FC-MODULE 5: Attempt Review

MODULE 5: Attempt review 10/19/22, 11:52 PM MODULE 5: Attempt review 10/19/22, 11:52 PM
Which statements BEST describe the local e"ects of drugs?

Incorrect
I. Local e"ects are felt in the general area of administration.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
II. A drug can have both local and systemic e"ects on the body regardless of the method and
route of administration.
DRILLS ( CLICK HERE )
III. The main route for local e"ect is topical.
COMPRE ( CLICK HERE )
IV. Drugs intended for local e"ect must enter the bloodstream.
PREBOARDS ( CLICK HERE )
FINAL COACHING ( CLICK HERE )

A. II, III
FINAL COACHING ( NOVEMBER 2022 ) B. II, III, IV
Dashboard / Courses / FINAL COACHING ( NOVEMBER 2022 ) / EXAM / MODULE 5 C. I, II, III "
D. I, III
Started on Tuesday, 18 October 2022, 12:16 PM

Your answer is incorrect.
D. I, III
State Finished
II. The method and route of administration may influence the e"ect of a drug on the body.
IV. Drugs intended for local e"ect does not need to enter the bloodstream.
Completed on Tuesday, 18 October 2022, 2:54 PM
The correct answer is:

Time taken 2 hours 37 mins I, III
Grade 126.00 out of 200.00 (63

63%)
Question 4
Question 1 Which drugs have a systemic e"ect?
Correct
Identify cosmetics which are regulated as drugs. I. Povidone-iodine topical solution
Correct
II. Fentanyl Patch
III. Nicotine Patch
A.
Hair colors, toothpastes IV. Salmeterol Inhalation
A. III, IV
B. Skin moisturizers, perfumes, nail polishes
B. I, III, II, III, IV
C. Shampoos, lipsticks
! C. I, II
D. Mouthwashes, antiperspirants, diaper ointments, lip balms
D. II, III, IV !
Your answer is correct.

D. Mouthwashes, antiperspirants, diaper ointments, lip balms Your answer is correct.
D. II, III, IV
Mouthwash – Bactidol® (Hexetidine) Drugs formulated as patches and inhalational delivery systems are intended to exert systemic
e"ects.
Antiperspirant – Driclor® (Aluminum Chloride Hexahydrate)
I. Antibacterial topical solution
Diaper ointments – Desitin® (Zinc Oxide), Drapolene® (Benzalkonium Cl + Cetrimide)
II. Opioid analgesic for chronic pain
Mouthwashes, antiperspirants, diaper ointments, lip balms III. For smoking cessation
IV. For prevention of asthma

Question 2
Identify the use of Potassium Diformate in veterinary medicine. II, III, IV
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Antiparasitic
B. Strong antimicrobial ! Question 5

How is a powder composed of particles that all pass through a No. 80 sieve classi#ed?
Correct
C. Anti-acidic agent
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Coarse powder
D. Sedative
B. Fine powder
Your answer is correct. C. Very #ne powder !
B. Strong antimicrobial
D. Very coarse powder
Potassium diformate contains the active ingredients free formic acid as well as formate has
the strong anti microbial e"ect in stomach and also in duodenum.
The correct answer is: Your answer is correct.
Strong antimicrobial C. Very #ne powder
Very Coarse – pass through Sieve No. 8
Coarse – pass through Sieve No. 20
Question 3 Moderately Coarse – pass through Sieve No. 40

Which statements BEST describe the local e"ects of drugs? Fine – pass through Sieve No. 60
https://www.lms.manorreviewcenter.ph/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=187482&cmid=1973&showall=1 Page 1 of 62 https://www.lms.manorreviewcenter.ph/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=187482&cmid=1973&showall=1 Page 2 of 62
Fine – pass through Sieve No. 60 Your answer is incorrect.

Active ingredient, diluent or #ller, binder, disintegrant, lubricant
Very #ne powder
Question 10
Classify tablets that are prepared by compressing granular materials that have the capacity to
Question 6 Correct release gas when in contact with water
Analyze which method of preparing powders may be employed both to comminute and mix the
Correct ingredients; for comminution purposes, a porcelain or Wedgewood mortar with a rough inner Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 surface is preferred; and for chemicals that may stain the porcelain or Wedgewood surface, a A. Buccal tablets
glass mortar is preferred.
B. E"ervescent tablets !
A. Mechanical mixing C. Enteric-coated tablets
B. Sifting D. Multiple-compressed tablets
C. Trituration !
D. Tumbling Your answer is correct.

E"ervescent tablets
Trituration
Question 11
Opacifying agent used in the preparation of hard gelatin capsules
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Zinc oxide

Question 7
Identify the method of preparing powders that consists of enclosing the powder in a large
Correct container, which rotates and mixes the powder ingredients. B. Titanium dioxide !

C. Sulfur dioxide
A. Sifting
D. Silicon dioxide
B. Tumbling !
C. Trituration
D. Mechanical mixing The correct answer is:
Titanium dioxide

Tumbling Question 12
Evaluate which statements are correct regarding hard and soft gelatin capsules.
Incorrect
I. Aside from gelatin, two-piece capsules may also be prepared from HPMC and starches.
II. If stored in an environment of high humidity, hard gelatin capsules may become distorted
Question 8 and lose their rigid shape.
The following are the advantages of granules over powders, EXCEPT
Correct III. Soft gelatin capsules are made of gelatin to which glycerin or sorbitol has been added.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Be$er flow property IV. Soft gelatin capsules are used to encapsulate and hermetically seal non-aqueous liquids.
B. Not easily we$ed by liquids !

A. I, III
C. More stable to humidity "

B. II, IV
D. less tendency to cake or harden

C. I, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
B. Not easily we$ed by liquids

Granules are more easily we$ed by liquids due to smaller surface area.
I, II, III, IV
Not easily we$ed by liquids
Question 9 Question 13
Analyze which drug delivery system achieves slow release of drug over an extended period of
Analyze and select the basic product formulation for a tablet.
Incorrect time.
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Active ingredient, diluent, lubricant
A. Site-speci#c release
B. Active ingredient, solvent, emulsi#er, lubricant
B. Delayed release "
C. Active ingredient, solubilizing agent, binder, disintegrant, #ller "

C. Receptor release
D. Active ingredient, diluent or #ller, binder, disintegrant, lubricant
D. Sustained release

It should dissolve in rectal fluids to allow the release of the API

D. Sustained release Remains stable in rectal fluids
Used interchangeably with extended release, timed release, long acting, and sustained action.

Targeted-release (A/C)- drug release is directed toward isolating or concentrating a drug in a
body region, tissue, or site for absorption or for drug action Question 17
Find the incorrect statement about Theobroma Oil.
Delayed-release (B) – designed to release the drug at a time other than prompt Incorrect
administration
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. It is a naturally occurring alkaloid.
Sustained release B. The alpha form is metastable with a melting point below 30 °C.
C. The beta crystal is its stable form with a melting point approaching 35 °C. "
D. It requires a fusion temperature of 40-50 °C to prevent a change in crystal form and melting
Question 14 point.
Select the delivery system, which does NOT produce or maintain uniform drug blood levels within
Incorrect the therapeutic range, but is more e"ective for patient compliance than conventional dosage
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 forms.
A. It is a naturally occurring alkaloid.
A. Site-speci#c relase
Theobroma Oil or Cocoa Bu$er is a natural fat from the roasted seeds of Theobroma cacao
B. Receptor release
C. Sustained release " The correct answer is:

It is a naturally occurring alkaloid.
D. Delayed release

Question 18
The correct answer is: Find the incorrect statement about Oleaginous Ointment Bases.
Correct
Delayed release
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. They include #xed oils of vegetable origin, fats from animals and semisolid HC obtained from
petroleum.
B. Oleaginous ointment bases are excellent emollients.

Question 15
Evaluate which statement is correct regarding rectal administration of drugs.
Incorrect C. Vegetable oils and animal fats have a lower water-absorbing capacity.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. The primary advantage of using rectal route is that it completely avoids the #rst-pass " !
D. Vegetable oils raise the melting point of ointments.
e"ect.
B. The downside of rectal administration includes the stigma of violating the patient’s dignity.
C. Adult rectal suppositories weigh about 5 g when cocoa bu$er is employed as the base. D. Vegetable oils raise the melting point of ointments.

D. Rectal suppositories for use by infants and children are about twice the weight and size of the
adult suppositories. Vegetable oils are used chiefly in ointments to lower the melting point or to soften bases.

Your answer is incorrect. Vegetable oils raise the melting point of ointments.
B. The downside of rectal administration includes the stigma of violating the patient’s dignity.

A - Rectal administration can only partially avoid the #rst-pass e"ect that may result in higher
blood levels for those drugs subject to extensive #rst-pass metabolism upon oral Question 19
administration. It is generally accepted that at least 50% to 70% of the active ingredients Which of the following are used as ointment bases?
Correct
administered rectally take the direct pathway, thus bypassing the liver and avoiding the #rst- I. Lanolin
pass e"ect. Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
II. Mineral oil
C- 2 g
III. Petrolatum
D - half
IV. Glycerin
V. Coconut oil
The downside of rectal administration includes the stigma of violating the patient’s dignity.
A. I, II
B. II, V
Question 16
Determine which is NOT a good characteristic of a suppository base. !
Correct C. I, III
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Compatible with a variety of drugs D. III, IV
B. Remains stable in rectal fluids !

C. Stable on storage
C. I, III
D. Nontoxic and nonirritating to the mucous membranes Lanolin and Petrolatum are semisolid ointment bases. Mineral oil, glycerin, and coconut oil are
more commonly used as vehicles in liquid dosage forms.
Your answer is correct. I, III
B. Remains stable in rectal fluids
It should dissolve in rectal fluids to allow the release of the API
B. Emulsi#ed base
C. Hydrogel !
Question 20
Classify White Petrolatum as an ointment base.
Correct D. Organogel
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Hydrocarbon base !
B. Absorption base Your answer is correct.
C. Hydrogel
C. Emulsion base (o/w type)
Hydrogel – gels containing water
D. Emulsion base (w/o type)
1. Organic hydrogels - pectin paste, tragacanth jelly

2. Inorganic hydrogels - bentonite gel, colloidal magnesium aluminum silicate gels
Hydrogel
Hydrocarbon base
Classify aluminum stearate, mineral oil gel, and theobroma oil as semisolid base.
Classify Anhydrous Lanolin as an ointment base.
Incorrect
Correct
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Emulsi#able base
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Emulsion base (o/w type)
B. Organogel
B. Emulsion base (w/o type)
C. Emulsi#ed base "

C. Absorption base !
D. Hydrogel
D. Water-soluble base

B. Organogel
Absorption base Organogel – gels containing an organic liquid

1. Hydrocarbon type
- petrolatum, mineral oil–polyethylene gel
Question 22
Classify Olive Oil as an ointment base. 2. Animal and vegetable fats
Incorrect
- lard, hydrogenated vegetable oils, theobroma oil
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Absorption bases "
3. Soap base greases
B. Vegetable oil bases - aluminum stearate, mineral oil gel

4. Hydrophilic organogels
C. Hydrocarbon bases
- Carbowax bases, PEG ointment
D. Emulsifying bases The correct answer is:
Organogel

Vegetable oil bases Question 26
Classify hydrophilic petrolatum, wool fat, and anhydrous Tween base as semisolid base.
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Organogel

Question 23
Classify Polyethylene Glycol as an ointment base. B. Hydrogel
Correct
C. Emulsi#ed base
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Hydrocarbon bases
D. Emulsi#able base !
B. Emulsifying bases
C. Water absorbable bases !

D. Absorption bases D. Emulsi#able base
Emulsi#able base – initially contain no water but capable of taking it up to yield w/o or o/w
emulsion
1. Water-in-oil (aka absorption base) – hydrophilic petrolatum, wool fat
2. Oil-in-water – Anhydrous Tween base
Water absorbable bases
Emulsi#ed base – water is already incorporated during manufacture
1. W/O - Hydrous wool fat, rose water ointment
2. O/W – Hydrophilic ointment, vanishing cream

Question 24
Classify pectin paste, tragacanth jelly, bentonite gel, and colloidal magnesium aluminum silicate The correct answer is:
Correct gels as semisolid base. Emulsi#able base

A. Emulsi#able base
B. Emulsi#ed base Question 27

Question 27
Identify the components of White Ointment. The correct answer is:
Correct Stores and releases the drug at the skin site
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. White wax, beeswax
B. White wax, spermaceti

Question 31
C. White wax, jojoba oil Select the transdermal patch placed on scrotum in treatment of male hormone de#ciency
Correct
D. White wax, white petrolatum !
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Estradiol (Climara®)
B. Testosterone (Androderm®)
C. Testosterone (Testoderm®) !
White wax, white petrolatum
D. Nicotine (Nicoderm®)

Question 28
Identify the pharmaceutical ingredient that prevents drying of preparations due to its ability to C. Testosterone (Testoderm®)
Correct retain moisture. Androderm – patch is placed on back, abdomen, upper arms, or thighs for tx of testosterone
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 de#ciency
A. Surfactant
! The correct answer is:

B. Humectant
Testosterone (Testoderm®)
C. Binder
D. Levigating agent
Question 32
Select the transdermal patch applied weekly to the trunk, including abdomen and bu$ocks
Incorrect (alternating sites)
Humectant A. Scopolamine (Transderm Scop®)
B. Fentanyl (Duragesic®) "
C. Clonidine (Catapres-TTS®)
Question 29
The following are advantages of transdermal drug delivery systems, EXCEPT
D. Estradiol (Climara®)
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. NOT suitable for all drugs

B. avoid the risks and inconvenience of parenteral therapy
D. Estradiol (Climara®)
C. avoid the #rst-pass e"ect Scopolamine (Transderm Scop®) - Patch is placed behind the ear, providing continuous
release of drug over 3 days
D. provides the capacity for multiday therapy with a single application, thereby improving "
patient compliance
Estradiol (Climara®)

Question 33
NOT suitable for all drugs Which of the following terms is used to describe the solubility of a substance if 800 mg of the
Correct solute can be dissolved in 95 mL of water
A. Slightly soluble !
Question 30
A transdermal drug delivery system (TDDS) may be constructed of a number of layers. Determine
B. Soluble
Correct the role of the drug reservoir or matrix system in a TDDS.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 C. Sparingly soluble
A. Stores and releases the drug at the skin site !

