1.

Scientific notation is used in science because

A. It makes conversions between units easy.
B. All astronomical distances are expressed in metric
units.
C. It makes it easy to write big or small numbers.
D. All of the above

2. The average distance from Earth to the sun is...

A. 1 million km
B. 1 million miles
C. 1 light year
D. 1 AU

3. The sun is...

A. A star
B. 1 AU from Earth
C. More than 100 times the diameter of Earth
D. All of the above

4. A galaxy contains...
A. Primarily planets.
B. Lots of gas and dust but very few stars.
C. Gas, dust, and stars, and a lot of dark matter.
D. A single star and planets.

5. 2.9x10^7 is the same as...

A. 2.9 thousand
B. 29 thousand
C. 290 thousand
D. 29 million
6. Newton concluded that some force had to act on
the moon because...
A. A force is needed to keep the moon in motion.
B. The moon moved at a constant velocity
C. A force is needed to pull the moon outward
D. A force is needed to pull the moon away from
straight-line motion

7. Kepler's second law implies that...

A. The deferent and the epicycle have to be
attached to the sun and not the Earth.
B. The speed of a planet in its orbit depends on the
size of the epicycle.
C. The mass of the planet determines how far the
planet is from the sun.
D. A planet should move at its greatest speed when
it is closest to the sun.

8. Kepler's first law of planetary motion implies that...

A. A planet moves at a constant speed at all points
in its orbit.
B. Uniform circular motion is adequate to describe
the motion of all planets.
C. The distance between the planet and the sun
changes as the planet orbits the sun.
D. The distance that a planet is from the sun
depends on the mass of the planet.
9. Gravity obeys an inverse square relation. This
Statement implies that the force due to gravity
between two masses...
A. Will decrease as the square of the distance
between the two masses increases.
B. Will increase as the distance between the two
masses increases.
C. Will cause the two masses to orbit each other
D. Will cause the two masses to move in a straight
line.

10. An object has been located orbiting the sun at a

distance from the sun of 65 AU, what is the
approximate orbital period of this object?
A. 65 years
B. 275,000 years
C. 4,225 years
D. 524 years

11. Saturn is on average 10 AU from the sun. What

is the approximate orbital period of Saturn?
A. 10 years
B. 32 years
C. 100 years
D. 1000 years
12. In pre-Copernican astronomy, it was almost
universally believed that...
A. The planets traveled in elliptical orbits about the
Earth.
B. The center of the universe was the Sun with the
Milky Way representing other distant planets.
C. The Earth was at the center of the universe.
D. The Sun was at the center of the universe.

13. When Mars is located directly behind the Earth

with respect to the Sun in its orbit, it is...
A. Not visible in the night sky.
B. At the midpoint in the sky between east and west
at sunrise.
C. At the midpoint in the sky between east and west
at sunset.
D. At the midpoint in the sky between east and west
at midnight.

14. The greatest inaccuracy in Copernicus' model of

the solar system was that the planets...
A. Traveled on epicycles whose centers followed
orbits around the Sun
B. Travel in circular orbits with uniform motion
C. Were allowed to travel backwards in their orbits.
D. The planets orbited the Sun.
15. Which of the following statements best describes
Kelper's 3rd law of planetary motion?
A. The smaller the orbit, the longer its orbital period
B. The larger the orbit, the longer its orbital period.
C. The smaller the diameter of a planet, the faster
its rotational period
D. The orbital period of a planet is directly
proportional to the diameter of the planet

16.The energy of a photon...

A. Depends only on the speed of light
B. Depends only on the mass of the photon
C. Depends on both the mass and speed of the
photon
D. Is inversely proportional to the wavelength of the
light.

