Question Results: The Force of Friction and Tension in A String Are Derived From

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You scored -1 of 4
Question : 1
The force of friction and tension in a string are derived from
Options:
Nuclear forces
Weak nuclear forces
Gravitational forces
Electromagnetic forces
Solution :
Answer (4)
Frictional force and tension in string are electromagnetic in nature.
You scored 0 of 4
Question : 2 skipped
The parallax of a heavenly body measured from two points

diametrically opposite on equator of earth is 2 arc minute. If
radius of earth is 6400 km, the distance of heavenly body from
earth is
Options:
9
1.1 × 10 m
10
1.9 × 10 m
10
2.2 × 10 m
10
3.7 × 10 m
Solution :
Answer (3)
l = rθ
= 2.2 × 10 10 m
You scored 0 of 4
The dimensional formula for pressure gradient is
Options:
2 –3
[ML T ]
–2 –3
[ML T ]
2 2
[ML T ]
–2 –2
[ML T ]
Solution :
Answer (4)
Pressure gradient
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 4
The relation between power P, distance x and time t is given
as . The dimensions of b/a is
Options:
2 –2
[ML T ]
–1 –2
[M LT ]
–1 2 –2
[M L T ]
–2 –2
[ML T ]
Solution :
Answer (1)
You scored 0 of 4
The lengths of two cylindrical rods are measured as l1 = (5.62

± 0.01) cm and l2 = (4.34 ± 0.02) cm. What is maximum
percentage error in measurement of difference of lengths of
two cylinders?
Options:
1.6%
2.34%
1.95%
3.16%
Solution :
Answer (2)
Percentage error =
You scored 0 of 4
Which among the following statements is incorrect?
Options:
Accuracy of measurement shall depend on resolution of

measuring instrument
As we reduce the errors, measurement’s accuracy increases
Smaller is the least count, greater is the precision
More accurate measurement must have high precision
Solution :
Answer (4)
Accurate measurement may have less precision.
You scored 0 of 4
3
7.893 gram of a substance occupies a volume of 1.1 cm . The
density of substance with appropriate significant figures is
Options:
–3
7.18 g cm
–3
7.20 g cm
–3
7.2 g cm
–3
7.175 g cm
Solution :
Answer (3)
By rule of division in significant (least significant digit taken)
ρ = 7.2 g cm –3
You scored 0 of 4
The pitch of screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 100 divisions

on circular scale. While measuring diameter of a wire, linear
th
scale reads 1 mm and 39 division of circular scale coincides
with reference line. The zero error is –0.05 mm. The correct
diameter of wire is
Options:
1.39 mm
1.44 mm
1.35 mm
1.034 mm
Solution :
Answer (2)
Observed diameter = 1 mm + 39 × 0.01 mm = 1.39 mm
Corrected diameter of wire = 1.39 mm + 0.05 mm = 1.44 mm
You scored 0 of 4
What is the use of thin strip at the back of Vernier caliper?
Options:
For measuring internal diameter of a beaker
For measuring depth of cylinder
For measuring diameter of hollow cylinder
For measuring radius of curvature of a lens
Solution :
Answer (2)
Thin strip at the back of Vernier caliper, is used to measure the depth of cylinder.
You scored 0 of 4
In an experiment to measure the height of a bridge by

dropping stone into water underneath, if the error in
measurement of time is 0.1 s at the end of 2 s, then error in
2
estimating height of bridge is [g = 9.8 m/s (exact)]
Options:
0.19 m
1.96 m
0.98 m
0.12 m
Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 0 of 4
A motor boat covers the distance between two spots in river

in 8 h and 12 h downstream and upstream respectively. What
is time required by boat to cover this distance in still water?
Options:
10 h
10.8 h
9.6 h
9h
Solution :
Answer (3)
u = speed of boat
v = velocity of river
x = distance between spots
For downstream
For upstream
So
You scored 0 of 4
An insect crawling up a wall crawls 6 cm up in first second

and then slides 4 cm down in next second. It again crawls up 6
th
cm in third second and again slides 4 cm downwards in 4
second. How long will insect take to reach a hole in wall at a
vertical height of 24 cm from starting point?
Options:
20 s
27 s
25 s
19 s
Solution :
Answer (4)
Effective distance up in 2 s = 2 cm
So, 18 cm up moved in 18 s
Next time, insect moves 6 cm and reaches into hole without sliding back and took = 1 s
T = 18 s + 1 s = 19 s
You scored 0 of 4
A police jeep is chasing culprit going on motorcycle. The

motorcycle crosses a turning at 20 m/s. The jeep follows at
speed of 30 m/s, crossing the turning 6 second later than
motor cycle. If they travel at constant speeds, how far from
turning point jeep catches up the motorcycle?
Options:
40 m
50 m
360 m
120 m
Solution :
Answer (3)
Distance covered by jeep = 30 × 12
= 360 m
You scored 0 of 4
A ball is thrown vertically upwards with velocity of 20 m/s

from top of a tower 25 m high. What is maximum height
2
reached by ball from ground? (g = 10 m/s )
Options:
30 m
40 m
45 m
75 m
Solution :
Answer (3)
From point of projection up
Height from ground

You scored 0 of 4
From top of a tower 100 m high, a ball is dropped and at the

same time another ball is projected vertical up from ground
2
with speed of 40 m/s. The two balls will meet (g = 9.8 m/s )
Options:
56 m above ground
30.6 m below the top
40.8 m below the top
40.8 m above ground
Solution :
Answer (2)
For dropped ball
t = time of meet.
For upward motion
You scored 0 of 4
An object is dropped from the top of a tower. It travels a

distance 5 m in the first second and 25 m in the last second.
The speed with which object strikes the ground is (g = 10
2
m/s )
Options:
30 m/s
50 m/s
40 m/s
20 m/s
Solution :
Answer (1)
Time of flight = 3 s (S 1 : S 2 : S 3 :: 1 : 3 : 5)
v = gt = 10 × 3 = 30 m/s
You scored 0 of 4
The acceleration of a body starting from rest varies with time

