PHYSICS

HALF YEARLY EXAM

QUESTION BANK [2022 – 23]

CLASS X

SYLLABUS

CHAPTER NAME PAGE NO.

1. FORCES: TURNING FORCES AND UNIFORM CIRCULAR 1 - 15
MOTION
2. WORK, POWER AND ENERGY 16 - 31
3. MACHINES 32 - 47
4. CALORIMETRY 48 - 70
6. ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES AND SPECTRUM 101 - 108
8. ELECTRIC CIRCUITS, RESISTANCE AND OHM’S LAW 124 - 147
9. ELECTRIC ENERGY, POWER AND HOUSE HOLD CIRCUITS 148 - 166
11. NUCLEAR PHYSICS 187 - 197
 Distribution of marks

PHYSICS

(SCIENCE PAPER 1)

MAX MARKS :- 80

Section A

(Attempt all Questions)

Question 1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options
(each question is of 1 mark) (15 MCQs) [15 MARKS]

Question 2 first question is of 3 mark and remaining 6 questions 2 marks each [15 MARKS]

Question 3 5 questions 2 marks each [10 MARKS]

Section B

(Attempt any FOUR Questions)

Question 4 (a) 3 mark

(b) 3 mark

(c) 4 mark [10 MARKS]

Question 5 (a) 3 mark

(b) 3 mark

(c) 4 mark [10 MARKS]

Question 6 (a) 3 mark

(b) 3 mark

(c) 4 mark [10 MARKS]

Question 7 (a) 3 mark

(b) 3 mark

(c) 4 mark [10 MARKS]

 QUESTION BANK
Question 1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the
given options (Each MCQ carries 1 mark)
Ch 1
1. The CGS unit of moment of force is
a) dyne- m b) N- cm c) N- m d) Dyne- cm
2. The perpendicular distance between the point of application of force and the turning point is 1.75
m, when a force of 80 Non a rigid body. The moment of force is
a) 120 Nm b) 130 Nm c)140 Nm d) 150 Nm
3. To open and shut a door, we apply a force normal to the door at its handle which is provided at the
a) minimum distance from the hinges c) any distance from the hinges
b) maximum distance from the hinges d) none of these
4. The point of action of force on a rigid body is
a) fixed point on rigid body
b) fixed point, but can be transferred anywhere along the line of action of force
c) fixed point, but can be transferred anywhere along the direction of force
d) fixed point, but can be transferred anywhere opposite to the direction of force
5. The turning effect produced in a rigid body around a fixed point by the application of force Is called
a) turning force b) moment of couple c) moment of force d) none of these
6. A spanner used to tighten or loosen a nut, has a long handle to produce a large moment of force
a) by a large force applied normally at the end of the handle
b) by a small force applied normally at the end of the handle
c) either (A) or (B)
d) neither (A) nor (B)
7. By the concept of centre of gravity, whole body weight can be considered as a point particle of
whole weight at it
a) centre of mass b) geometric centre c) geometric centre d) none of these
8. The centre of gravity of a hollow cone of height h is at a distance x from its vertex where the value
of x is:
a) h/4 b) h/3 c) 2h/3 d) 3h/4
9. A couple is always needed to produce a
a) Motion b) linear motion c) rotation d) none of these
10. For the stable equilibrium of a body, its centre
 a) as high as possible c) as low as possible
b) at its centre d) anywhere on body
11. The magnitude of moment of force is directly proportional to the
a) magnitude of applied force
b) the perpendicular distance between the point of application of force and the turning point
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
12. Two equal and unlike parallel forces which lines of action are not same constitute a
a) Couple c) Moment of force
b) Moment of couple d) Force
13. According to principle of moments, in equilibrium,
a) sum of the anticlockwise moments = sum of clockwise moments
b) sum of the anticlockwise moments > sum of clockwise moments
c) sum of the anticlockwise moments < sum of clockwise moments
d) none of these
14. Calculate the length of arm of couple, if a force of 13 N produces a moment of couple of
a) 2.1 m b) 1.5 m c) 1.3 m d) 1.1 m
15. A force of 525 N produces a moment of force of 420 Nm. The shortest distance between the point
of application of force and the turning point is
a) 0.5 m b) 0.8 m c) 0.9 m d) 1.2 m
16. Two equal and unlike parallel forces of magnitude 16 N acting on a rigid body, such that moment of
couple is 12 Nm. The arm of couple is
a) 0.25 m b) 0.50 m c) 0.75 m d) 0.85 m
17. The position of the centre of gravity of a body of given mass depends on its
a) on the distribution of particles c) shape
b) both a and b d) none of these
18. The moment of couple is mathematically the
a) product of one force and the perpendicular distance between two forces
b) product of both forces and the perpendicular distance between them
c) product of one force and the perpendicular distance between the point of application of force
d) none of these
19. A body is acted upon by two unequal and opposite forces along different lines of action of force.
The body will have
a) Only rotatory motion c) Only translatory motion
b) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b
 20. The centre of gravity of a cricket ball is at
a) its geometric centre c) its top-most point
b) its bottom touching the ground d) any point on surface

Ch 2

1. The SI unit of work is joule. It is expressed in terms of mass, length and time as
a) kg m²/s3 b) kg m³/s2 c) kg² m²/s2 d) kg m/s2
2. The SI unit of power is watt. It is expressed in terms of mass, length and time as
a) kg m²/s3 b) kg m/s3 c) kg² m²/s2 d) kg m/s2
3. If the displacement is normal to the direction
a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) None of these
4. The power spent by a source is measured as the amount of work done by the source in
a) a given time b) seconds c) one second d) none of these
5. An energy of 4 kJ causes a displacement of 64 m in 2.5 s. Then force and power are
a) 62.5 N and 1600 W c) 6.25 N and 160 W
b) 625 N and 1600 W d) 62.5 N and 160 W
6. A bullet of an air gun weighs 0.01 kg. It is propelled out from the air gun with a velocity of 40 m/s.
Then the potential energy of the spring is
a) 2 J b) 4 J c) 6 J d) 8 J
7. Which of the following relations is correct?
a) 1 J = 105 erg b) 1 J = 107 dyne c) 1 J = 107 erg d) 1 erg = 107 J
8. If a body of mass 100 g and having a momentum of 20 kgm/s, then its kinetic energy is
a) 1000 J b) 1500 J c) 2000 J d) 2500 J
9. A body of mass 4 kg is moving with a velocity of 4 ms. If its mass is doubled and velocity is tripled,
then the ratio of its initial and final kinetic energy will be
a) 1:3 b) 1:6 c) 1:9 d) 1:18
10. If the displacement is normal to the direction of force, then work done is
a) Positive b) negative c) zero d) none of these
11. If the displacement is in a direction opposite to the force, then work done is
a) Positive b) negative c) zero d) none of these
12. Name the quantity which is measured in eV.
a) Force b) Momentum c) Power d) Energy
13. A tennis ball and a table tennis ball have same momentum. Which of the two has more kinetic
a) Tennis ball b) Table tennis ball c) Both d) None
 14. If work is done on the body, its energy
a) Increases b) remains the same c) decreases d) none of these
15. On doubling the velocity of motion of a body, its kinetic energy becomes
a) Half b) twice c) four times d) six times
16. If 1 J of work is done in 1s, the power spent is said to be
a) 1 HP b) 1 W c) 1 kW d) 746 W
17. A crane pulls up a car of mass 500 kg to a vertical height of 4 m. Then work done by the crane is
a) 18000 J b) 18600 J c) 19600 J d) 16900 J
18. If the height of the body from the ground increases, then its potential energy
a) remains same b) decreases c) increases d) none of these
19. The power spent by a source is measured as the amount of work done by the source in
a) a given time b) seconds c) one second d) none of these
20. Name the quantity which is measured in kWh.
a) Force b) Momentum c) Power d) Energy

