NEET (Pre-Medical)

Growth Batch-1, 2, 3 | Minor Test-3

Time: 3:20 Hours Test Date: 21st August, 2022 Maximum Marks: 720

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Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given
below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions
Nos- 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos-
36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any
10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidate are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they
start attempting the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than
ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
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(English)
 TEST SYLLABUS

Growth Batch-1, 2, 3 | Minor Test-3 | 21st August, 2022

Physics: - Basic Maths, Vector, Kinematics

Chemistry: - Mole Concept, Atomic Stricture

Biology: - Animal Tissue, Digestion & Absorption,

Breathing & Exchange of Gases,

Cell Biology, Plant Anatomy, The Living

World, Biological Classification

 PART-A: PHYSICS → →
5. Two vectors A and B have equal
SECTION-A → →
magnitude. If magnitude of A + B is equal
1. The vector sum of the force of 10 → →
to n times the magnitude of A − B , then
newton and 6 newton can be :- → →

(1) 2 N (2) 8 N the angle between A and B is :

(3) 18N (4) 20 N n − 1  n2 − 1 
(1) cos−1   (2) cos−1  2 
n + 1  n + 1
→ → → → → n − 1  n2 − 1 
2. Two vectors A and  B are such A + B =
C (3) sin−1   (4) sin−1  2 
n + 1  n + 1
C 2 . If θ is the angle between
and A2 + B2 =
→ →
positive directions of A and B then mark 6. The sum of the magnitudes of two
the correct alternative : vectors is 18 and the magnitude of their
π resultant is 12. If the resultant is
(1) θ = 0° (2) θ =
2 perpendicular to one of the vectors.
2π Then what are the magnitude of the two
(3) θ = (4) θ = π
3 vectors?
(1) 5,13 (2) 6,12
→ → → →
(3) 7,11 (4) 8, 10
3. If | A + B | =| A − B | , which of the following
options is true ?
7. In the cube of side ‘a’ shown in the
→ → ^ ^
(1) A = B (2) A = B figure, the vector from the central point
→ → → → of the face ABOD to the central point of
(3) A is ⊥  to B (4) | A |=| B |
the face BEFO will be :
z
  →
4. The resultant of A + B is R1 . On reversing B E
→ →
the vector B the resultant becomes. R2 A
H a
What is the value of R21 + R22 ? G
O F
(1) A2 + B2 y
a
(2) A2 − B2 a
D
x
(
(3) 2 A2 + B2 )
1 1
(1) (2)
(4) 2 ( A 2
− B2 ) 2
a(i − k)
2
a( j − i)

1 1 ˆ
(3) a(k − i) (4) a( j − k)
2 2

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Growth Batch-1, 2, 3 | Minor Test-3 1

8. A person moves 30 m North, then 20m 13. The area of a parallelogram formed from

East, then 30 2 m south west. His the vectors A =ˆi + 2ˆj + 3kˆ and

displacement from the original position B = 3iˆ − 2ˆj + kˆ , as adjacent sides is :
is : (1) 8 3 units (2) 64 units
(1) 15m East
(3) 32 units (4) 3 units
(2) 28m South
(3) 10 West  
14. If A = 2iˆ + 3ˆj + kˆ and B
= 3iˆ − 2ˆj then their
(4) 14m South-West
dot product will be :
 (1) 6 (2) 1
9. Find the value of c if A = 0.4iˆ + 0.3ˆj + ckˆ
(3) 3 (4) 0
is a unit vector :
(1) 0.5  
15. If A = 4iˆ − 2ˆj + 6kˆ and B =ˆi − 2ˆj − 3kˆ the
(2) 0.75  
angle which the A + B makes with x-axis
(3) 1
is :
(4) cannot be calculated.
 3 
(1) cos−1  
 50 
10. The magnitude of a given vector with
 5 
end points (4, –4, 0) and (–2, –2, 0) must (2) cos−1  
be :  50 

(1) 6 (2) 5 2  4 
(3) cos−1  
(3) 4 (4) 2 10  50 
 12 
(4) cos−1  
11. The vector 3iˆ − 2ˆj + kˆ and 2iˆ + 6ˆj + ckˆ are  50 

perpendicular when:
16. The angle between two vectors
(1) c = 6 (2) c = 1  
(3) c = 3 (4) c = 8 A = 3iˆ + 4ˆj + 5kˆ and B = 3iˆ + 4ˆj − 5kˆ will
be :
 (1) 90° (2) zero
12. A vector A points vertically upward and
 (3) 180° (4) 45°
B points towards north. The vector
 
product A × B is :     
17. If A × B = A ⋅ B , then angle between A
(1) zero

(2) along west and B will be :
(3) along east (1) 30° (2) 45°
(4) vertically downward (3) 60° (4) 90°
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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Growth Batch-1, 2, 3 | Minor Test-3 2

