T.E (2015 Pattern)

Total No. of Questions :10] SEAT No.
:
P3558 [5560]-501
[Total No. of Pages :2
T. E. (Civil)
HYDROLOGY AND WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING
(2015 Pattern) (Semester - I)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70

Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer Q.No.1or Q.No.2, Q.No.3 or Q.No.4, Q.No.5 or Q.No.6, No.7 or Q.No.8,
Q.No.9 or Q.No.10.
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
Q1) a) State and explain applications of Hydrology. [6]
b) Write a note on sprinkler method of irrigation. Indicate the advantages

and disadvantages of this method of irrigation. [4]
OR
Q2) a) There are five rain gauges uniformly spread in a small area. The depth of
rainfall observed and area of Theissen polygons for the corresponding
rain gauges are given below. Determine average depth of precipitation.[6]
Rain gauge No. A B C D E
Rainfall depth (cm) 50 40 47 50 49

Area of Theissen 90 106 98 91 100
Polygons (sq.km)
b) An irrigation canal has gross command area of 50,000 hectares out of

which 80% is irrigable. The intensity of irrigation for Kharif and Rabi
season is 25% and 50% respectively. Find discharge require at the end
of canal if the duty at its head is 750 hectares/cumecs for Kharif season
and 1600 hectares/cumec for Rabi season. [4]
[5560]-501 1 P.T.O.
Q3) a) State and explain any two methods of Assessment of canal revenue. [4]
b) Derive an expression for discharge from a well fully penetrating confined
Aquifer. [6]
OR
Q4) a) Derive an expression for discharge from a well fully penetrating unconfined
Aquifer. [6]
b) What is mean by Duty and Delta? Derive a relationship between Duty
and Delta for a given Base period. [4]
Q5) a) State and explain various methods of base flow separation. [8]
b) Explain S-Curve hydrograph with neat sketch. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Given below are the observed flows from a storm of 6 hour duration on a
stream with a drainage basin area of 380 sq km. Assume a constant base
flow of 17 cumecs, derive ordinate of 6 hour duration unit hydrograph.[8]
Time (hr) 0 6 12 18 24 30 36 42 48 54 60 66 72
Flow (m3/s) 17 100 250 190 160 100 98 75 55 48 32 25 17
b) What is runoff what are the factors that affect the runoff from a catchment.
[8]
Q7) a) Explain in brief various investigations required for reservoir planning. [8]
b) Discuss various methods of reservoir sediment control. [8]
OR
Q8) a) What do you understand by mass curve and demand curve. [8]
b) Discuss the various types of storages in reservoir with sketch. [8]
Q9) a) Explain the Cooperative water distribution systems. [8]

b) Explain causes and effects of water logging. [10]
OR
Q10)a) What is mean by Alkaline and Saline land. [6]
b) Describe various methods adopted as anti-water logging measures.[12]

[5560]-501 2
Total No. of Questions :12] SEAT No. :
P3559 [5560]-502
[Total No. of Pages : 3
T.E. (Civil)
INFRASTRUCTURE ENGINEERING AND
CONSTRUCTION TECHNIQUE
(2015 Course) (Semester-I) (301002)
1) Answer any one from questions 1or 2, 3or 4, 5 or 6, 7 or 8, 9 or 10, 11 or 12.
2) Neat diagram must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right side indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
Q1) Explain the silent features of smart city. [6]

OR
Q2) What is PPP? Explain with suitable examples advantages & Disadvantages of
PPP Projects. [6]
Q3) a) What is Permanent Way? State the Component Parts of Permanent Way.
[4]
b) Explain Necessity of sleepers in Railway Track. What are the requirements
of good sleepers? [4]
OR
Q4) a) Describe the functions and requirements of rail in railway track. [4]
b) Define the following. [4]
i) Stock Rail ii) Tongue Rail
iii) Switch iv) Turnout
Q5) a) Explain Electro osmosis Dewatering process with the help of neat labeled
sketch. [4]
b) What is Grouting? Explain the Grouting methods in soft soil. [4]
OR
[5560]-502 1 P.T.O.
Q6) a) What are Diaphragm walls? Explain its Construction Methods. [4]
b) Explain the Vacuum Dewatering system in brief . [4]
Q7) a) State the various methods of tunneling in soft ground. Explain Needle
Beam Method with neat sketch. [6]
b) What is Mucking? State the various method of mucking? Explain any
one. [6]
c) Write a Short Note on Micro Tunneling. [4]
OR
Q8) a) Give the names of types and methods of Tunnel Ventilation. Explain any
one in Detail. [6]
b) Explain the Trenchless Tunneling Technique in Detail. [6]
c) With labeled sketch, Define the following terms. [4]
i) Shaft ii) Addit
iii) Portal iv) Pilot Tunnel
Q9) a) List out the various components of Port. Explain any two in detail. [6]
b) Define the term Breakwater. Explain necessity in detail. [6]
c) Write a short note on Wet Dock. [4]
OR
Q10) a) Discuss the site selection criteria for harbors. [6]

b) Define the term Port. Bring out the difference between Port and Harbor in detail.
[6]
c) Define the following terms. (any four) [4]
i) Fenders ii) Dolphin
iii) Quay iv) Bulkhead
v) Wharves vi) Jetty
[5560]-502 2
Q11) a) What are the various that are considered for calculation of output estimation of
equipment? Explain any two in detail. [6]
b) What is Depreciation? Explain any one method of Depreciation. [6]
c) Write a shot note on: Operating cost of Equipment. [4]
OR
Q12) a) Discuss in brief various factors affecting selection of equipment for a project.[6]
b) Write a short note on : [6]
i) Economic life of Equipment.
ii) Dumpers
c) Explain the Preventative Maintenance of Equipment. [4]
[[[[
[5560]-502 3
Total No. of Questions : 10] SEAT No. :
P3560 [5560]-503
T.E. (Civil)
STRUCTURAL DESIGN- I
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
1) Answer Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or Q.10
2) Neat sketches must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Take Fe 410 grade of steel
5) Take ultimate stress in bolt, fub = 400N/mm2
6) Assume suitabel data, if necessary.
7) Use of electronic pocket calculator IS: 800-2007 and steel table allowed.
8) Use of cell phone is prohibited in the examination hall.
Q1) a) Explain the terms gauge line, gauge distance, pitch, edge/end distance
with sketch. [5]
b) A strut consist of 2 ISA 80×80×8 mm @ 9.6 kg/m placed back to back
on opposite side of gusset plate is to carry factored load of 275 kN.
Design welded connection. [5]
OR
Q2) a) State the serviceability condition for tension member, compression
member, beam, gantry girder and purlin as per limit state method. [5]
b) Check the adequacy of an ISA 90×60×6 @ 6.8 kg/m to carry factored
axial tensile load of 150 kN for yielding and block shear only. Assume
longer leg is connected to 8 mm thick gusset plate by 4 numbers of M20
bolts. [5]
Q3) a) State and explain lacing for built-up column section and bracing in
industrial steel structures. [4]
b) A column of effective 8 m consist of 2 ISMC 350 @ 42.1 kg/m spaced
220 mm back to back. If the column is restrained in translation but not in
rotation at both ends, determine design compressive strength. [6]
OR
[5560]-503 1 P.T.O.
Q4) a) Differentiate slab base and gusseted base. [4]
b) Design the slab base for a column ISHB 350 @ 66.1 kg/m supporting a
factored axial compression of 1500kN. Consider grade of concrete as
M20. Take width of base plate as 410 mm. [6]
Q5) a) State and explain laterally restrained and unrestrained beam with suitable
sketch. [4]
b) Calculate safe uniformly distributed load over a laterally unsupported

beam ISMB 400@ 61.6 kg/m for an effective length of 6 m. Also check
for serviceability. [12]
OR
Q6) a) Explain different modes of failure of flexural members with sketches.

[4]
b) A simply supported beam of span 6 m loaded with uniformly distribute

load 25 kN/m including self weight. It also subject to two point load of
50 kN each at quarter span from supports. If the compression flange is
laterally restrained, design the section using I section. [12]
Q7) a) State and explain types of beam to column connections with suitable
sketches. [4]
b) A simply supported welded plate girder of span of 24 m subjected to

uniformly distributed load 30 kN/m throughout the span including the
self weight. Assume compression flange laterally supported throughout
the span, design cross section and curtailment of flange plate. [12]
OR
Q8) a) State and explain design steps to check of web buckling and web
crippling. [6]
b) Design a bolted beam column bracket connection to support an end

factored reaction of 400 kN from the beam. The column section is ISHB
150 @ 30.6 kg/m. Assume thickness of bracket plate is 10 mm and the
eccentricity of end reaction is 250 mm. [10]
[5560]-503 2
Q9) a) Differentiate welded plate girder and gantry girder. [4]
b) Determine the maximum wheel load, shear force and bending moment
for the gantry girder as per the following data. [14]
Self weight of crane girder: 200 kN
Capacity of crane :200 kN
Weight of crab and motor: 50 kN
Span of crane girder: 16 m
Minimum hook approach: 1.2 m
Center to centre between gantry column: 8 m
Self weight of rail: 0.3 kN/m
Wheel base = 3.5 m
OR
Q10) a) Differentiate purlin and gantry girder. [4]
b) A truss shown in Fig.10 b is used for an industrial building situated at
Allahabad covered with AC sheets. Determine panel point dead, live and
wind load with following data. [14]
Spacing of truss = 8 m
Self weight of AC sheet = 171 N/m2
Self weight of purlin = 318 N/m
Height of column = 11m
k1=1.0, k2=0.89, k3= 1.0, Cpe = -0.8 and Cpi = -0.2
[[[[
[5560]-503 3
P3561 [5560]-504
T.E (Civil)
STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS-II
(2015 Pattern) (Semester - I) (End Sem.)
1) Solve Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4, Q5 or Q6, Q7 or Q8.
3) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
Q1) a) Analyze the contineous beam by slope deflection method. Draw BMD
[10]
b) Analyze the contineous beam by moment distribution method. Draw

BMD. [10]
OR
Q2) a) Analyze the frame by Slope deflection method draw BMD [10]
[5560]-504 1 P.T.O.
b) Analyze the contineous beam by Flexibility matrix method. Draw BMD.
Take EI constant. [10]
Q3) Analyze the beam by Stiffness Matrix method Draw BMD. [16]
OR
Q4) Analyze the frame by stiffness matrix method. Draw BMD. [16]
Q5) A cantilever beam of span 1.2m with varying moment of inertia, carries a
concentrated load as shown. Determine deflection at free end. Take 4
nodal points. [8]
[5560]-504 2
b) Analyze frame by portal frame method. Determine approximate values
of moment. Shear force and axial force in each member. [10]
OR
Q6) a) A simply supported beam of span 10m is carrying ud1 of 6 KN/m over
the entire span. Determine deflection at nodal points, take fine nodes.
Take EI= constant. [8]
b) Determine the approximate values of moment, shear and axial forces in
members of frame as given in Q5b), using cantilever method. [10]
Q7) a) Explain plain stress and plain strain problem with example. [8]
b) Explain the principal of minimum potential energy. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Determine the shape functions for four noded rectangular element using
Lagrange polynomial. [7]
b) Explain the terms [9]
i) Nodes
ii) Discretization
iii) 2D Pascal Triangle

[5560]-504 3
P3562 [5560]-505
T.E. Civil
FLUID MECHANICS-II
(2015 course) (Semester-I) (301005)
Time : 2½Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
2) Figures to the right Indicate full marks.
3) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule mollier charts electronic pocket calculator
and steam tables is allowed.
5) Answer Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or Q.10, Q11 or Q12.
Q1) a) Explain in brief “ practical problems involving fluid flow around

submerged objects” [2]
b) Derive the following expression for emptying a tank through an orifice
at its bottom.
2 A  H1 − H 2 
T=
Cd .a. 2 g
[6]
OR
Q2) a) Describe in brief the phenomenon of “Water Hammer”. [2]
b) A jet plane which weighs 29.50 kN and having a wing area of 20m2 flies
at a velocity of 960 km/hr, when the engine delivers 7358 kW power.
65% of the power is used to overcome the drag resistance of the wing .
Calculate the coefficient of lift and drag for the wing. The density of
atmospheric air is 1.215 Kg/m3 [6]
Q3) a) A trapezoidal channel has a bottom width of 10.5 m and a side slope of
1.5 horizontal: 1 vertical. The Manning’s n can be taken as 0.016. What
bottom slope is necessary to pass 110m3/s of discharge in this channel
at depth of 3.1m? [6]
OR
[5560]-505 1 P.T.O.
Q4) Explain in brief with neat sketches “ Channel transitions”. [6]
Q5) Derive the conditions for the most economical trapezoidal Channel section.[6]
OR
Q6) A stationary hydraulic jump occurs in a rectangular channel with the initial and
sequent depths being equal to 0.25 m and 1.25 m respectively. Estimate
i) The discharge per unit width and
ii) energy loss [6]
Q7) a) Derive expression for the “ work done by the jet” in case of flat plate
inclined and moving in the direction of jet. [6]
b) Explain with neat sketch the working of a centrifugal pump. [6]
c) A centrifugal pump delivers water against a net head of 15 meter and

design speed of 1050 rpm the vanes are curved back to an angle of 30o
with the periphery. The impeller diameter is 40cm and width at outlet is
6 cm. Determine the discharge of pump if the manometric efficiency is
96%. [6]
OR
Q8) a) Derive the expression for minimum speed for starting a centrifugal pump.
[6]
b) What do you meant by priming? Explain its significance with respect to

working of centrifugal pump. [4]
c) A jet of water of diameter 8cm strikes a curved plate at its centre with a
velocity of 22 m/s.The curved plate is moving with a velocity of
10m/s in the direction of jet. The jet is deflected through an angle of
165o. Assume the plate is smooth. Find
i) Force exerted on the plate in the direction of jet
ii) Power of the jet and
iii) Efficiency of jet. [8]
Q9) a) Explain in brief the classification of turbines with respect to the following.
[8]
i) Type of energy at inlet
ii) Direction of flow
iii) Head at inlet of turbine
iv) Specific speed of turbine
[5560]-505 2
b) A hydraulic turbine is to operate at 181 rpm under a head of 31m. The
discharge is 26 m3/s and the overall efficiency is 85%. Determine the
performance of the turbine under head of 21 m. [8]
OR
Q10)a) i) Define specific speed. Explain the significance of specific speed.
ii) A turbine develops 7356 kW under a head of 24.5 m at 215 rpm.
What is its specific speed? Indicate the type of turbine suitable for
the purpose. [8]
b) A 140 mm diameter jet of water issuing from a nozzle impinges on buckets

of pelton wheel and the jet is deflected through an angle of 165º by the
buckets. The head available at the nozzle is 410m. Assuming the coefficient
of velocity as 0.97, speed ratio as 0.46 and reduction in relative velocity
while passing through buckets as 16%. Find
i) The force exerted by the jet on the bucket in tangential direction
and
ii) Power developed. [8]
Q11)a) Derive the following equation of GVF with usual notations. [8]
dy S −S
= o 2f
dx V 
1−  
 g. y 
b) Explain the Graphical method of Integration of GVF Computation. [8]

OR
Q12)a) Find the slope of the free water surface in a rectangular channel of width
20m having depth of flow 6m. The discharge through the channel is
55m3/s. The bed of the channel having a slope of 1 in 4500. Assume the
value of Chezy’s constant C=65. [6]
b) A wide rectangular channel carries a flow of 11m3/s/m width of the channel

with bed slope of 1 in 3500 and Manning’s n=0.015. If the depth at a
section is 4.5m, determine how far upstream or downstream of the section,
the depth of flow would be within 5% of the normal depth. Use direct
step method with two steps. Classify and sketch the profile. [10]

[5560]-505 3
P3563 [5560]-506
T.E. (Civil)
ADVANCED SURVEYING
(2015 Pattern) (Semester-II)

1) Answer Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8 Q.9 or Q.10.
2) Neat sketches must be drawn wherever necessary.
Q1) a) Explain the concept of intervisibility & height of triangulation station

with neat sketches? [5]
b) What is SBPS? State and explain various components of GPS. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the method of co-relates of adjustment of braced Quadrilateral.[5]

b) List out various potential error sources which affect the GPS signal or
result. [5]
Q3) a) Explain with neat sketches any two equipments used for measuring
sounding. [5]
b) How would you determine the flying height of a vertical photograph?[5]
OR
Q4) a) What is hydrographic surveying? State the various objects of carrying
out hydrographic surveying. [5]
b) Explain the process of flight planning with reference to (i) Flying height,
(ii) Number of photographs required to cover a given area,
(iii) Time interval between exposures. [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain clearly what is meant by side equation? How would you adjust a
geodetic quadrilateral without central station? [8]
b) What is meant by Satellite Station? What is its necessity in Geodetic
Surveying? Explain how you would reduce the angles observed at the
satellite station to the centre. [8]
OR
Q6) a) What is spherical excess? What are the methods of computing the sides
of a spherical triangle? Explain any one method. [8]
b) Find the most probable value of the angle A, B and C of a Triangle ABC
from the following observation. Use method of correlates. [8]
Angle Weight
A = 65° 15'30'' 3
B = 51° 11'25'' 2
C = 63° 32'34'' 4
Q7) a) Describe the procedure of measuring parallax difference using a Parallax

bar. [5]
b) Distinguish between terrestrial and aerial photography. Under what

circumstances you will recommend them. [5]
c) Vertical photographs were taken from height of 3048m, the focal length
of camera lens being 15.24 cm. If the prints were 22.86 cm*22.86 cm
and the overlap 60%, what was the length of the air base? [6]
OR
Q8) a) Discuss in brief the basic characteristics of photographic images used in

photo interpretation. [5]
b) How would you determine the flying height of a vertical photograph?[5]
c) In an aerial survey, if the speed of the aeroplane is 160 km/hr, the size of
the photograph is 18 cm * 18 cm and scale adopted is 1/10000, find the
interval between the exposures if the end overlap is 55%. [6]
[5560]-506 2
Q9) a) Describe in brief the location survey of a long bridge. [5]
b) Write short note on axis signal correction. [5]
c) Derive an expression with a neat sketch, how the difference in elevation

between two points, by single observation can be determined, when the
observed angle is the angle of depression. [8]
OR
Q10)a) Explain with neat sketch how the alignment of tunnel is transferred from
surface to the underground. [5]
b) Explain how you will take into account the effect of curvature and
refraction correction in angular measure. [5]
c) Explain clearly the procedure of determining the difference in elevation

of two points by reciprocal observation in geodetic trigonometric levelling.
[8]

[5560]-506 3
P3564 [5560]-507
T.E.(Civil)
PROJECT MANAGEMENT AND ENGINEERING ECONOMICS
(2015 Course) (Semester - II)
1) Answer Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4, Q5 or Q6, Q7 or Q8, Q9 or Q10.
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.
Q1) a) Discuss in detail importance of project management in construction

industry. [5]
b) Explain significance of organizational Structure in Management. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Explain in detail Work Breakdown Structure with suitable example. [5]
b) Explain the key features of PMBOK. [5]
Q3) a) Draw the network diagram and make out critical path [5]
Activity Duration
1-2 3
1-3 2
1-4 6
2-4 5
2-5 7
3-4 2
4-5 4
b) What are the objectives of Materials Management? Explain any two.[2+3]
OR
Q4) a) What do you mean by Inventory Control? How it can be achieve.[3+2]
b) Write a short note on Site Layout with sketch. [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain the use of Project Management Softwares in Construction
Industry. [6]
b) Explain steps in Project Monitoring. [4]
c) Explain the steps in project scheduling for a construction of road project.
[8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain Resource Allocation, write steps in resource smoothening and
leveling. [5]
b) What are the methods in Project Monitoring? Explain any one. [2+3]
c) Explain the terms [8]
i) Network Crashing,
ii) Resource optimization
Q7) a) Explain the Project Economics and its importance in Construction

Industry. [6]
b) Explain the Law of Demand and Elasticity of Demand. [6]
c) What are the factors affecting on Price Determination? [4]
OR
Q8) a) Difference between Cost, Value. [6]
b) Explain the types of Capital. [6]
c) Explain the FDI in Infrastructure. [4]
Q9) a) What are the types of Project Appraisals? Explain with example. [8]
b) Explain in detail the role of Project Management Consultants in Civil
Engg. field. [8]
OR
Q10)a) Write a short note on [9]
i) NPV
ii) IRR
iii) Pay-Back Period
b) Explain
i) Criteria Selection for project [4]
ii) Detailed Project report [3]
t t t
[5560]-507 2
P5566 [Total No. of Pages : 8

[5560] - 509
T.E. (Civil) (Semester - II)
STRUCTURAL DESIGN - II
(2015 Pattern)
1) Answer Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or Q.10 and
Q.11 or Q.12.
3) IS-456-2000 and non programmable calculator are allowed in the
examination.
5) Mere reproduction from IS Code as answer, will not be given full credit.
6) If necessary assume suitable data and indicate clearly.
Q1) Explain with neat sketch Balanced, Under reinforced and Over reinforced
section as per LSM. [5]
OR
Q2) Explain the terms bond stress and development length. Calculate development
length for 20mm diameter bar in compression and tension by LSM approach.
Use M25 concrete and Fe 500 steel. [5]
Q3) A reinforced concrete rectangular beam has width 230mm and total depth
600mm with effective cover of 25mm. The beam is reinforced with 3 bars
with 20mm diameter at support section at tension side. Calculate the shear
strength of the support section if 8mm diameter two legged stirrups are provided
at spacing 200mm C/C. Use M20 grade of concrete and Fe 415 grade of
steel. Use LSM. [7]
OR
Q4) A rectangular beam section, 230mm wide and 600mm depth is reinforced
with 4 bars of 20mm diameter in the tensile zone and 2 bars of 16mm in the
compression zone. The effective cover is 30mm for both the reinforcement.
Determine moment of resistance of the section using WSM. Use M 25 grade
of concrete and Fe 415 grade of steel. [7]
P.T.O.
Q5) A rectangular RC beam of size 300 mm x 750 mm with effective cover 40 mm
is subjected to following actions : [8]
I. Factored BM = 120 kN.m
II. Factored SF = 80 kN
III. Factored Torsional Moment = 30 kN.m
Design the beam for flexure and shear using M 25 & Fe 500 grade materials.
OR
Q6) Figure 1 shows the layout of a typical floor for an office building. The live
load and floor finish are 3.0 kN/m2 and 1.5 kN/m2, respectively. Design slab
panel S1 using LSM approach (Only for Flexure). The grade of concrete is
M20 and steel is Fe 500. Show details of reinforcement. [8]
Q7) a) Explain different parameters of interaction curves for the design of

columns. [4]
b) Design flight I and II of open well staircase as shown in Fig. 1, for
following data : [12]
Riser = 150mm, Tread = 250mm,
Floor to floor height is 3.3 m,
Width of Stair and landing = 1200 mm.
Material M25 & Fe500. Width of all beams is 230mm.
Draw the reinforcement details in sectional elevation for both flights.
OR
Q8) Design continuous one way slab of four span-S6-S7-S8-S9 as shown in Fig.1.
The slabs are supported by beams of width 230mm along all the edges. The
slab is subjected to floor finish of 1.5kN/m2 and live load 3kN/m2. Use Concrete
of grade M25 and Fe 500 reinforcement for moderate exposure condition.
Draw details of reinforcement. [16]
[5560]-509 2
Q9) A continuous R.C.C. floor beam B30-B31 (Refer Fig. 1) is simply supported
at end supports and continuous through column C9. Consider live load on
slab 3kN/m2 and floor finish 1.5 kN/m2. Assume slab thickness 130mm for
load calculation. Consider load of 150 mm thick brick wall of height 3m on
both the beams. Show detailed load calculations and determine support
moments, maximum span moments for all beams, using 20% redistribution of
moments. Draw bending moment diagram and design the beam only for
flexure by LSM. Show the reinforcement details along the length of beam
with suitable cross sections.
Material-Concrete of grade M20, Fe 500 reinforcement. [16]
OR
Q10) Using IS code coefficients design a continuous beam B19-B20-B21-B22 of
a typical floor for an office building shown in figure 1. All slab panels are 130
mm thick. The live load and floor finish for slabs are 3.0 kN/m2 and
1.5 kN/m2, respectively. This continuous beam also supports 230 mm thick
brick masonry wall of 3m height. Use LSM approach. Show details of tension
as well as shear reinforcement. Use M25 grade of concrete and Fe 500 steel.
[16]
Q11) a) Design a bi-axial short column by limit state method with material M25
and Fe 500 to carry Ultimate load of 1800 kN. Factored moment of 120
kN-m about major axis bisecting the depth of column and 45 kN-m
about minor axis bisecting the width of column. The unsupported length
of column is 3.6 m. The column is fixed at one end and hinged at the
other. Show details of reinforcement in plan and sectional elevation.
[14]
b) State the functions of longitudinal and transverse reinforcement in
columns. [4]
OR
Q12) Design a short axially loaded column and its isolated footing for carrying a
working axial load of 1000 kN. The effective length of column is 3.2 m. Use
M25 grade of concrete and Fe 500 grade of steel. SBC of soil is 230 kN/m2.
[18]
[5560]-509 3
[5560]-509 4
[5560]-509 5
[5560]-509 6
[5560]-509 7

[5560]-509 8
P3566 [5560]-510
T.E. (Civil Engineering)

ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING - I
(2015 Pattern) (End Sem.) (301011) (Semester - II)
1) Answer any 7 questions.
3) Your answer will be valued as a whole.
Q1) a) Determine equivalent noise level for the following noise level measurements
in premises. [5]
Time 4.30 am- 6.30 am- 8.30 am- 10.30 am- 12.30 pm- 2.30 pm-
6.30 am 8.30 am 10.30 am 12.30 pm 2.30 pm 4.30 pm
Sound 44 53 67 72 68 56
in (dB)
b) Give note on followings: [2+3]
i) Stable Atmosphere.
ii) Plume Behavior
Q2) a) What is per capita demand? Give the water requirement for average Indian
town on per capita basis. [6]
b) Forecast the population for the year 1961 & year 1971 from following
census data by Arithmetical Increase method. [4]
Census Year 1931 1941 1951
Population 35000 36500 37650
Q3) a) A setting tank is designed for an overflow rate of 5000 lit/m2/hr. What
percentage of particles of diameter (i) 0.08mm and (ii) 0.04mm will be
removed in this tank? Assume suitable data. [6]
b) Enlist the types of Aerators. And explain in details any one from it. [4]
[5560]-510 1 P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain the following terms: [5]
i) Coagulation.
ii) Surface overflow rate.
iii) Flocculator.
b) With neat sketch explain the components of Rapid sand Filter and the
step by step procedure of back washing. [5]
Q5) a) What is meant by Coagulation? Explain any one coagulant along with
chemical reactions. [3]
b) Discuss the followings: [3]
i) Detention Period.
ii) Surface Loading.
c) Explain how plain sedimentation is differing than sedimentation with
coagulation. [4]
Q6) a) Calculate the amount of bleaching powder required in kg per day for 10
MLD of water. The filtered water exerts a chlorine demand of 0.6 mg/lit
to leave residual chlorine of 0.2 mg/lit. Chlorine available from bleaching
powder is 40% [5]
b) Discuss in detail about Lime soda process and Ion exchange process.[5]
Q7) a) Explain in detail about Chlorine Ammonia treatment and state its merits.
[5]
b) Explain about followings: [5]
i) Sources of Fluorides.
ii) Electrodialysis.
Q8) a) Discuss the followings: [5]

i) Break Point Chlorination.
ii) Methods of disinfection.
b) With suitable sketch explain about Solar distillation technique. [5]
[5560]-510 2
Q9) a) Tabulate the comparison of Continuous and intermittent system of water
supply. [5]
b) Explain any three methods of Rain water harvesting. [5]
Q10)a) Discuss the following. [2+2+2]

i) Pressure in distribution system.
ii) Radial system of water distribution.
iii) Water leakage detection techniques.
b) Discuss the points on which total capacity of reservoir is depends. [4]

[5560]-510 3
P3567 [5560]-511
T. E. (Mechanical)
DESIGN OF MACHINE ELEMENTS-I
(2015 Pattern) (Semester - I) (302041)

1) Answer five questions from the following.
2) Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.
3) figures to the right side indicate full marks.
4) Use of non programmable electronic calculator is permitted.
5) Assume suitable/standard data if necessary.
Q1) a) Write in brief use of standards in design on machine element. What are
three basic types of standards used in a design office? [4]
b) The Standard cross section for a flat key, which is fitted on a 50mm
diameter shaft, is 16×10mm. The key is transmitting 475Nm torque from
the shaft to the hub. The key is made of commercial steel (Syt=Syc=230
N/mm2). Determine the length of the key, if the factor of safety is 3. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Classify the keys and explain it with neat diagram. [4]
b) Write design steps of cotter joint and state their applications. [6]
Q3) a) Explain different methods of reduction of stress concentration. [4]

b) A propeller shaft is required to transmit 45 kW power at 500 rpm. It is a
hollow shaft, having an inside diameter 0.6 times of outside diameter. It
is made of plain carbon steel and the permissible shear stress is 84
N/mm2. Calculate the inside and outside diameters of the shaft. [6]
OR
Q4) a) Explain the design procedure for rigid flange coupling. [6]
b) Explain the Soderberg and Goodman line diagram with neat sketch. [4]
[5560]-511 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain different forms of threads with neat sketch. [4]
b) A double threaded power screw, with ISO metric trapezoidal threads is
used to raise a load of 300kN. The nominal diameter is 100 mm and the
pitch is 12mm. The coefficient of friction at the screw threads is 0.15.
Neglecting collar friction.
Calculate
i) Torque required to raise the load;
ii) Torque required to lower the load;
iii) Efficiency of the screw. [12]
OR
Q6) a) Explain Re-circulating ball screw with neat sketch and its applications.[4]
b) The lead screw of a lathe has single start ISO metric trapezoidal threads
of 52 mm nominal diameter and 8mm pitch. The screw is required to
exert an axial force of 2kN in order to drive the tool carriage during
turning operation. The thrust is carried on a collar of 100 mm outer
diameter and 60mm inner diameter. The values of coefficient of friction
at the screw threads and the collar are 0.15 and 0.12 respectively. The
lead screw rotates at 30 rpm.
Calculate
i) The power required to drive the lead screw;
ii) The efficiency of the screw. [12]
Q7) a) What are the advantages of welded joints and threaded joints? [8]
b) Explain eccentrically loaded bolted joints in shear. [10]
OR
Q8) a) A steel plate 100 mm wide and 10mm thick is welded to another steel
plate by means of double parallel fillet welds. The plates are subjected to
a static tensile force of 50kN. Determine the required length of welds if
the permissible shear stress in the weld is 94 N/mm2. [12]
b) Explain and draw the neat sketch of cap screws. [6]
Q9) a) Explain and draw the neat sketch of the styles of ends of helical
compression spring. [6]
b) Design a helical compression spring subjected to a maximum force of
1250 N. The deflection of the spring corresponding to the maximum
force should be approximately 30mm. The spring index can be taken as
6. The spring is made of patented and cold drawn steel wire. The ultimate
tensile strength and modulus of rigidity of the spring material are 1090
and 81370 N/mm2 respectively. The permissible shear stress for the spring
[5560]-511 2
wire should be taken as 50% of the ultimate tensile strength. Design the
spring and calculate,
i) Wire diameter;
ii) Mean coil diameter;
iii) Number of active coils;
iv) Total number of coils;
v) Free length of the spring;
vi) Pitch of the coil. [10]
OR
Q10)a) What is meant by spring surge and explain its effect. [4]
b) A railway wagon moving at a velocity of 1.5 m/s is brought to rest by a
bumper consisting of two helical springs arranged in parallel. The mass
of the wagon is 1500kg. The springs are compressed by 150 mm in
bringing the wagon to rest. The spring index can be taken as 6. The
springs are made of oil hardened and tempered steel wire with ultimate
tensile strength of 1250N/mm2 and modulus of rigidity of 81370 N/mm2.
The permissible shear stress for the spring wire can be taken as 50% of
the ultimate tensile strength.Calculate:
i) Wire diameter;
ii) Mean coil diameter;
iii) Number of active coils;
iv) Total number of coils;
v) Solid length of the spring;
vi) Free length of the spring;
vii) Pitch of the coil;
viii) Required spring rate;
ix) Actual spring rate. [12]

