Anatomy and Physiology (LECTURE) Quizzes

SEELEY’S 12TH EDITION CHAPTER TESTS

CHAPTER 1 - The Human Organism

1. Physiology
a. deals with the processes or functions of living things.
b. is the scientific discipline that investigates the body’s structures.
c. is concerned with organisms and does not deal with levels of organization, such as
cells and systems.
d. recognizes the static (as opposed to the dynamic) nature of living things. e. can be
used to study the human body without considering anatomy.

2. The following are organizational levels for considering the body.

Choose the correct order for these organizational levels, from simplest to most complex.
a. 1,2,3,6,4,5 c. 3,1,6,4,5,2 e. 1,6,5,3,4,2
b. 2,1,6,3,4,5 d. 4,6,1,3,5,2

For questions 3–7, match each organ system with one of the following functions.
a. regulates other organ systems
b. removes waste products from the blood; maintains water balance
c. regulates temperature; reduces water loss; provides protection
d. removes foreign substances from the blood; combats disease; maintains tissue fluid
balance - Lymphatic System

e. produces movement; maintains posture; produces body heat

3. Endocrine system -
4. Integumentary system - C
5. Muscular system - E
6. Nervous system - A
7. Urinary system -B

8. The characteristic of life that is defined as “all the chemical reactions taking place in
an organism” is

a. development. c. metabolism. e. Responsiveness.

b. growth. d. Organization.
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9. The following events are part of a negative-feedback mechanism.

(1) Blood pressure increases.
(2) The control center compares actual blood pressure to the blood pressure set point.
(3) The heart beats faster.
(4) Receptors detect a decrease in blood pressure.

Choose the arrangement that lists the events in the order they occur.
a. 1,2,3,4
b. 1,3,2,4
c. 3,1,4,2
d. 4,2,3,1
e. 4,3,2,1

10. Which of these statements concerning positive feedback is correct?

a. Positive-feedback responses maintain homeostasis.
b. Positive-feedback responses occur continuously in healthy individuals.
c. Birth is an example of a normally occurring positive-feedback mechanism.
d. When cardiac muscle receives an inadequate supply of blood, positive-feedback
mechanisms increase blood flow to the heart.
e. Medical therapy seeks to overcome illness by aiding positivefeedback mechanisms.

11. A term that means nearer the attached end of a limb is

a. distal.
b. lateral.
c. medial.
d. proximal
e. superficial.

12. Which of these directional terms are paired most appropriately as opposites?
a. superficial and deep
b. medial and proximal
c. distal and lateral
d. superior and posterior
e. anterior and inferior

13. The part of the upper limb between the elbow and the wrist is called the
a. arm.
b. forearm
c. hand.
d. inferior arm.
e. lower arm.

14. A patient with appendicitis usually has pain in the quadrant of the abdomen.
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a. left-lower
b. right-lower
c. left-upper
d. Right-upper

15. A plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior parts is a
a. frontal (coronal) plane.
b. sagittal plane.
c. transverse plane

16. The lungs are

a. part of the mediastinum.
b. surrounded by the pericardial cavity.
c. found within the thoracic cavity.
d. separated from each other by the diaphragm.
e. surrounded by mucous membranes

17. Given the following organ and cavity combinations:

(1) heart and pericardial cavity
(2) lungs and pleural cavity
(3) stomach and peritoneal cavity
(4) kidney and peritoneal cavity

Which of the organs is correctly paired with a space that surrounds that organ?
a. 1,2 b. 1,2,3 c. 1,2,4 d. 2,3,4 e. 1,2,3,4
.
18. Which of the following membrane combinations are found on the superior and
inferior surface of the diaphragm?
a. parietal pleura—parietal peritoneum
b. parietal pleura—visceral peritoneum
c. visceral pleura—parietal peritoneum
d. visceral pleura—visceral peritoneum

19. Which of the following organs are not retroperitoneal?

a. adrenal glands
b. urinary bladder
c. kidneys
d. Pancreas
e. stomach

CRITICAL THINKING

1. Exposure to a hot environment causes the body to sweat. The hotter the environment, the
greater the sweating. Two anatomy and physiology students are arguing about the mechanisms
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involved. Student A claims that they are positive feedback, and student B claims they are
negative feedback. Do you agree with student A or student B, and why?

