IIT ASHRAM BRINGS...

BOOKLET AM
TEST CODE: 110581 CLASS : 11
NEET
TIME : 3 HOURS MAX MARK : 720 DATE : 06 - 02- 2022

TEST SYLLABUS
PHYSICS : SHM+WAVES(UPTO WAVE IN STRING)
CHEMISTRY : CHEM EQUILIBRIUM,“THERMODYNAMICS
BI OLOGY : PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN PLANTS. ( TILL TAUGHT), LOCOMOTION& MOVEMENTS , CONTROL & COORDINATION.“
( T ILL TAUG HT)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONSNS

A. General:
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 180 questions.
2. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers, and electronic gadgets in any
form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
3. The answer sheet, a machine–readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
4. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Filling the ORS
5. On the lower part of the ORS, write in ink, your name in box L1, your Registration No. in box L2 and Name of
the Centre in box L3. Do not write this anywhere else.
C. Question paper format:
6. The question paper consists of 4 parts (Part I: Physics, 45 Question Part II: Chemistry 45 Question Part III: Botany
45 Question, Part IV: Zoology 45 Question).
D. Marking Scheme:
7. For each questions in Part I, Part II, Part III & Part IV you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened only
the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (–1) mark will be awarded.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)..........................................................................................................

Roll No............................................................................................. ............................................................

Candidate's Signature..........................................Invigilator's Singature...................................................

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DATE : 06/02/2022 NEET CLASS - 11 (CPT)

7. A body exectuing simple harmonic motion has

PART - I : PHYSICS maximum acceleration
1. The motion of a ball bouncing between two
(a) At the mean positions
rigid walls is
(b) At the two extreme position
(a) non-periodic
(c) At any position
(b) oscillatory
(d) The question is irrelevant
(c) linear simple harmonic
8. A particle is executing S.H.M. Then the graph
(d) Angular simple harmonic
of acceleration as a function of displacement is
2. Which of the following is a necessary and
(a) A sinecurve (b) A circle
sufficient condition for simple harmonic motion.
(c) A straight line (d) Parabola
(a) constant period
9. The phase difference between velocity and
(b) constant acceleration acceleration of simple harmonic oscillator.
(c) proportionally between acceleration and
velocity 
(a)  (b)
(d) proportionally between restoring force and 2
displacement from equilibrium position
 
3. For a particle in S.H.M. the amplitude and (c) (d)
4 3
maximum velocity are A and V respectively.
Then its maximum acceleration is 10. The frequency of a particle executing simple
(a) V2 /2A (b) V 2 A harmonic motion is 10 hertz. The frequency of
variation of its kinetic energy is
(c) V2 /A (d) V/A.
(a) 20 Hz (b) 10 Hz
4. The amplitude of a particle performing S.H.M.
is 'a' . The displacement at which its velocity (c) 5 Hz (d) Zero
will be half the maximum velocity is 11. A body executing SHM has a total energy E.
(a) a/2 (b) a/3 When its kinetic energy is 3E/4, the
displacement of the particle is ( A is amplitude)
(c) 3a/2 (d) 2a / 3 (a) A (b) A/2
5. Acceleration-displacement graph of a particle
executing SHM is as shown in fig. The time 3A 3A
(c) (d)
period of oscillation is (sec) 2 4
12. In SHM at the equilibrium position
i) amplitude is minimum
ii) acceleration is zero
iii) velocity is maximum
iv) potential energy is maximum
(a) all are true (b) ii, iii, iv are true
 (c) ii, iii true (d) i, ii, iv true
(a) (b) 2 
2 13. A body executes simple harmonic motion. The
(c)  (d)  /4 potential energy (PE), kinetic energy (KE) and
total energy (TE) are measured as a function of
6. A simple harmonic motion has amplitude A and displacement x. Which of the following
time period T. The maximum velocity will be statements is true?
2A (a) TE is zero when x = 0
(a) 4AT (b)
T (b) PE is maximum when x = 0
(c) KE is maximum when x = 0
(c) 2 A / T (d) 2 A / T
(d) KE is maximum when x is maximum

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DATE : 06/02/2022 NEET CLASS - 11 (CPT)

14. The time period of a loaded spring on earth is (a) Increases (b) Decreases
6s. On the surface of moon, the time period of (c) Does not change (d) Becomes zero
the same loaded spring will be
20. The frequency of oscillation of a simple
(a) 6s (b) 6 6s pendulum suspended in a satellite that revolve
around the earth is
(c) 1s (d) 6s
(a) 1 Hz (b) 2 Hz
15. A wrist watch keeps correct time on earth. If it
(c) Zero (d) Infinity
is shifted to the surface of moon then it.
21. A hollow sphere of simple pendulum is first
1 filled with mercury and then with water. The
(gm at moon is g at earth)
6 time periods are in the ratio if their densities
(a) Loses time (b) Gains time are in the ratio 13.6 : 1.
(c) Keeps correct time (d) Does not function (a) 1:1 (b) 1:2
(c) 1:13.6 (d) 13.6:1
16. T1 is time period of oscilliation of a body
22. The period of a simple pendulum suspended
suspended to a spring and T2 is time period of from the ceiling of a car is T when the car is at
oscillation of same body suspended to another rest. If the car moves with a constant
spring. If same body suspended to series acceleration the period of the pendulum
combination of same two springs, then its time (a) Remains same
1 (b) decreases
period of oscillation. (gm at moon is g at earth)
6 (c) increases

T1T2 (d) first increases then decreases

(a) T1  T2 (b) 23. A pendulum of length L swings from rest to
T1  T2
rest n times in one second. The value of
acceleration due to gravity is
T1T2
(c)
T 21  T2 2
(d) T 21  T2 2 (a) 4  2 n 2 L (b) 2 2 n 2 L

17. A mass M is suspended from a light spring. An  2n2 L

additional mass m added to it displaces the (c)  n L2 2 (d)
2
spring further by distance x then its time period
is 24. The metallic bob of a simple pendulum has the
relative density  . The time period of this
mg  M  m x pendulum is T. If the metallic bob is immersed
(a) T  2 (b) T  2

x M m  mg in water, then the new time period is given by.

