FC-MODULE 3: Attempt Review

MODULE 3: Attempt review 10/19/22, 12:03 AM MODULE 3: Attempt review 10/19/22, 12:03 AM
Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is:

%w/v
DRILLS ( CLICK HERE )
COMPRE ( CLICK HERE )
PREBOARDS ( CLICK HERE )

FINAL COACHING ( CLICK HERE ) Question 4
Question 4
mg% is equivalent to
Correct
FINAL COACHING ( NOVEMBER 2022 ) Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Dashboard / Courses / FINAL COACHING ( NOVEMBER 2022 ) / EXAM / MODULE 3 A. gram/liter
B. gram/dl
Started
Started on
on Saturday, 15 October 2022, 7:52 PM C. mg/dl !
D. meq/100 ml
State
State Finished
Your answer is correct.

Completed
Completed on
on Saturday, 15 October 2022, 11:29 PM
mg/dl
Time
Time taken
taken 3 hours 36 mins
Grade
Grade 102.00
102.00 out of 200.00 (51
51
51%) Question 5
Question 5
A physician places a patient on a daily dose of 48 units of U-80 insulin. How many mL should the patient inject
Correct
daily?
Question 1
Question 1
MCDL Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. 1450 !

A. 0.4 mL
B. 1550 B. 0.6 mL !
C. 1600 C. 4 mL
D. 1650 D. 2.6 mL
Your answer is correct. Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Solution (Ratio and Proportion)
1450
NOTE: U-80 insulin = 80 units of insulin/mL

80 units/mL = 48 units/ (x mL) x = 0.6 mL
Question 2
Question 2 The correct answer is:
A medication order for a 10-month old infant weighing 8 kg calls for 800 μg Furosemide papertabs. The available 0.6 mL
Incorrect
preparation of the drug in the pharmacy is 40 mg. The average weight of the tablet is 80 mg. How many papertabs
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 can the pharmacist prepare from one tablet?
Question 6
Question 6
250 mcg/mL is equivalent to ____________
A. 50 pptabs Correct
B. 75 pptabs " Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. 0.0025 mg/mL
C. 100 pptabs B. 0.025 mg/mL
D. 125 pptabs C. 0.25 mg/mL !
D. 2.5 mg/mL
50 pptabs
0.25 mg/mL
Question 3
Question 3
Concentration expression most commonly used for suspensions
Incorrect
Question 7
Question 7
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Compute for the required volume of water to make 2.35g of atropine sulphate (E=0.13) isotonic. Use White Vincent
Correct
method.
A. %w/v Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
B. %v/v "
A. 33.94 mL !
C. %w/w
D. ppm
B. 36.42 mL
E. mg%
https://www.lms.manorreviewcenter.ph/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=180968&cmid=1971&showall=1 Page 1 of 56 https://www.lms.manorreviewcenter.ph/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=180968&cmid=1971&showall=1 Page 2 of 56

A. 0.005 mL "
C. 4.33 mL
D. 30.16 mL B. 20 mL
C. 5 mL
Your answer is correct. D. 2 mL

33.94 mL

5 mL
Question 8
Question 8
Cetuximab has a loading dose of 400 mg/m2 administered as an intravenous infusion over a 120-minute period.
Incorrect
Using an IV set that delivers 15 drops/mL, calculate the dose for a patient with a BSA of 1.5m2
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
Question 12
Question 12
Doctor’s order:
Incorrect
A. 600 mg Amikacin 5mg/lb IM q12h Available: Amikacin 0.9g/2mL
How many mL is administered to a 72.7 kg patient in a day?
B. 640 mg "
C. 4 grams
A. 1.2 mL
D. 40mg
B. 0.8 mL "
Your answer is incorrect. C. 2.8 mL

D. 3.6 mL
600 mg

72.7kg × 2.2lb/kg = 160lb
Question 9
Question 9
What mass of sodium chloride should be added in 100 ml of 5.0 % (w/v) dextrose monohydrate (E = 0.16) isotonic
Incorrect
solution?
5mg/lb × 160lb = 800mg/dose
800mg/dose × 1g/1000mg × 2mL/0.9g × 2doses/day = 3.6mL
A. 250 mg 3.6 mL
B. 2.20 g
C. 0.9 g "
Question 13
Question 13
D. 100 mg If 500 mL of a 1:200 (v/v) solution were diluted to 800 mL, what would be the ratio strength (v/v)?
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. 1:800

B. 1:300
5g/100mL × 100mL = 5g dextrose 5g × 0.16 = 0.8g NaCl
Isotonic solution = 0.9% NaCl C. 1:320 !
0.9g /100mL × 100mL = 0.9g NaCl – 0.8g NaCl = 0.1 g ~ 100mg

D. 1:250
100 mg E. 1:500

Question 10
Drug A is usually given in ranges between 5 - 10 mg/kg of body weight. What would be the dose range for a person 1:320
Correct
weighing 125 lbs?
! Question 14
Question 14
A. 0.28 g – 0.57 g
If topical cream contains 1.8 % (w/w) of hydrocortisone, how many milligrams of hydrocortisone should be used in
Correct
B. 284 g - 568 g preparing 15g of the cream?
C. 0.31 g – 0.63 g
D. 312.5 g – 625 g A. 27 mg
B. 270 mg !

C. 833 mg
0.28 g – 0.57 g D. 0.833 mg

Question 11
Epinephrine is available as an injection containing 100 mcg/mL. The patient requires an IM injection of 0.5mg. How 270 mg
Incorrect
many mL of injection is needed to supply this required dose?
" Question 15
Question 15
A. 0.005 mL

Question 15
A patient received 100mL of an infusion at 10 drops/minute with an administration set that delivered 60 drops/mL. 25%
Correct
Calculate the duration of the infusion in hours.
Question 19
Question 19
A. 12 hours The normal potassium (MW=39) levels in the blood ranges from 13.65 to 19.5 mg%. Express the range in
Correct milliequivalents/liter.
B. 10 hours !
C. 8 hours A. 3.5 to 5 mEq/L !
D. 5 hours B. 35 to 50 mEq/L
C. 0.35 to 0.50 mEq/L

D. 3.5 to 4.5 mEq/L
10 hours
13.65% = 13.65 mg/100 mL x 1000 mL/1L = 136.5 mg/L
19.5mg% = 19.5mg/100 mL x 1000 mL/1L = 195 mg/L

Question 16
Question 16
Which of the following are TRUE regarding speci#c gravity: mEq = mg x v/MW
Incorrect
I. Water is used as a standard for the speci#c gravities of liquids and solids, mEq = 136.5 mg/L x 1/39 = 3.5 meq/L
II. Urine speci#c gravity is a measure of solute in the urine. mEq = 195 mg/L x 1/39 = 5 meq/L
III. Substances that have a speci#c gravity greater than 1 are heavier than water,

3.5 to 5 mEq/L
A. I and II
B. I and III
Question 20
Question 20
C. I, II, III How many mg potassium (MW=39) are there in 4L of a solution that is 3mEq/L?
Correct
D. II and III "
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. 117 mg
B. 468 mg !
The correct answer is: C. 307 mg

I, II, III
D. 29.25 mg

Question 17
Question 17
Calculate the speci#c gravity of the mixture: 800 ml glycerin, s.g. 1.25, 900 ml water, 2000 ml alcohol, s.g. 0.81 mg = mEq × formula wt /valence
Correct
3 meq/L × 4 L × 1 mol/eq × 39g/mol = 468mg/L
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. 0.705 The correct answer is:
468 mg
B. 0.687
C. 0.951 !
D. 0.864 Question 21
Question 21
How many mEq of Na+ are present in 250cc NSS? (Na=23, Cl=35)
Incorrect
Your answer is correct. Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. 23 mEq

800 x 1.25 = 1000 grams glycerin
B. 15 mEq
900 x 1 = 900 grams water
C. 53 mEq "
2000mL x 0.81 = 1620 grams alcohol SG = grams/volume
= (1000 + 900 + 1620)/ (800mL + 900mL + 2000mL) D. 38 mEq

= 0.951
0.951 Your answer is incorrect.

38 mEq
Question 18
Question 18
What is the %v/v of a solution of 800g liquid (spec. gravity = 0.8) in water to make 4000mL?
Correct
Question 22
Question 22
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is incorrect pairing?
Correct
A. 20% Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. 0.009% NSS: hypotonic solution
B. 40% !
B. 9.0% NSS: isotonic solution
C. 25% !
C. 0.9% NSS: isotonic solution
D. 80%
D. 0.09% NSS: hypotonic solution

The correct answer is: Question 27

Question 27
An ointment formulation requires 80 g of emulsi#er blend with tween 40 and span 20. If the HLB requirement is
9.0% NSS: isotonic solution Incorrect 12.3, how many grams of each emulsi#er should be used? (HLB Tween 40 = 15.6 Span 20= 8.6)
A. 46.5 g Span 20, 23.3 g Tween 40
Question 23
Question 23
How many grams of 1% hydrocortisone cream must be mixed with 0.5% hydrocortisone cream if one wishes to B. 23.3 g Span 20, 46.5 g Tween 40
Correct prepare 80 g of a 0.6% w/w preparation?
C. 42.3 g Span 20, 37.7 Tween 40 "
A. 12 g D. 37.7 g Span 20, 42.3g Tween 40
B. 16 g !

