COMPRE - MODULE 6 (MICROBIOLOGY, PUBLIC HEALTH, QA, QC) : Attempt Review

MODULE 6 ( MICROBIOLOGY, PUBLIC HEALTH, QA, QC ): Attempt review 10/13/22, 3:56 PM
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Dashboard / Courses / COMPRE / EXAM / MODULE 6 ( MICROBIOLOGY, PUBLIC HEALTH, QA, QC )
Started on Thursday, 29 September 2022, 1:20 PM
State Finished
Completed on Thursday, 29 September 2022, 2:24 PM
Time taken 1 hour 3 mins
Grade 62.00 out of 100.00
Question 1
A process wherein a sample is made to liberate iodine, which is then titrated with a standard
Correct solution of sodium thiosulfate:
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
a. Direct titration
b. Residual titration
c. Iodometry !
d. Iodimetry
The correct answer is: Iodometry
Question 2
What is the indicator used in iodimetry and iodometry?
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Phenolphthalein
b. Ferric alum
c. Hydroxynaphthol blue
d. Starch !
Hydroxynaphthol blue- Ca ion indicator
Ferric ammonium sulfate- indicator used in Volhard method
The correct answer is: Starch

https://www.lms.manorreviewcenter.ph/mod/quiz/review.php?attempt=157801&cmid=1930&showall=1 Page 1 of 31
The correct answer is: Starch
Question 3
In microbial assay, the instrumental method used to prepare the inoculum is:
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Turbidimetry
b. Nephelometry
c. Paper chromatography
d. Column chromatography "
Turbidimetry- transmi"ed light

Nephelometry- reflected light
The correct answer is: Turbidimetry
Question 4
In blank determination, all steps of the analysis are performed in the absence of the
Correct ______
a. Analyte !
b. Primary standard
c. Secondary standard
d. Indicator
The correct answer is: Analyte
Question 5
A substance that has a high degree of purity and is used in direct standardization purposes:
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Technical grade
b. Primary standard !
c. Secondary standard
d. Cp grade
The correct answer is: Primary standard
Question 6
Type of error which causes data to be sca"ered more or less asymmetrically around a mean
Incorrect value; reflected by precision of measurement
a. Systematic
b. Determinate "
c. Gross
d. Random
d. Random
Types of Errors in Experimental Data:

1. Random/Indeterminate- a#ects precision of measurement
2. Systematic/Determinate- a#ects the accuracy of results, either all high or all low
The correct answer is: Random
Question 7
Endpoint that is shown by a change in color of the solution being titrated
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Theoretical endpoint
b. Stoichiometric endpoint
c. Equivalence point
d. Practical endpoint !
Theoretical/Stoichiometric/Equivalence point- equivalent amount of substances have

already reacted
The correct answer is: Practical endpoint
Question 8
The theoretical point at which the added titrant is chemically equivalent to the analyte in
Correct the sample.
a. Stoichiometric point
b. End point
c. Equivalence point
d. Both A and C !
The correct answer is: Both A and C
Question 9
The indicator used when titrating weak acid with a strong base?
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Ferric ammonium sulfate
b. Methyl red
c. Phenolphthalein !
d. Dichlorofluorescein
SA+SB=Phenolphthalein, Methyl red, Methyl orange

WA+SB= Phenolphthalein
SA+WB= Methyl red

Ferric ammonium sulfate=Volhard
Ferric ammonium sulfate=Volhard
DCF = Fajans
The correct answer is: Phenolphthalein
Question 10
What is the color of phenolphthalein in vinegar?
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Pink
b. Blue
c. Yellow
d. Colorless !
Pink in basic solutions

The correct answer is: Colorless
Question 11
Used to determine the concentration of a metal in the presence of another metal
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Demasking agent
b. Masking agent !
c. Complexing agent
d. Formation constant
Masking agent Elements masked
Triethanolamine Al,Fe, Mn
Thioglycol Hg, Cu, Bi
Cyanide Cu, Zn, Ni, Co

The correct answer is: Masking agent
Question 12
Temperature for ignition described as Dull red heat
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. 500-550 °C
b. 550-700 °C
c. 800-1000 °C
d. 1000-1200 °C
e. 1200-1600 °C "
Very dull red heat 500-550 °C
Dull red heat 550-700 °C