  1   
 M  m x T  2
MX (a) T   (b) T  
(c) T  2
Mg
(d)
mg      1

18. If a pendulum clock is shifted from earth to  1 

the surface of moon. Then it (c) T (d) T
  1
(a) Loses time
25. Which of the following figure represents
(b) Gains time
damped harmonic motion
(c) Keeps correct time
displacement

(d) does not function

19. A girl is in standing position in an oscillating i)
swing. If the girl sits in the swing, the frequency time
of oscillation

IIT ASHRAM UG–1 & 2, Concorde Complex, Above PNB. R.C. Dutt Road., Alkapuri Baroda.
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DATE : 06/02/2022 NEET CLASS - 11 (CPT)

29. A disc of radius R is suspended from its circum-

displacement
ference and made to oscillate. Its time period
will be:
ii)
time
3R
(a) 2 (b) 2 4R
2g g

R 2R
(c) 2 (d) 2
Amplitude

g g
iii)
time 30. Two mutually perpendicular simple harmonic
vibrations have same amplitude, frequency and
phase. When they superimpose, the resultant
form of vibration will be :
(a) A circle (b) An ellipse
Amplitude

(c) A straight line (d) A parabola

iv)
time 31. The speed of wave of time period T and
propagation constant K is

(a) i and ii (b) iii and iv 2 TK

(a) (b)
(c) i, ii, iii and iv (d) i and iv TK 2

26. A body having natural frequency vo is excuting 1 T

(c) (d)
forced oscillations under driving force of TK K
frequency v . The system will vibrate
32. The phase change between incident and
(a) With the frequency of driving force v reflected sound wave from a fixed wall
is
(b) With natural frequency vo
(a) 0 (b) 
 vo  v  (c) 3  (d) 2 
(c) With mean frequency  
 2  33. The equation of a progressive wave is Y=a sin
(  t-kx), then the velocity of the wave is
(d) none of the above
(a) k  (b) k/ 
27. The resultant amplitude due to super position
(c)  /k (d) a 
of two SHM is X 1  10 sin  t  30 0  cm ,
34. A travelling wave along a stretched string is
X 2  10 cos  t  600  cm . given by Y = A sin (Kx-  t). The maximum
velocity of a particle is
(a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm (a) A  (b)  / K
(c) 20 cm (d) zero (c) d  / dk (d) x/t
28. Amplitude of oscillation of a particle that 35. A transverse wave is travelling along a string
executes SHM is 2 cm. Its displacement from its from left to right. The figure below represents
1 the shape of the string at a given instant. At
mean position in a time equal to th of its time this instant the points have an upward velocity
6
are (here X-wave displacement, Y-particle
period is
displacement)
(a) 2 cm (b) 3 cm

1 1
(c) cm (d) cm
2 3

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DATE : 06/02/2022 NEET CLASS - 11 (CPT)

(a) D,E,F (b) A,B,H 41. A transverse wave is described by the equation
(c) B,D,F (d) A,E,H Y= Y0 Sin 2  (ft-x/  ). The maximum particle
velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity
36. A wave is represented by an equation;
if
Y = A cos kx sin t , then
(a) it is a progressive wave with amplitude A (a)    Y0 / 4 (b)    Y0 / 2
(b) it is a progressive wave with amplitude A (c)    Y0 (d)   2 Y0
cos kx
42. Two waves are represented by the following
(c) it is a stationary wave with amplitude A
equations y1  5sin 2 10t  0.1x  and
(d) it is a stationary wave with amplitude A
cos kx I2
y2  10sin 2 10t  0.1x  . The ratio of intensities
37. In a stationary wave I1

(a) there is no net transfer of energy will be

(b) energy is constant at all points (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) amplitude is same for all points (c) 4 (d) 16
(d) energy and amplitude is same at all points  
43. For a standing wave, y  10sin  x  cos  84t  m
38. A sonometer wire is vibrating in the third  18 
overtone. There are the distance (in metre) between a node and the
(a) two nodes, two antinodes next antinode is
(b) three nodes, three antinodes (a) 8.5 (b) 9.0
(c) four nodes, three antinodes (c) 18 (d) 19
(d) five nodes, four antinodes. 44. Standing waves are produced by the
superpostion of two waves
39. A uniform long rope is suspended from roof. A
transverse wave pulse is produced at its lower y1  a sin t  kx  , y2  a sin  t  kx  . The
end . As the wave travels upward along the amplitude of a particle at distance x is
suspended rope then
(a) 2a sinkx (b) 2a coskx
A) velocity of wave increases
(c) a sinkx (d) a coskx
B) wavelength of wave increases
45. A transverse wave propagating on a stretched
C) frequency of wave remains constant
string of linear density 3  104 kgm 1 is
(a) only A and B are true
represented by the equation
(b) only B and C are true
y  0.2 Sin 1.5 x  60t  where x is in metre and
(c) only A and C are true
t is in seconds. The tension in the string in N.
(d) A,B and C all are true
(a) 0.24 (b) 0.48
40.  is maximum wavelength of a transverse
(c) 1.20 (d) 1.80
wave that travels along a stretched wire whose
two ends are fixed. The length of that wire is
(a) 2  (b) 

