MEDT 11: HUMAN HISTOLOGY - LABORATORY

SUMMARY ASSESSMENT

CIRCULATORY SYSTEM 5. Which description is true of continuous capillaries? a) Angiogenesis from arterial branches that brought
a) Unusually wide lumens blood to the left breast
1. Vasa vasorum serve a function analogous to that of b) Most common in both brain and muscle b) Growth of cancer cells and blockage of lymphatic
which of the following? c) Abundant fenestrations drainage from the left arm
a) Valves d) Lack a complete basement membrane c) Surgical disruption of the left arm’s lymphatic
b) Basal lamina e) Phagocytic cells often seen inserted in the intercellular drainage by removal of lymph nodes
c) Coronary arteries clefts d) Surgical damage to the thoracic duct during lymph
d) Endothelial diaphragms node removal
e) Arterioles 6. Which of the following is true of pericytes? e) Hypertrophy of the vessels in the upper arm to
a) Are associated with the basal lamina of capillary accommodate blood otherwise flowing to the left
2. What tissue is directly associated with and extends endothelial cells breast
into the heart valves? b) Have similar histological features as contractile cells of
a) Myocardium the myocardium 9. A 66-year-old man diagnosed with type II diabetes 10
b) Epicardium c) Form a layer of cells joined by gap junctions years earlier presents with an aching pain in the
c) Atrioventricular bundle of His d) Are terminally differentiated muscles of his lower extremities. He says the pain is
d) Cardiac skeleton e) Capable of forming multinucleated muscle fibers relieved by rest and worsened by physical activity.
e) Pericardium His lower limbs appear cold, pale, discolored, and he
7. During light microscopic examination of a tissue, you has a sore on the skin of his left heel. He has a weak
3. Which of the following is true for ventricles? note a vessel that has no smooth muscle but a large tibial pulse on both sides and poor skin filling from
a) Located at the base of the heart amount of connective tissue at its periphery. Which dermal capillaries. The problems with blood
b) Myocardial cells contain abundant granules of the following vessels are you examining? distribution in this patient’s leg are most likely
c) Receive blood directly from the venae cavae and a) Arteriole associated with what vascular structures?
pulmonary veins b) Venule a) Veins and venules
d) Walls contain Purkinje fibers of the right and left c) Elastic artery b) Arterioles
branches from the atrioventricular bundle d) Capillary c) Branches of the aorta
e) Contain more elastic fibers than the atria e) Large vein d) Lymphatic vessels
e) Ventricles
4. Individuals with Marfan syndrome have mutations in 8. A 43-year-old woman notices a lump in her left breast
the fibrillin gene and commonly experience aortic which upon pathological examination of a needle 10. A 62-year-old man of African descent presents with
aneurisms. What portion of the arterial wall is most biopsy is diagnosed as stage 3adenocarcinoma of the exercise induced angina. His serum cholesterol is
likely to be affected by the malformed fibrillin? mammary gland. She elects to have a single 277 mg/dL (normal < 200), LDL is 157 (normal < 100),
a) Endothelium mastectomy and the surgeon also removes several HDL is 43 (normal > 35), and triglycerides 170 (normal
b) Tunica intima axillary lymph nodes to be examined to determine < 150). His body mass index (BMI) is 34 and his
c) Tunica media the tumor’s state of metastasis. The patient recovers coronary risk ratio is 6.84 (normal < 5). Cardiac
d) Tunica adventitia well from the surgery, but at a 6-month fol low-up catheterization reveals an occlusion of the left
e) Vasa vasorum visit at the clinic her upper left arm is seen to be anterior descending and the origin of the right
swollen and the surgeon prescribes a bandage wrap coronary artery. This disease process initially
for “lymph edema.” This condition likely resulted involved which one of the following?