17. Long wavelength visible light

A. Will have a greater energy than short wavelength
visible light
B. Will have a speed that is faster than short
wavelength light.
C. Will appear blue in color to the average human
eye
D. Will appear red in color to the average human
eye
18. Photons of blue light...
A. Have a greater energy than photons of red light
B. Have a greater energy than photons of ultraviolet
light
C. Have a longer wavelength than photons of red
light
D. Have a lower frequency than photons of red light

19. A nanometer is...

A. A unit of frequency
B. A unit of energy
C. A unit of mass
D. A unit of length

20. In which way does a photon of blue light NOT

differ from a photon of red light?
A. Speed
B. Wavelength
C. Color
D. Energy

21. What is the relationship between color and

wavelength for light?
A. Wavelength decreases from blue light to red light
B. Wavelength increases from blue light to red light
C. All colors of light have the same wavelength
D. Wavelength depends on intensity not color
22. The neutral hydrogen atom consists of...
A. One proton and one neutron
B. One proton and one electron
C. One proton, one neutron, and one electron
D. One proton

23. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. There are about 10^11 stars in the Milky Way
Galaxy, but there are ten times more stars that
are made of dark matter
B. There are about 10^11 stars in the Milky Way
Galaxy, but the mass of the Milky Way is about
10^12 times that of the Sun
C. There are about 10^13 stars in the Milky Way
Galaxy, but the mass of the Milky Way is about
10^14 times that of the Sun
D. There are about 10^10 stars in the Milky Way
Galaxy, but the mass of the Milky Way is about
10^12 times that of the Sun

24. The period of the Milky Way to circle the Sun is

about...
A. 125 million years
B. 125 billion years
C. 450 million years
D. 225 million years
25. A galaxy is found to be at a redshift 9,100
km/sec. Assuming a Hubble constant of 70
km/sec/Mpc, the distance to the galaxy is found
to be...
A. 130 Mpc
B. 637 Mpc
C. 30.3 Mpc
D. 130 Kpc

26. Why are fossils of early life on Earth more rare

than fossils of plants and animals from the past
few hundred million years?
A. We find fossils in sedimentary layers, and no
sediments were deposited until just a few
hundred million years ago.
B. Life was far less abundant prior to a few hundred
million years ago
C. Fossils could not form before there was oxygen in
the atmosphere
D. Early organisms lacked skeletons and other hard
structures that are most likely to be fossilized
27. How do we determine the conditions that existed
in the very early universe?
A. From the current expansion rate we can work
backward to estimate temperature and densities
at various times in the early universe.
B. By looking all the way to the cosmological
horizon, we can see the actual conditions that
prevailed all the way back to the first instant of
the Big Bang
C. The conditions in the very early universe must
have been much like those found in stars today,
so we learn about them by studying stars
D. We can only guess at the conditions, since we
have no way to calculate or observe what they
were.

28. When we say that the electroweak and strong forces

"freeze out" at 10^-35 seconds after the Big Bang,
we mean that...
A. "freezing out" was a term coined by particle
physicists who think that the Big Bang theory is the
ultimate theory for the Universe
B. These forces are important only at temperatures
below the freezing point of water --- a temperature
that the universe reached at an age of about 10^-35
seconds.
C. Prior to this time, the electroweak and strong forces
were indistinguishable from each other, but after this
time they behaved differently from each other
D. Following this time, neither the strong nor
electroweak forces are ever important in the
universe again
29. According to the Big Bang theory, how many
forces --- and which ones --- operated in the
universe during the GUT era?
A. 3: gravity, the strong force, and the electroweak
force
B. 1 force that represented the unification of all four
forces that operate today
C. 2: the strong force and the electroweak force
D. 2: gravity and a single force that later became
the strong, weak, and electromagnetic forces

30. The Milky Way Galaxy...

A. Contains about 100 billion stars.
B. Is the largest known object in the universe.
C. Is about 200 light-years in diameter.
D. Is about 100 million stars

32. The force due to gravity between two objects

depends on…
A. The mass of each object
B. The distance each object is from Earth.
C. The distance between two objects.
D. The speed of light.

