1.

Early complications of foreign bodies in the airways are: simple bronchitis, pulmonary abscess, chronic
bronchorrhea
2 The pain in acute angina is characterized by: painful speech with nasal voice, pain during swallowing that radiates
towards the ear, hyper salivation, fetid Helena ( halitosis )
3. Symptoms of acute sphenoidal rhinosinusitis are: retro ocular pain, posterior rhinorrhoea
4. The Eustachian tubes role is: Maintaining equal pressure on the both sides of the tympanic membrane, creating
communication between tympanic cavity and the nasopharynx
5. About peritonsillar abscess the following is true: The ENT exam shows the oedema of the anterior tonsil pillar, trismus
6. The forms of chronic tonsillitis are: hypertrophic, atrophic
7. Simple acute adenoiditis of the child is characterized by: sudden onset, pharynx hyperaemia
8. Treatment of nasal contusion does NOT include: antimycotics, antibiotics
9. Severe form of acute tonsillitis is characterized by: enlarged tonsils, saburral tongue ?, sudden onset, fever, painful
swelling, muscle pain
10. Treatment of nasal contusion does NOT include: antimycotics, antibiotics
11. What does the tympanometry show in a chronic serous otitis media: type B tympanogram
12. The following are not functions of the larynx: olfaction, nutrition
13. Clinical symptoms of gastro esophageal reflux disease: pirosis, dysphagia
14. Othoscleriosis is a disease characterised by: it represent a primitive osteophathy, which is located in the capsule of
labyrinth, the osteopathy evolves in 3 stages….
15. The nose has a role in: breathing, phonation, olfaction, air heating, air humidifcation, olphaction
16. Symptoms in the secondary phase of airway foreign bodies are the following: signs of infection, intense coughing
17. The following phrase is TRUE: the pars tensa of the membranic tympane has 3 layers
18. The following is NOT a drug used in the treatment of acute tonsillitis: corticosteroid drugs (SI USANO
GENTAMICINA PENICILLIN METRONIDAZOLO).
19. Please select the phrases that are true: the pars tensa of the tympanic membrane has an outer layer which consists of
squamous cells, the pars tensa of the tympanic membrane reflecte lights
20. Acute unspecific angina is not characterized by: dyspnea, trismo
21. Pain in acute angina causes: salivation, trismus, fever ( PLUS odynophagia, disfagia, )
Angina syndrome includes the following symptoms:a. Halithosis b. Pain upon swallowing c. Referred ear pain
d. Dysphonia e. Fever f. hypersalition g trismus
22. The symptomathology for the othosclerosis is: unilateral conductive hearing loss, low frequency hear loss ecc.
23. From an anatomical point of view laryngitis can be: supraglottic, glotic, underglottic
24. The following do NOT characterize acute edematous subglottic laryngitis: constant fever, pharyngeal pain
25. Acute catarrhal laryngitis is NOT characterized by the following: constant temperature
26. Diagnosis of esophageal foreing bodies are done by: radiology, anamnesis and clinical exam
27. The following is a local sign of furuncle/folliculitis: local oedema (pain ?)
28. Complications of microbial acute otitis media are: meningitis and brain abscess and cavernous sinus
thrombosis, labyrinthitis ( mastoiditis)
29. Sudden onset hearing loss is: a unilateral sensorineural cochlear hearing loss, it has a sudden onset and the
hearing loss is greater than 30 dB
30. Tubo tympanic effusion has the following symptoms and clinical signs: tympanic aspiration, mobile liquid
bubbles in the tympanic cavity and thickened secretions that determine the level of the liquid – glue ear
31. It is NOT a complication of acute adenoiditis of the newborn:weight loss
32. Which of the following anatomical element does not take part in the description of the auricle (pinna): umbo,
schrapnell membrane
33. Laterally the ethmoid sinus comes into contact with: the orbit through the lamina papiraceae
34. The following is TRUE about laryngeal tuberculosis: it has a tendency to accompanying malignant disease,
clinically it respresents an inflammation with nodules
35. Treatment of acute suppurative tonsillitis is represented by: metronidazole, penicillin
36. The following is NOT a first symptom of espohageal foreign body: primary and secondary esophageal
Perforations
37. About precancerous lesions for the following are TRUE: the morphologic changes to the laryngeal
38. Othaematoma is: a collection of blood that appears after trauma to the pinna
39. The following are segments of the periphereal auditory system: middle ear, external ear
40. The nasal fossa contain: nasal septum, , nasal turbinates and meatus.