(c)  /2 (d) 3  /2

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DATE : 06/02/2022 NEET CLASS - 11 (CPT)

53. The heat required to raise the temperature of

PART - II : CHEMISRY a body by 1ºC is called
46. The object under thermodynamical study is (a) specific heat (b) Heat capacity
called
(c) water equivalent (d) Heat energy
(a) System (b) Universe
54. In exothermic reaction
(c) Surrounding (d) Boundary
(a) H R = HP (b) HR > HP
47. Hot water in a thermos flask is an example for
(c) HR < HP (d) H = 0
(a) Isolated system (b) Open system
55. The incorrect IUPAC convention
(c) Closed system (d) Adiabatic system
(a) Heat gained by system +ve sign
48. Which of the following is a path function
(b) Work done by system - ve sign
(a) Internal energy (b) Enthalpy
(c) Work done on the system +ve sign
(c) Work (d) Entropy
(d) Heat gained by system -ve sign
49. The change in internal energy of a system
56. For which of the following reactions
depends on
H  E  2RT
(a) initial and final states of the system
(b) the path if reversible (a) N 2 g   3H 2 g   2 NH 3 g 
(c) the path if irreversible (b) N 2 g   O 2 g   2 NOg 
(d) initial, final states and also on the path
50. Heat change in a chemical reaction, at constant (c) NH 4 HSs   NH 3 g   H 2Sg 
temperature and pressure is called
(d) PCl 5 g   PCl 3 g   Cl 2 g 
(a) entropy (b) enthalpy
57. For the reaction
(c) internal energy (d) free energy
51. When 1 mole of gas is heated at constant C2 H 4  g   3O2  g   2CO2 ( g )  2 H 2 O  l  the
volume, temperature is raised from 298 to 308 difference between enthalpy change and
K. Heat supplied to the gas is 500 J. Then internal energy change is
which statement is correct?
(a) -RT (b) +RT
(a) q   w  500 J , U  0 (c) -2RT (d) +2RT
(b) q  U  500 J , w  0 58. Heat of neutralisation of a strong acid by a
strong base is constant value because
(c) q  w  500 J , U  0 (a) salt formed does not undergo hydrolysis
(d) U  0, q  w  500 J (b) only H+ and OH- ions react in every case

52. Assume each reaction is carried out in an open (c) strong acid and strong base react
completely
container. For which reaction will H  E ?
(d) strong acid and strong base react in
(a) 2CO  g   O2  g   2CO2  g  aqueous solutions only

59. H 2  g   I 2  g   2 HI  g  ,  H  51.9 KJ .
(b) H 2  g   Br2 ( g )  2 HBr  g 
According to this, heat of formation of HI is
(c) C  s   2 H 2O  g   2 H 2 ( g )  CO2  g  (a) 51.9 KJ (b) -51.9 KJ
(c) -25. 95 KJ (d) 25.95 KJ
(d) PCl5  g   PCl3 ( g )  Cl2 ( g ) 60. In which of the following cases, the reaction is
spontaneous at all temperatures

(a)  H>0,  S>0 (b)  H<0, S  0

(c)  H < 0,  S <0 (d)  H > 0, S  0

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DATE : 06/02/2022 NEET CLASS - 11 (CPT)

61.  H (vap) for water is 40.7 KJ mol-1. The entropy 69. Combustion of hydrogen in a fuel cell at 300K
of vapourisation of water is is represented as
(a) – 40.7KJ mol–1 (b) 407 J mol–1K–1
2H 2(g) + O2(g)  2H 2 O(g) . If  H and  G
–1 –1 –1
(c) 109 J mol k (d) 722 J mol
are -241.60 KJ mol-1 and -228.40 KJ mol-1 of
62. For the process CO2(s)  CO2(g)
H2O. The value of  S for the above process is
(a) Both  H and  S are +ve (a) 4.4 kJ (b) -88 J
(b)  H is - ve,  S is +ve (c) +88 J (d) -44 J
(c)  H is +ve,  S is - ve 70. In certain chemical reaction  H = 150 kJ and
(d) Both  H and  S are - ve  S is 100 JK–1 at 300 K. The value of  G would
be
63. For the spontaneous process 2F(g)  F2 (g),
(a) Zero (b) 300 kJ
the sign of  H and  S respectively are
(c) 330 kJ (d) 120 kJ
(a) +ve, -ve (b) +ve, +ve
71. Which of the following behaves as an
(c) -ve, -ve (d) -ve, +ve
irreversible reaction when conducted in a
64. A liquid crystallizes into a solid then entropy closed vessel
will be
(a) synthesis of ammonia
(a) Increases (b) No change
(b) decomposition of PCl5 solid
(c) Decreases (d) Becomes zero
(c) formation of SO3 from SO2 & O2
65. In which of the reactions S is +ve
(d) precipitation of Cl  by AgNO3
(a) H 2O  l   H 2O  s  72. Which of the following is a characteristic of a
reversible reaction ?
(b) 3O2  g   2O3  g  (a) Number of moles of reactants and
products are equal
(c) H 2O  l   H 2O  g 
(b) It can be influenced by a catalyst

