QUALITY CONTROL

__________ 1. A buret with a glass stopcock can be used for:

A. Alcohols C. Acids
B. Bases D. Salts

__________ 2. The operation speed for paddle in a dissolution apparatus is:

A.150 rpm C.100 rpm
B. 200 rpm D. 50 rpm

__________ 3. Radiant energy refers to:

A. Visible C. UV
B. IR D. All of the above

__________ 4. High pressure liquid chromatography method of analysis is more advantageous than the other
column chromatography as to:
A. Ease to operate C. More precise
B. Greater speed D. All of the above

__________ 5. Content uniformity test is to be performed for all tablet products whose active ingredient is:
A. 50 mg or smaller C. 130-324 mg
B. 324 mg or more D. 130 mg or less

__________ 6. The statement of expiration date assures the patient:

A. Absence of toxicity C. Complete absorption of drug
B. Full therapeutic efficacy D. Absence of interaction

__________ 7. A factor obtained by taking the ratio of the actual normality to the theoretical normality is:
A. Titer C. Flame photometer
B. Normality factor D. Polarimeter

__________ 8. To measure the optical activity of a sample, the instrument used is:
A. Spectrometer C. Flame photometer
B. Refractometer D. Polarimeter

__________ 9. In phenol content determination of a volatile oil, the layer in the graduated neck of the cassia
flask read 2.7 ml obtained from a sample of 10 ml of the oil after treatment of KOH. The %
phenol is:
A. 69.8 C. 73.0
B. 27.0 D. 7.30

__________ 10. Using the Karl Fischer method, determine the moisture content of a sample of raw material
where a 63 mg sample consumed 0.75 ml of titrant. Water equivalence factor is 1.10. A. 1.8% C. 2.10%
B. 1.3% D. 0.74%

__________ 11. During shipment of the finished product to the wholesale or retail outlets, the responsible person
should ensure:
A. Product identification C. Segregation of different types
B. No damage, spillage or breakage D. All of the above

__________ 12. To find the mEq factor of an oxidizing agent is to divide the molecular weight by: A.
Valence C. No. of electrons gained (VDGEROA)
B. No. of electron lost D. Replaceable hydrogen

__________ 13. Lower control limit if mean is 10.5 ml and one standard deviation is 0.025.
A. 10.450 ml C. 10.575 ml
B. 10.420 ml D. 10.425 ml

__________ 14. Gas chromatography is utilized in the separation and identification of: A.
Amino acid C. Volatile liquids in a mixture
B. Alkaloids D. Blood components

__________ 15. The name of the originator of using silver nitrate as the titrant and potassium chromate as the
indicator in volumetric precipitation of chloride.
A. Volhard C. Mohr
 Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy (PACOP) 2013
QUALITY CONTROL
B. Beer D. Fajan

__________ 16. Reassay date of thiamine Hcl if tested in December 1992.

A. 6/93 C. 12/94
B. 12/93 D. 6/94

__________ 17. Find the acid number of a raw material a mole weighing 1.230 g which required 30 ml of
0.1100 N NaOH to bring out the end point using alcoholic KOH in the titration.
A. 150.54 mg/g C. 109.18 mg/g
B. 157.72 mg/g D. 124.41 mg/g

__________ 18. A critical defect that would stop the packaging operation is:
A. Misaligned label C. Smeared label
B. Wrong label D. Inverted label

__________ 19. An instrument use to measure the durability of tablets to shipping/transportation against shock
and abrasion.
A. Metal detector C. Friabilator
B. Top loading balance D. Colorimeter

__________ 20. Methods of microbial assay of antibiotics:

A. Turbidimetric C. Both A and B
B. Cylinder plate D. None of the above

__________ 21. Retention or preservation of samples and records of all pharmaceutical products should be
monitored for signs of deterioration. The length of time they should be stored is:
A. 2 years after date of expiration C. 2 years
B. 1 year after date of expiration D. 3 years

__________ 22. Potentiometry finds application in:

A. Biological assay C. Qualitative analysis
B. Identification test D. pH determination

__________ 23. In the assay of sulfonamides, the method used is:

A. Diazotization C. Gravimetric
B. Acid-base titration D. Volumetric

__________ 24. A term in compleximetry used to indicate a determination of a metal in the presence of another
metal.
A. Linking C. Complexing
B. Masking D. Redox

__________ 25. cGMP is:

A. An agency created by RA 3720
B. Also known as Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Both A and B are incorrect

__________ 26. The sampling and examination of all raw materials received by the factory is a function of the:
A. Documentation C. Material inspection
B. Biological testing laboratory D. Analytical laboratory

__________ 27. The indicator for EDTA direct titration against CaCO 3 is:
A. Methyl red C. Methylene blue
B. Hydroxynaphthol blue D. Thymol blue

__________ 28. Safety or toxicity for infusion plastic sets is conducted using:
A. Dogs C. White mice
B. Food ingestion D. Rabbits

__________ 29. Chemical analysis which determines the amount of percentage content in which the component
of a substance is present:
 A. Quantitative C. Qualitative
B. Proximate D. Ultimate

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__________ 30. The addition of overage is justified when:
A. The clinical studies show that the overage is safe therapeutically
B. The unstable active ingredients cannot be possibly standardized
C. Both statements are correct
D. Both statements are incorrect

__________ 31. The period of stability of a preparation is the time from the date of manufacture of the
formulation until its chemical or biological activity is not less than ___ of the labeled potency. A. 99% C. 90%
B. 93% D. 95%

__________ 32. Adsorbents used in TLC:

A. Silica gel and aluminum oxide C. Silica gel
B. Aluminum oxide D. Kieselguhr

__________ 33. Content uniformity test is conducted in:

A. 5 tablets C. 10 tablets
B. 20 tablets D. 15 tablets

__________ 34. The most effective manner to clean glass apparatus is:
A. Soaking in detergent C. Rinsing with alcohol
B. Treatment with chromic acid D. Rinsing with nitric acid

__________ 35. Ferrous sulfate is:

A. Agent that loses electron C. Reducing agent
B. An oxidizing agent D. Both A and C

__________ 36. A test which is determined by selecting not less than 30 tablets from each production batch and
assaying 10 tablets individually as directed in the assay of the individual compedial monograph. A. Content
uniformity C. Disintegration test
B. Weight variation D. Dissolution test

__________ 37. These are instruments under spectrometric methods which operate based on the absorption or
emission of electromagnetic radiation as a result of it interation with matter, EXCEPT: A. Potentiometer C. X-ray
B. NMR D. IR