C. 20 g
Use allegation alternate:
D. 24 g 15.6 (12.3 – 8.6) = 3.7 parts of tween 40
E. 36 g 12.3
8.6 (12.3 – 15.6 abs val) = 3.3 parts span 20

Total parts = 3.3 + 3.7 = 7.0 Tween 40 = 3.7/7 x 80g = 42.3g Span 20 – 3.3/7 x 80 - 37.7g
16 g
37.7 g Span 20, 42.3g Tween 40
Question 24
Question 24
How many fluid ounces of flavored syrup are contained in a 5-L container? Question 28
Question 28
Correct A patient was prescribed with Cefuroxime oral suspension (125 mg/mL) to be taken in doses of 2 tsp. three times a
Correct day for 4 days, and 1 tbsp. twice a day for 2 days. How many mL of the suspension should be dispensed to cover the
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. 148 entire regimen?
B. 169 !
A. 180 !
C. 196
B. 18
D. 247
C. 1.8
E. 256
D. 200
E. 20
169 Your answer is correct.
180
Question 25
Question 25
A prescription requires the preparation of a 60 ml solution of 1:10,000 from a stock solution of 1:750. How much of
Incorrect solution will be used in compounding this prescription?
Question 29
Question 29
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A nutritional product contains 10 grams of carbohydrates, 15 grams of proteins and 5 grams of fat in each 100-mL
A. 4.6 mL Correct serving. What is the caloric content of one serving?
" Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

B. 780 mL
A. 40 kcal
C. 0.08 mL
B. 220 kcal
D. 166 mL
C. 100 kcal
D. 145 kcal !
4.6 mL Your answer is correct.
145 kcal
Question 26
Question 26
How many colchicine tablets, each containing 500 micrograms, maybe prepared from 45 grams of colchicine?
Correct
Question 30
Question 30
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. 9 How much lidocaine is required to prepare 1:1000, 30mL of lidocaine solution?
Incorrect
B. 900
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. 10 mg
C. 9,000
B. 0.03 mg
D. 90,000 !
C. 30 mg
D. 3 g "

90,000 Your answer is incorrect.

30 mg
Question 27
Question 27
Question 35
Question 35
The purpose of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Commi$ee are the following:
Question 31
Question 31 Incorrect
Net pro#t is calculated by _________
Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Advisory and educational
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. adding liabilities and gross pro#t
B. Advisory and planning "
B. subtracting expenses from gross pro#t

C. Educational and planning
C. subtracting inventory cost from the total expenses "
D. Dispensing and Inventory
D. subtracting inventory cost from gross pro#t

Your answer is incorrect. The correct answer is:
The correct answer is: Advisory and educational
subtracting expenses from gross pro#t
Question 36
Question 36
Who among the following can write a prescription?
Question 32
Question 32 Correct
What would be the selling price of a compounded product if the following base costs were computed:
Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
1. Labor (15 minutes) - Php 28.95 A. Pharmacist
2. Supplies - Php 27.90
B. Nurse
3-Electricity - Php 1.50 and
C. Dentist !
4- Depreciation cost of equipment to be used - Php 84.20.
Mark-up is at 60% D. Radiologic technologist

A. Php 142.55
B. Php 57.02 Dentist
C. Php 85.53
D. Php 228.08 !
Question 37
Question 37
The most appropriate/advantageous drug delivery system in the hospital
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Floor stock
Php 228.08 B. Individual prescription order system
C. Unit dose drug delivery system !
D. Combined delivery system

Question 33
Question 33
If a drug inhaler contains 20 mg of the active drug, how many inhalation doses can be delivered, if each inhalation
Correct E. NOTA
dose contains 90 micrograms?
A. 1,800 doses Your answer is correct.
B. 22 doses The correct answer is:

Unit dose drug delivery system
C. 180 doses
D. 222 doses !
Question 38
Question 38
Which of the following parameters should be considered when storing medications?
Your answer is correct. Correct
I. Air velocity
The correct answer is: Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
II. Particle count
222 doses
III. Temperature
IV. Relative humidity
Question 34
Question 34
If there is an order for a particular Dangerous Drug (DD) with a preparation of 10 mg/2 mL ampule, how many mL
Incorrect would be needed if the dose is 0.05 mg/Kg/dose? The patient is 110 lbs. A. I and II
B. III and IV !
A. 1 mL
C. I, II and III
B. 0.05 mL "
D. I, II, III and IV

C. 0.25 mL
D. 0.5 mL
In storage, temperature and RH are monitored. While in preparing medications, air velocity and particle count
Your answer is incorrect. are controlled especially if aseptic technique is required.
The correct answer is: The correct answer is:

0.5 mL III and IV

Question 43
Question 43
Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding IV glutathione?
Incorrect
Question 39
Question 39 I. lt a%ects the production of melatonin.
Based on USP, what is the beyond-use date (BUD) for water containing oral preparations at controlled cold Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
Correct II. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is as adjunct treatment in cisplatin chemotherapy.
temperatures?
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 III. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is for skin lightening.
A. no longer than 7 days

A. III
B. no longer than 14 days !
B. I and II "
C. no longer than 24 days
C. II
D. no longer than 30 days
D. I, II and III

Based on USP 795 de#nes BUD as, Water Containing Oral Formulations: no longer than 14 days or the earliest
expiration date of any ingredient used, whichever is shorter, and stored at controlled cold temperatures. This Melatonin caused an increase in glutathione level, the activity of glutathione peroxidase as well as glutathione
includes water being added as an ingredient or water is a component of any ingredient used. transferase in the examined organs. Injectable glutathione is approved by FDA Philippines as an adjunct
treatment in cisplatin chemotherapy. Side e%ects on the use of injectable glutathione for skin lightening
include toxic e%ects on the liver, kidneys, and nervous system. Also of concern is the possibility of Stevens
The correct answer is: Johnson Syndrome.
no longer than 14 days

II
Question 40
Question 40
PhilPSP stands for:
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Question 44

Question 44
A. Philippine Professional Standards for Pharmacists
Which of the following drugs cannot be advertised to the general public?
Correct
B. Philippine Pharmacy Standards of Practice
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Ponstan 500 mg !
C. Philippine Practice Standards for Pharmacists !
B. Sinecod 50 mg
D. Philippine Pharmaceutical Science Program
C. Cataflam 25 mg
E. Philippine Practice Standards for Professionals
D. Imodium 2 mg
Your answer is correct. E. Flanax 275 mg

Philippine Practice Standards for Pharmacists
Generic OTC Rx
Ponstan Mefenamic 250 mg 500 mg

Question 41
Question 41 acid
Which of the following opioids do/es NOT require S2 license?
Correct Sinecod Butamirate 50 mg
Citrate
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Methadone
Cataflam/ Diclofenac 25 mg 50 mg
B. Morphine Voltaren
! Imodium Loperamide 2 mg
C. Tramadol
Flanax Naproxen 275 mg 550 mg
D. Both A &B

Ponstan 500 mg
Tramadol
Question 45
Question 45
Which of the following refer to drugs that bear a heightened risk of causing signi#cant patient harm when used in
Incorrect error?
Question 42
Question 42 Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
Stenosis means:
Correct A. Non-formulary drugs
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Inflammation of the sternum B. High-alert medications
B. Obstruction of a blood supply to an organ or region of tissue C. Look-alike, Sound-alike drugs "
C. Hardening of the tissue with the loss of elasticity D. High value medication
D. Abnormal narrowing of a body channel or passage. !

High-alert medications
Abnormal narrowing of a body channel or passage.
Question 46
Question 46
Neurobion® contains
Question 43
Question 43 Correct
I. Vit. B1
Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding IV glutathione?
I. Vit. B1
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Your answer is incorrect.
II. Vit. B3
III. Vit. B6
Digoxin
IV. Vit. B12
! Question 50
Question 50
A. I, III, IV
Which of the following is/are advisable route of administration/s for potassium supplements?
Correct
B. I, II, III I. Powder for suspension
C. II, III, IV II. IV bolus
III. IV infusion
D. I, II, III, IV
IV. Extended-release tablet, po

The correct answer is: A. I, II, III
I, III, IV
B. I, III, IV !
C. I, IV
Question 47
Question 47 D. III, IV
DTP series of injections is intended for administration to
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Infants ! Your answer is correct.

Potassium solutions can be administered both via oral and parenteral routes but should never be given as an
B. Children 6 years and older
intravenous push and should be administered as a dilute solution. It is available as tablets for solution,
granules for solution, extended-release capsules, liquid for solution, powder for solution, powder for suspension
C. Adults
and extended-release tablets to address loss in potassium in the body
D. NOTA

I, III, IV
Question 51
Question 51
Which of the following statement are TRUE regarding the Heparin and Warfarin?
Correct

I. Heparin is administered parenterally while Warfarin is given orally.
II. Dosage strength of both heparin and warfarin are expressed in "Units"
III. They are both anticoagulants.
IV. They have the same antidote in cases of overdose.

Infants !
A. I and III
B. I and IV
Question 48
Question 48 C. I, II and III
Medication that may be left at the patient’s bedside
Incorrect D. II and III
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. NGT
B. Insulin " Your answer is correct.