Dull red heat 550-700 °C
Bright red heat 800-1000°C
Yellow red heat 1000-1200°C
White heat 1200-1600 °C
The correct answer is:

550-700 °C
Question 13
Match the instrument with the physical constant it measures:
Correct
I. Speci$c gravity
II. Solubility
III. Refractive index
IV. Optical activity
V. Boiling point

Abbe refractometer
a. IV
b. II
c. III !
d. V
The correct answer is: III
Question 14
Match the instrument with the physical constant it measures: I. Speci$c gravity II. Solubility
Correct III. Refractive index IV. Optical activity V. Boiling point Polarimeter
a. III
b. II
c. V
d. IV !
The correct answer is: IV
Question 15
Match the instrument with the physical constant it measures:
Correct
I. Speci$c gravity
II. Solubility
III. Refractive index

V. Boiling point

Pycnometer and Westphal Balance
a. I !
b. III
c. V
d. IV
The correct answer is: I
Question 16
Methods of Iodine determination, EXCEPT
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Hanus
b. Wij "
c. Hubl
d. Fischer
§ Methods of Iodine Determination:

§ I-Hanus
§ II-Wij
§ Uno#icial- Hubl
§ Methods of Water Content Determination:
§ I- Karl Fischer
§ II- Toluene/Xylene/Azeotropic Distillation
III- Gravimetric
The correct answer is: Fischer
Question 17
Cassia flask is used in the determination of:
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Aldehyde and ketone content
b. Alcohol content
c. Nitrogen content
d. Volatile oil content "
§ Cassia flask- aldehyde and ketone
§ Acetylization flask- alcohol

§ Kjeldahl flask- nitrogen
Babcock bo"le- volatile oil
The correct answer is: Aldehyde and ketone content
The correct answer is: Aldehyde and ketone content
Question 18
Statement that does not apply to Cupric sulfate
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Gains electrons
b. Oxidizing agent
c. Reducing agent !
d. Reduced in a redox reaction
Remember: GEROA & LEORA
The correct answer is: Reducing agent
Question 19
Undergoes Direct EDTA Titration, EXCEPT:
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Al
b. Ca
c. Mg
d. Zn "
Direct EDTA Titration: Ca, Mg, Zn

Indirect EDTA Titration: Al, Bi
The correct answer is: Al
Question 20
Method used to assay sulfa and aryl-amino containing compounds
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Permanganate
b. Titration with bromine
c. Dichromate
d. Ceric Sulfate
e. Diazotization !
Subdivisions of Redox reactions:
Method Substances assayed
PermanganateDirect- H2O2
Indirect- Malic acid in cherry

juice
Residual-NaNO2
Ceric Sulfate Ferrous sulfate, Menadione

sodium
Iodimetry Reducing agents
Iodometry Oxidizing agents
Dichromate Ferrous-containing compounds
Diazotization Sulfa and aryl-amino containing

compounds
Titration with Phenol, aniline, resorcinol

bromine
The correct answer is: Diazotization
Question 21
It refers to the direct or residual analysis of acids using standard basic solutions:
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Kjeldahl
b. Acidimetry
c. Alkalimetry !
d. Compleximetry
The correct answer is: Alkalimetry
Question 22
What is the method of analysis involved in the assay of sodium hydroxide?
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Direct acidimetry !
b. Direct alkalimetry
c. Direct compleximetry
d. Direct precipitimetry
The correct answer is: Direct acidimetry
Question 23
What is the method of analysis in the assay of aspirin capsules?
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Direct acidimetry
b. Residual acidimetry
c. Direct alkalimetry "
d. Residual alkalimetry
The correct answer is: Residual alkalimetry
Question 24
What is the other term for Koe"sdorfer number?
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Acid value
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Acid value
b. Iodine value
c. Saponi$cation value !
d. Ester value
The correct answer is: Saponi$cation value
Question 25
Compute for the saponi$cation value of a sample if its acid value is 4.58 and its ester value
Incorrect is 7.62
a. 12.2
b. 3.04 "
c. 1.66
d. 34.9
SV=AV+EV
SV=4.58 + 7.62
SV=12.2
The correct answer is: 12.2
Question 26
Determine the iodine value of a sample of olive oil weighing 0.2100 g if 24.15 ml and 12.00
Incorrect ml of 0.1100 N sodium thiosulfate solution were used for the blank and residual titrations,
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 respectively.
a. 80.5
b. 80.6
c. 80.7 "
d. 80.8
IV= (N xV x 0.1269)/wt x 100
IV= 0.1100 N x(24.15ml-12.00 ml)x0.1269 /0.2100 g x 100

