communities.
a. friar lands c. encomiendas e. none of the mentioned
b. ancestral lands d. homelands
467. The detailed account of statement either written or verbal.
a. summary c. report e. none of the mentioned
b. feedback d. all of the mentioned
468. It is the act of evaluating the employees’ performance and interaction in attaining actual and positive
results.
a. performance target c. coordinating e. none of the mentioned
b. performance appraisal d. performance evaluation
469. It is the process of selecting objectives and developing policies, procedures and programs for
achieving them.
a. Staffing c. Orienting e. none of the mentioned
b. Planning d. Filling
470. A substance that gives evenness of fuel combustion in internal combustion engines which contains
mainly of organic lead compounds and tetra ethyl lead.
a. fuel substance c. lead compound e. none of the mentioned
b. anti-knock additives d. additives
471. A method of solid waste disposal which involves burning of garbage to reduce volume.
a. sanitary landfill c. incineration e. none of the mentioned
b. burning of garbage d. minimization
48
472. Energy derived from hot zones beneath the earth surface.
a. solar energy c. hot molten magma e. none of the mentioned
b. geothermal energy d. volcanic energy
473. The average atmospheric purity as distinguished from discharge measurements taken at the source
of pollution.
a. air quality c. relative humidity e. none of the mentioned
b. ambient air quality d. air density
474. A chemical compound composed of hydrogen and carbon, its largest source is oil.
a. carbogen c. hycarbon e. none of the mentioned
b. hydrocarbon d. all of the mentioned
475. In what particular zone within the NIPAS area where implementation of CBFM is not possible?
a. shelter zone c. buffer zone e. none of the mentioned
b. protected zone d. multiple use zone
476. It mandates the DENR as the primary government agency responsible for the sustainable
management and development of country’s natural resources.
a. RA 277s. 1991 c. EO 291 s. 1987 e. none of the mentioned
b. RA 2481 s. 1990 d. EO 192 s. 1987
477. It pertains to all forest products derived from the public forest land without any supporting official
documents.
a. illegal forest products c. central ban e. none of the mentioned
b. smuggled products d. all of the mentioned
478. Provided for the Philippine Environmental Impact System in the Philippines.
b. PD 1586 d. PD 9003
479. A policy that is repetitive in nature.
a. adopted policy c. formulated policy e. none of the mentioned
b. recurring policy d. imposed policy
480. The classification and administration of all designated protected areas to maintain essential
ecological process and life support systems.
a. National Integrated Protected Areas System
b. Critical Watershed area
c. Community-Based Forest Management System
481. It relates to a group management strategies in which the aspects of local participation and often also
of equitable distribution of forest products are central objectives.
a. Community Forestry c. Forestry Extension e. none of the mentioned
b. Social Forestry d. Agroforestry
482. Any forest management activities undertaken by rural people/community as part of their livelihood
strategies.
a. Community Forestry c. Forestry Extension e. none of the mentioned
b. Social Forestry d. Agroforestry
483. It launched the Integrated Social Forestry Program in July 28, 1982.
a. LOI 1260 c. PD 1559 e. none of the mentioned
b. PD 705 d. LOI 1258
484. It is a rapid, flexible, iterative, systems oriented, cost effective participatory and interdisciplinary
method of site assessment to provide better understanding of the rural situation.
a. Sondeo Method c. Community Self Survey e. none of the mentioned
b. Rural Rapid System Appraisal d. Participatory Rural Appraisal
49
485. A national program designed to maximize land productivity and enhance ecological stability and to
improve the socio-economic conditions of forest occupants and communities.
a. Reforestation program
b. Survey Mapping and Planning
c. Comprehensive Site Development
d. Integrated Social Forestry
486. A contract entered into by and between the government and forest community allowing them to
occupy on a communal basis.
a. Community Forest Stewardship Agreement
b. Certificate of Stewardship Agreement
c. Reforestation Contract
487. An organized program of information, education and service designed to promote awareness of
forest conservation.
a. Forestry Extension c. Forestry Ethics e. none of the mentioned
b. Social Forestry d. ISFP
488. Under the ISFP, stewardship agreement shall have the tenure of:
b. 5 years d. 2-3 years
489. First people-oriented forestry program given to the communities living in the forest lands.
a. Forest Occupancy Management
c. Community Forest Management
d. Timber License Agreement
490. It is an agreement between a person or an organized group and the DENR wherein the person or
group of persons is granted the right to develop, used and sustainable manage a small tract of forest land.
a. Socialized Industrial Forest Management Agreement
b. Community Based Forest Management Agreement
c. Certificate of Stewardship Agreement
d. Tenural Instrument
491. PROFEM II stands for:
a. Program for Forest Ecosystem Management II
b. Project of Ferdinand E. Marcos II
c. Program for Forest Environment
492. Who may qualify as participants/beneficiaries of the ISFP?
a. heads of the families who occupied forest lands before January 1, 1982
b. national minorities of tribal communities
c. land speculators
d. A and B only
493. A policy recognizing and promoting all the rights of the Indigenous Cultural Communities/IPs.
b. RA 9275 d. RA 6147
50
494. The policy that declares of the Philippine Eagle (Pithecophaga jefferyii) as protected bird in the
Philippines.
b. RA 9275 d. RA 6147
495. This refers to a species of subspecies that is facing extremely high risk of extinction in the wild in
the immediate future.
a. Threatened species c. Endangered species e. none of the mentioned
b. Critically Endangered species d. Vulnerable species
496. The members of the PAMB shall serve for a term of five (5) years with compensation and shall be
appointed by the Secretary of DENR. The RED shall act as chairman of the board and whenever there are
two (2) or more REDs in the board, the Secretary shall act as the chairman.
e. undecided
497. Be loyal to the country. Observe the provisions of the Constitution and the laws of the land. Respect
duly constituted _______. Consider _______ and human values as the guiding principles in decision-
making, the exercise of ability and the application of skills. As a moral responsibility to society, insure
that long-term social interest prevail over temporary individual benefits.
a. provisions-public c. laws-publicity e. none of the mentioned
b. authority-welfare d. authority-public welfare
498. What species being exempted as premium hardwoods under DAO 46, s. 1992?
a. Sindura supa c. Samanea saman e. none of the mentioned
b. Pterocarpus indicus d. Agathis philippensis
499. The ability of a system to survive for some specific time.
a. sustainability c. Multiple Use e. none of the mentioned
b. Biological Amplification d. Sustainable Economic Development
500. Which forest include the critical watershed, mossy forest, strips of rivers, streams, shoreline and
reservoir land steep, rocky areas?
a. Protection forest c. grazing land e. none of the mentioned
b. Production forest d. Parks/outdoors
501. Any confiscated wildlife species may be exchanged with other or similar species with DENR
accredited zoos EXCEPT for the following purpose.
a. to promote genetic heterogeneity
b. to propagate the species for commercial purposes
c. to propagate the species for research purposes
d. to maintain species genetic inability
502. Rangeland is a part of the public domain characterized by extreme weather conditions, acidic soil,
poor vegetative cover and steep slopes. In the use of such part of the public domain, emphasis is more on
maximum livestock productivity rather than environmental conditions.
a. the first statement is false while the second statement is true
b. the first statement is true while the second statement is false
c. both statements are true
e. undecided
503. The State shall protect and advance the right of the people to a healthful and balanced ecology in
harmony with nature.
a. Article VIII Sec. 12 c. Article VI Sec. 2 e. none of the mentioned
b. Article X Sec. 2 d. Article II Sec. 16
51
504. It refers to the Article in the Constitution that provides among others for the State protection and
advancement the rights of the people to a balanced and healthful ecology in accordance with the rhythm
and harmony of nature.
a. Article IV c. Article III e. none of the mentioned
b. Article I d. Article II
505. In 1974, Presidential Decree No. 389 otherwise known as the Forestry Reform Code of the
Philippines was promulgated. It was revised in 1975 through the promulgation of Presidential Decree No.
705.
c. both statements are false
d. both statements are true
e. undecided
506. Prior Informed Consent Certificate, per EO 247 should be obtained from ______ if resource to be
undertaken is within protected areas and from _______ if within ancestral lands.
a. ICC – PAMB c. PAWB – local communities e. none of the mentioned
b. local communities – indigenous peoples d. PAMB – Indigenous Cultural Communities
507. RA 8371 refers to _____ while RA 9003 refers to ______.
a. Philippine Mining Act – Philippine Clean Air Act
b. Indigenous Peoples Right Act – Ecological Solid Waste
c. Forest Charges Act – The Public Land Act
d. Philippine Clean Air Act – NIPAS Act
508. The Community Resources Management Framework defines the terms and procedures for the
access, use and protection of natural resources within a Community Based Forest Management Area. It is
also serves as the permit by which the community can access the resources in the area.
a. the first statement is true while the second statement is false
b. the first statement is false while the second statement is true
e. undecided
509. Why is the Philippines considered a megadiversed country?
I. it is a rich area in terms of biodiversity
II. because of the archipelago nature of the country
III. it has a unique set of species/high degree of endemism
a. I and III c. I, II and III e. none of the mentioned
b. I and II d. II and III
510. Which of the following refers to the Forestry Profession Law?
b. RA 6239 d. RA 6932
511. The Filipinization of the Philippine Forest Service started when Jose Viado was appointed as
Director of the Bureau of Forestry. He was appointed to the said position in 1947.
e. undecided
512. Buffer strips are areas with a specified width usually of naturally vegetation serving as ______ of
streams or bodies of water or as _____ between management units of the plantation.
a. boundaries – buffer zones c. protective boarders – boundaries e. none of the mentioned
b. dam – buffer zones d. buffer zones – a model
52
513. Which of the following vehicles can be apprehended?

I. vehicle or craft for transporting illegal forest products
II. vehicles used for temporarily storing of illegal wildlife
III. vehicles used in gathering illegal wildlife
a. II and III c. I and II e. none of the mentioned
b. I, II and III d. I and III
514. It is a person actually and directly occupying and/or cultivating forest land as defined in DAO 88-
75.
a. Forest squatter c. Upland people e. none of the mentioned
b. Forest occupant d. Indigenous people
515. PO “A” is a holder of a Community-Based Forest Management Agreement. It intends to utilize the
standing trees for house construction of members. What should it submit so that it can be given a
Resource Use Permit Per DAO 2000-29?
I. Community Resource Management Framework
II. Annual Work Plan
III. Logical Framework
a. I and III only c. I, II and III e. none of the mentioned
b. II and III only d. I and II only
516. The inception of social forestry in the Philippines in the mid 70’s started with the ______.
a. Establishment of the Forest Occupancy Program
c. Community-Based Forestry Program
d. Integrated Social Forestry Program
517. Gathering, tapping or any form of removal of resources is referred as _______.
a. sustainable use c. selective use e. none of the mentioned
b. multiple use d. extractive use
518. It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing projects or
undertakings and designing appropriate preventive mitigating and enhancement measures.
a. Environmental Impact Assessment
b. Scoping
c. Sector Analysis
d. Environmental Impact Statement
519. Public forests are lands of the public domain that have not been the subject of the present system of
classification. On the other hand, alienable or disposable lands are lands of the public domain that have
been the subject of the present system of classification and have been declared to be no longer needed for
forest purposes.
a. both statements are true
c. the first statement is false while the second statement is true
e. undecided
520. It proclaimed certain areas and types of projects as environmentally critical and within the scope of
the Environmental Impact Statement System established under PD No. 1586.
a. Proclamation No. 740 c. PD No. 1151 e. none of the mentioned
b. Proclamation No. 2146 d. PD No. 1152
521. Who is the National Coordinating Office of CBFM program?
a. FASPO c. FMB e. none of the mentioned
b. ERDB d. PAWB
53
522. If the Philippines has 6M ha. of degraded and unproductive forest lands and only 70,000 ha. on the
average are rehabilitated by the government every year. How many years will it take the government to
rehabilitate the 6M?
523. The kaingin law or ______ focuses on prosecuting and ejection of kaingineros and other forest
occupants form forest lands.
a. Act 274 c. Act 744 e. none of the mentioned
b. Act 472 d. Act 447
524. Mr. Reyes felled 25 cu. m. of Narig and 55 cu. m. of Apitong. If the forest charges per cubic meter
for Apitong and Narig are P1260 and P1400 respectively, how much will Mr. Reyes pay as forest
charges?
b. P2,660 d. P108,500
525. DAO 2008-78, which of the following can NOT apply for a recovery permit for abandoned logs?
a. holder of tenurial instruments c. NRDC e. none of the mentioned
b. LGU d. Filipino Citizen
526. In 1974, Presidential Decree No. 389 otherwise known as the Forestry Reform Code of the
Philippines was promulgated. It was revised in 1975 through the promulgation of Presidential Decree No.
1559.
d. the first statement is true while the second statement is false
e. undecided
527. Which of the following falls under IUCN category II?
a. Scientific reserves and wilderness areas
b. National parks and equivalent reserves
c. Habitat and Wildlife management areas
d. Natural monuments
528. Which of the following services is not considered as being performed by a Forester per RA 6239?
a. teaching in forestry schools
b. preparation and implementation of reforestation plans
c. forest protection
d. scientific conservation and management of forests
529. It is the largest and most impressive of the flagship species.
a. Philippine Eagle c. Philippine Tarsier e. none of the mentioned
b. Tamaraw d. Cloud Rat
530. It refers to the natural or artificial restocking of an area with a forest.
a. reforestation c. deforestation e. none of the mentioned
b. regeneration d. afforestation
531. Cultural change includes all alternations that take place in the total way of life in a given society. On
the other hand, social change refers to variations or modifications in any aspect of a special process,
pattern or form.
e. undecided
54
532. Per Administrative Order 98-41 (1998), the implementation of the Community-Based Forest
Management (CBFM) strategy within watershed reservations must be according to the provision of the
______.
a. EO 192 c. RA 6239 e. none of the mentioned
b. PD 705 d. RA 7586
533. Per DENR No. 19 Series of 1993, when necessary and practical, the buffer zone should cover the
entire periphery of the protected area. If there are limitations, which of the following factors are
considered when determining the size of the buffer zones?
I. the need of the threatened wildlife species
II. the size of the community that is dependent on the resources within the protected area
II. the presence of potential threat like encroachment, etc.
a. I and II only c. I, II and III e. none of the mentioned
b. I and III only d. II and III only
534. Chapter II Section 13 of PD 705 states that mangrove and other swamps not needed for shore
protection and suitable for fishpond purposes shall be released to the Bureau of Fisheries and Aquatic
Resources (BFAR). What conditions will revert these mangrove and swamp areas to forest land again?
a. when said areas are not utilized or are abandoned for the last 5 years
b. when said areas are not utilized or are abandoned for the last10 years
c. when said areas are not utilized or are abandoned for the last 3 years
d. when said areas are not utilized or are abandoned for the last 15 years
535. What document described the environmental impacts of mitigation and enhancement measures a
project in an environmentally critical area?
a. IEE c. EIA e. none of the mentioned
b. Environmental certificate d. ECC
536. Narra belongs to the premium species category. Apitong also belongs to the same category.
e. undecided
537. DAO 2000-63 states that planted trees harvested from industrial tree plantation are not from forest
charges. However, planted trees harvested in compliance with TLA reforestation activities shall be
subjected to 20% government share based on gross sales.
a. statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
c. statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
d. all statements are true
e. undecided
538. Which is NOT a characteristic of biological control on pest management?
a. application of bio-herbicide
b. use natural enemies to attack the pests
c. use crop rotation and fallow
d. use insect phenomena to confuse pests
539. One of the effects of fire in the soil is reduction of acidity. What is the reason?
a. production of ashes
b. release of nitrogen in the air from combustion of organic materials
c. increase of calcium, potash and other substances following burning
d. release of mineral elements that leach down in the soil
55
540. An A-frame is important equipment used in establishing hedgerows on a slope. It is used to

