Review Questions for Agriculturists Board Exam

(Crop Science)

1. Who was the Secretary of Agriculture when The Bureau of Agriculture Extension was established in
1953 together with the 4-H club And Rural Improvement Club?

a. Rafael Aluman Sr. b. Fernando Lopez c. Placido L. Mapa d. Salvador

Araneta

2. Who was the first Minister in Agriculture when all cabinet departments were changed to ministries
during martial law and established the 12 regional offices each headed by a Regional Director?

a. Juan G. Rodrigez b. Benjamin M. Gozon c. Cesar Fortich d.

Arturo R. Tanco

3. Who was the Secretary of Agriculture and Natural Resources when the Agricultural Marketing news
Service which provides farmers and consumers regular prices of selected commodities was launched?

a. Benjamin Gozon b. Placido L. Mapa c. Jose Y. Felciano d. Salvador

Araneta

4. The Minister of Agriculture and Fisheries (MAF) who launched the Intensive Rice Production Program
(IRPP) in 1984 was:

a. Salvador H. Escudero b. Salvador Lopez c. Salvador Araneta

d. Cesar Fortich

5. Who is the Principal author of R.A 8435 otherwise known as the Agricultural and Fisheries
Modernization Act (AFMA) of 1988?

a. William D. Dar b. Roberto S. Sebastian c. Edgardo J. Angara d.

Senen C. Bacani

6. The Philippine is an agricultural country with a land area of 30 million hectares. What percentage of
this total area is agricultural land?

a. 47% (14,100,000 ha) b. 50% (15,000,000) c. 35% (10,500,00 ha) d. 40%

(12,000,000 ha)

7. The prime agricultural lands in the Philippines are generally located

a. near forested areas b. near coastal areas

c. around the main urban and high population density areas d. near the hills and
mountains

8. Agriculture sector’s contribution to the economy of the country bas been 23% of the gross domestic
product in 1995 and registered a growth rate of 3.2%. Which among the subsectors in agriculture
contributed the highest gross value of production since then up to the present?
 a. Livestock subsector b. Crops subsector c. Fishery subsector d.
Poultry subsector

9. In the implementation of the Compresensive Agrarian Reform Law, a farm household cannot own a
farm larger than:

a. 3 hectares b. 7 hectares c. 5 hectares d. 10 hectares

10. One of the principles of AFMA among others is:

a. Exploitation of natural resources b. Poverty alleviation and social equity

c. peace and order d. industrialization

11. It refers to the ability to complete in terms of price, quality, and volume of agriculture and fishery
products relative to those of other countries.

a. Trade liberalization b. Extension services

c. Global competitiveness d. Competive advantage

12. It refers to the process by which the economy is transformed from one that is predominantly
agricultural to one that is dominantly industrial and service oriented. Here, agriculture is the driving force
that pushes for industry and services through the market t creates, the labor that is absorbs, and the
income that is generates which is channeled to industry and services.

a. Resource accounting b. Rural industrialization

c. Agricultural development c. Farming system

13. One of the several WTO agreements deals on rules for trade and investment in ideas and creativity.
The rules state how copyrights, trademarks, geographical names used to identify products and industrial
designs should be protected when trade is involved.

a. Policy review b. Goods and services c. settlement of disputes d.

Intellectual property

14. It is the integration of the world economy that are influenced by such factors like rapid
communication, market liberalization, and global integration of the production of goods and services

a. Export subsidies b. Market access c. Tariffication d.

Globalization

15. It is the application of indigenous and/or scientific knowledge in managing microorganisms for use by
humans for medical, agricultural, industrial, and environmental applications.

a. Biodiversity b. Introgression c. Biotechnology d.

Transformation

16. The following are modern techniques in biotechnology except:

 a. Bioinformatics b. Vaccine technology c. Diagnostics d. Tissue and
cell culture

17. It is generally the alteration, modification, or change of an organism’s genetic or hereditary material
to eliminate undesirable characteristics or to produce desirable new ones.

a. Replication b. Genomics c. Genetic engineering d.

Bioinformatics

18. It is the transfer of desirable genes into organisms like production of genetically modified organisms
(GMOs), synthetic genetic engineering, and application of recombinant DNA technology (gene splicing
or crossing over from different sources)

a. Diagnostics b. Bioinformatics c. Marker-assisted breeding d.

Transformation

19. It is a type of agricultural systems which is characterized by defined holdings with largely permanent
field divisions. Semi-stationary housing predominates, with families having registered ownership of the
land.

a. Shifting cultivation system b. Fallow system

c. Systems with perennial crops d. Grazing system

20. It is a classification of farming systems based on type and intensity of rotation, water supply, cropping
patterns and animal activities, and degree of commercialization.

a. Cultivation b. Grassland utilization c. Collection d. Fallow

21. It refers to duly registered associations or persons with a common bond of interest who have
voluntary joined together to achieve a lawful common social and economic end.

a. Competive advantage b. Rural advantage c. Communal advantage d.

Economic advantage

22. It refers to the manner of utilizing land, including its allocation, development, and management

a. Land use b. Land use planning c. Land use plan d. Land

distribution

23. Which of the following does not belong to the classification of farming systems?

a. Collection b. grassland utilization c. Cultivation d. Cropping

system

24. The following are types of shifting cultivation systems except:

a. Intercropping system b. Migration system c. Vegetative system d.

Clearance system
25. Collection is one of the conservation strategies of plant genetic resources. Which among the following
is not a type of collection?

a. In vitro collection b. Core collection c. Field collection d. In

situ collection

26. Which of the following is not a type of agriculture systems?

a. Shifting cultivation system b. Fallow system c. Farming system

d. Ley system

27. In grassland utilization as a classification of farming systems, the situation wherein farmers with a
permanent place of residence send their herds, tended by herdsmen, for long periods of time to distant
grazing areas is known as

a. Total nomadism b. Partial nomadism c. semi-nomadism

d. Trashumance

28. Which of the following methods of crop improvement is not commonly used due to difficulty in
identifying the change in the desired traits?

a. Plant introduction b. introgression c. Selection d.

Hybridization

29. It is loosely defined as a wild species under the management of man, which provides domestic types
of plants that are superior in characteristics to the previously available material

a. Hybridization b. Domestication c. Introduction d. Cultivation

30. The natural or artificial process which permits an increase in the proportion of certain genotypes or
groups of genotypes in succeeding generation to isolate or separate the better strains or genotypes from
the variety

a. Selection b. Hybridization c. Introgression d. Introduction

31. A classification of plants according to blooming habits wherein pollination occurs before flower
opening. It is mostly self-pollination and limited cross-pollination

a. Dichogamous b. Cleistogamous c. Chasmogamous d.