__________ 38. The ash content of an organic compound is an impurity of:

A. Inorganic matter C. Gas
B. Carbon D. Volatile oil

__________ 39. Type of Q.C equipment used for measuring the absorbance of substances between regions
380- 780 nm.
A. UV_VIS spectrophotometer C. Mass spectrophotometer
B. Infrared spectrophotometer D. Colorimeter

__________ 40. Type of titration used in volumetric analysis:

A. Neutralization C. Direct
B. Residual D. Both B and C

__________ 41. The choice method of determining the alcohol content of pharmaceutical preparation:
A. Specific gravity C. Fractional distillation
B. Percolation D. Cryoscopic

__________ 42. The gram molecular weight of sulfuric acid is 98. A solution containing 49 g/L of solution is:
A. 0.2 M C. 1 N
B. 0.5 N D. 1 M

__________ 43. USP steroid identification test:

A. Gravimetric C. Fluoroscopic
B. Spectrophotometric D. Chromatographic
__________ 44. Which of the following are principles of chromatographic separation?
I. Adsorption III. Ion-exchange
II. Partition IV. Molecular exclusion

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A. I and II C. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and III D. None of the above

__________ 45. Titer is an expression of concentration in terms of:

A. g/L C. g of solute/100 ml
B. mg/L D. g or mg/ml

__________ 46. Titrating an alkaline sample with an acid standard solution is known as:
A. Direct alkalimetry C. Precipitation method
B. Gravimetric analysis D. Indirect alkalimetric

__________ 47. Retention or preservation of samples and records of all pharmaceutical products should be
monitored for sign of deterioration. The length of time they should be stored is:
A. 2 years
B. 1 year after the expiry date of the product
C. 3 years
D. 2 years after the expiry date

__________ 48. LAL reagent is used to:

A. Measure pH of solution C. Prevent the oxidation of parenteral prep
B. Test the presence of pyrogens D. Acts as preservative for pharmaceutical

__________ 49. Control chart limit which alerts the operator to closely monitor the process:
A. Warning limit C. Acceptable limit
B. Action limit D. Any of these

__________ 50. In-process inspection tests to be perform during the filling of parenteral products:
A. Viscosity
B. Light inspection for clarity of solution
C. Fill volume
D. Light inspection and fill volume

__________ 51. USP limit for tablet content uniformity:

A. 90-110% C. 95-110%
B. 90-100% D. 85-115%

__________ 52. Analysis function would include:

A. Shelf-life studies C. Raw material control
B. In-process control D. All of these

__________ 53. In the SQC, the control chart prepared based on the number of fraction defective is called:
A. Attribute chart C. Beer's plot
B. Bar chart D. Variable chart

__________ 54. The number of linear openings per square inch is known as:
A. Sieve C. Both A and B
B. Mesh D. None of these

__________ 55. Test used to determine the strength of tablets includes:

A. Content uniformity C. Weight variation
B. Hardness D. Both A and B

__________ 56. Which of the given is the least used as sampled materials?
A. Final product C. Intermediate product
B. Records D. Raw materials

__________ 57. The presence of cotton fiber in a liquid preparation is considered a/an:
A. Critical defect C. Internal defect
 B. Variable defect D. Ocular defect

__________ 58. A special residual method in acidimetry intended for the determination of nitrogen content in
organic compounds.
A. Karl Fischer method C. Volhard method
B. Back titration D. Kjeldahl method

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__________ 59. Assay of 250 mL solution of Dopamine 200 mg injection resulted in the following data. Based on
these, determine the amount of Dopamine in 100 mL solution:
Sample volume 5.0 mL
Solution volume 250.0 mL
Absorbance sample 38259
Absorbance standard 20163
A. 0.04 mg/100mL C. 3.8 mg/100mL
B. 4.5 mg/100mL D. 4.5 mg/100mL

__________ 60. The disintegration constant of a radioisotope is 0.0502 day1. Calculate the half life of the
radioisotope.
A. 11 days C. 15 days
B. 13 days D. 21 days

__________ 61. Determine the distance traveled by the solute, if its Rf value is 0.688 and the solvent travels
8.0 cm. the sample weight is 1.02 mg.
A. 11.6 cm C. 5.5 cm
B. 11.8 cm D. 0.70 cm

__________ 62. One mole of dichromate ions gains a total of ___ electrons when converted to chromous ion.
A. 3 C. 10
B. 6 D. None of the above

__________ 63. Koetsdorfer number is a synonym for:

A. Ester value C. Iodine value
B. Saponification value D. Acetate value

__________ 64. The chemical constant used in the analysis of fats and oils are:
A. Iodine value C. Acid value
B. Saponication value D. All of the above

__________ 65. Water content of raw materials is determined by quality control equipment, such as:
I. Ohaus moisture balance III. pH meter
II. Karl Fischer Tritrimetry IV. Vacuum oven

A. I, II and IV C. I, II and III

B. II, III and IV D. I, II, III and IV

__________ 66. The primary standard used to standardize Karl fisher reagent is:
A. Anhydrous sodium carbonate C. Sodium tartrate
B. Potassium bipthalate D. Sodium oxalate

__________ 67. Plastic containers for ophthalmic or parenteral preparations are sterilized by:
A. Microwave C. Soaking in formalin
B. Autoclaving D. Ethylene oxide

__________ 68. A sample is:

A. Is taken from a population
B. It should represent the whole batch from where it is taken
C. Is a finite number of objects selected from a population
D. All of the above

__________ 69. Instrument to determine the tightness of a cap is:

A. Crimper C. Resister
B. Torque tester D. pH meter
__________ 70. Its primary objective is to monitor all features of a product.
A. SOP C. Stability testing
B. Sampling D. IPQC

__________ 71. It has a high degree of purity and is used in direct standardization purposes:
A. Technical grade C. Primary standard
B. CP grade D. Any of the above

__________ 72. The primary standard used for standardization of Ce(SO4)2 in cerimetric method of analysis is:
A. K2Cr2O7 C. KmnO4

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B. As 2O3 D. H2C2

__________ 73. In paper partition chromatography, what is the Rf value of a compound if the solute travels 3.1
cm and the solvent moves 4.3 cm after 5 minutes?
A. 3.605 C. 13.33
B. 0.721 D. 1.387

