All India Test Series (2023-24)

AITS TEST - 03

DURATION
DURATION:: 200
90 Minutes
Minutes DATE: 04/02/2024 M. MARKS: 720

Topics Covered
Physics: AITS-2 + Mechanical Properties of Fluids, Thermal Properties of Matter (Including Newton's Law
of Cooling and Stefan's Law), Kinetic Theory of Gases and Thermodynamics, Simple Harmonic
Motion, Waves
Chemistry: AITS-2 + Equilibrium, General Organic Chemistry, HYDROCARBON
Botany: AITS-2 + Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, Respiration in Plants
Zoology: AITS-2 + Chemical Coordination and Integration
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (four options with a single
correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two
sections (A and B) as per details given below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185).
All Questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos. – 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to 200).
In section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start attempting the question paper. In the
event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
3. There is only one correct response for each question.
4. Each correct answer will give 4 Mark while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. The maximum marks are 720.
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc.
inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the
candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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[1]
 (PHYSICS)
SECTION-A 6. Two waves are represented by the equations
y1 = a sin (t + kx + 0.57) m and
1. A small ball is thrown in a viscous liquid in a tall
container from a large height with a speed greater y2 = a cos(t + kx ) m, where x is in metre and t in
than the terminal speed of the ball. The correct second. The phase difference between them is
graph of its velocity with time is; approximately;
(density of ball > density of liquid) (1) 1.25 rad (2) 1.57 rad
(3) 0.57 rad (4) 1 rad

7. A barometer kept in a stationary elevator reads 76 cm.

If the elevator starts accelerating up, the reading
will be;
(1) Zero (2) Equal to 76 cm
(3) More than 76 cm (4) Less than 76 cm
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D 8. What is that temperature at which the Fahrenheit
reading is double than that of the Celsius reading?
2. A quantity of air ( = 1.4) at 30°C is compressed (1) 160°F (2) 160°C
suddenly, the temperature of the air will; (3) 320°C (4) 80°F
(1) Fall
(2) Rise 9. A transverse wave is travelling along a stretched
(3) Remain unchanged string from right to left. The figure shown,
(4) First rise and then fall represents the shape of the string (snapshot) at a
given instant. At this instant;
3. A small ball is placed at the bottom of a frictionless
cylindrical drum of radius R. The ball is given a
speed gR at the lowest point in the plane of the
paper as shown. Find the maximum height of the
ball above the ground. (1) the particles at A, B and H have downward
velocity
(2) the particles at D, E and F have downward
velocity
(3) the particles at C, E and G have zero velocity
R (4) the particles at A and F have maximum
(1) R (2) velocity
4
R R
(3) (4) 10. A simple pendulum is displaced from its mean
3 2
position to initiate oscillations. The torque of which
of the following force acting on the pendulum tries
4. If the displacement x and velocity v of a particle
to restore it back to the mean position?
executing SHM are related through the expression
(1) Tension in the string
4v2 = 25 – x2, then its time period (in s) is; (2) Centripetal force
(1)  (2) 2 (3) Centrifugal force
(3) 4 (4) 6 (4) Component of weight

5. A body is cooling according to Newton’s law of 11. In a guitar, two strings A and B, made of same
cooling. The temperature of the body falls from material are slightly out of tune and produce beats
50°C to 40°C in 10 minutes. The time in which its of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly
temperature falls from 40°C to 30°C is; increased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. If
(1) equal to 10 minutes the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original
(2) less than 10 minutes frequency of B will be;
(3) more than 10 minutes (1) 524 Hz (2) 536 Hz
(4) data insufficient (3) 537 Hz (4) 523 Hz

[2]
12. A glass flask of volume 200 cm3 is just filled with 17. A ball hits a fixed smooth floor at an angle  with
mercury at 20°C. The amount of mercury that will the floor as shown. The coefficient of restitution ‘e’
overflow when the temperature of the system is for the collision is given to be between 0 and 1.
raised to 30°C will be; (glass = 1.2 × 10–5/C°, What is the correct relation between angle  and
mercury = 1.8 × 10–4/C°) ? ( is the angle made by the velocity vector of the
(1) 3.36 cm3 (2) 0.336 cm3 ball with the floor just after collision)
(3) 33.6 cm3 (4) 3.36 × 10–2 cm3

13. A particle A of mass 2 kg is moving along the line

4x
Y= as shown in the figure with speed 10 m/s. (1) =
3
Another particle B of mass 2 kg moves along + ve (2) >
x-axis with speed 4 m/s. The speed of C.O.M. of (3) <
the system of two particles A and B is; (4)  may be greater than or less than  depending
on exact value of e.

18. The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe

is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe.
If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the
length of the open organ pipe is;
(1) 12.5 cm (2) 8 cm
13 (3) 13.3 cm (4) 16 cm
(1) m/s (2) 41 m/s
2
19. A curved path is constructed using two
(3) 45 m/s (4) 5 m/s
semicircular tracks of same radius R as shown. A
particle moves with constant speed v without
14. Three rods of the same dimension have thermal losing any contact with the track.
conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged as
shown in the figure. Their ends are at 100°C, 50°C
and 20°C. The temperature of their junction is;

The magnitude of centripetal force is;

(1) Greater at A than at B
(2) Lesser at A than at B
(1) 60°C (2) 70°C (3) Equal at A and B
(3) 50°C (4) 35°C (4) Cannot be determined.

15. Six particles each of mass m are connected to the 20. Ratio of rms speed of hydrogen molecules to the
corners of a light regular hexagonal frame of side oxygen molecules at room temperature 27°C is;
length ‘l’. Find the moment of inertia about an axis (1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
passing through any one of the vertex and (3) 8 : 1 (4) 16 : 1
perpendicular to the plane of the frame.
21. A gas is going through two thermodynamic process
(1) 6 m2 (2) 12 m2
AB and BC as shown in the P–V diagram. The work
(3) 10 m2 (4) 5 m2 done by the gas as it goes from A → B → C;

16. N moles of an ideal gas is heated at constant

temperature T K to increase its volume by 100%.
Work done by the gas is (R = gas constant)
(1) NRT ln2 (1) Continuously increases
(2) NRT (2) Continuously decreases
(3) NRT log10 2 (3) First increases and then decreases
(4) Zero (4) First decreases and then increases

[3]
22. A rod having uniform density in the shape of a 26. A body at temperature 7°C emits radiation of
tapered bar as shown below, is hung from the energy E in unit time. If the temperature is
ceiling. The mass of the rod is ‘m’ and length is l. increased to 77°C then the emitted energy per unit
Four points P, Q, R and S are marked on the rod. time will be;
The normal stress is maximum at the cross section 625E
(1) 104E (2)
passing through the point; 256
625 E
(3) 103E (4)
128