Monoecious

32. A basic type of hybrid crosses wherein a hybrid is crossed to one of its parents to improve lines or
cultivars that excel in most desirable characteristics but lack one or a few.

a. Polycross b. top cross c. Double cross d. Backcross

33. It is a cross between an inred and an pollinated variety.

a. Tree-way cross b. Double cross c. Top cross d. Backcross

34. It is the inability of a mature seed to germinate due to the absence of favorable environmental factors
necessary for germination

a. Quiescence b. Imbibition c. Dormancy d. Physiological

immaturity

35. The following are the main types of seed dormancy except

a. Innate dormancy b. Induced dormancy c. Enforced dormancy d. Forced dormancy

36. A type of dormancy wherein the new embryo stops growing while still attached to the parent plant
thus, preventing the seed from germinating vivaparously even after the ripe seed is shed off or
harvested.

a. innate dormancy b. induced dormancy c. enforced dormancy d.

forced dormancy

37. A method of breaking seed dormancy by scratching or chopping the thick seed coat with
knives, files, sand paper, etc to increase the seed permeability to water and gases.

a. stratification b. scarification c. leaching d. pre-chilling

38. A portion of the axis of a plant embryo or seedling above the cotyledonary node which
determines the kind of germination that a seed will have

a. radicle b. epicotyls c. hypocotyls d. plumule

39. It is a class of seeds intended for farmers’ use after several test and selections since they do not
segregate anymore

a. registered seeds b. certified seeds c. breeder seeds d.

foundation seeds

40. It is a class of seeds whose genetic identity and purity of the variety are maintained. This type of
seed is the source of all certified seed classes, either directly or through registered seed. It is used with
red tag.

a. certified seeds b. breeder seed c. foundation seed d.

registered seed

41. A class of seed whose life span is prolonged with low seed moisture and temperature. They are
called “dry-tolerant’ seeds

a. Recalcitrant seed b. immature seed c. orthodox seed

d. certified seed

42. Seed germination is affected by light quality as mediated by a phytochrome system. The kind of
light that acts as an enzyme which initiates germination is:
 a. far-red light b. red light c. ultra-viole light d. infra-red
light

43. It is a product of two parents and thus, new seeds must always be produced for planting the next
season through cross-pollination.

a. inbred rice b. cultivar c. hybrid rice d. purelines

44. It is the result of the union of male and female gametes which results in the formation of seeds
and the creation of individuals with new genotype. This usually results in the increased vigor growth
of a hybrid progeny in relation to the average of the parent known as

a. variety b. pedigree c. offspring d. heterosis

45. Which of the following is not a rice hybrid being recommended by the National Seed Industry
Counsil (NSIC)

a.PSB Rc 26 H (Magat) b. PSB Rc 72 H (Mestizo) c. PSB Rc 62 H (Makiling) d. PSB

Rc 76 H (Panay)

46. The stage in the life cycle of a seed when development is complete and the biological component
necessary for all the physiological processes are active or ready to be achieved.

a. seed germination b. seed emergence c. physiological maturity

d. biological yield

47. It is a system of checking and guaranteeing varios aspects of seed quality during the period seed is
being multiplied and further handled.

a. seed selection b. seed certification c. seed processing d. seed

production

48. The competition among different parts of a plant for water, nutrients, light, etc. is known as

a. interplant competition b. interspecific competition

c. intraspecific competition d. intraplant competition

49. It is defined as the spatial and temporal combination of crops in a given area and the management
used to produced them

a. cropping system b. cropping pattern c. multiple cropping d. strip

cropping

50. It is the growing of two crops in rapid sequence or succession planting one after the harvest of the
former.

a.relay cropping b. ratoon cropping c. intercropping d. sequential

cropping
51. It occurs when the yield decrease is equal to the yield increase since the resources of the different
species are exactly the same.

a. pure competition b. introgression c. selection d. hybridization

52. Biological diversity is the total variability within all the living organisms and the ecological
complexes they inhabit. Which of the following is not a level of biodiversity?

a. human interference b. species c. ecosystem d. genetic

diversity

53. Biological diversity includes the following except

a. plants b. animals c. soil d. microorganisms

54. It is the successful management of the elements and resources of agriculture to satisfy changing
human and development needs, while maintaining the natural resource base and avoiding environmental
degradation.

a. crop production b. food production c. sustainable agriculture d. agricultural

production

55. It is a kind of reproduction in which sexual organs or related structures take part but fertilization does
not occur hence, the resulting seed is vegetavely produced.

a. cloning b. hybridization c. introgression d. apomixes

56. A type of plant propagation wherein formation of adventitious roots or buds occurs before separation
of the propagule from the parent plant

a. grafting b. layering c. cloning d. inarching

57. It is genetically variant population originating through selection and propagation by individual
farmers, or in small areas of geographic isolaton

a. landrace b. polycross c. hybrids d. multiple cross

58. Strictly speaking, it refers to a plant grown anywhere outside its natural range

a. endemic b. innate c. exotic d. inherent

59. The most recently evolved and most successful group of land plants in the world today

a. angiosperms b. gymnosperms c. algae d. fungi

60. The young plant that develops inside the seed

a. seed coat b. embryo c. endosperm d. perisperm

61. The plant cell wall is made up chiefly

 a. glycoproteins b. cellulose c. hemicelluloses d. pectins

62. The flowing movement of the cytoplasm which serves for efficient distribution of substances
absorbed from outside of the cell and substances released by the nucleus and other organelles is

a. cytoplasmic streaming b. excretion c. intussuseption

d. secretion

63. Nectar is a fluid carbohydrate produced and secreted by the

a. dictyosome/golgi body b. nucleolus c. endoplasmic reticulum

d. glysosome

64. Plastids that contain fats and oils

a. chromoplasts b. chloroplast c. elaeioplasts d. amyplast

65. The vegetative organs of the plant body include the roots, stem and

a. flowers b. seeds c leaves d. fruits

66. A meristematic tissue where lateral roots of plants originate

a. vascular cambium b. epidermis c. endodermis d. pericycle

67. Water and minerals absorbed by the roots are transported to the different parts of the plant
through the

a. vascular bundle b. xylem c. phloem d. stele

68. Microgametogenesis is a reproductive process in plants which results in the production of

a. pollen grains b. seeds c. embryos d. spores

69. The shell of the coconut fruit is hard and stony, hence the fruit is classified as

a. samara b. drupe c. acheme d. nut

70. The mature ro ripened ovary of a flower is referred to as the

a. infructescence b. fruit c. embryo sac d. seed

71. When male and female flowers are produced in the same individual plant, the plant is

a. hypogynous b. monoecious c. epigynous d. dioecious

72. The dry dehiscent fruit of peanut is classified as

a. grain or caryopsis b. silique c. legume or pod d. nut

73. The basic unit of plant classification is the

 a. species b. order c. family D. genus

74. Double fertilization in plants, a process which leads to the formation of embryo and endosperm
in a seed, occurs in

a. flower-bearing plants b. vascular plant c. spore-bearing plants d. all

land plants

75.The part of the living cell where metabolic energy, usually in the form of ATP is produce is
the

a. mitochondrion b. ribosome c. chloroplast d. nucleus

76. Proteins are synthesized in the

a. mitochondrion b. ribosome c. chloroplast d. nucleus

77. The largest cytoplasmic organelle apart from the nucleus, in plant cells is the

a. mitochondrion b. ribosome c. glyoxysome d. chloroplast

78. In contrast to animals, plants generally undergo intermediate or unlimited growth primarily
because

a. they produce substances such as hormones that support continued growth

b. they posses merismatic tissues that continually produced new cells

c. their cells persist throughout the life of the plant

d. their cells continually enlarge and elongate

79. the cortex and pith tissues comprise the plant’s

a. secondary tissue system b. vascular tissue system

c. primary tissue system d. ground tissue system

80. Secondary growth of roots and stems of pants results primarily to an increase in

a. number of roots and stems b. size of roots and stems

c. length of roots and stems d. adventitious roots and stems

81. The white potato tuber is considered a stem because

a.it becomes fleshy and stores carbohydrates b. it does not absorb water and minerals

c. it has xylem and phloem d. it has nodes and internodes

82. When a flower is imperfect, it means it is

 a. irregular b. hypogenous c. unisexual d. bilateral

83. The inward rolling of monocot leaves as a means of avoiding excessive water loss occurs due to
the activity of specialized cells in the epidermis called

a. bulliform cells b. silica cells c. subsidiary cells d.

guard cells

84. The tissue of the leaf where the process of photosynthesis takes place is the

a. mesophyll b. hypodermis c. epidermis d. vascular bundle

85, Some fruits develop even without pollination and fertilization, Such phenomenon which
produces seedless fruits, is called

a. Parthenocarpy b. apocarpy c. polyploidy d. apomixes

86.Seeds produced by fruits that develop in the absence of pollination and fertilization.