–2
following the equation a = 3t + 4, where a is in m s and t in s.
The velocity of body at t = 2 s will be
Options:
18 m/s
14 m/s
12 m/s
20 m/s
Solution :
Answer (2)
= 6 + 8 = 14 m/s
You scored 0 of 4
For the velocity (v) – time (t) graph shown below, what is the
average velocity of object during first 7 seconds?
Options:
4.2 m/s
6.5 m/s
5.7 m/s
5.0 m/s
Solution :
Answer (3)
Area of v-t graph = Displacement
You scored 0 of 4
Two ends of a train moving at constant acceleration pass a

point with speed of 12 m/s and 24 m/s respectively. The speed
with which middle point of the train passes the same point is
(approximately)
Options:
16 m/s
19 m/s
22 m/s
20 m/s
Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 0 of 4
The area under acceleration-time graph gives
Options:
Velocity of object
Speed of object
Change in velocity
Change of acceleration
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 0 of 4
A particle moving along a straight line has velocity v m/s,

when it covers a distance x along positive x axis. The relation
between two quantities is When the velocity of
particle is 1 m/s, its acceleration will be
Options:
1 m/s²
7 m/s²
2 m/s²
0.5 m/s²
Solution :
Answer (4)
(constant)
You scored 0 of 4
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding

motion of particle along straight line?
Options:
v–t graph is a straight line inclined to time axis for uniform

acceleration
x–t graph is parabola if motion is uniformly accelerated
x–t graph is a straight line inclined to time axis if motion is

uniform and acceleration is zero
v–t graph is parabola if motion is uniformly accelerated
Solution :
Answer (4)
v – t graph will be straight line for uniformly accelerated motion.
You scored 0 of 4
A unit vector along the direction of resultant of two vectors

and , where and is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 0 of 4
The position vector of a particle at any time is given as

. The direction of velocity of particle at t = 1 s is
Options:
Making 53º angle with x-axis
Making 37º angle with x-axis
Making an angle of 30º with y-axis
Making an angle of 45º with x-axis
Solution :
Answer (1)
with x-axis
You scored 0 of 4
A body executing uniform circular motion, has position vector

and acceleration vector
Options:
Are perpendicular to each other
Are along same direction
Are in opposite direction
May be inclined at any angle
Solution :
Answer (3)
In uniform circular motion, acceleration vector is opposite to position

vector.
You scored 0 of 4
The horizontal range of a projectile fired at an angle of 15º is

30 m. If it is fired at 45º to vertical with same speed, its range
will be
Options:
90 m
120 m
60 m
100 m
Solution :
Answer (3)
R ∝ sin(2θ) for same u.
You scored 0 of 4
A bullet of mass 0.04 kg moving with speed of 90 m/s enters

into heavy wooden block and is stopped after a distance of 60
cm. The average resistive force exerted by the block on bullet
is
Options:
160 N
240 N
270 N
320 N
Solution :
Answer (3)
Retardation
You scored 0 of 4
A mass of 6 kg is suspended by a rope of length 2 m as shown

in figure. A force of 80 N is applied at mid-point P as shown.
What angle the rope makes with vertical under equilibrium?
(Take g = 10 m/s²)
Options:
37º
45º
53º
60º
Solution :
Answer (3)
Under equilibrium
You scored 0 of 4
A mass of 3 kg rests on horizontal plane. The plane is

gradually inclined until at an angle of 37º to horizontal, the
mass just begins to slide down. The coefficient of static
friction between block and surface is
Options:
0.2
0.5
0.75
0.90
Solution :
Answer (3)
Angle of repose θ is related to μ
μ = tanθ = tan 37º = = 0.75

You scored 0 of 4
A box of mass 20 kg is connected to mass of 2 kg (hanging)

through a light string and an ideal pulley as shown in figure.
Coefficient of kinetic friction between trolley and surface is
2
0.05. What is acceleration of the box? (g = 10 m/s )
Options:
–2
(4/11) m s
–2
(5/11) m s
–2
(6/11) m s
–2
(7/11) m s
Solution :
Answer (2)
For box
T – 0.05 × 20 × 10 = 20a …….(1)
For hanging block
20 – T = 2 × a …….(2)
Adding equation
You scored 0 of 4
A cyclist is speeding at 20 m/s on a level road taking a level

circular turn of radius 200 m without reducing speed. What is
minimum coefficient of static friction required between tyres
and road so that cyclist take turn without slipping?
Options:
0.1
0.2
0.25
0.35
Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 0 of 4
A rocket with lift off mass of 10 metric ton is blasted upwards

2
with an initial acceleration of 2.2 m/s . What is initial thrust of
2
blast? (g = 9.8 m/s )
Options:
105 kN
112 kN
120 kN
42 kN
Solution :
Answer (3)
Thrust from second law of Motion
F – Mg = Ma
F = M (g + a) = 10,000 × (9.8 + 2.2)
= 10,000 × 12
= 120,000 = 120 kN
You scored 0 of 4
A man of mass 60 kg stands on weighing machine in a lift

which is moving down and speeding up with an acceleration
2
of 2.3 m/s . What will be reading on the weighing machine
2
scale? (g = 9.8 m/s )
Options:
450 N
720 N
680 N
380 N
Solution :
Answer (1)
As lift is moving down normal reaction on man is equal to weighing

machine reading.
Mg – N = Ma ⇒ N = Mg – Ma = 60 (9.8 – 2.3)
= 60 × 7.5
N = 450 N
You scored 0 of 4
–2
A truck starts from rest and has acceleration of 4 m s . A box
is inside truck which is at 6 m from open end of truck. The
coefficient of friction between box and truck is 0.1. How much
time box will take to slip out of truck?
Options:
2s
3.1 s
3.8 s
1.5 s
Solution :
Answer (1)
=2s
You scored 0 of 4
A particle is moving on a circular path of 10 m radius. At any

instant of time, its speed is 5 m/s and speed is decreasing at a
2
rate of 1.5 m/s . The magnitude of net acceleration at this
instant is nearly
Options:
2
4 m/s
2
1 m/s
2
2.9 m/s
2
3.2 m/s
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 0 of 4
A cricket ball of mass 250 g with a speed of 10 m/s is hit back

by a bat and returns with same speed within 0.01 s. The force
exerted by the bat is
Options:
200 N
400 N
500 N
250 N
Solution :
Answer (3)
|Δp| = 2mu
You scored 0 of 4
Identify the correct statement.
Options:
Kinetic friction depends on area of contact for a given normal

contact face
Coefficient of kinetic friction is generally less than coefficient

of static friction
The magnitude of kinetic friction cannot be more than static

friction
Coefficient of static friction does not depend on surface

nature in contact
Solution :
Answer (2)
Static friction is self-adjusting and its maximum value is limiting friction. So kinetic friction which
is constant can even be more than static friction. But static friction depends on nature of surfaces
in contact.
You scored 0 of 4
The radii of circular paths of two particles of same mass are in

ratio 3 : 4, then what will be ratio of speed if they have some
magnitude of centripetal force?
Options:
2:3
Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 0 of 4
A tube of length 3 m is filled completely with an

incompressible liquid of mass 2 kg and closed at both ends.
The tube is rotated in horizontal plane about one of its ends
with angular speed of 1 rad/s. The force exerted by liquid at
other end is
Options:
1N
2N
3N
6N
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 40
The force by 2 kg block exerted on 1 kg block is 4 N. What is

force F applied on 4 kg block shown?
Options:
18 N
28 N
32 N
9N
Solution :
Answer (2)
From free body diagram
4 = 1 × a ∴ a = 4 m/s 2
By FBD for system a = 4 m s –2
F = (4 + 2 + 1) × 4
F = 28 N
You scored 0 of 4
Two particles of equal mass are connected by a light rod of

negligible mass as shown in the figure. The rod is rotated
about end B in horizontal plane. The ratio of tensions in
smaller part to other is
Options:
1:3
3:2
4:3
3:1
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 42
A body of mass 5 kg is suspended by a spring balance on an

inclined plane as shown in figure. The spring balance reading
2
is (g = 10 m/s )
Options:
50 N
30 N
40 N
Zero
Solution :
Answer (3)
The mass is under equilibrium with spring
T = Spring balance reading = 5 × g × sin 53°