D. Practically insoluble
B. Removed before application to enable drug release
C. Maintains contact with the skin after application Your answer is correct.
A. Slightly soluble
D. Protects the system from environmental entry and from loss of drug from the system or
moisture from the skin 0.8 g solute : 95 mL solvent :: 1 g solute : x mL solvent
x = 118.75 mL

A. Stores and releases the drug at the skin site
Occlusive backing #lm - protects the system from environmental entry and from loss of
drug from the system or moisture from the skin
Rate-controlling membrane – controls precisely and predictably the release of the drug in
reservoir type TDDS The correct answer is:
Slightly soluble
Adhesive layer - Maintains contact with the skin after application
Release Liner – removed before application to enable drug release

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 correctly matched.
Question 34
Which kind of water is puri#ed by distillation or by reverse osmosis; contains no added A. Peppermint Water – Aqueous
Correct substances; and intended for use as a solvent for the preparation of parenteral solutions.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 B. Simple Syrup – Alcoholic
A. Water for Injection !

C. Orange Flower Water – Hydroalcoholic
B. Sterile Water for Injection D. Compound Cardamom Tincture – Aqueous "
C. Puri#ed Water
D. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection Your answer is incorrect.

Peppermint Water – Aqueous
A. Water for Injection
B. Sterile Water for Injection is Water for Injection sterilized and suitably packaged. It contains
no antimicrobial agent or other added substance. Question 38
Select the statements that best describe diluting agents for injections.
D. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection is Sterile Water for Injection containing one or more Incorrect
suitable antimicrobial agents. I. Diluting agents for injections may be aqueous or nonaqueous.
II. Aqueous diluting agents include such preparations as Sterile Water for Injection, Propylene
Glycol and Dextrose.
Water for Injection III. Nonaqueous diluting agents include fa$y oils of vegetable origin and fa$y esters.
IV. Nonaqueous diluting agents are used to dissolve or dilute water-soluble substances.
V. Aqueous diluting agents are used to suspend water-soluble substances when it is desired to
decrease the rate of absorption and prolong the duration of action of the drug substances.
Question 35
Which kind of water is obtained by distillation, ion-exchange treatment, reverse osmosis or any
Correct other suitable process; contains no added substance; and NOT used in preparations intended for A. I, III
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 parenteral administration

B. II, IV, V
A. Sterile Water for Injection C. IV, V "
B. Puri#ed Water ! D. I, II
C. Water for Injection

D. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection
I, III
The correct answers are:

Puri#ed Water,
Question 39
Bacteriostatic Water for Injection
Select the statements that best describe syrups as diluting agents.
Correct
I. Syrups are useful as diluting agents for water-insoluble drugs.
II. Syrups act both as solvents and flavoring agents.
Question 36 III. Glycyrrhiza Syrup is an excellent vehicle for saline substances because of its colloidal
Evaluate and select the correct statement for oral solutions.
properties, sweet flavor and licorice taste.
Incorrect
IV. Aromatic Eriodictyon Syrup is the diluting agent of choice for masking the taste of urea.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Oral solutions are conveniently administered in volumes of 10 mL (1 tbsp) or 4 mL (1 tsp)
B. Oral pharmaceutical solutions are usually formulated so that the patient receives the usual A. II, IV
dose in a conveniently administered volume, such as 5 mL (1 tsp), 10 mL, or 15 mL (1 tbsp)
B. II, III !
C. Oral rehydration solutions are given to patients with severe volume depletion of 20-30% of "
body weight C. I, III, IV
D. Prednisolone sodium phosphate is a pharmaceutical oral emulsion D. I, II, III

B. Oral pharmaceutical solutions are usually formulated so that the patient receives the usual
II, III
dose in a conveniently administered volume, such as 5 mL (1 tsp), 10 mL, or 15 mL (1 tbsp).
A – 1 tbsp = 15 mL and 1 tsp = 5 mL
C – Severe volume depletion = >10% of body weight (mild = 3-5%, moderate = 6-10%) Question 40
Select the oral dosage form which is prepared to be administered in small quantities with the help
D – Oral solution Correct of a suitable measuring device.
Oral pharmaceutical solutions are usually formulated so that the patient receives the usual
A. Linctus
dose in a conveniently administered volume, such as 5 mL (1 tsp), 10 mL, or 15 mL (1 tbsp)
B. Elixir
C. Oral emulsion
Question 37
There are three (3) groups of diluting agents based on their physical properties: aqueous diluting D. Oral drop !
Incorrect agents, hydroalcoholic diluting agents, and alcoholic diluting agents. Select the pair that is
correctly matched.
D. Oral emulsion

Oral drop Your answer is incorrect.
Oral emulsion
Question 41
Select the oral dosage form which is a clear, flavored oral liquid containing one or more active
Correct ingredients dissolved in a suitable base that contains a high proportion of sucrose and may also
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 contain ethanol (95%) or a diluted ethanol. Question 45
PROBLEM SOLVING: Calculate the volume of alcohol to be added to preserve the prescription
Incorrect
below.
A. Elixir !
Rx Active drug 5 mL
B. Syrup Other Drug solids 3 mL
C. Linctus Glycerin 15 mL

Sucrose 25g
D. Oral solution
Ethanol 95% q.s.
Puri#ed water, q.s. 100 mL

The correct answer is: A. 6.55 mL

Elixir
B. 6.50 mL
C. 6.35 mL "
Question 42 D. 6.21 mL
Select the oral dosage form which is a viscous oral liquid that contains one or more active
Correct ingredients in solution, the base generally containing large amounts of sucrose or sweetening
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 agents; it may contain 95% ethanol as a preservative or as a solvent for flavors.
D. 6.21 mL
A. Syrup !
First, determine the volume of sucrose and the volume of water it preserves by using the conc
B. Linctus of simple syrup which is 85% w/v:
85 g sucrose → 100 mL vol of sucrose + water

C. Elixir
25 g sucrose → X mL vol of sucrose + water
D. Oral emulsion X = 29.41176471 mL vol of sucrose + water
Next, determine the volume of active drug + other drugs:

5 mL active drug + 3 mL other drug = 8 mL
A. Syrup

Linctus - a viscous oral liquid that contains one or more active ingredients dissolved in a
suitable base that generally contains a higher concentration of sucrose or other sugars Next, take note that every mL of glycerin preserves 1 mL of water. So, the volume taken by
glycerin is:
Syrup 15 mL glycerin + 15 mL water preserved = 30 mL

So all in all, the volume contributed by the components + the water preserved are:
29.41176471 mL + 8 mL + 30 mL = 67.41176471 mL
Question 43
Select the oral dosage form that contains one or more active ingredients that are dissolved in a
Incorrect suitable base.
100 mL – 67.41176471 mL of water preserved = 32.58823529 mL of water which need
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 preservation
A. Linctus "

B. Oral emulsion Since it requires about 18% of alcohol to preserve water:
18 → 100 mL
C. Elixir
X → 32.68 mL
D. Oral solution X = 5.865882352 mL of 100% alcohol

But the available alcohol is 95%:

C1V1 = C2V2
Oral solution (100%)(5.865882352 mL) = (95%)(V2)
V2= 6.17 ml of alcohol 95% is required.
So, add 6.17 ml of alcohol to the syrup and complete volume up to 100 mL with water. The
Question 44
Select the oral dosage form which contains one or more active ingredients that are unstable in closest answer is 6.21 mL.
Incorrect the water phase but stabilized in oil-in-water dispersions; either or both phases may contain
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 dissolved solids.
6.21 mL
A. Oral drops "
B. Elixir
C. Syrup Question 46
Select the category of emulsi#ers or stabilizers that are used primarily as thickening agents and

Select the category of emulsi#ers or stabilizers that are used primarily as thickening agents and
Correct stabilizers for oil-in-water emulsions of certain lotions and ointments for external use. Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 !
A. Protein substances
B. Carbohydrate materials
! C. Finely divided solids

B. High molecular weight alcohols
D. High-molecular weight alcohols
C. Finely divided solids
D. We$ing agents
Your answer is correct. Carbohydrate materials – acacia, tragacanth, agar, pectin, chondrus
B. High molecular weight alcohols Protein substances – gelatin, egg yolk, casein
Carbohydrate materials – form hydrophilic colloids which when added to water generally Finely divided solids - colloidal clay, bentonite, Mg(OH)2, Al (OH)3
produce o/w emulsions
High molecular weight alcohols - stearyl alcohol, cetyl alcohol, and glyceryl monostearate
Protein substances – produce o/w emulsions (but cholesterol promote w/o emulsion)
We$ing agents – Depending on their individual nature, certain of the members of these The correct answer is:
groups form o/w emulsions and others, w/o emulsions (surfactants) Protein substances
High molecular weight alcohols
Question 50
Identify the pharmaceutical dispersed system that is a low-viscosity liquid preparation intended
Correct for application to the skin.
Question 47
Select the category of emulsi#ers or stabilizers that are adsorbed at the interface between 2 Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Incorrect immiscible liquid phases and form what amounts to a #lm of particles around the dispersed
A. Emulsion
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 globules of o/w emulsions.
B. Gel
A. Carbohydrate materials "
C. Lotion !
B. We$ing agents
D. Suspension
D. High molecular weight alcohols Your answer is correct.

Lotion
Carbohydrate materials – form hydrophilic colloids which when added to water generally
produce o/w emulsions Question 51
Find the statement that is correct about suspensions.
Protein substances – produce o/w emulsions Incorrect
We$ing agents – Depending on their individual nature, certain of the members of these
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Suspensions are chemically more stable than solutions
groups form o/w emulsions and others, w/o emulsions (surfactants)
The correct answer is: B. Suspensions do not ensure uniformity of dosage

Finely divided solids
C. A highly viscous suspension provides ease of pouring
D. Colloid mills or homogenizers are used for dry milling purposes prior to suspension "
Question 48
Classify Glyceryl Monostearate as emulsifying agent.
Incorrect Your answer is incorrect.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Protein substances A. Suspensions are chemically more stable than solutions

B. High-molecular weight alcohols
B – The particles that se$le are shaken to ensure uniformity of dosage
C. Finely divided solids C – It will pour with di"iculty and is di"icult to redisperse the suspensoid
" D – Hammer mills and fluid energy mills are used for dry milling; Colloid mills or homogenizers
D. Carbohydrate materials
are used to make the suspension uniform

Suspensions are chemically more stable than solutions
B. High-molecular weight alcohols

Carbohydrate materials – acacia, tragacanth, agar, pectin, chondrus
Protein substances – gelatin, egg yolk, casein Question 52

Determine which is NOT a desirable characteristic of the disperse phase of a suspension.
Finely divided solids - colloidal clay, bentonite, Mg(OH)2, Al (OH)3 Incorrect
High molecular weight alcohols - stearyl alcohol, cetyl alcohol, and glyceryl monostearate
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Dispersed phase is chemically and physically stable
(but cholesterol promote w/o emulsion)
The correct answer is: B. Dispersed particles are uniformly distributed throughout the dispersion medium
High-molecular weight alcohols
C. Enhances crystal growth formation
D. Chemical and physical properties do NOT change su"iciently during storage to adversely "
a"ect the performance of the suspension
Question 49
Classify Gelatin as emulsifying agent.
Correct
Correct
C. Enhances crystal growth formation Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Add an amount of aluminum chloride that will make sedimentation volume equal to -1.
It should inhibit crystal growth formation since crystal of drug may dissolve and form supersaturated
B. Add an amount of aluminum chloride that will make sedimentation volume equal to 0.
solutions.
The correct answer is: C. Add an amount of aluminum chloride that will make sedimentation volume equal to 1. !
Enhances crystal growth formation
D. Add bentonite.