Heparin is expressed in units while warfarin is in mg. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin while Vit. K is
C. Digitalis the antidote for warfarin.
D. NTG The correct answer is:

I and III

Question 52
Question 52
NTG What is the usual expiration dating that should be placed on a parenteral admixture prepared in a hospital
Incorrect pharmacy?
A. 1 hour "
Question 49
Question 49
Drug found in the Emergency Kit used for heart failure:
Incorrect B. 24 hours
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Captopril C. 48 hours
B. Isosorbide mononitrate D. 72 hours
C. Isosorbide dinitrate "

D. Candesartan
E. Digoxin 24 hours

Question 53
Question 53 "
Unit used for the internal diameter of catheters: A. Cefalexin
Incorrect
B. Doxycycline
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. French
C. Meropenem
B. Gauge
D. Nafcillin
C. NOTA "
D. A and B
Doxycycline
(1) French is usually the unit for internal diameter

Ex. 3F x 0.02 ID means Foley Cath 3 (1mm) with 0.02mm internal diameter
Question 56
Question 56
Which one of the following sequences lists the three types of cautions found in drug product inserts in the order of
(2) Correct
least serious to most serious?
In hospital practice: Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
French – catheters Gauge – needle lumen

A. contraindication, precaution, warning
(3)
B. precaution, warning, contraindication !
Both can be used for external diameter
Gauge
Gauge – inc gauge = smaller external diameter C. warning, contraindication, precaution
French
French – inc French = larger eternal diameter
D. warning, precaution, contraindication
French

precaution, warning, contraindication
Question 54
Question 54
Which of the following beta-blockers has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity?
Incorrect
I. Pindolol
II. Esmolol Question 57
Question 57
Which of the following is an objective parameter?
III. Metoprolol
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Sign
B. Symptom
A. I
C. Syndrome
B. II "
D. A and C "
C.
I and II
D. I, II and III The correct answer is:

Sign
Question 58
Question 58
Which of the following drugs are not allowed to be crushed and introduced in an enteric feeding tube?
Incorrect
A. Paracetamol "
B. Ranitidine
C. Nexium®
D. Micardis®
C. Nexium®: generic name - esomeprazole belongs to the “Do Not Crush List” of drugs administered in an
enteric feeding tube because it is available as a delayed- release capsule

NOTE for medications that go through feeding tubes:
I NEVER crush or open capsules of medications labeled extended-release or enteric- coated

Nexium®
Question 55
Question 55
A patient was diagnosed to have allergies to beta-lactam antibiotics. Which of the following is not a beta-lactam
Incorrect
antibiotic to which the patient may not be allergic to? Question 59
Question 59
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 U-100 Insulin is
Correct

It is hypertonic
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. White
B. Orange !
Question 63
Question 63
The pharmacist was asked about the drug Tetrahydrozoline. Which of the following is/are correct about this drug?
C. Red Incorrect
I. It works by causing vasoconstriction
D. Violet
II. Classi#ed as an adrenergic antagonist.
III. Available as an otic preparation

Orange
A. I
B. I and II "
Question 60
Question 60
Which of the following is NOT a 3rd generation Cephalosporin? C. II and III
Correct
D. I, II and III
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Ce#xime
B. Cefazolin !
C. Cefotaxime Tetrahydrozoline is a decongestant used to relieve redness in the eyes caused by minor eye irritations (such as
smog, swimming, dust, or smoke). It belongs to a class of drugs known as sympathomimetic amines. It works by
D. Ceftriaxone temporarily narrowing the blood vessels in the eye.
Your answer is correct. The correct answer is:

I
Question 64
Question 64
Hospitals can be classi#ed according to bed capacity, functional capacity, and length of stay of the patient. For a
Incorrect
hospital to be considered as a medium scale hospital, minimum bed capacity shall be:
A. 50
B. 100 "
C. 500
D. 1000

Cefazolin

500
Question 61
Question 61
Patients treated anytime of the day, and which requires immediate medical a$ention
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Stat order " Question 65

Question 65
Which of the following is/are true about aminopenicillins?
Incorrect
B. Referred outpatient I. They both have the same spectrum of activity
C. Emergency outpatient II. Both can produce hypersensitivity reactions
III. Absorption of Ampicillin is signi#cantly be$er than Amoxicillin.

D. Intensive care patient
Your answer is incorrect. A. I

B. I and II
Emergency outpatient
C. II and III "
D. I, II and III
Question 62
Question 62
All of the following statements about D5W are true EXCEPT:
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. It is hypertonic The absorption of amoxicillin was signi#cantly be$er, as demonstrated by a higher mean peak serum
concentration of 7.6 μg/ml as compared to 3.2 μg/ml for ampicillin. They have activity against many of the
B. It should be used with caution in diabetic patients "
gram-negative bacteria (E. coli, Salmonella, Pasteurella spp.) as well as gram-positive bacteria. Both can
cause hypersensitivity in patients with history of allergy with penicillin
C. Its pH range is 3.5 to 6.5
D. It is a 5% solution of D-glucose I and II

Question 66
Which of the following conditions may contribute to drug administration errors?
It is hypertonic Correct

Correct D. 18 G x 1 in
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Failure to check the patient's identity prior to administration
The gauge size of a needle indicates what the diameter of the lumen (opening) is. The higher the gauge, the
B. Counterchecking of the drug by a 2nd nurse prior to administration smaller the diameter.
C. Storage of "Look-alike" preparations side by side in the patient's medication cabinet

D. A and C !
18 G x 1 in

Question 70
A and C Atracurium is used as ___________.
Correct
A. Anticonvulsants
Question 67
Question 67
Which of the following antineoplastic agent belongs to the Monoclonal Antibody group? !
Correct B. Muscle relaxant
I. Cisplatin
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 C. Antidepressant
II. Fligastrim
III. Bevacizumab D. Cholinergic antagonist
IV. Ge#tinib

A. I and II
Muscle relaxant
B. III !
C. III and IV
Question 71
Question 71
D. II, III and IV According to RA 6675, generic substitution is allowed. Which of the following drugs can be interchanged when
Correct
#lling a medication order?
Bevacizumab (Avastin) targets a cancer cell protein called vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF). This
protein helps cancers to grow blood vessels, so they can get food and oxygen from the blood. All cancers need A. Ventolin and Atrovent
a blood supply to be able to survive and grow. The su%ix "nib" indicates a small-molecule inhibitor ("nib" is
B. Augmentin and Amoclav
verbal shorthand for "inhibit") of kinase enzymes.
C. Dolfenal and Ponstan

D. Zocor and Lipitor
III
E. 2 of the choices are correct !
Question 68
Question 68 Your answer is correct.
Which of the following is/are non-opioids IV preparation that can be used to produce general anesthesia?
Incorrect E. 2 of the choices are correct
I. Meperidine
II. Thiopental
Ventolin – albuterol (SABA); Atrovent - ipratropium (antimuscarinic); augmentin,amoclav – Amoxicillin/co-
III. Midazolam amoxiclav (antibiotic); Lipitor – atorvastin; zocor (simvastatin); ponstan, dolfenal – mefenamic acid

A. I and II " 2 of the choices are correct
B. II
C. I
Question 72
Question 72
Cool temperature in the working area
D. II and III
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. 30-40 degrees Celsius

B. 25-30 degrees Celsius
II and III C. 8-15 degrees Celsius !
D. 2-8 degrees Celsius
Question 69
Question 69
Which of the following needles has the largest diameter? Your answer is correct.
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. 25 G x 1/2 in " 8-15 degrees Celsius
B. 30 G x 1/2 in
C. 25 G× 1 in
Question 73
Question 73
D. 18 G x 1 in The patient was given a general anesthetic drug administered through inhalation. Which of the following is the
Incorrect
agent given to the patient?

D. 18 G x 1 in A. Succinylcholine "

A. Succinylcholine "
Question 77
Question 77
Which of the following is true about dangerous drugs dispensing?
B. Propofol Incorrect I. Partial #lling is not allowed
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 II. All dangerous drugs should be dispensed only when wri$en in a yellow prescription
C. Sevoflurane
III. Brand name is not required in prescribing the drug
D. Ketamine IV. Naloxone should be monitored as dangerous drugs
A. I, III, IV
Your answer is incorrect. B. II "

Sevoflurane C. III
D. I, II, IV
Question 74
Question 74 Your answer is incorrect.
Which of the following transactions will increase the stock-on-hand of a certain drug?
Correct The correct answer is:
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 III
A. Stocking the inventories delivered by the supplier !
B. Dispensing the prescribed drug to the patient

Question 78
Question 78
How many copies of prescription are issued for dangerous drugs?
C. Returning the drug to the supplier Correct

D. Skipping a periodic reorder schedule
A. 1
Your answer is correct. B. 2

A. Stocking the inventories delivered by the supplier
C. 3 !

“Stock-on-hand” means the amount of goods, such as parts, materials, and #nished products, that a D. 5
company has available at a particular time. Choices B, C, and D will result to decrease of stock-on-hand.

Stocking the inventories delivered by the supplier The correct answer is:
3
Question 75
Question 75
The IV fluid D5OW means Question 79
Question 79
Correct An example of LMH?
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. 0.05% Dextrose in Water
B. 50% Dextrose in Water !

A. Dabigatran
C. 5% Dextrose in Water
B. Warfarin
D. 0.5% Dextrose in Water
C. Setraline
D. Enoxaparin !
50% Dextrose in Water Your answer is correct.
Low MW heparins are usually ending in -parin. They are mainly used for DVT treatment. Given SC. Have better
safety pro#le than regular heparin.
Question 76
Question 76 Enoxaparin
Which are the ideal characteristics for IV injection administered via peripheral vein?
Incorrect

I. non-irritating drug
II. hypertonic solution Question 80
Question 80
What is the usual route of administration of LMH agents?
III. for short-term therapy Correct
A. IV
A. I and II "
B. SC !
B. I and III
C. po
C. II and III
D. IM
D. I, II and III

SC
I and III
Question 81
Question 81
Question 81
Question 81
What is the reason why Fondaparinux is prescribed after surgery? Your answer is correct.
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Cisplatin
A. to prevent possible infections
B. for post-operative pain

Question 85
Question 85
! When one or more sterile products are added to an IV fluid for administration
C. to prevent blood clot formation
Incorrect
D. to dissolve clot that may develop Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. TPN
B. IV solution "
C. IV admixture
to prevent blood clot formation
D. PPN

Question 82
Question 82
A nurse asked the pharmacists of available antiplatelet drugs. Which of the following drugs should be included in
Correct IV admixture
the list?
I. Cilostazol
II. Aspirin
III. Abciximab Question 86
Question 86
Which of the following incompatibility refers to the presence of one of more additives combined in an IV fluid that
IV. Clopidogrel Correct
results to changes in the drug substances present.
A. I and II !
A. Pharmaceutical incompatibility
B. II and III
B. Pharmacokinetic incompatibility
C. I, II and III
C. Pharmacodynamic incompatibility
D. I, II, III and IV !
D. Therapeutic incompatibility

I, II, III and IV
Pharmaceutical incompatibility
Question 83
Question 83
Question 87
Question 87
Which of the following statements is/are true for a vertical flow hood?
Correct Reactions which are noxious, unintended and which occur at doses normally used in man for prophylaxis,
I. Air blows toward worker Correct
diagnosis, treatment, mitigation, and cure of a disease
II. Air blows from top down to maintain sterility and protect the worker Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
III. It is used in the manufacture of chemotherapeutic agents
A. Adverse event
B. Adverse drug reaction !

