YAKEEN NEET (2024)

PRACTICE TEST–03

DURATION ::200
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 25/06/2023 M. MARKS : 720

Topics Covered
Physics : Basic math, Vector, U&D, Motion in Straight Line & Projectile Motion.
Chemistry : Chemical Kinetics (Complete Chapter), Thermodynamics (upto First Law of Thermodynamics).
Biology : (Botany): Biological Classifications (Full syllabus), Plant Kingdom: Introduction, Algae, Bryophytes.
(Zoology): Body Fluids and Circulation: Blood, Circulatory System in Animal Kingdom, Structure of
Human Heart, Conducting System of Heart, Cardiac Cycle till Cardiac Cycle- 40%, Breathing and
Exchange of Gases- 40%, Structural Organisation in Animals- 20%.

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject and each
subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions all compulsory) and Section
B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
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[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION – A 7. A physical quantity P is given by the relation
1. In the diagram shown, a particle is moving from the 2
point A to the point B. Length of each arrow is 1 m P = P0e(−t ) . If t denotes the time, the dimensions
and the particle is moving at a constant speed of 1 of constant  are
m s–1. What is the average velocity of the particle? (1) [T] (2) [T2]
(3) [T–1] (4) [T–2]

8. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are

measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and
4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as
follows: P = (a3b2)/cd % error in P is
(1) 1 m s–1 (2) 0.5 m s–1 (1) 10% (2) 7%
(3) 3 ms–1 (4) None of these (3) 4% (4) 14%

2. A 150 m long train is moving with a uniform 9. A 120 m long train is moving in a straight line path
velocity of 45 km/h. The time taken by the train to with speed 20 m/s. Another train moving with 30
cross a bridge of length 850 meters is m/s in the opposite direction and 130 m long crosses
(1) 56 sec (2) 68 sec the first train completely in a time:
(3) 80 sec (4) 92 sec (1) 6 s (2) 36 s
(3) 38 s (4) 5 s
3. Assertion: Displacement of a body may be zero
when distance travelled by it is not zero. 10. Finding the value of sin 75°.
Reason: The displacement is the longest distance 3 +1 3 −1
between initial and final position. (1) (2)
2 2 2
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the 3− 2 1
(3) (4)
assertion. 2 2 2
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
is not the correct explanation of the assertion. 11. Which of the following equation is the best
(3) If the assertion and reason both are false. representation of the given graph’s?
(4) If assertion is true but reason is false.

4. A 210 meter long train is moving due North at a

speed of 25m/s. A small bird is flying due South a
little above the train with speed 5m/s. The time
2
taken by the bird to cross the train is: (1) y= (2) y = e–x
(1) 6 s (2) 7 s x
(3) 8 s (4) 10 s 1
(3) y = 2 (4) y = x2
x
5. An athlete completes one round of a circular track
of radius R in 40 sec. What will be his displacement
 1
at the end of 2 min. 20 sec? 12.   2sin x + x  dx is equal to
(1) Zero (2) 2 R
(3) 2 πR (4) 7πR (1) −2cos x + log x + c
(2) 2cos x + log x + c
6. A man walks on a straight road from his home to a 1
market 2.5 km away with a speed of 5 km/h. (3) −2sin x − +c
x2
Finding the market closed, he instantly turns and
1
walks back home with a speed of 7.5 km/h. The (4) −2cos x + +c
average speed of the man over the interval of time x2
0 to 40 min. is equal to
25 13. The relative error in the measurement of the side of
(1) 5 km/h (2) km/h a cube is 0.027. The relative error in the
4
measurement of its volume is
30 45
(3) km/h (4) km/h (1) 0.027 (2) 0.054
4 8 (3) 0.081 (4) 0.046

[2]
14. A packet contains silver powder of mass 20.23 g 22. Object starts its motion from rest with constant
± 0.01 g. Some of the powder of mass 5.75 g ± 0.01 g acceleration and moves 80 m in 10s then find
is taken out from it. The mass of the powder left displacement in 20 s.
back is (1) 320 m (2) 160 m
(1) 14.48 g ± 0.00 g (3) 80 m (4) 180 m
(2) 14.48 g ± 0.02 g
(3) 14.5 g ± 0.1 g 23. Which of the following graph represent uniform
(4) 14.5 g ± 0.2 g motion?

15. A particle moving with a uniform acceleration

travels 24 m and 64 m in the first two consecutive (1) (2)
intervals of 4 sec each. Its initial velocity is:
(1) 1 m/sec
(2) 10 m/sec
(3) 5 m/sec (3) (4)
(4) 2 m/sec

16. The area of a sheet of length 10.2 cm and width 24. Which graph is practically possible:
6.8 cm addressed upto proper number of significant
figures is
(1) 69.36 cm2 (2) 69.4 cm2 (1)
2
(3) 69 cm (4) 70 cm2

17. The equation of a wave is given by

 
y = A sin ω − k
x
v
; where ω is the angular (2)
velocity and v is the linear velocity. The
dimensions of k is:
(1) LT (2) T
(3) T–1 (4) T2 (3)

