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CH 222

GENERAL CHEMISTRY

SUPeR Chemistry Practice Final Exam

PLEASE DO NOT OPEN THE EXAM UNTIL INSTRUCTED TO DO SO

Possibly useful information:

R = 8.315 J/mol·K = 0.0821 L·atm/mol·K


K = °C + 273.15 1 atm = 760 mm Hg

k2 E 1 1 − Ea
k = Ae − Ea / RT ln = − a  −  ln k = + ln A
k1 R  T2 T1  RT
0.693
k=
t1/ 2 (for a first order reaction)

Integrated Rate Laws:


zeroth order:
[ A]t = − kt + [A]0
first order:
ln[A]t = − kt + ln[A]0
second order:
1 1
= kt +
[ A]t [A]0
CH 222 Practice Final Exam Page 2
Multiple Choice: Select the one best answer.
1. Which of the following element combinations is likely to produce ionic bonds in a compound?
A. lithium and fluorine
B. boron and oxygen
C. nitrogen and oxygen
D. phosphorous and sulfur
E. chlorine and bromine

2. Which statement is true regarding bond order, bond length, and bond energy?
A. As the bond order increases, the bond length increases.
B. As the bond order increases, the bond length decreases.
C. As the bond order increases, the bond energy decreases.
D. As the bond energy increases, the bond length increases.
E. As the bond energy increases, the bond order decreases.

3. Which of the following statements best describes the energy change accompanying the process of
breaking bonds in a stable molecule? (Ignore any subsequent reaction that may occur.)
A. The process is always endothermic.
B. The process is always exothermic.
C. The net energy change is always zero.
D. The change may be exothermic or endothermic depending on the physical state.
E. The change may be exothermic or endothermic depending on the substances involved.

4. Which is the most polar bond?


A. O – F B. N – F C. C – F D. F – F E. Cl – F

5. Which concept describes the formation of four equivalent, single, covalent bonds by carbon in
compounds like methane, CH4?
A. hydrogen bonding
B. hybridization
C. sigma bonding
D. resonance
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6. Which compound would be expected to have the largest dipole moment?
A. CO2
B. SO2
C. BF3
D. CF4
E. XeF4
:
:

7. The molecule : O C N H has been detected in gas clouds between stars. The predicted C—N—H
bond angle is about

A. 60° B. 90° C. 109° D. 120°

8. The structure of the CO32 – ion can be described in the Lewis formulation by the structures

2– 2– 2–
:

:
:O: :O : :O :
C C C
: :

: :
: :

: :

:O O: :O O: :O O:
:
:

which means that


A. two CO bonds are single bonds, the third CO bond is a double bond.
B. three independent forms of the CO32 – ion co-exist in equilibrium.
C. the electrons must be rapidly exchanging among the three forms.
D. the CO32 – ion exists in only one form which is a composite or average of the three principal
structures shown.

9. In which molecule does the central atom have sp3 hybrid orbitals?
A. SF4 B. XeF4 C. BH3 D. NH3
.
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10. If the volume of a confined gas is doubled while the temperature remains constant, what change, (if
any) would be observed in the pressure?
A. It would be half as large.
B. It would double.
C. It would be four times as large.
D. It would be 1/4 as large.
E. It would remain the same.

11. Ammonia gas is synthesized according to the balanced equation:


N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
If 15.0 liters of nitrogen are reacted with an excess of hydrogen, how many liters of ammonia could
be produced at STP?
A. 5.00 L B. 10.0 L C. 15.0 L D. 20.0 L E. 30.0 L

12. Two identical syringes are filled to the same volume at the same temperature and pressure. If one
syringe is filled with chlorine gas and the other with nitrogen gas
A. the syringe filled with nitrogen gas contains more moles of gas.
B. the syringe filled with nitrogen gas contains more grams of gas.
C. the different gases have the same average kinetic energy.
D. the molecules of chlorine gas have a higher average velocity than the molecules of nitrogen gas.

13. Which intermolecular forces are present between molecules of dichloromethane, CH2Cl2?
A. London dispersion forces only
B. London dispersion forces and hydrogen bonding only
C. London dispersion forces and dipole-dipole forces only
D. London dispersion forces, hydrogen bonding, and dipole-dipole forces
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14. According to the phase diagram for xenon, what change, if any, occurs as the pressure on a Xe
sample is reduced from 760 mmHg to 1 mmHg at –l22 °C?