A. I only
C. Drug interaction
B. II and III !
D. Pharmacologic interaction
C. I and III
D. II only
E. I, II, and III The correct answer is:
Adverse drug reaction

II and III Question 88
Question 88
A drug interaction which might occur but with limited data to support it is classi#ed as:
Incorrect

Question 84
Question 84
A. Established
Which of the following compounded sterile products should not be prepared in a horizontal laminar flow hood?
Correct
B. Probable
C. Possible "
A. Dopamine
D. Suspected
B. Nitroglycerin
E. Unlikely
C. Cisplatin !
D. TPN
D. Suspected

D. Suspected D. Antidote for paracetamol is N-acetylcysteine !

E. None of the above
Established – well-proven Probable – very likely Suspected – might occur
Possible – could occur, limited data

Unlikely – doubtful, no good evidence (safest) Your answer is correct.

Suspected Antidote for paracetamol is N-acetylcysteine
Question 92
92
Question 89
89 Question
Question
A pharmacist who administered the correct medicine at the correct time with the proper dose and correct route of Which of the following are manifestations of chemical incompatibility?
Incorrect Correct
administration to the correct patient demonstrates:
I. Photooxidation
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
II. Formation of gas
A. Pharmacotherapy
III. Formation of gel
B. Pharmacovigilance IV. Immiscibility
C. Rational Drug Therapy
D. Drug Information Provision A. I and II
E. Patient care " !

B. I, II and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
5 rights
- Right drug

- Right dose Your answer is correct.
- Right patient The correct answer is:

I, II and III
- Right route of administration
- Right frequency

Question 93
The mechanism of Dimercaprol as antidote for heavy metal poisoning is through:
Rational Drug Therapy
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Adsorption
B. Chelation
Question 90
Question 90
TRUE about extended-release products
Incorrect C. Precipitation

D. Oxidation
I. Should not be crushed when administered
II. Transit time interval is shorter for succeeding doses E. Neutralization "
III. Associated with dose dumping

IV. Bioavailability pro#le of ER formulations is typically considered less complicated than F pro#le of
immediate release formulations Your answer is incorrect.
Chelation
A. I and II "
B. II and III
Question 94
Question 94
C. I, and III A patient presented a prescription of penicillin and probenecid, which of the following e%ects of drug interaction
Incorrect
will be most likely to occur?
D. I, II, III and IV Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
Your answer is incorrect. A. Penicillin blocks the passive tubular secretion; decrease in probenecid half-life
“Dose dumping” refers to the rapid release of the entire dose or a signi#cant fraction thereof in a short period of B. Probenecid blocks the active tubular secretion; increase in penicillin half-life
time. The absorption pro#le of ER formulations is typically considerably more complicated than the
absorption pro#le of IR formulations. C. Probenecid blocks the passive tubular secretion of penicillin; increase in penicillin half-life "
D. Probenecid blocks the active tubular secretion; decrease in penicillin half-life

I, and III

Probenecid blocks the active tubular secretion; increase in penicillin half-life
Question 91
Question 91
Which of the following statements is true about paracetamol?
Correct

Question 95
Question 95
A. Acetaminophen is not safe for pregnant and lactating mothers The best term used for substances that absorb moisture from the atmosphere but does not dissolve in it.
Correct
B. Paracetamol is equal in potency with other NSAIDs in terms of its anti-inflammatory action Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
C. Acetaminophen is mainly metabolized via oxidation to N-acetylparabenzoquinone imine A. Hygroscopic !
D. Antidote for paracetamol is N-acetylcysteine ! B. Deliquescent

B. Deliquescent
Question 99
Question 99
C. E%lorescent Which of the following is INCORRECT about drug-food interaction?
Correct
D. A or C Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
A. Grapefruit juice alters metabolism of some drugs

B. Green leafy vegetables decrease the e%ect of warfarin
Hygroscopic !
C. Fats decrease gastric emptying time
D. Milk increases the gastric pH a%ecting absorption of certain drugs
Question 96
Question 96
Tuberculosis treatment involves use of two or more drugs. What is the interaction between these drugs? Your answer is correct.
Incorrect
Fats decrease gastric emptying time
A. Addition
B. Synergism
Question 100
Question 100
C. Potentiation Taking griseofulvin with high fa$y meal will most likely result to __________.
Incorrect
D. Antagonism "
A. increase in the absorption of griseofulvin

B. decrease the elimination of griseofulvin
Synergism
C. potentiates the side e%ects of griseofulvin
D. decrease in the absorption of Griseofulvin "
Question 97
Question 97
This term refers to an interaction between a drug that does not elicit a response on its own or has a di%erent e%ect Your answer is incorrect.
Correct
to a second drug which is enhancing?
increase in the absorption of griseofulvin
A. Antagonistic interaction
Question 101
101
B. Potentiation interaction ! Question
Which of the following factors will not directly cause a drug interaction?
C. Synergistic reaction Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Multiple pharmacologic e%ects of drugs

D. Addition interaction
B. Pharmacokinetic variability of a patient
Your answer is correct. C. Phamacoeconomic evaluation of drugs !
Potentiation: when one drug does not elicit a response on its own but enhances the response to another drug. It
D. A and B
is a term used to indicate the interaction between a drug which has no e%ect or has a di%erent e%ect to a
second drug which it is enhancing

The correct answer is: Phamacoeconomic evaluation of drugs
Potentiation interaction
Question 102
Question 102
Question 98
Question 98 Miconazole is a potent inhibitor of CYP2C9. What interaction would possibly happen with its topical preparation
Incorrect
In freeze drying a bacterial sample, the following are used to prevent forming crystals and another drug that is metabolized by CYP2C9?
Incorrect
I. Methanol Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

II. Dimethylsulfoxide
III. Glycerol
A. Plasma concentration of another drug will increase
B. A pharmacodynamic interaction will be expected

A. I "
C. No interaction is likely to happen since systemic absorption of miconazole from the topical preparation is so
B. I, II, III low
C. II, III D. Metabolism of another drug will decrease "
D. III
Your answer is incorrect. The correct answer is:

No interaction is likely to happen since systemic absorption of miconazole from the topical preparation is so low
Known as cryoprotectants, they prevent formation of ice crystals that damage cell membranes.
I, II, III
Question 103
Question 103
Remedy when a solid substance fails to dissolve in a liquid
Correct

Correct
contents.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Prepare an emulsion
B. Prepare a suspension ! The correct answer is:

IV
C. Addition of an inert ingredient
D. Dispense the ingredients separately
Question 107
Question 107
The following induces the metabolism of Warfarin, except:
Your answer is correct. Incorrect
The correct answer is: Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 "

A. Cruciferous vegetables
Prepare a suspension
B. Azithromycin
C. Carbamazepine
Question 104
Question 104
D. Cimetidine
What would be the mechanism of interaction when alcohol CNS depressant is taken with alcohol?
Incorrect

A. Pharmacodynamic interaction- Synergism "
Cimetidine
B. Pharmacodynamic interaction- Additive
C. Pharmacokinetic Interaction- Metabolism
D. Pharmacokinetic Interaction- Excretion Question 108

Question 108
What is the SIGNIFICANT interaction involving Orlistat and a fat-soluble vitamin?
Incorrect
Your answer is incorrect. Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

A. Decrease in the absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins
Pharmacodynamic interaction- Additive
B. Decrease in the absorption of orlistat
C. Increase in the absorption of orlistat "
Question 105
Question 105
D. Increase in the absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins
What is the interaction that occurs between Digoxin and diuretics that cause depletion of electrolytes?
Incorrect

A. Pharmacokinetic Interaction The correct answer is:
Decrease in the absorption of the fat-soluble vitamins
B. Pharmacodynamic interaction
C. Pharmaceutical Interaction
Question 109
109
D. b and c " Question
Which does not require a sterile environment?
Incorrect
Your answer is incorrect. Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

A. Ointment preparation
Pharmacodynamic interaction B. Irrigation
C. Infusion
D. AOTA "
Question 106
Question 106
Increased elimination is necessary during cases of IV overdose of acidic or basic drugs with high enterohepatic
Incorrect
recycling, what should be administered?
I. Administer NaHCO3 for bases The correct answer is:
II. Administer Ascorbic acid for acids Ointment preparation
III. Syrup of Ipecac
IV. Multiple dose Activated Charcoal

Question 110
Question 110
What happens when the patient, who is a chronic smoker, is taking a drug?
Correct
I. Increase in t1/2 of the drug
A. I, II II. Decrease in t1/2 of the drug
III. Induces the metabolism of the drug
B. I, II, III
C. IV
D. III, IV " A. I only
B. II and III !

C. III only
Activated charcoal e%ectively adsorbs bile acids thus it may prevent enterohepatic recycling.
D. I and III

I. NaHCO3 is basic + basic drug = unionized form (dominant) This results to reabsorption of the drug.
II. Same for acidic drugs Your answer is correct.