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 43
The position(x)-time(t) graph of one dimensional motion of a

body of mass 0.5 kg is shown. The magnitude of each impulse
is
Options:
1Ns
2Ns
0.5 N s
1.5 N s
Solution :
Answer (1)
Velocity at t = 2 s changes from
1 m/s to –1 m/s
Impulse
You scored 0 of 4
A person with a mass m stands in contact against a rough wall

of cylindrical drum (rotor) of radius R without floor. The rotor
is rotating about its axis with angular speed ω rad/s. What is
minimum coefficient of friction required such that person
does not slip down?
Options:
2
gR/ω
2
2gR/ω
2
g/Rω
2
Rω /2 g
Solution :
Answer (3)
Frictional force = Weight of person (no slipping)
You scored 0 of 4
A block of mass 5 kg is resting on rough surface for which

coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.5. When a force of F = 60 N is
applied, the acceleration of block will be (g = 10 m/s²)
Options:
-2
4.6 m s
-2
3.9 m s
-2
8.2 m s
-2
2.6 m s
Solution :
Answer (3)
N + 36 = 50 ∴ N = 14 newton
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 46
The angular momentum of ‘d’ orbital electron is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (4)
Angular momentum
(For d orbital, l = 2)
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 47
nd 2+
In the 2 shell of Li ion, the total number of degenerate
orbitals is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
For one electron species, all the orbitals of any shell have same energy means they are
degenerated.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 48
Molarity of 0.6 N H3PO3 is
Options:
0.6 M
0.2 M
0.3 M
0.4 M
Solution :
Answer (3)
For H 3 PO 3 , n-factor = 2
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 49
The number of significant figures in 1.004 is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Zeros between two non-zero digits are significant.
You scored 0 of 4
The molality of aqueous solution of urea in which mole

fraction of urea is 0.1, will be
Options:
5.25 m
6.17 m
6.98 m
7.54 m
Solution :
Answer (2)
If n urea = 0.1 then = 0.9
Molality (m)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 51
If 100 g of a metal oxide contains 32 g of oxygen then the

equivalent weight of metal will be
Options:
17
25
16.5
23.5
Solution :
Answer (1)
g. eq. of metal = g. eq. of oxygen
You scored 0 of 4
2– 23
The number of electrons in 3.2 g of O ion is (NA = 6 × 10 )
Options:
23
0.12 × 10
22
0.61 × 10
26
2.4 × 10
24
1.2 × 10
Solution :
Answer (4)
Number of electrons
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 53
Which of the following is not permissible set of quantum

numbers?
Options:
n = 5, l = 4, m = 0, s =
n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s =
n = 3, l = 1, m = –1, s =
n = 2, l = 0, m = +1, s =
Solution :
Answer (4)
For l = 0, m is zero.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 54
The sum of radial nodes and angular nodes is
Options:
n+1
n–1
n–2
Solution :
Answer (3)
Radial nodes = n – l – 1
Angular nodes = l
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 55
Which among the following radiations has maximum

frequency?
Options:
X-rays
Radio waves
-rays
Microwaves
Solution :
Answer (3)
Frequency: Radio waves < Microwaves < X-rays < -rays
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 56
Select the incorrect statement among the following regarding

photoelectric effect.
Options:
There is no time lag between the striking of light and ejection

of electrons
The number of ejected photoelectrons do not depend upon

the frequency of light
Below the threshold frequency the photoelectrons cannot be

ejected
The kinetic energy of photoelectrons is proportional to the

intensity of light
Solution :
Answer (4)
The kinetic energy of the photoelectrons depends upon the frequency of light.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 57
An organic compound contains 57.82% of C, 3.6% of H and

rest is oxygen. The empirical formula of the compound will be
Options:
C4H3O2
C2H2O
C2H2O3
CHO
Solution :
Answer (1)
Element % Mole Mole ratio Simple whole ratio
C 57.82 4
H 3.6 3
O 38.58 2
∴ Empirical formula = C 4 H 3 O 2
You scored 0 of 4
If the longest wavelength of H-atom in Balmer series is x Å,

then the shortest wavelength in Lyman series of H-atom will
be
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
Balmer series: n 1 = 2, n 2 = 3
Lyman series: n 1 = 1, n 2 = ∞
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 59
+
Be is isoelectronic with
Options:
2+
Li
–
H
He
2+
B
Solution :
Answer (4)
Be + and B 2+ both have 3 electrons.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 60
Which of the following method of expressing concentration is

temperature dependent?
Options:
Mole fraction
Molarity
Molality
Solution :
Answer (2)
Concentration terms which involve volume of solution are temperature dependent.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 61
Which has minimum number of atoms among the following?
Options:
32 g of O2
4 g of He
11 g of CO2
2.3 g of Na
Solution :
Answer (4)
• O2: Number of atoms
• He: Number of atoms
• CO2: Number of atoms
• Na: Number of atoms

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 62
Volume of 0.1 N H2SO4 required to prepare 0.001 M, 2 L H2SO4

solution is
Options:
20 ml
40 ml
10 ml
80 ml
Solution :
Answer (2)
N1V1 = N2V2
0. 1 × V 1 = 0.001 × 2 × 2
V 1 = 0.04 L = 40 ml
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 63
nd
Angular momentum of electron in 2 orbit of hydrogen atom
is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Angular momentum
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 64
Maximum number of spectral lines obtained in Lyman series

of sample of H-atom when electrons falls from third excited
state to ground state is
Options:
10
Solution :
Answer (3)
4 → 1, 3 → 1, 2 → 1, three lines are obtained in lyman series.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 65
st nd +
The ratio of radius of 1 orbit of hydrogen, 2 orbit of He ion
rd 2+
and 3 orbit of Li ion will be
Options:
1:4:9
6:3:2
1:2:3
4:2:1
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 66
Atomic mass of magnesium is 24 amu it means that an atom of

magnesium is
Options:
24 times heavier than one twelfth of mass of a carbon atom

(C-12)
24 times heavier than the mass of a carbon atom (C-12)
4 times heavier than the mass of a carbon atom (C-12)
2 times heavier than one twelfth of mass of a carbon atom (C-