[5560]-511 3
P3568 [5560]-512
T.E. (Mech.)
HEAT TRANSFER
1) Answers to one questions either or option.
4) Use of scientific non programmable calcultor is allowed.
Q1) a) Explain its variation of thermal conductivity with increase in temperature

for metals and non-metals. [4]
b) An exterior wall of a house consists of a 10.16 cm layer of common
brick having thermal conductivity 0.7 W/m.k. It is followed by a 3.8 cm
layer of gypsum plaster with thermal conductivity of 0.48 W/m.k. What
thickness of loosely packed rock-wool insulation (k = 0.065 W/m.k.)
Should be added to reduce the heat loss through the wall by 80%? [6]
OR
Q2) a) If temperature distribution for a thin and long fin, insulated at its tip is
T ( x) − T∞ cosh m ( L − x )
given by T − T = cosh mL Then show that the heat transfer
0 ∞
from the fin is given by Qfin = hpkAc (T0 − T∞ ) tanh mL. [6]
b) Define with their physical significance [4]

i) Biot Number
ii) Fourier Number
Q3) a) Explain the concept of critical thickness of insulation on cylinder with
the help of material and surface resistances. [6]
[5560]-512 1 P.T.O.
b) An aluminium sphere having radius 0.0809 m and initially at temperature of
350°C is suddenly immersed in a fluid at 30°C with convection coefficient of
60 W/m2.K. Estimate the time required to cool the sphere to 100°C. Take thermo
- physical properties as C= 900J/kg.K, ρ = 2700kg/m3, k=205 W/m.K. [4]
OR
Q4) a) Deduce an expression for centerline temperature distribution in a plane
wall under steady state heat conduction with uniform heat generation.
The wall is insulated on left surface and maintained at temperature Ts on
right surface You may use differential heat conduction equation in
d ⎛ dT ⎞ 90
x- direction as. ⎜ ⎟+ =0 [8]
dx ⎝ dx ⎠ k
b) A spherical electronic device (1.4 W/m.k) of 10 mm diameter generates
4W. It is exposed to air at 20° C with a convection coefficient of 20
W/m2.K. Find the surface temperature. [2]
Q5) a) Prepare formulation for Rayliegh number, Stanton number and Peclet
number and interpret them. [6]
b) A pipe carrying steam runs in a large room and is exposed to air at a
temperature of 30°C. The pipe surface temperature is 200°C. The pipe
diameter is 20 cm. If total heat loss rate from the pipe per metre length is
1.9193 kW/m, determine the pipe surface emissivity. Use correlation.
Nu = 0.53 (Gr Pr)1/4 and properties of air at 115°C kf = 0.03306 W/m.K,
v = 24.93 × 10-6 m2/s Pr = 0.687. [10]
OR
Q6) a) What do you understand by dimensional analysis? Develop the
dimensional analysis for one dimensionless term of forced convection.[8]
b) A metallic bar of 25 mm diameter is cooled by air at 30°C and with
velocity of 2.5 m/s. If the surface temperature of the bar is not to exceed
85°C. The resistivity of the metal is 0.015 × 10-6 Ohm per metre. Calculate
i) The heat transfer coefficient from the surface to air, and
ii) The permissible current intensity for the bus bar.
The properties of air v = 18.65 ×10-6 m2/s, kf = 0.0288 W/m. K and
Pr1 = 0.696 Use correlation Nu = 0.683 Re0.466 pr1/3 . [8]
[5560]-512 2
Q7) a) Define blackbody? What are its properties? Why does a cavity with a
small hole behave as blackbody? [6]
b) Two parallel infinite gray surfaces are maintained at temperature of
127° C and 227°C respectively. If the temperature of the hot surface is
increased to 327°C. By what factor is the net radiation exchange per unit
area increased? Assume the emissivity of colder and hotter surfaces to
be 0.9 and 0.7, respectively. [10]
OR
Q8) a) Write a short note on gray body approximation. [6]

b) A hot water radiator of overall dimensions 2×1×0.2 m is used to heat the
room at 18°C. The surface temperature of radiator is 60°C and its
surface is black. The actual surface of the radiator is 2.5 times the area
of its envelope for convection for which the convection coefficient is
given by hc = 1.3 ( T)1/3 W/m2.K. Calculate the rate of heat loss from the
radiator. [6]
c) Define irradiation and radiosity establish the relationship between them.[4]
Q9) a) Why drop-wise condensation is better than film-wise condensation. What

are practical difficulties to obtain drop-wise condensation? [4]
b) A condenser is employed in a steam power plant to handle 35,000 kg/h
of dry and saturated steam at 50°C. The cooling water enters the condenser
at 15°C and leaves at 25°C. the tubes are 22.5 mm inside diameter and
25 mm outside diameter. The water flows through the tubes at an average
velocity of 2m/s. The heat transfer coefficients are 7020 W/m.2.K on
water side is and 5000 W/m2.K on steam side. Ignore thermal resistance
of wall material
Calculate:
i) The mass flow rate of water.
ii) Heat transfer surface area.
iii) Number of tubes required for water flow.
[5560]-512 3
iv) Number of tube passes in condenser if the length of each tube per
pass should not be more than 2.5 m.
Assume that the condensate coming out the condenser is saturated
water i.e., steam loose only its latent heat of 2374kJ/kg.
Use properties of water as: ρ = 998.8 kg/m3, Cp = 4180J/kg. k,[14]
OR
Q10) a) Classify heat exchangers in brief. [2]
b) Define effectiveness of heat exchanger. How maximum heat transfer
rate is obtained? [6]
c) Consider the following parallel flow heat exchanger specification [10]
cold flow enters at 40°C : Cc = 20,000 W/K
hot flow enters at 150°C : Ch = 10,000 W/K
A = 30 m2, U = 500 W/m2. K.
Determine the heat transfer rate and the exit temperatures.
[[[[
[5560]-512 4
P3569 [5560]-513
T.E. (Mechanical/Automobile)
THEORY OF MACHINES - II
1) Answer Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or Q.10.
4) Use of logarithmic calculator is allowed.
5) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
Q1) a) Determine the number of teeth and pitch for two toothed wheels to
transmit a velocity ratio of 4:1 between two shafts, centre of which are at
676mm.The drive must satisfy tile following conditions: [6]
i) The standard module must be chosen from 24, 22,18,16,15,14,13,12
and 11.
ii) The actual distance between shaft centre must not vary by more
than 1% from the given data.
iii) The number of teeth must be as small as possible.
b) Define : [4]
i) Helix angle
ii) Lead angle
iii) Pitch cone angle
iv) Normal pressure angle.
OR
Q2) a) The following data relate to two spiral gears in mesh: Shaft angle = 90°,
centre distance= 160mm (approximately), normal circular pitch=8mm,
gear ratio=3, friction angle=5°. For maximum efficiency of the drive,
determine: [6]
i) The spiral angles of the teeth
ii) The number of teeth
iii) The exact centre distance
iv) The pitch diameters.
[5560]-513 1 P.T.O.
b) Two standard full depth gears of pressure angle 14.5° have a module of
5mm. The pinion has 15 teeth while the gear has 60 teeth. If the addendum
of the gear is equal to the module: [4]
i) Show that the gear will interfere with the pinion.
ii) To what value should the pressure angle be increased in order to
eliminate the interference?
Q3) a) An epicyclic gear train of a sun and planet type has the fixed outer
annular wheel A, sun wheel S rotating at a speed of 720rpm in clockwise
direction and the arm E carrying three planet wheel P needed to be driven.
If diametral pitch is same for all mating gears and sun wheel S and planet
wheel P have 15 and 45 teeth respectively. [8]
Determine :
i) Number of teeth on annular A.
ii) Speed and direction of rotation of planets.
b) Write any four types of special bevel gears. [2]
OR
Q4) Figure. l shows an epicyclic gear train in which driving gear A has 20 teeth, the
fixed annular gear C has 150 teeth and the ratio of teeth in gears D and E is
21:50. If 2 kW of power at a speed of 800 rpm is supplied to the gear A,
determine the speed and the direction of rotation of gear E. Also, find the
fixing torque required at the gear C. [10]
[5560]-513 2
Q5) a) Derive an expression for displacement, velocity, acceleration and jerk
for 2-3 polynomial advanced cam and also sketch the curves. [10]
b) Following data relates to cam and follower mechanism, find out speed
of cam in rpm and maximum usable speed of cam without jump if a cam
is an eccentric cam with eccentricity 3cm driving a follower of mass
1.5kg.The spring holding the cam has stiffness of 20N/mm and initial
compression 3.15cm. The jump is observed at 120° of cam rotation
from the lowest position of cam. {6]
OR
Q6) A roller follower cam with a roller diameter of 10mm is rotating clockwise.
The lift of the cam is 30mm and the axis of the follower is offset to the right
by a distance of 5mm.The follower completes the lift with SHM during 120°
of cam rotation. The dwell at lift is 60° of cam rotation. First half of the fall
takes place with constant velocity and second half with constant acceleration
and retardation during 120° of cam rotation. The rest is the dwell at fall. Draw
the cam profile giving details of construction and dimensions. Also, determine
maximum velocity and acceleration during outward stroke. Assume base circle
radius is 25mm. [16]
Q7) a) Determine the chebyshev spacing for function y = x1.4 for the range
1 < x < 4 where three precision points are required. For these precision
points, determine 1, 2, 3 & 1, 2, 3 if  = 40° &  = 90°. [10]
b) Find the three precision points in the interval of 30° to 110° by using
graphical method of chebyshev spacing. [6]
OR
Q8) a) Design a four bar mechanism with input link a, coupler link b & output
link c. Angles  for 3 successive positions are given below.
Position 1 2 3
 20° 35° 50°
 35° 45° 60°
Using Frudenstein’s equation, find out other links lengths b, c and d.

Assume link length a = 1. [10]
b) Derive an equation to evaluate kinematic coefficients for synthesizing the
four bar mechanism by using algebraic method. [6]
[5560]-513 3
Q9) a) A ship is propelled by a turbine having a mass of 6500 kg and a speed of
2600 rpm. The direction of rotation of rotor is anticlockwise when viewed
from the bow end. The radius of gyration of rotor is 460 mm. Determine
gyroscopic effect when: [14]
i) Ship is steering to the left in a curve of 60m radius at a speed of 18
knots (Take 1 knot = l856m/hr).
ii) Ship is pitching in SHM with bow descending with maximum
velocity. The time period of pitching is 20 seconds and the ship
pitches 7.5° above and 7.5° below the normal position.
iii) Ship is rolling and at the instant, its angular velocity is 0.035 rad/sec
counterclockwise when view from stern end.
iv) Also find the maximum angular acceleration during pitching.
b) Write any four advantages of stepless drive. [4]
OR
Q10)a) A four wheeler motor car of mass 2 tonnes has height of CG 60cm
above ground level. The engine parts and transmissions are equivalent to
a flywheel of 80kg with radius of gyration of 15cm and there axis coincides
with the axis of wheel. The car negotiate a curve of 60m radius (take
towards right turn) at 72 km/hr with overall gear ratio 4: 1. The radius of
road wheel is 30cm and its MI is 3kg-m2. Assume wheel track as 1.5m,
weight distribution as 50:50, determine reaction at each wheel. [12]
b) Draw and explain in detail working principle of any one type of CVT.[6]

[5560]-513 4
P3570 [5560]-514
T.E. (Mechanical/ Automobile)

METROLOGY AND QUALITY CONTROL
2) Solve Q.No.1 or 2, Q.No 3 or 4, Q.No.5 or 6, Q.No.7 or 8 & Q.No.9
4) Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed
Q1) a) Explain the terms: Calibration & Traceability. [4]

b) Write a note on ‘LVDT Comparator’. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Explain - Adverse effects of Poor Surface Finish. [4]
b) Find the shaft & hole dimensions with tolerance for a 85H8e9 pair given
the following data with standard notations -85 mm lies in diameter step
of 80 to 100 mm. Upper deviation for e shaft= –11D^ 0.41, Tolerance
unit, i=0.45(D)^0.33 + 0.001D. IT8=25i & IT9=40i. Show it with a
diagrammatic representation. What type of fit it is ? [6]
Q3) a) Calculate the effective diameter of metric threads using two wire method:
Micrometer reading over standard Cylinder with two wires=15.64mm,
Micrometer reading over the gauge with two wires = 15.26 mm, Wire
diameter = 2 mm, Thread pitch =2.5mm, Standard cylinder
diameter=18mm. [5]
b) Explain various errors in Spur gears. [5]
OR
Q4) a) Explain any 4 symbols of Geometrical Dimensioning & Tolerancing
(GD & T) [4]
b) Write a note on NPL Flatness Interferometer. [6]
[5560]-514 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) Enlist Basic & New Seven Quality Tools & explain any 2 of them. [8]
b) Comparison between Deming’s & Juran’s Quality Concepts. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Write a note on Quality of Design, Quality of Conformance & Quality of
Performance with their co-relationship. [8]
b) Explain importance of quality deployment at design & manufacturing &
elaborate importance of initial planning for quality. [8]
Q7) a) Enlist different types of control charts & their applications/ uses. Elaborate
on ‘Control Chart Patterns’ [10]
b) The number of defects found in each sample of paper of 1 square meter
area are shown below. Draw appropriate control chart & stare whether
the process is under control or not. If sample falling outside control
limits is taken out, what are the new control limits. [6]
Sample 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
No. of 5 6 2 5 2 6 6 13 6 5 6 4
defects
found
OR
Q8) a) Explain the concept of Process Capability & the indices Cp, Cpk &
Ppk. [8]
b) The lot size N is 2000 in a certain AOQL inspection procedure. The
desired AOQL of 2 % can be obtained with any one of the three sampling
plans. These are: (i) n=65 c=2, (ii) n=41, c=1 & (iii) n=18, c=0. If a large
no. of lots 0.3% defective are submitted for acceptance, what will be the
average no.of units inspected per lot under each of these sampling
plans?Take Pa= 0.999,0.993&0.947 for plan-i), ii) & iii) respectively [8]
Q9) Write note on (Any 3) [18]

a) ‘House of Quality’ matrix
b) FMECA
c) TPM
d) Poka-Yoka
e) Six Sigma
f) 5S

[5560]-514 2
P3571 [5560]-515
T.E. (Mechanical)
REFRIGERATION AND AIR CONDITIONING
(2015 Pattern) (Semester-II)
3) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam tabies is allowed.
Q1) a) Draw the neat schematic of ice plant and explain its working. Discuss the
secondary refrigerants used in ice plant. [5]
b) Explain ozone depletion reaction. Describe alternatives for unitary air

conditioning systems. [5]
OR
Q2) a) 300kJ/min refrigeration system operates on a vapor-compression

refrigeration cycle with refrigerant R-134a as the working fluid and an
isentropic efficiency of 85 percent for the compressor. The refrigerant
enters the compressor as a saturated vapor at 1.40 Bar and is compressed
to 8.00 Bar. Determine (a) the quality of the refrigerant at the end of the
throttling process, (b) the coefficient of performance and (C) the power
input to the compressor. [6]
b) Explain the design features of an air conditioning system for multiplex.[4]
Q3) a) Explain Linde-Hampson cycle with neat diagram. Give its applications.
[5]
b) Discuss the methodology for calculating LCCP of various refrigerants.

[5]
OR
[5560]-515 1 P.T.O.
Q4) A system working with ammonia as refrigerant is shown in fig. [10]
Assuming saturated conditions at the exit of evaporators and condenser,

ammonia vapour to behave as an ideal gas with a gas constant of
0.4882 kJ/kg. K and isentropic index (Cp/Cv) of 1.29, and isentropic
compression :
a) Find the required power input to compressor in kW
b) Find the required power input if instead of using a single
compressor, individual compressors are used for low and high
temperature evaporators.
Use properties from table.
T°,C P sat hf (kJ/kg) hg (kJ/kg)
(kPa) (sat.liquid) sat.vapour
-34.4 95.98 44.0 1417
-6.7 331.8 169.1 1455
27.7 1080.0 330.4 1485
Q5) a) A retail shop located in a city has the following cooling loads: [12]
Room sensible heat = 58.15 kW
Room latent heat = 14.54 kW
Indoor and outdoor design conditions are:
Outside : 40°C DBT, 27°C WBT
Inside : 25°C DBT, 50% RH
[5560]-515 2
70 cmm of ventilation air is used. Determine the followings:
Ventilation load, GTH, ESHF, ADP dehumidified air quantity, condition
of air entering and leaving apparatus.
Take Bypass factor of apparatus as 0.15
b) Write a note eon : IAQ Requirements. [6]
OR
Q6) a) Explain: Specific humidity, Relative humidity, and WBT. [6]
b) A laboratory has the following cooling loads: [12]
Room sensible heat = 50 kW
Room latent heat = 12 kW
Indoor and outdoor design conditions are :
Outside : 40°C DBT, 27°C WBT
Inside : 25°C DBT, 50% RH
50 cmm of ventilation air is used. Determine the followings, if coil ADP

is 10°C:
Ventilation load, GTH, ESHF, BF, dehumidified air quantity, condition

of air entering and leaving apparatus.
Q7) a) With neat schematic explain all air system. What are the advantages and
disadvantages over all water system? [8]
b) Classify refrigerant compressor. Explain working of any two in details.[8]
OR
Q8) a) Draw neat diagram of EXV and explain its working. What is the selection
criteria for expansion device? [8]
b) Describe all year round air conditioning system. [8]
[5560]-515 3
Q9) a) Classify duct system. Explain commonly used duct materials. [6]
b) In the duct layout shown in Fig. Below, outlet 1 and 2 deliver 20 cmm
each and outlet 3 delivers 28 cmm. Select the velocity of 8 m/s in section-
A. Size the duct system using the equal friction method and determine its
static pressure requirement. [10]
Q10) a) Explain types of fans used in ducting system. Give their selection criteria. [6]
b) Explain, how pressure loss is calculated in the followings: [10]
i) Elbow
ii) Bends
iii) Tees
iv) Enlargement and contraction
v) Divided flow fittings.
[5560]-515 4
[5560]-515 5

[5560]-515 6
P3572 [5560]-516
T.E.(Automobile & Mechanical)

NUMERICAL METHODS AND OPTIMIZATION
(2015 Course) (Semester - II) (302047)
1) Answer Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4, Q5 or Q6, Q7 or Q8, Q9 or Q10, Q11 or Q12.
4) Use of calculator is allowed.
Q1) Explain the convergence and divergence of Successive Iterative method with
graphical representation. [6]
OR
Q2) Solve by Bisection method x3 – 4x + 1 = 0 correct up to two decimal places.[6]
Q3) Solve the following equation by Gauss Elimination method, [6]

2x + 3y – z = 5, 4x + 4y – 3z = 3, 2x – 3y + 2z = 2
OR
Q4) Solve the following simultaneous equations using Tridiagonal Matrix Algorithm
(TDMA), [6]
5x1 – x2 = 5.5
–x1 + 5x2 – x3 = 5
–x2 + 5x3 – x4 = 11.5
–x3 + 5x4 = 16.5
Q5) Solve the following problem of LPP graphically, [8]

Maximize Z = 2x1 + 5x2
Subject to, x1 + 4x2 ≤ 24
3x1 + x2 ≤ 21
x1 + x2 ≤ 9
x1, x2 ≥ 0
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) Write a short note on Simulated Annealing with flowchart and applications in
detail. [8]
Q7) a) Solve the second order differential equation y″ = xy′2 – y2 for x = 0.2
correct to 4 decimal places. Initial conditions are x = 0, y = 1, y′ = 0, by
Runge Kutta 2nd order. Increment in x = 0.1. [10]
b) Solve the equation uxx + uyy = 0 for the square mesh with the boundary
values as shown below : [8]
1000 1000 1000 1000
D B
u1 u2 500
2000
u3 u4 0
2000
A 0
1000 500 0 C
OR
Q8) a) Solve the boundary value problem ut = uxx subjected u(0,t) = u(1,t) = 0
u(x,0) = sinπx, 0 ≤ x ≤ 1, using Bender Schmidt method taking h = 0.2
and k = 0.02. [10]
b) Draw flow chart for Solution of Ordinary Differential Equation by Runge

Kutta 4th order. [8]
Q9) a) It is known that the curve y = axb fits the data given below. Find the best
values of a and b. [8]
x 1 2 3 4 5 6
y 1200 900 600 200 110 50
b) From the following data, find y at x = 43. [8]
x 40 50 60 70 80 90
y 184 204 226 250 276 304
OR
[5560]-516 2
Q10)a) Draw the flowchart for fitting second degree curve using Least Square
Technique. [8]
b) Following data gives values of y corresponding to the values of x. Find
value of x when y = 3.5 by applying Langrange’s interpolation. [8]
X 1 2 5 7
Y 1 12 117 317
Q11)a) Find double integration of f(x,y) = 1/(x + y) for x = 2 to 3.2 and y = 1 to

2.8 taking no of steps in both x and y as nx = ny = 3. Use Trapezoidal
rule. [8]
b) The table below gives the velocity v of a moving particle at time t seconds.
[8]
T 0 2 4 6 8 10 12
V 4 6 16 34 60 94 136
Find the distance covered by the particle in 12 seconds using Simpson’s
1/3rd rule.
OR
Q12)a) Draw flow chart for Simpson’s 3/8th rule. [8]
0.8
b) Evaluate I = ∫ [log ( x + 1) + sin 2 x ] dx
0
e by using Gauss quadrate two
point formula. [8]
t t t
[5560]-516 3
[5560] - 517
T. E. (Mechanical)
DESIGN OF MACHINE ELEMENTS - II
(2015 Pattern) (Semester - II)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks :70

1) Answer Q No.1 or Q No.2, Q No.3 or Q No.4, Q No.5 or Q No.6, Q No.7 or Q No.8,
Q No.9 or Q No.10.
Q1) a) What are the considerations while selecting the facewidth for a gear tooth?
[3]
b) A pair of involute spur gears consisting a 20 teeth pinion meshing with
40 teeth gear Both the gears are made of steel with ultimate tensile strength
480 MPa. The static load on pinion is 1234 N while the dynamic load on
the gears is 936 N. The service factor may be taken as 1.5. Both the
gears are hardened to 400 BHN. Taking lewis form factor of 0.32 for
pinion, module 3 mm and face width twelve times the module determine
the factor of safety in bending and pitting. [7]
OR
Q2) a) What is bevel factor? Explain the significance of the same. [4]
b) A pair of parallel helical gears made of plain carbon steel consists of a 20

teeth pinion and 60 teeth gear. The material for pinion and gear have
ultimate tensile strength 720 N/mm2. The normal module of the gear is 3
and face width 32 mm. Find the static load and power transmitted by
this pair based on lewis equation, consider service factor 1.5 and factor
of safety 2, barth factor 0.623 & lewis form factor 0.32. [6]
[5560]-517 1 P.T.O.
Q3) a) Derive an expression for virtual number of teeth on a helical gear. [4]
b) A pair of straight teeth bevel has a 20 teeth pinion meshing with a 36 teeth
gear and transmitting power at right angles. Pinion receives power 3 KW
at 1500 rpm. Gears are made of steel with ultimate tensile strength 400
MPa. Determine the factor of safety based on Lewis equaction taking
barth factor 0.33712, service factor 1.5 and bevel factor 0.72265, Lewis
form factor 0.342. Gears have a module 4 mm and face width 32 mm.[6]
OR
Q4) a) Describe following terms (Any two) : [4]
i) Static load carrying capacity
ii) Dynamic load carrying capacity
iii) Rated life of bearing
b) A single row - deep grave ball bearing is subjected to a radial load of 5
KN and thrust load of 2 KN. The radial and thrust factors may be taken
as 0.56 and 1.5 respectively. The shaft rotates at 1500 rpm. The diameter
of the shaft 75 mm and bearing 6315 with c = 112000 N is selected for
this application Estimate. [6]
i) Life of bearing with 90% reliability
ii) Reliability for 20000 hours life.
Q5) a) Explain single and double enveloping worm with neat sketch. [6]
b) A worm gear box with an effective surface area of 1.5 m2 is operating in
still air with a heat transfer coefficient of 15 w/m2 °C. The temperature
rise of the lubricating oil above the atmospheric temperature is limited to
50 °C. The worm gears are designated as 1/40/10/4. The worm shaft is
rotating at 1440 rpm and normal pressure angle is 20°. Calculate the
Power transmitting capacity based on the thermal considerations and the
forces acting an worm and worm gear teeth. [10]
OR
Q6) a) What is irreversibility of worm gear drives? How it is achieved? [4]
b) A pair of worm and worm wheel is designated as 2/52/10/4. worm receives
5 KW Power at 720 rpm. The coefficient of friction may be taken as
0.03 and the pressure angle is 20°. Calculate the tangential, axial and
radial components of the resultant gear tooth force acting on the worm
wheel. If worm rotates in counter clockwise direction seen from left
worm is situated below worm gear. Represent the directions of the tooth
forces on a neat sketch. [12]
[5560]-517 2
Q7) a) Explain the selection of flat belt from manufacturer’s catalogue. [8]
b) The following data is given for an open type v belt drive.
Diameter of driving pulley 50 mm
Diameter of driven pulley 300 mm
Centre distance 1m
groove angle 40°, mass of belt 0.25 kg/m.
Maximum permissible tension 750N.
Coefficient of friction 0.18
Calculate the maximum power transmitted by the belt and corresponding
belt velocity Neglect power losses. [10]
OR
Q8) a) Describe various types of chains along with the neat sketch, applications.
[6]
b) Explain following. [12]
i) Belt tensioning methods
ii) Wire rope construction
iii) Ribbed v belts
Q9) a) Describe various desirable properties of bearing materials. [4]

b) The following data is given for a 360° hydrodynamic bearing. [12]
Radial load 3.2 kN
Journal speed 1500 rpm
Diameter of journal 50 mm
Length of bearing 50 mm
Radial clearance 0.05 mm
Viscosity of lubricant 30 cp.
Assuming that the total heat generated is carried away by the lubricant
calculate
i) Coefficient of friction
ii) Power lost in friction
iii) Minimum oil film thickness
iv) Flow requirement in litres / min
v) Temperature rise
Use Table 1 data
OR
[5560]-517 3
Q10) a) Following data is given for 360° hydrodynamic bearing [12]
Radial load 8 kN
Journal speed 1200rpm
Journal diameter and 60 mm
length of bearing
Minimum oil film thickness 0.009 mm
The class of fit is H > e > (fine) running fit specify the viscosity of the
lubricant for this application. Use the data from Table 1
TABLE 1
1 ho r Q Qs
 s  f rcnsl Q
d c c
0.4 0.6 0.264 5.79 3.99 0.497
0.6 0.4 0.121 3.22 4.33 0.680
0.8 0.2 0.0446 1.70 4.62 0.842
b) Explain various bearing design parameters. [4]
***
[5560]-517 4
P3574 [5560]-518
T.E. (Mechanical)
TURBO MACHINES
(2015 Pattern) (Semester-I) (302044)
3) Use of Scientific Calculator and steam table is allowed.
4) Assume data wherever necessary and mention it.
5) Draw neat and suitable figures wherever necessary.
Q1) a) Derive the expression for the force exerted by a jet of water on a hinged
plate in the direction of jet. [4]
b) A double jet Pelton Wheel has a specific speed of 14 and is required to
deliver 1000 kW. The turbine is supplied through pipeline from a reservoir
whose level is 400 m above the nozzles. Allowing 5% for frictional loss
in the pipe, calculate:
i) Speed in RPM
ii) Diameter of jets
iii) Mean Diameter of Bucket circle
Take Cv = 0.98, speed ratio=0.46 and overall efficiency = 85%, the
specific speed is based on power output per jet. [6]
OR
Q2) a) For the Francis turbine following data is available shaft power = 130 kW
Net Head = 9m, Speed = 120 RPM, Overall Efficiency = 75%,
Hydraulic efficiency = 90% Velocity of flow at inlet = 1.15
Maximum absolute velocity at inlet = 3.45  Assume radial discharge
at exit, Find
i) Guide blade angle and moving vane angle at inlet
ii) Diameter of runner at inlet. [6]
b) Define unit quantities for the turbines. [4]
[5560]-518 1 P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain the necessity of draft tube in reaction turbines. [4]
b) A Kaplan turbine operates at a discharge of 77 m3/s. The runner diameter
and hub diameter are 4.2m and 1.5m respectively. Taking the speed ratio
of 2.1, determine
i) The net head,
ii) The power developed and
iii) The specific speed. Assume the mechanical and hydraulic efficiency
of 88% and 92% respectively and no whirl at outlet. [6]
OR
Q4) a) Define
i) Mechanical efficiency
ii) Run away speed. [4]
b) A jet of water 5cm diameter moving with a velocity of 25m/sec. Strikes
horizontally a single moving vane, moving in the direction of jet with
velocity of 16m/sec. The vane deflects the jet through 130o. Find the
axial force exerted by the jet on the vane. Also find the velocity and
direction of water at outlet. Neglect friction. [6]
Q5) a) Compare impulse turbine & reaction steam turbine. [4]

b) Explain the need of compounding in steam turbines. Discuss any one
method. [4]
c) Steam issues from the nozzles at angle of 20o at a velocity of 440m/s.
The friction factor is 0.9. For a single stage turbine designed for maximum
efficiency, determine
i) the blade velocity
ii) moving blade angles for equi-angular blades
iii) the blade efficiency
iv) the stage efficiency if the nozzle efficiency is 93%
v) power developed for a mass flow rate of steam of 3kg/s. [8]
OR
[5560]-518 2
Q6) a) For a certain stage of 50% reaction turbine mean root diameter is 1.35m
and speed ratio is 0.69. The rotor speed is 3000 rpm and outlet blade
angle is 55o. Find:
i) Inlet blade angle
ii) Blade efficiency and maximum blade efficiency [8]
b) Define the following terms
i) Diagram efficiency
ii) Nozzle efficiency [4]
c) Explain with neat sketch throttle governing of steam turbine. [4]
Q7) a) Explain the effect of blade angle (outlet) on discharge in centrifugal pump.
[4]
b) Explain NPSH and cavitation with respect to centrifugal pump. [4]
c) A three stage centrifugal pump has impeller diameter at outlet 400 mm
and 20 mm wide. The vane angle at outlet is 45o and the area occupied
by the thickness of vane is 8% of total area. Inner diameter of impeller is
half of outer diameter and inlet width is twice as that of outlet. The pump
discharges 3.6 m3 per minute and runs at 920 rpm. Flow velocity is
constant from inlet to outlet. Find
i) Power output of pump in kW.
ii) Total manometric head
iii) Specific speed
iv) Shaft Power
v) Vane angle at outlet
Take mechanical efficiency = 88%
Manometric efficiency = 77%. [10]
OR
Q8) a) A centrifugal pump at 900 rpm has an impeller diameter of 500mm and
eye diameter of 300 mm. The blade angle at outlet is 35o with tangent.
Determine assuming zero whirl at inlet, the inlet blade angle, absolute
velocity at outlet and its direction and the manometric head. The velocity
of flow is constant throughout and is 3 m/sec. [10]
b) What is the significance of specific speed? Derive the relation for the
same for centrifugal pump. [4]
c) Explain different types of casing used in centrifugal pumps. [4]
[5560]-518 3
Q9) a) Explain the construction and working of an axial flow compressor. [6]
b) A centrifugal compressor develops a pressure ratio of 5 and an air
consumption of 30 kg/s. The inlet temperature and pressure are 15oC
and 1 bar respectively. If isentropic efficiency is 0.85, Calculate
i) The work done
ii) Exit total temperature
iii) the power required. [6]
c) Describe the classification of compressors. [4]
OR
Q10)a) Following data is given for a centrifugal compressor.

i) RPM = 15000
ii) Air flow rate = 30 kg/sec.
iii) Air enters the compressor axially
iv) Conditions at exit : Radius = 0.3 m and relative velocity of air at the
tip = 100 m/s at an angle of 80o. Find the torque and power required
to drive the compressor. [8]
b) Explain surging and chocking of centrifugal compressor. [8]

[5560]-518 4
P3575 [5560]-519
TE (Mechanical) (Mechanical S/W)

MECHATRONICS
4) Assume Suitable data if necessary.
Q1) a) Draw a suitable diagram and explain the working of the 2 bit R-2R type
Digital to Analog converter. [6]
b) Discuss, in detail, any four criterion for accessing the measurement
performance of a rotary Potentiometer. [4]
OR
Q2) a) A 4-bit DAC has a Vref of 0-10 V. For a binary input of 1010, find the
equivalent analog output voltage given by the DAC. [6]
b) Using a suitable diagram, explain the working of an optical type proximity
sensor. [4]
Q3) a) Using a suitable diagram explain the application of Mechatronics in an

automotive system. [8]
b) Discuss, in brief, the operating principle of the LVDT type position sensor.[2]
OR
Q4) a) Reduce the block diagram in Figure 1 and determine the transfer function:
X/Y. [8]
b) Discuss, in brief, the operating principle of the Thermocouple. [2]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Given three push to on switches (P1, P2, and S), with two lamps (L1
and L2), write a PLC program to satisfy following objectives. [10]
i) When P1 (start switch) is pushed, L1 shall go On and cycle shall
start. the cycle shall continue to remain On until P2 (stop switch) is
pushed.
ii) When L1 is On then L2 is Off and vice a versa.
iii) When S switch is pushed for four times the program shall stop.
iv) When P2 (stop switch) is pushed, the program shall stop.
v) When program stops, L2 shall be On.
b) Draw a suitable diagram and discuss, in detail, the working of a PLC. [6]
OR
Q6) a) Consider a tank with inflow valve V1 and outflow valve V2 connected to
the tank at top and bottom respectively. The level high (LH) and level
low (LL) float switches are mounted at top and bottom to indicate the
level. Develop a PLC ladder program to achieve the following objectives:[10]
i) When LL is OFF and LH is OFF, the V1 should be ON
ii) V1 shall continue to be ON till LH is ON
iii) When LL and LH is ON, V1 should be OFF and V2 should be ON
iv) V2 should continue to be ON till LL is OFF
b) Using suitable example, explain the working of the following in a PLC. [6]
i) Timer
ii) Counter
Q7) a) A mass spring damper system is mounted on an massless cart as shown

in Figure 2. Derive the transfer function between output y and input u.[10]
b) Using Routh Hurwitz criterion, determine the range of K that would

confirm closed loop stability of system given by Eq. (2). [6]
s + 101.71s + 171s+6.63K = 0
3 2
OR
[5560]-519 2
Q8) a) For the system in Figure 3, assume m=mass=2 kg, k=stiffness=4 N/m
and b=damping = 0.3 Ns/m. Also, F=Force input in N and x =
displacement output in m. [10]
For this system:
i) Derive the transfer function: x(s)/F(s),
ii) Identify the location of the Poles and Zeros and
iii) Comment on the absolute stability of the system.
b) Draw suitable sketch to depict the unit step response of a generic second
order system when its: [6]
i) poles are negative, real and collocated
ii) poles are complex conjugate pair with negative real part
iii) poles are a imaginary pair with no real part
[5560]-519 3
Q9) a) Figure 4 shows an error versus time graph. Sketch the PD controller
(parallel form) output with respect to time. Assume Kp = 10%/s,
KD= 0.5 % /s and P 0 = 20%. [10]
b) Discuss the significance of transient specifications with respect to

assessment of performance of the PID controller. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Write the equation for their control signal and discuss, in detail, the
advantages as well as the dis-advantages of the following terms in the
PID control. [10]
i) Proportional
ii) Integral
iii) Derivative
b) Write the cost function of an LQR control algorithm, define as well as

discuss the significance of all the terms mentioned in the cost function.[8]

[5560]-519 4
P3576 [5560]-520
T.E. (Automobile) (Mechanical Engg.)