III. Syrup of ipecac is ine%ective since it would induce regurgitation of stomach contents and not intestinal Chronic smoking is included in the list of enzyme inducers. Therefore, it induces the metabolism of the drug and

Chronic smoking is included in the list of enzyme inducers. Therefore, it induces the metabolism of the drug and
due to its enhanced metabolism, the half-life of the drug decreases.
Some enzyme inducers include CROPGPSC
(Carbamazepine, Rifampicin, Omeprazole, Phenytoin, Griseofulvin, Phenobarbital, St. John’s wort, and Chronic
Question 114
Question 114
alcoholism) Which of the following antibiotics is not recommended to be refrigerated?
Incorrect
II and III Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
A. Erythromycin ethylsuccinate
B. Cefuroxime axetil
Question 111
Question 111
Drug A + enzyme inducer. What will happen to drug A?
C. Clarithromycin
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 D. AOTA "

A. Decrease metabolic activity
B. Prolonged half-life "

C. Increase e%icacy of inactive metabolite
D. Increase elimination Clarithromycin

Question 115
Question 115
In the administration of calcium chloride and phosphate intravenously, an interaction may result. Which of the
Increase elimination Incorrect
following can be done to properly administer these two?
Question 112
Question 112 A. Add calcium #rst, then other additives, add the phosphate last, thoroughly mix solution after addition.
Which of the following drug combinations demonstrate synergism?
Incorrect
B. Add calcium gluconate and potassium phosphate consecutively. Mix thoroughly until homogeneity is
I. Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 observed.
II. Levodopa + carbidopa
III. Sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim C. The agents are incompatible together, do not combine them but give them as separate infusion.
IV. Sulfadoxine + pyrimethamine D. NOTA "

A. I and II only
This is to prevent incompatibilities (such as precipitation) before and during administration; and so as not to
B. III and IV only administer separately into two di%erent routes (C) since it would be painful for the patient.

C. III only
Add calcium #rst, then other additives, add the phosphate last, thoroughly mix solution after addition.
D. IV only
E. All of the above "
Question 116
Question 116
One of the advantages of using topical aerosols include
Correct
III & IV Synergism (1 + 1 > 2) Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Forms a solid like mass upon standing but lique#es when subjected to agitation.
- Drugs can stand alone
B. Can be applied in a uniform thin layer but can irritate the a%ected area.
- Greater e%ect when combined
C. Ease of application of a uniformly thin layer of medication in a speci#c area. !
I & II Potentiation (1 + 0 = 2)
- One drug does not have e%ect if given alone D. Protection of heat is necessary otherwise bursting may occur; refrigeration may also cause problems.

III and IV only Your answer is correct.
Ease of application of a uniformly thin layer of medication in a speci#c area.
Question 113
Question 113
Concomitant use of oral contraceptive pills and antibiotic can result to?
Incorrect
Question 117
Question 117
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Bisacodyl, upon co-administration with an antacid, would result to what?
Incorrect
A. Decreased e%ect of the OCP and increase e%ect of the antibiotic "
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Bisacodyl is absorbed #rst in the small intestines before reaching the large intestines.
B. Decreased e%ect of the antibiotic and increase e%ect of the OCP

B. No e%ect in the absorption of Bisacodyl and increased absorption of antacid.
C. Increased e%ect of antibiotic with no e%ect on the OCP "

C. Increased absorption of both antacid and Bisacodyl.
No e%ect on the antibiotic with decreased e%ect of the OCP
D. Decreased absorption of both drugs in the small intestines.
D. No e%ect on the antibiotic with decreased e%ect of the OCP

Your answer is incorrect. Antacid causes the delayed-release bisacodyl tablets to release its contents in the stomach which will result to
Antibiotics can decrease the population of intestinal normal flora which are responsible for activating the bisacodyl being absorbed #rst in the small intestines prior to reaching the large intestines where it will
inactive form of the OCP excreted in the bile for reabsorption; thus, decreasing the e%ect of the OCP. supposedly produce its desired action.

No e%ect on the antibiotic with decreased e%ect of the OCP Bisacodyl is absorbed #rst in the small intestines before reaching the large intestines.


A. Glucuronidation and glycine conjugation "
B. Acetylation and nitro reduction

Question 118
Question 118
The vital signs include: C. Glucuronidation and nitro reduction
Incorrect
I. Pulse rate
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 D. Methylation and acetylation
II. Respiratory rate
III. Blood count E. Glycine conjugation and methylation
IV. Respiratory volume

A. I and II Glucuronidation and nitro reduction
B. III and IV
C. I and III
Question 122
Question 122
D. I, II, IV " Which of the following is NOT indicated for motion sickness?
Correct
E. III only Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Dimenhydrinate
B. Scopolamine
Vitals include C. Meclizine
- Pulse rate D. Memantine !
- Body temperature

- Respiratory rate
- Blood Pressure
- 5th vital sign: Pain
Memantine

I and II
Question 123
Question 123
Pregnancy category in which adverse e%ects have been demonstrated in animal studies, and there are no
Incorrect adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women:
Question 119
Granisetron is used to __________ A. Category A
Incorrect
B. Category B "
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Prevent alopecia "
C. Category C
B. Prevent nausea and vomiting caused by chemotherapy
D. Category D
C. Boost immune system
E. Category X
D. Enhance cytotoxic e%ect

C.
C. Category
Category C
C
Granisetron is a 5HT3 antagonist used to prevent nausea and vomiting caused by cancer chemotherapy and
radiation therapy.
The correct answer is: Category

Category Animals
Animals Humans
Humans
Prevent nausea and vomiting caused by chemotherapy
A Safe Safe
Safe No studies
B
Unsafe Safe
Question 120
Question 120 C Unsafe No studies
Aspirin should not be given to children who have chickenpox in order to prevent which of the following adverse
Correct e%ect? D

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 (Bene#ts
Unsafe Unsafe
outweigh risk)
A. Gray Baby Syndrome
X
B. Reye’s Syndrome !
(Bene#ts does not
Unsafe Unsafe
C. Down Syndrome outweigh risk)
D. Turner’s Syndrome
E. Kawasaki disease Category C

Question 124
A speci#c drug was previously categorized as a drug that has shown an adverse e%ect on fetus of pregnant
Reye’s Syndrome
Correct animals but has no well-controlled studies on pregnant women. Recent research, however, showed evidence of
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 risk on the fetus of pregnant women but its potential bene#ts outweigh potential risks in certain situations. What is
the new pregnancy category of the drug?
Question 121
Question 121
In the use of chloramphenicol, problems in what metabolic processes leads to Gray Baby Syndrome and aplastic A. Category B
Incorrect anemia?
B. Category C

A. Intramuscular
C. Category D !
B. IV bolus
D. Category X
C. IV infusion
D. B or C "
Category D
IV infusion
Question 125
Question 125
A woman was prescribed with captopril for her hypertension. Unfortunately, her doctor failed to know that she was
Incorrect
currently pregnant. This resulted to stillbirth. What medication error category was done?
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Question 129
Question 129
This anticoagulant drug acts by forming a complex with antithrombin III, which inactivates thrombin (factor IIa)
Correct and factor Xa.
A. Category A Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
A. Heparin !
B. Category C
" B. Warfarin
C. Category G
C. Aspirin
D. Category H
D. Ticlopidine
E. Category I

Warfarin: inhibiting the vitamin K dependent synthesis of clo$ing factors II, VII, IX and X (1972):
Category I Antiplatelet: ASA, Ticlopidine

Heparin
Question 126
Question 126
A nurse mistakenly administered an overdose of paracetamol IV to a hospitalized patient. The clinical pharmacist
Incorrect
detected the error, and the patient was immediately given acetylcysteine to prevent permanent liver damage. Question 130
Question 130
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 What medication error category was commi$ed? A patient undergoing heparin therapy should be monitored with:
Incorrect
A. Category A A. Activated partial thromboplastin time
B. Category F B. Prothrombin time "
C. Category G C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
D. Category H D. Complete Blood Count
E. Category D "
E. Simple Observation
Your answer is incorrect. Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is: Mnemonic: Hapi$ sa Pwet
Category F
Hapi$
Hapi$ – H
Heparin, ap$
ap$, iintrinsic pathway
Pwet
Pwet – Warfarin, PT
PT, eextrinsic pathway

Question 127
Question 127 Activated partial thromboplastin time
NYHA functional limitation class that indicates the degree of e%ort necessary to elicit HF symptoms that occurs at
Correct
rest.
Question 131
Question 131
Magnesium sulfate is an inorganic heptahydrate salt also known as Epsom salt. Which of the following is NOT a
A. Class I Incorrect
use of the said compound?
B. Class II
C. Class III
A. Anticonvulsant "
D. Class IV !
B. Antiarrhythmic
C. Antiasthma
The correct answer is: D. Antidiarrheal
Class IV

Question 128
Question 128 Antidiarrheal
Sodium nitroprusside’s recommended route/s of administration during hypertensive emergencies
Incorrect

Question 132
Question 132

Question 132
Question 132 Question 135
Question 135
Preferred route of NTG used in the treatment of angina a$acks Water-soluble vitamins
Incorrect Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 I. D-α-tocopherol
II. Pyridoxine
A. Oral "
III. Cevitamic acid
B. Transdermal IV. Ascorbic acid
V. Ergocalciferol
C. Sublingual
VI. Cyanocobalamin
D. Intravenous

A. II, IV, V, VI
C. Sublingual
* Fast onset of action. Convenient or ease of use B. II, III, IV, V, VI
IV has a faster onset of action but it would require someone with expertise to administer it
C. I, II, IV, V, VI "
Sublingual D. II, III, IV, VI