12)
Solution :
Answer (1)
Atomic mass of an element tells us as how many times an atom of the element is heavier than
one-twelfth of an atom of carbon (C-12).
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 67
14 15
Nitrogen has two isotopes N and N and its average atomic
mass is 14.0067. The percentage abundance of lighter isotope
of N is
Options:
99.33%
90.95%
98.67%
99.05%
Solution :
Answer (1)
Average atomic mass
x = 99.33%
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 68
23
Mass of one molecule of glucose is (NA = 6 × 10 )
Options:
–23
3 × 10 g
–24
6 × 10 g
–23
6 × 10 g
–22
3 × 10 g
Solution :
Answer (4)
Mass of one molecule
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 69
Volume of O2 required at STP to completely burn 3 g of ethane

is
Options:
6.25 L
7.84 L
8.29 L
12.32 L
Solution :
Answer (2)
Mole of O 2 required
Volume of O 2 required at STP
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 70
Most acidic oxide among the following is
Options:
Al2O3
N2O
Cl2O7
CO2
Solution :
Answer (3)
Cl 2 O 7 is most acidic oxide among given options.
You scored 0 of 4
The molarity of 4.9% (w/w) H2SO4 solution having density 1.98

g/ml will be
Options:
0.99 M
1.25 M
0.12 M
1.85 M
Solution :
Answer (1)
Molarity (M)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 72
10 g H2(g) reacts with 80 g of O2(g) to form water. The

maximum mass of water formed is
Options:
90 g
10 g
80 g
45 g
Solution :
Answer (1)
Mass of water formed = 5 × 18 = 90 g
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 73
+
The normality of H in the resulting solution obtained by
mixing 50 ml of 1 N H2SO4 and 100 ml of 2 M HNO3 will be
Options:
1.67 N
1.25 N
1.33 N
1.85 N
Solution :
Answer (1)
N1V1 + N2V2 = N3V3
1 × 50 + 2 × 100 = N 3 (50 + 100)
N 3 = 1.66 N
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 74
Among the following elements which has highest ionisation

energy?
Options:
Be
Solution :
Answer (2)
IP : N > O > Be > B
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 75
The mole fraction of CH3OH in its 32% (w/w) aqueous solution

is nearly
Options:
0.56
0.11
0.21
0.38
Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 76
th
In 16 group elements, the minimum negative electron gain
enthalpy is of
Options:
Te
Se
Solution :
Answer (4)
(–Δ eg H): S > Se > Te > O
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 77
In which of the following pairs the radii of second species is

greater than that of first?
Options:
+
I, I
2– –
S , Cl
O, F
N, Ne
Solution :
Answer (4)
In 2nd period, Ne has largest size due to van der waal radii.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 78
Which among the following is not a representative element?
Options:
Li
Ba
Solution :
Answer (3)
s and p-block elements are known as representative elements.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 79
Which graph of wave function (ψ) with distance from nucleus

is correct for ‘2p’ orbital of H- like atom?
Options:
Solution :
Answer (2)
For 2p-orbital, the wave function increases with distance, attains a maximum value and then
decreases.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 80
Select the incorrect option among the following
Options:
11 –1
e/m ratio of proton is 1.758820 × 10 Cg
e/m values of anode rays generated by discharge of different

gases are different
Millikan’s oil drop experiment was used to calculate the

charge on electron
e/m ratio of electron was determined by J.J. Thomson
Solution :
Answer (1)
e/m ratio of electron is 1.758820 × 10 11 C kg –1 .
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 81
The correct mathematical expression for Heisenberg’s

uncertainty principle is
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle:

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 82
Which of the following phenomena are not justified by wave

nature of light?
(a) Line spectra of atoms with special reference to hydrogen
(b) Variation of heat capacity of solids as a function of

temperature
(c) Photoelectric effect
(d) Black body radiation
Options:
(a) and (b) only
(c) and (d) only
(b), (c) and (d) only
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
Solution :
Answer (4)
All the given phenomenons are justified by wave nature of light.
You scored 0 of 4
Energy of 2s-orbital is maximum for which of the following

element?
Options:
Li
Na
Solution :
Answer (2)
Energy order: E 2 s (H) > E 2 s (Li) > E 2 s (Na) > E 2 s (K).
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 84
5
How many ways electron exchange is possible for the d
configuration?
Options:
10
Solution :
Answer (1)
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 85
th
If the kinetic energy of electron in n shell of H-atom is K then
th
its potential energy in n shell will be
Options:
–K
–2 K
Solution :
Answer (3)
If KE = K, then PE = –2 K and total energy = –K.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 86
IUPAC name of the element having atomic number 110 is
Options:
Ununnillium
Unnilbium
Ununoctium
Unnilunium
Solution :
Answer (1)
Z = 110 : Unn : Ununnillium
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 87
Diagonal relationship is shown by the elements of
Options:
Group-2 and group-3
Group-2 and group-13
Group-14 and group-17
Group-3 and group-4
Solution :
Answer (2)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 88
Select the element of first highest ionization energy
Options:
Na
Rb
Li
Solution :
Answer (4)
On moving down in s-block elements, ionization energy generally decrease.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 89
Most electronegative element among the following is
Options:
Al
Solution :
Answer (4)
Electronegativity order: S > P > B > Al
You scored 0 of 4
Which is correct regarding the position of the element as

given below?
Options:
th
X(Z = 60) - f-block, 6 period
th
Y(Z = 82) - p-block, 7 period
th
W(Z = 101) - d-block, 7 period
th
Q(Z = 48) - s-block, 5 period
Solution :
Answer (1)
Nd(Z = 60), is f-block element belongs to 6 th period.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 91
All of the following easily multiply by fragmentation, except
Options:
Protonema of mosses
Filamentous algae
Filamentous fungi
Unicellular organisms
Solution :
Answer (4)
Filamentous organisms multiply by fragmentation. Unicellular organisms multiply by either fission
or budding.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 92
Select the incorrect statement.
Options:
No non living object is capable of replicating by itself
All microbes exhibit metabolism
Only most complex eukaryotes can sense and respond to

environmental cues
Properties of tissues are not present in their constituent cells

but arise as a result of interaction of constituent cells
Solution :
Answer (3)
Each living organisms has consciousness. All of them can sense and respond to environmental
cues.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 93
Mark the incorrect option regarding the scientific name of

mango.
Options:
Mangifera represents the genus while indica is a particular

species
It is in Latin language
It is binomial name
It should be underlined whether handwritten or printed
Solution :
Answer (4)
Both the words of a biological name should be printed in italics and underlined separately if
handwritten.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 94
Taxonomy does not include
Options:
Nomenclature
Classification
Identification
Evolutionary relationships among organisms
Solution :
Answer (4)
Systematics includes evolutionary relationships among organisms.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 95
Scientific name of mango and brinjal are based on agreed

principles and criteria which are provided in
Options:
ICZN
ICNB
ICBN
ICVCN
Solution :
Answer (3)
ICBN stands for International Code for Botanical Nomenclature.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 96
Options:
Botanical gardens have collection of living plants
Herbarium has dried and pressed plant specimens mounted

on sheets
A museum has collection of live plant and animal specimens
Key is a taxonomical aid for identification of specimens
Solution :
Answer (3)
A museum has collection of preserved plant and animal specimens.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 97
Wheat belongs to the order
Options:
Polymoniales
Sapindales
Poales
Rosales
Solution :
Answer (3)
Wheat belongs to the order poales.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 98
Lion, leopard and tiger are all species of the genus
Options:
Felis
Panthera
Canis
Musca
Solution :
Answer (2)
Lion, leopard and tiger are all species of the genus Panthera.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 99
In case of plants, classes with a few similar characters are

assigned to a higher category called
Options:
Family
Phylum
Order
Division
Solution :
Answer (4)
The term phylum is used for animals, while division is used for plants.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 100
Select the correct option for A and B.