33. _____________ has/have wavelengths that are

longer than visible light.
A. Gamma-rays
B. Ultraviolet light
C. Infrared radiation
D. X-rays
34. ________________ has/have wavelengths that
are shorter than visible light.
A. Gamma-rays
B. Ultraviolet light
C. Infrared radiation
D. X-rays
1. Neutrinos are created in reaction in the
_____________ of the sun.
A. Corona
B. Core
C. Photosphere
D. Chromosphere

2. What is the difference between brightness and

luminosity?
A. These are different names for the same property
B. Brightness is how we see a star; luminosity is
how much light it emits
C. Luminosity is how we see a star; brightness is
how much light it emits
D. Luminosity measures size; brightness measures
temperature

3. A plot of the continuous spectra of five different

stars is shown in the figure below. Based on these
spectra, which of the stars is the hottest?
A. Star D
B. Star C
C. Star E
D. Star A

4. The most massive part of the atom is (are) the

___________which has (have) a ___________charge
A. Electrons, negative
B. Nucleus, negative
C. Nucleus, positive
D. Electrons, positive
5. If continuous spectrum light from a star passes
through a cool low density gas on its way to your
telescope and spectroscope, _____________
spectrum on the ontinuous spectrum results.
A. A dark (absorption) line
B. A bright (emission) line
C. Continuous
D. Discrete

6. Star C and star D are equally luminous. Star C is

twice as far away from Earth as star D. How do the
brightness level of stars C and D compare?
A. Star D appears twice as bright as star C
B. Star C appears twice as bright as star D
C. Star C appears four times as bright as star D
D. Star D appears four times as bright as star C

7. Binary (double) stars can be detected by the

following EXCEPT
A. Being seen as one separate stars with a telescope
B. One star traveling a wiggly proper motion path
across the sky
C. One star dimming abruptly as another passes in
front of it
D. Pairs of absorption lines seen in the spectrum of
what appears to be one star
8. The emission and absorption lines of a given atom
occur at the exact same energies.
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
D. Undecided

9. What is the name of the effect when an

electromagnetic wave is bent as it passes from one
material into another?
A. Defraction
B. Refraction
C. Red Shift
D. Reflection

10. What is the net result of the proton-proton chain?

A. 2 hydrogens and 1 helium are fused into 1 carbon
+ energy
B. 4 hydrogens are fused into 1 helium, 2 neutrinos
+ energy
C. 2 protons and 2 neutrons are fused into 1 carbon
+ energy
D. 2 heliums are fused into 1 carbon, 1 neutrino +
energy
11. The visible part of the electromagnetic spectrum
can be divided into six color bands of Red,
Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue and Violet (from long
to short wavelength). A single photon of which of
these colors has the greatest amount of energy?
A. Green
B. Violet
C. Red
D. Blue

12. Star E is the same temperature as star F but is

four times as luminous. Which star is bigger?
A. Star E is four times as big as star F
B. Star F is twice as big as star E
C. Star E is twice as big as star F
D. Star F is four times as big as star E

13. Star A has the same luminosity as star B. Also,

star A is 3 times as far as Star B from Earth. Then
star A is ________ as bright as star B as seen
from Earth.
A. 3 times
B. 1/3
C. 9 times
D. 1/9

14. If a star's distance is 10 pc, what is its parallax?

A. 0.1 arcsec
B. 0.01 arcsec
C. 0.05 arcsec
D. 0.5 arcsec
15. The sun's magnetic field is evident in the looped
shapes of
A. Solar flares.
B. Solar prominences.
C. Granules.
D. Sunspots.

16. Radio telescopes are often connected together to

do interferometry. What is the primary problem
overcome by radio interferometry?
A. Poor light gathering power.
B. Poor resolving power.
C. Poor magnifying power.
D. Interference from nearby sources of radio waves.

17. Ultraviolet radiation from a star

A. Will not penetrate Earth's atmosphere and reach the
ground.
B. Has a wavelength that is longer than the visible light
emitted by the star.
C. Has a wavelength that is shorter than the X-rays
emitted by the star.
D. A and b

18. Particle accelerators that smash atoms or particles

together at high speeds, such as Fermilab or CERN,
are important tools used for simulating conditions in
A. The solar wind
B. Planetary nebula
C. The early universe
D. Brown dwarf stars
19. What are the two most important intrinsic
properties used to classify stars?
A. Distance and luminosity.
B. Distance and surface temperature.
C. Distance and color.
D. Luminosity and surface temperature.