Question 133
Question 133 II- Vit B6 III, IV- Vit C VI- Vit B12
A person has the following arterial blood gas #ndings:
Correct Others: Thiamine (B1), Riboflavin (B2), Niacin (B3), Pantothenic acid (B5), Biotin(B7), Folic acid (B9)
Parameter Result Normal Values
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 I, V- Fat-soluble vitamins I-Vit E
Blood pH 7.03 7.35 – 7.45
V- Vit D2
pCO2 47 mmHg 35 – 45 mmHg
Others: Retinol (A), Cholecalciferol (D3), Phytonadione (K1), Menaquinone (K2), Menadione (K3)
HCO3- 25 mEq/L 22 – 26 mEq/L
The patient could be in what condition? II, III, IV, VI
A. Metabolic alkalosis
Question 136
Question 136
B. Metabolic acidosis Which of the following statements about electrolyte balance is NOT true?
Correct
I. Bicarbonate is the predominant extracellular anion
C. Respiratory alkalosis Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
II. Sodium is the predominant extracellular cation
D. Respiratory acidosis ! III. Magnesium is the second most predominant intracellular cation
IV. Phosphate is the predominant intracellular anion

Metabolic
Metabolic – alkalosis/acidosis is brought about by changes in HCO3- levels; pCO2 is normal

A. I only !
Respiratory
Respiratory – alkalosis/acidosis is brought about by changes in pCO2 levels; HCO3- is normal
The correct answer is: B. II only
Respiratory acidosis
C. I and III only
D. II and IV only
Question 134
Question 134 E. None of the above
Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding mebendazole?
Correct
I. It is a medication for ascariasis.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Your answer is correct.
II. It is poorly absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract
PISO – potassium inside, sodium outside MICO – magnesium inside, calcium outside PhiClo – phosphate inside,
III. It is administered parenterally
chloride outside SuliBio – sulfate inside, bicarbonate outside
Predominance Cations Anions

A. I
Most PISO PhiClo
B. I and II !
Second most MICO SuliBio
C. I and III
D. II and III I only
Anthelmintic medications (drugs that remove parasitic worms from the body), such as albendazole and Question 137
Question 137
mebendazole, are the drugs of choice for treatment of Ascaris infections, regardless of the species of worm. Varenicline is used for _______
Infections are generally treated for 1–3 days. The drugs are e%ective and appear to have few side e%ects. Like Correct
albendazole, mebendazole is poorly soluble, poorly absorbed, and undergoes extensive #rst-pass metabolism Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. alcohol addiction
in the liver. However, it is even less well absorbed than albendazole, with a bioavailability of only 1% to 2% after
administration of a single oral dose. B. smoking cessation therapy !

I and II C. motion sickness
D. opioid overdose
Question 135
Question 135
Primary – journals
Secondary – abstracts, indices which archive 1o, literature review articles
Varenicline is used along with education and counseling to help people stop smoking. It is also used for the
treatment of dry eye disease. The most common side-e%ects include nausea, insomnia, abnormal dreams, Tertiary – summarize 1o and 2o: textbooks
headache and nasopharyngitis.

The correct answer is: I
smoking cessation therapy
Question 141
Question 141
Augmented reaction with the use of phenothiazines
Question 138
Question 138
Which of the following drugs can cause dry mouth? Correct
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Mo$ling of the teeth
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Atropine
B. Anaphylactic shock
B. Ipratropium
C. Extrapyramidal symptoms !
C. Tiotropium
D. Delirium tremens
D. All of the above !

Your answer is correct. Phenothiazine antipsychotics block D2 - receptors that can lead to the CNS AE called EPS, characterized by
The correct answer is: pseudoparkinsonism, dyskinesia and akathisia.
All of the above The correct answer is:
Extrapyramidal symptoms
Question 139
Question 139
Carcinogenicity is under what type of ADR?
Correct Question 142
Question 142
Which of the following pairs of drugs and teratogenic e%ects is/are correctly matched?
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Correct
A. Type A
I. Methimazole: Aplasia cutis
B. Type B II. Valproic acid: renal dysgenesis
III. ACEI & ARBs: neural tube defect

C. Type C
IV. Phenytoin: Ebstein’s Anomaly
D. Type D !
E. Type E
A. I only !
B. I and II only
Type
Type A:
A: Augmented/dose-dependent
Augmented/dose-dependent C. III and IV only
- H1 blockers: sedation
D. I and III only
Type
Type B:
B: hypersensitivity,
hypersensitivity, idiosyncrasy
idiosyncrasy
- Sulfonamide: SJS E. IV only
Type
Type C:
C: Continuous
Continuous
- Cardiotoxicity by Doxorubicin (BEQ) Your answer is correct.
Type
Type D:
D: Delayed
Delayed Teratogenic e%ects:
- Teratogenicity, Carcinogenicity
Type
Type E:
E: End
End of
of Use
Use Methimazole – aplasia cutis Valproic acid – neural tube defect ACEI & ARBs – renal dysgenesis
- Opioids: Withdrawal Phenytoin – Fetal Hydantoin Syndrome Warfarin – Fetal Warfarin Syndrome Thalidomide – Phocomelia
Isotretinoin – heart & brain anomalies

Type D I only
Question 140
140 Question 143
143
Question
Question
Which of the following pairing is CORRECT? Ampalaya supplements may cause additive interaction with _________.
Incorrect Correct

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
I. Primary literature: Journal articles
II. Secondary literature: Textbooks A. Lipid-lowering drugs
III. Tertiary literature: Abstracts
B. Antidiabetic drugs !
C. Anti-gout drugs
A. I
D. Antihypertensive drugs
B. II
C. II and III Your answer is correct.
" Ampalaya plus is a herbal food supplement that helps lower the blood sugar level of the body.
D. I, II and III

Your answer is incorrect. Antidiabetic drugs
Primary – journals

IV. Cell
Cell-mediated: Tuberculin skin test, Contact dermatitis

Question 144
Question 144 Cell-mediated reactions
Kernicterus is a bilirubin-induced brain dysfunction in babies. It is caused by an uncontrollable increase of bilirubin
Correct levels in the blood which then can cross the BBB. Which of the following anti-infectives is found out to be
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 associated with kernicterus?
Question 148
Question 148
A. Sulfonamides !
A derivative of the hormone produced by kidneys in response to hypoxia which is commonly abused by athletes:
Correct
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Penicillin
A. Filgrastim
D. Macrolides
B. Erythropoietin
C. Epoetin alfa !
The correct answer is: D. Humalog

Sulfonamides

Question 145
Question 145 Epoetin alfa
Methacholine, a direct-acting parasympathomimetic, is used in provocative challenge test for BA diagnosis.
Incorrect Which of the following is also a diagnostic test for BA?
Question 149
149
A. Tensilon test " Question
Which of the following drugs are most likely to be subjected with Therapeutic Drug Monitoring?
B. Spirometry test Correct
I. Phenytoin
C. Treadmill test II. Gentamicin
III. Warfarin
D. Breath test
IV. Carbamazepine

Spirometry test
A. I and II
B. II, III and IV
Question 146
Question 146 C. I, II and III
In HIV-AIDS, are markedly decreased.
Incorrect D. I, II, III and IV !
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. CD4 or cytotoxic T-cells
B. CD4 or helper T-cells Your answer is correct.

C. CD8 or helper T-cells I, II, III and IV
D. CD8 or cytotoxic T-cells "
E. Natural Killer Cells

Question 150
Question 150
Which of the following is the indication of Drug LMH?
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. CHF treatment
CD4 or helper T-cells
B. DVT treatment
C. AMI treatment
D. BPH treatment "

Question 147
Question 147
Poison Ivy contains urushiol which causes contact dermatitis. This type of allergic reaction is classi#ed under:
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Your answer is incorrect.

A. Anaphylactic reactions
DVT treatment
B. Cytotoxic reactions
C. Immune-complex mediated reactions

Question 151
Question 151
D. Cell-mediated reactions !
Patient A, a 48-year-old female weighing 55 kg and with a body surface area of 1.73 m2, has a GFR of 40 mL/min.
Incorrect
Which of the following biomarkers is most likely to be characteristic of the patient’s disease state?
I. High creatinine clearance
II. High serum creatinine
(Si Ana
Ana at si Toto
Toto ay may Complex
Complex relationship kaya sa Cell
Cellphone sila naguusap)
III. Elevated Cystatin C levels

IV. Moderately decreased GFR
I. Ana
Anaphylaxis
II. Cytoto
toto
totoxic: blood dyscrasias
III. Immune-complex
complex mediated: serum sickness (HIPS)
A. I, II
IV. Cell
Cell-mediated: Tuberculin skin test, Contact dermatitis

Question 154
Question 154
B. I, III, IV
What function test is used to monitor a patient who is taking rosuvastatin?
Incorrect
C. II, III "
D. II, III, IV
A. Liver function test
B. Kidney function test

According to the NKF KDOQI Guidelines, for a patient whose BSA is 1.73 m2, CKD is staged as follows: C. Cardiac function test
D. Blood pressure "

Liver function test
Question 155
Question 155
A patient was diagnosed with terminal cancer. Which of the following is considered to be an appropriate palliative
Incorrect
care for the patient?
The patient has a GFR of 40mL/min, thus, he is in Stage 3, characterized by a moderate decrease in GFR.