__________ 74. A sampling inspection in which decision is made to accept or not to accept an item:
A. Rejection number C. Acceptance number
B. Acceptance sampling D. Any of the above

__________ 75. Indicators used for acid-base titration, EXCEPT:

A. Methyl red C. Phenolphthalein
B. Methyl orange D. Ferric alum

__________ 76. Sample size of bottles to check for cap tightness.

A. 10 C. 20
B. 30 D. 15

__________ 77. Quantitative analysis of morphine.

A. Ultimate analysis C. Ultimate assay
B. Proximate assay D. Proximate analysis

__________ 78. What is the normality of sulfuric acid containing 73.5 g/500 mL of solution?
A. 2.0 N C. 3.0 N
B. 2.5 N D. 1.0 N

__________ 79. Three months of acceptable data at 37-400C/75% RH can be extrapolated to ___ year/s
expiry date.
A. 1 C. 4
B. 5 D. 2

__________ 80. The periodic examination on the quality of inventories is a function of:
A. Quality coordination office C. Analytical lab
B. Biological testing lab D. Material inspection section

__________ 81. The spotting agnt for amino acids in paper chromatography is:
A. Potassium chromate C. Silver nitrate
B. Ninhydrin D. Iodine

__________ 82. Negligible ash in a pharmaceutical preparation is:

A. 200 mg C. 500 mg
B. 1000 mg D. 500 mcg

__________ 83. The reassay date of raw material is based on their:

A. Stability C. Quantity purchased
B. Price D. None of the above

__________ 84. Quality must be built into the product during:

A. Research C. Production
B. Development D. All of the above
__________ 85. Recommended indicator in the assay of alkaloids:
A. Phenolphthalein C. Methyl orange
B. Methyl red D. Litmus paper

__________ 86. The titrant in non-aqueous alkalimetry is:

A. Ammonium hydroxide C. Sodium methoxide
B. Perchloric acid D. Sodium hydroxide

__________ 87. Two substances reacting upon reaching the end point must have the same:
A. Number of equivalents C. Normality
B. Volume D. Weight

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__________ 88. In radiopharmacy, REM means
A. Roentgen equivalent man C. Radiation per minute
B. Radiation per mill second D. Roentgen exposure per minute

__________ 89. One of the laws in spectrophotometry:

A. Law of mass action C. Newton’s law
B. Boyle’s law D. Beer’s law

__________ 90. Substances that have the power of rotating the plane polarized light are said to be.
A. Light sensitive C. Active constituents
B. Optically active D. Dextrorotatory

__________ 91. Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is:

A. Reflected C. Absorbed
B. Transmitted D. Adsorbed

__________ 92. The process of determining the volume of standard solution required to react with a known
amount of substance being assayed.
A. Neutralization C. Oxidation
B. Titration D. Hydrolysis

__________ 93. Color of phenolphthalein in caustic potash.

A. Pink C. Colorless
B. Yellow D. Orange

__________ 94. The potency of drug component is commonly determined by:

A. HPLC C. GC
B. Titrimetric method D. Spectrophotometric method

__________ 95. The index of refraction of a volatile oil is determined by using:

A. Pectrophotometer C. Refractometer
B. Pycnometer D. Polarimeter

__________ 96. A type of sampling which is permitted if the first one falls:
A. Double C. Both A and B
B. Single D. None of the above

__________ 97. What is preferred for standardization of permanganate?

A. Sodium oxalate C. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Sodium carbonate D. Sodium nitrate

__________ 98. Instability will be accelerated by:

A. Temperature C. Light
B. Heat D. All of the above

__________ 99. Assay of NaCl in table salt by precipitation as AgCl, filtration, drying, and weighing the residue
is classified as:
A. Precipitimetry C. Gravimetric analysis
 B. Volhard method D. Residual precipitimetry

__________ 100. An analyst who determines the strength, potency, and percentage purity of a drug or
pharmaceutical product is performing:
A. Pharmaceutical assaying C. Pharmacopeial test
B. Identification test D. Special test

__________ 101. Type of alkaloidal assay where the total alkaloids are determined.
A. Ultimate C. Extraction
B. Specific D. Proximate

__________ 102. The measurement of a base of a given sample by titration with a standard acid is known as:
A. Acidimetry C. Alkalimetry
B. Compleximetry D. Redox

__________ 103. Which of the following substance is assayed by residual alkalimetric analysis.
A. Aspirin C. Hydrochloric acid

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B. Sodium hydroxide D. Zinc oxide

__________ 104. The molecular weight of NaOH is 40. How many grams of NaOH pellets are needed to make
500mL of 1.5 N solution?
A. 20 C. 40
B. 30 D. 60

__________ 105. Which of the following is the most effective chemical substance in removing stains of
potassium permanganate?
A. Oxalic acid C. Chalk
B. Sodium thiosulfate D. Vinegar

__________ 106. Which of the following indicators is the least used for acid-base titration?
A. Methyl Orange C. Ferric Alum
B. Phenolpthalein D. Methyl Red

__________ 107. Residual method titration with EDTA is applicable to what metal ion?
A. Calcium C. Zinc
B. Aluminum D. Magnesium

__________ 108. Chemical reactions that involves a change in the valence number of reacting substances.
A. Neutralization C. Oxidation-Reduction
B. Complexation D. Precipitation

__________ 109. A process wherein the sample is made to liberate iodine, which is then titrated with a standard
solution of sodium thiosulfate.
A. Volumetric titration C. Iodometry
B. Back titration D. Iodimetry

__________ 110. Malic acid represent in cherry juice may be determined by:
A. Indirect Permanganate oxidation Method
B. Direct Permanganate Oxidation Method
C. Alkalimetry
D. Acidimetry

__________ 111. Iodometry is an indirect analysis of:

A. Oxidizing agents C. Acids
B. Reducing agents D. Bases

__________112. The chemical factor used in calculation of percent purity of a substance in volumetric analysis.
A. mEq weight C. Molality
B. Molarity D. None of the above

__________ 113. Adsorption indicators are used in:

A. Complexity C. Volumetric Precipitation
 B. Acidimetry D. Alkalimetry

__________ 114. The indicator used in permanganate titration:

A. Methyl Orange C. Permanganate solution
B. Phenolpthalein D. Methyl Red

__________ 115. The indicator for EDTA direct titration of calcium carbonate:
A. Thymol blue C. Methyl red
B. Hydroxynapthol blue D. Methylene blue