20. Star A has higher luminosity than Star B, but is

farther away. Which has higher apparent
brightness?
A. Star A.
B. Star B
C. Could be either, depending on their specific
luminosities and distances.
D. Impossible to determine.

21. The fact that the speed of light is constant (as it

travels through a vacuum) means that
A. Photons with longer wavelengths have lower
frequencies
B. Radio wave photons have shorter wavelengths
than gamma ray photons
C. X-rays can be transmitted through the
atmosphere around the world
D. All of the above are true

22. The Arecibo Observatory is:

A. A radio observatory
B. An adaptive optics observatory
C. An X-ray observatory
D. A large optical observatory
23. The number of ___________ in the nucleus
determines what element the nucleus is.
A. Protons
B. All of these determines the element
C. Electrons
D. None of these determines the element

24. Stars of similar temperatures but different sizes

A. Will have similar luminosities but different masses
B. Will have similar spectral types but different
luminosities
C. Will have different spectral types but similar
luminosities
D. Will have similar masses but different distances

25. The lowest energy level in an atom is

A. The absolute zero temperature.
B. The ground state.
C. The ionization level.
D. Responsible for Doppler shifts.

26. Magnetic fields inside sunspots are

______________those in surrounding regions.
A. Much stronger than
B. Much weaker than
C. Slightly stronger than
D. The same as
27. The reason to prefer a reflecting over a refracting
telescope is its
A. Lack of chromatic aberration
B. Shorter length for the same aperture size
C. Lighter weight for larger apertures
D. All of the above are valid reasons

28. What is the wavelength of the longest wavelength

light visible to the human eye?
A. 400 nm
B. 7000 nm
C. 3x108 m
D. 700 nm

29. Which type of binaries are found via Doppler

shifts?
A. Astrometric binaries
B. Eclipsing binaries
C. Visual binaries
D. Spectroscopic binaries

30. A faster-moving star in a binary is the

A. More massive star
B. Less massive star
C. More distant of the two stars
D. Hotter star
31. The wavelength of maximum intensity that is
emitted by a black body is
A. Proportional to temperature
B. Inversely proportional to temperature
C. Proportional to temperature to the fourth power
D. Inversely proportional to temperature to the
fourth power

32. A particular star with the same spectral type as

the Sun (G2) has a luminosity of 50 solar
luminosities. What does this tell you about the
star?
A. It must be larger than the Sun.
B. It must be smaller than the Sun.
C. It must be within 1000 parsecs of the Sun.
D. It must be farther away than 1000 parsecs.

33. Select the order of star color in increasing

temperature from cool to hot.
A. Red, yellow, blue
B. Red, blue, yellow
C. Yellow, blue, red
D. Blue, red, yellow

34. Granulation is caused by

A. The heating in the chromosphere.
B. Shock waves in the corona.
C. The solar wind flowing away from the corona.
D. Rising gas below the photosphere.
35. The Doppler shift can be used to determine the
_________ of an object.
A. Temperature
B. No radiation
C. Energy
D. Radial velocity

36. How long does the sunspots cycle last, on

average?
A. 365.25 days.
B. Between 25 and 35 days.
C. About seven years.
D. About 11 years.

37. Ultraviolet radiation is hard to observe primarily

because
A. The Earth's atmosphere easily absorbs it at the
upper atmosphere
B. Very few objects emit at ultraviolet wavelengths
C. No space-based telescopes operate at ultraviolet
wavelengths
D. Only the lowest mass stars emit ultraviolet light

38. The light we see from the Sun comes from which
layer?
A. Chromosphere
B. Photosphere
C. Convective zone
D. Corona
39. If light from a star passes from an excited low
density gas seen against the dark background of
space to your telescope and spectroscope,
__________ spectrum results.
A. A bright (emission) line
B. Continuous
C. Discrete
D. undefined

40. Infrared astronomy is often done from high-flying

aircraft because
A. Infrared telescopes only need to get above the
ozone layer.
B. Infrared photons are quite energetic.
C. Infrared sources are very bright.
D. Infrared radiation is absorbed low in Earth's
atmosphere by CO2 and water vapor.