18. The direction cosines of a vector 23. Five forces are applied on an object of

2iˆ + 2ˆj + kˆ are : mass 10 kg. Find out the acceleration of

2 2 1 2 2 1 object :
(1) , , (2) , ,
3 3 3 3 3 3 10 N
50 N
1 2 1 2 1
(3) , , (4) 1, ,
3 3 3 3 3
50 N 37° 20 N

19. The unit vector parallel to the resultant


of the vectors A = 3iˆ + ˆj + 4kˆ & 40 N

B –iˆ + 3ˆj – 8kˆ is :
= (1) 2 m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2

1  ˆ 1 (3) 1 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2

(1) ˆ
2i + 4ˆj – 4k (2) 3iˆ + 6ˆj – 2kˆ 
36   7 

1 ˆ ˆ 1  ˆ ˆ 24. A monkey walks 40 m east, 30 m North &

(3) 2i + 4ˆj – 4k (4) 2i – 4ˆj – 4k
6  36  
finally climbs up on a pole of height 120
m. What is the displacement of monkey?
20. A vector perpendicular to (2iˆ – 8ˆj) may (1) 190 m (2) 130 m
be : (3) 150 m (4) 170 m
(1) 2iˆ + 8ˆj ˆ
(2) 9k

(3) 6iˆ (4) 8iˆ – 2ˆj 25. On a carrom-board (2ft × 2ft), A striker is
shot from one corner & after striking the
  front wall it goes into the hole on
21. The angle between vector (A × B) and
  another corner. The displacement &
(A + B) is :
distance of striker is
π
(1) π rad (2) rad (1) 2ft, 2ft (2) 2ft, 2 5 ft
2
π (3) 2 5 ft, 2ft (4) 2 5 ft, 2 5 ft
(3) rad (4) Zero
4
26. A wheel is rolling on a floor, the

22. Find the torque of a force F = 2iˆ + ˆj + 4kˆ displacement of the point of contact

acting at the point r = 7iˆ + 3ˆj + kˆ : after the wheel has completed 2
revolutions, is (R = Radius of wheel)
(1) 14iˆ – 38ˆj + 16kˆ (2) 4iˆ + 4ˆj + 6kˆ
(1) πR (2) 2πR
(3) –14iˆ + 38jˆ – 16kˆ (4) 11iˆ – 26jˆ + kˆ
(3) 4πR (4) 8πR

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Growth Batch-1, 2, 3 | Minor Test-3 3

27. A particle is moving along a path in X – Y Paragraph (30 & 31)
plane described as X2 + Y2 = 16, What will A particle moves along a straight line
be the ratio of his distance & such that it's position is given by
displacement when his position vector =x (t3 – 3t2 + 2)m
rotates by 60°. For this particle answer the following
π questions.
(1)
6 30. The average velocity of the particle in
π the time interval t = 0 to t = 4 s will be:
(2)
3
(1) 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s
3 (3) 6 m/s (4) 8 m/s
(3)
π
6
(4) 31. Find the speed of particle at t = 3 sec.
π
(1) 9 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) 11 m/s (4) 8 m/s
28. A body covers first 1/3 part of its journey
duration with a velocity of 2 m/s, next
32. One car moving on a straight road covers
1/3 part with a velocity of 3 m/s and rest
one-third of the distance with 20 km/hr
of the journey with a velocity 6m/s. The
and the rest with 60 km/hr. The average
average velocity of the body will be:
speed is :
(1) 3 m/s
(1) 40 km/hr (2) 80 km/hr
11
(2) m/s 2
3 (3) 46 km/hr (4) 36 km/hr
3
8
(3) m/s
3
4 33. A body is moving along circular track of
(4) m/s
3 radius R then find the ratio of average
velocity and average speed when it cover
29. A dog runs 120 m away from its master angle 90° in 5 sec.
in a straight line in 9.0 s and then runs 2 2
(1)
halfway back in one-third the time. π
Calculate its average speed and its π
(2)
average velocity. 2 2
(1) 15 m/s, 5 m/s 2
(3)
(2) 5 m/s, 15 m/s π
(3) 5 m/s, 5 m/s π
(4)
(4) 15 m/s, 15 m/s 4

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Growth Batch-1, 2, 3 | Minor Test-3 4

 
34. Which of the following relation is not 37. If a force=
F 3 ˆi + ˆj N applied on a body
true (Always):
of mass 5 kg, then find out the
(1) |Instantaneous velocity| = Instantaneous
acceleration of the body :
speed
(1) 0.5 m/s2
(2) |Average velocity| = Average speed
(3) For moving particle distance never (2) 0.4 m/s2

decreases. (3) 1.5 m/s2

(4) For moving particle speed never (4) 1.4 m/s2
decreases.

