Diagnostic Test in Earth and Life Science-Sy 2022-2023

Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
REGION IV A – CALABARZON
CITY SCHOOLS DIVISION OF BACOOR
SENIOR HIGH SCHOOL IN PROGRESSIVE
PROGRESSIVE VILLAGE 3, BAYANAN, BACOOR CITY, CAVITE
Office of the Principal
DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN EARTH AND LIFE SCIENCE
School Year 2022-2023
Name: _________________________________________ Date: __________________________________

Level & Strand: __________________________________ Teacher: _______________________________
Directions: Read and analyze each item carefully. Then choose the correct answer and write the letter only
on your paper.
____ 1. This theory states that the universe began when a dense, hot, super massive singularity violently
exploded.
A. steady state C. big crunch
B. plasma cosmology D. big bang
____ 2. Which among the set of planets are called terrestrial?
A. Jupiter, Neptune, Uranus C. Earth, Venus, Mars, Jupiter
B. Mercury, Venus, Mars, Earth D. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
____ 3. What makes the planet Earth habitable compared to other planets?
A. It has soil. C. It has people.
B. It has trees. D. It has liquid water.
____ 4. Which gas makes up most of the Earth’s atmosphere?
A. Nitrogen B. Oxygen C. Carbon Dioxide D. Argon
____ 5. Based from the current scientific theory, the Earth has a core that is composed of iron and nickel.
Which among the following is the most accurate explanation for the presence of the core?
A. The original planetesimal that became Earth was composed of iron and nickel, and the rest of
the planet was added later by accretion.
B. The Earth’s magnetic field exerts a powerful attractive force that pulls molten iron and nickel toward
the center leaving nonmagnetic silicates behind.
C. The Earth was solid as it first formed but then it melted, and the denser iron and nickel sank down
through the less dense layers of silicate material to the center.
D. The intense gravitational field at the center of the Earth has pulled the heavier elements toward the
core.
_____ 6. Which of the following has provided the most information about the structure of Earth’s core,
mantle and lower crust?
A. Examination of flowing lava.

B. Collection of samples from deep boreholes drilled into Earth.
C. Measurement of the intensity and fluctuations of Earth’s magnetic field.
D. Studies of the speeds and travel paths of seismic waves passing through Earth.
_____ 7. What are the two most abundant elements by mass found in Earth's crust?
A. calcium and carbon C. sodium and chlorine

B. oxygen and silicon D. aluminum and iron
____ 8. Human actions greatly affect the Earth itself. Which of the following is an example of a human
impact of the biosphere?
A. littering B. air pollution C. water pollution D. littering, air and water pollution
____ 9. Which subsystem suits the statement, “Global ecological system interacting with each other”?
A. biosphere B. geosphere C. hydrosphere D. atmosphere

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____ 10. Which of the following pairs of minerals are difficult to tell apart because both are always dark in
color and almost equally hard?
A. muscovite and orthoclase C. hornblende and augite
B. muscovite and quartz D. hornblende and talc
____11. Why is marble popular as a building material even though it is susceptible to dissolution under
humid climate weathering conditions?
A. Marble is rare and expensive.
B. Marble has a high resistance which makes its use long-lived.
C. Given its ease of maintenance and wide variety, it remains widely used even when restricted to wet
conditions.
D. It has the ability to withstand extreme heat as well as its colorful aesthetic appearance that allows it to
have a colorful touch when making decorations.
____12. Why are some lava rocks red and others black?
A. Some lava rocks might be red because of acid rain, others become black because of mud.
B. Some lava rocks might be red when they produce rust while others become black when they
are burned.
C. Lava rocks become red when they are exuded by a volcano abruptly and become black when
they are released slowly.
D. Lava rocks might be red because they’re hot and glowing, but as the lava cools, the lava will
become black or orange, or a red brown, depending on the oxidation state.
____13. Study the rock cycle diagram below. Then answer the following question:
The following statements explain how rocks are formed EXCEPT which one?
A. Sedimentary rocks can be formed from sediments through lithification.
B. Magma that have solidified can form into igneous rocks.
C. Igneous and sedimentary rocks can form into metamorphic rocks through metamorphism.
D. Metamorphic rocks can solidify into magma.
____14. A comic strip below shows Lucy gives Linus an incorrect information about pebbles. To make the

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information correct, which statement would be most accurate?
A. Magma is composed of pebbles.

B. Large rocks that undergo weathering could become pebbles.
C. The name pebble is given to the smallest-size sediment.
D. Pebbles can become cemented together to form rock such as gabbro.
_____15. There are four particles shown in the table below with equal volume and are dropped into a
column filled with water. Which particle would usually settle most rapidly?

