SESSION 2021-22

SAT
NATIONAL TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION
NTSE STAGE-I

PERIODIC TEST - 3

Date: 08-08-2021 Time: 120 Minutes Max. Marks : 100

TEST PATTERN
Total No. of Subject/Question Total Marks : 100
Time Type
Questions Segregation Correct Negative
Science (1 - 40)
Mathematics (41-60) No
Social Science (61-100) Objective
120 Minutes 1-100 1 Marks Negative
Question
Marking

Happy testing and Best Wishes..!!

Operations
The Radiant Academy
 SCIENCE
Straight Objective
This section contains 40 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
dd

1. What is the resistance between A and B in the given network?

1 1
2
A B

2
3 2
(A) 3  (B) 2   (C)   (D) 
2 3

2. In the given circuit, the value of total current (I) passing will be :
8
7.2
12

(A) 1.0 A (B) 0.5 A (C) 0.2 A (D) 2.0 A

3. The smallest resistance that can be obtained from a combination of ‘n’ identical resistors each of
resistance R is:
R R
(A) (B) (C) nR
n n2
(D) n2R
4. The ratio of potential difference across the two ends of a conductor and the electric current flowing through
it is:
(A) conductance (B) resistance (C) charge (D) voltage

5. When the temperature of a metallic conductor is increased its resistance:

(A) always decreases (B) always increases
(C) may increase or decrease (D) remain the same

6. Figure shows, current in a part of electrical circuit, then the value of current ‘i’ is –

2A 1A
A
3
1.
iA
2A

(A) 1.7 A (B) 3.7 A (C) 13 A (D) 1.0 A

7. If resistance are connected in series :

(A) Different current flows through every part and effective resistance is greater than the individual
resistances.
(B) Same current flows through every part and effective resistance is smaller than the individual
resistances.
(C) Same current flows through every part and effective resistance is greater than the individual
resistances.
(D) Different current flows through every part and effective resistance is smaller than the individual
resistances 

8. A particle with a charge of 1.5 coulombs is taken from a point A at a potential of 50 V to another point B at
a potential of 120 V. The work done is:
(A) 105 J. (B) 110 J. (C) 120 J (D) 100 J

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9. The amount of charge passing through a cell in one minute is 360 C. What is the current supplied by the
cell?
(A) 360 A (B) 10A. (C) 6A (D) 5A

10. Two lamps rated 100 W and 60 W respectively are connected in parallel to a 220 V supply. The current
drawn from the supply line is:
(A) 0.45 A. (B) 0.27 A. (C) 0.72 A. (D) 0.18 A.

11. Two coils have a combined resistance of 25 ohm when connected in series and 4 ohm when connected in
parallel. The ratio of individual resistance is:
(A) 4:1 (B) 5:1 (C) 2:1 (D)3:1

12. Alloys are usually used in electrical heating devices because :

(A) Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of constituent elements
(B) Alloys do not oxidize readily at high temperature
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

13. The value of equivalent resistance between the point A and B in the given circuit, will be(all resistance are
in ohm) :
4 4
A

4 4

B
4 4

(A) 6  (B) 12 (C) 11 (D) 15

14. Boiling point of 10% aqueous solution of common salt at atmospheric pressure is -
(A) 100ºC (B) > 100ºC (C) < 100ºC (D) not possible to predict

15. Up higher in the mountains, water boils -

(A) At 100ºC (B) Below 100ºC (C) Above 100ºC (D) Above 200ºC

16. When the solid melts, its temperature:

(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remain constant (D) first increases then decrease

17. Which of the following statements does not go with the liquid state?
(A) Particles are loosely packed in the liquid state
(B) Fluidity is the maximum in the liquid state
(C) Liquids can be compressed
(D) Liquids take up the shape of any container in which these are placed.

18. Radius of cation is .........the radius of parent atom

(A) More than (B) Less than (C) Same as (D) None

19. Which is the correct order of Ionisation potential

(A) Li < Be < B < C (B) Li > Be > B > C (C) Li < B < Be < C (D) C < Be < B < Li

20. Which of the below is helogen.

(A) Ar (B) He (C) Li (D) Br

21. Modern periodic table based on

(A) Atomic number (B) Atomic mass (C) Valency (D) Mass number

22. Dobereiner’s classified elements in group of 3 called as Triads. The elements of one of the Dobernier's
Triad are
(A) He,Ne,Ar (B) C,Si,Pb (C) Cu,Ag Au (D) Cl,Br,I

23. Elements in the same vertical group of the periodic table have same -
(A) Number of electrons (B) atomic number
(C) Number of valence electrons (D) electronic configurations