38. The work done by a force on a body

35. A person moves in such a way that he
moving from (1, 4) m to (3, 8) m is 44 J.
travels first half distance with speed
The force can be :
3 m/s and in remaining half distance he
moves first half time with speed 7 m/s (1) 8iˆ + 6ˆj N
and remaining half time with speed 5 (2) 8iˆ − 6ˆj N
m/s. His average speed for entire journey
(3) 6iˆ − 8ˆj N
will be:-
(1) 4 m/s (4) 6iˆ + 8ˆj N
(2) 7.5 m/s
(3) 6 m/s  
39. Two vectors A & B have magnitudes 2 & 1
(4) 2 m/s  
respectively. If the angle between A & B

SECTION-B is 60°, then

36. At what angle the two vectors of

magnitudes (A+B) and (A-B) must act, so
that the resultant is A2 + B2 ?
which of the following vectors may be
A2 − B2
(1) cos−1 
A2 + B2 A 
equal to − B .
A2 + B2 2
(2) cos−1
B2 − A2 (1)
2 2
A −B (2)
(3) cos−1
(
2 A2 + B2 )
2 2
(3)
A +B
(4) cos −1

(
2 B2 − A2 ) (4)

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Growth Batch-1, 2, 3 | Minor Test-3 5

40. On the basis of given diagram, choose 43. In a methane (CH4) molecule each

the pair of vectors which have an acute hydrogen atom is at a corner of a regular
angle between them : tetrahedron with the carbon atom at the
 
(1) a and c centre. In coordinates where one of the
 
(2) a and d C–H bonds is in the direction of ˆi + ˆj + kˆ ,
 
(3) b and c an adjacent C–H bond in the ˆi − ˆj − kˆ
 
(4) c and d direction. Then angle between these two

bonds.

41. The x and y components of a  2

(1) cos–1  − 
 3
displacement vector are – 3.00 m and
2
+4.00 m, respectively. What angle does (2) cos–1  
3
this vector make with the positive x-
 1
(3) cos–1  − 
axis?  3
(1) 127°  1
(4) cos–1  
(2) –53.0° 3

(3) 53.0°

(4) 233° 44. Sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector.

What is magnitude of their vector

42. The following set represents magnitudes difference

of three vectors. Which set of vectors (1) 2

can never give a zero vector on addition? (2) 3

(1) 3, 4, 5 1
(3)
(2) 2, 1, 3 2

(3) 12, 10, 23 (4) 5

(4) 13, 5, 1

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Growth Batch-1, 2, 3 | Minor Test-3 6

 
45. A is a vector which when added to the 48. Average speed is
(1) 2v
resultant of vectors (2iˆ − 3ˆj + 4kˆ ) and
(2) v
(ˆi + 5ˆj + 8kˆ ) yields unit vector along y- (3) 4v
 (4) 6v
axis, then vector A is

(1) −3iˆ − ˆj − 12kˆ 49. Figure shows a particle starting from

point A, travelling upto B with speed V1,
(2) −3iˆ + ˆj − 6kˆ
then upto point C with speed V2 and
(3) −3iˆ − ˆj + 12kˆ
finally upto A witgh speed V3. The
(4) 3iˆ + ˆj + 6kˆ average speed of the particle is:-

    
46. Given that P + Q =
R and R ⊥ P . What is
   
the angle between P & Q if P = R .

3π π
(1) rad (2) rad
4 4
2π π
(3) rad (4) rad V1 + V2 + V3
3 2 (1)
3
3V1V2 V3
Paragraph (Q.47 to 48) (2)
V1V2 + V2 V3 + V3 V1
A particle is moving on a circular track
(3) V1 + V2 + V3
with constant speed v. The radius of
(4) None of these
circle is R. After some time its position
vector rotates by an angle ‘θ’
50. The velocity of a particle moving on the
x-axis is given by V = x2 + x where V is in
47. The change in position vector of a
m/s and x is in m. It’s acceleration in
particle is
m/s2 when passing through the point x =
θ
(1) 2R cos 2m.
2
(2) 2 R sin θ (1) 0

θ (2) 5
(3) 2R sin
2 (3) 11
θ (4) 30
(4) R sin
2

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Growth Batch-1, 2, 3 | Minor Test-3 7

 (4) decreases by 25%



 

 