41. You research the star Sirius and find that its
spectral lines are blue shifted. What does this tell
you about Sirius?
A. It has a transverse velocity that is toward us.
B. Its surface temperature is higher than that of the
Sun.
C. It has a radial velocity that is toward us.
D. It has a radial velocity that is away from us.
42. High temperatures are required to get H nuclei to
fuse because they ________ one another
because of their __________ electric charges.
A. Attract, negative
B. Repel, positive
C. Attract, positive
D. Repel, negative

43. Magnetic field is continuously produced and

deformed in the Sun by
A. A liquid conducting layer in the interior
B. Fusion reactions in the core
C. Differential rotation
D. This is a trick question. The solar magnetic field is
primordial.

44. Absolute zero is

A. Zero degrees Celsius.
B. The temperature at which atoms have no
remaining energy from which we can extract
heat.
C. The temperature at which water freezes.
D. Both a and c

45. By what mechanism does radiation reach the

Sun's surface from its interior?
A. Convection
B. Neutrinos
C. The solar wind
D. Ionization
46. Which of these are not associated with the active
Sun?
A. Aurora
B. Granulation
C. Sunspots
D. Prominences

47. Which electron energy level transition

corresponds to a hydrogen atom absorbing a
visible-light photon that has a wavelength of 656
nanometers?
A. The electron makes the transition from energy
level 3 to energy level 2.
B. The electron makes the transition from energy
level 2 to energy level 3.
C. The electron makes the transition from energy
level 2 to energy level 1.
D. The electron makes the transition from energy
level 1 to energy level 2.

48. Parallax would be easier to measure if

A. Earth's orbit was longer.
B. The stars were farther away.
C. Earth moved slower along its orbit.
D. All of these
49. The ________________ of a telescope is a
measure of its ability to show fine detail and
depends on the diameter of the objective.
A. Spherical Aberration
B. Focal Length
C. Resolving Power
D. Magnifying Power

50. Of the following, which color represents the

lowest surface temperature star?
A. Yellow
B. Blue
C. Orange
D. Red

51. Which of the following layers of the Sun makes up

the majority of its interior?
A. The photosphere
B. The core
C. The convective zone
D. The radioactive zone

52. ______________ has (have) wavelengths that

are longer than visible light.
A. Gamma Rays
B. Ultraviolet Light
C. Infrared Radiation
D. X Rays
53. The entire electromagnetic spectrum can be
divided into the seven bands of Radio, Microwave,
Infrared, Visible, Ultraviolet, X-ray, and Gamma-
ray (from longest to shortest wavelength). To
which of these two bands is Earth's atmosphere
the most transparent?
A. Visible and Ultraviolet
B. Visible & Radio
C. Microwave & Radio
D. Ultraviolet & Infrared

54. Which of the following is the most common type

of star?
A. White dwarfs
B. Red giants
C. Main Sequence
D. Supergiants
1. Black holes that are stellar remnants can be found
by searching for
A. Dark regions at the centers of galaxies
B. Objects that emit very faint radio emission
C. Extremely luminous infrared objects
D. Variable X-ray sources

2. Neutron stars do not have:

A. Large rotation periods
B. Strong magnetic fields
C. Much mass compared to the Sun
D. All of the above

3. The large planetesimals would have grown faster

than the smaller planetesimals because
A. They were moving faster in their orbits than the
smaller planetesimals
B. Their stronger gravity would pull in more material
C. There was more material located near them that
could be accreted
D. The smaller planetesimals were covered by a
layer of material that was lost during collisions

4. Open clusters contain mostly

A. The oldest stars in the galaxy
B. Red giants
C. Main sequence stars
D. White dwarfs
5. If the theory that novae occur in close binary
systems is correct, then novae should
A. Not occur in old star clusters
B. Repeat after some interval
C. All be visual binaries
D. Occur in regions of star formation

6. In A.D. 1054, Chinese astronomers observed the

appearance of a new star, whose location is now
occupied by
A. A supernova remnant.
B. A white dwarf.
C. A planetary nebulae.
D. A young massive star.