minimize erosion along the hedgerows.
a. both statements are false
d. the first statement is false while the second statement is true
e. undecided
541. These are air-borne colloidal system formed by chemical reaction such as sublimation or
condensation.
a. fly ash c. smoke e. none of the mentioned
b. haze d. fumes
542. With the devolution of Integrated Social Forestry functions to local government units, two model
sites in each province have been retained under the supervision of the DENR. These sites are also
referred to as Center for People power in the Uplands.
c. the first statement is true while the second statement is false
e. undecided
543. It refers to the line of conduct that an organization adopts on particular issues and a course of action
of administrative action.
a. Program c. Policy e. none of the mentioned
b. Plan d. Regulation
544. Backfiring is one of the several forms of fire suppression method. It involves the slow burning from
a fireline towards the direction of the main fires so that he burning ends when both fires meets.
e. undecided
545. What is the scientific name of Maliputo, another fish confines in Taal Lake.
a. Hypseleotris tawilis c. Puntius binotatus e. none of the mentioned
b. Ipomoea aqautrica d. Hypseleotris aqilis
546. Which of the following is not provided for under existing forestry laws and regulation?
a. a conveyance used for the transport of illegal forest products can be released if the owner
thereof can prove he/she has no knowledge in the use of conveyance in illegal activity
b. no conveyance shall be released on the basis of the owner’s lack of knowledge or consent to
the use thereof
c. the procedure in the public auction of forest should also be followed in the public auction of
confiscated conveyance/s
d. before a conveyance can be disposed of, it should first be registered as confiscated by the
DENR with the proper government office
547. Which is NOT true in the following sentences?
a. a fire burning on one side of a narrow canyon can easily spread to the other side of the canyon
b. south and southwest slopes have higher fuel moisture
c. a fire on level ground is primarily influenced by the fuel and wind
d. a fire that starts near the bottom of the slope going up during normal daytime conditions
spreads faster than fire that starts near the top
56
548. It best describes the gap between the “actual” and desired conditions of an individual.
a. variance c. deficit e. none of the mentioned
b. problem d. need
549. The Declaration of Principles and State Policies are provided under Article II of the Constitution.
Section 13 thereof provides, among others, that “State shall recognize the vital role of people with
disability in nation building and shall promote their physical, moral, spiritual and intellectual well-being.
e. undecided
550. A Certificate of Ancestral Domain Claim is issued to an indigenous cultural community. The area
coverage thereof is usually smaller than that of a Certificate of Ancestral Land Claim.
e. undecided
551. Ex-situ conservation is the final means to conserve a species when in-situ conservation fails. Which
is NOT an objective ex-situ area?
a. maintain threatened species in natural areas
b. refuge where species survival is ensured
c. for professional training
d. for basic and applied research
552. Which of the following can be used as markers in establishing boundaries between forest and
alienable and disposable lands per PD 705?
I. infrastructure
II. roads
III. concrete monuments at intervals of not more than 500 meters
a. I, II and III c. II and III only e. none of the mentioned
b. I and II only d. I and III only
553. What Executive Order adopted Community Based Forest Management as a National Strategy to
ensure the sustainable development of the country’s forest land resources?
b. EO 256 d. EO 490
554. It is an approach in conducting social research wherein the researcher observes and record as much
behavior that seem relevant and takes place in the subject’s activities whenever possible.
a. Census c. Participant’s observation e. none of the mentioned
b. Structured interview d. Observation
555. It refers to the classification and administration of all designated areas to maintain essential
ecological process and life-support systems, to preserve genetic diversity, to ensure sustainable use of
resources therein, and to maintain their natural conditions to the greatest extent possible.
a. National Interrelated Protected System
b. National Integrated Protected Areas System
c. Natural Interrelated Protected Areas System
d. Natural Integrated Protected Areas System
556. Derris is a botanical pesticide in the Philippines. It is a _______.
a. shrub c. vine e. none of the mentioned
b. tree d. herb
57
557. Philippine Environment Code or PD No. ______ includes in its provision the implementation of
kaingin management and agroforestry.
a. 121 of 1976 c. 274 of 1978 e. none of the mentioned
b. 1152 of 1977 d. 705 of 1975
558. Which of the following refer to shifting cultivation?
I. generally uses human energy
II. generally has no longer fallow period
III. employs digging stick or hoe
a. I, II and III c. I and III e. none of the mentioned
559. The Protected Area Superintendent of Turtle Islands Wildlife Sanctuary directly reports to _____.
a. PENRO Cotabato c. PENRO Zamboanga City e. none of the mentioned
b. RED Region 9 d. RED Region 12
560. Plants attacked by ______ are evidenced by shriveling of the leaves, premature dropping of the
fruits and die-back of the twigs.
a. Powdery mildew c. Chlorosis e. none of the mentioned
b. Leaf spot d. Gall disease
561. It refers to the strategy adopted under EO No. 263 to ensure the sustainable development of the
country’s forestlands resources.
a. Community-Based Natural Resources Management
b. Community Tree Farm
c. Community-Based Forest Management
d. Community-Based Resources Management
562. In-situ conditions include those where genetic resources exist within ecosystem and natural habitats.
In the case of domesticated species, in-situ conditions include those surroundings where they have
developed their distinctive properties.
b. statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
d. all statements are false
e. undecided
563. If RA No. 7160 is known as Local Government Code of 1991, what is RA 9175?
a. Indigenous People Act of 1987 c. Clean Air Act e. none of the mentioned
b. Chainsaw Act of 2002 d. Tree for Legacy Act
564. The Declaration of Principles and State Policies are provided under Article II of the Constitution.
Section 15 thereof provides that “The State recognized the role of gender in nation-building, and ensure
the fundamental equality before the law of women and men”
b. both statements are false
e. undecided
565. The Community Forestry Program can NOT be implemented in which of the following?
a. mangrove c. Civil military reservation e. none of the mentioned
b. uplands d. Coastal land public domain
58
566. What people-oriented forestry program of the government was formulated through a Presidential
Memorandum on 07 October 1987 which marked the beginning of granting of 25-year tenure security to
participants?
a. Integrated Social Forestry Program
b. Communal Tree Farm
c. Forest Occupancy Management Program
d. Upland development Program
567. Aside from being a citizen of the Philippines, with good moral character and a BS Forestry degree,
what is the other qualification for admission to the Forester Examination per Section 14 RA 6239?
a. at least 21 years old prior to the date of examination
b. at least 21 years 2 months old 2 months after examination
c. at least 21 years of age at the date of examination
d. at least 21 years old within the year of examination
568. What is the highest among the following levels of acceptance of innovation by individual members
of a society?
a. Evaluation of innovation c. Adoptation of the innovation e. none of the mentioned
b. Awareness in the innovation d. Adaptation of the innovation
569. A smelting plant is considered an _______.
a. Environmentally critical project
b. Environmentally compliance project
c. Environmentally impact project
d. Environmentally critical area
570. Maslow has identified five categories of people’s needs in hierarchical order. Which of the
following is the most basic need?
a. physiological c. self-esteem e. none of the mentioned
b. security d. belongingness
571. DAO 91-04 gave Stewardship Agreements under the Integrated Social Forestry Program to which of
the following?
I. those who already have Stewardship Agreement but are still capable to develop another
site
II. forest occupants within the project area
III. tillers of the land to be allocated
a. I, II and III c. I and II e. none of the mentioned
b. I and III d. II and III
572. The amount of fine that may be imposed on any person found guilty by a competent Court of Justice
for hunting, destroying, disturbing or mere possession of any plants or animals or products without
permit from the concerned Protected Area Management Board.
a. P2,000 – P300,000 c. P1,000 – P100,000 e. none of the mentioned
b. P4,000 – P400,000 d. P5,000 – P500,000
573. In 1957, the Forest Product Research Institute was created and attached to the University of the
Philippines. With the enactment of RA 5526 on June 21, 1969, this institute was renamed Forest
Research Institute.
e. undecided
59
574. What is Community-Based Forest Management as adapted by the government under EO 263?
a. Project
b. Social Forestry Program
c. Program for Community Reforestation
d. Strategy
575. Who can issue a wood recovery permit for a net volume of more than 5 but less or equal 15?
a. CENRO c. RED e. none of the mentioned
b. PENRO d. Secretary DENR
576. Deforestation of tropical moist forest in the Philippines is a major concern. Tropical moist forest are
also known to be the richest land ecosystem in biomass and diversity.
b. all statements are true
c. all statements are false
e. undecided
577. The forestland of the country is about 52.94% of the total land area of 30,000,000 hectares. It is
equivalent to:
a. 18,882,000 hectares c. 16,882,000 hectares e. none of the mentioned
b. 15,882,000 hectares d. 17,882,000 hectares
578. It aims to put back what was in the area before degradation took place.
a. restoration c. replacement e. none of the mentioned
b. regeneration d. rehabilitation
579. The width of the buffer zone or added protection layer located along the edge of the normal
waterline of rivers and stream with channels of at least 5 meters wide should be ______.
a. 20 meters c. 10 meters e. none of the mentioned
b. 5 meters d. 15 meters
580. To be classified as a qualified tenure migrant community in a certain protected area, one must have
been actually and continuously occupying portion of the protected area after a period of ______ before
the establishment of the NIPAS Act.
a. at least 10 years c. at least 15 years e. none of the mentioned
b. at least 5 years d. at least 3 years
581. What Chapter and Section of the RA No. 8371 – The Indigenous Peoples Rights of 1997 – states
that with due recognition of the distinct characteristics and identity, indigenous peoples should be
accorded equal protection and non-discrimination.
a. Chapter II Section 3 c. Chapter III Section 10 e. none of the mentioned
b. Chapter VI Section 14 d. Chapter V Section 21
582. Which of the following is the first step in community organizing?
a. Social investigation c. Community entry e. none of the mentioned
b. Project implementation d. Core group formation
583. In 1993, the Convention of International Trade on Endangered Species of Wild Flora and Fauna
(CITES) listed 14 Philippine tree species on the verge of extinction. Many of these trees are hardwoods.
d. the firs statement is false while the second statement is true
e. undecided
584. It refers to a body of written and/or unwritten rules, usages, customs, and practices traditionally and
continually recognized, accepted and observed by Indigenous Peoples.
a. Community claim c. Customary laws e. none of the mentioned
b. Civil laws d. Community regulations
60
585. It refers to the Article in the Constitution that provides, among others, for their protection of the
rights of the indigenous cultural communities to their ancestral lands to ensure their economic, social and
cultural well-being.
a. Article XII c. Article X e. none of the mentioned
b. Article II d. Article XI
586. Tree farming refers to the growing of tree crops. On the other hand, agro-forestry refers to the
system of land management whereby forest and agricultural products are produced on appropriate and
suitable areas simultaneously and sequentially.
b. the firs statement is false while the second statement is true
e. undecided
587. What is the duration of the reforestation contract with families under the Family Approach to
Reforestation Program?
588. What is the role of a registered professional forester in the granting of resource use permits to
CBFMA holders per DAO 2000-29?
a. he assists the PO in the preparation of the annual work plan
b. he monitors the implementation of the activities of PO
c. he spearheads the implementation of the activities of PO
d. he prepares the project plan of PO
589. Which of the following are included as rights to ancestral domains of indigenous peoples per
Chapter III of RA No. 8371 – The Indigenous Peoples Rights of 1987?
I. right in case of displacement
II. right to safe and clean air and water
III. right to resolve conflicts
a. I and II c. I and III e. none of the mentioned
b. II and III d. I, II and III
590. Which of the following serve as guide in the formulation of the Community Resource Management
Framework and Annual Work Plan for CBFM areas per DAO 97-12?
I. participatory approach
II. resource sustainability
III. multiple use of forest management
a. I and II c. II and III e. none of the mentioned
b. I and III d. I, II and III
591. The National Commission on Indigenous Peoples was created pursuant to RA No. 8471. The said
commission is composed of 8 commissioners representing the major ethnographic regions of the country.
a. the firs statement is false while the second statement is true
e. undecided
592. What is RA 8550?
a. Delineation of municipal waters
b. Clarification of opinion No. 62
c. RA revoking DAO 17
d. Includes 15 km of marine waters as part of municipal waters
61
593. It provides that People’s Organizations within CBFM areas shall receive income and proceeds from
the sustainable utilization of forest resources.
b. DAO 96-29 d. DAO 98-42
594. Why is Benguet Pine a recommended species for erosion control?
I. has deep root system
II. does not form a dense canopy
III. can grow on degraded and eroded areas
a. I and II c. II and III e. none of the mentioned
595. Which of the following are fire protection schemes in watershed areas?
I. establishment and maintenance of fireline around watershed areas
II. establishment of greenbelts
III. establishment of networks of fire towers
a. I, II and III c. II and III e. none of the mentioned
b. I and III d. I and II
596. Muyong is the traditional system of natural resource management recognized by the DENR as an
effective forest management system. It is practices by the indigenous people communities of Palawan.
b. the first statement is true while the second statement is false IFUGAO
c. all statements are true
e. undecided
597. Which of the following situations allow the cutting, gathering and disposition of naturally growing
edible fruit trees in private lands per DAO 94-18?
I. it has a private land timber permit
II. it is not within the log ban area
III. the application is supported by a Certificate from the Secretary that the edible fruit-
bearing tree may be cut
a. II and III c. I, II and III e. none of the mentioned
b. I and II d. I and III
598. Planted trees harvested in compliance with TLA’s reforestation activities are subjected to _______
government share based on gross sales per DAO 2000-63?
b. 50% d. 30%
599. It refers the development strategy under Section 51 of PD 705 for the management of forest
occupancy.
a. Community-Based Natural Resources Management
b. Community-Based Resource Management
c. Community-Based Forest Management
d. Agroforestry
600. What is considered the most serious aspect of fire injury to living trees?
a. it increases acceptability to disease and insect attack
b. it makes the trees unhealthy
c. it makes the appearance of the trees not pleasant
d. it eventually kills the trees
62
601. On May 7, 1904, the Forest Act was enacted. It contained the forest policies of the Philippines.
e. undecided
602. Per DAO 2000-64, an inventory of Anahaw palms shall be undertaken at ______ intensity within
titled private lands and at least _______ intensity within forest land.
a. 100% - 50% c. 40% - 60% e. none of the mentioned
b. 50% - 100% d. 60% - 40%
603. Primary forest makes efficient use of soil and climatic resource. Artificial plantations are liable to
disease and pests.
a. all statements are false
b. statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
d. statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
e. undecided
604. What Executive Order was issued by President Arroyo in 2003 directing the Professional Regulation
Commission to effectively adopt the Code of Governance for the Professions in the Philippines?
b. EO No. 220 d. EO No. 200
605. Other than illegal forest product, machinery and equipment, what items are subject to apprehension,
seizure, confiscated and forfeiture per DAO No. 32-97?
a. preserved wildlife c. firearms e. none of the mentioned
b. conveyance d. personal effect
606. Which of the following refer to a forest biome?
I. broadest forest classification unit
II. reflects the ecological characteristics of the vegetation
III. reflects the physiognomic characteristics of the vegetation
a. I and III c. I, II and III e. none of the mentioned
607. Philippine Mahogany is the term used for lumber/timber of the Philippine Dipterocarp in the
international market. This does not include lumber/timber from White Lauan.
a. the firs statement is true while the second statement is false
d. all statements are true
e. undecided
608. If in case there are adverse claimants or any partly alleging conflicting claims over identified
CBFMA, the concerned parties should:
a. file their complaints before the DENR secretary
b. file their complaints before the PENRO within 30 days from date of notification
c. file their complaints before the RED within 30 days from date of notification
d. file their complaints in the court
609. It is the maximum number of animal unit that a given grazing land is capable of supporting without
significant damage to soil, vegetation and watershed.
a. optimum capacity c. maximum capacity e. none of the mentioned
b. carrying capacity d. grazing capacity
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610. Alienable or disposable lands refer to lands of public domain that have been the subject of the
present system of land classification and declared as not needed for the forest purposes. These portions of
public domain include lands with 18% slope.
e. undecided
611. Firelines refers to a strip of about 10 meters wide on which all inflammable vegetation is cleared
before the season to reduce fire hazard in plantations. On the other hand, firebreak refers to vegetation of
less flammable species with dense foliage, planted closely around 20 meters wide, which provide
protection to fire sensitive stands.
e. undecided
612. Buffer zones are established to serve as protective layer for the protected area. During the
delineation of boundary, the team found that the proposed buffer zone is situated within a private
property. As the Protected Area Superintendent, what will you advice the DENR Regional Office which
is in accordance to DAO 25 series of 1992?
a. that the government explores the possibility of buying back land
b. that a MOA be forged between DENR and the owner of the private property
c. that the proposed buffer zone be administered by the DENR Regional Office
d. that the owner be told that it is part of the protected area and that it should be given back to
the government
613. The average annual deforestation rate in the early 1980’s was recorded at _____ ha. per year.
a. 200,000 c. 150,000 e. none of the mentioned
b. 250,000 d. 300,000
614. The Land Management Bureau is the country’s central mapping agency. LMB is one of the line
bureaus under the DENR.
e. undecided
615. It refers to the Act that regulates the practice of Forestry profession in the Philippines.
b. RA No. 6969 d. RA No. 8371
616. Shifting cultivation generally uses human energy and employs digging, stick or hoe. Act No. 274
refers to Kaingin Law.
b. statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false
e. undecided
64
617. Which of the following was embodied in Act 274 of 1901?