Ch 3
1. The resistive or opposing force to be overcome by a machine is called the
a) Load b) Fulcrum c) Effort d) None of these
2. The force applied on the machine to overcome the load is called the
a) Effort b) load c) fulcrum d) none of these
3. The efficiency of an ideal machine is
a) 70 % b) 80 % c) 90 % d) 100 %
4. The mechanical advantage of a machine is equal to the product of its efficiency and
a) Effort b) load c) velocity ratio d) none of these
5. Which of the statement is not true for a machine?
a) It can multiply force c) It can increase speed
b) It can change the direction of applied force. d)Its output can be more than input.
6. The correct relationship between the effort (E) load (L) and mechanical advantage (MA) is
a) MA= L × E b) MA × E = L c) MA x L= E d) none of these
7. The correct relationship between the velocity ratio (VR) the distance through which effort act (d)
and the distance through which load moves (D)
a) VR × D = d b) VR = D × d c) VR × d = D d) none of these
8. The correct relationship between the efficiency (η), mechanical advantage (MA) and velocity ratio
(VR) of an actual machine is
a) η = MA × VR b) η = MA ÷ VR c) η × VR = MA d) η ÷VR = MA
9. A single fixed pulley is used because:
a) its efficiency is 100% c) it multiplies effort
b) it multiplies speed d) it changes the direction of applied effort
10. The actual mechanical advantage of a single movable pulley is
a) One b) two c) less than 2, but more than 1 d) none of these
11. A sheaf pulley system has
a) efficiency more than 100% c) multiplies speed
b) multiplies effort d) both (a) and (b)
12. A pulley system has 5 pulleys in all. Its velocity ratio is
a) 5 b) less than 5 c) more than 5 d) none of these
13. single movable pulley has
a) velocity ratio 2, and actual mechanical advantage 2
b) velocity ratio 2, and actual mechanical advantage less than 2
c) velocity ratio 2, and actual mechanical advantage more than 2
d) none of the above
14. An actual pulley system always has mechanical advantage less than velocity ratio. It is because
a) a part of effort is wasted in overcoming friction.
b) a part of effort is wasted in overcoming load of movable block
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of these b
15. A pulley system with velocity ratio 4 is used to lift a load of 150 kgf through a vertical height of 20
m. The effort required is 50 Kgf in the downward direction. Calculate the distance move by effort.
a) 40 m b) 80 m c) 160 m d) 800 m
16. An effort of 500 N is applied through a distance of 0.50 m on a machine, whose efficiency is 90%,
such that resistance is overcome through a distance of 0.04 m. The velocity ratio of the machine is
a) 10.5 b) 11.5 c) 12.5 d) 13.5
17. pulley system with VR = 4 is used to lift a load of 175 kgf through a vertical height of
15 m. The effort required is 50 kgf in the downward direction. (g = 10 N/kg). The distance moved by
effort is
a) 50 m b) 60 m c) 70 m d) 80 m
18. An effort of 500 N is applied through a distance of 0.50 m on a machine, whose efficiency is 90%,
such that resistance is overcome through a distance of 0.04 m. The MA of the machine is
a) 10.25 b) 11.25 c) 12.25 d) 13.25
19. pulley system with VR = 4 is used to lift a load of 175 kgf through a vertical height of
 15 m. The effort required is 50 kgf in the downward direction. (g = 10 N/kg). The work done by
effort is
a) 20000 J b) 25000 J c) 30000 J d) 35000 J

Ch 4
1. The specific heat capacity of a substance:
a) changes with the mass of given substance.
b) changes with the area or volume of substance.
c) changes with rise or fall in temperature.
d) is a constant quantity for a given substance.
2. Land and sea breezes are formed in coastal regions because:
a) water has very high specific heat capacity than the land.
b) land has very high specific heat capacity than the water
c) sea water cools the cooler regions.
d) all of the above.
3. The base of cooking pans is made thicker and heavy because :
a) it lowers the heat capacity of pan
b) it increases the heat capacity of pan
c) the food does not get charred and keeps hot for long time
d) both (b) and (c)
4. The SI unit of specific heat capacity is
a) J/kg b) J/K c) J/Kg K d) kJ/Kg K
5. The specific heat capacity of water in SI system is
a) 4.2 J/kg K b) 42 J/kg K c) 420 J/kg K d) 4200 J/kg K
6. The SI unit of heat capacity is
a) J/kg b) kJ/kg c) J/K d) Cal/ °C
7. The amount of heat energy required to melt a given mass of a substance at its melting point
without any rise in temperature is called
a) Heat capacity c) Specific heat capacity
b) Latent heat of fusion d) Specific latent heat of fusion
8. The SI unit of specific latent heat is
a) J/g b) Cal/g c) J/kg d) J/kg K
9. The specific latent heat of fusion of ice in SI system is
a) 80 Cal/g b) 336000 J/kg c) 2260000 J/kg d) 336 J/kg
10. Heat energy is
a) Sum total of KE of the molecules of matter only
b) Sum total of PE of the molecules of matter only
c) Sum total of KE and PE of all the molecules
d) None of these
11. The SI unit of heat energy is
a) Calorie b) Kilocalorie c) Joule d) Kilojoule
12. The flow of heat energy from one body to another body is determined by
a) the amount of heat contained in the bodies
b) the temperature difference between the bodies
c) the mass of the bodies
d) none of the above
13. One calorie is equal to
a) 4.186 J b) 4816 J c) 4618 J d) 4186 J
14. The amount of heat energy required by 1 g of pure water, so as to raise its temperature through
1°C is called
a) Calorie b) Kilocalorie c) Joule d) Kilojoule
15. A solid of mass 0.15 kg is heated from 10°C to 90°C. If the sp. heat capacity of solid is 390 J/kg °C,
the heat absorbed by solid is:
a) 4680 J b) 4860 J c) 6480 J d) 4608 J
16. If H is the heat absorbed by a substance ‘m’ is the mass, ‘c’ is the specific heat capacity and ‘θ’ is
the rise in temperature then specific heat capacity is given by the expression
a) C=H/mθ b) C=Hθ/m c) C=Hm/θ d) C=mθ/H
17. The thermal capacity of a solid is 400. The amount of heat supplied to it will be_____ if its
temperature rises by 40 K.
a) 16000 J b) 1600 J c) 1000 J d) 10000 J
18. What is the relation between specific heat capacity(C’) and heat capacity (c) of a body of mass m?
a) C’ =c/m b) C’ =m× c c) c= m/C' d) c=m× C’
19. What is the relation between the kelvin scale and degree Celsius is
a) K+273 = °C b) °C +273 = K c) °C -273 =K d) None of above
20. Consider you contact two bodies (A, B) but after that you observe that there is no flow of heat
between two bodies. From this incident you can say that
a) The temperature Body A is higher than B (d) The temperature Body B is higher than A
b) Two bodies have same temperature
c) You cannot say anything about the temperature
Ch 6
1. The wavelength range of white light is:
(a) 4 nm to 8 nm (b) 40nm to 80 nm (c) 4000 nm to 8000 nm (d) 400 nm to 800 nm
2. When a ray of white light falls on a prism, the ray at its first surface suffers:
(a) No refraction (b) Only dispersion (c) Only deviation (d) Both deviation and dispersion
3. Which of these rays has the highest penetration power?
(a) X – rays (b) Microwaves (c) UV rays (d) Gamma rays
4. The most energetic electromagnetic radiations are:
(a) X – rays (b) Microwaves (c) UV rays (d) Gamma rays
5. Microwaves are used in:
(a) Sterilization of surgical instruments (c) Producing fluorescence
(b) Satellite communication (d) Developing photographs
6. A thermopile is used for detection of:
(a) Infrared rays (b) Visible light (c) X – rays (d) Radio waves
7. Ultraviolet rays are not used for:
(a) Purification of water (b) Detection of fake gems (c) Photography at night (d) Killing germs
8. Which of the following is a source of ultraviolet light?
(a) Electric bulb (b) Carbon arc (c) Red hot iron ball (d) Sodium vapour lamp
9. Which colour of light is deviated the least by a prism in the spectrum of white light?
(a) Red (b) Green (c) Violet (d) Yellow
10. The colour of which travels fastest in any medium either than vacuum is:
(a) Red (b) Violet (c) Green (d) Yellow
11. The electromagnetic wave having the shortest wavelength is :
(a) X – rays (b) Infrared rays (c) Radio waves (d) γ - rays
12. The wave used in telecommunication is:
(a) Ultraviolet (b) Infrared (c) Microwave (d) Visible light
13. The splitting of white light into different colours on passing through a prism is called:
(a) Reflection (b) Refraction (c) Dispersion (d) Deviation
14. A beam of light when passes through a glass prism, a spectrum is observed. But when same beam
of light passes through a hollow prism, then:
(a) Spectrum is same (c) Spectrum is brighter
(b) There will be no spectrum (d) Colours of spectrum dispersed
 15. Which of the following is correct?
(a) 𝜆𝑏𝑙𝑢𝑒 > 𝜆𝑦𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑜𝑤 > 𝜆𝑔𝑟𝑒𝑒𝑛 (c) 𝜆𝑦𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑜𝑤 > 𝜆𝑔𝑟𝑒𝑒𝑛 > 𝜆𝑏𝑙𝑢𝑒
(b) 𝜆𝑦𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑜𝑤 > 𝜆𝑏𝑙𝑢𝑒 > 𝜆𝑔𝑟𝑒𝑒𝑛 (d) 𝜆𝑔𝑟𝑒𝑒𝑛 > 𝜆𝑏𝑙𝑢𝑒 > 𝜆𝑦𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑜𝑤

Ch 11
1. When a radio element ejects only γ – radiations
(a) There is no change in its mass number
(b) There is no change in its atomic number
(c) No new element is formed and its place remains the same in periodic table.
(d) All of these
2. When a radio element ejects a beta particle is:
(a) Mass number remains same
(b) Its atomic number increases by 1
(c) The new element occupies one place ahead of its original position in periodic table.
(d) All of these
3. Symbol −10𝑒 represents:
(a) A single electron (b) -1 charge (c) Zero mass (d) All of these
4. Symbol +11𝑃 represents:
(a) A single proton (b) 1 amu mass (c) +1 charge (d) All of these
5. Symbol 10𝑛 represents:
(a) A single neutron (b) 1 amu mass (c) Zero charge (d)All of these
6. A particle naturally tend to be radioactive if:
(a) Its atomic number is more than 82
(b) It has excess of neutron as compared to protons
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
7. The charge of an alpha particle is:
(a) Equal to the charge on beta particle (c) Half of the charge on beta particle
(b) Double the charge on beta particle (d) None of these
8. The atoms of same element having same atomic number, but different atomic masses are called
(a) Isotopes (b) Isobars (c) Isotones (d) Both (a) and (b)
9. When an element gives out high energy radiations on its own, the change which takes place is :
(a) physical change (c)chemical change
(b) nuclear change (d) none of these
10. The atoms of different elements having same mass number, but different atomic numbers are
called:
(a) Isotopes (b) Isotones (c) Isobars (d) None of these
11. The radiations given out by radioactive elements:
(a) Affect photographic plates (c) Ionise the gases
(b) Are affected by electrostatic and magnetic fields (d) All of these
12. A radioactive substance emits:
(a) Simultaneously α, β and γ radiations (c) In the order of α, β and γ radiations
(b) α – radiations or β – radiations (d) X – rays and γ - rays
13. During β – emission an electron is ejected from the atom of radioactive substance. The electron is
ejected from the:
(a) Outermost orbit of atom (c) Innermost orbit of atom
(b) Nucleus of the atom (d) None of these
14. Which is a pair of isobars?
40
(a) 20𝐶𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 40
18𝐴𝑟 (b) 11𝐻 𝑎𝑛𝑑 31𝐻 (c) 168𝑂 𝑎𝑛𝑑 178𝐴𝑟 (d) 23 24
11𝑁𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 11𝑁𝑎

15. Which one is/are a pair of isotopes?

12
(a) 6𝐶 𝑎𝑛𝑑 146𝐶 (b) 24 24
11𝑁𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 12𝑀𝑔 (c) 178𝑂 𝑎𝑛𝑑 168𝑂 (d) 𝑏𝑜𝑡ℎ (𝑏)𝑎𝑛𝑑 (𝑐)

Ch 8
1. Which among the following is not a very good conductor of electricity?
(a) Copper (b) Silver (c) Platinum (d) iron
2. Which of the following is an ohmic resistance?
(a) LED (b) Junction diode (c) Filament of a bulb (d) Nichrome wire
3. Which of these substance act as a non- ohmic resistance?
(a) Nichrome wire (b)Tungsten filament (c) Copper wire (d)Aluminium wire
4. For Which of the following substances, resistance decreases with increase in temperature?
(a) Copper (b) Platinum (c) Mercury (d) carbon
5. The resistance offered by a conductor is directly proportional to its:
(a) Length (c) Area of cross section
(b) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
6. The length of a metal wire is halved. The resistivity of metal:
(a) Becomes half (b) Becomes double (c) Remains the same (d) Becomes four times
7. The length of the metal wire is doubled and its cross-sectional area is tripled. Its resistance
becomes:
(a) 1/3 (b) 2/3 (c) ½ (d) 3/2
 8. A 6 Ω resistor is connected across the terminals of a 24 V battery. The electric charge passing
through the resistor in 3 seconds will be:
(a) 48 C (b) 1.33 C (c) 12 C (d) 44 C
9. An electric iron working on a main supply of 220 V draws a current of 2.5 A. what is the
resistance of an electric iron?
(a) 8.8 Ω (b) 88 Ω (c) 550 Ω (d) 0.011 Ω
10. If an electric charge of 3 C passes through a resistor in 60 seconds, find the resistance of the
resistor if it is connected to a 12 V battery.
(a) 240 Ω (b) 4 Ω (c) 0.067 Ω (d) 24 Ω
11. The p.d. across a 30 Ω resistor is 9 V. the current flowing through it is:
(a) 0.03 A (b) 3 A (c) 0.3 A (d) 30 A
12. The symbol for SI unit of resistance is:
(a) R (b) Ohm (c) Ω (d) V/A
13. A substance having a high electrical resistance is generally called:
(a) Good conductor (b) Resistor (c) Insulator (d) Semi- conductor
14. Keeping the p.d. constant, the resistance of a circuit is increased three times. The current will
become:
(a) One – third (b)One – ninth (c) 3 times (d) 9 times
15. Keeping the p.d. constant, the resistance of a circuit is halved. The current will become:
(a) Half (b) One – fourth (c) Four times (d) double
16. Ohm’s law defines the relationship between:
(a) Current and electric charge (c) Potential difference and resistance
(b) Resistance and current (d) Current and potential difference