7. ________ is the result of mass distorting the fabric

of spacetime.
A. Gravity
B. Energy
C. Radiation
D. Fusion

8. The Oot Cloud is believed to be

A. A spherical cloud of cometary nuclei far beyond
the Kuiper Belt
B. The gerat nebula found just below the belt stars
of Orion.
C. A grouping of asteroids and meteoroids between
the orbits of Mars and Jupiter
D. The circular disk of gas around the Sun's equator
from which the planets formed
9. If the Earth were to be condensed down in size
until it became a black hole,its Schwarzschild
radius would be
A. 1 km
B. 1 cm
C. 1m
D. 10 km

10. Hubble'sconstant H0 ,represents

A. The time it takes a galaxy to move twice as far
away from us
B. The speed at which galaxies are moving away
from us
C. The size of the universe
D. The rate of expansion of the universe

11. What event leads to the formation of a red giant?

A. A contracting core of helium
B. Hydrogen shell burning
C. Expanding outer layers
D. All of the above

12. The collapse of the core of a high-mass star at

the end of its life lasts approximately
A. One second
B. One hour
C. One year
D. One week
13. Conservation of angular momentum states that as
a cloud of interstellar gas and dust collapses,the
velocity of the particles increases.
A. False
B. True
C. Maybe
D. Undecided

14. The lowest mass object that can initiate

thermonuclear fusion of hydrogen has a mass of
about
A. 60 solar mass
B. 1 solar mass
C. 0.08 solar mass
D. 0.001 solar mass

15. Measured ages of globular clusters and a study of the

time required for massive stars to build up the
present abundance of heavy elements suggests that
the universe is
A. At least 13 billion years old.
B. Closed.
C. No more than 9 billion years old.
D. Flat.

16. If we lived on a galaxy one billion light-years from

our own,what would we see?
A. A universe 1 billion years younger than ours.
B. Nothing - there are no galaxies one billion light-years
away from us.
C. Much the same universe we see today.
D. A universe 1 billion years older than ours.
17. As a high-mass main-sequence star evolves off
the main sequence,it follows a _______ on the
HR diagram
A. Nearly vertical path
B. Path of constant radius
C. Roughly horizontal path
D. None of the above answers is correct

18. Neutron stars have masses that range from

A. 2.5 solar mass to 10 solar mass
B. 3.5 solar mass to 25 solar mass
C. 1.2 solar mass to 30 solar mass
D. 1.4 solar to 3 solar mass

19. Essentially all the elements heavier than iron in

our galaxy were formed
A. By fusion in the cores of the most massive main-
sequence stars
B. By supernovae
C. During the formation of black holes
D. During the formation of planetary nebulae

20. We can identify only a small fraction of all the

pulsars that exist in our galaxy because
A. Few swing their beam of synchrotron emission in
our direction
B. Most have evolved to become black holes,which
emit no light
C. Massive stars are very rare
D. Gas and dust efficiently block radio photons
21. Because almost all galaxies show redshifted
spectra,we know that
A. Nobody likes us
B. We must be at the center of the universe
C. The universe is expanding
D. The sky must be dark at night

22. The Sun will at some time in the future become

A. Both c and d
B. None of them
C. A red giant
D. A white dwarf

23. The event horizon of a black hole is defined as

A. The radius of the original neutron star before it
became a black hole
B. The point of maximum gravity
C. The point at which shock waves emanate from
the strong gravitational distortion the black hole
creates in the fabric of spacetime
D. The radius at which the escape speed equals the
speed of light

24. Comets and asteroids are

A. Other names for moons of the planets
B. Material left over from the formation of the
planets
C. All more massive than Earth's moon
D. Primarily located within 1 AU of the Sun
25. Which of the following are the Jovian planets?
A. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune only
B. Everything past Mars and the asteroid belt
C. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, and Pluto
D. Only Jupiter

26. The density of a _________ is greater than the

density of a ___________.
A. White dwarf, neutron star
B. White dwarf, black hole
C. Pulsar, neutron star
D. Pulsar, white dwarf

27. A star is considered to begin its main sequence

life when
A. It starts to collapse.
B. Its protostar life begins.
C. It begins to move off the main sequence.
D. Nuclear reactions start.