a. parthenocarpic b. apomictic c. apocarpic d. syncarpic

87. Seeds generally posses a nutritive tissue e.g. endosperm, to support the growth of the embryo during
germination. Some plants however produce endospermless seeds. An example of such plant is the

a. banana b. citrus c. orchid d. gumamela

88. The mature or ripened ovule is botanically termed

a. fruit b. spore c. seed d. pollen

89. The thick fibrous portion or the husk of the coconut fruit is the

a. pericarp b. mesocarp c. exocarp d. endocarp

90. In the xylem tissue of flowering plants, the major water conducting cells are the

a. vessels b. sieve tubes c. tracheids d. sieve cells

91. The veins and veinlets of leaves are relatively strong enough to support the weight of a fully expanded
leaf because the vascular bundles in these veins are strengthened by

a. parenchyma cells b. collenchyma c. sclerenchyma cells d.

aerenchyma cells

92. The endodermis of roots contains a continous band of suberin, a waxy substance deposited on the
radial and transverse walls. This band is called

a. endodermal strip b. suberin strip c. casparian strip d. wall

strip

93. The collective term for all the sepals of a flower is

 a. androenum b.gynoecium c. corolla d. calyx

94. The petals of a flower are collectively termed

a. androenum b.gynoecium c. corolla d. calyx

95. The stamens of a flower are collectively termed

a. androecium b. corolla c. gynoecium d. calyx

96. The pistils of a flower are collectively termed

a. . androecium b. corolla c. gynoecium d. calyx

97. athe plant organ mainly responsible for the transport of water, minerals and food to the various
parts of the plant is the

a. xylem b. root c. phloem d. stem

98. The transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma of a flower is termed

a. fertilization b. sporogenesis c. pollination d. reproduction

99. Growth in size or girth of the stems and roots is due to the activity of lateral meristems. One such
meristem is located between the primary xylem and primary phloem, and it is called

a. vascular cambium b. cork cambium c. ground meristem

d. pericycle

100. The botanical termed for wood is

a. secondary xylem b. cortex c. secondary phloem d. bark

101. To increase the roots surface area for absorption, roots produced specialized epidermal cells
called

a. trichomes b. root hairs c. root caps d. root cells

102. In the root tip, the variety of fully differentiated cells and tissues can be found in the

a. meristematic region b. elongation region c. maturation region

d. root cap

103. Growth in size or secondary growth of roots and stems is generally absent in

a. gymnosperms b. angiosperms c. monocots d. dicots

104. The enlarged fleshy underground part of the following crops are generally classified as stems,
except

a. cassava b. potato c. ginger d. gabi

 105. Small raised areas in the back of woody stems which function for gas exchange are called

a. pneumatophores b. lenticels c. stomata d. pits

106. The point in the stem where leaves and buds arises is the

a. branch axil b. internode c. leaf axil d. node

107. The vascular bundles are in scattered arrangement in the stem of

a. monocots b. ferns c. dicots d. pines

108. Dicots are flowering plants having the following characteristics, except

a. flower parts in 3’s or their multiples b. netted leaf venation

c. secondary growth d. two cotyledons

109. During drought conditions, monocot leaves roll their leaves in order to prevent excessive
evaporation of water. This rolling phenomenon occurs as a result of specialized large epidermal cells
which become flaccid during drought. These cells are called

a. bulliform cells b. subsidiary cells c. guard cells d.

trichomes

110. Double fertilization, which results to the formation of an embryo and an endosperm tissue is a
reproductive process which is unique to

a. angiosperms b. algae c. gymnosperms d. ferns

111. In the mango fruit, the sweet edible part is botanically termed

a. pericarp b. endosperm c. mesocarp d. exocarp

112. In a corn embryo, the embryonic shoot is enclosed by a sheath called the

a. coleoptile b. coleus c. coleorhizae d. callose

113. Stems basically differ from roots because of the presence of

a. nodes and internodes b. woody tissue c. lateral branches d. bark

114. Flowers bearing both stamens and pistils are always considered

a. complete b. regular c. perfect d. radial

115. C4 plants like corn has a Krantz leaf anatomy, wherein the leaf possesses a well-developed

a. vascular bundle sheath b. vascular cambium c. vascular tissue d.

vascular bundle
116. In some dicots like legumes and cucurbits, the reserve food of the seed is stored in the

a. endosperm b. perisperm c. cotyledons d. exderm

117. The pineapple fruit is derived from several ovaries of several flowers, hence it is referred to as

a. aggregate fruit b. fused fruit c. multiple fruit d. simple fruit

118. In theagronomic classification of agricultural crops peanut is classified under

a. root crops b. cereals c. tubercrops d. legume

119. Plants grown for their short thickened underground stem

a. rootcrops b. cereals c. tubercrops d. legume

120. The study of fruit production

a. floriculture b. olericulture c/ pomology d. plantation

121. A large-scale type of vegetable production

a. market gardening b. truck gardening c. home gardening d.

backyard gardening

122. Vegetable crops grown for aerial portion

a. pepper b. radish c. garlic d. carrots

123. The study of growing arranging and marketing of flowers and foliage plants

a. olericulture b. floriculture c. selviculture d. agriculture

124. Industrial corps classified as beverage

a. coconut b. papaya c. cacao d. vanilla

125. Succulent plants with little or no secondary stem or woody tissue

a. vine b. tree c. shrub d. herb

126. Short or low self-supporting several stemmed woody plants

a. tree b. vine c. shrub d. herb

127. Crops grown to reduce soil erosion, control weeds and conserve moisture

a. silage crops b. cover crops c. soiling crops d. catch crops

128. Short season crops grown for additional income

a. cash crops b. cover crops c. nurse crops d. trap crops

129. Legumes crop plowed under the soil at flowering stage to increase soil productivity

a. soiling crop b. green manure crop c. cover crop d. silage crop

130. Crops planted to attract certain insects or parasites

a. nurse crops b. cover crops c. trap crops d. catch crop

131. Plants that require support or that creep along the ground

a. herbs b. vines c. shrubs d. trees

132. A plant germinates, matures and dies in a span of one year

a. biennial b. perennial c. annual d. permanent

133. Plants that could not withstand chilling or low temperature

a. temperature crops b. tropical crops c. semi-temperature crops d. sub-

tropical crops

134. Plants that require long darkness to flower are

a. long day plants b. day neutral plants c. short day plants d. dry
season plants

135. Plants that require short darkness to flower are

a. long day plants b. day neutral plants c. short day plants d. dry
season plants

136. The common planting material for abaca.

a. tubers b. bulbs c. suckers d. rhizome

137. Crops that could be propagated by crown suckers and slips

a. abaca b. pineapple c. banana d. gabi

138. A prevailing environmental condition in a region over a period

a. temperature b. climate c. weather d. humidity

139. Day to day changes of environmental condition as influenced by wind, rainfall, temperature and light

a. humidity b. climate c. weather d. intensity

140. A factor wherein population, neighborhood, peace and order are considered in site selection for crop
production
 a. biological factor b. environmental factor c. sociological factor d.
ecological factor

141. What factor is considered when the cost of land, local taxes, labor and facilities are given priority?

a. environmental factor b. economic factor c. biological factor d.

ecological factor

142.