A. A B. B C. C D. D
_____16. The pressure and heat that drive metamorphism result from which three forces?
A. The internal heat of the Earth, the weight of overlying rocks and horizontal pressures developed as
rocks become deformed.
B. The weight of the overlying rocks, solar heating and nuclear fusion
C. Horizontal pressures developed as rocks deform, bonding, heat released during crystallization
D. Internal heat of the Earth, nuclear fission, heat released during chemical weathering
_____17. This is a process that deforms Earth’s surface.

A. Folding B. Faulting C. Volcanism D. Diastrophism
_____18. Which of the following explains the remarkable realization associated with the discovery of
seafloor spreading?
A. Mountains are denser than the mantle.
B. Rotational poles of the Earth have migrated.
C. The crust of the continent is thicker than the crust of the ocean.
D. The crust of the oceans is very young relative to the age of the crust of the continents.
_____19. When a ship passes over seafloor that has a “reverse” magnetic polarization, the magnetic field
reading/strength of the magnetic field is ____________.
A. directed south C. slightly stronger than usual
B. directed north D. slightly weaker than usual
_____20. The block diagram below shows the bedrock age as measured by radioactive dating and the
present location of part of the Hawaiian Island chain. These volcanic islands may have formed
as the Pacific Plate moved over a mantle hot spot. This diagram provides evidence that the Pacific Crustal
Plate was moving toward the _____________.

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A. Northwest B. Southwest C. East D. West
_____21. The map below shows the location of the Peru-Chile Trench.
At the Aleutian Trench and Peru-Chile Trench, tectonic plates are generally:
A. Moving along a transform boundary C. Converging

B. Moving over a mantle hot spot D. Diverging
_____22. How does the plate tectonic theory explain the Ural Mountain separating Europe and Asia?
A. The Urals are a mountain chain that was better explained by older theories.
B. Ancient collision and suturing of Europe and Asia.
C. Eurasia is moving a hot spot in the mantle.
D. Incipient drifting apart of Europe and Asia.
_____23. Uniformitarianism is related to the concept of plate tectonics. All the sentence below explains the
similarities EXCEPT _____________.
A. Internal and external processes operated in the geologic past.
B. Geologic processes have continuously operated at the same rate and with equal strength.
C. Both explain the growth of continents and the movement of rocks that cause earthquake.
D. Both explain the Earth’s processes that operate slowly monumental cataclysms.
_____24. A fossil shell contains 25% of the original amount of Carbon-14. If the half-life of Carbon-14 is 5,730,
approximately how many years ago was this shell part of the living organism?
A. 5,700 years ago C. 11,400 years ago
B. 22,800 years ago D. 17,100 years ago
____25. The Devonian-aged siltstone shown in the photograph below occurs as surface bedrock near

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Hamilton, New York. What does the presence of the fossils suggest about the Hamilton area
during the Devonian?
A. It had a marine environment sometime between 418 and 362 million years ago.
B. It had a marine environment sometime between 443 and 418 million years ago.
C. It had a terrestrial environment sometime between 418 and 362 million years ago.
D. It had a terrestrial environment sometime between 443 and 418 million years ago.
_____26. Which of the following hazards undermine the foundations and supports of buildings, bridges,
pipelines and roads causing them to sink in the ground, collapse or dissolve?
A. eutrophication C. liquefaction
B. ground shaking D. pyroclastic density currents
_____27. A large belt of mountain ranges and volcanoes surrounds the Pacific Ocean. Which events are
most closely associated with these mountains and volcanoes?
A. tornadoes B. earthquakes C. sandstorms D. hurricanes
_____28. In 1991, the largest volcanic eruption of the twentieth century occurred in the Philippines. The
material ejected from the volcano during this eruption had a measurable effect on Earth’s
average temperature during 1992 by:
A. Increasing the production of ozone in the troposphere.
B. Releasing hot gasses into the lower atmosphere in the tropics.
C. Increasing the concentration of carbon dioxide in the stratosphere.
D. Diminishing the amount of sunlight reaching the Earth’s surface.
_____29. If you are OUTSIDE when the shaking from an earthquake begins, you should:
A. Run inside the house or building .

B. Do the DUCK, COVER and HOLD! Duck or drop down to the floor.
C. Find a tree or something sturdy to grab on to.
D. Move into an open area away from buildings, signs, utility poles and wires.
_____30. Where do most earthquakes take place?
A. Near the equator C. Along the boundaries of the Earth’s crustal plates
B. On the continent of Antarctica D. Near the mountain ranges
_____31. Wherever you are, if you hear or see a tornado coming, what should you do?