MANUFACTURING PROCESSES - II
3) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
Q1) a) Discuss the various types of chips produced during metal cutting, along
with neat sketches. [6]
b) A tool life of 80 minute is obtained at a speed of 30 mpm and 8 minute at
60 mpm. Determine the following : [4]
i) Tool life equation.
ii) Cutting speed for 4 minute tool life.
OR
Q2) a) Draw a neat labelled sketch of radial drilling machine. [4]
b) What are the functions of cutting fluid? Discuss various types of cutting
fluids. [6]
Q3) a) List out the various operations carried out on milling machine. Explain
any two with neat sketch. [6]
b) Explain continuous broaching machines with working sketch. [4]
OR
Q4) a) Describe the tool and cutter grinder along with neat sketch. [6]
b) Explain "buffing" process. Mention the applications of "buffing". [4]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain Laser beam machining process along with advantages, limitations
and applications. [8]
b) Explain Abrasive Jet Machining Process along with advantages, limitations
OR
Q6) a) Explain with neat sketches EDM process. State the advantages, limitations
b) Explain Ultrasonic Machining (USM) process with its advantages,
limitations and applications. [8]
Q7) a) Explain CNC machines with neat sketch. State its advantages and
limitations. [6]
b) Write short note on "Automatic Tool Changer" (ATC). [6]
c) What are G codes & M codes? Explain with suitable examples. [4]
OR
Q8) a) Differentiate between "absolute and incremental positioning system" in
CNC. [6]
b) Explain DNC machines with neat sketch. State its advantages & limitations.
[6]
c) Explain subroutine and canned cycle. [4]
Q9) a) What is 3-2-1 location principle? Explain with neat sketches. [6]
b) What are the different types of jigs? Explain with suitable sketches. [6]
c) Explain with sketch any two "Indexing methods" used in jigs & fixtures.
[6]
OR
Q10)a) List the various types of locating devices used in jigs & fixtures. Explain
any one in detail. [6]
b) State various types of clamping devices used in jigs & fixtures and explain
any one. [6]
c) Write short notes on Milling fixtures and Pokayoke concept in jigs and
fixtures. [6]

[5560]-520 2
P3577 [5560]-521
T. E. (Mechanical Sandwich)
NUMERICAL METHODS AND OPTIMIZATION

1) Solve Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3or Q.4, Q.5, or Q.6 Q.7or Q.8, Q.9 or Q.10, Q.11 or Q.12.
3) Figures to the right indidate full marks.
4) Use of programmable calculator is not permitted.
Q1) Find the absolute error and relative error in 6  7  8 correct to 3

significant digits. [6]
OR
Q2) Determine using bi-section method, a root of the equation x.log10 x  1.2  0 ,
upto 4th iteration. [6]
Q3) Solve the equations by Gauss-Seidel method. [6]

27 x  6 y  z  85
x  y  54 z  110
6 x  15 y  2 z  72
OR
Q4) Use Gauss elimination method with partial pivoting to find V1,V2,and V3. [6]
2V1  V2  3V3  5
4V1  3V2  2V3  8
3V1  V2  V3  4
[5560]-521 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) Maximize : z = 5x + 3y [5]
subjected to the conditions:
4 x  5 y  1000
5 x  2 y  1000
3 x  8 y  1200
Also , x> 0, y > 0
Use graphical method.
b) Using Newton’s method find the maximum value for the equation
x3–5x2+3x. Take initial guess as zero upto accuracy 0.001. [3]
OR
Q6) Maximize Z=50,000x+12,000y [8]

subjected to
75 x  15 y  1000
100 x  30 y  1500
45 x  10 y  750
x, y  0
Use Simplex method.
Q7) a) Find the Taylor’s series method, the values of y at x=0.1 and x=0.2 to
dy
five places of decimals from  x 2 y  1, y (0)=1. [8]
dx
 2u  2u
b) Solve the Laplace’s equation 2  2  0 for the square mesh shown
x y
below. [10]
60 60 60 60
u1 u2
40 50
20 40
u3 u4
0 10 20 30
OR
[5560]-521 2
Q8) a) Apply Runge-Kutta method to find approximate value of y for x=0.2, in
dy
steps of 0.1, if  x  y 2 , given that y=1 where x=0. [6]
dx
u  2u
b) Solve for  the following explicit finite scheme, given by, [12]
t x 2
i) u  sin  x  for t=0 where 0< x<1
ii) u=0 for x=0 and x=1 for t=0 to 0.06, and
iii) Increment in t is k=0.02 and in x is h=0.2
Calculate values of u for t=0 to 0.06 at x=0 to 1.
Q9) a) For tabulate values of x and y given below, fit a linear curve of type
y=mx+c. [8]
x 1.0 3.0 5.0 7.0 9.0
y 1.5 2.8 4.0 4.7 6.0
b) The population of a town is as follows: [8]

Year (x) 1941 1951 1961 1971 1981 1991
Population 20 24 29 36 46 51
in Lakhs (y)
Estimate the population increase during the period 1941 to 1946.
OR
Q10)a) Using least square technique, fit a curve y = axb for a set of points given
below and fine the values of a and b. [8]
x 0.5 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0
y 0.7425 3.8579 5.9397 8.301 10.912
b) The velocity distribution of a fluid near a flat surface is given below: [8]
x 0.1 0.3 0.6 0.8
V=y 0.72 1.81 2.73 3.47
Where, x is the distance from the surface (mm) and V is the velocity
(mm/sec). Use Lagrange’s interpolation polynomial to obtain the velocity
at x=0.4.
[5560]-521 3
0.6

2
Q11)a) Use Simpson’s 1 / 3rd rule to find e  x dx by taking seven ordinates.[8]
0
b) Find the double integral f  x, y   2 x  y  1 for n=0 to 2 and y=0 to 2

Use Simpson’s1 / 3rd rule. [8]
OR
61
Q12)a) Find 
0 1  x2
dx, using Trapezoidal method, Take 4 strips. [8]
5
b) Using Gauss-Legendre three point formula find 3
x 2  5 x  2.dx [8]

[5560]-521 4
P3578 [5560]-522
T.E. (Mechanical-S/W)
APPLIED COMPUTER AIDED ENGINEERING
2) Draw neat figures wherever necessary.
3) Use of Scientific Calculators is allowed.
Q1) a) Explain Translational mapping and its significance. [6]

b) How grippers are classified? [4]
OR
Q2) a) A circle is represented by center point (5,5) and radius 6 units. Find the
parametric equation of circle and determine the various points on the
circle in first quadrant if increment of angle is 45o to 90o. [6]
b) What are the degrees of freedom of an end effector? [4]
Q3) a) Explain Rotational Mapping. [6]

b) Define Automation and what is need of automation? [4]
OR
Q4) a) A line AQ with vertices A(5,5) and Q(10,10) has undergone following
transformations in sequence. [6]
i) Rotation through 45o in clockwise direction.
ii) Reflection about Y-axis.
Find the concatenated transformation matrix and new coordinates of
line.
b) Draw neat sketches of any two FMS layout. [4]
[5560]-522 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) Draw block diagrams of open loop type CNC machines and closed
loop type CNC machines. [4]
b) Explain with neat sketch 2 axes, 2½ axes and 3 axes of CNC machines.
[6]
c) Explain G 00, G 01 and G 02 codes in part programming. [6]
OR
Q6) a) Explain the incremental and absolute method of programming with G
code. [6]
b) Develop a CNC program using G and M codes to generate a profile as
shown in fig. Assume Speed = 1000rpm, feed = 200mm/rev. Thickness
of work piece is 10mm. All dimensions are in mm. [10]
Q7) a) Write steps in Fused Deposition Modeling with neat sketch. State its
advantages and limitations. [10]
b) Classify Rapid Prototyping systems. [6]
OR
Q8) a) Write steps in Stereolithography with neat sketch. State its advantages
and limitations. [10]
b) What are Applications, advantages and limitations of 3-D printing. [6]
[5560]-522 2
Q9) a) Figure shows a cluster of four springs. One end of assembly is fixed while
a force of 1kN is applied at the other end. Using FEM, determine : [8]
i) Deflection of each spring
ii) The reaction force at support
b) A stepped metallic bar with circular cross-section of two segments. The

first segment is of length 250mm and cross sectional area 200mm2. The
second segment is of length 300mm and cross-sectional area 140mm2.
Modulus of Elasticity = 200GPa. If the bar is fixed at one end of bigger
section and subjected to a tensile force of 500kN at the opposite end of
smaller section. [10]
Determine :
i) the Nodal Displacements
ii) elements stress
iii) the support reaction.
OR
Q10)a) Fig. shows a truss consisting of three members whose EA/L value in
1000N/mm. Using FEM determine the deflection at node2. [12]
b) Write short note on [6]

i) Global coordinate system
ii) Local coordinate system
iii) Natural coordinate system

[5560]-522 3
P3579 [Total No. of Pages :3
[5560]-523
T.E. (Mechanical S/W)
MACHINE DESIGN
(2015 Course) (Semester-I) (End Sem.) (302062)
1) Attempt (Q1 or Q2) and (Q3 or Q4) and (Q5 or Q6) and (Q7 or Q8) and (Q9 or Q10)
2) Assume suitable additional data, if necessary and state it clearly.
Q1) a) Write short note on ASME Code for shaft Design. [4]
b) Explain S-N Diagram for ferrous and non-ferrous materials. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Explain any two endurance limit modifying factors. [4]
b) A two start trapezoidal screw is used in screw jack to raise the load of
300N. the screw has nominal diameter of 100 mm and pitch of 12 mm.
The coefficient of screw friction is 0.15. Neglecting the collar friction,
find torque required to raise the load and screw efficiency. [6]
Q3) a) Explain end styles for helical compression springs with sketches. [4]
b) Helical compression Spring has wire diameter 1.6 mm, spring index of 6
and spring stiffness of 1.8 N/mm. if the permissible shear stress in wire
material is 345 MPa and Modulus of Rigidity of wire material is 80 GPa,
find the number of coils of spring and allowable deflection. [6]
OR
Q4) a) Explain any four design considerations for machine design. [4]
b) Explain any three welding symbols with sketches. [6]
Q5) a) Explain in brief the following terms related to Spur Gear Design. [6]
i) Incremental Dynamic Load
ii) Lewis Form factor
iii) Barth’s Velocity Factor.
[5560]-523 1 P.T.O.
b) Following data refers to an external spur gear pair. [10]
Power =7.5 KW
Pinion Speed =1440 rpm
Gear Speed =480 rpm
Number of Teeth on pinion =18
Center Distance =216 mm
Face Width =10 ×Module
Allowable Bending Stress for pinion&Gear =160 Mpa
Surface Hardness =300 BHN
Tooth System =20o Full Depth involute
Combined Tooth Error e =0.012 mm
Deformation Factor C (when e is in mm)=11500 ×e N/mm
Assuming dynamic load is accounted using Buckingham’s Equation,
find
i) Factor of Safety against Bending Failure
ii) Factor of Safety against pitting (Wear) Failure
Buckingham’s Equation for incremental Dynamic Load
21V (bC + Ftmax )
Fd =
21V + bC + Ftmax
OR
Q6) a) Explain the term formative or virtual number of Teeth for helical gears.[4]
b) Explain the term diametral quotient and its significance in the worm gear
design. [4]
c) Give advantages, limitations and applications of bevel gears. [4]
d) Explain the meaning of single enveloping and double enveloping worm
gear pairs. [4]
Q7) a) Explain designation of Rolling Contact Bearing’s with a suitable example.

[4]
b) A single row deep groove ball bearing operates on a work cycle given
below. If the expected life of bearings is 13000 hours with 90% reliability,
find the basic dynamic load carrying capacity of the bearing . Also, Find
the reliability of a system consisting of four such bearings. [12]
[5560]-523 2
Cycle Radial Axial Radial Axial Race Service Speed
Time Load(KN) Load(KN) Factor Factor Rotating Factor (rpm)
30% 5.00 1.50 0.56 1.10 Inner 1.25 0960
40% 3.70 0.73 0.56 1.30 Outer 1.40 1440
30% 0.00 0.00 1.00 1.00 Outer 1.00 0720
OR
Q8) a) Explain the regimes of Hydrodynamic Lubrication using ZN/P Curve.[6]
b) Explain the following terms related to Hydrodynamic Lubrication. [4]
i) Babbits
ii) Sommerfeld Number
c) Explain in detail “preloading of Rolling Contact Bearings”. [6]
Q9) a) Explain polygonal Action or Chordal Action in case of Chain Drives.[4]

b) Derive expression for Centrifugal Tension in case of Belt Drives. [4]
c) A rope drive is used to transmit 260 KW power from 300 mm pitch
diameter pulley rotating at 1000 rpm to another pulley of 600 mm pitch
diameter. The pulley groove angle is 45o and the center distance is 6
meters. The mass of rope is 1.3 Kg/m and the coefficient of friction
between rope and pulley is 0.3 if the maximum permissible pull for each
rope is 2.2 KN, find the number of ropes required. [10]
OR
Q10)a) Explain procedure of selection of Flat Belts from Manufacture’ s Catalog
[6]
b) A fan running at 720 rpm is driven by electric motor running at 1440 rpm
throught an 8mm ×250 mm flat leather belt drive. The center distance is
1370 mm. The coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley is 0.35
and specific gravity of belt material is 0.957. if the permissible tensile
stress in belt material is 2 MPa, find [12]
i) Maximum power transmission capacity of belt drive,
ii) Diameters of pulleys and
iii) Initial tension required.

[5560]-523 3
P3580 [5560]-524
T.E.(Mechanical Sandwich)
MATERIALS AND MANUFACTURING ENGINEERING
(2015 Course) (Semester - II) (Self Study - I) (302066)
5) No separate drawing sheet will be provided.
Q1) a) What do you understand by the word ‘polymer’? Classify polymers.[4]

b) Which are the factors affecting the properties of a polymer? Discuss.[6]
OR
Q2) a) Explain in brief about composite materials and their applications? [4]
b) Explain the need of modern materials. What do you mean by smart
materials? State their applications. [6]
Q3) a) What is corrosion? Differentiate between dry corrosion and wet corrosion.
[4]
b) Which are materials can be used of implants? What properties they should
posses? [6]
OR
Q4) a) Discuss the need of manufacturing advancement for processing modern
materials. [4]
b) Compare and contrast the nature of protection given to the steel by [6]
i) Cadmium coating,
ii) Zinc coating
iii) Tin coating
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Differentiate gear hobbling and gear milling. [6]
b) What is a chaser? Explain method of threading by chaser. [6]
c) Classify different types of broaches according to: [4]
i) Method of operation
ii) Type of operation

iii) Construction
iv) Function
OR
Q6) a) Explain Continuous broaching machine with a neat sketch. [6]

b) What is meant by gear shaping? Explain with neat sketch. [6]
c) Explain thread tapping with a neat sketch. [4]
Q7) a) Explain external cylindrical grinding machine with a neat block diagram.[6]
b) Explain honing process. Discuss honing tools. [6]
c) Write True or False and give justification. [4]
i) Brass rod cannot be finished by MAF (Magnetic Abrasive Finishing).

ii) MAF (Magnetic Abrasive Finishing) is suitable for finishing fine
holes.
iii) AFM can be used to reduce the diameter of a MS rod from 14 mm
to 12mm.
iv) In grinding “Hard wheel are used for soft materials and Soft wheel
for Hard materials”
OR
Q8) a) Differentiate lapping and honing processes. [4]
b) Explain standard marking system of a grinding wheel. [6]

c) Explain dressing and truing of grinding wheel. [6]
[5560]-524 2
Q9) a) What are the design consideration of Jigs and Fixtures? [6]
b) Differentiate between jigs and fixtures. [6]
c) What are the principles of location? List various locating and clamping
devices. [6]
OR
Q10)a) Design and draw a drilling jig to drill the φ 12 mm hole shown in the
component drawing below. [14]
All dimensions are in mm.
b) List any two locating and clamping devices to be used while designing a
jig for component shown in Fig. 1. [4]
t t t
[5560]-524 3
P3581 [5560]-525
T.E. (Mechanical Sandwich)

INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY
MANAGEMENT (Self Study - II)
1) All questions are compulsory.
Q1) a) Describe role of management in engineering industry. Explain the functions

of management. [5]
b) Explain the Term “Organization structure”. How it is designed? Explain.[5]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the concept of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. [5]
b) What do you understand by Authority and Responsibility? Justify with
suitable example. [5]
Q3) a) Name and discuss the factors that are responsible for selection of suitable
site to start new industry. [5]
b) What are different health provisions mentioned in the factories act?
Explain. [5]
OR
Q4) a) Explain the principle of material handling. [5]
b) Differentiate between Product layout and process layout. [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Define Production control. What are different techniques of production
control? Explain. [8]
b) A company producing motors, decide to make a particular item in batches.
Following data is available. [8]
Cost of setting up machine and tools = Rs 800/-
Annual rate of depreciation, Interest etc., = 15%
Consumption of parts in assembly shop= 100/Month
Processing time for each item 8 hrs. on machine
Labor Rate = Rs 10/- per day(Assume 8 hrs. in a day)
Material Cost = Rs 3/- per Kg
Weight of each item 15 Kg.
Overhead expenses on each part is allocated as 100% of the Prime Cost.
Find out the economic batch size for machining and also the duration of
machine run, assuming that the machine loading factor is about 80%.
OR
Q6) a) Describe the inventory policies for A,B and C items. [8]
b) Discuss the role of Production Planning and Control department in the
industry. [8]
Q7) a) Define Method Study. State the different charts which are used as a tool
in Method Study. [8]
b) Assuming that the total observed time for an operation of assembling an
electric switch is one minute. If the rating is 120%, find the Normal Time.
If an allowance of 10 % is allowed;for the operation, determine the
standard time. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Define the concept of Standard time. Explain clearly, the steps involved
in arriving at standard time starting with observed time. [8]
b) What factors are involved for taking “make or buy” decision? Explain
them in brief. [8]
[5560]-525 2
Q9) a) Explain in terms of Network analysis meaning of the following [9]
i) Dummy activity.
ii) Looping.
b) Describe with example concept and meaning of Technology Management.
[9]
OR
Q10)Write short note on the following (Any three): [18]
a) Industrial Safety.
b) Role of R&D Department in Industry
c) Stages of Product Development
d) Group Technology
e) VED Analysis.

[5560]-525 3
P3582 [5560]-531
T. E.
AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING
Design of Machine Elements (316481)

1) Answer any five questions.
3) A figures to the right indicates full marks.
Q1) a) Explain the classification of machine design [6]

b) Differentiate between transmission shafts and machine shafts. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the general design procedure of lever. [6]

b) Prove that square is strong in shear and crushing. [4]
Q3) a) Differentiate between flange and flexible coupling. [2]

b) Derive an expression for torque required to raise the load in power screws.
[8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain the different types of welds. [2]
b) The lead screw of a lathe has single start ISO trapezoidal threads of
30mm diameter and 6 mm pitch. It drives a tool carriage and exerts an
axial load of 1.5KN on a collar of 30 mm inside diameter and 50mm
outside diameter. If the lead screw rotates 40 rpm, find the power required
to drive the screw and efficiency. Take the coefficient of friction for
power screw as 0.14 and for collar as 0.09. [8]
[5560]-531 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) What are the causes of stress concentration and the methods to improve
the same? [10]
b) The brasses of an automobile engine connecting rod have worn so as to

allow play which gives shock loading equivalent to a weight 6000 N
falling through a height 0.2 mm. The connecting rod is 250 mm long and
has a cross-sectional area 300mm2 Determine the maximum stress induced
in connecting rod, resilience in tension or compression. Take
E=200000Mpa. [6]
OR
Q6) a) A hot rolled steel rod is subjected to torsional load varying

from -110N-m to 440N-m and axial load varying from 4500N to 13500N.
Assume factor of safety as 8. Take ultimate stress= 550Mpa, yield shear
stress=235Mpa, yield stress=470Mpa, fatigue stress concentration
factor =1, load factor=0.7 for axial and 1 for torsion, surface finish
factor= 0.89,size factor = 1. Calculate the diameter of rod. [10]
b) Write a short note on S-N diagram. [6]
Q7) a) Explain about herringbone gears with sketch. [6]
b) Design a pair of helical gears are to transmit 15KW at 10,000rpm of the

pinion with PCD 80mm. The transmission ratio is 3:1. Assume =20°
FDI, =45°d=193.2 Mpa, BHN=250 for pinion and gear.
check only tangential tooth load.

Y=  0.154  0.912 / Ze  ,C v  5.55 / 5.55  V 0.5 [12]
OR
Q8) a) Design spur gear set to transmit 20KW at 900rpm of pinion. The
transmission ratio is 3. Take 20° FDI, Z1=18, d =193.2Mpa, BHN=250
for pinion and d=47.1Mpa, BHN=200 for gear. Check only tangential
tooth load. Form factor Y=  0.154  0.912 / Z  ,Cv  3.05 / 3.05  V
[12]
b) Derive Lewis equation for beam strength. [6]
[5560]-531 2
Q9) A worm gear drive is to connect two shafts to transmit 10 KW. The
transmission ratio is 20:1 and worm shaft rotates at 1440 rpm. Design the gear
set. Assume single start square thread. Take d=207 Mpa, for worm and
d=82.4 Mpa, for worm wheel. Form factor Y=  0.154  0.912 / Z  [16]
OR
Q10)Two shafts are right angles to each other are connected by 20° full depth
involute teeth bevel gears. The velocity ratio is 3:1. The pinion transmits 37.5
KW at 750 rpm. Assume number of teeth on pinion is 20. Design the gear set.
Take d=233.4 Mpa, BHN=200 for pinion and d=172.6 Mpa, BHN=150 for
gear. Form factor Y=  0.154  0.912 / Ze  ,Cv=6.1/6.1+V [16]

[5560]-531 3
P3583 [5560]-532
T.E. (Automobile Engineering)

AUTOMOTIVE ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS
Q1) a) Write a short note on automotive electricity generation, storage and

distribution systems. [5]
b) Explain CAN Bus with its protocols. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Write a short note on battery performance. [5]

b) Explain working of spark advance mechanism. [5]
Q3) a) Write a short note on Selection of motor for starting system. [5]
b) Write a short note on Fog Lamps. [5]
OR
Q4) a) Explain working of wind shield wiper system. [5]

b) Explain Spark Plug and their types. [5]
Q5) a) Classify sensors used in automobile. Explain working of Lambda Sensor

(O2 Sensor) with neat figure. [10]
b) Explain working of Load Cell with neat figure. [8]
OR
[5560]-532 1 P.T.O.
Q6) a) Enlist the types of Temperature Sensors. Explain any one of them. [8]
b) Enlist the types of actuators used in engine. Explain working of any one
motorized engine actuator. [10]
Q7) a) Explain Throttle body injection and Multipoint Fuel Injection in detail.
[8]
b) Explain Idle speed control for SI engine. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain all Injection Strategies or Techniques used in SI Engine with neat
figures. [8]
b) Explain cold and warm start system. [8]
Q9) a) Explain Adaptive Cruise Control system in detail with layout. [8]
b) Explain Tire Pressure Monitoring system in brief. [8]
OR
Q10)a) What is meant by Antilock Braking System (ABS)? Explain in detail.[8]

b) Explain Global Positioning System (GPS) with neat figures. [8]

[5560]-532 2
[5560] - 533
T. E. (Automobile Engineering)
DESIGN OF ENGINE COMPONENTS
(2015 Course) (End Semester) (316484)

4) Use of Logarithmic tables, sliderule, electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
Q1) a) The cylinder of a 4- Stroke diesel engine has following specifications:[6]

Cylinder Bore = 150 mm
Maximum gas pressure = 3.5 MPa
Factor of safety = 5
Cylinder head material is Grey cast iron FG200 (Sut = 200N/mm2).
Take constant K for material as 0.162
Studs material is steel FeE 250 (Syt = 250N/mm2).
Determine:
i) Thickness of cylinder head.
ii) Number of studs required to fix cylinder head to cylinder.
iii) Nominal diameter of studs.
iv) Pitch of studs.
b) State and explain different functions performed by piston of an I.C.
Engine. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Draw a neat 3-D Free Body Diagram of center crankshaft having flywheel
and pulley by considering the crank at TDC position and subjected to
maximum bending moment and no torsion moment. Also find the resultant
reactions acting on the bearing supporting the crankshaft. [6]
b) Explain design procedure for a push rod of valve gear mechanism of
I.C. Engine. [4]
[5560]-533 1 P.T.O.
Q3) a) State and explain different types of crankshaft. [4]
b) The following data is given for cap and bolts of big end of connecting
rod. Design a connecting rod for an I.C. Engine with following data.[6]
Engine speed = 1800 rpm
Mass of the reciprocating parts per cylinder = 2.25 kg
Length of connecting rod = 380 mm
Stroke of piston = 190 mm
length of crank pin = 58 mm
diameter of crank pin = 44 mm
Thickness of bearing liner = 3 mm
Allowable tensile stress for the material of the bolts = 60 N / mm2
Allowable bending stress for the material of the cap = 80 N/ mm2
Calculate the nominal diameter of bolts and thichness of cap for the big
end.
OR
Q4) a) State and explain different methods of lubrication for bearings of two
ends of connecting rod used in I.C. Engine. [4]
b) The conical poppet valve of an I.C. Engine is used in a valve port of
60 mm diameter and is subjected to a maximum gas pressure of 4N /
mm2. The safe stress in bending for the valve material is 46 MPa. The
valve is made of steel for which k = 0.42. The angle at which the valve
disc seat is tapered is 30o. [6]
Determine :
i) Thickness of the valve head;
ii) Stem diameter;
iii) Maximum lift of the valve.
Q5) a) Explain coefficient of fluctuation of energy in flywheel with an appropriate

example. [6]
b) A machine is driven by a motor, which exerts a constant torque. The
resisting torque of the machine increases uniformly from 500 N-m to
1500 N-m through a 360o rotation of the driving shaft and drops suddenly
to 500N-m again at the beginning of next revolution. The mean angular
velocity of machine is 30 rad/s and the coefficient of speed fluctuation is
0.2. A solid circular steel disk, 25mm thick, is used as flywheel. The
mass density of steel is 7800kg/m3 while poission’s ratio is 0.3. Calculate
the outter radius of flywheel disk and maximum stresses induced in it.[10]
OR
[5560]-533 2
Q6) a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of Cast Iron Flywheels as
per the design considerations? [4]
b) The intercepted areas between the output torque curve and the mean
resistance line of a turning moment diagram for a multicylinder engine,
taken in order from one end are as follows: [12]
–35, + 410, – 285, + 325, – 335, + 260, – 365, + 285, – 260 mm2.
The diagram has been drawn to a scale of 1 mm = 70 N-m and 1 mm =
4.5°. The engine speed is 900 rpm and the fluctuation in speed is not to
exceed 2% of the mean speed. Find the mass and cross-section of the
flywheel rim having 650 mm mean diameter. The density of the material
of the flywheel may be taken as 7200 kg/ m2. The rim is rectangular with
the width 2 times the thickness. Neglect effect of arms, etc.
Q7) a) Explain the procedure for selection of roller bearing from manufacturer’s
catalogue. [6]
b) The following data is given for 360° hydrodynamic bearing: [10]
Radial load = 3.2 kN
Journal speed = 1490 rpm
Journal diameter = 50 mm
Bearing length = 50 mm
Radial clearance = 0.05 mm
Viscosity of lubricant = 25 cP
Assuming the total heat generated in the bearing is carried by the oil flow
in the bearing, calculate
i) Coefficient of friction
ii) Power lost in friction
iii) Minimum oil film thickness
iv) Flow requirement in liters / min
v) Temperature rise
[5560]-533 3
1  h0  r  Q   Qs   p 
     S   f   Q  
d  c c  rcnsl     pmax 
1 0 1.0  (85)    
       
       
       
       
       
       
       
       
OR
Q8) a) Explain theory of hydrodynamic lubrication. [8]
b) A ball bearing is subjected to a radial force of 2500N and an axial force

of 1000N. The dynamic load carrying capacity of the bearing is 7350N.
The values of X and Y factors based on normal clearance are 0.56 and
1.6 respectively. The shaft is rotating at 720 rpm. Calculate [8]
i) The expected life in million revolutions that 90% of bearing will

reach.
ii) Corresponding life in hours.
iii) The life that 50% of bearings will complete or exceed before fatigue
failure.
iv) Select and write the designation of an appropriate ball bearing from
manufacturer’s catalogue for a shaft of diameter 30mm.
Manufacturer’s Catalogue
[5560]-533 4
Principal Basic load
dimensions (mm) Ratings (N) Designation
d D B C C0
30 42 7 3120 2080 61806

55 9 11200 5850 16006
55 13 13300 6800 6006
62 16 19500 10000 6206
72 19 28100 14600 6306
90 23 43600 24000 6406
35 47 7 4030 3000 61807

62 9 12400 6950 16007
62 14 15900 8500 6007
72 17 25500 13700 6207
80 21 33200 18000 6307
100 25 55300 31000 6407
Q9) a) Write down the design considerations for combustion chamber. [9]
b) State and explain in detail the different types of cylinder arrangements.
What are their relative advantages and disadvantages as per the design
considerations? [9]
OR
Q10) Write note on: [18]
a) Exhaust gas CO and HC analyzer.
b) Cylinder power balance.
c) Distributor dwell angle.
***
[5560]-533 5
P3585 [5560]-534

AUTOMOTIVE TRANSMISSION
(2015 Course) (Semester - II) (End Sem.)
Q1) a) Draw and explain Chassis Layout with its component. [5]
b) Compare semi forward and fully forward chassis. [5]
OR
Q2) a) What is the function of a clutch? Discuss various factors affecting the
torque transmission in a clutch. [5]
b) Write a short note on requirements of clutch. [5]
Q3) a) What is the necessity of a gear box at all in the automobile when the
vehicle speed can be varied by means of an accelerator? Justify. [5]
b) Write a short note Constant Velocity Joints. [5]
OR
Q4) a) Explain Hotchkiss Drive with neat figure. [5]
a) Explain Centrifugal clutch with neat figure. [5]
Q5) a) Sketch general arrangement of a live rear axle. Identify and explain various
loads that it has to withstand. [10]
b) Explain effect of drive ratio on torque and speed of vehicle. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Enlist type of rear axles. Explain any one axle with neat figure. [8]
b) Explain locking differential with neat figure. [10]
P.T.O.
Q7) a) Explain construction and working of torque converter with its
performance characteristics. [8]
b) Explain compound epicyclic gear train. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain construction and working of fluid flywheel. [8]
b) Compare torque converter and conventional gearbox. [8]
Q9) a) Write a short note on Automatic transmission. [8]

b) Explain working principle of Continous Variable Transmission (CVT)
with neat figures. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Write a short note on semi-automatic transmission. [8]
b) Write a short note on hydraulic control of automatic transmission. [8]

[5560]-534 2
P3586 [5560]-535

AUTOMOTIVE AERODYNAMICS & BODY ENGINEERING
Q1) a) Explain the strategies for aerodynamic development of a car. [4]
b) Explain the various body optimization techniques to reduce drag. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Discuss the methods for improving visibility of vehicle. [4]
b) Explain the dust flow pattern for hatchback, fastback and squareback
vehicles at the rear end with the help of a neat sketch. [6]
Q3) Write a short note on: [10]
a) Full Scale Wind Tunnel
b) Flow Visualization Technique
OR
Q4) Write a short note on: [10]
a) Application of CFD in vehicle aerodynamics
b) Effect of dirt accumulation on vehicles
P.T.O.
Q5) Design a single - level articulated bus having a seating capacity of 90
passengers. [18]
OR
Q6) Design a two-level luxury sleeper coach for long distance travelling having a
seating capacity of 60 passengers. [18]
Q7) Sketch and explain typical car body with its nomenclature. [16]
OR
Q8) Explain the energy absorption system in a vehicle having integral construction.[16]
Q9) Explain symmetric and asymmetric vertical and torsional loads acting on car
moving on a rough terrain. [16]
OR
Q10) Design a driver seat for a car considering ergonomics for comfort. [16]

[5560]-535 2
P3587 [5560]-541
T. E. (Electronics Engg.)
POWER ELECTRONICS AND APPLICTIONS