18. If a swift car travelling at 10 m/s takes a U-turn in

10 s without changing its speed, find the average (4) None of these
acceleration of the car during these 10 seconds is
(1) –2 m/s2 (2) –1 m/s2 25. The displacement of a moving particle is given by,
(3) 1/2 m/s 2
(4) 0 x = at3 + bt2 + ct + d. The acceleration of particle at
19. Object is dropped from height 180 m from ground t = 3 s would be
then find time of flight. (1) 2(a + 9b) (2) 2(9a + b)
(3) 9(a + b) (4) 3(2a + b)
(1) 4 s (2) 2 s
(3) 3 s (4) 6 s 26. Which of the following statement is not true?
(1) If displacement covered of a particle is zero,
20. A ball is thrown upwards and it returns to ground then distance covered may or may not be zero
describing a parabolic path. Which of the following (2) If the distance covered is zero then the
quantities remains constant throughout the motion? displacement must be zero
(1) Kinetic energy of the ball (3) The numerical value of ratio of displacement
(2) Speed of the ball to distance is equal to or less than one
(3) Horizontal component of velocity (4) The numerical value of the ratio of velocity to
(4) Vertical component of velocity speed is always less than one

21. Object is moving on straight line without change in 27. A ball is projected upwards. Its acceleration at the
direction then highest point is
(1) |Avg. velocity| = Avg. speed (1) zero
(2) |Avg. velocity| > Avg. speed (2) directed upwards
(3) |Avg. velocity| < Avg. speed (3) directed downwards
(4) |Avg. velocity| ≤ Avg. speed (4) such as cannot be predicted

[3]
28. A motor car moving with a uniform speed of (1) Line (2) has negative y intercept
20 m/sec comes to stop on the application of brakes (2) Line (1) has positive y intercept
after travelling a distance of 10m, its acceleration is: (3) Line (2) has positive slope
(1) 20 m/sec2 (2) – 20 m/sec2 (4) Line (1) has negative slope
(3) – 2 m/sec2 (4) +2 m/sec2
34. Rain drops are falling down ward vertically at
29. The position coordinates of a projectile projected 4kmph. For a person moving forward at 3 kmph
from ground on a certain planet (with no feels the rain falling at
atmosphere) are given by y = (4t – 2t2)m and (1) 7 kmph (2) 1 kmph
x = (3t) metre, where t is in second and point of (3) 5 kmph (4) 25 kmph
projection is taken as origin. The angle of projection
of projectile with vertical is 35. A man wants to cross a river 600 m wide flowing at
(1) 30° (2) 37° 8 m/s in shortest time. Man has a speed of 6 m/s in
(3) 45° (4) 60° still water. What is the path length covered by man
in the river?
30. The velocity at the maximum height of a projectile (1) Infinite (2) 1 km
3 (3) 100 m (4) 1000 cm
is times its initial velocity of projection (u). Its
2
range on the horizontal plane is SECTION – B
3 u2 3u 2 36. When a person walks on a straight road with a
(1) (2) speed 10 km/h, rain appears to fall vertically
2g 2g
downward. As he stops, the rain appears to fall
3u 2 u2
(3) (4) at an angle 30º with the vertical. The speed of
g 2g
rain with respect to ground is
(1) 20 km/h (2) 10 3 km/h
31. A train is moving towards east and a car is along
north, both with same speed. The observed direction (3) 10 km/h (4) 20 3 km/h
of car to the passenger in the train is
(1) East-north direction 37. A person can swim in still water at 5 m/s. He
(2) West-north direction moves in a river of velocity 3 m/s, first down the
(3) South-east direction stream and next same distance up the stream. The
(4) None of these ratio of times taken are
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
32. A particle starts from rest and moves with uniform (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
acceleration. Then the ratio of distance covered in
nth second to n second is 38. In a projectile motion, the height y and distance x
n2 2 1 are given by y = 4t – 5t2 and x = 3t. The acceleration
(1) (2) − due to gravity is given by
2n –1 n n2
(1) 3 units
n2 2n + 1
(3) (4) (2) 10 units
n +1 n2
(3) 4 units
(4) 5 units
33. Which of the following statement is not correct for
following straight line graph:
39. The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is
half of its initial speed. The angle of projection is
(1) 60° (2) 15°
(3) 30° (4) 45°

[4]
40. A particle moves along x-axis in such a way that its 44. A train starts from rest from a station with
x-co-ordinate varies with time according to the acceleration 0.2 m/s2 on a straight track and then
equation x = 4 – 2t + t2. The speed of the particle comes to rest after attaining maximum speed on
will vary with time as another station due to retardation 0.4 m/s2. If total
time spent is half an hour, then distance between
(1) two stations is [Neglect length of train]
(1) 216 km
(2) 512 km
(3) 728 km
(4) 1296 km
(2)
45. The two ends of a train moving with constant
acceleration pass a certain point with velocities u
and 3u. The velocity with which the middle point of
the train passes the same point is
(3)
(1) 2u
3
(2) u
2
(3) 5u
(4)
(4) 10 u

46. The displacement versus time graph for body

41. Vector sum of two forces of 10 N and 6 N cannot moving in straight line is shown in the figure.
be: Which of the following regions represents the
(1) 4 N (2) 8 N motion when no force is acting on the body?
(3) 12 N (4) 2 N

42. The position (x) of a particle moving along x-axis

varies with (t) as shown in figure. The average
acceleration of particle in time interval t = 0 to
t = 8 s is