from which of the following? a) Smooth muscle cell proliferation
b) Formation of an intimal plaque
 c) Intimal thickening through addition of collagen and 5. A differential cell count of a blood smear from a 9. A 35-year-old woman’s physician orders laboratory
elastin patient with a parasitic infection is likely to reveal an blood tests. Her fresh blood is drawn and centrifuged
d) Adventitial proliferation of fibroblasts increase in the circulating numbers of which cell in the presence of heparin as an anticoagulant to
e) Injury to endothelial cells type? obtain a hematocrit. From top to bottom, the
a) Neutrophils fractions resulting from centrifugation are which of
BLOOD b) Lymphocytes the following?
c) Monocytes a) Serum, packed erythrocytes, and leukocytes
1. Which biochemical component of the erythrocyte d) Basophils b) Leukocytes, erythrocytes, and serum proteins
cell surface is primarily responsible for determining e) Eosinophils c) Plasma, buffy coat, and packed erythrocytes
blood type (eg, the A-B-O system). d) Fibrinogen, platelets, buffy coat, and erythrocytes
a) Fatty acid 6. Which of the following blood cells differentiate e) Albumin, plasma lipoproteins, and erythrocytes
b) Carbohydrate outside of the bone marrow?
c) Nucleic acid a) Neutrophils 10. A hematologist diagnoses a 34-year-old woman with
d) Protein b) Basophils idiopathic thrombocytic purpura (ITP). Which of the
e) Cholesterol c) Eosinophils following symptoms/characteristics would one
d) T lymphocytes expect in this patient?
2. What cell in circulating blood is the precursor to e) Megakaryocytes a) Normal blood count
microglia and most antigen-presenting cells? b) Hypercoagulation
a) Eosinophil 7. Examination of a normal peripheral blood smear c) Decreased clotting time
b) Basophil reveals a cell more than twice the diameter of an d) Abnormal bruising
c) Lymphocyte erythrocyte with a kidney shaped nucleus. There e) Light menstrual periods
d) Monocyte cells are less than 10% of the total leukocytes. Which
e) Mast cell of the following cell types is being described? HEMOPOIESIS
a) Monocyte
3. What is the approximate life span of a circulating b) Basophil 1. In which of the following cells involved in
erythrocyte? c) Eosinophil erythropoiesis does hemoglobin synthesis begin?
a) 8 days d) Neutrophil a) Orthochromatic erythroblast
b) 20 days e) Lymphocyte b) Polychromatophilic erythroblast
c) 5 weeks c) Reticulocyte
d) 4 months 8. A 43-year-old anatomy professor is working in her d) Basophilic erythroblast
e) 1 year garden, pruning rose bushes without gloves, when a e) Proerythroblast
thorn deeply penetrates her forefinger. The next day
4. Which cell type has cytoplasmic granules that contain the area has become infected. She removes the tip of 2. Which of the following can be used to describe
heparin and histamine? the thorn, but there is still pus remaining at the megakaryocytes?
a) Eosinophils wound site. Which of the following cells function in a) Multinucleated
b) Basophils the formation of pus? b) Formed by fusion of haploid cells
c) Lymphocytes a) Cells with spherical nuclei and scant cytoplasm c) Precursors to bone marrow macrophages
d) Monocytes b) Biconcave cells with no nuclei d) A minor but normal formed element found in the
e) Neutrophils c) Cells with bilobed nuclei and many acidophilic circulation
cytoplasmic granules e) Possess dynamic cell projections from which one
d) Very small, cell-like elements with no nuclei but many type of formed element is released
granules
e) Cells with polymorphic, multiply lobed nuclei
3. Which cytoplasmic components are the main 8. Shortly after her birth a baby is diagnosed with a
constituents of the dark precipitate that forms in mutation in the erythropoietin receptor gene which LYMPHOID SYSTEM
reticulocytes upon staining with the dye cresyl blue? leads to familial erythrocytosis (familial
a) Golgi complexes polycythemia). During the seventh to ninth months 1. Which function is carried out by all lymphoid tissues
b) Hemoglobin of fetal development, the primary effect on her red and organs?