Previous ENT Questions
1. The peripheral system includes the following:
a. External ear
b. Middle ear
c. Inner ear
d. All
e. None
2. The tympanic membrane is made up of:
a. 3 layers
b. 6 layers
c. 4 layers
d. 1 layer
e. It doesn’t contain any layers
3. The epitympanic recess is:
a. A recess situated above the tympanic membrane
b. The superior segment of the tympanic membrane
c. The superior segment of the external ear canal
d. A structure in the inner ear
e. A part of the inner ear
4. The footplate of the stapes connects with:
a. The perilymphatic space
b. The endolymphatic space
c. Cerebro-spinal fluid
d. The tympanic cavity
e. The vestibulo-cochlear nerve
5. The functions of vestibular system are:
a. The fixation of an optical horizon
b. Maintaining balance
c. Hearing and maintaining balance
d. None
e. A, b, c
6. An otohaematoma is:
a. A sero-hematical collection of auricle (pinna)
b. A benign tumor of auricle (pinna)
c. An acute inflammation of the external ear
d. An acute inflammation of the tympanic membrane
e. A malignant tumor of the middle ear
7. An external ear canal furuncle (boil) can cause:
a. The swelling of the external ear canal
b. Local pain
c. Slight hearing loss
d. Tinnitus
e. Balance disorders
8. Fungal ear infection can cause:
a. A matte appearance of the external ear canal
b. A moist appearance of the external ear canal
c. Cotton-like appearance of the round mass in the external ear canal
d. Tinnitus
e. Nausea, vomiting, dizziness, balance disorders
9. The patency of the Eustachian tube is assessed through:
a. Blowing the nose
b. Politzer’s maneuver
c. Valsalva’s maneuver
d. Swallowing with an open mouth
e. Inhalation (inspiration) with the nose held and mouth closed
10. Bacterial acute otitis media can be caused by:
a. Disfunction of the Eustachian tube
b. Rhinopharyngeal infection ( no infection but inflammations)
c. C. Post traumatic perforation of the tympanic membrane
d. Systemic viral infection
e. Rinopharyngeal tumours
11. The treatment of an acute suppurative otitis media lasts:
a. 10-14 days
b. 2-3 days
c. 5-7 days
d. 10-14 days until the ear discharge stops
e. Till 7 days after the cessation of symptoms
12. The classification of acute otitis media is done according to:
a. The way the disease evolves
b. The appearance of the perforation
c. The nature of the pathogen
d. The appearance of the tympanic membrane
e. None of the above
13. Acute suppurative otomastoiditis can cause:
a. Gelle fistula
b. Pain upon applying pressure on the mastoid bone
c. Perforation of the tympanic membrane
d. Veiling of the mastoid air cell
e. Fever, odynophagia, dysphagia
14. Cholesteatomatous otitis media can cause:
a. Foul-smelling ear discharge
b. Ear discharge non-responsive to local and systemic treatment
c. Otorrhagia
d. Blocked ear
e. Unilateral suppurative rhinorrea
15. An atticitis is:
a. Inflammation of the tympanic membrane
b. Inflammation of the external ear canal
c. Inflammation of the tympanic cavity
d. Inflammation of the Eustachian tube
e. Inflammation of the pharynx and the larynx
16. Acoustic trauma can cause:
a. Transmissional hearing loss
b. Neurosensorial hearing loss
c. Mixed hearing loss
d. Neurosensorial hearing loss with a notch at 4000 Hz ( NO 4000 MA 400 HZ)
e. Hearing loss, otorrhagia and odynophagia
17. Respiratory sleep disorders can be classified as:
a. Primary snoring
b. Upper airway resistance syndrome
c. Central or mixed apnoea syndrome
d. Obstructive sleep apnoea syndrome
e. None of the above
18. Muller’s manoeuvre is:
a. Forced exhalation with the nose held in between the fingers
b. Forced inhalation with the mouth closed and the nose held in between the fingers
c. Free exhalation
d. Free inhalation
e. Snoring with occasional apnoea
19. The nasal cavity consists of:
a. Nasal septum
b. Nasal turbinates
c. Nasal meatal
d. posterior nasal apertures (choanae)
e. None of the above
20. Ethmoidal cells are:
a. A labyrinth made up of air cells
b. A virtual sinus
c. Cavities found between the middle nasal turbinate, orbit, sphenoidal sinus
d. Structures that make up the rhinopharynx
e. Independent air cells
21. The anterior wall of the sphenoid sinus has:
a. 3 segments
b. 2 segments
c. 1 segment
d. 0 segment
e. 4 segments
22. The blood supply of the nasal cavity is provided by:
a. The anterior ethmoidal artery
b. The sphenopalatine artery
c. The posterior ethmoidal artery
d. The middle cerebral artery
e. The superior laryngeal artery
23. The ethmoidal bulla is located in:
a. The inferior nasal meatus
b. The middle nasal meatus
c. The superior nasal meatus
d. The floor of the nasal cavity