27. A body is executing simple harmonic motion

whose acceleration a versus time t graph is shown
in figure. Its corresponding position y versus time t
graph is;

(1) P
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) S

23. If temperature of ideal black body is increased by

(1) (2)
10%, then percentage increase in quantity of
radiation emitted from its surface will be;
(1) 10%
(2) 40%
(3) 46% (3) (4)
(4) 100%

24. A spring block system has a time period T when it 28. A monoatomic gas absorbs 30 J at constant volume
oscillates in the vertical plane as shown in figure (a). to raise its temperature by t°C. The amount of heat
The same spring block system is made to oscillate used by it to increase its internal energy is;
on a frictionless fixed incline as shown in figure (b). (1) 20 J
What can be said about the time period of (2) 10 J
oscillation? (3) 30 J
(4) Depends on the value of t

29. A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs

vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2
is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse
pulse of wavelength 1 is produced at the lower end
of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it
(1) It increases 
reaches the top of the rope is 2. The ratio 2 is;
(2) It decreases 1
(3) It remains same
m1 + m2 m2
(4) May increase or decrease depending on the (1) (2)
m2 m1
angle .
m1 + m2 m1
(3) (4)
25. Two rods of identical dimension and thermal m1 m2
conductivities 3k and 5k are connected in parallel
between two reservoirs at different temperatures. 30. Two consecutive frequencies from an open organ
Effective thermal conductivity of the parallel pipe are 100 Hz and 150 Hz. The fundamental
combination is; frequency of the organ pipe is;
(1) 2.5 k (2) 2.4 k (1) 50 Hz (2) 75 Hz
(3) 2 k (4) 4 k (3) 125 Hz (4) 25 Hz

[4]
31. 5 gm of steam at 100°C is passed into 6 gm of ice 37. A 5.5 m length of string has a mass of 0.035 kg. If
at 0°C. If the latent heats of steam and ice in cal per the tension in the string is 77N, the speed of a wave
gm are 540 and 80 respectively, then the final on the string is;
temperature is; (1) 110 ms–1
(1) 0°C (2) 100°C (2) 165 ms–1
(3) 50°C (4) 30°C (3) 77 ms–1
(4) 102 ms–1
32. If a graph is plotted by taking velocity along y-axis
and displacement of particle in SHM along x-axis, 38. A iron bar (Young’s modulus = 1011 N/m2,
then the nature of the graph is;
 = 10−6 /°C) 1 m long and 10–3 m2 in area is heated
(1) Straight line
from 0°C to 20°C without being allowed to bend or
(2) Ellipse
expand. Find the compressive force developed
(3) Parabola
inside the bar.
(4) Hyperbola
(1) 1000 N
33. A transverse wave is represented by the equation (2) 2000 N
(3) 500 N
2
y = y0 sin (vt − x) . For what value of  is the (4) 100 N

maximum particle velocity equal to three times the
39. A U-tube is made up of non-uniform cross section
wave velocity?
as shown in the figure, is partially filled with water.
2y0
(1)  = 2 y0 (2)  = Oil which does not mix with water is next poured
3
into one side, until water rises by 5 cm on the other
y
(3)  = 0 (4)  = y0 side. If the density of the oil is 0.8g/cc, the oil level
2
will stand higher than the water level by;

34. If the potential energy of two molecules is given

A B
by, U = 6 − 3 then at equilibrium position, its
r r
potential energy is equal to;
A2 B2
(1) (2) −
4B 4A
2B
(3) (4) 3A
A
(1) 6.25 cm
35. A spring mass system has time period T. If the (2) 12.50 cm
spring is cut into four identical parts and same mass (3) 3.75 cm
is loaded to one of them, then new time period of (4) 25.00 cm
vibration is;
T 40. Statement I: For production of beats the two
(1) T (2) sources must have different frequencies but same
2
T amplitude.
(3) (4) 2T Statement II: For production of beats the two
4
sources must have different frequencies but same
SECTION-B phase.
36. A simple pendulum has time period T on the (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
surface of moon. Its time period on the earth’s (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
surface is xT, then x is; incorrect.
1 (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) (2) 2 6
6 correct.
2 (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(3) (4) 6 incorrect.
6

[5]
41. The P–V graph for an isothermal process on an 46. Assertion (A): Assuming Stokes law to be valid, if
ideal gas is shown below. the speed of a spherical ball is doubled and the
radius is halved, the magnitude of viscous force
remain same.
Reason (R): In Stokes law viscous force is
proportional to the product of radius and speed.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and
the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the
The tangent at A makes an angle 37° with (–V) axis. Assertion (A).
If the process is carried out adiabatically starting (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and
from A the angle made by the tangent with –V axis Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the
4 Assertion (A).
at point A will be; (consider gas = )
3 (3) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(1) 60° (2) 30° (4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.
(3) 53° (4) 45°
47. A simple pendulum of mass m is suspended from a
42. Two wires are made of the same metal. The length string of length . Another body having same mass
of the first wire is half that of the second wire and
hits the pendulum perfectly inelastically as shown.
its diameter is double of the second wire. If equal
Find the minimum speed v of the ball such that the
loads are applied on both the wires, find the ratio of
system of two balls just complete the vertical circle.
increase in their lengths.
1 1
(1) (2)
4 8
1 1
(3) (4)
2 16

43. Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m

with moments of inertia IA and IB(IB > IA) have (1) 5g
equal kinetic energy of rotation. If LA and LB be
(2) 2 5g
their angular momentum respectively, then;
L (3) 3 5g
(1) LA = B (2) LA = 2 LB
2 (4) 4 5g
(3) LB > LA (4) LA > LB
48. A uniform circular plate has mass M and radius R
44. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with
is kept with its centre at origin. Two discs of radius
frequency n, the frequency of its potential energy
R
is; each are removed from the original disc as
4
(1) n (2) 2n
shown in figures.
(3) 3n (4) 4n

45. A body of density  is thrown at t = 0 with speed v,

into a lake of density  from the surface,
(where  > ). Neglecting all dissipative forces, the
time taken by the body to return to the surface is;
2v
(1)
( − ) g
2v
(2) Find out the X-coordinate of centre of mass after
( − ) g removing the two smaller discs.
2v R R
(3) (1) − (2) +
( − ) g 56 56
2v R R
(4) (3) (4) −
( − ) g 42 42