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A. Take cover right away. C. Run away from the tornado as fast as possible.
B. Stay where you are and do not move. D. Move to a higher ground
_____32. Which part of the Philippine Archipelago is frequently hit by typhoons?
A. Eastern Mindanao B. Southern Luzon C. Western Visayas D. Northern Luzon
_____33. Why do typhoons turn counterclockwise not clockwise?

A. Due to coriolis effect in Northern hemisphere C. Due to air current
B. Due to coriolis effect in Southern hemisphere D. Due to trade winds
_____34. What causes the wind deflection from the north and south poles?
A. The oblate shape of the Earth.

B. The rotation of Earth on its axis.
C. The tilt of Earth’s axis relative to its orbital plane.
D. The difference in total land mass of the two hemisphere
_____35. Why there is a need to use a satellite image of a typhoon/storm in weather forecasting?
A. Explain the effects of global warming on ocean current
B. Warn residents of hazardous weather conditions
C. Predict the times of high tide and low tide
D. Predict the total number of storms to occur in one year
_____36. In addition to natural processes, human activities also accelerate coastal processes. Which of the following
is NOT one of these activities?
A. Volcanic eruption
B. Dumping of solid wastes in the dump site
C. Construction of structures on or near the beach
D. Construction of septic system close to the beach
_____37. What is the main point of having a management strategy for the coastline?
A. To control the use of coastlines by communities, as they have the largest impact on the
environment.
B. Allows one authority to have control over the coastline, to ensure they have full accountability for any
conflicts.
C. To control the use of coastlines by businesses and industry, as they have the largest impact on the
environment
D. As multiple uses for the coastline are interacting together, and an effective management plan is
needed to coordinate the different uses to avoid conflicts.
_____38. The site of life’s origin is
A. The ocean’s edge B. Unknown C. Under frozen oceans D. Near deep-sea vents
_____39. How old is the earth?

A. 4.6 billion years B. 3.5 billion years C. 2.5 billion years D. 1.5 billion years
_____40. Which of the following traits evolved last (i.e. most recently)?
A. Prokaryotic cells B. Eukaryotic cells C. Multicellularity D. Photosynthesis
_____41. Miller and Urey’s experiments proved that
A. Life evolved on earth from inanimate chemicals
B. Coacervates were the first type of protocells
C. Complex organic molecules can form spontaneously under conditions that probably existed on the

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early earth
D. RNA can act as an enzyme and assemble new RNA molecules from RNA templates
_____42. Which of the following is NOT found in a lipid coacervate droplet or a proteinoid
A. The ability to grow C. A two-layer boundary
B. A nucleus D. Division by pinching in two
_____43. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the first cells?

A. Heterotroph B. Single-celled C. Genome composed of RNA D. Anareobic
_____44. The oxygen that is present in our atmosphere comes primarily from the
A. Eruption of volcanoes C. Breathing of animals
B. Breakdown of ozone D. Photosynthesis of plants, algae, and bacteria
_____45. Scientists generally agree that the first molecules formed as life evolved were
A. Proteins B. RNA C. Peptides and nucleic acids D. None of the above
_____46. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all living organisms?

A. Reproduction B. Heredity C. Metabolism D. Movement from place to place
_____47. Animal which is being hunted by another animal is termed as _____
A. Hunter B. Predator C. Prey D. Producer
_____48. The fertilization of human egg by the sperms takes place in
A. Ovary B. Oviduct C. Vagina D. Uterus
_____49. The sperms are temporarily stored in _____
A. Vas deferens B. Vas efferens C. Epididymis D. Bladder
_____50. If the protein is transferred to the stigma of the same flower, it is called the _____
A. Allogamy B. Autogamy C. Cross pollination D. Double fertilization
_____51. Pollen grains are produced by ____
A. Ovary B. Filament C. Stigma D. Anther
_____52. The most important part of the plant for continuation of the life of the species is _____
A. Stem B. Root C. Flower D. Leaf
_____53. The individual units of corolla are called _____
A. Petals B. Sepals C. Stamens D. Pistils
_____54. The hormone secreted by the pituitary to start the ovulation process is _____
A. FSH B. Luteinizing hormone C. Estrogen D. Progesterone
_____55. Some animals help plant to convey a seed away from parent plant by
A. Dispersal of seed B. Fertilization of seed C. Germination of seed D. Bursting of seed
_____56. Fruits which have hair-like structures and stick on fur of animals is
A. Mimosa B. Burdock C. Watermelon D. Melon
_____57. For reproduction, plants directly or indirectly depend on
A. Animals B. Soil C. Wood D. Sap
_____58. Without plants, animals cannot
A. Survive B. Grow C. Develop D. Evolve