a. prosecution of illegal miners
b. prosecution of illegal loggers
c. prosecution of hunters of wildlife in protected area
d. prosecution of kaingineros and other forest occupants from forest lands
618. The years 1994-2003 has been declared by the United Nations as:
a. World Decade of Forest Communities
b. World Decade of Foresters
c. World Decade of Indigenous People
d. World Decade of Women
619. The development and behavior of a forest fire is dictated by heat transfer which is influenced by:
a. temperature and wind only
b. temperature and vegetation only
c. existing climatic and physical condition
d. vegetation and temperature only
620. Income generating activities managed by the Integrated Social Forestry participants within the
Integrated Social Forestry Communities is referred to as _______.
a. marketing strategies
b. community livelihood assistance program
c. upland livelihood enterprises
d. livelihood activities
621. Per DAO No. 50, in case 2 or more parties are requesting for the same forest products, who of the
following has the highest priority?
a. regional projects
b. LGUs which have jurisdiction over where said forest product was taken
c. DPWH whose projects cater to the benefits of the greater number of people
d. needy victims of natural calamities
622. In CBFM areas within watershed reservation, extraction of forest resources is allowed. Priority is
given to which of the following.
I. non-timber species
II. commercial timber
III. lesser-used
a. I and III c. II and III e. none of the mentioned
b. I and II d. I, II and III
623. It refers to the mixture of woody perennials with cultivated crops, pastures, and other agricultural
enterprises.
a. silvipasture c. agribusiness e. none of the mentioned
b. agrisilvipasture d. agroforestry
624. Who can clarify that based on the submitted project description, the project should NOT be covered
by the Environmental Impact Statement System?
a. Regional Office c. EMB e. none of the mentioned
b. CENRO d. DENR
625. Extinction may be caused by isolation, loss of fitness to react to environment change and which of
the following?
a. biotechnology c. inbreeding e. none of the mentioned
b. genetics d. none of these answers
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626. The country has total land area of 40 million hectare. The total land area is equivalent to about
40,000 square kilometers.
b. both statement are true
e. undecided
627. It is the stage of fire suppression wherein after a fire has been controlled, it is essential that all
burning objects are extinguished.
a. mopping up c. backfiring e. none of the mentioned
b. back burning d. complete burning
628. The traditional practice of shifting cultivation is generally considered sustainable. This is due to the
practice of cropping mix and rotation.
b. both statement are false
e. undecided
629. In coordination with other members, who shall be in charge of a semi-annual monitoring of
harvesting activities in areas issued with resource use permits?
a. PENRO c. LGU e. none of the mentioned
b. Regional Office d. CENRO
630. Which refers to Environmental Impact Assessment?
I. it is the process of predicting the likely environment consequences of implementing
projects
II. it is a sectoral analysis of projects
III. it designs appropriate preventive, mitigating and enhancement measures for the
project
631. A program launched by DENR which replaces short term contract reforestation collaboration with
forest occupants and is governed by DAO 23 (1993).
a. Forest Land Management
b. Coastal Management Program
c. Community Forest Management
d. Community-Based Forest Management
632. A forest management program launched in 1989 which include reforestation, agroforestry, rattan
plantation establishment, assisted natural regeneration and timber improvement.
a. Community Forestry Program DAO 123 s, 1989
b. Community-Based Forest Management
c. Forest Land Management Program
d. Integrated Social Forestry Program
633. Fire can kill plants and animals but it is also extremely beneficial. Which of the following are
beneficial effects of fire?
I. source of forest regeneration
II. aids in nutrient cycling
III. hastens change in biodiversity
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634. It serves as the focal agency to implement the National Year of the Forest.
a. Protected Areas and Wildlife Bureau
b. Forest Management Bureau
d. Ecosystems Research and development Bureau
635. All farm lots within the ISF Model site shall be developed as much as practicable as agroforestry
farms per DAO 90-54. The main responsibility for the development of an agroforestry farm lies with the
CSC holder.
a. all statement are false
e. undecided
636. This refers to the land of public domain that has been reserved as such by law to preserve its natural
conditions, maintain its hydrologic quality and restrict public use in the interest of national welfare and
security.
a. National park c. Military reservation e. none of the mentioned
b. Watershed reservation d. Wilderness area
637. The Community Forestry Program can be implemented in civil military reservations. Community-
Based Forest Management activities can be implemented within watersheds.
a. all statement are true
b. statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
d. al statements are false
e. undecided
638. Per DAO 96-29, what will be the penalty of PO for non-compliance with the term of the agreement
despite the lapse of 6 months from the date of notification?
a. suspension for at least 6 months to not more than 1 year
b. suspension to at least 1 year to not more than 2 years
c. suspension for at least 2 months
d. cancellation of agreement
639. This project was undertaken by DENR to rehabilitate and/or reforest 15,000 ha of open and denuded
areas in 8 major watersheds in the country through contractual reforestation and benefiting 7,500
families.
a. Low Income Upland Communities Project
c. National Reforestation Project
d. Forest Land Management Program
640. Controlled grassland burning is a pasture management tool that may be used to:
I. eliminate undesirable weeds and brushes
II. stimulate forage growth
III. improve forage quality
a. I, II and III c. I and II e. none of the mentioned
b. II and III d. I and III
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641. It refers to a forest reservation essentially of natural wilderness character, which has been withdrawn
from settlement, occupancy or any form of exploitation except in conformity with an approved
management plan and set aside as such exclusively to conserve the area or preserve the scenery, the
natural and historic objects, wild animals and plants therein and to provide enjoyment of these features in
such area.
a. National park c. Protected landscape/seascape e. none of the mentioned
b. Natural park d. Game refuge
642. Who sign the Deed of Donation document for wildlife species?
a. PAWB Director and Donee c. RED and Donee e. none of the mentioned
b. Secretary and Donee d. CENRO and Donee
643. The prohibition of logging in old-growth forest areas took effect in January 1, 1992. This means that
harvesting of trees is NOT allowed in secondary forests.
e. undecided
644. Neem tree is a botanical pesticide for ______.
a. animals c. rats e. none of the mentioned
b. mites d. insects
645. What was created through EO 10 to help fulfill the Philippines commitments to the Convention on
Biological Diversity?
a. Philippine Council for Sustainable Development
b. Committee on Biological Diversity
c. Philippine Strategy for Biological Diversity
d. Palawan Council for Biodiversity Conservation
646. Per DAO 2000-63, planted trees from industrial tree plantations are exempted from forest charges.
Planted trees harvested from the reforestation activities should give 10% gross sales as government share.
b. statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
c. all statements are false--
d. all statements are true--
e. undecided
647. It refers to the maximum aggregate size that an Industrial Forest Management Agreement holder can
have in case he/she has more than one IFMA.
a. 30,000 hectares c. 10,000 hectares e. none of the mentioned
b. 20,000 hectares d. 40,000 hectares
648. Based on DAO 2000-83, which island group shall NOT be alienated nor disposed of for any
purpose?
a. islands 500-5,000 ha. in area
b. islands above 5,000 up to 50,000 ha.
c. islands less than 500 ha. in area
d. islands with area of 250 ha. or less--
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649. Which of the following is not categorized under the Forest Management and Products Development
Program in the Masters Plan for Forestry Development?
a. Integrated Protected Areas System and Biodiversity Conservation
b. Soil Conservation and Watershed Management
c. Forest Plantations and Tree Farms
d. Non-Wood Forest-Based Industries
650. RA No. 7596 provides for the establishment and management of the National Integrated Protected
Areas System. Under this Law, each established protected area shall be administered by the Protected
Area Management Council.
b. the first statement is true while the second statement false
c. both statement are false
e. undecided
651. Permanent forests are lands of the public domain that have not been the subject of the present
system of classification. On the other hand, public forests are lands of the public domain that have been
declared as needed for forest purposes.
b. the first statement is true while the second statement false
c. both statement are false
e. undecided
652. Which of the following does not help in limiting build-up of “greenhouse” gasses?
a. sustainable forest management
b. limiting methane emissions
c. development of solar, wind and water energy systems
d. increased consumption of fossil fuels
653. Harvesting in CBFM areas naturally grown forest resources shall be covered by resource use permit.
Extraction of forest products along gullies and river channels should be allowed only upon approval of
the RED.
a. the two statements are false
b. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
c. the two statements are true
d. the first statement is false, the second statement is true
e. undecided
654. DENR Administrative Order No. 2003-11 repeals which of the following provision of DAO 96-29
related to Community-Based Forest Management Agreement (CBFMA)?
a. application for CBFMA
b. overall monitoring of CBFMA
c. cutting of tree in CBFMA areas
d. livelihood options provided to upland people
655. Forest fires maybe classified as ground fire, surface fire, or a combination of these. Which of the
following are characteristics of ground fire?
a. it is the most common type of forest fire
b. it is easy to detect
c. it is usually occur in steep slopes
d. it has no flame but with little smoke
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656. One of the specific criteria for the Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) System is the
characteristics of the project or undertaking. What is NOT considered under this?
a. use of natural resources
b. generation of waste
c. conformity of the proposed project to existing land use
d. size of the project
657. It is believed that “paradigm shift” is a sequence of “paradigm crisis”. Which of the following is not
among the identified symptoms of paradigm crisis?
a. questioning of old practices
b. rapid spread of new experiments
c. ability of the paradigm to explain and solve extant problems
d. blurring of traditional values
658. It refers to the date when the Forest Research Institute was created pursuant to PD No. 607.
a. December 18, 1975 c. December 18, 1973 e. none of the mentioned
b. December 18, 1976 d. December 18, 1974
659. It refers to the use of resources where the resource is no longer used as input to production of other
goods and services.
a. final consumption c. resource use e. none of the mentioned
b. extractive use d. fuel wood
660. What Executive Order mandated the DA-DAR-DENR Convergence initiative to develop a National
Greening Program in cooperation with DepEd, CHED, DSWD, DBM and other concerned agencies and
institutions?
a. EO 32 series of 2011 c. EO 26 series of 2011 e. none of the mentioned
b. EO 23 series of 2011 d. EO 125 series of 2011
661. This refers to the remedy usually resulted to the owners of possessors of forest products and more
so, owners of conveyances administratively seized or confiscated to recover the forest products and
conveyance/s.
a. Motion for Reconsideration c. Replevin e. none of the mentioned
b. Motion to Dismiss d. Temporary Restraining Order
662. It best describes the spirit of collaboration in accomplishing activities among members of the
community.
a. Voluntarism c. Involvement e. none of the mentioned
b. Interaction d. Collectivism
663. If premium species are allowed to be cut, how much is the forest charges per cu. m. if it comes from
Mindanao (DAO No. 2000-63)?
a. P1400 c. P1500 e. none of the mentioned
b. P1000 d. P3000
664. Which of the following factors must be met in order that an infested forest area is considered
qualified for sanitation cutting?
I. the risk potential of the infestation to spread to more valuable portions of the forests
II. the possible creation of fire hazards
III. the value and merchantability of trees to be cut
a. II and III c. I and II e. none of the mentioned
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665. One of the purposes of administrative seizure proceedings is to determine if prima facie case exists
to hold the items. When is prima facie case established?
I. when the offense has been committed
II. the evidence is probably quitly
III. the items delivered are the proceeds of violation
a. I and II c. I and III e. none of the mentioned
b. II and III d. I, II and III
666. What is the role of CENRO in the preparation/processing of the community resource management
framework under CBFM program?
a. Approval c. Preparation e. none of the mentioned
b. Implementation d. Affirmation
667. Which of the following is not a tenurial instrument under the Community Based Forest Management
Program?
a. CBFM Agreement
b. Certificate of Stewardship Contract
c. Forest Occupancy Management Permit
d. Certificate of Ancestral Domain
668. It refers to the element in the traditional practice of shifting cultivation that makes such system
sustainable and friendly to the land?
a. Monocropping c. Long fallow period e. none of the mentioned
b. Short fallow period d. Monoculture
669. The Ecosystems Research and Development Bureau resulted from the merging of the Forest
Products Research and Industries Development Commission and the National Mangrove Committee by
virtue of EO No. 192. The ERDB is at present one of the line bureaus under the DENR.
e. undecided
670. The establishment and management of CBM projects in mangrove areas shall be in accordance with
DAO 96-29. The same is true with mangrove areas in protected areas.
a. the first statement is false, the second is true
b. the two statements are false
c. the two statements are true
d. the first statement is true, the second is false
e. undecided
671. It refers to species in which the evolutionary process has been influenced by human to meet their
needs.
a. Domesticated species c. Living and modified organism e. none of the mentioned
b. Genetically modified species d. Genetic material
672. Wind speed _______ the angle between the flames and the ground by making the flame _____.
a. reduces-forward c. increases-backward e. none of the mentioned
b. increases-forward d. maintains-stand still
673. It is usually confined to the wild relatives of plants and animals that are of economic importance.
a. genetic areas c. selected protected areas e. none of the mentioned
b. Living modified organism d. Nowhere in protected area
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674. In conformity with RA 7586, bioprospecting of biological and genetic resources shall be allowed
_____.
a. in national parks only
b. all categories of protected areas
c. selected protected areas
d. nowhere in protected areas
675. What is the difference between an Initial Environmental Examination (IEE) Report and the
Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)?
a. EIS aids proponents in incorporating environmental considerations while IEE does not
b. EIS is concerned primarily with assessing the direct impacts of a project while IEE is not
c. IEE has reduced details of data and depth of assessment than EIS
d. IEE has more details of data and depth of assessment than EIS
676. These are lands of public domain that have been subjected to the present system of classification and
have been declared to be no longer needed for forest purposes.
a. forest lands c. pasture lands e. none of the mentioned
b. grasslands d. alienable and disposable lands
677. Per DAO 90-54, in the zonification of the upland farms within the ISF Model Site, areas with a
slope of 25-50%can be classified as livestock or orchard production areas. Areas within the farm with a
slope of more than 50% can be classified as forest crops production area.
a. the first statement is false, the second is true
d. the first statement is true, the second is false
e. undecided
678. It refers to the variability among forest living organisms and the ecological processes of which they
are part. This includes diversity in forest within species, between species and ecosystem.
a. Biological diversity c. Genetic resources e. none of the mentioned
b. Forest biological diversity d. Key biodiversity
679. The Water Code of the Philippines refers to ______.
a. RA 8371 c. DAO 2000-03 e. none of the mentioned
b. PD 1067 d. RA 7076
680. Which of the following are aims of the National Greening Program?
I. contributes in reducing poverty of all people of the Philippines
II. implements sustainable management of natural resources
III. mitigates climate changes
681. An A-frame is important equipment used in establishing hedgerows on a slope. It is used to
determine the direction and location of the contour lines.
a. the first statement is true while the second is false
c. the first statement is false while the second is true
e. undecided
682. It refers to movement of surface soil downhill at an imperceptible rate.
a. gully erosion c. creep e. none of the mentioned
b. rill erosion d. earth flow
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683. All CBFM agreements within protected areas shall be endorsed by the PAMB. The Regional
Director approves the CBFM agreement.
a. the first statement is false while the second is true
c. the first statement is true while the second is false
e. undecided
684. The Community-Based Forest Management strategy provides for the integration of all people-
oriented forestry projects. One of the tenurial instrument that may be under the said strategy is the Forest
Occupancy Management Permit.
d. the first statement is false while the second is true
e. undecided
685. It refers to the Article in Constitution that provides, among others, the promotion of industrialization
and full employment based on sound agricultural development and agrarian reform, though industries
that make full and efficient use human and natural resources.
a. Article XI c. Article XII e. none of the mentioned
b. Article XIII d. Article II
686. Apprehension is the initial measure taken by the DENR when probable illegal forest products are
found or intercepted and are put under temporary possessions and control by authorized officers. On the
other hand, seizure is the official act of taking illegal forest products into government custody pending
formal administrative proceedings for its disposition.
b. the first statement is false while the second is true
e. undecided
687. He ordered in EO 263 that Community-Based Forest Management shall be the national strategy to
achieve sustainable forestry and social justice.
a. President Ramos c. President Aquino e. none of the mentioned
b. President Estrada d. President Marcos
688. When was the Philippine Clean Air Act enacted into law?
a. 23 June 1999 c. 27 June 1997 e. none of the mentioned
b. 15 September 1992 d. 21 June 1992
689. Who are authorized to disposed forest products confiscated of the government NOT exceeding
P500,000?
a. DENR RED c. DENR PENRU e. none of the mentioned
b. DENR FMB d. Regional Committee on Bid and Awards
690. Buffer zones promote sustainability of use of wild plants and animal species by local communities.
They provide extra protection against storm damage.
d. the first statement is true while the second is false
e. undecided
691. Which of the following is NOT an example of organic farming method?
a. use of animal manure c. use of commercial fertilizer e. none of the mentioned
b. mulching d. green manuring
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692. It embodies rules for administrative apprehension, seizure, confiscation and disposition of illegally
possessed, cut, gathered or transported forest products.
a. DENR AO No. 74-87 c. DENR AO No. 58-93 e. none of the mentioned
b. DENR MC No. 22-90 d. DENR AO No. 32-97
693. Amendments to PD 705 – Revised Forestry Code are embodied in ______.
b. PD 953 d. PD 1552
694. Tenured Migrant are those have actually and continuously occupied the area 10 years before the
designation of such protected area in accordance with the NIPAS Act. They are solely dependent on the
resources for subsistence.
d. the first statement is true while the second is false
e. undecided
695. It refers to felled trees bucked into convenient length of at least 1.5 meters, with at least 15 cm. in
diameter.
a. lumber c. flitches e. none of the mentioned
b. roundwood d. log
696. Including the Autonomous Region of Muslim Mindanao, the Philippines is divided into sixteen
regions. One of these regions is CAR which stands for Cordillera Administrative Region.
b. the first statement is true while the second is false both statements are false
e. undecided
697. Which of the following are objectives of RA 6713 – an Act establishing the Code of Conduct and
Ethical Standards?
I. to uphold the time honoured principle of public office
II. granting the incentives and rewards
III. providing penalties violations
a. II and III c. I and III e. none of the mentioned
b. I and II d. I, II and III
698. It refers to the controlled use and systematic protection of natural resources.
a. reservation c. protection e. none of the mentioned
b. conditioning d. conservation
699. Which of the following lands of the public domain can be used in the implementation of the
National Greening Program?
I. forestlands
II. ancestral domains
III. urban areas
a. I and II c. I, II and III e. none of the mentioned
b. I and III d. II and III
700. A recent study in the forest service reported that each year, the urban tree canopy removes 15 tons of
carbon monoxide, 84 tons of sulfur oxide, 89 tons of nitrogen dioxide, 19 tons of ozone and 212 tons of
particulates. How much ozone will be absorbed by trees in 5 years?
a. 420 tons c. 848 tons e. none of the mentioned
b. 95 tons d. 445 tons
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701. Republic Act 9275 is also known as:

a. Philippine Clean Air Act of 2004
b. Philippine Water Act of 2004
c. Philippine Water Act of 2000
702. Which is not included in state policy?
a. promote environmental strategies for the protection of water resources
b. promote commercial and industrial processes and products that are environmental friendly
c. to encourage the civil society and other sectors not to address environmental issues and
problems
703. Section 4 of RA 9275 refers to:
a. declaration of policy c. coverage of act e. none of the mentioned
b. definition of terms d. all of the mentioned
704. It refers to the utilization of water for producing agricultural crops.
a. for irrigation c. for municipal purposes e. none of the mentioned
b. for power generation d. all of the mentioned
705. It refers to the subsurface water that occurs beneath a water table in soils and rocks, or in geological
functions.
a. fresh water c. mineral water e. none of the mentioned
b. ground water d. all of the mentioned
706. It refers to any means of unauthorized or illegal disposal into any body of water.
a. dumping c. discharge e. none of the mentioned
b. effluent d. all of the mentioned
707. Refers to any means of discharge from known source that is passed into a body of water or land.
a. dumping c. discharge e. none of the mentioned
b. effluent d. all of the mentioned
708. Refers to any means of any waste of solid, liquid, contained gaseous that contribute to adverse acute
or chronic effects on the health of persons or organisms.
a. industrial waste c. commercial waste e. none of the mentioned
b. hazardous waste d. all of the mentioned
709. Refers to any substance, whether solid, liquid, contained gaseous or radioactive that are directly and
indirectly affect the environment.
a. pollution c. pollutant e. none of the mentioned
b. hazardous waste d. all of the mentioned
710. Refers to any means of sludge produced on individual on-site wastewater disposal system,
principally septic tanks and cesspools.
a. septage c. sludge e. none of the mentioned
b. sewage d. all of the mentioned
711. Refers to human or animal waste, excluding oil or oil waste that is removed from residence building
or institutions.
712. Refers to the waste generated from a wastewater treatment plant whether in the form of solid, semi-
solid or liquid.
75
713. Refers to the methods or technique designed to alter the physical, chemical, biological, radiological
characteristics of any waste to reduce or prevent pollution.
a. treatment c. water pollution e. none of the mentioned
b. toxic waste e. all of the mentioned
714. It means any alteration of physical, chemical, biological or radiological properties of water body
resulting in the impairment of its purity.
a. treatment c. water pollution e. none of the mentioned
b. toxic waste d. all of the mentioned
715. Who is/are not included as member of technical support on the governing board?
a. member of Philippine Bar; biologist, geologist, civil engineer, hydrologist
b. chemical engineer, chemist, sanitary engineer, environmental engineer
c. from LLDA
a. management of non-attainment areas
b. national sewerage and septage management program
c. domestic sewage collection, treatment and disposal
a. clean up operation
b. restoration and rehabilitation of resources
c. board of salary and incentives
718. Article 2 of RA 9275 refers to:
a. clean water pollution permits and charges
b. financial stability and mechanism
c. general provision
a. water quality variance for geothermal and oil and gas exploitation
b. the area water quality management fund
c. categories of industry sector
a. discharge permits c. wastewater charge system e. none of the mentioned
b. clean up operation d. all of the mentioned
a. discharge permit c. watershed charge system e. none of the mentioned
b. clean up operation d. all of the mentioned
722. Which is not included to the lead agency functions?
a. prepare a national water quality status report within 12 months
b. prepare a 10 years water quality management area action plan within 12 months
c. enforce, review and revise within 24 months from the effectivity of this act
76
723. Which is not included to the function of LGU in RA 9275?