IV=80.8
Question 27
Type of oils whose iodine number is more than 120:
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Drying oils
b. Semi-drying oils
c. Nondrying oils "
d. None of the above
Iodine value measures degree of unsaturation
Drying: >120 Linseed, cod liver oil
Semi-drying: 100-120 Co"onseed, Sesame

Non-drying: <100 Olive, almond
The correct answer is: Drying oils
Question 28
Two substances reacting upon reaching the endpoint must have the same:
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Volume
b. Normality
c. Number of equivalents !
d. Weight
The correct answer is: Number of equivalents
Question 29
Malic acid in cherry juice may be determined by:
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Direct permanganometry "
b. Indirect permanganometry
c. Residual permanganometry
d. Iodimetry
Direct permanganometry- H2O2, TiO2
Residual permanganometry-Na and K nitrite

The correct answer is: Indirect permanganometry
Question 30
The valence number of Mn in KMnO4 is:
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. +1
b. +3 "
c. +5
d. +7
K(+1) + Mn (x) + O (-2x4)=0

1 + x+ -8 =0
x= 8-1
x= 7
x= 7
The correct answer is: +7
Question 31
The solvent of choice for fats and $xed oils.
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Distilled water
b. N-hexane !
c. 80% ethanol
d. Chloroform
The correct answer is: N-hexane
Question 32
Among the precipitimetric methods of titration, which of the following is a residual titration?
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Volhard !
b. Mohr
c. Fajan’s
d. Karl Fischer
Volhard- Vack (Back) Titration
The correct answer is: Volhard
Question 33
The unit of wavelength in spectrometry, except:
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Nanometer
b. Micron "
c. Millimeter
d. Micrometer
The correct answer is: Millimeter
Question 34
Chromatography can be used to separate compounds that are
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Colored
b. Colorless
c. Turbid
d. A and B !
The correct answer is: A and B
Question 35
A 25-gram sample of NaHCO3 consumed 15.00 mL of 1 N Sulfuric Acid VS. Determine the %
Incorrect NaHCO3.
a. 6.07 % "
b. 7.89 %
c. 4. 38%
d. 5.04%
%P= (NxVx MW/f x1000 )/ wt x100

%P= 1N x 15ml x 84/1000 /25 x100
%P=5.04%
The correct answer is: 5.04%
Question 36
Calculate the water content of Amoxicillin powder using a 3.50 g sample. The water
Incorrect equivalence factor is 4.6 and the volume consumed is 9.2 ml.
a. 1.21
b. 12.1 "
c. 121.0
d. 112.1
% water= (ml KFR x EF) / wt in mg x100
%= 9.2 x 4.6 /3, 500 mg x100

%= 1.21
Question 37
Which is not a component of Karl Fischer reagent?
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Pyridine "
b. Iodine
c. Methanol
d. Sulfuric acid
Composition:
Anhydrous methanol – prevents pyridine-sulfur complex

Iodine – reacts with water to hydroiodic acid
Sulfur dioxide – reacts with water to sulfur trioxide

Pyridine – prevents reversal of action
Pyridine – prevents reversal of action

The correct answer is: Sulfuric acid
Question 38
The indicator used for the titration of calcium using EDTA
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Eriochrome black
b. Hydroxynaphthol blue !
c. Malachite green
d. Methyl orange
The correct answer is: Hydroxynaphthol blue
Question 39
Compute for the normality of a 1L solution containing 24.5 g H2SO4 (MW:98 g/mole)
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. 0.25
b. 0.50 !
c. 0.75
d. 1.25
Normality= wt/(MW/f)/L
N= 24.5 g/ (98g/mole/2)/1L
N=0.50
Question 40
In phenol content determination of a volatile oil, the layer in the graduated neck of the
Correct Cassia flask reached 3.7 ml obtained from a sample of 15 ml after treatment with KOH
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 solution. The percentage of oil is:
a. 73.45 %
b. 86.75 %
c. 75.33% !
d. 89. 43%
Phenol content = V sample- Vresidual/V sample x100