143. When climate soil, water and air are given attention in the site selection, what factor is considered?

a. ecological factor b. biological factor c.ecological factor d. sociological

factor

144. The following are nonsense codons, except

a. UAG b.AUG c.UAA d. UGA

145. The diameter of DNA helix is

a. 2nm b.20nm c. 2A D. 20A

146. What is the probability of getting BB offspring from BBxbb cross?

a. ½ b. ¼ c. 1 d. zero

147. The general life cycle of an eukaryotic organism has the sequence

a. 1N-Meiosis-2N-Fertilization-1N b. 2N-Meiosis-1N-Fertilization-2N

c. 1N-Meiosis-2N-Fertilization-1N d. 2N-Meiosis-2N-Fertilization-2N

148. If a mother and her child belong to blood group O, what blood group could the wrong father belong
to?

a. O b.B c. A d. AB

149. Mitosis and meiosis always differ in regard to the presence of

a. chromatids b. homologous c. bivalents d. centromere

150. They discovered the molecular structure of DNA

a. Sutton and Broven b. Watson and Crick c. Morgan and Bridges d. none of the
above

151. The father of Genetics

a. Mendel b. Bateson c. Darwin d. Weismann

152. All events happen in prophase I of meiosis except:

a. chromosome condensation b. pairing of homologous c. segregation d.

terminalization

153. The proponents of the cell theory were

a. Bateson and Hooke b. Morgan and Bridges c. Watson and Crick d. Scleiden
and Schwann

154. Quantitative characters are best described by the following attributes except:

a. controlled by major genes b. segregation shows “continuos curve”

c. easily influenced by environment d. governed by “polygenes” or multiple genes

155. The following are examples of quantitative traits except

a. color b. shape c. texture d. height

156. The genetic component of the phenotypic value is composed of the following except

a. additive gene effects b. dominance gene effect

c. epistasis gene effect or gene interaction d. environment gene effect

157. The effect of invironment is best described in phenotypes if

a. Genotypic effect-low and environment effect-high b. Genotypic effect-low and

environment effect-low

c. Genotypic effect-high and environment effect-low d. Genotypic effect-high and

environment effect-high

158. GxE effects is best described in the following situations

a. many trials in the same location b. many trials in different locations

c. single trial in the same location d. single trial in many locations

159. The following are traditional methods of analyzing GxE interactions in field experiments except

a. ANOVA b. regression pattern c. pattern analysis d. none

of the above

160. A human factor affecting crop production which relates the farmer decision making regarding
the choice of crops to grow or technology to adopt

a. capability of the farmer b. cultural practices c. political factor d.

preference of the farmer
161. A factor affecting farmer’s preference which reflects what the farmer desires or what he is seeking

a. farmer’s knowledge b. beliefs c. attitudes d. goals

162. A factor affecting farmer’s preference which is concerned with what the farmers think is true,
whether correct or not, based on the farmer’s experiences and common knowledge

a. attitudes b. farmers knowledge c. goals d. beliefs

163.A socioeconomic factor affecting farmers capability which refers to the carrying out of farming
activities.

a. marketing b. capital c.. management d. land

164. A socioeconomic factor affecting farmers capability to increase farm production as an outlet of
farm products and a source of inputs for farm production

a. labor b. capital c. land d. market

165. A socioeconomic factor affecting productivity which refers to the physical and financial assets
of the farmers

a. land b. labor c. market d. capital

166. A socio-cultural factor affecting productivity which contains the culture’s ideas about the
relationship between people and nature

a. norms b. customs c. attitudes d. religion

167. A major cause of reduction in agricultural land area due to political factor brought about by
urbanization

a. land grabbing b. soil erosion c. land conversion d. agrarian

reform

168. A work exchange system of traditional societies with agricultural roots which influence the
farmer’s agricultural production

a. credit system b. marketing system c. bayanihan system d.

extension system

169. The human factor affecting productivity which is influenced by socio-economic factors

a. preference of farmers b. capability of farmers c. cultural practices d.

political factors

170. A factor affecting farmer’s preference which relates to the farmer’s feeling, emotions, and
sentiments and have a strong influence over his decision to accept or reject a technology.

a. beliefs b. attitudes c. knowledge d. goals

 171. A household resource characterized by size, quality, water availability, and location affecting
productivity where farm enterprise are established

a. labor b. land c. capital d. management

172. A household resource which includes members of the household who are capable of working
and also the family’s participation in cooperatives efforts

a. land b. labor c. capital d. management skills

173. A socio-cultural factor affecting crop productivity which refers to the acceptable standards of
behavior of a society.

a. norms b. customs c religion d. attitudes

174. A socio-cultural factor affecting crop productivity which refers to how people actually behave

a. norms b. customs c religion d. attitudes

175. A social institution affecting crop production which includes people with common ancestry
having communal land holding systems

a. corporate kin groups b. social classes c. agricultural associations

d. cooperative

176. A social institution with agricultural roots which provides services that individual farmer
cannot provide on their own particularly in traditional societies

a. agricultural associations b. social classes c. cooperate kin groups d.

business groups

177. A factor affecting crop production related to government programs which adversely affect
productivity of local farmers due to market production

a. importation b. exportation c. land conversion d. taxation

178. A social institution which is concerned with the relationship between wealthy the landlords and
the poor tenants who are not motivated to improve productivity

a. agricultural associations b. corporate kin group c. social classes

d. cooperatives

179. A factor affecting farmers preferences which is concerned with the farmers management
practices and abilty to understand the entire species of the crops or farm, enterprise to establish

a. farm’s beliefs b. farmer’s knowledge c. farmer’s attitudes d.

farmer’s goals

180. An element of sustainable agriculture which preserves the integrity of the environment and
enhances the capability of the resource base to support production over prolonged period.
 a. economically viable b. ecologically sound c. socially just d.
culturally acceptable

181. The totally of genes, species, and ecosystems in a region

a. biodiversity b. sustainability c. ecology d. complexity

182. The variation of genes with species or among crop cultivars

a. species diversity b. genetic diversity c. ecosystem diversity d.

enterprise diversity

183. An element of sustainable agriculture referring to farming policies and practices that respect the
dignity and rights of individual\

a. economically viable b. ecologically sound c. socially just d. based on

holistic science

184. A sequential cropping involving the cultivation of regrowth from the cut stalks of the previous crops

a. double cropping b. quadruple cropping c. triple cropping d.

ratoon cropping

185. The spatial and temporal arrangement of crops grown in a given area

a. cropping system b. cropping pattern c. sequential cropping

d. intercropping

186. The rate at which biomass is accumulated by a crop per unit area of land per unit time

a. productivity b. stability c. diversity d. sustainability

187. It includes all the biomass harvested from the crop

a. biological yield b. economic yield c. potential yield

d. actual yield

188. The resistance of a landscape or system to disturbance and its recovery from disturbance

a. productivity b. diversity c. stability d. sustainability

189. Crops that are grown mainly to cover the soil to control soil erosion

a. rotation crops b. intercrops c. legume crops d. cover crops

190. The systematic planting of different crops in succession

a. cover cropping b. intercropping c. crop rotation d. strip

cropping

191. The construction of earthen embankment to control runoff in sloping areas of high rainfall
 a. contouring b. terracing c. farm ponds d. reforestation

192. A management system designed to supply crops with sufficient nutrients which considers nutrients
from different sources, notably organic materials

a. integrated pest management b. integrated nutrient management

c, fertilizer management system d. organic agriculture system

193. A group of fertilizers of microbial origin

a. organic fertilizer b. inorganic fertilizers c. biofertilizers d. foliar

fertilizers

194. A commercially available inoculants for legume crops to enhance N fixation

a. rhizobium b. nitroplus c. azolla d. mycorrhiza

195. A bacterium associated with legumes for nitrogen fixation

a. mycorrhiza b. rhizobium c. nitrobacter d. nitrosomonas

196. An aquatic fern growing in association with nitrogen fixing blue algae

a. azospirillum b. azolla c. mycorrhiza d. rhizobia

197. The association between plants roots and fungi which promotes absorption of nutrients by plants

a. symbiotic association b. mycorrhiza c. supplementary d.

complementary

198. A crop production system in which more than one crop is grown in a piece of land in one year

a. monocropping b. sole cropping c. multiple cropping d.

