28-07-2022 TYMR

CODE-A

Phase-1

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 360 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time :90 min.

(for NEET 2024)

Test - 3

Physics : Motion in a Straight Line: Introduction, Position, Path length and displacement, Average velocity
& average speed, Differential calculus, Applications of differential calculus, Instantaneous velocity &
speed, Acceleration
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry: Reactions in solutions: Mass percentage or weight
percentage, Mole-fraction, Molarity, Molality, Structure of Atom: Sub-atomic particles: Discovery
of electron, Charge to mass ratio of electron, Charge on electron, Discovery of proton and neutron.
Thomson model of atom, Rutherford's nuclear model of atom, Atomic and Mass number, Isobars
and isotopes., Wave nature of electromagnetic radiation Particle nature of electromagnetic radiation
: Planck's quantum theory, Photoelectric effect, Dual behaviour of electromagnetic radiation
Botany : Cell Cycle & Cell Division: Introduction, Cell cycle, phases of cell cycle, Mitosis-definition,
Karyokinesis, cytokinesis, significance, Meiosis–definition, Meiosis-I, Meiosis-II, significance of
meiosis, The Living World: Introduction, What is living?, Characteristics of living beings, Diversity
in the living world, Nomenclature, Need for classification, Classification -taxonomy, Systematics
Zoology : Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal Tissues-III: Non-striated/Smooth muscles (Single unit
& Multiunit smooth muscles; Cardiac muscles), Nervous Tissue: Structure of neuron and its parts,
Different types of neuron; Myelinated & Nonmyelinated neurons, Neuroglia cells-Types of glial cells,
Biomolecules-I: Primary and secondary metabolites, Carbohydrates: Monosaccharides,
Derivatives of monosaccharides, Oligosaccharides, Functions of small carbohydrates,
Polysaccharides- Aminoacids: Structure, types, functions of amino acids, Peptide bond formation,
Structure of protein, Properties of proteins, Types of proteins and their functions, Lipids: Structure
and classification of lipids, simple lipids, conjugated lipids, derived lipids, functions of lipids,
Nitrogenous bases, nucleosides, nucleotides, higher nucleotides, types of nucleotides, functions of
nucleotides, Nucleic acids, Types and their functions

Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

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Fortnightly Test-3 (TYMR_Code-A) Two Year Medical-2024

Choose the correct answer : PHYSICS

dy 7. If a particle is moving in a straight line without
1. If y = x2, then is equal to
dx turning back, then the

x3 (1) |Average velocity| = Average speed

(1) 2x2 (2)
3 (2) |Average velocity| < Average speed
(3) 2x (4) x3 (3) |Average velocity| > Average speed
2. A block moves from A to B in two equal time (4) |Average velocity| = 2 × Average speed
intervals with velocity 10 m/s and 20 m/s
dy
respectively. The magnitude of average velocity 8. If y = b sin, then is equal to
d
from A to B will be
10 m/s 20 m/s (1) bcos (2) btan
(3) b (4) asec
A B 9. A particle moving along positive x-axis changes
t t
its position from x = 5 m to x = 10 m in time 2 s.
40
(1) m/s (2) 15 m/s The magnitude of average velocity of particle is
3
(3) 6 m/s (4) 10 m/s (1) 2.5 m/s (2) 2 m/s

1 (3) 3.5 m/s (4) 3 m/s

3. A body covers first rd of total distance with
3 10. The branch of Physics which deals with the study
1 of motion without considering the factors which
speed 3 m/s, next rd of total distance with
3 cause motion is known as
1 (1) Kinematics (2) Optics
speed 6 m/s and last rd of total distance with
3 (3) Thermodynamics (4) Dynamics
speed 9 m/s. The average speed of the body is
2
approximately equal to  dy 
11. If y = x3, then   will be
(1) 5 m/s (2) 3 m/s  dx 
(3) 8 m/s (4) 2 m/s (1) x2 (2) 3x2
4. The minimum value of y = x2 – 4x will exist at x is (3) 9x4 (4) x4
equal to
12. If a particle covers 10 m in 2 s then the average
1 speed of particle is
(1) 1 (2)
2
(1) 36 km/h (2) 18 km/h
1
(3) 2 (4) (3) 72 km/h (4) 5 km/h
4
13. Select the correct statement for straight line
5. In a straight line motion for a given finite time
interval, the average velocity of particle is motion of an object.