A. Administration of anti-cancer agents "
Kidney Disease is also characterized by low creatinine clearance which leads to high serum creatinine. A
method of estimating GFR is through a simple blood test for the protein, Cystatin C whose elevation may give B. Administration of narcotic analgesic such as morphine.
an indication of an impaired kidney function.
The correct answer is: C. Immunotherapy
II, III, IV
D. Radiation therapy

Question 152
Question 152
An 85-year old female weighing 100 lb has a serum creatinine of 65 mg/dL. Compute for the creatinine clearance Palliative care is any treatment that focuses on treating symptoms (including pain through giving pain relievers
Incorrect such as morphine, nausea, breathlessness, insomnia, and other physical issues caused by cancer or its
of this patient.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 treatment), improving quality of life and supporting patients and their families.
0.45
Administration of narcotic analgesic such as morphine.
A. 0.45
B. 0.25
C. 0.35 " Question 156

Question 156
An increased in aspartate transferase serum level is an indication of _______.
Correct
D. 0.30
Your answer is incorrect. A. Rheumatoid arthritis
The correct answer is: B. Hepatitis !

0.45
C. Gout
D. Chronic kidney disease
Question 153
Question 153
Pulmonary function can be determined by ________.
Incorrect Your answer is correct.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. ECG The correct answer is:
Hepatitis
B. Peak flow measurement
C. Angiogram "
Question 157
Question 157
D. 2D Echo test
Which of the following medicines can lower cholesterol levels?
Correct
I. Statins
Your answer is incorrect. II. Feno#brate
Peak flow measurement is a quick test to measure air flowing out of the lungs. The measurement is also called III. Cholestyramine
the peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) or the peak expiratory flow (PEF). Peak flow measurement is mostly done
by people who have asthma.

A. I
An angiogram is an X-ray procedure that can be both diagnostic and therapeutic. It is considered the gold
standard for evaluating blockages in the arterial system. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is one of the simplest B. I and III
and fastest tests used to evaluate the heart. 2D echocardiography, also known as 2D echo, is a non-invasive
investigation used to evaluate the functioning and assess the sections of your heart. C. I and II
D. !
I, II and III
Peak flow measurement
Question 154
Question 154 Statins lower cholesterol by inhibiting de novo synthesis. Feno#brate primarily lowers TG but can also lower
Statins lower cholesterol by inhibiting de novo synthesis. Feno#brate primarily lowers TG but can also lower
A small drop of blood is taken from the heel of a newborn and applied to a card (Guthrie’s card). A punch-out
cholesterol by 9-13%. Cholestyramine (bile acid binding resins) can also lower cholesterol levels by stimulating
of the dried disc is incubated on a petri dish plated with bacteria (Bacillus subtilis) in the presence of a growth
conversion of cholesterol into bile acids.
inhibitor, B-2-thienyl-alanine. High levels of Phe in the blood sample overcome the inhibition and allow the
bacteria to grow. If an elevated level of Phe is detected, the child is placed on a phenylalanine-restricted diet
The correct answer is: for the #rst several years (< 10 years).
I, II and III The correct answer is:
Guthrie’s test
Question 158
Question 158
A construction worker should not be given which of the following drug for allergy:
Question 161
Question 161
Correct
Newborn Screening is a simple procedure to #nd out if a baby has a congenital metabolic disorder which may lead
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Correct
A. Loratadine to mental retardation or death if left untreated. Which is NOT included in the newborn screening test?
B. Cetirizine
C. Fexofenadine A. Congenital hypothyroidism
D. Diphenhydramine !
B. Phenylketonuria
E. Levocetirizine C. Maple Syrup Urine Disease
D. None of the above !
1st gen antihistamine: more lipophilic enters CNS 2nd gen antihistamine: less lipophilic
-Piperazine (less): Cetirizine, Levocetirizine
Also, G6PD de#ciency, galactosemia, and congenital adrenal hyperplasia
-Piperidine (true): Fexofenadine, Loratadine
The correct answer is: None of the above
Diphenhydramine
Question 162
Question 162
Question 159
Question 159 Methenamine is used as a urinary tract antiseptic. It is hydrolyzed into which compound to provide its antibacterial
Which of the following is the best drug for a patient with pneumonia whose sputum culture is positive for a Incorrect
Incorrect e%ect in the urinary tract?
staphylococcal strain and also beta-lactamase-positive? Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
A. Formaldehyde
A. Ampicillin
B. Ammonia
B. Piperacillin
C. Ethylene
C. Penicilin G "
D. A & B "
D. Oxacillin

Methenamine is a urinary tract antiseptic that is hydrolyzed into ammonia and formaldehyde. It is
formaldehyde that is responsible for methenamine’s antibacterial e%ect in the urinary tract.
Formaldehyde
Question 163
Question 163
The symptoms of BPH are caused by
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Pressure exerted by the prostate gland on urethra
B. Relaxation of bladder muscle
C. Shrinkage of the prostate gland
The correct answer is: D. Relaxation of the prostate gland muscles "
Oxacillin

Question 160
Question 160 Pressure exerted by the prostate gland on urethra
A routine blood test carried out on babies a few days after birth to detect the condition PKU
Incorrect
A. Mantoux test Question 164

Question 164
Which of the following laboratory tests would be helpful in the diagnosis of myocardial infarction?
Correct
B. Coomb’s test
I. Albumin
C. Guthrie’s test II. Creatine kinase
III. Troponin I
D. NOTA "
IV. Hematocrit



Biomarkers of:
A. I only AST- liver/heart problem
LDH 1 & 2- heart problem
B. II only
LDH 5- liver, skeletal muscles
C. II and III !
Troponin I
D. IV only
E. I, II, III
Question 168
Question 168
Which of the following is used as a prophylaxis against tuberculosis?
Incorrect
Hematocrit – indicator of anemia Albumin – indicator of liver disease
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. INH

CK-MB and Troponin I – not normally found in blood; found in cardiac muscle (when damaged (MI), leaks to B. Rifampicin
blood)
C. BCG !
II and III
D. Ethambutol

Question 165
Question 165
Hematocrit measures The correct answer is:
Correct BCG
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. total number of blood cells per volume of blood
B. number of red blood cells per volume of blood "

Question 169
Question 169
C. percentage of red blood cells per volume of blood A patient was brought to the hospital due to hypertensive crisis. It was found that the patient had eaten fermented
Incorrect
cheese a few hours earlier. The intake of what other substance could have triggered the adverse event:
D. weight of Hgb per volume of blood – mean corpuscular Hgb concentration (MCHC) Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
A. Warfarin "
C. percentage of red blood cells per volume of blood
B. Aspirin

C. Isocarboxazid
Also,
MCV (mean corpuscular volume) – average volume of an RBC (shows whether it is normo, micro, or D. Digoxin
macrocytic)
E. Paracetamol
MCH (mean corpuscular hemoglobin) – weight of Hgb per RBC (not a volume of RBC)
percentage of red blood cells per volume of blood
Tyramine-rich foods + MAO Inhibitors Hypertensive crisis MAO Inhibitors: (MPITS)
- Moclobemide
Question 166
Question 166 - Phenelzine
Which of the following drugs prevent enzymatic inactivation of incretin hormones (GP1 and GIP) by acting as
Incorrect - Isocarboxazid
competitive reversible inhibitor of DPP-4?
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 - Tranylcypromine
A. Pramlintide - Selegiline
B. Exenatide "
C. Sitagliptin Isocarboxazid
D. Rosiglitazone
E. This choice was deleted after the a$empt was started.

Question 170
Question 170
This reaction is mediated by immunological mechanisms and is not expected to result from a known
Correct
pharmacologic response.
Pramlintide
A. Augmented reaction
B. Hypersensitivity reaction
Question 167
Question 167 "
C. Withdrawal reaction
Which of the following biomarkers is considered as the “gold standard” for the diagnosis of myocardial infarction?
Correct
D. Pharmacodynamic interaction
A. Troponin I
B. AST Your answer is correct.
C. LDH 1 & 2 " The correct answer is:

Hypersensitivity reaction
D. LDH 5
Your answer is correct. Question 171

Question 171

Question 171
This is a PGF2α analog which is indicated for the reduction of intraocular pressure
Correct
A. Cromolyn Na
B. Albuterol
A. Misoprostol
C. Ipratropium "
B. Alprostadil "
D. Prednisone
C. Dinoprostone
D. Epoprostenol Your answer is incorrect.

Albuterol
Latanoprost
Question 176
Question 176
Which of the following are controllers?
Incorrect
Question 172
Question 172 Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. tiotropium
This H1 antagonist has an additional anti-serotonergic e%ect and is thus e%ective in managing serotonin
Incorrect
syndrome B. albuterol
C. prednisone
A. Betahistine " D. 2otA
E. AotA "
B. Cetirizine
C. Cyproheptadine
D. Hydroxyzine
E. Meclizine 2otA

Question 177
Cyproheptadine A patient with CHF has been given enalapril as base treatment. Overall, the patient has a good clinical outcome
Incorrect
except that the patient complained of intolerable dry cough. What would be the best alternative for this patient?