=
 

   
→

→
 PART-C: BIOLOGY (BOTANY) 107. A plane used for storing preservation and
SECTION-A exhibition of both plants and animals is
101. Which of the following features are not known as
shown by scientific names of various (1) Herbaria
organism ? (2) Botanical Garden
(1) They consists of two components
(3) Museum
(2) They have Latin origin
(4) Zoos
(3) They always have “linn” abbreviation
at the end of second component
108. Key is
(4) They are printed in italics
(1) A form of herbaris
102. Find the correct sequence of taxonomic (2) A type of educational institute
categories
(3) A taxonomical aid used for identifying
(1) Division → Kingdom → Genus → Order
various organisms
(2) Species → Genus → Family → Order
(3) Class → Order → Family → Division (4) Taxonomic category
(4) Kingdom → Class → Species → Order
109. In Zoological parks animals are
103. Which of the following is a class ? (1) Kept and preserved in containers or
(1) Mammaila (2) Sapindales jars
(3) Primate (4) Poales (2) Preserved in boxes after killing
(3) Kept in protected environments
104. _____is the assemblage of families which
exhibit a few similar characters. under human care
(1) Class (2) Genus (4) Stuffed and then preserved
(3) Species (4) Order
110. Select correct statement for growth as
105. Fill in the blanks A and B. one of the characteristic of living
Kingdom → Phylum → [A] →Order → [B] organisms.
(1) A - Genus, B - Species
(1) Growth by increase in mass is a
(2) A - Family; B - Class
definite property of prokaryotic
(3) A - Class; B - Family
(4) A - Species; B - Division organisms only
(2) Non-living objects do not show
106. Genus is a category which comes in growth by increase in mass of body
between the (3) Intrinsic growth is a characteristic of
(1) Family and Species
all living organisms
(2) Class and Family
(4) Growth can be extrinsic or intrinsic
(3) Order and Phylum
(4) Kingdom and Class for multicellular organisms

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Growth Batch-1,23 | Minor Test-3 13

111. Dicots like mango, brinjal and monocoat 116. Heterotrophic, eukaryotic, multicellular
like wheat are placed under a common organisms lacking a cell wall are included
taxonomic category known as in the kingdom.

(1) Phylum-Arthropoda (1) Protista

(2) Fungi
(2) Phylum-Angiospermae
(3) Plantae
(3) Division-Angiospermae
(4) Animalia
(4) Class- Angiospermae

117. The plasmid

112. Amongst the given taxonomic aids, how (1) Helps in respiration
many are associated with preservation of (2) Genes found inside nucleus
specimens? (3) Is a component of cell wall of
Monograph, Flora, key, museums, bacteria
Botanical gardens, Catalogouse, (4) Is the genetic part in addition to DNA
Herbarium, Manual in micro-organisms

(1) One (2) Three

118. Taxonomy deals with
(3) Two (4) Four
(1) Development of zoological parks
(2) Study of kinds and diversity of
113. In members of which kingdom, nuclear
microorganisms only
membrane is absent?
(3) Evolutionary relationship between
(1) Monera (2) Protista organisms
(3) Fungi (4) Plantae (4) Classification of diverse organisms in
different taxa
114. According to five kingdom system,
gymnosperms and angiosperms are 119. Axillary buds forms –
grouped under the kingdom (1) Branches
(1) Monera (2) Protista (2) Flower
(3) Fungi (4) Plantae (3) Leaf
(4) More than one option are correct

115. Which organisms are not included in the 120. Meristematic cells are characterized by
five kingdom system of classification? all, except
(1) Protozoans (1) High metabolic rate
(2) Viruses (2) Presence of stored food material
(3) Lichens (3) Presence of thin cellulosic cell wall
(4) Both (2) & (3) (4) Absence of large central vacuole

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Growth Batch-1,23 | Minor Test-3 14

121. Apical meristem, intercalary meristem 126. All are leteral meristems, except:
and lateral meristem are differentiated (1) Intrafascicular cambium
on the basis of : (2) Vascular cambium
(1) Development (2) Function (3) Cork cambium
(3) Origin (4) Location
(4) Intercalary meristem

122. Which one is secondary lateral

127. Which cell organelle divide the
meristem?
(1) Cork cambium intracellular space two distinct

(2) Interfascicular cambium compartments luminal (inside) and

(3) Intrafascicular cambium extraluminal (extra luminal)
(4) Both (1) and (2) compartments.
(1) ER
123. Cells in a continuous state of division (2) GB
also show the presence of:
(3) Lysosome
(1) Plastids
(4) Plasma membrane
(2) Large-sized prominent nucleus
(3) Thick cellulosic cell wall
128. Plant cells differ from animal cell by
(4) Large-sized vacuoles
(1) Presence of vacuoles