[6]
49. A wheel is rotating about an axis through its centre 50. The radius of a soap bubble is increased from R to
at 720 r.p.m. It is acted upon by a constant torque 2R. Work done in this process (T = surface tension)
opposing its motion for 8 second to finally bring it is;
to rest. The value of torque in N-m is; (given (1) 24R2T
24 (2) 48R2T
I= kg m2)
 (3) 12R2T
(1) 48 (2) 72 (4) 36R2T
(3) 96 (4) 120

(CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A 55. For the reaction:
51. In the given substituted phenols A(g) + 3B(g)  2C(g)
OH OH OH OH KC is 0.8 at 400°C. Calculate the value of KP;
(1) 2.624 × 10–4
NO2 (2) 2.624 × 10–6
CH3 NO2 (3) 2.624 × 10–5
(4) 2.624 × 10–3
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
The correct decreasing order of acidity is;
56. Which of the following species is not aromatic?
(1) III > IV > I > II
(2) I > IV > III > I (1) (2)
(3) II > I > III > IV
(4) IV > III > I > II 

52. The reaction of cis-Hex-3-ene with Br2 in the (3) (4)

presence of CCl4 produces major product;  
(1) 1-Bromo-3-hexene
(2) 2,3-Dibromohexane 57. In a multiple bond shifting of electron under the
(3) meso-3,4-Dibromohexane influence of a reagent is called;
(4) (±) 3,4-Dibromohexane (1) Inductive effect
(2) Mesomeric effect
53. Which of the following pairs of structures do not (3) Electromeric effect
represent resonating structures? (4) Trans effect

OH OH

(1) CH3 – C – CH3 ; CH3 – C – CH3 58. The chloride of a metal has the formula MCl. The
 formula of its phosphate will be;
(2) CH3 –C–OH ; CH3–C=OH (1) M2PO4
O O (2) MPO4
(3) M3PO4

(3) (4) M(PO4)2

59. Statement I: In resonance, delocalisation of σ

O OH electrons takes place.
(4) CH3 – C – CH3 ; CH3 – C = CH2 Statement II: In hyperconjugation, delocalisation
of π electrons takes place.
54. On reaction with water in the presence of (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
H2SO4/HgSO4, an alkyne give only one ketone. (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
Alkyne can be; incorrect.
(1) CH3–CH2–CC–CH3 (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
(2) CH3–(CH2)2 –CC–CH3 correct.
(3) CH3–CC–CH3 (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
incorrect.
(4) All of these

[7]
60. Assertion (A): Fluorine exists only in +1 (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
oxidation state. (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
Reason (R): Fluorine has 1s2 2s2 2p5 incorrect.
configuration. (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, correct.
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
Assertion (A). incorrect.
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
but Reason (R) is not a correct 66. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is
explanation of Assertion (A). not possible?
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is (1) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0
false. (2) n = 2, l = 0, m = –1
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is (3) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0
true. (4) n = 3, l = 1, m = –1

61. Compound with highest value pkb is; 67. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the
correct option.
(1) (2) List–I List–II
N N
(A) H H (I) Geometrical
H H C C C
CH3 CH3 isomerism
(3) (4) (B) HCOOC2H5 (II) Optically
N N active
(C) CH COOH (III) Tautomerism
62. Arrange the following alkenes in increasing order
CH COOH
of stability;
(D) (IV) Metamerism

(I) (II) (III)

(1) I < II < III (2) II < I < III
(3) I < III < II (4) II < III < I (1) (A) − (II), (B) − (IV), (C) − (I), (D) − (III)
(2) (A) − (I), (B) − (IV), (C) − (III), (D) − (II)
63. Calculate pH of a solution of given mixture (3) (A) − (IV), (B) − (I), (C) − (II), (D) − (III)
(0.1 mole CH3COOH + 0.4 mole CH3COONa) in (4) (A) − (II), (B) − (I), (C) − (IV), (D) − (III)
100 ml of mixture. Ka = 3×10–5
(1) 5.1 (2) 5.6 68. 2-Methylbut-2-ene on oxidative ozonolysis
(3) 6.6 (4) 7.6 yields;
(1) only aldehyde
64. Among the following compounds which will (2) only carboxylic acid
liberate methane on treatment with NaOH and (3) Both aldehyde and ketone
CaO in the presence of heat; (4) Both ketone and carboxylic acid
(I) CH3–CH2OH
(II) CH3COONa 69. Which of the following graphs correspond to one
(III) H3CCOCH3 node?
(IV) H3C–CHO

(1) II (2) II, III 
(1) (2)
(3) I, II, III (4) I, II, III, IV
r r
65. Statement I: Primary carbocations are generally
formed more easily than tertiary carbocations. 
Statement II: Hyperconjugation as well as 
(3) (4)
inductive effect due to additional alkyl group
stabilize tertiary carbocations. r r

[8]
70. Methylcyclopentane on monobromination in the 75. For the given reaction, the equilibrium constant is
presence of light will give X as a major product. 25.
X is; N2 + 3H2 2NH3
CH2Br CH2Br Calculate value of equilibrium constant for the
(1) (2) following reaction.
Br
Br Br 1 3
NH3 N2 + H2
(3) CH2Br (4) CH3 2 2
(1) 0.25
(2) 0.4
71. The general formula for the pH of basic buffer is;
(3) 0.2
(1) pH = pKb
(4) 0.625
(2) pH =
1 1
pKb – log
salt 
2 2 base 76. Which oxide of nitrogen is the most stable?
N2(g) + O2(g) ; K = 3.2 × 1030
(3) pH = 14 – pKb – log
salt  (1) 2NO(g)
(2) 2NO2(g) N2(g) + 2O2(g) ; K = 0.7 × 1016
base mol litre –1