e. The oropharynx
24. The function of the nose consists in:
a. Breathing
b. Phonation
c. Olfaction
d. Warming up the air that we inhale
e. Humidification of the air that we inhale
25. Nasal trauma can be classified in:
a. Closed traumatic lesion
b. Open traumatic lesion
c. Nasal fractures
d. Dislocation (luxation of the nasal bones) (= classification of nasal fracture ø trauma)
e. None of the above
26. The symptomatology of nasal fractures consists of:
a. Sudden pain
b. Epistaxis
c. Nausea
d. Dizziness
e. Referred ear pain
27. The symptomatology in nasal fractures consists of:
a. Paleness of the face
b. Nasal obstruction
c. Epistaxis
d. Localized pain
e. Vertigo with nausea and vomiting
28. Fronto-basal fractures can be classified as:
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
e. None of the above
29. The clinical signs of a nasal furuncle are:
a. The erythematous inflammation of the region
b. The inflammation of the upper lip
c. Fever
d. Pain
e. Migraine
30. Nasal erysipelas is an infection caused by:
a. Group A beta haemolytic streptococci
b. Haemophilus influenzae
c. Escherichia coli
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
e. Candida albicans
31. The clinical symptoms of acute rhinitis are:
a. Irritated nose
b. Sneezing nose
c. Nasal obstruction
d. Post prandial vomiting
e. All of the above
32. In the acute rhinopharyngitis of the child the following treatment must be given:
a. Antipyretic drugs
b. Nasal decongestants
c. Vitamins
d. Antibiotics (Third generation cephalosporins)
e. Mucolytic drugs
33. The topographic anatomical regions of the larynx are:
a. The supraglottic region
b. The subglottic region
c. The glottis
d. The transglottic space
e. None of the above
34. Acute laryngitis is:
a. A multifactorial acute inflammation of the laryngeal mucosa
b. A laryngeal tumour
c. A chronic inflammation of the larynx laringiene
d. A benign laryngeal tumour
e. None of the above
35. The aetiology of acute catarrhal laryngitis is:
a. Appears in women
b. Appears due to vocal abuse
c. Appears after some sort of trauma
d. Appears due to certain climatic conditions
e. Appears due to consumption of alcoholic beverages
36. The positive diagnosis of acute laryngitis is made through:
a. Suspended laryngoscopy
b. Suspended laryngoscopy with bioscopy
c. Flexible laryngoscopy or rigid 90-degree endoscopic examination
d. Laryngeal microlaryngoscopy
e. Classic clinical examinations with a laryngeal mirror
37. Acute oedematous laryngitis can cause:
a. Inspiratory dyspnoea
b. Dyspnoea with polypnoea
c. Irritative cough
d. Anxiety, dysphagia, fever ( ANSIA ? )
e. Nausea, vomiting, dizziness
38. Epiglottitis is:
a. A supraglottic laryngitis
b. A disease that affects the entire larynx
c. A benign laryngeal tumour
d. A malignant laryngeal tumour
e. An acute inflammation of the epiglottis, which is considered to be supraglottic laryngitis as well
39. Chronic laryngitis can be classified as:
a. Keratosis
b. Acanthosis
c. Catarrhal laryngitis
d. Chronic pseudo myxomatous
e. Chronic hypertrophic laryngitis (=white chronic laryngitis, tumours etc)
40. The treatment of chronic laryngitis consists of:
a. Vocal therapy
b. Reducing irritative agents
c. Smoking cessation
d. Vitamin A oil
e. Antiemetic medication, local and systemic steroidal anti-inflammatory medication
41. Leucoplakia is:
a. An acute inflammation of the laryngeal mucosa
b. The presence of keratin on the surface of the laryngeal mucosa
c. A clinical term used to describe any whitish lesions on the epithelium surface of the laryngeal
mucosa
d. Oedema on the surface of the laryngeal mucosa
e. A benign laryngeal tumor with the potential to turn malignant (non tumore benigno, ma lesion
precancerosa)
42. Vocal cord polyps are:
a. A precancerous stage
b. A benign laryngeal tumor
c. A malignant laryngeal tumor
d. Acute inflammation of the laryngeal mucosa
e. A possible cause of dysphonia
43. Laryngeal papillomatosis is:
a. A benign disease with the potential to turn malignant
b. An acute laryngeal inflammation
c. A malignant laryngeal tumor
d. A chronic inflammation of the larynx
e. A disease with a high degree of recurrence
44. Reinke’s oedema is:
a. A diffuse, chronic inflammation of the vocal cords caused by the accumulation of a gelatinouse
substance in Reinke’s space
b. A benign vocal cord tumor
c. A malignant vocal cord tumor
d. An acute inflammation of the vocal cords caused by the accumulation of a gelatinous substance in
Reinke’s space
e. A possible cause of dysphonia and dyspnoea
45. The initial symptomatology of an esophageal foreign body consists of:
a. Sialorrhea
b. Severe pain