Question 53
Select the undesirable quality of a suspension. The correct answer is:
Incorrect
Add an amount of aluminum chloride that will make sedimentation volume equal to 1.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Suspended particles se$le rapidly
B. Particles that se$le to the bo$om do NOT form a cake

Question 57
C. Particle size remains fairly constant throughout its long period of undisturbed standing
Choose the clinical conditions where Ringer's Injection is commonly used.
Incorrect
D. The suspension is NOT too viscous for it to be poured out freely from its container and for it " I. Correction of disturbances in electrolyte balance
to flow freely through a syringe needle II. Correction of disturbances in body fluids
III. Means of providing nutrition

A. I, II
A. Suspended particles se$le rapidly
Suspended particles should se$le slowly and be redispersed readily upon shaking B. I, III
C. II, III
Suspended particles se$le rapidly
D. I, II, III "
Question 54 Your answer is incorrect.

Find the suspending agent which is NOT obtained from a natural source.
Incorrect The correct answer is:
I, II
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Methyl cellulose
B. Tragacanth "
C. Powdered cellulose Question 58

Select the range of sodium ion concentration in a TPN preparation
D. Carrageenan Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. 5-10 mEq
Your answer is incorrect. B. 8-16 mEq

A. Methyl cellulose
C. 40-60 mEq
It is a derivative of natural cellulose
D. 100-120 mEq !
B – from Astragalus gummifer
C – main substance in plant cell wall obtained as a pulp from #brous plant materials
D – from red seaweed or irish moss (Chondrus crispus) Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: D. 100-120 mEq
Methyl cellulose
Sodium 100-120 mEq
Potassium 80-120 mEq
Magnesium 8-16 mEq
Question 55 Calcium 5-10 mEq
Determine the disadvantage of a deflocculated suspension.
Correct Chloride 100-120 mEq
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Sedimentation rate is high Phosphate 40-60 mEq

B. Particles are tightly packed 100-120 mEq
C. Easily redispersed
D. Formation of a compact cake when the particles eventually se$le !

Question 59
Determine the function of demulcents in Hydroxypropyl Methylcellulose Ophthalmic Solution,
Incorrect which is used as a we$ing solution for contact lenses.
D. Formation of a compact cake when the particles eventually se$le
A. Serve as decongestant when lacrimation is inadequate "

It is for this reason that the formulation of flocculated suspensions has been advocated B. Decrease the irritating e"ect of the lens on the cornea
The correct answer is: C. Make the we$ing solution viscous, which helps the lens stay in place
Formation of a compact cake when the particles eventually se$le
D. Harden the lens, providing these with mechanical support
Question 56 Your answer is incorrect.

Select the appropriate remedy to reduce or prevent flocculation of pharmaceutical suspensions.
Correct B. Decrease the irritating e"ect of the lens on the cornea

B. Decrease the irritating e"ect of the lens on the cornea

D. Binder
This is used as we$ing soln for contact lenses. Its demulcent action decreases the irritant
e"ect of the lens on the cornea.

Demulcents are protective agents used to coat and soothe damaged or inflamed skin or
Diluent
mucous membranes. They are viscid, sticky preparation that cover the area rapidly.
Decrease the irritating e"ect of the lens on the cornea
Question 64
Classify Ethylcellulose as a pharmaceutical excipient.
Correct
Question 60 Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Suspending agent
Select the statement that BEST describes pharmaceutical aerosols.
Correct
B. Sweetening agent
A. These are pressurized dosage forms that contain one or more active ingredients, which !
C. Disintegrant
upon activation emit a #ne dispersion of liquid and/or solid materials in a gaseous medium
D. Tablet binder !
B. Enhances drug stability and therapeutic activity
C. All kinds of drugs may be formulated as aerosols

D. protects the drug thermal degradation
D. Tablet binder
Also used as #lm former
The correct answer is: Methylcellulose – dispersing, thickening, emulsifying, and coating agent, stabilizer for o/w
These are pressurized dosage forms that contain one or more active ingredients, which upon emulsions, topical ophthalmic protectant
activation emit a #ne dispersion of liquid and/or solid materials in a gaseous medium Carboxymethylcellulose – suspending agent, viscosity enhancer, tablet excipient
Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose – demulcent in ophthalmic solutions, #lm former,
dispersing and thickening agent
Microcrystalline cellulose – tablet diluent, disintegrant, and binder
Question 61
Identify the unit operation that Includes evaluation of the drug for uniformity, stability, and other The correct answer is:
Correct factors, followed by the development of an appropriate drug delivery system. Tablet binder
A. Formulation !
B. Compression Question 65
Determine the role of Magnesium Stearate in a tablet formulation.
C. Granulation Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Glidant, Lubricant

D. Coating
B. Glidant, Anti-adherent, Lubricant !
Your answer is correct. C. Diluent, Binder, Disintegrant

Formulation D. Diluent, Binder, Disintegrant, Lubricant
Question 62 The correct answer is:

Determine the important property of a drug product on which drug absorption and physiologic Glidant, Anti-adherent, Lubricant
Correct availability are largely dependent.
A. Tablet hardness
Question 66
B. Tablet disintegration Determine the role of lactose, cellulose, kaolin, mannitol in a tablet formulation.
Correct
C. Tablet dissolution !
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Diluents !
D. Content uniformity
B. Binders
C. Glidants
The correct answer is: D. Lubricants
Tablet dissolution

Question 63 Diluents
In a product formulation, determine the excipient which provides bulk and enables accurate
Correct dosing of potent ingredients.
A. Disintegrant Question 67
Classify Glycyrrhiza as a pharmaceutical necessity.
B. Glidant Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Flavoring agent !

C. Diluent !

B. Diluting agent Your answer is correct.
D. Nitroso-dyes
C. Emulsifying agent
Natural coloring principles are obtained from mineral, plant and animal sources. They include
D. Ointment base red ferric oxide, yellow ferric oxide, titanium dioxide, carbon black, chlorophyll, ana$enes,
betacarotene, alizarin, indigo, flavones, riboflavin, rutin, hesperidin, quercetin, sa"ron,
cudbear, red saunders, tyranian purple, cochineal, carmine, caramel and other colorants, dyes
or pigments from natural sources.

Flavoring agent Synthetic coloring principles are those which can be synthesized. They include 6,6′-
dibromoindigo, mauveine, coal-tar dyes, aniline colors, nitroso-dyes, nitrodyes, azo-dyes,
oxazines, thiazines, pyrazolones, xanthenes, indigoids, anthraquinones, acridines, rosanilines,
phthaleins, quinolines acid dyes, basic dyes, direct dyes, mordant dyes, FD&C dyes, D&C lakes,
and other colorants dyes or pigments produced synthetically.
Question 68
Determine the role of Polacrillin Potassium in a tablet formulation. The correct answer is:
Correct
Nitroso-dyes
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Flavorant
B. Disintegrant !
Question 72
C. Tablet binder
This is a tablet formulation for CT Acetaminophen prepared by the wet granulation method. One
Correct
tablet contains:
D. Sweetening agent
Acetaminophen ----------------300 mg
Polyvinylpyrrolidone ----------22.5 mg
Lactose ---------------------------61.75 mg
Alcohol (200 proof) ------------4.5 mL
Disintegrant
Stearic acid ----------------------9.0 mg
Talc -------------------------------13.5 mg
Corn starch ----------------------43.25 mg
Question 69 To make 10,000 tablets, calculate the amount of Acetaminophen to be weighed (in grams).
Determine the role of corn/potato starch, gums, and alginates in a tablet formulation
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. 1,600 g

A. Flavors
B. 2,000 g
B. Sweetening agents
C. 3,000 g !
C. Disintegrants !
D. 3,100 g
D. Lubricants
Your answer is correct. Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is: The correct answer is:

Disintegrants 3,000 g
Select the INCORRECT statement about tablet excipients.
Determine the role of Aspartame in a tablet formulation.
Correct Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Excess lubricant may decrease the dissolution rate of drugs.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Color
B. Diluents usually make up a major portion of tablets. "

B. Sweetening agent !
C. Excess binder increases the disintegration rate of tablets.

C. Disintegrant
D. Glidants enhance the flow of the material into the tablet dies.
D. Flavor

Excess binder increases the disintegration rate of tablets.
Sweetening agent
Choose the coloring principles that are used as colors for food and cosmetics and are NOT Select the technique for solving flavoring problems that involves forming a complex of the drug with
Incorrect
Correct obtained from a biological source. ion-exchange resins or complexing agents.
A. Alizarin A. Blending
B. Ana$enes B. Chemical
C. Chlorophyll C. Physical
D. Nitroso-dyes ! D. Physiological "

III, IV
B. Chemical

Blending – fruit flavors blend with sour taste; bi$er taste blend with salty, sweet, and sour Question 77
Identify the equipment which can alternately combine and separate the tablet components as
taste; salt reduces sourness and increases sweetness; chemicals such as vanillin,
Incorrect this equipment revolves; it is ideal for the precise blending of dry-to-dry or dry-to-liquid
monosodium glutamate, and benzaldehyde are used for blending
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 materials with short processing times.
Overshadow – addition of a flavor whose intensity is longer and stronger than the obvious
taste (eg, methyl salicylate, glycyrrhiza, and oleoresins)
A. Twin shell blender
Physical – formation of insoluble compounds of the o"ending drug (eg, sulfonamides);
emulsi#cation of oils; e"ervescence (eg, magnesium citrate soln); high viscosity of fluids to B. Planetary mixer "
limit contact of drug with the tongue; and mechanical procedures such as coating of tablets
Chemical – absorption of the drug on a substrate; or formation of a complex of the drug with C. Horizontal ribbon blender
ion-exchange resins or complexing agents
D. Continuous mixer
Physiological – the taste buds may be anesthetized by menthol or mint flavors

Chemical Your answer is incorrect.

Twin shell blender
Question 75
Identify the technique for solving flavoring problems that involves formation of an insoluble
Correct
compound with the o"ending drug; or increasing the viscosity of the fluids to limit contact of drug with
Question 78
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 the tongue. This method involves the addition of a granulating fluid together with other blended components
Incorrect to achieve a wet mass. This wet mass is passed through screens and the granules are then dried.
A. Physical ! Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

A. Wet granulation
B. Physiological
B. Fluid bed granulation
C. Overshadow
C. Dry Granulation "
D. Chemical
D. None of the above

A. Physical Your answer is incorrect.
A. Wet Granulation
Blending – fruit flavors blend with sour taste; bi$er taste blend with salty, sweet, and sour Dry
Dry Granulation
Granulation - involves compressing powdered materials into dense, cohesive compacts
taste; salt reduces sourness and increases sweetness; chemicals such as vanillin, which are then milled and screened to produce granules with desirable particle size
monosodium glutamate, and benzaldehyde are used for blending characteristics
Overshadow – addition of a flavor whose intensity is longer and stronger than the obvious The correct answer is:
taste (eg, methyl salicylate, glycyrrhiza, and oleoresins) Wet granulation
Physical – formation of insoluble compounds of the o"ending drug (eg, sulfonamides);

emulsi#cation of oils; e"ervescence (eg, magnesium citrate soln); high viscosity of fluids to
limit contact of drug with the tongue; and mechanical procedures such as coating of tablets
Question 79
Chemical – absorption of the drug on a substrate; or formation of a complex of the drug with Determine the e"ect of overwe$ing to resulting granules
ion-exchange resins or complexing agents Correct
Physiological – the taste buds may be anesthesized by menthol or mint flavors Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Granules will be soft
Physical B. Granules will be dry
C. Granules will be soggy
D. Granules will be hard !

Question 76
Which of the following statements about milling equipment is/are TRUE?
Correct
I. Fluid-energy mills are used for tough, #brous materials and provide a successive cu$ing or Your answer is correct.
shearing action.
D. Granules will be hard
II. The colloid mill is used to process dry materials as #nely as possible

III. The hammer mill is an impact mill using a high-speed rotor to which a number of swinging
Overwe$ing can result in granules that are too hard for proper tablet formation, and
hammers are #xed
underwe$ing can result in
IV. The ball mill uses a combination of impact and a$rition.
tablets that are too soft and tend to crumble.

A. I, II Granules will be hard
B. III, IV !
C. I, III
Question 80
D. II, IV Identify the process which consists of bringing together a highly dispersed liquid and a su"icient
Correct volume of hot air to produce evaporation and drying of liquid droplets
E. II, III, IV Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
A. Spray-congealing
Your answer is correct. B. Spray-drying !

C. Fluid bed granulation
III, IV

C. Fluid bed granulation

the formulation due to the collection of powder #nes.
D. Spheronization The correct answer is:
Lamination
B. Spray-drying
Used for preparing tablet additives for direct compression to have good flowability Question 84
Identify the tablet defect which occurs when the granules of a formulation become stuck to the
A - aka spray chilling; does not use hot air, unlike spray-drying.Using ambient/cooled air; solid Correct face of the press punch.
must possess high heat stability (mannitol)
C – form of pelletization where there is formation of spherical particles from wet granulation A. Picking
by centrifugal and frictional forces on a rotating plate
D - method of wet granulation wherein a granulating solution is sprayed onto suspended B. Mo$ling
particles, which would dry rapidly in the suspending air
C. Cracking
Spray-drying D. Sticking !

Question 81 D. Sticking
Select the part of the tablet press which is INCORRECTLY matched with its function.
Correct Picking
Picking - occurs when the granules stick to the design embedded in the punch tip such as in
the le$ering or logo.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Cam tracks – control the movement of the lower and upper punch
B. Hopper – holds the material for compression Sticking
C. Feed shoe – compresses the materials within the die !
D. Die – controls the size and shape of the table

Question 85
The imperfections in tablets are known as visual defects and they are either related to
Correct
imperfections in any one or more of the following factors:
I. Process-related
C. Feed shoe – compresses the materials within the die
II. Excipient-related
The feed shoe transfers the materials into the die while the punches compress the materials
within the die. III. Machine-related
Determine the cause of Double Impression.