Ch 9
1. One watt hour is equal to:
(a) 36 J (b) 360J (c) 3600 J (d) 36000 J
2. One megawatt is equal to:
(a) 10−3 W (b) 10−6 W (c) 103 W (d)106 W
3. An electrical appliance has a rating 100 W, 120 V. the resistance of element of appliance when in
use is:
(a) 1.2 Ω (b) 120 Ω (c) 100 Ω (d) 144 Ω
4. Fuse wire is made of an alloy of:
(a) Iron and tin (b) Copper and lead (c) Tin and lead (d)Copper and iron
5. The rating of the fuse connected in the power circuit is:
 (a) 15 A (b) 5 A (c) 10 A (d) zero
6. A switch must be connected in the:
(a) Live wire (b) Neutral wire (c) Earth wire (d) Either earth or neutral wire
7. If the current flowing through a fixed resistance is trebled, what happens to the amount of heat
energy produced?
(a) Becomes three times (c) Becomes one- third
(b) becomes nine times (d) is not affected
8. Which of the following feature is suitable for a fuse wire?
(a) Thick and short (c) Thin and short
(b) High melting point (d) Lower resistance than rest of the wiring
9. The elements of electrical heating devices are generally made of:
(a) Nichrome (b) Argon (c) Tungsten (d) copper
10. An electrical appliance is connected to a domestic circuit through a 5 A switch/socket. The current
drawn by the appliance is most likely to be:
(a) Less than 5 amperes (c) More than 5 amperes
(b) Less than 1 ampere (d) Mot more than 2 amperes
11. I unit of electrical energy is equal to:
(a) 1 W – hour (b) 1 Kilojoule (c) 3.6 X 106 joules (d) 1 kilowatt
12. According to the old convention, the colour of neutral wire is:
(a) Red (b) Green (c) Black (d) None of these
13. According to the old convention, the colour of live wire is:
(a) Yellow b) Green c) Red d) Light blue
14. In a three pin plug the live pin is:
(a) Thinner and is toward left
(b) Thicker and is toward left
(c) Thinner and is toward right
(d) Thicker and is toward right
15. An average lighting circuit of a poor family has a fuse rating of
(a) 10 A (b) 15 A (c) 5 A (d) 2 A
 Question 2 (Each question carries 2 marks)

Ch 1
1. Name the factors affecting the turning effect of a body.
2. In which condition, the following are produced by a force?
a) Translational motion
b) Rotational motion
3. Define one newton and write relation between SI unit and CGS unit of force.
4. Define 1 kgf and relate it with SI unit of force.
5. What do you understand by positive and negative moment of force?
6. Why is jack screw is provided with long arm?
7. A man can open a nut by applying a force of 150 N by using a lever handle of length 0.4 m. what
should be length of the handle, if he is able to open it by applying a force of 60 N?
8. Define equilibrium and name its two types.
9. Define couple and state SI unit of moment of couple.
10. Why rope walker holds a long pole in his hands?

Ch 2
1. Define joule and establish relation between SI unit and CGS unit of work.
2. If a speed of a particle is doubled, what will be the ratio of its kinetic energy to its momentum?
3. At the bottom of the waterfall, water is warmer than at the top. Give reason.
4. State the energy change in the following cases while in use
a) An electric iron
b) A ceiling fan
5. Calculate kinetic energy of a body of mass 100 g and having momentum of 20kgm/s?
6. The heart of person beats 72 times in a minute and does a work of 1.2 joule per beat. What is the
power of the heart?
7. A catapult throws a stone of mass 0.10 kg with a velocity of 30 m/s. if 25% of the PE of the elastic
band is wasted during transmission, find the magnitude of the potential energy.
8. (a) Define electron volt and express it in joule.
(b) Define kilowatt hour and convert it into joule.
 Ch 3
1. Define machine.
2. Name six simple machine.
3. Why is a machine not 100% efficient?
4. Give two reasons for using single fixed pulley.
5. A pulley system has four pulleys in all and is 70% efficient. Calculate the mechanical advantage and
effort required to lift a load of 1400 N.
6. Differentiate between ideal machine and practical machine.
7. How a mechanical advantage and velocity ratio relates for
a) Ideal machine
b) Practical machine
8. Why single movable pulley is superior as compared to single fixed pulley?
9. Draw labelled diagram of single movable pulley.

Ch 4
1. Give two differences between heat and temperature.
2. State two factors on which heat absorbed by substance depends.
3. Why is the base of cooking pan is generally made thick?
4. What do you understand by the following statement
a) The heat capacity of body is 60 J/K.
b) The specific heat capacity of body is 130 J/kg K.
5. What is the reason of spraying of water on the roads in the evening of hot summer?
6. Briefly justify the statement, “water is considered as the best liquid for quenching thirst?
7. Explain, why the weather becomes very cold after a hailstorm?
8. 5000 calorie of heat is supplied to ice at 0°C, such that it completely melts to form water at 0°C. if
specific latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 Cal/g, what is the mass of ice?
9. What do you understand by the term specific latent heat of fusion?
Why does ice-cream feel more colder than water at 0°C?

Ch 6
1. Name the material used for obtaining the spectrum of (a) ultraviolet light (b) infrared radiations
2. Give two properties of infrared radiations which differ from visible light
3. Mention two properties of ultraviolet radiations which differ from visible light
4. Name two electromagnetic waves of wavelength smaller than that of violet light. State one
used of each.
5. Arrange the following radiations in the order of their increasing wavelength:
X- rays, infrared rays, radio waves, gamma rays, and microwaves
6. Arrange the following radiations in the order of their decreasing wavelength:
X- rays, ultraviolet rays, infrared rays, radio waves, and gamma rays
7. A wave has a wavelength 10-3nm. (a) Name the wave (b) state its one property different from
light.
8. State any two uses of gamma rays.
9. A wave has a wavelength less than 100 nm. (a) Name the radiation (b) state its one use
10. (a) Name the high energetic invisible electromagnetic wave which helps in the study of the
structure of crystals.
(b) state one more use of the wave named in part (a)
11. State the name and range of wavelength of the invisible electromagnetic waves beyond the red
end of the visible spectrum.
12. (a) Name the radiations which are used for satellite communications
(b) name the radiations that are absorbed by glass prism.

Ch 11
13. State two differences between a chemical change and a nuclear change.
14. How is the radioactivity of an element affected when it undergoes a chemical change to form a
chemical compound? Give reason for your answer
15. A radioactive substance is oxidised. What changes would you expect to take place in the nature
of radioactivity? Explain your answer
16. State one use and one harmful effect of the radioactivity.
17. Compare the ionising power of α, β and γ radiations
18. State the penetrating range in air for α, β and γ radiations.
19. Is it possible to deflect γ – radiations in a way similar to α and β – particles, using the electric or
magnetic fields? Give reason
20. Arrange α, β and γ radiations in ascending order of their (a) ionising power and (b) penetrating
power
21. State the speed of α, β and γ radiations.
22. An α – particle captures (i) one electron, (ii) two electrons. In each case, what does it change to?
 23. What kind of change take place in a nucleus when a β – particle is emitted? Express it by an
equation. State whether (a) atomic number, and (b) mass number are conserved in a
radioactive β – decay?
24. A certain radioactive nucleus emits a particle that leaves its mass number unchanged, but
increases its atomic number by one. Identify the particle and write its symbol.
25. An element P disintegrates by α emission and the new element suffers two further
disintegrations, both by β emission, to form an element Q. explain the fact that P and Q are
isotopes
26. What do you mean by background radiations? Name its two sources. Is it possible for us to keep
ourselves away from it?
27. What is meant by nuclear waste? State one way for the safe disposal of nuclear waste.
28. Complete the following nuclear change
(a) 𝑎𝑥𝑃 → 𝑄 + 0
−1𝛽
238 234
(b) 92𝑈 → 90𝑇ℎ + _____+ energy
29. (a) Why are the alpha particles not used in radio therapy?
(b) why do we usually use isotopes emitting gamma radiations as radioactive tracers in medical
science?
30. An element P disintegrates by α emission and the new element suffers two further
disintegrations, both by β emission, to form an element Q. Explain the fact that P and Q are
isotopes.