124. Which meristem occurs in grasses and (2) Presence of cell wall and chloroplast
regenerates parts removed by grazing (3) Absence of cell wall
herbivores? (4) Absence of chloroplast
(1) Intercalary meristem
(2) Apical meristem 129. Interphase nucleus has a loose and
(3) Lateral meristem
indistinct network of nucleoprotein
(4) Cork cambium
fibres called chromatin but during
different stages of cell division, cells
125. During formation of leaves and
show "structured chromosomes" in place
elongation of stems, some cells left
behind from the shoot apical meristem of the
constitute __________: (1) Nucleus
(1) Axillary bud (2) Nucleosome
(2) Cork cambium (3) Solenoid
(3) Intrafascicular cambium (4) Centromere
(4) Periderm

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Growth Batch-1,23 | Minor Test-3 15

130. Animal cell is limited by :- 135. Given diagram is related with
(1) Cell wall (2) Cell membrane
(3) Cytoplasm (4) Both 1 & 2

131. The fluid nature of plasma membrane

provides function like–
(A) Formation of intercellular junction
(B) Cell growth (1) Early Prophase

(C) Cell division (2) Late Prophase

(D) Phogocytosis (3) Transition to metaphase
(E) Secretion (4) Anaphase
(1) A, B (2) A, B, E
(3) A, B, C, E (4) A, B, C, D, E SECTION-B

132. Anything less than a complete structure 136. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t.
of a ______ does not ensure independent Species ?
living. (1) A group of individual organisms with
(1) Cell (2) Tissue fundamental similarities
(3) Organ (4) Cell wall (2) Two different species breed together
to produce fertile offsprings
133. Arrange the following events of meiosis (3) Human beings belong to the species
in the correct sequence– sapiens
A. Terminalisation of chiasmata (4) Panthera has many specific epithet
B. Crossing over as tigris, leo and pardus
C. Synapsis
D. Disjunction of chromosomes 137. Match the following columns
E. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
Column-I Column-II
The correct sequence is-
a Binomial i Carolus
(1) A - B - C - D – E
nomenculature Linnaeus
(2) E - D - C - B - A
b Generic name ii Muscidae
(3) C - B - D - E - A
c Family iii Panthera
(4) C - B - E - A – D
d Systema nature

134. Shape of chiasmata is (1) a → (i); b → (iii); c → (iii); d → (ii)

(1) X (2) Y (2) a → (i); b → (iii); c → (ii); d → (i)
(3) Z (4) U (3) a → (ii); b → (i); c → (i); d → (iii)
(4) a → (iii); b → (i); c → (ii); d → (i)
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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Growth Batch-1,23 | Minor Test-3 16

138. Cat and dog are placed in which families 142. Select the correct match
respectively Column-I Column-II
(1) Felidae and Hominidae a Ex-situ i Central
(2) Muscidae and Felidae conservation national
(3) Poaceae and Canidae Herbarium
(4) Felidae and Canidae b Quick ii Museum
referral
139. Herbarium consists of system
(1) Collection of living plants c Preserved iii Flora
(2) Collection of plant and animal plants and
specimens preserved in the animals
containers d Actual Iv Royal Botanical
(3) Preserved insects in boxes after account of Gardens, Kew
collecting killing and pinning habitat and
(4) Herbarium sheets carrying dried, distribution
preserved specimen on them of plants of
a given area
140. National Botanical Research institute
consists of (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) Dired and preserved plant specimens (2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
only (3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(2) Collection of preserved plant and
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
animal specimens
(3) Flora, manuals and monographs only 143. Height of the plants increases by
(4) Collection of living plants for (1) Apical meristem
reference (2) Intercallary meristem
(3) Lateral meristem
141. For identifying organisms through key (4) 1 and 2 are correct
usually
(1) Two contrasting characters are used 144. Root apex is subterminal because it is:
(2) One similar character is studied (1) Covered with root cap
(3) Two or more similar characters are (2) Covered with root hair
used (3) Primary in origin
(4) Only one statements called lead is (4) Under the surface of the soid
used

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Growth Batch-1,23 | Minor Test-3 17

145. Which of the following lateral meristems 149. Recognise the figure and find out the
is completely secondary in origin? labelled C
(1) Vascular cambium of root
(2) Phellogen
(3) Vascular cambium of stem
(4) All except (3)

146. Fascicular, interfascicular and extrastelar

(1) Sugar
…… together constitute:
(2) Peripheral protein
(1) Lateral meristem
(3) Cholesterol
(2) Apical meristem
(4) Phospholipid bilayer
(3) Secondary meristem
(4) Ground meristem 150. Consider the following statements.
I. Cytokinesis in plants occur by cell
plate method.
147. Which is not a function of the
II. Cell plate grows centrifugally in plant cells.
parenchyma?
Select the correct option.
(1) Photosynthesis
(1) Both I and I are true
(2) Translocation of bulk food
(2) I is true, II is false
(3) Storage of food material (3) I is false, II is true
(4) Metabolism (4) Both I and II are false