(1) ab (2) bc
(3) cd (4) de

47. A particle starts from rest at t = 0 and moves in a

straight line with acceleration as shown below.
(1) 3 m/s2 The velocity of the particle at t = 3 s is
(2) –5 m/s2
(3) –4 m/s2
(4) 2.5 m/s2

43. A car travelling at a speed of 30 km/h is brought to

rest in a distance of 8 m by applying brakes. If the
same car is moving at a speed of 60 km/h then it can
be brought to rest with same brakes in
(1) 2 ms–1 (2) 4 ms–1
(1) 64 m (2) 32 m
(3) 6 ms–1 (4) 5 ms–1
(3) 16 m (4) 4 m

[5]
48. Assertion: At the highest point the velocity of 49. If the velocity of a particle is given by
projectile is zero. v = (180 – 16x)1/2 m/s, then its acceleration will be
Reason: At maximum height projectile comes to (1) Zero
rest. (2) 8 m/s2
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the (3) –8 m/s2
reason, is the correct explanation of the
(4) 4 m/s2
assertion
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
50. A body is projected vertically upward with speed 40 m/s.
reason is not the correct explanation of the
The distance travelled by body in the last second of
assertion
upward journey is [take g = 9.8 m/s2 and neglect effect
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
of air resistance]
false
(1) 4.9 m (2) 9.8 m
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(3) 12.4 m (4) 19.6 m
statements

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)

SECTION – A (1) Increasing the concentration of NO.

51. If initial concentration of reactants in certain (2) Increasing the concentration of the Cl2.
reaction is doubled, the half-life period of the (3) Increasing the temperature
reaction doubles. The order of reaction is: (4) Doing all of these
(1) zero (2) first
(3) second (4) third 56. A gaseous system changes from state A
(P1, V1, T1) to B(P2, V2, T2) to C(P3, V3, T3) and
52. Which of the following is a state function? finally from C to A. The whole process may be
(1) Enthalpy (2) Heat called:
(3) Work (4) none of these (1) Reversible process
(2) Cyclic process
53. Half-life period of a first-order reaction is 1386 (3) Isobaric process
seconds. The specific rate constant of the reaction (4) Spontaneous process
is:
(1) 5.0 × 10–2 s–1 (2) 5.0 × 10–3 s–1 57. When initial concentration of the reactant is
(3) 0.5 × 10–2 s–1 (4) 0.5 × 10–3 s–1 doubled, the half life period of a zero-order
reaction:
54. Match the conditions and their relations (1) is tripled
respectively? (2) is doubled
(a) Isotherm (3) is halved
(b) Isobar (4) remains unchanged
(c) Isochore
(1) constant temperature, constant pressure,
58. In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible
constant volume.
when
(2) constant pressure, constant volume, constant
(1) surroundings and system change into each
temperature.
other.
(3) constant volume, constant pressure, constant
(2) there is no houndary between system and
temperature.
surroundings.
(4) constant pressure, constant temperature,
(3) the surroundings are always in equilibrium
constant volume.
with the system.
(4) the system changes into surroundings
55. The rate of reaction, 2NO + Cl2 → 2NOCl is given
spontaneously.
by the rate equation, rate = k[NO]2[Cl2], the value
of rate constant can be increased by:

[6]
59. Activation energy (Ea) and rate constants k1 and 65. For the reaction,
k2 of a chemical reaction at two different d  NH3 
N 2 + 3H 2 → 2NH3 , if
temperatures (T1 and T2) are related by: (T2 > T1) dt
k2 E  1 1  −d  H 2 
(1) ln =− a  +  = 2  10−4 mol L−1 s−1 , the value of
k1 R  T2 T1  dt
k 2 Ea  1 1  would be:
(2) ln =  −  (1) 1 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
k1 R  T1 T2 
(2) 3 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
k2 E 1 1 
(3) ln =− a  −  (3) 4 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
k1 R  T1 T2 
(4) 6 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
k2 E  1 1 
(4) ln =+ a  + 
k1 R  T2 T1  66. A gas expands from 3.0 L to 3.5 L against an
external pressure of 1 atm. Calculate the PV work
60. When 1 mole of a gas is heated at a constant done.
volume, the temperature increases from 298 to (1) – 0.5 L atm (2) – 1 L atm
308 K. If the heat supplied to the gas is 500 J, then (3) – 100 J (4) – 200 J
which of the following is correct?
(1) q = W = 500 J, ΔU = 0 67. The addition of a catalyst during a chemical
(2) q = ΔU = 500 J, W = 0 reaction alters which of the following quantities?
(3) q = W = 400 J, ΔU = 0 (1) Entropy
(4) ΔU = 0, q = W = -500 J (2) Internal energy
(3) Enthalpy
61. The rate of a first-order reaction is 0.04 mol (4) Activation energy
L–1 s–1 at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol L–1 s–1 at 20
seconds after initiation of the reaction. The half- 68. Changes in a system from an initial state to the
life period of the reaction is: final state were made by a different manner that
(1) 24.1 s (2) 34.1 s H remains same but q changes because:
(3) 44.1 s (4) 54.1 s (1) H is a path function but q is a state function.
(2) H is a state function and q is a path function.
62. The maximum work done in expanding 16 g (3) Both H and q are state function.
oxygen at 300 K and occupying a volume of
(4) Both H and q are path function.
5 dm3 isothermally until the volume becomes
25 dm3 is:
69. Energy of activation of forward reaction for an
(1) – 2.01 × 103 J (2) 2.81 × 10–3 J
endothermic process is 50 kJ and enthalpy change
(3) 2.01 × 10–6 J (4) –20.1 × 10–6 J
is 20 kJ, then activation energy for backward
reaction will be:
63. The activation energy for a reaction which
(1) 30 kJ
doubles the rate when the temperature is raised
(2) 20 kJ
from 300 K to 310 K is:
(3) 70 kJ
(1) 50.6 kJ mol–1
(4) 50 kJ
(2) 53.6 kJ mol–1
(3) 56.6 kJ mol–1
70. Based on first law of thermodynamics, which one
(4) 59.6 kJ mol–1
of the following is correct?
(1) For an isochoric process, U = – q
64. In an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas against
vaccum, the work involved is: (2) For an adiabatic process, U = – w
(1) zero (2) maximum (3) For an isothermal process, q = + w
(3) minimum (4) none of these (4) For a cyclic process, q = – w