Ch :- 8
1. Define the term kilowatt – hour and state its value in S.I unit.
2. An electric bulb is rated ‘100 W, 250 V’. what information does this convey?
3. In which direction conventional current and electronic current flow from a source of electricity?
4. Define electric potential. State its practical unit and define it.
5. Define electric current. State its practical unit and define it.
6. What do you mean by electric resistance? State its practical unit.
7. What do you mean by electric conductance? State its practical unit.
8. Define specific resistance and state its unit in CGS and SI system
9. A wire has a resistance of 12 Ω. Find the resistance of another wire, whose length is 4 times and
area of cross section is three times the first wire.
10. A wire of length 40 cm and area of cross-section 0.1 mm2 has a resistance of 0.8 Ω. Calculate the
specific resistance of the wire.
11. State the factors on which internal resistance of a cell depends?
 12. Which material would you prefer for a resistance wire: copper or constantan? Give reason
13. A uniform wire with a resistance of 27 Ω is divided into three equal pieces and then they are joined
in parallel. Find the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination.
14. Equivalent resistance of circuit diagram given below is 5 Ω. Calculate the value of x.

15. Equivalent resistance of the circuit diagram given below is 6 Ω. Calculate the value of x.

Ch :- 9
1. Name and define smallest commercial unit of electric energy.
2. Name and define standard commercial unit of electric energy.
3. Distinguish between kilowatt and kilowatt hour.
4. Explain how the fuse melts when a short circuit appliance gets earthed.
5. An electric heater has a resistance of 40 Ω and draws a current of 4 A. calculate (a) its power (b) p.d
at its ends
6. An electric heater is rated 750 W – 200 V. Calculate (a) resistance of the heating element (b) current
flowing through it.
7. Why is the earth pin of the plug always made longer and thicker?
8. Why is the household wiring done in parallel?
9. The diagram shows a three pin socket marked as 1, 2 and 3

(a) To which part of the appliance is the terminal 1 connected?

(b) To which wire joined to 2 or 3, is the fuse connected?
10. Draw a diagram of a fuse wire connected in fuse socket.
11. How does the fuse wire protect an electric circuit? Why is it dangerous to replace a fuse wire with a
copper wire.
12. An electric motor of power 1000 W, operates at 250 V. calculate the inductive resistance of the
motor and current flowing through it.
13. An electric device operates at 34 V and has a resistance of 8 Ω. Calculate the power of the device
and the current flowing through it
14. ‘A fuse is 8 A’. Can it be used with an electrical appliance of rating 5kW, 200 V?
15. An electric kettle is rated 3 kW, 250 V. give reason whether this kettle can be used in a circuit which
contains a fuse of rating 13 A.
16. A house has main fuse of 5 A rating. 4 bulbs each of 60 W and 2 tube lights each of 40 W are used
simultaneously. Find:
(a) The current drawn from the mains of 220 V
(b) The number of additional bulbs each of 100 W which can also be lighted on a festival day.
17. An electric motor of 2 H.P and two coolers of 500 W each operate on 250 V mains of 4 hours a day.
If the energy costs ₹ 6.80 per kWh. Calculate (a) weekly bill (b) minimum fuse rating [ 1 HP =
750 W]
 Question 3 (Each question carries 3 marks)

Ch 1
1. A uniform metre scale is balanced at 40 cm mark, when weights of 25 gf and 10 gf are suspended at
5 cm mark and 75 cm mark respectively. Calculate weight of metre scale.
2. What do you mean by equilibrium of body? state its two conditions.
3. A uniform metre scale of weight 50 gf, is balanced at 60 cm mark, when a weight of 15 gf is
suspended at the 10 cm mark. Where must a weight 100 gf be suspended to balance the metre
scale?
4. What do you mean by centre of gravity. Where Centre of gravity lies in cylinder and sphere?
5. Define following terms
a) Point of action of force
b) line of action of force
c) rigid body
6. Why are the passengers travelling in a double decker bus allowed to stand on the lower deck but
not on the upper deck?
7. How you will find the centre of gravity of an irregular lamina? Explain it.
8. A uniform metre scale is balanced at 20 cm mark, when a weight of 100 gf is suspended from one
end. Where must the weight be suspended? Calculate the weight of the metre scale.
Why wrench is more effective than spanner while tightening or loosening the nuts of punctured
wheel?

Ch 2
1. A bullet of mass 0.05 kg strikes a wooden target 0.4 m thick, with a velocity of 300 m/s and emerges
out with a velocity of 100 m/s.
(a) Calculate the loss of kinetic energy of the bullet while passing through wood.
(b) Calculate the average retarding force of friction of wood.
2. An electron of mass 9 × 10-31 kg, moves with a velocity of 3 × 107 m/s Calculate (a) K.E of electron (b)
Number of electrons which will have kinetic energy of 5 J.
3. person of mass 60 kg can develop a power of 240 W. If the person runs up a flight of 'n' stairs, each
measuring 20 cm in 15 seconds, calculate the value of 'n'. [Take g = 10 m/s ²]
4. Give three differences between work and power.
5. What do you understand by power? State two factors on which it depends.
6. Define kinetic energy and obtain the relation between kinetic energy and linear momentum.
 7. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 have the same linear momentum. What is the ratio of their
kinetic energy?
8. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 have the same kinetic energy. What is the ratio of their linear
momentum?

Ch 3
1. A person draws up a load of 150 kg by using a single movable pulley system. If he applies an effort
of 1000 N on the free end of the rope, calculate the mechanical advantage and efficiency of pulley
system. [g= 10 m/s2].
2. A pulley system has four pulleys in all and is 60% efficient. Calculate (a) the mechanical advantage
(b) the effort required to lift a load of 1200 N (c) the resistance due to the movable parts and
friction of the pulley system.
3. Draw a diagram to show a block and tackle pulley system having a velocity ratio of 3 marking the
direction of load (L), effort (E) and tension (T).
4. Give three functions of machines.
5. Define the following
a) Input b) Efficiency c) Velocity ratio
6. Obtain relation between efficiency, mechanical advantage and velocity ratio for a practical
machine.
7. Calculate the (a) velocity ratio (b) mechanical advantage (c) % age efficiency of a machine which
overcomes a resistance of 800 N through a distance of 0.12 m, when an effort of 160N acts through
a distance of 0.72 m.
8. An effort of 500 N is applied through a distance of 0.50 m on a machine, whose efficiency is 90%,
such that resistance is overcome through a distance of 0.04 m. Calculate the (a) V.R. (b) M.A.(c)
resistance overcome by the machine.