(d) N 2  g   3H 2  g   2 NH 3  g  (c) It can never proceed to completion

(d) It can be attained in open vessel
66.  Ssurroundings = + 959.1 JK-1mol-1 73. A chemical reaction is said to have attained
 Ssystem= –163.1 Jk mol -1 -1
Then the process is equilibrium when
(a) Spontaneous (a) equal amounts of reactants and products
are formed
(b) Non spontaneous
(b) reactants are completely converted to
(c) At equilibrium
products
(d) Cannot be predicted from the information
(c) the rate of forward reaction is equal to the
67. The heat of dissociation (in K.cals/mole) of CH4 rate of backward reaction
and C2H6 are 360 and 620 respectively. From
(d) the concentration of the reactants and
these the C - C bond energy in the ethane can
products is the same
be evaluated as
74. For a reversible reaction, if the concentrations
(a) 260 (b) 130
of the reactants are doubled, then the
(c) 80 (d) 200 equilibrium constant value
68. If 9.8 gms, of H2SO4 is neutralised exactly with (a) Gets doubled (b) Gets halved
strong alkali, the heat evolved is ( H of
(c) Remains the same (d) increases four times
neutralisation is 13.6 K.cal)
(a) 13.6 K.cal (b) 1.36 K.cal
(c) 2.72 K.cal (d) 27.2 K.cal

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DATE : 06/02/2022 NEET CLASS - 11 (CPT)

75. For reactions involving gaseous reactants and 82. The degree of dissociation of PCl5
products the equilibrium constant KP is written
(a) increases with increasing pressure
in terms of
(b) decreases with increasing pressure
(a) The pressure of the gases
(c) no effect on change in pressure
(b) The molar volumes of the gases
(d) decreases with decreasing pressure
(c) The partial pressures of the gases
83. In the manufacture of NH 3 , which are
(d) The mole fraction of the gases
favourable conditions
76. With increase in temperature, the value of
(a) High pressure and low temperature
equilibrium constant
(b) High pressure and high temperature
(a) increases
(c) Low pressure and low temperature
(b) decreases
(d) Low pressure and high temperature
(c) may increase or decrease
84. The reaction
(d) remains constant
77. The value of K c for the reaction CH 3 COOH + C 2H 5OH  CH3 COOC 2H 5 +
N2 (g)+ 3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g) depends on H2O can be made to proceed in the forward
direction by
(a) temperature (b) pressure
(a) increasing the temperature
(c) collision (d) atomic number
(b) sudden cooling of the reaction mixture
78. When a catalyst is introduced into a reversible
(c) conducting the reaction in presence of a
reaction
small quantity of NaOH
(a) Forward reaction rate increases
(d) Taking excess of C2H5OH and CH3COOH
(b) Backward reaction rate increases
85. Under what conditions of temperature and
(c) Equilibrium is not changed pressure and formation of atomic hydrogen
(d) Attains equilibrium quickly from molecular hydrogen will be favoured.
(a) High temperature and high pressure
79.  2 NH 3 is K
Kcfor the reaction N 2  3H 2 
(b) Low temperature and low pressure
then the value of K c for the reaction
(c) High temperature and low pressure
 N 2  3H 2 will be
2 NH 3 
(d) Low temperature and high pressure
(a) K (b) 2K 86. For the reaction :Cu(s) + 2Ag+ (aq)  Cu2+(aq)
(c) 1/ K (d) K 2 + 2Ag(s), the equilibrium constant is given by

80. In the reaction H2(g) + l2(g)  2HI(g) [Cu 2 ][ Ag ]2 [Cu 2 ][ Ag ]2

(a) (b)
[Cu ][ Ag  ]2 [Cu ][ Ag  ]2
(a) Kp = Kc (b) K p  Kc
[Cu 2 ] [ Ag  ]2
(c) Kp > Kc (d) Kp < Kc (c) (d)
[ Ag  ]2 [Cu 2 ]
81. An increase in pressure would favour the
farward reaction 87. KP for the reaction

(a) N2(g) + O2(g)  2NO(g) CaCO 3 (s)  CaO(s) + CO 2(g) is correctly

expressed as
(b) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g)
PCaO  PCO 2 PCaCO 3
(c) PCl5(g)  PCl3 (g) + Cl2(g) (a) K P  PCaCO 3 (b) K P 
PCaO . PCO 2
(d) H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g)
PCO
(d) K P  P
2
(c) K P  PC O 2
CaCO 3

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DATE : 06/02/2022 NEET CLASS - 11 (CPT)

88. If the equilibrium constant for the reaction PART - III : BOTANY
2AB  A2 + B2 is 36. What is the equilibrium 91. The first action spectrum of photosynthesis :
constant for (a) Was given by T.W. Engelmann
1 1 (b) Was performed using blue and red light only
AB  A2  B2
2 2 (c) We done by taking the blue green alga,
(a) 49 (b) 24 Cladophora
(c) 6 (d) 2 (d) Was performed by taking anaerobic bacte-
89. In which of the following reactions, will the ria
equilibrium mixture contain an appreciable
92. Read the following statements :
concentration of both reactants and products.
(i) In Engelmaan’s experiment the aerobic bac-
(a) Cl2 ( g )  2Cl ( g ) , K c  6.4  10 39 teria accumulated mainly in the region of
green light of the split spectrum
(b) Cl2 ( g )  2 NO ( g )  2 NOCl ( g )
(ii) Action spectrum of photosynthesis corre-
K c  3.7  10 8 sponds closely to absorption spectra of chlo-
rophyll - a showing that chlorophyll-a is the
(c) Cl2 ( g )  2 NO2 ( g )  2 NO2Cl ( g ) ; chief photosynthetic pigment
(iii) Some organisms do not release O2 during
K c  1.8 photosynthesis
(d) H 2 ( g )  S ( s )  H 2 S ( g ) ; K  7.8  105 (iv) There occurs a clear division of labour w.r.t.
light reaction and dark reaction within the
90. According to van ‘t Hoff equation, K varies chloroplast
with temperature as:
(iv) Purple and green sulphur bacteria can lib-
K H  1 1  erate O2 during photosynthesis
(a) log 2     
K1 2.303R T1 T2  Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (v) only
K1 H  1 1 
(b) log     (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii), (iv) and (v)
K2 2.303R T2 T1 
93. Cornelus van Neil:

K1 H  1 1  (a) Based on his studies of purple and green

(c) log     bacteria denomstrated that hydrogen from
K2 2.303R  T1 T2 
a suitable oxidisable compound oxidises
CO2 into carbohydrates
K2 H  1 1 
(d) log     (b) Demonstrated that photosynthesis is essen-
K1 2.303R  T1 T2  tially a light independent reaction
(c) Experimented only on green plants but not
bacteria
(d) A microbiologist is known for the milestone
contribution to the understanding of chem-
istry of photosynthesis
94. Which of the following experiment proves that
CO2 is essential for photosynthesis?
(a) Moll’s half leaf experiment
(b) Bell jar experiment

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(c) Thistle funnel experiment
(d) Both (a) and (c)
95. Accessory pigments of photosynthesis :
(a) Are chlorophyll - b, xanthophyll and
caroteinoids
(b) Absorb light and transfer electron to chlo-
rophyll-a
(c) Enable a narrow range of wavelength of
incoming light to be utilised for
photosnthesis and also proectes chloro-
phyll-a from photo oxidtion
(d) All are correct
96. Observe the absorption spectrum graphically
shown below :
(b) During movement of electrons from one
carrier to the next results in gain of energy
in the electrons
(c) The transfer of electrons, starting from PS -
II, usphill to the acceptor, down the elec-
tron transport chain to PS - I, excitation of
electron, transfer to another acceptor and
finally downhill to NADP+ occurs
(d) Both (a) and (c)
98. Oberve the diagram given below and Identify
A, B, C and D.

(a) A  PS - I B  e– acceptor
C  NADPH + H+ D  PS - II
(b) A  PS - II B  e– acceptor
C  NADP+ D  PS - I
(c) A  PS - II B  e– acceptor
Which one is true for the pigment showing ab-
sorption spectrum marked as X? C  NADPH + H+ D  PS - I
(a) Pigment whose absorption sepectrum X has (d) A  PS - I, B  e– acceptor
been marked is yellow to yellow organge
coloured C  FADH2 D  PS - II

(b) The concerned pigment X cannot be sepa- 99. The assimilatory power of the plant synthesised
rated by paper chromatography during light reaction is /are

(c) The concerned pigment X help in photo (a) NADPH + H+ (b) ATP
destruction of the main photosynthetic pig- (c) Electrons (d) Both (a) and (b)
ment
100. The water splitting complex is :
(d) Pigment whose absorption spectrum X has
been marked has the absorption peak in (a) Associated with The PS - II
orange light of visible spectrum (b) Located on the inner side of the thylakoid
97. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. electron membrane
transport chain in the Z-scheme of light reac- (c) May remain associated with PS - I
tion?
(d) More than one option is correct
(a) The electron are not used up as they pass
through the electron transport chain but
passed on to the pigment of PS – I

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101. D uring photoly sis of w ater, protons and O 2
107. Which of the following gets reduced during Z-
formed are initially released in the :
scheme?
(a) Intermembrane space of chloroplast
(a) NADP+ (b) NAD +
(b) Thylakoid lumen
(c) NADPH + H+ (d) NADH + H+
(c) Stroma
108. The chlorophyll-a of PS - II has an absorption
(d) Both (a) and (b) maxima at .......... wherease the chlorophyll-a of
PS - I has an absorption maxima at.....
102. The phenomenon of ATP synthesis with the
help of sunlight in plants is called : (a) 680 nm, 790 nm (b) 680 nm, 700 nm

(a) Photophosphorylation (c) 700 nm, 680 nm (d) 790 nm, 680 nm

(b) Oxidative photosphorylation 109. Which of the following is correct?

(c) Phosphorylation (a) PS - I is involed in non-cylci photophos

(d) Substrate level phosphorylation
103. Read the following statements :
(i) During non cyclic electron flow (Z-scheme)
both ATP and NADH + H+ are synthesized
in higher plants
(ii) During non cyclic electron transport only
PS - I is functional
(iii) Stroma lamella (fret) membranes lack PS -
II as well as NADP+
(iv) During cyclic electron transport chain only
ATP is synthesised but not NADPH + H+
phorylation but not cylic photophosphory-
lation
(b) PS- II is involved in both non cyclic was well
as cyclic photophosphorylation
(c) PS - II is involved only in non-cyclic oxida-
tive photophorylation.
(d) PS - I is involved in both non cyclic as well
as cylic photophosphorylation
110. Consider the following matched –
I- Light reaction – Breakdown of water
II Dark reaction – Reduction of glucose