c) Nucleoli blood cell production was in which of the following? a) Filtration of lymph
d) Nuclear fragments a) Liver b) Filtration of blood
e) Polyribosomes b) Yolk sac c) Extramedullary hemopoiesis
c) Spleen d) Production of lymphocytes
4. Which process occurs during granulopoiesis but not d) Thymus e) Destruction of old erythrocytes
during erythropoiesis? e) Bone marrow
a) Cells lose their capacity for mitosis 2. Which structure is partly encapsulated and covered
b) Euchromatin content increases 9. A 54-year-old man presents with recurrent by nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium?
c) Nucleus becomes increasingly lobulated breathlessness and chronic fatigue. After routine a) Appendix
d) Overall cell diameter decreases tests followed by a bone marrow biopsy he is b) Lymph node
e) Overall nuclear diameter decreases diagnosed with lymphocytic leukemia. c) Palatine tonsil
Chemotherapy is administered to remove the d) Peyer’s patch
5. What fate often awaits granulocytes that have cancerous cells, which also destroys the precursor e) Thymic (Hassal’s) corpuscle
entered the marginating compartment? cells of erythrocytes. To reestablish the erythrocytic
a) Undergo mitosis lineage, which of the following cells should be 3. Which cell type gives rise to both memory and
b) Crossing the wall of a venule to enter connective transplanted? effector cells and is primarily associated with
tissue a) Reticulocytes humoral immunity?
c) Cannot reenter the circulation b) Orthochromatophilic erythroblasts a) B lymphocyte
d) Differentiate into functional macrophages c) Megakaryoblasts b) NK cell
e) Begin to release platelets d) Basophilic erythroblasts c) Macrophage
e) Metamyelocytes d) T lymphocyte
6. What is the earliest stage at which specific e) Reticular cell
granulocyte types can be distinguished from one 10. A smear of blood from a 70-year-old leukemia
another? patient reveals a larger than normal population of 4. Recycling of iron and heme, the major complex
a) Myelocyte cells that have large, round nuclei with one or two containing iron, occurs most actively in which
b) Band form nucleoli. The cytoplasm of these cells shows lymphoid organ(s)/tissue(s)?
c) Reticulocyte azurophilic granules. Which of the following forms of a) Lymph nodes
d) Metamyelocyte leukemia would you suspect? b) Peyer’s patches
e) Promyelocyte a) Promyelocytic leukemia c) Tonsils
b) Basophilic leukemia d) Spleen
7. Which cell type is capable of further mitosis after c) Lymphoblastic leukemia e) Lymphatic vessels
leaving the hemopoietic organ in which it is formed? d) Stem cell leukemia
a) Basophil e) Eosinophilic leukemia 5. Which description is true of all secondary
b) Eosinophil (peripheral) lymphoid organs?
c) Reticulocyte a) Capable of antigen-independent lymphopoiesis
d) Lymphocyte b) Contain crypts
e) Neutrophil c) Contain epithelial-reticular cells
d) Lack connective tissue capsules
e) Contain lymphoid nodules
 9. A 12-year-old girl of African descent presents with DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
6. Which structure would be most heavily labeled by an anemia and a large percentage of her peripheral
immunohistochemical method targeting the CD8 erythrocytes appear sickle-shaped. Genetic testing 1. In which of the following structures of the oral cavity
surface antigen? reveals homozygosity for sickle cell disease. In which would taste buds be localized in the highest
a) Germinal centers of the following sites will the abnormal RBCs be concentration?
b) Paracortex removed from the circulation? a) Fungiform papillae
c) Peyer’s patch a) Thymic cortex b) Gingiva
d) Sheathed arterioles b) Periarteriolar lymphoid sheathes of splenic white pulp c) Filiform papillae
e) Splenic cords c) Medullary sinuses of lymph nodes d) Ventral surface of the tongue
d) Thymic medulla e) Vallate papillae
7. A baby is born with a cleft palate and a condition e) Splenic cords (of Billroth)
called DiGeorge syndrome, which involves failure of
2. Certain antibiotic therapies slow the replacement of
third and fourth pharyngeal pouch derivatives to 10. A 6-year-old boy is brought to the clinic where his
the cells lining the small intestine. This may cause the
develop properly. The palate defect is corrected mother reports that he was bitten by a neighbor’s
surgically, but regarding the pharyngeal pouch defect dog two days earlier. The child’s right hand is loss of what tissue type?