__________ 116. To find the mEq factor of an oxidizing agent, divide the molecular weight by:
A. No. of electrons gained C. Valence
B. No. of electrons lost D. Replaceable hydrogen

__________ 117. A term in compleximetry used to indicate a determination of a metal in the presence of
another metal is:
A. Redox C. Linking
B. Masking D. Complexing

__________ 118. Two substance reacting upon reaching the endpoint must have the same:

Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy (PACOP) 2013

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A. Normality C. No. of equivalents
B. Volume D. Weight

__________ 119. The method of assay for sulfonamides is:

A. Acid-base titration C. Diazotization with nitrite
B. Gravimetric D. Redox titration

__________ 120. Which of the following is a reducing agent?

A. Ascorbic acid C. Iodine
B. Potassium Permanganate D. Hydrochloric acid

__________ 121. Chemical analysis, which determines the amount or percentage content of a certain component
in a sample.
A. Qualitative C. Quantitative
B. Proximate D. Gravimetric

__________ 122. The indicator used in the assay of weak acid reacting with a strong base is:
A. Methyl red TS C. Eriochrome Black
B. Methyl orange TS D. Phenolpthalein

__________ 123. The substance being analyzed is the:

A. Titrant C. Salt
B. Indicator D. Analyte

__________ 124. Expression of concentration in volumetric EXCEPT:

A. Normality C. Molarity
B. Titer D. Molality

__________ 125. The assay procedures in volumetric precipitation were introduced by the following scientists,
EXCEPT:
A. Arrhenlus C. Fajan
B. Mohr D. Volhard

__________ 126. The terms used when equivalent amount of each reactants have reacted are the following
EXCEPT:
A. End point C. Stoichiometric
B. Equivalence point D. Theoretical point

__________ 127. Component of a blank used in the assay of a substance are, EXCEPT:
A. Solvent C. Indicator
B. Reagent D. Analyte
__________ 128. The color of phenolphthalein in vinegar.
A. Pink C. Colorless
B. Yellow D. Orange

__________ 129. The primary standard used in the assay of potassium permanganate.
A. Hydrogen peroxide C. Potassium dichromate
B. Sulfuric acid D. Sodium oxalate

__________130. An organic compound that changes from one color to another at a certain pH is called.
A. Test solution C. Buffer
B. Standard solution D. Indicator

__________ 131. The assay of menadione sodium sulfate (Vitamin K) uses this method of analysis:
A. Gravimetric method C. Precipitation method
B. Acid base method D. Redox titration

__________ 132. Precipitation method using potassium chromate TS as indicator and silver nitrate standard
solution.
A. Volhard C. Mohr
B. Fajan D. None of the above

__________ 133. The titrant most commonly used for direct compleximetry titration.
A. Zinc sulfate C. Silver nitrate

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B. EDTA D. HClO4

__________ 134. The masking agent used in the assay of Mg with EDTA in the presence of Aluminum.
A. Triethanolamine C. Potassium cyanide
B. Thioglycol D. Ammonium fluoride

__________ 135. The substance used to form a film over the precipitated silver chloride particles in Volhard's
method.
A. Nitric acid C. Triethanolamine
B. Sodium chloride D. Nitrobenzene

__________ 136. Assay of sodium nitrite is an example of:

A. Neutralization C. Complexation
B. Precipitation D. Redox method

__________ 137. Ceric sulfate is a/an:

A. Precipitating agent C. Reducing agent
B. Oxidizing agent D. Complexing agent

__________ 138. The valence number of Mn in KmnO4 is:

A. +2 C. +5
B. +1 D. +7

__________ 139. The apparatus used to wash down drops of standard solution clinging to the tip of
the buret:
A. Bobcock bottle C. Acetylization flask
B. Cassia flask D. Wash bottle

__________ 140. The following are methods of determining the end point in precipitimetry:
A. Use of adsorption indicators C. Formation of turbidity
B. Cessation of precipitation D. Appearance of turbidity

__________ 141. The quality control manager is in-charge of the following sections, EXCEPT:
A. Analytical laboratory
B. Specifications and analytical development
C. Research and development
D. Biological testing laboratory
__________ 142. Used to describe the overall organization body designed to assure product quality.
A. Quality control C. Drug assaying
B. Quality assurance D. All of the above

__________ 143. Serve as basis in accepting or rejecting the product.

A. Standards C. A and B
B. Specifications D. None of the above

__________ 144. It shows mainly the conformance or non-conformance of the material to specifications.
A. Variable defects C. Minor defects
B. Attribute defects D. Ocular defects

__________ 145. Crack in the bottle is an example of ___ defect.

A. Minor C. Critical
B. Major D. Serious

__________ 146. Environmental monitoring is conducted by:

A. Material inspection section C. Biological testing laboratory
B. Analytical laboratory D. Specification and analytical laboratory

__________ 147. A basic quality function is that of deciding whether the product conforms to specifications. This
function is generally called ___.
A. Sampling C. Acceptance
B. Standard D. Inspection

__________ 148. It is a finite number of objects selected from a batch of a product.

A. Sample C. Population

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B. Sampling D. Inspection number

__________ 149. In a ___, a decision is made after the result of the second sampling is known.
A. Single sampling C. Multiple sampling
B. Double sampling D. None of the above

__________ 150. The following are the numbers that must be specified in sampling plan, EXCEPT:
A. Population C. Acceptance
B. Sample D. Rejection

__________ 151. The following are the member countries that worked in the improvement of MIL-STD-105D,
EXCEPT:
A. USA C. Canada
B. UK D. Australia

__________ 152. The MIL-STD-105D is used in sampling by:

A. Attribute C. Defects
B. Variable D. A and B only

__________ 153. AQL is defined in the ABC standard as:

A. Maximum percent defectives C. Rejection number
B. Acceptance quality level D. Acceptance number

__________ 154. In a table for sample size code, the inspection level ___ is used when less discrimination is
needed.
A. I C. III
B. II D. S

__________ 155. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the use of Q.C stickers?
A. Decision stickers are pasted on the top of quarantine stickers
B. Green stickers means approved for use
C. Green sticker should be pasted above the red sticker
D. Red sticker can be pasted even without removing yellow sticker
__________ 156. Approved raw materials are audited to assure that they are rotated in such a manner that the
old stocks are used first. This is known as:
A. FIFO C. FIPA
B. IFOF D. FOFI

__________ 157. The following are examples of primary packaging components, EXCEPT:
A. Plunger C. Boxes
B. Seals D. Stripping