contour cropping

199. The growing of two or more annual crops in the same field such that one crop is planted after the
other has flowered

a. relay cropping b. sequential cropping c. cover cropping d. sole

cropping

200. A crop production paradigm which emphasizes the use of improved varieties, inorganic fertilizers,
chemical pesticides, and other external inputs

a. sustainable agriculture b. green revolution c. organiculture d.

biotechnology

201. A crop production paradigm that aims to make agriculture economically viable, ecologically sound,
socially just, culturally appropriate, and grounded on holistic science
 a. green revolution b. sustainable agriculture c. biodynamic farming d.
organic farming

202. An element of sustainable agriculture which means showing a net profit in the income statement of
the farming enterprise

a. ecologically just b. socially just c. economically viable d.

culturally acceptable

203. An element of sustainable agriculture which means minimal or no cost of externalities by the
farming operations

a. ecologically just b. socially just c. economically viable d.

culturally acceptable

204. An element of sustainable agriculture which means that the system must respect and promote the
integrity of the culture, tradition, and values of the farmers and his community

a. ecologically just b. socially just c. economically viable d.

culturally acceptable

205. An element of sustainable agriculture which means exercising and integrative and systems approach
realizing that a change in one component would result in alterations of the other parts of the system

a. based on holistic science b. ecologically sound c. economically viable d.

socially just

206. The level of diversity in a rice farm consisting of several rice varieties

a. species diversity b. genetic diversity c. enterprise diversity d.

ecodiversity

207. The diversification in terms of varieties within the same species

a. species diversity b. genetic diversity c. ecosystems diversity

d. crop rotation

208. The diversification in terms of crop species

a. genetic diversity b. species diversity c. ecosystems diversity

d. crop rotation

209. The variety of species in a region often measured by the number of species or species richness

a. genetic diversity b. species diversity c. ecosystems diversity

d. crop rotation

210. All the organisms in a given place in interaction with their non-living environment

a. ecology b. ecosystems c. farm landscape d. biodiversity

211. A level of diversity in terms of agricultural production which refers to the diversity of farm
production enterprises allocated in different lot parcels

a. genetic diversity b. species diversity c. ecosystems diversity d. crop

diversifcation

212. A level of diversity in a farm landscape having different production sections such as perennial crops,
livestock section, and intensive cash crop or food crop section

a. genetic diversity b. species diversity c. ecosystems diversity d. crop

diversifcation

213. The cropping patterns used in a given area with the technology being utilized and their interactions
with the invironment

a. crop rotation b. cropping systems c. sequential cropping d.

multiple cropping

214. The subsystems with the farming system comprising one or more crops and all components required
for production

a. cropping pattern b. cropping system c. multiple cropping d.

sequential cropping

215. The growing of two or more crops in sequence on the same field in a year, with the succeeding crop
planted only after the preceeding crop has been harvested

a. intercropping b. sequential cropping c. relay cropping d. strip

cropping

216. A type of cropping which involves the growing of three crops in sequence

a. double cropping b. ratoon cropping c. triple cropping d.

quadruple cropping

217. The growing of two or more crops simultaneously on the same field such that the period of overlap
is long enough to include the vegetable stage

a. strip cropping b. intercropping c. relay cropping d. double

cropping

218. The cultivation of a single species of crop in the same piece of land in one year

a. monocropping b. intercropping c. relay cropping d.

multiple cropping

219. The yearly output of the physical product per unit area of cultivated land

A. stability b. productivity c. diversity d. sustainability

220. The area needed under sole cropping to give as much produce as 1 hectare of intercropping at the
same management level expressed as a ratio.

a. land equivalent ratio b. multiple cropping index

c. area time equivalent ratio d. relative growth rate

221. A production system which is relatively stable due to the presence of several species

a. sole cropping b. multiple cropping c. cropping system d.

ratoon cropping

222. A production system which has a higher and more stable productivity where two or more farm
enterprises are established

a. diversified farming b. integrated diversified farming system

c. multiple cropping system d. sole cropping

223. The upper thin layer of the earht’s surface derived from the weathering of rocks and minerals

a. sand b. silt c. clay d. soil

224. The most important part of the soil for crop production

a. soil surface b. soil horizon B c. soil horizon C d. soil

horizon B and C

225. The storage of plant nutrients, water, and the seat of biological and root activities

a. surface soil b. soil horizon B c. soil horizon C d. soil

horizon B and C

226. Reduction of the velocity of run off water is one of the principles involved in

a. irrigation of crops b. soil erosion control c. water drainage d. water

management

227. An example of a leguminous crop grown to cover the soil to control soil erosion and add organic
matter and nitrogen to the soil.

a. centrosema b. sweet potato c. millet d. sorghum

228. In crop rotation, the cereal crop is generally followed by

a. a cereal crop b. a legume crop c. a root crop d. cereal and

root crops

229. A soil erosion control technique which involves planting of two kinds of crops in regular alternate
strips in sloping areas
 a. contour strip cropping b. relay cropping c. intercropping d.
contour cropping

230. Any tillage practice applied across the slope on the contour

a. minimum tillage b. contouring c. zero tillage d. conventional

tillage

231. The points on the ground of sloping area with the same elevation

a. contour b. ridges c. furrows d. slope

232. The depression in a certain area of the farm utilized to improved water which minimizes runoff

a. farm ponds b. contour c. ridges d. slope

233.A technique of soil conservation in sloping areas which involves replanting of forest species in
denuded area to establish a permanent vegetation

a. deforestation b. denudation c. reforestation d. terracing

234. A technique of soil water conservation in cropped areas which reduces evaporative losses and also
help to control weeds

a. mulching b. terracing c. contouring d. cover cropping

235. A tillage practice to reduce soil erosion by about 50-90% which is also called reduced tillage or
minimum tillage

a. conventional tillage b. conservation tillage c. maximum tillage

d. zero tillage

236. A water conservation technique which involves diversion of urface runoff to selected sites where the
water infiltrates and is stored in the soil for crop production

a. water directing b. water control c. water spreading d. water

holding

237. A water conservation technique which involves the reduction in the amount of water supplied while
sufficiently providing the needs of the plant

a. minimum irrigation b. water spreading c. conservation irrigation

d. contouring

238. An example of conservation irrigation which increases water efficiency use by 90% by supplying
water slowly but frequently to the soil near the plants which infiltrates directly to the root zone.

a.sprinkler irrigation b. surface irrigation c. trickle irrigation

d. sub-irrigation
239. Which of the following is an internal nutrient source for the farm

a. crop residue b. peat soil c. by-products of factories d.bio-

gas composting

240. Which of the following is an external nutrient source for the farm

a. bio-gas composting b. crop residue c. animal manure d.

compost

241. The plant nutrient sources which are derived from agricultural waste products

a. rhizobia b. azolla c. organic manures d. chemical

fertilizers

242. A nitrogen fixing bacterium associated with roots of grasses such as corn and sugarcane

a. rhizobium b. azospirillium c. azolla d.mycorrhiza

243. The commercial inoculants of nitrogen fixing bacterium associated with roots of grasses

a. nitroplus b. bio-N c. mykovam d. mycogroe

244. The nitrogen fixing blue, green algae associated with the aquatic fern azolla

a. Rhizobium japonicum b. nitrosomonas c. Anabaena azollae

d. nitrobacter

245. The commercial mycorhiza inoculants for many agricultural crops

a. nitroplus b. bio-n c. mykovam d.mycogroe

246. The commercial mycorhiza inoculants for forest tree species

a. nitroplus b. bio-n c. mykovam d.mycogroe

247. The component group of fertilizers used in integrated nutrient management which provides the long
term requirement of the plants because the nutrients are slowly released

a. inorganic fertilizer b. bio-fertiizer c. organic fertilizer d.

mykovam

248. The component group of fertilizers used in integrated nutrient management which provides the
plants with nutrients which are immediately released and utilized

a. organic fertilizer b. bio-fertilizer c. inorganic fertilizer d.