Ch 4
1. (a) Define the term specific latent heat of fusion of a substance.
(b) Which material is the calorimeter commonly made of?
(c) Give one reason for using this material?
2. (a) What energy change would you expect to take place in the molecules of a substance when it
undergoes a change in its temperature?
(b) What is the principle of mixture?
(c) Amongst 1 g of ice at 0°C and 1 g of water at 0°C, which contains more heat? Give reason.
3. (a) Define calorimetry.
 (b) Name a substance which has highest specific latent heat of fusion.
(c) State the magnitude of specific latent heat of fusion of the named substance in SI unit.
4. State in brief, the meaning of each of the following.
(a) The heat capacity of a body is 50 J/°C.
(b)The specific latent heat of fusion of solid is 340000 J/kg.
(c) The specific heat capacity of a metal is 0.4 J/g °C.
5. Water falls from a height of 200 m. Calculate the rise in the temperature of water when it strikes
the bottom. (g= 10 m/s2, specific heat capacity of water =4200 J/kg °C.)
6. 0.120 kg of copper of SHC 100 Cal /kg °C and at 20 °C is heated by a burner for two minutes, which
supplies heat energy at a rate of 20 Cal/sec. calculate the final temperature of copper.
(a) What is the quantity of heat released when the temperature of 1 kg of water falls through 1 °C?
(b) Calculate the total heat energy released by water in the above question on cooling from 80 °C to
55 °C.
(c) If all the heat energy released by water is absorbed by calorimeter, calculate the specific heat
capacity of calorimeter.
7. (a) how is the transference of heat energy by radiation prevented in a calorimeter?
(b) you have a choice of three metals A, B and C, of specific heat capacities 900 J/kg °C, 380 J/kg °C
and 460 J/kg °C respectively, to make a calorimeter. Which material will you select? Justify your
answer.
8. The melting point of naphthalene is 80°C and the room temperature is 30°C. A sample of liquid
naphthalene at 100°C is cooled down to the room temperature. Draw a temperature time graph to
represent this cooling. In the graph, mark the region which corresponds to the freezing process
9. (a) Heat supplied to a solid change it into liquid. What is this change in phase called?
(b) During the phase change does the average kinetic energy of the molecules of the substance
increase?
(c) What is the energy absorbed during the phase change called?
10. (a) Define heat capacity of a substance.
(b) Write the SI unit of heat capacity.
(c) What is the relationship between heat capacity and specific heat capacity of a substance?

Ch 6
1. Mention three properties of infrared radiations similar to the visible light.
2. Name three properties of ultraviolet radiations which differ from visible light.
3. Two waves X and Y have wavelength of 10 nm and 400 nm, respectively.
 (a) Name the two waves
(b) State one source of each of these waves.
(c) What will be the ratio of their speeds in vacuum?
4. State two sources of
5. State any three properties common to all electromagnetic waves.
6. A wave has wavelength 50 Å. (a) Name the wave (b) state its one use (c) state its speed in
vacuum.
7. Name the three radiations and their wavelength range which are invisible and beyond the violet
end of the visible spectrum.
8. What is the frequency range of ultraviolet rays? How were these rays discovered?

Ch 11
9. (a) What is the composition of α, β and γ radiations?
(b) Can a hydrogen ( 11𝐻) nucleus emit an alpha particle?
(c) which one α, β and γ radiation has the least penetrating power?
10. What happens to the (i) atomic number (ii) mass number of the nucleus of an element when (a)
an α – particle, (b) a β – particle and (c) γ – radiation is emitted?
11. What happens to the position of an element in the periodic table when its nucleus emits (a) an
α – particle, (b) a β – particle and (c) γ – radiation is emitted? Give reason for your answer.
12. What changes occur in the nucleus of a radioactive element when it emits (a) an α – particle, (b)
a β – particle and (c) γ – radiation? Give one example in each case (a) and (b) in support of your
answer.
13. A certain nucleus A (mass number 238 and atomic number 92) is radioactive and becomes a
nucleus B(mass number 234 and atomic number 90) by the emission of a particle.
(a) Name the particle emitted.
(b) Explain hoe you arrived at your answer.
(c) State the change in the form of reaction
14. State three safety precautions that you would take while handling the radioactive substance.
15. A nucleus of stable phosphorus has 15 protons and 16 neutrons.
(a) What is the atomic number and mass number?
(b) The nucleus of radio phosphorus has one neutron more then the stable nucleus. What will
be its atomic number and mass number?
(c) What will be the atomic number and, mass number of new nucleus formed by the decay of
a β – particle by the radio phosphorus in part (b)?
16. A nucleus 24
11𝑁𝑎 is β radioactive.
 (a) What are the numbers 24 and 11 called?
(b) Write the equation representing β – decay.
(c) What general name is given to the product nucleus with respect to 24
11𝑁𝑎 ?

17. Complete the following nuclear change

𝛼 𝛽 𝛽
238
92𝑃 → 𝑄 → 𝑅 → 𝑆
18. Complete the following nuclear change
𝛼 𝛾 2𝛽
𝐴
𝑍𝑋 → 𝑋1 → 𝑋2 → 𝑋3
19. Complete the following nuclear change
𝛽 𝛼 𝛼
172
𝑋1 → 𝑋2 → 𝑋3 → 69𝑋

Ch:- 8
1. (i) state and define the household unit of electricity.
(ii) What is the voltage of the electricity that is generally supplied to a house?
(iii) what is consumed while using different electrical appliances, for which electricity bill is paid?
2. Name the physical quantity which is measured in (i) kW (ii) kWh (iii) Wh
3. Name the factors on which the heat produced in a wire depends when current is passed in it, and
state how it depend on the factors stated by you.
4. (a) Calculate the electrical energy in kWh consumed in a month, in a house using 2 bulbs of 100 W
each and 2 fans of 60 W each, if the bulbs and fans are used for an average of 10 hours each day.

(b) If the cost per unit is ₹ 4.50, calculate in part (a) the amount of electric bill to be paid per month.

5. An electrical appliance is rated 1500 W, 250 V. This appliance is connected to mains of voltage 250
V. Calculate : (i) the current drawn, (ii) the electrical energy consumed in 60 hours, and (iii) the cost
of electrical energy consumed at a rate of ₹ 4.50 per kWh
6. Derive the relation between E.M.F., potential difference and external resistance and what
conclusions can be drawn from it.
7. When a potential difference of 2 volt is applied across the ends of a wire of 5 m length, a current of
1 A flows through it. Calculate:
(a) The resistance per unit length of the wire
(b) The resistance of 2m length of wire
(c) The resistance across the ends of the wire if it is doubled on itself.
8. In a given circuit diagram, the emf of the cell is 5 V and its internal resistance is 2.5 Ω. Calculate the
current flowing in the circuit.
 9. Three resistors of 4 Ω, 6 Ω and 12 Ω are connected in parallel. The combination of these resistors is
connected in series to a resistance of 2 Ω and then to a battery of e.m.f 6 V and negligible internal
resistance.
(a) Draw the circuit diagram
(b) Calculate the current in the main circuit
(c) Calculate the current in each of the resistors in parallel
10. A cell of e.m.f 1.5 V records a p.d. of 1.35 V, when connected to an external resistance R, such that
current flowing through the circuit is 0.75 A. calculate the value of R and internal resistance of cell.
11. In given figure, a current of 1 A flows through the circuit, when p.d. recorded at the ends of the
parallel resistors is 1 volt. Calculate the value of R and r.

12. A cell of e.m.f. 1.8 V is connected to an external resistance of 2 Ω, when p.d. recorded at the ends
of the resistance is 1.6 V. calculate te internal resistance of the cell
13. Study the figs. Carefully and hence calculate the value of E and r.