[7]
 Ea 79. For the reaction,
71. The slope of − is obtained by the plot of:
2.303R 3A + 2B → C + D
(1) log k v/s log A (2) log k v/s T The differential rate law can be written as:
d[A] d[C]
(3) log k v/s
1
(4) k v/s
1 (1) 3 = = k[A]n [B]m
T T dt dt
d[A] d[C]
(2) − = = k[A]n [B]m
dt dt
72. If 400 kJ work is done by the system and 150 kJ
1 d[A] d[C]
heat is given to system then, what will be effect (3) + = = k[A]n [B]m
3 dt dt
on internal energy?
1 d[A] d[C]
(1) Increases by 250 kJ (4) − = = k[A]n [B]m
3 dt dt
(2) Decreases by 250 kJ
(3) Increases by 600 kJ
80. Which of the following is an extensive property?
(4) Decreases by 600 kJ
(1) mass (2) temperature
(3) pressure (4) density
73. For a first order reaction, the ratio of t0.75 to t0.50
would be: 81. For a chemical reaction, which of the following
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 can never be a fraction?
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 (1) order (2) half-life
(3) molecularity (4) rate constant
74. An adiabatic process is one in which_____.
(1) No heat transfer occurs. 82. A gas expands isothermally against a constant
(2) Temperature constant. external pressure of 1 atm from a volume of 10
(3) Volume constant. dm3 to a volume of 20 dm3. It absorbs 800 J of
(4) Pressure constant. thermal energy from its surroundings. The U is:
(1) – 312 J (2) + 123 J
75. Chemical kinetics deals with: (3) – 213 J (4) + 231 J
(1) rate of reaction
83. The rate constant for a first order reaction is equal
(2) factors affecting rate of reaction
to the initial rate of reaction, when the initial
(3) mechanism of the reaction
concentration of the reactant is:
(4) All of these
(1) 100 M (2) 1 × 10–2 M
(3) 1.0 M (4) 0.1 M
76. 2 mole of an ideal gas at 27°C expands
isothermally and reversibly from a volume of 84. A 1st order reaction has rate constant 1 × 10–2 s–1.
4 litres to 40 litres. The work done (in kJ) is: How much time will it take for 6 M of the reactant
(1) w = – 28.72 kJ (2) w = – 11.488 kJ to reduce to 2 M? (log 3 = 0.48)
(3) w = – 5.736 kJ (4) w = – 4.988 kJ (1) 110 s (2) 6.93 s
(3) 69.3 s (4) 693 s
77. Which of the following rate laws has an overall
order of 1.5 for the reaction involving substances 85. The rate of reaction, X + Y → Products is given
a, b and d? by the equation, r = k[X] [Y]. If Y is taken in large
(1) Rate = k[Ca] [Cb] [Cd] excess, the order of the reaction would be:
(2) Rate = k[Ca]0.5 [Cb]0.5 [Cd]0.5 (1) 0 (2) 1
(3) Rate = k[Ca]1.5 [Cb]–1 [Cd]0 (3) 2 (4) Can’t be predicted
(4) Rate = k[Ca] [Cd]/[Cb]2

SECTION – B
78. Which of the following is an intensive property?
86. For which process change in internal energy and
(1) Pressure
enthalpy is zero?
(2) Volume
(3) Internal energy (1) Cyclic process (2) Reversible process
(4) None of these (3) Isochoric process (4) Isobaric process

[8]
87. Which of the following is known as rate law? 94. A thermodynamic system undergoes:
(1) The representation of rate of a reaction in terms (1) Change in volume
of concentration of the reactants. (2) change in pressure
(2) The representation of reaction quotient in terms (3) Change in internal energy
of ratio of concentrations of products to (4) All of these
concentration of reactants.
(3) The sum of powers of the concentration of the 95. The rate of formation of NO in the following
reactants in the rate law expression. reaction is 3.6 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1. Find the rate of
(4) The number of reacting species taking part in
disappearance of O2.
an elementary reaction, which must collide
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
simultaneously in order to bring about a
(1) 4.5 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
chemical reaction.
(2) 3.6 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
88. Two moles of an ideal gas expand spontaneously (3) 1.8 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
in vacuum. The work done is: (4) 7.2 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(1) 2 J (2) 4 J
(3) 0 (4) Infinite 96. When 6 moles of He gas at 27ºC undergoes
reversible isothermal expansion from 30 L to
89. A substance reacts with initial concentration of 60 L, then work done will be:
[A0] mol dm–3 according to zero order kinetics. (1) –10.4 kJ (2) –4.5 kJ
The time it takes for the completion of the reaction (3) +4.5 kJ (4) + 10.3 kJ
is: (k = rate constant)