=15-3.7/15 x100
=75.33%
The correct answer is: 75.33%
Question 41
The most e#ective way to clean glass apparatus:
Question 41
The most e#ective way to clean glass apparatus:
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Soaking in detergent "
b. Rinsing with nitric acid
c. Treatment with a solution of sodium chromate in sulfuric acid
d. Washing with acetic acid
The correct answer is: Treatment with a solution of sodium chromate in sulfuric acid
Question 42
The law of spectrometry which states that the power of transmi"ed radiant beam
Correct decreases exponentially as the concentration of the solution containing the absorbing
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 chemical species increases
a. Beer’s law !
b. Lambert’s law
c. Newton’s law
d. Charles’ law
Lambert’s/Bouguer’s Law= states that the power of transmi"ed radiant beam decreases
exponentially as the thickness of the solution containing the absorbing chemical species
increases

Beer’s law
Question 43
Materials to be sampled include the following, except:
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Final products
b. Raw materials
c. Intermediate products
d. Records !
The correct answer is: Records
Question 44
Materials being controlled by the QC department, except:
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Active ingredient "
b. Excipient
c. Finished product
d. Package
d. Package
The correct answer is: Package
Question 45
It is the one responsible for the test and measure of materials and products
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Total Quality Management
b. Quality Control !
c. cGMP
d. Quality Assurance
Quality assurance- one responsible for establishing the system to ensure product quality
The correct answer is: Quality Control
Question 46
Total quality means
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Quality is everyone’s business !
b. Quality combines strict adherence to standards
c. Production is responsible for quality
d. AOTA
The correct answer is: Quality is everyone’s business
Question 47
It is the sum of all factors which contribute directly or indirectly to the safety, e#ectiveness,
Correct and reliability of a product
a. Safety
b. Purity
c. Quality !
d. E#icacy
The correct answer is: Quality
Question 48
The basket rack assembly is a component of which instrument?
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Hardness tester
b. Friabilator
c. Dissolution apparatus
d. Disintegration apparatus !
d. Disintegration apparatus !
The correct answer is: Disintegration apparatus
Question 49
Content uniformity is to be performed for all tablets whose active ingredient is
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Less than 50 mg !
b. Less than 100 mg
c. 50-100 mg
d. More than 50 mg
The correct answer is: Less than 50 mg
Question 50
What is the number of tablets required in weight variation test?
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. 10
b. 15
c. 20 !
d. 25
The correct answer is: 20
Question 51
Using a spectrophotometer to measure the concentration of the sample, the following data
Correct were obtained:
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Absorbance of standard solution= 0.225
Absorbance of sample solution=0.214
Concentration of standard solution=17.7 mcg
What is the concentration of the sample solution?
a. 16.8 mcg !
b. 18.6 mcg
c. 19.7 mcg
d. 16.9 mcg
Abs of std/Conc of std= Abs of sample/Conc of sample

0.225/17.7 mcg= 0.214/x
x= 16.8 mcg
The correct answer is: 16.8 mcg
Question 52
A hardness tester that operates on the same mechanical principle as ordinary pliers
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Stokes-Monsanto "
b. P$zer
c. Strong-Cobb
d. Schleuniger
Stokes-Monsanto- spring
Strong-Cobb- air pump

Schleuniger- horizontal anvil
Erweka- suspended weight
The correct answer is: P$zer
Question 53
Instrument used to determine the tightness of a cap
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Crimper
b. Torque tester
c. Resistor "
d. Erweka HT
The correct answer is: Torque tester
Question 54
Which of the following methods can be used in visualizing separated components that are
Correct colorless?
a. Charring using sulfuric acid
b. Use of iodine crystals
c. Examination using UV radiation
d. All of these !
The correct answer is: All of these
Question 55
LAL is an aqueous extract of the circulating amebocytes obtained from
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Horse
b. Crab
c. Horseshoe crab !
d. Mice
The correct answer is: Horseshoe crab
Question 56
What biological animal is used when conducting pyrogen test?
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Dog
b. Cat
c. Rat
d. Rabbit !
Animals used in Biological Assays