1) Answers the Q.1or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8
Q1) a) What are heat sinks? Explain any one method of cooling technique with
its need in high power industries. [7]
b) Draw and explain V-I characteristics of SCR. Define IL, IH, VBO, VBR.
[7]
c) Compare MOSFET and IGBT. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Define triggering circuits. What are the different types of triggering
methods? Explain any one in details. [7]
b) Draw and explain single phase full converter for RL Load. [7]
c) Explain Microprocessor based control circuit for power electronics
applications. [6]
Q3) a) Explain Voltage control of inverters using PWM. [8]

b) Explain Design of control circuit for three phase inverters. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Draw and explain three phase inverter with the help of waveform for
180° conduction mode for R load. [8]
b) Explain Single phase AC voltage controller with RL load. [8]
[5560]-541 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) A buck converter operating at 50kHz is fed from a 12V battery and
supplies 5V to load. Determine i) The maximum on-period of MOSFET
switch given that battery voltage varies from 13.5V in fully charged state
to 10V at the end of discharge. ii) Battery drain current under nominal
condition with 10A load. iii) The value of choke required to maintain
continuous current operation for a ripple current of 500 mA and worst
case battery voltage condition. [10]
b) Explain Class C chopper with its wave forms. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Write short note on Low Drop out (LDO) Regulators ICs-TPS 7A4901.
[10]
b) Explain Buck-Boost converter in detail. [8]
Q7) a) A UPS is driving 600W load which has lagging power factor of 0.8. The
efficiency of inverter is 80%. The battery voltage is 24V DC. Assume
that there is a separate charger for battery. Determine the following
i) KVA rating of inverter ii) Wattage of rectifier iii) A-H rating of the
battery for a backup time of 30 minutes. [8]
b) Explain performance parameter of a battery. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Draw and explain battery charger. [8]

b) Explain Selection of power converters for different drive applications.[8]

[5560]-541 2
P3588 [5560]-542
T.E. (Electronics)
INSTRUMENTATION SYSTEMS
(2015 Course) (End Sem) (304202)
1) All questions are complusory.
Q1) a) What do you mean by callibration? What are its types? List advantages
& disadvantags of calliboration. [6]
b) Draw and explain signal condilroniry for RTD Temperature sensor? [6]
c) How do you can measure a flow of a liquid by using ultrasonic sensor.
Draw a set-up diagram How ultrasonic sensor measures the flow? [8]
OR
Q2) a) Draw a detailed block diagram of instrumentation system. [6]
b) Which are the interfacing techniques of temperature sensor with
microcontroller. Draw any one of it . [6]
c) Derive bernoullis equation for flow measurement? Explain venture tabe
in brief? [8]
Q3) a) Extend your views on CCD & CMOS imaye sensor. With its applications.
[8]
b) What is acceterometer? List its type? Explain piezoelectric acceterometer
with neat diagram? [8]
OR
Q4) a) How a motion can be detected by a capclcetive detector? Explain
experimental set-up for motion detection using ultrasonic sensor? [8]
b) Explain working of photo diode & photo teinsister used in light detection?
[8]
[5560]-542 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) What is MEMS? Explain with neat diagram bulk-Micromachining and
surtuce micromachining? [8]
b) With neat diagram explain Hot wire anemometer? [6]
c) Draw a basic block diagram of SMART sensor. [4]
OR
Q6) a) List magnetic field sensor? Explain any one in detail. [8]
b) Draw and explain working of surface micromachine acceteromcter. [6]
c) List the advantage & disadvantages of Micromachine sensors? [4]
Q7) a) List types of actuators? Explain with neat diagram any one process control
valve? [8]
b) What is final control element? Draw and explain working and construction
of double acting cylinder? [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain in brief electrical actuaters. [8]
i) Dc moter
ii) Steper moter
b) Draw pneumatie symbols for.
i) Air supply
ii) Exhaust air
iii) 3/2 valve
iv) Spring retun

v) 5/2 valve
vi) Push butten

vii) Shuftic valve
viii) Check valve
[[[[
[5560]-542 2
P3589 [5560]-543
T.E. (Electronics Engineering)

ELECTROMAGNETICS & WAVE PROPAGATION
(2015 Pattern) (End - Semester - I) (304203)
1) Answer the Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or Q.10.
4) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
Q1) a) State and prove the divergence theorem. [6]

b) Obtain H due to a co-axial cable within conductor, using ampere’ss
circuital law. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Derive the boundary condition between conductor and free space. [4]
r
b) The flux density D  ar nC/m2 is in free space. [6]
3
i) Find E at r = 0.2m.
ii) Find the total electric flux leaving the sphere of r = 0.2m.
iii) Find the total charge within the sphere of r = 0.3m.
Q3) a) A paper capacitor is made up of aluminum foil of 100 cm2 placed on

both sides of paper of thickness 0.03mm. If the dielectric constant of
paper is 3 and its dielectric breakdown strength is 200 kV/cm, what is
the value of capacitor and rating of capacitor? [6]
b) State properties of dielectric materials. [4]
OR
Q4) a) Derive the expression for electric field due to infinite sheet of charge.[5]
b) State and explain in brief scalar and vector magnetic potential. [5]
[5560]-543 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain Faradays Law and also explain Transformer e.m.f. and motional
e.m.f. in detail. [10]
b) Calculate the displacement current through parallel plate air field capacitor
having plates of area 10cm2 separated by a distance 2 mm connected to
300sin106t V, 1MHz source. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Derive the boundary conditionfor Time varying Fields. [10]
b) State and explain Maxwell’s equation in Integral form. [8]
Q7) a) Define polarization of a uniform plane waves and Explain its different
types. [8]
b) State and prove poynting theorem. [8]
OR
Q8) a) A 10Ghz plane wave travelling in a free space has an amplitude of E as
Ex = 10V/m. Find and amplitude. [8]
b) For a lossy dielectric material having r = 1, r = 48  = 20 S/m calculate
the propagation constant at a frequency of 16 GHz. [8]
Q9) a) Write short note on ground wave propagation. [8]

b) Explain : [8]
i) Virtual Height.
ii) MUF.
iii) Multi-Hop Propagation.
iv) Skip distance.
OR
Q10)a) Derive the expression for Friss Free space Equation. [8]
b) Sketch the structure of atmosphere and explain each layer. [8]

[5560]-543 2
P3591 [5560]-545

DATA COMMUNICATION
(2015 course) (Semester - I) (End Sem.) (304205)
2) Figures to the right Indicate full marks.
3) Use of logarithmic table, slide rule electronic calculator is allowed.
5) Answer the Q.1 or Q.2 and Q.3 or Q.4 and Q.5 or Q.6 and Q.7 or Q.8 and Q.9 or
Q.10
Q1) a) Draw the layered architecture of OSI model Explain functioning of data
link and network layer. [6]
b) Compare coaxial cable, twisted pair and optical cable. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Write a short note on ISDN. [4]
b) For a systematic LBC, the three parity check digits C4,C5,C6, are given
by. [6]
C 4 = d1 ⊕ d 2 ⊕ d 3
C 5 = d1 ⊕ d2
C 6 = d1 ⊕ d3
i) Construct generator matrix
ii) List all the code words generated by this matrix
Q3) a) Apply shannon fano coding or the following message ensemble and find
coding efficiency. [6]
[X] = [x1 x2 x3 x4]
[P] = [0.4 0.3 0.2 0.1]
b) State & explain shannon’s source coding theorem [4]
OR
[5560]-545 1 P.T.O.
Q4) a) Apply Huffman encoding to following message ensemble find coding
efficiency. [6]
[X]=[x1 x2 x3 x4 x5 x6 x7]
[P]= [0.45 0.1 0.1 0.15 0.04 0.08 0.08]
b) Explain selective repeat ARQ system with neat diagram in detail. [4]
Q5) a) A Delta modulation system is operated at 3 times the nyquist rate for a
signal with a 3KHz band width the quantising step size is 250mv [8]
i) Determine the maximum amplitude of a 1KHz input sinusoid for
which the delta modulator does not show slope overload
ii) Determine the post filtered output of SNR
b) Draw & explain waveform for the bit sequence 100110100 using following
formats. [8]
i) Unipolar NRZ
ii) Polar quarternary
iii) Bipolar NRZ
iv) Split phase manchester.
OR
Q6) a) Explain adaptive delta modulation transmitter & receiver in detail with
the help of neat block diagram. [8]
b) Compare different types of waveform coding techniques. [4]
c) Explain Multilevel schemes. [4]
i) 2B1Q ii) MLT3
Q7) a) Explain QPSK Transmitter & receiver in with neat block diagram in detail.
[8]
b) Compare following digital modulation techniques. [4]
i) ASk
ii) FSK
iii) PSK
c) Draw the signal space diagram for BPSK system. [4]
OR
[5560]-545 2
Q8) a) Explain with the help of neat block diagram 16 bit QAM transmitter &
receiver. [8]
b) Explain M-ary PSK transmitter & receiver with the help of neat block
diagram. [8]
Q9) a) Explain the working of FH-SS transmitter & receiver with neat block
diagram. [8]
b) Compare FDMA, TDMA & CDMA. [6]
c) State & Explain properties of PN sequence. [4]
OR
Q10)a) Explain the working of DS-SS transmitter & receiver with neat block
diagram. [8]
b) A PN sequence is generated using a feed back shift register of length

m=4, the chip rate is 107 chips/sec find the following parameters. [6]
i) PN sequence length
ii) Chip duration
iii) PN sequence period
c) Write a short note on CSMA. [4]

[5560]-545 3
P3592 [5560]-546
T.E.(Electronics Engineering)
DSP & APPLICATIONS
1) Attempt Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4, Q5 or Q6, Q7 or Q8, Q9 or Q10.
3) Figures to right indicate full marks.
4) Assume Suitable data, if necessary.
Q1) a) The sequence x(n) is given as x(n) = [1,2,3,–1,2,3]. Draw & obtain the
sequence if decimator factor is 2 & interpolator factor is 2. [6]
b) Obtain IDFT of the following sequence X(k) = [2 1–j 0 1+j]. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Determine all possible sequences for the system given by z transform
z ( z 2 − 2 z + 3)
X (z) = [6]
( z − 2 )( z − 3 )( z − 4 )
b) Describe in brief aliasing effect. What is use of antialiasing filter in sampling.[4]
Q3) a) Obtain linear convolution of two sequences determined as
x ( n ) =  4 5 3 & h ( n ) =  2 3 using circular convolution. Also

↑  ↑ 
verify your answer with traditional linear convolution method. [6]
b) Derive relation between fourier transform & z transform. [4]
OR
Q4) a) An LTI system is represented by difference equation
y( n) = 3y( n −1) − 2y( n − 2) + x(n) − x( n −1) . [6]
i) Obtain system function H(z).
ii) Draw & obtain pole zero plot
iii) Comment on stability of the system from pole zero plot
b) Illustrate with neat sketch radix 2 DIT & DIF FFT butterfly structures to
evaluate 4 point DFT of a signal. [4]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Derive an expression for transformation of analog system function Ha(s)
to digital system function H(z) using Impulse Invariance Method. Also
illustrate with neat sketch relationship of s plane to z plane. Comment on
drawback of Impulse Invariance Method. [9]
b) Realize the system described by following system function using direct
form I & direct form II structure. [8]
z2 − z +1
H (z) =
1
z2 − z +
2
OR
Q6) a) Design a digital low pass butterworth IIR filter using BLT for following
specifications. [12]
FPB = 1 kHz, FSB = 3 kHz, FS = 8 kHz, AP = 2dB & AS = 15dB.
b) Describe in brief finite word length effect in IIR filter design. [5]
Q7) a) Describe in brief FIR filter characteristics. Also show that FIR filters for
symmetric & antisymmetric impulse response gives linear phase. [8]
b) Using frequency sampling method, design a low pass FIR filter to meet
following specifications. [9]
Passband - 0 - 6 kHz
Sampling frequency - 18 kHz
Filter length - 11
OR
Q8) a) Explain FIR filter designing using windowing technique. Compare different
window functions wrt transition band, main lobe, peak side lobe etc.
Also comment on role of kaiser window in FIR filter design. [9]
b) Draw & obtain cascade realization of FIR filter defined by system function[8]
 1  1 
H ( z ) = 1 + z −1 + z −2 1 + z −1 + z −2 
 2  4 
Q9) a) Describe in brief application of DSP in DC motor control. [8]
b) Illustrate your answer with neat sketch & also describe in brief architecture
of general DSP processor. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain how DSP is useful in interference cancellation in ECG. [8]
b) State & explain four important features of DSP processor. [8]

[5560]-546 2
P3593 [5560]-547
T.E.(Electronics Engineering)
EMBEDDED PROCESSORS
Q1) a) Draw and explain Data Flow model of ARM7. [6]

b) Draw format of status register of MSP430 Microcontroller and explain
the function of each bit. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Draw and explain architecture of MSP430 Microcontroller. [6]
b) Explain Watchdog timer of MSP430 Microcontroller. [4]
Q3) a) Explain different GPIO registers of MSP430 Microcontroller. [6]

b) Draw foramt of CPSR of ARM7 and explain the function of each bit.[4]
OR
Q4) a) Explain the followig instructions of ARM7. [6]
i) MOV R7, R5, LSL # 2
ii) SUB R0, R1, R2
iii) MLA R0, R1, R2, R3
b) Explain modes of operation of Timer A of MSP430. [4]
Q5) a) Explain with neat diagram the relation between CCLK and PCLK with
the help of VPB/APB divider. Configure VPB divider to achieve CCLK
= 30 MHz for fosc = 12MHz. [8]
b) Interface LED’s to P1.24 to P1.31 port pins of LPC2148. Write an
embedded C program to blink LED’s. [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) a) State features of LPC214X Microcontroller and explain the function of
IOXSET and IOXCLR registers of LPC2148. [8]
b) Interface LCD to LPC2148 and write a program to display string ‘SPPU’.
[8]
Q7) a) List features of UARTO of LPC2148. Write an embedded C program to

transmit character ‘A’ to PC. [8]
b) Draw and explain interfacing of SD card with LPC2148 using SPI
protocol. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Draw and explain interfacing of EEPROM using I2C communication to
LPC2148. Draw flowchart to read and write data in EEPROM. [8]
b) List the features of on chip ADC of LPC2148. Write an embedded C
program to convert analog input into digital. [8]
Q9) Describe in brief. [18]

a) CMSIS structure of ARM cortex series
b) Need of operating systems in Embedded system
c) ARM CORTEX M3
OR
Q10)a) Compare ARM cortex A, M, R series. [6]
b) Explain bit banding technique used in cortex. [6]
c) Compare ARM cortex M3 with ARM7 TDMI. [6]
t t t
[5560]-547 2
P3594 [5560]-548
T.E. (Electronics)
BUSINESS MANAGEMENT AND ORGANIZATION
(2015 Course) (Semester-II) (304208)
1) Answers the Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8.
Q1) a) Explain Emergence of Indian MNCs & transnational corporations. [7]

b) Write short note on industrial Revolution- its effect. [7]
c) Explain Joint stock companies, their features, merits and demerits. [6]
OR
Q2) a) What are Recent trends in business world? [7]
b) Explain the positive and negative effects of globalization. [7]
c) State and explain meaning, scope and evolution of commerce and
Industry. [6]
Q3) a) Explain Changing Concepts and Objectives of Business. [8]

b) Write short note on Business ethics. [8]
OR
Q4) a) What is Social Change? Explain in detail. [8]
b) Explain the importance of professionalization in business. [8]
Q5) a) Explain Management: Meaning, Definition, its nature purpose. [10]

b) Explain Management as Art and Science. [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Write short note on Contribution of F.W.Taylor. [10]
b) What are the Functions of Management? [8]
Q7) a) What is Business Strategy? Explain Role of different Strategies in business.

[8]
b) Explain Relevance of environment friendly Management and its Benefits.
[8]
OR
Q8) a) What is Change Management? Explain in detail. [8]
b) Explain different classes of decisions. What are the levels of decision?
[8]

[5560]-548 2
P3596 [5560]-550

PLC AND APPLICATION
(2015 Pattern) (Semester - II) (End sem.) (304210)
2) Figures to the right side indeicate full marks.
Q1) a) For output 7 to be ON, Input 6 must be OFF and either input 8 or 9 must
be ON. In addition, one of inputs 1,2 or 3 must be ON. Draw Gate
Logic Diagram, Relay Ladder and PLC Ladder Diagram. [6]
b) Explain Realy type Instructions. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Explain Processor memeory organization with necessary diagram. [6]
b) What are advantages and disadvantages of PLC? [4]
Q3) a) Draw the ladder diagram of control of traffic lights in one direction. [6]
b) Explain Analog PLC operation. [4]
OR
Q4) a) List various types of output control devices which are Interface with
PLC and explain any one output control device. [6]
a) Draw PLC ladder diagram for automatic water sprinkler system for a
garden with necessary diagram. [4]
Q5) a) Enlist various types of operating environment considered for PLC. Explain
any four types of operating environment. [8]
b) Explain [9]
i) Receiving Test, Check and Assembly
ii) Electrical Noise
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) a) What do you mean by voltage variation and surges? List different external
suppression devices for voltage variation and surges and explain any one.[9]
b) Explain in detail about Troubleshooting of Input and Output module
Malfunction. [8]
Q7) a) Explain on/off control and motion control in detail. [8]

b) Explain in detail Explain function of MTU and RTU. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Draw and explain the block diagram of SCADA system in detail. [8]
b) List various process used in industry. Explain any one processes used in
process control Industries. [8]
Q9) a) What are the advantages of standard industrial network? Explain the
Ethernet IP Communication interface in detail. [9]
b) Explain the Controller area network (CAN) protocol in detail. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain about Fieldbus and Profibus protocol. [9]
b) Explain types of communication interface and types of networking
channels in PLC. [8]

[5560]-550 2
P3597 [5560]-551
T. E. (E&TC)
DIGITAL COMMUNICATION

1) Attempt Q.No.1or Q.No.2, Q.No.3 or Q.No.4, and Q.No.5 or Q.No.6.
2) Assume suitable data, if required.
Q1) a) Draw basic digital communication block diagram and explain in detail.[7]
b) Explain T1 carrier system with neat diagram. [7]
c) Show that if a wide sense stationary process X(t) is passed through a
LTI filter with impulse response h(t), then its output has constant mean
square value. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Draw block diagram of PCM and explain in detail. [7]
b) A random signal Y(t)= A X(t) cos (2fct+).
Where X(t) is a stationary process with zero mean.  is the random
variable distributed uniformly over [0, 2]. Assuming X(t) and  are
independent, find mean, autocorrelation and PSD of Y(t). [7]
c) Represent the data 10011101 using following data formats. [6]
i) Unipolar RZ.
ii) Split phase Manchester.
iii) M-ary format for M=4.
Q3) a) Explain geometrical representation of signal with synthesizer and analyzer

diagram. [8]
b) Write short notes on: [8]
i) Matched filter
ii) Integrate and dump receiver
OR
[5560]-551 1 P.T.O.
Q4) a) A received (binary) signal has amplitude  2V held for a time T. The
signal is corrupted by White Gaussian noise having power spectral
density 10–4 volt2/Hz. If the signal is processed by integrate and dump
filter, what should be minimum time T of the signal so that error probability
is not above 10–4. [8]
b) Derive the expression for the probability of error of optimum filter. [8]
Q5) a) In a QPSK system, bit rate of NRZ stream is 10 Mbps and carrier
frequency is 1 GHz. Find symbol rate of transmission and bandwidth
requirement of the channel. Sketch the PSD of QPSK signal. [8]
b) Explain generation, Detection, spectrum, signal space diagram of BPSK
system. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Give mathematical representation of QPSK signal. Draw the signal space
diagram of QPSK signal. Write the expression of all the message points
in the diagram. [8]
b) Compare M-ary PSK and M-ary QAM. [8]
Q7) a) Explain Direct sequence spread spectrum baseband transmitter and

receiver with neat waveform. [9]
b) A BPSK-DSSS system, using coherent detection, is used to transmit
data at 250bps and system has to work in a hostile jamming environment
with minimum error performance of one error in 20, 000 bits. Determine
the minimum chipping rate, if the jamming signal is 300 times stronger
than the received signal? [9]
OR
Q8) a) The information bit duration in DS-BPSK SS system is 4msec. while the
clipping rate is 1 MHz. Assuming an average error probability of 10-5,
calculate the jamming margin. Interpret the result. Given: Q(4.25)=10-5
[9]
b) Write a short note on [9]
i) PN sequence generator
ii) Frequency Hop spread spectrum.

[5560]-551 2

[5560]-552
T.E. (E & TC) (Semester - VI)
DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
(2015 Pattern)
Q1) a) Discuss the merits, demerits and application of digital signal processing.
[6]
b) Find the output y(n) of a filter whose impulse response is h(n) = {1,1,1}
and input signal x(n) = {3, –1, 0, 1, 3, 2, 0, 1, 2, 1} using Overlap add
method. [7]
c) State and prove the Differentiation and scaling properties of z-transform.
[7]
OR
Q2) a) If x(t) = sin(70) + cos(55) is sampled by fs = 200Hz frequency. Then
find out Nyquist rate, Nyquist interval and Nyquist frequency. [6]
b) If x(n) ={1,2,1,2} and h(n)={l,–1,2,1}, compute the circular convolution
using DFT-IDFT method. [7]
c) Compute the z-transform and ROC of the following sequence : [7]
 2  u(n  2)  (3) u(n  1) .

n
x ( n)  1 n
Q3) a) For a given specifications of the desired low pass filter given below.
0.707 < |H()| < 1.0, 0 < < 0.2
|H()| < 0.08, 0.4 < < 
design a Butterworth filter using bilinear transfomation. [8]
P.T.O.
b) Draw cascade and parallel realization for the system given by [9]
1  z 1
H ( z) 
1 0.2 z 1  0.15z 2
OR
Q4) a) Design a digital low pass Butterworth IIR filter using bilinear
transformation for following specifications : [8]
fc = 1kHz, fs = 3kHz, Fs = 8kHz, Rp = 2dB, and As = 15dB
2
b) Apply Bilinear Transformation to H ( s )  ( s  2)( s  3) with T = 0.1 sec. [9]
Q5) a) Explain Gibbs Phenomenon observed in FIR filter design. What are the
desired features of window functions to improve frequency response?[8]
b) Realize a linear phase FIR filter structure having following impulse
response: h(n)   ( n)  1 2  ( n 1)  1 4  (n  2)  1 2  (n  3)   (n  4) [9]
OR
Q6) a) What is the use of windowing? Explain the features of Kaiser Window.[8]
b) Design a linear phase FIR band filter using hamming window with cut
off frequencies 0.2 rad/sec & 0.3 rad/sec, M=7. [9]
Q7) a) Discuss the interference cancellation in ECG using DSP. [8]

b) Explain two band digital crossover in detail. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Draw a block diagram of Digital crossover audio systems. Explain in
brief. [8]
b) Explain Compact disc recording system in detail. [8]

[5560]-552 2
P3598 [5560]-553
T.E. (Electronics & Telecommunications)

ELECTROMAGNETICS
Time : 2.30 Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
1) Answer Q1 or Q2; Q3 or Q4; Q5 or Q6; Q7 or Q8.
4) Use of smith chart and calculator is allowed.
Q1) a) A point charge of 30 nC is located at the origin, while plane y = 3 carries

charge 10nC/m2. Find D at (0, 4, 3). [7]
b) Derive an expression for capacitance of parallel plate capacitor. [6]
c) Define Biot-Savart’s law. Derive the expression for magnetic field intensity
due to straight infinite current filament. [7]
OR
Q2) a) Derive the expression of electric field intensity due to infinite sheet of
charge with density s C/m2. [7]
b) A 15nC point charge is at the origin in free space. Calculate V1 at point
P1 (–2, 3, –1) if : (a) V = 0 at (6, 5, 4); (b) V = 0 at infinity. [6]
c) Derive the boundary condition that exist between the two different
magnetics materials. [7]
Q3) a) What do you mean by displacement current. Prove that displacement
current density is given by Jd   D . [8]

t
b) State Faradays Law. A circular loop lies in z = 0 plane has radius of 0.2m
& resistance of 10 ohm. Find the current flowing through the conductor
due to field B  0.2sin103 t aˆ z . [8]
OR
Q4) a) State and explain Maxwell’s equation for time varying field in integral
and point form. [8]
b) State and prove Poynting Theorem. State significance of Poynting vector.
[8]
[5560]-553 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) Derive the expression for characteristics impedance and propagation
constant in term of primary constant of transmission line. [8]
b) A distortionless line has z0 = 60   = 20 mNp/m, velocity of
propagation = 0.6c, where C is the speed of light in a vaccum. Find R,
L, G, C and  at 100 MHz. [10]
OR
Q6) a) Discuss the reflection of wave on shorted, open circuited and matched
transmission line. [8]
b) A lossless transmission line with z0 = 75 is 30m long and operates at
2MHz. The line is terminated with a load ZL = 90 + j60 . If u = 0.6c on
the line, using Smith chart find [10]
i) Reflection coefficient
ii) Standing wave ratio
iii) Input impedance
iv) Load admittance
Q7) a) What do you mean by uniform plane wave. Using Maxwell’s equations
in phasor notation, derive the expression for Helmholtz’s equation in
free space. [8]
b) A plane wave in a nonmagnetic medium has E  50sin 108  2 z  aˆ y V/m.
Find [8]
i) Direction of wave propagation
ii) Wavelength, frequency
iii) Magnetic field H
OR
Q8) a) For uniform plane wave, explain the terms: [8]
i) Depth of penetration.
ii) Polarization.
b) Given the intrinsic impedances : 1 = 100 and 2 = 300, the normal
incident electric field Ei = 100 mV/m, calculate : [8]
i) Reflection and transmission coefficient.
ii) Reflected and transmitted electric field E
iii) Reflected and transmitted magnetic field H

[5560]-553 2
P3599 [5560]-554
T.E. (E&TC)
MICROCONTROLLERS
(2015 Pattern) (Semester -I)
1) Answer Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4, Q5 or Q6 and Q7 or Q8.
Q1) a) Explain PSW (Program Status word) of 8051 with example. [6]
b) Explain 8 LED’s with port 1 of 8051. Write assembly language program
to flash alternate LEDs after every 1 sec. [8]
c) Explain memory organization of 8051. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Explain instruction MUL, XOR and MOVXA,@DPTR [6]
b) Draw interfacing diagram to interface ADC to 8051. Write an ALP to
display hex value of LEDs connected with port 2. [8]
c) Explain modes of operation of timers available in 8051. [6]
Q3) a) State salient feature PIC 18F 458. [8]

b) Explain program & Data memory of PIC 18F 458. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain the concept of CCP modes of PIC 18458 [8]
b) Explain different ports of PIC 18FXX along with SFR. [8]
Q5) a) Explain power down modes of PIC 18 F 458 in details. [9]

b) What are the various oscillator options? How can it be select using config
register. [9]
OR
[5560]-554 1 P.T.O.
Q6) a) Write programming steps for generation of time delay using timer. [9]
b) Interface LEDs to PIC 18FXX controller. Write embedded C program
to flash LEDs after every 1 sec. [9]
Q7) a) Draw and explain MSSP structure of PIC 18F 458 controller. [8]
b) Explain RS-232 and RS-485 in detail. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain I2C protocol in details and compare I2C, RS-232 & RS-485.
[8]
b) Explain step wise procedure and design methodology of PIC test board.
[8]

[5560]-554 2
P3600 [5560]-555
T.E. (E & TC )
MECHATRONICS
(2015 Course) (Semester-I)
1) Answer Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4, Q5 or Q6, Q7 or Q8.
Q1) a) A potentiometer which is used to measure the rotational position of a

shaft has 850 turns of wire. The input range is from 160° to + 160°.The
output range is from 0 to 12V. Determine [6]
i) Span of potentiometer
ii) Sensitivity
iii) Average resolution in volts
b) List any six factors which need to be considered while selecting a sensor.
[6]
c) Determine the force needed to a piston of 2 cm radius in order to result a

force of 6000 N at the working piston of radius 6 cm. Calculate the
hydraulic pressure in bar. [4]
d) Define the following terms with respect to hydraulic pump. [4]
i) Volumetric efficiency
ii) Power efficiency
OR
Q2) a) Discuss the phases of mechatronics design process. [5]
b) If the spring transducer deflects 0.075 m when a force of 15 kN is applied,

find the input force for a displacement of 0.1 m. [4]
[5560]-555 1 P.T.O.
c) With the help of a suitable diagram explain the working principle of swash
plate axial piston pump. What is the significance of swash angle? [6]
d) Write a short note on : [5]
i) Accumulator
ii) Mechanical filter
Q3) a) With a suitable diagram explain how double acting piston compressor
delivers twice air than single acting piston compressor. [8]
b) A pneumatic cylinder is required to move a 750N load 150 mm in 0.5s.

What is the output power? [4]
c) List two advantages and two drawbacks of pneumatic system over

hydraulic system. [4]
OR
Q4) a) Explain the working of screw compressor with a neat sketch. [6]
b) Demonstrate the working of relief valve. [6]
c) What is the difference between free air and standard air? [4]
Q5) a) Determine the input pulse rate if the stepper motor has 10°per step and
rotating at 300 rpm. [4]
b) Explain the construction & working of 5/2-way pilot operated valve.

Draw its symbol. [8]
c) How relay is used as an electromechanical switch? Explain with suitable

sketch. [6]
OR
Q6) a) Write a short note on : Hybrid stepper motor. [4]
b) With a suitable sketch, explain the working of double acting cylinder.[8]
c) Explain the construction & working of non-return valve. Draw its symbol.
[6]
[5560]-555 2
Q7) a) List six points of comparison between NC, CNC and conventional
system. [12]
b) Explain the need of following sensors in engine management system.[4]
i) Throttle position sensor
ii) EGO sensor
OR
Q8) a) A train is subjected to lateral forces when it passes horizontal curves.

This causes severe discomfort to the passengers. Devise a solution to
tackle this problem. [8]
b) How autonomous ship control system is different than traditional

approach? [8]
[[[[
[5560]-555 3
P3601 [5560]-556
TE(E & TC)

POWER ELECTRONICS
(2015 Pattern) (Semester - II) (304186)
1) Answer Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8.
Q1) a) Explain the nature of gate characteristics & analyze the gate circuit
requirements. [7]
b) Draw & explain working of single phase fully controlled rectifier for R
load .Draw input output Voltage waveforms. State equation for average
output voltage. [7]
c) Explain 120° conduction mode of three phase inverter for balanced star
R load with circuit diagram [6]
OR
Q2) a) Describe the concept of Safe operating areas of MOSFET & IGBT.[7]
b) Draw & explain three phase semi converter for R load with input &
output voltage waveforms. [7]
c) Explain 180° conduction mode of three phase inverter for balanced star
R load with circuit diagram [6]
Q3) a) Explain the operation of step down chopper with circuit diagram and
derive an expression for its output voltage in terms of chopping frequency.[8]
b) Classify SMPS ,draw a generalized block diagram of SMPS State its
advantages and limitations. [8]
OR
Q4) a) In DC chopper ,average load current is 30 A, Chopping freq. is 500 Hz,
Vs = 110V.Calculate on and off period of chopper ,if RL is 2 Ohms.
Illustrate your answer with suitable waveforms [8]
b) Explain working of single phase full wave bidirectional controller using
SCR with R load. Draw waveforms and State equation of RMS output
voltage. [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) What is resonant converter? State necessity of the resonant converter?[8]
b) Explain design considerations of heat sink to reduce switching losses in
the power circuits? Name four protection devices. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Compare zero current and zero voltage switching resonant converters?[8]
b) A power device has a thermal resistance of 200 deg C/watt. Calculate the
maximum permissible power dissipation when maximum junction
temperature is 75 deg C and ambient temperature is 37dgs C? [8]
Q7) a) With a circuit diagram, explain an application of Triac to control the

domestic fan speed. [8]
b) Explain working of LED lamp Driver Circuit used as a domestic tube
light. [10]
OR
Q8) a) What are Drives? Explain the working of Variable frequency three phase
induction motor drive. [8]
b) Explain working of on Line UPS. State four important commercial
specifications. [10]

[5560]-556 2
P3602 [5560]-557
T.E.(E&TC)
INFORMATIONTHEORY,CODING&COMMUNICATIONNETWORK
Q1) a) A source emits 1000 symbols per second from a range of 5 symbols
1 1 1 1 1 
with probabilities  , , , ,  find source entropy and information
 2 4 8 16 16 
rate. [6]
b) For a systematic (7,4) LBC, the parity matrix is given by [110; 011;111;101]
[7]
i) Construct Generator matrix
ii) Find code vectors for messages 1100, 0011
iii) If the received code vector is R = 0111101, find the corrected
codeword.
c) Construct GF(23) finite field for a primitive polynomial x3 + x + 1. Find
minimal polynomials for all elements. [7]
OR
Q2) a) Apply Huffman coding for the symbols [A E H N G S] generated by a
DMS with probabilities [0.19 0.15 0.2 0.16 0.4 0.08]. Also calculate
coding efficiency. [7]
b) State information capacity theorem. A channel has B.W. of 5kHz and
signal to Noise power ratio of 63. Determine the BW needed if SNR is
reduced to 31. [7]
c) Obtain Generator & Parity check matrix for (7,4) systematic cyclic
code, using Generator polynomial G(x) = x3 + x + 1. [6]
Q3) a) Define following terms related to convolutional code [8]

i) Constraint length
ii) Code rate
iii) Free length
iv) Path metric
P.T.O.
b) For (15,7) double error correcting BCH code with primitive poly
p(x) = x 4 + x + 1, the received codeword polynomial is
r(x) = x9 + x6 + x5 + x4 + x + 1. Find the corrected codeword. [10]
OR
Q4) a) For the convolutional encoder shown in fig, show state table, state diagram
and code tree. Find the codeword sequence for input message sequence
1011 [8]
b) For (15,11) RS code, find generator polynomial find code for the message
polynomial (x + 1). [10]
Q5) a) Explain classes of transmission media & give example of each. [8]
b) What is Network? Compare OSI & TCP/IP models. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain types of addresses in TCP-IP. [8]
b) Explain design issues for Network layers. [8]
Q7) a) What is ARQ? Explain three types of ARQ. [8]

b) Explain different data transfer modes of HDLC. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Give functions/services of DLL. Compare Data Link Layer with physical
layer. [8]
b) Draw & explain HDLC frame format. Explain the control field used in
HDLC for different frames types. [8]
t t t
[5560]-557 2
P3603 [5560]-558
T.E. (Electronics & Telecommunication Engg.)