148. Consider the following statements. PART-D: BIOLOGY (ZOOLOGY)

I. Dyad of cells is formed during the SECTION-A
telophase-II stage of meiosis. 151. Choose the correct statement for

II. Interkinesis is the stage between epithelial tissue:

(1) Possesses loosely packed cells with
meiosis-I and meiosis-II.
large intercellular matrix
Select the correct option.
(2) The free surface of epithelium faces
(1) Both I and II are true
the body fluid but not the outside
(2) I is true, II is false
environment
(3) I is false, II is true
(3) Has a basement membrane
(4) Both I and II are false
(4) This tissue is always made of only one
layer of cells

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Growth Batch-1,23 | Minor Test-3 18

152. Read the following statements: 155. Which of the following is correct for the
(i) Goblet cells are multicellular glands most abundant and widely distributed
(ii) Compound squamous epithelium occurs tissue in the body of complex animals?
in lining of stomach, intestine and (1) It links and supports other tissues or
trachea organs
(iii) Simple epithelium is made of single (2) It includes blood
layer of cells (3) It is present beneath the skin
(iv) Ciliated epithelium occurs in fallopian (4) All of the above
tubes and bronchioles
(v) Tight junction helps to stop substances 156. Choose the correct information about
from leaking across a tissue the tissues A and B diagrammatically
shown below:
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(1) Two (2) One
(3) Three (4) Five

153. Which of the following is incorrect?

(1) The epithelium of proximal convoluted
(A)
tubule (PCT) of nephron in the kidney
lacks microvilli
(2) The cells of columnar epithelium have
their nuclei located at the base
(3) Ciliated epithelium functions to move
particles or mucus in a specific
direction over the epithelium (B)
(4) The squamous epithelium can form a (1) A = Dense irregular connective tissue
diffusion boundary B = Dense irregular connective tissue
(2) A = This tissue is present in the skin
B = Tendons and ligaments are
154. Most abundant WBC is:
examples of this tissue
(1) Basophil
(3) A = Dense irregular connective tissue
(2) Neutrophil B = Dense regular connective tissue
(3) Lymphocyte (4) A = Tendons and ligaments are
(4) Monocyte examples of this tissue
B = This tissue is present beneath the
skin

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157. Identify the connective tissues labelled 160. Most abundant protein in blood plasma
as (i) and (ii) along with the parts is:
labelled as A, B and C.
(1) Albumin
(2) Globulin
(3) Fibrinogen
(4) Prothrombin

161. Brunner’s glands are present in:

(1) Duodenum-mucosa
(2) Oesophagus
(3) Duodenum-submucosa
(4) Ileum
Options (i) (ii) A B C

(1) Cartilage Collagen Bone Haversian Chondrocyte

162. Identify the layers/associated information
fibres canal

(2) Cartilage Bone

Haversian Collagen
Chondrocyte
for the transverse section of gut shown
canal fibres
Haversian Collagen below:
(3) Bone Cartilage Chondrocyte
canal fibres

Haversian Collagen
(4) Bone Cartilage Chondrocyte
canal fibres

158. Which of the following is correct for

human teeth?
(1) Thecodont but not heterodont
(2) Thecodont but not diphyodont
(3) Thecodont and diphyodont but not Options A B C D
heterodont Serosa Contain Mucosa Submucosa
nerves, blood
(4) Thecodont, diphyodont and heterodont (1) and lymph
vessels

159. The human tongue is attached to the Made of Rugae or villi Made of Muscularis
(2) Connective formation smooth layer
floor of the oral cavity by a small fold of tissue muscles

tissue called: Serosa Muscularis Mucosa Submucosa

(3)
(1) Frenulum Made of thin
layer
Made of Made of Rugae or
(2) Buds (4)
mesothelium smooth loose villi
muscles Connective formation
(3) Papillae tissue

(4) Epiglottis

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Growth Batch-1,23 | Minor Test-3 20