(1)
k
(2)
A0  97. The correct t1/2 versus [A0] graph for a zero-order
A0  2k reaction is: (where, [A0] is the initial

(3)
A0  (4)
2k
concentration of the reactant)
k A0 

90. In a certain reaction; 4A + 2B → 3C, if rate of (1) (2)

formation of C is 9.6 × 10–2 mol/L s, then what
will be the rate of reaction?
(1) 9.6 × 10–2 mol/L s
(2) 2.4 × 10–2 mol/L s
(3) 3.2 × 10–2 mol/L s
(3) (4) None of these
(4) 4.8 × 10–2 mol/L s

1
91. For a reaction A → 2B , rate of disappearance
2 98. The half-life period of a 1st order reaction is 30
of A is related to the rate of appearance of B by
minutes. How much of the reaction is completed
the expression:
after 1 hour?
d[A] 1 d[B] d[A] 1 d[B]
(1) − = (2) − = (1) 51% (2) 20%
dt 2 dt dt 4 dt
(3) 75% (4) 49%
d[A] d[B] d[A] d[B]
(3) − = (4) − =4
dt dt dt dt
99. For a homogenous elementary reaction
A + B → C, the unit of rate constant is:
92. What will be constant in isothermal process?
(1) pressure (2) volume (1) s–1 (2) s–1 mol L–1
(3) total heat (4) temperature (3) s–1 mol–1 L (4) s

93. Hydrolysis of cane sugar in acidic medium is a:
(1) pseudo zero order reaction
(2) pseudo first order reaction
(3) pseudo second order reaction
(4) pseudo third order reaction
100. Which of the following is an incorrect match?
(1) Mass : depends upon quantity of matter
(2) Temperature : extensive property
(3) Heat capacity : depends upon amount of matter
(4) Molar enthalpy : Intensive property

[9]
 SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION – A 110. Consider the following statement.
A. Spores of slime mould have true cell wall
101. Photosynthetic pigment present in Nostoc is
B. Plasmodium show differentiation in favourable
Chlorophyll–
conditions
(1) a + c (2) a + d
C. Slime moulds are saprophytic protists
(3) a (4) a + e D. Diatoms are chief producer of ocean
Mark the correct statement.
102. Which of the following statements regarding (1) A, B and D (2) A, C and D
cyanobacteria is incorrect? (3) A and D only (4) All are correct
(1) It is also called blue green algae.
(2) They are chemosynthetic autotrophs 111. Choose correct option w.r.t. Euglenoids.
(3) It forms blooms in polluted water bodies (1) Two flagella of same size
(4) It is unicellular, colonial or filamentous, marine (2) Lipid rich layer called pellicle
or terrestrial bacteria (3) Fresh water organism
(4) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition only in the
103. All prokaryotic groups are put under ———— presence of sunlight.
kingdom.
(1) Monera (2) Plantae 112. Mark the incorrectly matched.
(3) Fungi (4) Protista (1) Heterocyst – Nitrogen fixation
(2) Dinoflagellates– Photosynthetic
104. Kingdom with chemoautotrophic nutrition is? (3) Diatom – Planktonic
(1) Protista (2) Fungi (4) Lactobaccillus – Have chlorophyll a
(3) Monera (4) Animalia
113. Amoeboid protozoans found in:
105. Most extensive metabolic diversity is found in– (1) Fresh water (2) Marine
(1) Protozoans (2) Bacteria (3) Moist soil (4) All of these
(3) Fungi (4) Both (1) and (2)
114. Consider the following statement.
A. Protista have membrane bound organelle
106. Diatoms do not show
B. Protista can be photosynthetic
(1) Photosynthetic mode of nutrition
C. Well defined nucleus present in Protista
(2) Two thick overlapping shells
D. Boundaries of protista kingdom are not well
(3) Large amount of cell wall deposits in their
defined
habitat
Mark the correct statements.
(4) Binary fission (1) A, B and C (2) B, C and D
(3) A, C and D (4) All correct
107. S-I- Specialised cells called heterocysts present in
Anabaena 115. The parasite of sleeping sickness is
S-II- Silica absent in marine amoeboid. (1) Entamoeba (2) Trypanosoma
(1) Only S-I is correct (3) Paramoecium (4) Amoeba
(2) Only S-II is correct
(3) Both S-I and S-II are correct 116. Primitive relatives of animals are
(4) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect (1) Protozoans (2) Euglenoids
(3) Diatoms (4) None of these
108. Protista having pigments similar to higher plants are
(1) Protozoa (2) Diatom 117. Fungi show
(3) Dinoflagellates (4) Euglenoids (A) Great diversity in morphology and habitat
(B) Abundance in warm and humid places
109. The cell wall has stiff cellulose plates on the outer (C) Cell wall made up of chitin and polysaccharides
surface of ……………. protists. The correct option is/are–
(1) Euglenoids (2) Amoeba (1) Only (A) (2) Only (A) and (B)
(3) Dinoflagellates (4) Slime mould (3) Only (C) (4) All are correct

