24/01/2023

Morning

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Answers & Solutions

Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300

JEE (Main)-2023 (Online) Phase-1

(Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.

(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out of
10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for
correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be rounded off
to the nearest integer.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning

PHYSICS
3. Consider the following radioactive decay process
SECTION - A

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20

multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices The mass number and the atomic number of A6 are
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. given by:
(1) 210 and 80 (2) 210 and 82
Choose the correct answer:
(3) 210 and 84 (4) 211 and 80
1. A travelling wave is described by the equation
Answer (1)
y(x, t) = [0.05 sin (8x – 4t)] m
β− γ + γ
Sol. 218 α 214
84 A → 82 A1 → 214
83 A2 → 214
 α 210
83 A3 
β
→ 81 A4  → 210 → 210
80 A5  80 A6
The velocity of the wave is : [all the quantities are in
SI unit] Mass number = 210
Atomic number = 80
(1) 8 ms–1 (2) 0.5 ms–1
4. The weight of a body at the surface of earth is
(3) 4 ms–1 (4) 2 ms–1
18 N. The weight of the body at an altitude of
Answer (2) 3200 km above the earth’s surface is (given, radius
of earth Re = 6400 km):
Sol.  y(x, t) = [0.05sin(8x – 4t)] m
(1) 8 N (2) 19.6 N
Coefficient of t (3) 9.8 N (4) 4.9 N
Speed of wave =
Coefficient of x Answer (1)
4 Sol. Wearth = 18 N
= = 0.5 ms−1
8 mgearth = 18
2
2. A circular loop of radius r is carrying current I A. The  R 
Also mg h = mg earth  
ratio of magnetic field at the center of circular loop R +h
and at a distance r from the center of the loop on its 2
axis is:  6400 
= 18  
 6400 + 3200 
(1) 2 2 : 1 (2) 1: 3 2
4
= 18 × = 8
(3) 3 2 : 2 (4) 1: 2 9
Answer (1) 5. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Photodiodes are preferably operated
in reverse bias condition for light intensity
Sol. measurement.
Reason R : The current in the forward bias is more
than the current in the reverse bias for a p – n
junction diode.
µ0I In the light of the above statements, choose the
BP =
1 2r correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
µ0Ir 2 µ0I
=BP = explanation of A
2 2 3/2
2 2(r + r ) 25/2 r
(2) A is false but R is true
µ0I (3) A is true but R is false
BP 2 2
∴ = 1 2r
= (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
BP µ0I 1 explanation of A
2
25/2 r Answer (4)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning
Sol. Photodiodes are preferably operated in reverse i + r = 90° as transmitted is ⊥ to reflected.
bias condition for light intensity measurement
µa µ π
because it increases the width of depletion layer, tan i= ⇒ i= tan−1 a = − θB
therefore both are correct but not the correct µg µg 2
explanation.
7. A modulating signal is a square wave, as shown in
6. Given below are two statements : the figure.
Statement I : If the Brewster's angle for the light
propagating from air to glass is θB, then the
Brewster's angle for the light propagating from
π
glass to air is − θB
2 If the carrier wave is given as c(t) = 2 sin (8πt) volts,
Statement II : The Brewster's angle for the light the modulation index is:
propagating from glass to air is tan–1 (µg) where µg
is the refractive index of glass. 1
(1)
In the light of the above statements, choose the 2
correct answer from the options given below: 1
(2)
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are true 4
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false
(3) 1
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but statement Il is true 1
(4)
Answer (3) 3
Sol. Case I : Answer (1)
Sol. Am = Amplitude of modulating wave = 1 volt
Ac = Amplitude of carrier wave = 2 volt
Am 1 1
Modulation index = = =
Ac 2 2
8. As shown in the figure, a network of resistors is
connected to a battery of 24V with an internal
resistance of 3Ω. The currents through the resistors
R4 and R5 are I4 and I5 respectively. The values of
Transmitted is ⊥ to reflected. I4 and I5 are:
i + r = 90°
Snell’s law
µasini = µgsinr
µg
tan i =
µa
 µg 
i = tan−1   = θB
 µa  8 2
(1) I4
= = A and I5 A
Case II : 5 5
24 6
(2) I4
= = A and I5 A
5 5
2 8
(3) I4
= = A and I5 A
5 5
6 24
(4) I4
= = A and I5 A
5 5
Answer (3)
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning

R1R2 R4R5 F1 µ0i1 µ0i1i 2

Sol. R=
eq + R3 + + R6 + r =
Sol. = i2
R1 + R2 R5 + R4 l 2πr 2πr
= (1 + 2 + 4 + 2 + 3) r 
If i1 and i 2 both are doubled, if rf =  
= 12 Ω 2

24 Ff µ0 (2i1)(2i 2 ) 8µ0 i1i 2

=I = 2A = =
l r 2πr
12 2π  
2
 R5  5 2
I4 =  I = × 2= A Ff = 8F1
 R4 + R5  25 5
10
R4I 20 8 11. A conducting circular loop of radius cm is
I5= = × I= A π
R4 + R5 25 5
placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of
9. Given below are two statements : 0.5 T. The magnetic field is decreased to zero in 0.5
Statement I : The temperature of a gas is –73°C. s at a steady rate. The induced emf in the circular
When the gas is heated to 527°C, the root mean loop at 0.25 s is:
square speed of the molecules is doubled. (1) emf = 1 mV (2) emf = 5 mV
Statement II : The product of pressure and volume (3) emf = 100 mV (4) emf = 10 mV
of an ideal gas will be equal to translational kinetic Answer (4)
energy of the molecules.
Sol.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true
(2) Statement I is false but statement Il is true
(3) Both statement I and statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but statement II is false
Answer (4)
Sol. Ti 200K
= v rms ∝ T
Tf = 800K dφ
εind =–
dt
Vi Ti 200 1 1
= = = =  dB 
Vf Tf 800 4 2 = A
 dt 
Vf = 2Vi 2
 0.5   1 
=  π
3   0.5   10 π 
Translational K.E. =  PV 
2  1
= 1× V
10. Two long straight wires P and Q carrying equal 100
current 10A each were kept parallel to each other = 0.01 V
at 5 cm distance. Magnitude of magnetic force
= 10 mV
experienced by 10 cm length of wire P is F1. If
distance between wires is halved and currents on 12. 1 g of a liquid is converted to vapour at 3 × 105 Pa
them are doubled, force F2 on 10 cm length of wire pressure. If 10% of the heat supplied is used for
increasing the volume by 1600 cm3 during this
P will be:
phase change, then the increase in internal energy
(1) 10F1 (2) 8F1
in the process will be:
F1 F1 (1) 4800 J (2) 432000 J
(3) (4)
10 8 (3) 4.32 × 108 J (4) 4320 J
Answer (2) Answer (4)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning
 
Sol. ∆Q = ∆U + ∆W 15. In E and K represent electric field and propagation
10 ∆W = ∆W + ∆W vectors of the EM waves in vacuum, then magnetic
∆U = 9 ∆W field vector is given by:
(ω – angular frequency):
 1 
= 9 × (3 × 105 ) 1600 × 6 
1(
 10  (1) K ×E) (2) ω ( E × K )
ω
= 4320 J
13. If two charges q1 and q2 are separated with distance (3) K × E (4) ω ( K × E )
‘d’ and placed in a medium of dielectric constant K. Answer (1)
What will be the equivalent distance between 
charges in air for the same electrostatic force? Sol. E ⇒ electric field

(1) 2d k (2) d k K ⇒ propagation vector

(3) 1.5d k (4) k d  1  

=
B (K × E )
ω
Answer (2)
Sol. 16. As per given figure, a weightless pulley P is
attached on a double inclined frictionless surfaces.
dielectric constant = K The tension in the string (massless) will be (if g =
10 m/s2)
1 qq
=
Fmedium × 1 22
4π(Kε0 ) d

 Fair = Fmedium

1 q1q2 1 q1q2
2
=
4πε0 (dair ) 4π(Kε0 ) d 2

∴ dair = K d
(1) (4 3 + 1) N (2) (4 3 − 1) N
14. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: An elevator can go up or down with (3) 4 ( 3 + 1) N (4) 4 ( 3 − 1) N
uniform speed when its weight is balanced with the Answer (3)
tension of its cable.
Sol.
Statement II: Force exerted by the floor of an
elevator on the foot of a person standing on it is
more than his/her weight when the elevator goes
down with increasing speed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Let’s consider T tension in string and a acceleration
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true of blocks.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true FBD of 4kg
(4) Both statement I and Statement II are false
Answer (1)
Sol. Statement I is correct, because lift is moving with
zero acceleration.
Statement II is incorrect as force exerted will be
4gsinθ – T = 4a
less than the weight.
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning

4g 3 Choose the correct answer from the options given

4a
−T = …(1) below:
2
FBD of 1kg (1) A, B, D only
(2) A, C, D only
(3) B only
(4) B, C only
Answer (3)
T – gsin30° = a Sol. (A) From Einstein’s equation
g Kmax = eVs = hν – φ
T − =
a …(2)
2 Form the stopping potential (Vs) depends on φ
From (1) and (2) & ν.

T 4 (1 + 3 ) N
(B) Saturation current is proportional to intensity,
=
i.e., number of incident photons.
17. Match List I with List II
(C) Kmax only depends on nature of photon and φ.
LIST I LIST II (D) Einstein used particle behaviour of photon to
A. Planck's constant (h) I. [M1L2T–2] explain photon electric effect.
Only B is correct.
B. Stopping potential (Vs) II. [M1L1T–1]
19. The maximum vertical height to which a man can
C. Work function (φ) III. [M1L2T–1] throw a ball is 136 m. The maximum horizontal
distance upto which he can throw the same ball is:
D. Momentum (p) IV. [M1L2T–3A–1]
(1) 272 m
Choose the correct answer from the options given (2) 68 m
below:
(3) 192 m
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) 136 m
(2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Answer (1)
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Sol. For vertical throw,
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
v2
Answer (1) h=
2g
Sol. [h] = [ML2T–1] → A-III
=
ν 2gh
= 2g × 136 …(1)
[Vs] = [ML2T–3A–1] → B-IV
[φ] = [ML2T–2] → C-I For max range, θ = 45°

[p] = [MLT–1] → D-II ν2

Rmax = …(2)
18. From the photoelectric effect experiment, following g
observations are made. Identify which of these are From (1) and (2)
correct.
ν 2 2g × 136
A. The stopping potential depends only on the =
Rmax =
g g
work function of the metal.
= 272 m
B. The saturation current increases as the
intensity of incident light increases. 20. A 100 m long wire having cross-sectional area
6.25 × 10–4 m2 and Young's modulus is 1010 Nm–2
C. The maximum kinetic energy of a photo
is subjected to a load of 250 N, then the elongation
electron depends on the intensity of the
in the wire will be:
incident light.
(1) 6.25 × 10–6 m (2) 6.25 × 10–3 m
D. Photoelectric effect can be explained using
wave theory of light. (3) 4 × 10–3 m (4) 4 × 10–4 m
Answer (3)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning

Fl Sol. Both the springs are in parallel so net spring

Sol. ∆l =
AY constant is Knet = K1 + K2 = 40 N/m
m
So T = 2π
Knet

2
= 2π
40

F= 250 N π
=
l = 100 m 5
A = 6.25 × 10–4 m2 x=5
Y = 1010 23. In the circuit shown in the figure, the ratio of the
quality factor and the band width is _______ s.
∴ ∆l = 4 × 10–3 m
SECTION - B

Numerical Value Type Questions: This section

contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, Answer (10)
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g. R
Sol. Bandwidth ∆ω =
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the L
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
1 L
place designated to enter the answer. Quality factor Q =
R C
21. A hole is drilled in a metal sheet. At 27°C, the 1 L
diameter of hole is 5 cm. When the sheet is heated Q R C
So =
to 177°C, the change in the diameter of hole is d × ∆ω R
10–3 cm. The value of d will be ______ if coefficient L
of linear expansion of the metal is 1.6 × 10–5/°C. 3
Answer (12) L2
=
Sol. ∆D = Dα∆t R2 C
= 5 × 1.6 × 10–5 (177 – 27) 3
32
= 0.012 cm = 1
= 12 × 10–3 cm 2 −6 2
10 (27 × 10 )
so, d = 12
3 3
=
100(3 3 × 10−3 )
22.
A block of a mass 2 kg is attached with two identical = 10
springs of spring constant 20 N/m each. The block 24. As shown in the figure, a combination of a thin
is placed on a frictionless surface and the ends of plano concave lens and a thin plano convex lens is
the springs are attached to rigid supports (see used to image an object placed at infinity. The
figure). When the mass is displaced from its radius of curvature of both the lenses is 30 cm and
equilibrium position, it executes a simple harmonic refraction index of the material for both the lenses
π is 1.75. Both the lenses are placed at distance of 40
motion. The time period of oscillation is in SI cm from each other. Due to the combination, the
x
image of the object is formed at distance x = ____
unit. The value of x is ______.
cm, from concave lens.
Answer (5)
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning

26. A stream of a positively charged particles having

q C 
= 2 × 1011 and velocity v 0= 3 × 107 iˆ m / s is
m kg
deflected by an electric field 1.8 ˆj kV/m. The electric
field exists in a region of 10 cm along x direction.
Due to the electric field, the deflection of the charge
Answer (120) particles in the y direction is ____ mm.
Answer (2)
1 1 1  0.75
Sol. (1.75 − 1)  −
=  =
− Sol.
fconcave  ∞ +30  30

fconcave = – 40 cm
1  1 1  0.75
= (1.75 − 1)  − =
fconvex  30 ∞  30

fconvex = 40 cm qE y
Fy =
Let the first image is formed at v1 so m
ay = 2 × 1011 × 1800
1 1 1 1
− = =− = 36 × 1013 m/s2
v1 ∞ fconcave 40
10 × 10−2 0.1 1 
⇒ v1 = −40 cm Time =
= = =  × 10−8  sec.
v0 3 × 107  3 
for second image
1 2
∴ y= at
1 1 1 2
− =
x − 40 −80 40 2
1 1 
⇒y= × 36 × 1013 ×  × 10 −8 
⇒ x = 120 cm 2 3 
25. A spherical body of mass 2 kg starting from rest = 2 × 10–3 m
acquires a kinetic energy of 10000 J at the end of
= 2 mm
5th second. The force acted on the body is _____
N. 27. A hollow cylindrical conductor has length of 3.14 m,
while its inner and outer diameters are 4 mm and
Answer (40) 8 mm respectively. The resistance of the conductor
F is n × 10–3 Ω.
Sol. Let the force be F so acceleration a =
m If the resistivity of the material is 2.4 × 10–8 Ωm. The
value of n is ______.
1 2 Ft 2
So displacement
= S = at Answer (2)
2 2m
Sol.
F 2t 2
So work done W = F.S =
2m

From work energy Theorem

∆KE = W

F 2t 2
=
W = 10000
2m

10000 × 2 × 2
F=
52
F = 40 N
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning

ρl 2.4 × 10−8 × 3.14

=
R =
A π(16 − 4) × 10−6

2.4
= × 10−2
12
24
= × 10−3
12

2 × 10−3 Ω
=
Answer (110)
value of n is 2. Sol.
28. Assume that protons and neutrons have equal
masses. Mass of a nucleon is 1.6 × 10–27 kg and
radius of nucleus is 1.5 × 10–15 A1/3 m. The
approximate ratio of the nuclear density and water
density is n × 1013. The value of n is _____.
Answer (11)

Sol. Radius = 1.5 × 10−15 A1/3

I Icm + Md 2
=
4π 3
Volume = r 2
3 MK 2
⇒ = MR 2 + Md 2
5
Mass of nucleus = (1.6 × 10–27) A kg
2 2
−27
=K R + d2
1.6 × 10 ×A 5
Density of nucleus = 3
 1
4 2 2
× π ×  1.5 × 10−15 A 3  K= × 5 + 102 cm
3   5
 
K = 110 cm
1.6 × 3 × 8 × 1018
=
4π × 27 Value of x = 110 .