163. During swallowing: 168. Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) Bolus passes down through the (1) Stool appears white-grey coloured in
oesophagus by reverse peristalsis individuals with liver malfunction
(2) Epiglottis shuts down (2) Indigestion may occur due to
(3) Epiglottis remains open allowing air
overeating
into larynx
(3) The reflex action during vomiting is
(4) Pulmonary ventilation is very frequent
controlled by a centre in medulla
(4) Diarrhoea increases the absorption of
164. Pepsin is the digestive enzyme that:
food during digestion
(1) Is manufactured by the pancreas
(2) Is denatured and becomes inactive in 169. A: Caecum opens into rectum.
stomach B: Caecum lacks symbiotic microorganisms.
(3) Begins the hydrolysis of proteins in (1) If both statements A and B are true
the stomach and statement B is the correct
(4) Helps in emulsification of fat
explanation of statement A then mark
(a).
165. Saliva contains:
(2) If both statements A and B are true
(1) Na+ and K+ (2) CI–
but statement B is not the correct
(3) HCO3
−
(4) All of these
explanation of statement A then mark

166. Trypsinogen is activated by the enzyme: (b).

(1) Enterokinase secreted by intestinal (3) If statement A is true but statement B

is false, then mark (c).
mucosa
(2) Enteropeptidase secreted by stomach (4) If both statements A and B are false

in abundance statements then mark (d).

(3) Enterokinase secreted by large 170. Match the columns:

intestine Column-I Column-II
A. Sponges and (i) O2/CO2 exchange by gills
(4) Enteropeptidase which acts at a pH of
coelenterates
1.6–1.8 B. Aquatic arthropods (ii) Trachea for transport
of gases
C. Insects (iii) Lungs for gaseous
167. Parietal cell:
exchange
(1) Secretes a factor which is important D. Mammals, birds and (iv) O2/CO2 exchange by
for the absorption of vitamin B12 reptiles simple diffusion over
(2) Inefficiency will lead to pernicious entire body surface

anaemia (1) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iv), D = (iii)

(3) Secretes trypsinogen (2) A = (iv), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (i)
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) A = (iv), B = (i), C = (ii), D = (iii)
(4) A = (iii), B = (ii), C = (i), D = (iv)

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171. Trachea is a straight tube extending upto 175. Which of the following is correct for the
the mid-thoracic cavity, which divides at diagrams A and B with reference to
the level of ______ vertebra: mechanism of breathing?
(1) 5th thoracic (2) 5th sacral
(3) 5th lumbar (4) 5th cervical

172. In humans, air passes from atmosphere

into lungs in which sequence?
(1) Alveoli → Bronchiole → Bronchi →
Trachea → Larynx → Pharynx → Nasal
cavities
(2) Trachea → Larynx → Pharynx →
Bronchi → Bronchiole → Alveoli →
Nasal cavities Options A B
(1) Relaxation of muscles of External intercostal muscles
(3) Nasal cavities → Pharynx → Larynx →
diaphragm contracts
Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → (2) Increase in pressure Decrease in pressure within
within pulmonary cavity pulmonary cavity
Alveoli
(3) Decrease in pressure External intercostal muscles
(4) Nasal cavities → Larynx → Pharynx →
within pulmonary cavity relaxes
Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles →
(4) relaxation of external Decrease in pressure within
Alveoli intercostal muscles pulmonary cavity

173. The conducting part (i.e., from nostrils to 176. The rate of breathing in a normal healthy
terminal bronchioles) of respiratory human is:
system: (1) 12-16 times/minute
(1) Transports the atmospheric air to the (2) 16-32 times/minute
alveoli (3) 2-6 times/minute
(2) Clears air from foreign particles (4) 2-3 times/minute
(3) Humidifies and brings the air to body 177. During expiration:
temperature (1) Diaphragm and external intercostal
(4) Performs all the above function muscles relax
(2) Diaphragm and external intercostal
174. Lungs are comprised of:
muscles contract
(1) Alveoli
(3) Diaphragm relaxes and external
(2) Bronchioles
intercostal muscles contract
(3) The branching network of bronchi
(4) Diaphragm contracts and external
(4) All of the above
intercostal muscles relax