Feed shoe – compresses the materials within the die A. II
B. III !
C. I, II
Question 82
Identify the tablet defect which refers to the tendency for a tablet to chip, crumble or break
D. I
Correct following compression.
A. Lamination Your answer is correct.

B. Capping
III
C. Friability !
D. Hardness
Question 86
Determine the method of coating tablets that involves pu$ing a thin, skin-tight, plastic-like
Correct material over the compressed tablet to produce coated tablets that have essentially the same
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 weight, shape and size as the original compressed tablet.
Friability
A. Film-coating !
B. Compression Coating
Question 83 C. Fluid Bed or Suspension Coating

Identify the tablet defect which occurs as a split in the tablet anywhere except the top; it often
Correct happens due to over compression of the tablet.
D. Enteric Coating
A. Lamination !
B. Capping
Film-coating
C. Friability
D. Hardness
Question 87
Your answer is correct. Select the INCORRECT statement about sugarcoating of tablets.
Correct
A. Lamination
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. The sugarcoating process seals and protects the tablet dosage form, and adds a distinctive
Capping
Capping - happens when a fracture occurs at the top of the tablet and the top, or cap,
look and taste to the tablet.
separates itself from the body of the solid tablet. It is often caused by air trapped in the powder
material during the compression stage. It can also arise because the press fails to compress !
B. Many tablets are sugarcoated today as it is a more cost-e"icient process than #lm-
the formulation due to the collection of powder #nes.
B. Many tablets are sugarcoated today as it is a more cost-e"icient process than #lm-
coating.
C. One or more coats of a waterproo#ng substance such as shellac are applied to the tablets Question 91
Identify the coating defect which is the e"ect of entrapment of gases in or underneath the #lm
before the subcoating application. Correct due to overheating.
D. After the tablets are subcoated, additional coatings of a thick syrup are applied to round and Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
smooth the coatings. A. Blistering !
B. Bridging
C. Orange peel e"ect
Many tablets are sugarcoated today as it is a more cost-e"icient process than #lm-coating. D. Cratering

Question 88 A. Blistering
Determine the role of an alloying substance in a non-aqueous #lm coating solution.
Incorrect Orange peel may either be due to rapid drying or the use of high viscosity coating solutions.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. produces flexibility and elasticity to the coat " The correct answer is:
Blistering
B. provides water solubility or permeability
C. enhances spreadability of the coat
D. produces smooth thin #lm coat

Question 92
Select the BEST remedy for a coating defect where the coated tablets become stuck together
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Use a coating formulation that is more tacky
The correct answer is: B. Increase the curvature on the edges of the tablet core
provides water solubility or permeability
C. Add PVA or acrylic polymers
D. Reduce the pan speed "
Question 89
Identify the coating defect which appears as coating cracks due to core swelling caused by
Incorrect excessive moisture uptake into tablet cores during application of coating Your answer is incorrect.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 B. Increase the curvature on the edges of the tablet core
A. Film cracking (Type I) " Twinning of tablets during coating operation is commonly seen with capsule-shaped tablets
and may be due to use of excessively tacky coating formulation or poor suspension
B. Film cracking (Type II) evaporation.
C. Rough coating The correct answer is:

Increase the curvature on the edges of the tablet core
D. Delayed dissolution for intermediate release product
Your answer is incorrect. Question 93

Select the BEST remedy for a capsule defect where the active ingredient prescribed dissolves in
B. Film cracking (Type II) Correct an acid medium
Rough
Rough coating
coating -- a result of partial spray drying or because of overwe$ing causing soft
coating to rub
A. Add magnesium stearate
Film
Film cracking
cracking (Type
(Type I)
I) - coating cracks due to thermal expansion of tablet cores and lack of
#lm flexibility caused by over drying. B. Coat the capsules with polyvinyl acetate phthalate !
Film
Film cracking
cracking (Type
(Type II)
II) - Coating cracks due to core swelling caused by excessive moisture
C. Seal the capsule properly
uptake into tablet cores during application of coating.
Delayed
Delayed dissolution
dissolution for
for intermediate
intermediate release
release product
product - This is often associated with D. Reduce particle size
exposure of tablet cores to coating process conditions rather than a direct e"ect of the applied
coating.

Film cracking (Type II) The correct answer is:
Coat the capsules with polyvinyl acetate phthalate
Question 90
Identify the coating defect which results in a #lm that is rough and nonglossy.
Correct Question 94
Classify Anhydrous Lanolin as a pharmaceutical excipient.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Correct
A. Blistering
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Vehicle
B. Bridging
B. Ointment base !
C. Orange peel e"ect !
C. Lubricant
D. Cratering
D. Glidant

Orange peel e"ect The correct answer is:
Ointment base


A. Hydrolysis
Question 95 B. Reversible protein precipitation

Select the principal category to which glycerin, honey, glucose syrup, egg yolk, sugar alcohols
Incorrect belong. "
C. Lysis and cytoplasmic leakage
" D. Oxidation of cellular constituents
A. Sti"ening agent
B. Suppository base
C. Tablet binder
B. Reversible protein precipitation
D. Humectant Irreversible
Other mechanisms:
- Modi#cation of cell membrane permeability and leakge of cell constituents (partial lysis)
- Inhibition of cellular metabolism, such as by interfering with enzyme systems or inhibition
The correct answer is: of cell wall synthesis
Humectant

Reversible protein precipitation
Question 96
Select the principal category to which clay, silica gel, colloids, metals, activated charcoal,
Incorrect activated alumina belong.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Question 100
Select the correct mechanism of action for Alcohol as preservative or antiseptic.
A. Adsorbent Correct
B. Sti"ening Agent Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Bacteriostatic and acts as antifungal by preventing production of reproductive spores.
C. Humectant " !
B. Disrupts cell membrane, denatures proteins and dissolves lipids.
D. Preservative C. A$acks sulfhydryl groups and disrupts enzymes resulting to protein precipitation.
D. Bacteriostatic by alteration of cell membrane and inhibits spore formers by increasing H+ ion
Your answer is incorrect. concentration

Adsorbent
Disrupts cell membrane, denatures proteins and dissolves lipids.
Question 97
Classify Acacia as a pharmaceutical excipient.
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Suspending agent ! Question 101

Select the correct mechanism of action for Thimerosal as preservative or antiseptic.
Incorrect
B. Solubilizing agent
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Binds to phospholipids and proteins of the membrane, thus impairing permeability.
C. Humectants
B. Bacteriostatic and acts as antifungal by preventing production of reproductive spores.
D. Vehicle
C. Disrupts cell membrane, denatures proteins and dissolves lipids. "
Your answer is correct. D. A$acks sulfhydryl groups and disrupts enzymes resulting to protein precipitation.

Suspending agent
A$acks sulfhydryl groups and disrupts enzymes resulting to protein precipitation.
Question 98
Select the principal category to which Methylparaben belongs.
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Antifungal preservative ! Question 102

Find the theory of emulsi#cation which proposes that the emulsifying agent surrounds the
Correct droplets of the internal phase as a thin layer of #lm adsorbed on the surface of the internal phase
B. Suppository base
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 globules.
C. Sti"ening agent
A. Oriental Wedge Theory
D. Humectant
B. Viscosity Theory
Your answer is correct. C. Interfacial Film Theory !

D. Surface Tension Theory
Antifungal preservative

C. Interfacial Film Theory
Question 99
Preservatives interfere with microbial growth and metabolism through one or more of these Oriental
Oriental Wedge
Wedge Theory
Theory - Proposes that the surfactant forms monomolecular layers around
Incorrect mechanisms, EXCEPT the droplets of the internal phase of the emulsion

Question 106
Question 106
Surface
Surface Tension
Tension Theory
Theory - The internal forces in a liquid drop promote association of the Find the emulsifying agent described as salts of D-glucuronic acid classi#ed as hydrophilic
molecule of the substance resisting distortion of the drop into a less spherical form Incorrect colloid which forms an o/w emulsion.
Viscosity
Viscosity Theory
Theory - The viscosity of the medium aids in the emulsi#cation by the mechanical Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
hindrance to coalesce the globules A. Gelatin
Interfacial Film Theory B. Sorbitan monooleate
C. Stearyl or cetyl alcohol "
D. Acacia
Question 103
Question 103
Select the INCORRECT statement about the HLB system.
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Each surface-active agent is assigned an HLB value which is indicative of the substance's
D. Acacia
polarity.
A – Contains polypeptides and amino acids classi#ed as hydrophilic colloid which forms an
B. HLB values range from 1-40. " o/w emulsion
B – Nonionic surface active agent that forms w/o emulsion

C. Substances that are highly polar or hydrophilic have been assigned higher numbers.
C – Serve to stabilize emulsions through its ability to thicken the emulsion. Because this agent
D. In using the HLB concept in the preparation of an emulsion, one selects emulsifying agents have only weak emulsifying properties, it is always used in combination with other emulsi#ers
having higher or lower HLB values as the oleaginous phase of the emulsion. Typical
Typical Emulsifying
Emulsifying Agents
Agents (from Martin’s)
Type
Type of
of
Emulsi#er
Emulsi#er Class
Class Emulsion
Emulsion
Formed
Formed
D. In using the HLB concept in the preparation of an emulsion, one selects emulsifying agents
Triethanolamine Anionic o/w (HLB=12)
having higher or lower HLB values as the oleaginous phase of the emulsion.
oleate Surfactant

N-cetyl N-ethyl Cationic o/w (HLB=25)
Emulsifying agents should have the same or nearly the same HLB values as the oleaginous morpholinium
Surfactant
phase.
ethosulfate
Sorbitan monooleate Nonionic w/o (HLB=4.3)
In using the HLB concept in the preparation of an emulsion, one selects emulsifying agents
(Span 80) Surfactant
having higher or lower HLB values as the oleaginous phase of the emulsion.
Polyoxyethylene Nonionic o/w (HLB=15)
sorbitan monooleate Surfactant
(Tween 80)
Question 104
Question 104 Acacia (salts of d- Hydrophilic o/w
Select the INCORRECT statement about Surfactants. glucuronic acid) Colloid
Correct
Gelatin (polypeptides Hydrophilic o/w
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. We$ing agents aid in a$aining intimate contact between solid particles and liquids. and amino acids) Colloid
Bentonite (hydrated Solid o/w (and w/o)

B. Detergents reduce the surface tension and aid in we$ing the surface and the dirt.
aluminum silicate) particle
C. Surface-active agents with HLB values 3-6 are greatly lipophilic and produce water-in-oil Veegum (magnesium Solid o/w
emulsion. aluminum silicate) particle
! Carbon black Solid w/o

D. The usual range of HLB values for surfactants used as solubilizing agents is between 1-3.
particle

D. The usual range of HLB values for surfactants used as solubilizing agents is between 1-3. The correct answer is:
Acacia
Antifoaming agents – 1-3
Solubilizing agents – 15-20

Question 107
Question 107
The usual range of HLB values for surfactants used as solubilizing agents is between 1-3. Find the emulsifying agent described as hydrated aluminum silicate classi#ed as #nely divided
Incorrect solid that forms o/w and w/o emulsions
A. Gelatin
Question 105
Question 105
For the manufacturing of pharmaceutical emulsions, the oil phase is restricted to this oil unless
Correct B. Veegum
otherwise speci#ed as the active of the product.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 C. Bentonite
A. Co$onseed oil
D. Triethanolamine oleate "
B. Sesame oil
C. Mineral oil !
D. Coconut oil The correct answer is:

Bentonite

Question 108
Question 108
Mineral oil Find the antifoaming agent.
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Castor oil
Question 106
Question 106 B. Sodium stearate "

B. Sodium stearate "

A. Type III
C. Dodecyl sulfate
B. NP
D. Polysorbate 20
C. Type II !
D. Type I

Castor oil Your answer is correct.
Type II
Question 109
Question 109
Evaluate which sterilization method is the most dependable and widely used sterilization method
Correct uses moist heat, which coagulates cellular proteins of microorganisms; parenterals or injectable
drug products (in their containers) are sterilized by this method. Question 113
Question 113
Select the statement which is NOT correct about plastic packaging materials.
Incorrect
A. Gas sterilization
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Polypropylene is a material that can be autoclaved.
B. Steam sterilization !
B. Polyvinyl chloride is the material of choice for packaging IV solutions.
C. Ionizing radiation
C. HDPE is used when rigidity is preferred while LDPE is used when flexibility is required. "
D. Membrane #ltration
D. Sorption is a problem when certain constituents in the PVC bags, such as plasticizers, migrate
into the IV solutions.
The correct answer is: Your answer is incorrect.