2. A male has lost blood as a result of a gunshot wound. Even though the bleeding has been
stopped, his blood pressure is low and dropping, and his heart rate is elevated. Following a
blood transfusion, his blood pressure increases and his heart rate decreases. Which of the
following statement(s) is (are) consistent with these observations?

a. Negative-feedback mechanisms can be inadequate without medical intervention.

b. The transfusion interrupted a positive-feedback mechanism.
c. The increased heart rate after the gunshot wound and before the transfusion is a
result of a positive-feedback mechanism.
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

3. Provide the correct directional term for the following statement: When a boy is standing on his
head, his nose is to his mouth
.
4. During pregnancy, which of the mother’s body cavities increases most in size?

5. A woman falls while skiing and is accidentally impaled by her ski pole. The pole passes
through the abdominal body wall and into and through the stomach, pierces the diaphragm, and
finally stops in
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CHAPTER 2 - The Chemical Basis of Life

1. The smallest particle of an element that still has the chemical characteristics of that ele
ment is a(n)
a. electron.
b. molecule.
c. neutron.
d. proton
e. atom.

2.

a. atoms of different elements.

b. isotopes.
c. atoms with different atomic numbers.
d. atoms with different numbers of protons.
e. Compounds.
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CHAPTER 3 - Cell Biology

1. In the plasma membrane, form(s) the lipid bilayer, determine(s) the fluid nature of the
membrane, and mainly determine(s) the function of the membrane
a. phospholipids, cholesterol, proteins
b. phospholipids, proteins, cholesterol
c. proteins, cholesterol, phospholipids
d. cholesterol, phospholipids, proteins
e. cholesterol, proteins, phospholipids

2. Which of the following functioning proteins are found in the plasma membrane?
a. channel proteins
b. marker molecules
c. receptor molecules
d. enzymes
e. All of these are correct.

3. In general, lipid-soluble molecules diffuse through the ; small, water-soluble molecules

diffuse through the .
a. membrane channels, membrane channels
b. membrane channels, lipid bilayer
c. lipid bilayer, carrier proteins
d. membrane channels, carrier proteins
e. carrier proteins, membrane channels

4. Small pieces of matter, and even whole cells, can be transported across the plasma
membrane in
a. membrane channels
b. carrier molecules
c. receptor molecules
d. marker molecules
e. vesicles
5. The rate of diffusion increases if the
a. concentration gradient decreases.
b. temperature of a solution decreases.
c. viscosity of a solution decreases.
d. All of these are correct.

6. Concerning the process of diffusion, at equilibrium

a. the net movement of solutes stops.
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b. random molecular motion continues.

c. there is an equal movement of solute in opposite directions.
d. the concentration of solute is equal throughout the solution.
e. All of these are correct.

7. If a cell is placed in a(n) solution, lysis of the cell may occur.

a. Hypertonic b. isotonic c. hypotonic d. isosmotic

8. Suppose that a woman runs a long-distance race in the summer. During the race, she
loses a large amount of hyposmotic sweat. You would expect her cells to
a. shrink. b. swell. c. stay the same.

9. Which of these statements about facilitated diffusion is true?

a. In facilitated diffusion, net movement is down the concentration gradient.
b. Facilitated diffusion requires the expenditure of energy.
c. Facilitated diffusion does not require a carrier protein. d. Facilitated diffusion moves
materials through ion pumps.
e. Facilitated diffusion moves materials in vesicles.

10. Which of these statements concerning the symport of glucose into cells is true?
a. The sodium-potassium exchange pump moves Na+ into cells.
b. The concentration of Na+ outside cells is less than inside cells.
c. A carrier protein moves Na+ into cells and glucose out of cells.
d. The concentration of glucose can be greater inside cells than outside cells.
e. As Na+ are actively transported into the cell, glucose is carried along.

11. A white blood cell ingests solid particles by forming vesicles. This describes the
process of
a. exocytosis.
b. facilitated diffusion.
c. secondary active transport.
d. phagocytosis.
e. pinocytosis.

