Question Paper

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UG 2022
BOOKLET SL. NO.

CONSORTIUM OF NATIONAL LAW UNIVERSITIES
COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST-2022
Five Year Integrated Law Programme
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CONTENTS OF QUESTION PAPER
Subject Q. Nos. Page No.
english Language 1 – 30 3 – 11
Current Affairs and general Knowledge 31 – 65 12 –18
Legal reasoning 66 – 105 19 – 32
Logical reasoning 106 – 135 33 – 40
Quantitative techniques 136 – 150 41 – 42
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English Language
I. Public speaking is a powerful real-life skill. Over the centuries, impressive speeches made
by people from various walks of life have helped to change hearts, minds and shape the
world as we see it today. Speeches that are delivered with intense emotions and conviction
can infuse compassion and forgiveness; elevate levels of hatred and destruction; break or
unite nations.
On October 5, in 1877 in the mountains of montana territory, when Chief Joseph surrendered
to general Nelson A. miles, the former gave a Surrender Speech. the speech included these
words: “It is cold, and we have no blankets; the little children are freezing to death. I want
ime o look for m children, and ee ho man of hem I can nd. Ma be I hall nd hem
among the dead. Hear me, my Chiefs! I am tired; my heart is sick and sad. From where the
n no and I ill gh no more fore er.”
the heart-wrenching speech bared the grief and misery of the speaker, and those subjected
to overwhelming hardships.
during World War ii, the speech We Shall Fight on the Beaches delivered by Winston
Churchill on June 4, 1940 is considered a high-powered speech that strengthened the
determination of those present in the House of Commons. in the speech, he said, “Even
though large tracts of Europe and many old and famous States have fallen or may fall into
he grip of he Ge apo and all he odio appara of Na i r le, e hall no ag or fail.
We hall go on o he end, e hall gh in France, e hall gh on he ea and ocean ,
e hall gh i h gro ing con dence and gro ing reng h in he air, e hall defend o r
i land, ha e er he co ma be, e hall gh on he beache , e hall gh on he landing
gro nd , e hall gh in he eld and in he ree , e hall gh in he hill ;
In 1950, William Fa lkner a hono red i h a Nobel Pri e for hi igni can con rib ion
to the American novel. this was the time when the Soviet union had found the possible
implications of the use of the atomic bomb, and people had begun to live in the fear of
annihilation. in his Nobel Prize Acceptance Speech, Faulkner urged writers of various genres
to think and write beyond the fear of destruction, and instead write materials that would lift
the human spirit. the powerful message included: “I believe that man will not merely endure:
he will prevail. He is immortal, not because he alone among creatures has an inexhaustible
oice, b beca e he ha a o l, a piri capable of compa ion and acri ce and end rance.
The poet’s, the writer’s, duty is to write about these things. It is his privilege to help man
endure by lifting his heart, by reminding him of the courage and honor and hope and pride
and compa ion and pi and acri ce hich ha e been he glorie of hi pa . The poe
voice need not merely be the record of man, it can be one of the props, the pillars to help
him endure and prevail.”
undoubtedly, effective speeches have a long-lasting impact on the minds of the listeners, and
they elevate the levels of awareness or actions the speaker intends to raise or catalyze.
1. the main idea of the passage is that

(A) All leaders should be accomplished public speakers.
(b) An impactful speech can convey a strong message to the listeners.
(C) A speech should sound pleasing to the ears of the listeners.
(d) Publicspeakers should be bold and argumentative.
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2. the tone of the Surrender Speech is

(A) Satiric (b) Optimistic (C) Poignant (d) Narcissistic
3. it is evident that through his speech, Churchill wished to _____ his countrymen ______.
(A) inform, about the challenges that arise in a war-torn country.
(b) Warn, against the futility of war.
(C) remind, how their endeavours to fight against the Nazi rule had failed
miserably.
(d) reassure, that they would combat fiercely against their enemy under all
circumstances.
4. Which one of the following is the least likely to be used to describe Churchill?
(A) resolute (b) undaunted (C) Complacent (d) unwavering
5. in the sentence : ‘The poet’s voice need not merely be the record of man, it can be one
of the props, the pillars to help him endure and prevail’ Faulkner has used _______
to convey the power of a poet’s writings.
(A) A metaphor (b) A simile
(C) An onomatopoeia (d) A transferred epithet
II. As a six-year-old child-beggar, Saroo slept off in a stationary train in Khandwa, madhya
Pradesh; however, when he woke up, he found himself in an empty compartment of a
train thundering towards Kolkata where he spent a couple of weeks in a state of panic and
hopelessness. Finally, he ended up in a local government adoption centre from where he
a adop ed b an A ralian co ple. T en e ear la er, Saroo fel he rge o race hi
biological mother and see in what state she lived. relentlessly, he used google’s satellite
feature to map the parts of the country that could have possibly been his own hometown.
the search was a long and arduous one; nevertheless, the perseverance did pay. One
eventful day, he met his mother; thereafter, he continued to keep in touch with her.
if technology can unite people with their loved ones, it can also make them distant. the
unlimited variety of applications (apps) available to toddlers, teenagers and adults might
have revolutionized their lives for the better, but these very apps have snatched away the
joys of long naturewalks; they have encroached upon the time and space that people earlier
used for physical interaction; they have drilled deep chasms of loneliness in the lives of
countless numbers of people.
Simple pleasures of life include visiting friends and relatives, playing matches in open spaces,
interacting with people in markets, public libraries and clubs. However, with the escalating
rage of using apps like those for social media, playing virtual games, and homedelivery
services, these joyous moments are fading into oblivion, and the pall of loneliness is getting
heavier by the day.
Where are we heading to? Are we going to allow ourselves to be swamped by apps? Are
we going to allow socialmedia to engulf us in a deluge of loneliness and isolation? Are
we going to drive ourselves to situations that will ultimately demand mental and physical
therapies to regain normalcy? do we not know that physical interaction is as essential for
mental health as food and water is for physical health?
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earlier, social isolation was mostly experienced by some of the elderly people who were
devoid of an occupation, and bereft of company of their loved ones. unfortunately today,
an unhealthy solitude prevails among numerous children, teenagers and adults too;
subsequently, there is an alarming increase in the demand for mental health therapy
practitioners.
the necessity of engaging psychologists in schools and colleges is evidently on the rise.
the psychologists are required to identify and address the learning and behavioral needs
of students who approach them for guidance; moreover, if required, the professionals are
expected to help them in strengthening their emotional, social and academic skills.
regardless how alarming the situation might be, it is never too late. if people revert to
the earlier trend of shopping off-line, going for naturewalks, playing outdoors games, and
catching up with friends in their homes or cafés more frequently, they can keep their heads
rml ell abo e he ocean of loneline .
6. From he pa age i i e iden ha Saroo de ire o nd hi mo her

(A) ended up being a distant dream.
(b) inspired him to use google’s satellite feature intermittently.
(C) Waned as time went by.
(d) did not slacken till he succeeded.
7. in the sentence ‘these very apps have snatched away the joys of long nature-walks;’
the author has
(A) Satirized nature (b) metaphorized apps
(C) Per oni ed app (D) None of he abo e
8. From the passage one can conclude that

(A) it is impossible for people to reduce the usage of apps.
(b) there is a direct correlation between loneliness and excessive usage of socialmedia
apps.
(C) the usage of technology is as essential for mental-health as food and water is
for physical health.
(d) All senior citizens are lonely because they are not tech-savvy.
9. From the passage it can be inferred that presently in many educational institutions
(A) the number of teachers who pass the buck to psychologists is on the rise.
(b) Special emphasis is being laid on the mental and emotional health of the
students.
(C) The age of ed ca ional app i being di co raged igni can l .
(d) All the students feel the need to be counseled by psychologists.
10. in the concluding paragraph of the given passage, the writer’s tone can be best
described as
(A) Optimistic (b) despairing
(C) Laudatory (d) Apologetic
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III. “Wash! Wash! Wash your hands! ” that’s been the safety-mantra ever since the pandemic
COVid-19 began swamping the world. undoubtedly, washing hands has proven to be the
be a o keep germ a ba . Unfor na el , he medical prac i ioner ho r promo ed
the importance of this simple activity was subjected to intense humiliation, and ultimately
declared insane!
ignaz Semmelweis was a Hungarian doctor. in 1847, as an obstetrician, he was disturbed that
post-delivery, almost every third woman died of an unexpected malady. He observed that as
a part of the set routine, medical students and doctors would examine and study the corpses
in the mortuary, and then come for rounds to the maternity wards. Here, without washing
their hands, they would examine expectant mothers. After making numerous hypothesis and
observations, he was convinced that when doctors washed their hands before examining
the women in the ward, the number of deaths due to serious infection declined. He shared
hi ob er a ion i h hi colleag e and man o her orking in he eld of medicine, b
unfortunately he could not provide any concrete evidence to his theory. Sadly, due to the
vehement criticism that he received, he went into depression. Furthermore, ignaz strived
to prove his point so relentlessly that it led to the belief that he had lost his mind. in 1865,
a doctor deceptively lured him into an asylum for the insane, and two weeks of the brutal
treatment that was meted out to him by the attendants led to his untimely death. About
twenty years later, when the world became more receptive to the works of scientists like
Louis Pasteur and Joseph Lister, awareness regarding germs that cause diseases began
to spread. this is the time when ignaz was honoured with titles like Father of Hand Hygiene
and Sa io r of Mo her - an honour much too late!
Some of the most celebrated artists have earned fame much after their deaths. it is tragic
that Vincent Van gogh’s awe-inspiring work was labeled as strange and amateur by most of
the critics of his time. it is believed that he sold only one or two painting in his lifetime, and
that too for a meager amount. today, every single painting of Vincent Van gogh paintings
is worth millions of dollars.
Fran Kafka a a pro cien ri er, b hen he p bli hed a fe piece of hi ri ing ,
he received immense criticism. before his death in 1924, he handed over his unpublished
novels and short stories to his friend max brod, and urged him to destroy them; however,
Brod go he man crip p bli hed. Toda , Fran i acclaimed a one of he major c ion
writers of the twentieth century; the novels titled The Trial published in 1925, and The Castle
published in 1926 are considered two of his masterpieces.
Perhaps, if humans were more tolerant and amenable to change, innovative concepts,
theories and creations, the deserving would live to experience the glory and honour they
rightfully deserve.
11. the main idea of the passage is that

(A) All original theories and works should receive unreserved acceptance.
(b) many undeserving innovators have been honoured after their demise.
(C) Creativity must never be inhibited.
(d) Numerous innovators have found recognition and appreciation of their works
posthumously.
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12. From the passage it is evident that dr. ignaz’s theory was rejected because
(A) He could not substantiate it
(b) the doctors did not want him to regulate their work ethics
(C) He had been declared insane
(d) Joseph Lister and Louis Pasteur had already discovered germs
13. From the passage one can conclude that the art critics who _______ Van gogh’s
works were __________.
(A) Applauded, pessimistic.
(b) Censured, hypercritical.
(C) denounced, tolerant.
(d) Acclaimed, rigid.
14. From the passage it can be inferred that max brod

(A) Was of the opinion that Franz had not reached out to the right critics
(b) decried Franz’s writings
(C) Considered it unsacred to destroy any manuscript
(d) Appreciated and valued Franz’s works
15. the word relentlessly in the passage can be best replaced by the word
(A) irresolutely (b) recklessly
(C) unabatedly (d) unabashedly
IV. Cryptocurrencies are a terrible thing. they are the essence of a Ponzi scheme whose value
is based entirely on a greater fool prepared to buy it. the promise of alchemy-turning lead
into gold has bewitched humanity throughout the ages and cryptocurrencies are just the
latest alchemy. do not get me wrong, if rich people want to lose their money, in this or any
other way, they should be allowed to do so. the rich should be the vanguards of new things
in case something unforeseen and good falls out of them. but we need to protect those
vulnerable consumers whose lives are such that almost any get-rich-quick schemes will be
seductive, and seven out of 10 times, they will lose their life savings. Cryptocurrencies are
oda So h Sea B bble one of he earlie recorded nancial b bble ha ook place
in the 1720s’ britain. meme-based currencies like dogecoin, dogelon mars and doge dash
remind me of the infamous plan of one company during the South Sea bubble to raise
money “for carrying on an undertaking of great advantage; but nobody to know what it is.”
the cryptocurrency bubble is worse than tulip mania. through the veil of technology,
cryptocurrency enthusiasts are leaning on policy-makers to permit them to be exempt from
regulation, privatize money, and make money so disconnected from the economy that it
o ld reap nancial di a er. There are man rea on o a oid nancial di a er , b one
of them is that they ratchet up poverty and inequality. the current money–credit system is
not perfect, but like democracy, it is the worst system barring all the others. it has evolved
from the ashes of the system cryptocurrency enthusiasts are trying to resurrect.
the current system is vulnerable to attack because money is little understood. Cryptocurrency
en h ia ha e a rac ed a follo ing ba ed on he c ion ha he cen ral bank or go ernmen
creates money and are busy debasing it in their self-interest. this is not the case, but then
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again, there is some overlap between cryptocurrency advocates, conspiracy theorists,

and anti-vaxxers. The ime ha come for omeone o and p for he c rren a mone
system and explain that while it could be better still, it has been associated with far more
growth, much more distributed, and has responded better to economic crisis than what
came before.
in today’s money–credit system, banks create money when they issue a loan and place the
loan’s proceeds into the account of their customers, creating a deposit. money is, in fact,
a tradable debt. the bank’s deposit can be used as cash because the bank is a regulated
issuer of loans and deposit-taker, which gives the deposit credibility and convertibility. the
cen ral bank onl in ence he crea ion of mone indirec l b i reg la or req iremen
ha a propor ion of he loan need o be f nded b hareholder pro . The need o
have skin in the game. money creation then is based on thousands of separate decisions
b loan of cer and i more di rib ed han a cen rali ed algori hm like Bi coin. And i
supply is determined by the private demand for loans, which means it is closely aligned to
the economy.
16. Which of the following does best describe attitude of the author towards rich people?
(A) Concerned (b) Assiduous (C) indifferent (d) Sympathetic
17. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

(A) the author defends the current money–credit system.
(b) the author rejects the idea that the central bank or government creates money
and are busy debasing it in their self-interest.
(C) the author backs the protection of poor from menace of cryptocurrencies.
(d) All the above
18. Which rhetorical device is employed in ‘cryptocurrencies are just the latest alchemy’?
(A) Antithesis (b) metaphor
(C) Per oni ca ion (D) S necdoche
19. Which of the following does best describe the passage?

(A) Argumentative and explanatory (b) descriptive and argumentative
(C) Narrative and explanatory (d) expository and argumentative
20. What do the cryptocurrency enthusiasts rely on?

(A) exemption from regulation
(b) Privatization of money
(C) disconnection of money from the economy
(d) All the above
V. the fact that gaia, in her monstrous avatar, decided to distribute fossil fuels very unevenly
across the earth has been central to the emergence of the world’s current geopolitical order.
From a vitalist point of view, it could be said that the wars of the twentieth century were won
as much by the fossilized energy of botanical matter as by particular groups of humans.
in the First World War germany’s lack of oil put it at a huge disadvantage against the Allies,
more or less ensuring its defeat. the shortage of oil effectively cancelled the technological
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ad an age German enjo ed a he ar of he ar: de pi e ha ing a large ee , for in ance,

it was unable to use its navy effectively because its coal-burning ships needed to refuel
every eleven days. Conversely, the assured supply of American oil conferred so great an
advantage on britain and France that “it could be fairly stated that the war was won for the
Western allies by tankers.” Not for nothing was it said of the First World War that britain,
France, and he Uni ed S a e oa ed o ic or on a ea of oil.
in the Second World War the shortage of oil was even more critical to the defeat of the Axis
powers. the german Luftwaffe was forced to rely on synthetic fuels derived from coal, and
these could not provide the high-octane energy that was necessary for high- compression
aero engines: “it was largely due to the inferior engines in german aircraft that the Luftwaffe
lost the battle of britain.” the shortage of oil also dictated germany’s war strategy: it was
in order o ei e he oil eld of he Ca ca ha he German arm p hed ea ard in o
the Soviet union in 1942, leading to a defeat at Stalingrad from which it never recovered.
Japan’s invasion of the dutch east indies was similarly forced by its lack of oil.
in short, over the course of the twentieth century access to oil became the central focus of
global geopoli ical ra eg : for a Grea Po er, o be able o en re or hinder he o of
oil a o ha e a h mb on he j g lar of i ad er arie . In he r par of he en ie h
cen r he g aran or of he o of oil a Bri ain. Af er he Second World War, he ba on
was passed, along with a string of british naval bases, to the united States. the role of
g aran or of global energ o i ill cr cial o US ra egic dominance and o i po i ion
as global hegemon.
today, as elizabeth deLoughrey has pointed out, “uS energy policy has become increasingly
militarized and secured by the Navy, the largest oceanic force on the planet.” in the words
of the historian michael Klare, the iraq War of 2003 marked the transformation of the uS
mili ar in o a global oil pro ec ion er ice, g arding pipeline , re nerie , and loading
facilities in the middle east and elsewhere.”
I i impor an o no e ha he ra egic al e of con rolling oil o i angen iall rela ed o
the uS’s energy requirements. the period in which the American military was turning into
“a global oil protection service” was one in which the uS was well on its way to reducing
i dependence on impor ed oil. The fac ha he US i no elf- f cien in fo il f el
has in no way diminished the strategic importance of oil as an instrument for the projection
of power- it is the ability to deny energy supplies to rivals that is strategically of central
importance.
21. What is the central idea of the passage?

(A) Fossil fuels in war-making.
(b) Strategic value fossil fuels in uS dominance in the world.
(C) role of fossil fuels in modern geopolitical order.
(d) distribution of fossil fuels in the world.
22. What was the cause of germany’s defeat in the First World War?
(A) germany’s shortage of oil
(b) Advantage of britain and France
(C) Weaknesses of germany’s navy
(d) All the above
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23. Which of the following could be inferred from michael Klare’s opinion on uS military?
(A) the uS military interferes with energy needs of other countries.
(b) the uS energy policy has become increasingly militarized.
(C) the uS has changed energy policy drastically.
(D) The US ha f ll nder ood he ra egic al e of con rolling oil o .
24. What does the phrase ‘tangentially related’ to mean?

(A) related directly and in straightforward way
(b) related closely and centrally
(C) related only slightly and peripherally
(d) None of the above
25. What makes the uS strategically dominating global hegemon?

(A) Capaci of he US o pro ide oil pro ec ion er ice, g arding pipeline , re nerie ,
and loading facilities.
(b) increasingly militarized energy policy of the uS Navy, the largest oceanic force
on the planet.
(C) The role of US a a g aran or of global energ o .
(d) All the above
VI. the modern animal rights movement, which originated in the 1970s, may be understood
as a reaction to dominant emphases within science and religion (principally, though not
exclusively, Christianity). When the Jesuit Joseph rickaby wrote in 1888 that “brute beasts,
not having understanding and therefore not being persons, cannot have any rights” and that
we have “no duties of charity or duties of any kind to the lower animals as neither to stocks
and stones”, he was only articulating, albeit in an extreme form, the moral insensitivity that
has characterized the Western view of animals.
Tha in en i i i i he re l of an amalgam of in ence . The r , and for man ear he
most dominant, was the “other worldly” or “world denying” tendency in Christianity, which
has, at its worst, denigrated the value of earthly things in comparison with things spiritual.
traditional Catholicism has divided the world into those beings that possess reason and
therefore immortal souls, and those that do not. Christian spirituality has not consciously
been at home with the world of non-human creatures-either animal or vegetable. Classic
accounts of eternal life as found in Augustine of Hippo, thomas Aquinas, or John Calvin
make little or no reference to the world of animals. Animals, it seems, are merely transient
or peripheral beings in an otherwise wholly human-centric economy of salvation.
the second idea-common to Christianity, Judaism, and islam-is that animals, along with
vegetables and minerals, exist instrumentally in relation to human beings; they are made for
human beings, even belong to human beings, as resources in creation. this idea predates
Christianity and is found notably in Aristotle, who argues that “since nature makes nothing
to no purpose, it must be that nature has made them for the sake of man”. this idea, largely
unsupported by scripture, was nevertheless taken over by Aquinas, who conceived of
creation as a rational hierarchy in which the intellectually inferior existed for the sake of the
intellectually superior.
Such instrumentalism, which features rationality as the key factor dividing human beings
from br e bea , ha in rn b re ed he hird in ence, namel he no ion of h man
superiority in creation. Human superiority need not, by itself, have led to the neglect of
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animal life, but when combined with the biblical ideas of being made “in the image of god”
and god’s preferential choice to become incarnate in human form, some sense of moral as
well as theological ascendancy was indicated. As a result, Christianity, and to a lesser extent
Judaism, have been characterized historically by an overwhelming concern for humanity in
creation rather than an egalitarian concern for all forms of god-given life. that humans are
more important than animals, and that they self-evidently merit moral solicitude in a way
that animals cannot, has become religious doctrine. thus the Catechism of the Catholic
Church maintains that “it is . . . unworthy to spend money on them [animals] that should as
a priority go to the relief of human misery”.
The e in ence ha e in rn enabled and j i ed he cien i c e plora ion of he na ral
orld and peci call he bjec ion of animal o e perimen a ion. Franci Bacon p r ed
hi cien i c in e iga ion in he belief ha h mani ho ld reco er ha righ o er na re
which belongs to it by divine bequest”. rené descartes famously likened the movements
of a swallow to the workings of a clock, and maintained that “there is no prejudice to which
we are more accustomed from our earliest years than the belief that dumb animals think”.
26. Jesuit Joseph rickaby’s articulation on animals may be termed as:

(A) eco-centric view of animals (b) Anthropocentric view of animals
(C) ethnocentric view of animals (d) Androcentric view of animals
27. According to the author, how did Christianity contribute to insensitivity of the West
towards animals?
(A) it denigrated the value of earthly things in comparison with spiritual things.
(b) it divided the world into beings with and without reason.
(C) it propagated as if animals are transient or peripheral in human centric economy
of salvation.
(d) All the above.
28. Which of the following is closest to the meaning of the word ‘instrumentalism’ as used
in the passage?
(A) Pragmatism (b) idealism
(C) egalitarianism (d) None of the above
29. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
(A) We ern philo oph and cience are bo h nder he in ence of religion.
(B) We ern philo ophical ie on animal ha e been in enced b religio no ion
about them.
(C) We ern religio no ion on animal ha e j i ed bjec ion of animal o
cien i c e perimen a ion.
(D) Some of he cien i c ie on animal ha e been in enced b religio no ion
about them.
30. it may be inferred from rené descartes’ view that

(A) it as irrational to assume that animals have awareness and some mental
capacities.
(b) Animals are automata or they act mechanically.
(C) Neither (A) nor (b)
(d) both (A) and (b)
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Current Affairs and General Knowledge
VII. When we hear the name SPACe, only one organization comes to mind: the indian Space
research Organization (iSrO). the indian Space research Organization (iSrO), located
in Bengal r , i he co n r r pace agenc . ISRO a fo nded in 1969 i h he goal
of developing and utilizing space technology for national development while also conducting
planetary exploration and space science research. the space research operations began in
india in the early 1960s, at a time when satellite applications were still in the experimental
stages in the united States. dr. Vikram Sarabhai, the founding father of india’s space
programme, rapidl recogni ed he bene of pace echnologie af er he li e ran mi ion
of he Tok o Ol mpic Game acro he Paci c b he American a elli e S ncom-3
demonstrated the power of communication satellites. the iSrO has launched various
spacecrafts like the Chandrayaan, Astrosat, microsat, gSAt etc. the government of india
has also approved a regional spaceborne navigation system, which will consist of seven
satellites. Out of these, four of them will be placed in geosynchronous inclined orbit of 29°
relative to the equatorial plane. Such an arrangement would mean all seven satellites would
have continuous radio visibility with indian control stations.
31. Name he r dedica ed mi ion la nched b ISRO for d ing he cele ial o rce
in X-ray, optical and uV spectral bands simultaneously.
(A) Amazonia (b) Astrosat
(C) gaganyaan – 1 (d) Lunar Polar exploration mission
32. APPLE, he r comm nica ion a elli e of ISRO a la nched from:

(A) Satish dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota
(b) terLS, thiruvananthapuram
(C) Kourou, French guiana
(d) SSLV Launching Station, tamil Nadu
33. Name the spacecraft that has been successfully sent into the space to probe into the
planets in the solar system.
(A) Sputnik 19 (b) Cosmos 482
(C) Pioneer-e (d) mariner 10
34. The r cce f l N clear Bomb e cond c ed b India in 1974, i called he:
(A) Prithvi (b) Pokhran-ii
(C) Smiling buddha (d) Surya
35. NaviC covers india and region extending:

(A) 1,500 Km (b) 2,000 Km
(C) 7,000 Km (d) 1,000 Km
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VIII. On december 26, 2021, for he r ime ince he pre en go ernmen came o po er in
2014, the union Home Mini r con i ed a panel led b i of cer o re ie he i hdra al
of the Armed areas. the Act was amended in 1972 and the powers to declare an area as
“disturbed” were conferred concurrently upon the Central government along with the States.
C rren l , he MHA i e periodic di rbed area no i ca ion o e end AFSPA onl for
Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh, where it is applicable in the districts of tirap, Changlang,
Longding and areas falling under Namsai and mahadevpur police stations bordering Assam.
The no i ca ion for Manip r and A am i i ed b he S a e governments. tripura revoked
the Act in 2015 and meghalaya was under AFSPA for 27 years, until it was revoked by the
mHA from April 1, 2018. the Act was implemented in a 20-km area along the border with
Assam. Jammu and Kashmir has a separate J&K Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act,
1990.
36. Power to notify parts of or the whole of a State or a union territory as a ‘disturbed
area’, under the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 is vested with:
(A) governor of any State (b) Administrator of a union territory
(C) Central government (d) All of the above
37. AFSPA was introduced in meghalaya in the year:

(A) 1995 (b) 1999
(C) 1991 (d) 1989
38. Consider the following statements about the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act and
mark the correct option.
(A) detractors and Human rights Organizations, as well as many sections of civil
society, argue that the Act often leads to excesses and require checks and
balances or could alienate the people instead of integrating them with the main
stream.
(B) Irom Chan Sharmila, an ac i i from Manip r, became an en i i ing g re
mboli ing he pro e again AFSPA af er he a on an inde ni e fa in 2000,
demanding its repeal and ended it only in August 2016.
(C) both (A) and (b) are correct
(d) None of the above
39. In 2005, a go ernmen -appoin ed e-member commi ee, recommended ha AFSPA

be repealed. it suggested that the unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act could be suitably
amended to deal with terrorism. it made this recommendation as it felt that the AFSPA
created an impression that the people of the Northeast States were being targeted
for hostile treatment. Who headed this committee?
(A) b. P. Jeevan reddy
(b) Abhishek Singhvi
(C) Soli Sorabjee
(d) ram Jethmalani
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40. AFSPA is currently in force in:

(A) Arunachal Pradesh and Assam
(b) Nagaland and manipur
(C) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) All of the above
IX. One of he j i ca ion of R ia-Ukraine ar R ian leader claimed ha mili ar ac ion

was necessary to stop ukrainian attacks on the two break away regions of donetsk and
Lugansk, which russia recognized as sovereign states. President of russia claimed that
R ia co ld come nder a ack b Ukrainian far righ go ernmen , nle heir in ence in
the country is diminished. He accused Western Nations of arming Kyiv against russia. After
being ordered by russia’s leader to invade the capital of ukraine, russian troops moved in
e eral direc ion . A he r arge ere hi , airpor and he mili ar HQ ere loca ed
near cities across ukraine, then tanks and troops rolled into the country from the north, east,
and south. the war has demolished most of the cities of the ukraine and caused irreparable
damage to the humanity.
41. ukraine was part of which country during 1922-1991?

(A) germany (b) Poland
(C) uSA (d) uSSr
42. Who is the President of ukraine?

(A) Volodymyr Zelenskyy (b) Vladimir Zelenskyy
(C) Volodymyr S. Zelenskyy (d) Vladimir Zelensky
43. Which is the currency of ukraine?

(A) guilder (b) Zloty
(C) ruble (d) Hryvnia
44. the President of ukraine was formerly:

(A) Wea her Foreca er (B) Na Of cer
(C) Comedian (d) tV News reader
45. Which operation was launched by the indian government to bring back indians from
ukraine during russia-ukraine war?
(A) Operation Kyiv (b) Operation ganga
(C) Operation rakshak (d) Operation east Star
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X. every second patent granted in india between 2016-2021 is related to green technology
and a quarter of the green technology patents are concerning alternative energy production,
coinciding with the Centre’s efforts on “enhanced use of green technology for boosting
economy and encouraging consumers to use products produced through use of such
echnolog . data from the ministry of Commerce and industry shows that more than 91,500
patents were granted between 2016-17 and 2020-21, while the data for 2021-22 was not
immediately available. However, going by the trend in the past two years, india is expected to
clear at least 25,000 more applications this year. Separate data from the ministry shows that
between 2016-17 and 2021-22 (up to January), 61,186 patents related to green technologies
have been granted in the said period. Of these, 90% are for technologies concerning waste
management and alternative energy production- 38,837 or 63% of them are related to
waste management and more than 16,000 or 26% are for alternative energy production.
the rest of the green technology patentsare for energy conservation (2,555),transportation
technologies (2,481),nuclear power generation (1,079),agriculture-and-forestry (161),and
others (69).
46. With which country india entered into a ‘green Strategic Partnership’ in
September 2020?
(A) Poland (b) greece
(C) denmark (d) South Korea
47. in pursuance of the united Nations Sustainable development goals (Sdg), india aims
to be energy independent by the year
(A) 2047 (b) 2040
(C) 2045 (d) 2057
48. According to the global innovation index 2021 published by the World intellectual
Property Organization (WiPO), india is ranked _________ out of 132 countries.
(A) 45th (b) 46th
(C) 47th
(d) 48th
49. in January 2022, the union Cabinet approved the second phase of the green energy
Corridor (geC) in india with the objective to facilitate
(A) grid integration and power evacuation of renewable energy (re) Power Projects
in seven States.
(b) ecologically sustainable growth by increasing carbon footprint.
(C) ecologically sustainable production of fossil fuels.
(d) Spreading awareness regarding renewable energy (re) Power Projects.
50. the ireNA is an intergovernmental organization that supports countries in their

transition to a sustainable energy future and serves as the principal platform for
international co-operation on renewable energy. ireNA stands for:
(A) intergovernmental renewable energy Association
(b) international renewable energy Association
(C) intergovernmental renewable energy Agency
(d) international renewable energy Agency
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XI. the government may defer the deadline for companies to deposit the unspent portion of
their Corporate Social responsibility (CSr) funds in o peci ed bank acco n in a mo e
aimed a pro iding ome relief in he gh again he COVID-19 and b eq en re ric ion .
Companie are req ired o pend a lea 2% of heir a erage ne pro of he preceding
i hin hree nancial ear on CSR. The mini r ha allo ed rm o nder ake projec
on an ongoing basis on the condition that any unspent amount must be deposited with a
ched led bank i hin 30 da of he end of he nancial ear. “Considering the current
cri i , e req e o r e eemed of ce o con ider rela a ion b pro iding e en ion of
the timelines up to June 30, 2021,” the institute of Company Secretaries of india said in a
letter to the ministry. experts said that while lockdowns and restrictions are less stringent
than last year and companies have adapted to working online, many professionals or their
families have been affected by the infection, leaving teams short-staffed.
51. Which of the following is the Corporate Social responsibility (CSr) initiative of the
erstwhile Facebook india to promote women entrepreneurship?
(A) Shakti (b) Pragati
(C) Lean in (d) marching Forward
52. in 2019, which of the following Committees recommended that CSr expenditure
should be made tax deductible expenditure?
(A) Company Laws Committee
(b) High Level Committee on reform of indian Company Law
(C) High Level Committee on Corporate Social responsibility
(d) Committee for reforms in Corporate Social responsibility in india
53. CAWACH is an initiative by the National Science and technology entrepreneurship

development board, department of Science and technology, government of india
stands for the:
(A) Centre for Alleviating Waning Healthcare Companies
(b) Centre for Augmenting Wound-up Healthcare Companies
(C) Centre for Augmenting WAr with COVid-19 Health Crisis
(d) Centre for Alleviating Withering Healthcare Companies
54. On January 22, 2021 the Companies (Corporate Social responsibility Policy)
Amendmen R le , 2021 ere no i ed b he:
(A) ministry of Finance
(b) ministry of Social Justice and empowerment
(C) ministry of Law and Justice
(d) ministry of Corporate Affairs
55. the ministry of Corporate Affairs has instituted an award to select companies to
recognize corporate initiatives in the area of Corporate Social responsibility (CSr)
to achieve inclusive growth and inclusive and sustainable development. the name of
the award is:
(A) National Corporate Social responsibility Awards
(b) National Awards for excellence in Social responsibility
(C) National Awards for Corporate excellence in Social responsibility
(d) National Awards for excellence in inclusive growth and Sustainable
development
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XII. With the announcement of drone Shakti in the union budget, the industry got a massive
push after the liberalization of the drone rules in 2021. the government stated that start-
ups will be promoted to facilitate drone Shakti, with ‘drone as a service’.
“The current Government has taken a serious paradigm shift on drone technology and
Drone Shakti announcement of the current FY budget proves the government’s clear vision
and foc o ard hi emerging ind r . Drone Shak i and Ki an Drone ill de ni el
help get this technology to impact common people on the grassroots level at a massive
scale,” according to the founder and CeO of a prominent aerospace quoted in a business
magazine. the country is set to witness the use of large, unmanned aircraft systems weighing
more than 150 kilograms across the sectors. Kisan drones are already being used for crop
assessments, land records, spraying of insecticides, and are expected to boost a wave of
technology in the Agri and farming sector. drones are also being used in surveillance systems
for railway Security. in india, drones were also deployed to deliver COVid-19 vaccines.
56. COVid-19 vaccines were delivered by drones as iCmr-led pilot project to:
(A) Ladakh (b) Katra
(C) dantewada (d) manipur
57. Which of the following is the online platform hosted by the directorate general of
Civil Aviation for various activities related to the management of drone activities in
india?
(A) e-drone Shakti (b) digital Sky platform
(C) Aakash Shakti (d) digital drone platform
58. Which of the following refers to the phenomenon of restricting the movement of drones
i hin a de ned air pace?
(A) geo-fencing (b) drone-fencing
(C) Sky-fencing (d) Air-fencing
59. the drone rules, 2021 have been made in supersession of which of the following
rules?
(A) the unmanned Aircraft System rules, 2020
(b) the Aircraft rules, 2020
(C) the unmanned Aircraft System rules, 2021
(d) the manned Aircraft rules, 1934
60. Which autonomous body is responsible for national accreditation structure for drones?
(A) drone Council of india (b) unmanned Aircraft Council of india
(C) manned Aircraft Council of india (d) Quality Council of india
XIII. the 21st century has seen an overall shift in india’s policy outlook and also the global outlook
towards india. Coherent policy initiatives and effective implementation on the ground have
en red a po i i e gro h pro le. The bigge hif ha been he recogni ion of he mari ime
sector. Somehow, post-independence, we as a nation became sea blind and completely
undermined our maritime potential. initially, the indian Navy came out with their military
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maritime Strategy in 2007, titled “Freedom to use the Seas”. they kept on upgrading their
vision document on regular intervals with latest being declared in 2015. the Security And
growth for All in the region (SAgAr) vision declared by the government of india in may
2015 has been a massive game changer on multiple fronts. it integrates the geopolitical
and geostrategic realities to domestic requirements. the security concerns and the blue
economic opportunities are comprehensively addressed along with the diplomatic leverage
and reviving the rich maritime heritage.
the SAgAr vision has been backed by aggressive push by the government of india to
drive mega projects with massive human resource requirements.
61. Which of he follo ing i he agship programme of the ministry of Shipping, government
of india, to promote port-led development in the country through harnessing india’s
7,500 km long coastline, 14,500 km of potentially navigable waterways and strategic
location on key international maritime trade routes?
(A) Sagarmala Programme (b) Sagarshakti Programme
(C) Jalshakti Programme (d) Jalmala Programme
62. Which of the following is the initiative of the ministry of earth Sciences (moeS),
government of india, to explore marine resources and develop deep sea technologies
for sustainable use of ocean resources?
(A) Sagarmanthan mission (b) Samudramanthan mission
(C) deep Ocean mission (d) deep Ocean and Sea technology mission
63. iSA is a united Nations body regulating the exploration and exploitation of marine
non-living resources of oceans in international waters. iSA stands for:
(A) international Sea Authority (b) international Sea Association
(C) international Seafaring Association (d) international Seabed Authority
64. under mission SAgAr, which indian Naval Ship was deployed by the indian Navy
to provide humanitarian and medical assistance to maldives, mauritius, Seychelles,
madagascar and Comoros?
(A) iNS Kesari (b) iNS Vikrant
(C) iNS Viraat (d) iNS Vikramaditya
65. Which of he follo ing i India r manned ocean mi ion hich a la nched a
Chennai?
(A) Samudrashakti (b) Samudrayan
(C) Sagaryan (d) Sagarshakti
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Legal Reasoning
XIV. Writ is a public law remedy. it refers to a formal, written order issued by a judicial authority
directing an individual or authority to do or refrain from doing an act. the High Court, while
exercising its power of judicial review, does not act as an appellate body. it is concerned
with illegality, irrationality and procedural impropriety of an order passed by the State or a
Statutory Authority. A High Court is empowered to issue directions, orders or writs for the
enforcement of Fundamental rights and for any other purpose. the writ jurisdiction of High
Court is discretionary and equitable. Writ of mandamus is issued by a court commanding a
p blic a hori o perform a p blic d belonging o i of ce. I can be i ed onl hen a
legal duty is imposed on the authority and the petitioner has right to compel the performance
of such duty. Writ of mandamus is requested to be issued, inter alia, to compel performance
of public duties which may be administrative, ministerial or statutory in nature. A writ of
mandamus may be issued in favour of a person who establishes a legal right in himself. it
may be issued against a person who has a mandatory legal duty to perform, but has failed
or has neglected to do so. Such a legal duty emanates by operation of law. the writ of
mandamus is most extensive in regards to its remedial nature. the object of mandamus
is to prevent disorder emanating from failure of justice and is required to be granted in all
ca e here la ha e abli hed no peci c remed .
66. the government of a state made a rule to make it discretionary to grant dearness
allo ance o i emplo ee . One of he emplo ee led a ri pe i ion eeking a
mandamus to compel the government to grant dearness allowance. in the given
situation, which of the following statements is true?
(A) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as no legal duty was imposed on the
government to grant dearness allowance.
(b) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as a statutory right was conferred on the
employee to receive dearness allowance.
(C) Writ of mandamus can be granted as it is a public law remedy.
(d) Writ of mandamus can be granted as it is a discretionary remedy.
67. A p blic- piri ed ci i en led a ri pe i ion eeking a mandam o compel he

government to make a law to curb the ill-effects of climate change. in the given situation,
which of the following statements is true?
(A) Writ of mandamus can be granted as it is an equitable remedy.
(b) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as no legal duty is imposed on the government
to pass a law to curb the ill-effects of climate change.
(C) Writ of mandamus can be granted as it is a discretionary remedy.
(d) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as there is no violation of fundamental right.
68. mr. A and mr. b are parties to a contract of sale of goods. upon breach of contractual
obliga ion b Mr. A, Mr. B led a ri pe i ion eeking a mandam o compel
mr. A to perform his obligations under the contract. in the given situation, which of
the following statements is true?
(A) Writ of mandamus can be granted as it is a discretionary remedy.
(b) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as there is no violation of fundamental right.
(C) Writ of mandamus cannot be granted as mr. b’s right under the contract is a
private right.
(d) Writ of mandamus can be granted as there is no statutory duty imposed on
Mr. A o f l ll hi con rac al obliga ion .
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69. A licen ing of cer i nder a a or d oi e a licen e o an applican ho f l l

the conditions prescribed for the i e of ch licen e. Mr. X, an applican , f l lled all
the conditions prescribed for the issue of such license, but his application for issuance
of licen e a rejec ed b he licen ing of cer. In he gi en i a ion, hich of he
following statements is correct?
(A) Wri of mandam can be gran ed compelling he licen e of cer o i e he
license.
(B) Wri of mandam canno be gran ed compelling he licen e of cer o i e he
license as there is no violation of fundamental right.
(C) Wri of mandam can be gran ed a i i he di cre ion of he licen ing of cer o
grant license.
(D) Wri of mandam canno be gran ed compelling he licen e of cer o i e he
license as there is no violation of public duty.
70. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) Writ of mandamus may be issued in favour of a person who establishes the
existence of a legal right.
(b) Writ of mandamus may be issued against a person or authority who has a
mandatory duty to perform but has failed or has neglected to do so.
(C) Writ of mandamus is purported to prevent disorder emanating from failure of justice.
(d) Writ of mandamus may be requested to be issued to compel performance of
private duties which may be administrative, ministerial or statutory in nature.
XV. to maintain the secular character of the indian polity, not only does the Constitution of india
guarantee freedom of religion to individuals and groups, but it is also against the general
policy of the Constitution of india that any money be paid out of the public funds for promoting
or maintaining any particular religion. Accordingly, it is provided in the Constitution of india
ha no per on hall be compelled o pa an a e , he proceed of hich are peci call
appropriated in payment of expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular
religion or religious denomination. this does not prohibit the State from enacting a law
to incur expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious
denomination, but by such law, no person can be compelled to pay any tax, the proceeds
of which are to be so utilized. this, however, does not invalidate levy of a fee to provide
some service. thus, a fee can be levied on pilgrims to a religious fair to meet the expenses
of the measures taken to safeguard the health, safety and welfare of the pilgrims. Such
fee levied by a State will be valid because the object of such contribution is not to foster or
preserve religion, but to control secular administration of religious institutions.
71. Mr. A, a a -pa er of ario a e le ied b he S a e Go ernmen , led a ri pe i ion

for issuance of a writ of mandamus directing the State to forbear from spending any
amount from the public funds of the state for renovation of water tanks belonging to a
Hindu temple in the State. these tanks were used by the general public, irrespective
of heir religio af lia ion, for ba hing and drinking p rpo e . In he gi en i a ion,
which of the following statements is correct?
(A) the State is promoting or maintaining the Hindu religion.
(b) the State cannot be said to be promoting or maintaining the Hindu religion.
(C) the State is compelling citizens to pay tax for promotion of Hindu religion.
(d) the State is compelling citizens to pay tax for maintenance of Hindu religion.
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72. Communal riots between religion ‘A’ and religion ‘b’ resulted in the destruction of
places of worship of both religions in a State. As a result, the State government
utilized public funds for restoring the places of worship of both religions ‘A’ and ‘b’. in
the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) the State government’s act is violative of the Constitution of india as it is promoting
or maintaining particular religions.
(b) the State government’s act is not violative of the Constitution of india as it is not
promoting or maintaining any particular religion.
(C) the State government’s act is violative of freedom of religion as it condones
communal violence.
(d) the State government’s act is not violative of the Constitution of india as it is
promoting or maintaining a particular religion.
73. Communal riots between religion ‘A’ and religion ‘b’ resulted in the destruction of a
place of worship of religion ‘b’ in the State. As a result, the State government utilized
public funds for restoring the places of worship of religion ‘b’. in the given situation,
(A) the State government’s act is violative of the Constitution of india as it is promoting
or maintaining a particular religion.
(b) the State government’s act is not violative of the Constitution of india as it is
(C) the State government’s act is not violative of the Constitution of india as it is not
(d) the State government’s act is violative of freedom of religion as it condones
communal violence.
74. A State government passed a law making it mandatory for all residents of the State
to pay a hefty ‘pilgrimage tax’ so as to aid the State in organizing a popular religious
pilgrimage in that State. the said pilgrimage is undertaken only by followers of religion
‘X’ and draws a large number of followers of religion ‘X’ from all over the country to the
state every year. in the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) the State government’s act is violative of the Constitution of india as it is not
promoting or maintaining religion ‘X’.
(b) the State government’s act is not violative of the Constitution of india as it is not
promoting or maintaining religion ‘X’.
(C) the State government’s act is violative of the Constitution of india as it is
compelling citizens to pay tax for promoting or maintaining religion ‘X’.
(d) the State government’s act is not violative of the Constitution of india as it is a
measure to safeguard the health, safety and welfare of the pilgrims.
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75. the object of a State Legislation is “to provide for the better administration and
governance of certain Hindu religious endowments”, where ‘religious endowment’
means the property belonging to or given or endowed for the support of temples.
the State Legislation vests the supervision of public temples in a statutory authority,
i.e., ‘Commissioner of Hindu religious endowments’. For the purpose of meeting
the expenses of the Commissioner and his staff, every Hindu temple in the State is
required under provisions of the State Legislation, to pay an annual contribution at
certain percentage of their annual income. in the given situation, which of the following
statements is correct regarding the annual contribution provided under the State
Legislation?
(A) it is not violative of the Constitution of india because its object is the proper
administration of religious trusts and institutions.
(b) it is not violative of the Constitution of india because its object is fostering of Hindu
religion.
(C) it is violative of the Constitution of india because its object is fostering of Hindu
religion.
(d) it is violative of the Constitution of india because its object is not inclusive of
administration of religious endowments belonging to all religions.
XVI. the Constitution of india guarantees to all its citizens certain fundamental freedoms, which are
recognized as their fundamental rights. However, these fundamental freedoms guaranteed
by the Constitution of india are not absolute as no right can be. each of these fundamental
rights is liable to be controlled, curtailed and regulated to some extent by laws made by
the Parliament or the State Legislatures. Accordingly, the Constitution of india lays down
the grounds and the purposes for which a legislature can impose ‘reasonable restrictions’
on the rights guaranteed to citizens. the State cannot travel beyond the contours of these
reasonable restrictions in curbing the fundamental rights guaranteed to citizens. While
determining the constitutional validity of a restriction imposed on a fundamental right by a
legislation, the Court is not concerned with the necessity of the restriction or the wisdom of
the policy underlying it, but only whether the restriction is in excess of the requirement, and
whether the legislature has overstepped the Constitutional limitations. two of the fundamental
rights guaranteed to every citizen of india are- the right to move freely throughout the
territory of india and the right to reside and settle in any part of india. However, the State
may impose reasonable restrictions on these rights by law, in the interests of the general
public or for the protection of the interests of any Scheduled tribes.
76. A law was enacted by the Parliament of india which consisted of a provision making
it mandatory for every person riding a two-wheeler in india, to wear a helmet, failing
hich ch per on a made liable o a ne. Mr. X, a ci i en of India, a ned for
violation of the said provision. mr. X challenged the constitutional validity of the said
provision. in the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) the provision is violative of the Constitution of india because it is a restriction on
the freedom to move freely throughout the territory of india.
(b) the provision is not violative of the Constitution of india because it is a reasonable
restriction on the freedom to move freely throughout the territory of india.
(C) mr. X’s fundamental right to move freely throughout the territory of india is violated.
(d) both (A) and (C).
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77. A group of indian students of XYZ university located in New delhi, india posted on
social networking sites that they would hold a demonstration outside the university
campus, protesting against a recently passed law which made it compulsory for
university students to wear uniforms while attending classes. the students further
threatened to “use whatever means necessary” to “stop the oppression of students”.
therefore, the State Authorities placed barricades around the university campus in order
to restrict movement of the students carrying out the demonstration and ensuring that
the demonstration does not turn violent. in the given situation, which of the following
statements is correct regarding the act of placing of barricades by State Authorities?
(A) the act is violative of the Constitution of india because it is a restriction on the
freedom to move freely throughout the territory of india.
(b) the act is not violative of the Constitution of india because it is a reasonable
restriction in the interests of general public.
(C) the act is violative of the Constitution of india because it is restriction in the interest
of students.
(d) the act is not violative of the Constitution of india because it is a reasonable
restriction in the interest of morality.
78. the appropriate authority in a State passed an externment order against mr. A, a
citizen of india. the externment order prohibited mr. A, from residing within the State,
from he da e peci ed in ch order. The e ernmen order a pa ed b ir e of
powers conferred on the appropriate authority by law, and the constitutional validity
of this law had been upheld by the Supreme Court of india. the externment order
was passed on the ground that mr. A was found to be frequently engaged in illegal
business of narcotic drugs and was also involved in several cases of riot and criminal
intimidation. in the given situation, which of the following statements is correct regarding
the externment order?
(A) it is a reasonable restriction on mr. A’s fundamental right of free movement
throughout the territory of india.
(b) it is an unreasonable restriction on mr. A’s fundamental right of residence and
settlement in any part of india.
(C) it is violative of mr. A’s fundamental right of free movement throughout the territory
of india.
(d) it is an unreasonable restriction on mr. A’s fundamental right of free movement
throughout the territory of india.
79. Mr. Z, a ci i en of India, a i ed a pa por on J ne 1, 2020 b he Pa por Of ce.

mr. Z was due to travel to Spain on July 15, 2021. On July 11, 2021, mr. Z received
a le er from he Regional Pa por Of cer in ima ing him ha i a decided b he
government of india to seize his passport “in public interest”. mr. Z was required to
surrender his passport within seven days of the receipt of that letter. in the given
situation, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) mr. Z can challenge the letter on the ground that it is violative of his fundamental
right of free movement throughout the territory of india.
(b) mr. Z can challenge the letter on the ground that it is violative of his fundamental
right to reside and settle in any part of india.
(C) mr. Z can challenge the letter on the ground that it is violative of the law relating
to passports in india.
(d) mr. Z cannot challenge the letter on the ground that it is violative of his fundamental
right(s) of free movement throughout the territory of india and/or to residence and
settlement in any part of india.
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(A) Fundamental right to movement and residence in any part of india are sacrosanct
and are guaranteed to all citizens.
(b) Fundamental right to movement and residence in any part of india are sacrosanct,
but are guaranteed subject to reasonable restrictions on such rights.
(C) reasonable restrictions may be imposed, on fundamental rights to movement
and residence in any part of india, by law.
(d) the constitutional validity of a law imposing reasonable restrictions on fundamental
rights can be challenged by a citizen before the legislature.
XVII. Where a po e con rac a econd marriage hile he r marriage i ill b i ing, he
spouse would be guilty of the offence of bigamy under the penal law in india, if it is proved
ha he r a ell a he econd marriage ere legall alid, i.e., all he nece ar
ceremonies required by law or by custom have been performed at the time of contracting
the marriages. According to the penal law in india, if a person, who has a living husband
or wife, marries again, then such person is liable to be punished with imprisonment up to
e en ear along i h a ne for commi ing he offence of bigam . Al ho gh he penal la
of India i applicable o all ci i en irre pec i e of heir religio af lia ion , an e cep ion o
the offence of bigamy may be created by the law relating to marriage applicable to followers
of a particular religion. under the Hindu law relating to marriage, bigamy is not permitted.
If a Hind ife le a criminal complain again her h band on he gro nd ha d ring he
subsistence of her marriage, her husband had married a second wife by converting into
another religion which legally permits having more than one wife, then her husband is liable
to be punished for the offence of bigamy. Further, the Hindu law relating to marriage also
provides that the punishment for offence of bigamy as provided in the penal law of india
would be applicable to marriage between two Hindus.
81. mr. A, a Hindu male, has been married to ms. b, a Hindu female. their marriage was
solemnized as per Hindu rites and ceremonies. After his marriage to ms. b, mr. A
underwent religious conversion into a religion ‘X’ which legally permits males to have
two wives. thereafter, mr. A got married to ms. C, a female belonging to religion ‘X’,
in compliance with all the legal requirements of contracting a valid marriage under
religion ‘X’. in the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
(A) As mr. A married ms. C, the marriage of mr. A and ms. b has become invalid.
(b) As mr. A is not a Hindu, the marriage of mr. A and ms. b has become invalid.
(C) mr. A’s marriage with ms. C has not affected the validity of his marriage with ms. b.
(d) both (A) and (b).
82. mr. A, a Hindu male, has been married to ms. b, a Hindu female. their marriage was
solemnized as per Hindu rites and ceremonies. After his marriage to ms. b, mr. A
underwent religious conversion into a religion ‘X’ which legally permits males to have
two wives. thereafter, mr. A got married to ms. C, a female belonging to religion ‘X’,
religion X . M . B led a criminal complain again Mr. A for commi ing he offence
of bigamy. in the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
(A) mr. A is liable to be punished according to the Hindu law relating to marriage.
(b) mr. A is liable to be punished according to the penal law of india.
(C) mr. A has not committed the offence of bigamy.
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83. mr. A, a Hindu male, has been married to ms. b, a Hindu female. their marriage
was not solemnized as per Hindu rites and ceremonies or any other custom, but was
performed by seeking blessings of their family members. After his marriage to ms. b,
mr. A underwent religious conversion into a religion ‘X’ which legally permits males to
have two wives. thereafter, mr. A got married to ms. C, a female belonging to religion
‘X’, in compliance with all the legal requirements of contracting a valid marriage under
religion X . M . B led a criminal complain again Mr. A for commi ing he offence
of bigamy. in the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
(A) mr. A has committed the offence of bigamy because he married again during the
b i ence of he r marriage.
(B) Mr. A ha no commi ed he offence of bigam beca e hi r marriage i no
valid.
(C) mr. A has committed the offence of bigamy because he underwent religious
conversion in order to contract a bigamous marriage.
(d) mr. A has not committed the offence of bigamy because his second marriage is
not valid.
84. mr. A, a male belonging to religion ‘P’, has been married to ms. b, a female belonging
to religion ‘P’. their marriage was solemnized in compliance with all the legal
requirements of contracting a valid marriage under religion ‘P’. monogamy is espoused
as a cherished value by the followers of religion ‘P’ and provided as a pre-condition
for a valid marriage for the followers of the religion. After his marriage to ms. b, mr. A
underwent religious conversion into a religion ‘Q’ which legally permits males to have
two wives. thereafter, mr. A got married to ms. C, a female belonging to religion ‘Q’,
religion Q . M . B ife led a criminal complain again Mr. A for commi ing he
offence of bigamy. in the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
(A) mr. A has committed bigamyaccording to the Hindu law relating to marriage.
(b) mr. A has committed bigamyaccording to the penal law of india.
(C) mr. A has committed bigamyaccording to the law relating to marriage of
religion ‘P’.
(d) both (b) and (C).

(A) marrying again during lifetime of husband or wife is a pre-condition for performing
a valid Hindu marriage.
(b) religious conversion is not a defence for the offence of bigamy under the penal
law of india.
(C) bigamy is an offence under the penal law of india.
(d) Offence of bigamy can be committed according to the provisions of Hindu law
relating to marriage.
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XVIII. A special marriage, i.e., a marriage be een per on from o differen religio af lia ion
can be legally contracted in india under the provisions of the law relating to special marriages.
the law relating to special marriages provides for the registration of such marriages and for
divorce in such cases. One of the modes in which a special marriage can be legally terminated
is through divorce by mutual consent of parties to the marriage. in order to obtain a divorce
by mutual consent, both the parties to the special marriage are required to jointly present a
petition for divorce to the district court on the ground that they have been living separately for
one year or more, that they have not been able to live together and that they have mutually
agreed that the marriage should be dissolved. At least six months after the presentation of
such petition, but not later than eighteen months after the presentation of such petition, the
district court, after hearing the parties and after making the necessary inquiry, and being
a i ed ha he marriage i a pecial marriage , and ha he claim made in he pe i ion
are true, shall declare the marriage to be dissolved. Further, the personal presence of the
parties before the district court at the time of presenting the joint petition for divorce is not
manda or , a he par ie can a i f he co r e en b af da i ha he req iremen for
gran ing di orce on m al con en are f l lled.
86. ms. A, a Hindu female and mr. b, a Christian male, got married as per the law relating
to special marriages in January 2018. On January 26, 2021, ms. A and mr. b jointly
presented a petition for divorce by mutual consent before the district court on the
gro nd ha he ha e been in ic ing men al cr el on each o her for a period of hree
years and that they have mutually agreed that the marriage should be dissolved. in
the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) the district court shall pass a decree of divorce within six months after the
presentation of petition for divorce by mutual consent.
(b) the district court shall pass a decree of divorce after eighteen months of the
presentation of petition for divorce by mutual consent.
(C) the district court shall not immediately pass a decree of divorce by mutual consent.
(d) the district court shall immediately pass a decree of divorce by mutual consent
if i i a i ed ha he marriage a alid.
to special marriages in January 2018. On February 15, 2021, ms. A presented a petition
for divorce by mutual consent before the district court on the ground that ms. A and
mr. b have been living separately for a period of one year because mr. b has been in
an adulterous relationship with ms. X, a Christian female. in the given situation, which
of the following statements is correct?
(A) the district court shall pass a decree of divorce by mutual consent six months
after the date of presentation of petition for divorce.
(b) the district court shall pass a decree of divorce by mutual consent eighteen
months after the date of presentation of petition for divorce.
(C) the district court shall not pass a decree of divorce by mutual consent as the
req iremen for gran of di orce are no f l lled.
(d) the district court shall not pass a decree of divorce by mutual consent as ms. A
and mr. b have not been living separately for more than one year.
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to special marriages in January 2018. On April10, 2021, ms. A and mr. b jointly
presented a petition for divorce by mutual consent before the district court on the
ground that they have been living separately for a period of three years and that they
have mutually agreed that the marriage should be dissolved. in the given situation,
(A) the district court shall pass a decree of divorce by mutual consent after all other
legal req iremen are f l lled.
(b) the district court shall pass a decree of divorce by mutual consent immediately
because ms. A and mr. b have been living separately for more than one year.
(C) the district court shall not pass a decree of divorce by mutual consent because
the marriage between ms. A and mr. b is not valid.
(d) the district court shall not pass a decree of divorce by mutual consent because
neither party is at fault in the marriage.
89. ms. A, a Hindu female and mr. b, a Christian male, got married as per the provisions
of the law relating to special marriages in January 2018. On June16, 2021, ms. A
and mr. b jointly presented a petition for divorce by mutual consent before the district
court on the ground that they have been living separately for a period of three years
and that they have mutually agreed that the marriage should be dissolved. during the
presentation of the petition, while ms. A was present physically in the district court,
mr. b joined via video-conferencing. in the given situation, which of the following
statements is correct?
(A) the district court may pass a decree of divorce by mutual consent six months
after the date of presentation of petition for divorce.
(b) the district court shall pass a decree of divorce by mutual consent after all other
(C) the district court shall not pass a decree of divorce by mutual consent.
to special marriages in January 2018. On march15, 2021, ms. A and mr. b jointly
presented a petition for divorce before the district court on the ground that they have
been living separately for a period of three years and that they have mutually agreed
that the marriage should be dissolved. Six months later, the district court, after hearing
the parties and making inquiry, found that the marriage had been solemnized under the
law relating to special marriages, and that the consent of ms. A for the presentation of
petition of divorce was obtained by fraud. in the given situation, which of the following
(A) the district court shall pass a decree of divorce by mutual consent because the
(b) the district court shall pass a decree of divorce because the marriage had been
solemnized under the law relating to special marriages.
(C) the district court shall not pass a decree of divorce because there was no mutual
consent between parties.
(d) the district court shall not pass a decree of divorce because ms. A has not been
punished for fraud.
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XIX. there are two principal theories on the relationship between international law and domestic
law- monism and dualism. the monistic theory maintains that the subjects of two systems
of law, i.e., international law and municipal law are essentially one. the monistic theory
asserts that international law and municipal law are fundamentally the same in nature, and
arise from the same science of law, and are manifestations of a single conception of law.
the followers of this theory view international law and municipal law as part of a universal
body of legal rules binding all human beings, collectively or singly. in a monist system,
international law does not need to be incorporated into domestic law because international
la immedia el become incorpora ed in dome ic legal em pon ra i ca ion of an
international treaty. According to this theory, domestic law is subordinate to international
law. the Statute of the international Criminal Court, therefore, can be directly applied
and adjudicated in national courts according to the monistic theory. According to dualism
theory, international law and municipal law represent two entirely distinct legal systems, i.e.,
international has an intrinsically different character from that of municipal law. international
law is not directly applicable in the domestic system under dualism. First, international law
must be translated into State legislation before the domestic courts can apply it. For example,
nder d ali m, ra i ca ion of he S a e of he In erna ional Criminal Co r i no eno gh-i
must be implemented through State legislation into the domestic system. most states and
courts presumptively view national and international legal systems as discrete entities and
routinely discuss in dualist fashion incorporation of rules from one system to the other.
91. in light of the given passage, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) monism and dualism are similar approaches to adopt international law into
domestic law.
(b) dualism postulates the homogeneousness of domestic law and international
law.
(C) monism and dualism are different approaches to understand how domestic law
impacts international law.
(d) monism postulates the homogeneousness of international law and domestic
law.
92. X i a de eloping co n r . X ra i ed he Uni ed Na ion Frame ork Con en ion on

Climate Change in 1995, and incorporated the provisions of the said convention in
its domestic legislation addressing climate change in 1996. However, ‘X’ has been
widely criticized in the international community for its failure in meeting the obligations
nder he aid con en ion. Y i a de eloped co n r . Y ra i ed he Uni ed Na ion
Framework Convention on Climate Change in 1995, and has not incorporated the
provisions of the said convention in its domestic legislation till date. ‘Y’ has been
appreciated by the international community for its success in meeting the obligations
under the said convention. in the given situation, which of the following statements is
correct?
(A) ‘X’ is a monist State and ‘Y’ is a dualist State.
(b) ‘X’ is a dualist State and ‘Y’ is a monist State.
(C) ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are both monist States.
(d) ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are both dualist States.
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93. ‘d’, a dualist State, has igned and ra i ed he Agreemen on Trade-rela ed A pec
of intellectual Property rights (triPS Agreement), an international agreement
admini ered b he World Trade Organi a ion (WTO). If D i compelled o f l ll i
international obligations under the triPS Agreement, which of the following statements
is correct?
(A) ‘d’ may adopt the provisions of the triPS Agreement without enacting a new
domestic legislation or amending an existing legislation.
(b) ‘d’ may not incorporate the provisions of the triPS Agreement into a new domestic
legislation.
(C) ‘d’ must incorporate the provisions of the triPS Agreement into an existing
domestic legislation or in a new domestic legislation.
(d) ‘d’ may not incorporate the provisions of the triPS Agreement into an existing
domestic legislation.