Steam sterilization
Sorption is a problem when certain constituents in the PVC bags, such as plasticizers, migrate
into the IV solutions.
Question 110
Question 110
Evaluate which sterilization method uses a sophisticated and synthetic semi-permeable
Correct membrane to prevent large microorganisms to contaminate the product
Question 114
Question 114
Determine the container which protects the contents from extraneous solids, liquids, and vapors;
A. Membrane #ltration ! Correct and from e"lorescence, deliquescence, or evaporation.
B. Steam sterilization
A. Hermetic
C. Dry heat
B. Tight !
D. Gas sterilization
C. Well-closed
D. Light-resistant
A. Membrane #ltration
The membrane #lter has a pore size of 0.22 micrometers, enough to separate even the Your answer is correct.
smallest bacteria. The correct answer is:
The correct answer is: Tight
Membrane #ltration
Question 115
Question 115
Identify the property which is a measure of the circular force which must be applied to open or
Question 111
Question 111
Analyze which sterilization method allows the sterilization of packaged #nished products that are Correct close a container.
Incorrect ready for shipment because the sterilizing material permeates sealed plastic #lms and cartons. Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Stress cracking
A. Dry heat "
B. Corrosion
B. Membrane #ltration
C. Strength
C. Gas sterilization
D. Torque !
D. Ionizing radiation

Your answer is incorrect. The correct answer is:
The correct answer is: Torque
Gas sterilization
Question 116
Question 116
Select the appropriate storage condition for Comirnaty®, the mRNA vaccine marketed by P#zer-
Question 112
Question 112
Identify the glass container that is composed of relatively high proportions of sodium oxide and Correct BioNTech for the prevention of COVID-19 disease in individuals 16 years of age and older.
Correct calcium oxide; has a relatively lower concentration of migratory oxides; considered to be of Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 relatively good chemical resistance for only one use; and suitable for solutions that are bu"ered, !
A. -80 to -60 °C
have a pH <7, or are not reactive with the glass.
B. 2 to 8 °C

B. 2 to 8 °C
D. Repulsive and a$ractive forces
C. -20 to -10 °C
D. 8 to 15 °C Your answer is correct.
A. Van der Waals forces (speci#cially London forces)
Induced dipole-induced dipole


A. -80 to -60 °C
The weak electrostatic force by which nonpolar molecules such as hydrogen gas, carbon
Frozen at ultra-cold conditions prior to use. Once received, frozen vials may be immediately
tetrachloride, and benzene a$ract one another was #rst recognized by Londo.
transferred to the refrigerator 2°C to 8°C, thawed and stored for up to 10 weeks.

Van der Waals forces
Most COVID-19 vaccines are stored inside the refrigerator.
Moderna and Sputnik V vaccines are stored in the freezer.
Only the P#zer-BioNTech vaccine is stored in ultra-cold freezer
The correct answer is: Question 120

Question 120
Identify the physical property that has a characteristic frequency, wavelength and wave number.
-80 to -60 °C Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Optical rotatory dispersion "
B. Electromagnetic radiation
Question 117
Question 117
Identify the weak intermolecular forces, examples of which are the Keesom, Debye, and London
Correct C. Refractive index
forces.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 D. Circular dichroism
A. Hydrogen bonds
B. Repulsive and a$ractive forces Your answer is incorrect.
C. Van der Waals forces ! B. Electromagnetic radiation
Optical
Optical rotatory
rotatory dispersion
dispersion - measurement of the angle of rotation as a function of the
D. Ion-dipole, ion-induced dipole forces wavelength.
Circular
Circular dichroism
dichroism - an absorption spectroscopy method based on the di"erential
absorption of left and right circularly polarized light.
C. Van der Waals forces
Electromagnetic radiation
Keesom – dipole-dipole
Debye – dipole-induced dipole

London – induced dipole-induced dipole
Question 121
Question 121
The correct answer is: Identify the physical property that is represented by the formula: n = sin i/ sin r
Van der Waals forces Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Electromagnetic radiation
B. Circular dichroism
Question 118
Question 118
Identify the forces that account in part for the solubility of ionic crystalline substances in water C. Optical rotatory dispersion
Correct and are presumed to account for the solubility of iodine in a solution of KI.
D. Refractive index !
A. Electrovalent forces
B. Repulsive and a$ractive forces Your answer is correct.
D. Refractive index
C. Ion-dipole, ion-induced dipole forces !
This is the formula for refractive index which is de#ned as the ratio of the sine of the angle
D. Hydrogen bonds of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction.
Refractive index
C. Ion-dipole, ion-induced dipole forces

Question 122
Question 122
Repulsive
Repulsive and
and a$ractive
a$ractive forces
forces -- forces necessary for molecules to cohere and forces Choose the instrument used for determining the optical rotation of a chiral molecule.
necessary to prevent molecules from interpenetrating and annihilating one another. Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. UV Spectrophotometer

B. Polarimeter !
Ion-dipole, ion-induced dipole forces
C. Fluorimeter
D. Abbe refractometer
Question 119
Question 119
Identify the weak electrostatic forces that bring about condensation of nonpoiar gas molecules
Correct so as to form liquids and solids when molecules are brought quite close to one another.
B. Polarimeter
A. Van der Waals forces !
A - Routinely used in analytical chemistry for the quantitative determination of di"erent
B. Hydrogen bonds analytes. It measures the a$enuation of a beam of light after it passes through a sample or
after reflection from a sample surface
C. Ion-dipole, ion-induced dipole forces
C - Measures the emission of visible light by a substance that has absorbed light of a di"erent
wavelength
processes and constitutes part of the second law of thermodynamics: the entropy of the
wavelength universe remains constant in a reversible process, whereas the entropy of the universe
D – Measures the refractive index increases in an irreversible (spontaneous) process.
The correct answer is: The correct answer is:

Polarimeter Gibbs Free Energy
Question 123
Question 126
Identify the statement/mathematical expression which does NOT express the First Law of
Select the statements which best characterize Polymorphs.
Incorrect Incorrect Thermodynamics.
I. Polymorphs have di"erent stabilities and may spontaneously convert from the
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
metastable form at a temperature to the stable form.
A. States that energy is conserved
II. Polymorphs have identical melting points, x-ray crystal and di"raction pa$erns, and
solubilities, even though they are chemically di"erent.
B. Forms of energy can be interconverted, but the sum of energies remain constant
III. Graphite is a less stable polymorph of carbon than is diamond.
C. ΔE is equal to zero for a cyclic process in a closed system "
IV. One polymorph may be more active therapeutically than another polymorph of the same
drug.
D. ΔE = EB + EA
A. I, II, III, IV
B. III, IV
D. ΔE = EB + EA
C. I, IV ΔE = EB – EA
" The change in internal energy (ΔE) is equal to the di"erence between the internal energy of
D. I, III, IV
the system in its #nal state (EB) and the between the internal energy of the system in its initial
state (EA).
ΔE = EB + EA
C. I, IV
II. Polymorphs may exhibit di"erent melting points, x-ray crystal and di"raction pa$erns, and
solubilities, even though they are chemically identical. Question 127
Question 127
Select the concept that explains the thermodynamic state of a perfect crystal at absolute zero.
III. Diamond is a less stable polymorph of carbon than is graphite. Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
I, IV
B. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
C. 3rd Law of Thermodynamics !
Question 124
Question 124
According to Boyle’s Law, the volume of a gas has an inverse relationship with ____. D. 1st, 2nd, 3rd Law of Thermodynamics
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. moles

B. temperature C. 3rd Law of Thermodynamics
C. pressure " The third law of thermodynamics states that the entropy of a pure crystalline substance is zero
at absolute zero because the crystal arrangement must show the greatest orderliness at this
D. weight temperature. In other words, a pure perfect crystal has only one possible con#guration, and its
entropy is zero.

Your answer is incorrect. 3rd Law of Thermodynamics
C. Temperature
Charles’
Charles’ Law
Law - at constant pressure, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its
temperature
Question 128
Question 128
Gay-Lussac’s
Gay-Lussac’s Law
Law - at constant volume, the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its Analyze and choose the statement which does NOT describe the phase diagram shown below.
temperature Incorrect
The correct answer is: Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

temperature
Question 125
Question 125
Identify the law or principle which states that when the reaction is reversible, ΔS = 0
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Faraday’s Law
B. Ideal Gas Law
C. Henry’s Law
D. Gibbs Free Energy !

D. Gibbs Free Energy
A. This phase diagram is an example of one-component systems containing solid, liquid, and
in reversible processes, the entropy of the universe is unchanged. This is true of all reversible
gaseous phases.
processes and constitutes part of the second law of thermodynamics: the entropy of the


B. The curve OA is known as the vapor pressure curve. The correct answer is:
Angle of repose
C. The curve OC is known as the sublimation curve. "
D. The point O is known as the triple point where 3 components exist in equilibrium.
Question 131
Question 131
Identify the property that is measured from the bulk volume and the weight of the dry powder in a
Your answer is incorrect. Correct graduated cylinder.
The correct answer is: Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
The point O is known as the triple point where 3 components exist in equilibrium.
A. True density
B. Granule density
C. Bulk density !
Question 129
Question 129
Incorrect D. Relative density

C. Bulk density
Tr
True
ue density
density – density of the material itself, exclusive of the voids and intraparticle pores
Granule
Granule density
density - determined by the displacement of mercury, which does not penetrate at
ordinary pressures into pores smaller than about 10 μm
Relative
Relative density
density – ratio of the density of the powder or compact and the true density of the
material

Bulk density
Question 132
Question 132
Identify the ratio of the void volume to the bulk volume of the powder.
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Porosity !
A. This phase diagram is an example of two-component systems containing solid and liquid "
B. Void volume
phases.
C. Density
B. This phase diagram is used to determine the eutectic point where 3 phases coexist.
D. Surface area
C. There are 4 regions in this phase diagram, and 3 of those regions contain 2 phases.
D. Below the tie line of this phase diagram is a region containing a solid component and a
conjugate liquid phase. Your answer is correct.

Porosity
D. Below the tie line of this phase diagram is a region containing a solid component and a
conjugate liquid phase.
The tie line is always parallel to the base line in two-component systems and it contains both Question 133
Question 133
PROBLEM SOLVING: What is the %total porosity when Vp is 0.4, Vg is 0.6 and Vb is 1.9?
components as pure solid phases (region iv). Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. 90% "
A – salol and thymol
B – liquid, solid salol, solid thymol B. 79%
C – (i) a single liquid phase, (ii) a region containing solid salol and a conjugate liquid phase, C. 121%
(iii) a region in which solid thymol is in equilibrium with a conjugate liquid phase, and (iv) a
region in which both components are present as pure solid phases D. 46%
Below the tie line of this phase diagram is a region containing a solid component and a
conjugate liquid phase. Your answer is incorrect.
Question 130
Question 130
Identify the property of particles, which is determined by allowing the powder to flow through a
Correct funnel and fall free onto a surface, then measuring the height and diameter of the cone, results of
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 which are used to calculate this particular property. The correct answer is:
79%
A. Bulk volume
B. Angle of repose !
Question 134
Question 134
C. Bulkiness Select the statement that BEST describes the solubility of solids in liquids
Correct
D. Porosity
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. In an ideal solution, the heat of fusion is NOT equal to the heat of solution
B. Molar heat of fusion is the heat released when the solid melts

Question 137
Question 137
C. The solubility of a solid in an ideal solution depends on the temperature, melting point of ! PROBLEM SOLVING: 29.5 grams of dried ferrous sulfate was dissolved in a su"icient amount of
Incorrect
the solid, and molar heat of fusion water to create a 1 molar solution with a density of 1.878 g/mL. The density of water is 1.00 g/mL
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 while the molar mass of anhydrous ferrous sulfate is 151.91 g/mol.
D. Ideal solubility is a"ected by the nature of the solvent
How much water was used to prepare the solution?
Your answer is correct. A. 103.40 mL
C. The solubility of a solid in an ideal solution depends on the temperature, melting point of the "
B. 194.19 mL
solid, and molar heat of fusion
So it’s not a"ected by the nature of the solvent C. 335.20 mL

D. 417.17 mL
In an ideal soln, the heat of fusion is equal to the heat of solution and NO net heat is released
or absorbed during the formation of the solution.
Molar heat of fusion is the heat ABSORBED when the solid melts (1 mole of solid changed into 1
mole of liquid)
Heat of solution – heat absorbed per mole dissolved

The solubility of a solid in an ideal solution depends on the temperature, melting point of the
solid, and molar heat of fusion

335.20 mL
Question 135
Question 135
Find the statement that is INORRECT regarding the influence of some factors on the solubility of
Incorrect solids.
A. Solubility increases with decreasing particle size. Question 138
Question 138
PROBLEM SOLVING: 29.5 grams of dried ferrous sulfate was dissolved in a su"icient amount of
Incorrect
B. The con#guration of a solid molecule has NO e"ect on its solubility. water to create a 1 molar solution with a density of 1.878 g/mL. The density of water is 1.00 g/mL
C. A symmetric arrangement in the crystal may render a solid less soluble than an "
What is the molality of the solution?
asymmetric one.
D. Solubility depends in part on the work required to separate the particles of the crystalline A. 1.8781 m
solute.
B. 1.0000 m "
Your answer is incorrect. C. 0.5793 m
B. The con#guration of a solid molecule has NO e"ect on its solubility. D. 0.4655 m

The con#guration of a molecule and the type of arrangement in the crystal also has some
influence on solubility, and a symmetric particle can be less soluble than an unsymmetric one.
This is because solubility depends in part on the work required to separate the particles of the Your answer is incorrect.
crystalline solute.
The correct answer is: 0.5793 m
The con#guration of a solid molecule has NO e"ect on its solubility.
Question 139
Question 139
Question 136
Question 136 PROBLEM SOLVING: 29.5 grams of dried ferrous sulfate was dissolved in a su"icient amount of
Select the mathematical principle which expresses the change in surface area accompanying Correct
water to create a 1 molar solution with a density of 1.878 g/mL. The density of water is 1.00 g/mL
Incorrect the dissolution of powders.