mykovam

249. A management system utilizing all suitable techniques to maintain the pest population at levels
below those causing economic injury
a. integrated pest management b. integrated nutrient management
 c. water management d. crop management

250. A method of pest control prohibited in integrated pest management

a. chemical control b. biological control

c. prophylactic biological control d. prophylactic chemical control

251. A method of pest control which includes the physical manipulation of the pest

a. biological control b. use of resistant varieties c. cultural control d.

chemical control

252. A method of pest control concerned with the conservation of natural enemies by preventing their
destruction or preserving their habitats

a. use of resistant varieties b. chemical control c. cultural control d. natural or

biological control

253. A pest control practice volving periodic or calendar-based pesticide application with no
consideration for pest density or anticipated crop loss

a. chemical control b. biological control

c. prophylactic chemical control d. prophylactic biological control

254. A pest control practice associated with the destruction of beneficial insects and resurgence of pests.

a. biological control b. cultural control

c. prophylactic chemical control d. prophylated biological control

255.A method of pest control involving the exploitation of the genetic characteristics of the cultivar to
avoid pest infestation

a. biological control b. chemical control c. cultural control d. use of resistant

varieties

256. A management system involving scouting the field for incidence of pest attack and applying
insecticides only when the actual pest population exceeds the threshold level

a. integrated nutrient management b. pest management

c. insect management d. integrated pest management

257. An alternative agricultural development framework that has emerged in response to the various
problems associated with conventional agriculture

a. organiculture b. green revolution c. sustainable agriculture

d. ecofarming
258. A principle of sustainable agriculture requiring no loss of farm animals as a result of over-
mechanization, and the various agricultural projects should minimize dependence on foreign loans

a. ecologically sound b. culturally acceptable c. socially just d.

economically viable

259. A principle of sustainable agriculture requires that farming practices must focus on minimizing
negative environmental impacts

a. ecologically sound b. economically viable c. socially just d.

culturally acceptable

260. An environmental factor affecting growth and development of crops

a. climate b. soil c. human d. all of the above

261. The following are climatic factors affecting growth and yield of crops, except

a. temperature b. light c. topography d. rainfall

262. The process whereby plant, through the chloroplast, utilize solar energy for the production of
carbohydrates

a. photoperiodism b. photosynthesis c. respiration d.

phototropism

263.The response of plant to the length of light period usually in terms of flowering is

a. photoperiodism b. phototropism c. geotropism d.

thermoperiodism

264. The following are classification of crops based on water requirement, except

a. hydrophytes b. mesophytes c. xerophytes d. thysophytes

265. A type of crop based on temperature requirements

a. mesophytes crop b. cryophillous crop c. thermophillous d.

xerophytes crop

266. The following are major roles of soil on growth and development of crops, except

a. medium for plant growth b. source of moisture and air

c. source of heat d. source of essential nutrient elements

267. The contour, elevation depression and other features of the land is reffered to as

a. soil texture b.soil structure c. soil topography d. orographic

268. The relative proportion of soil separates is termed as

 a. soil texture b. soil structure c. soil topography d. orographic

269. Problem soils that are high in salts are

a. alkaline soils b. sodic soils c. saline soils d. acidic soils

270. Poor and ultimately land preparation may result to

a. uneven growth of the crops b. weeds, insects and other pest are likely to be worse

c. the seedlings are likely to suffer from toxic substances given off during decomposition

d. all of the above

271. Land preparation should be started at least 15 days before planting to

a. clean the area b. to pulverized the soil c. for organic matter to decompose d. kill
the weeds

272. One of the following is not a characteristics of a well-prepared upland field

a. clean b. pulverized c. organic matter decomposed d. puddle

273.The objectives of tillage

a. to loosen and break up the soil b. to incorporate plant residues in the soil

c. all of the above d. none of the above

274. One of the following is not an advantage of zero tillage

a. reduced labor cost b. reduced weeds growth

c. reduced soil damage such as compaction d. reduced soil erosion

275. A tillage system which reduces the number of field operations compared to the

a. no-tillage system b. minimum tillage c. conventional tillage d.

maximum tillage

276. At the following are factors to consider in the selection of cultivars for planting except

a. photoperiod insensetive b. yield potential c. adaptability

d. maturity

277. It is characteristic of quality seeds

a. true to variety b. produce vigorous seedlings c. high percentage of purity d.all

of the above

278. Only varieties approved by one of the following are eligible for seed certification
 a. DA b. NSIC c. BAR d. BPI

279. The method of planting crops depends on

a. crops b. season c. soil d. all of the above

280. Which of the following average annual rainfall is considered minimum for cropping without
irrigation?

a. 250 mm(10”) b. 508 mm(20”) c. 750 mm d. 1000 mm

281. The artificial application of water plants to get water to the rooting zone of the crop in an
amount and at the time needed by the plants is

a. rainfall b. watering c. irrigation d. all of the

above

282. A subsurface irrigation characterized by underground perforated pipes is

a. trickle irrigation b. surface irrigation c. sprinkle irrigation

d. none of the above

283. The following are pointers when irrigating plants except

a.water should be applied according to the need of the crop

b. it should be applied without silting up the irrigation canals

c. it should be applied to cause waterlogging of the soil

d. it should not build up soil salinity

284. It is a method to control plant diseases

a. chemical control b. cultural c. use of resistant varieties

d. all of the above

285. The plants that grow out of place or where they are not wanted

a. pests b. weeds c. crops d. plants

286.The word “pest” means”

a. noxious weeds b. harmful insects

c. microorganisms causing diseases in plants d. all of the above

287. A classification of insecticides based on the methods of application

a.systematic insecticides b. dust c. stomach poison d. chlorinated

hydrocarbon
288. A classification of insecticides based on their physical state or formulations

a. systematic insecticides b. dust c. stomach poison d. chlorinated

hydrocarbon

289. A classification of insecticides according to chemical groups

a. systematic insecticides b. dust c. stomach poison d. chlorinated

hydrocarbon

290. A mechanical process which changes a soil from a known initial condition to a desired condition is
referred to as

a. mechanization b. land preparation c. tillage d.

plowing

291. which of the following is not a beneficial effect of tillage

a. soil compzction b. reduced weed c. improved soil aeration d. increased root

growth of plants

292. The following are post-planting tillage practices except

a. off-baring b. hilling-up c. loosening the soil around the plant

d. first plowing

293. One of the drawbacks of tillage is

a. early seedling emergence b. soil erosion c. enhanced nitrification d. improved soil

aeration

294. Which of the following practices helps minimize soil erosion?

a. continuous cropping adopting conventional tillage b. burning of plant residues

c. not applying fertilizer to crops d. mulching

295. Which of the following practices enhances soil degradation?

a.no tillage farming b. use of organic resources of nutrient elements

c. mulching d. frequent cultivation

296. Which of the following is not one of the principles of conservation agriculture?

a. permanent cover b. crop rotation c. conventional tillage d. no

soil disturbance

297. One advantage of permanent vegetation cover is that it

 a. minimizes soil erosion b. enhance soil compaction c. promotes evaporation d. hinders
farm operation

298.The following are primary considerations in the selection of crop to grow, except

a. crop’s suitability to local climatic and soil conditions

b. crop’s tolerance to insect pests and diseases common in the locality

b. yield potential of the crop d. storage requirement of the crop

299. The following are examples of cultural practices for crop plants except

a. indirect planting b. fertilizer application

c.soil cultivation and weeding d. availability of planting material

300.Crop species that are usually indirectly planted have

a.diffused root systems and rapid rate of regeneration of broken roots b. tap root
systems

c. aerial root systems d. thick leaves

301. The application of water into the field is referred to as

a. drainage b. irrigation c. flooding d. sprinkling

302. An example of irrigation by gravity is

a. furrow b. sprinkler c. drip d. mist method

303. An example of irrigation by pressure is

a. furrow b. flooding c. sheet d. drip method

304. Dissolved soil minerals in irrigation water especially in poorly drained soils

a. promote acidity b. promote salinity c. promote alkalinity d.