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24. Evaporation is a
(A) Surface phenomenon (B) Bulk phenomenon (C) Both A and B (D) None

25. Increasing order of electron affinity of halogens is -

(A) Cl < Br < I < F (B) I < Br < F < Cl (C) F < Cl < Br < I (D) Br < F < I < Cl

26. According to Newlands’ law of octaves 3rd element will resemble in its properties to -
(A) Ninth element (B) Eighth element (C) tenth element (D) Eleventh element

27. Arteries carry oxygenated blood except

(A) Pulmonary (B) Cardiac (C) Hepatic (D) Systemic

28. In mammals, veins differs from arteries in having

(A) Thicker walls (B) Deeply present (C) Carry blood away from heart (D) Internal valves

29. Oxygenated blood returns from lungs to the heart through

(A) Coronary vein (B) Pulmonary vein (C) Coronary artery (D) Pulmonary artery

30. In the circulatory system, which is correct

(A) Right ventricle, Semi-lunar valve, Pulmonary artery, Lungs
(B) Left ventricle, Semi-lunar valve, Pulmonary artery, Lungs
(C) Right ventricle, Semi-lunar valve, Pulmonary Vein, Lungs
(D) Left ventricle, Semi-lunar valve, Pulmonary Vein, Lungs

31. The heart of a healthy man beats normally per minute

(A) 85-90 times (B) 80-90 times (C) 70-80 times (D) 60-70 times

32. Four chambered heart is found in

(A) Cobra (B) Tortoise (C) Salamander (D) Crocodile

33. Which of the following has the thickest walls?

(A) Right ventricle (B) Left ventricle (C) Right auricle (D) Left auricle

34. Contraction right ventricle pumps blood into

(A) Dorsal aorta (B) Pulmonary artery (C) Pulmonary vein (D) Coronary artery

35. Mammals are said to have double circulation. It means

(A) Blood vessels are paired
(B) There are two types of blood vessels attached to every organ
(C) There are two systems, one from the heart to the lungs and back to the rest of the body
(D) The blood circulates twice through the heart

36. In adult man, normal BP is

(A) 100/80 mm Hg (B) 120/80 mm Hg (C) 100/120 mm Hg (D) 80/120 mm Hg

37. The instrument by which BP of man is determined

(A) Ultrasound (B) BP meter (C) Stethoscope (D) Sphygmomanometer

38. The Instrument used to hear heart sound is

(A) Electrocardiograph (B) Sphygmomanometer (C) Stethoscope (D) Haemometer

39. Which one of the following is connected with transport of water in plants?
(A) Phloem (B) Xylem (C) Epidermis (D) Cambium

40. The principal pathways by which water is translocated in angiosperms is

(A) Xylem vessel system (B) Xylem and phloem
(C) Sieve tubes members of phloem (D) Sieve cells of phloem

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 MATHEMATICS
Straight Objective
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
dd

41. Which of the following is always odd for any q where q is an integer?
(A) 4q + 6 (B) 4q + 2 (C) 4q + 1 (D) 4q + 4

42. If the system of equations kx + 3y – (k – 3) = 0 and the 12x + ky – k = 0 has infinitely many solutions, then
k=?
(A) 6 (B) – 6 (C) 0 (D) None of these

3x  y  1 2x  y  2 3x  2y  1
43. The solution of the equations   give by
3 5 6
(A) x = 2, y =1 (B) x = 1, y =1 (C) x = –1, y = –1 (D) x = 1, y = 2

44. If 2a = b, the pair of equations ax + by = 2a2 – 3b2, x + 2y = 2a – 6b possess

(A) No solution (B) Only one solution (C) Only two solutions (D) An infinite number of solutions

45. The sum of the present ages of father and his son is 60 years, 6 years ago, father’s ago was five time the
age of the son. After six years son’s age will be
(A) 20 years (B) 14 years (C) 12 years (D) 18 years

46. Find the value of m for which the pair of linear equations –
2x + 3y – 7 = 0 and (m – 1) x + (m +1) y = (3m – 1) has infinitely many solutions?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 10

47. The value of k for which the pair of liner equations 4x + 6y – 1 = 0 and 2x + ky – 7 = 0 represents parallel
lines is
(A) k = 3 (B) k =2 (C) k = 4 (D) k = –2

48. The product of HCF and LCM of the smallest prime number and smallest composite number is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

49. The first two digits of a three digit number are 3 and 2 and fist two digit of another three digit number are 2
and 5. The sum of number is 584 and difference is 66 what is the ratio of the last digits of the numbers?
(A) 11 : 15 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 7 : 11 (D) 5 : 9