__________ 158. Minimum criteria for acceptance of printed materials, EXCEPT:

A. Color C. Cleanliness
B. Expiration date D. Shape

__________ 159. Labeling requirements for drugs and cosmetics, EXCEPT:

A. Name C. Description
B. Lot number D. Business address

__________ 160. Package insert include the following text, EXCEPT:

A. Action C. Indication
B. Warning D. Expiration date

__________ 161. One of the physico-chemical test conducted for containers.

A. Stress crack resistance C. Light Transmission
B. Torque D. Thermal analysis

__________ 162. Torque test is an example of:

A. Container control C. Closure control
B. Leak test D. Volatilization test

__________ 163. Based on the stability of raw materials, reassay date assigned to flavoring agent is:
A. 6 months C. 24 months

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B. 12 months D. 36 months

__________ 164. This is generated to explain in detail the reason behind a procedure and proper sequence of
step to be done, and how equipments are maximum performance.
A. Manufacturing monograph C. Batch record
B. Quality control monograph D. Standard operating procedure

__________ 165. It means any distinctive combinations of markings, letters, or number by which the history of
the manufacture and control of a batch or lot of a product can be determined.
A. Batch number C. Control number
B. Lot number D. All of the above

__________ 166. Which of the following is NOT included in the minimum test requirement for solid
preparations? A. Friability C. Hardness
B. Weight variation D. Pourability
__________ 167. Minimum requirements common to solid and liquid preparations, EXCEPT:
A. Color C. Texture
B. Odor D. Taste

__________ 168. For the sample size of 8 with AQL of 1.5, the acceptance number is:
A. 0 C. 2
B. 1 D. 3

__________ 169. If AQL is 1.0 and the sample size is 13, the rejection number is:
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

__________ 170. Ability of the formulation to remain within its physical, chemical, therapeutic and toxicological
specifications.
A. Endurance C. Purity
 B. Stability D. Friability

__________ 171. Results that agree closely with one another are said to be:
A. Accurate C. Bias
B. Precise D. A and B only

__________ 172. Which of the following given has the principal concern for residual contamination which could
alter or adversely affect a subsequent product and cannot be detected by an ordinary SOP
methods?
A. Assay validation C. Process validation
B. Instrument validation D. Cleaning validation

__________ 173. High Efficiency Particulate Air ( HEPA ) is an example of:

A. Mill C. Dryer
B. Filter D. Sprayer

__________ 174. Physical stability is of importance for formulator for the following reasons, EXCEPT:
A. Appearance C. Bioavailability
B. Uniformity D. Taste

__________ 175. A class of raw materials, which are to be subjected to tests and assays by the Q.C department
and are not yet to be used in the production of pharmaceuticals:
A. Approved for use materials C. Quarantined materials
B. Rejected materials D. In-process materials

__________ 176. A section of the warehouse which houses products which have been bottled, stripped or blister
packed, but not yet labeled or packed into boxes/cartons and are still awaiting the final disposition of the Q.C
department.
A. Finished goods section C. Returned goods section
B. In-process section D. Raw material section

__________ 177. An important parameter in the quality control of tablets, shown to be related to tablet solubility
properties:
A. Thickness C. Friability
B. Disintegration D. Tensile strength

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__________ 178. An analyst who determines the strength, potency, and percentage purity of a drug
pharmaceutical product is performing:
A. Pharmaceutical assaying C. Identification test
B. Pharmacopoeial testing D. Special method

__________ 179. One of the following is NOT an in-process control for tablets.
A. Bioavailability C. Hardness and thickness
B. Weight variation D. Disintegration

__________ 180. Content uniformity test is used to ensure which of the following quality in tablet products?
A. Disintegration C. Purity
B. Bioavailability D. Potency

__________ 181. Which of the following apparatus is the least accurate?

A. Pipet C. Volumetric flask
B. Buret D. Graduated cylinder

__________ 182. Which of the following is the least true about cleaning volumetric apparatus?
A. Adherence of droplets to the wall of buret is positive evidence that the
apparatus is dirty
B. Hot cleaning solution should be used
C. Solution to be contained in it is used in final rinsing
D. All of the above

__________ 183. Which of the following can be used in cleaning glass wares?
A. Sodium dichromate in sulfuric acid
 B. Trisodium phosphate solution
C. Solution of synthetic detergent
D. All of the above

__________ 184. The calibration of burets may be performed by means of :

A. Ostwald-calibrating pipet C. Mohr buret
B. Kiehl buret D. A and B only

__________ 185. Apparatus used in cooling the sample or object and keeping them dry.
A. Crucibles C. Dessicator
B. Rubber policeman D. Evaporating dish

__________ 186. The ideal type of buret used for bases:

A. Glass buret C. Geissler's buret
B. Teflon buret D. Mohr buret

__________ 187. It is an expression of the concentration for solution in terms of the number of milliequivalents
per milliliter of solution.
A. Molar C. Molal
B. Normal D. Formal

__________ 188. It is a process of determining the more accurate concentration of roughly prepared standard
solution.
A. Titration C. Calibration
B. Standardization D. Assay
__________ 189. May be defined as the weight of a substance chemically equivalent to 1 ml of the standard
solution.
A. Titrant C. Molarity
B. Equivalent weight D. Titer

__________ 190. Which of the following substance/s is/are the least used as primary standard grade for
standardization of basic solutions.
A. Sulfamic acid C. Potassium biphthalate
B. Benzoic acid D. THAM

__________ 191. The temperature specified in the USP and NF for volumetric measurement is:
A. 20 ºC C. 30 ºC
B. 25 ºC D. A and B only

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__________ 192. The theoretical point at which equivalent amounts of analyte and titrant have reacted is called:
A. End point C. Equivalence point
B. Stoichiometric point D. B and C only

__________ 193. Salt and water are always the products in ___ reaction.
A. Neutralization C. Complexation
B. Precipitation D. Redox

__________ 194. When a weak acid is titrated with strong alkali, the indicator of choice is:
A. Methyl red C. Phenolphthalein
B. Methyl orange D. No indicator can be used

__________ 195. Primary standard sodium carbonate must be heated at a temperature of about 270 ºC for one
(1) hour prior to use to convert any ___ that might be present to anhydrous sodium carbonate. A. NaHCO3 C.
CO2
B. H2CO3 D. H2O

__________ 196. Which of the following can be used to standardize HCl solution?
A. Anhydrous sodium carbonate C. Gravimetrically using AgNO 3
B. Standard NaOH solution D. All of the above