Cat- Glucagon
Chicken-Oxytocin
Dogs-PTH
Pigeon-Digitalis
Rat- Corticotropin, (female) Chronic gonadotropin, (male) Vasopressin, (rachitic) Cod
liver oil
Sheep- Heparin, Protamine sulfate
Rabbit- Tubocurarine, Insulin

The correct answer is: Rabbit
Question 57
Which of the following is NOT a principle of separation in chromatography?
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Absorption
b. Adsorption
c. Ion-exchange
d. Molecular exclusion "
The correct answer is: Absorption
Question 58
Turbidimetric and nephelometric methods of assay analyze what type/s of samples?
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Suspension
b. Solution
c. Turbid solution
d. Both A and C !
The correct answer is: Both A and C
Question 59
Potentiometry $nds application in:
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Biologic assay
b. pH determination !
c. Qualitative assay
d. Toxicity testing
The correct answer is: pH determination
Question 60
The method of choice of determining the alcohol content of pharmaceutical preparations
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Speci$c gravity determination
b. Percolation "
c. Fractional distillation
d. Cryoscopic method
The correct answer is: Speci$c gravity determination
Question 61
The following can be sterilized in an autoclave, except
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Olive oil !
b. Culture media
c. Water
d. Glassware
The correct answer is: Olive oil
Question 62
The $rst-in $rst-out (FIFO) policy must always be observed to
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Prevent cross-contamination
b. Prevent microbial spoilage
c. Assure that the oldest stock is used $rst !
d. Contain information regarding the activity of the active ingredient
The correct answer is: Assure that the oldest stock is used $rst
Question 63
The most widely used chromatographic method in drug analysis is
Question 63
The most widely used chromatographic method in drug analysis is
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. GC
b. TLC
c. HPLC !
d. PC
The correct answer is: HPLC
Question 64
Gas chromatography is used to assay the following drugs, except:
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Vitamin E "
b. Barbiturates
c. Vitamin B1 and B2
d. NOTA
Gas Chromatography- Barb-E (Barbiturates and Vitamin E)

HPLC- Penicillin/Cephalosporin, Vitamin B6, B9, D
Fluorometry- Vitamin B1 and B2
The correct answer is: Vitamin B1 and B2
Question 65
In normal phase chromatography:
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Stationary and mobile phases are polar "
b. Stationary and mobile phases are nonpolar
c. Stationary phase is nonpolar; mobile phase is polar
d. Stationary phase is polar; mobile phase is nonpolar
The correct answer is: Stationary phase is polar; mobile phase is nonpolar
Question 66
Media temperature for dissolution testing
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. 37 + 0.5 ºC !
b. 37 + 2 ºC
c. 37 + 0.2 ºC
d. 37 + 3 ºC
Disintegration testing- 37+ 2 ºC

The correct answer is: 37 + 0.5 ºC
The correct answer is: 37 + 0.5 ºC
Question 67
The most preferred medium in dissolution testing
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Hexane "
b. Water
c. Gastric fluid
d. Intestinal fluid
The correct answer is: Water
Question 68
The e#iciency of HEPA $lters is assessed using
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Water a"ack test "
b. Bubble point test
c. Pyrogen test
d. Dioctylphthalate test
Water a"ack test- for type II glass

The correct answer is: Dioctylphthalate test
Question 69
Calculate the weight of oxalic acid required to prepare 1000 ml of 0.5 N of the solution.
Incorrect MW=126
a. 36.5 g "
b. 65.3 g
c. 31.5 g
d. 56.3 g
wt = (N x L x MW)/f
wt = (0.5 N x 1 L x 126)/2
g= 31.5 g
The correct answer is: 31.5 g
Question 70
The dye used in leaker’s test
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Thymol blue
b. Methylene blue !
c. Methyl red
d. Phenolphthalein
The correct answer is: Methylene blue
Question 71
The gas used in sterilization
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Carbon dioxide
b. Oxygen
c. Nitrogen "
d. Ethylene oxide
The correct answer is: Ethylene oxide
Question 72
The $rst line defense against viruses is
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Interferon
b. Igm "
c. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
d. Macrophage
The correct answer is: Interferon
Question 73
Refers to the likelihood that a particular hazard will occur
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Accident
b. Incident
c. Risk !
d. Hazard
Hazard- potential to cause harm