c. Dysphagia for solid food
d. Dysphagia for liquids
e. A sensation of a foreign body
46. Which of the following investigations is contraindicated in the case of acute oesophageal foreign body:
a. Barium swallow
b. Esophagoscopy
c. Radiological investigation
d. Blood tests
e. None of the above
47. The treatment of oesophageal foreign bodies consists of:
a. Extraction of the foreign body through esophagoscopy
b. Pushing the foreign body further down the digestive tract
c. Triggering vomiting
d. Extraction in a natural way
e. Muscle relaxant medications
48. Angina can cause:
a. Foul breath
b. Pain upon swallowing
c. Referred ear pain
d. Dysphonia
e. Fever
49. The treatment of acute angina consists of:
a. Antibiotics
b. Antipyretic medications
c. Local antiseptic medications
d. Liquid diet
e. Pain killers
50. Acute suppurative tonsillitis can cause:
a. Fever
b. Whitish deposits on the palatine tonsils
c. Odynophagia
d. Saburral tongue
e. Uvula oedema(?)
51. Laryngeal topographical areas:
a. Supraglottic region
b. Subglottic region
c. Glottis
d. Space transglottic
e. None
52. The functions of the larynx are:
a. Protection
b. Respiratory
c. Phonation
d. A, b, c
e. Swallowing
53. Classification of acute laryngitis is done by:
a. Etiology
b. Age
c. Progress
d. Anatomy and other
e. It is not possible to make a classification of acute laryngitis
54. Nasal contusion is:
a. Open trauma
b. Closed trauma
c. Superficial trauma
d. Mixed trauma
e. Open fracture of nasal bones
55. Symptoms of nasal contusion are:
a. Spontaneous pain
b. Epistaxis
c. Nausea
d. Dizziness
e. Ear irradiation of the pain
56. Nasal fractures are classified:
a. Fracture without displacement
b. Fracture with displacement
c. Fractured nasal bones
d. Fracture of the nasal septum
e. Fractures Le Forte I, II, III and fractures at the ethmoid cells
57. Treatment consists of nasal fractures:
a. Fixation and fracture reduction
b. Stop nosebleeds
c. Intervention delayed 3-4 days
d. Medication
e. Pain relievers, anti-emetics and anti-vertiginous
58. Positive diagnosis of cerebro-spinal rhinorrhea is:
a. Spontaneous CSF leak through the nose
b. CSF leak through the nose after jugular vein compression
c. CT (ist eine topographic diagnosis)
d. Symptoms of nausea and vomiting specific sero-bloody
e. All
59. External wall of the sphenoid sinus includes the following topographic relationship:
a. Internal carotid artery
b. Nerves III, IV, VI
c. Cavernous sinus
d. Ethmoid cells
e. Ethmoid and frontal sinus cells / Cohane (Question came twice, with only this difference)
60. Nasal vasculature comes from:
a. Anterior ethmoid artery
b. Sphenopalatine artery
c. Posterior ethmoid artery
d. Middle cerebral artery
e. Superior laryngeal artery
61. Ostio-meatal complex is composed of:
a. Uncinated process
b. Bubble ethmoidal
c. Frontal recess
d. Ethmoid infundibulum
e. Nose cones
62. Respiratory epithelium is:
a. Keratinized squamous epithelium
b. A multi-layered squamous epithelium
c. Ciliated cylindrical epithelium
d. All
e. None
63. Anatomical elements of tympanic membrane:
a. Hammer
b. Polizer trinangel (= Politzer triangle)
c. Umbo
d. Horizontal semicircular canal
e. None
64. The epitympanum is:
a. A part of tympanic cavity that represents the higher floor
b. The top of the tympanic membrane
c. The top of ear canal
d. Structure of the inner ear
e. Part of inner ear
 65. The hammer articulates with:
a. Stapes
b. Oval window
c. Incus
d. Vertical semicircular canal
e. Perilymphatic space
66. The Eustachian tube connects:
a. Tympanic cavity and nasopharynx
b. Tympanic cavity and external auditory canal
c. Tympanic cavity and inner ear
d. External ear and middle ear
e. None
67. The facial nerve has:
a. 3 segments
b. 4 segments
c. 6 segments
d. 5 segments and sometimes 6 segments
e. There are no segments
68. The ear wax is:
a. Brownish colour in the external auditory canal
b. Benign tumors of the ear
c. Hypersecretion ceruminous glands of the external ear
d. Colour format flaky white boy from the external auditory canal (???)
e. All
69. Treatment pericondrities is done by:
a. Paracentesis
b. Hearing aids
c. Generation III of cephalosporins
d. Local and general anti-inflammatory drugs and general package with Rivanol solution
e. NSAIDs and steroids
70. Acute suppurative otitis media:
a. Deleted bright reflex
b. Congestion, hyperemia of the tympanic membrane
c. Transmission hearing loss
d. Leukocytosis
e. Pain with radiation in the ear
71. Complications of acute otitis media effusion are:
a. Sinusitis
B. Pneumonia
c. Meningitis
d. Labyrinthitis
e. Brain abscess and cavernous sinus thrombosis
E.N.T – Exam