__________ 197. What is the use of barium hydroxide in the preparation of standard NaOH solution?
 A. Preservative
B. Precipitate any CO3 present in solution
C. Prevent reaction of NaOH with CO3
D. Catalyst

__________ 198. In the preparation of a standard solution of NaOH more than 1 equivalent, 4.0 g of NaOH is
weighed because it is:
A. Volatile C. Hygroscopic
B. Effervescent D. Corrosive

__________ 199. Milk of Magnesia is assayed by:

A. Direct acidimetry C. Residual acidimetry
B. Direct alkalimetry D. Residual alkalimetry

__________ 200. The most suitable indicator to use in the assay of sodium bicarbonate by direct acidimetry.
A. Methyl orange C. Phenolphthalein
B. Methyl red D. Thymolphthalein

__________ 201. The following substances can be assayed successfully only by residual method, EXCEPT:
A. ZnO C. Magnesium carbonate
B. Aspirin D. Acetic acid

__________ 202. The USP macro method for determination of total nitrogen is:
A. Method I C. Method III
B. Method II D. Method IV

__________ 203. In Kjeldahl method of nitrogen determination, addition of which of the following can hasten the
digestion of ammonia with sulfuric acid?
A. Potassium sulfate C. Copper sulfate
B. Selenium D. All of the above

__________ 204. Standardization can be optional to:

A. 0.1 N oxalic acid C. 0.1 N ceric sulfate
B. 0.1 N potassium dichromate D. 0.1 N silver nitrate

__________ 205. Roughly prepared standard solution of oxalic acid can be standardized using:
A. Pure iodine in KI C. Standad permanganate solution
B. Standard NaOH solution D. All of the above

__________ 206. Metal ion indicator is used in:

A. Precipitimetry C. Compleximetry
B. Fajan method D. Ceremetry

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__________ 207. Standard solution used in precipitation method:

A. Disodium edetate C. AgCl
B. Ammonium thiocyanate D. Ferric alum

__________ 208. Used to prevent one element from interfering in the analysis of another element:
A. Nitrobenzene C. Evaporation
B. Masking D. Buffering

__________ 209. Assay of sodium nitrite can be done using:

A. Indirect permanganometry C. Diazotization
B. Iodometry D. All of the above

__________ 210. The end point using this indicator is illustrated by the formation of a secondary colored
precipitate in:
A. Potassium chromate C. Fluorescein
B. Ferric alum D. Thiosulfate

__________ 211. Which of the following is added to maintain the pH of thiosulfate solution in optimum range for
the stability of the solution?
 A. Sodium carbonate C. Thymol
B. Sodium bicarbonate D. Chloroform

__________ 212. If starch TS is used as indicator, end point is illustrated by:

A. Appearance of blue color C. Either
B. Disappearance of blue color D. Neither

__________ 213. The equilibrium constant for the reaction of metal ion ith ligand is called:
A. Solubility constant C. Stability constant
B. Solubility product constant D. Ionization constant

__________ 214. What is the use of chloroforn in sodium tetraphenylboron titration?

A. Solvent C. Stabilizer
B. Extraction indicator D. Catalyst

__________ 215. Can be assayed by direct titration with standard acetic acid:
A. Sodium bicarbonate C. Ammonium chloride
B. Dilute HCI D. KOH

__________ 216. Which of the following is/are true about auxiliary complexing agent?
I. They are ligands
II. They are masking agents
III. Hydroxynapthol blue is an example
A. I only C. II and III only
B. I and III only D. I,II and III

__________ 217. Zn will not interfere in the analysis of Ca using EDTA at pH:
A. 2 C. 8
B. 4 D. 13

__________ 218. Bacteria labile solution:

A. Sodium thiosulfate C. Potassium dichromate
B. Potassium permanganate D. Oxalic acid

__________ 219. The oxidation number of sulfur in sodium thiosulfate is:

A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

__________ 220. Drugs containing Ca can be assayed by:

A. Gravimetric method C. Complexometric method
B. Compleximetry D. All of the above

__________ 221. Adsorption indicators are used in:

A. Precipitimetry C. Permanganometry

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B. Compleximetry D. Neutralization

__________ 222. Which of the following can Not be assayed by sodiyn tetraphenylboron titration?
A. KCI C. AgNO 3
B. NH4CI D. NaCI

__________ 223. Metal ion indicator that forms violet complex with Cu:
A. Dithiazone C. Hydroxynapthol blue
B. Pyridylazonaphthol D. Eriochrome black T

__________ 224. Which of the following is an oxidizing agent?

A. Thiosulfate C. Bromate
B. Arsenite D. Ferrous

__________ 225. To remove the stain of potassium permanganate, the most effective chemical is:
A. Chlorox C. Oxalic acid
B. Vinegar D. Calamansi juice
__________ 226. HCI and calcium carbonate will react to form a primary product known as:
A. Carbonic acid C. Calcium chloride
B. Calcium hydroxide D. A and B only

__________ 227. Differentiating titration is applied to:

A. Alkali solution C. Hard water
B. Mixture of acids D. Oxidant - reductant

__________ 228. Assay of selenium sulfide uses ___ method.

A. Iodometric C. Koppeschaar's
B. Iodimetric D. Titration with hypoiodite

__________ 229. Can be used in the assay of sodium chloride:

A. Mohr method C. Fajan method
B. Volhard method D. All of the above

__________ 230. True about permanganate method:

I. Reaction is carried out in acidic solution
II. Standard permanganate is used as titrant in direct and indirect method
III. No indicator is required

A. I and II only C. I and III only

B. II and III only D. I, II and III

__________ 231. Concentrated HCI ( 36.46 g/mol) has a purity of 36.5% w/w and sp.gr. 1.18; approximately
how many milliliter of concentrated HCI is needed to prepare 500 ml of 0.2 N solution? A. 3.1 C. 6.8
B. 5.7 D. 8.5

__________ 232. What weight of 98.5% KHC8H4O4 ( 204 g/mol) is equivalent to 40.0 ml of 0.1 N NaOH?
A. 0.82 g C. 0.84 g
B. 0.83 g D. 0.85 g

__________ 233. Exactly 30.2 ml of HCI was consumed in the titration of 1.6 gram of primary standard sodium
carbonate ( 106 g/mol). What was the normal concentration of HCI solution?
A. 0.5 C. 1.5
B. 1.0 D. 2.0