12. Given these characteristics:

(1) requires energy
(2) requires carrier proteins
(3) requires membrane channels
(4) requires vesicles

Choose the characteristics that apply to exocytosis.

a. 1,2 b. 1,4 c. 1,3,4 d. 1,2,3 e . 1,2,3,4

13. Cytoplasm is found

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a. in the nucleus.
b. outside the nucleus and inside the plasma membrane.
c. outside the plasma membrane.
d. inside mitochondria.
e. everywhere in the cell.
14. Which of these elements of the cytoskeleton is composed of tubulin and forms
essential components of centrioles, spindle fibers, cilia, and flagella?
a. actin filaments b. intermediate filaments c. microtubules

15. A large structure, normally visible in the nucleus of a cell, where ribosomal subunits
are produced is called a(n)
a. endoplasmic reticulum.
b. mitochondrion.
c. nucleolus.
d. lysosome.

16. A cell that synthesizes large amounts of protein for use outside the cell has a large
a. number of cytoplasmic inclusions.
b. number of mitochondria.
c. amount of rough endoplasmic reticulum.
d. amount of smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
e. number of lysosomes.

17. Which of these organelles produces large amounts of ATP?

a. nucleus
b. mitochondria
c. ribosomes
d. endoplasmic reticulum
e. lysosomes

18. Cylindrically shaped extensions of the plasma membrane that do not move, are
supported by actin filaments, and may function in absorption or as sensory receptors are
a. centrioles.
b. spindle fibers.
c. cilia.
d. flagella
e. microvilli.

19. A portion of an mRNA molecule that determines one amino acid in a polypeptide
chain is called a(n)
a. Nucleotide.
b. gene.
c. codon.
d. exon.
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e. intron.

20. In which of these organelles is mRNA synthesized?

a. nucleus
b. ribosome
c. endoplasmic reticulum
d. nuclear envelope
e. peroxisome

21. During the cell cycle, DNA replication occurs during the
a. G1 phase.
b. G2 phase.
c. M phase.
d. S phase.

22. Given the following activities:

(1) repair
(2) growth
(3) gamete production
(4) differentiation

Which of the activities is (are) the result of mitosis?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 1,2 d. 3,4 e. 1,2,4

23. Apoptosis
a. is a programmed cell death.
b. removes excess cells between the developing fingers and toes of a fetus.
c. eliminates virally infected cells and cancer cells from the body.
d. All of these are correct.
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CHAPTER 4 - Tissues
1. Given these characteristics:
(1) capable of contraction
(2) covers free body surfaces
(3) lacks blood vessels
(4) composes various glands
(5) anchored to connective tissue by a basement membrane

Which of these are characteristics of epithelial tissue?

a. 1,2,3 b. 2,3,5 c. 3,4,5 d. 1,2,3,4 e. 2,3,4,5

2. Which of these embryonic germ layers gives rise to muscle, bone, and blood vessels?
a. Ectoderm b. endoderm c. mesoderm

3. A tissue that covers a surface, is one cell layer thick, and is composed of flat cells is
a. simple squamous epithelium.
b. simple cuboidal epithelium.
c. simple columnar epithelium.
d. stratified squamous epithelium.
e. transitional epithelium.

4. Stratified epithelium is usually found in areas of the body where the principal activity
is
a. filtration.
b. protection.
c. absorption.
d. diffusion
e. Secretion.

5. Which of these characteristics do not describe nonkeratinized stratified squamous

epithelium?
a. many layers of cells
b. flat surface cells
c.. living surface cells
d. found in the skin
e. outer layers covered by fluid

6. In parts of the body where considerable expansion occurs, such as the urinary
bladder, which type of epithelium would you expect to find?
a. Cuboidal
 Anatomy and Physiology (LECTURE) Quizzes

b. pseudostratified
c. transitional
d. Squamous
e. Columnar

7. Epithelial cells with microvilli are most likely found

a. lining blood vessels.
b. lining the lungs.
c. lining the uterine tube.
d. lining the small intestine.
e. in the skin

8. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium can be found lining the

a. digestive tract.
b. trachea.
c. thyroid gland.
d. kidney tubules.
e. urinary bladder.