Question 173
Question 173
Which of the following is NOT an example of "extrapyramidal symptoms" caused by antipsychotics?
Incorrect A. Captopril

A. Anuria B. Digoxin
B. Akathesia C. Losartan
C. Akinesia D. Inamrinone "
D. Dystonia "

Losartan

Anuria
Question 178
Question 178
Which of the following is NOT a diuretic?
Correct

Question 174
Question 174
DOC for Chronic Stable Angina Pectoris:
Correct A. Acetazolamide

A. CCB " B. Spironolactone
C. Desmopressin !
B. BB
C. NTG D. Mannitol
D. Digoxin

Your answer is correct. Desmopressin
BB
Question 179
Question 179
Which of the following is needed to produce a positive inotropic e%ect?
Incorrect
Question 175
Question 175
Which of the following is the 1st line treatment in intermi$ent asthma? Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Lanoxin

A. Lanoxin
B. Isproterenol Question 183

Question 183
Which of the following are administered via the inhalational route?
Incorrect
C. Plavix

D. Actilyse " I. Terbutaline
II. Theophylline
III. Betamethasone
IV. Montelukast
Lanoxin
A. I and II
B. I, II, IV
Question 180
Question 180
Which of the following refers to the result of the exposure to a disease organism triggering the immune system to
Correct C. I, II, III, IV
produce antibodies to that disease?
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 "
D. II, III, IV
A. Active immunity !
B. Passive immunity The correct answer is:
I, II, III, IV
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A nor B
Question 184
Question 184
What characteristic of dopamine is an important advantage in its use in cardiogenic shock?
Your answer is correct. Incorrect
Active Immunity results when exposure to a disease organism triggers the immune system to produce Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
antibodies to that disease. Active immunity can be acquired through natural immunity or vaccine-induced
immunity. Natural immunity is acquired from exposure to the disease organism through infection with the A.
Produces dose-dependent increases in cardiac output and renal perfusion
actual disease.Vaccine-induced immunity is acquired through the introduction of a killed or weakened form of
the disease organism through vaccination. "
B. Does not increase blood pressure
Passive immunity is provided when a person is given antibodies to a disease rather than producing them
through his or her own immune system. C. Does not cross the blood-brain barrier and cause CNS e%ects

D. Has no e%ects on alpha and beta receptors
Active immunity

Question 181
Question 181
Produces dose-dependent increases in cardiac output and renal perfusion
What consequence is observed if Aldactone® is used simultaneously with an angiotensin converting enzyme
Incorrect
inhibitor?
Question 185
Question 185
A. Angioedema It refers to a process of reviewing several clinical papers concerning the bene#ts of a new formulary drug and is
Correct
preparing a summary comparing the #ndings for publication.
B. Dry cough "

C. Hyperkalemia
D. Renal disease
A. Dimensional analysis
B. Double blind study

C. Meta-analysis !
Aldactone = Spironolactone (K+ sparing diuretic) ACEI+Aldactone = reduced renal elimination of K+
D. Peer review
Hyperkalemia

Question 182
Question 182
Mannitol, when administered orally, is classi#ed as a/an? Meta-analysis
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Osmotic diuretic "
B. Analgesic Question 186

Question 186
Cardinal signs of inflammation, except:
Correct
C. Cathartic
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Rubor
D. Sedative
B. Cador !
E. Stimulant
C. Dolor
Your answer is incorrect. D. Tumor

E. Function laesa
Cathartic

Least nephrotoxic: Streptomycin Relative ototoxicity:

- Streptomycin = Kanamycin > Amikacin > Gentamycin
Question 190
Question 190
The correct answer is: What part the prescription can the pharmacist reads the medications prescribed?
Cador Correct
A. Superscription
Question 187
Question 187
B. Inscription !
Which among the following aminoglycosides is the most nephrotoxic?
Correct
C. Subscription
D. D. Signa
A.
Streptomycin

B. Kanamycin
! Inscription
C. Neomycin
D. Amikacin
E. Tobramycin
Question 191
Question 191
Characterized by low protein intake with adequate calorie intake
Correct
Your answer is correct. Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Neomycin A. Marasmus
B. Rickets
C. Beri-beri
Question 188
Question 188
D. Kwashiorkor !
Which of the following type of study is most appropriate when determining the relationship between a newly
Correct
approved formulary drug and ulcer if the record of patients diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease versus controls
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 over the period from June 2011 – June 2021 was used?
Kwashiorkor
A. Retrospective !
B. Prospective
Question 192
Question 192
A more exact value of less than 200 mg/dL is desirable when measuring a patient's level of
C. Cohort
Incorrect
D. Randomized trial Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. total cholesterol
B. TAG
C. HDL
Retrospective is a study that compares two groups of people: those with the disease or condition under study
(cases) and a very similar group of people who do not have the disease or condition (controls). A prospective D. chylomicrons "
study (sometimes called a prospective cohort study) is a type of cohort study, or group study, where
participants are enrolled into the study before they develop the disease or outcome in question. E. LDL

Retrospective
total cholesterol
Question 189
Question 189
A patient complains of burning pain in his stomach between meals, bloating, nausea, and vomiting. Upon
Correct
diagnosis, it was con#rmed that he is su%ering from peptic ulcer disease. The doctor plans to give Prilosec®.as one Question 193
Question 193
Indicative of rapid GI transit and malabsorption syndrome
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 of his medicines. However, he found out that the patient is taking Zocor® as his maintenance drug. What could
Correct
possibly be the e%ect of co- administration of these 2 drugs?
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. black stool
B. gray stool
A. Hyperglycemia
C. hard stool
B. Rhabdomyolysis !
D. watery stool !
C. Hypertension
D. Bleeding
watery stool
B. Rhabdomyolysis - Omeprazole (Prilosec®) is an enzyme inhibitor that may increase the amount of
simvastatin (Zocor®) present in the blood thus may also increase the side e%ects of statins, one of which is
rhabdomyolysis.
Question 194
Question 194
The correct answer is: In a patient who has had documented gouty arthritis and hyperuricemia and who also has HPN, a preferred
Rhabdomyolysis Incorrect
antihypertensive agent would be

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 D. Gonadotropin releasing hormone
A. HCTZ
B. Losartan The correct answer is:

Human chorionic gonadotropin
C. Clonidine "
D. Lisinopril
Question 198
Question 198
What study design is most appropriate in determining the e%icacy of the drug?
Your answer is incorrect. Incorrect
ARBs: increase urinary uric acid secretion lower serum uric acid level Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
HCTZ: decreases urinary uric acid excretion must be used is caution in gouty px, if at all
A. Retrospective
Other drugs have no e%ect on serum uric acid
The correct answer is: B. Case-control study

Losartan
C. Cohort study "
D. Randomized controlled trial
Question 195
Question 195
For numbers 195-196:
Correct Your answer is incorrect.
A patient with hypertension presents the following prescription to the pharmacist:
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The correct answer is:
Randomized controlled trial
Rx
Amlodipine 50 mg #30
Idoxuridine 0.1% #1
Question 199
Question 199
In conducting clinical trials, the following are true statements:
Incorrect
What class of antihypertensive agents does the prescribed antihypertensive drug belong?
I. Children and elderly can become subjects of the study
II. SAE or Serious Adverse Events can occur and should be reported
III. Blinded study uses placebo for comparison

A. Calcium channel blockers !
B. Beta blockers
A. I and II
C. ACE inhibitors
B. II and III "
D. Angiotensin II reuptake inhibitors
C. I and III
E. Diuretics
D. I, II and III
The correct answer is: Your answer is incorrect.

Calcium channel blockers The correct answer is:
I, II and III
Question 196
Question 196
Aside from hypertension, what is the other condition of the patient? Question 200
Question 200
Correct
Healthy human volunteers are usually involved in _______
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Incorrect

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Bacterial infection
A. Phase 1 clinical trial
C. Hemorrhage
B. Phase 2 clinical trial "
D. Hypothyroidism
C. Phase 3 clinical trial
E. Viral infection !
D. Phase 4 clinical trial

Viral infection The correct answer is:
Phase 1 clinical trial
Question 197
Question 197
Which of the following hormone is detected in the urine of pregnant woman?
Correct
Previous Activity Jump to... Next Activity
A. Menotropins
B. Urofollitropins
C. Human chorionic gonadotropin !
D. Gonadotropin releasing hormone

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MODULE 3: Attempt review 10/19/22, 12:03 AM MODULE 3: Attempt review 10/19/22, 12:03 AM

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is:

PREBOARDS ( CLICK HERE )

FINAL COACHING ( NOVEMBER 2022 ) Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Dashboard / Courses / FINAL COACHING ( NOVEMBER 2022 ) / EXAM / MODULE 3 A. gram/liter

Your answer is correct.

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. 1450 !

Your answer is correct. Your answer is correct.

B. 75 pptabs " Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. 0.0025 mg/mL

C. 100 pptabs B. 0.025 mg/mL

D. 125 pptabs C. 0.25 mg/mL !

https://www.lms.manorreviewcenter.ph/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=180968&cmid=1971&showall=1 Page 1 of 56 https://www.lms.manorreviewcenter.ph/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=180968&cmid=1971&showall=1 Page 2 of 56

Your answer is correct. D. 2 mL

The correct answer is:

Your answer is incorrect. C. 2.8 mL

Your answer is incorrect.

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. 1:800

0.9g /100mL × 100mL = 0.9g NaCl – 0.8g NaCl = 0.1 g ~ 100mg

Your answer is correct.

Your answer is correct.

Your answer is correct.

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C. 0.35 to 0.50 mEq/L

Your answer is correct.

13.65% = 13.65 mg/100 mL x 1000 mL/1L = 136.5 mg/L

19.5mg% = 19.5mg/100 mL x 1000 mL/1L = 195 mg/L

The correct answer is:

The correct answer is: C. 307 mg

Your answer is correct.

Your answer is correct. Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. 23 mEq

= (1000 + 900 + 1620)/ (800mL + 900mL + 2000mL) D. 38 mEq

The correct answer is:

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is: Question 27

Your answer is incorrect.

8.6 (12.3 – 15.6 abs val) = 3.3 parts span 20

" Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

The correct answer is:

The correct answer is:

B. subtracting expenses from gross pro#t

Your answer is incorrect.

Your answer is correct.

C. Unit dose drug delivery system !

D. Combined delivery system

B. 22 doses The correct answer is:

IV. Relative humidity

D. I, II, III and IV

The correct answer is: The correct answer is:

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A. no longer than 7 days

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is:

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Question 44

Your answer is correct. E. Flanax 275 mg

The correct answer is:

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