(A) According to monism, the nature of domestic law and international law is the same
and domestic law is subordinate to international law.
(B) According o moni m, ra i ed in erna ional con en ion a oma icall become a
part of domestic law and domestic law is subordinate to international law.
(C) According o d ali m, ra i ed in erna ional con en ion a oma icall become a
part of domestic law and domestic law is subordinate to international law.
(d) According to dualism, the nature of domestic law and international law is different
and domestic law is not subordinate to international law.
95. The co n r X ha ra i ed an In erna ional Con en ion hich req ire each S a e
Par o enac la de ning and p ni hing briber , i.e., he ac of offering bribe o
go ernmen of cial . The Con en ion ha nei her de ned briber , nor pre cribed a
p ni hmen for he ame, o ha each S a e Par ma de ne he offence of briber
differently in their respective domestic legislations. by 2022, ‘X’ has not enacted any
la de ning and p ni hing he offence of briber . In No ember 2021, Mr. A a
being prosecuted by a domestic criminal court in ‘X’ for allegedly offering a bribe
to a go ernmen of cial. In he gi en i a ion, hich of he follo ing a emen i
correct?
(A) if ‘X’ is a monist State, mr. A can be punished for committing an offence under
the Convention.
(b) if ‘X’ is a dualist State, mr. A can be punished for committing an offence under
the Convention.
(C) if ‘X’ is a dualist State, mr. A cannot be punished for committing an offence under
the Convention.
(d) mr. A cannot be punished for committing an offence under the Convention
irrespective of whether ‘X’ is a monist or a dualist State.
XX. the united Nations Commission on En ironmen and De elopmen de ne ainable

development’ as follows: “Sustainable development is the development that meets the needs
of he pre en i ho compromi ing he abili of f re genera ion o mee heir o n need .
Sustainable development clearly postulates an anthropocentric bias, least concerned with the
rights of other species which live on this earth. Anthropocentrism is always human-interest
focused thinking that considers non-humans as having only instrumental value to humans,
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in other words, humans take precedence and human responsibilities towards non-human
are ba ed on bene o h man . Eco-cen ri m i na re-cen red, here h man are par of
nature and non-humans have intrinsic value. in other words, human interest does not take
automatic precedence and humans have obligations towards non-humans independently
of human interest. eco-centrism is, therefore, life-centred, nature-centred where nature
includes both humans and non-humans. the Constitution of india protects not only human
rights but also casts an obligation on human beings to protect and preserve a specie from
becoming extinct. Conservation and protection of environment is an inseparable part of
the fundamental right to life. According to the doctrine of ‘public trust’ recognized under the
Constitution of india, certain common properties such as rivers, seashores, forests and the
air are held by the government in trusteeship for the free and unimpeded use of the general
public. the resources like air, sea, waters and the forests have such a great importance to
he people a a hole, ha i o ld be o all nj i ed o make hem a bjec of pri a e
ownership. the State, as a custodian of the natural resources, has a duty to maintain them
no merel for he bene of he p blic, b for he be in ere of ora and fa na, ildlife
and so on.
96. M . G, a den of en ironmen al cience, ha c l i a ed a b er garden hich

pro ide a fa o rable habi a for b er ie . M . G ha c l i a ed he b er garden
o ha he co ld ob er e and d he differen age of de elopmen of b er ie
such as egg, larvae, pupae, and adult. in the given situation, which of the following
(A) M . G approach o c l i a ion of b er garden i an hropocen ric beca e i
concerns the furtherance of her academic interest.
(B) M . G approach o c l i a ion of b er garden i an hropocen ric beca e i
concerns the conservation of environment.
(C) M . G approach o c l i a ion of b er garden i eco-cen ric beca e i
concern he pro i ion a fa o rable habi a o he b er ie .
(D) M . G approach o c l i a ion of b er garden i eco-cen ric beca e i concern
he nder anding of he differen age of de elopmen of b er ie .
97. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Anthropocentrism and eco-centrism are different approaches to achieving
sustainable development.
(b) Anthropocentrism focuses on the promotion of non-human interests.
(C) eco-centrism is concerned with the promotion of both human and non-human
interests.
(d) Anthropocentrism and eco-centrism are different approaches to protection of
environment and sustainable development.
98. Which of the following is the basis for the difference between anthropocentrism and
eco-centrism?
(A) the inherent value placed on humans and non-humans.
(b) the inherent value placed on living things and non-living things.
(C) the relationship between human society and environment.
(d) the relationship between non-humans and environment.
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99. Which of the following statements is correct regarding fundamental right to life under
the Constitution of india?
(A) it creates a corresponding duty on human beings to protect and preserve
non-humans.
(b) it creates a corresponding duty on non-humans to protect the right to life of human
beings.
(C) it is inclusive of the right of human beings to utilize non-human resources to the
best of their advantage.
(d) it is inclusive of the right of non-humans to utilize human resources to the best of
their advantage.
100. Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the doctrine of ‘public
trust’?
(A) Private ownership of forests is unwarranted.
(B) Fore are held b he S a e in a d ciar capaci .
(C) State is obligated to maintain forests for their economic value.
(d) State is obligated to maintain forests in the interest of humans and
non-humans.
XXI. When parties to a contract are under a ‘mistake’ regarding an important fact related to such
con rac , i ma affec he con rac in o a . I ma , r l , defea he con en al oge her
that the parties are supposed to have given, that is to say, the consent is unreal. two
or more persons are said to consent when they agree upon the same thing in the same
sense. Secondly, the mistake may mislead the parties as to the purpose which they had
contemplated. Where the mistake does not defeat consent, but only misleads the parties,
i.e., where both parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential
to the agreement, the agreement is void. However, if the mistake is concerning an erroneous
opinion regarding value of the subject-matter of the agreement, it is not a mistake as to
a matter of fact. thus, agreement is void when: (1) both the parties to an agreement are
mistaken, (2) their mistake is as to a matter of fact, and (3) the fact about which they are
mistaken is essential to the agreement. Further, it is pertinent to note that a mistake, in order
to invalidate a contract, should be a mistake of fact and not a mistake of law. Furthermore,
where only one party to the contract is under mistake of fact, and the other party is not, the
contract is not voidable merely for such reason.
101. mr. A entered into an agreement to sell his bicycle which had been kept unused in his
attic for a year, to mr. b, at an agreed price. However, neither party was aware that
at the time of entering into the agreement, the bicycle had already been destroyed by
a re in he a ic. In he gi en i a ion, hich of he follo ing a emen i r e?
(A) the agreement is void as both parties were under a mistake as to a matter of fact
essential to the agreement.
(b) the agreement is void as both parties were under a mistake as to a law in force
in india.
(C) the agreement is not voidable as only one of the parties was under a mistake as
to a matter of fact.
(d) the agreement is not voidable as the promise made under the agreement had
not been performed.
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102. ms. X and ms. Y entered into a contract of sale of an article, while reeling under
the erroneous belief that the sale of the article, which was the subject-matter of the
agreement, was permitted by the law in force in india. in the given situation, which
of the following statements is true?
(A) the contract is valid.
(b) the contract is voidable at the option of ms. X.
(C) the contract is voidable at the option of ms. Y.
(d) the contract is not voidable.
103. mr. J entered into an agreement with mr. K for the sale of mr. J’s ‘club’. At the time of
entering into the agreement, while mr. J believed that he was agreeing to sell his golf
club, mr. K believed that he was agreeing to buy a clubhouse owned by mr. J. the
agreement is void because:
(A) mistake of fact defeated the consent of the parties.
(b) mistake of fact misled the parties as to the purpose of the contract.
(C) mistake of fact was regarding the identity of parties.
(d) both (A) and (b)
104. mr. d appointed mr. K to manage the cultivation of his land as he was unable to
manage it himself due to his advanced age. mr. K agreed to manage the cultivation
of mr. d’s land if he granted mr. K a lease of the said land. mr. d agreed to the same
and signed a deed which was, unknown to both parties, a gift deed of the land and
not a lease deed. in the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
(A) mr. d and mr. K were reeling under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to
the agreement.
(b) mr. d and mr. K were reeling under a mistake as to a matter of law essential to
the agreement.
(C) mr. d was reeling under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the
agreement.
(d) mr. d was reeling under a mistake as to a matter of law essential to the
agreement.
105. ms. X and ms. Y entered into a contract of sale of an article which was agreed to be
shipped by ms. X in a ship named ‘the Cruiser’ and delivered to ms. Y on an agreed
date. mr. X shipped the said article by a different ship named ‘the mariner’, without
informing ms. Y and the article was delivered to ms. Y on the agreed date. in the given
(A) the agreement is void as both parties were under a mistake as to a matter of fact
essential to the agreement.
(b) the agreement is void as both parties were under a mistake as to a law in force
in india.
(C) the agreement is valid as both parties were under a mistake as to a matter of
fact not essential to the agreement.
(d) the agreement is valid as both parties were under a mistake as to a matter of
fact essential to the agreement.
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Logical Reasoning
XXII. Students decide to attend college for several reasons. these reasons include career
oppor ni ie and nancial ability, intellectual growth, a time for self-discovery, norms,
obligations, and social opportunities. Outside demands in society, such as technology
changes, and increased educational demands also drive the need for more students
to attend college. the students then spend the next few years trying to discover a path
and nd heir a o he can become cce f l. The ran i ion o college pre en
students with many new challenges, including increased academic demands, less time
with family members, interpersonal problems with roommates and romantic interests, and
nancial re . Compe i i e academic ork and ncer ain abo f re emplo men
and professional career were also noted as sources of stress. the transition to college
represents a process characterized by change, ambiguity, and adjustment across all of life’s
domain . The ran i ion o ard independence and elf- f cienc ha been charac eri ed
as ‘stress-arousing’ and ‘anxiety-provoking’ by many college students. Failure to accomplish
and develop these characteristics of development and maintain independence may result in
life dissatisfaction. emerging adulthood has also been noted to augment college students’
lnerabili o re . Man den e perience heir r mp om of depre ion and
anxiety during this time, but a growing problem is that college campuses do not have enough
resources to help all of these students. it has been noted that 75% to 80% of college students
are moderately stressed and 10% to 12% are severely stressed.
106. What according to you is the objective of the study of the present paragraph?
(A) to map the various stages of pressure points of adulthood in the process of
education.
(b) to narrate the anti-family agenda in the current education system.
(C) to pinpoint the obstacles targeted against meritorious students.
(d) All of the above
107. Which factors as per the author cause more stress amongst college students?
(A) Pressure from parents and society towards greater educational needs and
increased competitive academic work.
(b) Failure to develop successful romantic interests, financial constraints and
interpersonal issues with room-mates.
(C) Failure to adapt to the transition to college life and to adjust various life domains
in tune with needs and requirements of college life.
(d) inability to manage time constraints and the uncertainty pertaining to their
future.
108. Which of the following fall closest to the underlying assumption in the present
study?
(A) Problem-solving ability amongst college students is negatively associated with
symptoms of depression and anxiety.
(b) Students lean towards unhealthy coping skills in order to try to lower the stress
that they experience.
(C) romantic interest is an anti-dote for stress amongst the students in the
colleges.
(d) Stress is subjective for each student.
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109. Suggest a suitable title for the paragraph from amongst the given titles:
(A) triumph and turbulence of College education System
(b) Negative impact of College education System
(C) Negligence of Stress management by parents
(d) unemployment and mental instability
110. With reference to the above paragraph, which of the following offers the most plausible
solutions as a coping up mechanism for college students?
(A) individual students should approach counsellors for coping up with stress.
(b) Keeping in view that large number of students are experiencing stress, colleges
must take steps reduce course curriculum and peer pressures.
(C) College authorities shall provide access to counselling and every student
experiencing stress must engage in some form of coping mechanism to alleviate
stress.
(d) the students must learn to differentiate between short term and long-term
stress.
XXIII. under the COVid-19 outbreak, universities and schools around the world had suspended
face-to-face classes to prevent the rapid spread of the virus among students and staff. this
sudden disruption to face-to-face education reshaped pedagogical practices and led to the
rapid adoption of online teaching among universities. Subsequently, academics working
at universities, at the frontline of those changes, faced enormous levels of pressure and
di rbance o heir profe ional role and prac ice . For ho e i ho f cien kno ledge
or experience for effective online teaching, this sudden transition was particularly challenging.
in normal circumstances, designing an online course follows a systematic instructional design
process with careful consideration of the unique characteristics of target learner groups and
the chosen instructional medium. during the rapid adoption of online teaching in response
to COVid-19, however, systematic instructional design procedures and team-based support
for course development and preparation were unavailable. instead, individual academics
were given the challenge alone to teach online with a limited level of support and guidance
from heir chool or ni er i he a k a e en more dif c l in hi i a ion here he
were remotely working from home.
111. the objective behind the information furnished in the passage is:
(A) to examine the experiences faced by the teachers because of the sudden transition
from of ine o online mode of eaching d e o o break of COVID-19.
(B) To iden if he difference be een he online and of ine mode of eaching.
(C) to reveal the side-effects of COVid-19.
(d) to understand the need to be able to cope up with crisis like situations even in
the educational sector.
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112. based on the ideas presented in the paragraph, it will not be possible to draw out
useful recommendations for situations like the pandemic, unless :
(A) The fac or req ired o con rib e o q ali ed ca ion b online and of ine mode
are examined.
(b) Knowledge about the infrastructural availability in the schools or universities is
crucial.
(C) the faculty is given adequate training and experience in providing online education
is taken into consideration.
(D) A de ailed anal i of he compara i e performance in he online and of ine mode
is done.
113. What can be most conveniently inferred from the given paragraph?
(A) Whether online or face-to-face, university teaching activity is a genuinely complex
task that involves multiple elements of interlinked activity systems.
(b) it has been more challenging for both individual academics and institutions to
quickly adopt to online teaching during the COVid-19 Pandemic.
(C) the object of the online teaching activity systems created a fundamental
contradiction with the object of the previous teaching activity systems.
(d) All the above.
114. What suitable policy decision should be devised by the administrators of the schools
and the universities, in the light of the facts presented in the paragraph?
(A) there must be an insight into the complexity of online teaching and need to work
for the capacity building of the teachers during such extra ordinary times and
there is a greater need to create a teacher community and foster collaborative
teaching relationships among the members, even if it takes time.
(b) the faculty members must be oriented towards the lasting changes brought about
to their roles and identities in teaching.
(C) it is time to develop a comprehensive understanding of the challenges experienced
by individual academics and the changes created by those academics.
(d) there is a need to develop infrastructure in schools and universities.
115. Which of the following points most closely supports the fact that the present education
system lacks the structure to sustain effective teaching during and after the periods of
lockdowns?
(A) there are inadequate applications and platforms for effective online teaching.
(B) Shif from of ine o online a faced i h re i ance.
(C) the academia’s long-established roles and identities have been completely altered
by the pandemic.
(d) the students are interested in online examinations and schools and universities
are nding i dif c l o hif o of ine e amina ion mode.
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XXIV. biodiversity is being lost at a rate not seen since the last mass extinction. but the united
Nations decade-old plan to slow down and eventually stop the decline of species and
ecosystems by 2020 has failed. most of the plan’s 20 targets - known as the Aichi biodiversity
targets - have not been met. the Aichi targets are part of an international agreement
called he UN Con en ion on Biological Di er i , and member a e are no nali ing
replacements for them. Currently referred to as the post-2020 global biodiversity Framework
(gbF), its draft was published in July 2021. it aims to slow down the rate of biodiversity loss
by 2030. And by 2050, biodiversity will be “valued, conserved, restored and wisely used,
main aining eco em er ice , aining a heal h plane and deli ering bene e en ial
for all people”. the gbF is a comprehensive plan. but success will require systemic change
across public policy. that is both a strength and a weakness. if systemic change can be
implemented, it will lead to real change. but if it cannot, there’s no plan b. this has led
ome re earcher o arg e ha one arge or n mber ho ld be priori i ed and de ned in
a way that is clear to the public and to policy makers. it would be biodiversity’s equivalent
of the 2°C climate target.
116. As per the passage, which of the following is a challenge for implementation of the
post-2020 global biodiversity Framework (gbF)?
(A) Unf l llmen of he pre-2020 global biodi er i arge
(b) Clarity of action plan for the society and government
(C) threat of mass extinction
(d) Failure of plan to save ecosystems
117. According to the passage, why do some researchers advocate that one biodiversity
target be prioritized?
(A) S emic polic change i dif c l o implemen
(b) Post-2020 global biodiversity Framework (gbF) is comprehensive
(C) the 2 °C climate target needs to be prioritized
(d) biodiversity needs to be valued, conserved, restored and wisely used
118. Which of the following is correct expression of the author’s opinion as stated in
passage?
(A) implementation of the post-2020 global biodiversity Framework (gbF) allows no
middle ground for success or failure.
(b) it is high time that countries re-evaluate the progress in achieving biodiversity
targets.
(C) biodiversity conservation should be prioritized over climate change at the global
level.
(d) the post-2020 global biodiversity Framework (gbF) is the best way to prevent
mass extinction.
119. Which of the following is the central theme of the above passage?
(A) the reason for failure of biodiversity conservation efforts at global level
(b) the inter-relationship between biodiversity conservation and climate change
(C) the future of biodiversity conservation efforts at global level
(d) the role of united Nations in biodiversity conservation at global level
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120. Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?
(A) the holistic nature of the post-2020 global biodiversity Framework (gbF) is a
boon.
(b) the holistic nature of the post-2020 global biodiversity Framework (gbF) is a
bane.
(C) the holistic nature of the post-2020 global biodiversity Framework (gbF) can
be a boon or a bane.
(d) the post-2020 global biodiversity Framework (gbF) includes the 2°C climate
target.
XXV. An unintended and unjust consequence of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences
Act, 2012 is its widespread persecution of teenage lovers. this law raised the age of consent
from 16 o 18 ear , hile de ning per on belo 18 ear a children. Con eq en l ,
when two 16-year-olds are romantically and sexually involved, but the girl’s family doesn’t
appro e he affair and le a police complain , her con en ha ero legal alidi . And he
consensual relationship morphs into a case of statutory rape. the Allahabad High Court
has indicated how its “conscience” is concerned by such severe POCSO provisions being
drawn by teenage lovers simply on the basis of family disapproval. the High Courts of delhi,
madras and others have made similar observations in recent years and also pointed to
amendments to the law that can help reduce its injustices. One suggestion that has gathered
broad support is to push back both the cut-off for childhood and the age of consent to
16 years. given that the NCrb data shows around half of POCSO cases falling in the 16-18
years age group, such an amendment is overdue. minimizing the prosecution of consensual
romances would also leave a logjammed system with more space to pursue actual sexual
assault cases. the broader goal here is respecting the rights of adolescents and young
adults. their romantic and sexual autonomy needs greatly increased recognition in india.
121. “Minimi ing he pro ec ion of con en al romance o ld al o lea e a logjammed

system with more space to pursue actual sexual assault cases.”
in the context of the statement, which of the following strengthens the author’s opinion?
(A) there are many unreported sexual assault cases.
(b) Speedy prosecution of sexual assault cases is desirable.
(C) Consensual romance, in some cases, can amount to sexual assault.
(d) Sexual assault and rape are different.
122. What has the author conveyed regarding the prosecution of statutory rape in india?
(A) Statutory rape does not violate the romantic and sexual autonomy of young
adults.
(b) Statutory rape must be met with stricter punishment.
(C) Statutory rape must be abolished.
(d) Statutory rape is a relic of Victorian morality.
123. As per the above passage, which of the following does not correctly represent the
author’s view regarding the widespread persecution of teenage lovers under the
POCSO Act?
(A) teenagers have the right to love as much as adults.
(b) Police complaints of teenage lovers may lead to their harassment.
(C) Consent of minor girls do not have legal validity.
(d) Consent of minor girls have legal validity.
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124. in the above passage, which of the following has concerned the “conscience” of the
Allahabad High Court?
(A) Carelessness of teenage lovers.
(b) threat to the safety of teenage lovers.
(C) impact on mental health of teenage lovers.
(d) Harassment of teenage lovers by their families.
125. As per the above passage, which of the following is a major challenge in implementation
of the POCSO Act?
(A) Speedy prosecution of cases.
(b) respecting the rights of adolescents and young adults.
(C) Counselling of adolescents and young adults.
(d) imposition of stringent punishment.
XXVI. A madras High Court Judge’s suggestion to amend the Constitution of india mandating
that every citizen also has a duty to laugh comes as a whiff of fresh air – something the
country has been gasping for, of late. Justice gr Swaminathan of the madurai bench has
a remarkabl re ned en e of h mo r, b in q a hing an FIR again a man arre ed for
an innocuous social media post, his insightful observations only highlight the idiocy and
absurdity that surround the growth and normalisation of the offence-taking tribe. Written
from the perspective of cartoonists and satirists, the judgment draws attention to how what
o gh o be a rea onable nder anding of a i a ion i increa ingl being in enced b
impulses that border on the irrational and amount to an abuse of the legal process. the
petitioner tried tongue-in-cheek wordplay while captioning photographs after a sight-seeing
trip with family : ‘trip to Sirumalai for shooting practice’. For the police, it appeared as a
threat to wage war, though the Judicial magistrate refused remand. ‘Laugh at what?’ is a
serious question, the Judge said, using the ‘holy cow’ as a metaphor, which varies from
person to person, region to region. being funny is one thing, the Judge righty states, and
poking fun at another is different altogether. those who have been at the receiving end
for their attempt at humour can draw strength from the ruling, but then, a creative process
facing combative opposition because of its very nature is anything but funny.
126. What is the central idea in the passage as conveyed by the author?
(A) People need to be sensitive towards others’ sensibilities.
(b) Humour is often used as a garb to offend others.
(C) there is an unwelcome decrease in people’s sense of humour.
(d) Judiciary should use humour to make judgments understandable to laypersons.
127. According to the given passage, which of the following statements is true?
(A) Social media often popularised insensitive and offensive posts.
(b) it should be a right of every person to poke fun at others.
(C) Creative expressions are bound to be offensive to some persons.
(d) every humorous expression should be understood reasonably and rationally.
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128. According to the given passage, which of the following statements is not true?
(A) each expression should be understood according to its context.
(b) the word ‘shooting’ used in a sentence is indicative of waging war.
(C) Legal process can be abused if the authorities act on their irrational impulses.
(d) the expression ‘holy cow’ bears different meanings for different people.
129. As per the passage, which of the following approaches can reduce the increasing
‘idiocy and absurdity’ in responding to expressions made in jest?
(A) Apologising upon hurting another person’s sentiments.
(b) Avoiding the use of controversial words and expressions.
(C) U ing h mo r a a mean o mi iga e con ic .
(d) understanding the difference between being funny and poking fun at another
person.
130. “Those who have been at the receiving end for their attempt at humour can draw
strength from the ruling, but then, a creative process facing combative opposition
because of its very nature is anything but funny.”
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statement?
(A) Crea i i and con ic go hand-in-hand.
(b) Creative freedom should not be curbed unreasonably.
(C) Creative expressions are strengthened due to challenges faced by their
authors.
(D) Crea i i of en lead o con ic .
XXVII. two recent developments have brought india’s reliance on fossil fuel into sharp focus. the
R ia-Ukraine con ict and the consequent surge in crude oil prices roiled the economy.
Separately, the most recent iPCC report on climate highlighted the energy sector’s large
contribution to global warming. both these developments need to be located in the context
of india’s pledge to get to net zero carbon emissions by 2070. meeting this pledge requires
an overhaul of both the logistics and electricity sectors to reduce reliance on fossil fuels.
transitioning to renewables in energy is an important part of the solution. Within renewables,
solar energy has been lavished with policy support. However, it won’t be enough to meet
the targets. Anil Kakodkar, former chairman of Atomic energy Commission, had written that
india can’t meet its net-zero commitment without nuclear power. He’s right. it’s an area where
india was off to an early start, developed relatively high indigenous capabilities in relation
to other sectors, but subsequently let the ball drop. today, nuclear power contributes a
mere 3% of the total electricity generated, and has a capacity of 6780 mW. After the early
euphoria of the india-united States civil nuclear deal, progress has been disappointing. the
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deal did open the pathway to a stable supply of uranium ore from Kazakhstan and Canada.
However, the design of the subsequent bill on civil liability for nuclear damage killed the
pro pec of par icipa ion of We ern rm . India main partner today is russia, which side
stepped the bill through inter-government agreements.
(A) india needs to increase use of nuclear power.
(b) india needs to increase production of fossil fuels.
(C) india needs to enter into multilateral agreements addressing use of nuclear
power.
(d) Nuclear energy is a renewable source of power.
132. According to the author, which of the following measures will not help india achieve
its pledge of net zero carbon emissions by 2070?
(A) Logistical changes
(b) Changes in electricity sector
(C) reduction in use of solar power
(d) increase in use of nuclear power
133. According to the author, which of the following is not the effect of india’s reliance on
fossil fuels?
(A) global warming
(b) increase in crude oil prices
(C) relations with middle east
(d) Less reliance on renewable sources of power
134. According to the author, which of the following is the effect of the india-united States
civil nuclear deal?
(A) export-import target with united States
(b) removal of bottlenecks for self-reliance in power generation
(C) Nuclear defence Pact with Kazakhstan
(d) Self-reliance in Solar Power
135. According o he a hor, We ern rm lo he oppor ni of doing b ine in he

nuclear production in india because:
(A) they had to pay hefty penalties for delay in supply
(B) The do no nd n clear po er pro able
(C) they do not agree with india’s place of nuclear plants
(d) they failed to circumvent internal laws by other bilateral instruments
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Quantitative Techniques
XXVIII. As per a survey conducted in a college out of total students enrolled i.e., 3,000 in 2020-21,
1,700 were girls and 1,300 were boys. data regarding students opting for various streams
viz., Non-medical, medical, Commerce, Arts and Fine Arts showed that 25% of the enrolled
students opted non-medical and the percentage of girls in Non-medical was 30% of the total
number of girls; 15% of the total students opted for medical and the percentage of girls who
opted medical was 18% of the total number of girls; 25% of the total students opted Arts
but the percentage of girls who opted for Arts was 15% of the total number of girls; 16% of
the total students opted Commerce and the percentage of girls who opted Commerce was
17% of the total number of girls, and; 19% of the total students opted Fine Arts and the
percentage of girls who opted Fine Arts was 20% of the total number of girls.
136. How many girls have opted Non-medical?

(A) 440 (b) 365 (C) 530 (d) 510
137. girls have outnumbered boys in Fine Arts. How many girls in Fine Arts are more than
the boys, as a percentage of total number of boys in Fine Arts?
(A) 49.62% (b) 47.82% (C) 51.23% (d) 50.89%
138. Which of the following courses have been opted by maximum number of boys?
(A) Non-medical (b) Arts
(C) Fine Arts (d) Commerce
139. Which of the following courses have been opted by minimum number of boys?
(A) medical (b) Fine Arts
(C) Commerce (d) Non-medical
140. What is the ratio among boys and girls for Non-medical?
(A) 3 : 17 (b) 17 : 8 (C) 8 : 17 (d) 17 : 3
XXIX. An Indian compan , ha ing i regi ered of ce a G r gram, i engaged in man fac ring
of consumer goods at Noida. the goods manufactured by the company are sold in indian
marke and e por ed o E rope. Compan prod ce e prod c namel P , Q , R , S
and T . To al prod c ion of he compan for he nancial ear 2021-22 i 3,000 onne and
the turnover of the company is ` 50 million. An analysis of the production and net revenue
generation shows that production of product ‘P’ is 21% of the total production and 18% of
the turnover is attributable to product ‘P’; production of ‘Q’ is 16% of the total production and
17% of the turnover is attributable to ‘Q’; ‘r’ accounts for 18% of the total production and
20% of the turnover; ‘S’ accounts for 20% of the total production and 25% of the turnover,
and; ‘t’ accounts for 25% of total production and 20% of turnover.
141. Wha i he percen age of pro earned from ale of R , if he e pendi re inc rred
on production of ‘r’ is ` 15,000/- per tonne?
(A) 20% (b) 23.46%
(C) 26.55% (d) 25%
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142. Which product has the highest selling price per tonne?
(A) Q (b) r (C) S (d) t
143. How much loss is incurred to company, if the expenditure on production of ‘t’ was
` 20,000 per tonne?
(A) 5 million (b) 10 million (C) 4 million (d) 7 million
144. What percentage of turnover of ‘r’ has to turnover of ‘t’?

(A) 100% (b) 75% (C) 50% (d) 60%
145. What is the average selling price per tonne of all products taken together?
(A) ` 17,488 (b) ` 17,667 (C) ` 18,667 (d) ` 16,667
XXX. in an organization, the total number of employees working in various departments viz. it,
marketing, Purchase, Hr, Accounts and Production are 4,500. the information regarding
department wise percentage of employees was collected and also record about gender
ratio of employees was prepared. 18 percent of total number of employees work in it
department and ratio of males to females in it department is 2 : 1. in marketing, ratio of
males to females is 2 : 3 and number of employees engaged in marketing is 20% of the
total employment. 12% of the total numbers of workers are running the Hr department and
the ratio of males to females in this department is 5 : 1. the fraction of male to females in
production department is 3 : 2 and total number of persons employed in this department
is 15% of the total workforce. the number of persons occupied in purchase and accounts
department is 24% and 11% respectively of the total number of workers. gender ratio
(ratio of males to females) in Purchase department is 1 : 1 and in Accounts is 1 : 2.
146. How many females are employed in Purchase department?

(A) 450 (b) 540 (C) 495 (d) 595
147. How many employees are working in it and Accounts departments together?
(A) 1,702 (b) 1,646 (C) 1,766 (d) 1,305
148. What is the ratio of total number of males to total number of females working in all the
departments put together?
(A) 63 : 41 (b) 19 : 27 (C) 41 : 34 (d) 34 : 41
149. Number of females in marketing department forms what percentage of the total number
of employees in the organization?
(A) 8% (b) 7% (C) 12% (d) 10%
150. What is the ratio of number of males in marketing department to the number of males
in Hr department?
(A) 4 : 5 (b) 5 : 4 (C) 7 : 3 (d) 6 : 7
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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FINAL ANSWER KEY – U.G.
Ques No. Correct Ques No. Correct Ques Correct Ques Correct
Answer Answer No. Answer No. Answer
1 B 41 D 81 C 121 B
2 C 42 A 82 D 122 A
3 D 43 D 83 B 123 D
4 C 44 C 84 D 124 D
5 A 45 B 85 A 125 C
6 D 46 C 86 C 126 C
7 C 47 A 87 C 127 D
8 B 48 B 88 A 128 B
9 B 49 A 89 D 129 D
10 A 50 D 90 C 130 B
11 D 51 B 91 D 131 A
12 A 52 C 92 B 132 C
13 B 53 C 93 C 133 C
14 D 54 D 94 C 134 B
15 C 55 A 95 D 135 D
16 C 56 D 96 A 136 D
17 D 57 B 97 C 137 B
18 B 58 A 98 A 138 B
19 A 59 C 99 A 139 A
20 D 60 D 100 C 140 C
21 C 61 A 101 A 141 B
22 D 62 C 102 D 142 C
23 B 63 D 103 D 143 A
24 C 64 A 104 A 144 A
25 C 65 B 105 C 145 D
26 B 66 A 106 A 146 B
27 D 67 B 107 C 147 D
28 A 68 C 108 A 148 C
29 A 69 A 109 A 149 C
30 D 70 D 110 C 150 A
31 B 71 B 111 A
32 C 72 B 112 C
33 D 73 C 113 D
34 C 74 C 114 A
35 A 75 A 115 C
36 D 76 B 116 B
37 C 77 B 117 A
38 C 78 A 118 A
39 A 79 D 119 C
40 D 80 D 120 C
COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST-2021 (UG)
English Language
Read an extract from A Scandal in Bohemia by Arthur Conan Doyle:

“I rang the door-bell and was shown up to the chamber which had formerly been
in part my own.
With hardly a word spoken, Sherlock Holmes waved me to an armchair. Then he
stood before the fire and looked me over in his singular introspective fashion.
“Watson, you did not tell me that you intended to go into harness.”
“Then, how do you know?”
“I see it, I deduce it. How do I know that you have been getting yourself very wet
lately, and that you have a most clumsy and careless servant girl?”
“My dear Holmes,” said I, “this is too much. It is true that I had a country walk on
Thursday and came home in a dreadful mess, but as I have changed my clothes, I
can’t imagine how you deduce it. As to Mary Jane, she is incorrigible, but there,
again, I fail to see how you work it out.”
“It is simplicity itself,” said he; “my eyes tell me that on the inside of your left shoe,
just where the firelight strikes it, the leather is scored by six almost parallel cuts.
Obviously, they have been causedby someone whohas very carelessly scaredround
the edges of the sole in order to remove crusted mud from it. Hence, you see, my
double deduction that you had been out in vile weather, and that you had a
particularly malignant boot-slitting specimen of the London slavey.”
In fiction, detectives like Holmes are usually portrayed as people with exceptionally brilliant
minds. They possess the rare skill to see and analyze what ordinary people can‟t. They have
incredible abilities to infer, deduce, induce and conclude.
Then, there is G.K. Chesterton‟s fictional catholic priest, Father Brown who relies on his
extraordinary power of sympathy and empathy that enable him to imagine and feel as criminals
do. He explains, “I had thought out exactly how a thing like that could be done, and in what
style or state of mind a man could really do it. And when I was quite sure that I felt exactly like
the murderer myself, of course I knew who he was.”
Sherlock finds the criminal by starting from the outside. He relies on science, experimental
methods and deduction. On the contrary, Father Brown uses varied psychological experiences
learned from those who make confessions of crime to him. He relies on introspection, intuition
and empathy.
There is yet another set of detectives like those created by writers like Agatha Christie. Her
Belgian detective, Hercule Poirot is a story-teller who draws information from the stories that
others tell. He patiently listens to numerous accounts of what happened, where it happened and
how it happened. He listens for credibility and ambiguity; he identifies why and how the pieces
of the jig-saws don‟t fit together. Ultimately, he uncovers the truth.
1. From the passage, it can be inferred that
(A) Watson is Holmes‟ mentor.
(B) Earlier, Watson used to live with Holmes.
(C) Watson is a detective.
(D) Watson shares all his personal matters with Holmes.
CORRECT OPTION: B
Page 1 of 41
2. It is evident that for solving cases, Father Brown relies largely on
(A) His own sympathetic and empathic thought process about criminals.
(B) A sympathetic approach towards various people‟s opinion on the case to be solved.
(C) A deductive analysis of the crime and his ability to sympathize.
(D) All the above.
CORRECT OPTION: A
3. For the three detectives mentioned in the passage, which one of these would be non-
essential for solving criminal cases?
(A) Forgiving nature
(B) Sensitivity
(C) Critical thinking
(D) Patience
CORRECT OPTION: A
4. In order to solve cases, Poirot uses the art of ___ _ the narratives that he has been told.
(A) Building a fantasy based on
(B) Empathizing with all the characters in
(C) Creating new plots for
(D) Detecting and analyzing the missing links in
CORRECT OPTION: D
5. The word incorrigible is the antonym of
(A) Habitual
(B) Unperformable
(C) Repentant
(D) Incurable
CORRECT OPTION: C
Since long, we have witnessed unimaginable levels of success and failure of various projects,
businesses, scientific missions and even wars. From such triumphs and defeats emerges the
much debatable thought: Is planning and strategy more important than execution?
Some project leaders and their teams are of the view that planning leads to clarity of objectives;
it helps to set the timeline and the budget. Consequently, when the planning is haphazard and
unstructured, the very aims of the projects become hazy. This further leads to unprecedented
budget collapses and poor time-management. In some cases, teams have worked relentlessly
to complete assignments, but poor planning has invariably led to customer dissatisfaction and
at times a complete collapse of the entire project. In the words of Benjamin Franklin, “Failing
to plan is planning to fail.”
Numerous entrepreneurs have the faith that strategies help to enhance not only speed and
quality of production, but also consumer satisfaction. If there are no strategies to tackle
unplanned events or unexpected interruptions, there is a possibility of entire projects coming
to a grinding halt.
Some of the world‟s best airports, bridges and astronomical missions are the result of careful
planning and excellent strategies. However, there are some architects, artists and entrepreneurs
who prefer to dive straight from the board of ideas into the pool of execution. They believe that
suitable strategies are best shaped during the process of execution; great plans and strategies
can fail while encountering unexpected situations.
Steve Jobs says, “To me, ideas are worth nothing unless executed. They are just a multiplier.
Execution is worth millions.”
Page 2 of 41
According to Bill Gates, unhappy customers are the greatest source of learning. Fickle-minded
consumers and wavering market trends can mar projects that stand on fixed plans. It is the
need-based, flexible and innovative strategies that help to withstand the impact of these
vacillating desires and trends.
After rigorous planning and testing a new recipe on two lakh consumers, in 1985, the company
Coke brought out the New Coke. Much to the company‟s dismay, the product did not take off
as expected and the financial loss was enormous. The company realized that during the process
of data collection, it had not considered the product-loyalty and old-fashioned habits of the
consumers.
Hence, a balance of pragmatic planning, effective strategies and efficient execution is likely to
ensure the accomplishment of tasks at each stage of a project. Successful execution is not an
easy journey. The road is winding and bumpy. It may require tweaking or at times abandoning
the original plan and re-designing it.
Often, we turn to nature for inspiration. Think plans and strategies are the seed; execution is
the nourishment; consumer is the capricious weather.
6. The passage can be best termed as
(A) Expository
(B) Descriptive
(C) Abstract
(D) Narrative
CORRECT OPTION: A
7. The author‟s main purpose is to
(A) Suggest that people succeed only when they have great strategies.
(B) Highlight the fact that execution is as indispensable as planning and strategy.
(C) Illustrate the impact of poor planning and weak strategy.
(D) Highlight the hurdles that come in the way of execution.
CORRECT OPTION: B
8. From the failure of New Coke, the company learnt that
(A) Tested and tried strategies are essential for success.
(B) Surveys and data calibration are a sheer waste of time.
(C) Consumers change brand preferences too frequently.
(D) Changes in consumers‟ habits should not be taken for granted.
CORRECT OPTION: D
9. For the accomplishment of a project, Steve Jobs
(A) Propagates an approach that is similar to Benjamin Franklin‟s.
(B) Suggests an approach that is different from Benjamin Franklin‟s.
(C) Believes that the main control is in the hands of consumers.
(D) None of the above.
CORRECT OPTION: B
10. The ______ in „consumer is the capricious weather‟ refers to the _______ demands of the
customers.
(A) Onomatopoeia ............... stagnant
(B) Simile.................. unpredictable
(C) Metaphor… .......... wavering
(D) Anaphora ............oscillating
CORRECT OPTION: C
Page 3 of 41
Since the worldwide inoculation process is going strong, vaccine diplomacy has become a hot
topic. In their quest for ensuring vaccine security, a report by The New York Times, based on
the data on vaccine contracts compiled by Duke University, shows that the advance purchase
contracts made by some advanced countries for potential vaccines would vaccinate their
population many times: the European Union, two times, the United States and the United
Kingdom, four times, and Canada, six times. The expectation that an early vaccination will
bring back normalcy and a required push to economic growth fuelled many advanced countries
to engage in vaccine battles. The arguments of public good and global cooperation have gone
out of the window now. While advanced countries have turned their back on the need of poor
countries to access COVID-19 vaccines, India has displayed empathy to their needs. India has
taken a position that a significant percentage of the approved doses will be permitted for
exports. While its exports to neighbouring countries will be under grant mode, initial shipment
of vaccines to least developed countries will be free of cost. And, shipments of vaccines from
India have already started reaching different parts of the developing world. While India is in
its first phase of vaccination to cover health-care workers, exports from India are helping other
countries also in initiating phase one of their vaccination programme, a gesture well
appreciated globally. In a democracy, one can expect the backlash of sending vaccines abroad
without vaccinating its population. Nevertheless, India‟s approach only reinforces the need of
having coordinated global efforts in bringing COVID-19 under control. This response
manifests India‟s unstinted commitment to global development and has consolidated its name
as the world‟s pharmacy. The attitude of India towards vaccinating the populations in the
poorer countries has generated discussion in the richer countries about the necessity for more
proactive measures to roll out vaccines to the developing nations.
11. Which of the following best describes the purpose of this passage?
(A) To encourage vaccine nationalism, and discourage global cooperation.
(B) To discourage vaccine nationalism, and encourage global cooperation.
(C) To encourage poor countries and discourage advanced countries.
(D) To encourage India to provide vaccines to poor nations.
CORRECT OPTION: B
12. The term „inoculation process‟ as used in the passage means
(A) Production and distribution of vaccines.
(B) Global struggle for vaccines.
(C) Pharmaceutical production of vaccines.
(D) Artificially inducing immunity.
CORRECT OPTION: D
13. Advanced purchase contracts of vaccines by developed countries are premised on hopes
that
(A) Vaccination will restore normalcy and thrust economic recovery.
(B) Vaccination will bring back powers to nations.
(C) Vaccination will promote global well-being and growth.
(D) Vaccination will protect the health of the world population.
CORRECT OPTION: A
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14. The author cautions that India‟s approach in vaccine distribution may have negative
repercussions among
(A) People from advanced countries.
(B) People from poor countries.
(C) People from developing countries.
(D) People from India.
CORRECT OPTION: D
15. Among Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), the third goal reads, “Ensure healthy
lives and promote well-being for all at all ages”. Which of the following sentences from
the passage reflects the reversal of this SDG?
(A) The arguments of public good and global cooperation have gone out of the window
now.
(B) Advanced countries have turned their back on the need of poor countries to access
COVID-19 vaccines.
(C) The advance purchase contracts made by some advanced countries for potential
vaccines would vaccinate their population many times.
(D) All the above.
CORRECT OPTION: D
Following the transition to democracy, with the inauguration of Nelson Mandela as president
in I994, South Africa was faced with the task of dealing with its past, as well as undertaking
some action to deal with structural social injustice. The Truth and Reconciliation Commission
(TRC), heralded as the most ambitious and organised attempt to deal with crimes of a past
regime through a concept of truth, came into force on 19th July I995 in South Africa. Emerging
as a political strategy to acknowledge past suffering whilst promoting a future based on the
concerns of social justice, the rule of law and reconciliation, the Commission has struggled to
fulfil its objectives. Although the TRC incorporated these broader concerns into the mandate
of its three sub-committees, they were disregarded in practice. These sub-committees, which
reflected concerns for „human rights violations‟, „amnesty‟ and „reparation and rehabilitation‟,
were not „coupled with some form of social transformation‟. The public transition from
apartheid, established through a negotiated settlement rather than a revolutionary process,
framed the Commission‟s powers. Shaped by the historical context of this particular transition,
the TRC was careful not to „rock the structural boat‟. Rather than pursuing truth and justice, as
an integrated feature of social transformation, the Commissioners and, to a greater extent, the
government of South Africa, maintained an agenda that avoided a challenge to the status quo.
A focus on restorative justice was taken by the Commission with an emphasis placed on
mechanisms to restore victims and survivors, through reparations policy, state-led
acknowledgement of suffering, and a condemnation, together with the transformation, of the
system that implemented such widespread forms of abuse. The priority of changing the
apartheid conditions of gross inequality and oppression provided a backdrop to the approval of
the TRC by those who had suffered. More difficult to accept was the provision of amnesty to
those who had undertaken violations of human rights. The process placed amnesty of violations
as a carrot to perpetrators in exchange for a full story, with the stick of prosecutions for those
who did not come forward.
16. „The status quo‟ as used in the passage means
(A) Previously popular opinions.
(B) Already existing conditions.
(C) Strategies of government.
(D) Following a set agenda.
CORRECT OPTION: B
Page 5 of 41
17. Which of the following best describes the tone of the author?
(A) Optimistic
(B) Threatening
(C) Compassionate
(D) Critical
CORRECT OPTION: D
18. Which of the following is not the broader concern of Truth and Reconciliation Commission
(TRC)?
(A) To deal with crimes of a past regime through a concept of truth.
(B) To acknowledge past suffering.
(C) To emerge as a political strategy for reconciliation of rule of law.
(D) To promote a future based on the concerns of social justice.
CORRECT OPTION: C
19. Which of the following statements is least likely to be inferred from the passage?
(A) The TRC ignored some of the broad concerns.
(B) The sub-committees of TRC lacked an agenda of social transformation.
(C) The TRC made earnest efforts to protect human rights.
(D) The TRC lacked the desire and strength to challenge the prevailing conditions.
CORRECT OPTION: C
20. What does „amnesty‟ mean in the context of the passage?
(A) Severe punishment
(B) Bring legal action
(C) Arrest warrants
(D) Official pardon
CORRECT OPTION: D
In the domain of education, the current pandemic has made three things clear. It has proved
beyond any doubt that we need schools. Irrespective of which country one talks about, students
and parents want schools to open and function in full glory, with appropriate precautions.
Secondly, it has shown that technology may prove to be useful in education if it is employed
thoughtfully. Random surfing of the Internet may lead to a collection of pieces of information
that do not add up to any meaning. As Noam Chomsky says, “You cannot pursue any kind of
inquiry without a relatively clear framework that is directing your search and helping you
choose what is significant and what is not.” Moreover, there cannot be any hegemonic techno-
managerial solutions to the linguistic and cultural heterogeneity of students; technology must
help us to respect individual, peer group and community needs and aspirations. Thirdly, a
convergence of the efforts of the public, civil society and private enterprise will have to take
place if we wish technology to meaningfully mediate between school and home, particularly
among underprivileged groups.
The concept, structure and functioning of a school/college should not be trivialised in any way.
This institution has survived since ancient times in spite of proposals for “de-schooling” of
various kinds. It is true that schools to a great extent perpetuate the status quo and, as Ivan
Illich observed, encourage “consumerism” and “obedience to authority”; but it is also true that
those who produced some of the most revolutionary moments in history, including quantum
jumps in knowledge, also went to school. The kind of web of learners Illich imagines may in
fact have its roots in schools. There are also people who trivialise schools for the kind of
Page 6 of 41
investments they demand in terms of space, buildings, teachers, libraries and labs and other
infrastructure.
One thing you never forget is the school you went to, friends you made there and the kind of
teachers who taught you; the kind of teachers you loved, the kind you mocked at with friends.
You recollect nostalgically the sports and other co-curricular activities you took part in. Some
of you may still have preserved your school blazer, trophies and photographs with a sense of
joy. It is important to see school holistically; it is not a set of atomic items of rooms, library,
assembly halls, canteen and playgrounds; it is all of these but in symbiotic relationship with
each other, the contours of which are often far too obvious and often simply mysterious.
21. Which one of the following is the author trying to suggest by quoting Noam Chomsky?
(A) Technology shall be used in purposively structured manner in education.
(B) A relatively clear framework pursues any kind of inquiry.
(C) Technology helps to choose what is significant and reject what is not significant.
(D) Technology must help us to respect individual, peer group and community needsand
aspirations.
CORRECT OPTION: A
22. Which of the following is not a premise of author‟s argument in favour of need for schools
and colleges?
(A) Schools and colleges provide opportunities for socialization.
(B) The institution of schools and colleges has shown perseverance.
(C) The current pandemic has proved that students and parents want schools and
colleges.
(D) Random surfing of the internet may lead to a collection of meaningless information.
CORRECT OPTION: D
23. The expression „linguistic and cultural heterogeneity‟ as used in the passage means
(A) Linguistic and cultural unity.
(B) Linguistic and cultural unity in diversity.
(C) Linguistic and cultural diversity.
(D) Linguistic and cultural identity.
CORRECT OPTION: C
24. Which of the following is not the learning outcome from pandemic?
(A) Parents and students from around the world need schools.
(B) Technology is undoubtedly and absolutely useful in education.
(C) Technology may be used meaningfully to mediate between schools and homeamong
underprivileged groups.
CORRECT OPTION: B
25. The expression „symbiotic relationship‟ as used in the passage means
(A) Mutually inclusive relationship.
(B) Mutually exclusive relationship.
(C) Mutually beneficial relationship.
(D) Both (B) and (C).
CORRECT OPTION: C
Page 7 of 41
A new report forecasting that India can create millions more jobs over the coming years in the
gig economy underscores a fundamental shift in the nature of work. While automation swept
through factory floors and BPOs reduced manpower requirements, e-commerce, ride hailing
and food delivery apps, streaming media and fintech have created lakhs of temporary jobs in
the services sector. Although the jury is still out on the quality of life accorded by such gigs
and the social security benefits they accord, recall that informalisation of jobs started much
earlier. The report by Boston Consulting Group and Michael & Susan Dell Foundation predicts
90 million flexi and gig jobs in a decade from 8 million now, contributing transactions valued
at more than $250 billion and an additional 1.25% to India‟s GDP. Obviously, technological
evolutions are hard to predict. A decade ago, few, if any, had divined these new jobs. Accepting
change as the sole constant, it is equally critical to create the socio-economic framework that
can support such jobs.
Expecting startups fuelled by venture capital and presently unprofitable to treat gig workers as
regular employees isn‟t practical. Such moves could impede innovation and investment. But if
central and state governments could deliver in areas like public health, education, insurance
and food security, anxieties generated by unsteady, irregular unemployment can be managed
better. Last year‟s nationwide lockdown when the suddenly unemployed migrant workers
panicked and bolted, untrusting the promises of governments to care for them, served out this
lesson in poignant detail. The gig economy does promise flexibility and improved choices for
many women and part time workers. Every technological revolution till date has effaced some
jobs and created plentiful others. There is room for optimism in the rapidly emerging tech-
mediated world, but only upon strengthening the support of educational and health
infrastructure.
26. The report by Boston Consulting Group and Michael & Susan Dell Foundation _ _
(A) Predicts massive rise in gig jobs in a decade.
(B) Predicts fundamental shift in nature of work.
(C) Predicts massive rise in World‟s GDP.
(D) All the above.
CORRECT OPTION: A
27. Which of the following can be inferred as a caution by the author?
(A) Central and state governments must ensure management of public health, education,
insurance and food security, anxieties of gig workers.
(B) Expecting treatment of gig workers as regular employees could impede innovation
and investment.
(C) If educational and health infrastructure support is not strengthened, gig economy will
fail.
(D) It is critical to create the socio-political framework that can support gig jobs.
CORRECT OPTION: B
28. In the context of the passage, which of the following best describes gig economy?
(A) Informally structured economy with skill based short-term or freelance labour
market.
(B) A fundamental shift in the nature of work in an economy.
(C) Economy characterized by startups fuelled by venture capital.
(D) All the above.
CORRECT OPTION: A
Page 8 of 41
29. The tone of the passage is
(A) Cynical
(B) Critical
(C) Scornful
(D) Sanguine
CORRECT OPTION: D
30. According to the passage, which of the following comes as a concern related to gig
economy?
(A) Lack of educational and health infrastructure.
(B) Temporary nature of work.
(C) The quality of life and the social security.
CORRECT OPTION: C
Current Affairs and General Knowledge