Ch 9
1. Two bulbs of 60 W each and two coolers of 250 W each, work on an average 4 hours a day. If the
energy costs ₹ 5.50 per kWh, calculate the monthly bill and the minimum fuse rating when power is
supplied at 200V
2. An electric heater is 750 W – 200 V. Calculate (a) current flowing through it (b) resistance of its
elements (c) if the heater is used to heat 400 g of water at 20oC and switched on for 5 minutes,
calculate the final temperature of water.
3. An electric bulb is 200 W – 200 V. Calculate (a) current flowing through it (b) resistance of its
elements (c) if the bulb is immersed in 200 g of oil at 10oC and switched on for 2 minutes, calculate
the final temperature of oil. [ SHC of oil is 0.8 Jg-1C-1]
4. Calculate the resistance of the nichrome wire, which will bring 200 g of water at 20 oC to its boiling
point in 7 minutes, when the current flowing through the wire is 4 A
5. Calculate p.d. at the ends of a power source which, supplies current to a 4ohm resistance wire for
20 minutes and raises the temperature of 400 g water through 20 oC
6. An electric kettle is rated 1000 W – 250 V. It is used to bring water at 20oC to its boiling point. If the
kettle is used for 11 minutes and 12 seconds, calculate:
(a) Current flowing through the element
(b) Resistance of the element of the kettle
(c) Mass of water in the kettle.
7. Derive an expression for electric power connecting:
(a) Current and resistance
(b) Current and potential difference
(c) Potential difference and resistance
8. State the colour of (i) live wire (ii) neutral wire (iii) earth wire according to international convention
9. State the position of (i) earth pin (ii) live pin (iii) neutral pin in an electric plug
10. What are the advantages of a ring system in a household wiring.
11. Calculate the current flowing through an electric drill, connected to a 200 V supply, if it drills a hole
in a metal plate of mass 500 g, such that its temperature rises from 10oC to 60oC in 5 minutes,
assuming all the work done is converted into heat energy. [SHC of metal is 0.6 Jg-1C-1]
12. Calculate the current flowing through nichrome wire, immersed in 100 g of oil at 20oC, such that
the final temperature of oil rises to 80oC in 5 minutes, when the supply of e.m.f is 10 V. [SHC of
metal is 0.85 Jg-1C-1]
13. Derive an expression for electric work connecting:
(d) Current, resistance and time
(e) Current, potential difference and time
(f) Potential difference, resistance and time
14. An electric bulb is marked 1000 W – 200 V, what information does it convey?
(a) How many joules of energy is consumed by this bulb in two hours?
(b) How long will it take for the bulb to consume two-kilowatt hour?
 Question 4 (Each question carries 4 marks)

Ch 1
1. A see-saw 8 m long is balanced in the middle. Two children of mass 35 kgf and 45 kgf are sitting on
the same side of the fulcrum at a distance of 1.5 m and 3.5 m from the fulcrum respectively. Where
must a man weighing 75 kgf sit from the fulcrum, so as to balance the see-saw?
2. When a boy weighing 20 kgf sits at one end of a 4 m long see-saw, it gets depressed at this end. How can it
be brought to the horizontal position a man weighing 40 kgf.
3. A physical balance has its arms of length 60 cm and 40 cm. What weight kept on the pan of the longer arm
will balance an object of weight 100 gf kept on the other pan?
4. A uniform metre rule of mass 100 g is balanced on a fulcrum at mark 40 cm by suspending an unknown mass
m at the mark 20 cm.
(i) Find the value of m.
(ii) To which side the rule will tilt if the mass m is moved to the mark 10 cm?

(iii) What is the resultant moment now?

5. uniform half metre rule can be balanced at the 29 cm mark when a mass 20 g is hung from its one end.
(a) Draw a diagram of the arrangement.
(b) Find the mass of the half metre rule.
(c) In which direction would the balancing point shift if 20 g mass is shifted inside from its one end?
6. A uniform metre scale of weight 50 gf is balanced at 30 cm mark when weights of 80 gf and 60 gf
act at 5 cm mark and 45 cm mark respectively. What force must be applied at 20 cm mark to
balance the metre scale?
7. Explain the following
a) A small boy can balance a fat man on a see-saw.
b) It is easier to turn a steering wheel of larger diameter than a steering wheel of smaller
diameter.

Ch2
1. An electric motor of power 200 W is switched on for 1 minute and 40 seconds. If 60% of the energy
of the motor is useful, calculate (a) useful work done by the motor (b) load lifted by it through a
vertical height of 10 m. [g = 10 m/s2]
2. Define work and give condition for (a) positive work (b) negative work and (c) zero work.
3. Give one example of each
a) when light energy changes into chemical energy
 b) when magnetic energy changes into electric energy
c) when kinetic energy changes into heat energy
d) when heat energy changes into kinetic energy
4. In which case work is done and why?
a) A man pushing a wall
b) A porter carrying at a load and climbing upstairs.
c) A man standing at a place and holding a suitcase in hand.
d) A girl swimming in a pool
5. Two bodies A and B have masses in the ratio 5:1 and their kinetic energies are in the ratio 125:9.
Find the ratio of their velocities.

Ch 3
1. Draw a labelled diagram of a block and tackle system of pulleys with two pulleys in each block.
Indicate the directions of the load, effort and tension in the string and write down the relation
between the load and the effort of the pulley system.
2. A pulley system with velocity ratio 3 is used to lift a load of 60 kgf through a height of 20 m. The
force is applied in upward direction and its magnitude is 25 kgf. Calculate:
(a) Distance through which effort is applied
(b) Work done by the effort
(c) Mechanical advantage of pulley system
(d) Efficiency of pulley system.
3. The diagram alongside shows a single pulley system when a load of 20 kgf is attached to it.

(a) What is the velocity ratio of the pulley system?

(b) What is the mechanical advantage of the pulley system?
(c) What is the magnitude of effort applied?
(d) If the pulley is not ideal and is 80% efficient, calculate the effort applied.
4. The below figure shows the combination of a movable pulley P, with a fixed pulley P, used for lifting
up a load W.
 (a) State the function of the fixed pulley P₂.
(b) If the free end of the string moves through a distance x, find the distance by which the load W is
raised.
(c) Calculate the force to be applied at C to just raise the load W = 20 kgf, neglecting the weight of
the pulley P₁ and friction.

Ch 4
1. Calculate the amount of ice (SLH of fusion=336 J/g), which is sufficient to cool 150 g of water,
contained in a vessel of mass 50 g (SHC=0.4 J/g °C) at 30 °C, such that the final temperature of the
mixture is 5 °C.
2. A piece of ice of mass 60 g is dropped into 140 g of water at 50°C. Calculate the final temperature of
water when all the ice has melted. (Assume no heat is lost to the surrounding) Specific heat
capacity of water = 4.2 J/g K. Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 J/g.
3. Explain the following:
(a) Why is water used as coolant in motor car radiators?
(b) Why it takes time to change water at 100°C to steam at 100°C compared to heating same
mass of water from 0°C to 100°C?
4.
(a) Name the physical quantity which is measured in calorie.
(b) Define above quantity.
(c) what causes land breeze and sea breeze to occurred?
(d) why are burns caused by steam is more severe than those caused by boiling water at the
same temperature?
5.
(a) An equal quantity of heat is supplied to two substances A and B. The substance A shows a
greater rise in temperature. What can you say about the heat capacity of A as compared to
that of B?
 (b) What energy change would you expect to take place in the molecules of a substance when it
undergoes.
(c) a change in its temperature.
(d) a change in its state without any change in its temperature?