A. Hixson-Crowell
What is the % (w/w) of the solution?
B. Noyes-Whitney "
A. 8.09% w/w !
C. Modi#ed Higuchi
B. 8.80% w/w
D. Fick’s
C. 7.07% w/w
Your answer is incorrect. D. 22.20% w/w
A. Hixson-Crowell
In Noyes-Whitney, it is assumed that the surface area remains constant throughout the
dissolution process. Hixson and Crowell modi#ed the equation to represent the decrease and
change in surface area accompanying dissolution. The correct answer is:
8.09% w/w
C – for drug release
D – for drug di"usion

Hixson-Crowell Question 140
Question 140
PROBLEM SOLVING: 29.5 grams of dried ferrous sulfate was dissolved in a su"icient amount of
Incorrect
Question 137
Question 137

What is the %(w/v) of the solution? Your answer is correct.

A. 0.5
A. 8.09% w/v
E = 17 Liso / MW
B. 15.19% w/v
E = 17 (1.8 / 61.84)
C. 17.27% w/v
E = 0.494825355 or 0.5
D. 22.20% w/v "

0.5

15.19% w/v
Question 144
Question 144
PROBLEM SOLVING: Calculate the approximate E value of zinc sulfate hydrous (MW 287.56, Liso
Correct 2.5).
Question 141
Question 141
PROBLEM SOLVING: 29.5 grams of dried ferrous sulfate was dissolved in a su"icient amount of A. 0.29
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 while the molar mass of anhydrous ferrous sulfate is 151.91 g/mol. B. 0.25
C. 0.42
How much does 1 L of the solution weigh?
D. 0.15 !
A. 1,000 g
! Your answer is correct.

B. 1,878 g
D. 0.15
C. 1,000 mg

D. 1,878 mg E = 17 Liso / MW
E = 17 (2.5 / 287.56)
E = 0.147795242 or 0.15
0.15
1,878 g
Question 145
Question 145
Question 142
Question 142 PROBLEM SOLVING: A prescription requires 100 mL of a 1% solution of apomorphine hydrochloride
Choose the method of adjusting tonicity where the quantity of each substance required for an Incorrect (MW 312.79) that is isotonic with blood serum. The freezing point lowering of the drug is 0.08 °C
Incorrect isotonic solution can be calculated from the freezing point depression values to make it isotonic
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 and that of 1% sodium chloride is 0.58 °C. How many grams of sodium chloride will be added to
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 with blood (ΔTf = –0.52ºC). make 100 mL of isotonic solution?
A. Cryoscopic method A. 0.44 g
B. E-value method B. 0.52 g "
C. Sprowl’s method C. 0.76 g
D. White Vincent method "

D. 0.88 g
Your answer is incorrect. Your answer is incorrect.

A. Cryoscopic method C. 0.76 g
E-value method - the percent of sodium chloride required for adjusting the isotonicity can be
calculated using the NaCl equivalent of the drug.
For the soln to be isotonic, we want -0.52 °C.
Sprowl’s method - based on the use of calculated volume V values on a predetermined weight
So we need to reduce the FP by an additional:
of the drug (0.03 g of drug), followed by the dilution of this solution with an already isotonic
solution 0.52 °C – 0.08 °C = 0.44 °C
The correct answer is: Using ratio & proportion:

Cryoscopic method 1% / 0.58 °C = x / 0.44 °C
x = 0.76% NaCl will lower the FP by 0.44 °C and will render the soln isotonic; So in 100 mL soln,
you need to add 0.76 g NaCl

Question 143
Question 143
PROBLEM SOLVING: Calculate the approximate E value of boric acid (MW 61.84, Liso 1.8). 0.76 g
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. 0.5 !
B. 0.6 Question 146

Question 146
“Rapidly dissolving”
Incorrect
C. 0.7
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. > 85% of the drug dissolves within 30 minutes
D. 0.8
B. > 85% of the drug dissolves within 15 minutes "

D. Class II
C. > 90% of the drug dissolves within 30 minutes
D. > 90% of the drug dissolves within 15 minutes

A. Class IV
Your answer is incorrect. BCS Class I Drugs (DT MVP): Diltiazem, Theophylline, Metoprolol
Metoprolol, Verapamil, Propranolol,
A. > 85% of the drug dissolves within 30 minutes Paracetamol
Paracetamol
BCS Class II Drugs (Pheny BINGE): Phenytoin, Bicalutamide,

Bicalutamide, Ibuprofen, NSAIDs
NSAIDs
(Aceclofenac),
(Aceclofenac), Glibenclamide,
Glibenclamide, Griseofulvin, Ezetimibe,
Ezetimibe,
B – Very rapidly dissolving
BCS Class III Drugs (NeoCARE): Neomycin, Cimetidine,
Cimetidine, Captopril, Atenolol, Acyclovir,
Ranitidine, Enalapril
> 85% of the drug dissolves within 30 minutes
BCS Class IV Drugs (FuroHBC): Furosemide, HCTZ, Bifonazole,
Bifonazole, Captopril, Cefuroxime
Class IV
Question 147
Question 147
Classify compounds that are of low solubility and high permeability, such that their bioavailability
Correct is limited by their solvation rate.
Question 150
Question 150
A. BCS Class III In the BCS, how are Glibenclamide and Aceclofenac classi#ed?
Correct
B. BCS Class I Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Class IV
C. BCS Class IV
B. Class III
D. BCS Class II !
C. Class I
D. Class II !
D. BCS Class II
BCS-based biowaivers are applicable to drug products where the drug substance(s) exhibit
high solubility and, either high permeability (BCS Class I) or low permeability (BCS Class III). D. Class II
BCS Class I Drugs (DT MVP): Diltiazem, Theophylline, Metoprolol

Metoprolol, Verapamil, Propranolol,
Paracetamol
Paracetamol
BCS Class I: High Solubility and High Permeability
BCS Class II Drugs (Pheny BINGE): Phenytoin, Bicalutamide,
Bicalutamide, Ibuprofen, NSAIDs
NSAIDs
BCS Class II: Low Solubility and High Permeability
(Aceclofenac),
(Aceclofenac), Glibenclamide,
Glibenclamide, Griseofulvin, Ezetimibe,
Ezetimibe,
BCS Class III: High Solubility and Low Permeability
BCS Class III Drugs (NeoCARE): Neomycin, Cimetidine,
Cimetidine, Captopril, Atenolol, Acyclovir,
BCS Class IV: Low Solubility and Low Permeability Ranitidine, Enalapril
The correct answer is: BCS Class IV Drugs (FuroHBC): Furosemide, HCTZ, Bifonazole,
Bifonazole, Captopril, Cefuroxime
BCS Class II
Class II
Question 148
Question 148
How are compounds of low solubility and low permeability; poor bioavailability, usually NOT well
Correct absorbed from the intestinal mucosa classi#ed in the Biopharmaceutics Classi#cation System? Question 151
Question 151
Identify which statement is correct about adsorption and absorption.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Correct
A. BCS Class IV !
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. When molecules and ions are partitioned in favor of the interface, the phenomenon is called
B. BCS Class II negative adsorption.
C. BCS Class III B. When the molecules of a liquid or gas penetrate into the capillary spaces of the medium, !
this phenomenon is called absorption.
D. BCS Class I
C. An example of adsorption is the taking up of water by a sponge.
D. An example of absorption is the concentrating of alkaloid molecules on the surface of clay.

A. BCS Class IV
BCS Class I: High Solubility and High Permeability The correct answer is:
When the molecules of a liquid or gas penetrate into the capillary spaces of the medium, this
BCS Class II: Low Solubility and High Permeability
phenomenon is called absorption.
BCS Class III: High Solubility and Low Permeability
BCS Class IV: Low Solubility and Low Permeability

BCS Class IV Question 152
Question 152
Choose which statement is NOT true regarding the adsorption at solid interfaces.
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. The degree of adsorption of a gas by a solid depends solely on the chemical nature of the
Question 149
Question 149 adsorbent and the adsorbate.
Identify the category in the BCS to which Bifonazole belong.
Correct B. The principle of solid-liquid adsorption is employed in a decolorizing solution, adsorption
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 ! chromatography and we$ing.
A. Class IV
C. !
B. Class III The principle of adsorption is used when activated charcoal and acetylcysteine are used in
the treatment of acetaminophen poisoning.
C. Class I
D. The adsorption of gases by a solid #nds application in the removal of objectionable odors

D. The adsorption of gases by a solid #nds application in the removal of objectionable odors
from rooms and food using charcoal. The correct answer is:
Zeta potential
C. The principle of adsorption is used when activated charcoal and acetylcysteine are used in
the treatment of acetaminophen poisoning. Question 155
Question 155
Analyze and identify the arbitrary scale of values by means of which it is possible to establish a
Incorrect range of optimum e"iciency for each class of surfactant.
Only activated charcoal acts by adsorption and not acetylcysteine. Acetylcysteine works to Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
reduce paracetamol toxicity by replenishing body stores of the antioxidant glutathione. A. Hydrophilic-Lipophilic Balance
Glutathione reacts with the toxic NAPQI metabolite so that it does not damage cells and can
be safely excreted. B. Surface potential
C. Zeta potential
D. Nernst potential "

The principle of adsorption is used when activated charcoal and acetylcysteine are used in the
treatment of acetaminophen poisoning.

Hydrophilic-Lipophilic Balance
Question 153
Question 153
Determine the contact angle exhibited by complete nonwe$ing.
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. 0°

Question 156
Question 156
Identify the terminology which refers to the di"erence between work of adhesion and work of
B. 45°
Incorrect cohesion.
C. 90° Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
A. Surface tension "
D. 180° !
B. Spreading coe"icient
Your answer is correct. C. Hydrophilic-Lipophilic Balance
D. 180°
D. Surfactant
We$ing
We$ing - contact angle that a droplet of liquid makes with the solid surface at the point of
contact
The higher the contact angle (↑θ), the lower is the we$ing (↓we$ing) Your answer is incorrect.
- 0° = complete we$ing B. Spreading coe"icient

- 45° and 90° = partial we$ing With reference to the spreading of oil on a water surface, spreading occurs if the work of
adhesion (a
- 180° = complete non we$ing
measure of the force of a$raction between the oil and the water) is greater than the work of
cohesion.

Spreading coe"icient

Question 157
Select the statement which is NOT correct about the pharmaceutical applications of colloids.
180° Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Colloidal mercury has been used as a diagnostic agent for paresis.
B. Colloidal copper has been used in the treatment of cancer. "

Question 154
Question 154
Analyze and select the factor that governs the degree of repulsion in systems containing
Correct C. The germicide silver chloride has been found to possess increased therapeutic properties
dispersed particle
when formulated in the colloidal state.
A. Entropy D. Colloidal sulfur is be$er absorbed orally than coarsely powdered sulfur.
B. Enthalpy
C. Nernst potential
D. Zeta potential ! Colloidal mercury has been used as a diagnostic agent for paresis.
D. Zeta potential Question 158

Question 158
Identify the colloidal property which is used to determine the molecular weight of colloid.
If the zeta potential is reduced below a certain value (which depends on the particular system Incorrect
being used), the a$ractive forces exceed the repulsive forces, and the particles come together
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Brownian movement "
(aka flocculation)
B. Viscosity
Zeta
Zeta potential
potential - the di"erence in potential between the surface of the tightly bound layer
C. Electric properties
(shear plane) and the electroneutral region of the solution.
D. Light sca$ering
Nernst
Nernst potential
potential (or surface potential) - the di"erence in potential between the actual
surface and the electroneutral region of the solution
Your answer is incorrect. B – low conc
D. Light sca$ering D – electrolytes
Brownian
Brownian movement
movement - describes the random movement (erratic motion) of colloidal The correct answer is:
particles. Micelles are aggregates of molecules or ions of the substance dissolved in the dispersion
medium.
Electric
Electric properties
properties - important factor in the stability of colloidal systems.