BUSINESS MANAGEMENT
(2015 Pattern) (Semester-II) (304188)
Q1) a) Summarize on Elton Mayo theory of behavioural approach. [6]

b) Identify and describe quality management assistance tools. [6]
c) Elaborate the concept of cost benefit analysis with standard graphical
representation and enlist the objectives of it. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Justify- customer service and innovation are vital to the manager’s
position. [6]
b) Interpret the philosophy of Total Quality Management (TQM) with its
benefits and limitations. [6]
c) Enlist the factors for measuring quality of deliverables of service and
describe the various approaches of quality planning. [8]
Q3) a) Define Human Resource Management and describe deliberate significance

of it. [8]
b) Describe the human resource planning with neat schematic and list out
the objectives of it. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Clarify the concept of career development. Judgment on career planning
and management. [8]
b) Enlist the steps in talent acquisition process and justify-recruitment
strategies are well designed to build the right team. [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Identify and describe the role of an entrepreneur in the economic
development. [8]
b) State and explain various traits of entrepreneur. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Discuss on “Women Entrepreneur” and describe policies with schemes
for it in India. [8]
b) Identify and describe the categories of financial needs of a business
venture with sources of finance. [8]
OR
Q7) a) Define segmentation and describe basis of segmentation of consumer
goods with tree diagram. [10]
b) Explain the need of market research and describe the salient features of
it. [8]
OR
Q8) a) State the objectives of pricing and explain the factors influencing pricing
decision. [10]
b) Enlist the types of branding and enumerate the activities of sales force
management. [8]

[5560]-558 2
[5560] - 559
T. E. (E & TC)
ADVANCED PROCESSORS
(2015 Pattern) (Semester - II)
Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks :70

Q1) a) Explain programmers model of ARM7 with the help of neat diagram.
[6]
b) List various GP10 register & Explain function of each GP10 register.[6]
c) Interface 16×2 LCD with LPC 2148. Write. Embedded C program to
display sppu on 1st line and PONE of second line. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Write an embedded ‘C’ program to receive data on UARTO of ARM

processor. [6]
b) List and explain various Addressing modes of ARM7 with the help of
proper example. [6]
c) Draw and Explain Tiva TM4C1234. [8]
Q3) a) Write Embedded ‘C’ program for GSM module Also display message
“University of Pune”. [8]
b) Interface SD card with LPC 2148 also explain the How diagram in detail.
[8]
OR
Q4) a) Explain the Interfacing of GPS with LPC 2148. [8]
b) Draw and Explain I2C based EPROM Interfacing of LPC 2148. [8]
[5560]-559 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain Extended parallelism and SIMD in details. [8]
b) Write note on FIR. FFT of DSP processor. [10]

OR
Q6) a) Explain Data pater & register file in detail. [10]
b) Write note on VLIW and Von Neuman. [8]
Q7) a) Explain with examples the addressing modes of C67X processor. [8]
b) Describe interrupt structure of C67X processor. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Write note on Fetch packet and EMIF [8]

b) Write note on chip peripheral & Internal memory. [8]
***
[5560]-559 2
[5560]-560
T. E. (E & TC)
SYSTEM PROGRAMMING & OPERATING SYSTEM
Time : 2 ½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
1) Solve Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4, Q5 or Q6, Q7 or Q8.
Q1) Explain the terms w.r.t. language processing.

a) Lexical analysis, syntax analysis & semantic analysis with one example.
[7]
b) What is function of loader? Explain different loading schemes with
appropriate examples. [7]
c) Differentiate between pre-emptive & non-pre-emptive scheduling [6]
OR
Q2) a) Differentiate between macro & function with one example. [7]
b) What is need for code optimization? Explain methods of intermediate
code generation. [7]
c) Consider following processes where arrival time and burst time are as
followes. Calculate average waiting time and average turn around time if
the processes are scheduled using SJF algorithm. [6]
Process Burst time
P1 10
P2 20
P3 50
P4 70.
arrival time is 0 for all processes.
P.T.O.
Q3) a) What is dead lock in operating system? Explain in brief dead lock
avoidance method. [6]
b) Explain Dinning Philosophers problem with solution. [6]

c) Find out the safe sequence for execution of 3 processes using bankers
algorithm. [6]
Maximum resources are.
R1 = 15
R2 = 08
Allocation Matrix Maximum Required Matrix
R1 R2 R1 R2
P1 2 1 P1 5 6
P2 3 2 P2 8 5
P3 3 0 P3 4 8
OR
Q4) a) What is semaphore? Explain how semaphore is used to solve critical

section problem. [6]
b) Write a note on reader writer problem in process synchrorization. [6]
c) Find out safe sequence for execution of three processes using bankers
algorithm. Number of instances of each resource types are [6]
R1 = 7, R2 = 7, R3 = 10.
R1 R2 R3 R1 R2 R3
P1 2 2 3 3 6 8
P2 2 0 3 4 3 3
P3 1 2 4 3 4 4
Allocation Matrix Maximum Required Matrix
Q5) a) Explain concept of paging & give significant advantages & disadvantages
of the paging mechanism [6]
[5560]-560 2
b) Paging system consist of physical memory 224 bytes. Pages of total
address space are 256 page size of 210 bytes. How many bits are in the
logical address. [6]
c) Consider the page reference string. [4]
 1 2 3 4 2 5 3 4 2 6 7 8 7 9
7 8 2 5 4 9.
Page frame size = 3.
Calculate page faults using LRU.
OR
Q6) a) Consider the page reference string as following [6]

2 3 2 1 5 2 4 5 3 2 5 2
Page frame size = 3
Calculate page faults using FIFO.
b) Given the memory partitions of size 100k, 500k, 200k, 300k, 600k in
order. How would each of the first fit, best fit worst fit algorithms place
the process of 300k, 530k, 190k, 425k. Which algorithm well make most
efficient use of memory? Comment. [6]
c) Differentiate between paging & segmentation. [4]
Q7) a) Explain linux file system. [6]

b) Give significance of disc sheduling algorithms. Consider the following
disc request sequence for a disc with 100 tracks. [6]
45 21 67 90 4 50 89 52 61 87 25
Head pointer is at 50
Calculate avg. seek length. With FCFS algorithm.
c) Explain different directory structures and directory operations. [4]
OR
Q8) a) Explain in brief : [6]

i) Interrupt driven I/O
ii) I/O using DMA
b) Explain I/O sofware layer [6]
c) Write a note on RAID disc [4]

[5560]-560 3
P3606 [5560]-561
T. E. (Electrical)
ADVANCED MICROCONTROLLER AND ITS APPLICATIONS
(2015 Course) (Semester - I) (End Sem.) (303141)

1) Attempt Q.No1or Q.No2, Q.No.3 or Q.No.4, Q.No.5 or Q.No.6, Q.No.7 or Q.No.8,
Q.No.9 or Q.No.10.
Q1) a) Compare CISC and RISC Architecture. [6]

b) Explain the following instruction with suitable example [4]
i) BN n
ii) BCF f,b,a
OR
Q2) a) Write C program to generate delay of 50m sec using Timer 0. Assume
crystal frequency of 10 MHz. [6]
b) Mention alternate function of Port B. [4]
Q3) a) Explain the following in detail : [6]

i) Immediate addressing mode
ii) Direct addressing mode
b) Write a assembly language program to blink LED connected to RBI. [4]
OR
Q4) a) Explain RAM memory organisation in detail. [6]
b) Write assemble language program to add the contents of five consecutive
memory location starting from 20H and store result into WREG. [4]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain CCP1CON register in detail and also give its count, if we want
to toggle CCP1 pin upon match. [8]
b) Mention the steps of programming Capture mode. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Write a C program to generate 2.5 Khz PWM frequency at 75% duty
cycle on CCP1 pin. [8]
b) Explain speed control of DC motor using Compare mode. [8]
Q7) a) Write programming steps to receive data serially, also find the value in
SPBRG register to have baud rate to 9600 at Fosc = 10 MHz. [8]
b) Draw and explain LCD interfacing with pic18f458 [9]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the steps of Timer interrupt programming. [8]
b) Write C program to transmit character “A” continuously at a baud rate
of 9600 and crystal frequency of 10 MHz. [9]
Q9) a) Explain ADCON0 and ADCON1 register in details. [8]

b) Draw the interfacing diagram of voltage measurement and also explain
its interfacing procedure. [9]
OR
Q10)a) Explain interfacing of LM35 for Temperature measurement. [8]
b) Show interfacing and write C program to generate Square wave using
DAC. [9]

[5560]-561 2
P3607 [5560]-562
T.E. (Electrical Engineering)

ELECTRICAL MACHINES - II
1) Attempt Q. No. 1 or Q. No. 2 & Q. No. 3 or Q. No. 4 & Q. No. 5 or Q. No. 6,
Q. No. 7 or Q. No. 8 & Q. No. 9 or Q. No. 10.
2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate maximum marks.
4) Use of non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted.
5) Neat figures must be drawn wherever necessary.
Q1) a) Draw a neat figure of salient type three phase alternator name each part.
[4]
b) A 4 pole, three phase 50Hz star connected alternator has 60 slots with
four conductors per slot. Coils are short pitched by three slots. If the
phase spread is 60°, find the line voltage induced for a flux per pole of
0.943 Wb distributed sinusoidally in space. All the turns per phase are in
series. [6]
OR
Q2) a) What is armature reaction of alternator? Explain its effects on synchronous
machine for unity power factor load. [4]
b) A three phase, 11kV star connected alternator delivers 0.75 power factor
lagging and unity power factor. Full load current of 80A is produced on
short circuit by a field excitation of 2.8A. An emf of 400V per phase is
produced on open circuit by the same excitation. The armature resistance
is 0.7. Determine the voltage regulation. [6]
Q3) a) Explain how synchronous reactance of salient pole machine determined

by Slip test. [4]
b) A three phase, star connected alternator has per phase direct axis armature
and quadrature aixs reactance of 0.7pu and 0.5pu respectively. If the
generator delivers kVA at rated voltage at full load and 0.8 power factor
lagging, find the percentage regulation. Assume armature resistance
0.017pu. [6]
OR
[5560]-562 1 P.T.O.
Q4) a) Define short circuit ratio and state its significance. [3]
b) Two alternators A and B are connected in parallel. The rating of A is

150MW and that of B is 300 MW. Full load regulation of A and B are 3
percent and 4 percent respectively. Find the load sharing when connected
load is 450 MW. Assume no load frequency of 50 Hz. [7]
Q5) a) With a neat diagram explain the construction and working of super
conducting generator. Also state its advantages. [8]
b) With a neat diagram explain rotor rheostat speed control of slip ring
induction motor. [8]
OR
Q6) a) State different methods of speed control of three phase induction motor.
Explain V/f method of speed control. [8]
b) With a neat diagram explain the construction and working of brushless

d.c. motor, also mention its applications. [8]
Q7) a) Discuss the various modifications to be made in the design of d.c. series
motor so as to make it work satisfactorily on a.c. supply. [8]
b) Write down the procedure to plot circle diagram of A.C. series motor.
[8]
OR
Q8) a) Why compensating winding is used in series motor? Compare

conductively and inductively compensated series motors. [6]
b) Draw the circle diagram of plain A.C. series motor. Describe how to find
motor input, motor output and speed scale. [10]
[5560]-562 2
Q9) a) Draw and epxlain equivalent circuit of a single phase induction motor
based on double field revolving theory. [8]
b) Draw the circuit diagram of a capacitor start capacitor run single phase
induction motor and explain its working. Draw the phasor diagram and
speed torque characteristics. Where this type of motor is commonly
used. [10]
OR
Q10)a) Explain why single phase induction motor is not self starting, with help
of cross field theory. [8]
b) The test results of a 230V, single phase induction motor are given below:
[10]
Blocked Rotor Test : 110V, 9.5A, 450W
No Load Test : 230V, 4.4A, 120W.
The stator winding resistance is 1.4. Find the equivalent circuit

parameters and the core, friction and windage losses.

[5560]-562 3
P3608 [5560]-563
T.E. (Electrical)
POWER ELECTRONICS
1) Answer any one questions from Q1 & Q2, Q3 & Q4, Q5 &Q6, Q7 &Q8, Q9 & Q10
3) Black figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q1) a) Explain with neat circuit diagram operation of R-C triggering circuit of
Thyristor [5]
b) Write short note on Class E Chopper. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Describe working of single phase semi converter with RL load. Draw
weveforms of load voltage, load current. [5]
b) Draw and explain output and transfer characteristics of MOSFET [5]
Q3) a) Describe working of single phase circulating type of dual converter with
output voltage waveform. [5]
b) State and explain different modes of operation of SCR with the help of
V-I characteristic. [5]
OR
Q4) a) Explain the following ratings of the thyristor.
i) Latching current
ii) Holding current [5]
b) For a type A chopper circuit, source voltage Vs = 220V, chopping period,
T=2000  s , on period =600  s , load circuit parameters: R 1, L  5mH
and E=24V. Calculate the maximum and minimum values of steady state
output current. [5]
[5560]-563 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) With neat diagram explain four mode operation of a TRIAC. [8]
b) Explain working of three phase fully controlled converter with RL load
& firing angle of 300. Draw output voltage waveforms & obtain
expression for phase voltage & Line voltage. [8]
OR
Q6) a) A three phase full converter operating from three phase, 415V, 50Hz
supply with resistive load, Determine average output voltage for
= 30o and = 90o. [8]
b) What is two stage ac voltage regulator? Explain its operation with output
waveform for RL Load. [8]
Q7) a) For single pulse width modulation with quasi square wave show that output
voltage can be expressed as V0   n 1,3,5,.......

4Vs n
sin sinnd sinnwt.

n 2
Where Vs is source voltage and pulse width is 2d. [8]
b) Explain with circuit diagram and waveforms operation of single phase
current source inverter. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain Sinusoidal Pulse width modulation with necessary waveforms.
[8]
b) A single phase full bridge inverter is operated from 48V battery and is
supplying power to a pure resistive load of 10 .Determine [8]
i) Output voltage (rms voltage)
ii) Output rms power
Q9) a) List different harmonic elimination techniques used in inverter. Explain
any two methods in detail. [10]
b) Draw a neat diagram and explain cascaded multi level converter. [8]
OR
Q10)a) Explain working of three phase six step voltage source inverter in 180o
mode of operation. For star connected load draw output voltage
waveforms. Show devices conducting in each step. [10]
b) Write short note on Flying Capacitor multilevel converter. [8]

[5560]-563 2
P3609 [5560]-564
T.E. (Electrical )
ELECTRICAL INSTALLATION,
MAINTENANCE AND TESTING
1) Answer Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4, Q5 or Q6, Q7 or Q8.
2) Neat diagrams be drawn whenever necessary.
Q1) a) Compare -3 phase, 4-wire A.C. underground system with 3-phase

3-wire system on the basis of volume required for the conductor material.
[8]
b) State and explain Kelvins law. State limitations of Kelvins law. [6]
c) Write short note on thermography concept with respect to maintenance

of transformer. [6]
OR
Q2) a) A single phase distributor has a resistance of 0.2 Ω and reactance of 0.3
Ω . At far end the voltage Vb is 240 V. and current is 100 Amp at 0.8
p.f. lagging. At midpoint a the current is 100 Amp at 0.6 p.f. lagging
with respect to voltage Va at a. Find supply voltage and phase angle
between Vs and Vb. [8]
b) State different types of maintenance strategies. Explain Breakdown and

preventive maintenance. [6]
c) State the objectives of Neutral Earthing. [6]
Q3) a) Explain the process of condition monitoring of transformer bushings.[10]
b) Explain the various abnormal condition and causes of failure of induction

motor. [8]
OR
[5560]-564 1 P.T.O.
Q4) a) How degree of polymerization and partial discharge measurement is used
for condition monitoring of transformer? [10]
b) What is signature analysis? How it is used for condition monitoring of

induction motor? [8]
Q5) a) Explain general rules for commercial and residential wiring work. [8]
b) While estimating, how price catalogue, labour rates and schedule of rates
are correlated? [8]
OR
Q6) a) What are the essentials of estimating and costing? How cable sizing is to
be decided for particular application. [8]
b) State the general factors that should be considered in estimation of HT

and LT lines. [8]
Q7) a) List out various objectives of Electrical safety. [8]
b) Explain IE Act and Statutory Regulations with respect to electrical safety.

[8]
OR
Q8) a) Write a short note on: [8]
i) Different hazardous area and its effects on human body.
ii) Danger arising due to failure of Insulation of the equipment.
b) Explain different causes of accidents and describe how electric accidents

can be prevented? [8]
[[[[
[5560]-564 2
P3610 [5560]-565

POWER SYSTEM - II
(2015 Course) (Semester - II) (Backlog)
4) Use of Calculator is allowed.
Q1) a) Derive the equation for receiving end active and reactive power flow in
the transmission line. [5]
b) Derive the formula for critical disruptive voltage in corona. [5]
OR
Q2) a) A 132 kV single circuit, three phase transmission line has the ABCD
parameters A = D = 1 ∠0º, B = 11.18 ∠63.43º Ω, C=0. The line is to
deliver 75 MVA at 0.8 PF lagging at load end. The receiving end voltage
is 132 kV. How much reactive and active power is to be dissipated from
the sending end. [5]
b) What do you mean by PU system? Explain the advantages and applications
of per unit system. [5]
Q3) a) Explain the phenomenon of corona and state factors affecting corona
loss. [5]
b) Three motors are connected to a common bus. Each motor is rated
5000 HP, 3.3kV, 0.8 PF with 17% reactance. They are supplied by a
generator 20MVA, 11kV with reactance 10% through 11/3.3kV, 18MVA
transformer and having 5% leakage reactance. Draw the per unit reactance
diagram. Take 1kVA = 1.1×HP. Take 20MVA and 11kV base on generator.[5]
OR
Q4) a) A three phase, 220kV, 50 Hz transmission line consists of 2cm radius
conductor spaced 2 meters apart in equilateral triangular formation. If
the temperature is 40°C and atmospheric pressure is 76cm, calculate the
corona loss per km of the line. Take m0 = 0.85. [5]
b) Derive static load flow equation for n bus system. [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Write short note on selection of circuit breakers. [8]
b) Explain the following terms related with symmetrical fault analysis. [8]
i) Percentage reactance
ii) Base KVA
iii) Short circuit current
iv) Short circuit KVA
OR
Q6) a) Explain the concept of sub transient, transient and steady state current
and impedances of unloaded alternator under symmetrical fault condition.[8]
b) Three phase 11kV, 5 MVA generator has a direct axis steady state
reactance of 25%. It is connected to a 3 MVA transformer having 5%
leakage reactance and ratio of 11kV/33 kV. The 33 kV side is connected
to a transmission line having 30Ω reactance. A three phase fault occurs
at other end of transmission line. Calculate steady state fault MVA and
current assuming no load prior to fault. Take base of 11 kV, 5 MVA on
generator. [8]
Q7) a) Derive formula for fault current in case of LL fault. [8]

b) The line to neutral voltages in a three phase system are VRN = 200 ∠0º,
VYN = 600 ∠100º, VBN = 400 ∠270º. Find the symmetrical components
of voltages. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Derive the expression for fault current in case of line to ground fault
considering the sequence network with suitable diagram. [8]
b) If x1 and x2 are positive and negative sequence reactance respectively,
show that [8]
L-L Fault Current  x1 

= 1.732  
L-L-LFault Current  x1 + x2 
[5560]-565 2
Q9) a) Compare EHVAC transmission with HVDC transmission. [9]
b) Draw and describe monopolar and bipolar HVDC transmission system

with merits and demerits. [9]
OR
Q10) a) What are the recent developments in HVDC transmission system? State
any two HVDC systems in India. [9]
b) Draw a single line diagram of HVDC transmission system and explain

the components used. [9]

[5560]-565 3
P3611 [5560]-566
T.E.(Electrical)
CONTROL SYSTEM - I
1) Answer any one question from each pair of questions : Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5
or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8.
Q1) a) Draw the electrical analogous network and write the equation [7]
b) The poles of a real rational transfer function are given as 0, –1 and – 4.

There is a single zero (of order 2) at S = (–3). Determine the transfer
function and plot pole zero on S-plane. [5]
c) The block diagram of a unity feedback control system shown in figure
below. [8]
Determine the characteristic equation of the system ωn, ξ, ωd, tp, Mp the
time at which the first overshoot occurs, the time period of oscillation.
OR
P.T.O.
Q2) a) Define the following: [7]
i) Time response
ii) Transient response
iii) Steady state response
iv) Delay time
v) Rise time
vi) Peak time
vii) Settling time
b) A characteristic equation of a feedback control system is given by
s5 + s4 + 4s3 + 4s2 + 2s + 1 = 0 comment on stability. [4]
c) A unity feedback control system has an open loop transfer [9]
K
G(s) = 2 Sketch the root locus of the system by determining
s( s + 4s + 13)
the following
i) centroid and angle of asymptotes
ii) Angle of departure from the poles
iii) The value of K and the frequency at which the root locus crosses
the imaginary axis.
Q3) a) Define and write formula [8]

i) Resonant frequency
ii) Resonant Peak
iii) Band width
iv) Plot Mr, Mp versus ξ for a second order system
b) A unity feedback system has open loop transfer function
( s + 2)
G(s) = using nyquist criterion determine whether the closed
( s + 1)( s − 1)
loop system is stable or not. [8]
OR
Q4) a) Briefly state the nyquist criterion. [6]
b) Sketch the bode plot for the system whose open loop transfer function
20(0.1s + 1)
is given by G(s) = and find GM, PM, ωgc, ωpc.[10]
s(0.5s + 1)(0.3s + 1)
[5560]-566 2
Q5) a) Define Gain margin, phase margin, phase crossover frequency, gain
crossover frequency. [6]
b) Sketch the asymptotic plot for open loop transfer function given by
2( s + 0.25)
G(s) = 2 from bode diagram determine GM, PM, ωgc,
s ( s + 1)( s + 0.5)
ω pc . [12]
OR
Q6) a) Sketch bode diagram showing gain margin and phase margin for [6]
i) Stable system
ii) Unstable system
b) Using nyquist criterion investigate the stability of a closed loop control
system whose open loop transfer function is given by [12]
K
G(s) =
s ( sT 1 + 1)( sT 2 + 1)
Q7) a) Write short note on [8]

i) Lead compensator
ii) AC Tachometer
b) Explain the features of the following [8]
i) P-Controller
ii) PI-Controller
iii) PID-Controller
OR
Q8) a) Write short notes on synchros. [6]
b) For the system shown below, design PID controller using Zigler Nichol
tuning rule [10]
t t t
[5560]-566 3
P3612 [5560]-567
T.E. (Electrical)
UTILIZATION OF ELECTRICAL ENERGY
(2015 Course) (Semester-II)

Q1) a) Compare Resistance and Arc welding. [6]

b) Explain with neat diagram Ajax Watt Furnace. [6]
c) A 20 kW, 230V and 1ph resistance oven employs Nichrome wire as
heating element. If the wire temperature is to be 1200ºC and that of the
charge 500ºC. Estimate the diameter and length of the wire. The  of
Nichrome alloy is 109*10–8m. Assume k and e of the element is 0.57 &
0.9 respectively. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Draw electric circuit diagram used in Air Conditioner and explain in
brief. [6]
b) Explain temperature control methods of resistance furnace in brief. [6]
c) Calculate the time taken to melt 3 ton of steel in 3ph arc furnace having
following data
Current:- 5000A Resistance:- 0.003
Arc voltage:- 60V Reactance:- 0.005
Latent heat:- 8.89 kcal/kg Specific heat:- 0.12
Initial temp:- 18ºC Melting Point:- 1370ºC
If the overall efficiency is 60%, find power factor and Efficiency of the
furnace. [8]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Sketch the various arrangements of current collecting devices used in
electric Locomotive. [6]
b) Write a short note on flood lighting scheme. [6]
c) Compare AC and DC track electrification system. [6]
OR
Q4) a) State and explain laws of Illumination. [6]
b) Explain feeding and sectioning arrangement in traction substation. [6]
c) Write a short note on Pantograph - current collecting device. [6]
Q5) a) A train weighing 200 tons is accelerated up a 1% gradient with an

acceleration of 1 km/hr/sec. Determine the minimum adhesive weight of
locomotive for this purpose if the coefficient of adhesion is 0.2. Assume
train resistance as 50N/T and rotational inertia of 10%. [8]
b) Write a short note on Anti-collision system. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Sketch a simplified Trapezoidal speed time cure and derive the expression
for Maximum speed. [8]
b) What is Specific energy consumption? State the factors affecting on it.
[8]
Q7) a) An electric train uniformly accelerated at 6km/hr/sec for 21 sec on a level

track, braked at 6km/hr/sec. the free running period for the train is
10 min and stop time of 5 min. Draw speed time curve and calculate
distance between stations, average speed and schedule speed. [8]
b) Explain Series- parallel transition process with suitable diagram. [8]
OR
Q8) a) An electric train has an average speed of 42km/hr on level track between
stops 1400m apart. It is accelerated at 1.7 km/hr/sec and braked at 3.3km/
hr/sec. Draw the speed time curve for the run and show all the timings.
Estimate specific energy consumption of the train. Take tractive resistance
as 50N/T and rotational inertia of 10%. [8]
b) Write a short note regenerative braking in traction. [8]

[5560]-567 2
[5560] - 568
T. E. (Electrical)
DESIGN OF ELECTRICAL MACHINES
(2015 Course) (End Semester) (Semester - II) (303149)
Time : 2 ½ Hours] [Max. Marks :70

1) Attempt Q. No.1 or Q. No.2 & Q.No. 3 or Q. No.4 & Q. No.5 or Q. No. 6 & Q. No.
7 or Q. No. 8.
2) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right in bold indicate maximum marks.
4) Use of non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted.
5) Neat figures must be drawn wherever necessary.
 Gh 
Q1) a) Develop the expression for heating time constant Th   [6]
 S 
b) Differentiate between [6]
i) Hot rolled and cold rolled steel sheets &
ii) Grain oriented and non oriented sheet steel
c) A 125kVA, 2200/440V, 50Hz, three phase , delta/star, core type ONAN
type transformer requires temperature rise to be limited to 35 °C. The
specific heat dissipation from is 6 w/m2 °C and 6.5 w/m2 °C due to
radiation and convection respectively. Calculate the number of tubes
required assuming that the convection rate is improved by 35% due to
tubes. The distance between centers of adjacent limb is 0.4m, outer
diameter of HV winding is 0.35m, height of frame is 1.2m, iron loss is
2000 watts and copper loss of 6000watts, average length of tube is 141m
and diameter of each tube is 50mm. Assume clearance of 70mm and
90mm along length and width respectively and 50mm for base and 300mm
for oil. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Derive the expression of axial force produced in case of core type
transformer. [6]
b) How total reactance of a designed three phase transformer is calculated
without carrying out any tests on it. [6]
c) Write down in detail the steps to calculate the no load current of the
designed transformer without performing any test. [8]
[5560]-568 1 P.T.O.
Q3) a) Explain various factors affecting selection of specific electric loading
and specific magnetic loading. [8]
b) Determine the main dimensions, turns per phase, number of slots,
conductor cross sectional area and slot area of 100 HP, 400V, 50Hz,
1440 rpm delta connected induction motor. The specific magnetic and
electric loading is 0.45wb/m2 and 32000 A/m. The full load efficiency
and power factor is 0.9 each and winding factor is 0.955. The current
density is 4.5 A/mm2, slot space factor is 0.4, slots /pole phase is 5 and
L/ratio is 1.2. [10]
OR
Q4) a) Show that the size and hence cost of machine decreases if increased
value of specific loadings are used. [6]
b) Estimate the stator core dimensions, number of stator slots and number
of stator conductors per slot for 150kW, 3300V, 50Hz, 12 pole star
connected slip ring induction motor, the specific electric and magnetic
loading of 0.5 wb/m2 and 30000 A/m respectively. The full load efficiency
and power factor is 0.9 each and winding factor is 0.955. Choose the
main dimension to give best power factor. The slot loading should not
exceed 450 ampere conductor. Assume slots/pole/phase of 5. [12]
Q5) a) A three phase induction motor is designed to have rotor bars. If, instead
of using copper aluminium were used for rotor bars, explain what would
happen to its speed, starting torque, maximum torque and efficiency of
the motor. [8]
b) Discuss the factors that determine the choice of air gap in induction
motor. [8]
OR
Q6) a) What is unbalanced magnetic pull (UMP)? Explain the procedure to

calculate UMP. [8]
b) A 20kW, three phase, 50Hz, 6 pole, 415V, star connected squirrel cage
induction motor has 54 stator slots each having 18 copper conductors.
Calculate the area of rotor bar and endring with current density of 5 A/
mm2. The motor has full load efficiency and power factor of 0.9 and0.85
respectively. The rotor mmf may be assumed to be 90% of stator mmf
and it has 60 bars. [8]
Q7) a) Write detail procedure to calculate full load copper loss of a designed
[5560]-568 2
three phase induction motor (Without performing any test.) [8]
b) A three phase, 400V, 50Hz four pole, delta connected squirrel cage
induction motor has stator turns per phase of 180, stator bore diameter
of 21cm, gross core length of 15cm; radial air gap length of 0.5mm with
coefficient of gap expansion of 1.1. The winding factor is 0.958. Calculate
the magnetizing line current assuming the mmf for iron is 40% of mmf
required for air gap. [8]
OR
Q8) a) How stator and rotor resistances are calculated in three phase squirrel
cage induction motor. [8]
b) With neat diagram show tooth top leakage reactance and overhang leakage
reactance of three phase induction motor, write down the equations for
calculating these leakage reactances. [8]
***
[5560]-568 3
P3614 [5560]-569

ENERGY AUDIT AND MANAGEMENT
Q1) Give salient features of Electricity Act 2003. [6]
OR
Q2) What are the short term and long term energy policies? [6]
Q3) What is the necessity of energy policy ? Discuss the format of energy policy.
[7]
OR
Q4) Explain duties and responsibilities of Energy Manager. [7]
Q5) Discuss implementation of demand side management for agricultural

consumers. What will benefits of it for agricultural consumers? [7]
OR
Q6) Explain with suitable examples the role of tariff in energy management. [7]
P.T.O.
Q7) a) What is data analysis? What are different ways to analyse data? What are
the benefits of data analysis? [9]
b) In a steel rolling mill monthly production related energy consumption

was 2.1 times the production and non-production related energy
consumption was 18,500 kWh per month. In the month of June a series
of energy conservation measures were implemented. Use CUMSUM
technique to develop a table and calculate energy savings for the
subsequent 6 months period from the data given below.
Also plot CuSuM graph. [9]
Actual Energy
Month Production (kg) Consumption (kWh)
Sept 65,000 1,43,000
Oct 71,000 1,50,000
Nov 78,000 1,58,000

Dec 80,000 1,60,000
Jan 62,000 1,30,000
Feb 73,000 1,52,000
OR
Q8) a) What is energy or power flow diagram. Explain with any two examples.
[9]
b) Discuss least square method for data analysis. Also explain standard
format for energy audit report. [9]
Q9) a) Explain criteria of selection of motors for different applications keeping

in mind efficient operation. Also explain ways to increase efficiency during
starting of motors. [8]
b) Energy saving opportunities in boiler and auxiliaries. [8]
OR
[5560]-569 2
Q10)a) How fans, blowers and compressors are classified? Enlist energy
conservation measures in fans. [8]
b) Explain the method for adequacy assessment for illumination system.