(4) pH = pOH – pKb +

salt  (3) 2N2O5(g) 2N2(g) + 5O2(g) ; K = 1.2 ×
base 34 5
10 mol litre –5

(4) 2N2O(g) 2N2(g) + O2(g) ; K = 5.5 × 1033

mol litre–1
72. Propene is heated at 500ºC with chlorine. Major
product formed is;
77. HCl gas on reaction with propene in the presence
(1) CH2ClCH = CH2
of benzoyl peroxide will give;
(2) CH3CHClCH2Cl (1) n-Propyl chloride
(3) CH2ClCHClCH2Cl (2) 2-Chloropropane
(4) All of these (3) Allyl chloride
(4) No reaction
73. The given compound can be related as;
OH CH2OH 78. The IUPAC name of the following compound is:

and

CH3
(1) Tricyano-1,2,3-propane
(2) Propane tricarbylamine
(1) metamers
(3) Propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile
(2) tautomers
(4) 3-Cyanopropane-1,5-dinitrile
(3) ring chain isomers
(4) functional isomers
79. Assertion (A): If both H and S are positive
74. Match List I with List II and select the correct then reaction will be spontaneous at high
answer using the codes given below the lists; temperature.
Reason (R): All processes with positive
List–I List–II
−
entropy change are spontaneous.
(A) (I) Reduction
–e
Na ⎯⎯ →Na +
⎯ (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
(B) +2e – (II) Oxidation and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯ → 2Cl–
Assertion (A).
(C) 4Na + O2→2Na2O (III) Redox reaction
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
(D)
Br2 → Br – + BrO3– (IV) Disproportionation
but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(1) (A) − (II), (B) − (IV), (C) − (I), (D) − (III)
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
(2) (A) − (I), (B) − (IV), (C) − (III), (D) − (II) false.
(3) (A) − (II), (B) − (I), (C) − (III), (D) − (IV) (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
(4) (A) − (II), (B) − (I), (C) − (IV), (D) − (III) true.

[9]
80. In the given carbocation; (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
+ + + and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
CH 3 C HCH 3 CH 3 C HOCH 3 CH 3 C HCOCH 3
Assertion (A).
I II III (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
The correct order of stability is; but Reason (R) is not a correct
(1) III > II > I explanation of Assertion (A).
(2) I > II > III (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
(3) II > I > III false.
(4) I > III > II (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
true.
81. Match List I with List II and select the correct
SECTION-B
answer using the codes given below in the lists;
86. In the given reaction:
List–I List–II
(A) N2O5 (I) +5 + Br2 ⎯⎯⎯
CCl4
→A
(B) HNO2 (II) –3
Major product ‘A’ will be;
(C) NH3 (III) +3
Br
(D) HN3 (IV) –1/3
(1) (2)
(1) (A)−(II), (B)−(IV), (C)−(I), (D)−(III)
Br
(2) (A)−(I), (B)−(IV), (C)−(III), (D)−(II)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
(3) (A)−(IV), (B)−(I), (C)−(II), (D)−(III)
(4) (A)−(I), (B)−(III), (C)−(II), (D)−(IV) COOH

82. The pH of a 0.033M solution of H3PO4 is; 87.

(1) 0.099 (2) 1
X
(3) –1 (4) 0
In the above compound pKa value decreases if X
is;
83. Cis-trans isomerism is not shown by;
(1) –NO2 (2) –NH2
(1) Butenedioic acid
(3) –OH (4) –OCH3
(2) 1,2-Dimethylcyclopropane
(3) 1,2-Dichloroethene
88. Assertion (A): The number of Oxygen atoms in
(4) Butanedioic acid
16 g of Oxygen gas and 16 g of O3 is same.
Reason (R): Each of these species represents 1g
84. Assertion (A): For the combustion of atom of Oxygen.
methane, (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
U > H. and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Reason (R): ng is +2 for the above process. Assertion (A).
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of but Reason (R) is not a correct
Assertion (A). explanation of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
but Reason (R) is not a correct. false.
explanation of Assertion (A). (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is true.
false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is 89. Calculate total number of moles of atoms present
in 4.9 gm H2SO4.
true.
(1) 3.5 moles
85. Assertion (A): T, P and V are state variables (2) 0.35 moles
or state functions. (3) 1.5 moles
Reason (R): Their values depend on the state (4) 2.5 moles
of the system and how it is reached.

[10]
90. Among the given options most basic compound 95. In the given species:
is; OH– CH3COO– Cl–
(1) CH3–N–CH3 I II III
CH3 The correct order of their basicity;
H2N NH (1) III > II > I
(2) C (2) III < II < I
NH2 (3) II < III < I
(3) C6H5–N–C6H5 (4) II < III > I
C6H5
96. Highest number of hyperconjugation forms will
(4) CH3—NH—CH3
be shown by which of the following carbocation?

(1) CH 3 – C H 2
91. The given graph between 2 (probability density) 
and r (distance) from the nucleus represents (2) CH3–CH
which orbital? CH3
CH3
2
(3) CH3–C
CH3
CH3
r (4) CH3–CH2–C
(1) 2s (2) 3s
CH3
(3) 1s (4) 2p

92. For an equilibrium change, the forward reaction 97. Solubility product of AgCl is 5.8 × 10–10 at 25ºC.
involves two gaseous reactants while the reverse Calculate solubility of the salt in 0.01 M AgNO3
reaction involves one gaseous reactant. solution.
For the forward equilibrium the unit of Kp is; (1) 5.8 × 10–8 mol/litre
(1) atm (2) atm2 (2) 5.8 × 10–10 mol/litre
(3) atm–1 (4) atm–2 (3) 5.2 × 10–9 mol/litre
(4) 5.2 × 10–12 mol/litre
93. Which of the following has pOH is equal to near
about one? 98. In the given reaction:
Cl / h
M M CH3–CH–CH2–CH–CH⎯
3 ⎯⎯
2
⎯→ monochloro
(1) 100 ml HCl + 100 ml NaOH
10 10 CH CH derivative
3 3
M M Total number of monochloro derivatives including
(2) 55 ml HCl + 44 ml NaOH
10 10 stereoisomers are;
M M (1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 75 ml HCl + 25 ml NaOH
10 10 (3) 4 (4) 2
M M
(4) 25 ml HCl + 75ml NaOH
5 5 99. The reaction that will be favoured at low pressure
will be;
94. For the given reaction (1) H2(g)+ I2(g) 2HI(g)
CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ (2) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
conc.H2SO4
→A
(3) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
the major product ‘A’ is;
(4) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)
(1) CH2

100. Calculate [OH–] in 0.002M solution of NH3 if Kb

(2) CH3
for NH3 is 1.8 × 10–5.
(1) 4.24 × 10–3 M
(3)
(2) 5.24 × 10–3 M
(3) 3.24 × 10–3 M
(4) (4) 8.24 × 10–3 M

[11]
 (BOTANY)
SECTION-A 106. Statement I: Pith is present in dicot stems and
monocot roots.
101. Out of the given functions, how many are the
Statement II: Roots have radial vascular bundles
characteristics of the mesosomes?
with exarch condition.
i. DNA replication.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
ii. Respiration. (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
iii. DNA distribution to daughter cells . incorrect.
iv. Secretion. (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
v. Increase surface area. correct.
vi. Contains enzymatic content. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(1) Only four incorrect.
(2) Only Three
(3) All six 107. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
(4) Only five option.
List-I List-II
102. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct (I) Anaphase–I (A) Four daughter cells
option. Separation of
List-I List-II (II) Anaphase–II (B) homologous
chromosomes
(I) Mammalia (A) Specific epithet
One metaphasic
(II) Mangifera (B) Branch of study (III) Metaphase-II (C)
plate
(III) indica (C) Class Separation of two
(IV) Telophase-II (D)
(IV) Systematics (D) Generic name chromatids
I II III IV I II III IV
(1) C D A B (1) B D A C
(2) B A C D (2) C B D A
(3) A B D C (3) B D C A
(4) D C B A (4) A B C D