Biological name Order Class
Musca domestica A Insecta
Homo sapiens Primata B
Options:
A – Muscidae, B – Mammalia
A – Diptera, B – Chordata
A – Diptera, B – Mammalia
A – Muscidae, B – Chordata
Solution :
Answer (3)
Musca belongs to the order Diptera and humans belong to the class Mammalia.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 101
How many of the following kingdoms possess members with

cell wall?
A. Kingdom Monera
B. Kingdom Fungi
C. Kingdom Plantae
D. Kingdom Animalia
Options:
Only one
Only two
Only three
All of these
Solution :
Answer (3)
Member of kingdom Animalia do not have cell wall.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 102
Which of the following bacteria synthesize their own food

from inorganic substances and use chlorophyll pigment?
Options:
Photosynthetic autotrophic
Chemosynthetic autotrophic
Heterotrophic
Parasitic
Solution :
Answer (1)
Photosynthetic bacteria have pigments which capture sunlight and synthesize food.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 103
Mark the incorrect statement.
Options:
Animals are multicellular eukaryotic organisms
Mycoplasma is insensitive to penicillin
Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission
Typhoid is a viral disease
Solution :
Answer (4)
Typhoid is a bacterial disease.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 104
Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement-A: Bacteria are helpful in production of antibiotics.
Statement-B: The comma shaped bacteria are vibrio.
Options:
Only statement A is correct
Only statement B is correct
Both statements A and B are correct
Both statements A and B are incorrect
Solution :
Answer (3)
Antibiotics are also produced by bacteria.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 105
Read the following features and identify the organism on

these basis.
A. Flagellum is absent
B. Has chlorophyll a
C. Possess rigid cell wall
D. Fixes atmospheric nitrogen as well as carbon dioxide
Options:
E. coli
Methanogens
Nostoc
Halophiles
Solution :
Answer (3)
Nostoc is a BGA which has chlorophyll a, cell wall and fix atmospheric CO 2 as well as N 2 .
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 106
Archaebacteria found in marshy areas are
Options:
Thermoacidophiles
Halophiles
Methanogens
Blue green algae
Solution :
Answer (3)
Methanogens are found in marshy areas.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 107
In five kingdom classification, slime moulds and protozoans

belong to the kingdom
Options:
Protista
Monera
Fungi
Animalia
Solution :
Answer (1)
Protozoans and slime moulds are eukaryotic unicellular organisms. So they belong to kingdom
Protista.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 108
Diatoms
Options:
Are multicellular
Lack chlorophyll
Are chief producers in ocean
Are wall-less microorganisms
Solution :
Answer (3)
Diatoms are chrysophytes. They are chief producers in the ocean.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 109
Instead of a cell wall, a protein rich layer called pellicle is

present in
Options:
Euglenoids
Dinoflagellates
Fungi
Chrysophytes
Solution :
Answer (1)
Pellicle is seen in euglenoids.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 110
Select the ciliated protozoan.
Options:
Trypanosoma
Paramoecium
Plasmodium
Entamoeba
Solution :
Answer (2)
Paramoecium is a ciliated protozoan.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 111
Mark the correct statement about red tide.
Options:
It is caused by terrestrial microorganisms
Red dinoflagellates such as Gonyaulax are responsible for

this
It is due to rapid multiplication of red algae
Red tide causing organism do not kill other marine fishes
Solution :
Answer (2)
Red dinoflagellates multiply so rapidly that they make the sea appear red.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 112
Options:
Puccinia causes red rot of sugarcane
Albugo is parasitic fungus on mustard
Penicillium is a good source of Penicillin
Yeast is used to make bread and beer
Solution :
Answer (1)
Puccinia causes wheat rust. Red rot of sugarcane is caused by Colletotrichum.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 113
Which of the following is commonly called sac fungi?
Options:
Mucor
Claviceps
Rhizopus
Agaricus
Solution :
Answer (2)
Claviceps belongs to the class Ascomycetes and the members of this class are called sac fungi.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 114
_______ is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work.

Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
Options:
Ustilago
Neurospora
Aspergillus
Penicillium
Solution :
Answer (2)
Neurospora, a member of Ascomycetes is often employed in biochemical and genetic work.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 115
Select the correct match.
Options:
Trichoderma – Aseptate mycelium
Colletotrichum – Has perfect stage
Ustilago – Is smut fungus
Saccharomyces – Multicellular
Solution :
Answer (3)
• Trichoderma-Septate mycelium.
• Colletotrichum – Lacks perfect (sexual) stage.
• Saccharomyces – Unicelluar
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 116
Members of Basidiomycetes
Options:
Have sex organs but lack sexual reproduction
Generally do not produce asexual spores
Are puffballs, morels and bracket fungi
Do not produce fruiting bodies
Solution :
Answer (2)
Basidiomycetes do not have sex organs but reproduce sexually by somatogamy.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 117
Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic in
Options:
Phycomycetes
Ascomycetes
Deuteromycetes
Basidiomycetes
Solution :
Answer (1)
In the members of Ascomycetes, Basidiomycetes, and Deuteromycetes, the mycelium is septate.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 118
Select the odd one w.r.t. insectivorous plant.
Options:
Bladderwort
Venus fly trap
Pitcher plant
Cuscuta
Solution :
Answer (4)
Cuscuta is a parasitic plant.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 119
A virus can possess all, except
Options:
DNA
Capsid
Envelope
Self replicating machinery
Solution :
Answer (4)
Viruses are obligate parasites. They cannot replicate by their own.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 120
Viroids
Options:
Are infectious to plants
Lack genetic material
Have proteinaceous covering
Are larger than viruses
Solution :
Answer (1)
Viroids are RNA particles, which are infectious to plants.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 121
All of the given are included in cytotaxonomy, except
Options:
Chromosome number
Chromosome behaviour
DNA sequence
Chromosome structure
Solution :
Answer (3)
DNA sequencing is included in chemotaxonomy.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 122
The most common type of spores produced in algae are

motile, they are
Options:
Sporangiospores
Conidia
Zoospores
Chlamydospores
Solution :
Answer (3)
Zoospores are motile spores which is the most common asexual spore in algae.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 123
Which of the following plant groups produce seeds but not