The correct answer is: Risk
Question 74
The form of genetic exchange in which donor DNA is introduced to the recipient by a
Correct bacterial virus is
a. Transformation
b. Conjugation
c. Transfection
d. Transduction !
In transformation, the recipient bacterium takes up extracellular donor DNA. In

transduction, donor DNA packaged in a bacteriophage infects the recipient bacterium. In
conjugation, the donor bacterium transfers DNA to the recipient by mating.
The correct answer is: Transduction
Question 75
Question 75
Which major antibody molecule has the ability to cross the placenta?
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. IgG !
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE
IgG – smallest (crosses placenta), second responder G- GABI

IgM- $rst responder M-MAAGA
IgA- secretory Ab (mucosal surfaces)
IgE- a"ach to mast cells and basophils=release histamine, parasitic infections
IgD- growth and di#erentiation
The correct answer is: IgG
Question 76
Question 76
Its main objective is a"ainment by all people of the highest possible level of health
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. DOH
b. WHO !
c. RHU
d. FDA
The correct answer is: WHO
Question 77
Question 77
Which staining method is used to identify spore formers?
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Gram stain
b. Schau#er-Fulton
c. Acid Fast "
d. Feulgen
Schau#er-Fulton- spore formers/Malachite green
Gram stain- G+ or G-
Acid Fast/Ziehl Neelsen- Mycobacterium, Nocardia

Feulgen- Nuclei/DNA
Welch/Negative- Capsule; Nigrosin/India Ink
The correct answer is: Schau#er-Fulton
Question 78
Question 78
Culture media that grows cholera
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Thayer-Martin
b. SDA
c. Skirrow’s
d. TCBS !
TCBS- cholera
Loe#ler’s- diphtheriae
Middlebrook/Lowenstein-Jensen- mycobacterium
MSA- S. aureus
SDA- fungi
Skirrow’s- C. jejuni
Brilliant green- salmonella

TCBS
Question 79
Question 79
Blocks acetylcholine release and causes flaccid paralysis
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Clostridium tetani
b. Clostridium botulinum !
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Clostridium di#icile
Clostridium tetani- spastic paralysis, sardonic smile, blocks GABA & glycine
Clostridium perfringens- gas gangrene

Clostridium di#icile- pseudomembranous colitis caused by Clindamycin
The correct answer is: Clostridium botulinum
Question 80
Question 80
Organism that causes Leningrad’s curse/Beaver fever
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Giardia lamblia !
c. Ricke"sia ricke"sii
c. Ricke"sia ricke"sii
d. Borrelia recurrentis
Borrelia recurrentis- Relapsing fever
Francisella tularensis- Rabbit fever

Legionella pneumophila- legionnaire’s fever/pontiac fever
Ricketssia ricke"sii- rocky mountain spo"ed fever
Schistosoma japonicum- Katayama fever
Streptococcus pyogenes- scarlet fever, rheumatic heart fever

The correct answer is: Giardia lamblia
Question 81
Question 81
DOC for candidiasis
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Griseofulvin
b. Amphotericin B
c. Nystatin !
d. Fluconazole
Griseofulvin- dermatophytoses
Amphotericin B- systemic mycoses
Fluconazole- cryptococcosis
The correct answer is: Nystatin
Question 82
Question 82
The “four o’ clock habit” promoted by the DOH is designed to prevent the spread of:
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Dengue fever !
b. Tuberculosis
c. Malnutrition
d. Malaria
The correct answer is: Dengue fever
Question 83
Question 83
In clinical cases of Malaria, the most favorable time to $nd parasites in the blood is
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. The period before a paroxysm !
b. At the beginning of paroxysm
c. During the paroxysmal stage
d. The period following paroxysm
Benign Tertian- P. vivax and ovale
Malignant Tertian- P. falciparum
Quartan- P. malariae
The correct answer is: The period before a paroxysm
Question 84
Question 84
Administration of a vaccine confers:
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Arti$cially acquired active immunity !
b. Arti$cially acquired passive immunity
c. Naturally acquired active immunity
d. Naturally acquired passive immunity
Active Passive
Administration of Administration of
antigens antibodies
Long-lasting Short-term
Immunity e#ective only Immediate immunity