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178. Match the columns with refence to 181. If 1 gm of Hb carries 1.34 mL of O2 and
respiratory capacities of lungs: 100 mL of blood has 15 gm Hb then, how
much O2 will be carried approximately by
Column-I Column-II 100 mL of arterial blood?
A. Residual volume (i) 2500 mL – 3000 mL
(1) 40 mL (2) 20 mL
B. Inspiratory reserve volume (ii) 3000 mL – 3500 mL
(3) 15 mL (4) 100 mL
C. Tidal volume (iii) 500 mL
D. Inspiratory capacity (iv) 1100 mL – 1200 mL
182. The factor that affects the rate of
alveolar diffusion is:
(1) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (ii), D = (iii)
(1) Pressure gradient
(2) A = (iii), B = (i), C = (ii), D = (iv)
(2) Membrane thickness
(3) A = (iv), B = (iii), C = (i), D = (ii)
(3) Solubility of gases
(4) A = (iv), B = (i), C = (iii), D = (ii)
(4) All of these
179. Choose the incorrect statement:
183. Approximately ______ O2 is transported
(1) The pO2 in the atmospheric air is
in dissolved state through plasma.
higher than the alveolar air
(1) 3% (2) 50%
(2) The pCO2 the atmospheric air is lower
(3) 97% (4) 40%
than in the alveolar air
(3) O2 in atmospheric air has a partial
184. Choose the incorrect statement.
pressure of 104 mm Hg
(1) About 70% of CO2 is carried in
(4) The wall of alveoli is very thin and has
dissolved state in the plasma
rich network of blood capillaries
(2) About 7% of CO2 is transported in
dissolved form in plasma
180. Which of the following is correct with
(3) About 3% of O2 is transported in
refer to exchange of gases in lungs?
dissolved form in plasma
(1) The solubility of CO2 is 20-25 times
(4) About 97% O2 is transported by RBCs
higher than that of O2
in the blood
(2) The amount of CO2 that diffuses
across the diffusion membrane per
185. In mammals, an amount of oxygen
unit difference in partial pressure is
remains unused even after its uptake by
much higher than that of O2
the tissue. This oxygen:
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Decreases the pCO2
(4) More the thickness of membrane,
(2) Increases the pCO2
more is the rate of diffusion
(3) Is a reserve during muscle exercise
(4) Is useless

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Growth Batch-1,23 | Minor Test-3 23

 SECTION-B 191. An individual faces difficulty in breathing
causing wheezing (sound during
186. Blood platelet count in a healthy
breathing) due to inflammation of
individual is-
bronchi and bronchioles. The disorder is:
(1) 5 to 5.5 million/ mm3
(1) Asthma (2) Emphysema
(2) 6000 to 8000 / mm3
(3) Silicosis (4) Asbestosis
(3) 1.5 lakh to 3.5 lakh/ mm3
(4) 5 to 5.5 billion/ mm3
192. The oxygen-Hb dissociation curve will
show a right shift in case of:
187. The binding of O2 with Hb of RBC forms:
(1) Low pCO2
(1) Oxyhaemoglobin
(2) High pO2
(2) Carboxyhaemoglobin
(3) High pCO2
(3) Carbaminoglobin
(4) Less H+ concentration
(4) Aminohaemoglobin
193. Incidence of Emphysema- a respiratory
188. The ability to maintain and moderate the
disorder is high in cigarette smokers. In
respiratory rhythm is due to:
such cases:
(1) Respiratory rhythm centre of medulla
(1) The bronchioles are found damaged
region of brain
(2) The alveolar walls are found damaged
(2) Pneumotaxic centre present in the
(3) The plasma membrane is found
pons region of brain
proliferated
(3) Neural system
(4) All of these (4) The respiratory muscles are found
damaged

189. The breathing rate is mainly controlled

194. Blood:
by:
(1) Is a specialized connective tissue
(1) O2 level in arterial blood
consisting about 55% formed
(2) CO2 level in arterial blood
elements and 45% plasma
(3) pH of venous blood
(2) Contain formed elements which
(4) H+ concentration and O2
represents the cells and cell
fragments of blood
190. Which of the following reflex is involved
(3) Lacks a fluid matrix
to prevent excessive inflation of lungs?
(4) Contains straw coloured viscous fluid
(1) Withdrawl reflex
(2) Stretch reflex called plasma made of 90-92%

(3) Hering-Breur’s reflex protein

(4) Conditioned reflex

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195. Erythrocytes: 198. Select a phagocytic agranulocyte.
(1) Are the most abundant of all the cells (1) Monocytes
in blood (2) Neutrophils

(2) Are formed in the red bone marrow in (3) Eosinophils

(4) Basophils
the adults
(3) Are devoid of nucleus in most of the 199. Thrombocytes are produced by:
mammals (1) Monocytes
(4) Are related to all of the above (2) Thrombocytes
(3) Lymphocytes
196. A healthy human has, on an average, ___ (4) Megakaryocytes
millions of RBCs mm3 of blood.
(1) 3–3.5 200. Which one of the following mammalian
cells is not capable of metabolizing
(2) 2–3.5
glucose to carbon-dioxide aerobically?
(3) 5–5.5
(1) Red blood cells
(4) 4–4.5
(2) White blood cells
(3) Alveolar cells
197. Find out which of the following
(4) Liver cells
statements are true (T) / false (F) and
choose the correct option.
I. Neutrophils are the most abundant
agranulocytes
II. Basophils the least abundant white
blood cells
III. Neutrophils and monocytes are
phagocytic cells
Iv. Basophils secrete histamine and
serotonin but not heparin
Options I II III IV
(1) T T F F
(2) F T T F
(3) T F T F
(4) F T F T

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