(1) Always zero (1) Distance travelled is always greater than or

(2) Always positive equal to the magnitude of displacement

(3) Always negative (2) Average speed of an object is always less

(4) May be positive, negative or zero than or equal to the magnitude of average
velocity
6. If x = e5t where x is position in meter, then
position of the particle at time t = 1 s is equal to (3) When average velocity is zero for a moving
(1) 5e m (2) e5 m object, then its average speed is also zero
(3) 2e m (4) 5e5 m (4) Both (1) & (2)

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Two Year Medical-2024 Fortnightly Test-3 (TYMR_Code-A)

14. If y = 2x – x2, then the maximum value of y will be 19. A car moving on a straight road accelerates from
(1) 2 (2) 1 a velocity of 4.1 m/s to a speed of 6.9 m/s in
5.0 s. The average acceleration of the car will be
3 2
(3) (4) (1) 0.56 m/s2 (2) 1.56 m/s2
2 3
(3) 5.6 m/s2 (4) 1.2 m/s2
15. A particle travels 3 m towards East. After that it
travels 4 m towards North. The ratio of distance 20. If a cyclist takes 45 s to complete half revolution
and magnitude of displacement is on a circular path 90 m radius. What is the
magnitude of average velocity?
5 1
(1) (2) (1) 1 m/s (2) 2 m/s
7 7
(3) 3 m/s (4) 4 m/s
7 1
(3) (4) 21. The acceleration of a moving body can be found
5 5
from
16. A car travels first 60 km of its journey with the
(1) Area under velocity-time graph
speed of 20 km/h, next 90 km with the speed of
(2) Area under distance-time graph
45 km/h. The average speed of the car is
(3) Slope of the velocity-time graph
(1) 60 km/h (2) 30 km/h
(4) Slope of distance-time graph
(3) 45 km/h (4) 50 km/h
22. The position x of a particle varies with time t as
17. Choose the incorrect statement.
x = at – bt2. The velocity of the particle will be
(1) Displacement is a vector quantity zero at time t equal to
(2) Speed is a vector quantity a a
(1) (2)
(3) Speed is a scalar quantity b 3b
(4) Distance is a scalar quantity a
(3) (4) Zero
18. The displacement of a particle starting from rest 2b
is proportional to the square of time, then the
23. A motorist drives North for 30.0 minutes at
particle travel with
80 km/h and then stops for 10 minutes. He next
(1) Uniform acceleration continues North travelling 120 km in 2.00 hours.
(2) Uniform velocity What is his total displacement?
(3) Increasing acceleration (1) 120 km (2) 160 km
(4) Decreasing velocity (3) 80 km (4) 210 km

CHEMISTRY
24. Mass percentage of solution prepared by adding 1 1
(1) (2)
4 g of a substance in 16 g of water is 2 3
(1) 10% (2) 20% 2 1
(3) (4)
(3) 25% (4) 50% 3 4
25. 500 mL of water is added in 500 mL of 0.2 M 27. If the density of 3 M NaOH solution is 2g/cm 3 then
NaCl solution, the molarity of resultant solution the molality of the solution will be (Molar mass of
NaOH = 40 g mol–1)
becomes
(1) 1 m (2) 1.6 m
(1) 0.1 M (2) 0.2 M
(3) 2 m (4) 3.2 m
(3) 0.5 M (4) 1 M 28. Which of the following concentration terms
26. A gaseous mixture contains equal mass of O 2 depends on temperature?
and SO2.The mole fraction of SO2 in the mixture (1) Mass % (2) Molarity
is (Atomic mass of S = 32 u) (3) Molality (4) Mole fraction