28. What characteristic of a star cluster is used to

determine its age?
A. Chemical composition of stars in the cluster
B. Total number of stars in the cluster
C. Luminosity of the faintest stars in the cluster
D. Color of the main sequence turnoff in the cluster
29. What is a planetary nebula?
A. The ejected envelope of a giant star surrounding
the remains of a star
B. A planet surrounded by a glowing shell of gas
C. A type of young, medium-mass star
D. The disk of gas and dust surrounding a young
star that will soon form a star system

30. What are small bodies in the solar system which

travel about the Sun in highly eccentric orbits?
A. Meteors
B. Meteorites
C. Planetesimals
D. Comets

31. A brown dwarf is

A. A warm starlike object that has too little mass to
suppor fusion in its core.
B. A stage of a star's life after the white dwarf stage.
C. The final fate of stars like the Sun,but not less
massive stars.
D. A stage of a star's life prior to the white dwarf
stage.

32. Which one supports the solar nebula theory of the

origin of the solar system?
A. Disks are common around young stars.
B. Planets are round.
C. The sun is the least massive object in the solar
system.
D. Disks are rare around young stars.
33. If galaxy A is four times more distant than galaxy
B, then according to the Hubble Law, galaxy A will
recede __________ than galaxy B.
A. 4 times faster
B. 16 times faster
C. 2 times faster
D. 1.2 times faster

34. Neutron stars have ____________ magnetic

fields.
A. Non-existent
B. Weak
C. Enormous
D. Single pole

35. Homogeneity and isotropy, taken as assumptions

regarding the structure and evolution of the
universe, are known as
A. Olbers'Paradox
B. General Theory of Relativity
C. Doppler Effect
D. Cosmological principle

36. Which of the following is inferred by Hubble'slaw?

A. The larger the red shift of the galaxy,the more
distance it is
B. The greater the distance,the fainter the galaxy is in
reality
C. The greater the distance,the more luminous the
galaxy
D. The more distance a galaxy,the more evolved its
member stars will be
37. A surface explosion on a white dwarf,caused by
falling matter from the atmosphere of its binary
companion,creates what kind of object?
A. Type-I supernova
B. Planetary nebula
C. Nova
D. Type-II supernova

38. What temperature does COBE find the Big Bang

has cooled to by now?
A. 2.73 K
B. 5,800 K
C. About 3,000 K
D. About 300 K

39. When the core of a star shrinks after hydrogen

fusion stops,
A. The core heats and the star expands
B. The core cools and the star contracts
C. The core heats and the star contracts
D. The core cools and the star expands

40. All Jovian planets have

A. Strong magnetic fields
B. Many satellites
C. Rings
D. All of these
41. Which planet by itself contains the majority of
mass of all the planets?
A. Saturn
B. Uranus
C. Venus
D. Jupiter

42. A Cepheid star varies in luminosity because

A. The star rotates too quickly
B. The entire star pulsates from its core to its
surface
C. The star is too massive to be stable
D. The outer envelope of the star pulsates

43. The Helix and Ring nebulae are

A. Supernova remnants
B. Planetary nebulae
C. The result of carbon detonation
D. Nebulae associated with Herbig-Haro objects

44. Most planets thus far discovered around other

stars were found by
A. The planet blotting out the light of the star.
B. Seeing the planets next to the star.
C. Traveling to the star.
D. Varying Doppler shifts of the stars.
45. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
the terrestrial planets?
A. Craters in old surfaces
B. Orbits inside the asteroids
C. Very few satellites
D. Low average density

46. One outstanding feature of globular clusters is

their lack of ________ main sequence stars
A. Low mass
B. Lower
C. Old
D. Upper

47. Degenerate refers to a state of matter at

A. High density
B. High temperature
C. High luminosity
D. High mass

48. What produces a type-I supernova?

A. Mass transfer to a white dwarf
B. The radioactive decay of cobalt into iron
C. A large nova
D. The collapse of the core of a massive star

49. What is Cygnus X-1?

A. The first discovered X-ray burster
B. A millisecond pulsar with two planets
C. A leading candidate for being a black hole
D. A binary neutron star system