(v) Cyclic photophosphorylation occurs when III Chemoautotroph – energy from oxidation
only light of wavelengths beyond 680 nm
Which of the following is correctly matched –
are available for exciation
(a) Only I correct
Which of the above statements are correct?
(b) Only II is correct
(a) (iii), (iv) and (v) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both I and III is correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)
(d) All three I ,II and III is correct
104. The reaction centre of PS - I and PS - II are re-
spectively : 111. Observe the diagram given below and identify
A, B and C.
(a) P680 and P700 (b) P840 and P890
(c) P700 and P680 (d) P600 and P680
105. Z-scheme of photosynthesis involves :
(a) PS - II (b) PS - I
(c) Electron carriers (d) All are correct
106. Z-scheme is related to formation of :
(a) NADPH +H+ (b) O2
(c) ATP
(a) A  PS - II B  e– acceptor
(d) More than one option is correct
C  ADP

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(b) A  ADP B  e– acceptor Which of the following options correctly define

uphill (X) and downhill (Y) movement of elec-
C  PS - II
trons?
(c) A  e– acceptor B  PS - I
(a) X = A and B, Y = C and D
C  ADP
(b) X = B and D, Y = A and C
(d) A  PS - I, B  e– acceptor
(c) X = A and D, Y = B and C
C  ADP
(d) X = A and C, Y = B and D
112. Mark the incorrect statement –
116. When O2 is released as a result of photosynthe-
(a) Light reaction occur in presence of light sis , it is a direct by product of :
(b) Dark reaction require product of light re- (a) Spliting of water molecules
action
(b) Chemiosmosis
(c) Glucose is product of Dark reaction
(c) The electron transfer system of PS - I
(d) Oxygen can be produced from CO2 in light
(d) The electron transfer system of PS - II
reaction
117. In the thylakoid membrane, what is the main
113. Given below is the reaction of photolysis of
role oif the antenna pigment molecules?
water
(a) Synthesise ATP from ADP and Pi
2H 2 O  4H  O 2  4e 
(b) Harvest photos and transfer light energy of
Which of the following is correct for the above P680
reaction? (c) Transfer electrons to ferredoxin
(a) Water splitting complex is associated with (d) Concentrate photons within the stroma
the P700
118. Which of the following is true for cyclic elec-
(b) Z-scheme is not associated with the above tron transport in the thylakoid membrane?
reaction
(a) Acts as a backup for ATP synthesis
(c) This reaction occurs in the thylakoid mem-
brane towwards lumen side (b) Both PS- I and PS- II are involved

(d) This reaction occurs in the thylakoid mem- (c) Operates at a very high light intensity
brane towards stroma side (d) Is related to photolysis of water
114. Which of the following minerals are important 119. The first step in light reaction of photosynthe-
for photolysis of water? sis is
(a) Zn, Ca, Fe (b) Mn, Ca, Cl (a) Photophosphorylation
(c) Ca, Fe, I (d) Mn, Ca, I (b) Photolysis of water
115. The summarised form of Z-scheme is given (c) Excitation of chlorophyll by sunlight
belwo :
(d) Synthesis of NADPH + H+
120. Which of the following options is/are correct
for accessory photosynthetic pigments?:
(a) They include chlorophyll-b, xanthophylls
and carotenoids
(b) They absorb light and transfer to chloro-
phyll-a

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(c) They enable absorption of wider range of
wavelength of incoming light for photosyn-
thesis
(d) All of these
121. Photosynthesis is
(a) A physical process
(b) A chemical process
(c) A physio-chemical process
(d) An energy wasting process
122. Read the followng statements w.r.t. light reac-
tion
(i) PS - I, H - carrier and P700 are related to
cyclic electron transport chain
(ii) Formation of NADPH + H+
is related with
the formation of proton gradient
(iii) Movement of electron in electron transport
chain is coupled to the pumping of protons
into the thylakoid lumen
(iv) H - carrier is responsible for the creation of
proton gradient across thylakoid mem-
brane
(v) The CF0 unit of ATP synthase is associated
with the breakdown of proton gradient
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Four (b) Five
(c) Two (d) Three
123. In stroma
(a) Enzymatic reactions incorporate CO2 into
the plant leading to ATP and NADPH2 for-
mation
(b) Enzymatic reactions incorporate CO2 into
plant leading to the synthesis of sugar, whch
in turn forms starch
(c) Light energy is captured to form glucose
(d) ATP and NADPH 2 are splitted and
H2Oand O2 comes out
124. Dark reaction of photosynthesis are :
(a) Not directly light driven
(b) Dependent on the products of light reac-
tion
(c) Directly driven by light
(d) Both (a) and (b)
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125. Which helped in confirming that oxygen
evolved in photosynthesis comes from water?:
(a) H2 18 O (b) 14CO2
(c) 15N3 (d) 3 H2O
126. The light harvesting complex (LHC) is made up
of
(a) One molecule of Chl a
(b) Very few molecules of Chl a
(c) Hundreds of pigment molecules bound to
Proteins
(d) Chl a + Chl c + Protein + DNA
127. Colour for carotene is
(a) yellow green (b) yellow orange
(c) blue green (d) yellow only
128. Select incorrect statement for photosynthesis:
(a) Plants requires carbon dioxide from the at-
mosphere
(b) Plant convert energy coming from the sun
into chemical energy
(c) Chemical energy produced by photosynthe-
sis is used for the growth and sustenance
of our biosphere
(d) CO2 is the source of O2 evolved
129. During cyclic photophosphorylation, which of
following events does not occur:
(a) Electrons are transferred back to P680
(b) NADP+ is not available as an electron ac-
ceptor
(c) NADPH will not form
(d) Electrons from photosystem I are not passed
to NADP+
130. Mark the incorrect statement:
(a) Chlorophyll a is reaction centre
(b) Reaction centre different in both photosys-
tem
(c) LHC have pigment molecule which bind
with the help of carbohydrate to membrane
(d) Photochemical phase involves water split-
ting
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131. In a green sulphur bacteria: PART - IV : ZOOLOGY