2x 1 xy 1
50. If  , ten find the value of  ?
3y 2 xy 7
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) –1
3 3 3 3 3
51. 6 + 7 + 8 + 9 + 10 is equal to
(A) 2800 (B) 1925 (C) 2925 (D) 1800

52. If 777x + 666y = 1332, 666 x + 777y = 111, then value of x + y is?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

53. Two numbers are in the ratio 4 : 5. If 24 is subtracted from each of then, the resulting number will be in the
ratio 2 :3. The will be in the ratio 2 : 3. The original numbers are : -
(A) 48 and 60 (B) 52 and 65 (C) 60 and 75 (D) 76 and 95

54. The HCF of any two prime numbers a and b is

(A) a (B) ab (C) b (D) 1

55. If x  0. 7 then what is the value of 2x = ?

(A) 1. 7 (B) 1. 5 (C) 1.54 (D) 1.45

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56. If x  1  x  1  1 then value of x is = ?
5 2 4 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 3 5 5

1
57. If the complement of an angle is times of its supplement, then the angle is ?
5
(A) 24.5 degree (B) 67.5 degree (C) 72.5 degree (D) 86.5 degree

58. The hen of two numbers is 1200. Which of the following cannot be their HCF = ?
(A) 600 (B) 500 (C) 400 (D) 200

59. If the system of equations 2x + 3y = 5 and 4x + ky = 10 has infinitely many solutions then k = ?
1
(A) 1 (B) (C) 3 (D) 6
2

60. In a fraction 1 less from two times of numerator (x) & 1 add in denominator (y) then new fraction will be?
 x  1 2( x  1) x 2x  1
(A) 2  (B) (C) 2  (D)
 y  1 y 1 y y 1

SOCIAL SCIENCE
Straight Objective
This section contains 40 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
dd

61. The person who got people from village, ensured them jobs, helped them settle in cities and provided them
money in times of need was known as:
(A) Stapler (B) Fuller (C) Gomastha (D) Jobber

62. Why did Manchester export to India decline after the First World War?
(A) People were busy fighting the war.
(B) Factories closed down due to security problem.
(C) Factories and mills were busy producing goods to fulfill the need of army.
(D) Export trade was restricted by the government.

63. Why were workers in England hostile to machines and new technology?
(A) They did not know how to use these.
(B) They feared that they would lose their jobs and livelihood.
(C) The workers were too poor to buy new machines.
(D They were scared of machines.

64. From which of the following trade did the early entrepreneurs make a fortune?
(A) Textile trade (B) China trade (C) Trade in tea (D) Industries

65. Why did the weavers suffer from a problem of raw cotton?
(A) The cotton crop perished
(B) Raw cotton exports increased
(C) Local markets shrank
(D) Export market collapsed

66. In Victorian Britain the upper classes- aristocratic class and bourgeoisie preferred handmade goods
because:
(A) they were made from imported material.
(B) the handmade goods came to symbolize refinement and class.
(C) they were better finished.
(D) only upper class could afford the expensive items.

6
67. By late 19th century why did the British manufacturers print calendars for advertisements?
(A) Indian people were fond of using calendars in their houses.
(B) Unlike newspapers and magazines, calendars were used even by people who did not know how to
read or write.
(C) It was cheaper to advertise goods through calendars.
(D) It used to add beauty to the room.

68. Which of the following innovations helped the weavers in increasing productivity and compete with mill
sector?
(A) Spinning jenny (B) Fly shuttle (C) Cotton Gin (D) Roller
th
69. In the 17 century, merchants from towns in Europe moved to the countryside to:
(A) supply money to peasants and artisans to persuade them to produce for international markets.
(B) persuade them to settle in towns.
(C) provide them with small workshops.
(D) stop them from working for other companies.

70. Where was the first cotton mill established? ;

(A) Bombay (B) Ahmadabad (C) Kanpur (D) Madras

71. Who devised the Spinning Jenny?

(A) James Hargreaves (B) James Watt (C) Richard Arkwright (D) Samuel Luke

72. Indian industrial growth increased after First World War because:
(A) British opened new factories in India.
(B) New technological changes occurred.
(C) Indian mills now had a vast home market to supply to.
(D) India became independent.

73. Why was it difficult to get a job in a factory in 19th century Britain?
(A) Employers were looking for only skilled workers and they rejected inexperienced applicants.
(B) The number of jobs were less than the number of job seekers.
(C) Employers did not prefer migrants.
(D) Employers wanted educated workers.

74. With the growth of colonial power, trade through the new ports of Bombay and Calcutta came to be
controlled by:
(A) Indian merchants (B) European companies (C) The East India Company (D) British Parliament.