the parents are advised that the growing child may lacerated between the thumb and index finger and a) Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
expect which of the following health problems? this area is inflamed but healing. The doctor’s b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
a) Insufficient B-cell production by lymph nodes in the examination reveals small but painless swellings c) Simple columnar epithelium
head and neck beneath the skin inside the right elbow and arm pit d) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium with stereocilia
b) Inability to secrete IgA and he explains to the mother that these are active e) Stratified squamous, nonkeratinized epithelium
c) Excessive numbers of circulating but defective lymph nodes enlarged in response to the infection in
erythrocytes the hand. What has produced the swelling? 3. The teniae coli of the large intestine represent an
d) Increased oral infections due lack of palatine and a) Increased flow of lymph through the nodes’ afferent organ-specific specialization of which layer of the
pharyngeal tonsils lymphatics intestinal tract wall?
e) Conditions related to autoimmunity b) Formation of germinal centers for B-cell proliferation a) Epithelium
in each node’s cortex b) Lamina propria
8. Many immune-related cellular activities are often c) Arrival of antigen-presenting cells in each node’s
c) Muscularis mucosa
impaired in aged patients. Which lymphoid organ(s) medulla
d) Muscularis externa
normally develop less functionality and increasing d) Enlargement and increased activity of the nodes’ high
e) Serosa
amounts of adipose tissue with age? endothelial venules
a) Axillary lymph nodes e) Increased thickness of each node’s paracortex
b) Lingual tonsils 4. Which of the following would most likely result from
c) Thymus a reduction in the number of Paneth cells?
d) Splenic white pulp a) Thinning of the glycocalyx
e) Splenic red pulp b) Reduced breakdown of fats
c) Elevated levels of undigested proteins
d) Decreased mucus in the intestine
e) Increased number of intestinal bacteria
5. A medical student on a rotation in the pathology
laboratory is given an unlabeled microscope slide 9. A 14-month-old girl is brought to the pediatric ORGANS ASSOCIATED WITH DIGESTIVE TRACT
with tissue provided by a gastroenterologist from a dentistry clinic because her erupted deciduous teeth
cancer patient she is attending. The mucosa and are opalescent with fractured and chipped surfaces. 1. In a liver biopsy from a long-time drug user which of
submucosa are poorly preserved, with only the thick X-rays reveal bulb-shaped crowns, thin roots, and the following hepatocyte organelles would be
muscularis well-stained, showing striated fibers. The enlarged central cavities. Tissue immediately expected to be more extensive than normal?
slide most likely shows a biopsy of which region of surrounding one tooth’s central cavity is biopsied and a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
the GI tract? prepared for histology, which reveals irregular, b) Golgi apparatus
a) Pyloric sphincter widely spaced tubules. Which of the following c) Lysosomes
b) Esophagus applies to this irregular tissue layer? d) Peroxisomes
c) Colon a) It has a composition similar to that of bone and is e) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
d) Corpus of the stomach produced by cells similar in appearance to osteocytes.
e) Ileum b) It is formed on a noncollagenous matrix that is 2. Which description is true of pancreatic zymogens?
resorbed after mineralization by the same cells that a) Are packaged for secretion in the SER
6. Diarrhea may result if which of the following organs secreted it. b) Are synthesized on free ribosomes
fails to carry out its role in absorbing water from the c) It contains abundant nerves, microvasculature, and c) Are inactive until they reach the duodenal lumen
feces? loose connective tissue. d) Are stored in the basal cytoplasm of acinar cells
a) Anal canal d) It consists of mineralized collagen secreted by cells e) Are produced by cuboidal cells lining the pancreatic
b) Cecum derived from the neural crest. duct
c) Colon e) It is the site of inflammation in diabetic patients and is
d) Jejunum sensitive to vitamin C deficiency. 3. Which process increases in response to
Duodenum parasympathetic stimulation of the salivary glands?