after lag period
The correct answer is: Arti$cially acquired active immunity
Question 85
Question 85
Which of the following forms of immunity would be least likely to be lifelong?
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Passive immunity
b. Active immunity "
c. Cell-mediated immunity
d. Passive-active immunity
The correct answer is: Passive immunity
Question 86
Question 86
A process by which bacterial endospore returns to its vegetative state:
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Polymorphism "
b. Mutagenicity
c. Germination
d. Sporulation
Sporulation or sporogenesis is the process of endospore formation within a parent or

vegetative cell.
The correct answer is: Germination
Question 87
Question 87
The causative agent of food poisoning, TSS, and skin boils
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Staphylococcus aureus !
b. Staphylococcus pyogenes
c. Staphylococcus pneumoniae
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
Staphyloccocus pyogenes- causative agent of pharyngitis, cellulitis, rheumatic heart

fever and acute glomerulonephritis
Staphylococcus pneumoniae- causes pneumonia and meningitis in adults, and sinusitis
and otitis media in children
Staphylococcus epidermidis- normal flora of the skin but may cause stitch abscess and
sepsis
The correct answer is: Staphylococcus aureus
Question 88
Question 88
The causative agent of herpes genitalis, which can be treated with Acyclovir
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. HSV-1 "
b. Varicella-zoster virus
c. HSV-2
d. Cytomegalovirus
Herpes Name
Type
1 HSV-1 – herpes labialis (fever blisters or

sores on the lips and mouth), also
causes herpetic keratitis and
encephalitis
2 HSV-2 – herpes genitalis
3 VZV- causative agent of Varicella

(chicken pox) in children and Zoster
(shingles) in adults
4 EBV- causative agent of IM and is

associated with Burki"’s lymphoma
5 CMV- causes pneumonia and retinitis

that is treated with Gancyclovir
8 Kaposi sarcoma virus
The correct answer is: HSV-2
Question 89
Question 89
Wild birds are important reservoir of this virus
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Hepatitis C
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Human Papilloma virus
d. St. Louis encephalitis virus !
The correct answer is: St. Louis encephalitis virus
Question 90
Question 90
Reservoir host of Balantidium coli infection
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Dog
b. Cat
c. Pig !
d. Ca"le
The correct answer is: Pig
Question 91
Question 91
A type of malnutrition associated with inadequate mastication, digestion, absorption,
Correct transport, and excretion of nutrients
a. Primary malnutrition
b. Secondary malnutrition !
c. Undernutrition
d. Overnutrtition
Primary malnutrition- due to inadequate intake of nutrients

The correct answer is: Secondary malnutrition
Question 92
Question 92
Which of the following information about Ebola virus is/are true?
Incorrect
I. There’s no cure for Ebola
II. Ebola wreaks life-threatening havoc within the body by a"acking multiple organ systems
at the same time
III. Experts stress that early and intense medical care can greatly improve a person’s chance
of survival
a. I
b. I, II
c. II, III "
d. I, II, III
The correct answer is: I, II, III
Question 93
Question 93
An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occured in the nursery. You are
Incorrect called to investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the most
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 likely source of the bacteria?
a. Colon
b. Nose
c. Throat "
d. Vagina
The correct answer is: Nose
Question 94
Question 94
The region of the body that contains the largest population of microbial flora:
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Skin
b. Colon
c. Vagina "
d. Mouth
The correct answer is: Mouth
Question 95
Question 95
DOC for Strongyloides stercularis
Incorrect
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Thiabendazole
b. Ivermectin "
c. Diethylcarbamazine
d. Praziquantel
Ivermectin- Onchocerca volvulus; river blindess
DEC- Wucheria bancrofti/Brugia malayi; $lariasis
Praziquantel- cestodes
The correct answer is: Thiabendazole
Question 96
Question 96
New world hookworm
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Ancylostoma duodenale
b. Enterobius vermicularis
c. Necator americanus !
d. Stronglyloides stercularis
Ancylostoma duodenale- Old world hookworm
Enterobius vermicularis- Pinworm/Seat worm
Trichuris trichura- Whipworm