(a) NADP is electron acceptor 136. The macrophages in human body exhibit
(b) H2S is electron donor (a) ciliary movement
(c) Reduction of CO2 occur (b) amoeboid movement
(d) All four correct (c) no movement
132. A variegated leaf or a leaf that was partially (d) movement with the blood flow only
covered withblack paper, and exposed to light.
On testing these leaves for the presence of starch 137. Striated muscle fibres are found in
it was clear that photosynthesis occurred – (a) urinary bladder (b) lungs
(a) all part of leaf (c) gall bladder (d) leg muscles
(b) only in the green partsof the leaves in the 138. Smooth muscle is
presence of light.
(a) found in walls of heart only.
(c) only in the green partsof the leaves in the
Absence of light. (b) found in the walls of all the hollow organs
except heart.
(d) only in the green parts of the leaves
(c) attached to the bones only.
133. In C4 cycle, oxaloacetic acid further forms :
(d) found only in the walls of alimentary ca-
(a) Malic acid nal.
(b) Aspartic acid 139. Cardiac muscles are different from that of skel-
(c) Malic acid or aspartic acid etal muscles as the former are

(d) Succinic acid (a) striated but involuntary.

134. Who first inferred that the O2 evolved by the (b) non striated and involuntary.
green plants during photosynthesis comes from (c) smooth or unstriated.
H2O and not from CO2?
(d) voluntary in action.
(a) T.W. Engelmann
140. Actin protein occurs in which of the following
(b) Corneliusvan Niel two forms ?
(c) Julius von Sachs (a) Polymeric F- actin and monomeric G- actin
(d) Jan Ingenhousz (b) Monomeric F- actin and polymeric G-actin
135. Plants restore to the air whatever breathing (c) The tail and a head
animals and burning candles removes, it was
hypothesised by : (d) F-actin and G- actin, but both globular.

(a) Cornelius van Niel 141. Anisotropic band is

(b) Joseph Priestley (a) thick and dark (b) thin and dark

(c) Julius von Sachs (c) thick and light (d) thin and light

(d) T.W. Engelmann 142. A-band of the myofibril contains

(a) only thick filaments
(b) only thin filaments
(c) both thick and thin filaments
(d) no filaments

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150. In mammals the lower jaw is made of

143. Troponin
(a) maxilla (b) dentary
(a) produces sliding movement of microtubules
(c) mandible (d) ethmoid
(b) contains globular head
151. Which of the following is a single U shaped
(c) binding to Ca+2 produces skeletal muscle bone, present at the base of the buccal cavity
contraction. and it is also included in the skull?
(d) covers the active site of actin. (a) Hyoid (b) Malleus
144. During muscle contraction in humans the (c) Sacrum (d) Scapula
(a) actin filaments shorten. 152. Which of the following is not part of axial skel-
(b) sarcomere does not shorten. eton?

(c) A-band remain same. (a) Sacrum (b) Sternum

(d) A, H and I bands shorten. (c) Mandible (d) Humerus

145. A sarcomere is best described as a 153. The vertebral formula of human adult is

(a) movable structural unit within a myofibril (a) C7T12 L5S5Cd1 (b) C7T12 L5S5Cd5
bounded by H zones. (c) C7T12 L5S5Cd4 (d) C7T12 L5S4Cd4
(b) fixed structural unit within a myofibril 154. Glenoid cavity is found in
bounded by Z lines.
(a) pelvic girdle (b) skull
(c) fixed structural unit within a myofibril
bounded by A bands. (c) pectoral girdle (d) sternum

(d) movable structural unit within a myofibril 155. Number of floating ribs in human body is
bounded by Z lines. (a) two pairs (b) three pairs
146. Which muscle protein acts as ATPase? (c) five pairs (d)six pairs
(a) Actin (b) Troponin 156. A cup shaped cavity for articulation of femur
(c) Myosin (d) Tropomyosin head is

147. Which of the following is the store house of cal- (a) acetabulum (b) glenoid cavity
cium in muscles? (c) sigmoid notch (d) obturator foramen
(a) Sarcosome 157. Elbow joint is an example of
(b) Sarcoplasmic reticulum (a) hinge joint
(c) Creatine phosphate (b) gliding joint
(d) Sarcomere (c) ball and socket joint
148. Red muscle fibres are rich in (d) pivot joint
(a) golgi bodies (b) mitochondria 158. In humans, coccyx is formed by the fusion of
(c) lysosomes (d) ribosomes (a) 3 vertebra (b) 4 vertebra
149. The axon terminals of a nerve cell and the sar- (c) 5 vertebra (d) 6 vertebra
colemma of a skeletal muscle cell join at
the_______ 159. The joint in our neck which allows us to rotate
our head left to right is
(a) motor unit (b) synaptic cleft
(a) pivot joint (b) hinge joint
(c) action potential
(c) saddle joint (d) ellipsoid joint
(d) neuromuscular junction