9. A type of cell connection whose only function is to prevent the cells from coming apart
is a
a. desmosome. b. gap junction. c. tight junction.

10. The glands that lose their connection with epithelium during embryonic development
and secrete their cellular products into the bloodstream are called glands
a. apocrine
b. endocrine
c. exocrine
d. holocrine
e. merocrine

11. A gland has a duct that branches repeatedly, and the ducts end in saclike structures
a. simple tubular
b. compound tubular
c. simple coiled tubular
d. simple acinar
e. compound acinar

12. The fibers in dense connective tissue are produced by

a. fibroblasts.
b. adipocytes
c. osteoblasts.
d. Osteoclasts
e. macrophages.
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13. Mesenchymal cells

a. form embryonic connective tissue.
b. give rise to all adult connective tissues.
c. in adults produce new connective tissue cells in response to injury.
d. All of these are correct.

14. A tissue with a large number of collagen fibers organized parallel to each other would
most likely be found in
a. a muscle.
b. a tendon.
c. adipose tissue.
d. a bone
e. cartilage.

15. Extremely delicate fibers that make up the framework for organs such as the liver,
spleen, and lymph nodes are
a. elastic fibers.
b. reticular fibers
c. microvilli.
d. Cilia.
e. collagen fibers.

16. In which of these locations is dense irregular elastic connective tissue found?
a. Ligaments
b. nuchal ligament
c. dermis of the skin
d. large arteries
e. adipose tissue

17. Which of these is not true of adipose tissue?

a. It is the site of energy storage.
b. It is a type of connective tissue.
c. It acts as a protective cushion.
d. Brown adipose is found only in older adults.
e. It functions as a heat insulator.

18. Which of these types of connective tissue has the smallest amount of extracellular
matrix?
a. Adipose
b. Bone
c. cartilage
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d. loose connective tissue

e. blood

19. Fibrocartilage is found

a. in the cartilage of the trachea.
b. in the rib cage.
c. in the external ear.
d. on the surface of bones in movable joints.
e. between vertebrae

20. A tissue composed of cells located in lacunae surrounded by a hard matrix of

hydroxyapatite is
a. hyaline cartilage.
b. bone.
c. nervous tissue.
d. dense regular collagenous connective tissue.
e. Fibrocartilage.

21. Which of these characteristics apply to smooth muscle?

a. striated, involuntary
b. striated, voluntary
c. unstriated, involuntary
d. unstriated, voluntary

22. Which of these statements about nervous tissue is not true?

a. Neurons have cytoplasmic extensions called axons.
b. Electrical signals (action potentials) are conducted along axons.
c. Bipolar neurons have two axons.
d. Neurons are nourished and protected by glia.
e. Dendrites receive electrical signals and conduct them toward the cell body.

23. The linings of the digestive, respiratory, excretory, and reproductive passages are
composed of
a. serous membranes.
b. mucous membranes.
c. mesothelium.
d. synovial membranes.
e. endothelium.

24. Chemical mediators

a. cause blood vessels to constrict.
b. decrease the permeability of blood vessels.
c. initiate processes that lead to edema.
d. help prevent clotting.
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e. decrease pain

25. Which of these types of cells is labile?

a. Neuron
b. skin
c. liver
d. Pancreas

26. Permanent cells

a. divide and replace damaged cells in replacement tissue repair.
b. form granulation tissue.
c. are responsible for removing scar tissue.
d. are usually replaced by a different cell type if they are destroyed.
e. are replaced during regeneration tissue repair
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CHAPTER 5 - Integumentary System

1. If a splinter penetrates the skin of the palm of the hand to the second epidermal layer
from the surface, the last layer damaged is the
a. stratum granulosum.
b. stratum basale.
c. stratum corneum.
d. stratum lucidum.
e. stratum spinosum.