103. Identify the organism on the basis of the 108. Identify A, B and C in the given figure.
statements given below.
i. Lacks cell wall.
ii. Smallest living cell known.
iii. Can survive without oxygen.
iv. Pathogenic in animal & plants.
(1) Nostoc (2) Anabaena
(3) Mycoplasma (4) Chlorella

104. Statement I: Generally, dicot leaves have reticulate

venation.
Statement II: Dicot leaves are isobilateral.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are A B C
Glyceraldehyde Phosphoenol
incorrect. (1)
-3-P
Lactate
pyruvate
Glyceraldehyde Phosphoenol
105. In bryophytes, meiosis occurs (2) Lactate
-3-P pyruvate
(1) during development of gametes. Phosphoenol Glyceraldehyde-
(3) Acetyl Co-A
(2) immediately after zygote formation. pyruvate 3-P
(3) after sometime of zygote formation. Phosphoenol Glyceraldehyde-
(4) Acetyl Co-A
pyruvate 3-P
(4) in gametophytic stage.

[12]
109. During photosynthesis, dark reactions occur in 115. The respiratory balance sheet is calculated on
(1) granal thylakoid membranes. some assumptions. Identify the incorrect
(2) stroma of chloroplast. assumption from the following statements.
(3) stromal lamellae membranes. (1) The pathway is sequential, with one substrate
(4) intermembranal space of chloroplast. forming the next and with glycolysis, TCA
cycle and ETS pathway following one after
110. Plasmogamy in fungi is the fusion of; another.
(1) two haploid gamete cells and their nuclei at (2) NADH + H+ is transferred to chloroplast
once. where oxidative phosphorylation occurs.
(2) two haploid nuclei. (3) Only glucose is the substrate and none other
(3) two haploid gamete cells. substrate or intermediate enters or leaves the
(4) two diploid vegetative cells with nuclei. pathway.
(4) None of the intermediates in the pathway are
111. Adventitious roots arise from; utilised to synthesise any other compound.
(1) radicle.
(2) base of stem in tuft as in wheat. 116. The reaction that is responsible for the primary
fixation of CO2 in C4 plants is catalysed by;
(3) part of plant other than radicle as in banyan
(1) RuBP carboxylase.
tree.
(2) PEP carboxylase.
(4) secondary root.
(3) RuBP carboxylase and PEP carboxylase.
(4) PGA synthase.
112. Assertion (A): Action spectrum of photosynthesis
as a whole is much broader than absorption
117. In Kreb’s cycle, the first product is citric acid
spectrum of chlorophyll a.
which is a 6-carbon compound. It is formed by a
Reason (R): Accessory pigments are also present
condensing irreversible reaction between:
in the chloroplasts which have different (1) oxaloacetic acid and pyruvic acid.
absorption spectra. (2) oxaloacetic acid and acetyl Co-A.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the (3) pyruvic acid and acetyl Co-A.
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation (4) oxaloacetic acid and succinate.
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the 118. Assertion (A): The cytoplasmic division of plant
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct cells occurs from centre to periphery that is
explanation of Assertion (A). centrifugally.
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is Reason (R): The formation of the new cell wall in
false. plants begins with the formation of a simple
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is precursor, called the cell-plate that represents the
true. middle lamella.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
113. Calvin cycle takes place in ‘i’ of all C3 plants and and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
‘ii’ of C4 plants. Assertion (A).
Choose the correct option. (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
(i) (ii) but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
(1) mesophyll cells mesophyll cells of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
(2) bundle sheath cells mesophyll cells false.
(3) mesophyll cells bundle sheath cells (4) Assertion(A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
(4) bundle sheath cells bundle sheath cells
119. Except enzyme “A” which is located in inner
114. RuBisCO has ________ when CO2 and O2 are mitochondrial membrane, all enzymes of TCA
equal in concentration around it. cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix in
(1) greater affinity for CO2 than O2. eukaryotes. This enzyme “A” is;
(1) isocitrate dehydrogenase.
(2) greater affinity for O2 than CO2.
(2) malate dehydrogenase.
(3) equal affinity for CO2 & O2.
(3) succinate dehydrogenase.
(4) no affinity for O2.
(4) lactate dehydrogenase.

[13]
120. Select the option which mentions correctly 125. The most crucial step of Calvin cycle is;
matched pair of rows. (1) reduction of atmospheric CO2.
Stages of Place of (2) fixation of CO2.
Products
respiration occurrence (3) regeneration of RuBP.
Pyruvic (4) splitting of H2O molecule.
A. Glycolysis Cytosol acid, NADH
+ H+, ATP 126. Statement I: The biosynthetic phase of
Oxidative Acetyl CoA, photosynthesis does not directly depend on the
Mitochondrial
B. decarboxylation NADH+ H+, presence of light but is dependent on the products
matrix
of pyruvic acid CO2 of the light reaction.
Peri- Statement II: Even after light becomes
CO2, NADH
C. Krebs’ cycle mitochondrial unavailable, the biosynthetic process continues
+ H+, ATP
space
indefinitely without stopping.
Inner
Electron (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
D. membrane of ATP, CO2
transport system (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
mitochondria
incorrect.
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
(3) C and D (4) D and A
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
121. In ETS, the terminal electron acceptor reduces
incorrect.
into
(1) water. (2) CO2.
(3) ATP. (4) O2. 127. For the synthesis of a sucrose molecule, the
number of ATP and NADPH molecules required
122. The scientist that hypothesised, “plants restore to in the Calvin cycle, respectively, is
the air the substances removed by breathing (1) 18 and 12.
animals and burning candles” is; (2) 12 and 18.
(1) Joseph Priestley. (3) 36 and 24.
(2) Jan Ingenhousz. (4) 24 and 36.
(3) Julius Von Sachs.
(4) T.W Engelmann. 128. The product(s) of photorespiration is/are
(1) a 2-C compound only.
123. Assertion (A): Only cyclic photophosphorylation (2) a 3-C compound only.
takes place in stroma lamellae. (3) a 2-C compound and a 3-C compound.
Reason (R): Stroma lamellae membranes lack PS (4) two 3-C compounds.
II as well as NADP reductase enzyme.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, 129. Pick the correct statement from the following.
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of (1) All animals are saprophytic.
Assertion (A).
(2) Plants also need to oxidise food for energy
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
needs.
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
(3) The breaking of the C-C bonds of complex
of Assertion (A).
compounds through oxidation within the
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
cells, leading to release of considerable
false.
(4) Assertion(A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. amount of energy is called photosynthesis.
(4) Usually, proteins are oxidised to release
124. In the light reaction, splitting of the water energy, but carbohydrates, fats and even
molecule takes place on/in the organic acids can be used as respiratory
(1) stromal side of thylakoid membrane. substances in some plants, under certain
(2) stroma of chloroplast. conditions.
(3) inner side of thylakoid membrane.
(4) inter-membranal space of the chloroplast
membrane.