32 30. Vectors aiˆ + bjˆ + kˆ and 2iˆ – 3 ˆj + 4kˆ are

= × 1017
9π perpendicular to each other when 3a + 2b = 7, the
Density of water = 1000 kg/m3 x
ratio of a to b is . The value of x is _______.
2
32
× 1017 Answer (1)
Density of nucleus 9π
=
Density of water 1000 Sol. ( aiˆ + bjˆ + kˆ ) ⋅ ( 2iˆ – 3 jˆ + 4kˆ ) =
0

320 2a – 3b + 4 = 0
= × 1013
9π (2a – 3b = –4 ×) 7 … (1)
= 11.32 × 1013 also, (3a + 2b = 7 ×) 4 … (2)
adding (1) and (2)
value of n = 11
14a + 12a – 21b + 8b = 0
29. Solid sphere A is rotating about an axis PQ. If the 26a – 13b = 0
radius of the sphere is 5 cm then its radius of a 13 1
= =
gyration about PQ will be x cm. The value of x b 26 2
is ______. Value of x = 1 .

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CHEMISTRY

SECTION – A (1) Both statement I and Statement II are true

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 (2) Both statement I and Statement II are false
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Choose the correct answer : Answer (3)
Sol. For colloidal particles value of colligative properties
31. Given below are two statements:
is less as compared to true solutions at same
Statement I : Noradrenaline is a neurotransmitter. concentration as number of particles are less.
Statement II : Low level of noradrenaline is not the
cause of depression in human.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
But fixed layer and diffused layer have opposite
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is charges.
correct
34. In the depression of freezing point experiment
(3) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect A. Vapour pressure of the solution is less than that
(4) Both statement I and Statement II are correct of pure solvent
Answer (1) B. Vapour pressure of the solution is more than
that of pure solvent
Sol. • Noradrenaline is a neurotransmitter.
C. Only solute molecules solidify at the freezing
• Low level of noradrenaline is a cause for point
depression in human.
D. Only solvent molecules solidify at the freezing
32. Reaction of BeO with ammonia and hydrogen point
fluoride gives A which on thermal decomposition Choose the most appropriate answer from the
gives BeF2 and NH4F. What is ‘A’? options given below:
(1) H3NBeF3 (2) (NH4)BeF3 (1) A and D only (2) B and C only
(3) (NH4)Be2F5 (4) (NH4)2BeF4 (3) A only (4) A and C only
Answer (4) Answer (1)
Sol. Sol. A and D are correct

as (vp)solution < (vp)solvent
BeO  NH3  HF (NH4 )2 BeF4   BeF2  NH4F
(A) and only solvent particles undergoes solidification.
Compound A is (NH4)2BeF4 35. ‘A’ and ‘B’ formed in the following set of reactions
are:
33. Statement I : For colloidal particles, the values of
colligative properties are of small order as
compared to values shown by true solutions at
same concentration.
Statement II : For colloidal particles, the potential
difference between the fixed layer and the diffused
layer of same charges is called the electrokinetic
potential or zeta potential.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning

(1)
(1) (2)

(2) (3) (4)

Answer (1)
Sol.

(3)

(4)


38. It is observed that characteristic X-ray spectra of
Answer (1)
elements show regularity. When frequency to the
power “n” i.e. n of X-rays emitted is plotted against
Sol. atomic number “Z”, following graph is obtained.

(1) 1 (2) 2
1
(3) 3 (4)
36. The primary and secondary valencies of cobalt 2
respectively in [Co(NH3)5CI]Cl2 are : Answer (4)
(1) 3 and 5 (2) 2 and 6  1 1
Sol. h = E = 13.6 × Z2  2  2 
(3) 2 and 8 (4) 3 and 6  n1 n2 
Answer (4)    Z2 
Sol. [Co(NH3)5CI]Cl2  1
 (  )1/ 2  Z n  2 
Oxidation no. = primary valencies = 3  
Co-ordination no. = secondary valencies = 6 39. The magnetic moment of a transition metal
compound has been calculated to be 3.87 B.M. The
37. ‘R’ formed in the following sequence of reactions is
metal ion is
(1) Ti2+ (2) Mn2+
(3) Cr2+ (4) V2+
Answer (4)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning

Sol.  = 3.87 Answer (1)

n=3 Sol. CH3 – Cl 
2 HO
 CH3OH  slow process  .... r1 
V23 = 4s23d3
NaI HO
CH3 – Cl  CH3 – I 
2
CH3 – OH ...(r2 )
V2+ = 4s03d3 (n = 3)  I being a Good 
–
 Nucleophile 
–
 I being a Good 
 leaving group 
   