a. monitoring of water quality
b. emergency response
c. coordinate with the local agency and uncivil society
724. Section 22 of RA 9275 entitled Linkage Mechanism. Which is not a linkage?
a. Philippine coast guards; DA, BFAR, DepEd, CHEd
b. DPWH, MWSS, LWUA, DOH, DOST
c. DILG, LGU, DAR
a. rewards c. civil liability e. none of the mentioned
b. incentive schemes d. all of the mentioned
726. Chapter 4 of RA 9275 refers to:
a. institutional mechanism c. incentives and rewards e. none of the mentioned
b. administrative action d. all of the mentioned
a. prohibited acts c. fines, damages and penalties e. none of the mentioned
b. administrative action d. all of the mentioned
728. Which are the true fines in RA 9275?
a. less than 10,000 to not more than 200,000
b. more than 10,000 to not less than 200,000
c. more than 10,000 to not more than 200,000
729. Which are not the true penalties in RA 9275?
a. imprisonment of less than 2 years not more than 4 years
b. imprisonment of not less than 6 years but more than 12 years
c. imprisonment of more than 2 years but not less than 4 years
730. Which is not included to the fines and penalties of Section 4 of PD 979?
a. fines not less than 50,000 nor more than 1,000,000
b. imprisonment of not less than 1 year nor more than 6 years
c. imprisonment of less than 1 year and more than 6 years
731. The title of republic Act 8749 is:
a. Philippine Clean Air Act of 1998
b. Philippine Clean Air Act of 2000
c. Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999
732. Which statement is not true on the declaration of policy?
a. the state shall promote and protect the global environment
b. the state recognizes the responsibility of cleaning the habitat
c. the state recognizes that pollutant must be paid
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733. Section 50 of RA 8749 state the appropriations, which figure is not true?
a. 750,000,000 shall be appropriated for the initial implementation of this act
b. 150,000 shall be given to DOTC
c. 300,000 shall be given to DENR
734. The gross violation in RA 8749 means:
a. more specific offense for a period of 3 alternate years
b. more specific offense for 3 consecutive years
c. more specific offense within the period of one year
735. Which is not true penalty and fines in Sec. 46 Violation of Motor Vehicles?
a. fine not exceed 2,000
b. fine not less than 2,000 but not exceed 4,000
c. fine less than 4,000 but exceed 6,000
736. The gross violators in RA 8749 must be imprison for:
a. 6 years but more than 10 years
b. 6 years but not more than 10 years
c. 6 to 10 years
737. The title of Section 6 of RA 8749 is:
a. integrated air quality improvement framework
b. air quality control plan
c. air quality monitoring information network’
738. Which statement is not included in air quality action plan?
a. provide devices monitor and analyses the data
b. enforce emission limitations and other control measures
c. not to designate air sheds
a. air sheds c. air quality control techniques e. none of the mentioned
b. emission charge system d. all of the mentioned
a. air quality management fund
b. air quality control techniques
c. Emission charge system
741. Section 20 of RA 8749 refers to Ban in Incineration. Which is not included?
a. Burning of municipal waste
b. Small scale community sanitation
c. Bio-medical and hazardous waste
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742. Article IV of RA 8749 refers to:

a. Pollution from motor vehicles
b. Basic air quality policies
c. Pollution from sanitary resources
743. Which is not the function of DOTC in RA 8749?
a. Implement the emission standard for motor vehicle
b. Banning incineration
c. Revise, review and publish the emission standard every two years
744. The effectivity of the emission standard of motor vehicle shall be effective by the year:
a. 1999 c.2003 e. none of the mentioned
b. 2001 d. 2005
745. Which is not true in Section 22, regulations of all motor vehicle and engines?
a. any imported or newly assembled vehicles shall not register unless it does not complies with
the emission standards
b. any imported or newly vehicle engines shall not be introduced to market unless it complies the
emission standards
c. in non-compliance, the importer is allowed to rebuild or modify the vehicular engine so it will
be in compliance with emission standards
746. Section 24 refers to smoking, which area is not covered by smoking pollution ban?
a. Outside of residence area
b. Public places, mall, public vehicles
c. Outside/inside residence area
747. Section 25 of this act refers to:
a. Fuels and additives
b. pollution from other mobile sources
c. Misfueling
748. Which statement is true?
a. not later than 18 months selling of fuel which contains 0.30% sulfur is prohibited
b. not later than 18 months manufacture, sell of fuel contains AKl is prohibited
c. not later than 18 months
a. Greenhouse gases
b. President organic pollutants
c. Ozone depleting substance
750. Which is not included to the list of President Organic Pollutants (POP)?
a. Dioxins c. furans e. none of the mentioned
b. CO2 d. Toxin
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751. Department who is responsible in monitoring the meteorological factors that affect the
environmental condition.
a. DENR c. PAGASA e. none of the mentioned
b. DOTC d. NEDA
a. establishment of ENRO in every province and municipality
b. establishment of PAMB in every province and municipality
c. establishment of FMB in every province and municipality
753. Which is the primary role of LGUs according to Section 36 of this Act?
a. responsible in managing and maintenance of air quality standard within his area
b. responsible in managing and maintenance of air quality standard within the region
c. responsible in managing and maintenance of air quality standard within the country
754. Which department is not included in Section 39 EIC of RA 8749?
a. DECS and DA c. DILG and PIA e. none of the mentioned
b. University, colleges and DTI d. all of the mentioned
a. Administrative action c. Citizens suit e. none of the mentioned
b. Independence of action d. all of the mentioned
756. The total number of the commission that constitute a quorum.
b. 4 d. 10
757. Which is not true statement in RA 9003?
a. the laws require the establishment of waste management board and MRF in Barangay
b. the laws require the establishment of waste management board and MRF in every province,
city and municipality
c. the laws require the establishment of waste management board in every province, city and
municipality
758. It refers to the utilization of water for producing agricultural crops.
a. for irrigation c. for power generation e. none of the mentioned
b. for municipal purposes d. recreation
759. It refers to household hazardous waste such as paints, thinners, household batteries and the like.
a. special waste c. waste diversion e. none of the mentioned
b. hazardous waste d. sludge
760. It refers to the subsurface water occurs beneath a water table in soils and rocks, or in geological
functions.
a. fresh water c. mineral water e. none of the mentioned
b. ground water d. creek
761. An activity that reduce or eliminate the amount of solid waste from disposal facilities.
a. Special waste c. Waste diversion e. none of the mentioned
b. Hazardous waste d. Wastewater
762. It refers to any means unauthorized or illegal disposal into any body of water.
a. Dumping c. Discharge e. none of the mentioned
b. Effluent d. Sludge
80
763. Section 4 of RA 9003 is referring to:

a. Power and function of the commission
b. Meeting
c. National solid waste management commission
d. Consultation
764. Refers to any means of discharge from known source that is passed into a body of water or land.
a. Dumping c. Discharge e. none of the mentioned
b. Effluent d. Sludge
a. Financial liability c. Clean-up operation e. none of the mentioned
b. Programmatic EIA d. Waste
766. Refers to any means of waste solid, liquid, gaseous that contribute to adverse acute or chronic
effects on the health of persons or organisms.
a. Industrial waste c. Hazardous waste e. none of the mentioned
b. Commercial waste d. Waste
767. FEZA Law is also known as:
b. RA 9167 d. RA 7256
768. Refers to any substance, whether solid, liquid, gaseous or radioactive that are directly and indirectly
affected to the environment.
a. Pollution c. Pollutant e. none of the mentioned
b. Hazardous waste d. Particulate
769. Republic Act 7160 is known as:
a. Provincial Government Unit Act
b. Local Government Unit Act
c. Municipal Government Act
d. Provincial Act
770. Refers to any means of sludge produced on individual on-site wastewater disposal system,
principally specific tanks and cesspools.
a. Septage c. Sludge e. none of the mentioned
b. Sewage d. all of the mentioned
a. Organization of the commission c. Meeting e. none of the mentioned
b. Power and duties d. all of the mentioned
772. Refers to human or animal waste, excluding oil or oil waste that is removed from residence, building
or institutions.
a. Public hearing c. Meeting e. none of the mentioned
b. Proceedings d. all of the mentioned
774. Which statement is not true in Section 9, which is prohibition?
a. construction of any sewage works or any extension without permit
b. dumping of any waste that cause pollution
c. construction of any outlet for the discharge of water
81
775. Refers to the waste generated from a wastewater treatment plan whether in the form of solid, semi-
solid liquid.
776. Which is not included to the power and function of the commission in RA 9003?
a. approved solid waste management plan
b. review and monitor the implementation of local solid waste management plan
c. facilitate training and education in integrated ecological solid waste management
777. Refers to the methods or technique designed to alter the physical, chemical, biological, radiological
characteristics of any waste to reduce or prevent pollution.
a. Treatment c. Water pollution e. none of the mentioned
b. Toxic waste d. all of the mentioned
a. National solid waste management framework
b. National solid waste management report station
c. Local government solid management plan
779. It means any alteration of physical, chemical, biological or radiological properties of water body
resulting in the impairment of its purity.
a. Treatment c. Water pollution e. none of the mentioned
b. Toxic waste d. all of the mentioned
780. The Article 2 of RA 9003 is referring to:
a. Segregation of waste c. Collection and transport e. none of the mentioned
b. Recycling program d. Reuse
781. Which is not true?
a. the DILG should formulate and implement a coding system for packaging materials
b. the DTI should formulate and implement a coding system for packaging materials
c. the DILG should formulate and implement a coding system for packaging materials
782. Who is/are not included as members of technical support on the governing board?
a. member of Philippine Bar; biologist, geologist, civil engineer, hydrologist
b. chemical engineer, chemist, sanitary engineer, environmental engineer
c. from LLDA
a. prohibition on the use of non-environmentally acceptable packaging
b. guidelines for establishment of MRF
c. establishment of LGU MRF
784. Land with 18% slope is classified as:
a. alienable and disposable land c. pasture land e. none of the mentioned
b. forest land d. beach
785. A plan which prepared by the change agent without consultation with the people.
a. Self-determined c. Joint plan e. none of the mentioned
b. Pre-determined d. Strategic plan
82
786. Which is not the objective of Social Forestry?