What inferences can be drawn after assessment? [8]
Q11)a) The energy manager of company wants to replace 50 HP induction motor

with energy efficient motor for energy saving. On the basis on following
data calculate payback period for replacement of old motor with energy
efficient motor. Take cost of electricity is Rs 7/kWh. The demand charges
Rs. 450/kVA per month. [8]
Description Old Motor Energy Efficiency Motors

Rating of machine 50 HP 50 HP
Loading percentage 80% 80%
Operating hours per annum 6500 6500
Efficiency near full load 89% 93%
Power factor near full load 0.85 lag 0.89 lag
Capital cost - Rs. 2,50,000/-
Scrap value Rs. 50,000/- -
b) Explain financial appraisal criteria. [8]
OR
Q12)a) Calculate net present value for an investment of Rs. 5,00,000 for retrofit.
The energy savings realised for five years are Rs. 1,00,000, Rs. 75,000,
Rs. 1,25,000, Rs. 2,00,000 and Rs. 2,50,000/- With discounting factor
is 13% judge the economic feasibility of the project. [8]
b) Explain with suitable example break even analysis. How it is different

from others? [8]
  
[5560]-569 3
P3615 [5560]-570
T. E. (Electrical)
INDUSTRIAL AND TECHNOLOGY MANAGEMENT
(2015 Pattern) (311121)

Q1) a) Explain Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) in detail. [6]

b) Write a short note on the development in Industrial management. [7]
c) Explain ISO 14001:2004 in details. [7]
OR
Q2) a) What are six sigma? Explain in detail. [6]

b) What are the ethics in Technology management. [7]
c) What is Limited Liability Partnership? Explain LLP act 2008. [7]
Q3) a) What are the characteristics of marketing management. [5]

b) Explain online marketing in details. [5]
c) What are the methods of costing? Explain in short all methods. [6]
OR
Q4) a) Explain oligopoly in details. [5]

b) What is financial management? Explain in details. [5]
c) What is monopolistic competition? Explain. [6]
[5560]-570 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) What are the different types of group dynamics? [5]
b) Explain the different qualities for good leadership. [6]
c) What is HR planning? Explain in detail. [6]
OR
Q6) a) What is Recruitment? Explain Recruitment process in detail. [5]
b) Write a short note on [6]
i) Norming ii) Storming
iii) Forming iv) Performing
v) Adjourning
c) Explain Human Resource Management in details. [6]
Q7) a) Define Entrepreneurship. Explain the concept and trails of

Entrepreneurship. [5]
b) What are the importance and limitations of rational decision making. [6]
c) Write patent format & structure in details. [6]
OR
Q8) a) What happened if the incentives for small business development is not
given? [5]
b) What are the different forms of IPR? Explain. [6]
c) Explain decision making under certainty, uncertainty & Risk. [6]

[5560]-570 2
P3616 [5560]-571
T. E. (Instrumentation and Control)

EMBEDDED SYSTEM DESIGN
(2015 Pattern) (Semester-I)

2) Figures to right indicate full marks.
Q1) a) Explain the following Assembler Directives of 8051 microcontroller. [4]

i) ORG ii) DB
iii) EQU iv) END
b) Draw & explain the power on reset circuit of 8051 microcontroller. [6]
OR
Q2) a) Draw and explain the TMOD register of 8051 microcontroller. [6]
b) Explain in detail following instructions of 8051 microcontroller. [4]
i) MOVX A, @ DPTR
ii) MOVC A, @ A+DPTR
Q3) a) Explain the IE (Interrupt Enable) register in 8051 microcontroller. [4]

b) Write a program for 8051C using timer 1 for turning ON and OFF the
LED connected to P0.1 every second. Assume crystal frequency of
11.0592 MHz. [6]
OR
Q4) a) Explain the bits of SCON register shown below in 8051 microcontroller[4]
TB8 RB8 TI RI
b) Explain with a neat diagram, interfacing of 16×2 LCD to 8051. [6]
[5560]-571 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) With a neat schematic, explain the interfacing of RTC to 8051
microcontroller. [8]
b) With a neat diagram, explain the interfacing of Serial EEPROM with
8051 microcontroller. [8]
OR
Q6) Explain with circuit diagram interfacing of stepper motor with 8051
microcontroller. Also explain how speed and direction of the stepper motor is
changed. [16]
Q7) a) Draw architecture & Enlist the features of ATmega8535 microcontroller.

[10]
b) Draw and explain the Status Register (SREG) of AVR microcontroller .
[8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the following instructions of AVR microcontroller. [10]
i) LDI R16, $ 72
ii) PUSH R1
iii) LD R16, Y+
iv) ST Z+, R18
v) LPM
b) What is a watchdog timer? Explain WDTCR ATmega8535
WDTOE WDE WDP2 WDP1 WDP0
Q9) a) Explain the function of Timer0 also explain TCCR0 register of ATmega
8535 microcontroller. [8]
-- -- -- -- -- CS02 CS01 CS00
b) Explain the role of UDR (UART Data Register) & the bits shown below
of UART Control Register of AVR microcontroller. [8]
RXCIE TXCIE RXEN TXEN
OR
Q10)Explain the function of ADCSRA and ADMUX register of ATmega 8535

[5560]-571 2
P3617 [5560]-572
T.E. (Instrumentation & Control)

INSTRUMENTAL METHODS FOR CHEMICAL ANALYSIS
4) Assume suitable data is necessary.
Q1) a) What is Qualitative and Quantitative Analysis? Give examples. [4]

b) Define : [6]
i) Electromagnetic Spectrum
ii) Electromagnetic Radiation. What are the various types of
Electromagnetic Radiation?
OR
Q2) a) Explain the principle and setup of Coulometry. [6]

b) With sketches Derive Beers and Lambert Law. [4]
Q3) a) Explain with neat sketch single beam filter photometer. [4]
b) Explain the Instrumentation of Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometer
(AAS). [6]
OR
Q4) a) State the principle of IR Spectroscopy. List the IR Sources. [4]

b) Compare: [6]
i) Inductively Coupled Plasma & Direct Coupled Plasma.
ii) AAS & AES
[5560]-572 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) What is Fluorescence and Phosphorescence? Explain the working of
Spectrofluorimeter with block diagram. [9]
b) Explain principle of NMR Spectroscopy along with Chemical Shift. Draw
and Explain instrumentation of Fourier Transform Nuclear Magnetic
Resonance Spectroscopy (FT-NMR) [9]
OR
Q6) a) What is Raman Effect? Explain working of Raman Spectrometer with
the help of suitable block diagram. [9]
b) What are the various types of Gas Analyzers? Explain any one with neat
sketch. [9]
Q7) a) Explain principle of Mass Spectrometer. With the help of neat sketches
explain the working of Magnetic Deflection type and Quadrupole Mass
Analyzer . [8]
b) Define the term Chromatography. With neat diagram explain Gas
Chromatography. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Write short Note on : [8]
i) HPLC
ii) HPLC Detectors.
b) State and Explain Braggs Law. [8]
Q9) a) Explain the principle and working of Auger Electron Spectroscopy with
neat diagram. [8]
b) Draw and Explain X-Ray Diffractometer. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain Geiger-Muller Counter with neat sketch. [8]
b) Draw and explain the Scintillation counter with different applications.[8]
[[[[
[5560]-572 2
P3618 [5560]-573

CONTROL SYSTEM COMPONENTS
(2015 Pattern) (Semester - I) (End - Sem.) (306263)
Q1) a) Draw the symbols of the following types of switches and give the use of
these switches [5]
i) Push button
ii) SPST switch
iii) Pressure switch
iv) Level switch
v) Selector switch
b) What purpose does FRL unit serve in pneumatic supply. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Draw circuit using relay to implement AND and OR gates. [5]
b) Explain the construction and working of reed relay. [5]
Q3) a) Draw symbols of following pneumatic components and give the use of
these components: [5]
i) Relief valve
ii) Check valve
iii) Flow control valve
iv) 3/2 Directional Control valve (DCV)
v) Compressor
b) Explain overload protection circuit for motor. [5]
OR
Q4) a) Write a short note of special pneumatic cylinders. [5]
b) Draw using standard symbols pneumatic circuit for implementing the
following Y  A.B.C Y is single acting cylinder and A, B, C are inputs
(Push button operated DCVs) [5]
[5560]-573 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) Draw hydraulic meter in and meter out circuits. [10]
b) Explain the construction and working of gear pump. [8]
OR
Q6) a) For a hydraulic system implement a circuit using standard hydraulic circuit
symbols for stamping application in which the object is to be clamped
before it is stamped. [10]
b) Compare hydraulic systems with pneumatic systems based on following.
[8]
i) Power Generated
ii) Load handled
iii) Economy
iv) Hazardous area application
Q7) a) Explain with a neat sketch the construction & working of high/low
selectors. [8]
b) State the need of seals and snubbers. [8]
OR
Q8) a) What are the front panel controls of alarm annunciator. [8]
b) State the need of a circuit breaker. Explain operating principle of circuit
breaker. [8]
Q9) a) Explain with respect to bistable amplifier the following points: [8]
i) Principle of operation
ii) Characteristics
iii) Working
iv) Application
b) Explain various purging methods. [8]
OR
Q10)a) Explain hazardous area classification as per NEC standards. [8]
b) Explain the concept of Intrinsic safety used for use of equipment in
hazardous area. [8]

[5560]-573 2
[5560] - 574
T. E. (Instrumentation and Control )
CONTROL SYSTEM DESIGN
(2015 Course) (Semester - I)
Time : 2.30 Hours] [Max. Marks :70

Q1) a) What is system compensation? How to select the suitable compensator

for system. [5]
b) Compare the lead and lag compensator. [5]
OR
Q2) Design lead compensator for system such that dominant closed loop pole
located at s  2  3.46 j . [10]
10
G s 
s  s  2
Q3) a) Explain how the PID setting parameters affect system dynamics. [5]
b) Explain different control actions in brief. [5]
OR
Q4) Design a lead compensator for unity feedback control system with open loop
transfer function, [10]
K
Gs 
s  s  1
For the specification of Kv = 10sec–1 and  m = 35o.
[5560]-574 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) A unity feedback control system has following time domain specification;
[10]
s  2.4  3.2 j
The forward path transfer function is given as below. Design PI Controller.
5
G s 
 s  2  s  5  .
b) Explain direct synthesis method of controller design for first order system
with and without time delay. [6]
OR
Q6) a) Use the Direct Synthesis design method to calculate PID controller settings
for the process; [8]
2e  s
G s 
10s  1 5s  1
Consider three values of the desired closed-loop time constant,
 c = 1,3&10.
b) Design a PD controller such that PM = 35o at = 2rad / sec, The open
loop transfer function for unity feedback system is; [8]
10
G s 
s  s  1 s  3 
Q7) a) Find the state transition matrix, characteristic equation, eigenvalues and
stability of system for system; [10]
 0 1 0
x    x  1 u
 10 7   
b) Determine whether following system with transfer function is controllable

and observable or not. [8]
Y s 10  s  3

U  s  s  s  2  s  4 
OR
[5560]-574 2
Q8) a) Find the response of system to unit step input. Also determine the output
of the system; [10]
0 1  0 1
x    x  1  u & y  1 0  x  u with initial condition x  0   1 .
0 2    
b) Determine the state controllability and observability of system; [8]
 2 1 0  1 
x   0 2 0  x  1  u and y = 1 0 0 x
     
 1 2 3 0 
Q9) The system defined by following state space equation, [16]
0 1 0
x    x   u
 6 8 1
By using the state -feedback control u = – Kx, it is desired to have the closed-
loop poles at s =–4, –5. Determine the state-feedback gain matrix K.
(Use Transformation approach and Ackerman’s methods).
OR
Q10) The system defined by following state space equation, [16]
0 1 0 
x    x   u
 6 8 1 
y  1 0 x
Design a full-order state observer, assuming that the desired poles for the
observer are located at s = –40, –50. (Use Transformation approach and
Ackerman’s methods).
***
[5560]-574 3
Total No. of Questions : 10 ] SEAT No. :
P3620 [5560]-575
T.E. (Instrumentation & Control )

INDUSTRIAL ORGANISATION & MANAGEMENT
(2015 Pattern) (306265) (Semester-I)
Q1) a) State and explain Porters five forces. How they will be helpful in
competitive business. [6]
b) Compare private limited company & Public limited company. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the following quality standards. [6]
i) ISO-9000
ii) ISO-14000
b) Write a note on environmental management system. [4]
Q3) a) Define Pollution? Give factors causing pollution. Explain air pollution in
brief. [5]
b) With reference to general example, explain Ishikawa Diagram. [5]
OR
Q4) a) Write short note SWOT analysis. [5]
b) Determine EOQ for the following data. Annual requirement quantity (D)
is for a manufacturing industry is 10,000 units. Cost of each unit is $8.
The cost of placing the order is Rs. $2. The carrying cost percentage
(h/c) = 0.02 [5]
[5560]-575 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) Define manpower planning . Explain the functions and process of man
power planning. [12]
b) What is performances appraisal? Explain its importance. [6]
OR
Q6) a) What is Leadership? What are the characteristics of good leader? What
are the different leadership styles? [12]
b) What is capital? What are the two types of capital? Give the different
source of finances. [6]
Q7) a) State and explain how balances sheet, profit and loss account evaluate
the performances of a company. [8]
b) Explain budgeting and different methods of capital budgeting. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the role of Information technology in Modern Business. [8]
b) What are the functions of Money market and Capital market. [8]
Q9) a) Explain need of Management Information system (MIS) in details? [8]
b) Write a short note on e-business strategy. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system with example. [8]
b) Explain Need for professional and business ethics. [8]
[[[[
[5560]-575 2
P3621 [5560]-576
T.E.(Instrumentation & Control)

DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING
1) Answers Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4, Q5 or Q6, Q7 or Q8, Q9 or Q10.
5) Use of calculators/Log table is allowed.
Q1) a) Determine the linear convolution between the sequences. [6]

x(n) = {2, 1, 1, 1} and y(n) = {1, 4, 2}
 
b) Compare between ASP (Analog Signal Processing) and DSP (Digital
Signal Processing). [4]
OR
Sketch the discrete time signal x ( n ) = 3 for −1 ≤ n ≤ 1 and obtain. [6]
−n
Q2) a)
i) y1(n) = 2x(n) + δ(n)
ii) y2(n) = x(n) δ (n+ 1)
b) Comment on the stability of the system with impulse response
n
1
h( n) =   u ( n) . [4]
2
Q3) a) Determine the inverse z-transform of the system described by [4]

z ( z − 0.7 )
H (z) =
( z − 0.5 )( z − 1)
b) The discrete-time system is described by the following difference
equation. [6]
y (n) = y (n − 1) − 0.3 y (n − 2) + x(n) + x(n − 1)
Determine
i) Transfer Function
ii) Sketch the pole-zero plot
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Prove the following properties of the z-transform [4]
i) Linearity
ii) Time Shifting
π 
b) Find the DTFS of the sequence x(n) = cos  n  . [6]
3 
Q5) a) Compute the 8-point DFT of the sequence x(n) = {1,0,1,0,1,0,1,0} using
radix-2 decimation-in-time (DIT) FFT algorithm. [12]
b) Compute the 4-point DFT of the sequence x(n) = cos(nπ ) for 0 ≤ n ≤ 3 [6]
OR
Q6) a) Compute the circular convolution between the following sequences using
graphical method x1 (n) = {1,2,1} and x2 ( n) = {1,2,3,4} [12]
 
b) Explain the following concept in FFT Algorithm. [6]
i) Bit reversal technique
ii) In-place computation
s + 0.2
Q7) a) Transform the analog filter transfer function H a ( s) = into
( s + 0.2)2 + 4
a digital filter H(z)using impulse-invariant method at TS=1sec. [6]
b) Design an IIR low - pass Butterworth filter using bilinear transformation
for the following specifications: [10]
Passband : 0.8 ≤ H ( e jω ) ≤ 1 for ω ≤ 0.2π
Stopband : H ( e jω ) ≤ 0.2 for 0.6π ≤ ω ≤ π
Assume T = 1sec
OR
Q8) a) For the given specifications of LPF : Ωp = 1, Ωs = 2.33, Ap = 0.5dB and
As = 22dB compute the Filter order for Chebyshev and Butterworth
analog filter. [6]
b) Design a Chebyshev analog filter with a maximum pass-band attenuation
of 2.5dB at Ωp = 20rad / sec and a minimum stop-band attenuation of
30dB at Ωs = 50rad / sec . [10]
[5560]-576 2
Q9) a) Compare between FIR and IIR filter. [6]
b) Design an linear - phase FIR LPF with the following desired frequency
response [10]
 − j 2ω π
e 0≤ ω ≤
4
Hd (e ) = 
jω
 0 π
≤ ω ≤π
 4
Use a Hanning window

OR
Q10) a) Explain the Gibb’s phenomenon in detail. [6]
b) Design an ideal FIR HPF of length M = 7 with a frequency response[10]
 2π
1 ≤ ω ≤π
5
Hd (e ) = 
jω
0 2π
ω≤
 5
Using Fourier series method.

[5560]-576 3
P3622 [5560]-577
T.E.(Instrumentation and Control)

PROCESS LOOP COMPONENTS
3) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Moiller charts, electronic pocket calculator
is allowed.
Q1) a) Draw and explain pressure control loop using standard P & 1D symbols.
[6]
b) How offset is eliminated by integral action in a Proportional Integral
Controller. [4]
OR
Q2) a) List various process characteristics and explain any two of them. [6]
b) Compare SMART and conventional transmitter. [4]
Q3) a) Explain the following terms related to controller. [6]

i) Dead zone
ii) Rate action
iii) Proportional Band
b) Explain with neat sketch current to pressure converter. [4]
OR
Q4) a) List the various methods of tuning. Explain any one in detail. [6]
b) Suppose a process error lies within the neutral zone with P(0) = 15%, at
t = 0, the error falls below the neutral zone. If the rate constant is 3% per
second, final the time when the output saturates. [4]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain the following terms w.r.t. Programmable Logic Controller [8]
i) Fixed and Modular PLC
ii) Timers
iii) Scan cycle
iv) Input module
b) Draw a ladder diagram for a two-motor system having the following
conditions : [6]
The start switch starts motor 1 & 2. The stop switch stops motor 1 first,
and after 15 seconds motor 2 stops.
c) List different manufactures and programming languages of Programmable
Logic Controller. [4]
OR
Q6) a) Explain the following w.r.t Programmable Logic Controller [8]
i) Ladder diagram
ii) Rung
iii) Scan time
iv) Output module
b) List out the different input and output field devices used in PLC. [4]
c) Draw a ladder diagram for a two-motor system with the following
conditions : [6]
The start switch starts motor 1; and 10 seconds later motor 2 starts; the
stop switch stops motor 1 and 15 seconds later motor 2 stops.
Q7) a) List various types of control valve. Draw and explain any one type in
detail. [8]
b) Explain w.r.t control valve [8]
i) Plug
ii) Travel indicator
iii) Control valve coefficient
iv) Yoke
OR
[5560]-577 2
Q8) a) Draw and explain the installed and inherent valve characteristics. Draw
the plug shapes for three basic characteristics. [8]
b) Compare single seated globe valve with double seated valve. [8]
Q9) a) Draw and explain Cavitation and Flushing. Draw pressure profile diagram.
Also list techniques to reduce it. [10]
b) What are the factors considered while selecting a type of control valve.[6]
OR
Q10)a) Level is being controlled in a tank. The flow range is 100 to 1,000 gpm.
The liquid is mineral oil and has a specific gravity of 0.88 line pressure is
100 to 150 psi and the throttling pressure drop varies from 50 to 110 psi.
The temperature may vary from 70 to 140 ºF. Size the conrol valve and
select a characteristic type that will satisfy the process. [10]
b) List different control valve noises. Explain any one type. [6]
t t t
[5560]-577 3
P3623 [5560]-578
T.E. (Instrumentation and Control)

UNIT OPERATIONS AND POWER PLANT INSTRUMENTATION
1) Solve Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or Q.10, Q.11 or Q.12.
Q1) Define term Unit Operation? State any two Unit Operations used in Coal
handling System? [6]
OR
Q2) Differentiate the distillation and liquid-liquid extraction with respect to the
following points [6]
a) Process.
b) Application.
Q3) Derive stripping line and rectifying line equations for fractionator (Continuous
Distillation). [8]
OR
Q4) What are the selection criteria for the industrial dryers? Discuss the factors
affecting the total time required for drying? [4 + 4]
Q5) Draw and explain working of Hydro-electric power generation plant? [6]
OR
Q6) Draw and Explain the block diagram of PV system. Discuss any two advantages
and disadvantages of it? [4 + 2]
P.T.O.
Q7) a) Explain with diagram the function of following in boiler? [3 × 4]
i) Electro-static precipitator.
ii) Soot blower.
iii) Economizer.
b) Explain Draft System used for removal of gaseous combustion products
in the thermal power plant. [4]
OR
Q8) a) Describe instrumentation used in boiler with following points [9]
i) Air-fuel ratio control.
ii) Steam temperature and pressure control.
iii) Boiler interlocks.
b) Which Safety Standards are used for boiler? Explain in detail. [7]
Q9) a) Does the excess combustion air affect the efficiency of the boiler? Justify
your answer? [6]
b) What is the role of condition monitoring system in turbine instrumentation?
Explain in detail? [10]
OR
Q10)a) Explain how thermal stress is measured and controlled in turbine? [8]
b) Explain causes of turbine vibration? How it affects turbine performance
over the time? Where do the major losses occur and how they are
corrected? [8]
Q11)a) Compare the nuclear power plant and thermal power plant on the basis
of Performance, efficiency, site selection, Economics-capital and running,
pollution? [9]
b) State the safety issues regarding thermal power plant? Mention one
standard? [9]
OR
Q 12)a) Compare hydroelectric power plant wind power plant, solar plant on the
basis of Performance, efficiency, site selection, Economics-capital and
running, safety standards? [9]
b) Write the safety issues regarding nuclear power plant? Mention one
standard? [9]

[5560]-578 2

[5560] - 579
T.E. (Instrumentation & Control Engineering) (Semester - II)
Instrument and System Design
(2015 Pattern)
Q1) a) What is prototyping? Mention its advantages. [5]
b) What do you mean by ‘Ergonomics’? Explain physical and cognitive

ergonomics. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Explain Product Life Cycle in detail. [5]
b) Explain Human Body Model for ESD. [5]
Q3) a) Design an Instrumentation Amplifier using IC AD620 for a gain of 7.

Write applications of IC AD 620. [5]
b) Explain use of IC AD594/595 as a Set Point Controller. [5]
OR
Q4) a) Discuss the need of cold junction compensation. How this is achieved in
the IC AD 594/595? [5]
b) Classify grounding. Explain the hybrid grounds. [5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Draw a circuit to drive a 5V, 100 ohm relay with 3V supply using IC
MCT2E (CTR = 0.7). [8]
b) Explain any one application of IC ULN 2803 with a suitable diagram.
[8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain with typical integrator output waveform, three working phases
of the IC 7107. Calculate the conversion time if the clock frequency is
1 MHz. [8]
b) Explain use of CD4046 as Frequency Multiplier. [8]
Q7) a) List various steps in PCB design. What are various approaches in
designing layout for a given circuit while preparing PCB? [9]
b) List the different design rules to be followed for digital circuit PCBs.
[9]
OR
Q8) a) What are different types of PCBs? Explain Multilayer PCBs. [9]
b) List the different design rules to be followed for analog circuit PCBs.
[9]
Q9) a) Explain the term - Availability, MTBF, MTTF and MTTR. [8]
b) Explain in detail role of documentation in system design. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Write a short note on Weibull and Gamma Distribution. [8]
b) Define : Reliability, Quality, Hazard Rate, Cumulative Distribution
Function. [8]

[5560]-579 2
P3624 [5560]-580

BIO - MEDICAL INSTRUMENTATION
(2015 Pattern) (Semester - II) (End Sem.) (306272)
Q1) a) Explain polarizable and non polarizable type of electrode? [5]

b) Explain the types of surface electrodes and their properties? [5]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the function of SA node AV node in cardiovascular system with
neat sketch. [5]
b) Design analog heat rate meter. [5]
Q3) a) Explain transient protection and its need. [4]

b) Explain Doppler shift ultrasonic blood flow measurement along with neat
diagram. [6]
OR
Q4) a) Describe Direct BP measurement techniques. [6]
a) Explain photo plethysmography. [4]
Q5) a) Explain 10-20 electrode placements for EEG recording. [8]

b) Explain the neuron structure and neuro muscular transmission. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Draw the block diagram of an EEG unit and explain the different parts in
it. [8]
b) Explain the muscle contraction mechanism. [8]
P.T.O.
Q7) a) Explain Human auditory system? [8]
b) Explain working of basic audiometer? [8]
OR
Q8) a) Draw and explain Eye anatomy. [8]
b) List the instruments used for detecting visual acuity. [8]
Q9) a) Explain the natural process of breathing and regulation of breathing. [8]
b) What are the methods available to measure air flow? Explain any one in
details. [10]
OR
Q10) a) What is Spirometer? Explain the Spirogram with sketch. [10]
b) Draw and explain infrared gas analyzers. [8]

[5560]-580 2
P3625 [5560]-581
T. E. (Information Technology)
THEORY OF COMPUTATION

Q1) a) Convert the following NFA with -moves into NFA without  moves.[6]
b) Give formal definitions for the following [4]

i) Deterministic finite automata
ii) Moore machine
iii) Reachable states of P
iv) Acceptance of a string by FA
OR
Q2) a) Construct FA for the following language L.

L=[w/w is a binary word of length 4i , i>=1 such that each consecutive
block 4 bits contains at least 2 0’s] [8]
b) Give difference between moore & mealy machine. [2]
[5560]-581 1 P.T.O.
Q3) a) Show that. [6]
i)  a.b*  a *.b*
ii)  a  b *   a  b  *   a  b  *
b) Convert the following grammar to GNF [4]
S  ABA AB BA AA A B
A  aA/ a
B  bB/ b
OR
Q4) a) Write CFG for the following languages. [6]
L= 0 i1 j0 k | j  i  k 
L= 0 i1 j 2 k | i  j  k 
b) Convert the following grammar to CNF. [4]
S  bA|aB
A  bAA|as|a
B  aBB|bs|b
Q5) a) Construct PDA that accepts the language by the following CFG. [8]
S  SS| (S) | ()
b) Construct post Machine that accepts the following language. [8]
L  a nb n a n | n  0
OR
Q6) a) Show that: L  a nb nc n | n  1 not a CFL. [5]

b) Construct post machine that accepts following language [5]
L  a nb m | n  0, m  0
c) Construct PDA that accepts following language L  a nb n | n  0 . [6]

Write simulation for string ‘aaabbb’
[5560]-581 2
Q7) a) Construct a TM to compute L  a nb 2 n | n  0 Write simulation for the
string.
i) abb ii) aabbbb [10]
b) Design TM for the language L={02n} over   0,1 . [8]
OR
Q8) a) Design a TM that multiplies two unary numbers over   1 . Write
simulation for the string 11&111. [8]
b) Design TM to accept the set L of all strings formed with 0&1 and having
substring ‘000’. [8]
c) Differentiate between FA & TM. [2]
Q9) a) Prove that [8]

i) AREX= {<R,W>| R is a regular expression that generates string
w} is a decidable language.
ii) ECFG=  G  | G isa CFG and L(G)   is a decidable language.

b) Explain class P with two examples. [8]
OR
Q10)a) Prove that ATM=  m, w | M isa TM and accepts w is undecidable [8]
b) Explain post correspondance problem. [8]

[5560]-581 3
[5560]-582
T.E. (Computer Engineering)
DATA BASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM

1) Answer Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4 Q.5 or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or Q.10.
Q1) a) Consider following schema: [5]

account (acct-no, branch - name, balance)
Depositor (cust - name, acct - no)
borrower (cust-name, loan-no)
loan (loan - no, branch - name, amount)
Write following queries using SQL (any 2)
i) Find names of all customers who have a loan at the Redwood branch.
ii) Find all customers who are having an account and loan or both.
iii) Find average account balance at each branch.
b) Define DBMS. Explain advantages of DBMS over file system. [5]

OR
Q2) a) For the database system to be usable, it must retrieve data efficiently.
The need of efficiency has led designers to use complex data structures
to represent data in the database. Developers hide this complexity from
the database system users through several levels of abstraction. Explain
those levels of abstraction in detail. [5]
b) Write a PL/SQL block for following requirement and handle the
exceptions. [5]
Roll no. of student will be entered by user. Attendance of roll no. entered
by user will be checked in Student table. If attendance is less than 75%
then display the message “Term not granted” and set the status in Student
table as “D”. Otherwise display message “Term granted” and set the
status in Student table as “ND”.
P.T.O.
Q3) a) It is easy to create index on all attributes of any relation, why it is not
recommended to create index on all attributes? [5]
b) Write PL/SQL code block that raise a user defined exception when
business rule is violated. Business Rule for client - master table specifies
when the value of bal - due field is less than 0 handle the exception. [5]
OR
Q4) A university registrar’s office maintains data about the following entities:[10]
• courses, including number, title, credits, syllabus, and prerequisites;
• course offerings, including course number, year, semester, section number,

• instructor(s), timings, and classroom;
• Students, including student-id, name, and program; and

• instructors, including identifiation number, name, department and title
Further, the enrollment of students in courses and grades awarded to students in

each course they are enrolled for must be appropriately modeled.
a) Construct an E-R diagram for the registrar’s office. Document all
assumptions that you make about the mapping constraints.
b) Construct appropriate tables for E-R diagram designed with above
Requirements.
Q5) a) To ensure atomicity despite failures we use Recovery Methods, Explain

in detail Log-Based Recovery method. [8]
b) What benefit does rigorous two-phase locking provide? How does it
compare with other forms of two - phase locking? [9]
OR
Q6) a) State and explain the ACID Properties. During its execution, a transaction
passes through several states, until it finally commits or aborts. List all
possible sequences of states through which a transaction may pass.
Explain the situations when each state transition occurs. [8]
b) Suppose a transaction Ti issues a read command on data item Q. How
time - stamp based protocol decides whether to allow the operation to
be executed or not using time - stamp based protocol of concurrency
control. [9]
[5560]-582 2
Q7) a) For concurrency control in distributed transaction distributed lock manager
approach is used: explain in detail different approaches for dealing with
replication of data items in distributed lock manager approach. [8]
b) Describe Two Phase Commit (2PC) protocol. Explain how 2PC protocol
responds in different ways to various types of failures like site failure,
coordinator failure and network partition. [9]
OR
Q8) a) Explain Data Replication and Data Fragmentation in Distributed Data
Storage. [8]
b) Explain in details two important issues Speedup and Scale up in Parallel

Databases. Also explain which factors work against efficient parallel
operation and can diminish both speedup and scaleup. [9]
Q9) a) List the different NOSQL data Models. Explain document store NOSQL
data model with example. [8]
b) Explain the CAP theorem referred during the development of any

distributed application. [8]
OR
Q10)a) Analyze the use of NoSQL databases in current social networking

environment also explain need of NoSQL databases in social networking
environment over RDBMS. [8]
b) BASE Transactions ensures the properties like Basically Available, Soft

State, and Eventual Consistency. Explain each property with its
significance. How soft state of system is depend on Eventual consistency
property. [8]

[5560]-582 3
P3627 [5560]-583

SOFTWARE ENGINEERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT
(2015 Pattern) (End - Semester - I) (310243)
1) Attempt questions Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4, Q5 or Q6, Q7 or Q8, and Q9 or Q10.
Q1) a) Explain the importance of Requirement Engineering. [5]

b) What are the conditions in which Rapid Application Development Model
is preferred? [5]
OR
Q2) a) How Agile/XP methodology will help project managers? [5]
b) Explain about various categories of non functional requirements & their
importance. [5]
Q3) a) Abstraction & refinement are complementary concepts. Justify. [4]

b) Define terms ‘Software’ and ‘Software Engineering’. “Software does
not wear out”. State whether this statement is true or false. Justify your
answer. [6]
OR
Q4) a) How architecture can be mapped to components? What is meant by
instantiation of the system? [5]
b) Explain in detail Call and Return Architectural Style. [5]
Q5) a) Explain the role of people project, product and process in project
management. [8]
b) What is need of project estimation? What are the steps while estimation
of software? [8]
OR
Q6) a) What is a task network in project scheduling? Explain with an example.[8]
b) Compare Lines of Code (LOC) and Function Point (FP) based estimation
techniques with the suitable example. [8]
[5560]-583 1 P.T.O.
Q7) a) What do you understand by Software Configuration Management (SCM)?
Discuss the importance of SCM. [8]
b) Compare forward engineering with reverse engineering. [5]
c) How risk projection is carried out using risk table? [5]
OR
Q8) a) Prepare RMMM plan for late delivery of software product to the customer.
[6]
b) How forward engineering is applied to Client Server Architectures? [6]
c) Explain Software Configuration Management (SCM) process. [6]
Q9) a) What is cyclomatic complexity? How is it determined for flow graph?