1. Which of the following examinations are contraindicated in case of an acute esophageal

foreign body?
a. Barium passage test
b. Oesophagoscopy
c. Radiological examination
d. Laboratory tests
e. Neither

2. The furuncle of external auditory meatus can cause:

a. Swelling of the external auditory ear canal
b. Otalgia
c. Neurosensory hearing loss
d. Tinnitus
e. Loss of balance
3. The peripheral hearing system contains the following segments:
a. External ear
b. Middle ear
c. Internal ear
d. Brainstem
e. Neither
4. Acute erythemato-pultaceous angina can cause:
a. Fever
b. Whitish tonsillar deposits
c. Odynophagia
d. Saburral tongue
e. Uvula oedema
5. The treatment of acute suppurative otitis media lasts:
a. 10-14 days
b. 2-3 days
c. 5-7 days
d. 10-14 days until the end of the suppuration
e. Until the end of the symptoms and 7 days after
6. The permeability of the Eustachian tube can be verified through:
a. The maneuver of blowing your nose
b. The Politzer maneuver
c. The Valsalva maneuver Toynbee
d. Swallowing with your mouth opened
e. Forced inhalation with your nose pinched and your mouth closed
7. The classification of acute suppurative otitis media can be made according to:
a. The evolution of the disease
b. The type of tympanic perforation
c. The nature of the pathogen involved
d. The appearance of the tympanic membrane
e. Neither

8. An othaematoma is:
a. A serosanguinous swelling of the auricle
b. A benign tumor of the auricle
c. An acute inflammation of the auricle
d. An acute inflammation of the tympanic membrane
e. A malignant tumor of the middle ear
E.N.T – Exam

9. Respiratory sleeping disorders can be classified as:

a. Primary snoring
b. Upper airway resistance syndrome
c. Central or mixed sleep apnea syndrome
d. Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome
e. Neither
10. Acute microbial otitis media can be caused by:
a. Eustachian tube dysfunction
b. Rhinopharyngeal infections ( NO INFECTIONS BUT
INFLAMMATIONS)
c. Posttraumatic perforation of the tympanic membrane
d. Systemic viral infections

11. The nasal cavities contain:

a. The nasal septum
b. The nasal turbinates
c. The nesal meatuses

d. The choana
e. Neither

12. The ethmoidal cells are:

a. A labyrinth of aerated cells
b. A virtual sinus
c. Cavities extending between the middle turbinate, orbital cavity and sphenoid sinus
d. Anatomic components of the rhinopharynx
e. A independent system of cells

13. The Müller maneuver is:

a. Forced exhalation with a pinched nose
b. Forced inhaltation with a closed mouth and a pinched nose
c. Free exhalation
d. Free inhalation

e. Snoring with periods of apnea

14. The ethmoid bulla is situated in:

a. The inferior meatus
b. The middle meatus
c. The superior Meatus
d. The floor of the nasal cavity
e. The oropharynx