flowers?
Options:
Bryophytes
Gymnosperms
Pteridophytes
Ferns
Solution :
Answer (2)
Gymnosperms produce seeds but not flowers.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 124
A colonial alga is
Options:
Chlorella
Ulothrix
Volvox
Spirogyra
Solution :
Answer (3)
Ulothrix and Spirogyra are filamentous. Chlorella is unicellular.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 125
Select the mismatched pair.
Options:
Cycas – Dioecious
Equisetum – Heterosporous
Salvinia – Heterosporous
Pinus – Monoecious
Solution :
Answer (2)
Equisetum is homosporous.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 126
The moss responsible for the formation of peat is
Options:
Riccia
Funaria
Marchantia
Sphagnum
Solution :
Answer (4)
Sphagnum is responsible for peat formation.
You scored 0 of 4
Select the common characteristic of mosses and ferns.
Options:
External fertilisation
Diplontic life cycle pattern
Gametophyte as dominant plant body
Gametes formed by mitosis
Solution :
Answer (4)
Both mosses and ferns show haplo-diplontic life cycle and internal fertilization.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 128
The first terrestrial plants which possess vascular tissues i.e.,

xylem and phloem are
Options:
Bryophytes
Pteridophytes
Angiosperms
Gymnosperms
Solution :
Answer (2)
Bryophytes lack vascular tissues xylem and phloem.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 129
Gymnosperms differ from ferns in having/being
Options:
Embryophytes
Vascular tissues
Ovule
Archegonia
Solution :
Answer (3)
Ferns lack ovule.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 130
Gametophytes do not have an independent existence in
Options:
Dryopteris
Pinus
Riccia
Funaria
Solution :
Answer (2)
In gymnosperms, gametophytes do not have an independent existence.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 131
Select the organism which belong to the class Lycopsida.
Options:
Adiantum
Selaginella
Equisetum
Psilotum
Solution :
Answer (2)
Selaginella and Lycopodium belong to the class Lycopsida.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 132
Select the odd one w.r.t. prothallus.
Options:
Unicellular
Photosynthetic
Thalloid gametophyte
Free living
Solution :
Answer (1)
Prothallus is multicellular.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 133
Double fertilisation includes triple fusion and syngamy is seen

in
Options:
Mosses
Flowering plants
Ferns
Gymnosperms
Solution :
Answer (2)
Double fertilisation is seen in angiosperms only.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 134
In angiosperms, embryo sac has egg apparatus which

includes one egg cell and
Options:
One synergid cell
Two antipodal cells
Two synergid cells
One antipodal cell
Solution :
Answer (3)
Egg apparatus is three celled structure i.e., one egg cell and two synergids.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 135
Ectocarpus and Polysiphonia show
Options:
Haplontic and diplontic life cycle respectively
Haplontic and haplo-diplontic life cycle respectively
Diplontic life cycle
Haplo-diplontic life cycle
Solution :
Answer (4)
Ectocarpus is brown alga and Polysiphonia is red alga. Both of them show haplo-diplontic life
cycle.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 136
Presence of which of the following features represents a

difference between open type and closed type circulation in
animals?
Options:
Heart
Blood
Heart chambers
Blood capillaries
Solution :
Answer (4)
Blood capillaries are present only in closed type of circulation. Heart, heart chambers and blood
are present in both open type and closed type of circulation.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 137
Choose the incorrect match
Options:
Sycon – Cellular level of body organisation
Hydra – Tissue level of body organisation
Ascaris – Organ-system level of body organisation
Meandrina – Organ level of body organisation
Solution :
Answer (4)
Meandrina (brain coral) is a coelenterate having tissue level of body organisation.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 138
Choose the odd one w.r.t. ctenophores
Options:
They are commonly known as comb-jellies
Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular
Stinging cells are present exclusively in tentacles
Reproduction takes place only by sexual means
Solution :
Answer (3)
Presence of stinging cells are characteristic feature of only coelenterates.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 139
All of the following animals represent metameric segmentation

except
Options:
Arthropods
Annelids
Chordates
Molluscs
Solution :
Answer (4)
Metameric segmentation is not found in molluscs.
You scored 0 of 4
Notochord is mesodermally derived rod like structure formed

on the dorsal side during embryonic development in
Options:
All animals
Some animals
All hemichordates
All coelomates
Solution :
Answer (2)
Notochord is present only in some animals called chordates placed in phylum Chordata.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 141
Classification of vertebrates is given in following figure.

Identify A, B, C and D and choose the correct answer.
A B C D
(1) Phylum Acraniata Class Chondrichthyes
(2) Acraniata Division Sub class Pisces
(3) Division Gnathostomata Class Pisces
(4) Class Gnathostomata Sub class Craniata
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Vertebrata is divided into two divisions : Agnatha and Gnathostomata. Agnatha includes single
class – Cyclostomata and Gnathostomata is further divided into two super classes – Pisces and
Tetrapoda
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 142
Complete the analogy
Porifers : Choanocytes : : ______ : Cnidoblasts
Options:
Ctenophores
Coelenterates
Annelids
Echinoderms
Solution :
Answer (2)
Cnidoblasts are exclusive cells present in phylum Coelenterata.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 143
All of the following animals exhibit internal fertilization except
Options:
Sycon
Pleurobrachia
Taenia
Scoliodon
Solution :
Answer (2)
Ctenophores exhibit external fertilization e.g., Pleurobrachia and Ctenoplana. Cartilaginous
fishes, helminths and sponges show internal fertilization.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 144
Platyhelminthes includes
Options:
Roundworms
Flatworms
Segmented worms
Unisexual worms
Solution :
Answer (2)
Phylum Aschelminthes includes roundworms and Annelida includes segmented worms.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 145
Read following statements carefully w.r.t. members of phylum

Aschelminthes and choose the option with only correct
statements.
a. Include segmented worms
b. All members are bisexual
c. Alimentary canal is complete with a well developed

muscular pharynx.
d. Development may be direct or indirect.
Options:
a and b
b and c
c and d
a and d
Solution :
Answer (3)
Members of phylum Annelida are considered as segmented worms. They are unisexual and
exhibit sexual dimorphism.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 146
Select the incorrect match w.r.t. animals and their respiratory

organs which participate in gaseous exchange.
Options:
Locusta – Tracheal tubes
Pinctada – Feathery gills
Pheretima – Moist cuticle
Psittacula – Air sacs
Solution :
Answer (4)
In birds, lungs are responsible for gaseous exchange. Air sacs connected to lungs only
supplement respiration and never participate in gaseous exchange.
You scored 0 of 4
Members placed in Phylum Arthropoda can be characterised

by
Options:
Absence of compound eye and simple eye
Presence of statocysts or balancing organ
Presence of pseudocoelom
Lack of thoracic appendages
Solution :
Answer (2)
Both compound eye and simple eye are present in members of this phylum. Legs and wings are
thoracic appendages. True coelom is present.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 148
Largest phylum in Kingdom Animalia (w.r.t. number of