[14]
130. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct 137. The ‘Suffix’ used for a unit of classification in
option. plants to indicate ‘family’ taxonomic category is;
List-I List-II (1) -ales. (2) -onae.
First stable product of (3) -aceae. (4) -adae.
(I) (A) Pyruvate
Calvin cycle
First product of hatch 138. The synonym of light reaction of photosynthesis
(II) (B) OAA
and slack pathway is
Product of EMP (1) photochemical phase.
(III) (C) 3-PGA
pathway (2) biosynthetic phase.
(1) I(C), II(B), III(A) (3) preparatory phase.
(2) I(A), II(C), III(B) (4) payoff phase.
(3) I(A), II(B), III(C)
(4) I(C), II(A), III(B) 139. Statement I: The cones bearing megasporophyll
with ovules are female cones.
131. CO2 is not released during the Statement II: The strobili bearing microsporangia
(1) conversion of pyruvate to ethanol. are called male cones.
(2) conversion of pyruvate to acetyl Co. A. (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(3) conversion of pyruvate to lactate. (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
(4) conversion of malic acid to a 3-C compound. incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
132. In the ETS, FADH2 donates its electrons to correct.
(1) complex IV. (2) complex II. (4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(3) complex III. (4) complex I.
incorrect.

133. The RQ of protein is higher than that of

140. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
(1) sugar. (2) organic acid.
option w.r.t ETS.
(3) glucose. (4) tripalmitin.
List-I List-II
(I) Complex I (A) Cytochrome bc1
134. During aerobic respiration, the metal ion required
for the activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase is Cytochrome c
(II) Complex II (B)
(1) Mg2+. (2) Mn2+. oxidase
(3) Fe2+. (4) Cu2+. NADH
(III) Complex III (C)
dehydrogenase
135. Identify the correct statement. Succinate
(IV) Complex IV (D)
(1) Tropical plants have higher temperature dehydrogenase
optimum than temperate plants. (1) I(C), II(D), III(A), IV(B)
(2) Temperate plants have higher temperature (2) I(A), II(C), III(B), IV(D)
optimum than tropical plants. (3) I(A), II(B), III(C), IV(D)
(3) Temperate and tropical have equal (4) I(C), II(A), III(B), IV(D)
temperature optimum.
(4) None of these. 141. Statement I: Cytochrome c is a small protein
SECTION-B attached to the outer surface of the inner
mitochondrial membrane.
136. Statement I: Plant cells differ from animal cells. Statement II: F0 is an integral membrane protein
Statement II: Plant cells possess cell wall, complex of ATP synthase that forms the channel
plastids & a large vacuole which is absent in through which protons cross the inner membrane.
animal cells. (1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
incorrect.
incorrect.
[15]
142. The correct sequence of stages in cell cycle is: 147. In PS I, the reaction centre of chlorophyll a has an
(1) M →G2 →S →G1 absorption peak at
(2) S →G2 →G1 →M (1) 700 mm.
(3) M →G1 →G2 →S (2) 680 mm.
(4) G1 →S →G2 →M (3) 680 nm.
(4) 700 nm.
143. Electrons from PS-I move downhill to a molecule
of energy-rich 148. Glycolysis is also called
(1) NADP+. (1) TCA cycle
(2) NAD+. (2) link reaction
(3) FAD+. (3) EMP pathway
(4) GTP. (4) ETS

144. Among the following, secondary growth is seen 149. Assertion (A): There can be a net gain of 38 ATP
in: molecules during aerobic respiration of one
A – dicot root B – dicot stem molecule of glucose.
C – monocot root D – monocot stem Reason (R): One molecule of NADH + H+ and
E – monocot leaf F – dicot leaf FADH2 produces 2 and 3 ATP respectively
Choose the correct option. through ETS.
(1) A, B, C and D (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
(2) C, D, E and F and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(3) A, B, E and F Assertion (A).
(4) A and B only (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
145. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct of Assertion (A).
option. (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
List-I List-II false.
(color in (photosynthetic (4) Assertion(A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
chromatogram) pigment)
Yellow to yellow- 150. Mark the incorrect statement among the
(I) (A) Carotenoids
orange following.
(II) Yellow (B) Chlorophyll a (1) Oxygen drives the whole process of aerobic
(III) Yellow green (C) Xanthophylls respiration by removing hydrogen from the
Bright or blue system.
(IV) (D) Chlorophyll b (2) The activity of ATP synthase utilises ATP.
green
I II III IV (3) Glycolysis is present in all living organisms.
(4) Sucrose is converted into glucose and
(1) D C B A
fructose by the enzyme invertase.
(2) A B C D
(3) A C D B
(4) D B A C

146. In a greenhouse, the concentration of CO2 was

increased from 380 µlL-1 to 400 µlL-1. Its effect
will be
(1) increase in productivity of C4 plants.
(2) increase in productivity of C3 plants.
(3) decrease in productivity of C3 plants.
(4) increase or decrease in productivity of C4
plants.

[16]
 (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION-A A B C D
(1) III I IV II
151. Statement I: Exopthalmic goitre is a form of
hypothyroidism, characterised by enlargement of (2) IV III II I
the thyroid gland. (3) III IV I II
Statement II: Parathyroid gland secretes a protein (4) IV III I II
hormone called thyrocalcitonin (TCT) which
regulates the blood calcium levels. 157. All of the following are the hormones released by
(1) Statement I and statement II both are correct. adenohypophysis except;
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is (1) Follicle stimulating hormone
incorrect. (2) Prolactin
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is (3) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
correct.
(4) Aldosterone
(4) Statement I and statement II both are incorrect.