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118. Find the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t. fungi and 127. Following features belong to–
their sexual spores. A. Complete lacking of cell wall
(1) Albugo – Oospore B. Anaerobic
(2) Penicillium – Ascospore C. PPLO included
(3) Ustilago – Basidiospore D. Penicillin not effective
(4) Alternaria – Zygospore (1) Chrysophytes (2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Viroids (4) Mycoplasma
119. Read the following features carefully and identify
the class of fungi.
128. Select the incorrect match from the following.
I. Aseptate and coenocytic mycelium
(1) Rhizopus – Septate
II. The asexual reproduction takes place by motile
(2) Morels, truffles – Edible
spores or aplanospores
III. Members are found in aquatic habitats and on (3) Neurospora – Used in biochemical and genetic
decaying wood in moist and damp places or as work
obligate parasites on plants (4) Albugo – The parasitic fungi on mustard
(1) Ascomycetes (2) Deuteromycetes
(3) Phycomycetes (4) Basidiomycetes 129. Chrysophytes not have feature–
(1) Microscopic (2) Planktonic
120. Fungi which produces exogenously sexual spores is (3) Autotrophic (4) Mostly marine
(1) Aspergillus (2) Agaricus
(3) Trichoderma (4) Albugo 130. Many members of _______ class are decomposers
of litter and help in mineral cycling.
121. In imperfect fungi, when the sexual forms are (1) Ascomycetes
discovered, they are often moved to (2) Deuteromycetes
(1) Ascomycetes (2) Basidiomycetes (3) Basidiomycetes
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Deuteromycetes (4) Phycomycetes
122. Plant disease Citrus canker caused by–
131. Heterotrophic bacteria helps in–
(1) Bacteria (2) Virus
(1) Curding of milk
(3) Protozoa (4) Fungi
(2) Production of antibiotic
123. Mark the correct option w.r.t. Mycorrhiza. (3) Nitrogen fixation in leguminous plant
(1) Symbiotic association between algae and fungi (4) All of above
(2) Symbiotic association between roots of higher
plants and fungi 132. Septate dikaryotic hyphae present in–
(3) Parasitic association of algae and fungi (1) Bread mould (2) Mucor
(4) Fungal parasite on higher plants (3) Puff ball (4) Albugo

124. Dikaryon and dikaryophase form in the case of 133. Mark the incorrectly matched for genetic material.
(1) Ascomycetes (1) Viroids – Single strand RNA
(2) Basidiomycetes (2) Anabaena – Double strand DNA
(3) Phycomycetes (3) Mostly Bacteriophage – Single strand DNA
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) TMV – Single strand RNA

125. Choose the incorrect match.

134. Carrageen is secreted by
(1) Basidiomycetes – Puffball
(1) All of the algae
(2) Puccinia – Rust fungi
(2) Only brown algae
(3) Claviceps – Conidia present
(4) Alternaria – Endogenously produced asexual (3) Only red algae
spore (4) Both red and brown algae

126. From given statements, mark the correct. 135. Filamentous forms of algae is/are
(1) Ustilago produced sexual spore exogenously (1) Ulothrix
(2) Coenocytic mycelium is found in Penicillium (2) Spirogyra
(3) Ascomycetes are mostly unicellular (3) Chlamydomonas
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Both (1) and (2)

[11]
 SECTION – B 144. Asexual fruiting body absent in .......... and sexual
136. Volvox is a/an fruiting body is absent in .............. respectively:
(1) Unicellular algae (1) Claviceps and Neurospora
(2) Filamentous algae (2) Puccinia and Trichoderma
(3) Colonial algae
(3) Colletotrichum and Agaricus
(4) Symbiotic algae
(4) Rhizopus and Trichoderma

137. Marine algae used as food is/are

(1) Laminaria 145. ………….. crystallised tobacco mosaic virus and
(2) Sargassum showed that crystals largely consist of ………….
(3) Porphyra (1) Beijerinck; Lipids
(4) All of these (2) Stanley; Proteins
(3) Ivanowsky; Proteins
138. Non-flagellated similar size gametes present in (4) Stanley; Nucleic acid
(1) Spirogyra
(2) Cladophora
146. Which of the following statements is wrong for
(3) Ulothrix
viroids?
(4) Chlamydomonas
(1) They are smaller than viruses
139. The algae rich in proteins and used as food by space (2) They cause infections
travellers is/are (3) Their RNA is of high molecular weight
(1) Chlorella (4) Viroid causes potato spindle tuber disease
(2) Spirullina
(3) Both (1) and (2) 147. Sporophyte in bryophytes is
(4) Laminaria (1) Free-living.
(2) Attached to the photosynthetic gametophyte.
140. Pigment present in Kelp and Ectocarpus is
(3) Unicellular.
(1) Chl a and Chl b
(2) Chl a, Chl d, and Phycoerythrin (4) Produced by spores.
(3) Chl a, Chl c and fucoxanthin
(4) Chl a and chl d 148. Multicellular rhizoids are the feature of
(1) Marchantia
141. With respect to the fungal sexual cycle, choose the (2) Ectocarpus
correct sequence of events. (3) Funaria
(1) Karyogamy, plasmogamy and meiosis (4) Fucus
(2) Meiosis, plasmogamy and karyogamy
(3) Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis
149. Thallus of bryophytes is
(4) Meiosis, karyogamy and plasmogamy
(1) Erect or Prostate
(2) Attach to substratum by unicellular and
142. Which of these is caused by Prions?
multicellular rhizoids
(1) Citrus canker
(3) Haploid
(2) Mad cow disease
(4) All of these
(3) PSTD
(4) Both (2) and (3)
150. Elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal is feature of
143. Silica deposition occur in wall of– (1) All Bryophytes
(1) Euglenoids (2) Mosses
(2) Diatoms (3) Angiosperm
(3) Dinoflagellates (4) Gymnosperm
(4) Slime moulds