75. Identify the incorrect option. Early entrepreneur of India:

(A) Dwarkanath Tagore of Bengal
(B) Seth Hukumchand of Calcutta
(C) Bhai Bhosle of Bombay
(D) Dinshaw Petit and Jamsetjee . Nusserwanjee—Parsis of Bombay.

76. Why did the weavers suffer from a problem of raw cotton?
(A) Raw cotton exports increased. (B) The cotton crop perished.
(C) Local markets shrank. (D) Export market collapsed.

77. Name the most dynamic industry in Britain.

(A) Food processing (B) Leather goods production
(C) Cotton and metal industries (D) Electronic goods production

78. Which of the following is not correct about plantation farming?

(A) In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area.
(B) The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.
(C) Plantations cover large tracts of land called estates.
(D) Farmers clear a patch of land by felling trees and burning them, to produce cereals and other food
crops.

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79. Which of the following are plantation crops?
(A) Rice and maize (B) Wheat and pulses
(C) Tea, coffee, banana and sugarcane (D) None of the above

80. Rabi crops are:

(A) sown in winter and harvested in summer
(B) sown during rainy season and harvested in winter
(C) sown in summer and harvested in winter
(D) None of the above

81. The main food crop of Kharif season is:

(A) Mustard (B) Pulses (C) Rice (D) Wheat

82. A short season between the rabi and kharif season is known as:
(A) Aus (B) Boro (C) Zaid (D) None of the above

83. Important non-food crops of our country are:

(A) Tea and coffee (B) Millets and pulses (C) Cotton and jute (D) None of the above

84. Which is the main food crop of the eastern and southern part of the country?
(A) Rice (B) Wheat (C) Maize (D) Sugarcane

85. The two main wheat growing regions are:

(A) The Ganga-Sutlej plains and the Deccan Trap
(B) North-eastern part and eastern-coastal plains
(C) Deccan plateau and Konkan coast
(D) None of the above

86. The third most important food crop of our country is:
(A) Rice (B) Wheat (C) Jowar (D) Ragi

87. Which State is the largest producer of bajra?

(A) Rajasthan (B) Maharashtra (C) Gujarat (D) Haryana

88. Which one of the following is not true for pulses?

(A) Pulses are grown in both rabi and kharif season
(B) Pulses are leguminous crops
(C) They are grown in rotation with other crops
(D) Pulses require intensive irrigation facilities

89. What percentage of our cropped area is covered by oilseeds?

(A) 21 (B) 12 (C) 2 (D) 4

90. Which of the following is known as golden fibre?

(A) Cotton (B) Jute (C) Hemp (D) Silk

91. Which one of the following is a leguminous j crop?

(A) Pulses (B) Jawar (C) Millets (D) Sesamum

92. Which one of the following is announced by the government in support of a crop?
(A) Maximum support price (B) Minimum support price
(C) Moderate support price (D) Influential support price

93. Primitive subsistence farming is also known as:

(A) Mixed farming (B) Cooperative farming
(C) Slash and bum agriculture (D) Commercial farming

94. Who issues the currency notes in India?

(A) Currency notes are issued by the Finance Commission.
(B) All the nationalized banks can issue the currency notes.
(C) Only Reserve Bank of India can issue currency notes.
(D) Any individual or organization can issue currency notes with the permission of the govt.

8
95. What do the banks do with the deposits which I they accept from the customers?
(A) Banks use these deposits for charitable activities.
(B) Banks use a major portion of deposits to extend loans.
(C) Banks use deposits to give bonus to their employees.
(D) Banks use deposits to set up more branches in the country.

96. What is the main source of income of a bank?

(A) Bank charges that the depositors pay for ; keeping their money safe is the main ; source of the bank’s
income.
(B) The difference between what is charged from the borrowers and paid to the depositors is the main
source of bank’s income.
(C) Banks earn huge amounts of money by investing the money of the depositors in various company
shares.
(D) The Government of India gives huge amounts of money to the banks to help their smooth functioning.

97. An agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services in return for the
promise of future payment refers to
(A) Debt (B) Deposit (C) Credit (D) Collateral

98. Which body (authority) supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans?
(A) Finance Ministry (B) Head Office of each Bank
(C) Reserve Bank (D) Cooperative Societies

99. In which country is the Grameen Bank meeting the credit needs of over 6 million poor people?
(A) Bhutan (B) Sri Lanka (C) Bangladesh (D) Nepal

100. A typical Self Help Group usually has

(A) 100-200 members (B) 50-100 members (C) less than 10 members (D) 15-20 members