Starting in April 2020, China amassed a large number of troops and armaments along the
disputed Line of Actual Control (LAC) in eastern Ladakh and other areas along the LAC,
leading to stand-offs and skirmishes at certain points. The People‟s Liberation Army (PLA)
moved into Indian territory and built fortified structures and defences, changing the status quo
on the ground. While there are differences in perception on the alignment of the LAC, over the
years both sides concluded a series of agreements to maintain peace and tranquillity on the
border, while talks continued to resolve the dispute. Since then, several friction points emerged
in eastern Ladakh and both sides initiated diplomatic and military talks aimed at disengagement
and de-escalation, with India pushing for the restoration of status quo ante of pre-April. India
and China earlier reached an understanding for phased disengagement from all friction points
followed by de-escalation from the depth areas along the LAC.
31. Violent clashes between Indian and Chinese army which resulted in death of around 20
Indian soldiers and an unknown number of Chinese soldiers occurred on
(A) May 5, 2020
(B) June 11-12, 2020
(C) June 15-16, 2020
(D) July 13, 2020
CORRECT OPTION: C
32. Where did the violent clashes between Indian and Chinese soldiers occur which caused
casualties on both sides?
(A) Naku La
(B) Dhan Singh Thapa post
(C) Galwan Valley
(D) Siachin
CORRECT OPTION: C
33. The violent incident leading to death of soldiers took place at
(A) Patrol Point 13
(B) Patrol Point 14
(C) Patrol Point 15
(D) Patrol Point 16
CORRECT OPTION: B
Page 9 of 41
34. The length of Line of Actual Control of Indo-China Border is
(A) 2788 km
(B) 3213 km
(C) 3317 km
(D) 3488 km
CORRECT OPTION: D
35. Which of the following was resolved by way of an agreement between India and China in
February 2021?
(A) Chinese side will move back its troops to east of finger 8 and Indian side will move
its troops to its permanent base near finger 3.
(B) Both sides shall demolish structures built after April 2020.
(C) Moratorium on patrolling in the affected area.
(D) All of these.
CORRECT OPTION: D
As soon as the coronavirus hit the world, India emphasised the imperative of collaboration to
overcome the inimical health and economic impact of the virus. It was with this objective that
the Indian government organised a virtual meeting of SAARC leaders on March 15, 2020. In
the initial months of the pandemic, India, by virtue of the fact that it is the „pharmacy of the
world‟, ramped up production of essential medicines like hydroxychloroquine, paracetamol
etc. as well as Personal Protection Equipment (PPE) kits, ventilators and masks. In the rapidly
evolving global geo-political landscape, the healing and supportive actions by India through
supply of Covishield and Covaxin vaccines will have a huge impact in promoting peace,
security, cooperation and prosperity in the region and the world. This is all the more
commendable when there are only few countries in the world who have thus far been able to
successfully manufacture COVID-19 vaccines.
36. The Minister of Health and Family Welfare is
(A) Shri Mansukh Mandaviya
(B) Dr. Harsh Vardhan
(C) Shri Ashwini Kumar Choubey
(D) Shri Rajnath Singh
CORRECT OPTION: A
37. What is the amount that India has created to contribute in SAARC COVID-19 Emergency
Fund?
(A) $20 million
(B) $10 million
(C) $15 million
(D) $17 million
CORRECT OPTION: B
38. Which of the following countries were the first to receive supplies of vaccines from India?
(A) Nepal and Bangladesh
(B) Bhutan and Myanmar
(C) Bangladesh and Bhutan
(D) Bhutan and Maldives
CORRECT OPTION: D
Page 10 of 41
39. Under which of the following initiatives has the Government of India decided to supply
vaccines to the foreign countries?
(A) Vaccine Ujala
(B) Vaccine Dosti
(C) Vaccine Maitri
(D) Vaccine Rishta
CORRECT OPTION: C
40. COVAXIN, India‟s indigenous COVID-19 vaccine is developed by_
(A) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) in partnership with Bharat Biotech
International Limited (BBIL)
(B) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(C) Bharat Biotech International Limited (BBIL)
(D) Serum Institute of India
CORRECT OPTION: A
There is really nothing new, not already anticipated in a distressed planet since the emergence
of human species life nearly two million years ago. So, a long prehistory of inter-faith dialogue
entailing the reciprocal relation between religious traditions and the robustness of the very idea
of being human and having rights, precedes the recent UN movement of faith for rights (F4R).
The F4R framework has finally been affirmed by the United Nations system. The Office of the
High Commissioner for Human Rights (OCHR) promoted the Rabat plan of action in 2012.
Note that this happened after the end of the Cold War, during globalisation, and soon after
9/11. The plan was a result of a series of expert workshops on the prohibition of incitement to
national, racial or religious hatred, underlying “legislative patterns, judicial practices and
policies”. The UN Human Rights Council is shortly going to discuss further the prohibition of
the advocacy of national, racial or religious hatred that constitutes incitement to
“discrimination, hostility or violence”.
41. When was the first human rights declaration adopted by the United Nations?
(A) December 10, 1945
(B) September 10, 1945
(C) December 10, 1948
(D) September 10, 1948
CORRECT OPTION: C
42. The United Nations Human Rights Council is a/an ______ body within the United
Nations System.
(A) Inter-governmental
(B) Non-governmental
(C) Quasi-governmental
(D) Multi-stakeholder
CORRECT OPTION: A
Page 11 of 41
43. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), the International Covenant on
Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR), and the International Covenant on Civil
and Political Rights (ICCPR) and its two Optional Protocols have been adopted under the
auspices of the United Nations and are collectively referred to as_ _
(A) Magna Carta Libertatum.
(B) International Bill of Human Rights.
(C) International Charter of the Rights of the Man and the Citizen.
(D) International Charter of Human Rights.
CORRECT OPTION: B
44. The objective of the „Faith for Rights‟ (F4R) is to provide space for a cross -disciplinary
reflection and action on the deep, and mutually enriching, connections between religions
and human rights. Which of the following is not one of the commitments on Faith for
Rights (F4R)?
(A) To prevent the use of the notion of „State religion‟ to discriminate against any
individual or group.
(B) To revisit religious interpretations that appear to perpetuate gender inequality and
harmful stereotypes or even condone gender-based violence.
(C) To refine the curriculums, teaching materials and textbooks to rectify harmful
stereotypes.
(D) To promote religious dogmatism.
CORRECT OPTION: D
45. In India, which of the following statutory organisations is responsible for the protection
and promotion of human rights?
(A) National Human Rights Council.
(B) National Human Rights Commission.
(C) National Human Rights Organisation.
(D) Indian Human Rights Council.
CORRECT OPTION: B
UNESCO New Delhi, along with the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) and other
partners, organised a hybrid event with school children and teachers to celebrate „World Water
Day 2021‟. The event included felicitating the winners of a water conservation awareness
programme, and screening of their winning animation short films, according to an official
release. UNESCO launched this nation-wide programme for school children in India, in
partnership with the National Mission for Clean Ganga, the United Schools Organization
(USO), Water Digest and India based global animation major Toonz Media Group. Entitled
„H2Ooooh!-Waterwise program for children of India‟, this innovative initiative encouraged
school students between the age of 6-14 years to submit story ideas for animated short films to
raise awareness on water conservation and its sustainable use.
46. World Water Day is observed on
(A) April 20
(B) April 21
(C) March 22
(D) May 20
CORRECT OPTION: C
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47. The theme of World Water Day 2021 was
(A) Valuing Water
(B) Conserving Water
(C) Saving Water
(D) Drinking Water
CORRECT OPTION: A
48. On the occasion of World Water Day 2021, Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched a
campaign named
(A) Jal Shakti Abhiyan: Purify the Rivers.
(B) Jal Shakti Abhiyan: Catch the Rain.
(C) Jal Shakti Abhiyan: No More Water Woes.
(D) Jal Shakti Abhiyan: Become Water Wise.
CORRECT OPTION: B
49. The National Water Mission (NWM) has been constituted under the National Action Plan
for Climate Change (NAPCC) launched by the Prime Minister of India in 2009. Which of
the following is not a goal of the NWM?
(A) Comprehensive water data base in public domain and assessment of the impact of
climate change on water resource.
(B) Promotion of citizen and state actions for water conservation, augmentation and
preservation.
(C) Comprehensive water data base in public domain and assessment of the impact of
water resource on climate change.
(D) Increasing water use efficiency by 20%.
CORRECT OPTION: C
50. In 2019, the Ministry of Jal Shakti was formed after merging the Ministry of Drinking
Water and Sanitation and the Ministry of ____
(A) Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation.
(B) Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
(C) Water Conservation and Ganga Rejuvenation.
(D) Inland Waterways and Ganga Rejuvenation.
CORRECT OPTION: A
Prime Minister Narendra Modi, during his visit to Bangladesh, congratulated the neighbouring
country for its 50th year of Independence and said that he too had gone to jail while protesting
for Bangladesh‟s liberation. “I was about 20-22 years old when along with some friends I had
protested in favour of Bangladesh during its struggle. I even went to jail. Pakistan‟s atrocities
in Bangladesh are well known…the pictures didn‟t allow me to sleep,” PM Modi said. He also
paid respect to the Indian Army who fought for the freedom of Bangladesh and also paid respect
to Bangladesh‟s Father of the Nation, „Bangabandhu‟ Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and conferred
upon him the Gandhi Peace Prize 2020. “I pay my respects to Bangabandhu. He gave his life
for the people of Bangladesh. Bangabandhu Mujibur Rehman was a ray of hope. He made sure
that no country could enslave Bangladesh.”, PM Modi said.
51. The Gandhi Peace Prize is awarded for
(A) Non-cooperation against social injustice.
(B) Humanitarian leadership.
(C) Social and economic development in villages.
(D) Social, economic and political transformation through non-violence.
CORRECT OPTION: D
Page 13 of 41
52. The Gandhi Peace Prize was awarded for the first time in the year 1995 to
(A) Dr. Julius K. Nyerere, former President of Tanzania.
(B) Archbishop Desmond Tutu, South Africa.
(C) Dr. John Hume, Ireland.
(D) Baba Amte (Murlidhar Devidas Amte), India.
CORRECT OPTION: A
53. Which of the following Indian organisations was awarded the Gandhi Peace Prize in 2014?
(A) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
(B) Bhabha Atomic Research Center (BARC).
(C) Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).
(D) Radha Soami Satsang Beas (RSSB).
CORRECT OPTION: C
54. Sheikh Mujibur Rahman served as the first __ of Bangladesh.
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Home Minister
(D) Defence Minister
CORRECT OPTION: B
55. Sheikh Mujibur Rahman was assassinated on _ _
(A) August 15, 1960
(B) November 15, 1975
(C) August 15, 1975
(D) November 15, 1960
CORRECT OPTION: C
The search for efficient trade routes and better connectivity has been one of the powerful
driving forces of history. It has determined the prospects of many nations, regions and
civilizations over time. Today, as the world goes through a fundamental re-balancing,
correcting many of the distortions of the past, it is only natural that connectivity should be
central to that exercise. Growth in trade, commerce, industrial development and technological
advancement has gone hand in hand with ease of connecting. Maritime connectivity, in
particular, has played a significant role in creating regional corridors for trade and economic
linkages, as indeed for cultural and intellectual exchanges over the centuries. The shift in the
fulcrum of global economic growth towards Asia is creating unprecedented opportunities for
connectivity in the region. The Government of India, recognising the importance of regional
connectivity, made a landmark decision to undertake an overseas port investment in Chabahar.
56. The Chabahar Day was commemorated by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
in which of the following Summit?
(A) India Water Impact Summit
(B) Sustainable Ocean Summit
(C) World Ocean Summit
(D) Maritime India Summit
CORRECT OPTION: D
Page 14 of 41
57. Which of the following is correct about the Chabahar Port?
(A) It is located in south east of Iran in Oman sea.
(B) It has marine border of more than 300 km.
(C) Both (A) and (B).
CORRECT OPTION: C
58. Which of the following statements relate to the Chabahar Port and its impact?
(A) It is a transit hub to support landlocked countries of Central Asia.
(B) It will play an important role in international North-South transit Corridor (INSTC).
(C) It will optimize the logistic cost by bringing in efficiency, and creating a reliable and
safe transport corridor.
(D) All of the above.
CORRECT OPTION: D
59. The Chabahar Port is a result of trilateral agreement between which of the following
countries?
(A) India-Iran-Afghanistan
(B) India-Iran-Iraq
(C) Iran-Iraq-Afghanistan
(D) India-Qatar-Pakistan
CORRECT OPTION: A
60. Which is the Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) incorporated for the development and
management of Shahid Behesti Port of Chabahar?
(A) The Indian Port Rail Corporation
(B) Western Shipbuilding Private Limited
(C) India Ports Global Limited
(D) Karaikal Port Private Limited
CORRECT OPTION: C
India has added Tso Kar Wetland Complex in Ladakh as its 42 nd Ramsar site, which is a second
one in the Union Territory (UT) of Ladakh. Expressing happiness, Minister for Environment,
Forest and Climate Change, Shri Prakash Javadekar shared this information in a tweet message.
The Tso Kar Basin is a high-altitude wetland complex, consisting of two principal waterbodies,
Startsapuk Tso, a freshwater lake of about 438 hectares to the south, and Tso Kar itself, a
hypersaline lake of 1800 hectares to the north, situated in the Changthang region of Ladakh,
India. It is called Tso Kar, meaning white lake, because of the white salt efflorescence found
on the margins due to the evaporation of highly saline water. The Tso Kar Basin is an A1
Category Important Bird Area (IBA) as per Bird Life International and a key staging site in the
Central Asian Flyway. The site is also one of the most important breeding areas of the Black-
necked Crane (Grus nigricollis) in India. This IBA is also the major breeding area for Great
Crested Grebe (Podicepscristatus), Bar-headed Geese (Anserindicus), Ruddy Shelduck
(Tadornaferruginea), Brown-headed Gull (Larusbrunnicephalus), Lesser Sand-Plover
(Charadriusmongolus) and many other species.
61. Which of the following sites in India is not included in the Ramsar Wetland List?
(A) Asan Conservation Reserve, Uttarakhand
(B) Dal Lake, Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Kabartal Wetland, Bihar
(D) Lonar Lake, Maharashtra
CORRECT OPTION: A & B
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62. The World Wetlands Day is celebrated on
(A) February 15
(B) February 6
(C) February 2
(D) February 28
CORRECT OPTION: C
63. The theme for World Wetlands Day 2021 was
(A) Wetlands and Climate Change
(B) Wetlands and Water
(C) Wetlands and Biodiversity
(D) Wetlands for our Future: Sustainable Livelihoods
CORRECT OPTION: B
64. The World‟s largest mangrove forest is located in
(A) Sundarban Mangrove
(B) Pichavaram Mangrove
(C) Florida Mangrove
(D) Godavari-Krishna Mangroves
CORRECT OPTION: A
65. On the occasion of the World Wetland Day, 2021 and as a part of commitment towards
conservation, restoration and management of India‟s wetlands, establishment of a centre
was announced by the name of
(A) Centre for Wetland and Coastal Management
(B) Centre for Wildlife Conservation and Management
(C) Centre for Wildlife Management
(D) Centre for Wetland Conservation and Management
CORRECT OPTION: D
Legal Reasoning
Harm suffered voluntarily does not constitute a legal injury and is not actionable. This principle
is embodied in the maxim volenti non fit injuria. A person cannot complain of harm to the
chances of which he has exposed himself with his free consent and f reewill. The maxim volenti
non fit injuria is founded on good sense and justice. A person who has invited or assented to
an act being done towards him cannot, when he suffers from it, complain of it as a wrong. The
maxim presupposes a tortious act by the defendant. The maxim applies, in the first place, to
intentional acts which would otherwise be tortious. There are certain limitations to the
application of this maxim:
(i) It is no answer to a claim made by a workman against his employer for injury caused through
a breach by the employer of a duty imposed upon him by a statute. But where the negligence
or breach of statutory duty is on the part of an employee of the plaintiff who knowingly accepts
the risk flowing from such breach and the employer-defendant is not guilty of negligence or
breach of statutory duty, the defence of volenti non fit injuria is available to the defendant.
(ii) Under an exigency caused by the defendant‟s wrongful misconduct, consciously and
deliberately faced a risk, even of death, whether the person endangered is one to whom he owes
a duty of protection, as a member of his family, or is a mere stranger to whom he owes no such
special duty. The rescuer will not be deprived of his remedy merely because the risk which he
Page 16 of 41
runs is not the same as that run by the person whom he rescues. But where there is no need to
take any risk, the person suffering harm in doing so cannot recover.
(iii) To cover a case of negligence the defence on the basis of the maxim must be based on
implied agreement whether amounting to contract or not. The defence is available only when
the plaintiff freely and voluntarily, with full knowledge of the nature and extent of the risk
impliedly agreed to incur it and to waive any claim for injury. But when the plaintiff has no
choice or when the notice is given at a stage when it is beyond the ability of the plaintiff to
make a choice there can be no implied agreement and the defence on the basis of the maxim
must fail.
(iv) The maxim will also not apply when the act relied upon is done because of the
psychological condition which the defendant‟s breach of duty had induced.
66. Mr. A was the owner of a car and he had a driver- Mr. D. On January 19, 2021, Mr. A and
Mr. D were travelling in their car wherein Mr. A got down at a restaurant and told Mr. D
to take the car back to Mr. A‟s bungalow. Mr. D was filling the petrol tank of the car, and
two strangers- Mr. B and Mr. C took a lift from Mr. D in his car. The car went ahead and
the right-side front wheel of the car flew away, the car toppled and Mr. D and Mr. C were
thrown out. Mr. C sustained severe injuries and ultimately died due to those injuries on
January 20, 2021. Mr. B and legal representatives of Mr. C claimed compensation from
Mr. A and Mr. D.
(A) Mr. D will be liable to pay the compensation.
(B) Volenti non fit injuria will be applicable and no compensation can be claimed.
(C) Volenti non fit injuria will not be applicable and compensation can be claimed.
(D) Mr. A and Mr. D both will be liable to pay the compensation.
CORRECT OPTION: B
67. Rama was a spectator at a motor car race being held on a track owned by the defendant
company. During the race, there was a collision between two cars, one of the cars was
thrown among the spectators, thereby injuring Rama severely. Which of the following
(A) Rama impliedly took the risk of such injury, the danger being inherent in the sport
which any spectator could foresee, the defendant was not liable.
(B) It was a negligence on the part of defendant and volenti non fit injuria will be
applicable.
(C) Rama did not take the risk of such injury, and she only consented to watching the
race and hence the defendant was liable.
(D) Rama was negligent and hence she suffered injuries.
CORRECT OPTION: A
68. Which of the following is correct about consent in volenti non fit injuria?
(A) Knowledge of the risk does not always amount to consent.
(B) Knowledge of a risk does not precede consent.
(C) Knowledge of the risk always amounts to consent.
(D) Mere perception of the existence of danger amounts to consent.
CORRECT OPTION: A
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69. Lily had placed spring guns in a wood on her ground for the protection of the garden.
Karan, with full knowledge that there were spring guns somewhere in the wood, trespassed
on the land of Lily and was injured. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Lily will be liable to pay compensation to Karan.
(B) Lily has not committed a tort against Karan by exceeding her right of private
defence.
(C) Karan‟s case does not fall within volenti non fit injuria.
(D) Karan had knowledge of the spring guns and wilfully courted the danger himself.
CORRECT OPTION: D
70. Which of the following is not an element to claim the defence of volenti non fit Injuria?
(A) Prior knowledge of the plaintiff about the risk involved.
(B) Free consent.
(C) Plaintiff is compelled to agree to a risk by the defendant.
(D) Voluntary acceptance of the risk by the plaintiff.
CORRECT OPTION: C
It is essential to the creation of a contract that both parties should agree to the same thing in the
same sense. Mutual consent, which should also be a free consent, is the sine qua non of a valid
agreement and one of its essential elements is that a thing is understood in the same sense by a
party as is understood by the other. Not only consent, but free consent is provided in Section
10 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 to be necessary to the complete validity of a contract.
Consent is free when it works without obstacles to impede its exercise. Where there is no
consent or no real and certain object of consent, there can be no contract at all. Where there is
consent, but not free consent, there is generally a contract voidable at the option of the party
whose consent was not free. A general averment that consent was not freely obtained is not
enough, and it is necessary to set up one of the vitiating elements such as fraud which includes,
false assertion, active concealment, promise without intention of performing it, any other
deceptive act, or any act declared as fraudulent. In order to constitute fraud, the act should have
been done by the party to the contract, or by any other person with his connivance, or by his
agent and with intent to deceive the other party thereto or his agent, or to induce him to enter
into the contract. There is no duty upon parties to speak about facts likely to affect the other
party‟s consent to the contract and mere silence does not amount to fraud, unless the
circumstances of the case show that there is duty to speak, or silence is, in itself equivalent to
speech. On the other hand, misrepresentation falls into three categories: (i) a statement of fact,
which if false, would be misrepresentation if the maker believes it to be true, but which is not
justified by the information he possesses; (ii) any breach of duty which gains an advantage to
the person committing it by misleading another to his prejudice, there being no intention to
deceive; and (iii) causing a party to an agreement to make a mistake as to the substance of the
thing which is the subject of the agreement, even though done innocently.
71. Which of the following statements correctly depicts the essentials of misrepresentation?
(A) A misrepresentation is a positive statement of fact, which is made or adopted by a
party to a contract and is untrue.
(B) Misrepresentation and false representation do not mean the same.
(C) If one party has induced the other to enter into a contract by misrepresenting, though
innocently, any material fact especially within his own knowledge, the party misled
cannot avoid the contract.
(D) A misrepresentation is a negative statement of fact, which is made or adopted by a
party to a contract and is true.
CORRECT OPTION: A
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72. Consider the statements given below and answer which one correctly describes a fraudulent
act.
(I) The expression fraud means an intention to deceive, whether it is from any expectation
of advantage to the party himself or from ill will towards the other is immaterial.
(II) A fraud is an act of deliberate deception with the design of securing something by
taking an unfair advantage of another. It is a deception to gain from another‟s loss.
(III) Fraud arises out of deliberate active role of representator about a fact.
(A) (I), (II) are correct.
(B) (I) correct.
(C) (I), (II), (III) are correct.
(D) (I) and (II) are correct but (III) is incorrect.
CORRECT OPTION: C
73. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Fraud is an innocent wrong whereas misrepresentation is an intentional wrong.
(B) The principal difference between fraud and misrepresentation is that in the former,
the person making the suggestion does not believe it to be true and, in the latter, he
believes it to be true.
(C) In fraud and misrepresentation both, it is not a misstatement of fact which misleads
the promisee.
(D) Fraud and misrepresentation both are innocent wrongs.
CORRECT OPTION: B
74. Mr. A sells a car to Mr. Y, his childhood friend with a knowledge that the car is defective.
Before buying the car, Mr. Y says to Mr. A, “If you do not deny it, I shall assume that the
car is perfect”. Mr. A says nothing. In light of the statement, decide the liability of Mr. A.
(A) A‟s silence is equivalent to speech and hence a misrepresentation.
(B) A is not liable for fraud, but liable for misrepresentation.
(C) A is liable for fraud and misrepresentation both.
(D) A‟s silence is equivalent to speech and hence a fraud.
CORRECT OPTION: D
75. In which of the following statements will a contract not be voidable at the option of a
party?
(A) When a party takes consent by fraud.
(B) When a party takes consent by misrepresentation.
(C) A contract entered by fraud and misrepresentation is neither void nor voidable.
(D) When silence amounts to fraud, but the other party whose consent was taken had
discovered the truth or had the means of discovering the truth with ordinary
diligence.
CORRECT OPTION: D
Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 reads as follows:

Communication when complete - The communication of a proposal is complete when it comes
to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.
The communication of an acceptance is complete, - as against the proposer, when it is put in a
course of transmission to him so as to be out of the power of the acceptor; as against the
acceptor, when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.
Page 19 of 41
Thus, the provision makes no difference in the position of the offeror. The offeror becomes
bound when a properly addressed and adequately stamped letter of acceptance is posted. The
acceptor does not become bound by merely posting his acceptance. He becomes bound only
when his acceptance comes to the knowledge of the proposer. The contract is concluded at the
place from where the proposal is accepted and communication of acceptance is dispatched, i.e.,
the address at which the proposal was sent. The court at that place would have jurisdiction to
entertain a cause of action under the contract. This rule, that the communication of an
acceptance is complete as against the proposer when the letter is posted, is probably intended
to apply only when the parties are at a distance and they communicate by post. “Where,
however, the parties are in each other‟s presence or, though separated in space”, they are in
direct communication, as, for example, by telephone, no contract will arise until the offeror
receives the notification of acceptance.
76. „S‟ wanted to purchase shares of a company and communicated his offer to buy shares on
March 1, 2021. A letter of allotment of shares addressed to „S‟, which is an acceptance of
the offer to purchase shares, was posted by the company on March 10, 2021, but the letter
never reached „S‟ and was lost in transit. In the given situation, which of the following
statements is true?
(A) Communication of acceptance is not complete as against „S‟ and hence, there is no
valid contract between „S‟ and the company.
(B) Communication of acceptance is complete as against „S‟ however not complete as
against the company.
(C) Communication of acceptance is complete as against the company however not
complete as against „S‟.
(D) Communication of acceptance is complete against both „S‟ as well as the company.
CORRECT OPTION: B
77. „A‟, who is in Mumbai, makes an offer for supply of goods to „B‟, who is in Delhi, via a
mobile phone call. During the same call, A‟s offer is absolutely and unconditionally
accepted by „B‟. According to the terms agreed between „A‟ and „B‟, goods are to be
supplied at Pune and payment is to be made electronically. In the given situation, where is
the contract concluded?
(A) Neither Mumbai, Delhi nor Pune as it is a telephonic contract
(B) Pune
(C) Delhi
(D) Mumbai
CORRECT OPTION: D
78. „X‟, who is in Gandhinagar, makes an offer for sale of second-hand luxury car to „Y‟, who
is Jammu, via an e-mail sent on January 15, 2021 at 2:03 pm. X‟s offer is absolutely and
unconditionally accepted by „Y‟ via an e-mail sent on January 15, 2021 at 4:04 pm. The
e-mail communicating acceptance is read by „X‟ on January 15, 2021 at 7:05 pm. In the
given situation, when is the contract concluded?
(A) As against „X‟, on January 15, 2021 at 4:04 pm and as against „Y‟, on January 15,
2021 at 7:05 p.m.
(B) As against „Y‟, on January 15, 2021 at 4:04 pm and as against „X‟, on January 15,
2021 at 7:05 p.m.
(C) January 15, 2021 at 4:04 p.m.
(D) January 15, 2021 at 7:05 p.m.
CORRECT OPTION: A
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79. „X‟, who is in Agra, makes an offer for sale of second-hand luxury car to „Y‟, who is
Jammu, via an e-mail sent on January 15, 2021 at 2:03 pm. However, the e-mail did not
reach „Y‟ due to some technical error at the server which is located in Delhi. Thereafter,
„X‟ makes a mobile phone call to „Y‟ on January 15, 2021 at 4:04 pm and makes him the
same offer as was made in the e-mail. In the same mobile phone call, the offer is absolutely
and unconditionally accepted by „Y‟ at 4:10 pm. In the given situation, where is the
contract concluded?
(A) Delhi
(B) Jammu
(C) Agra
(D) Neither Delhi, Jammu nor Agra as it is an electronic contract.
CORRECT OPTION: C
80. “When the words of acceptance are spoken into the telephone, they are put into the course
of transmission to the offerer so as to be beyond the power of the acceptor. The acceptor
cannot recall them.” In light of the given proposition, which of the following statements
is/are true?
I. The communication being instantaneous, the contract immediately arises.
II. The communication being instantaneous, the communication of acceptance is
immediately complete as against the proposer as well as the acceptor.
III. The communication being non-instantaneous, the communication of acceptance is
complete as against the acceptor when the words of acceptance are spoken into the
telephone.
IV. The communication being non-instantaneous, the communication of acceptance is
complete as against the proposer when the words of acceptance are spoken into the
telephone.
(A) Only I
(B) I and II
(C) III and IV
(D) Only II
CORRECT OPTION: B
It is a well settled principle of contract law that parties cannot by contract exclude the
jurisdiction of all courts. Such a contract would constitute an agreement in restraint of legal
proceedings and contravene Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. However, where
parties to a contract confer jurisdiction on one amongst multiple courts having proper
jurisdiction, to the exclusion of all other courts, the parties cannot be said to have ousted the
jurisdiction of all courts. Such a contract is valid and will bind the parties to a civil action.
Section 28. Agreements in restraint of legal proceedings, void-Every agreement, -
(a) by which any party thereto is restricted absolutely from enforcing his rights under or in
respect of any contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary tribunals, or which limits
the time within which he may thus enforce his rights; or
(b) which extinguishes the rights of any party thereto, or discharges any party thereto, fromany
liability, under or in respect of any contract on the expiry of a specified period so as to restrict
any party from enforcing his rights, is void to the extent.
Parties cannot by agreement confer jurisdiction on a court which lacks the jurisdiction to
adjudicate. But where several courts would have jurisdiction to try the subject matter of the
dispute, they can stipulate that a suit be brought exclusively before one of the several courts,
to the exclusion of the others.
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81. „A‟, a resident of Mumbai, and „B‟, a resident of Delhi, enter into an agreement for sale
and supply of goods. The transaction takes place partly in Mumbai and partly in Delhi.
There is a clause in the agreement which stipulates that in the event of a dispute between
„A‟ and „B‟, the courts in Kolkata would have exclusive jurisdiction to decide the dispute.
„A‟ and „B‟ agreed to the said clause in order to avoid dispute over choice betweenthe two
proper places of jurisdiction- Mumbai and Delhi. In the given situation, which of the
following statements is true?
(A) The clause relating to jurisdiction is in restraint of legal proceedings.
(B) The clause relating to jurisdiction is not in restraint of legal proceedings.
(C) The clause relating to jurisdiction is valid as „A‟ and „B‟ have mutually agreed to the
same.
(D) The clause relating to jurisdiction is valid as its object is lawful.
CORRECT OPTION: A
82. „A‟, a resident of Chennai, and „B‟, a resident of Bengaluru, enter into an agreement for
sale and supply of goods. The transaction takes place partly in Chennai and partly in
Bengaluru. There is a clause in the agreement which stipulates that in the event of a dispute
between „A‟ and „B‟, the courts in Chennai would have exclusive jurisdiction to decide
the dispute. „A‟ and „B‟ agreed to the said clause in order to avoid dispute over choice
between the two proper places of jurisdiction- Chennai and Bengaluru. In the given
(A) The clause relating to jurisdiction is in restraint of legal proceedings.
(B) The clause relating to jurisdiction is void.
(C) The clause relating to jurisdiction is valid as „A‟ and „B‟ have mutually agreed to the
same.
(D) The clause relating to jurisdiction is valid as courts in Chennai have jurisdiction to
decide the dispute.
CORRECT OPTION: D
83. „A‟, a resident of Agra, and „B‟, a resident of Bhubaneswar, enter into an agreement for
sale and supply of goods. The transaction takes place partly in Agra and partly in
Bhubaneswar. There is a clause in the agreement which stipulates that in the event of a
dispute between „A‟ and „B‟, neither of them can approach the court of law or take recourse
to any alternative dispute resolution mechanism to settle the dispute. In the given situation,
which of the following statements is true?
(A) The clause relating to jurisdiction is not valid as it is in restraint of legal proceedings.
(B) The clause relating to jurisdiction is not valid as the clause is vague and ambiguous.
(C) The clause relating to jurisdiction is valid as they have not restricted the choice of
either party regarding choice of jurisdiction.
(D) The clause relating to jurisdiction is valid as no court‟s has been ousted by the clause.
CORRECT OPTION: A
84. „A‟, a resident of Ahmedabad, and „B‟, a resident of Ranchi, enter into an agreement for
sale and supply of goods. The transaction takes place partly in Ahmedabad and partly in
Ranchi. Clause 6 of the agreement stipulates that in the event of a dispute arising between
„A‟ and „B‟ within six months of the entering into contract, they can approach a court in
either Ahmedabad or Ranchi (as both are proper places of jurisdiction), or take recourse to
any alternative dispute resolution mechanism to settle the dispute. Clause 7 of the
agreement stipulates that in the event of a dispute arising between „A‟ and „B‟ after the
expiry of six months of entering into contract, the courts in Chennai would have exclusive
Page 22 of 41
jurisdiction to decide the dispute. In the given situation, which of the following statements
is true?
(A) Clause 6 is void and Clause 7 is valid.
(B) Clause 6 is valid and Clause 7 is void.
(C) Both Clause 6 and Clause 7 are valid.
(D) Both Clause 6 and Clause 7 are void.
CORRECT OPTION: D
(A) Parties cannot by contract make a choice of jurisdiction.
(B) Parties cannot by contract exclude the jurisdiction of all courts.
(C) Parties can by contract confer jurisdiction on any court.
(D) Parties can by contract extinguish their rights under any contract.
CORRECT OPTION: B
The doctrine of res judicata requires that a party should not be allowed to file same matter
repeatedly against the other party either in the same court or in other competent court and that
the decision given by one court should be accepted as final subject to any appeal, revision or
review. The doctrine is founded on the principle that it is in the interest of the public at large
that a finality should be attached to the binding decisions pronounced by courts of competent
jurisdiction, and it is also in the public interest that individuals should not be vexed twice over
with the same kind of litigation. This apart, the object of the doctrine is to ensure that ultimately
there should be an end to litigation. Doctrine of res judicata is embodied in Section 11 of the
Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 which governs the procedure to be followed in civil matters.
Section 11 is inapplicable to writ jurisdictions. The Supreme Court has observed that though
the rule is technical in nature yet the general doctrine of res judicata is based on public policy
and therefore, it cannot be treated as irrelevant or inadmissible even in dealing with
fundamental rights in petitions filed under Article 32 of the Constitution of India. The court
observed that if a writ petition filed by a party under Article 226 of the Constitution of India is
considered on merits as a contested matter and is dismissed, the decision thus pronounced
would continue to bind the parties unless it is otherwise modified or reversed in appeal or other
appropriate proceedings permissible under the Constitution of India. It would not be open to a
party to ignore the judgment of the High Court and move Supreme Court under Article 32 by
an original petition made on the same facts and for obtaining the same or similar orders or
writs. If the petition filed in the High Court under Article 226 is dismissed but not on the merits,
then the dismissal of the writ petition would not constitute a bar to a subsequent petition under
Article 32, however if the petition is dismissed without passing a speaking order, then such
dismissal cannot be treated as creating a bar of res judicata.
86. Which of the following is res judicata applicable to?
(A) Civil suits
(B) Writ petitions
(C) None of the above.
(D) Both (A) and (B).
CORRECT OPTION: C
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87. Doctrine of res judicata is applicable to writs if
(A) The decision is on merits.
(B) Order is a speaking order.
(C) Both (A) and (B).
(D) Neither (A) nor (B).
CORRECT OPTION: C
88. On which of the following is the doctrine of res judicata based?
(A) No one should be vexed twice for the same cause more than once.
(B) It is in the interest of public that finality should be attached to the decisions of courts.
(C) There should be an end to litigation.
(D) All of these.
CORRECT OPTION: D
89. Which of the following is correct?
(A) If a writ petition is filed under Article 226 of the Constitution of India and the same
is rejected on merits by a speaking order, another petition under Article 32 of the
Constitution of India is not maintainable being barred by res judicata.
(B) The doctrine of res judicata is founded on the principle that it is in the interest of the
public at large that a finality should be attached to the binding decisions pronounced
by courts of competent jurisdiction.
(C) Technical rule of res judicata only prevents multiple filing of petitions under Article
226 of the Constitution of India between same parties over the same matter and is
not applicable to petition under Article 32 of the Constitution of India.
(D) Both (A) and (B).
CORRECT OPTION: D
90. Mr. X was dismissed from service by his employer after a proper enquiry. Mr. X
challenged his dismissal in High Court by a petition under Article 226 of the Constitution
of India. However, the High Court dismissed the petition citing that Mr. X has an
alternative remedy available. Mr. X took recourse to the alternative remedy before the
appropriate forum, but Mr. X‟s legal action is opposed by the employer on the basis of res
judicata. Based on these facts, which of the following is the most appropriate?
(A) Res judicata is applicable.
(B) Res judicata is not applicable.
(C) Since the matter relates to livelihood and life of the person, technical rule of res
judicata should not be applied.
(D) Both (B) and (C).
CORRECT OPTION: B
Compassionate appointment is an exception to the general rule of appointment which is a way

of providing employment to the family of the deceased employee on compassionate grounds.
The objective is only to provide solace and succour to the family in difficult times and, thus,
its relevancy is at that stage of time when the employee passes away. The mere death of an
employee in harness does not entitle his family to such source of livelihood. The authority
concerned has to examine the financial condition of the family of the deceased, and it is only
if it is satisfied that, but for the provision of employment, the family will not be able to meet
the crisis that the job is offered to the eligible member of the family. It was further asseverated
in the said judgment that compassionate employment cannot be granted after a lapse of
reasonable period as the consideration of such employment is not a vested right which can be
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exercised at any time in the future. It was further held that the object of compassionate
appointment is to enable the family to get over the financial crisis that it faces at the time of
the death of sole breadwinner. Thus, compassionate appointment cannot be claimed or offered
after a significant lapse of time and after the crisis is over.
91. Which of the following correctly states the intent behind the application of compassionate
appointment?
(A) The norms, at the time of death of the government employee will be applicable and
not the norms at the time of making an application.
(B) A dependent of a government employee cannot demand consideration of his/her
application.
(C) The norms of the governmental or public authorities are not considered while
applying for compassionate appointment.
(D) The norms prevailing on the date of consideration of the application should be the
basis for consideration of claim for compassionate appointment.
CORRECT OPTION: D
92. Which of the following is not correct about the rule of compassionate appointment?
(A) Compassionate appointment is given to the family members of the deceased
irrespective of their financial status.
(B) It is to mitigate the hardship caused to the family members after the death of earning
member of the family.
(C) Compassionate appointment cannot be granted as a matter of vested right.
(D) Compassionate appointment cannot be made in the absence of rules and regulations
issued by the government or a public authority.
CORRECT OPTION: A
93. Mr. Y, son of Mr. X, made a representation before ABC government company on January
4, 2018 that he should be given appointment on compassionate grounds as his father died
during his employment in the company in 2000. Consider the given facts and decide
whether Mr. Y is entitled to get compassionate appointment.
(A) Mr. Y is entitled to get compassionate appointment.
(B) Mr. Y is not entitled for compassionate appointment as a long period has elapsed
since the death of his father.
(C) Mr. Y is entitled to get compassionate appointment depending on policy of the
company in which his father was working.
(D) Mr. Y is not entitled to get compassionate appointment as it is the discretion of the
company to refuse the said appointment.
CORRECT OPTION: B
94. The Government of „N‟ formulated a scheme for providing compassionate appointment to
the dependants of government servants who retired on medical invalidation. By a further
notification, the benefit of the scheme was restricted to cases where the government
servants retired on medical invalidation, at least five years before attaining the age of
superannuation. Consider the given facts, and decide which of the following is correct in
relation to the validity of this rule of compassionate appointment?
(A) The scheme is valid subject to the approval of the dependents.
Page 25 of 41
(B) The scheme is not valid as the offer of compassionate appointment to the dependent
of a government servant who is medically invalidated is not an exception to the
general rule.
(C) The scheme is not valid as it is unconstitutional.
(D) The scheme is valid as it is not arbitrary and the government has the right to
formulate such rules.
CORRECT OPTION: D
95. Which of the following is not correct regarding the nature of appointment on
compassionate grounds?
(A) A request for compassionate appointment by the dependent relatives of the deceased
must be preferred without any undue delay.
(B) The general rule of appointment may not be always applicable to compassionate
appointments.
(C) The immediacy of the need is not the basis for the state to allow the benefit of
compassionate appointment.
(D) It is a benefit given to the family members at the time of distress.
CORRECT OPTION: C
Marriage is necessarily the basis of social organisation and the foundation of important legal
rights and obligations. The importance and imperative character of the institution of marriage
needs no comment. In Hindu law, marriage is treated as a Samskara or a sacrament. The Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955 introduced monogamy as a law of marriage among Hindus by virtue of
Section 5 clause (i) which is essentially the voluntary union for life of one man with one woman
to the exclusion of all others. It enacts, “neither party must have a spouse living at the time of
marriage”. The expression „spouse‟ here used, means a lawfully married husband or wife.
Before a valid marriage can be solemnised, both parties to such marriage must be either single
or divorced or a widow or a widower and only then they are competent to enter into a valid
marriage. If at the time of performance of the marriage rites and ceremonies, one or other of
the parties had a spouse living and the earlier marriage had not already been set aside, the later
marriage is no marriage at all. The Supreme Court in Bhaurao Shankar Lokhande v. State of
Maharashtra, [AIR 1965 SC 1564] held, “Prima facie, the expression „whoever marries‟ in
Section 494 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (which defines the offence of bigamy) must mean
„whoever marries validly‟ or „whoever marries and whose marriage is a valid one‟. If marriage
is not valid according to the law applicable to the parties, no question arises of its being void
by reason of its taking place during the lif e of the husband or wife of the person marrying. One
of the conditions of a valid marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is that it must be
„solemnised‟. Further, Section 13 (2) of the Act provides for grounds of divorce to wife and
states, “A wife may also present a petition for the dissolution of her marriage by a decree of
divorce on the ground that in the case of any marriage solemnized before the commencement
of this Act, that the husband had married again before such commencement or that any other
wife of the husband married before such commencement was alive at the time of the
solemnization of the marriage of the petitioner: Provided that in either case the other wife is
alive at the time of the presentation of the petition”.
96. Mr. A, a 40-year old male Hindu, was married to Ms. B, a 36-year old female Hindu. Mr.
A fell in love with his colleague- Ms. C, a 22-year old female Christian. On April 8, 2020,
Mr. A declared Ms. C as his wife in front of all his colleagues, family members and
relatives. Based on the given facts, decide the liability of Mr. A as per Hindu law.
(A) Mr. A is not liable for the offence of bigamy as Ms. C is a Christian.
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(B) Mr. A is liable for the offence of bigamy as mere declaration also amounts to
solemnisation.
(C) Mr. A is not liable for the offence of bigamy as he has not solemnised his marriage
with Ms. C.
(D) Mr. A is liable for the offence of bigamy as there was no intention to marry.
CORRECT OPTION: C
97. Which of the following statements correctly expresses the interpretation of the word
„solemnise‟ under Hindu law?
(A) Solemnisation means celebrating the marriage with proper customary rites and
ceremonies of either party to a marriage.
(B) Solemnisation includes and means promising each other a lifetime of happiness.
(C) Solemnisation is not necessary in modern marriages when registration of marriage
is complete.
(D) Solemnisation is a mere formal practice and not a mandate.
CORRECT OPTION: A
98. Which of the following is not correct regarding the law of monogamy among Hindus?
(A) Monogamy is a union of a man and woman which provides their relation a social
and legal recognition.
(B) Monogamy as a law was abolished after 1955.
(C) The second marriage during the subsistence of a first valid marriage is void.
(D) If a husband solemnises a second marriage during the subsistence of first marriage,
it is not an offence, however, it is an offence if a wife commits the same act.
CORRECT OPTION: B & D
99. On the basis of Section 13 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, which of the following
statements does not relate to the remedy?
(A) The object of the Section was to provide an opportunity to the wife in the form of
remedy of divorce.
(B) The introduction of this ground of divorce is unnecessary as it disturbs the sanctity
of marital institution.
(C) A remedy is only available under this Section if the husband has the other wifeliving.
(D) The living status of either spouse is immaterial to claim the remedy.
CORRECT OPTION: B
100. Mr. P, a 28-year old male Hindu was legally married to Ms. Q, a 26-year old female
Hindu. Mr. P converts to Islam to marry Ms. N, a 30-year old Sunni female Muslim.
Consider the statement and decide whether Ms. Q has the remedy to file a complaint for
the offence of bigamy against Mr. P?
(A) Yes, Ms. Q can file a complaint subject to the approval by Ms. N.
(B) No, Ms. Q cannot file a complaint as it defeats the very purpose of her marriage with
Mr. P.
(C) No, Ms. Q cannot file a complaint as Mr. P converted to another religion and the
offence of bigamy will only be attracted when the parties are Hindus.
(D) Yes, Ms. Q has the remedy of filing a complaint for the offence of bigamy.
CORRECT OPTION: D
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The Indian Penal Code, 1860 does not define „consent‟ in positive terms, but what cannot be
regarded as „consent‟ under the Code is explained by Section 90. Section 90 reads as follows:
“90. Consent known to be given under fear or misconception - A consent is not such a consent
as is intended by any section of this Code, if the consent is given by a person under fear of
injury, or under a misconception of fact, and if the person doing the act knows, or has reason
to believe, that the consent was given in consequence of such fear or misconception;…”
Consent given firstly under fear of injury and secondly under a misconception of fact is not
„consent‟ at all. That is what is enjoined by the first part of Section 90. These two grounds
specified in Section 90 are analogous to coercion and mistake of fact which are the familiar
grounds that can vitiate a transaction under the jurisprudence of our country as well as other
countries. The factors set out in the first part of Section 90 are from the point of view of the
victim. The second part of Section 90 enacts the corresponding provision from the point of
view of the accused. It envisages that the accused too has knowledge or has reason to believe
that the consent was given by the victim in consequence of fear of injury or misconception of
fact. Thus, the second part lays emphasis on the knowledge or reasonable belief of the person
who obtains the tainted consent. The requirements of both the parts should be cumulatively
satisfied. In other words, the court has to see whether the person giving the consent had given
it under fear of injury or misconception of fact and the court should also be satisfied that the
person doing the act i.e. the alleged offender, is conscious of the fact or should have reason to
think that but for the fear or misconception, the consent would not have been given. This is the
scheme of Section 90 which is couched in negative terminology. Section 90 cannot, however,
be construed as an exhaustive definition of consent for the purposes of the Indian Penal Code,
1860. The normal connotation and concept of „consent‟ is not intended to be excluded. Various
decisions of the High Court and of Supreme Court have not merely gone by the language of
Section 90, but travelled a wider field, guided by the etymology of the word „consent‟.
101. „A‟, a man, promises „B‟, a woman that he will marry her if she has sexual intercourse
with him. „B‟ agrees, but after having sexual intercourse, „A‟ flees and never contacts „B‟
again. In the given situation, which statement is true?
(A) Consent for sexual intercourse was given under misconception of fact.
(B) Consent for sexual intercourse was given under fear of injury.
(C) Consent for sexual intercourse was given under undue influence.
(D) Consent for sexual intercourse was given without any misconception or fear of
injury.
CORRECT OPTION: A
102. According to the given passage, a person is said to „consent‟ to the doing of an act if
(A) A person agrees to do an act without misconception of fact or fear of injury.
(B) The person to whom agreement is signified has no reason to believe that the
agreement is being given under misconception of fact or fear of injury.
(C) A person agrees to do an act without misconception of fact or fear of injury and the
person to whom agreement is signified has no reason to believe that the agreement
is being given under misconception of fact or fear of injury.
(D) A person agrees to do an act without having regard to the consequences of fear of
injury or misconception of fact.
CORRECT OPTION: C
103. According to your understanding of the given passage, why is negative terminology used
to explain the meaning of consent under Section 90?
(A) To emphasise on the factors that vitiate consent.
(B) To emphasise on the point of view of victim or the person who gives consent.
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(C) To emphasise on the point of view of the person who receives consent.
(D) To emphasise on the non-exhaustive scope of definition of consent.
CORRECT OPTION: D
104. „X‟, a man, promises „Y‟, a woman that he will marry her if she has sexual intercourse
with him. „Y‟ agrees and they have sexual intercourse. Thereafter, „X‟ assures „Y‟ that
they will get married, but X‟s family is opposed to the marriage even after X‟s attempts to
convince them. Therefore, „X‟ refuses to marry „Y‟. In the given situation, which statement
is true?
(A) Consent for sexual intercourse was received knowing that the consent is given under
misconception of fact.
(B) Consent for sexual intercourse was given without any misconception of fact or fear
of injury.
(C) Consent for sexual intercourse was received knowing that the consent is given under
fear of injury.
(D) Consent for sexual intercourse was given under misconception of fact and received
misconception of fact.
CORRECT OPTION: B
(A) Misconception of fact vitiates consent.
(B) Fear of injury vitiates consent.
(C) Misconception of fact obviates the necessity of consent.
(D) Fear of injury is analogous to coercion.
CORRECT OPTION: C
Logical Reasoning
The COVID-19 pandemic and the unmatched mental health challenges have made it more
crucial than ever that we continue to make strides towards understanding the concept of mental
health stigma and how we might tackle it around the world. Graham Thornicroft, a practising
psychiatrist, who is extensively and deeply involved in mental health stigma research at the
Institute of Psychiatry, Psychology and Neurosciences at King‟s College London has divided
stigma into three components-knowledge, attitude and behaviour. The last behaviour emerges
from social isolation, such as what we are experiencing during the pandemic, as well as
exclusion from mainstream activities and citizenship. In higher-income countries, stigma rates
may be greater than other countries, perhaps because of the pressure to excel. In low-income
countries, one can be unwell and still play an active social and productive role somewhere as
there are many such roles to play within the family and in society. Enhancing contact with
people who have experienced mental health problems is the best way to reduce stigma. To date,
most people with mental illness remain silent about their condition, avoiding discussing their
problems for fear of losing face, damaging their reputation or jeopardising their family status.
Having a space where they may be welcomed and listened to, rather than judged, will go a long
way towards enabling them to share their experiences. In a small part of rural Andhra Pradesh,
researchers used posters, pictures, drums, and a short street play, as an intervention technique
to reduce mental health stigma. An actor portrayed a person‟s journey through mental health
crises and setbacks before receiving support and showing hope, improvement and recovery.
People assembled around the stage, willing to talk about and discuss what they saw, even two
to three years after the event.
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(A) Mental health is not an obstacle for people seeking care.
(B) Mental health is a domestic phenomenon.
(C) In low-income countries, mental health does not receive the adequate attention and
treatment.
(D) Mental health issues have only arisen after the COVID-19 pandemic globally.
CORRECT OPTION: C
107. As per the passage, which of the following approaches can be most effective to curb the
issue of mental health?
(A) Mental health can only be curbed when people will stop sharing their emotions
openly.
(B) To develop a sense of acceptance among people suffering from mental health and let
them heal gradually.
(C) Experiences shared and discussed on a larger level is a major hindrance for better
mental health conditions globally.
(D) A person should not express about his/her failures which enhances the mental health
problems.
CORRECT OPTION: B
108. Which of the following notions is expressed in the passage to enunciate the significance
of issue of mental health?
(A) The issue of mental health has received the required recognition and deliberation
during the COVID-19 pandemic.
(B) Mental health will be reduced automatically after the COVID-19 pandemic.
(C) Mental health improves when social isolation increases.
(D) Mental health is an illusionary notion developed during COVID-19 pandemic to
strengthen the pharmaceutical industries.
CORRECT OPTION: A
109. “In low-income countries, one can be unwell and still play an active social and productive
role somewhere as there are many such roles to play within the family and in society”.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statement?
(A) Stigma rates in lower-income countries are higher as compared to higher income
countries.
(B) Stigma rates in higher-income countries may be more due to a pressure of
performing and to excel.
(C) Mental stigma is not related to the economic conditions of a country.
(D) Higher-income countries require people to perform multiple roles at their homes.
CORRECT OPTION: B
110. Which of the following weakens the author‟s idea of „having a space where they may be
welcomed and listened to, rather than judged‟?
(A) People who tend to share their emotions tend to have mental peace and happiness.
(B) Societal role is massive in embracing people suffering from mental health ailments.
(C) People sharing their ideas and expressions publicly is a practice which needs to be
promoted.
(D) It is a human tendency to form judgments about other people and this being a healthy
practice should be encouraged at large scale.
CORRECT OPTION: D
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One of the most important challenges for Indian diplomacy in the subcontinent is to persuade
its neighbours that India is an opportunity, not a threat. Far from feeling in any way besieged
by India, they should be able to see it as offering access to a vast market and to a dynamic,
growing economy which would provide their own economies with far greater opportunities
than more distant partners (or even their own domestic markets) could provide. This would go
beyond economic benefits: as David Malone argues, “Economic cooperation represents the
easiest „sell‟ to various constituencies within the countries of the region. Were this to prove
successful, cooperation on more divisive and sensitive issues, such as terrorism, separatism,
insurgency, religious fundamentalism, and ethnic strife, could be attempted with greater
chances of success.” Winds of change are blowing in South Asia. There is a definite
consolidation of democracy in all the countries of the region, every one of which has held
elections within the last three years. Some of our neighbours have made significant strides in
surmounting internal conflict and others are in the process of doing so. If India has to fulfil its
potential in the world, we have no choice but to live in peace with our neighbours, in mutual
security, harmony and cooperation. Just as Nehru left Robert Frost‟s immortal lines “Miles to
go before I sleep” on his bedside table when he died, Shastri kept some lines of the founder of
the Sikh faith, Guru Nanak, on his desk. When translated into English they read: “O Nanak!
Be tiny like the grass, for other plants will wither away, but grass will remain ever green.”
Shastri was seen by many Indians of exalted ambition as a tiny man, but he had the mind and
heart of a giant. His vision of peaceful coexistence with our neighbours, through adopting the
demeanour, the modesty and the freshness of grass, may well be the best way for India to ensure
that its dreams remain evergreen in its own backyard.
111. As per the passage, which of the following is a challenge for India?
(A) To develop an intimidating surrounding for its neighbours.
(B) To manifest India as a land of opportunities.
(C) To restrict access to economic activities to its neighbours.
(D) To propagate the practice of threatening neighbours for greater opportunities.
CORRECT OPTION: B
112. “If India has to fulfil its potential in the world, we have no choice but to live in peace with
our neighbours, in mutual security, harmony and cooperation.” In the context of the
statement, which of the following strengthens the author‟s opinion?
(A) Peace and prosperity cannot work in consonance.
(B) India should assert its might over its neighbours.
(C) Peaceful coexistence with neighbours is the key to India‟s stellar growth.
(D) India can offer myriad opportunities for its neighbours by working in seclusion.
CORRECT OPTION: C
113. Which of the following is the central theme of the above passage?
(A) The objective of attaining peaceful co-existence and cooperation with the
neighbours.
(B) The dominance of India on its neighbouring countries.
(C) Emergence of India as a global power.
(D) Prioritising the economic opportunities for India.
CORRECT OPTION: A
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114. Which of the following is correct expression of the author‟s opinion as stated in passage?
(A) India should strive for greater economic integration which should be politically and
administratively feasible.
(B) India can see borders as barriers, and border areas as buffer zones but not as gateways
of opportunity.
(C) India‟s stellar economic growth is thwarting her own opportunities.
(D) It is not in India‟s interest to be generous to neighbouring countries.
CORRECT OPTION: A
115. Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?
(A) There is no nexus between cooperative existence and economic growth of a nation.
(B) Unless India‟s region becomes more self-centred, India is unlikely to develop into
more than a regional power.
(C) India can only become a great power if it works in isolation to achieve the desired
goals.
(D) India cannot aspire to be a great power without the cooperation of neighbours.
CORRECT OPTION: D
The critique of school as an institution has developed and grown in the past half a century.
Education theorist Everett Reimer wrote School is Dead in the 1960s. Most schools are caged
jails, where an alien curriculum designed by some „experts‟ is thrust down a child‟s gullet.
Today, many schools are gargantuan corporate enterprises with thousands of children on their
rolls, and for all practical purposes they are run like factories, or better still like mini-armies.
The website of a private school in Lucknow boasts of 56,000 students, for instance. But
progressive thinkers have always envisioned „free schools‟ for children. The great Russian
novelist, Leo Tolstoy, founded a school for the children of poor peasants at his home, Yasnaya
Polyana, without any strict schedule, homework or physical punishment. Maria Montessori
was the first Italian woman to become a doctor; she went on to work out the „stages of
development‟ in children which became the basis for her educational philosophy, which too
emphasised children‟s freedom and choice. Tagore‟s critique of rote learning is articulated in
the classic tale „The Parrot‟s Training‟ (Totaakahini). Perhaps, the longest lasting libertarian
school in the world is Summerhill. It was founded in 1921, a hundred years ago in England, by
A.S. Neill with the belief that school should be made to fit the child rather than the other way
round. The 1966 Kothari Education Commission‟s recommendation for a common school
system was never implemented. Today, which school a child goes to depends on her socio-
economic status. The pandemic has furthered and exacerbated this divide. COVID-19 hit
parents economically. The digital divide between the rich and poor has also widened. The poor
do not have access to mobiles, laptops and internet connectivity. In such a scenario, one can
try and conceive of neighbourhood learning spaces.
116. What has the author conveyed regarding the school system in India?
(A) The school system in India is an advanced system which focuses on developing the
personality of students.
(B) The schools in India are segregated based on socio-economic status.
(C) The schools staunchly promote the interest of every student enrolled to ensure
quality education.
(D) The pandemic has aided the students a greater access to the technology and learning
spaces.
CORRECT OPTION: B
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117. Which of the following can be deduced from the above passage?
(A) Social segregation must be eliminated for furtherance of education in schools.
(B) The COVID-19 pandemic has lubricated the teaching-learning process in schools.
(C) Schools should be divided on the basis of the financial capabilities only.
(D) Private schools should be encouraged to enrol economically poor students
irrespective of their caste or religion.
CORRECT OPTION: A
118. As per the above passage, which of the following does not correctly represent the author‟s
view regarding imparting of education during the pandemic?
(A) There has been a disruption of education systems due to the pandemic.
(B) The inclusion of technology has widened the canvas of distance learning education
for all, albeit its access is the biggest concern.
(C) The pandemic has unearthed and stimulated innovative approaches to learning.
(D) The crisis is worsened by reduction of opportunities for many children.
CORRECT OPTION: C
119. Which of the following can be utilised to develop a healthy environment for students‟
learning in schools?
(A) Individualised teaching should not be followed for growth of students.
(B) Students should only be permitted to opt for only few subjects as elective courses.
(C) Community learning should be encouraged in schools.
(D) A fixed and robust curriculum is the need of the hour.
CORRECT OPTION: C
120. In the above passage, which of the following cannot be referred as a characteristic of a
„free school‟?
(A) It is an alternative to mainstream and conventional form of schooling.
(B) Free schools provide a democratic platform to the students to voice their opinions.
(C) The courses offered at free schools are optional for students depending on their
interests.
(D) Specific choice of subjects and a fixed schedule are quintessential features of a free
school.
CORRECT OPTION: D
Asia is at the front line of climate change. Extreme heat in India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh,
wildfires in Australia, typhoons in Japan, are real and present dangers and likely to become
more frequent as climate change intensifies. McKinsey‟s report on „Climate risk and response
in Asia‟, finds that, without adaptation and mitigation, Asia is expected to experience more
severe socioeconomic impacts of climate change than other parts of the world. Large cities in
the Indian Subcontinent could be among the first places in the world to experience heat waves
that exceed the survivability threshold. Just as information systems and cybersecurity have
become integrated into corporate and public-sector decision making, climate change will also
need to feature as a major factor in decisions. Climate science tells us that some amount of
warming over the next decade is already locked in due to past emissions, and temperatures will
continue to rise. India anticipates a significant infrastructure build out over the next decades
with projects worth $1.77 trillion across 34 sub sectors, according to the National Infrastructure
Pipeline. Robust regulations around outdoor work could significantly reduce the economic risk
of lost hours as well as the toll on life from heat waves. The good news is that we have started
to see some Indian states and cities pursuing such policies. Ahmedabad City Corporation
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introduced a heat action plan- the first of its kind in India in response to the 2010 heat wave
that killed 300 people in a single day. The city now has a heat-wave early warning system, a
citywide programme of roof reflectivity to keep buildings cool, and teams to distribute cool
water and rehydration tablets during heat waves. Renewable energy has grown rapidly in India
and can contribute 30 per cent of gross electricity generation by 2030, according to the Central
Electricity Authority.
121. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the above passage?
(A) It is imperative to lessen our vulnerability to harmful effects of climate change.
(B) Increase in mitigation strategies will eventually lead to an increase in pollutants.
(C) Reduction of emissions which are heat-trapping and harmful for environment should
be our primary goal.
(D) The infrastructure development plans need to be climate friendly.
CORRECT OPTION: B
122. Consider the following statements:
I. The impact of increasing heat is more on the ones who are economically poor and
engaged in outdoor employment.
II. Risk to environment is directly related to change in climate.
III. A localised understanding of climate risk is essential to mitigate the risk.
As per the above passage, which of these statements is implicit?
(A) I only.
(B) I and II.
(C) I, II and III.
(D) I and III.
CORRECT OPTION: C
123. Which of the following strategies is not appropriate to reduce the climate change risk?
(A) Decreasing energy efficiency.
(B) Carbon Pricing System.
(C) Decarbonising industrial operations and buildings.
(D) Investments in adaptive technologies.
CORRECT OPTION: A
124. As per the above passage, which of the following is a major challenge to control the
climate change?
(A) Reliance on non-renewable energy is significant for economic growth.
(B) Renewable energy is now utilised in many sectors to curb the increasing risk of
climate change.
(C) Remedial actions for climate change are encouraged to lessen the risk of global
warming.
(D) Regulated industrialisation keeps a balance between growth and environment.
CORRECT OPTION: A
125. Consider the following statement- “Just as information systems and cybersecurity have
become integrated into corporate and public-sector decision making, climate change will
also need to feature as a major factor in decisions.”
Which of the following is the most appropriate explanation f or the above statement?
(A) Decision making by organisations should not depend on the climate conditions
which may lead to hampering their growth.
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(B) Monetary investments in adoption of climate friendly tools is not an urgent need.
(C) The understanding of climate risk should not be integrated into decision making.
(D) Organisations must incorporate climate risk, build the necessary infrastructural
capabilities and tools to diagnose risks.
CORRECT OPTION: D
COVID-19 infections are once again on the rise with daily infections crossing 60,000 per day
last week. This is considerably higher compared to the reported infections during the same
period last year when the numbers were less than 500 per day. What is obvious is that the
pandemic is far from over despite the availability of vaccines. However, unlike last year, the
response this time has been muted with no nationwide lockdown. One of the reasons for the
differing responses is the lesson from the unintended consequences on the economy of the strict
lockdown last year. While aggregate estimates on the growth rate of GDP showed a sharp
contraction in economic activity (the economy shrunk by 24 per cent in the April-June quarter
of 2020) the impact on lives and livelihoods is still unfolding even though the sharp
contractionary phase seems behind us. The extent of the loss of lives and livelihoods is
becoming clear only now, with detailed data from the Periodic Labour Force Surveys (PLFS)
- the latest round of which is for the April-June quarter of 2020. This is the first official report
on the estimates for the quarter, which witnessed the worst impact with the lockdown in force
until the middle of May. Visuals of thousands of migrants walking back to their villages are
still fresh in the mind. While many have returned to urban areas in the absence of jobs in rural
areas, many did not. The PLFS, which captures the employment-unemployment situation in
urban areas, provides some clues to what happened. The estimates from PLFS are broadly in
line with estimates available from other privately conducted surveys, notably the
unemployment surveys of the Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE). According to
the PLFS April-June 2020 round, the urban unemployment rate for the population above the
age of 15 was 20.8 per cent, which is close to the monthly average for the same quarter from
CMIE at 19.9 per cent. The CMIE data, however, does suggest a sharp decline in June
compared to April and May. Similar to the CMIE data, the PLFS data also shows a sharp rise
in the unemployment rate which more than doubled compared to the unemployment rate in the
preceding quarter of January-March 2020 at 9.1 per cent and 8.8 per cent in the same quarter
(April-June) of 2019. While one in five persons above the age of 15 was unemployed during
April-June 2020, the unemployment rate among the 15-29-year-olds was 34.7 per cent - every
third person in the 15-29 age group was unemployed during the same period. These are
staggering numbers, but not surprising. While the lockdown certainly contributed to the
worsening of the employment situation, particularly in urban areas, the fact that the economy
was already going through severe distress as far as jobs are concerned is no longer surprising.
Between 2016-17 and 2019-20, growth decelerated to 4 per cent, less than half the 8.3 per cent
rate in 2016-17. The fact that the economy has not been creating jobs predates the economic
shocks of demonetisation and the hasty roll-out of GST. The PLFS data from earlier rounds
have already shown the extent of the rise in unemployment compared to the employment-
unemployment surveys of 2011-12. The unemployment rates in urban areas for all categories
increased by almost three times between 2011-12 and 2017-18. On an internationally
comparable basis, the unemployment rate among the 15-24-year-olds in 2017-18 was 28.5 per
cent, which makes the youth unemployment rate in India amongst the highest in the world,
excluding small countries and conflict-ridden countries. Since then, it has only worsened or
remained at that level.
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126. According to the author, which of the following is a plausible explanation for India‟s
prevalent crisis of unemployment?
(A) The previously existing employment crunch is worsened due to the imposition of
nationwide lockdown during the COVID-19 pandemic.
(B) Imposition of nationwide lockdown during the COVID-19 pandemic reduced
economic activity.
(C) Imposition of nationwide lockdown during the COVID-19 pandemic led to
migration of workforce from urban to rural areas.
(D) There is a sharp decline in urban unemployment rate for the population above the
age of 15.
CORRECT OPTION: A
127. According to the author, what is current state of Indian economy?
(A) There is a sharp contraction in economic activity.
(B) The aftermath of a sharp contraction in economic activity is being experienced.
(C) The unemployment rates in urban areas for all categories are increasing by almost
three times.
(D) Youth unemployment rate in India is at par with that in small and conflict-ridden
countries.
CORRECT OPTION: B
128. Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the given passage?
(A) Loss of lives and livelihoods is attributable to the imposition of nationwide lockdown
(B) Decline in economic growth is attributable to the imposition of nationwide lockdown
(C) Rise in unemployment is attributable to the migration of members of workforce from
urban to rural areas.
(D) Rise in unemployment is attributable to the imposition of nationwide lockdown
CORRECT OPTION: C
129. Which of the following strengthens the author‟s argument that the decline in economic
growth and rise in unemployment precedes the onset of the COVID-19 pandemic?
(A) While one in five persons above the age of 15 was unemployed during April-June
2020, the unemployment rate among the 15-29-year-olds was 34.7 per cent - every
third person in the 15-29 age group was unemployed during the same period.
(B) According to the PLFS April-June 2020 round, the urban unemployment rate for the
population above the age of 15 was 20.8 per cent, which is close to the monthly
average for the same quarter from CMIE at 19.9 per cent.
(C) Between 2016-17 and 2019-20, growth decelerated to 4 per cent, less than half the
8.3 per cent rate in 2016-17.
(D) The estimates from PLFS are broadly in line with estimates available from other
privately conducted surveys, notably the unemployment surveys of the Centre for
Monitoring Indian Economy (CMIE).
CORRECT OPTION: C
Page 36 of 41
130. According to the given passage, which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Unemployment rates in urban areas for all categories increased by almost three times
over the preceding decade.
(B) Employment rates in urban areas for all categories increased by almost three times
(C) Unemployment rates in urban areas for all categories increased by almost three
percent over the preceding decade.
(D) Employment rates in urban areas for all categories increased by almost three percent
CORRECT OPTION: A
On the day of writing this, India had reported 116 deaths from COVID-19. In contrast, the US,
with around one-fourth the population of India, reported 1,897 deaths, or 16 times the daily
deaths as India. The UK, which has one-twentieth the population of India, reported 592 deaths,
or 5 times the daily deaths as India. On other metrics too-new cases, active cases-the Indian
curve has flattened. If and when the UK and the US achieve what we have, there will be major
celebrations. Such low death rates would be seen as a victory of the government, citizens and
science over the dreaded coronavirus. However, because we are India, we don‟t get as much
credit. We are considered poor, third-world and untrustworthy, incapable of achieving
something like this on our own. Instead of learning from India‟s experience, the first instinct is
to doubt Indian data. We aren‟t counting the cases right, we aren‟t doing enough tests, we don‟t
classify the deaths properly-the list of doubts goes on and on. This, even as the tests have only
increased, positivity rate has dropped and almost all Indian hospitals are seeing a drop in
COVID-19 admissions and fatalities. To think that the Deep Indian State is capable of fudging
data at the level of every district and every state, and sustaining this façade for months is giving
it way too much credit. Conspiracies require enormous co-ordination and effort and it isn‟t
quite how things work in India. Given that you can check corona data at every ward level, it is
also impossible to fudge data, not to mention create a downwards curve that is moving in the
same direction in virtually every corner of India. In terms of testing, while a case might be
made for a lot of Indians not getting tested, it is also true that random testing has increased in
the last few months. Domestic flyers into Maharashtra from many states for instance, have to
get a COVID-19 test done irrespective of symptoms. If there was rampant corona, we would
see a spike in cases from just these flyers. It may be hard for people to accept this reality but
almost all evidence points to the fact India has flattened the corona curve, while the US, UK
and most of Europe still haven‟t. What is even more remarkable about India‟s achievement is
that it has managed to do this without draconian lockdowns (apart from the two months in
April-May 2020). In fact, cases have dropped even as India opened up more.
131. Which of the following strengthens the author‟s argument that India has tackled the
COVID-19 pandemic better than most advanced nations?
(A) India‟s positivity rate of COVID-19 cases and admissions in Indian hospitals are
reduced.
(B) India‟s counting of the number of COVID-19 cases is incorrect.
(C) India‟s testing facilities for COVID-19 cases are inadequate.
(D) India‟s classification of COVID-19 cases is inaccurate.
CORRECT OPTION: A
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132. Which of the following weakens the author‟s argument that India has tackled the COVID-
19 pandemic better than most advanced nations?
(A) India lacks the co-ordination and effort to execute conspiracies.
(B) Many Indians are possibly not getting tested.
(C) Evidence points to the fact India has flattened the corona curve.
(D) India has not imposed draconian lockdowns.
CORRECT OPTION: B
133. “To think that the Deep Indian State is capable of fudging data at the level of every district
and every state, and sustaining this façade for months is giving it way too much credit.”
In this statement, the author indicates that
(A) There are unauthorised networks of power operating independently of the Indian
state‟s political leadership in pursuit of their own agenda and goals.
(B) There are authorised networks of power operating independently of the Indian state‟s
political leadership in pursuit of their own agenda and goals.
(C) There may be unauthorised networks of power operating independently of the Indian
state‟s political leadership in pursuit of their own agenda and goals, but their
influence is questionable.
(D) There may be unauthorised networks of power operating independently of the Indian
state‟s political leadership in pursuit of their own agenda and goals, and their
influence is deep and pervasive.
CORRECT OPTION: C
(A) Developed nations are reluctant to learn from India‟s experience as Indian data is
doubtful.
(B) India does not get as much credit for tackling the COVID-19 pandemic.
(C) India is seen as a poor, third-world country.
(D) India is seen as untrustworthy and incapable of tackling the COVID-19 pandemic
independently.
CORRECT OPTION: A
(A) COVID-19 cases in India have reduced because of reduction in restrictions.
(B) COVID-19 cases in India have increased with reduction in restrictions.
(C) COVID-19 cases in India have reduced with increase in restrictions.
(D) COVID-19 cases in India have reduced despite the reduction in restrictions.
CORRECT OPTION: D
Two renowned international Software companies, namely Pollaris and Contigent, started their
business in the year 2007 and both the companies were in competition with each other in profit
making. Pollaris earned 30 per cent profit in the year 2007 and 2008, and further increased it
to 40 per cent in 2009. However, its profit percentage decreased to 20 per cent in the year 2010.
On the other hand, Contigent opened with 40 per cent profit in 2007, but slowly decreased to
35 per cent in 2008 and 30 per cent in 2009. Interestingly, both the companies increased their
Page 38 of 41
profit percentage in the later year considerably. Pollaris increased its profit percentage to 35
per cent in 2011 and 50 per cent in 2012; simultaneously, Contigent increased its profit
percentage to 45 per cent in 2010, 50 per cent in 2011 and reached 60 per cent in the year 2012.
As there is a need to understand the income and expenditure for the better performance of both
companies in the future, answer the following questions.
136. What is the increase in profit of Contigent Company in percentage from year 2011 to
2012?
(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 15%
(D) Cannot be determined.
CORRECT OPTION: B
137. What percentage of the total profit making of Pollaris Company in 2011 and 2012 is the
total profit making of Contigent Company in 2007 and 2008?
(A) 113.3%
(B) 95.3%
(C) 90.3%
(D) 133.3%
CORRECT OPTION: A
138. If the income of Contigent Company in 2008 was ₹ 200 crores, what was its profit in
2009?
(A) ₹ 21.5 Crore
(B) ₹ 46.15 Crore
(C) ₹ 153 Crore
CORRECT OPTION: D
139. What is the difference between the company with highest annual average profit percentage
and that of the company with lowest annual average profit percentage?
(A) 5.17
(B) 8.33
(C) 9.17
(D) 4.33
CORRECT OPTION: C
140. What is the percentage increase in profit of Pollaris Company from year 2010 to 2011?
(A) 42.86
(B) 75
(C) 175
CORRECT OPTION: B
A newly formed state government wants to bring more development in the state. Therefore, the
government proposed to launch various welfare programmes. Before bringing up any welfare
programme, the state government intended to understand the population percentage of the state
by age groups, so that the government could plan the welfare programmes accordingly. The
state government found that the state‟s 30 per cent of the population were children between the
age group of 0-15. Next to child population, 17.75 per cent of the population were adolescents
Page 39 of 41
between the age group of 16 and 25. The early adult population, i.e., the age groups 26 to 35
were 17.25 per cent, 36 to 45 were 14.50 per cent, respectively. The population who are
between the age group of 46 to 55 constitute 14.25 per cent and the elderly population of the
state, i.e., 56 to 65 (5.12%) and 66 above (1.13%) was comparatively less than the other age
groups. To get a better clarity, the state government concerned is seeking the answers to
following questions:
141. Out of every 5,600 persons, what is the number of persons below the age of 26 years?
(A) 2515
(B) 1746
(C) 1660
(D) 2674
CORRECT OPTION: D
142. There are 400 million people below 36 years. How many million (approx.) people are in
the age group 56-65?
(A) 32.72 million
(B) 25.75 million
(C) 31.50 million
(D) 59.30 million
CORRECT OPTION: C
143. If there are 20 million people in the age group 56 to 65, what is the difference between
the number of people in the age groups 16-25 and 46-55?
(A) 15.6 million
(B) 12.18 million
(C) 28.4 million
(D) 34.7 million
CORRECT OPTION: B
144. If the difference between the number of people in the age groups 46-55 and 26-35 is 15.75
million, then total population of the state is approximately?
(A) 360.23 million
(B) 390 million
(C) 400 million
(D) 525 million
CORRECT OPTION: D
145. Which age group accounts for the maximum population in the state?
(A) 16 to 25
(B) 26 to 35
(C) 36 to 45
CORRECT OPTION: D
COVID-19 pandemic turned life upside-down for many families across the world. Mr.
Abhishek was working as a sale executive in a famous Marketing Company. Due to COVID-
19 pandemic lockdown and restrictions, Mr. Abhishek was not able to achieve his monthly
targets which resulted in the reduction of his salary. So far, he spent his income lavishly without
any planning and prior calculations. However, the prevailing situation compelled him to plan
his expenditure to adjust his life to the present income. Therefore, he analysed his spendings
Page 40 of 41
of last year i.e., 2019, so that he can plan his present year 2020 spendings. Through his brief
analysis, he found that in the year 2019, he spent 23 per cent of his income on food, 15 per cent
on Housing, and 12 per cent on his child‟s education. For his transport, he spent 10 per cent,
and for clothing of his family he spent 10 per cent. In the meanwhile, Mr. Abishek also saved
15 per cent of his income in the year 2019, and the remaining 20 per cent of expenditure he
kept as other spendings. Answer the following questions to provide deeper insight to Mr.
Abhishek.
146. If the total amount spent during the year 2019 was ₹ 56,000, what was the amount spent
on food?
(A) ₹ 12,000
(B) ₹ 12,880
(C) ₹ 23,880
(D) ₹ 23,000
CORRECT OPTION: B
147. If the total amount spent was ₹ 56,000, how much money was spent on clothing and
housing together?
(A) ₹ 11,500
(B) ₹12,500
(C) ₹14,000
(D) ₹ 15,000
CORRECT OPTION: C
148. What was the ratio of the total amount of money spent on housing to that spent on
education?
(A) 5:2
(B) 2:5
(C) 4:5
(D) 5:4
CORRECT OPTION: D
149. If the total expenditure of the family for the year 2019 was ₹ 56,000, what was the amount
saved by the family during the year?
(A) ₹ 8,400
(B) ₹ 5,600
(C) ₹ 6,900
(D) ₹ 3,067
CORRECT OPTION: A
150. If the total amount spent during the year 2019 was ₹ 56,000, the amount spent on other
spendings and clothing together was higher than
(A) Housing and Child Education
(B) Food and Transport
(C) Food and Housing
(D) Housing and Saving
CORRECT OPTION: A
***
Page 41 of 41
COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST-2020 -UG
English
Climate change is considered to be one of the most serious threats to sustainable

development, with adverse impact on the environment, human health, food security,
economic activity, natural resources and physical infrastructure. According to the
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), the effects of climate change have
already been observed, and scientific findings indicate that precautionary and prompt action
is necessary. Vulnerability to climate change is not just a function of geography or
dependence on natural resources; it also has social, economic and political dimensions which
influence how climate change affects different groups. Poor people rarely have insurance to
cover loss of property due to natural calamines i.e. drought, floods, super cyclones etc. The
poor communities are already struggling to cope with the existing challenges of poverty and
climate variability and climate change could push many beyond their ability to cope or even
survive. It is vital that these communities are helped to adapt to the changing dynamics of
nature. Adaptation is a process through which societies make themselves better able to cope
with an uncertain future. Adapting to climate change entails taking the right measures to
reduce the negative effect of climate change (or exploit the positive ones) by making the
appropriate adjustments and changes. These range from technological options such as
increased sea defences or flood proof houses on stilts to behavioural change at the individual
level, such as reducing water use in times of drought. Other strategies include early warning
systems for extreme events, better water management, improved risk management, various
insurance options and biodiversity conservation. Because of the speed at which climate
change is happening due to global temperature rise, it is urgent that the vulnerability of
developing countries to climate change is reduced and their capacity to adapt is increased and
national adaptation plans are implemented. Communities must build their resilience,
including adopting appropriate technologies while making the most of traditional knowledge,
and diversifying their livelihoods to cope with current and future climate stress. Local coping
strategies and knowledge need to be used in synergy with government and local
interventions. The need of adaptation interventions depends on national circumstances. There
is a large body of knowledge and experience within local communities on coping with
climatic variability and extreme weather events. Local communities have always aimed to
adapt to variations in their climate. Local coping strategies are an important element of
planning for adaptation. Traditional knowledge can help to provide efficient, appropriate and
time tested ways of advising and enabling adaptation to climate change in communities who
are feeling the effects of climate changes due to global warming.
1. To address the challenge of Climate Change, Developing countries urgently require:
(a) Implementation of National Adaptation Plans

(b) Adoption of short term plans
(c) Adoption of technological solutions
(d) Imposition of Climate Change tax
CORRECT ANSWER : OPTION A
Page 1 of 46
2. Given below are the factors of vulnerability of poor people to climate changes. Select the
option that contains the correct answer.
(1) Their dependence on natural resources
(2) Geographical attributes
(3) Lack of financial resources
(4) Lack of Traditional knowledge
Codes:
(a) (2), (3) and (4)
(b) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
(c) (3) only
(d) (1), (2) and (3)
CORRECT ANSWER : OPTION D
3. Which of the following is against the idea portrayed in the passage?