152. Which part of nephron is impermeable to water but 158. Which of the following hormone produces anti-
allows transport of electrolytes actively or inflammatory reactions and suppresses the immune
passively? response?
(1) Distal convoluted tubule (1) Insulin
(2) Proximal convoluted tubule (2) Glucagon
(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle (3) Vasopressin
(4) Ascending limb of loop of Henle (4) Cortisol

153. Which of the following is incorrect about pituitary?

159. Which of the following options is not a function of
(1) Located in bony cavity called sella turcica.
glucagon?
(2) Attached to hypothalamus by stalk.
(3) Divided anatomically into adenohypophysis (1) It acts mainly on the liver cells (hepatocytes)
and neurohypophysis. and stimulates glycogenesis.
(4) Secretes releasing and inhibitory hormones. (2) It causes hyperglycemia.
(3) It stimulates the process of gluconeogenesis
154. Which of the following organ contains several which also contributes to hyperglycemia.
groups of neurosecretory cells called nuclei which (4) It reduces the cellular glucose uptake and
produce hormones? utilization.
(1) Posterior pituitary
(2) Anterior pituitary 160. Corpora quadrigemina are present on _________
(3) Hypothalamus
portion of midbrain.
(4) Parathyroid gland
(1) Anterior (2) Dorsal
155. Which of the following protein polymerize to form (3) Ventral (4) Lateral
thick filament of muscle fibre?
(1) Globular actin (2) Filamentous actin 161. ACTH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of
(3) Troponin (4) Meromyosin steroid hormones called __A__ from the __B__.
Choose the option correctly filling the value of A
156. Match List-I with List-II regarding the hormone and B.
with the endocrine gland who release it and choose A B
the correct option. (1) glucocorticoids adrenal medulla
List-I List-II
(2) mineralocorticoids adrenal medulla
(A) Gonadotropin (I) Neurohypophysis
(3) glucocorticoids adrenal cortex
releasing
hormone (4) androgen adrenal medulla
(B) Thyroid (II) Pars intermedia
stimulating 162. Oxygen dissociation curve is obtained when partial
hormone pressure of oxygen is plotted against;
(C) Antidiuretic (III) Hypothalamus (1) partial pressure of CO2.
hormone (2) percentage saturation of hemoglobin with O2.
(D) Melanocyte (IV) Adenohypophysis (3) partial pressure of O2 in alveoli.
stimulating
(4) percentage saturation of hemoglobin with CO2.
hormone

[17]
163. Which of the following options incorrectly explain
the function of hormone in human body?
(1) Prolactin regulates the growth of the mammary
glands and formation of milk in them.
(2) TSH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of
thyroid hormones from the thyroid gland.
(3) In males, LH stimulates the synthesis and
secretion of hormones called androgens from
testis.
(4) In females, FSH induces ovulation of fully
mature follicles (graafian follicles) and
maintains the corpus luteum.
169. Assertion (A): Pancreas is a composite gland which
acts as both exocrine and endocrine gland.
Reason (R): The exocrine pancreas consists of
‘Islets of Langerhans’.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
and Reason (R) is correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.

164. Which of the following hormones of anterior 170. Which of the following statement is incorrect
pituitary together called gonadotropins? regarding function of androgens?
(1) LH and ACTH (1) It regulate the functions of the male accessory
(2) FSH and LH sex organs.
(3) TSH and PRL (2) These hormones stimulate muscular growth,
(4) MSH and LH growth of facial and axillary hair etc.
(3) It play a major stimulatory role in the process
165. In ABO system, blood group O is considered as of spermatogenesis.
universal donor because; (4) These hormones produce catabolic effects on
(1) it contains no antibodies in plasma. protein and carbohydrate metabolism.
(2) it contains no antigen on RBCs.
(3) it contains both antigen A and B on RBCs. 171. The juxtaglomerular cells of kidney produce a
(4) it contains antibody anti-A in plasma. peptide hormone called ______ which stimulates
formation of RBCs.
166. Secretion of which hormone is regulated by (1) erythropoietin (2) renin
circulating levels of calcium ions in the body? (3) angiotensin II (4) angiotensin I
(1) Thymosin
(2) Parathyroid 172. Secretin hormone which stimulates secretion of
(3) MSH water and bicarbonate ions acts on;
(4) TSH (1) gall bladder.
(2) exocrine pancreas.
167. Diuresis is reduced by; (3) endocrine pancreas.
(1) Oxytocin (2) Prolactin (4) spleen.
(3) LH (4) Vasopressin
173. Which of the following is not a false statement?
168. Match List-I with List-II regarding respiratory (1) Fibrins are formed by the enzyme prothrombin.
capacities and choose the correct option. (2) Prothrombin, are formed from thrombin.
List-I List-II (3) Thrombokinase, is required for conversion of
(A) Inspiratory capacity (I) RV+ERV+TV thrombin into prothrombin.
+ IRV (4) An injury or a trauma stimulates the platelets in
(B) Expiratory capacity (II) ERV+RV the blood to release certain factors which
(C) Total lung capacity (III) TV+IRV activate the mechanism of coagulation.
(D) Functional residual (IV) TV+ERV
capacity 174. The amount of the filtrate formed by the kidneys per
minute is called glomerular filtration rate which is in
A B C D
a healthy individual is approximately;
(1) III IV II I
(1) 125 ml/minute
(2) II III IV I
(2) 180 L/hour
(3) IV III II I
(3) 125L/day
(4) III IV I II
(4) 180 ml/minute