Light sca$ering
Question 162
Question 162
Identify the physical property that can be calculated using Stokes’ law.
Correct
Question 159
Question 159 Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
Identify the colloidal property which is a"ected by the shape of particles of the dispersed phase, A. Viscosity
Correct and the relationship between this property and shape reflects the degree of solvation of the
particles. B. Fluidity
C. Sedimentation !
A. Brownian movement
D. Brownian movement
B. Viscosity !
C. Electric properties
D. Light sca$ering C. Sedimentation
The velocity, v, of sedimentation of spherical particles having a density ρ in a medium of

density ρ0 and a viscosity η0 is given by the Stokes's law
Your answer is correct. The correct answer is:
B. Viscosity Sedimentation
Spherocolloids form dispersions of relatively low viscosity, whereas systems containing linear
particles are more viscous.
Question 163
Question 163
The correct answer is: Identify the analytical instrument used for determining the sedimentation rate.
Viscosity Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Andreasen apparatus !
B. HIAC/Royco instrument
Question 160
Question 160
Select the statement that BEST describes solubilization. C. Coulter counter
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 D. Fisher subsieve sizer – Bulk density

A. Ability of the dispersion medium to increase the van der Waals forces between the molecules
of the dispersed phase
B. Ability of the dispersion medium to decrease the solubility of the micelles " Your answer is correct.
A. Andreasen apparatus
C. Ability of micelles to increase the solubility of materials that are normally insoluble, or
slightly soluble, in the dispersion medium HIAC/Royco
HIAC/Royco (light blockade) - designed to count and measure the size of particles by means
of a shadow cast by the particle as it passes through a high-intensity light beam
D. Ability of micelles to decrease the solubility of materials that are normally very soluble in the Coulter
Coulter counter
counter (electric resistance) is used for measuring the volume of particles. This
dispersion medium instrument operates on the principle that when a particle suspended in a conducting liquid
passes through a small ori#ce on either side of which are electrodes, a change in electric
resistance occurs.
Your answer is incorrect. Fisher
Fisher subsieve
subsieve sizer
sizer - determines the surface area of the powder using air permeability
C. Ability of micelles to increase the solubility of materials that are normally insoluble, or method
slightly soluble, in the dispersion medium The correct answer is:
The correct answer is: Andreasen apparatus
Ability of micelles to increase the solubility of materials that are normally insoluble, or slightly
soluble, in the dispersion medium
Question 164
Question 164
Select the Newtonian liquids.
Incorrect
Question 161
Question 161
Select the statement that characterizes Association Colloids. Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 "
Correct A. Ethyl alcohol, Mayonnaise
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Amphiphiles in a liquid medium of low concentration exist as aggregates. B. Virgin coconut oil, Gold colloid
B. Amphiphiles in a liquid medium of high concentration exist as normal strong electrolytes in C. Olive oil, Chloroform
solution over a wide concentration range.
D. Tobramycin, Chloramphenicol Palmitate Suspension
C. Micelles are aggregates of molecules or ions of the substance dissolved in the dispersion !
medium.
D. Micelles are generally agglomerates of non-electrolytes.
C. Olive oil, Chloroform
Newtonian: Water, Ethyl alcohol, Glycerin, Chloroform, Virgin coconut oil, Olive oil
Your answer is correct. The correct answer is:
Olive oil, Chloroform
C. Micelles are aggregates of molecules or ions of the substance dissolved in the dispersion
medium.

A – high conc
Question 165
Question 165
B – low conc Select the Non-Newtonian liquids.

Select the Non-Newtonian liquids. ammonia molecules are coordinated to the cobalt ion.
Correct
D. In hexamminecobalt III chloride, the coordination number of ammonia is two. !
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Ethyl alcohol, Mayonnaise
B. Virgin coconut oil, Gold colloid

C. Olive oil, Chloroform
D. In hexamminecobalt III chloride, the coordination number of ammonia is two.
D. Tobramycin, Chloramphenicol Palmitate Suspension ! Six

D. Tobramycin, Chloramphenicol Palmitate Suspension
In hexamminecobalt III chloride, the coordination number of ammonia is two.
Non-Newtonian behavior is generally exhibited by liquid and solid heterogeneous dispersions.
Plastic
Plastic Non-newtonian
Non-newtonian fluids:
fluids: semi-solids, ointment, paste, cream, cerate, cataplasm,
bu$er and margarine
Pseudoplastic
Pseudoplastic Non-newtonian
Non-newtonian fluids:
fluids: liquid dispersions of natural and synthetic gums Question 169
Question 169
Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid is a ________.
(e.g., tragacanth, sodium alginate, methylcellulose, and sodium carboxymethyl cellulose)
Correct
Dilatant
Dilatant Non-newtonian
Non-newtonian fluid:
fluid: suspension
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Monodentate
Tobramycin, Chloramphenicol Palmitate Suspension B. Bidentate
C. Tridentate
D. Hexadentate !
Question 166
Question 166
Select the viscometers which can be used for both Newtonian and Non-Newtonian systems.
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 " Your answer is correct.

A. Capillary, Falling Sphere
B. Cone and Plate, Capillary Hexadentate
C. Cone and Plate, Falling Sphere
D. Cup and Bob, Cone and Plate

Question 170
Question 170
Select the statement that does NOT characterize Chelates.
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. A chelate is a complex formed from a substance containing 2 or more donor groups that
D. Cup and Bob, Cone and Plate
combine with a metal.
Single point instruments can only be used for Newtonian systems while multi-point
instruments can be used for both Newtonian and Non-Newtonian systems B. When the ligand provides three donor groups for a$achment to the central ion, the chelate is
called bidentate.

Single Point: Capillary (Ostwald, Saybolt), Falling Sphere (Hoeppler) C. Chlorophyll and hemoglobin are naturally occurring chelates. "
Multi Point: Cup and Bob, Cone and Plate (Ferranti-shirley)

D. The binding of copper to serum albumin is an example of chelation.
Cup and Bob, Cone and Plate

When the ligand provides three donor groups for a$achment to the central ion, the chelate is
Question 167
Question 167
Find the classi#cation of complexes. called bidentate.
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Metal and Organic complexes "
B. Metal and Quinhydrone complexes Question 171

Question 171
Select the statement that BEST characterize the application of complexation in pharmacy.
Incorrect
C. Metal complexes, Organic complexes, Inclusion/Occlusion compounds
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Complexation between a drug and complexing agents does NOT influence drug absorption
D. Organic and Quinhydrone complexes
and bioavailability.
B. Warfarin sodium can be in the form of a crystalline clathrate containing water and isopropyl
Your answer is incorrect. alcohol.
C. Metal complexes, Organic complexes, Inclusion/Occlusion compounds

C. Ca"eine forms complexes with organic acid anions that are less soluble than ca"eine alone,
The correct answer is: providing ca"eine in a form that masks its normally bi$er taste.
Metal complexes, Organic complexes, Inclusion/Occlusion compounds
D. Cyclodextrins can form macromolecular inclusion compounds by trapping the drug "
molecule inside its cavity.
Question 168
Question 168
Select the statement that does NOT characterize Metal complexes. Your answer is incorrect.
Correct
B. Warfarin sodium can be in the form of a crystalline clathrate containing water and isopropyl
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. A ligand donates a pair of electrons to form a covalent link between itself and the central ion alcohol.
that has an incomplete electron shell.
B. Hybridization plays an important role in coordination compounds where su"icient bonding A – can impair or improve
orbitals are NOT available in the metal ion. C – organic acids only (e.g, gentisic acid) and not organic acid anions since complexes with
organic acid anions are more soluble than the pure xanthine
C. Ammonia molecules in hexamminecobalt (III) chloride are known as ligands, wherein the
D – monomolecular
ammonia molecules are coordinated to the cobalt ion.


Macromolecular – atoms are arranged in three dimensions to produce cages and channels in A slower absorption might be advantageous for a drug with a narrow therapeutic window.
which the guest molecules are entrapped (e.g., zeolites, silica gel)

Warfarin sodium can be in the form of a crystalline clathrate containing water and isopropyl
alcohol. Question 175
Question 175
The therapeutic indices of Drugs A, B, C, and D are as follows:
Incorrect
Drug A - 15 Drug C - 10
Drug B - 9 Drug D - 12
Question 172
Question 172
Which dosage form exhibits zero-order kinetics? Which of the 4 drugs is expected to have the greatest margin of safety?
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Solutions A. Drug A
B. Suspensions ! B. Drug D
C. Emulsions C. Drug C
D. Paste D. Drug B "
Your answer is correct. Your answer is incorrect.
B. Suspensions The correct answer is:

Drug A
Suspensions are another case of zero-order kinetics, in which the concentration in solution
depends on the drug's solubility. As the drug decomposes in solution, more drug is released
from the suspended particles so that the concentration remains constant. The amount of drug
in solution remains constant despite its decomposition with time. The reservoir of solid drug in
suspension is responsible for this constancy. Question 176
Question 176
An Act Regulating and Modernizing the Practice of Pharmacy in the Philippines
The correct answer is: Correct
Suspensions
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. RA 10918 !
B. RA 9711
Question 173
Question 173 C. RA 6675
Analyze and select which statement is correct about drug disposition.
Incorrect
D. RA 9502
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Free drug concentrations are always higher in plasma than in tissues when the distribution "
occurs instantaneously.
B. Many acidic drugs are highly protein bound and thus have a large volume of distribution.
A. RA 10918
C. The fraction of the drug being eliminated per hour is increasing in a #rst order process. RA 9711 - Food and Drug Administration Act of 2009
RA 6675 - Generics Act of 1988
D. The t ½ of a drug eliminated through a #rst order process is a drug speci#c constant.
RA 9502 - Universally Accessible Cheaper and Quality Medicines Act of 2008

D. The t ½ of a drug eliminated through a #rst order process is a drug speci#c constant. RA 10918
Yes it is not dependent on the concentration of the drug. (First order: t ½ = 0.693/K1)
A – same in plasma and tissues

Question 177
Question 177
B – small; while basic drugs have high Vd The Expanded Senior Citizens Act of 2010
Correct
C – remains constant (elimination rate is constant in First order process)
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. RA 6675
The t ½ of a drug eliminated through a #rst order process is a drug speci#c constant. !
B. RA 9994
C. RA 11223
D. RA 9502
Question 174
Question 174
Analyze and select which statement is correct about drug absorption and metabolism.
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Your answer is correct.

A. A fast absorption might allow less frequent dosing.
B. A slower absorption might be advantageous for a drug with a narrow therapeutic window. ! RA 9994
C. Enzyme inhibition causes a signi#cant reduction in drug-blood levels.
D. Enzyme induction a"ects the hepatic clearance of low and high extraction drugs.
Question 178
Question 178
Identify RA 3720.
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Pharmacy Law
B. A slower absorption might be advantageous for a drug with a narrow therapeutic window.
B. Newborn Screening Act

A – Should be more frequent instead of less frequent
C. Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act !
C – Should be increase instead of reduction
D – Should be hepatic blood flow instead of enzyme induction D. Expanded Senior Citizens Act

S2 – prescribers
Your answer is correct. S3 – retailers of dangerous drugs
The correct answer is: S4 – wholesalers

Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act S5 – compounders, producers, and manufacturers
S5I – importers of dangerous drugs

S5E – exporters
Question 179
Question 179 S5D – depot or warehouse
What law or issuance contains the requirements for Good Manufacturing Practice applied to
Correct S6 – research
premises, equipment, personnel, products and warehouse?
S-5
A. Administrative Order from DOH !
B. FDA Advisory
C. FDA Memorandum Circular Question 182

Question 182
Where do senior citizens get their Senior Citizen Card?
D. RA 7432 Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. O"ice of the Provincial/Municipal/City Treasurer
Your answer is correct. B. O"ice of the Provincial Governor

A. Administrative Order from DOH
C. O"ice of Senior Citizens A"airs !
The guidelines for cGMP is found in DOH Administrative Order 2012-0008 “Adoption and
Implementation of the Pharmaceutical Inspection Cooperation Scheme (PIC/s) Guidelines for D. O"ice of the Mayor
the the Good Manufacturing Practice (GMP) for Medicinal Products”

Administrative Order from DOH Your answer is correct.

O"ice of Senior Citizens A"airs
Question 180
Question 180
Identify the S-license issued to retailers of drug preparations containing controlled chemicals.
Incorrect
Question 183
Question 183
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. S-1 Identify the Core List.
Correct
B. S-3 "
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. List of medical devices needed by majority of the population
C. S-5 !
B. List of drugs that meet the health care needs of majority of the population
D. S-4
C. List of drugs for geriatric patients
D. List of drugs that are for special medical patients such as cancer patients
A. S-1
S1 – retailers of drug preparations containing controlled chemicals
B. List of drugs that meet the health care needs of majority of the population
S2 – prescribers

S3 – retailers of dangerous drugs
Complementary
Complementary List
List - a list of alternative drugs used when there is no response to the core
S4 – wholesalers
essential drug or when there is hypersensitivity reaction to the core essential drug or when for
S5 – compounders, producers, and manufacturers one reason or another, the core essential drug cannot be given
S5I – importers of dangerous drugs The correct answer is:
S5E – exporters List of drugs that meet the health care needs of majority of the population
S5D – depot or warehouse
S6 – research
Question 184
Question 184
The correct answer is: Choose which explains why generic drugs are as e"ective and safe as brand-name medicines
Correct
S-1
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Both contain the same active ingredients, both have the same risks and bene#ts, both are !
the same strength, stability and quality, both are the same in terms of safety and
e"ectiveness
Question 181
Question 181
Identify the S-license issued to compounders and manufacturers of dangerous drugs or B. Both are the same strength, dosage form, and quality
Correct dangerous drug preparations and/or drug preparations containing controlled chemicals.
C. Both are of the same dosage form
A. S-1 D. Both have the same bene#ts
B. S-3
C. S-5 ! Your answer is correct.
A. Both contain the same active ingredients, both have the same risks and bene#ts, both are
D. S-4 the same strength, stability and quality, both are the same in terms of safety and e"ectiveness
Both contain the same active ingredients, both have the same risks and bene#ts, both are the
same strength, stability and quality, both are the same in terms of safety and e"ectiveness
C. S-5
S1 – retailers of drug preparations containing controlled chemicals
S2 – prescribers

- When the brand name precedes the generic name.