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Fortnightly Test-3 (TYMR_Code-A) Two Year Medical-2024

29. Which of the following is not a subatomic 36. Correct order of decreasing wavelength is
particle? (1) UV > Visible > IR (2) UV > IR > Visible
(1) Electron (2) Neutron (3) Visible > IR > UV (4) lR > Visible > UV
(3) Proton (4) Alpha particle 37. The wave number of a wave having wavelength
30. e/m of cathode ray particle 108 m is
(1) Depends on nature of electrode of discharge (1) 1 m–1 (2) 10–4 m–1
tube (3) 10–6 m–1 (4) 10–8 m–1
(2) Depends on nature of gas taken in discharge 38. Energy of one mole of photons of radiation whose
tube frequency is 1014 Hz is (h = 6 × 10–34 Js)
(3) Is constant (NA = 6 × 1023)
(4) Depends on the voltage, applied across the (1) 3.6 × 10–9 J (2) 3.6 ×10–19 J
electrodes (3) 3.6 × 104 J (4) 3.6 × 1014 J
31. Select the incorrect statement regarding anode 39. If a 100 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of
rays. energy 5 × 10–19 J then the number of photons
(1) They are positively charged emitted per second by the bulb is
(2) Their charge to mass ratio is found to depend (1) 2 × 1020 (2) 5 × 1020
on the nature of gas (3) 2 × 1023 (4) 5 × 1023
(3) The smallest anode ray particle is proton 40. Which of the following phenomena support(s)
(4) Anode rays move in zig-zag manner particle nature of electromagnetic radiations?
32. Which among the following is the lightest (1) Photoelectric effect (2) Interference
particle? (3) Diffraction (4) Both (2) and (3)
(1) Electron (2) Proton 41. Select the correct option regarding photoelectric
(3) Neutron (4) All have equal mass effect:
33. According to Thomson model of atom (i) Number of electrons ejected is proportional to
the intensity of light.
(1) Atom is positively charged
(ii) Kinetic energies of ejected electrons increase
(2) Atom is hollow
with the increase of frequency of the incident
(3) Mass of atom is uniformly distributed over the
light.
atom
(iii) For each metal, there is a characteristic
(4) Atom contains nucleus
minimum frequency required for ejection of
34. Which of the following is incorrect regarding electrons.
Rutherford -particle scattering experiment? (1) (i) only (2) (ii) and (iii) only
(1) Most of the -particle passed through the (3) (i) and (iii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
gold foil undeflected 14
42. Isobar of 6 C is
(2) A small fraction of -particle were deflected
12 14
by small angle (1) 6 C (2) 7 N

(3) A very few -particle bounce back 13 15

(3) 6 C (4) 7 N
(4) Rutherford used thin silver foil for the
43. A solution is prepared by adding 30 g of urea to
experiment
81 g of water. The mole fraction of urea is (Molar
207
35. Number of neutrons present in 82 Pb is mass of urea = 60 g/mol)
(1) 82 (2) 125 (1) 0.8 (2) 0.4
(3) 76 (4) 154 (3) 0.1 (4) 0.2

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Two Year Medical-2024 Fortnightly Test-3 (TYMR_Code-A)

44. Consider the following statements: (1) (i) only (2) (ii) only
(i) The sum of mole fraction of all the (3) (i) and (ii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
components in a solution is always 1.
45. Which of the following element was bombarded
(ii) Unit of molality is mol/kg.
by -particles while the discovery of neutron?
(iii) On dilution number of moles of solute does
not change. (1) Ag (2) Au