(a) Co-ordination between regional and national efforts is necessary.
(b) The process of Adaptation to climate change does not take into account the factor of
prevailing national circumstances.
(c) Social dimensions of climate change also need to be appreciated.
(d) Combining Traditional Knowledge with appropriate technology is the need of the hour.
CORRECT ANSWER : OPTION B
4. The Traditional Knowledge should be used through

(a) Improvement in national circumstances
(b) Synergy between Government and local interventions
(c) Imposition of Climate Change Tax.
(d) Its dissemination
5. What is the meaning of the word ‗Resilience‘ occurring in the passage?

a) Toughness
b) Fragility
c) Flexibility
d) Vulnerability
CORRECT ANSWER : OPTION C
The uncovering of a private Instagram group styling itself ‗Bois Locker Room‘ featuring
students from some prominent South Delhi schools discussing their female classmates in
disturbingly violent ways including plans of sexual assault is a wakeup call for parents and
authorities. The group formed last month or so kicked up a social media storm when
screenshots surfaced. Police have questioned a 15 year old boy to identify other members.
Similar incidents involving minors discussing rape/ gang rape of classmates have been
reported on other digital platforms like WhatsApp too, across cities. The exchanges in the
now deleted group require precise responses from police, parents and school authorities
around whom the fates of the juveniles involved now revolve. It is important to recognise
where a teenager spouting objectification of his female counterparts is coming from. People
of all ages, not just children, are retreating deeper into the recesses of their online avatars
Page 2 of 46
during this lockdown. But the heavy technological investment in children‘s education,
including flooding them with personal smartphones, has not been matched by serious
conversations centred on responsible internet usage and equality. Young, impressionable
minds absorb the normalisation of rape from the adults around them. When what they see,
read and hear is toxic masculinity, that is what they perform. That‘s what peer pressure
becomes about. But if this youthful role play of macho dominance receives timely
counselling, it can prevent far graver adult offences. Schools and parents have a critical role
to play in educating children on gender equality. Digital platforms which claim to have zero
tolerance towards content that violates community standards must also explain why such
abuses go undetected, despite boasts about Artificial Intelligence-driven technologies to stop
them. They should play a more proactive role in stopping the sexual harassment of real
people in the guise of virtual sport.
[Editorial Published in Times of India, dated 6 May, 2020]
6. What is the Central Idea being conveyed by the Author in the passage above?
a) Modern Social Networking platforms must take the lead in regulating young people from
using these platforms for sexual abuse.
b) It is significant to educate children and youngsters about gender equality.
c) Digital Platforms need to have a zero tolerance policy towards content leading to sexual
abuse.
d) None of the above.
7. As per author, why is this incident a wake-up call for parents?

a) Because even the parents are indulged heavily in social networking platforms.
b) Because parents have failed to stop their children from committing such blunders.
c) Because it is the primary responsibility of parents to control their children.
d) Because the parents have failed in educating their children regarding fair internet usage
and have simply invested in the technology driven education of their children.
8. According to the author, in order to understand the root cause of such insensitive incidents,
it is important to:
a) Understand and examine the kind of socialisation process these children are exposed to.
b) Adopt Artificial Intelligence driven technologies.
c) Strengthen the environment of discipline in schools and colleges.
d) All of the above.
9. On the basis of your reading of the passage, which of the following statements can be
inferred?
a) Sexual Offenses can be reduced by timely counselling from parental and quasi-parental
authorities i.e., parents and teachers respectively.
b) If digital platforms implement a Zero Tolerance Policy towards such a menace, sexual
offenses can be completely stopped.
c) Investment in education of children is enough to curb the menace.
Page 3 of 46
10. Which of the following words are synonymous with the word ‗Spouting‘?
a) Pouring
b) Streaming
c) Erupting
d) All of the Above.
The snow was falling, and the Cat's fur was stiffly pointed with it, but he was imperturbable.
He sat crouched, ready for the death-spring, as he had sat for hours. It was night but that
made no difference, all times were as one to the Cat when he was in wait for prey. Then, too,
he was under no constraint of human will, for he was living alone that winter. Nowhere in the
world was any voice calling him; on no hearth was there a waiting dish. He was quite free
except for his own desires, which tyrannized over him when unsatisfied as now. The Cat was
very hungry. almost famished, in fact. For days the weather had been very bitter...and the
Cat's long hunt had availed him nothing. But he waited with the inconceivable patience and
persistency of his race; besides, he was certain. The Cat was a creature of absolute
convictions, and his faith in his deductions never wavered. The rabbit had gone in there
between those low-hung pine boughs. The Cat had seen her enter...so he sat down and
waited, and he waited still in the white night, listening angrily to the north wind starting in
the upper heights of the mountains with distant screams, then swelling into an awful
crescendo of rage, and swooping down with furious white wings of snow like a flock of
fierce eagles into the valleys and ravines. The Cat was on the side of a mountain, on a
wooded terrace. Above him, a few feet away towered the rock ascent as steep as the wall of a
cathedral. He had often looked with wonder at the rock, and miauled bitterly and resentfully
as man does in the face of a forbidding Providence. At his left was the sheer precipice.
Behind him...was the frozen perpendicular wall of a mountain stream. Before him was the
way to his home. When the rabbit came out she was trapped; her little cloven feet could not
scale such unbroken steeps. So the Cat waited. The tangle of trees and bushes clinging to the
mountain-side with a stern clutch of roots, the prostrate trunks and branches, the vines
embracing everything with strong knots and coils of growth, had a curious effect, as of things
which had whirled for ages in a current of raging water, only it was not water, but wind,
which had disposed everything in circling lines of yielding to its fiercest points of onset. It
was as if ice needles pricked his skin through his beautiful thick fur, but he never faltered and
never once cried. He had nothing to gain from crying, and everything to lose; the rabbit
would hear him cry and know he was waiting.
[Excerpts from a Short story, „The Cat‟ by Mary E. Wilkins Freeman]
11. Which of the following suggests a synonymous meaning to the words ‗Providence‘ and
‗Crescendo‘ respectively?
a) Nemesis, Apex
b) Zenith, Nadir
c) Laxity, Prudence
d) Short-sightedness, Upsurge
Page 4 of 46
12. The passage has been adorned with numerous figure of speeches. Which of the following
combinations is correct?
a) Irony and Sarcasm
b) Alliteration and Pun
c) Simile and Personification
d) Metaphor and Onomatopoeia
13. The passage best demonstrates which one of the following motifs of Cat‘s Life?
a) To satisfy the pangs of hunger
b) To survive the harsh winters
c) A never ending wait
d) To hunt for Rabbit
14. The Author‘s description of ―...he was under no constraint of human will, for he was
living alone...‖ implies:
a) Cat‘s absolute freedom from everything
b) Cat‘s no association with human beings
c) Cat‘s loneliness
d) Cat‘s tyrannical demeanour
15. The lines, ―...but he never faltered and never once cried. He had nothing to gain from
crying, and everything to lose...‖, suggest that the Cat is:
a) Reflective
b) Apologetic
c) Resilient
d) Frustrated
I am losing my interest in human beings; in the significance of their lives and their actions.
Someone has said it is better to study one man than ten books. I want neither books nor men;
they make me suffer. Can one of them talk to me like the night – the Summer night? Like the
stars or the caressing wind?
The night came slowly, softly, as I lay out there under the maple tree. It came creeping,
creeping stealthily out of the valley, thinking I did not notice. And the outlines of trees and
foliage nearby blended in one black mass and the night came stealing out from them, too, and
from the east and west, until the only light was in the sky, filtering through the maple leaves
and a star looking down through every cranny.
The night is solemn and it means mystery.
Human shapes flitted by like intangible things. Some stole up like little mice to peep at me. I
did not mind. My whole being was abandoned to the soothing and penetrating charm of the
night. The katydids began their slumber song: they are at it yet. How wise they are. They do
not chatter like people. They tell me only: ―sleep, sleep, sleep.‖ The wind rippled the maple
leaves like little warm love thrills. Why do fools cumber the Earth! It was a man‘s voice that
broke the necromancer‘s spell. A man came today with his ―Bible Class.‖ He is detestable
with his red cheeks and bold eyes and coarse manner and speech. What does he know of
Page 5 of 46
Christ? Shall I ask a young fool who was born yesterday and will die tomorrow to tell me
things of Christ? I would rather ask the stars: they have seen him.
[Short Story by Kate Chopin]
16. Why has the author lost interest in human beings?

a) Because they make the author suffer.
b) Because the human beings do not bring with them the warmth and the comfort which
comes naturally with the night, starts and the wind.
c) Because human beings are not mysterious.
17. The author has compared the night with:

a) The Katydids
b) The Necromancer‘s spell
c) Stars
18. Why has the author called the ‗katydids‘ wise?

a) Because they sing a slumber song.
b) Because they tell the author to only ‗sleep‘.
c) Because they do not indulge in unnecessary and unimportant talks.
d) Because they are not fools.
19. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

a) Being close to nature can bring one closer to God.
b) Nature is just a mystery.
c) Books and Man are both detestable.
d) None of these.
20. Which of the following words from the passage mean ‗rough‘?
a) Solemn
b) Caressing
c) Coarse
d) Slumber
It was the strangest murder trial I ever attended, where the old woman was found battered to
death. He was a heavy stout man with bulging bloodshot eyes. All his muscles seemed to be
in his thighs. The clock had just struck two in the morning. Mrs Salmon in 15 Northwood
Street had been unable to sleep: she heard a door click shut and thought it was her own gate.
So she went to the window and saw Adams (that was his name) on the steps of Mrs Parker's
house. He had just come out and he was wearing gloves. He had a hammer in his hand and
she saw him drop it into the laurel bushes by the front gate. But before he moved away, he
had looked up at her window. The fatal instinct that tells a man when he is watched exposed
Page 6 of 46
him in the light of a streetlamp to her gaze-his eyes suffused with horrifying and brutal fear,
like an animal's when you raise a whip.
Mrs Salmon was called in the Court.
Ànd do you see the man here in court?'
[She looked straight at the big man in the dock, who stared hard at her with his Pekingese
eyes without emotion.]
`Yes,' she said, `there he is.'
`You are quite certain?'
She said simply, Ì couldn't be mistaken, sir.'
`Thank you, Mrs Salmon.'
[Counsel for the defence rose to cross-examine.]
`Now, Mrs Salmon, you must remember that a man's life may depend on your evidence.'
Ì do remember it, sir.'
Ìs your eyesight good?'
Ì have never had to wear spectacles, sir.'
`You are a woman of fifty-five?'
`Fifty-six, sir.'
Ànd the man you saw was on the other side of the road?'
`Yes, sir.'
Ànd it was two o'clock in the morning. You must have remarkable eyes, Mrs Salmon?'
`No, sir. There was moonlight, and when the man looked up, he had the lamplight on his
face.'
Ànd you have no doubt whatever that the man you saw is the prisoner?'
`None whatever, sir. It isn't a face one forgets.'
Then he said, `Do you mind, Mrs Salmon, examining again the people in court?
No, not the prisoner. Stand up, please, Mr Adams!
And there at the back of the court with thick stout body and muscular legs and a pair of
bulging eyes, was the exact image of the man in the dock.
`Now think very carefully, Mrs Salmon. Can you still swear that the man you saw drop the
hammer in Mrs Parker's garden was the prisoner and not this man, who is his twin brother?'
Of course she couldn't.
[Excerpts from „The Case for the Defence‟ by Graham Greene]
21. Why do you think, has the Author called the trial, ‗strangest‘ murder trial he ever
attended?
a) Because the accused had a very strange personality.
b) Because, despite having a potential witness and evidence against the accused, his wrong
could not be proved.
c) Because, Mrs. Salmon‘s evidence could not be proved before the Court.
d) None of these.
22. ―…his eyes suffused with horrifying and brutal fear, like an animal's when you raise a
whip.‖ can be called as:
a) Personification
b) Simile
c) Onomatopoeia
d) None of the above
Page 7 of 46
23. The expression ‗Pekingese eyes‟ used in the passage refers to which of the following?
a) Bulging eyes
b) Red eyes
c) Small eyes
d) None of them
24. Why was Mrs. Salmon convinced that the man she saw had committed the crime?
a) Because she saw the man on the steps of Mrs. Parker‘s House and he was wearing gloves.
b) Because he had a hammer in his hand and she saw him drop it into the laurel bushes by the
front gate.
c) Because when he looked up at her window, his eyes were suffused with horrifying and
brutal fear.
d) Because she had seen him clearly in the light of street lamp.
25. Who was murdered in the scene described in the passage?

a) Mrs. Wheeler
b) Mrs. Parker
c) Mrs. Salmon
d) It cannot be inferred.
The world has very few devices left to fight COVID-19 with, but technology remains one of
them. Whether it is employing the state-of-the-art technology in the discovery of cures or
vaccines, or traditional technology services to enhance health care and consultations, or even
tools that keep people at home occupied/productive, it is clear that technology will serve
humanity at one of its darkest moments. The pandemic has contributed, in no small measure,
to the understanding of the myriad ways in which available technologies have not been put to
better use, and presented people with multiple opportunities to harness these devices,
techniques and methods to get on with life in the time of lockdown. Among the primary uses
is telemedicine, rendered inexorable now, by the temporary paralysis brought on by a freeze
on movement. The Centre‘s recent guidelines allowing for widespread use of telemedicine
services came as a shot in the arm for telehealth crusaders in the country, among them the
Telemedicine Society of India that has long been battling to use the technology in its
complete arc to reach remote areas in India. This move finds consonance with the rest of the
world where several nations, also deeply impacted by the pandemic, have deployed
telemedicine to reach people who have been unable to come to hospital, to reduce footfalls in
hospitals, and to even provide medical and mental health counselling to countless people. It
was way back in 2000 that telemedicine was first employed in India, but the progress has
been excruciatingly slow, until the pandemic. However, it does seem as if the medical
community was only held back by the lack of legislation to enable tele consultations. For no
sooner was the policy announced, than hospitals and clinicians hurried to jump onto the
bandwagon, advertising contact information for patients. The advantages are peculiar in the
current context, when putting distance between people is paramount, as tele consultations are
not barred even when health care professionals and patients may have to be quarantined. The
advancement of telecommunication capabilities over the years has made the transmission of
images and sound files (heart and lung sounds, coughs) faster and simpler. Pilot telemedicine
Page 8 of 46
experiments in ophthalmology and psychiatry have proven to be of immense benefit to the
communities. Telemedicine‘s time is here, finally. While unleashing the full potential of
telemedicine to help people, experts and government agencies must be mindful of the
possible inadequacies of the medium, and securing sensitive medical information; such
cognisance should guide the use of the technology.
[From an Editorial published in „The Hindu‟ on April 17, 2020]
26. Which one of the following words from the passage means ‗unavoidable‘?
a) Inexorable
b) Myriad
c) Excruciatingly
d) Bandwagon
27. Which of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
a) It is time to unleash the full potential of Telemedicine.
b) It is time to unleash the full potential of Telemedicine with cognisance of its possible
flaws.
c) Technology has not been utilised to its fullest to suit the current needs.
d) People should not be skeptical about the advantages of telemedicine.
28. Which of the following is a significant factor contributing in slow employment of

Telemedicine in India?
a) Telemedicine was never employed in India.
b) There was an absence of regulations regarding the use of telemedicine consultations and
medication systems.
c) Telemedicinal Society of India failed in its efforts to promote the importance of such a
system in the country.
29. Telecommunication based medication has the potential for an easy outreach because:
a) Pilot experiments in telemedicine have been proved to be successful.
b) It helps in easier communication of medical images from one place to another.
c) It helps in securing sensitive medical information.
30. What is the meaning of the expression ‗Shot in the arm‘ used in the passage?
a) Hitting the nail on its head.
b) Bull‘s Eye
c) Positive Impact on something
Page 9 of 46
Current Affairs including GK
Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Saturday said major global firms are looking at India as a
major investment destination, which is reflected by a robust inflow of Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI) last financial year, and through ‗Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan‘ (Self-
Reliant India initiative) the country is shifting its focus from ‗Make in India‘ to ‗Make for
world‘. He said Independent India should be ―vocal for local‖ and asked citizens to glorify
Indian products to promote ‗Atmanirbhar Bharat‘. Unveiling his vision of a Self-Reliant
India, the Prime Minister said that the government has unveiled over Rs 110 lakh crore
National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) to boost the economy and create jobs. ―In order to
rapidly modernise India, there is a need to give a new direction to overall infrastructure
development,‖ he said, adding that over 7,000 projects under NIP have been already
identified. ―This will be, in a way, a new revolution in the field of infrastructure. This is the
time to end silos in infrastructure. There is a plan to connect the entire country with multi-
model connectivity infrastructure,‖ he said. NIP will play a crucial role in overcoming the
adverse impact of Covid-19 on the economy and catapult the economy in a higher growth
trajectory, he said. The government on December 31 last year unveiled the NIP with an aim
to make India a $5 trillion economy by 2024-25. The focus of the infrastructure pipeline is to
accelerate growth and create employment in both urban and rural areas.
Source: Excerpt from Hindustan Times, written by Rajeev Jayaswal. (Dated 15 th August,
2020)
31. The Government announced a stimulus package under the Self Reliant India Scheme for
the amount of _____________.
(a) 2 trillion
(b) 20 trillion
(c) 5 trillion
(d) 100 trillion
32. Which of the following is not a goal of the stimulus package announced under the
―Atmanirbhar‖ India?
(a) It will help in alleviating the distress of migrants when they return to their villages.
(b) It will help in achieving the goal of a self-sustainable rural economy.
(c) It would boost the One Nation One Market objective and help India to become the food
factory of the world.
(d) It will help in elevating quality of life in urban areas.
33. Which of the following events can be seen as the stepping stone for the growth of the
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India?
(a) The launch of ‗Make in India‘ initiative in 2014.
(b) The Economic liberalisation in the year 1991.
(c) The Amendment in the FDI policy to increase the upper cap from 26% to 49%.
(d) All of the above.
Page 10 of 46
34. Which of the following is not related to the ―Vocal for Local‖ initiative of the Indian
Government?
(a) Rebooting the MSMEs especially the Khadi and village industries.
(b) Generating new opportunities of employment at the local level.
(c) Creating new economic hubs through disinvestment and FDIs.
(d) Promoting the indigenous manufacture and support through financial aid.
35. Under the National Infrastructure Pipeline, the Government plans to invest more than Rs.
102 lakh crore on infrastructure projects by 2024-25, with the Centre, States and the
private sector to share the capital expenditure. What is the ratio of such expenditure by
each of the stake holders?
(a) 50:25:25
(b) 40:40:20
(c) 39:39:22
(d) 34:33:33
The central bank doesn‘t disclose its foreign exchange management strategy, but it was
evident in the last few years that the rupee was not allowed to appreciate despite healthy
inflows, resulting in a rapid build-up of foreign exchange. From a low of $275 billion in
September of 2013, when rupee came under severe pressure due to so-called ‗taper tantrums‘
by the US Federal Reserve, India now has record foreign exchange reserves of [1] billion, as
on 21 August — a 95 per cent rise over seven years. Despite the Covid-19 pandemic, the
foreign exchange kitty swelled by $62 billion since March. In this seven-year period, rupee
ended the year with an appreciation against the dollar only once — in 2017. This year, the
rupee is so far down by 2.04 per cent against the dollar. The latest RBI statement suggested
that it is not uncomfortable with the appreciation in rupee, confirming the speculation among
currency analysts that a departure was made in the exchange management policy.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) said that it will conduct liquidity operations worth Rs
20,000 crore in two tranches through sale and purchase of government securities (G-Secs).
The two open market operations (OMOs) of Rs 10,000 crore each will be conducted on
September 10 and 17, the central bank said in an official release. This is now the second such
announcement in as many weeks. Last week, RBI had announced sale and purchase of G-
Secs worth Rs 20,000 crore, in two tranches, slated to be conducted on August 27 and
September 3. In another move, RBI announced the infusion of Rs 1 lakh crore in mid-
September through long-term repo operations (LTROs) at floating rates, or the prevailing
repo rate. Moreover, the central bank also gave an option to lenders who have earlier availed
funds through LTROs, to reverse their transactions before maturity.
Source: Excerpt taken from the Print.in, written by Manojit Saha. (Dated 2nd September,
2020.)
36. Which of the following has been replaced by [1] in the above passage?
(a) $ 537
(b) $ 498
Page 11 of 46
(c) $ 502
(d) $ 756
37. Which of the following economic policies have been recently used by the RBI to boost
the economy during the current Pandemic situation?
(a) FOREX SWAP
(b) LTROs (Long Term Repo Operations)
(c) OMOs (Open Market Operations)
38. Which of the following statements relate to the Long Term Repo Operations as measure
to support the economy in corona pandemic situations?
(a) It is a measure that is expected to bring down short-term rates and also boost investment
in corporate bonds.
(b) It would encourage banks to undertake maturity transformation smoothly and seamlessly
so as to augment credit flows to productive sectors.
(c) It will enhance liquidity in the banking system by Rs 1 trillion.
39. Which of the following will be used as a platform for core banking solutions to
implement the LTRO?
(a) E-cartel
(b) E-kuber
(c) E-CBS
(d) E-RBICBS
40. What is the notified amount of sum offered by the RBI under measures of the Foreign
Exchange Swap?
(a) $ 5 billion
(b) $ 16.71 billion
(c) $ 16.21 billion
(d) $ 5.02 billion
The first batch of five Rafale jets flew out of France on July 25 and will arrive in India on
Wednesday, July 29, when the fighter jets will officially be inducted and join the Indian Air
Force fleet in Haryana's Ambala. The fighter jets, built by French aviation firm [1], took off
from the Merignac airbase in southern France's Bordeaux today and landed safely at Al
Dhafra airbase in the UAE after a sortie of more than seven hours. The five aircraft will be
Page 12 of 46
the first tranche of the 36 planes bought by India from France in a Rs. 59,000-crore inter-
governmental deal in 2016. ―Delivery of ten aircraft has been completed on schedule. Five
will stay back in France for training Mission. The delivery of all thirty six aircraft will be
completed on schedule by the end of 2021,‖ the Indian embassy in France said in a statement.
The Rafale fighter jets are capable of carrying a range of highly effective weapons, including
the Meteor air-to-air missile and Scalp cruise missile. The Rafale jets will come with various
India-specific modifications, including Israeli helmet-mounted displays, radar warning
receivers, low-band jammers, 10-hour flight data recording, infra-red search and tracking
systems among others. The Air Force has readied the required infrastructure to welcome the
jets in its line-up.
Source: Excerpt taken from the NDTV, Reported by Vishnu Som, Edited by Shylaja Varma.
(Dated – 27th July, 2020)
41. The Rafale deal between India and France is seen to carry great strategic significance.
Which of the following is directly impacted by this deal?
(a) The Joint Strategic Vision of India-France Cooperation in the Indian Ocean Region.
(b) The one belt one road mission of the China.
(c) The Chinese initiative to build a new Silk route.
(d) The trade route of the Middle East.
42. The Indian Air Force is also in the process of procuring a new generation medium-range
modular air-to-ground weapon system Hammer to integrate with the Rafale jets. What
does the term Hammer stands for?
(a) Highly Advanced Modular Mutation Extended Range.
(b) Highly Agile Modular Munition Extended Range.
(c) Highly Advanced Modular Mitigation Extended Rafale.
(d) Highly Agile Modular Munition Extended Rafale.
43. Which of the following has been replaced by [1] in the passage?
(a) LAMSCO
(b) LUAD Defence France
(c) DASSAULT
(d) BORESCOPE
44. Which of the following indigenous organisations is responsible for the design, assembly
and fabrication of combat aircrafts in India?
(a) DRDO
(b) HAL
(c) DRAI
(d) ISRO
Page 13 of 46
45. Which of the following organisations/institutions is a major offset partner of India in the
Rafale Deal?
(a) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited

(b) Reliance Defence Limited
(c) Reliance Naval and Engineering Limited
(d) Pipavav Defence
On May 8, India‘s Defence Minister virtually inaugurated a new 80 km-long road in the
Himalayas, connecting to the border with China, at the Lipulekh pass. The Nepali
government protested immediately, contending that the road crosses territory that it claims
and accusing India of changing the status quo without diplomatic consultations. Among the
many escalatory moves since then, Nepal deployed police forces to the region, summoned the
Indian ambassador in Kathmandu, and initiated a constitutional amendment to formalise and
extend its territorial claims over approximately 400 sq km. India, on the other hand, has
conveyed its openness to a dialogue but does not seem to share Nepal‘s sense of urgency: its
initial statement agreed to a dialogue, but only after the COVID-19 crisis. India has been in
effective possession of this territory for at least sixty years, although Nepal claims it
conducted a census there in the early 1950s and refers to the 1815 Sugauli Treaty as
legitimising its claims. But India‘s new road, up to the Lipulekh pass, is not an unprecedented
change in the status quo. India has controlled this territory and built other infrastructure here
before, besides conducting its administration and deploying military forces up to the border
pass with China. The region is of strategic importance, and the new road is now one of the
quickest links between Delhi and the Tibetan plateau. In a 2015 statement, China also
recognised India‘s sovereignty by agreeing to expand trade through the Lipulekh pass.
Source: Excerpt from the brookings.edu, written by Dr. Constantino Xavier. (Dated- 11th
June, 2020)
46. Which of the following incidents can be seen as the direct cause of the border dispute
between India and Nepal?
(a) The Defence Minister inaugurated a motor-able link road that connects India and China.
(b) The 2015 agreement between India and China for using the Lipulekh pass for trade.
(c) India published a new map which showed the region of Kalapani as part of the Indian
Territory.
47. The confusion between Nepal and India consists of a dispute over a trijunture of
____________.
(a) Kali – Susta – Ganga.
(b) Kalapani – Saraswati – Ganga.
(c) Kalapani – Limpiyadhura – Lipulekh.
(d) Kalapani – Limpiyadhura – Kali.
Page 14 of 46
48. The treaty of Sugauli was signed between which of the following pairs?
(a) India and Nepal
(b) United kingdom, India and Nepal
(c) India, China and Nepal.
(d) East India Company and Nepal
49. Recently Nepal has issued a map claiming Lipulekh pass as part of its territory included
in the district of:
(a) Kailali
(b) Darchula
(c) Dipayal
(d) Doti
50. Which of the following rivers is called as Narayani River in Nepal?

(a) Bramhaputra
(b) Gandak
(c) Ganga
(d) Kali
One thing struck us as a major difference between the new National Education Policy (NEP)
2020 and its predecessor. The earlier national policies on education (NPE) from 1986 and
1992 presented themselves as attempts to consolidate and build on earlier efforts, particularly
the NPE, 1968. The new NEP 2020 policy, on the other hand, is very keen to establish that it
is different from everything in the past, including in its name. Nowhere does this attitude
come across as starkly as it does in the section on higher education.
It comes across fairly clearly on how the higher education ecosystem will be by 2040. By this
time — if the policy has its way — the Indian higher education ecosystem will be populated
with higher education institutions (HEI). These will comprise Universities and Colleges and
the public and private sectors, all of which will be ‗multi-disciplinary‘, with each populated
by more than 3,000 students, with at least one ―in or near every district‖. Universities will
conduct research and post-graduate and under-graduate teaching, some research-intensive
and others teaching-intensive. Colleges will largely teach at the under-graduate level, with a
number of them having their medium of instruction in either bilingual or local / Indian
languages. The colleges can manifest in clusters around universities as constituent colleges or
may be standalone autonomous ones. Ideally, all HEIs will eventually become ―independent
self-governing institutions‖ with considerable ―faculty and institutional autonomy‖. They will
have complied with a series of regulatory exercises that are ―light-but-tight‖ and will be
operated by a large number of private accreditors, overseen by a new set of regulatory
institutions at the national level.
Source: Excerpt taken from downtoearth.org.in, written by Nitin Mehta & Gagan Mehta.
(Dated 14th August, 2020)
Page 15 of 46
51. Which of the following statements are not true in relation to the changes envisioned by
the NEP 2020?
(a) The NEP 2020 aims at making India a global knowledge superpower.
(b) The renaming of the Ministry of Human Resource Development to the Ministry of
Education.
(c) The development of National Course Curriculum to provide new curriculum by 2021.
(d) The New Education Policy aims to facilitate an inclusive, participatory and holistic
approach
52. The NEP 2020 aims to provide a holistic change to the current education system in India.
Which of the following is not related to the aim of NEP 2020?
(a) Universalization of education from preschool to secondary level with 100% Gross
Enrolment Ratio.
(b) To bring 20 million out of school children back into the mainstream through an open
schooling system.
(c) Vocational Education to start from Class 6 with Internships.
(d) To achieve 80% Gross Enrolment Ratio at the under graduate level.
53. Which of the following is proposed as a change in the structure of institutions responsible
for affiliation and accreditation under the NEP 2020?
(a) Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) will be set up as a single umbrella body
for the entire higher education.
(b) University Grant Commission to be renamed as AICTE.
(c) National Affiliation and Accreditation Council to be renamed as National Standard
Council of India.
(d) National Council for Education Research and Teaching to be renamed as BCERT.
54. Which of the following is not a vertical under the Higher Education Commission of India
(HECI)?
(a) National Higher Education Regulatory Council (NHERC)
(b) Higher Education Grants Council (HEGC)
(c) National Educational Council (NEC)
(d) National Accreditation Council (NAC)
55. What is the proposed percentage of expenditure for education out of GDP under the NEP
2020?
(a) 11 percent
(b) 6 percent
(c) 4.6 percent
(d) 9 percent
Page 16 of 46
Days after India-Pakistan tensions spilled over into a meeting of the Shanghai Cooperation
Organisation (SCO), External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar and Pakistan Foreign Minister
Shah Mehmood Qureshi are expected to meet via a video conference at the South Asian
Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) meeting on September 24. ―All member
countries have confirmed participation in the meeting, to be chaired by Pradeep Kumar
Gyawali, [1] of Nepal. The respective Foreign Ministers will take part,‖ sources familiar with
preparations for the meeting told The Hindu, referring to the eight members of SAARC,
including [2], Bangladesh, [3], India, [4], Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. A senior Indian
official also confirmed that Mr. Jaishankar will attend despite the incident at the SCO virtual
meeting of National Security Advisors on Tuesday. During that meeting, National Security
Advisor Ajit Doval stormed out after he saw that the Pakistan Special Advisor on National
Security Moeed Yusuf had used a map of Pakistan that claimed Indian Territory.
―This was in blatant disregard to the advisory by the host [5] against it and in violation of the
norms of the meeting. After consultation with the host, the Indian side left the meeting in
protest at that juncture,‖ the MEA had said about the incident. When asked, the sources said
that no specific guidelines on background or maps have been issued by the SAARC
Secretariat in Kathmandu that is also the Chair of the SAARC at present, but they hope it
would go ―smoothly‖. A meeting of SAARC Finance Ministers, where an Additional
Secretary represented India instead of Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, and Pakistan
was represented by its Special Advisor on Finance, took place on Wednesday without
incident.
Source: Excerpt taken from The Hindu, written by Suhasini Haider. (Dated 17th September,
2020.)
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Minister of Finance
(c) Minister of External Affairs
(d) Minister of Home Affairs
57. Which of the following Nations is part of the South Asian Association for Regional
Cooperation?
(a) Indonesia
(b) Thailand
(c) Myanmar
(d) Maldives
(a) Russia
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) Pakistan
Page 17 of 46
59. India had not agreed to attend a summit hosted in Pakistan, but it remains an important
promoter of the SAARC process. In which of the following years the SAARC leaders‘
summit was held lately?
(a) 2018
(b) 2014
(c) 2016
(d) 2019
60. The above passage mentions about Pakistan‘s Special Advisor on National Security
Moeed Yusuf using a map of Pakistan claiming Indian Territory. Which of the following
territory is in context here?
(a) Junagadh
(b) Aksai Chin
(c) Pangong Tso
(d) Limpiyadhura
In the middle of a pandemic, the geopolitics of the world‘s most troubled region took a
historic turn this week, when the UAE and Israel, under the benevolent gaze of US President
Donald Trump, signed an agreement to ―normalise‖ relations. The deal opens up new
opportunities for India to play a much larger role in the regional security and stability in the
Gulf, where New Delhi enjoys special relations with both Abu Dhabi and Jerusalem. The
barebones of the deal envisages establishing regular diplomatic relations between the UAE,
the rising influential power in the Gulf, and Israel, the ―Incredible Hulk‖ of the region, but a
country officially not on speaking terms with most of its Arab neighbours. In his first tweet,
Crown Prince Mohammed bin Zayed said: ‗During a call with President Trump and Prime
Minister Netanyahu, an agreement was reached to stop further Israeli annexation of
Palestinian territories. The UAE and Israel also agreed to cooperation and setting a roadmap
towards establishing a bilateral relationship.‖ In return, Israel agreed to ―suspend‖ its
annexation plans for West Bank that would have been deeply destabilising. Benjamin
Netanyahu gets a diplomatic victory, which may be short-lived, given the nature of Israeli
politics. But Israel gets a diplomatic and economic opening with the big power in the Gulf
that could open other doors, give its security interests legitimacy and, perhaps, open the door
to Middle East peace.
Many of the other Arab powers, such as Oman, Bahrain, Egypt and Jordan, apart from the big
global powers, and India, have welcomed the deal. Iran has slammed it, as have Turkey and
Syria. Saudi Arabia has been very quiet. Given the close ties between Mohammed bin Zayed
and Mohammed bin Salman, it is unthinkable that KSA was not consulted, particularly when
the US is the third pole in this agreement. The deal gives UAE pole position as the premier
Gulf Arab power, with diplomatic leverage with Israel and the US. ―This deal is about
positioning in Washington, DC,‖ said James Dorsey, Gulf and Middle East expert.
Source: Excerpt from the Economic Times, written by Indrani Bagchi. (Dated – 16th August,
2020)
Page 18 of 46
61. The US is seen as a major role player in the peace deal between Israel and UAE. Which
of the following is not a reason for the involvement of US in the deal?
(a) The deal grants a diplomatic win to the US President Donald Trump ahead of the
Presidential election.
(b) The efforts of the USA to bring the war in Afghanistan to an end have not been a success
yet.
(c) The efforts of USA to bring peace between Israel and the Palestinians have not been
successful yet.
(d) The deal gives a central strategic rule to USA in the Middle East.
62. Which of the following is true in relation to the stake of Palestine in the peace deal
between UAE and Israel?
(a) Israel has recognised Palestine as an Independent Nation.
(b) This can be an opportunity for the Palestine to establish diplomatic relations with Israel.
(c) The deal marks both a win and setback to the Israel-Palestine relations.
(d) A peace treaty would also be signed between Israel and Palestine.
63. Which of the following is not a direct impact of the peace deal in the Middle East region?
(a) The deal smoothens the UAE‘s international campaign to be seen as a beacon of
tolerance in the Middle East.
(b) It puts the UAE as leader in a regional power dynamics among neighbouring Gulf Arab
states.
(c) The deal gives Netanyahu a domestic boost at a time when Israel‘s coalition government
is in crisis due to coalition compulsions.
(d) The deal marks a historic day and a significant step towards peace in the Middle East.
64. The peace deal between Israel and UAE can also be seen as a great opportunity for India
in the Middle East region. Which of the following is not related to strategic goals of India
in the Middle East?
(a) India should revamp its defence and security relations with the UAE.
(b) India should move fast to capture the extended neighbourhood market before it comes
under the influence of China.
(c) India should ensure space for Iran in any future security deal in the region.
(d) None of the above.
65. Which of the following is correct?

(a) Israel does not have a Constitution.
(b) Israeli Constitution is like ordinary law.
(c) There is no Constitution but a Basic Law of 1950.
(d) Israel has a Constitution of 1967.
Page 19 of 46
66. Israel is a theocratic Jewish state but it follows legal pluralism. Accordingly it has:
(a) Jewish Courts to decide cases of all religious communities.
(b) Secular Courts will apply Uniform Civil Code in respect of all communities.
(c) Each religious community has its own Religious Court to deal with Personal law disputes.
(d) No distinction between Personal law and Public law.
Legal Reasoning
The COVID-19 pandemic has taken the entire world hostage in less than four months, and
the global economy has been hit the hardest with governments across the globe implementing
stringent policies including lockdown to control the coronavirus outbreak. The pandemic
today presents unprecedented challenges and impediments to businesses in conducting their
normal operations. The lockdown across the world has caused delays in the performance of
contracts and transactions. Now, the question that arises is whether the current situation can
enable parties to a contract to alter their obligations with non-compliance of terms neither
being regarded as a "default committed by any party" nor a "breach of contract"? There are
certain well-accepted practices for dealing with such extraordinary situations in commercial
transactions by the inclusion of force majeure & material adverse effect (MAE) clauses.
Determination of the types of circumstances so covered by the force majeure clause
contained in a contract is essential. Provisions of force majeure often cover natural disasters
like hurricanes, floods, and earthquakes as "acts of God." Other covered events may include
war, terrorism, civil disorder, fire, disease medical epidemics or by reasons of applicable laws
or regulations. Broadly, the Courts have interpreted the term "Force Majeure" as an event that
can neither be anticipated nor controlled by either of the contracting parties. A force majeure
clause applies in the context of ongoing contractual arrangements, whereas, an MAE or
material adverse change (MAC) clause applies to the allocation of risk in transactions before
their closure or completion. Pandemic and related consequences such as government action is
a type of event covered by a force majeure clause, however, its impact on the affected party's
ability to perform its contractual obligations may vary depending upon contractual terms. It is
common for force majeure clauses to specify the impact that the event or circumstances in
question must have, in order for the clause to be triggered. References may be made, for
example, to the event or circumstances having "prevented", "hindered" or "delayed"
performance. These terms require different levels of impact on performance before a party
can claim recourse to these clauses. In other words, the force majeure and MAC clauses act
as an exception to what would otherwise be treated as a breach of contract. Certain contracts
may state that, if a force majeure clause is applied, the contract may automatically be
terminated. On the other hand, some contracts may even state that the duty to fulfil the
contractual obligation may be suspended for a certain period of time and if the force majeure
event is not curbed or treated even after such time, then eventually the contract may be
terminated. Though there cannot be a one-size-fits-all solution to this question, and it depends
upon how the force majeure clause is worded in a specific contract; and in the absence of the
same, applicable laws related to the same will be required to be taken into consideration.
Page 20 of 46
[Excerpt from Business Today, by Ranjana Roy Gawai, April 17, 2020]
67. Based on the Author‘s argument in passage above, which of the following is correct?
a) Force Majeure Clauses, generally have a uniform impact on the performance of Contracts
in all the cases.
b) The Impact on the performance of Contracts by the usage of Force Majeure Clauses is
dependent upon the way such clauses have been constructed in a particular Contract.
c) Both Force Majeure and Material Adverse Change Clauses have similar impact on the
performance of Contracts.
68. Imagine, there is a domestic commercial Contract for supply of certain goods for certain
price between A and B. However, in pursuance of the same, both A and B forget to negotiate
and agree on the terms of a Force Majeure event and the Contractual document does not
contain the Force Majeure clause. In such a situation, what would be the fate of the Contract
in the event like that of COVID 19?
a) As the parties did not negotiate on the Force Majeure Clause, either of them cannot take an
exception to the Breach of Contract.
b) The parties can invoke the Material Adverse Change Clause.
c) In absence of such clauses in the Contract, the Courts may resort to the applicable law, i.e.,
the Indian Contract Act, 1872 to give relief to the parties.
69. In the same fact situation as mentioned above with a modification that there is a Force
Majeure Clause in the Contract between A and B, let us suppose, that B, who was to supply
goods to A on certain date and time, faced issues in relation to procurement of goods due to
mill strike and also because of rise in prices of goods. In this case, can B claim the
suspension of performance of Contract on the basis of the Force Majeure Clause?
a) Yes, B can, depending upon the way, the Force Majeure Clause is worded.
b) Such situation cannot be covered under Force Majeure as it is just a case of disappointed
expectations and hence B cannot invoke the clause. It is merely a case of commercial
hardship.
c) B can invoke the Force Majeure clause as the clause is too broad to cover such situations.
70. Typically, the MAE (Material Adverse Change) provision in an agreement contemplates
events which if they occur, or are likely occur, would have a ―materially adverse change or
effect on the assets, business, property, liabilities, financial condition, results, operations of
the target‖ or that ―affects the ability of the transacting parties to consummate the
transaction‖ or the ―validity or enforceability of the transacting parties to its rights and
remedies under the transaction documents‖. Which of the following sample clauses in a
contract resembles an MAE clause?
a) ―In the event either party is unable to perform its obligations under the terms of this
agreement because of Act of God, strikes, equipment of transmission failure or damage
reasonably beyond its control, such party shall not be liable for damages to the other for any
damages resulting from such failure to perform…‖
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b) ―Except with respect to payment obligations under this agreement, no party shall be liable
for, nor such party shall be considered in breach of this agreement due to, any failure to
perform its obligations under this agreement as a result of cause beyond its control, including
any earthquake, labour problem, unavailability of supplies…‖
c) Both of the above.
The issue of Obscenity has vexed the Courts in India and abroad for a long time now. The
intriguing question has always been the same, i.e., what should be the standards to qualify
something as obscene in the eyes of law? In the United Kingdom, way back in 1868, the
Court laid down the Hicklin test in Regina v. Hicklin (1868 L.R. 2 Q.B. 360), and held that:
―The test of Obscenity is whether the tendency of the matter charged as Obscenity is to
deprave and corrupt those whose minds are open to such immoral influences and into whose
hands a publication of this sort may fall.‖ Hicklin test postulated that a publication has to be
judged for obscenity based on isolated passages of a work considered out of context and
judged by their apparent influence on most susceptible readers, such as children or weak-
minded adults. However, this test was later rejected by most of the jurisdictions. There were
many judgments where it was stipulated by the Indian Courts that, Obscenity has to be
judged in the context of contemporary social mores, current socio-moral attitude of the
community and the prevalent norms of acceptability/ susceptibility of the community, in
relation to matters in issue. [For example, in Ranjit D. Udeshi v. State of Maharashtra AIR
1965 SC 881; Chandrakant Kalyandas Kakodar v. State of Maharashtra 1969 (2) SCC 687
etc.] These judgements indicated that the concept of Obscenity would change with the
passage of time and what might have been ―obscene‖ at one point of time would not be
considered as obscene at a later period. This came to be known as ―Community Standards
Test‖. In Bobby Art International & Ors. v. Om Pal Singh Hoon (1996) 4 SCC 1, the Court,
upholding the Community standards test held that, complete message and context of the
objectionable scene/firm/picture etc., needs to be examined in order to find out whether the
alleged material is obscene or not.
71. A, daily local newspaper called ‗Ramanand Bazar Patrika‘ having wide circulation in
Anandnagar published, on 1st July, 2019, an article with a picture of Boris Becker, a world
renowned Tennis player, posing nude with his dark-skinned fianc e by name Barbara Feltus,
a film actress, which was photographed by none other than her father. The article states that,
in an interview, both Boris Becker and Barbara Feltus spoke freely about their engagement,
their lives and future plans and the message they wanted to convey to the people at large, for
posing to such a photograph. Article picturises Boris Becker as a strident protester of the
pernicious practice of ―Apartheid‖. Further, it was stated that the purpose of the photograph
was also to signify that love champions over hatred. Will the alleged picture classify as an
Obscene Material in India?
a) No, according to the Hicklin Test, it will not classify as Obscene.
b) Yes, according to the Community Standards Test, the picture will classify as Obscene.
c) No, according to the Community Standards Test, the picture will not classify as Obscene.
d) Both (a) and (c).
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72. The difference between Hicklin Test and Community Standards Test is:
a) The former focuses on the susceptibility of the minds of individuals to get corrupted while
the later hinges upon the context, intended meaning and contemporaneous socio-cultural
environment of the society.
b) As per Hicklin Test, a nude picture of a women per se can be obscene while as per the
later, the picture should be suggestive of deprave mind and designed to excite sexual passion
in persons who are likely to see it.
c) The former considers Obscenity as a changing concept with changing times while the later
does not.
73. The issue of ‗Obscenity‘ is fundamentally related with which of the following?
a) Freedom of Religion of an individual.
b) Freedom of Speech and Expression of an individual.
c) Right to Privacy of an individual.
74. Consider the following situations. Choose the correct option as per the Hicklin‘s Test.
1. A Movie scene where there are rows of Jewish naked men and women, shown frontally,
being led into the Gas Chambers of Nazi Concentration Camp. Not only they are about to die
but they are stripped off their basic dignity in the last moments of their life.
2. The controversial movie scene of Phoolan Devi, the Bandit queen where she is paraded
naked and made to draw water from the well within the circle of a hundred men.
a) 1 is Obscene but 2 is not.

b) 2 is Obscene but 1 is not.
c) Both 1 and 2 are Obscene.
d) Neither 1 and 2 are Obscene.
75. An activist, while being semi-nude, allowed her body to be used as a canvas to paint on
by her two minor children who were properly clothed. She uploaded this video of hers on an
online platform with a message that she intended to normalise the female form for her
children and not allow distorted ideas about sexuality to pervade their mind. An advocate
who sees the video, registers a case of Obscenity against her. Is it a case of Obscenity as per
the Community Standards Test?
a) This is a pure case of Obscenity and she is spreading it.
b) This is a pure case of Obscenity as well as Child Pornography as her children were
exposed to her nudity.
c) This is not a case of Obscenity because as per the Community Standards Test the video
must not be seen in isolation but in the contextual set up of the message that the activist has
put on normalisation of a female‘s sexuality.
d) This is a case of Obscenity as per the Community Standards Test as the video was
blatantly obscene.
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On 7th May 2020, a major leakage of Styrene gas was reported from the plastics-
manufacturing plant 'LG Polymers' located on the outskirts of the Visakhapatnam city. The
accident took place when the cooling system of a polymers plant got clogged due to the
mismanagement of factory workers and resulted in turning the city into a gas chamber. The
gas which leaked was styrene gas, which is a ‗hazardous chemical‘ under Rule 2(e) plus
Entry 583 of Schedule I of the Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemical
Rules 1989.
Principle 1: Polluter Pays Principle
The 'Doctrine of Polluter Pays' is a well-established principle of environmental law, which

places an obligation of compensating the damage to the people who ought to reimburse it and
also have the capacity to disburse it. The principle explicitly affirms that the person who
damages or destructs the environment has the absolute obligation to bear the cost of
ameliorating the environment. In Enviro Legal Action v. Union of India case, the Apex Court
of India held that the polluter is legally responsible to reimburse the individual sufferers as
well as pay for the revitalization of the damaged environment.
Principle 2: Principle of Strict Liability
The principle of Strict Liability was established in the year 1868 in the case of Rylands v.
Fletcher, where the Court held that any person who uses his/her land in an 'unnatural manner'
and who keeps any 'hazardous substance' on such premises would be held liable under the
principle of strict liability for any 'damage' occurred on the 'escape' of such perilous
substance. However, the person is liable only when there is non-natural use of land; the
principle also restricts liability when the escape is due to an act of strangers, Act of God, for
example a natural calamity; due to the person injured or when it happens with the consent of
the person injured or with statutory authority.
Principle 3: Principle of Absolute Liability
The absolute liability is a stringent form of Strict Liability as it is devoid of any exceptions
that were mentioned under the earlier principle. for the first time in the case of M.C. Mehta v.
Union of India. This principle implies that whenever an enterprise is engaged in any
dangerous or hazardous activity that threatens the people working in the enterprise and those
living nearby, it owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community that no harm will
be caused. If harm is indeed caused, the enterprise will have to compensate for damages, and
can‘t use exceptions provided in the case of strict liability. The enterprise can‘t claim that the
harm has not been caused due to negligence (absence of due care) or that it had taken all
reasonable precautions.
76. Under which of the following principles, will the company LG Polymers be liable?
a) Polluter Pays Principle
b) Strict Liability
c) Absolute Liability
d) All of the above
Page 24 of 46
77. As per the Polluter Pays Principle, LG Polymers will be liable to pay:
a) Amount of Money for restoration of environment only.
b) Amount of Money for restoration of environment and compensation to Individuals who
suffered the loss.
c) Compensation to the victims.
78. A company ABC limited operates an industrial chemical plant in the city of Azadnagar.
Due to an earthquake on July 22, 2020, the valves of the reactors in the plant get damaged
due to which the operators could not properly transport the hazardous gas for chemical
vaporisation, resulting in the gas leakage. The gas leakage resulted in the death of 12 workers
of the plant and also some people living nearby the Plant. In this situation, in order to
decipher the liability of ABC Limited, choose the best option:
a) ABC Limited can be held liable under the principles of Strict and Absolute Liability and
Polluter pays principle as well.
b) ABC Limited can be held liable under the Polluter Pays Principle and the Principle of
Absolute Liability, but can be exempted under the rule of Strict Liability.
c) ABC Limited will not be held liable under any of the Principles.
d) ABC Limited will be held liable under Strict and Absolute Liability principles but the
Principle of ―Polluter Pays‖ will not be applicable to this situation.
79. The argument of LG Polymers that, they did not know that the Styrene Gas could leak:
a) is a strong argument and can reduce their liability under the Polluter Pays Principle.
b) is a strong argument and can reduce their liability under the Strict Liability Principle.
c) is a weak argument and will not help in reducing the liability of LG Polymers under any of
the principles.
d) is a weak argument but may help in reducing their liability under the Strict Liability
Principle.
80. XYZ is a company operating a Pesticide Factory in the city of Rampur. On one day, due
to the negligence of Factory staff, there is a leakage of the Pesticide gas as a result of which,
many pests and insects which feed on the plantation crops in the nearby farm are killed.
There is no harm caused to the people living nearby or the workers of the Pesticide Factory.
However, the leakage was so humungous that it reduced the quality of air in the city causing
breathing problems for the people living around in the area. In this case,
a) XYZ will be absolutely liable but not strictly liable.
b) XYZ will not be liable under the Strict and Absolute liability principles because the
leakage only killed the pests and insects.
c) XYZ‘s liability under the Strict and Absolute liability principles will depend upon the
inquiry as to whether the leaked pesticide gas was a hazardous substance/activity or chemical
or not and; XYZ will be liable under the Polluter Pays Principle.
d) XYZ will not be liable under the Polluter Pays Principle.
Page 25 of 46
Principle of Natural Justice is derived from the word „Jus Natural‟ of the Roman law and it is
closely related to Common law and moral principles but is not codified. It is a law of nature
which is not derived from any statute or constitution. The principle of Natural Justice is
adhered to by all the citizens of civilised State with Supreme importance. Natural justice
simply means to make a sensible and reasonable decision making procedure on a particular
issue. Sometimes, it doesn‘t matter what is the reasonable decision but in the end, what
matters is the procedure and who all are engaged in taking the reasonable decision. It is not
restricted within the concept of ‗fairness‘ it has different colours and shades which vary from
the context. Basically, natural justice consists of 3 rules.
The first one is “Hearing rule” which states that the person or party who is affected by the
decision made by the Panel of expert members should be given a fair opportunity to express
his point of view to defend himself. Secondly, “Bias rule‖ generally expresses that Panel of
expert should be free from bias while taking the decision. The decision should be given in a
free and fair manner which can fulfil the rule of natural justice. And thirdly, “Reasoned
Decision” which states that order, decision or judgement of the Court given by the Presiding
authorities with a valid and reasonable ground. The principles of Natural Justice have been
adopted and followed by the judiciary to protect public rights against the arbitrary decision
by the administrative authority. One can easily see that the rule of natural justice include the
concept of fairness: they stay alive and support to safeguard the fair dealing.
Source: Excerpt taken from blog.ipleaders.in (Dated - 12th June, 2019)
81. ―Nemo Judex in causa sua‖ or the principle that ‗No one can be a judge in his own case‘,
relates to which of the following rule of the Natural Justice?
(a) Bias rule