Explain with an example. [8]
b) What is system testing? Explain any two system testing strategies. [8]
OR
Q10)a) With suitable example illustrate in which situations you will prefer
boundary value analysis over equivalence partitioning. [8]
b) Write a short note on defect management. [4]
c) Differentiate between alpha and beta testing. [4]

[5560]-583 2
[5560] - 584
T. E. (Computer Engineering )
INFORMATION SYSTEMS AND ENGINEERING ECONOMICS
(2015 Course) (Endsem) (Semester - I) (310244)

1) Answer Q1) or Q2), Q3) or Q4), Q5) or Q6), Q7) or Q8), Q9) or Q10).
5) Use of scientific Calculator is Permitted.
Q1) a) What are the different types of Information Technology? [5]

b) What are the challenges managers face while adopting cloud computing?
[5]
OR
Q2) a) Analyze the bargaining power of the courier firms vs. Flipkart. Who has
an edge? [5]
b) List and explain the characteristics of Transaction Processing System.[5]
Q3) a) Enlist the different technologies used for security. Explain them in brief.[5]
b) Explain various modules of Enterprise Resource Planning System. [5]
OR
Q4) a) What is ICT? Why are developing countries interested in ICT? [5]
b) Which one is better and why? Centralized IT management or decentralized
IT management. [5]
Q5) a) What is time value of money? How is it calculated? [8]

b) If the nominal interest rate offered by X bank is 9% and is compounded
quarterly while that of the Y bank is 8.5 % but is compounded
continuously. Which bank is offering a better deal? [8]
OR
[5560]-584 1 P.T.O.
Q6) a) State and explain in short the four fundamental principles that are followed
in any Engineering Economic Decision? [8]
b) Explain the significance of equivalence calculation in economics. How it
is related to cash flow? [8]
Q7) a) Explain with suitable example Net Present Value Method. [8]
b) Explain the following terms [8]
i) MARR
ii) Profitability index
OR
Q8) a) What are different types of inflation? Explain them in brief. [8]
b) Explain the following terms [8]
i) Internal Rate of Return
ii) Constant Value of Currency
Q9) a) What are the different types of financial statements? Explain them in
brief. [10]
b) Explain Capital Expenses and Operating Expenses with proper examples.
[8]
OR
Q10) a) Enumerate the elements of project cost. Explain them in brief. [10]
b) Describe different methods of depreciation. [8]
***
[5560]-584 2
P3629 [5560]-585
T.E. (Computer)
COMPUTER NETWORKS
(2015 Course) (Semester-I)
Time :2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70
Q1) a) Compare Circuit switching and Packet switching with reference to call
setup, physical path, Bandwidth, congestion, transmission, transparency.
[6]
b) Represent 10000101111 using Manchester and differentnal Manchester
line coding technique. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Which TCP/IP layer is responsible for functioning of the following? [6]
i) Determining the best path to route the packets
ii) Providing end-to-end process communication with reliable service
iii) Error Control & Flow control
iv) Provides access for end user
v) Interface to transmission media
vi) File Transfer
b) Define DSSS and explain how it achieves bandwidth spreading. [4]
Q3) a) Explain HDLC (I,S and U frame) in detail? [6]
b) What are the differences between switch and Router ? Explain. [4]
OR
[5560]-585 1 P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain CSMA/CD in detail? [4]
b) Calculate the throughput for stop-and wait protocol, if the frame size is
4800 bits, bit rate is 9600 bps, within distance 2000km with speed of
propagation 20,00,00 km/s. [6]
Q5) a) I asked my Internet Service Provider (ISP) for some static IPs. They
responded that I have been allocated 129. 22. 8.32/29. How many IPs
can I setup/provision in my network? What is the first and Last IP address?
[4]
b) Explain ICMP protocol in detail. [6]
c) Explain Network Address Translation (NAT) in detail. [8]
OR
Q6) a) A host with IP address 130.23.3.20 and physical address B 23455102210
has a packet to send to another host with IP address 130.23.43.25 and
physical address A46EF45983AB. The two hosts are on the same Ethernet
network. Show the ARP request and reply packets encapsulated in
Ethernet frames. [6]
b) Consider the subnet given in fig. Distance vector routing is used and the
following vectors have just come in to router C: from B (5, 0, 8, 12,
6, 2); from D (16, 12, 06, 0, 9, 10); and from E (7, 6, 3, 9, 0, 4). The
measured delays to B,D and E are 6, 3 and 5 respectively. What is Cs
new routing table? Give both the outgoing line to use and the expected
delay? [6]
c) Explain the concept of Classful (A, B, C, D and E) and Classless

addressing. [6]
[5560]-585 2
Q7) a) Explain RTP protocol in detail. [8]
b) What are three different types of sockets? Explain various socket primitives
used in connection oriented client server approach. [8]
OR
Q8) a) What is the difference between TCP and UDP, Explain TCP Header
format in detail. [8]
b) What causes Silly Window syndrome? How it is avoided? Explain. [8]
Q9) a) What is the difference between persistent & non persistent HTTP? Explain
HTTP request and reply message format. [8]
b) Why we need DHCP? Explain in detail. [8]
OR
Q10) a) What is DNS? Explain its various resource records with example. [8]
b) Explain FTP? Write any four FTP commands. [8]
[[[[
[5560]-585 3
P3630 [5560]-586
T.E. (Computer)
DESIGN & ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS
(2015 Pattern) (Semester-II) (310250)

4) Make suitable assumption whenever necessary.
Q1) a) Explain issues related to iterative algorithm design. [6]

b) Obtain a set of optimal Huffman codes for the messages (A, B, C, D, E, F)
with relative frequencies = (8, 5, 26, 30, 20, 11) draw the decode tree for
this set of codes. [6]
c) Explain branch and bound approach with suitable example. What are
general characteristics of branch and bound? [8]
OR
Q2) a) Consider a knapsack instance n = 4, weight (w1, w2, w3, w4) = (2, 3, 4, 5),
profits (p1, p2, p3, p4) = (1, 2, 5, 6) and capacity, M = 8. Find optimal
solution using dynamic programming. [6]
b) What is stepwise refinement? Explain with example. [6]
c) Why the correctness of algorithm is important. What is loop Invariant
property? Explain with example. [8]
Q3) a) What is deterministic and non-deterministic algorithm? Explain with

example. [8]
b) What is Boolean Satisfiability Problem? Explain 3-SAT problem. Prove
3-SAT in NP-complete. [8]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Define asymptotic notation. What is their significance in analyzing
algorithms? Explain Big oh, Omega and Theta notations. [8]
b) What are steps to prove NP-completeness of a problem? Prove that

vertex cover problem is NP-complete. [8]
Q5) a) Explain the concept of Randomized algorithm and approximation

algorithm in brief with example. [8]
b) Explain embedded system? Explain scheduling algorithm for embedded

system in detail. [8]
OR
Q6) a) What is amortized analysis? Explain aggregate and accounting techniques

with example. [8]
b) Write short note on: [8]
i) Binary Heap ii) Splay Trees
Q7) a) Explain multithreaded algorithms. How to analyze multithreaded

algorithms? What is race condition, parallel loops? [9]
b) Write and explain Rabin-Karp algorithm. Explain the worst case and
best case running time of Rabin Karp Algorithm? [9]
OR
Q8) a) Give pseudo code for Multithreaded matrix multiplication. Analyze the
same. [9]
b) What is distributed algorithm? Explain Distributed Minimum Spanning

Tree. [9]

[5560]-586 2
P3631 [5560]-587

SYSTEM PROGRAMMING AND OPERATING SYSTEM
1) Solve Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or Q.10.
Q1) a) What is system software? Explain any four System software’s in brief?[5]
b) Draw a neat flowchart of Pass-I of two pass macro processor and explain
it. [5]
OR
Q2) a) What is absolute loader? Explain design of absolute Loader with suitable
example and flowchart, also show text card and transfer card for same.
[6]
b) Write lex program to recognize identifiers, numbers, keywords and

relational operators used in “C” program? [4]
Q3) a) Draw a general model of compiler and explain all phases in brief. [6]
b) Differentiate between Static and Dynamic link libraries? [4]
OR
Q4) a) Explain formats of ESD, RLD, TXT and END cards with respect to
direct linking loader with suitable example? [6]
b) Justify use of Macro name table(MNT) in macro processor? Explain

different fields of MNT with suitable example? [4]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Draw Gantt chart and calculate Avg. turnaround time, Avg. waiting time
for the following processes using Priority based (non-preemptive)
scheduling and SJF (preemptive) scheduling policies. [6]
(Consider Low no. as high priority)
Processes Arrival time Burst Time Priority
P1 0 8 1
P2 0 6 2
P3 2 1 3
P4 3 2 0
b) What is operating system? Draw and explain layered approach with
advantages and disadvantages. [6]
c) What is deadlock? Explain deadlock recovery methods? [6]
OR
Q6) a) What are the types of schedulers? Explain them with suitable diagram?[8]
b) Explain process control block in detail. [6]
c) What is real time OS? Explain its types with suitable examples? [4]
Q7) a) What is TLB? Explain in brief. [5]

b) Compare fixed and variable sized partitioning. [3]
c) What is the need of page replacement policies in virtual memory
management? Consider given page sequence 2,3,2,1,5,2,4,5,3,2,5,2 and
the size of the frame is 3. Show the output of FIFO, LRU and Optimal,
also count page faults for each algorithm. [8]
OR
Q8) a) What is internal fragmentation? Explain same with suitable diagram/
example. [4]
b) What is virtual memory? Explain Paging with example. [6]
c) Given a memory partitions of 100K, 500K, 200K, 300K and 600K (in
order), how would each of the first fit, best fit and worst fit algo. Place
processes of size 212K, 417K, 112K, 426K (in order)? Which also makes
the most efficient use of memory. [6]
[5560]-587 2
Q9) a) Write a note on free space management. [4]
b) Consider the disk access requests given as 53, 98, 183, 37, 122, 14, 124,
65, 67 where starting head position is - 53. Calculate average seek time
using FCFS, SSTF, SCAN and C-SCAN disk scheduling policies and
show which policy performs better? [12]
OR
Q10)a) Define following terms with respect to disk access : [3]
i) Seek time
ii) Rotational Latency
iii) Data transfer time
b) Explain directory structure with its types, also discuss directory,
implementation in detail. [7]
c) What are the file access methods? Explain them in detail. [6]
t t t
[5560]-587 3
P3632 [5560]-588

EMBEDDED SYSTEM & INTERNET OF THINGS
1) Answer any five questions Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or Q.10.
4) Draw neat & labelled diagram wherever necessary.
Q1) a) What are the Good qualities of RTOS? List any 4 RTOS. [5]
b) What is Publisher-Subscriber communication model with diagram. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Explain Purpose & Requirement specification step of loT system design
methodology, consider smart loT-based automation system as an
example. [5]
b) List the application layer protocol for IoT systems. Explain one of those
in detail. [5]
Q3) a) Explain Earliest deadline and Rate monotonic scheduling algorithm with
example. [5]
b) What is SCADA? Explain the components of it. [5]
OR
Q4) a) What is SoC? Explain major applications of SoC and benefits of it. [4]
b) What is the importance of service specification in IoT design
methodology? [4]
c) Justify Raspberry Pi is suitable for IoT system? [2]
Q5) a) What are issues with loT standardization? [5]

b) Explain the Modbus message framing and transmission modes. [6]
c) Explain Zigbee architecture with diagram. [5]
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Explain the Zigbee node types and their functions. [6]
b) Explain the functions of layers of BACNet protocol. [6]
c) What are the challenges for securing IoT? [4]
Q7) a) Define: Web of Things. Explain pillars of the web? [6]

b) Justify Cloud computing is the fusion of grid and SOA. [6]
c) What is Cloud of Things Architecture. [5]
OR
Q8) a) Explain SoDA architecture with diagram. [6]
b) Explain SaaS, PaaS & laaS with example in Cloud Computing. [6]
c) What is OSGi: The Universal Middleware? [5]
Q9) a) Design Weather Monitoring system, what are the different components
required? Draw deployment design for this system. [4]
b) Write short note on : [9]
i) Amazon Auto Scaling.
ii) Xively Cloud for IoT.
iii) Amazon EMR.
c) Explain WAMP protocol interaction between peers. [4]
OR
Q10)a) What is Django ? Explain model, template and view in Django. [6]
b) Describe the use of Amazon Kinesis for IoT. [5]
c) Discuss Air Pollution Monitoring system using IoT. Draw domain and
controller model. [6]

[5560]-588 2
[5560] - 589
T. E. (Computer Engineering)
SOFTWARE MODELING AND DESIGN
(2015 Pattern) (Semester - II)(310253)
Time : 2 ½ Hours] [Max. Marks :70

1) Q. 1 and Q. 2 are compulsory. Solve Q. 3 or Q. 4, Q. 5 or Q. 6, Q. 7 or Q. 8.
2) Assume suitable data if required.
3) Figure to the right indicate full marks.
Q1) a) Explain difference between procedural/structural and Object-Oriented

paradigm of design. [5]
b) Write a use case specification for the use case: User authentication? [5]
Q2) a) Draw sequence diagram for Event registration system? [5]

b) Why class diagram is important in static modeling? Explain different
relationship used in class diagram? [5]
Q3) a) Explain synchronous communication pattern in client server architecture

with example? [6]
b) Explain Location & Platform transparency in service oriented architecture?
[6]
c) Write short notes on [6]
i) web registration services
ii) Brokering & discovery services
OR
Q4) a) Explain asynchronous message communication with call back pattern

with suitable example? [6]
b) Explain important characteristic of real time software architecture? [6]
c) Explain dynamic view of software architecture with the help of example?[6]
[5560]-589 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) Explain proxy pattern? Describe its intent, motivation, Applicability &
implementation with example? [6]
b) Draw structure of observer pattern with suitable class diagram including

subject and observer? [6]
c) Write short note on [4]
i) Port provided & required interface
ii) Real time software architecture

OR
Q6) a) Explain Behavioral Design Pattern in short? [4]

b) Explain factory pattern? Describe its intent, motivation & implementations
with example? [6]
c) What is singleton pattern? Explain one example scenario where you will
Singleton pattern to get applied? [6]
Q7) a) What is integration testing; Explain its type in details? Define Stub &
Driver? [8]
b) What is Black box testing? Why it is called BBT? Also explain boundary
value analysis? [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain graph based testing with suitable example? [6]
b) Compare white box testing and black box testing. [4]
c) What is performance testing? List few tools of performance testing? [6]
***
[5560]-589 2
P3634 [5560]-590

WEB TECHNOLOGY
1) Answer Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 ro Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or Q.10.
Q1) a) List and discuss the different design issues in web development? [5]
b) Write at least any five Differences between HTML and HTML5. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Discuss the XSLT technology with an example. [5]
b) Write a program of your choice to demonstrate the use of DOM. [5]
Q3) a) Write a Java Servlet which will display “welcome to Servlet” message.[5]
b) Explain HttpServlet Request and HttpServlet Response with suitable
examples. [5]
OR
Q4) a) How to create array and read elements in Java script. [5]
a) Write the differences between include action and include directive in
JSP. [5]
Q5) a) Classify data type of PHP and describe various data types in each type.[8]
b) Explain with simple example the XMLHttp Request Object. List and
explain different values of readystate and status property of the HTTP
Request object. [8]
OR
Q6) a) What is Associate arrays in PHP? Explain it with simple PHP code. [8]
b) What are the technologies used in traditional web programming? Also
identify location of each technology used in this model. [8]
P.T.O.
Q7) a) Draw and explain neat diagram which depicts MVC to the struts
architecure. [8]
b) Create Simple Angular JS application to display “Hello, Input Name”
using proper directive. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Write sample Angular JS application which can demostrate used of
different type of expressions. [8]
b) Identify and explain data tags from struts 2 which are used to manipulate
data displayed on any web application page. [8]
Q9) a) Draw and explain scenerio of client accesing remote EJB. List some of
the EJB clients. [8]
b) What are the web services? List and explain layers in protocol stack of
web serivce architecture. [8]
c) Write short note on Content Management System. [2]
OR
Q10) a) Write EJB code to aquire JNDI conext through (i). default JNDI properties
and (ii). Seperate JNDI properties. [8]
b) Draw and explain each tier of three tiers architecture using EJB. [8]
c) Write a short note on Spring. [2]

[5560]-590 2
P3635 [5560]-591
T.E. (I. T.)

THEORY OF COMPUTATION
(Semester-I) (314441) (2015 Pattern)

Q1) a) Design FA that rear string made up of letters in the word CHARIOT
and accept those string that contain CAT as a substring. [5]
b) Find out the regular Expression from given transition diagram (FA) by
using Ardens theorem. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Show that L = {0i1i | i ≥ 1} is not regular, by using pumping lemma. [6]
b) Define - (i) Language- [4]
With an
Example- (ii) Regular Expression
[5560]-591 1 P.T.O.
Q3) a) Find out the CFG From given language L cantains the strings consisting
of as and bs with at least two as . [2]
b) Find the CFL associated with given CFG. [3]
S → a A /1/B
A → 1B /1
B → 0A/0
b) Convert the following grammar into (CFF). [5]
S → ABA
A → a A/∈
B → b B/∈
OR
Q4) a) Write a short Note on Chansky Hierarch with an example. [4]

b) Check whether the following grammar is ambiguous or Not, if it is
ambiguous, remove the ambiguity & write an equivalent ambiguous
grammar. [6]
S → iCts/iCtsCS
C → b, S → a
Q5) a) Construct PDA for following language. [8]

L = { 0n1m 2n | n, m > = 0}
b) Design post machine for language. [8]
L= { an bn | n ≥ 1 }
OR
Q6) a) Obtain PDA for given grammar [10]
S → a ABC
A → aB|a
B → bA|b
C→a
Design PDA for following language.
b) L = { an bn cm dm | n, m > = 1} [6]
[5560]-591 2
Q7) a) Design a TM that multiplies two unary. [10]
numbers over Σ = { a }
Write simulation for (i) aa & aaa
(ii) aaa & aaa
b) Explain the halting problem in TM. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Construct TM for the language. [10]
L = { an bn cn | n > 0 }
show simulation for (i) aabbcc (ii) abbccc
b) Compare FM , PDA, PM, & TM with respect to language grammar ,
powerfulness and example. [8]
Q9) a) Prove that following are decidable languages. [10]

i) ACFG= { ( G, W) | The context sensitive grammar G accepts the
input string W}.
ii) ADFA = { ( B, W) | B accepts the input string W}
b) Prove that pcp with two lists x = (01, 1, 1)
y = ( 012, 10, 11) has no solution. [6]
OR
Q10) a) Show that HALT TM={ (M, W) | The turing Machine M holts on input W} is
undecidable. [8]
b) Prove that It is undecidable whether a CFG is ambiguous. [8]
[[[[
[5560]-591 3
[5560]-592
T.E. (IT) DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM

2) Black figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Your answers will be valued as a whole.
Q1) a) Specify codd’s Norms to be satisfied by RDBMS? [5]

b) Explain the problems that may arrive if the DBA doesnot discharge the
responsibilities properly? [5]
OR
Q2) a) Explain different Join operations in Relational Algebra with suitable
example. [6]
b) What is Normalization? State & explain 2NF & 3 NF. [4]
Q3) a) What are the possible causes of transaction failure? Explain the
siganificance of ACID properties. [5]
b) Why is query optimization importent for databases? [5]
OR
Q4) a) What are the issues in determinig lock granularity? What is multiple
granularity. [5]
b) Explain the motivations for using news. Is it possible to update news?

[5]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) What is the basis of immediate updates recovery technique? What does
the deterred updates recovery technique involve? [8]
b) Explain major objectives of distributed database design. [8]
OR
Q6) a) What are the different techniques of data replication? Explain with suitable
example. [8]
b) Explain the concept of log & how it helps with database recovery with
suitable diagram. [8]
Q7) a) Define JSON. What is the rule for writing JSON? Differentiate between
JSON and XML. [10]
b) What is mobile database? state the functionality required for mobile
database. [8]
Q8) a) What are XML namespaces? How to solve name conflict? [6]
b) Write a short note on : (any 3) [12]
i) Cloud databases
ii) Internet data bases
iii) HBase Data model
iv) HDFS
Q9) a) What is motivation behind supervised classification? What is training
data set? In what situations can this technique be useful? How can a
decision free be constucted? [8]
b) Explain the significance of machine learning to Big data. Give
applications. [8]
OR
Q10)a) Define & explain Data mining. What are major applications of data
mining? [8]
b) Define Big Data? Explain the characteristics of Big data. [8]

[5560]-592 2
P3637 [5560]-593
T.E. (I.T.)
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING AND PROJECT MANAGEMENT
(2015 Pattern) (Semester - I) (End Sem)
1) Answer Question 1 or 2, 3 or 4, 5 or Q6, 7 or 8, and 9 or 10.
3) Figure to the right indicate full marks.
Q1) a) State and explain any Five Myths of software development with reality.[5]
b) Compare between Evolutionary and Incremental Models. [5]
OR
Q2) a) What is requirement elicitation? Write the elicitation work products.[5]
b) Draw state diagram for ATM operations. [5]
Q3) a) What is meant by normal and Exciting requirements? How requirements

are validated? [5]
b) What is critical path? Explain with example how critical path method is
used to estimate the total project duration. [5]
OR
Q4) a) How to prioritize software requirements based on kano analysis? [5]
b) What is task network in project scheduling? Explain it with example. [5]
Q5) a) Explain how scrum works with basic diagram. [6]

b) Differentiate between exploratory and scripted Testing. [6]
c) Write the manifesto for agile software development. [4]
OR
Q6) a) Write short note on following: [12]
i) Test Driven Development.
ii) Pair programming.
iii) Burndown chart.
b) Write and explain the role of the scrum master. [4]
[5560]-593 1 P.T.O.
Q7) a) Explain the different tools and techniques for quality control. [10]
b) What are the common sources of risks in 77 projects. [6]
OR
Q8) a) Explain risk mitigation, monitoring and Management. [10]
b) What is software quality? Explain software quality dimensions/parameters.
[6]
Q9) a) Explain the SCM repository features. [6]

b) Explain in brief global software challenges. [6]
c) What is CRM? Explain the importance of CRM. [6]
OR
Q10)a) Write the short note on following: [18]
i) Business process Reengineering.
ii) Technology Evoluation.
iii) CASE Tools.

[5560]-593 2
[5560] - 594
T. E. (IT)
OPERATING SYSTEM
(2015 Course) (Semester - I) (314444)

1) Attempt Q. 1 or Q. 2, Q. 3 or Q. 4, Q. 5 or Q. 6, Q. 7 or Q. 8, Q.9 or Q.10.
Q1) a) Describe in brief the evolution of Operating System. [5]

b) Draw process state transition diagram and explain each state in it. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Specify the role of long term, short term and medium term scheduler in
operating system with diagram. [5]
b) Explain the difference between a monolithic and a microkernel with
advantages and disadvantages. [5]
Q3) a) Write and explain the deadlock free solution for a Dinning Philosopher
problem. [5]
b) Define thread? List and explain different thread scheduling approaches.[5]
OR
Q4) a) What is critical section? Give semaphore solution for producer-consumer

problem. [5]
b) Write a short note on following (any two): [5]

i) Resource allocation graph
ii) Monitor
iii) Mutual exclusion
[5560]-594 1 P.T.O.
Q5) a) Write a short note on Buddy System. [6]
b) For the following reference string [12]

0, 1, 3, 6, 2, 4, 5, 2, 5, 0, 3, 1, 2, 5, 4, 1, 0
Count the number of page faults that occur with 3 frames using FIFO,
Optimal and LRU page replacement methods. Discuss the results.

OR
Q6) a) Explain following terms in brief (any two): [4]
i) Internal fragmentation
ii) External fragmentation
iii) Compaction
b) Elaborate the concept of demand paging with appropriate diagram. [8]

c) Describe the address translation mechanism in segmentation with suitable
diagram. [6]
Q7) a) Suppose that a disk drive has 400 cylinders, numbered 0 to 399. The
drive is currently serving a request at cylinder 160. The queue of pending
requests, in FIFO order, is 370, 30, 390, 130, 310, 170, 340, 180. Starting
from the current head position, what is the total distance (in cylinders)
that the disk arm moves to satisfy all the pending requests, for each of
the following disk scheduling algorithms? [12]
i) FCFS ii) SSTF
iii) SCAN iv) LOOK

(Assume that the head is initially moving towards track number 399)
b) Enlist the characteristics of block and character devices? Explain each

with suitable example. [4]
OR
[5560]-594 2
Q8) a) Discuss at least two techniques for performing I/O. [8]
b) List and explain any two file allocation mechanisms. [8]
Q9) a) What is kernel module? Explain the process for inserting a module in the
kernel. [8]
b) State and explain different Linux inter-process communication
mechanisms. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain the steps in Linux booting process. [8]

b) Write a short note on the following (any two): [8]
i) Linux File System
ii) Linux memory management
iii) Linux process management
***
[5560]-594 3
P3639 [5560]-595
T.E. (Information Technology )

HUMAN-COMPUTER INTERACTION (End Sem.)
Q1) a) Explain different User Centered Design Principles? [6]

b) Explain Shneidermans Eight Golden Rules of Interface Design? [4]
OR
Q2) a) What are the Normans Seven Principles for Transforming Difficult Tasks
into Simple Ones? [6]
b) What is reasoning? Discuss with example Inductive versus Deductive
Reasoning. [4]
Q3) a) The human eye has number of limitations. Give three example. For one
of the limitations identified, describe how this should be taken into an
account in the design of indivisible interface. [6]
b) What can a system designer do to minimize the memory load of the
user? [4]
OR
Q4) a) Discuss RAM and short-term memory(STM) [5]
b) Explain significance of sensory memory in interface design? [5]
Q5) a) Describe briefly four different interactions styles used to accommodate
the dialog between user and computer, Specify advantages and
disadvantages of each interaction style? [8]
b) What is a prototype? Explain different types of rapid
prototypingtechniques.
OR
[5560]-595 1 P.T.O.
Q6) a) Write short note on process on Interaction design with respect to following
points: [8]
i) Basic activities
ii) Characteristics.
b) Write a scenario for Music player design? [8]
Q7) a) Describe any four usability goals of Internet Explorer. [8]
b) Explain the following terms. [8]
i) Predictability
ii) Synthesizability
iii) Familiarity
iv) Consistency
OR
Q8) a) Explain Hill climbing approach with prototyping? [8]
b) What is the need of MVC pattern? Draw figure and explain? [8]
Q9) a) What is mental operator in the Keystroke Level Model (KLM)? How it is
different from physical operators? [9]
b) Discuss the key differences between KLM and (CMN) GOMS. [9]
OR
Q10) a) Discuss the steps involved in estimating task execution time using KLM. How
we can use KLM to compare competing designs? [9]
b) Use a state diagram to describe the dialogue between the system and the
user. Note any additional issues this raises about the system that need to
be resolved in the design. [9]
[[[[
[5560]-595 2
P3640 [5560]-596
T.E. (Information Technology)

COMPUTER NETWORK TECHNOLOGY
Q1) a) For a given class C network 195.188.65.0. Design the equal subnets in
such a way that each subnet has at least 50 nodes. [6]
b) Explain the three way handshake algorithm for TCP connection
establishment. [4]
OR
Q2) a) What is DNS Server? Explain lookup methods used by the DNS to
resolve the remote names. [6]
b) Explain Network Layer services with example. [4]
Q3) a) How Nagle algorithm helps in TCP transmission policy? Explain the
Clark’s solution to overcome the silly window syndrome. [6]
b) What is MIME? Discuss its role in SMTP? [4]
OR
Q4) a) Write short note on POP3 and IMAP. [6]
b) Explain TCP header format. [4]
Q5) a) Explain the issues in designing a routing protocol for Ad-hoc Wireless
Network. [8]
b) Explain the basic architecture of WLAN and various components in it.[8]
OR
Q6) a) What are the functions of the security sub layer in 802.16? [8]
b) Describe Bluetooth protocol stack with suitable diagram. [8]
P.T.O.
Q7) a) Explain operations of Split TCP. Explain its advantage and disadvantages.[8]
b) Explain AODV & DSDV in details. [8]
OR
Q8) a) What is Adhoc Network? Explain challenges in designing Routing Protocol
for Adhoc wireless networks. [8]
b) Explain MACAW protocol in details. [8]
Q9) a) Explain the architecture of SDN in details. [10]

b) Write a short note on
i) Network Function Virtualization
ii) Network Neutrality. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Explain IOT architecture in detail. What are the issues and challenges in
Internet of Things? [10]
b) Compare LEO, MEO and GEO Satellite. [8]

[5560]-596 2
P3641 [5560]-597
T.E.(I.T.)
SYSTEM PROGRAMMING
Q1) a) For the following piece of assembly Language code. Show the Content
of Symbol Table, Literal Table, Pool Table and IC and Machine Code.
Assume the machine opcode and size of Instruction as 1. [6]
START 200
MOVER AREG, A
L: MOVEM BREG. = ’2’
ADD BREG, = ’2’
ADD CREG, = ’3’
ORIGIN L+20
LTORG
MOVER, AREG, C
C EQU L+15
ADD AREG, = ’2’
ADD BREG, = ’5’
A DS 5
END
b) Define Loader and Enlist the basic functions of Loader. [4]
OR
P.T.O.
Q2) a) For the following assembly language program show MNT, MDT, ALA
and the expanded assembly language program. [8]
MACRO
XYZ &A
ST 1, &A
MEND
MACRO
MIT &Z
MACRO
&Z &W
AR 4, &W
XYZ ALL
MEND
ST &Z, ALL
MEND
PROG START
USING *, 15
MIT HELLO
ST 2,3
HELLO YALE
YALE EQU 5
ALL DC F ’3’
END.
b) How Literals are processed in Assembler. Explain with suitable examples.
[2]
Q3) a) Using the Direct Conversion of RE to DFA algorithm convert the following
regular expressions to DFA: (a + b)*+(a.c)*.# [6]
b) Explain following Macro facilities with example. [4]
i) Expansion time Variable
ii) Change of flow during Macro expansion
OR
[5560]-597 2
Q4) a) State True or False and justify your answer : [5]
i) A unit of specification for a program generation through expansion
is called as Compiler.
ii) An AGO <Sequencing Symbol> statement unconditionally transfers
control.
iii) APTAB and EVTAB data structures are constructed during pass II
of Macro pre-processor.
iv) A language processor which bridges an execution gap but is not a
language translator is called as detranslator.
v) The process of replacement of a character string by another character
string during program generation is called as semantic expansion.
b) Describe the data structures required in design of two pass Direct Linking
Loader with suitable example. [5]
Q5) a) Differentiate between Top Down and Bottom Up Parser. [4]

b) Define Handle and Handle Pruning w.r.t Bottom up parser. [4]
For given Grammar S → 0S1 | 01
Identify the handles at each step and Parse the string 000111
c) For the following grammar [8]
S → AaBb
A→ε
B→ε
Construct table driven predictive parser and parse the string ‘ab”.
OR
Q6) a) Consider the Grammar [6]
E->E + E
E-> E – E
E-> id
Perform Shift Reduce parsing for given input string “id+id–id”
b) Consider the following grammar [10]
S->(L)|a
L->L,S|S
Construct SLR Parser and parse the input string (a,(a,a))
[5560]-597 3
Q7) a) Define and explain annotated parse tree for the given grammar [8]
L→En
E → E1 + T
E→T
T → T1 * F
T→F
F → (E)
F → DIGIT
Annotate the tree for 3*5+4 n
b) Translate the following C code fragment into three address code (TAC).
Assume integer size of 4 bytes; [10]
int sum = 0,i,j;
int A[10][10], B[10][10], C[10][10], X[10];
i = 1;
j= 1;
while (i<10 &&j<=20)
{
Sum += X[i];
C[i][i] = A[i][j]+B[i][j];
i++;
j++;
}
OR
Q8) a) Design dependency graph for the following grammar [8]
E → E+T / T
T → T*F / F
F → id
The expression given is: 5+8* 10
b) Translate the following expression [10]
a) a[i] = b * c – b * d
b) x = f (y + 1) + 2
into Quadruples, Triple, Indirect Triple
[5560]-597 4
Q9) a) Write short note on activation record. [4]
b) Explain following machine independent optimization techniques [8]
i) Loop in variation.
ii) Common sub-expression elimination.
iii) Dead code elimination.
iv) Strength reduction
c) Compare machine dependent and independent optimization. [4]
OR
Q10)a) Obtain the TAC for the following code before and after applying the
optimization techniques using. [12]
i) Removal of Loop Invariants
ii) Elimination of common sub expressions
int X[10][10], Y[10][10]
for(i= 1; i< = 10; i++)
X[i][2*j – 1] = Y[i][2*j – 1]
b) Explain Code generation issues. [4]
t t t
[5560]-597 5
P3642 [5560]-598
T.E. (Information Technology)

DESIGN AND ANALYSIS OF ALGORITHMS
Q1) a) Compare the following complexities and Reorder from the smallest to
the largest. Justify your answer. [5]
i) n2, 2n, n log2 n, log2 n, n3.
ii) nlog2 n, n8, n2/log2 n, (n2 – n + 1).
b) Solve Homogeneous Recurrence relation for Fibonacci sequence. [5]
OR
Q2) a) Discuss a general plan for Analysing Time Efficiency of Recursive
Algorithm. [5]
b) Solve the following instance of job sequencing problem using greedy
approach. Let n = 4, profit (1 : 4) = (100, 10, 15, 27) and deadlines
d(1 : 4) = (2, 1, 2, 1). [5]
Q3) a) Write an algorithm for Quick sort and analyse it with respect to worst,
best and average case. [5]
b) Compare the following [5]
i) Divide and Conquer and Dynamic Programming.
ii) Greedy method and Dynamic Programming.
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) Use Bellman ford algorithm to find shortest path for the following graph.[10]
Q5) a) Write an algorithm to find Hamiltonian path using backtracking method.