reduce acidity

305. High concentration of salts in the soils is

a. toxic plants and soil organisms b. favorable for plant growth

c. favorable for soil aggregate formation d. not a problem in crop production

306. The amount of irrigation water to apply is not affected by

a. stage of crop growth b.depth of the root (absorbing) system d. season

307. The process of removing excess water from the soil is

 a. drainage b. leaching c. salinization d. percolation

308. The following are bad effects of prolonged saturation of a soil, except the

a.prediposition of plants to some form of diseases b. reduction of mineral uptake

c. reduction of root penetration d. increased availability of water

309. The usual solutions to waterlogged condition are the following, except

a. construction of drainage canals b. planting of crops on raised

beds

c. planting on crops well adapted to saturated condition d. providing crops with trellis

310. The following will cause soil fertility decline except

a. crop removal b. erosion c. leaching d. liming of acidic soil

311. The following practices help improve/maintain soil fertility except

a. increasing the organic matter content of the soil b. adoption of a good cropping
system

c. liming of acidic soil d. burning of crop herbage

312. The primary factor to consider in determining the kind of fertilizer to apply is

a. fertilizer grade b. cost of fertilizer c. the nutrient element found d. age

of the plant

313. The factors to consider in determining the amount of fertilizer to apply are the following except

a. crop requirement and capacity of the soil to supply the element needed

b. capacity of the soil to supply the element and crop requirement

c. crop requirements and farmer’s economic capability

d. season

314. The removal of plant parts in order to control the growth of individual plant is referred to as

a. thinning b. pruning c. rejuvenation d. all

315. The following are the main categories of pruning trees except

a. frame pruning b. maintenance pruning c. rejuvenation pruning d.

heavy pruning

316. It is an examples of rejuvenation pruning

 a.pinching and capping b. heading back and thinning out c. pinching d. frame
pruning

317. A cropping system where the components develop their canopies at different strata

a. diversified farming b. mono-culture c. multi-storey cropping d. alley

cropping

318.The following are the major features off perishable crops except

a. high moisture content b. easily injured physically c. metabolically active d. an

annual crop

319. The following are examples of evaporative cooling storage except

a. sprinkling product with water b. wrapping products with fresh banana leaves

c. refrigeration d. storing product inside a wet cloth tent

320. In vegetation production, the advantages of plastic mulching are the following

a. earlier harvest b. reduced weed problem c. reduced fertilizer leaching d.

high initial cost

321. The advantages of drip irrigation are as follows, except

a. water use is efficient b. does not promote erosion in slope areas

c. appropriate for crops that are likely to develop fungal diseases under humid condition

d. application of water is more uniform

322. A fertilizer application method that can quickly correct a specific nutrient deficiency

a. topdressing b. side-dressing c. basal d. foliar

323. The advantages of sub-surface drip irrigation are the following except

a. the top soil remains dry b. the installation will last longer

c. water use efficiency is low d. water and nutrients are applied directly to the root
zone

324. Which of the following is not a beneficial effect of using plants as permanent soil cover?

a. reduced impact of raindrops b. soil moisture retention

c. increased soil organic matter d. reduced population of soil microorganisms

325. Which of the following is not an important consideration in determining time interval between
applications of irrigation water?
 a. area of transpiring surface b. rate of transpiration

c. field capacity of the soil d. stage of crop growth

326. In plant spacing principles, the number of plants per unit area is referred to as

a. total population b. plant density c. plant arrangement d. crop

stand

327. In plant spacing principles, the spatial distribution of plants in an area is termed

a. plant density b. total population c. crop stand d. plant

arrangement

328. A planting system which minimize mutual shading when plant rows are established in north-south
direction

a. square planting b. rectangular planting c. quincunx d. equilateral triangle

planting system

329. The following are practices that accelerate soil erosion, except

a. continuous cropping b. adopting conventional tillage

c. plowing along the slope d. incorporating plant residues in the soil

330. Which of the following is not a basic secondary processing operation?

a. sundrying b. dehydration c. fermentation d. freezing

331. A type of crop based on the attainment of full growth and development

a. commercial maturity b. early maturity c. physiological maturity

d. late maturity

332. A type of crop maturity gauged on the basis of the determined end use of the crop by the consumer

a. senescence b. commercial maturity c. late maturity d. physiological

maturity

333. A system of harvesting in which the crops are harvested at one time

a. mass harvesting b. selective harvesting c. priming d. non-selective

harvesting

334. A pruning system which does not alter the general shape and appearance of the plant

aa. maintenance pruning b. rejuvenation pruning c. frame pruning

d. thinning out
335. A pruning system to be employed if the objective is to limit plant height and the number of major
lateral branches

a. frame pruning b. maintenance pruning c. rejuvenation pruning

d. heading back

336. A pruning system intended to restore productivity in senile and unproductive trees

a. rejuvenation pruning b. frame pruning c. maintenance pruning

d. pinching

337. A type of rejuvenation pruning involving the removal of the distal portion of the slots or branches

a. heading back b. capping c. pinching d. thinning out

338. A type of rejuvenation pruning involving the complete removal of the shoot or branch

a. capping b. thinning out c. pinching d. heading back

339. A type of frame pruning involving the removal of the top portion of a young plant while it has no
lateral braches yet

a. pinching b. capping c. heading back d. thinning out

340. a type of frame pruning involving the cutting of the top portion of the main stem after the tree has
already produced some lateral branches

a. capping b. heading back c. pinching d. thinning out

341. In square planting with a planting distance of 10x 10m, a one hectare area can accommodate 100
plants. Adopting the same planting distance is hexagonal(triangular) planting, the same area can
accommodate

a. 90 plants b. 100 plants c. 110 plants d. 115 plants

342. The ability or capability of the seed to germinate and provide food for the newly developed seedling
is referred to as

a. purity b. viability c. germinability d. dormancy

343. A measure of seed viability calculated by dividing the number of seeds that have germinated by the
number of seeds sown, and multiplying the quotient by 100:

` a. germination rate b. coefficient rate c. germination percentage d. rate

of germination

344. A measure of seed viability equal to the number of seeds germinated per unit time

a. coefficient of germination b. germination score c. germination percentage d. rate

of germination
345. The percentage by weight of the principally named kind, cultivar or type of seed in the bulk sample
is referred to as

a. seed viability b. seed purity c. seed dormancy d. seed sample

346. A pre-sowing treatment involving the use of a solution of appropriate osmotic strength to limit seed
hydration to a level that permits pregerminative metabolic activity to proceed but likewise prevents actual
emergence of seedling structures.

a. moist-chilling b. osmotic-conditioning/priming c. stratification

d. scarification

347. A pre-sowing treatment which makes the seed coat permeable to water and gases and stratification

a. stratification b. scarification c. seed priming d, grinding

348. A processing which involves sequential steps in order to transform the harvested crop into a basic
form ready for utilization by the end-user

a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. final

349.A processing which involves the concersion of the basic edible form of the harvested crop into other
forms before it is utilized or consumed

a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. final

350 Plant development is the result of

a. phothosynthesis b. food translocation

c. absorption and transpiration d. growth processes and differentiation

351.Differentiation process leads to an

a. increase is size b. increase in volume c. increase in weight d. increase in

complexity

352. Which of the following is not a phse of the growth curve when growth (size) is plotted as a function
of time

a. anaphase b. lag phase c. log phase d. senescence phase

353. A type of growth wherein all body parts are direct derivatives of the apical meristems and the
original immature tissues of the embryo

a. indeterminate b. secondary c. primary d. determinate

354.A type of growth characterized by an increase in thickness of stem and root

a. indeterminate b. secondary c. primary d. determinate

355. Which of the following organs exhibits a determinate type of growth

a. stem b. root c. leaf d. branch

356. Which of the following belongs to the gametophytic generation of the plant?

a. seed formation b. seed germination c. flower formation d.