Strongyloides stercularis- Threadworm
The correct answer is: Necator americanus
Question 97
Question 97
Lesions in the oral cavity caused by measles virus are known as:
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Koplik spot !
b. Peyer’s patch
c. Rose spot
d. Rashes
Peyer’s patch- Poliovirus
Rose spots- S. typhi
The correct answer is: Koplik spot
Question 98
Question 98
DOC for Trichomonas vaginalis
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Metronidazole !
b. Na stibogluconate
c. Nifurtimox
d. Chloroquine
d. Chloroquine
Na stibogluconate- Leishmeniasis, sand fly
Nifurtimox- Trypanosoma cruzi, kissing bug
Chloroquine- Plasmodium sp., anopheles mosquito

The correct answer is: Metronidazole
Question 99
Question 99
The disinfectant of choice for municipal water supplies:
Correct
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Lysol
b. Chlorine !
c. Ozone
d. Reverse osmosis
The correct answer is: Chlorine
Question 100
Question 100
An index that measures the number of individuals who have become ill because of a
Incorrect speci$c disease within a susceptible population during a speci$c period:
a. Morbidity rate
b. Prevalence rate
c. Mortality rate
d. Incidence rate "
Prevalence rate- is the fraction of the population having the disease at a given time
Mortality rate- is the number of deaths resulting from a disease in a given time in relation
to the population
Incidence rate- is the number of new cases per population at risk in a given time period
The correct answer is: Morbidity rate
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COMPRE - MODULE 6 (MICROBIOLOGY, PUBLIC HEALTH, QA, QC) : Attempt Review

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COMPRE - MODULE 6 (MICROBIOLOGY, PUBLIC HEALTH, QA, QC) : Attempt Review

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MODULE 6 ( MICROBIOLOGY, PUBLIC HEALTH, QA, QC ): Attempt review 10/13/22, 3:56 PM

DRILLS ( CLICK HERE )

FINAL COACHING ( CLICK HERE )

Started on Thursday, 29 September 2022, 1:20 PM

Completed on Thursday, 29 September 2022, 2:24 PM

Time taken 1 hour 3 mins

Grade 62.00 out of 100.00

The correct answer is: Iodometry

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Phenolphthalein

Hydroxynaphthol blue- Ca ion indicator

Ferric ammonium sulfate- indicator used in Volhard method

The correct answer is: Starch

The correct answer is: Starch

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Turbidimetry

d. Column chromatography "

Turbidimetry- transmi"ed light

The correct answer is: Turbidimetry

The correct answer is: Analyte

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Technical grade

The correct answer is: Primary standard

Types of Errors in Experimental Data:

The correct answer is: Random

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Theoretical endpoint

Theoretical/Stoichiometric/Equivalence point- equivalent amount of substances have

The correct answer is: Practical endpoint

The correct answer is: Both A and C

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Ferric ammonium sulfate

SA+SB=Phenolphthalein, Methyl red, Methyl orange

SA+WB= Methyl red

Ferric ammonium sulfate=Volhard

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Pink

Pink in basic solutions

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Demasking agent

Masking agent Elements masked

Cyanide Cu, Zn, Ni, Co

The correct answer is: Masking agent

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. 500-550 °C

Very dull red heat 500-550 °C

Dull red heat 550-700 °C

Dull red heat 550-700 °C

Bright red heat 800-1000°C

Yellow red heat 1000-1200°C

White heat 1200-1600 °C

The correct answer is:

The correct answer is: III

The correct answer is: IV

IV. Optical activity

The correct answer is: I

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Hanus

§ Methods of Iodine Determination:

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Aldehyde and ketone content

d. Volatile oil content "

§ Cassia flask- aldehyde and ketone

§ Acetylization flask- alcohol

The correct answer is: Aldehyde and ketone content

The correct answer is: Aldehyde and ketone content

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Gains electrons

d. Reduced in a redox reaction

Remember: GEROA & LEORA

The correct answer is: Reducing agent

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Al

Direct EDTA Titration: Ca, Mg, Zn

The correct answer is: Al