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175. Select the option which correctly matches. 180. Match List-I with List-II regarding hormone and
(1) Peptide Insulin its function and choose the correct option.
hormone List-I List-II
(2) Steroid hormone Pituitary (A) Hyperglycemic (I) Glucagon
hormone hormone
(B) Hypoglycemic (II) Insulin
(3) Amino acid Gonadotropin
hormone
derivatives (C) Glucocorticoid (III) Aldosterone
(4) Iodothyronines Epinephrine (D) Mineralocorticoid (IV) Cortisol
A B C D
176. Which of the following statements is not correct (1) II I IV III
regarding mechanism of hormone action? (2) II I III IV
(1) Hormone receptors are located in all the tissues (3) I II IV III
of the body. (4) III II I IV
(2) Hormone receptors present on the cell
membrane of the target cells are called 181. Statement I: The estrogen is synthesized and
membrane bound receptors. secreted mainly by the growing ovarian follicles.
(3) The receptors present inside the target cell are Statement II: After ovulation, the ruptured follicle
called intracellular receptors. is converted to a structure called corpus luteum,
(4) Binding of a hormone to its receptor leads to which secretes mainly estrogen.
the formation of a hormone-receptor complex. (1) Statement I and statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
incorrect.
177. Transmission of an impulse across ______ is very
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is
similar to impulse conduction along a single axon.
correct.
(1) electrical synapses
(4) Statement I and statement II both are incorrect.
(2) chemical synapses
(3) myelinated nerve fiber
182. A four chambered heart with two atria and two
(4) cranial nerves ventricles is present in;
(1) Fishes (2) Amphibians
178. Which of the following disorder is a result of (3) Reptiles (4) Crocodile
prolonged hyperglycemia?
(1) Diabetes insipidus 183. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
(2) Diabetes mellitus option.
(3) Addison’s disease List-I List-II
(4) Atherosclerosis (A) Acute renal (I) Inflammation of
failure glomeruli
179. Select the incorrect statement regarding mechanism (B) Uremia (II) Insoluble mass of
crystalline salts
of muscle contraction.
(C) Renal calculi (III) Excess of urea in
(1) Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent
blood
by the central nervous system (CNS) via a (D) Glomerulone (IV) One or both
motor neuron. phritis kidneys do not
(2) The junction between a motor neuron and the function properly
sarcolemma of the muscle fibre is called motor- A B C D
end plate. (1) I II IV III
(3) A neural signal reaching neuromuscular (2) IV III II I
junction releases a neurotransmitter (3) IV III I II
(acetylcholine) which generates an action (4) III II I IV
potential in the sarcolemma.
184. Thymosin is responsible for;
(4) The action potential spreads through the muscle (1) raising the blood sugar level.
fibre and causes the release of sodium ions into (2) raising blood calcium level.
the sarcoplasm. (3) increased production of T-lymphocyte.
(4) decrease in RBC count in blood.

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185. Which of the following hormone acts on the gastric
glands and stimulates the secretion of hydrochloric
acid and pepsinogen.
(1) Gastric inhibitory peptide
(2) Gastrin
(3) Secretin
(4) Cholecystokinin
SECTION-B
186. Assertion (A): Hormones which interact with
intracellular receptors normally do not enter the
target cell, but generate second messengers.
Reason (R): Steroid hormones mostly regulate gene
expression or chromosome function by the
interaction of hormone-receptor complex with the
genome.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
187. How many of the following statements are correct?
A. Osmoreceptors in the body are activated by
changes in blood volume, body fluid volume
and ionic concentration.
B. An excessive loss of fluid from the body can
activate these receptors which stimulate the
hypothalamus to release antidiuretic hormone
(ADH) or vasopressin from the
adenohypophysis.
C. ADH facilitates water reabsorption from loop
of Henle, thereby preventing diuresis.
D. An increase in body fluid volume can switch
off the osmoreceptors and suppress the ADH
release to complete the feedback.
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
188. Statement I: The thyroid gland is a lobular structure
located between lungs behind sternum on the ventral
side of aorta.
Statement II: Thymus gland secretes the steroid
hormones called thymosin.
(1) Statement I and statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and statement II both are incorrect.
189. Which of the following set of bones constitute the
axial skeleton?
(1) The skull, vertebral column, ribs and pelvic
girdle.
(2) The skull, vertebral column, ribs and pectoral
girdle.
(3) The skull, pectoral girdle, vertebral column and
appendages.
(4) The skull, vertebral column, sternum and ribs.
190. If levels of thyroid hormones are low during
pregnancy, which of the following disorder will be
present in developing baby?
(1) Goitre
(2) Cretinism
(3) Exopthalmic goitre
(4) Myxedema
191. Assertion (A): The parathyroid glands secrete a
peptide hormone called parathyroid hormone
(PTH).
Reason (R): The secretion of PTH is regulated by
the circulating levels of calcium ions.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
and Reason (R) is correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
192. Which of the following statement is not true
regarding structure of neuron?
(1) A neuron is a microscopic structure composed
of three major parts, namely, cell body,
dendrites and axon.
(2) The cell body contains cytoplasm with typical
cell organelles and certain granular bodies
called Nissl’s granules.
(3) Short fibres which branch repeatedly and
project out of the cell body also contain Nissl’s
granules and are called dendrites.
(4) The axon is a long fibre, the proximal end of
which is branched.
193. Which one of the following statements correctly
represents the function of oxytocin hormone?
(1) It stimulates a vigorous contraction of uterus at
the time of child birth, and milk ejection from
the mammary gland.
(2) It regulates the growth of the mammary glands
and formation of milk in them.
(3) It produces wide ranging actions such as
stimulation of growth and activities of female
secondary sex organs.
(4) It acts on the mammary glands and stimulates
the formation of alveoli (sac-like structures
which store milk) and milk secretion.
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194. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct 198. The ___X___ secrete a hormone called ___Y___
option. which acts mainly on the liver cells (hepatocytes)
List-I List-II and stimulates glycogenolysis resulting in an
(A) Larynx (I) Lid of larynx increased blood sugar.
(B) Trachea (II) Air sacs Choose the option correctly filling the value of X
(C) Alveoli (III) Voice box and Y.
(D) Epiglottis (IV) Wind pipe X Y
A B C D (1) α-cells glucagon
(1) III IV II I (2) β-cells insulin
(2) III IV I II (3) α-cells insulin
(3) IV III II I (4) β-cells glucagon
(4) IV III I II
199. Assertion (A): The nodal musculature has the
195. Which of the following set of hormones is secreted ability to generate action potentials without any
from adrenal gland? external stimuli, i.e., it is auto excitable.
(1) Epinephrine, norepinephrine, erythropoietin Reason (R): The number of action potentials that
and cortisol. could be generated in a minute vary at different parts
(2) Catecholamines, cortisol, aldosterone and of the nodal system.
androgens. (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true,
(3) Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and Reason (R) is correct explanation of
mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids and Assertion (A).
ACTH. (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(4) Androgens, catecholamines, cortisol, but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
aldosterone, erythropoietin and renin. Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
196. Statement I: Cortisol is involved in maintaining the (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
cardio vascular system as well as kidney function.
Statement II: Glucocorticoids stimulate 200. Which of the following hormone inhibits gastric
glycogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis; and secretion and motility?
stimulate cellular uptake and utilization of amino (1) Gastrin
acids. (2) Gastric inhibitory peptide
(1) Statement I and statement II both are correct. (3) Secretin
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is (4) Cholecystokinin
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and statement II both are incorrect.

197. The atrial wall of our heart secretes a very important

peptide hormone called atrial natriuretic factor
(ANF) which;
(1) increases blood pressure.
(2) increases heart rate.
(3) decreases blood pressure.
(4) has no effect on blood pressure.
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