10. A 39-year-old woman presents with dyspnea, fatigue, a) Volume of secretion
7. Which of the following is true of the absorptive cells pallor, tachycardia, anosmia, and diarrhea. b) Cell division in secretory acini
of the small intestine? Laboratory results are: hematocrit 32% (normal c) Mucus content of saliva
a) Also called enteroendocrine cells 36.1%-44.3%), MCV 102 fL (normal 78-98 fL), 0.3% d) Inorganic salts content of saliva
b) Have many microvilli covering their basal surfaces reticulocytes (normal 0.5%-2.0%), 95 pg/mL vitamin e) Cell division in interlobular ducts
c) Absorb lipids by active transport B12 (normal 200-900 pg/mL), and an abnormal stage
d) Synthesize triglycerides from absorbed lipids I of the Schilling test. Auto antibodies are detected 4. Which feature is unique to the exocrine pancreas?
e) Undergo mitosis at tips of villi and are sloughed off against a cell type located in one region of the GI a) Insulin-secreting β cells
into crypts tract. In which regions would those cells be found? b) Centroacinar cells
a) Esophagus c) Predominately serous secretory cells
8. A 52-year-old man is diagnosed with a carcinoid after b) Body of the stomach d) Striated interlobular ducts
an appendectomy. The enteroendocrine cells c) Pyloric region of the stomach e) Striated intralobular ducts
producing this disorder differ from goblet cells in d) Cardiac region of the stomach
which of the following? e) Duodenum 5. Which description is true of the bile canaliculi?
a) The direction of release of secretion a) Are bordered directly by endothelial cells
b) The use of exocytosis for release of secretory product b) Are part of the portal triad
c) Their presence in the small and large intestines c) Are surrounded by the hepatic sinusoids
d) The origin from a crypt stem cell d) Lumens are entirely sealed by junctional complexes
e) Their location in a simple columnar epithelium e) Normally contain some blood plasma
6. Which description is true of the gallbladder?
a) Dilutes bile 9. A 48-year-old woman is referred to an allergy and RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
b) Absorbs bile rheumatology specialist with itching eyes, dryness of
c) Secretes mucus the mouth, difficulty swallowing, loss of the sense of 1. Which of the following components increase(s) as a
d) Has a thick submucosa taste, hoarseness, fatigue, and swollen parotid proportion of the respiratory tract wall from trachea
e) Is covered entirely by serosa glands. She reports increasing joint pain over the past to alveoli?
2 years. She complains of frequent mouth sores. a) Cilia
7. Which description is true for the hepatic space of Laboratory tests show a positive antinuclear b) Elastic fibers
Disse? antibody (ANA) and rheumatoid factor (RF) levels of c) Smooth muscle
a) Is surrounded by the hepatic sinusoid 70 U/mL (normal < 60 U/mL) by the nephelometric d) Cartilage
b) Contents flow toward the central vein method. A parotid gland biopsy shows inflammatory e) Goblet cells
c) Is directly contacted by hepatocytes infiltrates in the interlobular connective tissue with
d) Lumen sealed by junctional complexes damage to the acinar cells and striated ducts. In this 2. Air moving rapidly across the vocal cords and causing
e) Contents empty into canals of Hering lined by case, resorption of which of the following will be them to vibrate and produce sound is contacting
cholangiocytes most altered by destruction of those ducts? what type of epithelium?
a) Na+ a) Pseudostratified ciliated
8. A 50-year-old woman presents to the family b) H2 b) Stratified squamous keratinized
medicine clinic. She admits to drinking a six-pack of c) O c) Stratified squamous nonkeratinized
beer each day with a little more intake on weekends. d) HCO3 d) Simple squamous
Laboratory tests show elevated alanine e) Cl e) Simple cuboidal
amino transferase/serum glutamic oxaloacetic f) Ca2+
transaminase (AST/SGOT). Her sclerae appear 3. Which structural feature distinguishes between
jaundiced and her serum bilirubin is 2.5 mg/dL 10. A young child presents with hepatomegaly and terminal and respiratory bronchioles?