The correct statements among the following (3) Mg (4) Be

is/are

BOTANY
46. Interkinesis differs from interphase as the former 52. Observe the given diagram carefully and choose
does not involve the correct option w.r.t. phase of mitosis it is
showing
(1) DNA replication
(2) Duplication of centrioles in animal cell
(3) Synthesis of RNA and protein required during
meiosis-II
(4) Elongation of chromosomes
47. Recombination nodule is seen in stage
(1) Late prophase
(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene
(2) Early prophase
(3) Diakinesis (4) Leptotene
(3) Transition to metaphase
48. In oocytes of some vertebrates, diplotene lasts
(4) Anaphase
for months or years. It is called
53. The phase of the cell cycle where cells remain
(1) Leptotene stage
metabolically active but usually do not proliferate
(2) Dictyotene stage is
(3) Zygotene stage (1) G0 phase (2) M-phase
(4) Pachytene stage (3) G1 phase (4) G2 phase
49. DNA content in a meiocyte at G2 phase is 40 pg. 54. The phase of mitosis in which chromosomes are
What would be the DNA content after meiosis-II thickest and shortest is
in the daughter cells? (1) Metaphase (2) Prophase
(1) 20 pg (2) 5 pg (3) Telophase (4) Anaphase
(3) 10 pg (4) 15 pg 55. Mitosis is

50. Which of the following is not a significance of (1) Equational division

meiosis? (2) Reductional division
(1) Formation of gametes (3) Not seen in diploid cells
(4) Always absent in a zygote
(2) Increases genetic variability
56. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. rules of
(3) Reduction of chromosome number to half
binomial nomenclature.
(4) Replaces old dead and worn-out cells
(1) The scientific name is printed in italics or
51. Chiasmata or X-shaped structures become underlined separately when handwritten
visible during (2) Biological names are generally taken from
(1) Diplotene stage Greek language irrespective of their origin
(2) Zygotene stage (3) The first word denoting genus starts with a
capital letter
(3) Pachytene stage
(4) Specific epithet starts with a small letter
(4) Leptotene stage
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Fortnightly Test-3 (TYMR_Code-A) Two Year Medical-2024

57. The correct sequence of phases of the cell-cycle 63. Standardisation of scientific name for animals is
is done by
(1) G2  S G1 M (1) ICBN (2) ICZN
(2) G1 G2 S M (3) ICNB (4) ICNCP
(3) G1 M  G2 S 64. In majority of higher animals and plants, growth
(4) S G2 M G1 and reproduction
58. Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed under (1) Are absent
the microscope, do not show (2) Are mutually inclusive events
(1) Centromere
(3) Are mutually exclusive events
(2) Nucleolus and nuclear membrane
(4) Occurs continuously throughout their life
(3) Chromosome
span
(4) Condensed chromatin fibres
65. The correct binomial epithet of mango is
59. Final stage of meiotic prophase-I is marked by
(1) Mangifera indica
(1) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(2) Mangifera indica Linn.
(2) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(3) Mangifera indica Linn
(3) Appearance of tetrad
(4) Magnifera Indica Linn
(4) Crossing over
60. Synaptonemal complex is 66. Mark odd one w.r.t. defining feature of life

(1) Formed between sister chromatids (1) Cellular organisation

(2) Formed between non sister chromatids of (2) Growth
non-homologous chromosomes (3) Consciousness
(3) Formed in zygotene (4) Metabolism
(4) Formed in pachytene 67. Consciousness is seen in
61. Interphase constitutes
(1) Non-living objects only
(1) More than 95% duration of the cell cycle
(2) Living beings as well as in cell free system
(2) 20% duration of the cell cycle
(3) Living organisms only
(3) 50% duration of the cell cycle
(4) In vitro conditions only
(4) 40-60% duration of the cell cycle
68. The number of species that are known and
62. Systematics differs from taxonomy as the former
includes described range between

(1) Identification of organisms (1) 0.7 to 0.8 million

(2) Characterisation of organisms (2) 170 to 180 million
(3) Nomenclature of organisms (3) 17 to 18 million
(4) Evolutionary relationship among organisms (4) 1.7 to 1.8 million