__________ 234. 33.5 ml of 0.9998N NaOH was sued in the titration of 50 ml HCI solution. Calculate the
normality of HCI.
A. 0.6689 C. 0.6699
B. 0.6779 D. 0.6969

__________ 235. A Sodium bicarbonate (84 g/mol) tablet was dissolved in 200 ml of water and consumed 38.2
ml of 0.1009 N HCI. Calculate the % labeled claim. The labeled amount was 325 mg. A. 99.0 % C. 99.6 %
B. 99.4 % D. 99.8 %

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__________ 236. Calculate the MgO (40.30 g/mol) content of milk of magnesia, 12.32 g of which was dissolved
in 50.00 ml of 1.034 N Sulfuric acid producing a mixture that required 24.6 ml of 1.1255 N
sodium hydroxide.
A. 3.63 % C. 3.83 %
B. 3.73 % D. 3.93 %

__________ 237. A 4.052 g sample of HCI sp.gr. 1.18 required 44.15 ml of 0.9035 N NaOH in a titration.
Calculate the Na2CO3 (106) titre of the sample.
A. 0.5 C. 0.7
B. 0.6 D. 0.8

__________ 238. Twenty sodium salicylate tablets labeled 325 mg were dispersed in sufficient water to make
200.0 ml. A 15.0 ml aliquot of the filtrate was titrated to a bromophenol blue end point in the
usual way by 29.11 ml of 0.1 N HCI. Calculate the percent labeled amount of C7H5NaO3
(160.11):
 A. 95.5 % C. 97.5 %
B. 96.5 % D. 98.5 %

__________ 239. Mixture of NaOH and Na2CO3 was assayed by double indicator method, 42.0 ml of a 0.0955
N HCI was consumed by 2.5 ml sample to produce pph end point. Calculate the %
Na2CO3 if % NaOH is 4.12.
A. 3 % C. 5 %
B. 4 % D. 6 %

__________ 240. 10 ml sample of diluted phosphoric acid consumed 35.0 ml of 1.002 N NaOH to produce a
thymolphthalein end point. If the indicator blank is 0.7 ml, what is the % w/v H3PO4 (98)? A. 16.2 % C. 16.8 %
B. 16.5 % D. 17.0 %

__________ 241. The experimental way of determining when equivalent amounts of reactants have reacted
together is known as.
A. Titration C. Standardization
B. Stoichiometric method D. Equivalence point

__________ 242. Assay of atropine in belladonna is an example of:

A. Proximate assay C. Both A and B
B. Ultimate assay D. Neither A nor B

__________ 243. A solution of known concentration used to standardize another solution is:
A. Primary standard C. Secondary standard
B. Dilute solution D. B and C

__________ 244. The process of determining the exact concentration of a solution is:
A. Standardization C. Redox
B. Neutralization D. Acidimetry

__________ 245. The type of ligand where EDTA belongs:

A. Unidentate C. Hexadentate
B. Bidentate D. Tridentate

__________ 246. Ferric alum TS is used as indicator in volumetric precipitation method if the titrant is:
A. AgNO 3 C. NH4SCN
B. BaCI2 D. NH4CI

__________ 247. The pH of a solution is usually measured using:

A. Platinum electrode C. Mercury electrode
B. Glass electrode D. Calomel electrode

__________ 248. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance is sued for:

A. Radioisotopes C. Identification of chemicals
B. Irradiation D. A and B

__________ 249. Potentiometry find application in:

A. Biologic assay C. Qualitative analysis

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B. pH determination D. A and B

__________ 250. In column chromatography, the separation of the sample mixture into a series of narrow bands
in a column is:
A. Chromatogram C. Development
B. Eluant D. A and C

__________ 251. Beer's plot in spectrometry is prepare to determine:

A. Absorbance the sample C. Absorbance the Blank
B. Wavelength be used D. Concentration of the sample

__________ 252. A plot of absorbance against concentration of a standard drawn in straight line is:
A. Charle's C. Lamber's
B. Beer's D. B and C
__________ 253. The study of the optical activity of a substance is:
A. Polarimetry C. Spectrophotometry
B. Refractometry D. Potentiometry

__________ 254. Chromatography can be sued to separate compounds that are:

A. Colored C. Precipitate
B. Colorless D. A and B

__________ 255. A water content determination method that uses xylene tube is:
A. Gravimetry C. Azeotropic method
B. Karlscher Tritrimetry D. Dew point method

__________ 256. In infrared spectrometry, water is not used as solvent for the sample because the water will:
A. Absorb IR radiation
B. Dissolve the sodium chloride cell holder
C. Not dissolve the sample
D. A and B only

__________ 257. The Law related to spectrometry wherein the power of transmitted light decreases
exponentially as the thickness of the solution increases arithmetically:
A. Charle's C. Lamber's
B. Beer's D. Henry's

__________ 258. The alcohol content of volatile oil can be determined by:
A. Bisulfite method C. Acetylization process
B. Complexation process D. A and C only

Problem Solving:
ACETAMINOPHEN ( 600 mg ) tablets contain nlt 90 % and nmt 110.0 % of the labeled amount of
C8H9NO2.
ASSAY:
Wt. of 20 tablets Acetaminophen =11.960 g
Wt. of reference standard: 102.2 mg diluted to 100 ml. 1 ml taken and diluted to 100 ml
Wt. of sample : 322.1 mg diluted to 100 ml. 0.04 ml taken and diluted to 100 ml
Absorbance of sample = 0.805
Absorbance of standard = 0.705

__________ 259. Based on the problem given, calculate the weight of one (1) tablet.
A. 0.598 C. 0.596
B. 0.569 D. 0.599

__________ 260. Calculate the weight of reference standard in the final dilution based on the problem given.
A. 0.01022 mg C. 0.0101 mg
B. 0.0102 mg D. 0.09090 mg

__________ 261. What is the weight of sample in the final dilution in mg,based your calculation on the problem
given?
A. 0.0129 C. 0.0128
B. 0.01288 D. 0.0134

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__________ 262. What is the percent purity based on the problem given?
A. 99.02 % C. 90.29 %
B. 92.90 % D. 90.60 %

__________ 263. What is the amount of acetaminophen in one (1) tablet? ( based your answer on the problem
given):
A. 539.39 mg C. 539.33 mg
B. 539.93 mg D. 541.79 mg