a. to involve the rural community in the decision-making process on forestry matter which affect
their existence
b. to transform the rural community people into dynamic citizens capable of contributing a
larger-range of forestry activities which they themselves are the direct beneficiaries
c. to raise the standard of living of the rural dwellers
787. This Social Forestry program was implemented through LOI 1260.
a. CBFM c. CFP e. none of the mentioned
b. ISFP d. NFP
788. The tenurial instrument of the ISFP.
a. CBFMA c. CSC e. none of the mentioned
b. IFMA d. CADC
789. This is the reorganization act of DENR.
a. EO 192 c. PD 705 e. none of the mentioned
b. LOI 1260 d. RA 9003
790. This is a “poor man’s lumber”.
a. Mahogany c. Narra e. none of the mentioned
b. Bamboo d. Rattan
791. Family Approach to Reforestation was implemented through:
a. BFD Circular 45 c. LOI 1260 e. none of the mentioned
b. PD 705 d. EO 192
792. It is a type of community appraisal conducted in a short period of time to complete all the activities.
a. Comprehensive Community Appraisal
b. Rapid Community Appraisal
c. Personal interview
793. Forestry Master Plan/Master Plan for Forestry Development was initiated through the technical
Assistance of _______.
a. Asian Development Bank
b. Finnish International Development Agency
c. Philippine Government
794. It is also known as Mining Act of the Philippines.
b. RA 7941 d. RA 7943
795. Penalties for exploration and exploitation of corals.
a. imprisonment of 6 months to 2 years with the fine of Php 2,000 to 20,000
b. imprisonment of 6 months to 2 years with the fine of Php 2,000 to 30,000
c. imprisonment of 6 months to 2 years with the fine of Php 2,000 to 40,000
d. imprisonment of 6 months to 2 years with the fine of Php 2,000 to 50,000
796. In any contract reforestation program, the percent survival of the plants should:
a. at least 80% c. 60% e. none of the mentioned
b. 50% d. 30%
797. The Indigenous People should live in the upland provided that it is belong to:
a. ancestral land c. IFMA e. none of the mentioned
b. A and D d. CBFM
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798. Area for Family Reforestation should be:

a. 1-5 hectares c. 100 hectares e. none of the mentioned
b. 10 hectares d. more than 100 hectares
799. It is another term for Social Forestry Model where SF project is administered by the forest service
on Communal Lands.
a. Participatory Forestry Model c. Partnership Model e. none of the mentioned
b. Super-management Model d. all of the mentioned
800. It is a Traditional Forestry Approach where the uplanders/kaingineros were apprehended and sent to
jail.
a. Apprehension c. Humanitarian e. none of the mentioned
b. Punitive d. Suspension
801. This term refers to written or unwritten rules, usages, customs and practices.
a. Customary laws c. Laws of the land e. none of the mentioned
b. Indigenous laws d. Cultural laws
802. The People’s Organization’s percentage share in the harvest of government owned plantation in
CBFM areas as stipulated in DENR Administrative Order No. 98-42 is ______ of the gross sales.
b. 12.5% d. 30%
803. A system of inculcating knowledge, values and skills relevant to the target group of individuals or
groups may develop themselves and improve their environment.
a. Communication c. Community Organizing e. none of the mentioned
b. Broadcasting d. Forestry Extension
804. It implies continuous or periodic production of forest products in a working unit with the aim of
achieving at the earliest possible time an approximate balance between growth and harvest.
a. Sustained yield management c. Optimal utilization e. none of the mentioned
b. Sustained development d. Multiple use concept
805. Lands of the public domain which have been the subject of the present system of classification and
declared as not needed for forest purposes.
a. A and D lands c. Grazing lands e. none of the mentioned
b. Mineral lands d. Coastal areas
806. Through this order, the community-based forest management was adopted as the national strategy to
achieve sustainable forestry and social justice.
b. EO 162 d. EO 623
807. Based on DAO 1996-29, CBFM projects are exempted from paying the following fees except:
a. Application fee c. License/permit fee e. none of the mentioned
b. Rental fee d. Forest charges for naturally growing timber
808. Money that serves as surely for fulfillment of a contract, e.g. IFMA.
a. Forest charges c. Performance bond e. none of the mentioned
b. Bank deposit d. Service fee
809. The policy that grows the integration of all the community-based forest management strategies, and
people-oriented forestry programs and projects into the DENR regular structure.
b. DAO No. 96-30 d. DAO No. 98-45
810. Which of the following is not a classification of the public domain?
a. Buffer zones c. Mineral lands e. none of the mentioned
b. Agricultural lands d. National parks
811. The selective logging policy for the Philippine dipterocarp forest was imposed as early as:
b. 1949 d. 1945
84
812. In 1961, RA No. 3042 was passed. This law was known as the:
a. Permanent forest law c. Modified selective logging e. none of the mentioned
b. Social forestry act d. Forest conservation law
813. This Act is known and referred to as the “National Integrated Protected Areas System” Act of 1992.
b. RA 7586 d. RA 8676
814. Refers to a group of people sharing common bonds of language, customs, traditions and other
distinctive cultural traits, and who have, since time immemorial, occupied, possessed and utilized a
territory.
a. Ancestral domains c. Cultural minorities e. none of the mentioned
b. Indigenous Cultural Community d. Tribal groups
815. This agency resulted from the merging of the Forest Research Institute and the National Mangrove
Committee by virtue of EO 192 promulgated in 1987.
a. Natural Resources Development Corporation
b. Ecosystems Research & Development Bureau
c. Protected Areas and Wildlife Bureau
d. Coastal Environment Program
816. All mossy forest form part of the National Protected Areas System and considered as:
a. Strict Nature Reserves c. Natural Biotic Areas e. none of the mentioned
b. Resource Reserves d. Protected Landscape
817. As indicated in DAO 2004-29, CBFM participants are allowed to occupy, develop, protect, manage
and utilize the forest lands and its resources within a designated CBFM area and claim ownership of
introduced improvements. However, the government can always implement project within CBFM area
without the need to consult the concerned PO.
a. only the first statement is true c. both statements are true e. undecided
b. only the second statement is true d. both statement are false
818. An observation based on research or inventions intended for use by specific clienteles with specific
problems.
a. Theory c. Technology e. none of the mentioned
b. Problem d. Ecosystem approach
819. A cost effective and economical regenerative strategy that takes advantage of the natural
regeneration of broad-leaved species and liberate these species from competing vegetation, encourage
faster growth and facilities their domination over the site.
a. Enrichment planting c. Timber Stand Improvement e. none of the mentioned
b. Contract reforestation d. Assisted Natural Regeneration
820. This program of the government, also known as PROFEM II, was promulgated under Letter of
Instruction No. 1260.
a. Integrated Social Forestry Program
b. Forest Land Management Program
c. Low-income Upland Farmers Program
d. Handog Titulo Program for the Landless
821. The Philippines has one of the largest mangrove plantation in Asia and this is located at:
a. Pagbilao, Quezon c. Banacon, Bohol e. none of the mentioned
b. Catbalogan, Samar d. Coastal Road, Cavite
822. Introduced at the 1992 Rio Earth Summit, it presents an international program of action for
achieving sustainable development in the 21st century.
a. Bonn Convention c. Convention on Biological Diversity e. none of the mentioned
b. Agenda 21 d. Kyoto Protocol
85
823. The last step among the thirteen legal steps in the establishment of protected areas.
a. Public notification c. Demarcation e. none of the mentioned
b. Resource profiling d. Congressional action
824. Two of the 11 parks and reserves named as ASEAN Heritage Parks and Reserves, which are located
in the Philippines.
a. Mt. Apo Natural Park and Mt. Iglit-Baco National Park
b. Mt. Makiling Forest Reserve and Mt. Mayon National Park
c. Mt. Pulag National Park and Quezon National park
d. Mt. Hibok-hibok National Park and Taal Volcano National Park
825. A new strategy in biodiversity conservation designed to manage adjoining protected areas involving
a degree of cooperation across one or more boundaries between or within countries.
a. Inter-country conservation
b. Multi-government conservation
c. Transboundary conservation
d. Water-connected areas conservation
826. Identified areas outside the boundaries of and immediately adjacent to designated protected areas
that need special development control in order to avoid or minimize harm to the protected areas.
a. Off limit zone c. Greenbelts e. none of the mentioned
b. Buffer zones d. Protection strips
827. A program established under DAO 19, series of 1993, which related to protecting, conserving and
rejuvenating the population of endangered species, and such other activities, to mediate, ameliorate or
mitigate threats to coastal resource system.
a. Coastal Parks rehabilitation Program
b. Coastal Environment Program
c. Seashore and Coastal Ecosystem Program
d. Mangrove and Coastal Resource Program
828. This administrative order imposed a nationwide export of lumber in the Philippines.
b. DAO 819 d. DAO 98-91
829. Also known as IPRA law.
b. RA 8731 d. RA 8713
830. The short title of RA 9147.
a. Wildlife resources Conservation and Protection Act
b. National Cavers and Cave Resources Management and Protection Act
c. Philippine Plant Variety Protection Act of 2002
d. The Philippine Fisheries Code of 1998
831. Pursuant to DAO 2004-29, who approved CBFMA if the area is form 500 to 5,000 hectares?
a. CENRO c. RED e. none of the mentioned
b. PENRO d. Secretary
832. As defined in RA 9147, it refers to species or subspecies that neither critically endangered nor
endangered but is under threat from the adverse factors throughout their range and is likely to move to
the endangered category in the near future.
a. Vulnerable species c. Endemic species e. none of the mentioned
b. Threatened species d. Endangered species
86
833. A levy imposed by the government on naturally growing timber and other forest products cut by a
permittee or licensee and from plantations established in compliance with TLA reforestation obligations.
a. Forest charges c. Timber sales tax e. none of the mentioned
b. Land rental d. Value added tax
834. Not among the countries where lumber import came from in 2003 as listed in the DENR Statistics
published in the FMB website.
a. Indonesia c. Papua New Guinea e. none of the mentioned
b. Malaysia d. Singapore
835. SALT-4 is one of the modifications of the original Sloping Agricultural Land Technology which
means:
a. Simple Agro-Livestock Technology
b. Small Agrofruit Livelihood Technology
c. Sustainable Agroforest Land Technology
d. Sustainable Agroforest Lot Technology
836. This refers to the land of the public domain which have been served as such by law to preserve its
natural conditions, maintain its hydrologic quality and restrict public use in the interest of national
welfare and security.
a. Military reservation c. Nature park e. none of the mentioned
b. Watershed d. Wilderness area
837. The Code of Ethics of the Filipino Foresters was approved by the President of the Republic of the
Philippines on:
a. April 10, 1975 c. October 15, 1970 e. none of the mentioned
b. December 4, 1972 d. July 30, 1969
838. Which of the following norms and guidelines should not be adhered to by a forester?
a. be loyal to the country
b. develop and maintain a high professional prestige
c. disrespect for the interest and integrity of co-foresters and other colleagues in the profession
d. provide exemplary service to employers, clients and the public
839. The maximum slope of any forestland which may be classified as grazing land.
b. 40% d. 18%
840. The first Director of the Bureau of Forestry.
a. David H. Brown c. George P. Ahern e. none of the mentioned
b. Arthur S. Fisher d. Artemio V. Manza
841. One of the functions of this agency is to prepare an up-to-date listing of endangered Philippine flora
and fauna and recommend a program of conservation and propagation of the same.
a. ERDB c. FMB e. none of the mentioned
b. PAWB d. PAMB
842. In the House of Representatives, the jurisdiction of this committee is “all matters directly and
principally relating to ecosystem management including pollution control”.
a. House Committee on Natural Resources
b. House Committee on Ecology
c. House Committee on Reforestation
d. House Committee on CBFM
843. The Law, which was adopted on May 18, 1995 prescribes guidelines and procedures for the
prospecting of biological and genetic resources in the Philippines.
b. EO No. 274 d. EO No. 724
87
844. Allowing cropland to lie idle, either titled or untitled, during the whole or greater portion of a
growing season.
a. Recovery period c. Alley cropping e. none of the mentioned
b. Zero tillage d. Fallow
845. The provision of the Philippine Constitution mandates the State to recognize and respect the rights
of the indigenous people to their ancestral domains and consider their customs, traditions and beliefs in
the formation of laws and policies.
a. Art. XIV, Sec. 17 c. Art. II, Sec. 4 e. none of the mentioned
b. Art. XII, Sec. 10 d. Art. IV, Sec. 7
846. Refers to the document of studies on the likely environmental consequences of implementing
projects or undertakings, and designing the appropriate preventive, mitigating and enhancement
measures.
a. Environmental Impact Statement
c. Initial Environmental Examination
d. Environmental Impact Assessment
847. The Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999.
b. RA 9749 d. RA 8749
848. Refers to forest areas with slope greater than 50% wherein income and/or subsistence shall be
provided primarily through the harvesting and utilization of non-timber products such as bamboo, rattan,
anahaw, medicinal plants, resins and other horticultural crops.
a. Mossy forest c. Upland farms e. none of the mentioned
b. Non-timber areas d. Limited production forest
849. A program promulgated under DAO No. 23, series of 1993 which seeks to, among other things,
improve the socio-economic conditions of the rural population living within or adjacent to forest lands.
a. Forest Land Management Program
c. Industrial Forest Management Program
d. Modified Social Forestry Program
850. Sustainable development stresses the need to view these two factors as mutually compatible.
a. Population and Environment
b. Forest depletion and Conservation
c. Environmental protection and Economic growth
d. Environmental degradation and Development
851. Logging in the old-growth forest was prohibited starting:
a. January 30, 1992 c. December 31, 1992 e. none of the mentioned
b. January 1, 1992 d. January 1,1991
852. The Code of Ethics of the Filipino Forester obliges foresters to respect the interest and integrity of
co-foresters and observe ______ in making comments on, or criticism of the ideas and work of
colleagues in the profession.
a. Prudence c. Silence e. none of the mentioned
b. Consideration d. Authority
853. Meeting the needs of citizens of today without limiting the options of future generations to fulfill
their needs is the concern of:
a. Philippines 2000 c. Sustainable Development e. none of the mentioned
b. United Nations Forum d. Social Forestry
88
854. These are the action taken to prevent or reduce environmental effects of any projects or
undertakings.
a. Reduced impact measures
b. Mitigating measures
c. Non-implementation of critical projects
d. No projects in critical areas
855. This law regulates the importation, manufacture, distribution, use and disposal of chemical
substances, which may pose risks to human life and the environment.
b. RA 6969 d. RA 6988
856. The probable effects or consequences of proposed projects on the physical, biological and socio-
economic environment that can be direct or indirect, cumulative, and positive or negative are referred to
as:
a. Environmental impacts c. Environmental hazards e. none of the mentioned
b. Critical factors d. Environmental risks
857. A certificate issued by the DENR to an Indigenous Filipino individual, family or clan declaring,
identifying and recognizing their claim to a particular area they have traditionally possessed, occupied,
and used by themselves or through their predecessors in interest since time immemorial.
a. Certificate of Land Transfer
b. Certificate of Ancestral Land Claim
c. Certificate of Land Possession
d. Certificate of Ancestral Domain
858. An activity designed to inventory and assess the abundance, composition and distribution of natural
resources in protected areas.
a. Protected Area Sustainability Assessment
b. Survey and Registration of Protected Area Occupants
c. Resource Base Inventory
d. Rapid Rural Systems Appraisal
859. It regulates international trade in specimens of wild fauna and flora on the basis of a system of
permits and certificates, which are issued when certain conditions are met.
a. Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species of Flora and Fauna
b. Bonn Convention
c. Ramsar Convention
d. Convention on Biological Diversity
860. The staff bureau under the DENR with among other functions, recommended policies and/or
programs for the effective protection, development, occupancy, management and conservation of forest
lands and watersheds to ensure continued supply of forest water, goods and services.
a. PAWB c. NAMRIA e. none of the mentioned
b. LMB d. FMB
861. This Presidential Decree, issued in 1973, required that all public forests be developed, managed and
utilized on a sustained yield basis with the benefit of technical know-how of registered foresters.
b. PD 331 d. PD 705
89
862. All of the following are environmentally critical areas based on Proclamation 2146 except:
a. Areas set aside as aesthetic potential tourist spots
b. Areas classified as prime agricultural lands
c. Dikes for fishpond development projects
d. Recharged areas of aquifers
863. The place where the selective logging system was tested and which later became the basis for the
preparation of the Selective Logging Handbook.
a. Bataan c. Quezon e. none of the mentioned
b. Basilan d. Camiguin
864. The office serves as the national coordinating office of the CBFMP.
a. CENRO c. RENRO e. none of the mentioned
b. PENRO d. FMB
865. Selective logging ban is a ______.
a. Harvesting technique c. Policy e. none of the mentioned
b. Logging conveyance d. Silvicultural system
866. International Standards Organization accreditation series to assure total environmental quality
management by industrial firm.
a. ISO 1500 c. ISO 1400 e. none of the mentioned
b. ISO 9000 d. ISO 1200
867. Issued in 1995, it declares the Philippine Eagle as the national bird.
a. Proclamation No. 615 c. Proclamation No. 561 e. none of the mentioned
b. Proclamation No. 156 d. Proclamation No. 651
868. RA No. 9147 defines “by product or derivative” as any part taken or substance extracted from
wildlife, in raw or in processed form. This includes stuffed animals and herbarium specimen. Which
statement is correct?
a. only the first statement is true
c. only the second statement is true
e. undecided
869. The Forestry Development Center is under the University of the Philippines. The Natural Resources
Development Corporation is attached to the DENR. Are the foregoing statements correct?
c. only the first statement is true
d. only the first statement is false
e. undecided
870. The minimum area that may be covered by and IFMA is 500 ha. and the maximum is 20,000 ha. An
IFMA holder may hold more than one IFMA simultaneously but the aggregate total size of the IFMA
areas should not exceed 40,000 ha. Which statement is correct?
c. only the first statement is true
d. only the second statement is true
e. undecided
871. Which part of the Philippine Constitution states that: “Public office is a public trust. Public officers
and employees must at all times accountable to the people, serve them with utmost responsibility,
integrity, loyalty and efficiency, act with patriotism and justice, and lead modest lives”?
a. Article X, section 7 c. Article XIII, section 6 e. none of the mentioned
b. Article XII, section 2 d. Article XI, section 1
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872. World Environment day is observed every:

a. June 10 c. June 5 e. none of the mentioned
b. June 12 d. June 1
873. If region 4a and 4b are to be counted separately, how many regional offices does DENR have?
b. 14 d. 16
874. ECC refers to the document of studies on the likely environmental consequences of implementing
projects or undertakings, and designing the appropriate preventive, mitigating and enhancement
measures. EIS, on the other hand, is the documents issued by the department certifying that a proposed
development project or undertaking will not cause a significant negative impact.
b. only the second statement is true
e. undecided
875. “DENR Day” is observed every:
a. April 20 c. June 10 e. none of the mentioned
b. September 1 d. August 21
876. IFMA holders are allowed to use up to ______ of suitable portions of their IFMA areas for
agricultural purposes.
b. 10% d. 20%
877. Under the DENR organizational set up, what is the next position immediately following the
Department Secretary?
a. Head Executive Assistant c. Undersecretary e. none of the mentioned
b. Assistant Secretary d. Vice Secretary
878. The Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2000.
b. RA 9003 d. RA 9745
879. Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004.
b. RA 9275 d. RA 9272
880. Sections 37 to 53 of the Revised Forestry Code of the Philippines are concerned with the subject on:
a. Utilization and management c. Special uses e. none of the mentioned
b. Criminal Offenses and penalties d. forest production
881. Renewal of forester’s professional license is done every _____ years.
a. five c. three e. none of the mentioned
b. two d. yearly
882. This agroforestry system started in Burma where farmers are involved by the government in
reforestation while allowing them to plant crops simultaneously while trees are still young until canopies
close.
a. Swidden farming c. Naalad system e. none of the mentioned
b. Taungya system d. Muyong system
883. A group of Filipino professionals formed on August 28, 1948.
a. Philippine Forest Research Society
b. UP College of Forestry Alumni Association
c. Society of Filipino Foresters
d. Foresters and Forest Rangers Philippines, Inc.
91
884. Republic Act No. 7160, which was approved on October 10, 1991 is also known as:
a. Local Government Code of 1991
b. Reorganization Act of the DENR
c. Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Law
d. People Scale Mining Act of 1991
885. The primary government agency responsible for the formulation and implementation of policies,
plans and programs to recognize, promote and protect the rights of the Indigenous People.
a. National Commission on Indigenous People
b. Commission on Aboriginal Rights
c. National Commission on Human Rights
d. Philippine Commission on Cultural Minorities
886. Which of the following forestry extension techniques is not classified under mass contact?
a. Print c. Broadcast e. none of the mentioned
b. Audio-visual d. farmers’ class
887. A planned trip usually outside the community for farmers to see and witness a certain improved
practice or successful project.
a. Interpersonal contract c. Result demonstration e. none of the mentioned
b. Field trip d. Farmers class
888. A mass rock of coral which either reaches close to the sea surface or is exposed at low tide.
a. Reef c. Awash e. none of the mentioned
b. Shoal d. Islet
889. Pursuant to DENR Administrative Order No. 99-46 entitled, “Revised Regulations Governing the
Entry and Disposition of Imported Logs, Lumber, Veneer, Plywood, other Wood-based Panels, Poles and
Piles, Pulpwood and Wood Chips”, the port of entries for Visayas are the following except:
a. Philippine Mallard c. Salago e. none of the mentioned
b. Molave d. Philippine Spotted Deer
890. FOB means ______.
a. Free of Boarding Fee c. Free on Board e. none of the mentioned
b. Free of Bond d. Freight only basis
891. The DENR flagship species for Region 10 as stipulated in DENR Memorandum Circular No. 19
series of 1994.
a. Philippine Mallard c. Salago e. none of the mentioned
b. Molave d. Philippine Spotted Deer
892. The law that declared the Philippine Tarsier (Tarsius syrichta) as a Specially-Protected Faunal
Species of the Philippines.
a. Proclamation No. 3010 c. Proclamation No. 1300 e. none of the mentioned
b. Proclamation No. 1030 d. Proclamation No. 3
893. The title of Executive Order No. 318, which was issued in June 2004, is “Promoting Sustainable
Forest Management in the Philippines”. According to this executive order, an ecosystem-based integrated
ecosystems management approach is deemed appropriate for SFM.
e. undecided
894. A term relating to the increasing value of a product as it proceeds through the various stages of its
manufacture and distribution.
a. Gain in production c. Productivity e. none of the mentioned
b. Value-added d. Profitability
92
895. As stated in EO 318, one of the possible sources of money to finance sustainable forest management
is Clean Development Mechanism or CDM. CDM is a strategy implemented under forest certification.
a. only first statement is true
b. only second statement is true
e. undecided
896. Which of the following is not a given priority over Industrial Forest Management?
a. Ancestral domain
b. Certificate of Land Ownership Award
c. Socialized Industrial Forest Agreement
d. Community-based Forest Management
897. It refers to the international agreement that governs access and exchange of genetic resources.
a. ILO Convention 169
b. Rio Declaration
c. Convention on Biological Diversity
d. General Agreement on Tariff and Trade
898. What is the maximum yarding distance in any logging set up in a second growth forest?
a. 2 kilometers c. 500 kilometers e. none of the mentioned
b. 1,500 kilometers d. 1,000 kilometers
899. Pursuant to RA 7160, local governments, particularly and the provincial, city and municipal
governments may appoint an environment and natural resource officer. The appointment is compulsory.
e. undecided
900. Implementing Rules and Regulations of the Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004 (RA No. 9275).
b. DAO No. 2005-10 d. DAO No. 2005-24
901. The Law that created the Forest School as a department of the UP College of Agriculture.
b. Act 1979 d. Act 1999
902. The author of the book Lexicon of the Philippine Trees.
a. Felipe Salvoza c. Francisco Tamolang e. none of the mentioned
b. Teodoro Delizo d. Calixto Mabesa
903. The first Director of the Bureau of Forestry.
a. Maj. Gen. Otis c. Col. Arthur Fisher e. none of the mentioned
b. Capt. George P. Ahern d. Florencio Tamesis
904. Which of the following are authorized to apprehend illegal forest products, machinery, equipment,
tools, implements and/or conveyances?
a. Forest officers
b. private citizens as provided by law
c. members of law enforcement agencies
905. Philippine Forestry Education and Practice takes its original roots from:
a. Spain c. USA e. none of the mentioned
b. Germany d. Japan
93
906. The Law that established the Forest Development Center (FDC) at the College of Forestry, UPLB.
b. PD 705 d. EO 192
907. The National Integrated Protected Areas System (NIPAS) Law.
b. RA 7586 d. RA 9175
908. The Bachelor of Science in Forestry Degree in UP College of Forestry started in:
b. 1921 d. 1941
909. Launched in 1986 to establish man-made forests over an area of 1.4M ha. by year 2000.
a. NFP c. IFMA e. none of the mentioned
b. ISFP d. ITP
910. The Indigenous Peoples Right Act.
b. RA 7586 d. RA 8749
911. The act to regulate the practice of the Forestry Profession in the Philippines.
b. RA No. 6329 d. RA No. 6932
912. As soon as possible after illegal items are apprehended, the same shall be delivered by the
apprehending officer to the nearest:
a. Police checkpoint c. Police headquarter e. none of the mentioned
b. Seizure officer d. Municipal hall
913. The first administrator of the Reforestation Administration was:
a. Teodoro Delizo c. Carlos Sulit e. none of the mentioned
b. Nicanor Lalog d. Jose Viado
914. An Act revising RA No. 6239 (The Forestry Profession Law).
a. House Bill No. 8189 c. HB 8981 e. none of the mentioned
b. RA 8981 d. RA 8189
915. The Forest Ranger Certificate in UP started in:
b. 1911 d. 1921
916. The law mandating the DENR to be the primary government agency responsible for the
conservation, management, development, and proper use of the environment and natural resources.
a. PD 705 c. EO 192 e. none of the mentioned
b. PD 1559 d. EO 277
917. Who signed the NIPAS Law?
a. Corazon Aquino c. Joseph Estrada e. none of the mentioned
b. Fidel Ramos d. Gloria Arroyo
918. The law that created the Forest School as a department of the UP College of Agriculture.
b. Act 1979 d. Act 1999
919. The author of Forest Nursery and Plantation Handbook of the Philippines.
a. Teodoro Delizo c. Nicanor Lalog e. none of the mentioned
b. Florencio Tamesis d. Calixto Malebasa
920. The author of the book Lexicon of the Philippine Trees.
a. Felipe Salvoza c. Francisco Tamolang e. none of the mentioned
b. Teodoro Delizo d. Calixto Mabesa
921. The main author of the Senate’s version of the Sustainable Management Act of 1998.
a. Robert Jaworski c. Aquilino Pimentel e. none of the mentioned
b. Loren Legarda Leviste d. Gregorio Honasan
94
922. One of the early foresters who devised and initiated the selective logging system for Philippine
Dipterocarp species.
a. Calixto Mabesa c. Faustino Francia e. none of the mentioned
b.Felipe Salvoza d. Nicanor Lalog
923. It is defined in the Constitution as bonafide association of citizens with demonstrated capacity to
promote the public interest and with identifiable leadership, members and structures.
a. People’s Organization c. Bureaucracy e. none of the mentioned
b. Board of Directors d. Society
924. The first Filipino Director of the Bureau of Forestry.
a. Florencio Tamesis c. Teodoro Delizo e. none of the mentioned
b. Carlos Sulit d. Jose Viado
925. It was enacted on My 7, 1904 and contained the forest policies of the Philippines.
a. Forest Act c. Revised Forest Code e. none of the mentioned
b. Forest Code d. Forestry Decree
926. It is a long-term privilege granted by the State to a person to occupy and possess a grazing land of
the public domain.
a. Forest land grazing lease c. Pasture permit e. none of the mentioned
b. Provision pasture permit d. Pasture lease
927. POs means:
a. Public Office c. Postal Office e. none of the mentioned
b. People’s Office d. People’s Organization
928. The silvicultural system provided by PD 705 to be employed in pine forests and mangrove forest is:
a. seed-tree system with enrichment planting when necessary
b. clear cutting system with enrichment planting when necessary
c. selective logging system when necessary
d. shelterwood system
929. An individual or organization that becomes involved in an issue because peers and counterparts are
actively involved in it.
a. Identification group c. Attention group e. none of the mentioned
b. Interest group d. General public
930. The attitude of a person or group preferring changes in the status quo, generally in direction of
greater social and economic equity.
a. Elitism c. Communism e. none of the mentioned
b. Pluralism d. Liberalism
931. The focus of this group is on the issue, not on the parties involved.
a. Identification group c. Interest group e. none of the mentioned
b. Attention group d. General public
932. This bans the use of high lead yarding system in dipterocarp forests.
a. DAO No. 02, March 29, 1992
b. DAO No. 03, January 29, 1992
c. DAO No. 03, March 29, 1993
d. DAO No. 02, March 29, 1993
933. The use of analyses and persuasive techniques to promote the establishment of a desired policy.
a. Policy analysis c. Policy making e. none of the mentioned
b. Policy advocacy d. Public interest
934. Section 16 of PD 705 was amended by:
b. RA 8371 d. RA 1723
95
935. A segment of the unorganized public that is composed of well-informed individuals who
consistently express interest in and concern over government affairs.
a. Identification group c. Attentive public e. none of the mentioned
b. Attention group d. General public
936. DENR AO No. 03, s. 1992 prescribed the use of:
a. Highlead yarding and ground skidding systems
b. Highlead yarding and skyline systems
c. Ground skidding and skyline system
d. Tractor logging and highlead yarding
937. The maximum slope of lands of the public domain to be classified as A and D land.
b. 18% d. 20%
938. The minimum area of isolated patches of forests below 18% in slope with rocky terrain or which
protect a spring of communal use to be declared as needed for forest purposes.
939. PD 705 , otherwise known as Revised Forestry Code of the Philippines was issued at what year?
b. 1975 d. 1981
940. Privilege granted by State to a person to utilize timber in pursuant to the new Philippine
Constitution.
a. Timber License Agreement
b. Lease
c. Timber Production Sharing Agreement
d. Private Land Timber Permit
941. Areas below 18% in slope which are far from or are not contiguous with any certified A and D land,
are classified as permanent forests if they are less than:
942. The basis of most forest policies in developed as well as developing countries.
a. Regalian Doctrine c. Ecological balance e. none of the mentioned
b. Right of eminent domain d. Economic development
943. Mandated the creation of the Integrated Social Forestry Program, otherwise known as PROFEM II:
b. LOI 1260 d. EO 725
744. Ancestral lands are recognized by the government as:
a. A and D lands c. Forest reserve e. none of the mentioned
b. Permanent forest d. Public land claimed by ethnic tribes
745. Certain critical watersheds have been declared as watershed reservation, which of the following uses
or activities is not allowed in such watershed?
a. Logging c. Cattle ranching e. none of the mentioned
b. Settlement d. all of the mentioned
746. These are lands belonging to the cultural communities.
a. Ancestral lands c. Encomiendas e. none of the mentioned
b. Friar lands d. Homelands
96
747. A decision is said to be in public interest if it:

a. favors long term needs over short term ones
b. serves the interest of the general public
c. favors future generation rather than the present
d. none of the mentioned
948. An act that mandates the professionalism of forestry.
b. RA 6932 d. RA 6293
949. As per definition of forest, the minimum area is 1 hectare but what is the minimum width required?
a. 40 m c. 200 m e. none of the mentioned
b. 100 m d. 60 m
950. Areas marginal lands with slopes from 18% and above where various types of farming activities are
undertaken.
a. brushland c. grassland e. none of the mentioned
b. virgin forest d. uplands
951. Communities of people engaged in forest development and enjoyment of benefits of such
development.
a. Forest areas c. Residual forest e. none of the mentioned
b. Beach forest d. Forest communities
952. Fees paid to the government by the wood industry for the extraction and utilization of forest
products.
a. Forest charges c. Interest e. none of the mentioned
b. Tax d. Surcharge
953. Cutting cycle used in the determination of allowable cuts as prescribe in DAO 12, s. 1992.
954. Portion of these forest with mean slope of 50% and above and those above 1,000m elevation are
banned from logging since 1992.
a. Upland farms c. Gabion e. none of the mentioned
b. Virgin forest d. Grassland
955. Strips of land with natural or established vegetation which provides an added layer of protection to
the forest.
a. Buffer zones c. Gabion e. none of the mentioned
b. Firelines d. Grassland
956. Physical and administrative structure and subdivision of forest.
a. Forest biometry c. Forest organization e. none of the mentioned
b. Forest extension d. Forest administration
957. Part of the public domain which has been declared as not needed for forest purposes.
a. Military reservations c. National parks e. none of the mentioned
b. A and D land d. Forest reserve
958. An organization, which is purely advisory to the line structure and has no authority to place
recommendations into action.
a. Staff c. Functional e. none of the mentioned
b. Line d. all of the mentioned
959. The collection of forest charges on timber and other forest products is not the responsibility of the:
a. DENR c. BFAR e. none of the mentioned
b. BIR d. NEDA
97
960. Refers to a tract of public forest set aside for the community/municipality wherein forest products
are extracted for personal use.
a. Grazing land c. Communal forest e. none of the mentioned
b. Public forest d. National park
961. Prescribes the rules and regulations on the issuance of Timber Production Sharing Agreement
(TPSA).
a. DAO No. 36 c. DAO No.74 e. none of the mentioned
b. DAO No. 80 d. DAO No. 78 (1989)
962. Under the current reorganization of the DENR, the Forest Management Bureau is now a:
a. Line bureau c. Functional bureau e. none of the mentioned
b. Staff bureau d. Attached agency
963. In the Philippines, grazing in forest lands is limited to areas having a slope of:
a. 18% c. less than 50% e. none of the mentioned
b. 50% and above d. 19-49%
964. The principle applied by the sovereign powers which recognizes that all lands belong to the state.
a. Regalian Doctrine c. Low intensity conflict e. none of the mentioned
b. Colonialism d. Eminent domain
965. The branch of forestry, which deals with altering the attitude, behavior and skills of forest occupants
toward conservation.
a. Forest policy c. Forest law enforcement e. none of the mentioned
b. Forestry extension d. forest influences
966. The Philippines has total area of approximately:
a. 35 million hectares c. 30 million hectares e. none of the mentioned
b. 20 million hectares d. 50 million hectares
967. Land set aside for the grazing of domestic livestock by the residents of a municipality is called:
a. Communal grazing land c. Domestic grazing land e. none of the mentioned
b. Pasture lands d. Rangeland
968. Timber harvesting in the dipterocarp forests is regulated based on the principle of:
a. Area control c. Area and volume control e. none of the mentioned
b. Volume control d. Log export quota
969. Arbor Week falls in the month of:
a. May c. July e. none of the mentioned
b. June d. August
970. Volume control means regulating timber by specifying:
a. the species to cut c. the volume that shall cut e. none of the mentioned
b. the size of trees to be cut d. the area where cutting is done
971. Forestlands intended primarily for the production of timber.
a. Protection forests c. Protected areas e. none of the mentioned
b. Operable forests d. Production forests
972. The branch of forestry that deals with the understanding of the interrelationships between forest
ecosystem and human social system is:
a. Agroforestry c. Human ecology e. none of the mentioned
b. Forestry d. Social forestry
973. Indigenous cultural community is also known as:
a. Native folks c. Indigenous peoples e. none of the mentioned
b. Original residents d. Filipino aborigines
974. It denotes the revisions that occur in the people’s application of their technical knowledge and skills
as they adapt to the environment.
a. Technological change c. Technology transfer e. none of the mentioned
b. Social change d. Innovation
98
975. It refers to the various modifications in any aspect of social processes, pattern or form.
a. Cultural change c. Social change e. none of the mentioned
b. Socio-cultural change d. Technological change
976. What is the highest among the following levels of acceptance on innovations by individual members
of a society?
a. Evaluation of the innovation
b. Interest in the innovation
c. Awareness of the innovation
d. Adoptation of the innovation
977. One approach to increase the level of public awareness on certain issues or activities is through a
print media. Which of the following does not belong to the said category?
a. Leaflets c. Slide presentation e. none of the mentioned
b. Flyers d. Newspapers
978. One approach to increase the level of public awareness on certain issues or activities is through the
broadcast media. Which of the following does not belong to the said category?
a. Community consultation c. Spot reports e. none of the mentioned
b. Jingles d. Radio program
979. One approach to increase the level of public awareness on certain issues or undertaking is through
visual media. Which of the following does not belong to the said category?
a. Exhibits c. Flyers e. none of the mentioned
b. Billboards d. Streamers
980. Social forestry evolved from the concept of forestry for local community. Where was the concept
first popularized?
a. India c. Philippines e. none of the mentioned
b. Thailand d. Indonesia
981. Kaingin Farming has long been viewed as a technical problem in forest management in the
Philippines. It was first recognized as a socio-economic problem during the “National Kaingin
Conference”.
b. 1965 d. 1975
982. Maslow has identified five categories of people’s needs in hierarchical order. Which among the
following is the basic people’s need?
a. Security c. Self-esteem e. none of the mentioned
b. Physiological d. Belongingness
983. It refers to the agreed upon course of action directed toward certain forestry goals and objectives.
a. Forest policy c. Forest administration e. none of the mentioned
b. Forest planning d. Forest management
984. The meeting of the needs and aspirations of the people without compromising the ability of the
future generations to meet there is:
a. Sustainable forest management and development
b. Community management and development
c. Sustainable development
d. Upland priority development
985. The guaranteed peaceful possession and use of specific forest land area and the resources found
therein, covered by ab agreement, contract or grant which cannot be altered without due process.
a. Permit c. Contract e. none of the mentioned
b. License d. Tenure
99
986. It refers to project that has high potential for significant negative environmental impact.
a. Environmentally critical project c. Potential project e. none of the mentioned
b. Environmental project d. High impact project
987. A relatively small area focused on protection of small features to protect or preserve nationally
significant natural features on account on their specific interest or unique characteristics.
a. National Biotic Area c. Natural Park e. none of the mentioned
b. Natural Monument d. Resource Reserve
988. What agency was created in 1972 and given the task of formulating the National Research Program
and approving, coordinating and monitoring all government-financed research activities in agriculture,
forestry, fisheries and other natural resources?
a. Philippine Council for Agriculture and resources Research
b. Forest Products Research and Development Commission
c. Forest Research Institute
d. Forestry Developing Center
989. Section 16, Article II of the Constitution provides for the State protection and advancement of the
rights of people to a balanced and healthful ecology in accordance with the rhythm and harmony of:
a. Nature c. Society e. none of the mentioned
b. Environment d. People
990. Which of the following categories is not a classification of lands of the public domain as provided
under the Constitution?
a. Ancestral domain c. Forest lands e. none of the mentioned
b. Agricultural lands d. Mineral lands
991. What particular section of the Constitution provides for the protection of the rights of indigenous
cultural communities to their ancestral lands to ensure their economic, social and cultural well-being?
a. Section 5, Article XII c. Section 2, Article III e. none of the mentioned
b. Section 1, Article III d. Section 1, Article XII
992. A group of people which may be in association, cooperative, federation, or other legal entity,
established by the community to undertake collective action to address community concerns and need
and mutually share the benefits from the endevour.
a. People’s Organization c. Community e. none of the mentioned
b. Cooperative d. Assisting Organization
993. A program established in the DENR to implement its projects on conservation and management of
the coastal environment.
a. Community-Based Forest Management
c. Forestland Management Program
d. Coastal Environment Program
994. Under Letter of Instruction 917, all mangrove forests essentially needed in foreshore marine life,
including special forests which are exclusive habitats of rare and endangered Philippine flora and fauna
were declared as:
a. Fishpond c. Protected areas e. none of the mentioned
b. Natural biotic areas d. Wilderness area
995. Except in Palawan and Samar, what is the cutting cycle for second growth dipterocarp forests per
DAO No. 92-12?
b. 40 years d. 25 years--- 35
996. An order declaring a moratorium on all commercial logging in the province of Palawan.
b. DAO No. 89-04 d. DAO No. 96-34
100
997. What article in the 1987 Constitution deals with “National Economy and Patrimony”
a. Article XII c. Article VI e. none of the mentioned
b. Article III d. Article X
998. It is a part of forest land set aside for the use of residents of a municipality from which said residents
may cut, collect and remove forest products for their personal use.
a. Communal forest c. Community forestry e. none of the mentioned
b. Forest stewardship d. Ancestral land
999. It is an approach used in social research where information is gathered from a person who has good
knowledge of his/her community and culture and is willing to talk about these as well as the relevant
problems.
a. Structure view c. Use of key informant e. none of the mentioned
b. Use of questionnaires d. Census
1000. It is a course of action adopted and followed by a certain entity to pursue a set of objectives
regarding the use and management of forest resources.
a. Forest extension c. Public policy e. none of the mentioned
b. Forest policy d. Forest planning
101

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FOREST GOVERNANCE AND SOCIAL FORESTRY

10. Forest policies are determined by the government alone.

26. This spouses the Philippine Land Tenure System.

60. Which statement is true?

166. Which of the following characterizes the old forestry paradigm?

307. DAO 19, series of 1993 governs the implementation of:

397. Which of the following is not a fire suppression method?

513. Which of the following vehicles can be apprehended?

540. An A-frame is important equipment used in establishing hedgerows on a slope. It is used to

617. Which of the following was embodied in Act 274 of 1901?

701. Republic Act 9275 is also known as:

723. Which is not included to the function of LGU in RA 9275?

742. Article IV of RA 8749 refers to:

763. Section 4 of RA 9003 is referring to:

786. Which is not the objective of Social Forestry?

798. Area for Family Reforestation should be:

872. World Environment day is observed every:

747. A decision is said to be in public interest if it:

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