(normal 0.3-1.9 mg/dL). A biopsy shows hepatic renomegaly, failure to thrive, stunted growth, and a) Alveoli
fibrosis with significant loss of normal lobular hypoglycemia. A deficiency in glucose-6-phosphatase b) Cilia
structure. Jaundice is most likely to result when the is identified and the diagnosis of von Gierke disease c) Exocrine bronchiolar cells
proper location or orientation of what hepatic is made. What cellular structures would be expected d) Mucous glands in lamina propria
structures is disrupted? to accumulate in hepatocytes during progression of e) Smooth muscle
a) Central veins this disorder?
b) Spaces of Disse a) Chylomicrons 4. Which of the following features distinguishes a
c) Kupffer cells b) Glycogen granules bronchus within a lung from the primary bronchi?
d) Hepatocytes c) Mitochondria a) Glands in the submucosa
e) Merging sinusoids d) Zymogen granules b) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
e) Ribosomes c) Smooth muscle in the wall
d) Irregular plates of cartilage
e) Goblet cells in the epithelium
 8. After 35 weeks of gestation, a 5-lb 5-oz girl is born to 10. A 28-year-old man is diagnosed with a testicular
a 30-year-old gravid 2, para 2 (G2P2) woman. The germ cell tumor. The tumor is surgically removed and
5. Which feature involved in protection of the infant has rapid and labored breathing, which is he begins chemotherapy with cisplatin, etoposide,
respiratory tract is absent from the digestive tract? viewed as transient tachypnea of the newborn. The and bleomycin. Bleomycin chemotherapy is known
a) Goblet cells infant’s 1- and 5-min APGAR scores are 8 and 9, to affect the lung blood-air barrier. Which of the
b) Cilia respectively. She has respiratory distress, with a following best describes the structural site of those
c) Lymphoid nodules normal pulse and no heart murmurs. She is effects?
d) Secretory IgA transported to the neonatal intensive care unit with a) Fused basal laminae of epithelial and endothelial
e) Tight junctions worsening tachypnea. In this infant which of the cells
following is likely to be involved? b) Alveolar pores of Kohn
6. Which of the following is true of pulmonary a) Failure of the type I pneumocytes to form complete c) Alveolar macrophages in interalveolar septa
surfactant? blood-air barriers d) Type II pneumocytes linked by junctional complexes
a) Secreted by type I pneumocytes b) Absence of elastic fibers from the bronchiolar walls e) Smooth muscle cells of the pulmonary and bronchial
b) Forms layer rich in phospholipid overlying a thin and interalveolar septa arteries
aqueous phase c) Failure of type II pneumocytes to complete
c) Prevents alveolar collapse by increasing surface differentiation and become fully functional
tension d) Failure of type II pneumocyte progenitors to
d) Does not affect bacterial survival proliferate adequately during gestation
e) Is secreted by goblet cells e) Inadequate development of the parietal and visceral
pleura
7. The pulmonary (functional) and bronchial (nutritive)
arterial systems enter the lungs separately at the 9. A teenage girl presents at the ER with paroxysms of
hilus but anastomose into a single system at which dyspnea, cough, and wheezing. Her parents indicate
level? that she had these “attacks” during the past winter
a) Bronchi and that they have worsened and become more
b) Larynx frequent during the spring. Which of the following
c) Terminal bronchioles cell types and their location is correctly matched to a
d) Segmental bronchioles function it may perform in this patient’s disorder?
e) Respiratory bronchioles a) Cilia in alveolar ducts, enhanced mucociliary transport
b) Plasma cells in bronchus-associated lymphoid tissue
(BALT), bronchoconstriction
c) Eosinophils in BALT, bronchodilation
d) Goblet cells in bronchioles, hyposecretion
e) Mast cells in BALT, bronchoconstriction, and edema