(b) Reasoned decision rule
(c) Hearing rule
82. Mr. X is a Public Servant, employed in a PSU and Mrs Y who is the wife of Mr. X is
also an employee of the same PSU. Ms A files a complaint against Mr. X for sexual
harassment at workplace before the ICC (Internal Complaints Committee), which is
headed by Mrs Y. After completing her inquiry she held that Mr. X is guilty and
recommended disciplinary proceedings against him. Now, on what grounds Mr. X may
challenge her findings?
(a) Mrs Y is an employee of the same institution and the inquiry should have been conducted
by a person outside the institution.
(b) The complaint was filed by a female employee, so the inquiry must have been conducted
by a male employee.
(c) Mrs Y is the wife of Mr. X and she holds a personal bias in the case, so the inquiry should
not have been conducted by her.
(d) Mr. X being the accused should have conducted the inquiry himself.
Page 26 of 46
83. Mr. A is a judge and he is also the landlord of Mr. B, who resides in an apartment owned
by Mr. A. Due to non-payment of rent for 3 consecutive months, Mr. A served an
eviction notice to Mr. B. Now, choose the most appropriate option amongst the
following.
(a) Being a judge himself, Mr. A cannot issue such notice of eviction.
(b) Mr. A can issue such notice because it is his duty as a Judge, apart from being a landlord.
(c) Such notice is illegal as Mr. B was not given an opportunity to present his case.
(d) Mr. A issued such notice in his personal capacity as a landlord and not being a judge.
84. Which of the following is not in violation of the principles of Natural justice?
(a) Withholding of an increment of a public servant without giving him an opportunity to

defend.
(b) Non-renewal of a contract of employment of an employee after the period of contract is
over.
(c) Initiating a departmental inquiry against a public servant, without giving him an
opportunity to submit representation during such inquiry.
85. On the basis of your understanding about Natural Justice in the passage above, state
which of the following is true:
a) Adherence to the reasoned decision rule is not required if other two rules are
complied with.
b) Compliance of bias rule itself rejects the need of the hearing and the reasoned
decision rule.
c) Principle of Natural Justice is incomplete without the compliance of any of its rules.
d) The Reasoned Decision rule is a substitute for the bias rule.
Tension prevailed in the Jawahar area in Palghar district after three Mumbai residents,
travelling in a Ford Ecosport to Silvassa, were allegedly lynched late on Thursday night. The
Kasa police said the incident occurred near Gadakchinchale village under their jurisdiction.
―Information received by us indicates that the three occupants of the SUV hailed form
Kandivali in Mumbai and were going to attend a funeral in Silvassa,‖ Superintendent of
Police Gaurav Singh, Palghar police said. A large mob of villagers surrounded the car within
a matter of minutes and started attacking it with sticks, irons rods and their bare hands,
leading to the death of all three occupants. ―One of our patrolling vehicles later spotted the
severely injured trio lying on the road and stopped to find out the matter. However, our team
was also attacked by the mob and the vehicle pelted with stones. Our personnel had to flee
and were unable to rescue to the victims,‖ an officer with the Kasa police said. A wireless
alert was sent out later apprising all police stations and units of the incident following which
reinforcements were sent to the village and a combing operation was undertaken. ―Prima
Page 27 of 46
facie information indicates that the trio were mistaken for thieves and attacked. The villagers
were on edge due to the ongoing lockdown and unavailability of essential supplies. For the
past few days, several rumours have been doing the rounds on social media about thieves and
dacoits targetting villages on the highway. As a result, villagers have been patrolling the
highway and stopping late night travellers on suspicion,‖ the officer said.
Source: Excerpt from The Hindu, written by Alok Deshpande (22/04/2020)
86. Which of the following statements given below justifies criminalisation of Mob
Lynching?
(a) In a democracy the actual power rests with the people and their actions cannot be
penalised by the state.
(b) There is no law in India which specifically prohibits mob lynching and therefore it is a
justified act of the people.
(c) It is impossible to punish the wrongdoer in case of Mob Lynching.
(d) Violence cannot be a tool to implement the will of the majority and such actions are
failure of the state.
87. Which of the following statement justifies the criminalisation of mob lynching as a
distinct offence apart from ‗Murder‘?
(a) The offence of Murder is committed by a single individual or a group but mob lynching
involves a large group of individuals.
(b) When violence is committed by a mob it creates a situation of terror and anarchy having
potential to disturb the public peace for a longer period.
(c) Mob lynching is an offence which supports the idea of ‗might is right‘, and cannot be
accepted in a democratic society.
88. The above passage states about the existence of rumours in the area regarding the thieves
and dacoits robbing the villagers or committing child lifting. In the light of this
proposition which if the following statement is correct?
(a) The villagers should not be punished as there was a genuine mistake on their part.
(b) The villagers should be punished as they do not have any right to punish any person
unless he is an offender.
(c) The villagers should be punished as no individual in the country is entitled to take law
in his own hand and punish the wrongdoer.
(d) The villagers should not be punished as they have the right of private defence against
such incidents under which they can even kill a person.
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89. In the light of the above passage which of the following incidents of mob violence would
be justified?
(a) A group of people committing violence against people who are selling meat of an animal
considered to be sacred under their religious beliefs.
(b) The residents of a boy‘s hostel caught a drug paddler selling drugs in their hostel and
killed him by beating.
(c) The villagers injured a woman by pelting stone on her considering her to be witch.
90. Assertion (A): Mob Lynching can be justified only in circumstances where the religious
sentiments or feelings of a large group of people is associated.
Reason (R): Religious sentiments and feelings are of paramount consideration for the state
and should not be interfered with.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

(b) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(c) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
(d) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
The bench of Dr DY Chandrachud and MR Shah, JJ has refused to transfer to CBI the
criminal cases lodged against Republic TV Editor in-Chief Arnab Goswami for alleged
defamatory news show telecast on April 21 in connection with the Palghar mob-lynching
case. It also quashed all FIRs against Arnab Goswami except one which was filed in Nagpur
and which has been transferred to Mumbai via order dated 24.04.2020.
[Excerpt from SCC Online Blog, May 19, 2020]
Delivering the verdict, Justice Chandrachud said, ― Article 32 of the Constitution constitutes
recognition of the constitutional duty entrusted to this Court to protect the fundamental rights
of citizens. The exercise of journalistic freedom lies at the core of speech and expression
protected by Article 19(1)(a). The petitioner is a media journalist. The airing of views on
television shows which he hosts is in the exercise of his fundamental right to speech and
expression under Article 19(1)(a). India‟s freedoms will rest safe as long as journalists can
speak truth to power without being chilled by a threat of reprisal…Free citizens cannot exist
when the news media is chained to adhere to one position. Yuval Noah Harari has put
it succinctly in his recent book titled “21 Lessons for the 21st Century”: “Questions you
cannot answer are usually far better for you than answers you cannot question.”
[Excerpt from Arnab Ranjan Goswami vs Union Of India on 19 May, 2020]
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91. The above passage mentions about the Journalist‘s request to transfer the case to the CBI
(Central Bureau of Investigation) for investigation. What could be the appropriate reason
for such request?
(a) The CBI is a central investigating agency and conducts more scientific investigation.
(b) Where State government is an interested party, the investigation conducted by the state
police, may be biased.
(c) The FIRs relate to an offence of defamation of the President of a national party, so the
matter should be investigated by the CBI.
92. The above passage quotes the observation of the Court in relation to freedom of speech
and expression as, ―Questions you cannot answer are better than questions you cannot
question.‖ Now, based on such observation, chose the most appropriate option which
describes the scope of such questions.
(a) The term ―questions‖ mentioned are not subject to limitations imposed upon the Freedom
of Speech and Expression.
(b) Those question are limited to the information warranted by the person.
(c) The court is referring to the right to information through the above quote.
(d) The questions are also subject to limitations imposed upon the Freedom of Speech and
Expression.
93. It is an established principle of law that the offence of defamation (harming the
reputation) has many exceptions and the imputation of truth is one of those, but the
accused must prove that such imputation was true and also for the public good. In the
light of this statement which of the following questions/statements are not defamatory?
(a) An article published in a newspaper about the unaccounted property of a public servant in
the form of a questionnaire.
(b) A question to a female actress about her sexual relationship with a married man.
(c) A question to a public servant about his extramarital relationship with a colleague.
(d) An Article published in a magazine stating a female politician as ‗B grade‘ actress.
94. In the above passage, the Court ordered for the merging of different FIRs into one and
the investigation to be conducted at Mumbai. What is the reason behind such order?
(a) Multiple FIRs mean multiple investigations and the same might cause hardships to the
accused.
(b) The first FIR was registered at Mumbai and the investigation should be conducted at
Mumbai.
(c) The accused resides at Mumbai and the investigation should be conducted only at
Mumbai.
(d) Multiple FIRs are frivolous and there is only one cause of action.
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95. Defamation is punishable:
(a) Both as a Civil wrong as well as a Crime.
(b) Only as a Civil wrong.
(c) Only as a Criminal wrong.
Common intention implies a pre-arranged plan and acting in concert pursuant to the plan.
Common intention comes into being prior to the commission of the act, which need not be a
long gap. To bring common intention into effect a pre-concert is not necessarily be proved,
but it may well develop on the spot as between a number of persons and could be inferred
from facts and circumstances of each case. For example A and B caught hold of C where
only B stabbed C with a knife but A is also liable for murder as there was a pre concerted
action. In the case Pandurang v. State of Hyderabad, Supreme court emphasized on this point
that prior concert need not be something always very much prior to the incident, but could
well be something that may develop on the spot, on the spur of the moment.
Common Intention and Similar Intention
Common intention does not mean similar intention of several persons. To constitute common
intention it is necessary that the intention of each one of them be known to the rest of them
and shared by them. In the case of Dukhmochan Pandey v. State of Bihar, the Supreme
Court, held that: “Common intention which developed at the spur of the moment is different
from the similar intention actuated a number of person at the same time….the distinction
between a common intention and similar intention may be fine, but is nonetheless a real one
and if overlooked, may lead to miscarriage of justice….” The mere presence of accused
together is not sufficient to hold that they shared the common intention to commit the offence
in question. It is necessary that the intention of each one of ‗several persons‘ be known to
each other for constituting common intention.
96. A gang of six members went to a bank, armed with weapons to commit a heist. While
five of the gang members went inside the bank, Mr. A (the sixth member) waited outside
the bank to alert them on any threat. During the heist one of the gang members fired a
gun at the branch manager, as a result he died. All five escaped but Mr. A was caught
and arrested. Now, choose the most appropriate option as per the principle stated in the
above passage.
(a) Mr. A is not liable for murder as he was outside the bank and there was no common
intention.
(b) Mr. A along with all other members of the gang are liable for murder as there was
common intention.
(c) Only that person is liable for murder who actually fired the gun.
(d) Mr. A is liable only for the heist and no other offence.
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97. Raman and Raghav were riding on a motorcycle on a busy street, suddenly Aman
(another biker) bumped into their bike. A heated argument started between the three of
them. While Raghav started abusing Aman, Raman hit Aman with an iron rod lying on
the road and as a consequence he died. Now, chose the correct option.
(a) Both Raman and Raghav are liable for murder as there was a common intention
developed on the spot.
(b) Raghav is not liable for murder as there was no common intention to kill Aman.
(c) No one is liable as Aman was a wrongdoer himself and he started the fight.
(d) Only Raghav is liable for murder as he started abusing Aman.
98. After reading the passage which of the following is not correct in relation to the
difference between Common and Similar intention?
(a) Similar intention is developed prior to the commission of offence but the common
intention is developed only at the time of commission of offence.
(b) Under Common intention each of the offender is equally liable for the offence but under
similar intention each of the offender is differently liable.
(c) In order to determine the existence of Similar or Common intention, one must analyse the
fact and circumstances of each case.
(d) The boundary between Similar and Common intention is very fine and it may sometime
overlap.
99. Mr. X and Mr. Y entered into a house at night to commit theft, while committing theft
Mr. Y committed sexual assault on a minor girl of aged 11 years. Identify for which of
the following offences Mr. X is liable for.
(a) Both Theft and Sexual Assault as there was a Common intention.
(b) Only Theft as there was a Similar intention.
(c) Only Theft as Mr. X had a different intention from Y.
(d) He would not be liable for any offence.
100. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the difference between
common intention and similar intention?
(a) The intention of the accused and co-accused can be inferred from the facts and
circumstances of each case.
(b) Under common intention, it is considered that all the accused have jointly committed the
offence themselves and are jointly liable.
(c) Each accused is liable for the offence he has actually committed, if the common intention
cannot be proved.
Article 20(1) of the Indian Constitution prohibits Ex Post Facto laws. The expression Ex Post
Facto Law means a law, which imposes penalties or convictions on the acts already done and
increases the penalty for such acts. In other words, Ex Post Facto Law, imposes penalties
retrospectively. For example, The Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 came into force from
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20.5.1961. A person guilty of accepting dowry is punishable under the Act after 20.5.1961
and not before 20.5.1961.
Ex post facto laws are of three kinds as follows:(a) A law which declared some act or
omission as an offence for the first time after the completion of that act or omission. (b) A
law which enhances the punishment or penalty for an offence subsequent to the commission
of that offence. (c) A law which prescribes a new and different procedure for the prosecution
of an offence subsequent to the commission of that offence.
Clause (1) of Art. 20 provides protection only in respect of the above first two categories of
expost facto laws i.e. laws which declare acts as offences subsequent to the commission to
those acts and laws which enhance the penalty subsequently.
Article 20(1) provides: No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a
law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence, nor be subjected
to a penalty greater than that which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the
time of the commission of the offence. The first part of clause (1) provides that no person shall
be convicted of any offence except for violation of law in force at the time of the commission
of the act charged as an offence. The second part of clause (1) protects a person form a
penalty greater than that which he might have been subjected to at the time of the
commission of the offence.
101. The Parliament of India legislated the Sexual Harassment at Workplace Act, in the
year 2013 and simultaneously some new offences were also added to the Indian Penal
Code, 1860. Mr. A is an employee of an institution, against whom departmental enquiry
has been initiated for committing sexual harassment of a female colleague in the year
2012. Now, choose the correct option.
(a) Such inquiry is valid as per Article 20 (1) of the Constitution as the complaint was made
after the act came into force.
(b) Article 20 (1) will not be applicable as the matter does not relate to an offence.
(c) As the Act was passed in the year 2013, any inquiry under such Act is invalid.
(d) Only inquiry may be conducted but no penal action can be taken against him after such
inquiry.
102. Article 20 (1) would not affect which of the following acts of the legislature?
(a) Act of the legislature enhancing the term of imprisonment.

(b) Act of the legislature enhancing the amount of fine.
(c) Act of the legislature changing the punishment of death to life imprisonment.
(d) Act of legislature changing the nature of imprisonment from simple to rigorous.
Page 33 of 46
103. Mr. A is a student of Law, aged 19 years. He is socially active and expresses his
opinion on every social and political event of the nation through social media platforms.
In one of his blog, he severely criticised the policy of a state government of changing
names of cities and towns. He also stated that the government is biased towards a
particular religion. The said blog was posted on 19 th April, 2020 and subsequently, an
amendment was made to Indian Penal Code whereby ‗Hate Speech‘ was made a distinct
offence and punishment was prescribed. An action was brought against him under the
said provision for the blog. Now, choose the most appropriate option amongst the
following
(a) Mr. A may be liable for the offence of Hate speech as the blog was not removed even
after the amendment.
(b) Mr. A may be liable for the offence of Hate speech as Article 20 (1) does not cover such
areas.
(c) Mr. A may not be liable for the offence because the act was done before the amendment.
(d) Mr. A may not be liable for the offence as his blog was innocent and a fair criticism.
104. Considering the fact situations given in the above question, the Parliament passes a
legislation in September 2020, whereby an amendment is made to the Juvenile Act and
now a person below the age of 20 would be a Juvenile and special procedure would be
followed for his trial. Choose the most appropriate option amongst the following
(a) Mr. A would not be considered as juvenile as it is prohibited under the scheme of Article
20 (1).
(b) Mr. A would not be considered as juvenile because the amendment came after he
committed the offence.
(c) Mr. A would be considered a Juvenile and tried under the new procedure.
105. Considering the fact situation in the third question to this passage, the Parliament
passes a legislation for the Probation of Offenders, under which any offender below the
age of 21 will not serve the sentence of imprisonment in a prison, instead he will serve
the sentence in a probation house. Now, choose the most appropriate option.
(a) Mr. A will get the benefit of Probation of Offenders Act.
(b) Mr. A will not get the benefit of Probation of Offenders act as it is prohibited by Article
20 (1) of the Constitution.
(c) It is discretion of Mr. A to decide whether he wants such benefit or not.
Logical Reasoning
Some readers wondered whether my reading of the crisis in the news media is about
journalism or about the news industry. Though the fortunes of the news industry have a
bearing on journalism, there is, indeed, a difference between looking at issues that govern
journalism and the factors that contribute to the financial stress of the media industry. Over
the last few years, I have been discussing the impact of digitalisation on journalism. The
pandemic has accelerated the process of digital transformation of the news media. Therefore,
Page 34 of 46
these issues need close scrutiny. One of the defining elements of analog journalism was the
way two crucial functions of journalism — bearing witness and making sense —
complemented each other and helped people make informed choices. When I talk about the
strength of analog, I am neither romanticising the past nor am I a Luddite. Most importantly,
I do not believe in nostalgia. Many scholars have established ―how rose-coloured glasses
always leads to an unfair distortion — looking back on the best of the past while comparing it
to the worst of the present.‖ Hence, when I talk about the digital information news
environment, I am talking about how there needs to be a conducive atmosphere for credible
information to resonate with the people. Literature on misinformation, disinformation and
malinformation reveals a new distinction in the minds of the citizens. Editors and journalists
have to contend with a new breed of sceptics. These are the people who trust social media
forwards more than evidence-based, data-driven journalism. Their confirmation bias flows
from encrypted social media platforms that are full of conspiracy theories.
[Excerpt from an Article by A.S. Panneerselvan, The Hindu, dated August 10, 2020]
106. Which of the following conveys the main idea expressed in the passage?
a) Those who subscribe to newspapers are sceptics.
b) Those who subscribe to newspapers and news channels often contribute in distortion of the
truth.
c) Social media journalism distorts the truth.
107. In this line, ―Hence, when I talk about the digital information news environment, I am
talking about how there needs to be a conducive atmosphere for credible information to
resonate with the people‖ the Author assumes that:
a) The Digital news is neither evidence based nor data driven.
b) The Digital journalism does not help people in making informed choices.
c) Both a) and b)
d) The impact of Digital journalism has created an informed platform of journalism.
108. Which of the following strengthens the Author‘s argument?

a) Conspiracy theories have become an alternative truth.
b) The Pandemic is the only reason behind the dependence of people on Social media
journalism.
c) The News industry is witnessing a tremendous change.
109. What does the Author indicate when he quotes that ―Rose coloured glasses always lead
to unfair distortion‖?
a) Digital Journalism is twisted.
b) Author means to say that he does not have any disproportionate bias for analog journalism.
c) Rosy picture of every news cannot be created.
Page 35 of 46
110. The Author has severely targeted and criticized which one of the following factors of
Digital Journalism?
a) Social Outreach
b) Credibility of Information
c) Lack of Information
In 1985, Mikhail Gorbachev, launched an ill-fated anti-alcohol campaign in the then Soviet
Union. The anti-alcohol campaign had some beneficial public health consequences: Crime
fell and life expectancy rose. But the campaign was a political and economic disaster.
Gorbachev forgot that the addiction of the state to alcohol revenue was even more incurable
than the addiction of some citizens to alcohol itself. The budgetary losses created an
economic crisis. Historians suspect that more than the loss of the Soviet Empire, it was this
campaign that delegitimised Gorbachev. An old Soviet joke went like this: A disaffected and
angry citizen, fed up of standing in lines for vodka, decided to go assassinate Gorbachev. He
soon came back and ruefully reported that the lines to assassinate Gorbachev were even
longer than the lines for Vodka. As the lockdown eased in India, and social distancing went
for a toss at alcohol outlets, we were reminded of how difficult an issue alcohol is to
rationally discuss in India. The stampede was caused by the ineptness with which the opening
was handled in most cities. Alcohol has also migrated from being a question of personal
freedom and choice to an issue in broader cultural wars, an odd site on which we measure
progressivism in India. It is also a window on how liberalism has been misunderstood.
Liberals should, rightly, be suspicious of prohibition on moral and practical grounds.
Government grossly exceeds its legitimate power when it interferes with the rights of
individuals to lead their lives as they please, and fashion their selves after their own ideals,
interests and preferences. And certainly, moralism or puritanism on alcohol cannot be the
basis of state policy. That moralism has no basis, and it violates the dignity and freedom of
individuals.
[Excerpt from an Opinion by Bhanu Pratap Mehta, The Indian Express, May 7, 2020]
111. In the above passage, the author uses a/an__________ to strengthen his argument.
a) Metaphor
b) Analogy
c) Personification
d) None of the above
112. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above?
a) State must not interfere at all with the individual‘s right to drink.
b) Liberalism has always been misunderstood.
c) It is very difficult to discuss any issue relating to personal freedom of individuals with
rationality in India.
113. Which of the following statements weakens the argument that Moralism on Alcohol
cannot be the basis of State Policy?
a) The State should not interfere with people‘s right to drink; but there will be a backlash if
drinking takes forms that inflict great social harms.
Page 36 of 46
b) Freedom should not be divorced from Moderation.
c) The State should not interfere in matters of sexuality or intimacy. But norms of freedom
will impose serious costs and will not survive if the expressions of sexuality are consistently
degrading or violent, as we have seen in the locker room scandals.
114. Which of the following is true as per the passage above?

a) Liberals should not be concerned about prohibition on Alcohol at all.
b) Moralism should be based on justified ideals.
c) Moralism must not be the basis of any State action.
115. According to the passage, which of the following could be part of State‘s policy to
regulate Alcohol use in India?
I. Ban on Alcohol shops.
II. Education on Intelligent Drinking.
III. Regulating Outlet density of Alcohol shops
IV. Community Intervention Policy
a) I, II and III
b) II and IV
c) II, III and IV
d) I, II, III and IV.
Don‘t miss the cloud behind the silver lining. The Class XII CBSE pass result has soared to
an all-time high of 88.8%. The number of students scoring 95% and above has more than
doubled. If only these higher marks were a reflection of students getting more skilled and
more competitive. Instead, the odds are they simply mirror an assessment scheme relaxed to
compensate students for the many disruptions originating in the pandemic. The goal of
reducing student stress levels during this turbulent time is excellent and laudable. But it is a
fallacy that high marks can accomplish this by themselves. The real stressor, after all, is
shortage of opportunities. When every bout of grade inflation raises cut-offs for higher
education even higher, it is no succour. That India‘s Gross Enrolment Ratio is only 27%
compared to Indonesia‘s 36%, Thailand‘s 49% and the US‘s 88% is just one measure of the
toll taken by our failure to build adequate colleges and universities. Licence raj continues to
suppress autonomy and expansion in this sector. For example, a new national education
policy is reportedly mulling at least 20% of students being able to attend private higher
educational institutions through freeships and another 30% through scholarships, besides fee
caps. On top of the stasis already wreaked by reservations, this would be disastrous.
Browbeating the private sector to make up for public sector deficiencies is counterproductive.
As the pandemic has underlined the key role of good government services in healthcare, so
too is raising the standard of publicly funded schools and universities essential. What the
students need is an ecosystem where government institutions deliver quality education and
private options are plentiful. It is better prospects alone that will best alleviate students‘
stress. Meanwhile, crudely chopping syllabi will only worsen their disorientation and should
be reconsidered.
[TOI Edit, Times of India Editorials, Dated July 15, 2020].
Page 37 of 46
116. What is the ‗cloud behind the silver lining‘ in the passage above?
a) The Pandemic which is impacting the current education system.
b) That, the Governmental educational institutions are not able to deliver quality education.
c) Scoring Higher marks or percentage in school education does not guarantee skilled and
competitive candidature of the student.
d) License Raj has negatively impacted Higher education.
117. Which of the following statements weakens the argument that chopping the syllabi in
the times of Pandemic will only worsen a student‘s disorientation and hence should be
reconsidered?
a) It does not matter even if syllabi is chopped. The students who don‘t want to study will
even not study in the minimal syllabi structure even during the pandemic.
b) Students don‘t care about syllabi. They study only for marks and grades.
c) Reduced syllabi will help in achieving the teaching-learning targets in due time and hence
won‘t put pressure on students.
118. The number of students scoring 95% and above in XII class board exams has more than
doubled. Which of the following statements serves as a plausible explanation for the same?
a) Students have started studying with sincerity and concentration.
b) Evaluation of answer scripts has become liberal.
c) Question papers these days are easier to solve.
119. For developing a student friendly ecosystem of education, which of the following serve
as need of the hour, as per the Author?
I. Increasing the Syllabi in School education.
II. Building adequate number of public colleges and universities.
III. Eliminating Reservation in admissions to Higher education system.
IV. Creating a quality based education system
a) Only I and II.

b) Only I, II and IV.
c) Only III.
d) Only II and IV.
a) Scoring High marks in XII class can help in reducing stress amongst students in the times
of Pandemic.
b) High Cut-off of marks also contribute in reducing opportunities for the students.
c) Private institutions should not be regulated.
d) License Raj should be done away with.
Page 38 of 46
If anything, the novel coronavirus disease (COVID-19) pandemic has taught us to rethink our
lifestyles and question our need to travel to work every day. After all, in the age of internet,
zoom meetings and webinars can be virtually conducted and physical distancing is possible.
A large nature of work in cities is of tertiary nature, a major part of which can be done from
home. This can affect the way offices function and reduce the need for all employees to be
physically present every day. Information Technology companies are already contemplating a
move of making many of its employees work from home and make this a ‗new normal‘. If
more firms follow suit, the need for huge office buildings and central business districts would
change. Apartments cannot get bigger at the same rate, and people may not have the space or
atmosphere to work from home. This would mean that more people would opt for co-working
spaces close to their homes. This could be a game changer, for it would provide the cities to
better distribute their activities throughout the spaces and rid themselves of the idea of
zoning. Only a handful of professionals are allowed to function from residential zones,
including doctors, lawyers, architects, etc. This needs serious rethinking. Many more
professions of similar nature that do not disturb surrounding residence and have no
requirements of special services should be added to the list. This new work culture would
bring associated demand for food joints, cafés, stationary shops, etc.
[Excerpt from „Down to Earth‟ Magazine, Blog authored by Sugeet Grover, August 17,
2020]
121. Which of the following is the main idea behind the passage?
a) Work from home is the new normal.
b) Work from home will result in shutting down of big buildings.
c) Work from home culture will result in systematization of City planning and development.
d) More professionals should be included in the ‗work from home‘ list.
a) The ‗work from home‘ culture is a no-chaos culture.
b) There is lack of distribution of activities in the ‗work from home‘ scenario.
c) The routine culture as opposed to ‗work from home‘ does not benefit the society in any
way.
123. Which of the following can be associated benefits of the new culture ?
a) It will save commute time.
b) The city‘s land can be used more efficiently
c) Better distribution of activities would be associated with safer streets and public spaces as
they would not go unused and hence have less likelihood of being used for unlawful
activities.
Page 39 of 46
124. Consider the following statement: ―Work from home culture is a sustainable method of
business and should be extended to all professions.‖
Which of the following weakens the Author‘s argument?
a) Not every type of profession fits in the ‗work from home‘ culture as different professions
have different requirements and need different environmental and work space settings.
b) ‗Work from home‘ impacts a person‘s mental health.
c) Both a) and b)
d) Neither a) nor b)
125. Which of the following weakens the author‘s argument that ‗Work from home‘ culture
will enable better city planning?
a) Development of Co-working spaces will further create chaos in terms of land planning.
b) City planning is not only about reducing spaces.
c) Work from home will also reduce the flow of money in the economy.
Following is an array of questions to test your reasoning ability in different situations.

Answer each of them according to the question asked in each of them respectively:
126. If highways were restricted to cars and only those trucks with capacity of less than 8
tons, most of the truck traffic would be forced to run outside highways. Such a reduction in
the amount of truck traffic would reduce the risk of collisions on highways. The conclusion
drawn in the first sentence depends on which of the following assumptions?
a) The roads outside highway would be as convenient as highway for most drivers of trucks..
b) Most of the roads outside highways are not ready to handle truck traffic.
c) Most trucks that are currently running in highway have a capacity of more than 8 tons.
d) Cars are at greater risk of being involved in collisions than are trucks.
127. Read the debate between Harry and Potter and identify the main issue:
Harry: Within democracies, voters are entitled to know the down-side to a candidate and the
other side is obviously well placed to voice it. To stifle one‘s ability to voice negative things
about a candidate would be to obstruct democracy and limit free speech.
Potter: Negative advertisements produce the politics of the personal, since an easiest advert is
an attack-advert which focuses on the personality or personal qualities of one‘s opponent. A
negative advertisement is one that focuses upon a rival product, in this case, a rival election
candidate or party in order to point its flaws and to persuade the public to not vote for it.
a) Whether negative advertisement strengthens democratic governance?

b) Whether the practice of negative advertisements is good for democracy and politics?
c) Whether negative advertising needs to be banned?
d) Whether negative advertising produces the politics of the personal?
Page 40 of 46
128. Which alternative applies to the following Statement and Assumption?
Statement: Go by Aeroplane to reach Delhi from Chennai quickly.
Assumptions:
I. Chennai and Delhi are connected by Air service.
II. There is no other means to commute from Chennai to Delhi.
III. The Air distance between Delhi and Chennai is less.
a) Only I is implicit.
b) Only I and II are implicit.
c) Only I and III are implicit.
d) Only II is implicit.
129. Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as
Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna cannot follow Bengali.
Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali?
a) Archana
b) Bulbul
c) Krishna
d) Ananya
130. If ‗367‘ means ‗I am happy‘; ‗748‘ means ‗you are sad‘ and ‗469‘ means ‗happy and
sad‘ in a given code, then which of the following represents ‗and‘ in the code?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 4
One of the biggest casualties of the Covid-19 pandemic and the resultant lockdown has been
institutionalised education. Schools have been shut to prevent the spread of the virus and this
has given way to online classrooms, a very new concept in India even for the most
sophisticated schools. It is commendable how easily some educational institutions have
moved to virtual classrooms, all thanks to tools such as Zoom, Google Hangouts
and Microsoft Teams. But there are some still struggling to get online. The online classes,
whatever the enabling technology, is only as good as the teachers and the ability of the
students to grasp the new teaching technique. One of the teachers felt students are actually
more responsive and active in online classrooms, compared to when they are in physical
ones. ―This could be because this is a new concept and they are excited to explore it with the
teachers. They also don‟t get distracted by their classmates, which frequently happens in a
regular class.‖ Teachers do find the absence of a blackboard a disadvantage and network
connectivity a constant problem. ―We miss the clarity that a blackboard gives us, we are kind
of making do with the virtual whiteboard on Zoom.‖ Shweta Kawatra, a parent who teaches in
a New Delhi school, highlights that many students have not been able to take advantage of
the virtual platform because they do not have a suitable device at home or lack a good
internet connection. ―It has its own share of disadvantages too. Too much screen time can be
perilous for health. Prolonged online sessions can be overwhelming and may lead to
problems related to vision, body posture and sleep disorder,‖ Kawatra adds.
Page 41 of 46
[Excerpt from an Article by Sneha Saha, The Indian Express, dated April 18, 2020]
131. What is the Central Idea of the passage above?

a) Institutionalised education was much better than the current online education system.
b) Institutionalized education cannot be replaced by any other system of education.
c) Virtual Classroom teaching is a sustainable approach to education in modern times.
132. Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage above?
a) Virtual Classroom teaching is a sustainable approach to education.
b) Virtual Classroom teaching causes health problems.
c) Institutionalized education system has its advantages.
133. Which of the following is an implicit assumption in the observation that students are
more active and responsive in online classrooms as compared to that in physical ones?
I. Students are not serious while studying in physical classrooms.
II. Online classrooms inculcate more interest in students towards studies than the physical
classrooms.
III. Students don‘t like physical classrooms at all.
IV. Students sleep in physical classrooms.
a) Only I and II
b) Only III and IV
c) I and IV
d) I, II, III and IV.
a) There is a divide in opinions of people on the merits and demerits of Online education.
b) Online education system is going to replace the Institutionalized education system.
c) The institutionalized education system is not at all perilous for health of students.
135. Consider this statement: ‗Virtual education provides for various online seminars,
opportunities to interact with learned experts, pro-bono education classes etc., for students
across India irrespective of their economic status and background.‘
Which of the following statements weakens the statement?

I. Many students in remote areas do not have access to internet facilities.
II. Many students in rural areas do not have devices to take advantage of the Virtual
classrooms.
III. Online Seminars and pro bono classes are not interesting and do not cater to the needs of
students across India.
Page 42 of 46
IV. The mobile phone data packages to access such heavy online contents are not enough and
participation in such events involves costly data packages which is dependent upon the
economic status of those students.
a) Only I, II, III

b) Only III and IV
c) Only I, II and IV.
d) Only I and II.
The following data presents the cases of Japanese Encephalitis in five states of India.
60 57
50 45
40
29
30
21
20
13
10
0
Odisha West Bengal Chhattisgarh Jharkhand Andhra
Pradesh
No. of persons affected by Japanese encephalitis (in thousands)
Ratio of males to females

States
Male : Female
Odisha 12 : 7
West Bengal 6:3
Chhattisgarh 5:2
Jharkhand 15 : 14
Andhra Pradesh 7:6
136. Number of females affected by Japanese encephalitis in West Bengal are what
percentage (up to 1 decimal) more or less than that of females affected in Odisha?
a) 28.6 % less
b) 29.7 % more
c) 26.8 % less
d) 25.8 % more
Page 43 of 46
137. What is the average number of males affected by Japanese encephalitis in all the five
states?
a) 9,000
b) 13,500
c) 18,400
d) 20,600
138. If the total number of males affected by Japanese Encephalitis in other states are 87 %
more than the average number of males in Odisha, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh and
Jharkhand, the total number of males affected in India is:
a) 44,880
b) 1,40,880
c) 1,47,880
d) 68,880
139. By what percentage is the average of males in Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Andhra
Pradesh together more or less than the average of females in West Bengal, Jharkhand and
Odisha together who are affected by Japanese encephalitis?
a) 22
b) 24
c) 26
d) 28
140. What is the percentage (up to 1 decimal) of females affected by ‗Japanese encephalitis‘
of the total affected population across five states?
a) 25.4
b) 36.7
c) 24.5
d) 37.6
A room having the dimensions as mentioned in the chart below has a table, a bed and a
chair. There are three books kept on the table (side by side) and also a lamp having
radius, 3.5 inch. Now, on the basis of information given below answer the following?
Sr. No. Object Length Breadth Height

1. Room 18 feet 12 feet 12 feet
2. Bed 3.5 feet 6 feet 3 feet
3. Table 3 feet 4 feet 4 feet
4. Chair 2 feet 2.5 feet 4 feet
5. Books 12 inch 6 inch 3 inch
Page 44 of 46
141. What would be the area of the room which is not covered by any object as mentioned
above?
(a) 176.5 sq. ft.
(b) 178 sq. ft.
(c) 367 sq. ft.
(d) 245.5 sq. ft.
142.What is the area of the table which is uncovered by any of the objects?
(a) 1656 sq. inch
(b) 1617.52 sq. inch
(c) 1473.52 sq. inch
(d) 1512 sq. inch
143.How many tables are required to cover the floor surface of the room completely?
(a) 18
(b) 11
(c) 21
(d) Data inadequate.
144.If the entire room is to be filled by books having same dimensions as lying on the table
then how many books are required.
(a) 2,00,736
(b) 20,736
(c) 11,736
(d) 17,522
145.How many chairs can be put inside the room so as to cover the entire floor area of the
room?
(a) 40
(b) 21
(c) 43
(d) 18
Page 45 of 46
Direction: In the figure given below, a goat is tied to a pole (at point O) which is the
center of the semi -circular plot. The area of the plot is equal to its perimeter. BO is the
length of the rope through which the goat is tied to the pole. Answer to the closest
decimal.
B
A O C
146.The length of the rope is
a. 2 + π
b. 2 + π/2
c. 2 + 2/ π
d. 2
147.The area of the plot is

a. 18.13
b. 21.83
c. 28.13
d. 11.83
148.If a triangle is created by joining points A, B, and C. What will be the length of AB?
a. 3.73
b. 7.33
c. 1.86
d. Can‘t be calculated with the given data
149.What will be the area of the triangle ABC?

a. 6.96
b. 9.66
c. 3.66
d. Can‘t be calculated with the given data
150.What will be the perimeter of the triangle ABC?

a. 40.4
b. 30.3
c. 20.2
d. 10.1
Page 46 of 46

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Common Law Admission Test(CLAT) -2013

UNDER-GRADUATE COURSES

UG - 4

Question Booklet No. 10001 OMR Answer Sheet Number
(To be filled by the Candidate)
Signature of the Invigilator ……………………….............. Name of the
Invigilator. ………………………................... Roll Number

(To be filled by the Candidate)

Question Booklet Series: A

Time: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
Number of pages in this Booklet : 39 Number of Questions in this Booklet: 200

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
1. The Question Booklets will be distributed ten minutes before the commencement of the test.
2. After commencement of the test, during the first five minutes, you are required to open the question booklet and
compulsorily examine it for defects, if any, as stated below:
(a) To have access inside the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not
accept a booklet if it is opened or without sticker-seal.
(b) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the question booklet with the information printed on
the cover page. Faulty booklets with missing pages/questions, misprint, fudging of print or duplication
of pages or any other discrepancy should immediately be brought to the notice of the invigilator(s) and
replaced by the same series correct question booklet within first five minutes of the commencement of
the test. Afterwards, the question booklet will not be replaced.
(c) Only after the verification of question booklet, enter your Roll Number, Question Booklet Number and
Question Booklet Series in the space provided on OMR Answer Sheet with Ball Point Pen and shade the
relevant circles with HB Pencil only.
3. There are 200 objective type multiple-choice questions carrying one mark each. Each question has four choices of
answers. Select the most appropriate answer and shade the corresponding circle in the OMR Answer Sheet with HB
Pencil only. If more than one circle is shaded, then the answer to that question shall be deemed as wrong. There is
negative marking for wrong answers wherein 0.25 mark will be deducted for each of the wrong answers.
4. Specific instructions are given at the beginning of each question or a set of questions. Read them carefully before
answering.
5. Possession of any kind of electronic gadget inside the examination hall is strictly prohibited. Possession and/or use of
any such gadget shall disqualify the candidate from appearing in the test.
6. In case of any malpractice or attempt to resort to any malpractice, which includes talking to neighbours, copying or using
unfair means etc., the Invigilator/Centre Superintendent shall seize the material, if any, and expel the candidate from the
examination hall.
7. The first bell will ring 10 minutes before the commencement of the test. As soon as the first bell rings the invigilator(s)
will distribute the OMR Answer Sheet and Question Booklet to the candidates. The second bell will ring at 3:00 p.m.
which indicates the commencement of the test. The third bell will ring at 4:00 pm. to indicate the completion of one hour
of test. The fourth bell will be rung 10 minutes before the completion of the test. The fifth and final long bell will ring at
5:00 p.m. to indicate the completion of the test.
8. No candidate shall be permitted to leave the Examination Hall before 5:00 pm.
9. You have to return the Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the test
compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall.
10. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet.

132
ENGLISH INCLUDING COMPREHENSION

Direction for Questions 1 to 10: Read the given passage carefully and attempt the questions that follow and
shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR answer sheet.

It is an old saying that knowledge is power. Education is an instrument which imparts knowledge and
therefore, indirectly controls power. Therefore, ever since the dawn of our civilisation, persons in power
have always tried to supervise or control education. It has been handmaid of the ruling class. During the
Christian era, the ecclesiastics controlled the institution of education and diffused among the people the
gospel of the Bible and religious teachings. These gospels and teachings were no other than a philosophy
for the maintenance of the existing society. It taught the poor man to be meek and to earn his bread with the
sweat of his brow, while the priests and the landlords lived in luxury and fought duels for the slightest
offence. During the Renaissance, education passed more from the clutches of the priest into the hands of the
prince. In other words, it became more secular. Under the control of the monarch, education began to devise
and preach the infallibility of its masters, the monarch or king. It also invented and supported fantastic
theories like “The Divine right Theory” and that the king can do no wrong, etc. With the advent of the
industrial revolution, education took a different turn and had to please the new masters. It now no longer
remained the privilege of the baron class, but was thrown open to the new rich merchant class of the society.
The philosophy which was in vogue during this period was that of “Laissez Faire” restricting the function
of the state to a mere keeping of laws and order while on the other hand, in practice the law of the jungle
prevailed in the form of free competition and the survival of the fittest.
1. What does the theory “Divine Right of King” stipulate?
A. The kings are God
B. That the right of governing is conferred upon the kings by God
C. They have the right to be worshipped like Gods by their subjects
D. That the right of kings are divine and therefore sacred
2. Who controlled education during the Renaissance?
A. The common people
B. The prince
C. The church and the priests
D. None of these
3. What did the ruling class in the Christian era think of the poor man?
A. That he is the beloved of God
B. That he deserves all sympathy of the rich
C. That he should be strong and lord over others
D. That he is meant for serving the rich
4. Who controlled the institution of education during the Christian Era?
A. The secular leaders of society
B. The church and the priests
C. The monarchs
D. The common people
5. What does the word “infallibility” mean?
A. That every man is open to error
B. Sensitivity

133
C. The virtue of not making mistake
D. That some divine power is responsible for determining the fate of the man
6. What do you mean by the “sweat of his brow”?
A. Very hard work
B. The tiny droplets of sweat on the forehead
C. The wrinkles visible on the forehead
D. The sign of innocence
7. What does the policy of “Laissez Faire” stand for?
A. Individual freedom in the economic field
B. State control over law and order in society
C. Joint control of the means of production by the state and private enterprise
D. Decontrol over law and order by the ruling class
8. Which of the following describes the writer?
A. Concerned
B. Unconcerned
C. Aggressive
D. Frustrated
9. Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given:
Gospels
A. Chit chat
B. A teaching or doctrine of a religious teacher
C. Rumour
D. Guidance
10. Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given:
Vogue
A. Uncertain
B. Out-dated
C. The prevailing fashion or style
D. Journey
Direction for Questions 11 to 15: Select the word that is spelt correctly
11. A paraphernalia
B paraphrenalia
C parapherenalia
D paraphrennalia

12. A enterprenuer
B entrepreneur
C entrepenur
D enteruepeur

13. A onomaetopoeia
B onomoatopoeia
C onomatopoeia

D onomatopoeia

134
14. A hemorhage B haemorhhage
C haemorrhage
D hemoorhage

15. A dylexsia B dyslexia
C dislexia
D dislecsia

Direction for questions 16 to 25: Select the best option from the four alternatives given below and shade the
appropriate answer in the space provided for it in the OMR answer sheet.
16. Unless he _________ this office, I will not say anything.
A. Left
B. Did not leave
C. Leaves
D. Had left
17. ___________, I would help all the poor people.
A. If I am rich
B. If I was rich
C. If I were rich
D. In case I am rich
18. I ________ the news an hour ago.
A. Have heard
B. Heard
C. Was hearing
D. Have been hearing
19. He spoke __________ about his prospects.
A. Confidentially
B. Consciously
C. Confidently
D. Conscientiously
20. The boy is not interested in playing, _____ ? A. Doesn’t he?
B. Isn’t he?
C. Didn’t he?
D. Is he?
21. He told us that we should never live beyond ___________ means.
A. His
B. Their
C. Our
D. Her
22. May I request _______ you again to consider my case favourably.

A. To
135

B. Onto
C. Of
D. No proposition required
23. Known as devout and serious person, she also has ______ sense of humour.
A. Better
B. Quick
C. Good
D. Beautiful
24. Galileo said, “The Earth ______ around the sun”.
A. Revolved
B. Is revolving
C. Revolves
D. Is revolved
25. We ____________ our work before the guests arrived at our house.
A. Shall finish
B. Have finished
C. Had finished
D. Shall have finished

Direction for Questions 26 to 30: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a
coherent paragraph. Each sentenced is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences
from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. Shade the appropriate answer in the space
provided for it in the OMR sheet.
26. a: People who start up their own business typically come from two extreme backgrounds: One is
the business family background and the other is a steady professional family background. b:
Typically, people from different backgrounds face different kinds of basic problems.
c: The people from both the backgrounds find it very difficult to establish and manage an enterprise.
d: Starting up and managing a small business is no joke.
A. d b c a
B. b a c d
C. d a c b
D. c d a b
27. a: Venture capital is recommended as the ideal source of financing for a successfully small business.
b: Several companies including start ups have been funded by dedicated venture funds during this
decade.
c: Despite this, an average Indian entrepreneur understands and appreciation of venture capital
concept has been woefully inadequate. d: In the Indian context, though venture capital has been a
relatively late entrant, it has already made a reasonable impact.
A. a b c d B. a d b c
C. a c b d
adcb

138
D.
28. a: Progress in diagnosis, in preventive medicine and in treatment, both medicinal and surgical, has
been rapid and breathe taking. b: Much in medicine which is not taken for granted was undreamt
of even as recently as 20 years ago. c: Presently small pox has been eradicated, poliomyelitis
practically banished, tuberculosis has become curable and coronary artery disease surgically
relievable.
d: The dramatic surge in the field of molecular biology and research by immunologists and
geneticists has succeeded in controlling parasitic diseases like malaria and river blindness that
affect millions of people round the world.
A. b d c a
B. b a c d
C. b c a d
D. b d a c
29. a: Instead, many deaths and injuries result from falling objects and the collapse of buildings, bridges
and other structures. b: Earthquakes almost never kill people directly. c: Fire resulting from broken
gas or power lines is another major danger during a quake. d: Spills of hazardous chemicals are
also a concern during an earthquake.
A. c a b d
B. d a c b
C. d c a b D. b a c d
30. a: The Winchester or hard disk drives can store much more data than what can be stored on a floppy
diskette. b: Hard disks come sealed and they cannot be removed or changed like floppy diskettes.
c: Often floppy disk system is used in conjunction with the Winchester disk system. d: This makes
for an ideal system for secondary storage.
A. c a b d B. c b d a C. b a c d D. a b c d

Direction for Questions 31 to 35: Given below are a few foreign language phrases which are commonly
used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases and shade the appropriate answer in the space
provided for it in the OMR sheet.
31. El Dorado
A. An imaginary place
B. High altitude
C. A literary man
D. A country full of gold and precious stones
32. quantum ramifactus
A. The amount of damage suffered
B. The amount of damage caused
137
C. The amount of damage paid
D. The amount of damage received
33. Corpus delicti
A. Fake evidence of an offence

B. Hearsay evidence of an offence

C. Lack of evidence of an offence
D. An evidence which constitute an offence
34. Vis-a-vis A. Direct
B. Opposite
C. Face to face
D. Agree
35. Carte blanche A. Complete authority
B. Issue the warrant
C. No authority
D. Lack of authority

Direction for Questions 36 to 40: Choose the explanation that catches the spirit of the idiom given in each
question.
36. To blaze a trail: A. To set on fire
B. To blow the trumpet
C. To initiate work in a movement
D. To be hopeful 37. A snake in the grass: A. A secret or hidden enemy
B. An unreliable person
C. Unforeseen happening
D. A dangerous enemy
38. Have too many irons in the fire:
A. Engaged in too many enterprises at the same time
B. Facing too many problems at the same time
C. Said or done too many things at the same time
D. To incite the feeling amongst the people
39. A fair weather friend:
A. A friend who is fair to us at all the times
B. A friend who deserts us in difficulties
C. A friend whom we love the most
D. A friend who loves us the most 40. A Panacea:
A. An injection that serves as a life line
B. A lecture full of precepts
C. A strong drug that induces sleep

140
D.
A single cure for all diseases or troubles

ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS (NUMERICAL ABILITY)

41 2 / 3 is a rational number whereas ¥2 / ¥3 is
A. Also a rational number
B. An irrational number
C. Not a number
D. A natural periodic number
42 Greatest number which divides 926 and 2313, leaving 2 and 3 remainders, respectively, is

43 A single discount equivalent to a discount series 15% and 5% is
A. 32% B. 20%
C. 10%
D. 8.5%
44 By selling a cycle for Rs. 2345, a student loses 19%. His cost price is nearly
A. Rs. 4000 B. Rs. 5000 C. Rs. 3000
D. Rs. 3500
45 Diagonals of a rhombus are 1 meter and 1.5 meter in lengths. The area of the rhombus is
A. 0.75 m2
B. 1.5 m
C. 1.5 m2
D. 0.375 m2
46 An angle in a semi circle is
A. ʌ
B. ʌ/4
C. ʌ/2
D. 2ʌ
47 In a school for midday meal food is sufficient for 250 students for 33 days, if each student is
given 125 gm meals. 80 more students joined the school. If same amount of meal is given to
each student, then the food will last for
A. 20 days
B. 40 days
C. 30 days
D. 25 days

141

48 In a school of 500 students, 102 students can read Hindi and Tamil both, 200 students can read
only Hindi. The students who can read Tamil are
A. 98
B. 402
C. 302
D. 300
49 The value of k for which kx+3y-k+3 = 0 and 12x+ky = k, have infinite solutions, is
A. 0
B. -6
C. 6
D. 1
50 Table shows the daily expenditure on food of 25 households in a locality:
Rs. 100-150 150-200 200-250 250-300 300-350
Households 4 5 12 2 2
The mean daily expenditure on food is
A. Rs. 111
B. Rs. 161
C. Rs. 211
Rs. 261
51 A box contains 24 marbles, some are green and others are blue. If a marble is drawn at random
from the jar, the probability that it is green is 2/3. The number of blue balls in the jar is
A. 13
B. 12
C. 16
D. 8
52 The population of a city is 250 thousand. It is increasing at the rate of 2% every year. The
growth in the population after 2 years is

142
D.
A. 2500
B. 10000
C. 252000
D. 10100
53 If a point (x, y) in a OXY plane is equidistant from (-1,1) and (4,3) then
A. 10x+4y = 23
B. 6x+4y = 23
C. –x+y = 7
D. 4x+3y = 0
54 Sum of first 15 multiples of 8 is
A. 960
B. 660
C. 1200
D. 1060
55 A rod of 2 cm diameter and 30 cm length is converted into a wire of 3 meter length of uniform
thickness. The diameter of the wire is
141
A. 2/10 cm
B. 2/¥10 cm
C. 1/¥10 cm
D. 1/10 cm
56 Two straight poles of unequal length stand upright on a ground. The length of the shorter pole
is 10 meters. A pole joins the top of the two vertical poles. The distance between the two tops
is 5 meters. The distance between the poles along the ground is 4 meter. The area thus formed
by the three poles with the ground is
A. 52 meter2

B. 46 meter2
C. 20 meter2
D. 50 meter2
57 Pipe A can fill a tank in 10 hours and pipe B can fill the same tank in 12 hours. Both the pipes
are opened to fill the tank and after 3 hours pipe A is closed. Pipe B will fill the remaining part
of the tank in
A. 5 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 5 hours 24 minutes
D. 3 hours
58 A ground 100x80 meter2 has two cross roads in its middle. The road parallel to the length is 5
meter wide and the other road is 4 meter wide, both roads are perpendicular to each other. The
cost of laying the bricks at the rate of Rs. 10 per m2, on the roads, will be
A. Rs. 7000
B. Rs. 8000
C. Rs. 9000
D. Rs. 10000
59 If selling price of 10 articles is equal to cost price of 11 articles, then gain is

144

A. 8%
B. 9%
C. 8.5%
D. 10%
60 Angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 3:4:5:8. The smallest angle is
A. 54o
B. 72o
C. 36o
D. 18o
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND CURRENT AFFAIRS

61 The Headquarter of European Union is situated in
A. England
B. Germany
C. France
D. Belgium
62 India in 2008 successfully put CHANDRAYAAN-1 into its initial orbit by
A. PSLV- C12
B. PSLV- C11
C. PSLV-14
D. GSLV-D3
63 Vishwanathan Anand retained the World Chess Championship in 2012 by defeating Boris
Gelfand. Mr. Gelfand belongs to
A. Israel
B. Russia
C. Poland
D. USA
64 Kapilvastu Relics (fragments of Lord Buddha’s bone), for the second time in 114 years, recently
travelled from India to
A. China
B. Sri Lanka
C. Myanmar
D. Japan
65 Dr. Norman Borlaugh is famous as father of the Green Revolution in 1960s. His initial goal was to
create varieties of wheat adapted to the climate of
A. Mexico
B. India

C.
D.
143
USA
China
66 A feature ‘Bluetooth’ now common in mobile phones, gets its name from a
A. Chinese 10th Century King
B. UK Software Company
C. Greek Goddess
D. Danish 10th Century King
67 Which pair of states does not touch each other A. Meghalaya, Manipur
B. Chhattisgarh, U.P. C.
Rajasthan, Punjab
D. J.K., H.P.
68 Baglihar dam, is constructed on river
A. Ravi
B. Chenab
C. Indus
D. Sutlej
69 Navjivan Trust was instituted with the objectives of propagating peaceful means of attaining third
Swaraj, by
A. Mohan Das Karam Chand Gandhi
B. Lala Lajpat Rai
C. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D. Dr. Ambedkar
70 World Cup Football 2014 and Olympics 2016 will be held in
A. USA
B. Brazil
C. Russia
D. South Africa
71 In 2012-13, India’s target is to restrict the fiscal deficit to x % of the GDP, where x is
A. 10
B. 8.3
C. 15
D. 5.1
72 POSCO steel project to come up but being strongly protested by the people is located in
A. Chhattisgarh
B. Jharkhand
C. Odisha
D. Andhra Pradesh
73 Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards in our country were instituted in the year
A. 1952 B. 1954 C. 1962
D. 1964
74 Who was crowned the Miss World 2012 on August 18, 2012?

144
A. Ms. Jessica Kahawaty
B. Ms. Wenxia Yu
C. Ms. Vanya Mishra
D. Ms. Sophie Moulds
75 Vishwaroopam is a 2013 Tamil spy thriller film written, directed and co-produced by
______________ who also enacts the lead role.
A. Prakash Raj
B. Rajni Kant
C. Kamal Haasan
D. Chiranjeevi
76 Vijay Kumar, who clinched a silver medal in London Olympics in 2012 is associated with
A. Boxing
B. Shooting
C. Weight Lifting
D. Wrestling
77 Sushil Kumar who won a silver medal in London Olympics in 2012 is associated with
A. Shooting
B. Boxing
C. Wrestling
D. Weight lifting
78 How many medals did India win in London Olympics 2012?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5
D. 6
79 The present Pope chosen in March 2013 hails from which country?
A. Brazil
B. Mexico
C. Argentina
D. Panama
80 The first person to set foot on the moon on July 20, 1969 and who died on Aug. 25, 2012 was
A. Nevil Armstrong
B. Neil Armstrong
C. Gagan Narang
D. Michael Phelps
81 In which place, on Feb 21, 2013, two powerful explosive devices planted on bicycles had exploded
in Andhra Pradesh?
A. Dilrubnagar
B. Dilsukhnagar
C. Dilkushnagar
D. Dilshaknagar
82 On which date Maha Kumbh Mela started in Prayag this year?

C.
D.
A. 14-1-2013
B. 1-1-2013
145
26-1-2013
4-1-2013
83 On which date International Women’s Day is celebrated?
A. 18th March
B. 8th March
C. 28th March
D. 18th Feb
84 Duration of which Five Year Plan was 2007-2012
A. X
B. XII
C. IX
D. XI
85 As per census 2011, which State has the lowest sex ratio (877:1000)?
A. Punjab
B. Haryana
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Bihar
86 Hugo Chavez who died on March 5, 2013 after losing his battle with cancer, was the President of
which country?
A. Argentina
B. Cuba
C. Brazil
D. Venezuela
87 Carlos Slim, who tops the list of world’s wealthiest people, for the fourth year in a row, belongs to
which country?
A. USA
B. England
C. Mexico
D. Germany
88 In the name P. Chidambaram, the present Union Finance Minister, what does ‘P’ stands for?
A. Palghat
B. Pallakudi
C. Palaniappan
D. Perumal
89 The earlier name of which city was New Amsterdam?
A. Chicago
B. California C. Washington D.C.
D. New York City
90 The grant of Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa is associated with

A. Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula
B. Nawab Asif-ud-Daula
C. Shah Alam I
D. Shah Alam II
146
91 Where did Kuchipudi, an eminent dance form, originate?
A. Kerala
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu
92 Light Year is the unit of
A. Time
B. Distance
C. Light
D. None of these
93 The leaning tower of Pisa does not fall because
A. It is tapered at the top
B. It covers a large base area
C. Its C.G. is inside the tower
D. The vertical line passing through the C.G. of the tower falls within its base
94 “Paradise Regained” was written by
A. John Milton
B. Michel Angelo
C. John Keats
D. Lord Byron
95 Which is the richest temple in India?
A. Balaji Temple of Tirupathi
B. Padmanabha Swamy Temple of Thiruvananthapuram
C. Shirdi Sai Baba Temple D. Jagannatha Temple of Puri 96 Who founded the Red Cross?
A. Henry Dunant
B. Alexander
C. James Cook
D. Bismark
97 World Literacy Day is celebrated on
A. 5th September B. 6th September
C. 8th September
D. None of these

C.
D.
98 South African Paralympics icon Oscar Pistorius has been accused of killing
A. Julia Kamp
B. Reeva Steenkamp
C. Pistorius Kamp
D. Shakeera Kamp
99 In the month of March, 2013 the Supreme Court of India issued a notice that the ambassador of the
following country shall not leave India without the permission of the Supreme Court
A. Germany
B. Maldives
147
Italy
Nepal
100 The Constitution (One Hundred Seventeenth Amendment) Bill, 2012 makes provisions regarding
A. Reservation in matters of promotions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
B. Reservation in matters of appointments for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
C. Reservation in matters of appointments and promotions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes
D. None of the above
101 The number of High Courts in India is
A. 18 B. 24 C. 21
D. 28
102 The last British Emperor of India was
A. King George I
B. King George III
C. King George V
D. King George VI
103 Palaeolithic period is also known as
A. Mesolithic Age
B. Late Stone Age
C. Old Stone Age
D. Neolithic Age
104 Capital of India was transferred from Calcutta to Delhi in the year
A. 1901 B. 1911 C. 1921
D. 1922
105 The chairman of Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee of the Constituent Assembly was
A. Rajendra Prasad
B. B.R. Ambedkar
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. J.B. Kripalani
106 The Environment Protection Act was passed by the Parliament of India in the year
A. 1976 B. 1986 C. 1996
D. 2006

107 International Year of Biodiversity is/was/will be

A. 2010 B. 2011 C. 2012
D. 2014
108 The first Shaka king in India was
148
A. Rudradaman
B. Menadar
C. Maues
D. Damanrudra
109 Potential Energy is described by the expression:
A. PE= mgh
B. PE= ngh
C. PE= oph
D. PE= pph
110 Where was 16th NAM Summit held?
A. Tehran
B. Mehran
C. Turban
D. Bagdad
LOGICAL REASONING
Direction for Questions 111 to 113: Answer the following questions based on the statements given below:
i. There are 3 poles on each side of the road.
ii. These six poles are labelled A, B, C, D, E and F. iii. The poles are of different colours
namely Golden, Silver, Metallic, Black, Bronze and White. iv. The poles are of different
heights.
v. E, the tallest pole, is exactly opposite to the Golden colours pole. vi.
The shortest pole is exactly opposite to the Metallic coloured pole. vii. F,
the Black coloured pole, is located between A and D.
viii. C, the Bronze coloured pole, is exactly opposite to A. ix.
B, the Metallic coloured pole, is exactly opposite to F.
x. A, the White coloured pole, is taller than C but shorter than D and B.

111 What is the colour of the pole diagonally opposite to the Bronze coloured pole?
A. White
B. Silver
C. Metallic
D. Golden
112 Which is the second tallest pole?

C.
D.
A. A
B. D
C. B
D. Cannot be determined
113 Which is the colour of the tallest pole?
A. Golden
B. Silver
C. Bronze
D. None of these
149

Directions for questions 114 and 115: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:
The head of a newly formed Government desires to appoint five of the six elected ministers P, Q, R, S, T
and U to portfolios of Foreign, Industry and Commerce, Agriculture, Rural Development and Human
Resources. U does not want any portfolio if S gets one of the five. R wants either Foreign or Human
Resources or no portfolio. Q says that if S gets Industry and Commerce or Rural Development then she
must get the other one. T insists on a portfolio if P gets one.

114 Which of the following is a valid assignment
A. P- Foreign, Q- Industry and Commerce, R- Agriculture, S- Rural Development, T- Human
Resources
B. R- Foreign, S- Industry and Commerce, P- Agriculture, Q- Rural Development, T- Human
Resources
C. P- Foreign, Q- Industry and Commerce, T- Agriculture, S- Rural Development, U- Human
Resources
D. Q- Foreign, U- Industry and Commerce, T- Agriculture, R- Rural Development, P- Human
Resources
115 If P gets Foreign and R gets Human Resources, then which is NOT a valid assignment of
Agriculture and Rural Development
A. S- Agriculture, Q- Rural Development
B. U- Agriculture, Q- Rural Development
C. Q- Agriculture, T- Rural Development
D. Q- Agriculture, S- Rural Development
Direction for Questions 116 to 120: In each of the following questions, a related pair of words is followed
by four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one
expressed in the question pair.
116 Action : Reaction A. Introvert : Extrovert
B. Assail : Defend
C. Diseased : Treatment
D. Death : Rebirth
117 Sorrow : Misery A. Love : Obsession
B. Amity : Harmony
C. Happiness : Joy
D. Enemy : Hatred
118 Drama : Audience A. Brawl : Vagabonds
B. Game : Spectators
C. Art : Critic
D. Movie : Actors
119 Nuts : Bolts A. Nitty : Gritty
B. Bare : Feet
C. Naked : Clothes
150
D. Hard : Soft
120 Book : Author A. Rain : Flood
B. Light : Switch

C. Symphony : Composer
D. Song : Music

Directions for questions 121 to 125: Each question contains a statement on relationship and a question
regarding relationship based on the statement. Select the correct option.
121 Moni is daughter of Sheela. Sheela is wife of my wife’s brother. How Moni is realted to my wife?
A. Cousin
B. Niece
C. Sister
D. Sister-in-law
122 Annu is daughter of my mother’s brother Abahi. Pari is grand daughter of my mother. Pari should
call Annu as A. Maternal Aunt
B. Sister
C. Cousin D.
Niece
123 Markandey is Rajiv’s mother’s father. Markandey is three brothers. One of them has grandson
Abahi. Rajan is son of Abahi. Rajan is related to Rajiv as
A. Brother
B. Nephew
C. Cousin D. Uncle
124 Deepak said to Nitin, “That boy playing with the football is the younger of the two brothers of the
daughter of my father’s wife”. How is the boy playing football related to Deepak?
A. Son
B. Brother
C. Cousin
D. Brother-in-law
125 Pointing to a woman in the photograph, Rajesh said, “The only daughter of her grandfather is my
wife”. How is Rajesh related to that woman?
A. Uncle
B. Father
C. Maternal Uncle
D. Brother

Direction for Questions 126 to 130: Read the information given below to answer the questions.
i. Kareena’s dieting schedule consists of having only one fruit on a given day of the week.
ii. Dietician has prescribed banana, papaya, pomegranate, apple and grape from Sunday to Friday,
one day being a fasting day. Kareena cannot eat any fruit on Saturday.
iii. Pomegranate day is neither on the first day nor on the last day but earlier than the papaya day.
151
iv. Apple day is on the immediate next day of papaya day.
v. Banana day is on the immediate previous day of the fasting day.
154

vi. Apple day and grape day must have a gap of two days between them. vii. Grape day is the day
immediately following the fasting day.