Question 185
Question 185 - When the generic name is the one in parenthesis.
Select which explains why generic drugs cost less than brand-name medicines
Correct - When the brand name is not in parenthesis.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Less amounts of active ingredients are used
B. Generic drugs DO NOT need to repeat animal and clinical studies required of brand-name ! When the generic name is enclosed within a parenthesis, and brand name is NOT
medicines; multiple applications for a single generic drug are often approved, creating
competition in the market, resulting in lower prices; and waivers are granted for the non-
biologic strengths
C. Manufactured under lower standards as the brand-name medicines Question 188

Question 188
Select the components of a violative prescription
Correct
D. Ingredients used are of lower quality
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. When the brand name is NOT enclosed within a parenthesis
B. Only the brand name is wri$en on the prescription, with the phrase “No substitution” !
B. Generic drugs DO NOT need to repeat animal and clinical studies required of brand-name C. When the generic and brand names are both legible
competition in the market, resulting in lower prices; and waivers are granted for the non- D. When the generic name is enclosed within a parenthesis
biologic strengths
Generic drugs DO NOT need to repeat animal and clinical studies required of brand-name Your answer is correct.
B. Only the brand name is wri$en on the prescription, with the phrase “No substitution”
competition in the market, resulting in lower prices; and waivers are granted for the non-

biologic strengths
Violative
Violative Prescription
Prescription
- When the generic name is not wri$en
- When the generic name is not legible and a brand name which is legible is wri$en;
Question 186
Question 186
These are drug products that contain the identical therapeutic moiety, or its precursor, but not - When the brand name is indicated and instructions added, such as the phase 'No
Correct necessarily in the same amount or dosage form, or the same salt or ester. Substitution' which tend to obstruct, hinder or prevent proper generic dispensing

A. Pharmaceutical equivalents The correct answer is:
Only the brand name is wri$en on the prescription, with the phrase “No substitution”
B. Pharmaceutical alternatives !
C. Therapeutic equivalents
D. Bioequivalent products Question 189

Question 189
Which are the objectives of RA 10918?
Correct
I. Standardization and regulation of pharmacy education.
Your answer is correct. Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
II. Administration of licensure examination, registration, and licensing of pharmacists.
B. Pharmaceutical alternatives
III. Supervision, control, and regulation of the practice of pharmacy in the Philippines.

IV. Development and enhancement of professional competence of pharmacists through
Ex: tetracycline hydrochloride, 250mg capsules vs. tetracycline phosphate complex, 250mg continuing professional development, research, and other related activities.
capsules;
quinidine sulfate, 200mg tablets vs. quinidine sulfate, 200mg capsules A. I, II, III

B. I, III, IV
Approved drug products are considered to be therapeutic equivalents if they are
pharmaceutical equivalents for which bioequivalence has been demonstrated C. II, III, IV

D. I, II, III, IV !
Bioequivalence is the absence of a signi#cant di"erence in the rate and extent to which the
active ingredient or active moiety in pharmaceutical equivalents or pharmaceutical
alternatives becomes available at the site of drug action when administered at the same
molar dose under similar conditions in an appropriately designed study.
I, II, III, IV
Pharmaceutical alternatives
Question 190
Question 190
Question 187
Question 187 Determine the responsibility of Pharmacy Assistants in a pharmacy operation.
Select the components of an erroneous prescription
Incorrect
Correct
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Responsible for performing general housekeeping; arrangements of the display and
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. When the generic name is NOT legible and brand name is legible
monitoring of the supply/inventory of pharmaceutical products; dispensing of OTC
B. When the brand name and generic name are NOT legible pharmaceutical products; and may have supervised interaction with patients
C. When the generic name is enclosed within a parenthesis, and brand name is NOT ! B. Responsible for cleaning of work areas; assisting in the stocking of products in the shelves and
warehouse; #ling of documents on orders, deliveries, sales; and other tasks as may be
D. When only the brand name is wri$en in the prescription assigned by the pharmacist, without direct interaction with patients.
C. Responsible for arrangements of the display and monitoring of the supply/inventory of

pharmaceutical products; compounding of formulations and dispensing of both OTC
medicines and prescription pharmaceutical products; and conduct of health promotion
C. When the generic name is enclosed within a parenthesis, and brand name is NOT education.

D. All of the above "
Erroneous
Erroneous Prescription
Prescription
- When the brand name precedes the generic name.

D. Retail outlets selling prescription medicines


Responsible for performing general housekeeping; arrangements of the display and monitoring
of the supply/inventory of pharmaceutical products; dispensing of OTC pharmaceutical C. Where the supervising pharmacist must be physically present for a minimum of two (2)
products; and may have supervised interaction with patients hours per week; includes satellite institutional pharmacies; 4th to 6th class MHUs involved in
procurement, distribution, dispensing & storage of drugs; retail outlets selling household
remedies; institutions providing telepharmacy services; and nontraditional outlets of
pharmaceutical products
Question 191
Question 191
Select the description of “re#lling of a prescription”
Incorrect Category
Category A
A - establishments where direct and immediate control and supervision of an RPh
is required
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. Filling a prescription order for a second time "
· Establishments/outlets selling Rx drugs, medical device w/ drugs, and RPh-only OTC
medicine to the public
B. Compounding a prescription order for the fourth time
· Establishments who manufacture, import, export, and distribute drugs
C. Dispensing a repeat prescription order dated 2 years ago
· Divisions of pharma labs with processes involving preparation, manufacture, assay,
regulation, R&D, QC, repacking, importation, sale, of drugs in quantities greatly in excess of
D. Dispensing the remaining balance of medicines ordered in the prescription
single therapeutic doses
· Govt units (LG, city, 1st to 3rd class MHUs, NGOs) involved in procurement, distribution,
dispensing & storage of drugs

Dispensing the remaining balance of medicines ordered in the prescription Category
Category BB - establishments where only oversight of an RPh is required (min of 2 hrs per
week)
· Outlets selling household remedies and OTC drugs
· Satellite institutional pharmacies providing drugs solely to employees of their companies
Question 192
Question 192
A pharmacist shall renew his/her Professional Identi#cation Card (PIC) every _____, upon · 4th to 6th class MHUs involved in procurement, distribution, dispensing & storage of drugs
Incorrect presentation of the Certi#cate of Good Standing from the accredited professional organization · Institutions providing telepharmacy services
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 (APO) and proof of completion of the CPD requirements.

A. 1 year
Where the supervising pharmacist must be physically present for a minimum of two (2) hours
per week; includes satellite institutional pharmacies; 4th to 6th class MHUs involved in
B. 2 years
procurement, distribution, dispensing & storage of drugs; retail outlets selling household
C. 3 years remedies; institutions providing telepharmacy services; and nontraditional outlets of
D. 5 years "
Your answer is incorrect. Question 195

Question 195
When was the Universal Health Care (UHC) Act signed?
The correct answer is: Correct
3 years
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. March 23, 2020
B. June 20, 2018
Question 193
Question 193 C. July 21, 2016
Choose the government agency that certi#es Medical Representatives or Professional Service
Incorrect Representatives. !
D. February 20, 2019
A. Professional Regulatory Board of Pharmacy
B. Food and Drug Administration
D. February 20, 2019
C. Department of Labor and Employment " RA 11223: Universal Health Care (UHC) Act

D. Department of Trade and Industry
A – Bayanihan to Heal as One Act (RA 11469)
B – Mental Health Act (RA 11036)

C – Philippine Pharmacy Act (RA 10918) lapsed into law
Professional Regulatory Board of Pharmacy February 20, 2019
Question 194
194 Question 196
196
Question
Question
Select the statement that BEST describes Category B pharmaceutical establishments Identify the components of the “Essential Health Bene#t Package” in the Universal Health Care
Correct
Correct Act
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Supermarkets selling prescription drugs placed in shelves together with OTC medicines Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
A. Primary care, medicines, diagnostic and laboratory tests, preventive, curative, !
B. Drug establishments where the supervising pharmacist must be physically present during the
rehabilitative services
entire operational hours of the establishment
! B. Preventive, curative, rehabilitative services

C. Where the supervising pharmacist must be physically present for a minimum of two (2)
hours per week; includes satellite institutional pharmacies; 4th to 6th class MHUs involved C. Diagnostic and laboratory tests
in procurement, distribution, dispensing & storage of drugs; retail outlets selling household
remedies; institutions providing telepharmacy services; and nontraditional outlets of D. Primary care, medicines, laboratory tests, food allowance
D. Retail outlets selling prescription medicines

Your answer is correct. C – Special Law on Counterfeit Drugs
A. Primary care, medicines, diagnostic and laboratory tests, preventive, curative, rehabilitative D – Generics Act of 1998
services The correct answer is:
It does not include amenities or features of the health service that provide comfort or RA 10918
convenience, such as private accommodation, air conditioning, telephone, television, and
choice of meals, among others

Question 200
Identify the law violated when two congressmen where found distributing the anti-parasitic drug
Primary care, medicines, diagnostic and laboratory tests, preventive, curative, rehabilitative Correct Ivermectin to Quezon City residents which they claimed would help treat COVID-19, despite
services
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 repeated warning from health o"icials that there is no scienti#c proof on the e"icacy of
ivermectin against COVID-19
A. RA 9165
Question 197
Question 197
Identify the law violated when Sampaguita Pharmacy was found selling counterfeit medicines
B. RA 9711 !
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. RA 6675 C. RA 8203
B. RA 9944 D. RA 6675
C. RA 9502
! Your answer is correct.

D. RA 8203
RA 9711
D. RA 8203
Special Law on Counterfeit Drugs
A - Generics Act Previous Activity Jump to... Next Activity

B – Expanded Senior Citizens Act
C – Cheaper Medicines Act

RA 8203
Question 198
Question 198
Identify the law violated by Pharmacy Watsong that has an LTO on display that expired on March
Correct 19, 2004
A. Generics Act of 1988
B. Special Law on Counterfeit Drugs
C. Philippine Pharmacy Act !
D. Universally Accessible, Cheaper and Quality Medicines Act

Philippine Pharmacy Act
Question 199
Question 199
Identify the law violated when Impure Gold Supermarket, a Category B establishment, was found
Correct selling prescription and non-prescription drugs
A. RA 9165
B. RA 9502
C. RA 10840
D. RA 10918 !

B. RA 9711
Food and Drug Administration Act of 2009

Violation: Distribution of drug products without the proper authorization (e.g., Certi#cate of
Product Registration) from FDA is prohibited. The use of such violative products may pose
health risks to consumers.

A – Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
C – Special Law on Counterfeit Drugs


FC-MODULE 5: Attempt Review

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

FC-MODULE 5: Attempt Review

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

MODULE 5: Attempt review 10/19/22, 11:52 PM MODULE 5: Attempt review 10/19/22, 11:52 PM

Which statements BEST describe the local e"ects of drugs?

FINAL COACHING ( CLICK HERE )

FINAL COACHING ( NOVEMBER 2022 ) B. II, III, IV

Started on Tuesday, 18 October 2022, 12:16 PM

The correct answer is:

Grade 126.00 out of 200.00 (63

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is:

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Antiparasitic

B. Strong antimicrobial ! Question 5

Your answer is correct. C. Very #ne powder !

Very Coarse – pass through Sieve No. 8

Coarse – pass through Sieve No. 20

Question 3 Moderately Coarse – pass through Sieve No. 40

Fine – pass through Sieve No. 60 Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is:

A. Mechanical mixing C. Enteric-coated tablets

B. Sifting D. Multiple-compressed tablets

D. Tumbling Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is:

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Zinc oxide

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

Your answer is correct.

The correct answer is:

B. Not easily we$ed by liquids !

C. More stable to humidity "

D. less tendency to cake or harden

B. Not easily we$ed by liquids

C. Active ingredient, solubilizing agent, binder, disintegrant, #ller "

Your answer is incorrect.

It should dissolve in rectal fluids to allow the release of the API

C. Sustained release " The correct answer is:

Your answer is incorrect.

B. Oleaginous ointment bases are excellent emollients.

The correct answer is:

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Compatible with a variety of drugs D. III, IV

B. Remains stable in rectal fluids !

Your answer is correct.

B. Absorption base Your answer is correct.

1. Organic hydrogels - pectin paste, tragacanth jelly

C. Emulsi#ed base "

Your answer is incorrect.

B. Vegetable oil bases - aluminum stearate, mineral oil gel

Your answer is incorrect.

The correct answer is:

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. Organogel

C. Water absorbable bases !

2. O/W – Hydrophilic ointment, vanishing cream

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

B. Emulsi#ed base Question 27

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A. White wax, beeswax

B. White wax, spermaceti

Your answer is correct.

! The correct answer is:

B. Fentanyl (Duragesic®) "

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A. NOT suitable for all drugs

Your answer is incorrect.

A. Stores and releases the drug at the skin site !

B. Removed before application to enable drug release

Your answer is correct.

Release Liner – removed before application to enable drug release

https://www.lms.manorreviewcenter.ph/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=187482&cmid=1973&showall=1 Page 9 of 62 https://www.lms.manorreviewcenter.ph/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=187482&cmid=1973&showall=1 Page 10 of 62