Ch 6
1. Give reason for the following:
(a) Infrared radiations are used for photography in fog.
(b) Infrared radiations are used for signals during war.
2. Name the radiations for the following purpose:
(a) Vitamin D production
(b) Satellite communication
(c) Navigation systems
(d) For killing cancerous cells
3. What are ultraviolet radiations? How are they detected? State any two uses of these radiations.
4. Give one use of each of
(a) Microwaves
(b) Ultraviolet radiations
(c) Infrared radiations
(d) Gamma rays
5. What are infrared radiations? State its properties.
6. Explain the following:
(a) X – rays are used for detection of bone fractures.
(b) A blackened bulb thermometer is used to detect infrared radiations.
(c) Photographs are developed in dark rooms in presence of infrared lamps.
(d) A quartz prism is used to obtain the ultraviolet radiations.

Ch 11
7. A certain nucleus P has a mass number 15 and atomic number 7.
(a) Find the number of neutrons
(b) Write the symbol for the nucleus P
(c) The nucleus P loses (i) one proton, (ii) one β – particle, (iii) one α – particle. Write the
symbol of the new nucleus in each case and express each change by a reaction.
8. Complete the following nuclear change
𝛽 𝛾 𝛼 𝛽
𝐴
𝑍𝑋 → 𝑋1 → 𝑋2 → 𝑋3 → 𝑋4
9. Complete the following nuclear change
𝛼 𝛾 𝛽 𝛼
206
𝑋1 → 𝑋2 → 𝑋3 → 𝑋4 → 82𝑋

10. A radioactive source emits three type of radiations.

(a) Name the three radiations
(b) Name the radiations which are deflected by the electric field.
(c) Name the radiation which is most penetrating.
(d) Name the radiation which travels with the speed of light.
11. A radioactive source emits three type of radiations.
(a) Name the radiation of zero mass
(b) Name the radiation which has the lowest ionising power.
(c) Name the radiation which has the lowest penetrating power.
(d) Give the charge and mass of particles referred to in part (c) becomes neutral, it is found to
be the atom of a rare gas. Name this rare gas and draw a model of its neutral atom.
12. Figure shows a radioactive source S in a thick lead walled container having a narrow opening.
The radiation passes through an electric field between the plates A and B.

(a) Complete the diagram to show the paths of α, β and γ radiations.

(b) Why is the source S kept in a thick lead walled container with a narrow opening?
(c) Name the radiation which is unaffected by the electrostatic field.
(d) Which radiation is deflected the most? give reason.

13. State following four properties each of α, β and γ radiations : (a) nature, (b) charge, (c) mass
and (d) electric field.
14. Answer the following:-
(a) An atomic nucleus A is composed of 84 protons and 128 neutrons. The nucleus A emits an α
– particle and is transformed into a nucleus B. what is the composition of B?
(b) The nucleus B emits a β – particle and is transformed into a nucleus C. what is the
composition of C?
(c) What is the mass number of the nucleus A?
 (d) Does the composition of nucleus C change if it emits the γ radiation?

Ch :- 8
1. Two cells, each of e.m.f 1.5 V and internal resistance 1 Ω are connected in parallel, to form a
battery. The battery is connected to an external resistance of 0.5 Ω and two resistances of 3Ω
and 1.5 Ω in parallel.
(a) Draw the circuit diagram
(b) Calculate the current in the main circuit.
(c) Calculate the current in 1.5Ω resistor.
(d) Calculate the drop in potential across the terminals of the battery.
2. Four cells, each of e.m.f 1.5 V and internal resistance 2 Ω are connected in parallel, to form a
battery. The battery is connected to an external resistance of 0.5 Ω and three resistances of 12
Ω, 6 Ω and 4 Ω in parallel.
(a) Draw the circuit diagram
(b) Calculate the current in the main circuit.
(c) Calculate the current in 4 Ω resistor.
(d) Calculate the drop in potential across the terminals of the battery.
3. Four cells, each of e.m.f 1.5 V and internal resistance 2 Ω are connected in parallel, to form a
battery. The battery is connected to an external resistance of 1.5 Ω and two resistances of 3Ω
and 1.5 Ω in parallel.
(a) Draw the circuit diagram
(b) Calculate the current in the main circuit.
(c) Calculate the current in 3 Ω resistor.
(d) Calculate the drop in potential across the terminals of the battery.
4. Four cells, each of e.m.f 2 V and internal resistance 0.2 Ω are connected in series to form a
battery. The battery is connected to an ammeter, external resistance of 1.2 Ω and two
resistances of 12 Ω, 6 Ω and 4 in parallel to complete the overall circuit in series.
(a) Draw the circuit diagram
(b) Calculate total internal resistance and total e.m.f.
(c) Calculate the current in the main circuit.
(d) Calculate the drop in potential across the terminals of the battery.
5. Define series circuit and state three characteristics of a series circuit
6. Define parallel circuit and state three characteristics of a parallel circuit
7. How will you verify Ohm’s law by voltmeter, ammeter method?
8. How will you verify Ohm’s law by potentiometer method?
9. Write the conclusions and expression of resistance in series for n number of resistances.
10. Write the conclusions and expression of resistance in parallel for n number of resistances.

Ch:- 9
1. Write the four characteristics of the heating element.
2. State four reasons for using tungsten in bulbs
3. A battery of 24 V and negligible internal resistance is connected to two resistors of 6 Ω and 12 Ω
in parallel, which further connected to a nichrome wire of resistance 2 Ω immersed in 100 g oil
of sp. Heat capacity 1.2 Jg-1C-1, at 30oC.
(a) Draw the labelled circuit diagram.
(b) Calculate the value of current in the main circuit.
(c) Calculate the current flowing in 6 Ω resistance in parallel.
(d) Calculate the final temperature of the oil.
4. An electric kettle is rated 200 V and can bring a certain amount of water to its boiling point in 5
minutes. If it is connected to a voltage supply of 180 V, calculate the time in which the same
amount of water will reach its boiling point.
5. An electric kettle is rated 250 V and can bring a certain amount of water to its boiling point in 8
minutes. If it is connected to a voltage supply of 200 V, calculate the time in which the same
amount of water will reach its boiling point.
6. Am immersion heating rod is rated 220 V and can bring a certain amount of water to its boiling
point in 15 minutes. When this immersion rod is actually connected to an electric circuit it
brings water to boil in 18.15 minutes. Calculate the line voltage.
7. An establishment receives electric energy at a rate of ₹ 4.50 per kWh at a p.d. pf 240 V. It uses
following appliances
(a) 20 tube lights of 40 W each working 10 h a day.
(b) Two stereo systems, each drawing a current of 2A and working 4h a day.
(c) Four ovens, each of resistance 24 Ω working 6 h a day.
(d) Two cooling machines of 4 H.P. each working 15 hours a day.
(i) Calculate monthly bill
(ii) Minimum fuse rating of circuit
8. A battery of 12 V and negligible internal resistance is connected to an external circuit consisting
of three resistors of 6 Ω, 3Ω and 2 Ω in parallel, which further connected to a resistance of 3 Ω
in series to the battery. The 3 Ω resistance in 50 g oil of sp. Heat capacity 0.8 Jg -1C-1, when the
temperature of the oil rises by 54oC.
(e) Draw the labelled circuit diagram.
(f) Calculate the value of current in the main circuit.
(g) Calculate the current flowing in 2 Ω resistance in parallel.
(h) Calculate the time for which current is switched on.