ZOOLOGY
69. Which of the following is not a component of a 70. A heteropolymer containing strings of amino
nucleotide? acids is called
(1) Heterocyclic compound (1) Cellulose
(2) Monosaccharide (2) Protein
(3) Palmitic acid (3) Lipid
(4) Phosphoric acid (4) Starch

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Two Year Medical-2024 Fortnightly Test-3 (TYMR_Code-A)

71. Which nitrogen base is present only in RNA? 78. Adult human haemoglobin consists of
(1) Adenine (2) Uracil (1) 2 and 2 subunits
(3) Cytosine (4) Guanine (2) 2 and 4 subunits
72. Read the following statements and select the (3) 4 and 2 subunits
option which has incorrect statements only. (4) 3 and 2 subunits
(a) Non-essential amino acids are not required 79. Which of the following bond is present in primary
by our body. structure of protein?
(b) Adult haemoglobin consists 6 subunits. (1) Glycosidic bond (2) Peptide bond
(c) Some part of protein thread are arranged in (3) Hydrogen bond (4) Ester bond
the form of helix.
80. Functioning of smooth muscles can’t be directly
Choose the correct option controlled by our will as they are
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) (1) Rigid
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (c) (2) Involuntary in nature
73. Select the correct match. (3) Flexible
(1) Inulin – Hormone (4) Voluntary in nature
(2) Collagen – Found in blood 81. Cardiac muscle fibres are present in
(3) Antibody – Fights infectious agents (1) Liver (2) Kidney
(4) GLUT-4 – Polysaccharide (3) Heart (4) Brain
74. The pitch of dsB-DNA is 82. Characteristic feature of cardiac muscle tissue is
the presence of
(1) 3.4 Å (2) 34 Å
(1) Tight junctions (2) Lacunae
(3) 3.6 Å (4) 36 Å
(3) Dendrites (4) Intercalated discs
75. Watson and Crick described the secondary
structure of 83. Structural and functional unit of neural system is
a/an
(1) Proteins (2) RNA
(1) Neuroglial cell (2) Neuron
(3) DNA (4) Carbohydrates
(3) Fibroblast (4) Osteocyte
76. Given below is the diagrammatic representation
84. Complete the analogy
of repeated units of glucose. Identify the correct
name of the polymeric form. Insulin : Protein : : Inulin : ______
(1) Nucleic acid (2) Monosaccharide
(3) Disaccharide (4) Polysaccharide
85. Curcumin is a
(1) Drug (2) Pigment
(3) Alkaloid (4) Essential oil
86. Identify the correct match.
(1) Striped – Striations absent
muscles
(2) Neuroglia – Make up more than
(1) Glycogen (2) Inulin 50% the volume of
(3) Chitin (4) Cholesterol neural tissue
77. A lipid found in cell membranes is (3) Smooth – Constitute the
muscle biceps
(1) Collagen (2) Cellulose
(4) Cardiac – Wall of blood
(3) Lecithin (4) Starch muscle vessels

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Fortnightly Test-3 (TYMR_Code-A) Two Year Medical-2024

87. Homopolysaccharide present in plant cell wall is 89. Chitin is a component of

(1) Cellulose (2) Chitin (1) Cotton fibres
(3) Glycogen (4) Inulin (2) Exoskeleton of arthropods
88. Identify the correct option. (3) Plasma membrane of all animals cells
(1) Chitin – Heteropolymer (4) Paper made from plant pulp
of glucose 90. Polysaccharide present as a storage form of
(2) N-acetyl – Homopolymer of energy in animal tissues is
galactosamine fatty acid
(1) Inulin
(3) Starch – Heteropolymer
(2) Agar
of cellulose
(4) Glycogen – Homopolymer of (3) Starch
glucose (4) Glycogen

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