For questions 2–6, match the layer of the epidermis with the correct description or
function:

a. stratum basale
b. stratum corneum
c. stratum granulosum
d. stratum lucidum
e. stratum spinosum

2. Production of keratin fibers; formation of lamellar bodies; limited amount of cell division - E
3. Sloughing occurs; 25 or more layers of dead squamous cells - B
4. Production of cells; melanocytes produce and contribute melanin; hemidesmosomes present - A
5. Production of keratohyalin granules; lamellar bodies release lipids; cells die - C
6. Dispersion of keratohyalin around keratin fibers; layer appears transparent; cells dead - D

7. The function of melanin in the skin is to

a. lubricate the skin.
b. prevent skin infections.
c. protect the skin from ultraviolet light.
d. reduce water loss.
e. help regulate body temperature.

8. Concerning skin color, which pair of statements is not correctly matched?

a. skin appears yellow—carotene present
b. no skin pigmentation (albinism)—genetic disorder
c. skin tans—increased melanin production
d. skin appears blue (cyanosis)—oxygenated blood
e. African-Americans darker than Caucasians—more melanin in African-American skin

For questions 9–11, match the layer of the dermis with the correct description or
function:
 Anatomy and Physiology (LECTURE) Quizzes

a. papillary layer b. reticular layer

9. Layer of dermis responsible for most of the structural strength of the skin - B
10. Layer of dermis responsible for fingerprints and footprint - A
11. Layer of dermis responsible for cleavage lines and stretch marks - B

12. After birth, the type of hair on the scalp, eyelids, and eyebrows is
a. lanugo. b. terminal hair c. vellus hair.

13. Hair
a. is produced by the dermal root sheath.
b. consists of living, keratinized epithelial cells.
c. is colored by melanin.
d. contains mostly soft keratin.
e. grows from the tip.

14. Given these parts of a hair and hair follicle:

(1) cortex
(4) epithelial root sheath
(2) cuticle
(5) medulla
(3) dermal root sheath

Arrange the structures in the correct order from the outside of the hair follicle to the center of the
hair.

a. 1,4,3,5,2 b. 2,1,5,3,4 c. 3,4,2,1,5 d. 4,3,1,2,5 e. 5,4,3,2,1

15. Concerning hair growth,

a. hair falls out of the hair follicle at the end of the growth stage.
b. most of the hair on the body grows continuously.
c. cutting or plucking the hair increases its growth rate and thickness.
d. genetic factors and the hormone testosterone are involved in “pattern
baldness.”
e. eyebrows have a longer growth stage and resting stage than scalp hair.

16. Smooth muscles that are attached to hair follicles and produce “goosebumps” when
they contract are called
a. external root sheaths.
b. arrector pili.
c. dermal papillae.
d. internal root sheaths.
e. hair bulbs.
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For questions 17–19, match the type of gland with the correct description or function:
a. apocrine sweat gland
b. eccrine sweat gland
c. sebaceous gland

17. Alveolar gland that produces a white, oily substance; usually open into hair follicles - C
18. Coiled, tubular gland that secretes a hyposmotic fluid that cools the body; most numerous in
the palms of the hands and soles of the feet - B
19. Secretions from this coiled, tubular gland are broken down by bacteria to produce body
odor; found in the axillae, in the genitalia, and around the anus - A

20. The lunula of the nail appears white because

a. it lacks melanin.
b. blood vessels cannot be seen through the thick nail matrix.
c. the cuticle decreases blood flow to the area.
d. the nail root is much thicker than the nail body.
e. the hyponychium is thicker than the cuticle.

21. Most of the nail is produced by the

a. Cuticle.
b. hyponychium.
c. nail bed.
d. nail matrix
e. dermis..

22. The skin helps maintain optimum calcium and phosphate levels in the body by
participating in the production of

a. vitamin A.
b. vitamin B.
c. vitamin D.
d. melanin
e. keratin.

23. Which of these processes increase(s) heat loss from the body?
a. dilation of dermal arterioles
b. constriction of dermal arterioles
c. increased sweating
d. Both a and c are correct.
e. Both b and c are correct.

24. In third-degree (full-thickness) burns, both the epidermis and the dermis are
destroyed. Which of the following conditions does not occur as a result of a third-degree
burn?
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a. dehydration (increased water loss)

b. increased likelihood of infection
c. increased sweating
d. loss of sensation in the burned area
e. poor temperature regulation in the burned area