[8]
b) State the principal of backtracking and Write backtracking algorithm for
N-Queen problem. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Let W = {5, 7, 10, 12, 15, 18, 20} and M = 35. Find all possible subsets
of W that sum to M. Construct the portion of state space tree. [8]
b) Write an algorithm for 0/1 knapsack problem using backtracking method.
[8]
Q7) Construct the solution of following Travelling Salesperson problem using

Branch and Bound. [18]
  20 30 10 11
15  16 4 2 
 
3 5  2 4
 
 19 6 18  3 
16 4 7 16  
OR
Q8) a) Solve the following instance of 0/1 knapsack problem by FIFO branch
and bound approach. [10]
N = 4, (p1, p2, p3, p4) = (10, 10, 12, 18)
(w1, w2, w3, w4) = (2, 4, 6, 9) and M = 15.
b) Write an algorithm for Least Cost (LC) branch and bound. [8]
[5560]-598 2
Q9) a) Explain in detail models for Parallel Computing. [8]
b) Differentiate between : [8]
i) P class and NP Class.
ii) NP complete and NP Hard.
OR
Q10)a) Prove that Satisfiability problem in NP complete. [8]
b) Explain Nondeterministic algorithm? Write the Nondeterministic algorithm
for searching the element of an array. [8]

[5560]-598 3
[5560] - 599
T. E. (Information Technology)
CLOUD COMPUTING

1) Answer Question 1 or 2, 3 or 4, 5 or 6, 7 or 8, 9 or 10.
Q1) a) List cloud enabling technologies. Explain any two in details. [4]
b) Compare and contrast IaaS, SaaS, PaaS related to consumer activities
and provider activities. [6]
OR
Q2) a) What is the difference between horizontal scaling and vertical scaling?[4]
b) Explain different types of hypervisors with examples. [6]
Q3) a) Write a short note on OpenStack Compute. [4]

b) Compare KVM, XEN and VMW are work station. [6]
OR
Q4) a) Draw and explain programming environment of Google App Engine.[4]

b) Draw and explain Amazon EC2 execution environment. [6]
Q5) a) How are security policies and security mechanisms used to counter threats
by threat agents? [8]
b) Explain in Virtualization attack in detail with suitable diagrams. [8]
OR
[5560]-599 1 P.T.O.
Q6) a) What is the role of a threat agent? List and describe three different threat
agents. [8]
b) What is hardened virtual server image? How is it used as a cloud server
mechanism? [8]
Q7) a) Draw and explain architecture of NASA’s Nebula Cloud. [8]

b) Explain the concept of cloudlet. Differentiate between cloud and cloudlet.
[8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the concept of cloud mashup. Draw and explain architecture of
IoT. [8]
b) Draw and explain architecture of Facebook platform. [8]
Q9) a) What is a Docker? Draw and explain Docker deployment workflow.[10]

b) Explain key issues related to energy efficiency in cloud computing. [8]
OR
Q10) Explain following concepts with diagrams [18]
a) Autonomic cloud engine
b) Multimedia cloud
c) Jungle computing
***
[5560]-599 2
P3644 [5560]-600
T.E. (I.T.)
DATA SCIENCE AND BIG DATA ANALYTICS
Q1) a) Define Big Data. Enlist the differences and similarity in Big Data and
Data Science with example. [6]
b) Prove that principle of linearity of Expectation along with the usage related
to Big Data. [4]
OR
Q2) a) Determine the distinct element in the following stream using Flajolet Martin
algorithm. Also design a suitable hash function which will give accurate
result. Input stream - 1, 3, 2, 1, 2, 3, 4, 3, 1, 2, 3, 1. [6]
b) Explain the big data infrastructure requirement for mobile computing.[4]
Q3) a) Suppose that an orange juice company controls 20% of the orange juice
market. Suppose they hire a market research company to predict the
effects of an aggressive ad campaign. Suppose they conclude - [6]
• Someone using Brand A will stay with Brand A with probability 90%.
• Someone not using Brand A will switch to Brand A with 70%
probability.
i) What is the initial state matrix.
ii) Write down transition probability matrix.
iii) Calculate the probability that someone uses Brand A after 1
week.
b) Write a short note on Textual ETL. [4]
OR
[5560]-600 1 P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain the role of following components in Hadoop system. [6]
• Name node.
• Secondary name node.
• Data node.
b) Discuss advantages and disadvantages of distributed processing. [4]
Q5) a) List and explain the different kind of roles for an analytics project. [8]
b) List and explain the steps in discovery phase of data analytics life cycle.
[8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain the data analytics life cycle in big data. [8]
b) Explain the terms data cleaning and data transformation with the help of
example. [8]
Q7) a) Discuss different types of data visualization techniques? Why visualization

is more important? [8]
b) What are the challenges in visualizing big data and how to overcome
them? [8]
OR
Q8) a) What are the advantages of data visualization? Write a short note on any
three tools used for data visualization. [8]
b) Write short note on : [8]
i) Google chart API
ii) Scatter plot
iii) Gephi
iv) Cloudera
Q9) Write short note on: [9]

a) Social media analytics.
b) Roles and responsibilities of big data person.
c) Mobile analytics.
OR
Q10)Write a short note on : [9]
a) Difference between mobile analytics and social media analytics.
b) Text mining.
c) Role of Data scientist.

[5560]-600 2
P3645 [5560]-601
T.E. (Chemical)
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS - (309341)
(Semester-I) (2015 Course) (End Sem)
1
2
1) Answer any five questions.
Q1) Find the root of f(x) = (x-4)2(x+2) = 0, using the initial guesses of xL = - 2.5
and xU = - 1.0, Use false position method and perform up to 5 iterations.[10]
OR
Q2) State the classification of numerical methods to obtain the root of equation.[10]
Q3) The work produced by a constant temperature, pressure volume
thermodynamic process can be computed as, W= ∫ p dv, where W is work,
P is pressure, and V is volume. Using a combination of the Trapezoidal rule,
Simpsons 1/3 rule, and Simpsons 3/8 rule, use the following data to compute
the work in kJ ( kJ=kNm.). [10]
Pressure(kPa) 336 294.4 266.4 260.8 260.5 249.6 193.6 165.6
Volume (m3) 0.5 2 3 4 6 8 10 11
OR
Q4) Sodium borohydride is a potential fuel for fuel cell. The following over potential
(η ) vs. Current (i) data was obtained in a study conducted to evaluate its
electrochemical kinetics. At the conditions of the study, it is known that the
relationshp that exists between the over potential (η ) and current (i) can be
expressed as η = a+b l n (i), where a is an electrochemical kinetics parameter
of borohydride on the electrode. Use the data in following table to evaluate
the values of a and b. [10]
η (V) -0.29563 -0.24346 -0.19012 -0.18772 -0.13407 -0.0861
i(A) 13 11 8.5 8.2 7 6.2
[5560]-601 1
P.T.O.
dy
Q5) Solve by Eulers method =x-y2,for the given boundary conditions at x= 0,
dx
y = 1, find y at x = 4. Take step size, h = 0.5. [16]
OR
Q6) A ball at 1200 K is allowed to cool down in air at an ambient temperature of
300K. Assuming heat is lost only due to radiation, the differential equation for
dθ
the temperature of the ball is given by = -2.2067×10-12( θ 4-81×108)
dt
and θ (0) = 1200 K. Find the temperature at t= 480 seconds using Eulers
method. Assume a step size of h = 120 seconds. [16]
d 2T
Q7) A steady - state heat balance for a10 m rod can be represented as 2 =0.15T
dx
with boundary conditions T (0) = 240 and T (10) = 150. Calculate rod
temperature at 2m, 4m and 6m, from the hot end. [16]
OR
Q8) Use finite differences to solve the boundary-value ordinary differential equation
d 2u du
2 +6 - u =2 with boundary conditions u (0) = 10 and u (2) = 1. Find
dx dx
u(0.4),v (1.2) u (1.6). [16]
Q9) Consider figure below (fig). The cross-sectional area A of a canal with equal
base and edge length of 3 is given by A=4 sin θ (1+cos θ ). Find the angel θ
which maximizes the cross-sectional area of the gutter. Using an initial interval
of [0, π /2]. Find the solution after 4 iterations. [18]
OR
Q10) Maximize function, Z = 6X1 + 8X2 using simplex method, subject to [18]
5X1+10X2 ≤ 60
X1+X2 ≤ 10
X1,X2 ≥ 0.
[[[[
[5560]-601 2
[5560]-602
T.E. (Chemical Engg.)
MASS TRANSFER - I
Time : 2½ Hours [Max. Marks :70]

1) Answer Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4 Q.5 or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or Q.10.
Q1) The diffusivity of gas-pair O2- CCl4 is determined by observing the steady
state evaporation of CCL4 (liquid) into a tube containing O2. The entire system
is held at constant temperature and pressure. Both the gases are assumed to
be ideal and O2 is stationary. The distance between the CCl4 (liquid) level and
top of the liquied level is 0.171m. The total pressure on the system is 100.658*
103 N/m2 (755mm Hg) and the temperature is 273K. The vapour pressure of
CCl4 is 4.399*103 N/m2 (33mm Hg) at that temperature. The cross sectional
area of the tube is 0.082*10-3 m2 . After steady state is attained, 0.0208*10-6
m3 of CCl4 (liquid) evaporated in 36*103 second period. What is the diffusivity
of gas pair CCl4 - O2 ? Assume specific gravity of liquid CCl4 as 1.59. [10]
OR
Q2) a) Derive the expression to calculate the flux of Diffusion of gas A through
non-diffusing stagnant gas B. [5]
b) Write on Film Theory and Surface Renewable Theory. [5]
Q3) a) Explain Minimum L/G ratio for absorber [5]
b) 5000 kg/hr of a SO2 - air mixture containing 5% by volume of SO2 is to

be scrubbed with 2,00,000 kg/hr of water in a packed tower. The exit
concentration of SO2 is reduced to 0.15%. The tower operates at 1 atm.
P.T.O.
The equilibrium relationship is given by Y = 30 X.
where,
Y = mole of SO2/mole of air X = mole of SO2/mole of water if the

packed height of tower is 0.42 m, calculate the height of transfer unit
(HTU). [5]
OR
Q4) Ammonia is absorbed by water in wetted wall column using Operating

temperature of 200C and 1 atm pressure. The overall Coefficient is 2.72×
10-4 kmol /m2 atm. At one point in the column the Gas contained 10 mol %
ammonia and the liquid phase concentration was 6.42 × 102 kmol ammonia
per m3 of solution. Temperature is 200C and 1 atm pressure. 85% of the
resistance to mass transfer lies in a gas phase. If Henry’s law constant is
9.35×10-3 atm m3 /kmol, Calculate the individual film coefficient and the
interfacial composition. [10]
Q5) a) Moist air at 310K has WBT of 300 K. The latent heat of vaporization of
water at 300K is 2440KJ/Kg, Estimate the humidity of the air and the
percentage relative humidity. The total pressure is 105KPa and the vapor
pressure of water vapor at 300K is 3.60KPa and 6.33Kpa at 310K.
Psychrometric Ratio (hG/Ky) = 1000 J/kg. K and latent heat of vaporization
is 2440KJ/kg. [8]
b) Define : [8]
i) Absolute Humidity
ii) Percentage Humidity
iii) Relative Saturation
iv) Adiabatic Saturation Temperature
OR
Q6) a) What are different types of cooling towers? Explain any one in brief.
[8]
[5560]-602 2
b) A mixture of nitrogen - acetone vapor at 800 mmHg and 250C has
percentage saturation of 80%. Calculate [8]
i) Absolute humidity,
ii) Partial pressure of acetone,
iii) Absolute molal humidity.
Q7) a) Differentiate between tray columns and packed columns. [5]

b) Explain Performance Diagram or Operating Characteristics of sieve Plate
Column with neat sketch. [5]
c) Explain construction and working of the following with neat sketch [8]
i) Venturi scubber ii) Wetted wall column

OR
Q8) a) Explain various types packings used in separation towers and their
classification. [8]
b) Which are the equipments used for gas-liquid contact. Explain sparged
vessel and mechanically agitated vessels with neat sketch. [8]
c) Define murphree plate efficiency. [2]
Q9) a) Draw and Explain draying rate curve. [6]

b) Classify the types of dryers? Explain any one in detail with sketch. [10]
OR
Q10)a) A wet solid is to be dried from 35% to 10% moisture (wet basis) under
constant drying conditions in five hours. If the equilibrium moisture
content is 4% and critical moisture content is 14%. How long it will take
to dry solids to 6% moisture under the same conditions? [8]
b) Define: [8]
i) Moisture content in the solid on wet and dry basis.
ii) Unbound moisture content
iii) Bound moisture content
iv) Critical moisture content

[5560]-602 3
P3647 [5560]-603
T.E. (Chemical)
INDUSTRIAL ORGANISATION AND MANAGEMENT
(2015 Pattern) (Semester - I) (New) (End Sem.) (309343)
4) Attempt Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4, Q5 or Q6, Q7 or Q8, Q9 or Q10.
Q1) a) Explain in detail Manpower planning. [6]

b) Write a note on Partnership. [4]
OR
Q2) Explain in detail Joint Stock Company along with characteristics and
advantages. [10]
Q3) a) Write an explanatory note on Industrial Fatigue. [6]

b) Write a note on merit rating. [4]
OR
Q4) Explain various functions of Purchase manager. [10]
Q5) a) What is sales promotion? Explain sales promotion technique. [8]

b) What do you mean by sales forecasting? Explain in detail. [8]
OR
Q6) a) With a neat sketch explain the term Marketing Mix used in industry. [8]
b) What is Advertisng? Explain its importance in product selling. [8]
Q7) a) Write notes on : [8]

i) VAT and ModVAT.
ii) Custom and Excise duty.
b) Elaborate the detail procedure for explain in detail the procedure to import
equipment form foreign source. [8]
OR
[5560]-603 1 P.T.O.
Q8) a) Explain the Quality Circle in chemical process industry. [8]
b) Explain in detail various factors affecting international trade. [8]
Q9) Write short notes on : [18]

a) ISO.
b) Patent and patent rights.
c) Flow Chart and Flow Diagram.
OR
Q10)a) Explain the term Agreement in Contract Act. Explain the various types of
Contract according to enforceability, formation and performance. [12]
b) Write note on MRTP. [6]

[5560]-603 2
[5560] - 604
T. E. (Chemical)
CHEMICAL PROCESS TECHNOLOGY

3) Use of logarithmic table, slide rule mollier charts, electronic calculator and steam
table is allowed.
Q1) Draw and explain the production of Soda Ash by Solvay process. [10]
OR
Q2) Describe production of urea by ammonium carbamate decomposition process
and explain in brief, the major engineering problems associated with it. [10]
Q3) Draw and explain the production of triple super phosphate with neat diagram.
Also explain its importance. [10]
OR
Q4) Draw and explain the production of denatured alcohol with suitable diagram.
[10]
Q5) a) Describe the process for manufacturing of Portland cement. Write the
metal oxides composition necessary in the Portland cement. [8]
b) Draw and explain coke oven construction and applications. [8]
OR
Q6) Draw and briefly write about the following refinery operations with neat
diagrams. (Any Two) [16]
a) Isomerization
b) Polymerization
c) Cracking
d) Alkylation
[5560]-604 1 P.T.O.
Q7) a) Illustrate the vegetable oil hydrogenation process with suitable diagram.[8]
b) Describe carbonization of coal and the effect of temperature on the

products obtained. [8]
OR
Q8) Write a note on the following with suitable diagram (Any Two) [16]
a) Producer gas
b) Natural gas
c) Fuel Cell with application
d) Water gas
Q9) a) With a neat flow diagram, describe the production of chloromethanes by

direct chlorination of methane. Also explain the importance of mole ratio
to increase the production of CCl4. [10]
b) Draw and explain the production of Cumene (Isopropyl Benzene) via
propylene alkylation of benzene. [8]
OR
Q10) a) Describe the importance and production of ethylene dichloride (EDC)

with suitable diagram. [10]
b) With a suitable diagram, explain the production of phenol by cumene
peroxidation-hydrolysis route. [8]
***
[5560]-604 2
P3649 [5560]-605
T.E. (Chemical )
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS-II
(2015 Pattern) (Semester -I)
1) Answer Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4, Q5 or Q6, Q7 or Q8 and Q9, or Q10.
2) Neat diagrams be drawn whenever necessary.
Q1) a) Derive the Fundamental property relation for open systems. [10]
OR
Q2) a) What is Poynting factor? [4]
b) Derive the relation to show the variation of activity coefficient with respect
to [6]
i) Temperature
ii) Pressure
Q3) a) Explain the Procedure for Bubble Point. [6]
b) Define the Modified Raoults Law and Raoults Law. [4]
OR
Q4) a) Write short note on [10]
i) VLE Data
ii) Azeotropes
Q5) a) What is Equilibrium and Its Stability, Justify your answer with suitable
example. [8]
b) Explain and Derive the Equation for Thermodynamics Consistency. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Derive the equation for. [16]
i) Equilibrium and Stability
ii) Liquid-Liquid Equilibrium
[5560]-605 1 P.T.O.
Q7) a) Develop expressions for the mole fractions of reacting species as a
function of reaction co-ordinate for [16]
i) A system initially containing 2 mol NH3 and 5 mol O2 and undergoing

the reaction
4NH3(g)+5 O2 (g) 4 NO (g) +6H2O (g)
ii) A system initially containing 3 mol NO2, 4 mol NH3, 1 mol N2
6 NO2 (g) +8NH3 (g) 7 N2+12H2O (g)
iii) A system initially containing 3 mol H2S and 5 mol O2.
2 H2S (g)+3O2 (g) 2H2O (g)+2 SO2 (g)
OR
Q8) a) Write short note on Effect of Temp on the Equilibrium Constant with
required Equations. [6]
b) What is reaction co-ordinate? Derive the Equation for Reaction
Coordinates. [10]
Q9) a) Determine the number of degress of freedom for each of the following
systems. [10]
i) A system of two miscible non reacting species which exists as an
azeotrope in VLE.
ii) A system prepared by partially decomposing CaCO3 into an
evacuated space.
iii) A system prepared by partially decomposing NH4Cl into an
evacuated space.
iv) A system consisting of the gases CO, CO2, H2, H2O and CH4 in
chemical equilibrium.
b) Explain the relation of equilibrium constant to compositions for Liquid
phase reactions. [8]
OR
Q10) a) What is Fuel Cell? Explain in Brief along with necessary equation and
diagram. [8]
b) Define the following terms with necessary equations. [10]
i) Phase Rule
ii) Duhums Theorem
iii) Phase Rule for reacting system
iv) Reaction Equililbria
[[[[
[5560]-605 2
P3650 [5560]-606
TE(Chemical)
CHEMICAL REACTION ENGINEERING - I
(2015 Pattern) (309348)
4) Attermpt Q1 OR Q2, Q3 OR Q4, Q5 OR Q6, Q7 OR Q8, Q9 OR Q10.
Q1) a) Milk is pasteurized if it is heated to 63ºC for 30min, but if it is heated to

74°C it only needs 15 s for the same result. Find the activation energy of
this sterilization process. [4]
b) Explain rate of reaction and give various ways of expressing the reaction
rate. [6]
OR
Q2) After 8 minutes in a batch reactor, reactant (CA0–1 mol/lit) is 60% converted:
after 18 minutes, conversion is 70%. Find rate equation to represent this
equation. [10]
Q3) Explain the various methods of analyzing reaction data to find out rate of
reaction. [10]
OR
Q4) a) Derive performance equation for plug flow reactor. [6]
b) In a homogeneous isothermal liquid polymerization, 20% of the monomer
disappears in 34 minutes for initial monomer concentration of 0.04 and
also for 0.8 mol/liter. What rate equation represents the disappearance of
the monomer? [4]
Q5) a) Consider the parallel decomposition of A of different orders.

A → R rR = 1
A → S rS = 2 CA
A → T rT = C2A
Product R is the desired material. Determine the maximum concentration
of desired product obtainable in [10]
P.T.O.
i) Plug flow
ii) Mixed flow
For CA0 = 4
b) Define instantaneous fractional yield and overall fractional yield in detail.[6]
OR
Q6) a) The desired liquid phase reaction
dCR dCT
A+B → R+T = = k1C1.5
A CB
0.8
dt dt
Is accompanied by the unwanted side reaction.
dCS dCU
A+B → S+U = = k2CA0.5CB1.3 [8]
dt dt
What contacting scheme (reactor type) would you use to carry above
reaction to maximize the concentration of desired product?
b) Describe the qualitative discussion about product distribution for series
reactions. [8]
Q7) a) Explain in detail the effect of temperature on equilibrium conversion of

reactant at constant pressure. [8]
b) Derive the relation between conversion and temperature for an adiabatic
reactor using the energy balance and explain how you determine the
reactor size for adiabatic operation of a plug flow and a stirred tank
reactor. [8]
OR
Q8) a) For aqueous reaction A ↔ R, between the temperature ranges 0° to 100°C,
determine the equilibrium conversion as a function of temperature in
graphical form. What should be the maximum temperature so that the
conversion of A achieved is 75% or higher? [10]
For CR°. = CA° = 1 mol/liter
0
ΔG298 = −3375 cal/mol; ΔH r 0298 = −18,000 cal/mol.
b) Explain energy balance equation for adiabatic operation graphically. [6]
[5560]-606 2
Q9) a) From a pulse input into a vessel we obtain the following output signal[10]
Time, min 1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15
Concentration 0 0 10 10 10 10 0 0
(arbitrary)
We want to represent the flow through vessel with tank - in - series model.
Determine the number of tanks to use.
b) Discuss Dispersion Model and tank in series model. [8]
OR
Q10) Write a note on (Any Three). [18]
a) E and F curve.
b) Segregation model
c) Micro and macro mixing of fluids
d) Early and late mixing

[5560]-606 3
P3651 [5560]-607
T.E. (Chemical)
TRANSPORT PHENOMENA
(2015 Course) (309349)
1) Answer Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 or Q.4,Q.5 or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or Q.10.
Q1) Derive the expressions for Momentum flux, velocity profile, maximum velocity,
average velocity for a flow through circular tube. [10]
OR
Q2) Derive the expressions of heat flux and temperature distribution for a nuclear
heat source. [10]
Q3) Derive the expressions for molar flux, concentration profile and average
concentration for diffusion into stagnant gas film. [10]
OR
Q4) Explain the different time derivatives. [10]
Q5) Derive the Equation of Motion. [18]

OR
Q6) a) Derive the Continuity Equation. [12]
b) Glycerine at 26.5ºC is flowing through a horizontal tube 1 ft long and
0.1 in. inside diameter. For a pressure drop of 40 psi, the flow rate is
0.00398 ft3/min. The density of glycerine at 26.5ºC is 1.261 g/cm3. Find
the viscosity of glycerine in centipoises. [6]
P.T.O.
Q7) Derive the expression for Fanning Friction factor. [16]
OR
Q8) Derive expressions for friction factors for flow in tubes. [16]
Q9) Write short note on Reynolds Analogy and Prandtl Analogy. [16]
OR
Q10) Derive the correlation for binary mass transfer coefficient in two phases at
low mass transfer rates. [16]

[5560]-607 2
P3652 [5560]-608
T.E. (Chemical)
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING DESIGN - I
Q1) a) Explain hortonspheres in storage vessels. [5]
b) Explain Hydrostatic head at the bottom of the tank. [5]
OR
Q2) A tall vertical vessel 1.5 m in diameter and 13 m high is to be provided with the
skirt support. Weight of the vessel with all its attachments is 80,000 kg. Diameter
of skirt is equal to the diameter of the vessel. Height of skirt is 2.2 m. Wind
pressure acting over the vessel is 100 kg/m2. Seismic coefficient = 0.08,
permissible tensile stress of skirt material = 960 kg/m2, permissible compressive
stress is 1/3 rd yield stress of material. Yield stress is 2400 kg/cm2, estimate
the thickness of skirt support. [10]
Q3) Explain the step-wise design procedure of shell and tube heat exchanger with
neat diagram. [10]
OR
Q4) 0.8 kg/sec of furnace oil is to be heated from 10º to 90ºC in a shell and tube
heat exchanger. Heating is done by steam available at 120ºC. Oil is circulated
through the tubes. While steam is circulated in shell, tubes of 16.5 mm ID and
19 mm OD are available. Length of tubes = 3 m. The film coefficient of heat
transfer for oil is 90 W/m2 k while film coefficient of heat transfer for condensing
steam is 7400 W/m2k. Density of furnace oil 900 kg/m3.
Specific heat of furnace oil = 1970 J/kg K
Fouling resistance for furnace oil = 0.0009 m2k/W
Fouling resistance for steam side = 0.00005 m2k/W.
Suggest a suitable design of the shell and tube heat exchanger.
Maximum oil velocity that can be used is 0.05 m/sec. Estimate the number of
passes on tube side required in a heat exchanger. [10]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) For a forward feed triple effect evaporation system write the energy
balance equations. [8]
b) In case of reboilers how the heat transfer coefficient is calculated for
Pool boiling. Explain all the equations involved in the calculations. [9]
OR
Q6) a) Explain the design methods for mixed vapour condensers and how the
true temperature difference is evaluated in such cases? [8]
b) Write note on flowing film evaporators. [9]
Q7) Design an agitator on the basis of critical speed of shaft with the help of neat
Sketch & Explain different types of agitator in details. [16]
OR
Q8) Design a Decanter to separate a light oil from water. [16]
The oil is the dispersed phase.
Oil, flow rate 1000 kg/density 900 kg/m3, viscosity 3 m Ns/m2
Water, flow rate 5000 kg/h, density 1000 kg/m3, viscosity 1 m Ns/m2.
Q9) a) List different types of three phase separators and explain any two with
neat sketches. [10]
b) Make a Preliminary design for a separators to separate a mixture of
stream and water. Steam flow rate is 2500 kg/h and water flow is
1250 kg/h. Operating pressure is 4.2 bar. Liquid density =
950 kg/m3.Vapour density =2.5 kg/m3. Design the separators with demister
pad. [7]
OR
Q10)Design steam water separator for following conditions: [17]
Steam flow rate : 2000 kg/hr
Water fow rate : 1000 kg/h
Density of water : 926.4 kg/m3
Density of Vapour : 2.16 kg/m3
Operating Pressure : 4 bar.

[5560]-608 2
[5560] - 609
T. E. (Chemical)
MASS TRANSFER - II

Q1) a) A 40% hexane and 60% octane mixture by mole is flash distilled. If the
slope of the operating line is – 1.0 find the fraction of feed vaporized and
the composition of distillate and residue. The equilibrium data: [5]
x 0 0.05 0.19 0.41 0.70 1

y 0 0.18 0.54 0.80 0.94 1
b) What is relative volatility? Derive an equation for it in terms of vapour

and liquid mole fraction. [5]
OR
Q2) A solution containing benzene and toluene in equal masses is to be

continuously fractionated at the rate of 5000 kg/h. The overhead product
is to contain 90 weight% of benzene and the bottom product is to contain
5 wt% of benzene. The feed is 40% vaporized and a total condenser is
to be used. The reflux is saturated. Determine the product rates, number
of theoretical plates if actual reflux ratio is twice the minimum and the
temperature of the feed. Equilibrium data: [10]
x 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8 0.9 1.0
y 0.22 0.38 0.51 0.63 0.7 0.78 0.85 0.91 0.95 1.0
[5560]-609 1 P.T.O.
Q3) a) A solution of 5% acetaldehyde and rest toluene is to be extracted with
water in 4 crosscurrent stages. Toluene and water are essentially
immiscible. Calculate the amount of acetaldehyde extracted and the final
concentration of the raffinate if the equilibrium relation is given by Y =
2.2 X, where Y = kg acetaldehyde/kg water and X = kg acetaldehyde/kg
toluene. [5]
b) Describe the different feed conditions in distillation. [5]
OR
Q4) a) A mixture of benzene and toluene containing 50 mole % benzene is

distilled to give 90 mole% benzene and a bottom product containing 8
mole % benzene. The feed is half vaporized and a total condenser is
used. Find the minimum reflux ratio using if the average reflux ratio is
2.5. [6]
b) Explain with a neat diagram the bimodal curve and explain its salient
features. [4]
Q5) a) Oil is be extracted from meal by means of benzene using continuous

countercurrent leaching unit. The unit treats 1000 kg of meal (on
completely exhausted solids basis) per hour. The untreated meal contains
365 kg of oil and 30 kg of benzene. The solvent used contains 14 kg of
oil and 590 kg of benzene. The exhausted solids contain 55 kg of oil and
451 kg of benzene. Find the number of stages required. The entrainment
data is: [10]
Kg oil/ kg 0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7
solution
Kg solution/ 0.5 0.505 0.515 0.53 0.55 0.571 0.595 0.62
kg solids
b) Explain constant and variable underflow. [6]
OR
Q6) a) Explain the method for finding number of stages in continuous
countercurrent leaching. [9]
b) Give the functioning of any continuous Extractor for leaching. [7]
[5560]-609 2
Q7) a) A feed is decolourized by adsorption. The equilibrium relation for the
process is given by Y* = 8.91×10-5 X.2 where Y = colour units / kg
solution and X = colour units / kg adsorbent. 1000 kg of initial solution
with a colour concentration of 9 colour units / kg solution is to be treated
with an adsorbent. Calculate the percent of original colour removed in a
single stage using 25 kg of solid. Calculate the quantity of fresh adsorbent
required to reduce the colour to 10% of its original value in a two stage
process, if the stream leaving the first stage has a colour concentration
of 4 times the final colour of the solution. [10]
b) Explain the Langmuir and Freundlich isotherms. [8]
OR
Q8) a) Explain with a sketch and graphical representation the development of
breakthrough curve and explain it in detail. [10]
b) Derive the equation for continuous countercurrent adsorber. [8]
Q9) a) Explain Mier’s supersaturation theory. [6]

b) Explain all the spiral wound module in membrane operations and explain
the role of composite membrane. [10]
OR
Q10) a) What is ultrafiltration? Give details regarding types of membrane used
for the process and an application. [8]
b) A batch of 500 kg of KCl is dissolved in water to make a saturated
solution at 350 K when the solubility is 30% by weight of KCl in water.
The solution is cooled to 293 K when the solubility is 25.4% by weight.
Determine the quantity of crystals obtained if 3.5% of the original water
is lost by evaporation. Also determine the capacity of the vessel if the
density of feed is 1200 kg/m3 and the volume of the vessel is 1.2 times
the volume of the solution. [8]
***
[5560]-609 3
P3654 [5560]-610
T.E. (Chemical Engg.)

PROCESS INSTRUMENTATION AND CONTROL
1) Answer Q.1 or Q.2, Q.3 ro Q.4, Q.5 or Q.6, Q.7 or Q.8, Q.9 or Q.10.
4) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam table is allowed.
Q1) a) Explain functional elements of instruments in detail. [5]

b) Explain the difference between accuracy and precision in an instrument.[5]
OR
Q2) a) Explain Optical pyrometer with neat diagram. [5]
b) Explain with diagram, construction and working of Thermocouple. [5]
Q3) a) Explain classification of Pressure measuring instruments. [4]

b)Explain with diagram, construction and working of Bourdon pressure
gauge. [6]
OR
Q4) a) Explain LVDT as pressure measuring device. [5]
a) What are different types of manometers? With neat sketch explain inclined
leg manometer. [5]
Q5) a) Explain with diagram, construction and working of Rota meter with its
industrial application. [8]
b) Explain classification of flow measuring instruments. [8]
OR
Q6) a) Explain with diagram, construction and working of ultrasonic level
measurement method. [8]
b) Explain with diagram, construction, working sight or gauge glass method.[8]
P.T.O.
Q7) Describe with neat diagram the following techniques of composition analysis.[16]
a) Gas chromatography
b) Mass Spectroscopy
OR
Q8) a) Write short notes on: [8]
i) Liquid chromatography
ii) Refractometry
b) Explain principle with diagram, construction, working of HPLC. [8]
Q9) a) Give classification of process variable with respect to process control.[9]

b) State difference between first order and second order system. [9]
OR
Q10) a) Derive the transfer function of mercury in glass thermometer and find the
dynamic behaviour for step change in input. [9]
b) What are servo and regulatory operation? [9]

[5560]-610 2

T.E (2015 Pattern)

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Total No. of Questions :10] SEAT No.

Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70

Q1) a) State and explain applications of Hydrology. [6]

b) Write a note on sprinkler method of irrigation. Indicate the advantages

Rain gauge No. A B C D E

Rainfall depth (cm) 50 40 47 50 49

b) An irrigation canal has gross command area of 50,000 hectares out of

Q9) a) Explain the Cooperative water distribution systems. [8]

Q1) Explain the silent features of smart city. [6]

Q10) a) Discuss the site selection criteria for harbors. [6]

b) Calculate safe uniformly distributed load over a laterally unsupported

Q6) a) Explain different modes of failure of flexural members with sketches.

b) A simply supported beam of span 6 m loaded with uniformly distribute

b) A simply supported welded plate girder of span of 24 m subjected to

b) Design a bolted beam column bracket connection to support an end

b) Analyze the contineous beam by moment distribution method. Draw

Q1) a) Explain in brief “ practical problems involving fluid flow around

b) Explain with neat sketch the working of a centrifugal pump. [6]

c) A centrifugal pump delivers water against a net head of 15 meter and

b) What do you meant by priming? Explain its significance with respect to

b) A 140 mm diameter jet of water issuing from a nozzle impinges on buckets

b) Explain the Graphical method of Integration of GVF Computation. [8]

b) A wide rectangular channel carries a flow of 11m3/s/m width of the channel

Time : 2½ Hours] [Max. Marks : 70

Q1) a) Explain the concept of intervisibility & height of triangulation station

Q2) a) Explain the method of co-relates of adjustment of braced Quadrilateral.[5]

b) How would you determine the flying height of a vertical photograph?[5]

Q7) a) Describe the procedure of measuring parallax difference using a Parallax

b) Distinguish between terrestrial and aerial photography. Under what

Q8) a) Discuss in brief the basic characteristics of photographic images used in

b) Write short note on axis signal correction. [5]

c) Derive an expression with a neat sketch, how the difference in elevation

c) Explain clearly the procedure of determining the difference in elevation

Q1) a) Discuss in detail importance of project management in construction

Q7) a) Explain the Project Economics and its importance in Construction

P5566 [Total No. of Pages : 8

Q7) a) Explain different parameters of interaction curves for the design of

T.E. (Civil Engineering)

Q8) a) Discuss the followings: [5]

Q10)a) Discuss the following. [2+2+2]

Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 70

Q3) a) Explain different methods of reduction of stress concentration. [4]

Q1) a) Explain its variation of thermal conductivity with increase in temperature

b) Define with their physical significance [4]

Q8) a) Write a short note on gray body approximation. [6]

Q9) a) Why drop-wise condensation is better than film-wise condensation. What

Using Frudenstein’s equation, find out other links lengths b, c and d.

T.E. (Mechanical/ Automobile)

Q1) a) Explain the terms: Calibration & Traceability. [4]

Q9) Write note on (Any 3) [18]

b) Explain ozone depletion reaction. Describe alternatives for unitary air

Q2) a) 300kJ/min refrigeration system operates on a vapor-compression

b) Explain the design features of an air conditioning system for multiplex.[4]

b) Discuss the methodology for calculating LCCP of various refrigerants.

Assuming saturated conditions at the exit of evaporators and condenser,

b) A laboratory has the following cooling loads: [12]

Room sensible heat = 50 kW

Room latent heat = 12 kW

Indoor and outdoor design conditions are :

Outside : 40°C DBT, 27°C WBT

Inside : 25°C DBT, 50% RH

50 cmm of ventilation air is used. Determine the followings, if coil ADP

Ventilation load, GTH, ESHF, BF, dehumidified air quantity, condition