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_____59. Gene editing is a new technique for altering plant and animal genomes. Gene editing differs from the
traditional process of genetic engineering. When comparing gene editing and the traditional process of
genetic engineering, which statements are true?
I. Both gene editing and genetic engineering are precise, quick and cheaper ways of modifying the genes
of
living organisms.
II. Products of genetic engineering containing a piece of foreign DNA must go through a rigorous process
before they become available in the market for public use. On the other hand, some countries consider the
presence of a foreign DNA in the gene-edited product.
III. Gene editing could produce more potential innovations than genetic engineering can.
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. only 2 and 3
B. only 1 and 2 D. only 1
_____60. Arrange the following series of events in a proper sequence to depict the positive feedback
mechanism of blood clotting.
I. Blood platelets start to adhere to the wound site.
II. As the platelets continue to accumulate, more chemicals are released, and more platelets
are drawn to the clot location.
III. Blood clotting agents are released from the damaged blood vessel wall.
IV. Positive reinforcement speeds up the coagulation process until it is big enough to halt the
bleeding.
V. Produce substances that attract more platelets.
A. I – III – V – II – IV D. III – V – I – II – IV
B. I – V- II – III – IV E. V – I – III – II – IV
C. III – I – V – II - IV
_____61. Which of the following is a disadvantage of golden rice?
A. supplies nutrition especially Beta-Carotene, a precursor to Vitamin A
B. reduces gastrointestinal problems
C. reduces pesticide use
D. None of the above
_____62. Study the following statements about Bt Corn to answer the question below.
I. bioengineered to produce the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) which destroys

different insect pests
II. contains lower levels of mycotoxins — substances produced by fungi growing on insect-
infested, non-GMO corn crops
III. has been made resistant from a weed-killing pesticide, glyphosate particularly the
brand name Roundup
IV. has the potential to trigger an allergic response because the actual DNA of the corn has
been altered, introducing new proteins into the food supply
V. can cause contamination of neighboring crops and this makes organic farming — which
disallows genetic modifications — much more difficult
Based from the statements above, how would you evaluate Bt Corn?
A. Bt Corn produces a high yield.
B. Bt Corn could not grow healthily as it can easily be infested with pests.
C. Allergies caused by eating Bt Corn could be fatal.

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D. Planting of Bt Corn can make organic farming much easier.
_____63. All of the following GMO crops are already produced in the Philippines EXCEPT ____________.
A. Bt cotton B. Bt talong C. golden rice D. canola
_____64. The pancreas produces a hormone called __________ which regulates the amount of glucose, or
sugar, in the blood. Glucose is the main source of energy for the body's cells. This hormone
travels through the bloodstream to help cells remove glucose from the blood and use it. If the
pancreas fails to produce enough of this hormone, the level of glucose in the bloodstream may
rise, and a condition known as Type I diabetes mellitus results.
A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Estrogen D. Progesterone
____65. Which of the following statements describes how the respiratory system and circulatory system
work together?
A. The circulatory system picks up oxygen in the lungs and drops it off in the tissues, then
performs the reverse service for carbon dioxide.
B. The respiratory system receives oxygen which the circulatory system distributes throughout
the body.
C. The circulatory system receives nutrients from the respiratory system which are distributed to
the cells of the body.
D. In the respiratory system, the chemical messengers are hormones released into the blood.
The arteries and veins then circulates these hormones throughout the body.
____66. During the final stages of human gestation, receptors for the hormone oxytocin increase on the
smooth muscles of the uterus. The release of the oxytocin during labor stimulates the smooth
muscle tissue in the wall of the uterus. The vigorous contraction of the uterine smooth muscle
helps push the baby through the birth canal so that delivery can occur. This process involves the
interaction of which organ systems?
A. Endocrine and reproductive only C. endocrine, muscular and reproductive
B. Endocrine and muscular only D. endocrine, reproductive and excretory
____67. The cecum is a section of the large intestine that is close to where the small and large intestines
converge. The diets of various vertebrates are included in the table below, along with the
average length of the cecum as measured in 20 members of the species. Based on the following
information, which of the following conclusions is most plausible?
Species Average Cecum Length (in cm) Diet
A 31.3 ruminant
B 6.3 carnivore
C 5.4 omnivore
D 42.5 herbivore
A. Species B and C are two related species since both species have a short length of cecum.
B. Since the cecum in species B and C is about the same length they have a common ancestor.
C. Because A and D are both herbivores, species A is more closely related to species D than to species B.
D. Since it is shorter in species B and C than in species A and D, the cecum in carnivores has the potential
to devolve into a vestigial structure.
_____68. Which of the following sentences is TRUE about the evolutionary process?