__________ 264. Calculate the potency ( % labeled claim) based your calculation on the problem given.
A. 89.90 % C. 89.09 %
 B. 89.99 % D. 90.30 %

__________ 265. Based on the problem iven, what is your disposition.

A. Approved C. Either
B. Disapproved D. Neither

__________ 266. If the sample of beeswax has an acid value of 18.45 and ester value of 74, what is the
saponication number of the sample?
A. 85 % C. 88 %
B. 98 % D. 92 %

__________ 267. Determine the iodine value of a sample of olive oil weighing 0.21 g if 24.15 ml and 12 ml of
0.11 N sodium thiosulfate solution are required for the blank and residual titrations,
respectively.
A. 76 % C. 85 %
B. 80 % D. 90 %

__________ 268. Water content determination by Karl Fischer, means:

A. Azeotrophic C. Dew point
B. Titrimetric D. Electrolytic hydrometric

__________ 269. Which of the following is the least in the Karl Fischer reagent?
A. Iodine C. Sulfur dioxide
B. Pyridine D. Ethanol

__________ 270. The minimum amount of moisture present in vegetable drugs should be ___ % for the
Toluene.
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4

__________ 271. If the wavelength of light is 10 - 7 cm, this is equal to one ___.
A. um C. Angstrom
B. nm D. m

__________ 272. Which of the following components of energy is NOT involved in spectroscopy?
A. Electronic C. Rotational
B. Vibrational D. Translational

__________ 273. Calculate the water equivalence factor of Karl Fischer (KF) reagent, if 179.5 mg sample of
sodium tartrate dihydrate required 15.3 ml of KF reagent?
A. 1.8 C. 2.2
B. 2.0 D. 2.4

__________ 274. A plot of absorbance against concentrations of a standard drawn in straight line is:
A. Spectral absorbance plot C. Beer's plot
B. Calibration curve plot D. Standardization plot

__________ 275. The radiant energy required in the analysis of drugs using fluometry.
A. UV C. IR
B. VIS D. All of the above

__________ 276. The following are used in Fourier Transformed Infra Red (FTIR) transmission technique,
EXCEPT:
A. KBr pellet C. Liquid petrolatum

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B. NaCI pellet D. ATR

__________ 277. Nephelometric method for drug assaying is applied to:

A. Suspensions C. Colloids
B. Turbid solutions D. B and C only

__________ 278. Which of the following substances is least applicable for ester value determination?
A. Fats C. Alcohols
 B. Essential oils D. Fatty oils

__________ 279. The bisulfite method is used on assaying volatile oils to determine:
A. Aldehyde content C. Ester content
B. Acid content D. Alcohol content

__________ 280. The principle involved in the isulfite method for assay of volatile oils is.... A.
Formation of insoluble complex C. Formation of soluble product
B. Formation of turbidity D. Formation of a dense liquid

__________ 281. In phenol content determination of volatile oil, the layer in the graduated neck of the cassia
flask reached 2.7 ml from the sample of 10 ml after treatment with KOH solution. The % oil is.. A. 73 % C. 7.3 %
B. 69 % D. 27 %

__________ 282. Which of the following is NOT true about NMR

A. C-NMR uses C-13 C. Sample probe is very small
B. Very sensitive analytical technique D. TMS is used as reference standard

__________ 283. The adsorbent used in paper chromatography is:

A. Cellulose C. Silica
B. Alumina D. Charcoal

__________ 284. In using a spectrophotometer to measure the concentration of the sample, the following date
were obtained: absorbance of the standard = 0.39, absorbance of the sample – 0.42, concentration of the
standard = 15 mcg. The concentration of the sample is ___ mcg. A. 16.15 C. 15.75
B. 17.5 D. 14.5

__________ 285. True about NMR spectroscopy, EXCEPT:

A. External magnetic field is applied to the sample
B. Radio wave is applied
C. Protium is used
D. Used for mixtures

__________ 286. Plane polarized light can be produced by using:

A. CaCO3 C. Icelandspar
B. Polaroid D. All of the above

__________ 287. Which of the following solvents in NOT used in NMR studies?
A. CCI4 C. Ether
B. CHCI3 D. CS2

__________ 288. Gypsum is added to silica which is used as adsorbent in TLC to serve as:
A. Hardening agent C. Thickening agent
B. Binder D. Lubricant

__________ 289. In gas chromatography, the stationary phase is:

A. Inert gas C. High boiling zliquid
B. Powedered adsobent D. Volatile oil

__________ 290. The operating speed for paddle in dissolution apparatus is:
A. 50 rpm C. 150 rpm
B. 100 rpm D. 200 rpm

__________ 291. GC is utilized in the resolution of:

A. Volatile compounds C. Water soluble compounds

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B. Biological compounds D. B and C only

__________ 292. In column chromatography, the resulting patterns with several bands is:
A. Chromatogram C. Spectrum
B. Eluate D. Adsorbate

__________ 293. When the current flows from SHE to the substance, the electrode potential of ___ is
 designated for the substance?
A. + C. 0
B. - D. >

__________ 294. U.S.P. Method 1 for iodine value determination is ___ method.
A. Hanus C. Hubi's
B. Wij's D. Wagner's

__________ 295. When alcoholic KOH is used to neutralize the acid and saponify the ester in 1 gm of the of fat,
the constant determined is:
A. Acid value C. Acetyl value
B. Ester Value D. Iodine value

__________ 296. Calculate the water content of Streptomycin powder using 3.5 g sample. The water
equivalence factor of the KF reagent was 4.6 and the volume consumed was 9.2 ml. The %
water content was:
A. 1.2 C. 12.1
B. 1.21 D. 1.1

__________ 297. In NMR analysis, many absorption peak are split into mutiplets because of the phenomenon
known as:
A. Proton chemical shifts C. Spin – spin coupling
B. Chemical exchange D. Nuclear magnetic moment

__________ 298. The adsorbent commonly used in GC is:

A. Alumina C. Siliceous earth
B. Calcium carbonate D. Cellulose

__________ 299. The relative tendency of metals, ions of molecules to gain or lose electrons can be studied
quantitatively by determination of:
A. Electrode C. Heat absorbed
B. Electron change D. SHE

__________ 300. Phenmetrazine HCI USP is assayed for chloride using 0.1 NagNO3 and the end point is
determined potentiometrically using:
A. Silver electrode as indicator electrode
B. Hg2SO4 as reference electrode
C. Ag reference and Hg 2SO3 indicator electrode
D. A and B only

Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy (PACOP) 2013