126 Which of the following is the fasting day?
A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Wednesday
D. Thursday
127 Banana day and apple day have a gap of how many days between them?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
128 Which day is grape day?
A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Thursday
D. Sunday
129 Which day is pomegranate day?
A. Sunday
B. Monday
C. Tuesday
D. Wednesday
130 Which of the following is the correct statement? A. Apple day is after papaya day.
B. Banana day is on Wednesday.
C. Fasting day is on Tuesday.
D. Papaya day is earlier than banana day.
Direction for Questions 131 to 135: Each question contains one statement and two courses of action I and
II. Assuming the statements to be true, decide which of the two courses of action most logically follows.
Code:
A. If only I follows.
B. If only II follows.
C. If either I or II follows.
D. If neither I nor II follows.

131 Statement: Indian children are very talented but are instead weak in science and mathematics.
I: Teaching and textbooks are not available in mother language.
II: Education based on experiments in both the subjects is lacking.
131-A

132 Statement: Despite of child labour laws, children can be seen working in hotels, shops, houses, very
frequently.
I: The government should not make such laws which cannot be enforced.
II: A proper education system for the primary level particularly for lower caste community may
eradicate this problem.
132-B
133 Statement: Kyoto protocol on environment is signed by almost every country of the world.
I: As a result air, water and soil pollution have come down.
II: Increasing production of automobiles, refrigerators and fertilisers do not affect our
environment. 133-D
134 Statement: School dropout rate is very high in the rural areas as children support their parents in
income earning activities.
I: Public awareness programme on primary education should be expanded immediately to educate
parents.
II: Compensation is not a remedy.
134-A
135 Statement: Smoking is one of those human weaknesses which tend to test the will power of the
smoker of the edge.
I: It is very difficult for the smoker to give up smoking even if they want to do so. II:
Human beings have other weaknesses as well
135-D
Direction for Questions 136 to 140: Complete the series by choosing the correct option. 136
0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, ?
A. 34
B. 35
C. 33
D. 36
137 A -10, E -15, I -20, M -25,…….
A. Q-5
B. Q-30
C. P-30
D. R-30
138 17, 36, 74, 150, ? , 606
A. 250 B. 303 C. 300
D. 302
139 2, 1, 4, 3, 6, 5, 8, ?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 7
D. 8
140 1, 4, 27, 256. ?
A. 625
B. 3125 C. 3025
D. 1225
156

Direction for Questions 141 to 145: In each question below are given two statements numbered I and II.
You have to take the two given statements as true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly
known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow
from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
141 I: All vegetables have gravy.
II: All lunch has vegetable.

A. All lunch has gravy.
B. All gravy has lunch.
C. Both (A) and (B).
142 I: Karan Johar is a good director.
II: Directors are intelligent.

A. All intelligent are directors.
B. Karan Johar is intelligent.
C. Both (A) and (B).
D. None of the above 143 I: Some blues are green.
II: Pink is green

A. Some blue is pink.
B. Some green is pink.
C. If either (A) or (B) follows.
D. Some pinks are blues. 144 I: All boys are tall.
II: All Punjabi are tall.

A. All boys are Punjabi.
B. Some boys are Punjabi.
C. Both of the above.
D. None of the above.
145 I: All girls go to the college.
II: Rina does not go to the college.

A. Rina is not a girl.
B. Going to college is not essential to be a girl.
C. Rina is a girl.
D. None of the above.

Direction for Questions 146-150: Read the information given below to answer the questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H want to have a dinner on a round table and they have worked out the following
seating arrangements.
i. A will sit beside C
157

ii. H will sit beside A

iii. C will sit beside E iv. F will sit beside H
v. E will sit beside G
vi. D will sit beside F
vii. G will sit beside B viii. B will sit beside D
146 Which of the following is wrong? A. A
will be to the immediate right of C
B. D will be to the immediate left of B
C. E will be to the immediate right of A
D. F will be to the immediate left of D 147 Which of the following is correct? A. B will be to
the immediate left of D
B. H will be to the immediate right of A
C. C will be to the immediate right of F
D. B will be to the immediate left of H 148 A and F will become neighbours if:
A. B agrees to change her sitting position
B. C agrees to change her sitting position
C. G agrees to change her sitting position
D. H agrees to change her sitting position 149 During sitting:
A. A will be directly facing C B.
B will be directly facing C
C. A will be directly facing B
D. B will be directly facing D
150 H will be sitting between:
A. C and B
B. A and F
C. D and G
D. E and G
LEGAL APTITUDE
This section consists of fifty (50) questions. Each question consists of legal propositions/ principles
(hereinafter referred to as ‘principle’) and facts. These principles have to be applied to the given facts to
arrive at the most reasonable conclusion. Such principles may or may not be true in the real sense, yet you
have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this section. In other words, in answering
the following questions, you must not rely on any principles except the principles that are given herein
below for every question. Further you must not assume any facts other than those stated in the question.
158

The objective of this section is to test your interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem
solving ability even if the “most reasonable conclusion” arrived at may be unacceptable for any other
reason. It is not the objective of this section to test your knowledge of law.
151:
Principle: When an offer is accepted by a person to whom it is made, it becomes a promise.
But this promise will become legally binding only when the acceptance of the offer is
unconditional.
Facts: Ram makes an offer to sell his house to Shyam for Rs.50 lacs. Shyam accepts this
offer but wants to pay the price of the house in five quarterly instalments. Ram does not
agree to it. Thereafter Shyam agrees to pay the price of the house in the way as originally
desired by Ram. But Ram does not reply to it. Can Shyam compel Ram to sell his house to
him?
A. Shyam can compel Ram to sell his house because Shyam ultimately agrees to pay the price
as originally desired by Ram
B. Shyam can compel Ram to sell his house because Shyam in the first instance substantially
complied with the desire of Ram
C. Shyam can compel Ram to sell his house because Ram’s offer does not exclude the
payment of price in instalments
D. Shyam can not compel Ram to sell his house because Shyam imposes a new condition
about payment of price of the house while accepting the offer which is not ultimately
accepted by Ram.
152:
Principle: Generally an agreement without consideration is not valid. Therefore, in order
to make a valid agreement, some consideration which may have some value in the eyes of
law, is essentially required.
Facts: William has an old car of which he makes seldom use. He voluntarily enters into an
agreement with Smith to sell this car for rupees ten thousand. Thereafter one Anson
approaches William and offers to buy that car for rupees one lac as the car was one which
Anson has been searching for long. Now William wants to cancel his agreement with Smith
and refuses to deliver the car to him saying that consideration (price) for the car promised
by Smith is negligible and, therefore, agreement with him can not be said to be valid one.
A. William can cancel his agreement with Smith as the consideration involved in that is really
inadequate.
B. William can not cancel his agreement with Smith as the sale of car for rupees ten thousand
was voluntary and this price has some value in the eyes of law.
C. William can cancel his agreement with Smith as he was ignorant about the value / price of
the car for which it could be sold.
D. William can cancel his agreement with Smith as he is entitled to get full market value/price
of his car.
153
Principle: In order to be illegible to appear in the semester examination, a student is required to
attend, under all circumstances, at least 70% of the total classes held in that semester as per
University rules.
156
Facts: Anand, an economically poor but a very brilliant student of LL.B. final semester, while going
to his University by cycle received some leg injuries in road accident. Consequently Anand could

not attend his classes for one week as he was advised rest by his doctor for that period. Due to this
absence from the University, Anand failed to have 70% attendance essential to appear in the
examination and, therefore, he was debarred from appearing in the examination by the
University authorities. Anand challenges this decision in the court of law
A. Anand will succeed in the court of law as the accident was beyond his control
B. Anand will definitely get favour of the court on humanitarian ground as he comes from a
economically poor family and may not afford to take readmission
C. Anand will not succeed as he could very easily fulfill eligibility criteria for appearing in the
examination by being reasonably regular in the class throughout the semester.
D. Anand will succeed as requirement of 70% attendance may be declared arbitrary and, therefore,
unreasonable by the court of law.
154
Principle: A seller of goods cannot transfer better rights than he himself possesses in the goods sold
to the buyer.
Facts: Komal leaves his watch by mistake on a seat in the park. Sonal finds that watch and
immediately sells the same for good price to Monal who without inquiring whether Sonal is its
owner or not. Komal later on claims that watch from Monal. Decide whether Komal can succeed?
A. Komal cannot succeed as Monal has paid good price of the watch.
B. Komal cannot succeed as Monal is unaware of the fact that Sonal is not its owner.
C. Komal can not succeed as it was his carelessness and nothing else which enabled Sonal to sell
the watch to Monal.
D. Komal can not succeed as Sonal is merely finder of the watch and, therefore, cannot transfer
ownership rights thereon to Monal.
155
Principle: All citizens shall have the Fundamental Right to carry on any occupation, trade or
business. But reasonable restrictions on the exercise of such rights can be imposed by law in the
interest of the general public.
Facts: A large number of persons had been carrying on the business of dyeing and printing in Rajkot
area for the last 25 years providing employment to about 30000 families. From these business
places untreated dirty water was being discharged on the roads thereby causing damage to the public
health. A notice, therefore, was given to close this business till necessary measures to protect public
health as provided under the environmental statutes were taken by those business men.
A. Notice can not be justified as it will cause loss of employment to 30000 families.
B. Notice can not be justified as it amounts to violation of the fundamental right of the persons
who have been carrying on the business for the last 25 years.
C. The notice can not be justified on the ground of damage to public health as the persons in that
area have been voluntarily residing for long and have become used to that environment.
D. The notice can be justified as the right to business is not absolute and reasonable restriction can
be imposed by law in the interest of the public.

156
157
160

Principle: A Contract can not be enforced by or against a person who is not a party to it. However,
where some benefit is conferred on third party by the contract itself, there third party can be allowed
to enforce that contract to get such benefit.
Facts: Dinesh is liable to pay Rs. 50000/- to Suresh. In order to discharge this liability Dinesh enters
into a contract with Ramesh by which Dinesh sells his car to Ramesh for Rs. 1 lac. Ramesh takes
the delivery of the car and promises/ assures to pay its price at the earliest. Dinesh separately
informs Suresh about this contract for his satisfaction. Ramesh fails to pay the car’s price. Suresh
wants to join Dinesh in filing suit against Ramesh for the recovery of price of the car. Whether
Suresh is entitled to do so?
A. Suresh is entitled to do so because the contract was made for his benefit.
B. Suresh is entitled to do so because Dinesh is liable to him and discharge of this liability depends
upon the payment of the price of the car by Ramesh.
C. Suresh is not entitled to do so because liability of Dinesh does not depand upon any assurance
of Ramesh
D. Suresh is not entitled to do because he is not a party to the contract between Dinesh and Ramesh.
157
Principle: If a contract is made by post between two persons living in two different cities, then the
contract is said to be complete as soon as the letter of acceptance is properly posted, and the place
of completion of the contract is that city where acceptance is posted. It is worth mentioning here
that in every contract there is always an offer from one party and the acceptance of the offer from
the other party.
Facts: Sani, a resident of Patna, gives an offer by post to sell his house for Rs. 25 lacs to Hani, a
resident of Allahabad. This offer letter is posted on 1st January 2013 from Patna and reaches
Allahabad on 7th January 2013. Hani accepts this offer and posts the letter of acceptance on 8th
January 2013 from Allahabad which reaches Patna on 16th January 2013. But Sani presuming that
Hani is not interested in accepting his offer, sells his house to Gani at same price on 15th of January,
2013. Hani files a suit against Sani for the breach of contract in the competent court of Allahabad.
Whether Hani will succeed?
A. Hani can not succeed as Sani can not be compelled by law to wait for the answer from Hani for
an indefinite period of time.
B. Hani can not succeed as he could use some other effective and speedy mode for communicating
his acceptance in minimum possible time
C. Hani can succeed as he properly posted the letter of acceptance and the delay was beyond his
control
D. Hani can succeed as contract became complete in the eyes of law on the date of posting the
letter of acceptance
158
Principle: He, who goes to the court of law to seek justice, must come with clean hands.
Facts: P enters into a contract with S under which S has to construct a house for P and has to
complete the same within one year from the date of the contract. This contract includes two very
important terms. According to first term if there is price hike of the materials to be used in the
construction, then the escalation charges at a particular rate shall be payable by P to S. According
to second term if the construction of the house is not completed within the period prescribed for

it, then S will have to pay penalty at a particular rate to P. Before the completion of the construction
work the workers of S go on strike and strike continues up to three months even after the expiry of
one year. After that period workers return and the construction work again starts. During the last
three months period of strike there was a considerable rise in the price of the building material. S
claimed escalation cost from P. P did not agree to it. S filed a suit in the court of law either to order
the payment of the price of the building material on the basis of escalated price or to allow him to
stop the work without incurring any penal liability towards P. A. S will succeed as strike by his
workers was unexpected and beyond his control.
B. S can succeed as there is an escalation clause in the contract
C. S can not succeed as he has failed to complete the construction work in time and strike can not
be treated as a valid excuse for delay in work. D. S can succeed if he pays penalty to P for
delay.

159
Principle: If the object of an agreement is or becomes unlawful or immoral or opposed to public
policy in the eyes of law, then the courts will not enforce such agreements. Law generally
prohibits Child labour.
Facts: P enters into an agreement with T by which P has to let his house to T for two years and
T has to pay Rs. 20000.00 per month to P as rent. T starts a child care centre in that house. But
after some time in order to earn some money for the maintenance of the centre, T starts sending
the children of the centre on the rotation basis to work for four hour a day in some nearby
chemical and hazardous factories. When P comes to know about this new development, he asks
T either to stop the children from working in factories or to leave his house immediately. T
neither agrees to leave the house nor to stop the children from working in the factories. P files
a suit in the court of law for appropriate relief/ action
A. P can not succeed as the agreement was for the two years and it can not be terminated
before the expiry of that period
B. P can not succeed as the object at the time of making of the agreement was not clear
C. P will succeed as the object of the agreement has become unlawful.
D. P will not succeed if T agrees to share the wages of the children with P
160
Principle: whosoever by his act or omission causes environmental pollution shall be held liable for
any loss caused by such pollution. It shall be no defence in such cases that all due diligence or
reasonable care was taken while carrying out the act or omission in question.
Facts: Hari is carrying on a chemical and fertilizer industry near a bank of a river. In order to prevent
and control any kind of harm to the environment, suitable waste treatment and disposal plants were
installed in the factory. Due to some sudden mechanical/ technical problem, these plants ceased to
work properly and, therefore, caused environmental pollution, which ultimately caused substantial
harm to the environment and to the people living around the factory. Victims of such pollution file
a suit for suitable remedy.
A. Victims can not succeed as necessary precautions to prevent any harm were taken by Hari.
B. Victims can not succeed as the mechanical/ technical problem was sudden and, therefore,
beyond the control of Hari.
C. Victims can succeed as it is the duty of Hari to see that no harm is caused to the
environment/ people due to his activity under any circumstances.
D. Victims could succeed if treatment/ disposal plant were not installed in the factory
161
Principle: If a person transfers movable or immovable property with its full ownership and without
any consideration to some other person, then it is called a gift.
162

Facts: S, who has no child of his own, makes a gift of his house worth Rs. 25 lacs to his nephew R.
After completing all the legal formalities required for a valid gift, S says to R that in case of need
R will provide that house to S for use without any questions. R does not react to it. After one year
of this gift, S really needs that house and request R to make the house available to him, but R refuses
to do so.
A. R cannot refuse as he got the house without paying any consideration for that.
B. R cannot refuse as S is without children.
C. R can refuse as he has become full owner of the house.
D. R can refuse as he himself may be in need of that house.
162
Principle: An agreement to do an act impossible in itself cannot be enforced by a court of law.
Facts: Ramesh agrees with his girl friend Shilpa to pluck stars from the sky through his
extraordinary will power, and bring them down on earth for her within a week. After the expiry of
one week, Shilpa filed a suit for damages against Ramesh for the breach of contract as Ramesh
failed to perform his promise.
A. Shilpa can succeed in getting damages as Ramesh has deceived her.
B. Ramesh cannot be held liable as he honestly believes that his love for Shilpa is true and,
therefore, he will succeed in his endeavour.
C. The court cannot entertain such suits as the act promised under the agreement is impossible in
itself.
D. Ramesh can be held liable for making an absurd promise.

163
Principle: An agreement may be oral or written. However, if a law specifically requires that an
agreement must be in writing then the agreement must be in writing. A law specifically requires
that the agreements relating to transfer of the copyright in novel between an author of a novel and
the producer of a motion picture must be in writing.
Facts: The author of a novel, Love at Lost Sight, had several rounds of discussion with a producer
of motion picture regarding making of a motion picture based on Love at Lost Sight. During the
last discussion, they decided to make a motion picture on Love at Lost Sight. The producer made a
motion picture on Love at Lost Sight after making a payment of Rs. 10, 00,000/- (Ten Lac Only) in
cash to the author who happily accepted this amount as full and final payment. Later on, on the
advice of his lawyer, the author brought a case in a court of law against the producer on the ground
that there is no written agreement between the producer and him.
A. The author is likely to succeed in the case as the agreement is not in accordance
with the law
B. The author cannot succeed in the case as he has given his consent to the agreement
C. The author is not likely to succeed in the case because he has already accepted the
amount of Rs. 10,00,000/- as full an final payment
D. The author can succeed in the case as the consideration is not adequate
164
Principle: A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time
when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its
effect upon his interest.
Facts: X who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind enters into a contract
with Y when he (X) is of unsound mind. Y came to know about this fact afterwards and now wants
to file a suit against X.

A. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound mind when he entered into contract.

B. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he was of unsound
mind at the time of contract.
C. X can enter into contract but the burden is on X to prove that he was of sound mind at the
time of contract. D. None of these.

165
Principle: Whosoever commits any act forbidden by the Indian Penal code with a view to obtain
the consent of any person to enter into an agreement, he cannot get the agreement enforced by law
but the person whose consent has been so obtained may get the agreement enforced by law. The
Indian Penal code defines various offences and prescribes punishments therefor.
Facts: A obtains the consent of B to enter into an agreement by an act amounting to criminal
intimidation under the Indian Penal Code. A brings a case against B for performance of agreement.
A. A will succeed in the case B.
A may succeed in the case
C. B will succeed in the case
D. B will not succeed in the case

166
Principle: A contract between the father and his son is a contract of utmost good faith. In such a
type of contract law presumes that at the time of entering into the contract the father was in a
position to dominate the will of his son. Where one of the parties was in position to dominate the
will of the other party, the contract is enforceable only at the option of the party whose will was so
dominated.
Facts: Ram had advanced a sum of Rs. 10,000/- to his minor son Shyam. When Shyam became
major, his father Ram misused his parental position and entered into an agreement with Shyam and
obtained a bond from him for a sum of Rs. 30,000 in respect of the advance. Whether this agreement
is enforceable?
161
164

A. The agreement is enforceable against Shyam only for Rs. 10,000/-, the actual amount
of money advanced to him
B. The agreement is enforceable against Shyam for Rs. 30,000/- because he has signed
the bond
C. The agreement is enforceable against Shyam because he was major at the time of
agreement.
D. The agreement is not enforceable against Shyam because Ram has misused his position
as father to obtain an unfair advantage.
167
Principle: When at the desire of one person, any other person has done or abstained from doing
something, such act or abstinence or promise is called a consideration for the promise. Only a
promise coupled with consideration is enforceable by law.
Facts: X, the uncle of Y, made a promise to pay him an amount of Rs. 10,000/- as reward if Y quits
smoking and drinking within one year. X also deposited the above mentioned amount in a bank and
informed Y that the said amount will be paid to him if he quits smoking and drinking within one
year. Within a period of six months of making the promise X died. After the expiry of one year of
making the promise by X, Y made a request to the legal heirs of X demanding the promised money.
The legal heirs of X declined the request of Y.
A. The promise of X to Y is enforceable by law because Y has quitted smoking and
drinking
B. The promise of X to Y is not enforceable by law because Y has benefitted by quitting
smoking and drinking
C. The promise of X to Y is enforceable by law because the amount of Rs. 10, 000/- has
been deposited in a bank
D. The promise of X to Y is enforceable by law because X has died within a period of six
months of making the promise
168
Principle: ‘Work’ means literary work, artistic work, dramatic work, musical work,
cinematographic film and sound recording but does not include acting in a cinematographic film.
Only the works, as enumerated above, can be protected under copyright law.
Facts: A very famous actor acted in a cinematographic film. The actor was also the producer and
director of cinematographic film.
A. The acting of the actor can be protected under copyright law
B. The acting of the actor can be protected under copyright law only
as an artistic work
C. The acting of the actor cannot be protected under copyright law
D. The acting of the actor cannot be protected under copyright law as
a cinematographic film 169
Principle: In case where the government is a party, the government shall be the first owner of the
copyright in the work unless there is an agreement to the contrary.
Facts: The Government of the State of X entered into an agreement with a retired Professor of
Botany. The Professor agreed to write a text book on Botany. The Government agreed to pay a sum
of Rs. Ten Lacs to the Professor for this work.
A. The Government of the State of X shall be first owner of copyright in the text book

162
B. The Professor shall be first owner of copyright in the text book
C. Both the Government of the State of X and the Professor shall be the joint owners of
copyright in the text book
D. The Professor shall be first owner of copyright in the text book only if he refuses to
accept the amount of Rs. Ten Lacs from the Government

170
Principle: Licence is an agreement whereby the owner of the copyright agrees to grant an interest
in the copyright to the licencee. Assignment is an agreement whereby the owner of the copyright
transfers all the property rights to the assignee. Property right is a bundle of rights consisting of
right to possess, right to use, right to alienate, and the right to exclude others.
Facts: A, an owner of copyright in a cinematographic film enters into an agreement with B, a film
distributer. B agrees to distribute the film only in Mumbai. A also enters into many such agreements
with other distributers for distribution of his film in other cities.
A. The agreement between A and B is more in the nature of assignment than in the nature
of licence
B. The agreement between A and B is more in the nature of licence than in the nature of
assignment
C. The agreement between A and B is both in the nature of assignment and licence
D. The agreement between A and B is neither in the nature of assignment nor in the nature
of licence
171
Principle: Qui facit per alium facit per se, i.e. he who does things through others does it himself.
Facts: Nisha, the owner of a car, asked her friend Saurabh to take her car and drive the same to her
office. As the car was near her office, it hit a pedestrian Srikant on account of Saurabh’s negligent
driving and injured him seriously. Now Srikant files a suit for damages against Nisha. A. Nisha is
not liable as it was the negligence of Saurabh.
B. Saurabh is solely liable as Nisha was not driving the car.
C. Nisha is liable as Saurabh was driving under her authority and for her purpose.
D. Saurabh will be exempted from liability under the principle of inevitable accident.

172
Principle: Words describing quality of things cannot be registered as trade mark. However, such
words may be registered as trade mark if they acquire a secondary meaning. Words acquire
secondary meaning when people start associating the descriptive words with a person specific.
Facts: A hatchery located in Raipur is owned by ‘X’. X has been using the slogan “new laid eggs
sold here” since 1970 to describe the quality of eggs sold in his hatchery. Over a period of time
because of continuous use of this slogan, people started associating this slogan with X. X filed an
application for registration of the words “new laid eggs” as trade mark in the year 1970.
A. The words will be registered as trade mark
B. The words will not be registered as trade mark
C. The words may be registered as trade mark
D. The words may not be registered as trade mark 173

163
Principle: Whoever takes away anything from the land of any person without that person’s consent
is said to commit theft. A thing so long as it is attached to the earth is not the subject of theft; but it
becomes capable of being the subject of theft as soon as it is severed from the earth. Facts: Y cuts
down a tree standing on the land of X with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of X’s
possession without the consent of X. But Y is yet to take away the tree out of X’s possession.
A. Y has committed theft as soon as he came to the land of X
B. Y has committed theft as soon as the tree has been completely cut down by him
C. Y has committed theft as soon as he has started cutting down the tree
D. Y has not committed theft because he is yet to take away the tree out of X possession
174
Principle: res ipsa loquitur i.e. the thing speaks for itself.
Facts: Seema got herself operated for the removal of her uterus in the defendant’s hospital, as there
was diagnosed to be a cyst in one of her ovaries. Due the negligence of the surgeon, who performed
the operation, abdominal pack was left in her abdomen. The same was removed by a second
surgery.
A. Surgeon cannot be held responsible because it is merely a human error.
B. Surgeon can be held responsible but Seema will have to prove in the court of law that
the surgeon was grossly negligent.
C. Surgeon will be responsible and Seema need not to prove surgeon’s negligence because
presence of abdominal pack in her abdomen is sufficient proof therefor. D. None of
the above

175
Principle: Whoever takes away with him any minor person less than sixteen years of age if a male,
or less than eighteen years of age if a female out of the keeping of parents of such minor person
without the consent of such parent, is said to kidnap such minor person.
Facts: A female born on January 01, 1995 got admitted to an undergraduate program of a reputed
University on July 01, 2012. She became friendly with one of the boys, born on June 01, 1994, of
her class. The boy and the girl decided to marry. The parents of the boy agreed but the family of
the girl did not agree. On December 15, 2012 the girl made a call from her Blackberry to the boy.
The girl told the boy to come in his car at a particular place and time. The boy reached the stipulated
place before the stipulated time. He waited there for about half an hour. The girl reached the
stipulated place. She opened the door of the car and sat beside the boy who was on the driving seat.
Without exchanging any pleasantries, the boy drove the car to an unknown place.
The father of the girl lodged an FIR in the nearest police station on January 20, 2013.
A. The boy has committed the offence of kidnapping
B. The boy has not committed the offence of kidnapping
C. The boy has not committed the offence of kidnapping for there is a delay in filing the
FIR
D. The boy has not committed the offence of kidnapping because the girl was his
classmate
176

164
Principle: Whoever voluntarily has carnal intercourse against the order of nature with any man,
woman or animal shall be punished.
Facts: Two adult men were found engaged in carnal intercourse by the police. The police arrested
the men and produced them before the Court.
A. Court will punish the police officer who arrested the men
B. Court will not punish the men for they were adults
C. Court will punish the men
D. Court may be requested to declare the law unconstitutional.
177
Principle: Wherever the causing of a certain effect, or an attempt to cause that effect, by an act or
by an omission, is an offence, it is to be understood that the causing of that effect partly by an act
and partly by an omission is the same offence.
Facts: A intentionally omitted to give food to his father. He also used to beat his father.
Consequently A’s father died.
A. A did not commit any offence
B. A committed only the offence of omitting to give food to his father
C. A committed only the offence of beating of his father D. A committed the offence of
killing of his father
178
Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age.
Facts: A, a child born on January 01, 2005 killed another child ‘B’ on December 30, 2011. A.
A has committed no offence.
B. A has committed the offence as it is heinous crime
C. Killing of one child by another child is not an offence
D. A has not committed the offence for on the date of killing of B, A was a minor
179
Principle: A pact, other than a pact to commit suicide, to suffer any harm is not an offence, provided
the age of the person who has given his consent to suffer harm is above eighteen years. Facts: A
enters into a pact with B, a boy of less than 18 years of age, to fence with each other for amusement.
They agreed to suffer any harm which, in the course of such fencing, may be caused without foul
play.
A. A, while playing fairly, hurts B, A commits no offence
B. A, while playing only unfairly, hurts B, A commits an offence
C. A, while playing fairly, hurts B, A commits an offence
D. A, while playing unfairly, hurts B, A commits no offence
180
Principle: When an act, which would otherwise be an offence, is not that offence by reason of the
youth, the want of maturity of understanding, the unsoundness of mind or the intoxication of the
person doing that act, every person has the same right of private defence against that act which he
would have if the act were that offence. Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the
right of private defence.
Facts: A, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill B. B in order to save his life causes
grievous hurt to A.
A. A has committed an offence

165
B. A has not committed an offence
C. B has committed an offence
D. B has not committed any offence
181
Principle: Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the decision of a person to enter into a contract
does not amount to fraud, unless his silence is in itself equivalent to speech.
Facts: A sells to B a horse which A knows to be of unsound mind. B says to A that if A does not
say anything about the state of mind of horse, then B shall presume that the horse is of sound mind.
A says nothing to B about the mental condition of horse.
A. A has committed fraud
B. A has committed misrepresentation
C. There cannot be a fraud because A says nothing about the mental condition of the horse
D. There can not be a fraud because B did not ask A whether the horse is of sound mind
182
Principle: Whoever by words, either spoken or written brings or attempts to bring into hatred or
contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the Government established by law
in India shall be punished. However, comments expressing disapprobation of the administrative or
other action of the Government without exciting or attempting to excite hatred, contempt or
disaffection, do not constitute an offence.
Facts: A renowned professor of economics wrote a critical comment on the economic policies of
the Government of India in a National Daily. This piece of writing generated academic debate not
only in the print media but also on television and internet. A student of law asked the fellow Indians
on a social networking website to assemble at a particular place for peaceful and silent
demonstration against the said economic policies on a stipulated date and time. The crowed
assembled at that venue and started shouting anti-government slogans. Police arrested the professor.
A. The professor has committed the offence B.
The professor has not committed any offence
C. The student of law has committed the offence
D. The crowed has committed an offence
183
Principle: Where two or more persons have made a complaint for the grant of compulsory licence
to the Copyright Board, the licence shall be granted to that complainant only who, in the opinion
of the Copyright Board, would best serve the interests of the general public.
Facts: Four persons made a complaint for the grant of compulsory licence to the Copyright Board.
A. Licence shall be granted to only one complainant
B. Licence may be granted to two complainants
C. Licence may be granted to three complainants
D. Licence must be granted to all the four complainants

184

166
Principle: Any police officer, not below the rank of a sub-inspector, may, if he is satisfied that an
offence in respect of the infringement of copyright in any work has been, is being, or is likely to
be, committed, seize without warrant, all copies of the work, and all plates used for the purpose of
making infringing copies of the work, wherever found, and all copies and plates so seized shall, as
soon as practicable, be produced before a Magistrate.
Facts: A Superintendent of Police (SP) conducted a raid on a shop and found pirated copies of
books. The SP formed an opinion that infringement of copyright is taking place. He arrested the
shop owner without warrant in the light of above mentioned propositions.
A. The arrest of the shop owner was within the power of the SP
B. The arrest of the shop owner was not within the power of the SP
C. The shop owner can never be arrested
D. SP was not competent to know whether infringement of copyright has taken place
185
Principle: Whoever attempts to commit an offence punishable by the Indian Penal Code and in such
attempt does any act towards the commission of the offence, shall be punished. Stealing is an
offence punishable by the Indian Penal Code.
Facts: A makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box, and after so opening the
box, finds that there is no jewel in it.
A. A has committed no offence
B. A has committed the offence of stealing
C. A has attempted to commit the offence of stealing
186
Principle: Whoever by words either spoken or intended to be read, or by signs or by visible
representations, makes or publishes any imputation concerning any person intending to harm, or
knowing or having reason to believe that such imputation will harm, the reputation of such person,
is said to defame that person.
Facts: In a community there is a custom of stealing shoes of bridegroom during the marriage
ceremony. The shoes of the bridegroom were stolen by Y. ‘A’ announced that Z has stolen the
shoes. Everyone present in the marriage party started staring at Z with great surprise. Z felt very
ashamed.
A. A defamed Z
B. A did not defame Z
C. A defamed Z for Z felt very ashamed
D. A defamed the whole marriage party

187
Principle: An employer is liable for the negligence of his employee. But an employer is not liable
for the negligence of his employee if the victim of such negligence is one of his other employees.
Facts: ‘A’ and ‘B’ were working in a factory as unskilled labourers. A was carrying a basket of
stones on his head. B was sitting on the ground. When A crossed B, all of a sudden a stone fell
down from the basket and hit B on his head. B died immediately. A. The owner of the factory will
be liable
B. A and the owner of the factory shall be jointly liable

167
C. The owner of the factory will not be liable
188
Principle: Damages are the money recompense, as far as money can do, for the violation of a right.
Facts: A, an Indian citizen, having a right to vote, was not allowed to cast his vote on the polling
booth, by the returning officer. Name of A was mentioned in the voter’s list. A has also reported at
the polling booth in time. However, the candidate in whose favour A would have cast his vote won
the election. A filed a suit claiming damages.
A. A will be entitled to damages
B. A will not be entitled to damages
C. A will be entitled to only nominal damages
D. A will be entitled to exemplary damages

189
Principle: When a party to a contract has refused to perform, or disabled himself from performing,
his promise in its entirety, the other party may put an end to the contract.
Facts: A engaged B on April 12 to enter his service on June 1, but on May 11, A wrote to B that his
services would not be needed. On May 22, B joined C for employment.
A. B must wait till June 1
B. B must have joined C on May 11 C.
B is not bound to wait till June 1
D. A must pay damages to B

190
Principle: When a person voluntarily agrees to suffer some harm, he is not allowed to complain for
that.
Facts: ‘A’ was one of the spectators at a formula one car race, being held at Gurgaon, on a track
owned by one ‘M’ company. During the race, there was a collision between two racing cars, one
of which was thrown away amidst spectators, thereby causing an injury to ‘A’. ‘A’ claims damages
for the injuries caused to him.
A. M company will be liable for damages because the injury was caused during the race
organized by it
B. M company will not be liable for damages because A had come to see the race on his own
will.
C. M company will not be liable for damages because the collision between the cars was
beyond its control
D. M company will be liable because it has earned huge revenue by way of sale of tickets for
the event

168
191
Principle: An interest which is created on a transfer of property and depends upon the fulfillment
of a condition will fail if the fulfillment of the condition is impossible or is forbidden by law or is
of such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of any law or is fraudulent or
involves or implies injury to the person or property of another or the court regards it as immoral or
opposed to public policy.
Facts: A gives Rs. Ten Lacs to B on condition that B shall marry A’s daughter C. On the date on
which A gave Rs. Ten Lacs to B, C was dead.
A. B’s interest in Rs. Ten Lacs fails because of impossibility
B. B’s interest in Rs. Ten Lacs fails because of immorality
C. B’s interest in Rs. Ten Lacs fails because of prohibition by law D. B’s interest in Rs.
Ten Lacs does not fail
192
Principle: A condition precedent must be complied with before the happening of the event to which
such a condition is attached. Fulfillment of such a condition after the happening of the event is no
fulfillment of condition.
Facts: A transfers Rs. 5000 to B on condition that he shall marry with the consent of C, D and E.
As C, D and E had to go abroad for some business purposes and as the date of marriage was already
fixed, therefore, B marries without the consent of C, D and E, but obtains their consent after the
marriage when C, D and E return to their country.
A. B has fulfilled the condition
B. B has not fulfilled the condition
C. B was free to marry any one without the consent of any body
D. B must divorce his wife as he married her without fulfilling the condition

193
Principle: In an agreement, a condition subsequent must be complied with, to claim the benefit of
that agreement.
Facts: A agrees to transfer a farm to B, provided that, if B does not go to England within three years
after the date of the agreement, his interest in the farm shall cease. B does not go to England within
the term prescribed.
A. B’s interest in the farm continues
B. B’s interest in the farm does not continue
C. B has a fundamental right to go to England or not to go to England and hence the
condition was illegal
D. The agreement between A and B was void
194
Principle: Existence of all the alleged facts is relevant whether they occurred at the same time and
place or at different times and places.
Facts: A, a permanent resident in a foreign country who never visited India, is accused of waging
war against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which property is
destroyed, troops are attacked and prisons are broken open.
A. The existence of all the above mentioned alleged facts is relevant

169
B. Only the alleged fact that A is accused of waging war against the Government of India
is relevant
C. The fact that A was a permanent resident in a foreign country who never visited India
is not relevant
D. Only the alleged fact of taking part by A in armed resurrection is relevant
195
Principle: Whoever desires any Court to give judgment about any legal right or liability which
depends on the existence of those facts which he asserts, must prove that those facts exist. Facts: A
asserts that B, C and D have committed an offence of criminal conspiracy and therefore A desires
a Court to give judgment that B, C and D shall be punished for that crime which A says B, C and
D have committed.
A. A must prove that B, C, and D have committed the crime B. B,
C, and D must prove that they have not committed the crime
C. A must prove that B, C, and D were present at the place of crime D.
Police must prove that B, C, and D have committed the crime

196
Principle: The fact that any person was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between
his mother and any man, or within two hundred and eighty days after its dissolution, the mother
remaining unmarried, shall be conclusive proof that he is the legitimate son of that man, unless it
can be shown that the parties to the marriage had no access to each other at any time when he could
have been begotten.
Facts: X and Y married on January 15, 1995. Y, the wife of X, never left her parental home and
never went to her husband’s home. A boy was born to Y on July 15, 1995. For the Court:
A. There shall be a conclusive proof that the boy is the legitimate son of X B.
There shall be no conclusive proof that the boy is the legitimate son of X C.
There shall be a conclusive proof that the boy is the illegitimate son of X
D. There shall be no evidence at all.
197
Principle: An unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land, or some right over,
or in connection with it, is a nuisance in law of tort.
Facts: During the scarcity of onions, long queues were made outside the defendant's shop who
having a license to sell fruits and vegetables used to sell only 1 Kg. of onion per ration card. The
queues extended on to the highway and also caused some obstruction to the neighbouring shops.
The neighboring shopkeepers filed a suit for nuisance against the defendant. Which one of the
following decisions will be correct in this suit?
A. The defendant is liable for nuisance
B. The defendant is not liable for nuisance
C. The defendant is liable under the principle of strict liability
D. The plaintiff’s suit should be decreed in favour of the neighbouring shopkeeper
198
Principle: Every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person, other than a minor, is void.

170
Facts: Qadir Khan died in a road accident. Two co-widows, Sultana and Marjina enter into an
agreement that if any of them will remarry, would forfeit her right to her share in the deceased
husband’s property.
A. The agreement is void because it was restraint of marriage
B. The agreement is not void because no restraint was imposed upon either of two widows for
remarriage.
C. The restraint was partial so agreement is valid
199
Principle: Nothing is an offence merely by reason of its being done with the knowledge that it is
likely to cause harm, if it be done without any criminal intention to cause harm, and in good faith
for the purpose of preventing or avoiding other harm to a person or property.
Facts: Mr. Sharman, the Italian captain of a steam vessel, suddenly and without any fault or
negligence on his part, finds himself near the Kochi coast in such a position that before he can stop
his vessel, he must inevitably run down a boat B with twenty or thirty passengers on board, unless
he changes the course of his vessel, and that by changing his course, he must incur risk of running
down a boat C with only two passengers on board, which he may possibly clear. Whether Sharman
has committed an offence?
A. Sharman has committed no offence because this was done out of necessity
B. Sharman can be held responsible for the act of criminal negligence
C. Sharman can be held responsible for culpable homicide
D. This is a clear case of accident so Sharman cannot be held responsible

200
Principle: Only the Parliament or the State Legislatures have the authority to enact laws on their
own. No law made by State can take away a person’s fundamental right.
Facts: Parliament enacted a law, which according to a group of lawyers is violating the fundamental
rights of traders. The group of lawyers filed a writ petition against the Parliament for enacting such
law and requests the court to quash the law and to direct the Parliament to make a new law.
A. No writ would lie against the Parliament, as the Court has no authority to direct the Parliament
to enact or re-enact a law.
B. The Court can quash the existing law if it violates fundamental right and can direct to make a
new law.
C. The Court can quash the existing law if it violates fundamental right but cannot direct the
Parliament to make a new law. D. None of these.

171

172

UNDER-GRADUATE COURSES
ENGLISH INCLUDING COMPREHENSION
Directions for Questions 1 to 10: Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.
1) A vote.............. of proposed at the end of the meeting.
(A) thanks were

(B) thank was
(C) thanks had been (D) thanks was
2) During the recession many companies will........... lay off workers.
(A) be forced to

(B) have the force to
(C) forcefully
(D) be forced into
3) She has good............. over the famous foreign languages.
(A) expertise
(B) command
(C) control
(D) authority
4) The Chairman pointed out in favour of the manager that the profitability of the industrial plant had ........
since he took over the administration.
(A) arisen
(B) declined
(C) added
(D) increased
5) When the examinations were over............ went to Paris.
(A) me and Rohan

(B) I and Rohan
(C) Rohan and me ( D) Rohan and I
6) Let's go for a walk...............?
( A) can we
(B) shall we
(C) cant’ we
( D) shouldn't we

7) Had Anil been on time he ............ missed the train.
(A) would not have been

(B) had not
(C) will not have
(D) would not have
8) The most alarming fact is that infection is spreading ....... the state and reaching villages and small towns.
(A) over
(B) across
(C) far
(D) from
9) In big cities people are ...... cut from nature.
(A) off
(B) down
(C) away ( D) out
10) The dissidents ......... a great problem in every political party.
(A) give
(B) cause
(C) pose ( D) hold
Directions for Questions 11 to 15: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced,
form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of
sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
11) (a) Payment for imports and exports is made through a system called foreign exchange. The value of
the money of one country in relation to the money of other countries is agreed upon.
(b) The rates of exchange vary from time to time.
(c) For example, an American dollar or a British pound sterling is worth certain amounts in the money of
other countries.
(d) Sometimes a US dollar is worth 60 rupees in India.
(A) abcd
(B) bacd
(C) acbd
(D) cabd
12) (a) When a dictionary is being edited, a lexicographer collects all the alphabetically arranged citation
slips for a particular word.
(b) The moment a new word is coined. it usually enters the spoken language.
(c) The dictionary takes note of it and makes a note of it on a citation slip.

(d) The word then passes from the realm of hearing to the realm of writing.
(A) abcd
(B) acbd (
C) bacd
( D) head
13) (a) The impression that corruption is a universal phenomenon persists and the people do not cooperate
in checking this evil.
(b) So there is hardly anything that the government can do about it now.
(c) It is regrettable that there is a widespread corruption in the country at all levels.
(d) Recently several offenders were brought to book, but they were not given deterrent punishment.
(A) cdab
(B) adbc (
C) adcb
( D) cbad
14) (a) In all social affairs convention prescribes more or less generally accepted rules of behaviour.
(b) Of course, there is nothing absolute about conventions.
(c) They vary from country to country, from age to age.
(d) Convention has a necessary part to play in the life of everyone.
(A) abcd
(B) adbc (
C) dacb
( D) dabc
15) (a) In fact, only recently there have been serious studies to find out how many of us actually have
nightmares.
(b) Now that is changing.
(c) The study of nightmares has been curiously neglected.
(d) While results so far are inconclusive, it seems fair to say that at least half the population has occasional
nightmares.
(A) cadb
(B) abdc (
C) adcb
( D) cbad
Directions for Questions 16 to 20: Given below are a few foreign language phrases which are commonly
used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases.
16) Ex officio
(A) By virtue of previously held position

(B) Former official
(C) By virtue of office ( D) Outside the office
17) Ultra Vires
(A) Within powers

(B) Full powers
(C) Near powers
(D) Beyond powers
18) Quid pro quo
(A) Something for nothing

(B) Something for something
(C) Everything for something
(D) Something for everything
19) Inter vivos
(A) between the living

(B) among the living and the dead
(C) between the dead
(D) among the dead and the living
20) Corpus juris
(A) body of judges

(B) group of jurists
(C) body of law
(D) knowledge of law
Directions for Questions 21 to 25: Select the word that is spelt CORRECTLY.
21) Which of the following spellings is correct?
(A) Concensus
(B) Consencus
(C) Consenssus
(D) Consensus
(A) Procede
(B) Proceed
(C) Proceede

(D) Proced
(A) Accommodate
(B) Acommodate
(C) Accomodate ( D) Acomodate
24) Which of the following spellings is correct ‘for a page at the beginning of a book’?
(A) Foreward
(B) Forword
(C) Forworde
(D) Foreword
(A) Arguement
(B) Argument
(C) Arguemant (D) Arguemint
Directions for Questions 26 to 30: Choose the explanation that best reflects the spirit of the
idiom/proverb/phrase given in each question.
26) To make clean breast of :
(A) To tell the truth about something

(B) To gain prominence
(C) To destroy before it blooms (D) To praise oneself 27) A man of straw :
(A) A creditable man

(B) A very active man
(C) A man of no or little substance ( D) An unreasonable man 28) A wild-goose chase:
(A) A wise search

(B) A fruitful search
(C) A worthwhile hunt
(D) A futile pursuit
29) Put on the market :
(A) To offer for sale

(B) Alongside the market
(C) Already purchased ( D) None of the above

30) To meet someone halfway :
(A) To show that you are prepared to strain your relationship with someone
(B) To compromise with someone
(C) Confrontation (D) Incongruity
Directions for Questions 31 to 40: The questions in this section are based on a single passage. The
questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Kindly note that
more than one of the choices may conceivably answer some of the questions. However, you are to choose
the most appropriate answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the
question.
The spread of education in society is at the foundation of success in countries that are latecomers to
development. In the quest for development, primary education is absolutely essential because it creates the
base. But higher education is just as important, for it provides the cutting edge. And universities are the
life-blood of higher education. Islands of excellence in professional education. such as Indian Institutes of
Technology (IITs) and Indian Institutes of Management (IIMs), are valuable complements but-cannot be
substitutes for universities which provide educational opportunities for people at large.
There can be no doubt that higher education has made a significant contribution to economic development,
social progress and political democracy in independent India. It is a source of dynamism for the economy.
It has created social opportunities for people. It has fostered the vibrant democracy in our polity. It has
provided a beginning for the creation of a knowledge society. But it would be a mistake to focus on its
strengths alone. It has weaknesses that are a cause for serious concern.
There is, in fact, a quiet crisis in higher education in India that runs deep. It is not yet discernible simply
because there are pockets of excellence. an enormous reservoir of talented young people and an intense
competition in the admissions process. And. in some important spheres. we continue to reap the benefits
of what was sown in higher education 50 years ago by the founding fathers of the Republic. The reality is
that we have miles to go. The proportion of our population, in the age group 18-24 . that enters the world
of higher education is around 7 per cent, which is only one-half the average for Asia. The opportunities for
higher education, in terms of the number of places in universities. are simply not enough in relation to our
needs. What is more, the quality of higher education in most of our universities requires substantial
improvement.
It is clear that the system of higher education in India faces serious challenges. It needs a systematic
overhaul, so that we can educate much larger numbers without diluting academic standards. This is
imperative because the transformation of economy and society in the 21st century would depend, in
significant part, on the spread and the quality of education among our people, particularly in the sphere of
higher education. It is only an inclusive society that can provide the foundations for a knowledge society.
The challenges that confront higher education in India are clear. It needs a massive expansion of
opportunities for higher education. to 1500 universities nationwide, that would enable India to attain a gross
enrolment ratio of at least 15 per cent by 2015. It is just as important to raise the average quality of higher
education in every sphere. At the same time, it is essential to create institutions that are exemplars of
excellence at par with the best in the world. In the pursuit of these objectives, providing people with access
to higher education in a socially inclusive manner is imperative. The realisation of these objectives,
combined with access, would not only develop the skills and capabilities we need for the economy but
would also help transform India into a knowledge economy and society.

31) The principal focus of the passage is :
(A) Primary education

(B) Intermediate education
(C) Higher education
(D) Entire education system
32) The style of the passage can be best described as:
(A) Academic
(B) Critical and analytical
(C) Comparative
(D) None of the above
33) What kind of society can provide the foundation for a knowledge society?
(A) Elite society

(B) Contracted society
(C) Exclusive society ( D) Inclusive society
34) According to the passage, which one of the following is INCORRECT?
(A) There are no quality institutes providing excellent professional education in India
(B) Not many people go for higher education in India
(C) Education is the basis of success
(D) All the above options are correct
35) According to the passage, the current state of affairs of higher education in India is:
(A) Satisfactory
(B) Excellent, and there is no need of any expansion of opportunities for higher education
(C) Not good enough, and there is a need of expansion of opportunities for higher education, besides
creating institutions and universities that are models of excellence (D) Not explained in the passage
36) According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a challenge that confronts higher education
in India?
(A) Expanding opportunities for higher education

(B) Creating institutions and universities that are exemplars of excellence
(C) Substantial improvement in the quality of higher education in most of our universities ( D) Getting into
World University Rankings
37) According to the passage, which of the following is CORRECT ெ?
(A) Primary education is very important

(B) Universities are the life-blood of higher education
(C) Transformation of economy and society in the 21st century would depend, in significant part, on the
spread and the quality of education among our people, particularly in the sphere of higher education (
D) All the above propositions are correct
38) Should the entire university system in India be modelled on premier institutes, such as, IITs and IIMs,
providing professional education?
(A) Yes
(B) For sure
(C) No
(D) The passage is silent on this question
39) What is the antonym of the expression ‘cutting edge’?
(A) Conventional
(B) Avant-garde
(C) Advanced
(D) Contemporary
40) What is the meaning of the word ‘discernible’?
(A) Unobtrusive
(B) Noticeable
(C) Unremarkable
(D) Inconspicuous
ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS (NUMERICAL ABILITY)
41) The next number in the sequence is: 19, 29, 37, 43……………....
(A) 45
(B) 47 (
C)
50
( D) 53
42) An unknown man is found murdered. The corpse has one gold plated tooth, right ear is pierced and a
healed fracture of left hand thumb. A man with these characteristics is reported missing. What are the
chances (probability) of the corpse being the missing man? (Given the occurrence of the gold-plated teeth
in the area, 1 in 5000, left hand thumb fractures 1 in 20000 and of right ear pierces 1 in 100).
(A) 1 in 1000
(B) l in 1000.000
(C) l in 1000000000
(D) 1 in 10.000.000.000

43) Value of “A" in the expression, 5+12x10/(120/240)=Ax10 is :
(A) 11
(B) 24.5
(C) 34
(D) 6.5
44) The Least Common Multiple (L.C.M.) of 0.12, 9.60 and 0.60 is:
(A) 9.60
(B) 0.12
(C) 0.6
(D) None of these
45) There are 30 boys and 40 girls in a class. If the average age of boys is 10 yr and average age of girls is
8 yr. then the average age of the whole class is:
(A) 8 yr
(B) 8.86 yr
(C) 8.2 yr
(D) 9 yr
46) A person spends 1/3 part of his income on food, 1/4 part on house rent and remaining ǭ630 on other
items. The house rent is:
(A) ǭ504
(B) ǭ1512
(C) ǭ378
(D) None of these
47) A person covers a certain distance by car at 21 speed of 30 km/h and comes back at a speed of 40 km/h.
The average speed during the travel is:
(A) 34.3 km/h

(B) 35 km/h
(C) 37.5 km/h
(D) 32.8 km/h
48) An employer reduces the number of employees in the ratio 8:5 and increases their wages in the ratio
7:9. Therefore, the overall wages bill is:
(A) Increased in the ratio 45:56

(B) Decreased in the ratio 56245
(C) Increased in the ratio 13:17

(D) Decreased in the ratio 72:35
49) Father is 3 yr. older than the mother and the mother's age is now twice the daughter's age. If the daughter
is 20 yr. old now, then the father’s age when the daughter was born is:
(A) 20 yr.
(B) 40 yr. (
C) 43 yr.
( D) 23 yr.
50) If 80% of A = 20% of B and B = 5x% of A, then the value of x is:
(A) 75
(B) 80 (
C)
90
( D) 85
51) A mixture of 40 L of alcohol and water contains 10% water. How much water should he added to this
mixture so that the new mixture contains 20% water?
(A) 9L
(B) 5L
(C) 7L
(D) 6L
52) ‘A’ can do a piece of work in 20 days and ‘B’ can do the same work in 15 days. How long will they
take to finish the work, if both work together?
(A) 13 days
(B) 10 days
(C) 8 days
(D) 17 days
53) A man can row 5 km/h in still water. If the speed of the current is 1 km/h, it takes 3 h more in upstream
than in the downstream for the same distance. The distance is:
(A) 36 km
(B) 24 km (
C) 20 km
( D) 32 km

54) A starts a business with ǭ5000 and B joins the business 5 months later with all investment of ǭ6000.
After a year, they earn a profit of ǭ34000 . Find the shares of A and B in the profit amount depending on
their individual investment.
(A) ǭ20000, ǭ14000

(B) ǭ16000, ǭ16000
(C) ǭ14000, ǭ20000
(D) None of these
55) A farmer has some hens and some goats. If the total number of animal heads is 80 and the total number
of animal feet is 200, what is the total number of goats?
(A) 40
(B) 60 (
C)
20
(D) Cannot he determined
56) A square field has its area equal to 324 m2. The perimeter of the field is:
(A) 36 m
(B) 72 m
(C) 18 m
(D) 6501 m
57) A closed metal box measure 30 cm x 20 cm x 10 cm. Thickness of the metal is 1cm. The volume of the
metal required to make the box is:
(A) 1041 cm3

(13) 6000 cm3
(C) 4536 cm3
(D) 1968 cm3
58) The difference between the simple interest and the compound interest (compounded annually) on ǭ2000
for 2 yr at 8% per annum will be:
(A) ǭ10
(B) ǭ20 (C) ǭ13
(D) ǭ25
59) A dealer marked his goods 20% above the cost price and allows a discount of l0%. Then the gain
percent is:
(A) 2%

(B) 4% (
C) 6%
( D) 8%
60) A man went to the Reserve Bank of India with ǭ2000. He asked the cashier to give him ǭ10 and ǭ20
notes only in return. The man got 150 notes in all. How many notes of ǭ10 did he receive?
(A) 100
(B) 150
(C) 50
(D) 70
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND CURRENT AFFAIRS
61) Which of the following Judges of the Supreme Court of India is famously known as the ‘Green Judge’?
(A) Justice VR Krishna

Iyyar
(B) Justice PN Bhagwati (
C) Justice Kuldip Singh
( D) Justice BN Kirpal
62) Law Day is observed on :
(A) 26th January

(B) 26th May
(C) 15th August
(D) 26th November
63) In which year, Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) was formed by the
amalgamation of the Technical Development Establishment (TDE) of the Indian Army and the Directorate
of Technical Development & Production (DTDP) with the Defence Science Organisation ( DSO ):
(A) 1955
(B) 1958 (
C )
1959
( D ) 1963
64) The Reserve Bank of India was established in the year:
(A) 1858
(B) 1935 (
C )
1947
( D ) 1950

65) Lord Buddha's image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture, called ‘Bhumisparsha Mudra’. It
signifies:
(A) Buddha’s calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation.
(B) Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara.
(C) The gesture of debate or discussion/argument.
(D) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
66) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about Fundamental Duties under the Constitution
of India? It shall be the duty of every citizen of India
(A) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
(B) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation
constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
(C) Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be,
ward between the age of six and fourteen years. (D) To vote in public elections.
67) Which one of the following scripts of ancient India was mostly written from right to left?
(A) Nandnagari
(B) Brahmi
(C) Kharoshti ( D) Sharada
68) During the time of which Mughal Emperor did the East India Company establish its first factory in
India?
(A) Akbar
(B) Jahangir
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Aurangzeb
69) Who, among the following, first translated the Bhagwat Gita into English?
(A) Charles Wilkins

(B) Alexander Cunningham
(C) William Jones ( D) James Prinsep
70) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Author) List II (Work)

a Devaki Nandan Khatri 1 Chandrakanta
b Premchand 2 Durgeshnandini
c Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay 3 Nil Darpan
4 Seva Sadan Codes:
(A) a-4; b-3; c-l
(B) a-l; b-4; c-3

(C) a-2; b-1; c-3 (D) a-l; b-4; c-2
71) Match List I with List 11 and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Person) List II (Position)
a Nagendra Singh 1 Chief Election Commissioner of India
b SH Kapadia 2 President of the International Court of Justice
c NR Madhava Menon 3 Former Chief Justice of India
d VS Sampath 4 Legal educator and Founder-Director of National Law School of
India University
Codes:
(A) a-2; b-3; c-1; d-4
(B) a-4; b-3; c-2; d-1
(C) a-l; b-2; c-4: d-3
(D) a-2; b-3; c-4; d-1
72) Who was not a Chief Justice of India?
(A) Justice M Patanjali Sastri

(B) Justice KN Wanchoo
(C) Justice HR Khanna
(D) Justice MN Venkatachaliah
73) Who was the first Attorney-General for India?
(A) CK Daphtary
(B) MC Setalvad
(C) Niren De
(D) LN Sinha
74) Under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, the Civil Disobedience Movement, launched in 1930 , started
from?
(A) Sabarmati
(B) Dandi
(C) Sevagram
(D) Champaran
75) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Events) List II (Results)

a Dandi March 1 Communal electorate
b Chauri Chaura 2 Illegal manufacture of salt
c Simon Commission 3 Country-wise agitation
d Morley Minto Reforms 4 Withdrawal of a movement

Codes:
(A) a-l; b-2; c-3; d-4
(B) a-4; b-3; c-2: d-1
(C) a-2: b-4; c-3; d-1
(D) a-1; b-4; c-3; d-2
76) Which of the following planets has the maximum number of natural satellites?
(A) Earth
(B) Mars
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn
77) In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all the nationalised commercial banks is fixed by?
(A) Union Ministry of Finance

(B) Union Finance Commission
(C) Indian Banks’ Association ( D) None of the above
78) Solvents are the substances used to dissolve other substances. Consider the following substances: (1)
Water (2) Ether (3) Toluene (4) Chloroform (5) Ethanol, Which of the above can be used as solvents?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3, 4 and 5
(D) All of these
79) Viruses are parasitic, having DNA/RNA; but, they can be crystallised and lack respiration. Therefore,
they are treated as:
(A) Living beings

(B) Non-living beings
(C) Both living and non-living beings ( D) None of the above
80) Who is the winner of the coveted Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2013?
(A) Javed Akhtar

(B) Gulzar
(C) AR Rahman
(D) Indeevar
81) Who among the following has been recently appointed as brand ambassador for Central Reserve Police
Force (CRPF):
(A) Aamir Khan

(B) Mahendra Singh Dhoni
(C) MC Mary Kom (D) Sania Mirza
82) Till date (2014), how many people have been awarded the Bharat Ratna Award?
(A) 40
(B) 41 (
C)
42
( D) 43
83) Which country Malala Yousafzai belongs to?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Afghanistan
(C) The USA (D) England
84) Who recently became the first woman chief of the State Bank of India?
(A) Arundhati Bhattacharya

(B) Shubhalakshmi Panse
(C) Vijaylakshmi Iyer ( D) Chanda Kochhar
85) Who is the Chairman of the 14th Finance Commission?
(A) Dr M Govinda Rao

(B) Dr Vijay Kelkar
(C) Dr YV Reddy
(D) Dr Raghuram Rajan
86) The Chairperson of the Seventh Pay Commission is :
(A) Justice BN Srikrishna

(B) Justice DK Jain
(C) Justice AP Shah
(D) Justice AK Mathur
87) Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?
United Nations Specialized Agency Headquarters

A International Civil Aviation Organization Montreal
B World Trade Organization Geneva
C United Nations Industrial Development Organization Brussels

D International Fund for Agricultural Development Rome
88) The First Five Year Plan of India was based on :
(A) John W Miller Model

(B) PC Mahalanobis Model
(C) Gadgil Yojana
(D) Herrod-Domar Model
89) Which one of the following measures is NOT likely to aid in improving India’s balance of payment
position?
(A) Promotion of import substitution policy

(B) Devaluation of rupee
(C) Imposition of higher tariff on imports
(D) Levying the higher duty on exports
90) Find out the correct chronological sequence of the following persons’ visit to India at one time or
another: (1) Fa-Hien (2) I-Tsing (Yijing) (3) Megasthanese (4) Hiuen-Tsang.
(A) l,3,2, 4
(B) l.3,4, 2
(C) 3,1,4, 2
(D) 3,1,2, 4
91) Which was the first newspaper to be published in India?
(A) Bombay Samachar

(B) The Hindu
(C) Bengal Chronicle (D) Bengal Gazette
92) The change in the colour of stars is linked to :
(A) Variation in their surface temperature

(B) Variation in their distance from the earth
(C) Fluctuations in their composition and size
(D) Irregular absorption or scattering in earth’s atmosphere
93) Which one of the following does NOT remain to be a planet now?
(A) Neptune
(B) Uranus
(C) Pluto
(D) Venus
94) Who was appointed as the 23rd Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?