[12]
 SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION – A 155. Match the column I and II, and choose the correct
151. Animal tissues are broadly classified into four combination from the options given.
types as Column I Column II
(1) Squamous, columnar, cuboidal and ciliated a. Adhering 1. Help to stop
(2) Simple, compound, special and glandular substances from
(3) Epithelial, connective, neural and skeletal leaking across a
(4) Neural, connective, epithelial and muscular tissue

b. Gap Junctions 2. Perform cementing

152. Fill in the blanks: to keep neighboring
a. The....1... consists of two or more cell layers cells together
and has protective function as it does in our
c. Tight 3. Facilitate the cell to
skin. Junctio communicate with
b. The... 2. is composed of single layer of cells ns each other
and functions as a lining for body cavities,
(1) a – 3, b – 2, c – 1
ducts and tubes.
(2) a – 2, b – 3, c – 1
(1) 1-Squamous epithelium, 2-Cuboidal
(3) a – 2, b – 1, c – 3
epithelium
(4) a – 1, b – 3, c – 2
(2) 1-Columnar epithelium 2-Squamous
epithelium 156. In all connective tissues except _______, the cell
(3) 1-Simple epithelium, 2-Compound secrete fibres of structural proteins called collagen
epithelium or elastin.
(4) 1-Compound epithelium, 2-Simple (1) Blood
epithelium (2) Bone
(3) Cartilage
153. The epithelium of........... of nephron in the kidney (4) Areolar tissue
has microvilli.
(1) PCT (2) DCT 157. Which of the following connective tissue often
(3) HL (4) Collecting duct serves as a support framework for epithelium?
(1) Areolar tissue
154. Read the following statements and find out how (2) Adipose tissue
many of these are related to given figure. (3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

158. The excess of nutrients which are not used

immediately are converted into fats and stored in
(1) Areolar tissue
(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
a. Multilayered epithelium
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue
b. Limited role in secretion and absorption
c. Main function is to provide protection against
chemical and mechanical stresses. 159. Mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk and digestive
d. They cover the dry surface of skin, moist enzymes are secreted by
surface of buccal cavity and pharynx. (1) Exocrine glands
(1) Four (2) Endocrine glands
(2) Three (3) Heterocrine glands
(3) Two (4) Compound glands
(4) One

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160. Read the following statements and find out the
incorrect statement.
(1) Long bones of the legs, serve weight bearing
functions
(2) The intercellular material of cartilage is semi-
fluid and pliable
(3) The products of the exocrine glands are
released through ducts or tubes
(4) Blood is a fluid connective tissue
167. The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to
function normally. The doctors find that an
artificial pacemaker is to be grafted in him. It is
likely that it will be grafted at the site of
(1) Atrioventricular bundle
(2) Purkinje system
(3) Sinoatrial node
(4) Atrioventricular node

161. Which of the following tissue exerts the greatest 168. Which of the following are in direct contact with
control over the body's responsiveness to the AV valves and prevent these from collapsing
changing conditions? back into atria?
(1) Epithelial tissue (1) Chordae tendinae
(2) Connective tissue
(2) Papillary muscles
(3) Muscular tissue
(3) Columnae carnae
(4) Neural tissue
(4) Musculi pectinati
162. When a_______is suitably stimulated, an
electrical disturbance is generated which swiftly 169. Globulins contained in human blood plasma are
travels along its plasma membrane. primarily involved in:
(1) Neuron (1) Osmotic balance of body fluids
(2) Muscle fibre (2) Oxygen transport in the blood
(3) Myofibril (3) Clotting of blood
(4) Intercalated disc
(4) Defence mechanisms of body
163. The correct route through which impulse travels in
the heart is 170. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are
(1) SA node → Purkinje fibres → bundle of His (1) Neutrophils and monocytes
→ AV node → heart muscles (2) Neutrophils and eosinophils
(2) SA node → AV node → bundle of His → (3) Lymphocytes and macrophages
Purkinje fibres → heart muscles (4) Eosinophils and lymphocytes
(3) AV node → bundle of His→ SA node →
Purkinje fibres → heart muscles 171. 'Bundle of His' is a part of which of the following
(4) AV node → SA node → Purkinje fibres → organs in humans?
bundle of His → heart muscles (1) Pancreas (2) Brain
(3) Heart (4) Kidney
164. Rate of heart beat is determined by
(1) Purkinje fibres
172. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(2) Papillary muscles
Column II and select the correct option given
(3) AV-node
(4) SA-node below
Column I Column II
165. The heart sound 'dub' is produced when a. Tricuspid valve (i) Between left atrium
(1) Mitral valve is closed and left ventricle
(2) Semilunar valves at the base of aorta get b. Bicuspid valve (ii) Between right
closed ventricle and
(3) Tricuspid valve is opened pulmonary artery
(4) Mitral valve is opened
c. Semilunar valve (iii) Between right atrium
and right ventricle
166. Bundle of His is a network of
(1) Muscle fibres distributed throughout the (1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
heart walls (2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
(2) Muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(3) Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(4) Nerve fibres found throughout the heart