15. Otomycosis can cause:

a. A matte surface of the external auditory ear canal
b. Wetness of the external auditory ear canal
c. Pruritus of the ear/otalgia
d. Tinnitus
e. Neusea and vomitting, dizziness, loss of balance
E.N.T – Exam

16. The nose plays a role in:

17. Cholesteatomatous otitis media can cause:

a. Foul-smelling suppurative otorrhoea
b. Orrohoea that is non-responsive to local and systemic treatment
c. Otorrhagia
d. Hearing loss
e. Unilateral suppurative rhinorrhoea

18. The symptoms of a nasal contusion include:

a. Spontaneous pain
b. Epistaxis
c. Nausea
d. Dizziness
e. Reffered otalgia

19. The clinical signs of a nasal furuncle include:

a. The erithematous inflammation of the region
b. The inflammation of the upper lip
c. Fever
d. Pain
e. Migraine

20. The symptoms of a nasal fracture include:

a. Paleness of the face
b. Nasal obstruction
c. Epistaxis
d. Localized pain
e. Vertigo with nausea and vomiting
21. In acute rhinopharyngitis affecting a child the treatment consists of:
a. Antipyretics
b. Nasal decongestants
c. Vitamins
d. 3rd generation cephalosporin antibiotics
e. Mucolytic drugs

22. Nasal erysipelas is an infection caused by:

a. Group A beta-haemolytic Streptococcus
b. Haemophilus influenzae
c. Escherichia coli
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
e. Candida albicans
E.N.T – Exam

23. An acute laryngitis is defined as:

a. An acute inflammatory process of the laryngeal mucosa with polymorphic aetiology
b. A laryngeal tumor
c. Chronic inflammatory process of the larynx
d. Benign tumor of the larynx
e. Neither
24. The clinical symptoms in acute rhinitis are:
a. Dysphagia
b. Rhinorrhoea
c. Nasal obstruction
d. Postprandial vomiting
e. All of the above
25. Acute catarrhal laryngitis can have the folowing aetiology:

Is caused by alcohol consumption

26. Epiglottitis is defined as:
a. A supraglottic laryngitis
b. Involvement of the whole larynx
c. A benign laryngeal tumor
d. A malignant laryngeal tumor
e. An acute inflammation of the epiglottis and is considered a supraglottic laryngitis
27. Chronic laryngitis can be classified as:
a. Keratosis
b. Acanthosis
c. Catarrhal laryngitis
d. Pseudomixomatous chronic laryngitis
e. Hypertrophic chronic laryngitis
28. Oedematous acute laryngitis can cause:
a. Inspiratory dyspnoea
b. Dyspnoea with polypnoea
c. Irritative cough
d. Anxiety, dysphagia, fever
e. Nau-sea, vomiting and dizziness

29. The positive diagnosis of laryngitis can be made through:

a. Suspension laryngoscopy
b. Suspension laryngoscopy with biopsy
c. Flexible fiberoptic laringoscopy or rigid 90° laryngeal endoscopy
d. Suspension micro-laryngoscopy
e. Indirect laryngoscopy with a laryngeal mirror
30. The initial symptomatology in an oesophageal foreign body includes:
a. Sialorrhoea
b. Violent pain
c. Dysphagia for solids
d. Dysphagia for liquids
e. Sensation of foreign body
E.N.T – Ex3a1m.Leucoplakia is:
a. The acute inflammation of the laryngeal mucosa
b. The presence ofkeratin on the surface of the laryngeal mucosa
c. A clinical term used to describe any whitish lesion on the surface of the laryngeal
mucosa
d. Oedema on the surface of the laryngeal mucosa
e. Benign tumor ofthe larynx with the potential of malignant
32. Mobile trachebronchial foreign bodies can cause:
a. Odinophagia
b. Dysphagia
c. Fluttering sound
d. Chest pain
e. Dyspnea
33. The complications of tracheobronchial foreign bodies include:
a. Bronchiectasia
b. Chronic bronchorrhea
c. Pulmonary abscess
d. Bronchits
e. Mediastinitis
34. The treatment of oesophageal foreign bodies consists of:
a. Extraction through oesophagoscopy
b. Pushing the foreign body down
c. Provoking vomiting
d. Extraction in a natural way
e. Muscle relaxants

35. Angina syndrome includes the following symptoms:

a. Halithosis
b. Pain upon swallowing
c. Referred ear pain
d. Dysphonia
e. Fever