microspore belong

357. In the sexual life cycle of a plant which of the following phases does not belong to the vegetative
stage

a. juvenile b. transition c. adult vegetative d. adult

reproductive

358. Plants whose floral morphogenesis is entirely determined endogenously are called

a. self-inducing plants b. flowering plants c. photoperiodic plants d. self-

fertile plants

359.Which of the following is not considered a principal event of reproductive growth?

a. flower induction b. flower initiation c. fruit development d. seed

germination

360. A plant process which converts CO2 into initial food substance (carbohydrate) in the presence of
light and water through the agency of chlorophyll and enzyme

a. respiration b. photosynthesis c. phloem loading d.

translocation

361. In the light reactions of photosynthesis which f the following is not a part/?

a. CO2 fixation b. photolysis of water

c. photophosphorylation d. reduction and oxidation of pigment systems I and II\

362. Which of the following respiratory pathways breaks down glucose to pyruvic acid?

a. glycolysis b. Kreb’s cycle c. pentose phosphate pathway d.

glyoxylate

363. Water absorption is the net movement of water into the plant. It occurs because

a. water potential of the plant is lower than the water potential of the soil water

b. water potential of the plant is higher than the water potential of the soil water

c. water potential of the plant and the water potential of the soil water are equal

d. roots attract water

364. The following are types of transpiration, except

a. stomatal b. cuticular c. lenticular d. endodermal

365. Which of the following does not occur in a plant adequately supplied with water?

a. increased stomatal opening b. decreased stomatal resistance to CO2 diffusion into

the leaves

c. greater stomatal resistance to CO2 diffusion into the leaves d. guard cells are turgid

366. The uptake of solute by sieve elements from the adjacent parenchyma cells, companion cells or
transfer cells is termed as

a. phloem loading b. transport through the phloem c. phloem unloading

d. accumulation

367. A plant process which is concerned with the utilization of food for growth

a. respiration b. translocation c. assimilation d. nutrition

368. Which of the following is not an internal factor that may delay germination?

a. plant growth regulators b. rudimentary embryo c. hard seedcoat d.

oxygen supply

369. Which of the following is considered essential for germination?

a. gibberellins b. cytokinin c. auxin d. abscisin

370. An asexual method of propagation which utilizes a scion

a.tip layering b. grafting c. use of cutting d. simple layering

371.A modified stem which develops from the axil of a leaf is

a. stolon b. sucker c. runner d. rhizome

372. A shoot which arises from an adventitious bud on a root is

a. stolon b. sucker c. runner d. rhizome

373. A propagation technique wherein a cell, tissue or organ is aseptically cultured in a vessel of nutrient
medium under controlled environmental condition

a. isolated propagation b. etiolated propagation c. aseptic micropropagation d.

clonal propagation

374. An aseptic micropropagation technique which utilizes an excised embryo for the development of a
new plant
 a. embryo culture b. tissue culture c. cell culture d. haploid
culture

375. A tissue consisting of one type of cells

a. complex b. simple c. multiple d. singular

376. A group of cells that are associated in the performance of a particular function is

a. tissue b. organ c. structure d. organelle

377.The fundamental tissue system of the lacaes is generally referred to as

a. mesophyll b. epidermis c. cortex d. stomata

378. The stage of development in which the plant is capable of exponential growth

a. adult b. transition c. juvenile d. adult reproduction

379. The stage of development in which the plant is difficult to be induced to flower

a. adult b. transition c. adult reproductive d. juvenile

380. Juvenility in plants remains in sity, meaning it

a. remains in place b. moves to the top c. remains dormant d.

remains active

381. A stage of development in which the plant is gradually losing its juvenile characteristics and at the
same time gradually acquiring the adult characteristics.

a. adult b. juvenile c. transition d. adult reproductive

382. The following are salient characteristics of a juvenile plant except

a. capable of rapid growth b. low flowering tendency

c. morphological characteristics entirely different from that of an adult

d. readily responds to flowering stimulus

383. The following are the commonly used techniques in modifying juvenility, except

a. intensity growth b. showing down the growth rate

c. application of growth regulators d. solarization

384.The stage of development in which the plant is mainly concerned with the production of reproductive
structures
 a. germination b. juvenile c. adult vegetative d. adult
reproductive

385. The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from

a. carbondioxide b. water c. oxidation of sugar d. ATP

386. During photosynthesis the oxidation products of water are the following except

a. hydrogen ion b. oxygen c. carbondioxide d. electrons

387. The following processes require the action of enzymes except

a. ATP formation b. reduction of NADP c. reduction of CO2 to carbohydrate d. water

absorption

388. Which of the following is not a feature of respiration/?

a. food is destroyed b. gives off CO2 c. release energy d. gives

off oxygen

389. Which of the following is not a feature of photosynthesis?

a. food is synthesized b. utilizes CO2 c. utilizes energy d.

utilizes oxygen

390. Which of the following kinds of root cells does not allow movement of water through their walls?

a. epidermal b. xylem c. stellar d. endodermal

391. Which of the following does not occur in a plant inadequately supplied with water?

a. reduced stomatal opening b. decreased turpor of the guard cells

c. increased stomatal resistance to CO2 diffusion into the leaves

d. guard cells of stomata are saturated with water

392. The movement of organic and inorganic materials throughout the plant system is termed as

a. respiration b. transpiration c. translocation d. assimilation

393.The guard movement of minerals and some organic compounds occurs chiefly in the

a. phloem b. endodermic c. xylem d. epidermis

394. The movement of substances originating or synthesized in the leaf predominantly takes place in the

a. phloem b. endodermic c. xylem d. epidermis

395. The general state of the atmosphere at a given location over a long period of time

a. weather b. climate c. microclimate d. atmospheric environment

396. The expression of the day to day condition of the atmosphere at a given location

a. weather b. climate c. microclimate d. atmospheric environment

397. The atmospheric environment in which organisms live is termed as

a. weather b. climate c. microclimate d. atmospheric environment

398. Which of the four reproductive events occur first

a. microsporogenesis b. pollination c. fertilization d.

embryogenesis

399. A true seed is a fertilized mature

a. pollen grain b. ovary c. embryo sac d. ovule

400. Which of the following is not a major part of most seed embryo?

a. seedcoat b. radical c. plumule d. hypocotyls

401. A group of tissues associated together in the performance of specific activities is called

a. meristematic tissue b. permanent tissue c. organ d.

undifferentiated tissue

402. Which of the following does not belong to the male reproductive organ of a flower?

a. style b. anther c. ovary d. pollen grain

403. Which of the following does not belong to the female reproductive organ of a flower?

a. style b. stigma c. ovary d. pollen grain

404. The growing of plants in aerated water containing all the essential mineral nutrients

a. hydroponics b. water culture c. pond culture d. silviculture

405. The ancient Japanese art of dwarfing trees

a. dwarfism b. bonsai c. micropropagation d. topiary

406. In reproductive growth, which of the following principal events take place first?

a. pollination b. anthesis c. flower bud development d. initiation of

flower primodia
407. In the initiation of flower primodia in non-self-inducing plants, which of the following events occur
first?

a. perception of flowering stimulus b. evocation

c. translocation of the stimulus to the short apes d. anthesis

408. The method of asexual propagation in which adventitious roots are induced to form on a stem while
it is still attached to the parent plant

a. grafting b. budding c. inarching d. layering

409. The deteriorative process that ends the functional life of an organism or organ is called

a. deterioration b. senility c. senescence d. disease