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173. Serum differs from blood in 184. How many cardiac cycles are performed per
(1) Lacking globulins minute in humans?
(2) Lacking albumins (1) 1 (2) 12
(3) 27 (4) 72
(3) Lacking clotting factors
(4) Lacking antibodies 185. In humans, the volume of blood pumped out by
each ventricle per minute is
174. A person with antigen A in RBC and antibody b (1) 1040 mL (2) 5 L
in plasma blongs to blood group (3) 2.5 L (4) 1290 mL
(1) A (2) B
(3) O (4) AB SECTION - B
186. Oxygenated blood from the left ventricle enters
175. In adults, erythropoiesis occurs in into
(1) Liver (1) Pulmonary artery
(2) Red bone marrow an (2) Aorta
(3) Spleen (3) Superior vena cava
(4) Yellow bone marrow (4) Pulmonary trunk

176. Immunity is provided by 187. Contraction of right ventricle pumps blood into
(1) Pulmonary vein (2) Pulmonary artery
(1) Erythrocytes
(3) Coronary sinus (4) Coronary artery
(2) Lymphocytes
(3) Megakaryocytes
188. Which of the following volume is not included in
(4) Thrombocytes vital capacity?
(1) ERV (2) TV
177. Diapedesis is shown by (3) IRV (4) RV
(1) RBC (2) Platelets
(3) Monocytes (4) Fibroblast 189. At which level of thoracic vertebra, trachea
divides
178. Blood group AB has (1) 2nd thoracic vertebra
(1) No antigen (2) 5th thoracic vertebra
(2) No antibody (3) 3rd thoracic vertebra
(3) Neither antigen nor antibody (4) 4th thoracic vertebra
(4) Both antigen and antibody
190. How much CO2 is delivered to the alveoli by
179. In ABO system of blood grouping, transfusion is every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood?
not possible from (1) 6 ml (2) 4 ml
(1) A to AB (2) B to AB (3) 5 ml (4) 3 ml
(3) O to O (4) A to O
191. Which enzyme is present in RBCs and plasma to
180. Erythroblastosis foetalis can occur if catalyse the given reaction?
(1) Mother is Rh-ve and foetus is Rh+ve CO2 + H2O H2CO3 H+ + HCO3−
(2) Both mother and foetus are Rh-ve (1) Carbonic anhydrase
(3) Mother is Rh+ve and foetus is Rh-ve (2) Catalase
(4) Both mother and foetus are Rh+ve (3) Aldolase
(4) Carboxylase
181. Blood platelets release
(1) Fibrinogens 192. With which part of Hb, O2 molecules bind?
(2) Prothrombins (1) Heme
(3) Haemoglobin (2) Globin
(4) Thromboplastins (3) Both heme and globin
(4) Amino group of globin
182. Which of the following prevent(s) blood clotting
(1)
in uninjured blood vessels? 193. Hb + O 2 HbO2
(2)
(1) Albumins (2) Histamine
(3) Heparin (4) Globulins Select (1) and (2) from the given options
(1) (1) is tissues and (2) is lungs
183. Prothrombin is a (2) (1) is lungs and (2) is lungs
(1) Protein (2) Lipid (3) (1) is blood and (2) is lungs
(3) Nucleotide (4) Carbohydrate (4) (1) is lungs and (2) is tissues

[15]
194. A graph is plotted between pO2 and percentage 198. Assertion : Pneumotaxic centre controls rate of
saturation of Hb with O2 is known as respiration.
(1) O2 association curve Reason : Primarily it controls switch off point of
(2) CO2–O2 dissociation curve inspiration.
(3) O2 dissociation curve (1) Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is
(4) CO2–O2 association curve correct explanation for Assertion
(2) Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is
195. Which factors affect the dissociation of O2 from not correct explanation for Assertion
Hb? (3) Assertion is True, Reason is False
(1) pH, pO2, pCO2 and temperature (4) Assertion is False, Reason is True
(2) Only pH
(3) Salinity, temperature and pCO2 199. Assertion : The passage starting with the
HCO3− ions
external nostrils upto the terminal bronchiole
(4) concentration, pH and salinity constitute the respiratory part.
Reason : The respiratory part transport the air to
196. Which of the following is an occupational the alveoli, clears it from the foreign material,
respiratory disease? humidified and brings the air to body temperature.
(1) Diphtheria (2) Pneumonia (1) Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is
(3) Tuberculosis (4) Asbestosis correct explanation for Assertion
(2) Assertion is True, Reason is True; Reason is
197. Statement based question: not correct explanation for Assertion
Statement-I: 70% of CO2 is transported inside (3) Assertion is True, Reason is False
− (4) Both assertion and reason is false.
RBC as HCO3 ions
Statement-II : At nearly 26 mm Hg
200. Solubility of CO2 is ….. times higher than that of
haemoglobin is 50% saturated with oxygen
O2.
(1) Both statements arc incorrect.
(1) 40 – 45 (2) 20 – 25
(2) Both statements arc correct.
(3) 100 – 200 (4) 200 – 300
(3) Only statement I is correct.
(4) Only statement II is correct.

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