(A) KC Chakrabarty
(B) Urijit Patel
(C) Raghuram Rajan ( D) D Subbarao
95) Which one of following offices is held during the pleasure of the President of India?
(A) Vice-President
(D) Governor of a State
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
96) Who was the first winner of the prestigious Jnanpith Award?
(A) Tarasankar Bandyopadhyay

(B) Kuppali Venkatappagowda Puttappa
(C) Sankara Kump
(D) Umashankar Joshi
97) Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer:
List I
(a) Visakhadatta
(b) Varahamihira
(c) Sushruta
(d) Brahmagupta
List II
(1) Surgery
(2) Drama
(3) Astronomy (4) Mathematics Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d
)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 3 4 1 2
98) Who was among the following honoured with Arjun Award in Chess for the year 2013?
(A) Kavita Chahal

(B) Parimarjan Negi
(C) Ronjan Sodhi
(D) Abhijeet Gupta
99) Economic growth rate projected by the IMF for India in the fiscal year 2014-15 is :
(A) 5.4 per cent

(B) 5.5 per cent
(C) 5.6 per
cent
( D) 5.7 per cent
100) Who was sworn in as the Prime Minister of Italy on 22nd February 2014?
(A) Oleksandr Turchynov

(B) Matteo Renzi
(C) Enrico Letta
(D) Giorgio Napolitano
101) Which one of following is the highest peacetime gallantry award of India?
(A) Param Vir Chakra

(B) Ashok Chakra
(C) Maha Vir Chakra
(D) Kirti Chakra
102) Which one of the following gases is lighter than air?
(A) Carbon dioxide

(B) Chlorine
(C) Oxygen
(D) Hydrogen
103) Name the scientist who is known as the father of modern genetics:
(A) A Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

(B) Hugo de Vries
(C) Gregor Johann Mendel ( D) Charles Darwin
104) Which year was designated by the United Nations as International Women’s Year?
(A) 1974
(B) 1975 (
C )
1976
( D ) 1977
105) Mention the correct abbreviation for ATM:
(A) Automated Teller Machine

(B) Any Time Money
(C) All Time Money

(D) Auto-limited Teller Machine
106) General Election is being held in India from 7 April to 12 May 2014 to constitute:
(A) 14th Lok Sabha

(B) 15th Lok Sabha
(C) 16th Lok Sabha
(D) 17th Lok Sabha
107) Mention the name of the current Chief Justice of India:
(A) Justice Altamas Kabir

(B) Justice P Sathasivam
(C) Justice R M Lodha
(D) Justice H L Dattu
108) The 9th Ministerial Conference of the WTO, held during 3 December-6 December 2013, was
concluded at:
(A) Geneva, Switzerland

(B) Kaula Lumpur, Malaysia
(C) Warsaw, Poland
(D) Bali, Indonesia
109) Nobel Prize in Literature for the year 2013 was awarded to:
(A) Mo Yan
(B) James E Rothman
(C) Lars Peter
(D) Hansen Alice Munro
110) Which one of the following satellites was successfully launched by the ISRO’s Polar Satellite Launch
Vehicle (PSLV-C24) on 4th April 2014?
(A) IRNSS-1 B
(B) GSAT-14
(C) INSAT-3 D
(D) SARAL
LOGICAL REASONING
Directions for Questions 111 to 113 : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:

Five friends Satish. Rajesh, Rehman. Rakesh. and Vineet. - each presents one paper to their class on
Physics. Zoology, Botany, English, or Geology - one day a week. Monday through Friday.
(i) Vineet does not present English and does not give his presentation on Tuesday.
(ii) Rajesh makes the Geology presentation, and does not do it on Monday or Friday.
(iii) The Physics presentation is made on Thursday.
(iv) Rehman makes his presentation, which is not on English, on Wednesday.
(v) The Botany presentation is on Friday, and not by Rakesh. (vi) Satish makes his presentation on
Monday.
111) What day is the English presentation made?
(A) Friday
(B) Monday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Wednesday
112) What presentation does Vineet do?
(A) English
(B) Geology
(C) Physics ( D) Botany
113) What day does Rakesh make his presentation on?
(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday
Directions for Questions 114 to 118: Each question contains a statement on relationship and a question
regarding relationship based on the statement. Choose the correct option.
114) Pointing to a photograph, a man said, “I have no brother or sister but that man's father is my father's
son”. Whose photograph was that?
(A) His father’s

(B) His own
(C) His son’s
(D) His nephew’s
115) Ranjan introduces Abhay as the son of the only brother of his father’s wife. How is Abhay related to
Ranjan?
(A) Son
(B) Brother

(C) Cousin ( D) Uncle
116) Pointing to a lady on the stage, Bhumika said. "She is the sister of the son of the wife of my husband.
How is the lady related to Bhumika?
(A) Cousin
(B) Sister-in-law
(C) Sister
(D) Daughter
117) Pinky, who is Victor's daughter, says to Lucy, “Your mother Rosy is the younger sister of my father,
who is the third child of Joseph”. How is Joseph related to Lucy?
(A) Father-in-law
(B) Father
(C) Maternal uncle ( D) Grandfather
118) Pramod told Vinod, “Yesterday I defeated the only brother of the daughter of my grandmother”.
Whom did Promod defeat?
(A) Father
(B) Son
(C) Father-in-law ( D) Cousin
Directions for Questions 119 to 123: Read the information given below to answer the questions.
(i) In a family of six persons, there are people from three generations. Each person has separate profession
and also each one likes different colours. There are two couples in the family.
(ii) Charan is a CA and his wife neither is a doctor nor likes green colour.
(iii) Engineer likes red colour and his wife is a teacher.
(iv) Vanita is mother-in-law of Namita and she likes orange colour.
(v) Mohan is grandfather of Raman and Raman, who is a principal, likes black colour.
(vi) Sarita is granddaughter of Vanita and she likes blue colour. Sarita’s mother likes white colour.
119) Who is an Engineer?
(A) Sarita
(B) Vanita
(C) Namita ( D) Mohan
120) What is the profession of Namita?
(A) Doctor
(B) Engineer
(C) Teacher

121) Which of the following is the correct pair of two couples?
(A) Mohan - Vanita and Charan - Sarita

(B) Vanita - Mohan and Charan - Narnita
(C) Charan - Namita and Raman - Sarita (D) Cannot be determined
122) How many ladies are there in the family?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) None of these
123) Which colour is liked by CA?
(A) White
(B) Blue
(C) Black
(D) None of these
Directions for Questions 124 to 128: Read the information given below carefully and answer the
questions.
124) Two buses start from the opposite points of a main road. 150 kms apart. The first bus runs for 25 kms
and takes a right turn and then runs for 15 kms. It then turns left and runs for another 25 kms and takes the
direction back to reach the main road. In the meantime, due to a minor breakdown, the other bus has run
only 35 kms along the main road. What would be the distance between the two buses at this point„?
(A) 65 kms
(B) 75 kms (
C) 30 kms
( D) 85 kms
125) ‘G’, ‘H’, ‘I’. ‘J’, ‘K’, ‘L’, ‘M’, ‘N’ are sitting around a round table in the same order for group
discussion at equal distances. Their positions are clock wise. If ‘M’ sits in the north, then what will be the
position of ‘J’?
(A) East
(B) South-East
(C) South
(D) South-West
126) Roshan, Vaibhav. Vinay and Sumit are playing cards. Roshan and Vaibhav are partners. Sumit faces
towards North. If Roshan faces towards West, then who faces towards South?
(A) Vinay

(B) Vaibhav
(C) Sumit
(D) Data is inadequate
127) Five boys are standing in a row facing East. Pavan is to the left of Tavan, Vipin. Chavan. Tavan,
Vipin, Chavan are to the left of Nakul. Chavan is between Tavan and Vipin. If Vipin is fourth from the left,
then how far is Tavan from the right?
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
128) One morning after sunrise. Suraj was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to
his right. Which direction was Suraj facing?
(A) West
(B) South
(C) East
(D) Data is inadequate
Directions for Questions 129 to 130: Read the information given below to answer the questions.
Diana is three times older than Jackson; Edward is half the age of Stephen. Jackson is older than Edward.
129) Which one of the following can be inferred?
(A) Jackson is older than Stephen

(B) Diana is older than Stephen
(C) Diana may be younger than Stephen ( D) None of the above
130) Which one of the following information will be sufficient to estimate Diana's age?
(A) Edward is 10 year old

(B) Both Jackson and Stephen are older than Edward by the same number of years
(C) Both A and B above
Directions for Questions 131 to 135: Study the sequence/pattern of letters or numbers carefully to work
out the pattern on which it is based, and answer what the next item in the sequence must be. For example,
the sequence ‘A, C, E, G,?’ has odd numbered letters of alphabet; therefore, the next item must be ‘I’.
131) 0, 3, 8, 15, ?
(A) 24

(B) 26 (
C)
35
( D) None
132) 8, 16, 28, 44, ?
(A) 60
(B) 64 (
C)
62
( D) 66
133) 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210, ?
(A) 290
(B) 240 (
C )
336
( D ) 504
134) POQ, SRT, VUW, ?
(A) XVZ
(B) XZY (
C) YZY
(D) YXZ
135) A1, C3, F6, J10, O15, ?
(A) U 21
(B) V21
(C) T 20
(D) U 20
Directions for Questions 136 to 140: Two words, which have a certain relation, are paired. Select a
correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the word
given after double colon ( ) 136) Bow : Arrow :: Pistol: ?
(A) Gun
(B) Shoot
(C) Rifle
(D) Bullet
137) Eye : Wink :: Heart: ?

(A) Throb
(B) Move (
C) Pump
( D) Respirate
138) Ocean : Water :: Glacier : ?
(A) Cooling
(B) Cave
(C) Ice
(D) Mountain
139) Prima facie : On the first view :: In pari delicto: ?
(A) Both parties equally at fault

(B) While litigation is pending
(C) A remedy for all disease (D) Beyond powers
140) Delusion : hallucination :: Chagrin : ?
(A) Illusion
(B) Ordered
(C) Cogent
(D) Annoyance
Directions for Questions 141 to 142: Each question comprises two statements (numbered as I and II).
You have to take the statements as true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts.
Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given
statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
141) (I) All contracts are agreements.

(II) All agreements are accepted offers.
Which of the following derivations is correct?
(A) All accepted offers are contracts

(B) All agreements are contracts
(C) All contracts are accepted offers ( D) None of the above
142) (I) Some beautiful women are actresses.

(II) All actresses are good dancers.
Which of the following derivations is correct?
(A) Some beautiful women are good dancers

(B) All good dancers are actresses
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Directions for Questions 143 to 145: Two statements are given below followed by two conclusions (I
and II). You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the conclusions, if any, follow from the given
statements.
143) Statements: Some books are magazines.
Some magazines are novels.
Conclusions: (I) Some books are novels.
(II) Some novels are magazines.
(A) Only (I) follows

(B) Only (II) follows
(C) Both (I) and (II) follow
(D) Neither (I) nor (II) follows
144) Statements: All students like excursions.

Some students go for higher education.
Conclusions: (I) Students who go for higher education also like excursions.
(II) Some students do not go for higher education, but like excursions.
145) Statements: All good hockey players are in the Indian Hockey
team. ‘X’ is not a good hockey player.
Conclusions: (I) ‘X’ is not in the Indian Hockey team.
(II) ‘X’ wants to be in the Indian Hockey team.
Directions for Questions 146 to 148: In each of the following questions. a related pair of words is
followed by four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to
the one expressed in the question pair.
146) India : Tricolour
(A) China : Sickle and Hammer

(B) UK : Red Cross
(C) USA : Stars and Stripes

147) Statute : Law
(A) Proviso : Clause

(B) Chapter : Exercise (C)
University : School
(D) Section : Illustration
148) Buddhists : Pagoda
(A) Parsis : Temple

(B) Christians : Cross
(C) Jains : Sun Temple
(C) Jews : Synagogue
Directions for Questions 149 to 150: Each question consists of five statements (a-e) followed by options
consisting of three statements put together in a specific order. Choose the option which indicates a valid
argument; that is, where the third statement is a conclusion drawn from the preceding two statements.
149) a. Law graduates are in great demand.

b. Rajesh and Krishna are in great demand.
c. Rajesh is in great demand.
d. Krishna is in great demand.
e. Rajesh and Krishna are law graduates.
Choose the correct option:

(A) abe
(B) ecd (
C) aeb
( D) cba
150) a. All captains are great players.

b. Some captains are successful sports administrators.
c. Ritwik is a great player.
d. Ritwik is a captain and successful sports administrator.
e. Some successful sports administrators are great players.
Choose the correct option:

(A) acd
(B) abe (
C) dca
( D) edc
LEGAL APTIUDE

Directions for Questions 151 to 200: This section consists of fifty (50) questions. Each question consists
of legal propositions/principles (hereinafter referred to as ‘principle’) and facts. These principles have
to be applied to the given facts to arrive at the most reasonable conclusion. Such principles may or may
not be true in the real sense, yet you have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this
section. In other words, in answering the following questions, you must not rely on any principles except
the principles that are given herein below for every question. Further, you must not assume any facts
other than those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your interest towards study
of law, research aptitude and problem solving ability even if the ‘most reasonable conclusion’ arrived at
may be unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the object of this section to test your knowledge of
law.
151) Principle: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing
anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a
proposal. The expression of willingness/desire results in a valid proposal only when it is made/addressed
to some person(s).
Facts: ‘X’ makes the following statement in an uninhabited hall: ‘I’ wish to sell my mobile phone for
ǭl,000.’
Which of the following, derivations is CORRECT?
(A) 'X' made a statement that resulted in a promise

(B) made a statement that resulted in a proposal
(C) ‘X’ made a statement that did not result in any proposal ( D) made a statement that resulted in an
agreement
152) Principle: A proposal (offer) should be made with an intention that after its valid acceptance. a legally
binding promise or agreement will be created. The test for the determination of such intention is not
subjective, rather it is objective. The intention of the parties is to be ascertained from the terms of the
agreement and the surrounding circumstances under which such an agreement is entered into. As a general
rule, in the case of arrangements regulating social relations, it follows as a matter of course that the parties
do not intend legal consequences to follow. On the contrary, as a general rule, in the case of arrangements
regulating business affairs, it follows as a matter of course that the parties intend legal consequences to
follow. However, the above rules are just presumptive in nature, and hence, can be rebutted.
Facts: One morning while having breakfast. ‘X’, the father, says to ‘Y’ (X's son), in a casual manner,
‘I shall buy a motorbike for you if you get through the C LAT.’ Which of the following derivations is
CORRECT?
(A) ‘X’ made a statement that resulted in an enforceable promise

(B) ‘X’ made a statement that resulted in a valid proposal
(C) ‘X’ made a statement that resulted in an enforceable agreement
(D) ‘X’ made a statement that did not result in any enforceable agreement
153) Principle: Acceptance (of offer) must be communicated by the offeree to the offeror so as to give rise
to a binding obligation. The expression ‘by the offeree to the offeror’ includes communication between
their authorised agents.

Facts: ‘X’ made an offer to buy Y’s property for a stipulated price. ‘Y’ accepted it and communicated his
acceptance to ‘Z’, a stranger.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT ?
(A) Y’s acceptance resulted in an agreement

(B) Y’s acceptance did not result in any agreement
(C) Y’s acceptance resulted in a contract
(D) Y’s acceptance resulted in a promise
154) Principle: Acceptance should be made while the offer is still subsisting. The offeror is free to retract
his offer at any time before his offer gets accepted by the offeree. Once the offer is withdrawn or is lapsed,
it is not open to be accepted so as to give rise to a contract. Similarly, if a time is prescribed within which
the offer is to be accepted, then, the offer must be accepted within the prescribed time. And. if no time is
prescribed, then, the acceptance must be made within a reasonable time. ‘What is a reasonable time’ is a
question of fact which is to be determined by taking into account all the relevant facts and surrounding
circumstances.
Facts: ‘X’ makes an offer to ‘Y’ to sell his equipment for ǭ1,000.00. No time is specified for the acceptance.
‘Y’ sends his reply two years after receiving the offer. Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
(A) There arises a contract between ‘X’ and ‘Y’ to sell/buy the equipment in question for ǭ1,000.00 (B)
There does not arise any contract between ‘X’ and ‘Y’ to sell/buy the equipment in question for
ǭ1,000.00
(C) ‘X’ is bound by his offer, and hence, cannot reject the acceptance made by ‘Y’ (D)
There arises a promise by ‘Y’ to buy the equipment
155) Principle: Minor ெs agreement is void from the very beginning. It can never be validated. It cannot
be enforced in the court of law.
Facts: ‘A’, a boy of 16 years of age, agrees to buy a camera from ‘B’, who is a girl of 21 years of age.
Which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
(A) There arises a contract between ‘A’ and ‘B’ to sell/buy the camera in question
(B) There arises an enforceable agreement between ‘A’ and ‘B’ to sell/buy the camera in question
(C) There does not arise any contract between ‘A’ and ‘B’ to sell/buy the camera in question (D) There
arises a voidable contract between ‘A’ and ‘B’ to sell/buy the camera in question
156) Principle: A contract which is duly supported by real and lawful consideration is valid
notwithstanding the fact that the consideration is inadequate. The quantum of consideration is for the parties
to decide at the time of making a contract, and not for the courts (to decide) when the contract is sought to
be enforced. An agreement to which the consent of the promisor is freely given is not void merely because
the consideration is inadequate; but the inadequacy of the consideration may be taken into account by the
Court in determining the question whether the consent of the promisor was freely given.

(A) There is a contract between 'X' and 'Y'

(B) There is an agreement between 'X' and 'Y' which can be enforced by the court of law
(C) There is an agreement between 'X', and 'Y' which cannot be enforced by the court of law (D) There is
a contract between 'X' and 'Y' which voidable at the option of 'Y'
160) Principle: Agreements in restraint of marriage are void.
Facts: 'X' enters into an agreement with 'Y' where under he agrees not to many anybody else other than a
person whose name starts with the letter and promises to pay ǭ1,00,000/- to 'Y' if he ( 'X') breaks this
agreement.
(A) There is a contract between 'X' and 'Y'

(B) There is an agreement between 'X' and 'Y' which can be enforced by the court of law
(C) There is an agreement between 'X', and 'Y' which cannot be enforced by the court of law (D) There is
a voidable contract between 'X' and 'Y'
161) Principle: Vicarious liability is the liability of the Master or Principal for the tort committed by his
servant or agent, provided the tort is committed in the course of employment. The Master or Principal is
not liable for private wrongs of the servant/ agent.
Facts: 'X' hands over some cash money at his house to 'Y', who is his (X's) neighbour and is also cashier
in a bank, to be deposited in A's account in the bank. Instead of depositing the money, 'Y' misappropriates
it.
Which of the following statements depicts correct legal position in this given situation?
(A) The bank would not be liable because 'Y' did not do any wrong in the course of his employment
(B) The bank would be vicariously liable because 'Y' was the employee of the bank
(C) The bank would not be liable because 'Y' did not do any wrong (D) The bank would be liable because
'Y' acted as bank's agent
162) Principle: A person has no legal remedy for an injury caused by an act to which he has consented.
Facts: 'R', a cricket enthusiast, purchases a ticket to watch a T20 match organised by the Indian Premier
League (IPL). During the match, a ball struck for six hits 'R' on his body, and injures him. He sues IPL for
compensation for the medical expenses.
(A) 'R' should be compensated as he purchased the ticket to get entertainment and not to get injured
(B) 'R' would fail in his action, as he voluntarily exposed himself to the risk
(C) IPL would be liable as it did not ensure that the spectators were protected from the risk of such injuries

163) Principle: Ignorance of law excuses no one.
Facts: 'X' fails to file his income tax returns for a considerable number of years. The Income Tax
department serves upon him a 'show-cause notice' as to why proceedings should not be initiated against
him for the recovery of the income tax due from him with interest and penalty.
(A) 'X' may defend himself by taking the plea that his legal advisor had not advised him to file the return
(B) 'X' would have to pay the due, as ignorance of law and failure to comply with law is no legal ground
of defence
(C) 'X' may defend himself successfully by taking the plea that he was unaware of any such law being in
force
164) Principle: Damage without the violation of a legal right is not actionable in a court of law. If the
interference with the rights of another person is not unlawful or unauthorised, but a necessary consequence
of the exercise of defendant's own lawful rights, no action should lie.
Facts: There was an established school ('ES') in a particular locality. Subsequently, a new school ('NS')
was set up in the same locality, which charged lower fees, on account of which people started patronising
the new school. Because of the competition, 'ES' had to reduce its fees. 'ES' filed a case against 'NS' saying
that 'NS' had caused it (‘ES’) financial loss and, thus, claimed compensation.
(A) Since no legal right of 'ES' had been violated, therefore, as such, no compensation could be granted
(B) Since damage is caused to 'ES', therefore, it should be awarded compensation
(C) 'ES' should be awarded compensation, as opening of school in competition is not good
(D) No compensation could be granted, as reduction in fees is good for the public
165) Principle: Whenever there is an invasion of a legal right, the person in whom the right is vested, is
entitled to bring an action though he has suffered no actual loss or harm, and may recover damages
(compensation).
Facts: 'A' was a qualified voter for the Lok Sabha election. However, a returning officer wrongfully refused
to take A's vote. In spite of such wrongful refusal, the candidate, for whom 'A' wanted to vote, won the
election. But, 'A' brought an action for damages:

(A) Since no legal right of 'A' had been violated, therefore, as such, no compensation could be granted
(B) Since legal right of 'A' had been violated, therefore, compensation should be granted
(C) No compensation could be granted, as 'A' had suffered no loss as his candidate won the election ( D)
Since no fundamental right of 'A' had been violated, therefore, as such, no compensation could be
granted

166) Principle: In a civil action for defamation, truth of the defamatory matter is an absolute defence.
However, the burden of proving truth is on the defendant; and he is liable if he does not successfully
discharge this burden.
Facts: ‘D’, who was the editor of a local weekly, published a series of articles mentioning that ‘P’, who
was a government servant, issued false certificates, accepted bribe, adopted corrupt and illegal means to
mint money and was a ‘mischief monger’. ‘P’ brought a civil action against ‘D’, who could not prove the
facts published by him.
Under the circumstances, which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
(A) ‘D’ would be liable, since he could not prove the facts published by him
(B) ‘D’ would not be liable, as such an action could curtail the right of expression and speech of press
(C) ‘D’ would not be liable, as media could publish anything ( D) None of the above
167) Principle: A gift comprising both existing and future property is void as to the latter.
Facts: ‘X’ has a house which is owned by him. He contracted to purchase a plot of land adjacent to the said
house, but the sale (of the plot of land) in his favour is yet to be completed. He makes a gift of both the
properties (house and land) to ‘Y’.
Under the afore-mentioned circumstances, which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
(A) Gift of both the properties is valid

(B) Gift of both the properties is void
(C) Gift of house is void, but the gift of the plot of land is valid
(D) Gift of house is valid, but the gift of the plot of land is void
168) Principle: Caveat emptor, i.e. ‘let the buyer beware’ stands for the practical skill and judgment of the
buyer in his choice of goods for purchase. It is the business of the buyer to judge for himself that what he
buys has its use and worth for him. Once bought, and if the buy is not up to his expectations, then he alone
is to blame and no one else.
Facts: For the purpose of making uniform for the employees, ‘A’ bought dark blue coloured cloth from
‘B’, but did not disclose to the seller (‘B’) the specific purpose of the said purchase. When uniforms were
prepared and used by the employees, the cloth was found unfit. However, the cloth was fit for a variety of
other purposes ( such as, making caps. boots and carriage lining. etc ).
Applying the afore-stated principle, which of the following derivations is CORRECT as regards remedy
available to ‘A’ in the given situation?
(A) ‘A’ (the buyer) would succeed in getting some remedy from ‘B’ ( the seller )
(B) ‘A’ (the buyer) would not succeed in getting any remedy from ‘B’ ( the seller )
(C) ‘A’ (the buyer) would succeed in getting refund from ‘B’ ( the seller )
(D) ‘A’ (the buyer) would succeed in getting a different variety of cloth from ‘B’ (the seller), but not the
refund

169) Principle: The transferor of goods cannot pass a better title than what he himself possesses.
Facts: ‘X’ sells a stolen bike to ‘Y’, ‘Y’ buys it in good faith.
As regards the title to bike, which of the following derivations is CORRECT?
(A) The real owner cannot get back the bike from ‘Y’
(B) ‘Y’ will get no title, as transferor’s (X’s) title was defective
(C) ‘Y’ will get good title, as he is a bona fide buyer
(D) ‘Y’ will get good title, as has not committed any wrong (stolen the bike)
170) Principle: Negligence is a breach of duty or a failure of one party to exercise the standard of care
required by law, resulting in damage to the party to whom the duty was owed. A plaintiff can take civil
action against the respondent, if the respondent’s negligence causes the plaintiff injury or loss of property.
Facts: ‘D’ went to a café and ordered and paid for a tin/can of soft drink. The tin was opaque, and, therefore,
the contents could not be seen from outside. She (‘D’) consumed some of the contents and then lifted the
tin to pour the remainder of the content into a tumbler. The remains of a snail in decomposed state dropped
out of the tin into the tumbler. ‘D’ later complained of a stomach pain and her doctor diagnosed her as
having gastroenteritis and being in a state of severe shock. She sued the manufacturer of the drink for
negligence.
Applying the afore-stated principle, which of the following derivations is CORRECT as regards liability
of the manufacturer in the given situation?
(A) The manufacturer is liable for negligence, as it owed at duty (to consumers) to take reasonable care to
ensure that its products are safe for consumption
(B) The manufacturer is not liable for negligence, as there is no direct contract between ‘D’ and the
manufacturer. No duty is owed by the manufacturer towards a particular consumer (‘D’)
(C) The manufacturer is not liable for negligence because it would otherwise become very difficult for the
manufacturers to do business
(D) The manufacturer could be made liable under criminal law, but not for tort of negligence
171) Principle: Master is liable for the wrongful acts committed by his servant; provided the acts are
committed during the course of employment. However, the master is not liable if the wrongful act
committed by his servant has no connection, whatsoever, with the servants contract of employment.
Facts: ‘D’ is a driver employed by ‘M’, who is the owner of a company. During the lunch time, ‘D’ goes
to a close by tea shop to have a cup of tea. There he (‘D’) picks up fight with the tea shop owner (‘T’),
which resulted in some damage to his shop. ‘T’ wants to sue ‘M’ for claiming compensation for the damage
caused by the fight.
(A) ‘M’ will be liable because ‘D’ is his servant

(B) Both ‘M’ and ‘D’ will be liable

(C) ‘M’ will not be liable because the wrongful act (picking up fight) was not committed in the course of
D's employment
(D) ‘M’ will be liable albeit the wrongful act (picking up fight) was not committed in the course of D’s
employment
172) Principle: The Constitution of India guarantees the ‘right to life’, which means ‘right to live with
human dignity’. The right to life under the Constitution, however, does not include the right to die.
Facts: ‘M’, who is 90, lives all alone as he has no family or children or grandchildren. He suffers from
physical and mental distress, as there is no one to look after him. He has little means to foot his medical
expenses. Under these circumstances, he approaches the court with a prayer that he should be granted the
right to die with dignity because he does not want to be a burden on the society. Further, as it is his life, he
has a right to put an end to it.
(A) The prayer can be granted, as suicide is not an offense in India

(B) The prayer can be granted. as the right to life under the Constitution includes the right to die (C) The
prayer can be granted, as a person cannot be forced to enjoy right to life to his detriment, disadvantage
and disliking
(D) The prayer cannot be granted, as the right to life under the Constitution does not include the right to
die
173) Principle: Trespass to land means direct interference with the possession of land without lawful
justification. Trespass could be committed either by a person himself entering the land of another person
or doing the same through some tangible object(s).
Facts: ‘A’ throws some stones upon his neighbour's (B's) premises.
(A) ‘A’ has committed trespass

(B) ‘A’ has not committed trespass, as he has not entered B’s premises
(C) ‘A’ has committed nuisance
174) Principle: Nuisance is an unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land or some
right over or in connection with it. If the interference is ‘direct’, the wrong is trespass; whereas, if the
interference is ‘consequential’, it amounts to nuisance.
Facts: 'A' plants a tree on his land. However, he allows its branches to project over the land of ‘B’.
(A) ‘A’ has committed trespass

(B) ‘A’ has committed nuisance

(C) ‘A’ has not committed nuisance
(D) None of the above A

Principle:
175) interference with another’s goods in such a way as to deny the latter's title to the goods amounts to
conversion, and thus it is a civil wrong. It is an act intentionally done inconsistent with the owner's right,
though the doer may not know of, or intend to challenge, the property or possession of the true owner.
Facts: ‘R’ went to a cycle-stand to park his bicycle. Seeing the stand fully occupied, he removed a few
bicycles in order to rearrange a portion of the stand and make some space for his bicycle. He parked his
bicycle properly, and put back all the bicycles except the one belonging to ‘S’. In fact, ‘R’ was in a hurry,
and therefore, he could not put back S's bicycle. Somebody came on the way and took away S's bicycle.
The watchman of the stand did not take care of it assuming that the bicycle was not parked inside the stand.
‘S’ filed a suit against ‘R’ for conversion.
(A) ‘R’ could not be held liable for the negligence of the watchman
(B) ‘S’ would succeed because R’s act led to the stealing of his bicycle
(C) ‘S’ would not succeed because ‘R’ did not take away the bicycle himself (D) ‘S’ would not succeed
because R’s intention was not bad
176) Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is bound by law to do it.
Facts: ‘A’. a police officer, without warrant, apprehends ‘Z’, who has committed murder.
(A) ‘A’ is guilty of the offence of wrongful confinement

(B) ‘A’ is not guilty of the offence of wrongful confinement
(C) ‘A’ may be guilty of the offence of wrongful restraint
(D) ‘A’ cannot apprehend ‘Z’ without a warrant issued by a court of law
177) Principle: When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of
all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone.
Facts: Roshan along with two of his friends, Tushar and Tarang proceeded to the house of Darshan in order
to avenge an insult made by the brother of Darshan. They opened fire on the members of Darshan's family.
It was found that the shots of Roshan did not hit anyone, but the shots of Tushar and Tarang succeeded in
killing Darshan.
(A) Roshan was not liable for the offence of murder of Darshan. as Roshan ெs shots did not hit Darshan (B)
Only Tushar and Tarang were liable for the offence of murder of Darshan, as their shots hit Darshan
(C) Roshan along with Tushar and Tarang was liable for the offence of murder of Darshan (D) Roshan was
liable to a lesser extent comparing to his friends for the offence of murder of Darshan. as Roshan’s shots
did not hit Darshan
178) Principle: No communication made in good faith is an offence by reason of any harm to the person
to whom it is made, if it is made for the benefit of that person.
Facts: ‘A’, a surgeon, in good faith, communicates to a patient his opinion that he cannot live. The patient
dies in consequence of the shock.

Principle:
(A) ‘A’ has committed the offence of causing death of his patient
(B) ‘A’ has not committed the offence of causing death of his patient
(C) ‘A’ has only partially committed the offence of causing death of his patient ( D) None of the above
179) Whoever, being legally bound to furnish information on any subject to any public servant, as such,
furnishes, as true, information on the subject which he knows or has reason to believe to be false, has
committed a punishable offence of furnishing false information.
Facts: Sawant, a landholder, knowing of the commission of a murder within the limits of his estate,
willfully misinforms the Magistrate of the district that the death has occurred by accident in consequence
of the bite of a snake.
(A) Sawant is not guilty of the offence of furnishing false information to the Magistrate
(B) Sawant is guilty of the offence of furnishing false information to the Magistrate
(C) Sawant is not legally bound to furnish true information to the Magistrate
(D) Sawant has the discretion to furnish true information to the Magistrate, as the murder was committed
within the limits of his estate
180) Principle: Whoever unlawfully or negligently does any act which is, and which he knows or has
reason to believe to be, likely to spread the infection of any disease dangerous to life, shall be guilty of a
negligent act likely to spread infection of disease dangerous to life.
Facts: ‘K’, a person, knowing that he is suffering from Cholera, travels by a train without informing the
railway officers of his condition.
(A) ‘K’ has committed an unlawful and negligent act, which is likely to spread the infection of Cholera
disease dangerous to the life of fellow-passengers
(B) Railway officers are guilty of an unlawful and negligent act, as ‘K’ who is suffering from
Cholera disease has travelled by the train
(C) ‘K’ has not committed an unlawful and negligent act, which is likely to spread the infection of Cholera
disease dangerous to the life of fellow-passengers
(D) Both ‘K’ and Railway officers are guilty of an unlawful and negligent act, which is likely to spread the
infection of Cholera disease dangerous to the life of fellow- passengers
181) Principle: Whoever drives any vehicle, or rides, on any public way in a manner so rash or negligent
as to endanger human life. or to be likely to cause hurt or injury to any other person, has committed an
offence, which shall be punished in accordance with the law.
Facts: ‘X’, a truck driver, driving his vehicle rashly and negligently at a high speed climbed the footpath
and hit ‘Y’, a pedestrian, from behind causing his death.
(A) ‘X’ is not guilty of rash and negligent driving

(B) ‘Y’ should have taken sufficient care on the footpath
(C) ‘X’ is guilty of rash and negligent driving
(D) ‘X’ is only in part guilty of rash and negligent driving

Principle:
182) Principle: Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, or with the
intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge that he is likely
by such act to cause death, commits the offence of culpable homicide.
Facts: ‘A’ knows ‘Z’ to be behind a bush. ‘B’ does not know it. ‘A’, intending to cause, or knowing it to
be likely to cause Z’s death, induces ‘B’ to fire at the bush. ‘B’ fires and kills ‘Z’.
(A) ‘B’ has committed the offence of culpable homicide
(B) ‘A’ has committed the offence of culpable homicide
(C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ have committed the offence of culpable homicide
(D) None of them has committed the offence of culpable homicide
183) Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person
without that person’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
Facts: ‘Z’, going on a journey, entrusts his plate to the possession of ‘A’, the keeper of a warehouse, till
‘Z’ shall return. Then, ‘A’ carries the plate to a goldsmith and sells it.
(A) ‘A’ has committed theft

(B) ‘A’ has not committed theft
(C) ‘A’ lawfully sold the plate to the goldsmith ( D) None of the above is true
184) Principle: Whoever makes any false document or part of a document with intent to cause damage or
injury, to the public or to any person. or to support any claim or title, or to cause any person to part with
property, or to enter into any express or implied contract, or with intent to commit fraud or that fraud may
be committed, commits forgery.
Facts: ‘A’ without Z’s authority, affixes Z’s seal to a document purporting to be a conveyance of an estate
from to ‘A’, with the intention of selling the estate to ‘B’ and thereby of obtaining from ‘B’ the purchase-
money.
(A) ‘B’ has committed forgery

(B) ‘Z’ has committed forgery
(C) ‘A’ has committed forgery
(D) ‘A’ and ‘B’ have committed forgery
185) Principle: Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that person’s consent, in order to
the committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause, or knowing it to be likely
that by the use of such force he will cause injury, fear or annoyance to the person to whom the force is
used, is said to use criminal force to that other.
Facts: ‘Z’ is riding in a palanquin, ‘A’, intending to rob ‘Z’, seizes the pole and stops the palanquin. Here
‘A’ has caused cessation of motion to ‘Z’, and ‘A’ has done this by his own bodily power.
(A) ‘A’ has used criminal force to ‘Z’

(B) ‘A’ has no intention to use criminal force to ‘Z’
(C) ‘A’ has used force with the consent of ‘Z’

Principle:
(D) None of the above is correct
186) Principle: One of the essential conditions for a marriage between any two persons to be solemnized
under the Special Marriage Act. 1954 is that at the time of the marriage the male has completed the age of
twenty-one years and the female the age of eighteen years. If the said condition is not fulfilled such a
marriage is null and void.
Facts: ‘A’, a male aged twenty-two years, proposes to marry ‘B’, a female aged sixteen years, at Delhi in
the month of June 2014 under the Special Marriage Act, 1954.
(A) Marriage between ‘A’ and ‘B’ can be legally solemnized under the Special Marriage Act, 1954
(B) Marriage between ‘A’ and ‘B’ cannot be legally solemnized under the Special Marriage Act, 1954
(C) Marriage between ‘A’ and ‘B’ can remain valid for A under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 (D) None
of the above is correct

187) Principle: Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 either the husband or the wife can move a petition
for a decree of divorce on the ground of desertion. The term ‘desertion’ means desertion of the petitioner
by the other party to the marriage for a continuous period of not less than two years immediately preceding
the presentation of the petition, without reasonable cause and without the consent or against the wish of
such party and includes the willful neglect of the petitioner by the other party to the marriage, and its
grammatical variations and cognate expressions shall be construed accordingly. It is also said that desertion
is withdrawal not from a place but from a state of things.
Facts: Rohan, a technocrat, went to US in January 201l for pursuing his higher studies for a period of three
years. In fact, Rohan went to US with the consent of his wife Basanti, who stayed at her parents’ home,
and with a promise of his return to India upon the completion of his studies. From US he has quite often
been in touch with his wife. Subsequently, Rohan has got a job there in US and he wishes to take his wife.
She refuses to go to US and. in the meanwhile, she files a petition for a decree of divorce on the ground of
desertion by her husband.
(A) Rohan's three year stay in US in the above context can amount to a ground of desertion for divorce. (B)
Rohanெs three year stay in US in the above context cannot amount to a ground of desertion for divorce.
(C) Rohan's continued stay after three years can amount to a ground of desertion for divorce. (D)
Basantiெs refusal can amount to a ground of desertion for divorce.
188) Principle: Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, I956, no person shall be capable of
being taken in adoption unless he or she is a Hindu, he or she not already been adopted, he or she has not
been married, unless there is a custom or usage applicable to the parties which permits persons who are
married being taken in adoption, and he or she has not completed the age of fifteen years, unless there is a
custom or usage applicable to the parties which permits persons who have completed the age of fifteen
years being take in adoption.
Facts: Vijay being natural father had given Tarun, a boy aged 10 years, in adoption to Manoj in March
2010 in accordance with the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956. In May 2012 Manoj gave Tarun
in adoption to Sanjay. Subsequently in December 2013, Sanjay gave Tarun in adoption to Vijay.
(A) Adoption of Tarun by Sanjay is valid

(B) Adoption of Tarun by Vijay is valid
(C) Adoption of Tarun by Manoj is valid
(D) None of the above adoptions is valid
189) Principle: Under copyright law copyright subsists in original literary works also. A literary work need
not be of literary quality. Even so prosaic a work as an index of railway stations or a railway guide or a list
of stock exchange quotations qualifies as a literary work if sufficient work has been expended in compiling
it to give it a new and original character.
Facts: Michael works hard enough, walking down the streets, taking down the names of people who live
at houses and makes a street directory as a result of that labour.
(A) Michael’s exercise in making a street directory is sufficient to justify in making claim to copyright
in that work which is ultimately produced

(B) Michael’s exercise in making a street directory is not enough to justify in making claim to copyright
in that work
(C) A street directory cannot be enough to be considered as a literary work ( D) None of the above
statements is correct
190) Principle: Every person shall be liable to punishment under the Indian Penal Code and not otherwise
for every act or omission contrary to the provisions of the Code of which he shall be guilty within the
territory of India. In other words, the exercise of criminal jurisdiction depends upon the locality of the
offence committed, and not upon the nationality or locality of the offender.
Facts: ‘X’, a Pakistani citizen, while staying at Karachi, made false representations to ‘Y’, the complainant,
at Bombay through letters, telephone calls and telegrams and induced the complainant to part with money
amounting to over rupees five lakh to the agents of ‘X’ at Bombay, so that rice could be shipped from
Karachi to India as per agreement. But the rice was never supplied to the complainant.
(A) The offence of cheating under section 420 of the Code was committed by ‘X’ within India, even though
he was not physically present at the time and place of the crime
(B) The offence of cheating as per section 420 of the Code was not committed by ‘X’ within India, as he
was not physically present at the time and place of the crime
(C) Only the agents of 'X' had committed the offence of cheating under section 420 of the Code within
India, as they were physically present at the time and place of the crime
(D) ‘Y’ was also liable for the offence of cheating under section 420 of the Code within India, as he was
physically present at the time and place of the crime
191) Principle: When two or more persons agree to do, or cause to be done, (1) an illegal act, or (2) an act
which is not illegal by illegal means, through such an agreement such persons are said to have been engaged
in a criminal conspiracy to commit an offence. It is said that no consummation of the crime need be
achieved or even attempted.
Facts: ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ plan to kill ‘D’. They agree that only one among them, that is ‘Z’, will execute the
plan. In pursuance of it ‘Z’ buys a gun and loads it.
(A) Only ‘Z’ can be charged with criminal conspiracy to kill ‘D’
(B) All of them, i.e., ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’, can be charged with criminal conspiracy to kill 'D' (C) 'X' and
'Y' cannot be charged with criminal conspiracy to kill 'D'
(D) None of them can be charged with criminal conspiracy to kill 'D'
192) Principle: 'Wrongful gain' is gain by unlawful means of property to which the person gaining is not
legally entitled. 'Wrongful loss' is the loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is
legally entitled.
Facts: 'X' takes away Y's watch out of Y's possession, without Y's consent and with the intention of keeping
it.
(A) 'X' causes 'wrongful gain' to 'Y'

(B) 'Y' causes 'wrongful gain' to 'X'
(C) 'X' causes 'wrongful loss' to 'Y'

(D) 'Y' causes 'wrongful loss' to 'X'
193) Principle: Nothing is an offence by reason that it causes, or that it is intended to cause, or that it is
known to be likely to cause, any harm, if that harm is so slight that no person of ordinary sense and temper
would complain of such harm.
Facts: ‘X’ takes a plain sheet of paper from Y’s drawer without Y’s consent to write a letter to his friend.
(A) ‘X’ has committed an offence in the above context (B)

‘X’ has committed no offence in the above context (C) ‘Y’
can sue ‘X’ for an offence in the above context (D) None
of the above is correct in the above context
194) Principle: When an act which would otherwise be a certain offence, is not that offence, by reason of
the youth, the want of maturity of understanding, the unsoundness of mind or the intoxication of the person
doing that act, or by reason of any misconception on the part of that person, every person has the same
right of private defence against that act which he would have if the act were that offence.
Facts: ‘X’, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill ‘Y’.
(A) ‘Y’ has the right of private defence against ‘X’

(B) ‘Y’ does not have the right of private defence against ‘X’
(C) ‘Y’ has the right of private defence against ‘X’, only if ‘X’ is not under the influence of madness (D)
‘X’ has the right of private defence against ‘Y’
195) Principle: Where a person fraudulently or erroneously represents that he is authorized to transfer
certain immovable property and professes to transfer such property for consideration, such transfer shall,
at the option of the transferee, operate on any interest which the transferor may acquire in such property at
any time during which the contract of transfer subsists.
Facts: ‘A’, a Hindu who has separated from his father ‘B’, sells to ‘C’ three fields, X, Y and Z, representing
that ‘A’ is authorized to transfer the same. Of these fields Z does not belong to ‘A’, it having been retained
by ‘B’ on the partition; but on B's dying ‘A’ as successor obtains ‘Z’ and at that time ‘C’ had not cancelled
the contract of sale.
(A) ‘A’ can sell Z to a third party

(B) ‘A’ is not required to deliver Z to ‘C’
(C) ‘A’ is required to deliver Z to ‘C’
(D) None of the above statements is correct
196) Principle: Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 a property must be transferred by one living
person to another living person. The Act deals only with transfer of property between living persons. Facts:
‘X’ wants to transfer his property to the presiding deity in a temple situated within the estate of ‘A’.
(A) Transfer of property by ‘X’ will be valid

(B) Transfer of property by ‘X’ will be invalid

(C) Transfer of property by ‘X’ to the presiding deity will become a valid transfer to ‘A’ ( D) None of the
above is correct
197) Principle: Where there is transfer of ownership of one thing for the ownership of some other thing it
is called exchange; while transfer of ownership for consideration of money is called sale, whereas, without
consideration it becomes gift.
Facts: ‘A’ transfers his house worth ǭ50 Lakhs to ‘B’ for a shopping building worth the same amount, as
consideration, from ‘B’.
(A) The transaction is a gift

(B) The transaction is a sale
(C) The transaction is an exchange
(D) The transaction is a mortgage
198) Principle: One of the principles of natural justice is Nemo judex in causa sua, which means that no
one should be a judge in his own cause. In other words, no person can judge a case in which he has an
interest.
Facts: ‘X’, a member of the selection board for a government service, was also a candidate for selection
for the same service. ‘X’ did not take part in the deliberations of the board when his name was considered
and approved.
(A) Selection of ‘X’ is against the principle of natural justice.

(B) Selection of ‘X’ is not against the principle of natural justice.
(C) Non-selection of ‘X’ will be against the principles of natural justice.
(D) Non-participation of ‘X’ in the board deliberations will render his selection
199) Principle: Strike is a collective stoppage of work by workmen undertaken in order to bring pressure
upon those who depend on the sale or use of the products of work: whereas, lock-out is a weapon in the
hands of the employer, similar to that of strike in the armoury of workmen, used for compelling persons
employed by him to accept his terms or conditions of or affecting employment. While in closure there is
permanent closing down of a place of employment or part thereof, in lay-off an employer, who is willing
to employ, fails or refuses or is unable to provide employment for reasons beyond his control.
Facts: Workmen of a textile factory went on strike as per law, demanding the payment of bonus. Employer
of the factory refused to pay any extra allowances, including bonus, and besides he closed down the factory
till the strike was stopped.
(A) Act of closing down the factory by the employer amounted to strike
(B) Act of closing down the factory by the employer amounted to lay-off
(C) Act of closing down the factory by the employer amounted to lock-out (D) Act of closing down the
factory by the employer amounted to closure
200) Principle: Trade dispute means any dispute between employers and workmen or between workmen
and workmen, or between employers and employers which is connected with the employment or non-
employment, or the terms of employment or the conditions of labour, of any person. Disputes connected

with the non-employment must be understood to include a dispute connected with a dismissal, discharge,
removal or retrenchment of a workman.
Facts: ‘X’, an employee in a sugar factory, raised a dispute against ‘Y’, the employer, through trade union
regarding certain matters connected with his suspension from the employment.
(A) Matters connected with suspension can amount to a trade dispute

(B) Matters connected with suspension cannot amount to a trade dispute
(C) Only after dismissal, matters connected with suspension can amount to a trade dispute ( D) None of
the above is correct.

UG 2015
Notations :
Question Paper Name: Common Law Admission Test CLAT 2015 UNDER GRADUATE COURSES Actual
Subject Name:
Creation Date: 2015-04-28 11:07:20.0

Cut Off: 0
Duration: 120
Number of Questions: 113
Total Marks: 200.0
Group Number : 1
Group Id : 10
Group Maximum Duration : 0
Group Minimum Duration : 120
Revisit allowed for view? : No
Revisit allowed for edit? : No
Break time: 0
Group Marks: 200.0
Section Id : 38
Section Number : 1
Section type : Online
Mandatory or Optional: Mandatory
Number of Questions to be attempted: 10
Section Marks: 40.0
Sub-Section Number: 1
Sub-Section Id: 38
Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes
Question Id : 1701 Question Type : COMPREHENSION Sub Question Shuffling Allowed : Yes
Question Numbers : (1 to 3)
Sub questions
Question Number : 1 Question Id : 1702 Question Type : MCQ Option Shuffling : No

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/ 0 ! ! "

/ , 0 , ! ! "

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0 / ! ! "

8 9 : ; < = > ? @ A ^ T
8 9 : ; < = > D E F G 9 H A B
8 9 : ; < = > ; J K 9 A L > M < > 9
> @ ; = H J = H L K ; < = > M A > @ ; = H J

N O O O N O O
D E F G 9 H = P Q E 9 R ; < = > R A X _
D E F G 9 H = P Q E 9 R ; < = > R ; = G 9 ; ; 9 F K ; 9 @ A X _
O
8 9 : ; < = > H U R A I T V T
N O
8 E G W 8 9 : ; < = > D E F G 9 H A X
8 E G W 8 9 : ; < = > ? @ A ^ T
Q E 9 R ; < = > 8 Y E P P M < > Z [ M M = \ 9 @ A ] 9 R
/ $ % & ' & ! ! " ( " " ) *
+ 0 0 -
.
0 / ! ! "

0 / ! ! "

0 / # ! ! "

0 # / ! ! "

0 / , ! ! "

0 , / ! ! "

0 / / ! ! "

0 / / 0 ! ! "

0 0 / ! ! "

/ ! ! "

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/ # ! ! "

# / ! ! "

/ , ! ! "

, / ! ! "

/ / ! ! "

/ / 0 ! ! "

0 / ! ! "

/ ! ! "

8 9 : ; < = > ? @ A ^ X
8 9 : ; < = > D E F G 9 H A ^
8 9 : ; < = > ; J K 9 A L > M < > 9
> @ ; = H J = H L K ; < = > M A > @ ; = H J

N O O O N O O
D E F G 9 H = P Q E 9 R ; < = > R A I I
D E F G 9 H = P Q E 9 R ; < = > R ; = G 9 ; ; 9 F K ; 9 @ A I I
O
8 9 : ; < = > H U R A S T V T
N O
8 E G W 8 9 : ; < = > D E F G 9 H A X
8 E G W 8 9 : ; < = > ? @ A ^ X
Q E 9 R ; < = > 8 Y E P P M < > Z [ M M = \ 9 @ A ] 9 R
/ $ % & ' & ! ! " ( " " ) *
+ -
.
/ ! ! "

/ # ! ! "

/ ! ! "

# / , ! ! "

/ ! ! "

, / / ! ! "

/ 0 ! ! "

/ / ! ! "

0 / ! ! "

/ ! ! "

/ ! ! "

/ # ! ! "

/ ! ! "

# / , ! ! "

/ ! ! "

/ / $ % & ' & ! ! " ( " " ) *
+ , -
.
, / 0 ! ! "

/ # ! ! "

/ / # ! ! "

0 / # ! ! "

/ # ! ! "

/ # # ! ! "

/ # ! ! "

/ # , ! ! "

# / # ! ! "

/ # / ! ! "

/ # 0 $ % & ' & ! ! " ( " " ) *
+ , / -
.
, / ! ! "

/ ! ! "

/ / ! ! "

/ $ % & ' & ! ! " ( " " ) *
+ 0 # -
.
0 / # ! ! "

# / ! ! "

# / , ! ! "

# / ! ! "

# / / ! ! "

# # / 0 ! ! "

# / , ! ! "

# , / , ! ! "

# / , ! ! "

# / / , ! ! "

# 0 / , # ! ! "

/ , ! ! "

/ , , ! ! "

/ , ! ! "

/ , / ! ! "

# / , 0 ! ! "

/ ! ! "

, / ! ! "

/ ! ! "

/ / ! ! "

0 / # ! ! "

, / ! ! "

8 9 : ; < = > ? @ A ^ I
8 9 : ; < = > D E F G 9 H A S
8 9 : ; < = > ; J K 9 A L > M < > 9
> @ ; = H J = H L K ; < = > M A > @ ; = H J

N O O O N O O
D E F G 9 H = P Q E 9 R ; < = > R A X S
D E F G 9 H = P Q E 9 R ; < = > R ; = G 9 ; ; 9 F K ; 9 @ A X S
O
8 9 : ; < = > H U R A ^ T V T
N O
8 E G W 8 9 : ; < = > D E F G 9 H A X
8 E G W 8 9 : ; < = > ? @ A ^ I
Q E 9 R ; < = > 8 Y E P P M < > Z [ M M = \ 9 @ A ] 9 R
/ , $ % & ' & ! ! " ( " " ) *
+ , , / -
.
, / ! ! "

, / / ! ! "

, / 0 ! ! "

, # / / ! ! "

, / / ! ! "

, , / / ! ! "

, / / ! ! "

, / / / # ! ! "

/ / $ % & ' & ! ! " ( " " ) *
+ , 0 -
.
, 0 / / , ! ! "

/ / ! ! "

/ / / ! ! "

/ / 0 ! ! "

/ 0 ! ! "

/ 0 $ % & ' & ! ! " ( " " ) *
+ # / -
.
# / 0 ! ! "

/ 0 ! ! "

, / 0 # ! ! "

/ 0 ! ! "

/ / 0 , ! ! "

/ 0 $ % & ' & ! ! " ( " " ) *
+ 0 / -
.
0 / 0 / ! ! "

/ / 0 0 ! ! "

/ 0 ! ! "

0 $ % & ' & ! ! " ( " " ) *
+ / / # -
.
/ 0 ! ! "

2 3 . 4 5 2 ! 6 ! " " 6 7 " 2

1
/ 0 ! ! "

/ # 0 # ! ! "

0 $ % & ' & ! ! " ( " " ) *
+ / / , -
.
/ 0 , ! ! "

/ , 0 ! ! "

0 $ % & ' & ! ! " ( " " ) *
+ 0 0 -
.
0 0 ! ! "

0 0 # ! ! "

0 0 ! ! "

0 , $ % & ' & ! ! " ( " " ) *
+ 0 0 # -
.
0 0 ! ! "

0 # 0 / ! ! "

0 0 0 ! ! "

0 , 0 ! ! "

0 0 ! ! "

0 / 0 ! ! "

0 0 0 ! ! "

0 # ! ! "

CLAT 2016
UG
Notations :
Question Paper Name: CLAT May 2016 UG Actual Final

Subject Name:
Creation Date: 2016-05-08 19:09:20
Duration: 120
Total Marks: 200
Display Marks: Yes
Calculator: None
Magnifying Glass Required?: No
Ruler Required?: No
Eraser Required?: No
Scratch Pad Required?: No
Rough Sketch/Notepad Required?: No
Protractor Required?: No
Group Number : 1
Group Id : 21859513
Break time: 0
Mandatory Break time: No
Group Marks: 200
Section Id : 21859555
Section Number : 1
Section Marks: 40
Display Number Panel: Yes
Group All Questions: No
Sub-Section Id: 218595136

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6 7 8 9 6 : ; < = > ? @ 7 A 8 : B C D
6 7 8 9 6 : ; < = > ? E F C D G H I J I G K L
M 7 : N < = > ? 6 O 7 P P Q = ? R S Q Q > T : F C U : N

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6 7 8 9 6 : ; < = > ? @ 7 A 8 : B C K
6 7 8 9 6 : ; < = > ? E F C D G H I J I G K H

5
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6 7 8 9 6 : ; < = > ? @ 7 A 8 : B C V
6 7 8 9 6 : ; < = > ? E F C D G H I J I G K J

4 5
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6 7 8 9 6 : ; < = > ? @ 7 A 8 : B C I
6 7 8 9 6 : ; < = > ? E F C D G H I J I G V W

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6 : ; < = > ? E F C D G H I J I I X
6 : ; < = > ? @ 7 A 8 : B C D
6 : ; < = > ? < Y Z : C [ ? Q = ? :
? F < > B Y > B [ Z < = > ? Q C ? F < > B Y

\ ] ] ] \ ] ]
@ 7 A 8 : B > P M 7 : N < = > ? N C G
@ 7 A 8 : B > P M 7 : N < = > ? N < > 8 : < < : A Z < : F C G

]
6 : ; < = > ? B ^ N C I W
\ ]
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_ ] ]
a B > 7 Z S Q Q M 7 : N < = > ? N C @ >

6 7 8 9 6 : ; < = > ? @ 7 A 8 : B C G
6 7 8 9 6 : ; < = > ? E F C D G H I J I G V G

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\ ] ] ] \ ] ]
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]
6 : ; < = > ? B ^ N C D W
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Notations :
Question Paper Name: CLAT 2017 UG

Subject Name:
Creation Date: 2017-05-14 17:52:36
Duration: 120
Total Marks: 200
Display Marks: Yes
Calculator: None
Magnifying Glass Required?: No
Ruler Required?: No
Eraser Required?: No
Scratch Pad Required?: No
Rough Sketch/Notepad Required?: No
Protractor Required?: No
Group Number : 1
Group Id : 46113914
Break time: 0
Mandatory Break time: No
Group Marks: 200
Section Id : 46113962
Section Number : 1
Section Marks: 40
Display Number Panel: Yes
Group All Questions: No
Sub-Section Id: 461139183

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CLAT 2018
English Paper 1
Directions: In the paragraph below there are five sentences. In each sentence there are pairs of
highlighted words (A, B). Select the most appropriate words to form correct sentences. Then from
the options given select the correct option.
Q1. Internationally high rise walls serve as street A) paintings B) canvasses. In Delhi and Gurgaon
artists have A) earmarked B) earmark a district and after civic authority A) compliance, B)
grant transformed it into a throbbing art district. A walk through the A) instalment B)
installations for public interaction is A) instituted B) envisaged. It is hoped that this will
discourage defiling city‟s public places.
The correct sequence should be:
a) ABABB
b) BABAB
c) BAABB
d) ABABA
Q2. Pie charts are another extremely effective A) visual B) graph presentation of data. They show
what proportions make up a whole. Each segment should be A) cleared B) differentiated by
shading, cross –hatching or colour and should be A) labelled B) articulated horizontally. A)
Initially B) Conventionally, the largest slice begins at the 12 o‟ clock position then slices are
sequenced clockwise in A) descending B) clarified positions.
a) ABABA
b) BBABA
c) BABBA
d) BAABA
Q3. One of the predictable difficulties you can expect to A) encounter B) counter when you go to a
different country to study or work is language. But difficulties may also result from A) culture B)
cultural differences, which are often less A) conscious B) obvious at first and can be unexpected.
A Dutch academic was one of the first persons to propose an A) influential B) dire theory of
cultural A) diversity B) division.
a) ABABA
b) ABBAA
c) AABBA
d) ABABB
Directions: Identify the incorrect sentence/sentences.
Q4. A) It is important to monitor the groups.
B) Check that the instructions are clear ,and tell the students to begin.
C) Inefficient bus service are a hazard.
D) Traffic in the city has reached unsustainable levels.
Code
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
Q5. A) The college has organized a science fare
B) This is to notify that a leather wallet has been lost
C) Shortly blood donation will begin a camp
D) The agenda of the meeting is available on the website.
Code
a) B
b) C
c) D
d) A
Q6. A) It is vastly reading is significant

B) Reading for pleasure is linked to parental support at an early age.
C) We can read intensively and extensively.