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160. Accumulation of uric acid crystals in the syn- (c) Muscular dystrophy - Age related shorten-
ovial joint causes ing of muscles.
(a) rheumatoidal arthritis (d) Osteoporosis - Decrease in bone mass and
higher chances of fractures with advanc-
(b) gout
ing age.
(c) osteoarthritis
165. Three of the following pairs of the human skel-
(d) muscular dystrophy etal parts are correctly matched with their re-
spective inclusive skeletal category and one pair
161. Which of the following is an autoimmune dis-
is not matched. Identify the non-matching pair.
order ?
Pairs of skeletal parts Category
(a) Myasthenia gravis
(a) Sternum and ribs – Axial skeleton
(b) Osteoporosis
(b) Clavicle and glenoid – Pelvic girdle
(c) Muscular dystrophy
cavity
(d) Gout
(c) Humerus and ulna – Appendicular
162. Read the following statements (A to D) and se- skeleton
lect the one option that contains both correct
(d) Malleus and stapes – Ear ossicles
statements.
166. Which of the following pairs of joints and its
A. Z-line is present in the centre of the light
location is correctly matched?
band.
(a) Hinge joint –Between vertebrae
B. Thin filaments are firmly attached to the
M-line. (b) Gliding joint –Between zygapophy
ses of the successive
C. The central part of thick filaments, not over-
vertebrae
lapped by thin filaments is called Z-band.
(c) Cartilaginous joint–Skull bones
D. Light band contains only thin filaments.
(d) Fibrous joint –Between phalanges
(a) A and D (b) B and C
167. In the given diagram of skull, what does “I”
(c) A and C (d) B and D
represent?
163. Which one of the following is the correct de-
scription of certain part of a normal human
skeleton?
(a) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the
skull are joined by fibrous joint.
(b) First vertebra is axis which articulates with
the occipital condyles.
(c) The 9 and 10 pairs of ribs are called the
floating ribs.
(d) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the (a) Frontal bone (b) Temporal bone
thigh bone articulates.
(c) Occipital bone (d) Parietal bone
164. Select the correct statement regarding the spe-
cific disorder of muscular or skeletal system.
(a) Myasthenia gravis - Autoimmune disorder
which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments.
(b) Gout – Inflammation of joints due to extra
deposition of calcium.

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168. The given diagram represents the bones of hu- (c) Attachment of new ATP to myosin head.
man arm. Identify the bones marked as I, II, III The cross bridge detaches.
& IV.
(d) Splitting of ATP into ADP and Pi. Myosin
cocks into its high energy conformation.
170. A bipolar neuron has
(a) 2 dendrites and 1 axon
(b) 2 axons and 1 dendrite
(c) 1 dendrite and 1 axon
(d) 2 axons and 2 dendrites
171. Sodium – Postassium pump across membrane,
actively transports
(a) I – Clavicle, II – Ulna, (a) 2 Na ions outwards and 3 K ions into the
cell.
III – Radius, IV – Humerus
(b) 3 Na ions outwards and 2 K ions into the
(b) I – Humerus, II – Radius,
cell.
III – Ulna, IV – Scapula
(c) 2 K ions outwards and 3 Na ions into the
(c) I – Clavicle, II – Ulna, cell.
III – Radius, IV – Humerus (d) 3 K ions outwards and 2 Na ions into the
cell.
(d) I – Humerus, II – Ulna,
172. During conduction of nerve impulse
III – Radius, IV – Scapula
(a) Na+ moves into axoplasm
169. The given figure represents the cross bridge
cycle in skeletal muscle. What does the step B in (b) Na+ moves out of axoplasm
the figure represents?
(c) K+ moves into axoplasm
(d) Ca++ moves into axoplasm
173. Action potential of nerve cell is
(a) – 60 mV (b) –80 mV
(c) +20 mV (d) +30 mV
174. Which of the following ions are required for
nerve conduction ?
(a) Ca++, Na+ and K+ (b) Ca++ and Mg++
(c) Mg++ and K+ (d) Na+ and K+
175. A typical value of resting membrane potential
is
(a) – 40m V (b) – 60m V
(c) – 70m V (d) – 80m V

(a) Attachment of myosin head to actin form-

ing cross bridge.
(b) Release of phosphate. Myosin changes
shape to pull actin.

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176. The cerebral cortex is (a) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III

(a) the outer layer of cerebrum, called white (b) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
matter.
(c) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(b) inner layer of cerebrum, called white mat-
(d) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
ter.
180. The given diagram chows the axon terminal
(c) the outer layer of cerebrum, called grey
and synapse with few part labelled as A, B, C &
matter.
D. Choose the correct combination of labelling
(d) inner layer of cerebrum, called grey mat- from the given options.
ter.
177. Pons connects
(a) brain with spinal cord
(b) cerebrum with cerebellum
(c) two-lobes of cerebellum
(d) two cerebral hemispheres
178. Corpus callosum connects
(a) two cerebral hemispheres
(b) two ventricles of brain (a) A- Synaptic vesicle, B- Axon terminal, C-
Synaptic cleft, D- Postsynaptic membrane
(c) two cerebellar hemispheres
(b) A- Axon terminal, B- Synaptic vesicle, C-
(d) two optic thalamus
Postsynaptic membrane, D- Synaptic cleft.
179. Match the column I (various phase of an action
(c) A- Synaptic vesicle, B- Synaptic cleft, C-
potential) with column II (ionic activity associ-
Axon terminal, D- Post synaptic membrane
ated) and choose the correct option.
(d) A- Post synaptic membrane, B- Axon ter-
. Column I
minal, C- Synaptic vesicle, D- Synaptic cleft
A. Resting stage of a neuron
B. Depolarization phase in the generation of
an action potential.
C. Repolarization phase in the generation of
action potential
D. Absolute refractory phase.
Column II
I. Opening and then closing of the sodium
channels
II. All voltage gated sodium and potassium
channels are closed.
III. The sodium channels remain opened.
IV. Opening of potassium gates and the rush-
ing of potassium

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