species) is
Options:
Mollusca
Arthropoda
Annelida
Chordata
Solution :
Answer (2)
Arthropoda is considered as largest phylum in Kingdom Animalia.
You scored 0 of 4
Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct

answer
Statement-A : Members of Phylum Arthropoda are similar to

that of Mollusca as both have ventral, solid nerve cord.
Statement-B : Radula is file-like rasping organ for feeding

found in molluscs and echinoderms.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (1)
Radula is rasping organ for feeding and found only in most of the members of phylum Mollusca.
You scored 0 of 4
In which one of the following, the genus name, its two

characters and its class are incorrectly matched?
Genus Two characters Class
(i) Circular mouth without jaws
(1)Petromyzon (ii) Body is devoid of scales and Cyclostomata

paired fins
(i) Tympanum represents the ear
(2)Rana (ii) Respiration through buccal Amphibia

cavity, lungs and skin
(i) Presence of electric organ
(3)Torpedo Pisces
(ii) Poikilothermous
(i) Presence of poison gland
(4)Naja Reptilia
(ii) Limbs are completely absent
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (3)
Torpedo is commonly known as electric fish. It is placed in class Chondrichthyes. Pisces is
superclass for all true fishes.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 151
Phylum of exclusively marine animals is
Options:
Mollusca
Arthropoda
Coelenterata
Echinodermata
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hydra is a freshwater polyp placed in phylum Coelenterata.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 152
Flying fish is the common name of
Options:
Hippocampus
Exocoetus
Betta
Pterophyllum
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hippocampus – Sea horse
Betta – Aquarium fish
Pterophyllum – Angel fish

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 153
Select the correct match
Options:
Labeo – Persistent notochord
Ichthyophis – Limbless amphibia
Bufo – Tree frog
Pristis – Sting ray
Solution :
Answer (2)
Notochord persist in cartilaginous fishes and cephalochordates. Hyla is a tree frog. Pristis is
commonly called Saw fish. Trygon is sting ray and Labeo is a freshwater bony fish.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 154
Complete the analogy
Labeo : Cycloid scales : : _____ : Placoid scales
Options:
Scoliodon
Clarias
Hippocampus
Catla
Solution :
Answer (1)
Placoid scales are characteristic feature of cartilaginous fishes.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 155
Presence of which of the following general feature is not a

mammalian feature?
Options:
Diaphragm
Ear pinna
Body hair
Crop
Solution :
Answer (4)
Crop is not found in mammals.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 156
Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct

answer
Statement-A : All Gnathostomes are vertebrates but all

vertebrates are not Gnathostomes.
Statement-B : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates

are not vertebrates.
Options:
Solution :
Answer (3)
Agnatha (jawless fishes) are also included in subphylum Vertebrata. Vertebral column is absent
in protochordates.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 157
The structures which help in differentiating the male

cockroaches from females are
Options:
Anal cerci
Ocelli
Anal styles
Antennae
Solution :
Answer (3)
Anal styles are present only in male cockroaches.
You scored 0 of 4
Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. cockroach
Options:
Head is formed by the fusion of six segments
Head is connected with prothorax by an extension of head

called neck.
Each thoracic segment bears one pair of jointed legs
Tegmina cover hind wings when animal is at rest
Solution :
Answer (2)
Head is connected with prothorax by an extension of prothorax called neck.
You scored 0 of 4
In cockroach, a median flexible lobe lies within the cavity

enclosed by mouth parts is called
Options:
Pharynx
Hypopharynx
Labium
Labrum
Solution :
Answer (2)
Hypopharynx is flexible median lobe situated in cavity surrounded by mouth parts.
You scored 0 of 4
Match column I and column II w.r.t. cockroach and choose the

option with only correct match
Column I Column II
a. Malpighian tubules (i) Genital pouch
b.Hepatic caeca (ii) Junction of midgut and hindgut
c. Vestibulum (iii) Genital chamber
d.Spermathecal pores (iv) Junction of foregut and midgut
Options:
a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Posterior part of genital pouch in female cockroach is called vestibulum. Collaterial ducts,
common oviducts and spermathecae open into genital chamber through their pores.
You scored 0 of 4
In male cockroach, external genitalia are represented by

surrounding the .
Choose the option which fill the blanks A and B correctly

A B
(1) 2 phallomeres Caudal style
(2) 3 phallomeres Gonopore
(3) 6 gonapophyses Gonopore
(4) 3 pairs of gonapophyses Spermathecal pores
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (2)
In male cockroach, the external genitalia are represented by 3 male gonapophyses or
phallomeres which are chitinous asymmetrical structures surrounding the male gonopore.
You scored 0 of 4
A pair of are present in abdominal segment and are

responsible for temporary storage of sperms in
cockroach. Choose the option which correctly fill the blanks
A, B and C.
A B C
th th
(1) Ootheca 6 to 7 Male
th
(2) Spermatheca 6 Female
th
(3) Spermatheca 6 Male
th th
(4) Mushroom gland 6 to 7 Male
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (2)
Spermatheca are one pair in number, present in 6 th abdominal segment of female cockroach,
responsible for storage of sperms.
You scored 0 of 4
Read the following statements A and B. Choose the correct

answer
Statement-A : Ootheca are dropped or glued to a suitable

surface of high relative humidity near a food source by female
cockroach.
Statement-B : Cockroaches can transmit a variety of bacterial

diseases by contaminating food material.
Options:
Only statement A is incorrect
Only statement B is incorrect
Solution :
Answer (1)
Ootheca are dropped by female cockroach usually in a crack or crevice of relative high humidity.
Cockroaches contaminate food material and act as mechanical vector for bacterial diseases.
You scored 0 of 4
In cockroach, exchange of gases by the cells takes place at

the
Options:
Spiracles
Trachea
Tracheoles
Tracheal tubes
Solution :
Answer (3)
Trachea divides into tracheal tubes which are subdivided into

tracheoles. Exchange of gases takes place at the tracheoles by
diffusion.
You scored 0 of 4
Which of the following structure in the body of male

cockroach is not excretory in function?
Options:
Malpighian tubules
Uricose glands
Fat body
Pseudopenis
Solution :
Answer (4)
Pseudopenis is a part of left phallomere which holds female cockroach in position at the time of
copulation. It is not excretory in function.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 166
In which of the following tissue, cells are compactly packed

with little intercellular matrix?
Options:
Epithelial tissue
Muscular tissue
Neural tissue
Connective tissue
Solution :
Answer (1)
In epithelial tissue, cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 167
Choose the correct statement
Options:
The matrix of bone is solid, pliable and resists compression
Lacunae are present only in bones and not in cartilage
Chondrocytes are bone forming cells present in lacunae
Collagen fibres are present in both bones and cartilages
Solution :
Answer (4)
Matrix of cartilage is solid and pliable. Lacunae are present in matrix of both bones and
cartilages. Bones interact with skeletal muscles attached with them.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 168
Choose the odd one w.r.t. compound epithelium
Options:
It is made of more than one layer of cells
Their main function is to provide protection against chemical