D) Basic literacy among the prison population is insignificant.
a) C
b) D
c) B
d) A
Case Question with 6 Questions
Directions: Fill up the blanks numbered (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) in the passage given below with the
most appropriate word from the options given for each blank
The main objective of art and (a) living is to develop (b) sensibilities and skills of healthful living besides
providing a (c) ground for love of labour, (d) social attitudes and moral values so as to enable the child to
be (e) to the ideas of others with humility and sincerity in thought, word and deed. Love for mankind
and helping the needy would (f) at this stage and its culmination would be in terms of attainment of
selfless service.
Q7. „a‟ is:
a) profitable
b) promising
c) productive
d) praise
Q8. „b‟ is:
a) nature
b) healthy
c) aesthetic
d) genuine
Q9. „c‟ is:
a) nurturing
b) fruitful
c) attractive
d) interesting
Q10. „d‟ is:
a) clear
b) positive
c) growing
d) negative
Q11. „e‟ is:
a) welcome
b) clear
c) receptive
d) illegal
Q12. „f‟ is:
a) disappear
b) reveal
c) link
d) germinate
Direction: Four alternative summaries are given in the text: Choose the option that best captures
the essence of the text.
Q13. Develop Critical Thinking

The way we see the world and relate to others is intrinsically connected to our own set of values
that govern the way we decide to live. However, the influence of fashion, consumerism, pop
culture, broken homes, social unrest, and the media is all-pervasive. For many people, teachers
and students alike, this influence goes unquestioned. Critical thinking, if successfully taught at
this level, becomes the antidote for individual and social illiteracy. For the authors, critical
thinking should constitute an indivisible part of the overall educational process. Facione (1995)
comments: „Critical thinking lies at the root of civilisation. It is a cornerstone in the journey
humankind is taking from beastly savagery to global sensitivity‟.
Supporting the development of these skills involves reflective teaching and learning, which is
highly complex and which some students may find difficult, or interpret as weakness on the part
of the teacher. But in the long run, with patience on the part of the teacher, it will develop
students who can view old or new material, from a variety of sources, through new eyes, using
their skills to define their own stance and express it, often better in their second language, with
an open-minded confidence.
a) The world view of the human being today is influenced by a lot of things. Critical
thinking cannot be taught as it involves reflective teaching and could be
misunderstood.
b) Critical thinking must be part of an individual‟s education but it is a difficult concept
because it very often reflects a teacher as a dominating individual
c) Critical thinking is an important aspect of an individual’s literacy level and his

social knowhow. It is part of civilization and eventually leads to global sensitivity.
Students can look at information in a variety of ways.
d) Reflective teaching is another aspect of initial thinking and it could lead to individual
and social illiteracy.
Direction: Four alternative summaries are given in the text: Choose the option that best captures
the essence of the text.
Q14. The construct of democracy rests on informed choice and governance on informed policy. Answers
to critical questions are stranded in the arena of claims and counter claims. Measures of progress
are simply not known or available . The debate to job creation is a mystery of sorts. The public are
not aware that the Center and States spend crores on education, health and social services. Take
education. Barely a few of ClassV students can read a Class II text, the poor are switching to
private schools and over 33% of million-plus schools do not maintain a feasible pupil teacher ratio.
A) Being informed is an important aspect of any democracy. This information is not available
especially in the area of education, health and social services.
B) Answers are often given but they need to be deciphered accurately. Job clarity is available but
sometimes it is a mystery. There is confusion about information.
C) Health and social services is clearly communicated but education remains an area of ignorance.
Claims and counter claims create even more confusion.
D) Crores are spent on many areas of growth but there is no accountability for information. Parents
are switching to private schools as the information on education is available there.
Directions: The word given in each of the sentences is used contextually. Pick the word from the
alternatives given that is most inappropriate in the given context.
Q15. VENERATE : We venerate aged priests and martyrs.
a) respect
b) revere
c) spurn
d) honor
Q16. PRUDENCE: Prudence and sacrifice help us in meeting the future.
a) caution
b) reckless
c) foresight
d) judgement
Q17. OSTENTATION : Ostentation in wealth and living styles can sometimes turn vulgar.
a) pageantry
b) display
c) modesty
d) flourish
Q18. DOCTRINE :A doctrine is often refined by reasoning.
a) offense
b) dogma
c) precept
d) principle
Q19. BENEVOLENCE : Every religion believes in the concept of benevolence.
a) generosity
b) malignity
c) liberality
d) benignity
Case Question with 2 questions
Direction: Answer the Question, based on the following information. Indicate which of the
statements given with that particular question, is consistent with the information given in the
passage below.
A Holistic Viewpoint
It is now recognised by modern science that the universe at the subatomic level does not have solid
material objects, but consists of only wavelike patterns which represent probabilities of interconnections
between other interconnections, all of which together constitute an inseparable web of inter-relationships
constituting the entire universe. Fritj of Capra therefore, views the universe not as “an assemblage of
independent parts” but as “a dynamic web of inter-related events” in which each part of the web
determines the structure of the whole. Geoffrey Chew views such inter-penetrating and interdependent
relationships in the universe in terms of a “bootstrap” theory which implies that all forces in the universe
are inseparably linked together, every part affects every other part, and the whole world is held together
so to say, by bootstraps. David Bohm refers to a holographic concept which implies not only that every
part is connected with every other part within the whole but also that, in a sense, each part contains the
whole. This, according to David Bohm, recognises the “Undivided wholeness” of the entire universe
instead of the classical idea of analysability of the world into separately and independently existent parts.
Q20. Choose the appropriate option:
a) there are many solid material objects in the universe
b) the entire universe has a web of inter-relationships
c) the universe comprises of a number of independent parts
d) these independent parts determine the structure of the web
Q21. Choose the appropriate option:
a) the holographic theory speaks of the exclusiveness of each part.
b) the world can be analysed into separate independent parts.
c) the classical idea recognizes the concept of wholeness.
d) the boot strap theory speaks of interdependent relationships
Direction: In the following sentence a part of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence four
different ways of paraphrasing the underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative
among the four options.
Q22. The police searched everywhere but they drew a blank.
a) upset
b) did not find any information

c) came to a dead end (changed as: came to an end)
d) drew a line
Q23. She was accused of being close -minded and intolerant.
a) did not agree

b) kept to herself
c) not open to new ideas

d) unwilling to discuss
Q24. Rehman likes to have a finger in every pie.
a) likes cooking
b) wants to do everything
c) interferes in all matters (changed as: object to everything)
d) cannot take decisions.
Directions: In the question below, a related phrase is followed by a group of words. Select the group
of words that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original phrase.
Q25. At one‟s wits end
a) cannot say anything funny
b) not able to think logically
c) not able to work
d) clarity of thought
Q26. Gift of the gab
a) clever at work
b) flatter someone
c) promise blatantly
d) fluent at speaking
Q27. Die in harness
a) Die while riding
b) die at the height of one’s success

c) die with help
d) die when the work has been completed
Direction: Read the passage given below. Choose the best option for the question.
IOT has had an impact across all fields, be it industries, government, small or large businesses
and even for Personal Consumption.
What is IOT (Internet of things) you might ask. It‟s been a growing topic of conversation for
some time now. Put in the simplest term it means anything that has an on and off button and is
connected to the internet for receiving, analyzing, storing or sending data. This could mean
anything, from the watch that you wear to airplanes that can be controlled from a remote
location. According to the analyst firm Gartner, by the year 2020 we‟ll have over 26 billion
connected devices. That could mean people to people, people connected to things and things
connected to things. The new rule of the future is going to be “Anything that can be connected
will be connected”. Take for example that when you set an alarm to wake up and that alarm goes
off it not only wakes you up but also brews your coffee, sets the right temperature of water for
your bath, puts on the television to bring you the latest updates from around the globe and all this
before you even put a foot out of your bed. This is all done by simply getting the network of
interconnected things/devices that have embedded sensors, network connectivity, software and
necessary electronics that collect and exchange data.
To show how far we have come with technology and connectivity, we have smart watches such
as Fitbit, Garmin to name a few that have changed the way we look at time. We have one device
that not only tells us the time but also tracks the number of steps, calories and our heart rate. This
watch is actually connected to our phone so with just one turn of the wrist one can tell who is
calling or what messages have been received without having to dig through pockets or handbags.
IOT is making its presence felt in health care as well. Doctors can now remotely monitor and
communicate with their patients and health care providers can benefit from this. Whether data
comes from foetal monitors, electrocardiograms, temperature monitors or blood glucose levels,
tracking this information is vital for some patients. Many of this requires follow up interaction
with healthcare professionals. With smarter devices that deliver more valuable data it can reduce
the need for direct patient- physician interaction.
Take for instance in the sporting field, minute chips are being attached to balls and bats which
will transmit information of how fast the ball is travelling and a batsman‟s moves, the time, the
angles, the pressure on the bat at different positions, data of the muscle stretch if he‟s hit a six so
on and so forth. Formula one cars are also being fitted with these sensors which relays
information on the minute moves being made by the driver. Chips are also being put into
wearable devices of sportsmen to detect sub-optimal action of any body parts to show signs of
stress or strain which will help in the early detection of injuries and take preventive measures.
IOT has had an impact across all fields, be it industries, government, small or large business and
even for personal consumption. IBM, Google, Intel, Microsoft and Cisco are some of the top
players in the IOT spectrum.
With billions of devices connected security becomes a big issue. How can people make sure that
their data is safe and secure? This is one of the major concerns in the IOT that becomes a hot
topic. Another issue is with all these billions of devices sharing data companies will be faced
with the problem of how to store, track, analyse and make vast sense of the information being
generated. Companies are monitoring the network segment to identify anomalous traffic and to
take action if necessary.
Now that we have a fair understanding of IOT let‟s see what impact it‟s had on the education
sector. The only constant in our lives is change and learning. From the get go we learn, be it to
the walk, talk or run. We adapt to the changing times and constantly learn from it. Education or
learning as we know it in the broader sense is the most important of all and the one that decides
which way we handle those changes to impact us and the world.
Today‟s world is fast paced and to keep up with this we need an infusion of speed with learning.
From the classroom assignments, lectures, blackboards and chalk we have come a long way to
what is now known as e-learning (electronic learning) or m-learning (mobile learning). With the
GenNext it is imperative to provide the right kind of education.
The rise of technology and IOT allows schools to improve the safety of their campuses, keep
track of resources and enhance access to information. It ensures data quality being the top
priority but also facilitates development of content allowing teachers to use this technology to
create smart lesson plans and ensuring the reach of this content to any corner of the world.
Q28. How is IOT a concept of connecting?

a) It is the internet in a different form.
b) It is internet but connected to anything.

c) It is an analysing machine.
d) It is a data collection term.
Q29. It is said that we look at time differently now, why?
a) It is connected to different devices.

b) It is in a different format.
c) It is connected to the aeroplane.
d) It connects people.
Q30. IOT will help in simplifying patient - physician interaction because:
a) It helps reduce data.

b) Doctors can remotely connect to patients.
c) It improves connectivity.
d) It is a simple process.
Q31. How will IOT work in the sporting field?

a) Through sport fields with chips.
b) Through special machine.
c) Through minute wearable chips which are connected.

d) Through special moves by the sportsmen.
Q32. Preventive measure is imperative because:

a) It can detect anything.
b) It identifies treatment needed.
c) It keeps them in touch.
d) It helps to identify stress and strain.

Q33. One of the major concerns of IOT is:
a) Security and privacy, data loss and tracking data.

b) Only security and privacy.
c) Only data loss.
d) Only tracking data.

Q34. Technology and IOT has benefited education considerably because it has
a) Helped in improving the lesson.
b) Helped keep track of all resources.

c) Helped teachers to track.
d) Helped with keeping up with the change in learning.

Q35. Teachers can use this data:
a) Only to teach with more resources

b) Only to create a smart classroom
c) Only to reach out to the world
d) To teach with more resources, create a smart classroom and reach out to the
world.
Q36. Select a title that is most suitable for the passage
a) IOT curse or boon
b) IOT and our life tomorrow

c) IOT is changing the way we learn
d) IOT is all pervading
Q37. To conclude, IOT has an impact on:
a) Education, sports, medicine and our daily lives

b) Education and sports only
c) Education only
d) Education and medicine only.
Direction: Choose the option closest to the Capitalized word

Q38. ANNIHILATE
a) devastate
b) delay
c) investigate
d) retaliate

Q39. FACILITATE
a) lend
b) share
c) support
d) serve

Q40. CAMPAIGN
a) lobby
b) run
c) agree
d) work
2. GK & CA - Set 1 (Qs 41 – 90)

1. Who wrote the memoir book “My Brief History”?
A. r G. Madhavan Nair
B. Stephen Hawking
C. Angeline Merkel
D. Rosalind Franklin
2. What is the Motto of the Commonwealth Games 2018?
A. People, Place, Passion

B. Share the Dream
C. Come out and play
D. United by the moment
3. The 2024 Summer Olympics will be held in Paris, France for a third time. How many years
before that, did the city host the Summer Olympics for the second time?
A. 100 years
B. 96 years
C. 92 years
D. 88 years
4. Who won the Men’s Singles title in Australian Open 2018?
A. Dylan Alcott
B. R. Nadal
C. Roger Federer
D. Marin Cilic
5. In which election was the Electronic Voting Machines tried out on an experimental basis in
India?
A. The 1982 Kerala Legislative Assembly Elections.

B. The Karnataka State for the 1984, Legislative Assembly Elections.
C. The U.P State for the 1989, Lok Sabha Elections.
D. The 1987, Delhi Corporation Election in Karol Bagh constituency.
6. Recently a star, Icarus was seen by NASA’s Hubble Space Telescope What was the
approximate time taken by Icarus’ light to reach the Earth?
A. Nine billion years

B. Ten million years
C. Seven trillion years
D. One hundred years
7. Who won the first Gold Medal for India at the Commonwealth Games 2018?
A. Punam Yadav
B. Mirabai Chanu
C. Jitu Rai
D. Sanjita Chanu
8. Who is the first Indian to hold the post of Deputy Director General for Programmes at the
World Health Organisation?
A. Rasha Omar
B. Vijayalakshmi Pandit
C. Soumya Swaminathan
D. Kiran Bedi
9. Who is the first female fighter pilot of India?
A. Punit Arora
B. Avani Chaturvedi
C. Mitali Madhumita
D. Priya Jhingan
10. The Reserve Bank of India issued the 100 rupee coin to mark the birth centenary of which
Carnatic Music Legend?
A. Dr. Balamurali Krishna

B. Dr. M.S. Subbulakshmi
C. Muthuswami Deekshithar
D. Chembai Vaidynatha Bhagavathar
11. Which type of mango from Andhra Pradesh received a Geographical Indication (GI) Tag in
2017?
A. Alphonso
B. Banganapalle
C. Totapuri
D. Himsagar
12. The International Day of the Girl Child is observed by the UN on

A. March 8
B. August 12
C. October 16
D. October 11
13. Where is the temple of Angkor Wat located?
A. Singapore
B. Cambodia
C. Thailand
D. Indonesia
14. Which one of the following States lifted the Santosh Trophy Football title 2018?
(A) Kerala
(B) Punjab
(C) Karnataka
(D) Uttar Pradesh
15. IRDA stands for

A. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority
B. International Resources Development Agency
C. Indian Roads Development Authority
D. Indian Rural Development Authority
16. The first Defence Minister of India was

A. K.M. Cariappa
B. V.K. Krishna Menon
C. Baldev Singh
D. Kailash Nath Katju
17. Who is the legendary figure who won both a Nobel Prize and an Oscar?
A. Satyajit Ray
B. William Goldman
C. Gabriel Garcia Marquez
D. George Bernard Shaw
18. The discipline that deals with map making is known as
A. Cryptography
B. Carpology
C. Cartography
D. Lithography
19. The prize established, based on a donation from the Sveriges Riksbankin memory of Alfred
Nobel, is the
A. Prize in Medicine
B. Prize in Economic Sciences
C. Peace Prize
D. Prize in Literature
20. What is the significance of May 13, 1952 with regard to Indian polity?
A. First sitting of the Lok Sabha

B. First sitting of the Rajya Sabha
C. First sitting of the Supreme Court of India
D. Formation of the Election Commission of India
21. Which among the following is the earliest literary work in Tamil language?
A. Manimegalai
B. Silappadikaram
C. Thirukkural
D. Tolkappiyam
22. Who has been appointed in 2018 as the Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of
India?
(A) S.N. Joshi

(B) Rakesh Aggarwal
(C) K Vijay Raghavan
(D) Vinod Kumar
23. Escape velocity of a rocket fired from the earth towards the moon is a velocity to get rid of
the:
A. Centripetal force due to Earth’s revolution

B. Earth’s gravitational pull
C. Centripetal force due to Earth’s rotation
D. Moons gravitational pull
24. From which animal is catgut usually made of?
A. Sheep
B. Camel
C. Cat
D. Rabbit
25. Who wrote the book Der Ursprung der Familie, des Privateigenthums und des Staats / The
Origin of the Family, Private Property, and the State?
A. Friedrich Engels
B. Lewis H. Morgan
C. Karl Marx
D. Friedrich Carl von Savigny
26. Name the part of the human body reclassified as an organ due to research conducted in the
past decade.
A. Alimentary
B. Mesentery
C. Epithelium
D. Spleen
27. The World’s first ‘negative emissions’ power plant has been built in
A. Iceland
B. Poland
C. Finland
D. China
28. Which platform has been launched by the Union Government on the occasion of the 2018
International Women’s ay?
A. Women Entrepreneurship Platform

B. Women Combat Platform
C. Women Power Platform
D. Women Literacy Platform
29. Who is the author of ‘The Coalition Years 1996-2012’?
A. Manmohan Singh
B. Pratibha Patil
C. Sharad Pawar
D. Pranab Mukherjee
30. What does ‘NITI’ in Niti Ayog stand for?
A. National Invitation To Invest in India

B. New India Transformation Initiative
C. National Institution for Transforming India
D. Nayi India Turant India
31. In commemoration of which of the following events, is May 1 celebrated in many places as
the International Workers’ ay?
A. The Haymarket affair, Chicago

B. Foundation Day of International Labour Organisation
C. Commencement of the First International Labour Conference
D. Concluding Day of the Russian Revolution
32. The National Social Security Board functioning under the Ministry of Labour and
Employment is meant for recommending formulation of social security schemes for
A. Industrial workers
B. Women and Children
C. Government employees
D. Unorganised workers
33. The scarcity definition of economics is credited to
A. Alfred Marshall
B. Lionel Robbins
C. Adam Smith
D. Dennis Robertson
34. Name the digital payment app introduced by Google in 2017 for India.
A. BHIM
B. Tez
C. Citrus Pay
D. MobiKwik
35. Which of the following countries runs bullet trains with the highest operational speed?
A. China
B. Germany
C. South Korea
D. USA
36. Who became the Chief Justice of the Federal Court of India on 14 August, 1947?
A. Maurice Gwyer
B. Patanjali Shastri
C. H.J. Kania
D. Srinivas Varadachariar
37. In which country outside India has the Energy Efficiency Services Limited, under the
Ministry of Power, Government of India, launched the UJALA scheme in 2017?
A. Malaysia
B. Srilanka
C. Indonesia
D. Maldives
38. Which is the organisation that initiates and presents the National Film Awards in India?
A. Film and Television Institute of India

B. Central Board of Film Certification
C. Directorate of Film Festivals
D. Prasar Bharati
39. In 2017, eBay India was merged with which of the following Companies?
A. Flipkart
B. Alibaba
C. Naaptol
D. Snapdeal
40. The world’s first fully Solar-powered Airport is
A. Cochin International Airport

B. Shanghai Pudong International Airport
C. Dubai International Airport
D. Singapore Changi Airport
41. The winner of the Jnanpith Award 2017 is
A. G. Sankara Kurup
B. Shankha Ghosh
C. Raghuvir Chaudhari
D. Krishna Sobti
42. What do the paintings of Ajanta caves primarily depict?
A. Ramayana
B. Panchatantra
C. Jataka tales
D. Mahabharata
43. Cancelled
44. What is the theme of the 2018 World Wildlife Day?

A. Stop wildlife crime
B. Listen to the young voices
C. Big cats: predators under threat
D. The future of wildlife is in our hands
45. In which athletics event did Bob Beamon hold the world record for 23 years?
A. Triple jump
B. High jump
C. Long jump
D. Steeple chase
46. Which State government has come up with a Water ATM Policy in April 2018?
A. Haryana
B. Maharashtra
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Madhya Pradesh
47. The military operation which annexed Hyderabad into the Indian Union was code-named
as:
A. Operation Meghdoot
B. Operation Polo
C. Operation Viraat
D. Operation Vijay
48. Which of the following movies won the Best Movie Oscar Award 2018?
A. The Shape of Water

B. Call Me by Your Name
C. Darkest Hour
D. Dunkirk
49. Who is the first woman Defence Minister of Independent India:
A. Nirmala Sitharaman
B. Indira Gandhi
C. Sushma Swaraj
D. Sheela Dixit
50. What is the motto of the Supreme Court of India?
A. Satyameva Jayate
B. Dharmo Rakshati Rakshitah
C. Sarve Jana SukhinoBhavanthu
D. Yato Dharmastato Jayah
3. Logical Set 1 (Qs 91 – 130)
1. Find the missing group in the sequence

X7D, V11G, T13J, _____, P19P
A. Q15M
B. R17M
C. Q17L
D. R15M
2. Find the missing number in the sequence

9, 3, ___, 1/3, 1/9
A. 2
B. 6
C. ½
D. 1
3. Which word does not belong with the others?
A. Flute
B. Clarinet
C. Saxophone
D. Violin
4. Find the next group of alphabets

CFI, DHL, ILO, LPT, ________?
A. ORU
B. RUW
C. OQT
D. OSV
5. If “VOLKSWAGEN” is written as “UQKMRYZI P” then “SWITZERLAN ” is written as

___________________?
A. RVHSYDFPMOD
B. TXJUAFSMBOE
C. RYHYVGQNZPE
D. RYHVYGQNZPC
6. In an archery match, Suresh’s team got more scores than Mahesh’s team but not as many
as Yogesh’s team Yogesh’s team got more scores than Mukesh’s team Mukesh’s team got
less score than Mahesh’s team
Which team is in second place in the descending order of scores?
A Yogesh’s team
B Mukesh’s team
C Suresh’s team
D Mahesh’s team
7. Choose the word that is not a necessary part of the underlined word.
Movie
A. Scene
B. Video
C. Duration
D. Dialogue
8. The doctor is a person who looks after the sick people and prescribes medicines so that the
patient recovers fast. In order to become a doctor, a person has to study medicine. Doctors
lead a hard life. Their life is very busy. They get up early in the morning and go to the
hospital. They work without taking a break. They always remain polite so that patients feel
comfortable with them. Since doctors work so hard we must realise their value.
Based on the above paragraph, who among the following is/are doctor(s)?
i. Kumar Sharma wakes up early in the morning everyday and treats everyone with
patience. He usually gives emergency aid to the persons who are injured in
accidents.
ii. Rakesh studied medicine in Russia and practiced medicine there for 2 years.
Later, stopped medical practice and turned into some business.
iii. Shalini works in Apollo Hospitals. She always remains polite so that patients feel
comfortable. She is a specialist in providing quality care for the cancer patients.
a. All are doctors

b. Rakesh and Shalini are the doctors
c. Kumar Sharma and Rakesh are doctors
d. Only Rakesh is a doctor

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the Question.
Ten friends attended a marriage, five of them Venkat, Manohar, Ravi, Prasanth and Tilak are
sitting in a row facing North and other five friends Vidya, Maya, Divya, Keerthi and Anu are
sitting in a row facing south not exactly in the same order. Each friend in a row is facing exactly
one from the other row. One of them is using a Skoda Car. Manohar sits opposite to his friend
who is using a Ford Car and sits at one of the extremes. The friend who uses a Honda car, is not
Ravi who sits second to the right of Manohar. Venkat sits exactly in the middle of Ravi and the
friend who uses a Nissan car is not Manohar. Keerthi does not sit at the extreme end but uses a
Tata car and sits opposite the friend who uses a Fiat Car. The one who uses a Maruthi car sits
opposite to the friend who is to the immediate left of Keerthi. The friend who uses a Toyota Car
but not Anu, sits opposite Prasanth. Tilak does not sit at any of the extremes, but sits opposite
the friend who uses a Chevrolet car, and is sitting adjacent to Divya and the friend who uses a
Mahindra car. Vidya neither uses Chevrolet nor Toyota cars.
9. Who uses the Mahindra Car?
A. Venkat
B. Anu
C. Vidya
D. Divya
10. Keerthi is how many places away from the one who uses the Ford car?
A. One
B. Three
C. Four
D. Two
11. Who sits third to the left of the one who uses the Chevrolet?
A. Anu
B. Maya
C. Divya
D. Vidya
12. Which one does not belong to the group?
A. Maruthi
B. Skoda
C. Honda
D. Mahindra
13. Which is the car used by Maya?
A. Toyota
B. Chevrolet
C. Mahindra
D. Ford
14. In a queue, I am the last person while my friend is seventh from the front. If the person
exactly between me and my friend is on the 23rd position from the front, what is my
position in the queue?
A 37
B 36
C 38
D 39
Directions: Read the statement and on the basis of that, choose the most appropriate course of
action(s) given below the statement.
15. Statement: Most of those who study in premier Medical colleges in India migrate to
developed nations for better prospects in their professional pursuits.
Courses of Action:
I. All the students joining these colleges should be asked to sign a bond at the time
of admission to the effect that they will remain in India at least for ten years
after they complete their medical education.
II. All those students who desire to settle in the developed nations should be asked
to pay the entire cost of their education which the government subsidised.
A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Both I and II follow
D. Neither I nor II follows
Directions: Read the statement and on the basis of that, choose the most appropriate course of
action(s) given below the statement.
16. Statement: Official data show more people died on Indian roads in 2016 than in 2015; UP
and Tamil Nadu accounted for the largest numbers of fatalities.
Courses of Action:
I. Government should make a policy regulating the manufacturing of automobiles
for private use.
II. Government should take steps to create awareness among the public about
road safety.
III. Accidents can be avoided if the Government takes steps to make good roads.
IV. To eliminate accidents completely the Government should impose stringent
punishments for traffic violations.
A. Only II and IV follow

B. Only II follows
C. Only III and IV follow
D. Only IV follows
Directions: Read the statements and presume that whatever statements given are true. On
the basis of that, choose the most appropriate conclusion(s) given below.
17. Statements: Some rats are cows. All cows are animals.
Conclusions:
I. All rats are animals
II. Some animals are rats
A. Only Conclusion I follows

B. Only Conclusion II follows
C. Both Conclusions I and II follow
D. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows.
Directions: Read the statements and presume that whatever statements given are true. On the
basis of that, choose the most appropriate conclusion(s) given below.
18. Statements: All the students are young. All the teens are young. Some men are teens.
Conclusions:
I. Some students are teens.
II. Some young are students.
III. Some young are men.
A. Only (I) follows
B. Only (II) and (III) follow
C. Only (I) and (II) follow
D. Only (I) and (III) follow
19. ‘X’ started walking towards the west, after travelling 5 kilometres turned exactly to his
right and walked 3 kms. Then he decided to walk exactly to his left. On reaching 2
kilometres, he heard a voice and walked back Then he noticed that, his friend ‘Y’ was
walking towards him from his right side In which direction is ‘Y’ walking?
A. East
B. West
C. North
D. South
20. If ‘ ECEMBER’ is ‘AUGUST’, 'MARCH’ is ‘MAY’, ‘SEPTEMBER’ is ‘SEPTEMBER’ and ‘OCTOBER’

is ‘JULY’, then ‘JUNE’ is?
A. FEBRUARY
B. APRIL
C. JANUARY
D. NOVEMBER
Case Questions with 2 questions
Directions: Read the information below and answer the question.
A neurosurgeon, an orthopaedist, a plastic surgeon and an ophthalmologist visited the patient

after a surgery.
The time of each visit is mentioned below:

Neurosurgeon at 7:45
Orthopaedist 8:30
Plastic surgeon 9:15
Ophthalmologist 9:50
Each time mentioned above may be either A.M. or P.M.
21. If the ophthalmologist generally goes for his rounds before the surgeons, but not unless any
other doctor does, and the neurosurgeon is not the last to go for his rounds, what is the
correct sequence of their visit?
A. Orthopaedist, Neurosurgeon, Plastic surgeon, Ophthalmologist

B. Neurosurgeon ,Orthopaedist, Plastic surgeon, Ophthalmologist
C. Orthopaedist, Ophthalmologist, Neurosurgeon, Plastic surgeon
D. Ophthalmologist, Orthopaedist, Neurosurgeon , Plastic surgeon
22. Who were the doctors to visit the patient in the evening?
A. Neurosurgeon and Plastic surgeon

B. Plastic surgeon Ophthalmologist and Neurosurgeon,
C. Orthopaedist and Neurosurgeon
D. Ophthalmologist and Orthopaedist and Plastic surgeon
23. Samantha is your father’s mother’s grandson’s daughter Therefore, Samantha is your
A niece
B sister
C uncle
D brother
24. Look at this series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, ... What number should come next?
A 7
B 10
C 12
D 13
25. In an interview for selection of two District Judges, four candidates, P, Q, R and S were
shortlisted. All of them had 10 years standing as Lawyers. Who among them are most
suitable?
I. P – Very academic not much interested in litigation practice, very honest and
impatient.
II. Q – A patient listener, average in academics, thorough with Laws and sharp.
III. R – Jovial, Patient, good academic records and actively involved in politics.
IV. S – Shrewd, Quick tempered, punctual and Published several Legal articles
A. P and Q
B. Q and S
C. R and S
D. P and S
26. Find the odd one out
A. Bat
B. Vulture
C. Eagle
D. Owl
Direction: Read the information below and answer the Question.
On the farewell day five best friends, namely, Vishal, Anirudh, Gaurav Mansi and Sapna, clicked
their photo, facing the photographer who is on the west.
They were standing as per the following conditions:
i. Sapna stands to the right of Mansi and Gaurav

ii. Gaurav stands to the left of Vishal and Sapna
iii. Mansi stands between Vishal and Anirudh
iv. There are two people between Anirudh and Gaurav
27. Who will be standing at the 2nd position from the right in the photograph?
A. Vishal
B. Mansi
C. Gaurav
D. Anirudh
28. Who stands to the left of Anirudh?
A. Sapna
B. Gaurav
C. Mansi
D. Vishal
29. Find the equivalent for ' ? '
Sphygmomanometer : Blood Pressure :: Pyrometer: ?
A. Temperature
B. Blood Flow
C. Urine Flow
D. Atmospheric Pressure
30. From morning 11 O’ clock to Evening 7 O’ clock, how many times the hour hand and
minutes hand will overlap each other?
A. 9
B. 8
C. 7
D. 6
31. Find the odd one out
A. Police station
B. Railway station
C. Supermarket
D. Airport
Direction: Read the following carefully and answer the question given below
32. Although women now constitute 30 percent of the global industrial force, legal hurdles and
traditional barriers still hinder the vast majority of women in their efforts to achieve parity
with men.
The paragraph best supports the statement
A. The Author claims that Feminism rules.

B. Equality of men and women is still a myth.
C. Women should surpass men in all the fields.
D. The Author claims that women have to take more efforts.
33. If TEACHER is coded as CAHEETR and STUDENT is coded as DUETNST, then what is the code
for SUCCESS?
A. CECSUSS
B. CCEUSSS
C. SCUSCES
D. UCSECSS
Direction: Read the following and answer the Question.
Chetan invited five of his friends, namely Ritwik, Avantika, Darshan, Parul and Shweta to his
birthday party. Each of the five friends gifted Chetan a different article – a jacket, a watch, a
shirt, a video game and a headphone. As a return gift, Chetan gifted each of them a different
article – goggles, a bag, a pen, a mobile case and a diary. The following is additional information
about the gifts given by the friends and the return gifts they received.
i. Avantika gifted the shirt but did not receive a bag in return.
ii. Shweta did not gift the headphone but received the mobile case in return.
iii. Neither Ritwik nor Darshan gifted the jacket but the person who did gift it, received the
goggles in return.
iv. The person who gifted the video game received a diary or a bag.
v. Darshan did not gift a watch but received a pen in return.
vi. Neither Shweta gifted a video game nor did Ritwik received a diary in return.
34. Who gifted the watch?

A. Shweta
B. Darshan
C. Ritwik
D. Parul
35. Who received goggles as a return gift?
A. Avantika
B. Ritwik
C. Parul
D. Darshan
36. Which among the following combination is correct?

A. Avantika – Bag
B. Ritwik – Video Game
C. Ritwik – Diary
D. Parul – Watch
37. Who gifted the headphones?

A. Shweta
B. Ritwik
C. Darshan
D. Parul
38. Which among the following combination is correct?

A. Avantika – Diary
B. Headphones – Diary
C. Ritwik – Goggles
D. Watch – Bag
39. The one who received the bag in return, gifted which among the following items?
A. Watch
B. Video Game
C. Headphones
D. Jackets
40. Direction: Examine the following expressions/activities/processes, and arrange them in the
most logical sequence.
1. Design, 2. Need, 3. Launching, 4. Research, 5. Testing, 6. Identify
A. 4, 1, 6, 2, 3, 5
B. 2, 6, 4, 1, 5, 3
C. 3, 5, 4, 1, 6, 2
D. 2, 4, 1, 5, 6, 3
4. Maths Set 1 (Qs 131 – 150)
1. The value of the expression
( )
is
A.
B. 2
C.
D.
2. The fractions , and are arranged in

ascending order of magnitude as
A. , ,
B. , ,
C. , ,
D. ,
3. Let x be the greatest number of 4 digits, which when
divided by 15, 20 and 28 leaves in each case the
remainder 2. The sum of digits of x is
A. 19
B. 21
C. 23
D.25
4. A student was asked to simplify the expression:
his answer was . What is the difference between

his answer and the correct answer?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5. When 13511, 13903 and 14589 are divided by the
greatest number ‘n’, the remainder in each case is
‘m’ The value of (n + m) is
A. 183
B. 182
C. 181
D. 179
6. ABCD is a quadrilateral in which measures of angle D
and angle C are 60o, and 100 o respectively. If the
internal bisectors of angle A and angle B meet at P,
then measure of angle APB is
A. 80 o
B. 90 o
C. 100 o
D. 110 o
7. Suman saves 10% of her monthly salary. Now her
expenditure increases by 30% and savings increases
by 50%. The present increase in her salary is
A. 25%
B. 30%
C. 32%
D.40%
8. A sum amounts to Rs. 9680 in 2 years and to Rs.
10648 in 3 years respectively at compound interest.
What will be the amount if the same sum is invested
for years at the same rate of compound interest?
A. Rs. 9025
B. Rs. 9152
C. Rs. 9215
D.Rs. 9251
9. The marked price of an article is 20% more than the
cost price. If the article is sold at a discount of 15%
on its marked price, then the gain percent is
A. 5
B.
C.
D.
10. Reshma sells an article to Rekha at 37.5% profit,
Rekha sells it to Madhu at % profit. Again Madhu
sells it to Mitu at 25% loss. If Mitu pays Rs. 342 for
the article, then what is the cost price of the article
to Reshma?
A. Rs. 304
B. Rs. 266.50
C. Rs. 380
D. Rs. 384.75
11. The number of children in a camp is x and their
average weight is 20 kg. If 5 children each weighing
12 kg, join the camp or if 10 children each weighing
21 kg leave the camp, the average weight in both the
cases remain the same. The value of x is
A. 18
B. 16
C. 15
D.14
12. In a 120 litre of solution of Acid and water, acid
is 75%. A person takes out 20 litres of this solution
and added 16.2 litres of acid and 3.8 litres of water
in the remaining solution. What is the percentage of
water in the final solution?
A. 22
B. 24
C. 25
D. 28
13. Twelve men and 5 women can complete a work
in 2 days whereas 4 men and 3 women can complete
the same work in 5 days. In how many days can 8
men complete the work?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
14. a and b are inversely proportional to each other
and are positive. If a increases by 100%, then b
decreases by
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 100%
D. 200%
15. Four pipes A, B, C and D can fill a tank with
water in 15, 20, 30 and 60 hours respectively. Pipe A
is opened at 4 a.m., B at 5 a.m., C at 6 a.m. and D at
7 a.m. When is the tank filled up completely?
A. 9:30 a.m.
B. 10:00 a.m.
C. 10:30 a.m.
D. 11:00 a.m.
16. If a person travels at a speed of 40 km/h he will
reach his destination on time. He covered half the
journey in of time. At what speed (in km/h) should
he travel to cover the remaining journey to reach the
destination on time?
A. 48
B. 50
C. 60
D. 72
17. The parallel sides of a trapezium shaped field
are 25 m and 10 m and non parallel sides are 14 m
and 13 m. What is the area (in m2) of the field?
A. 204
B. 196
C. 156
D. 144
18. x2 (a-b) + a2(b-x) + b2 (x-a) is factored as
A. (a-b)(x-a)(x-b)
B. (a-b)(x-a)(x+b)
C. (b-a)(x+a)(x-b)
D. (a+b)(x-a)(x+b)
19. Three fair dice are thrown simultaneously. What
is the probability that the sum of numbers on their
tops, is at least 6?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20. Six dice are stacked on the floor as shown in the
figure below. On each dice, the sum of numbers on
opposite faces is 7, i.e., if 1 is written on one face
then 6 is written on the face opposite it and so on.
What is the maximum possible sum of numbers on

the 21 visible faces?
A. 88
B. 89
C. 96
D. 147
5. Legal Aptitude Set 1 (Qs 151 – 200)

1. Article 51-A on Fundamental Duties was inserted into the Constitution of India through the
A. 41st Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976
B. 44th Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1978
C. 40th Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976
D. 42nd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976
2. The highest law officer in India is the

A. Attorney General
B. Advocate General
C. Solicitor General
D. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
3. How many languages are there in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
A 21
B 22
C 19
D 18
4. A Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is only a/an:

A Administrative authority
B Co-ordinating and Supervisory authority
C Consultative Committee
D Advisory body
5. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty as per the provisions of the Constitution
of India?
A To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India

B To join the Defence Forces of India
C To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
D To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
6. The Right to Education Act, 2009 (RTE) provides for free and compulsory education to:
A All illiterate children of India

B All citizens of India
C Children aged between 6 and 14 years
D All children up to the age of 10 years
Directions: The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and
another as ‘Reason’ (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to
these items from the codes given below.
7. Assertion (A): It is the legal and constitutional duty of the State to provide legal aid to the
poor.
Reason (R): No one should be denied justice by reason of his poverty.

Codes:
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation to A
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation to A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
8. Which was the law introduced by Sir William Bentinck to prohibit the practice of Sati?
A. Bengal Sati Regulation, 1829

B. U.P. Sati Prohibition Act, 1828
C. Indian Sati Prohibition Act, 1827
D. Rajasthan Sati (Prevention) Act, 1830
9. Legal Principle: Nothing is an ‘offence’, if committed by a child below seven years of age
Fact Situation: Adil, aged six years, is a student of class one. He placed his sharpened pencil
on the bench with its pointed end up when his classmate Ajay stood up to answer a
question from the teacher. Ajay gets hurt when he sits on the pencil and Adil and his friends
have a good laugh. Ajay’s father, on seeing his son injured when he returns home, wants
action against Adil.
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal
principle stated above?
A. Adil has committed an ‘offence’
B. Adil has not committed any ‘offence’.
C. Childish pranks cannot be investigated by the police.
D. The class teacher must be arrested.
10. Legal Principle: The doctrine of basic structure in Constitutional jurisprudence means that
the Constitution of India has certain basic features that cannot be taken away through
amendments by the Parliament. The power of judicial review is a part of the basic structure
and it helps the constitutional Courts to determine whether an amendment is against the
basic structure or not.
Fact Situation: Parliament proposes an amendment to limit the power of appeal against
conviction for the offence of Sedition, to be exercised only by the Supreme Court of India.
A. The proposed amendment is against the doctrine of basic structure.

B. The proposed amendment is unconnected to the doctrine of basic structure.
C. The proposed amendment can be reviewed and struck down by the Constitutional
Courts.
D. The proposed amendment is beyond the power of the Parliament.
11. Who among the following was the first Chairman of the Constituent Assembly in India?
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

B. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
C. Harendra Coomar Mookerjee
D. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
12. Legal Principle: It is an offence to obstruct a public servant in the due discharge of his duty.
Right of private defence is available to protect one’s person and property
Fact Situation: Sidhu comes to the rescue of his uncle who is sought to be taken into a car
by some men. In the process, he causes injury to some of them. Later, it turns out that the
men were police persons in plain clothes trying to enforce a warrant against his uncle.
A. Sidhu has committed the offence of obstructing a public servant in due discharge
of his duty.
B. Sidhu has not committed an offence since he did not know that the men were
from the police.
C. Sidhu’s uncle has resisted arrest and should be proceeded against
D. Sidhu should not have tried to help his uncle without ascertaining the fact
13. Legal Principle: An employer is liable for the act of his servant performed during the course
of employment.
Fact Situation: While working as a driver for Verma, Alok sometimes used to earn some side
income by carrying parcels for others in Verma’s car without his knowledge or permission
While going to pick Verma from the airport one day, Alok stopped to deliver a parcel he was
carrying with him. While he was delivering the parcel, which unknown to him was one of
contraband goods, the police arrested Alok.
A. Verma is liable for the act of Alok since he is Verma’s driver

B. Vermais liable for the act of Alok since he had gone to pick Verma from the airport.
C. Verma is not liable for the act of Alok since Alok himself did not know that he was
carrying contraband goods.
D. Verma is not liable for the act of Alok since carrying the parcel was not in the course of
his employment.
14. Which law introduced the system of dyarchy in India during the British reign?
A. The Government of India Act,1858

B. The Government of India Act, 1909
C. The Government of India Act, 1919
D. The Government of India Act, 1935
15. Legal Principle: The Latin maxim nemo bispunitur pro eodemdelicto means that nobody can
be punished twice for the same offence.
Fact Situation: Sajan, a petty thief, is caught and thrashed thoroughly by the people before
being handed over to the police. Sajan pleads before the magistrate that since he was
already thrashed by the people he should not be again punished by the State.
A. Sajan is right since nobody should be punished for the same offence twice.
B. Thrashing given by the people does not amount to legal punishment and so Sajan
can be punished by the State.
C. Giving a good thrashing to the thief is the best form of punishment to prevent future
theft.
D. The Magistrate should take into consideration the thrashing received by Sajan while
fixing his punishment.
16. Legal Principle: The Latin maxim qui facit per alium, facit per se means that he who acts
through another, acts himself.
Fact Situation: Heema requests her minor sister Harika to purchase a bag for her from the
local shop. Harika purchases the bag on credit telling the shop keeper that her sister will pay
for it. Afterwards, Heema refuses to pay for the bag.
A. Since Heema has not purchased the bag herself she is not liable to pay for it.
B. Harika being a minor the shop keeper should not have sold the bag to her.
C. Since she purchased the bag through her sister, Heema is liable to pay for it.
D. Harika being a minor should not have been entrusted by Heema for the purchase of
the bag.
17. Legal Principle: Negligence is the absence of care by one party which results in some
damage to another. Damage is an essential ingredient to constitute a tort of negligence.
Fact Situation: Mistry left his ladder on the public road while unloading it from a truck when
he went to open the shutters of his shop. Saini who was riding his motorcycle had to swerve
hard to avoid hitting the ladder as he came with speed on the road. Saini fell down but was
miraculously not injured.
A. Mistry is not liable for the tort of negligence since Saini was not injured though he
fell down.
B. Mistry is liable for the tort of negligence since Saini fell down due to the presence
of the ladder.
C. Mistry is not liable for the tort of negligence since Saini was speeding on the road.
D. Mistry is liable for the tort of negligence since he was careless in leaving the ladder
on the road.
18. Legal Principle: Every partner is liable alone and jointly with other partners for the debts of
a partnership firm incurred for the business. Every partner is an agent of every other
partner while being a principal in his own right in the business of the partnership.
Fact Situation: Varun is a partner in a firm with Chinmoy and Jaffar. Jaffar purchases a car
for his personal purpose and obtains credit for the same in the name of the partnership
behind the back of the other partners. He fails to pay the due amount on the expiry of the
period of credit.
A. Varun, Chinmoy and Jaffar are liable to pay for the car since they are partners and
the credit was obtained in the name of the firm.
B. Varun and Chinmoy are not liable to pay for the car since Jaffar purchased it for
his personal purpose.
C. Varun, Chinmoy and Jaffar are liable as partners for all credit obtained in the name
of the firm even if it is for the personal purpose of a partner.
D. Jaffar can use the credit of the firm to make purchases even for personal purposes
since he is a partner in the partnership.
19. Legal Principle: Parents are not liable for wrongs committed by their children unless they
provide the opportunity for such wrongful acts to be committed by their children.
Fact Situation: Sunil, a minor, takes the keys to his father’s car from the table top where his
father keeps it, drives the car on the public road and hits a pedestrian who gets injured.
A. Since Sunil took the car without his father’s permission, his father is not liable for
Sunil’s act resulting in the accident
B. Sunil’s father is liable for the conduct of Sunil resulting in the accident since he left
the car keys where his son could easily take it without permission.
C. Accidents happen despite utmost care and hence neither Sunil nor his father is liable
in the instant case.
D. Sunil’s father is not liable since he had kept his car locked and securely deposited its
keys without negligence on his table top.
20. Legal Principle: No remedy lies in law where an injury is caused to a person without any
infringement of his legal right.
Fact Situation: Ashutosh started a tuition Centre right next to the one being run for the past
twenty years by Gulshan. After Ashutosh started his Centre, a large number of students
shifted from Gulshan’s tuition Centre to Ashutosh’s Centre forcing Gulshan to close down
his establishment suffering huge losses. Can Gulshan initiate legal action against Ashutosh?
A. Ashutosh must compensate Gulshan for his loss consequent to the start of the
new tuition centre.
B. Gulshan cannot blame Ashutosh if he cannot retain his students.
C. Ashutosh has not violated any legal right of Gulshan, though students shifted
to Ashutosh’s Centre and though Gulshan suffered loss, after he shut down his
tuition Centre.
D. Gulshan should have improved his quality with lower fees to retain his students
in the light of competition brought in by Ashutosh.
21. Legal Principle: Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India states that no person accused of
any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Fact Situation:Ubaid refuses to give a sample of his blood after he is stopped by the police
for driving over the speed limit. The police suspect him to be driving under the influence of
alcohol, which is prohibited under the law.
A. Ubaid is protected by Article 20(3) in his refusal to give a blood sample.

B. Ubaid is not protected by Article 20(3) as he was under the influence of alcohol.
C. Ubaid is not protected by Article 20(3) in his refusal to give a blood sample since
he is not accused of any offence yet.
D. Refusal to give a blood sample is a crime and Ubaid must be punished for the
same.
22. The law which provides special powers to the Armed Forces in India is popularly known as:
A. AFSPA
B. POTA
C. TADA
D. SARFAESI
23. Legal Principle: The law states that a food business operator must be registered with or
licensed by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) to run a food
business.
Fact Situation: Kavita’s neighbours suffer food poisoning after consuming sweets gifted
by her on the occasion of a celebration at her home. Kavita does not have a registration
or license from the FSSAI.
A. Kavita is in violation of the law since she does not have a FSSAI registration or
license.
B. Kavita is not in violation of the law since she did not make the sweets she gave
by way of gift.
C. Law does not apply in cases like this where transactions happen between
neighbours.
D. Kavita need not take a license or register with FSSAI since she is not running a
food business.
24. Legal Principle: An agreement entered into by way of a wager/bet is unenforceable in law.
Fact Situation: Thomas is very good at predicting outcomes of cricket matches. Raja and
Hoja give him rupees thousand each to enable him to bet with others about the outcome of
a cricket match. Thomas wins rupees three lakh after betting three thousand rupees.
A. Thomas must share rupees three lakh with Raja and Hoja equally.
B. Thomas must return rupees thousand each to Raja and Hoja.
C. Thomas need not share the three lakh with Raja and Hoja since it is the outcome
of an unenforceable agreement.
D. If Thomas does not pay them rupees two lakh each, Raja and Hoja can sue him to
recover their share.
25. Legal Principle:‘Audi alteram partem’ is a Latin phrase which means ‘hear the other side’ It
is the principle that no person should be judged without a fair hearing.
Fact Situation: Sanjay, in Delhi, is accused of theft and brought before the Court. The
magistrate discovers that Sanjay is mute.
A. The principle is not applicable to Sanjay since he is mute.
B. The principle is applicable to Sanjay even though he cannot speak since he can be
asked to write down his defence.
C. The Magistrate has to take all measures to understand what Sanjay has to convey
about the accusation against him.
D. Since it is a Latin principle it is not applicable in India.
26. Legal Principle: An essential condition in a contract for sale of goods is that the seller has
title over the goods sold.
Fact Situation: Ranjan pays rupees two thousand and buys a watch from Mohit who runs a
watch showroom and a repair shop.Jatin sees the watch with Ranjanand tells him that it is
his watch and was only given to Mohit for repairs. If what Jatin says is true,
A. Ranjan is now the owner of the watch since he paid rupees two thousand for it.
B. Ranjan is not the owner of the watch since Mohit did not have a title to it.
C. Mohit must pay Jatin rupees two thousand since he sold Jatin’s watch
D. Mohit is the owner of the watch since he sold it to Ranjan.
27. Legal Principle: The insurer agrees to pay no more than the actual amount of the loss.
Fact Situation: Sunny insures his car worth rupees five lakh with X, an insurance company,
for its value. He again insures the same car with Y, another insurance company, on the same
terms. There is an accident and the car suffers a total loss. In his separate suits against X and
Y, if Sunny recovers rupees five lakh from X, how much can he recover from Y?
A. Sunny can recover rupees five lakhs from Y.
B. Sunny cannot recover any amount from Y.
C. Sunny must pay Y, the rupees five lakhs he received from X.
D. Sunny cannot insure his car with both X and Y at the same time.
28. Legal Principle: When there is an infringement of the legal right of a person, he gets a right
to sue the wrongdoer for remedy irrespective of any actual loss caused.
Fact Situation: Saroj is prevented from voting at an election. The candidate she intended to
vote for, wins the election.
A. Saroj’s legal right has been violated and she can sue the persons who prevented
her from voting.
B. Since Saroj‘s candidate has won the election, her rights are not violated and she
cannot sue.
C. Since Saroj is not the candidate, her rights are not violated if she is prevented from
voting.
D. This principle is not at all applicable in this case.
29. Which of the following is the oldest law code in India?
A. Hammurabi’s code
B. Prasarsmriti
C. Manusmriti
D. Naradasmriti
30. Legal Principle: A product cannot be sold in shops to consumers after its date of expiry.
Fact Situation: Lata, while shopping, notices that the milk packets on the shelves are due for
expiry on that day. She objects to this to the shopkeeper, saying that since she was there to
buy milk for the next day, keeping the milk on its date of expiry was against the law.
A. Lata is right and the shopkeeper should take the milk packets off his shelves.
B. The shopkeeper should not sell the milk packets after the date of expiry is over.
C. The shopkeeper must remove the milk packets from the shelves and keep it
refrigerated.
D. Milk is not a product and hence the principle is not applicable in this case.
31. Legal Principle: Nuisance is the unlawful interference with a person’s enjoyment of his land
or some rights over or in connection with it.
Fact Situation: Ashok, in his nineties, is hard of hearing and plays the radio very loudly
throughout the day and on a daily basis. Raju, his neighbour, complaints that he cannot
listen to his favourite TV show in his home due to the radio of Ashok.
A. Listening to the radio is Ashok’s freedom

B. Ashok is creating nuisance to his neighbour by playing the radio loud perpetually
and disturbing Raju in being able to listen to the TV in his home.
C. Raju is creating nuisance by complaining about Ashok’s enjoyment of hearing his
radio.
D. Raju should appreciate that Ashok is aged and hard of hearing.
32. Legal Principle: Agreements in restraint of trade are void and unenforceable.
Fact Situation:Manu has been working as a blacksmith in his village for many decades.
Somu has been undergoing training with him for the past three years. After his training is
over, Somu enters into an agreement with Manu that he will not start a competing business
in the same village while Manu is alive.
A. This agreement is void and unenforceable since it is a restraint on trade.

B. This agreement is valid and enforceable since Manu is Somu’s teacher
C. This agreement is valid but not enforceable after Manu’s death
D. This agreement is valid and enforceable since it is to protect Manu’s interest in
consideration for teaching Somu to be a blacksmith.
33. What does FIR stand for under the Criminal Law?
A. Forensic Investigation Report

B. First Investigation Report
C. First Information Report
D. Formal Interrogation Record
34. Under which of the following enactments, is the use of mobile phone while driving made
punishable?
A. The Information Technology Act

B. The Indian Penal Code
C. The Motor Vehicles Act
D. The Criminal Procedure Code
35. Legal Principle: A person is liable to compensate others for harm caused by the escape of
any inherently dangerous material that he keeps on his land.
Fact Situation: Ankit lights a bonfire in his courtyard to warm himself up during a cold
winter evening. A strong wind suddenly blows some sparks from the fire, on to his
neighbour’s house which catches fire and gets completely destroyed.
A. Ankit’s neighbour is liable to Ankit for distress caused by keeping a house that
catches fire so quickly.
B. Ankit is not liable because nobody could foresee that the sudden wind will blow the
sparks to cause a fire.
C. Ankit’s neighbour cannot make Ankit liable for the loss of his house since it was an
accidental fire that destroyed it.
D. Ankit is liable to compensate because the fire escaped from his premises to burn
down his neighbour’s house.
36. Legal Principle:A characteristic feature of partnerships is the principle of mutual agency,
i.e., every partner is an agent for every other partner and will hence be able to bind them by
his act, within the business of partnership.
Fact Situation: Ram and Shyam are partners of M/s R & S Trading Company which trades in
rice varieties. Ram agrees to purchase ten tons of rice from Govind. Ram dies after the rice
is delivered to the premises of M/s R & S Trading Company but before the payment of price
is made. Is the agreement binding on Shyam?
A. Being partners, Ram’s agreement to purchase rice for their partnership, is not
binding on Shyam.
B. Since Ram is no more, the agreement is not binding on Shyam.
C. Being partners, Ram’s agreement to purchase rice for their partnership, is binding
on Shyam.
D. The agreement is binding on Ram and not on Shyam since the rice is delivered only
to M/s R & S Trading Company and not to Shyam.
37. Who is an Ombudsman?

A. A judicial officer designated to receive complaints against the violation of rights of
citizens.
B. An official who is charged with representing the interests of the public by investigating
and addressing complaints of maladministration or a violation of rights.
C. An elected representative of the people toinvestigate and address the complaints of
maladministration or a violation of rights.
D. A specially designated police officer assigned with the power toinvestigate and address
the complaints of maladministration or a violation of rights.
38. Which authority in India notified the guidelines for the protection of persons assisting
accident victims on Indian roads based on the Supreme Court direction?
A. Ministry of Surface Transport, Govt. of India

B. Ministry of Social Justice, Govt. of India
C. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways,Govt. of India
D. National Human Rights Commission
39. Article 1 of a legal instrument reads: “All human beings are born free and equal in dignity
and rights. They are endowed with reason and conscience and should act towards one
another in a spirit of brotherhood”
Which is the legal instrument being referred to above?
A. National Human Rights Act, 1995
B. Constitution of India, 1951
C. Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948
D. Philadelphia Declaration, 1944
40. Examine the Statement and Conclusions given below and choose a suitable answer from the
options given:
Statement: It is a fundamental duty, which is unenforceable in a Court of Law that every
citizen shall renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
Conclusions:
1. Reservation of seats for women in employment is violative of the principle stated.
2. Asking a lady inappropriate questions about her personal life is violative of the principle
stated.
A. Only Conclusion 1 follows.

B. Only Conclusion 2 follows.
C. Conclusions 1 and 2 follow.
D. Neither Conclusion 1 nor 2 follows.
options given:
Statement: A punishment is the imposition of an undesirable or unpleasant outcome upon a
group or individual, meted out by an authority.
Conclusions:
1. Eye for an eye and tooth for a tooth is an example of punishment.
2. Imposition of fine on someone who inflicted bodily injury on another is justified by the
statement.

C. Conclusions 1 and 2 follow.
D. Neither Conclusion 1 nor 2 follows.
options given:
Statement: Necessity knows no law.
Conclusions:
1. The act of a captain throwing some cargo into the ocean to save the ship from sinking is
justified by the principle.
2. The act of a man out of poverty and starvation stealing some food from a hotel is
justified by the principle.
3. The act of a tourist killing a tiger when it was attacking a villager is justified by the
principle.

C. Only Conclusion 1 and 3 follow.
D. All Conclusions follow.
options given:
Statements:
1. Justice delayed is justice denied. Justice hurried is justice buried.
2. More than 3 crore cases are pending in the Indian Courts.
Conclusions:
1. People are not getting justice in India.
2. isposal of cases by ‘Fast track courts’ results in injustice
3. Cases must be disposed off within a reasonable time.

C. Only Conclusion 3 follows.
D. No Conclusion follows.
44. Legal Principle: One of the principles of ‘Natural Justice’ states that, “No person shall be a
judge in his own cause”
Facts: A, a driver of B, a Branch Manager of ABC Bank was caught, suspecting theft, in the
bank premises. The Bank management instituted an enquiry and made B the enquiry
officer.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. As B is a Bank Manager and not a judge, this principle is inapplicable.
B. Since the suspected theft was in the bank premises, the manager is the only
competent person to enquire. Hence, the principle is not applicable.
C. Since B is the employer of A, B should not be conducting the enquiry on the basis
of the given principle.
D. The principle will be applicable, only if the theft committed by A was in relation to
the car.
45. Legal Principle: Justice should not only be done, but also seen to be done.
Facts: L, an honest Lawyer had 200 shares in Company X. Later, L was elevated to the High
Court as a Judge and had to deal with Company matters. A dispute between Company X
and its creditors came before L for decision.
Which among the following proposition is true?
A. L, as an honest person will definitely judge the matter on the merits only. So, the
principle cannot apply.
B. A judge cannot excuse himself from taking up a case posted before him by the
Court Registry.
C. L should refrain from hearing the matter as he holds shares of the Company X.
D. Since, L has only 200 shares he has no substantial interest in the company and
hence can decide the matter.
46. Legal Principle: A person who keeps hazardous substances in his premises, is responsible
for the fault if that substance escapes in any manner and causes damage.
Facts: A, an industrialist stored 1000 litres of liquid ammonia in a tank in his premises for his
industrial use. There was a leakage from the tank due to which there was ammonia vapour
in the surroundings. Many workers in other industries as well as his own industry and some
members from the public suffered serious health hazards. Examine the liability of A, if any.
A. A may be liable for the injury sustained by his workers only and not others.
B. A is liable as he is responsible for the injury caused by the leakage of ammonia
from his premises.
C. A is not liable because there was no fault on his part for the escape of the
dangerous substance.
D. A is not liable because he did not expect a leakage from the tank.
47. Legal Principle: In the law of evidence, a person missing for long and not heard of, for over
seven years is presumed to have died.
Facts: A, B and C are children of F and M. At the age of 20, A went out in search of a job and
was not contacting the family. All attempts to trace A by the family failed. Eight years after
the death of the parents, B and C entered into a partition and took equal share in the
property of F and M. One year after this, A returned home with his wife and two children
and claimed his share in the property Whether A’s claim is legally sustainable?
A. Since A was not heard of, for more than eight years, the legal presumption of
death will apply and hence, he cannot claim a share in the property.
B. It was A’s duty to be in touch with the family at least once in a year The failure of
this duty will disentitle him from claiming property.
C. A will succeed because he is a legitimate son of F and M.
D. B and C are legally bound to give 1/3rd share of the property to A.
48. Legal Principle: Gift' means transfer of certain existing property made voluntarily and
without consideration, by a donor, to a donee, and accepted by or on behalf of the donee
during the lifetime of the donor.
Facts: Amit executed a gift deed for property ‘X’ in favour of Sooraj, who happened to be
Amit’s loyal servant’s son settled in the U S Two months thereafter, Amit died without
leaving a will regarding his assets Amit’s children initiated steps to partition his entire
property, including property ‘X’ among themselves At that time, Sooraj came to India, and
learning about the gift, claimed the property ‘X’
A. Sooraj can legally get the property ‘X’, as soon as he gets to know about the gift
B. Sooraj cannot legally claim the property ‘X’ because, the children of Amit have
already initiated steps for partition.
C. Sooraj can claim the property ‘X’, because, his acceptance of the gift is implicit by
his conduct of claiming the property as soon as he came to know about the gift.
D. Sooraj apparently did not comply with the essential requirements of a gift and
hence, the entire property including property ‘X’, can be partitioned among the
children of Amit.
49. The right to information under the Right to Information Act, 2005 is a:
A Legal Right
B Fundamental Right
C Human Right
D Constitutional Right
50. The primary legislation relating to organ donation and transplantation, aimed at regulation
of removal, storage and transplantation of human organs for therapeutic purposes and for
prevention of commercial dealings in human organs in India, namely, the Transplantation of
Human Organs Act, was passed in the year
A. 1994
B. 1998
C. 2004
D. 2014

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BOOKLET SL. NO.

Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes) Maximum Marks : 150

CONTENTS OF QUESTION PAPER

Subject Q. Nos. Page No.

Current Affairs and general Knowledge 31 – 65 12 –18

Legal reasoning 66 – 105 19 – 32

Logical reasoning 106 – 135 33 – 40

Quantitative techniques 136 – 150 41 – 42

1. the main idea of the passage is that

2. the tone of the Surrender Speech is

6. From he pa age i i e iden ha Saroo de ire o nd hi mo her

8. From the passage one can conclude that

11. the main idea of the passage is that

14. From the passage it can be inferred that max brod

again, there is some overlap between cryptocurrency advocates, conspiracy theorists,

17. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

19. Which of the following does best describe the passage?

20. What do the cryptocurrency enthusiasts rely on?

ad an age German enjo ed a he ar of he ar: de pi e ha ing a large ee , for in ance,

21. What is the central idea of the passage?

24. What does the phrase ‘tangentially related’ to mean?

25. What makes the uS strategically dominating global hegemon?

26. Jesuit Joseph rickaby’s articulation on animals may be termed as:

30. it may be inferred from rené descartes’ view that

Current Affairs and General Knowledge

32. APPLE, he r comm nica ion a elli e of ISRO a la nched from:

35. NaviC covers india and region extending:

37. AFSPA was introduced in meghalaya in the year:

39. In 2005, a go ernmen -appoin ed e-member commi ee, recommended ha AFSPA

40. AFSPA is currently in force in:

IX. One of he j i ca ion of R ia-Ukraine ar R ian leader claimed ha mili ar ac ion

41. ukraine was part of which country during 1922-1991?

42. Who is the President of ukraine?

43. Which is the currency of ukraine?

44. the President of ukraine was formerly:

50. the ireNA is an intergovernmental organization that supports countries in their

53. CAWACH is an initiative by the National Science and technology entrepreneurship

67. A p blic- piri ed ci i en led a ri pe i ion eeking a mandam o compel he

69. A licen ing of cer i nder a a or d oi e a licen e o an applican ho f l l

70. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

71. Mr. A, a a -pa er of ario a e le ied b he S a e Go ernmen , led a ri pe i ion

79. Mr. Z, a ci i en of India, a i ed a pa por on J ne 1, 2020 b he Pa por Of ce.

80. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

85. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

92. X i a de eloping co n r . X ra i ed he Uni ed Na ion Frame ork Con en ion on

94. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

XX. the united Nations Commission on En ironmen and De elopmen de ne ainable

96. M . G, a den of en ironmen al cience, ha c l i a ed a b er garden hich

97. Which of the following statements is correct?

121. “Minimi ing he pro ec ion of con en al romance o ld al o lea e a logjammed

135. According o he a hor, We ern rm lo he oppor ni of doing b ine in he

136. How many girls have opted Non-medical?

144. What percentage of turnover of ‘r’ has to turnover of ‘t’?

146. How many females are employed in Purchase department?

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Read an extract from A Scandal in Bohemia by Arthur Conan Doyle:

Current Affairs and General Knowledge

Section 4 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 reads as follows:

Compassionate appointment is an exception to the general rule of appointment which is a way

Climate change is considered to be one of the most serious threats to sustainable

1. To address the challenge of Climate Change, Developing countries urgently require:

(a) Implementation of National Adaptation Plans

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