A. solid to gas
B. solid to liquid to gas
C. liquid to gas
D. solid to liquid
E. no phase change

15. Which of the following pure substances boils at the lowest temperature?
A. Ar B. Br2 C. I2 D. NH3 E. LiBr

16. What is the molality of an aqueous solution in which the mole fraction of H2CO (formaldehyde) is
0.20?
A. 0.014 m
B. 0.20 m
C. 10 m
D. 14 m
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17. Which of the following solutions would be predicted to have the highest boiling point?
A. 0.1 m C6H12O6 (aq) (glucose)
B. 0.1 m CaCl2 (aq)
C. 0.1 m NaCl (aq)
D. 0.1 m NH4NO3 (aq)

18. Which conditions favor the high solubility of a gas in a liquid?


A. high pressure, high temperature
B. high pressure, low temperature
C. low pressure, high temperature
D. low pressure, low temperature

19. Which substance is most soluble in water?


A. C6H6 B. CaCO3 C. C2H5OH D. CO2 E. PH3
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20. What is the molar mass of a non-volatile molecular solute if 120 g of it dissolved in 500 g
of water causes the solution to boil at 101.04 °C at atmospheric pressure?
(Kb for water = 0.52 °C·m–1)
A. 60 B. 120 C. 240 D. 300 E. 360

21. The osmotic pressure, in mmHg, of a 0.0100 M solution of NaCl in water at 25°C is approximately
A. 0.245 mmHg
B. 15.6 mmHg
C. 186 mmHg
D. 372 mmHg
E. 513 mmHg

22. The table presents data for the reaction:


k1
2H2(g) + 2NO(g) → 2H2O(g) + N2(g)
The temperature of the reaction is constant. The initial rate is in arbitrary units.

Initial Concentration (mol·L–1) Initial


Exp. [NO] × 10–3 [H2] × 10–3 Rate
I 6.0 1.0 18
II 6.0 2.0 36
III 1.0 6.0 3
IV 2.0 6.0 12

What is the rate law for this reaction?


A. rate = k [H2] [NO]
B. rate = k [H2]2 [NO]2
C. rate = k [H2]2 [NO]
D. rate = k [H2] [NO]2
CH 222 Practice Final Exam Page 8
23. For the reaction
2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2
which plot confirms that the rate is first order with respect to H2O2?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

24. At 25°C, the rate constant for the first-order decomposition of a pesticide solution is 6.40 x 10-3
min-1. If the starting concentration of pesticide is 0.0314 M, what concentration will remain after
62.0 min at 25°C?

A. 0.00872 M
B. 0.0212 M
C. 0.0268 M
D. 0.114 M
E. 47.4 M

25. The reaction


C4H10 → C2H6 + C2H4
has an activtion energy (Ea ) of 350 kJ/mol and the energy of activation of the reverse reaction is 260
kJ/mol. What is the enthalpy change (ΔH) for the reaction as written above?
A. -610 kJ/mol D. 350 kJ/mol
B. -90 kJ/mol E. 610 kJ/mol
C. 90 kJ/mol
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26. Which statements are most consistent with collision theory?

I Molecules must collide in order to react.

II Molecules must collide to produce intermediates.

III Molecules must collide with the appropriate orientation.

IV Molecules must collide with at least a certain minimum energy.

A. I, II, and III


B. I, II, and IV
C. I, III, and IV
D. II, III, and IV

27. The reaction


2A + B → C
has the following proposed mechanism:

Step 1: A + B  D fast equilibrium

Step 2: D + B → E slow

Step 3: E + A → C + B

The rate law for this reaction would be

A. rate = k[A]
B. rate = k[A]2[B]
C. rate = k[A]2[B]2
D. rate = k[A][B]
E. rate = k[A][B]2

28. The addition of a catalyst in a chemical reaction


A. increases the concentration of products at equilibrium.
B. increases the fraction of reactant molecules with a given kinetic energy.
C. provides an alternate path with a different activation energy.
D. lowers the enthalpy change in the overall reaction.

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