and mechanical stresses
They cover the dry surface of skin and the never found on
moist surfaces of the body
They are present at inner lining of ducts of salivary glands

and of pancreatic ducts
Solution :
Answer (3)
Compound epithelium is present on dry surface of skin and moist surface of buccal cavity,
pharynx, oesophagus, etc.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 169
Which of the following is not a secretion of exocrine glands?
Options:
Mucus
Saliva
Earwax
Hormones
Solution :
Answer (4)
Hormones are secretions of endocrine glands
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 170
The unit of neural system are
Options:
Non excitable neurons
Non excitable neuroglial cells
Excitable neuroglial cells
Excitable neurons
Solution :
Answer (4)
Neurons ae excitable cells.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 171
Epithelial junctions which perform cementing to keep

neighbouring cells together are called
Options:
Tight junctions
Adhering junctions
Gap junctions
Neuromuscular junction
Solution :
Answer (2)
The epithelial junctions which are responsible for cementing of neighbouring cells together are
called adhering junction.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 172
Read the following statements carefully w.r.t. connective

tissue and choose the option with only correct statements
a. It is most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the

body of complex animals.
b. Adipose tissue is a reservoir of stored energy.
c. The fibres provide strength, flexibility, elasticity and

conductivity to the tissue.
d. In all connective tissue, the cells secrete matrix and fibres

of structural proteins.
Options:
a and b
b and c
c and d
a and d
Solution :
Answer (1)
The connective tissue fibres do not show conductivity. In all connective tissue except blood, cells
secrete matrix and fibres of structural proteins such as collagen and elastin.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 173
In which type of tissue, nucleus is placed towards periphery of

the cell due to storage of reserve food?
Options:
Adipose tissue
Muscular tissue
Neural tissue
Epithelial tissue
Solution :
Answer (1)
Adipose tissue contains fat storing cells (adipocytes) in which nucleus is placed towards
periphery due to deposition of fat in the central part of the cell.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 174
In which of the following regions of the body, the collagen

fibres are present in rows between many parallel bundles of
fibres?
Options:
Bones
Muscles
Ligaments
Skin
Solution :
Answer (3)
Ligaments and tendons are examples of dense regular connective tissue in which collagen fibres
are present in rows between many parallel bundles of fibres.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 175
The fibres which contract in response to stimulation, then

lengthen and return to their uncontracted state in a
coordinated fashion are
Options:
Collagen fibres
Elastin fibres
Muscle fibres
Nerve fibres
Solution :
Answer (3)
Muscle fibres have ability to contract and relax after receiving a stimulus.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 176
Cardiac muscle fibres contract as a unit due to presence of
Options:
Tight junctions
Communication junctions
Adhering junctions
Synapses
Solution :
Answer (2)
Cell junctions fuse the plasma membrane of cardiac muscle fibres. At some fusion points,
communication junctions allow the cells to contract as a unit.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 177
Read following statements A and B and choose the correct

answer
Statement-A : All voluntary muscles are striated but all

striated muscles are not voluntary.
Statement-B : All smooth muscles are involuntary but all

involuntary muscles are not smooth.
Options:
Only statement A is incorrect
Only statement B is incorrect
Solution :
Answer (1)
Skeletal muscles are striated and voluntary whereas cardiac muscles are striated and
involuntary.
You scored 0 of 4
Select the mis-match

(1)Blood –Transport of various substances
Smooth muscle
(2) –Tapered at both ends
fibres
Cardiac muscle
(3) –Cylindrical and branched
fibres
Skeletal muscle Contains myofibrils and single central
(4) –
fibres nucleus
Options:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution :
Answer (4)
Skeletal muscle fibres have many peripheral nuclei representing syncytium.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 179
Which of the following tissue exerts the greatest control over

the body’s responsiveness to changing conditions?
Options:
Epithelial tissue
Connective tissue
Neural tissue
Muscular tissue
Solution :
Answer (3)
Neural tissue exerts the greatest control over the body’s responsiveness to changing conditions.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 180
More than one-half the volume of neural tissue in our body is

formed by
Options:
Cell bodies
Neuroglia
Axons
Dendrites
Solution :
Answer (2)
Neuroglia make up more than one-half the volume of neural tissue.

Question Results: The Force of Friction and Tension in A String Are Derived From

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Question Results: The Force of Friction and Tension in A String Are Derived From

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The force of friction and tension in a string are derived from

Weak nuclear forces

The parallax of a heavenly body measured from two points

The dimensional formula for pressure gradient is

The relation between power P, distance x and time t is given

as . The dimensions of b/a is

The lengths of two cylindrical rods are measured as l1 = (5.62

Which among the following statements is incorrect?

Accuracy of measurement shall depend on resolution of

As we reduce the errors, measurement’s accuracy increases

Smaller is the least count, greater is the precision

More accurate measurement must have high precision

By rule of division in significant (least significant digit taken)

The pitch of screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 100 divisions

Observed diameter = 1 mm + 39 × 0.01 mm = 1.39 mm

Corrected diameter of wire = 1.39 mm + 0.05 mm = 1.44 mm

What is the use of thin strip at the back of Vernier caliper?

For measuring internal diameter of a beaker

For measuring depth of cylinder

For measuring diameter of hollow cylinder

For measuring radius of curvature of a lens

In an experiment to measure the height of a bridge by

A motor boat covers the distance between two spots in river

x = distance between spots

An insect crawling up a wall crawls 6 cm up in first second

A police jeep is chasing culprit going on motorcycle. The

Distance covered by jeep = 30 × 12

A ball is thrown vertically upwards with velocity of 20 m/s

From point of projection up

Height from ground

From top of a tower 100 m high, a ball is dropped and at the

30.6 m below the top

40.8 m below the top

40.8 m above ground

For dropped ball

For upward motion

An object is dropped from the top of a tower. It travels a

The acceleration of a body starting from rest varies with time

Two ends of a train moving at constant acceleration pass a

The area under acceleration-time graph gives

A particle moving along a straight line has velocity v m/s,

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding

v–t graph is a straight line inclined to time axis for uniform

x–t graph is parabola if motion is uniformly accelerated

x–t graph is a straight line inclined to time axis if motion is

v–t graph is parabola if motion is uniformly accelerated

A unit vector along the direction of resultant of two vectors

The position vector of a particle at any time is given as

Making 53º angle with x-axis

Making 37º angle with x-axis

Making an angle of 30º with y-axis

Making an angle of 45º with x-axis

A body executing uniform circular motion, has position vector

Are perpendicular to each other

Are along same direction

Are in opposite direction

May be inclined at any angle

In uniform circular motion, acceleration vector is opposite to position

The horizontal range of a projectile fired at an angle of 15º is

A bullet of mass 0.04 kg moving with speed of 90 m/s enters