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A. Progress is nature’s religion.
B. There is no real progress’ in the idea of evolution.
C. Humans are unique, a totally new type of organism.
D. Evolution of life forms was rapid in the beginning ages.
_____69. Microevolution takes place due to
A. Somatogenic variation C. Continuous variation
B. Blastogenic variation D. Successive variation
_____70. The difference between Homo Sapiens and the Homo Erectus was _____
A. Homo Sapiens originated in Africa while Homo Erectus was in Asia
B. Homo Erectus were much smaller in size than Homo Sapiens
C. Homo Erectus stayed in Africa while Homo Sapiens did not
D. The size of the brain of Homo Erectus was smaller than Homo Sapiens
_____71. Important abiotic factors in ecosystems include which of the following?
I. Temperature II. Water III. Wind
A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I, II, and III
_____72. Which of the following are important biotic factors that can affect the structure and organization
of biological communities?
A. Nutrient availability, soil pH, light intensity
B. Precipitation, wind, temperature
C. Predation, competition, disease
D. A, B, and C
_____73. The illustration below shows two species of flying lizard from the genus Draco such as Draco
rizali and Draco dussumieri.
The Draco rizali named after Dr. Jose P. Rizal is native in the Philippines and the Draco dussumieri, which is native in
India. The two species have many similar characteristics, including the ability to glide.
Which of the following is true regarding the capacity to glide shared by Draco rizali and Draco dussumieri?
A. Both organisms came from different ancestors that developed similar homologous structures.
B. Both organisms adapted to similar niches in which gliding increased their chances of survival.
C. Both organisms learned to glide by imitating other species that can glide.
D. Both organisms interbred and blended their gene pools in the past.
E. Both organisms evolved at the same time in geologic history.
_____74. What is the relationship between biotic potential and environmental resistance in relation to
population explosion of certain species?
A. Biotic potential increases the population whereas environmental resistance confines its growth.
B. Biotic potential increases the population while environmental resistance decreases its growth.
C. Biotic potential and environmental resistance are the two factor that increase the population growth.
D. Biotic potential and environmental resistance are the two factors that limit the population explosion.

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_____75. Study the pictures on biotic potential and environmental resistance below, then answer the
question that follows.
Create a slogan that would best describe biotic potential and environmental resistance. Choose
the best one from the following.
A. “Biotic potential spurs growth; environmental resistance triggers loss.”
B. “Biotic potential may decline with the onset of environmental resistance.”
C. “As long as biotic and abiotic factors exist, populations of species will persist.”
D. “Population may increase or decrease, ecosystems may get balanced or imbalanced.”
“The foundation stones for a balanced success are honesty, character, integrity, faith, love and loyalty”.
Prepared by:
ALPHA PIA V. RIVAS

Master Teacher II

Telephone: (046) 502 2674

Telephone: (046) 502 2674

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Republic of the Philippines

Name: _________________________________________ Date: __________________________________

A. Examination of flowing lava.

A. calcium and carbon C. sodium and chlorine

SENIOR HIGH SCHOOL IN PROGRESSIVE

SENIOR HIGH SCHOOL IN PROGRESSIVE

A. Magma is composed of pebbles.

_____17. This is a process that deforms Earth’s surface.

SENIOR HIGH SCHOOL IN PROGRESSIVE

A. Northwest B. Southwest C. East D. West

A. Moving along a transform boundary C. Converging

SENIOR HIGH SCHOOL IN PROGRESSIVE

A. Run inside the house or building .

_____30. Where do most earthquakes take place?

SENIOR HIGH SCHOOL IN PROGRESSIVE

_____32. Which part of the Philippine Archipelago is frequently hit by typhoons?

A. Eastern Mindanao B. Southern Luzon C. Western Visayas D. Northern Luzon

_____33. Why do typhoons turn counterclockwise not clockwise?

A. The oblate shape of the Earth.

_____39. How old is the earth?

SENIOR HIGH SCHOOL IN PROGRESSIVE

_____43. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the first cells?

_____46. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all living organisms?

SENIOR HIGH SCHOOL IN PROGRESSIVE

I. bioengineered to produce the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) which destroys

SENIOR HIGH SCHOOL IN PROGRESSIVE

Species Average Cecum Length (in cm) Diet

SENIOR HIGH SCHOOL IN PROGRESSIVE

SENIOR HIGH SCHOOL IN PROGRESSIVE

ALPHA PIA V. RIVAS

SENIOR HIGH SCHOOL IN PROGRESSIVE

SENIOR HIGH SCHOOL IN PROGRESSIVE

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