40. Which of the following is true about freons?
r2 >> r1
(1) These are chemicals causing skin cancer
as I– is a good nucleophile as well as good leaving
(2) These are radicals of chlorine and chlorine group.
monoxide
43. Match List I with List II
(3) All radicals are called freons
(4) These are chlorofluorocarbon compounds LIST I LIST II
Answer (4) A. Chlorophyll I. Na2CO3
Sol. Freons are chlorofluorocarbons
B. Soda ash II. CaSO4
41. Increasing order of stability of the resonance
structures is: C. Dentistry, III. Mg2+
Ornamental work

D. Used in white IV. Ca(OH)2

washing

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Answer (4)
Choose the correct answer from the options given Sol. Chlorophyll contains Mg2+ Ions (A – III)
below: Soda ash is Na2Co3 (B – I)
(1) C, D, A, B (2) D, C, B, A Dentistry; ornamental work – CaSO4 (C – II)
(3) D, C, A, B (4) C, D, B, A Used in white washing – Ca(OH)2 (D – IV)
Answer (Not given in the options)
44. In the following given reaction, ‘A’ is
Sol. Correct stabilising order is
C<A<B<D
(This question should be given bonus)
42. Assertion A: Hydrolysis of an alkyl chloride is a
slow reaction but in the presence of NaI, the rate of
the hydrolysis increases.
Reason R: I– is a good nucleophile as well as a
good leaving group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below. (1) (2)
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) A is true but R is false
(3) (4)
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning

Answer (4)
Sol.
(1)

(2)

(3)

45. Match List I with List II

LIST I LIST II (4)

A. Reverberatory I. Pig Iron
furnace

B. Electrolytic cell II. Aluminum Answer (1)

C. Blast furnace III. Silicon

D. Zone refining IV. Copper Sol.

furnace

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below:
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Answer (3)
Sol. (A) Reverberatory furnance is used for extraction
of copper.
(B) Electrolytic cell is used for obtaining highly
reactive metals like aluminium.
(C) Blast furnace is used for extraction of Iron.
(D) Zone refining furnace is used for silicon.
46. Compound (X) undergoes following sequence of
reactions to give the Lactone (Y).

47. Which of the phosphorus oxoacid can create silver

mirror from AgNO3 solution?

(1) H4P2O5

(2) (HPO3)n

(3) H4P2O7

(4) H4P2O6

Compound (X) is Answer (1)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning

Sol. H4P2O5 can act as a reducing agent due to (P – H) 50. Order of covalent bond :
bond. A. KF > KI; LiF > KF
B. KF < KI; LiF > KF
C. SnCl4 > SnCl2; CuCl > NaCl
D. LiF > KF; CuCl < NaCl
48. Decreasing order of the hydrogen bonding in
E. KF < KI; CuCl > NaCl
following forms of water is correctly represented by
Choose the correct answer from the options given
A. Liquid water
below:
B. Ice
(1) B, C only (2) C, E only
C. Impure water
(3) B, C, E only (4) A, B only
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Answer (3)
below:
Sol. B is correct KF < KI; LiF > KF
(1) A > B > C
C is correct SnCl4  SnCl2 ; CuCl  NaCl
(2) B > A > C 4 2

(3) A = B > C E is correct KF < KI; CuCl > NaCl

(4) C > B > A SECTION - B
Answer (2)
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
Sol. Extent of hydrogen bonding : contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
Ice > liquid water > impure water questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
 In ice, 4 molecules of H2O are connected to
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
H2O molecule.
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g.
 Impure water will have less hydrogen bonding.
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the
49. An ammoniacal metal salt solution gives a brilliant mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
red precipitate on addition of dimethylglyoxime. The place designated to enter the answer.
metal ion is
51. The d-electronic configuration of [CoCl4]2– in
(1) Ni2+
tetrahedral crystal field is em t 2n . Sum of “m” and
(2) Cu2+
“number of unpaired electrons” is _______.
(3) Fe2+
Answer (7)
(4) Co2+
Sol. [CoCl4]2–
Answer (1)
Sol. Ni2+ forms cherry red ppt with dmg Co2+ = 4s03d7 t2g

m=4 eg
= eg 4t
2g
3

Number of unpaired electrons = 3

52. The dissociation constant of acetic acid is x × 10 –5.
When 25 mL of 0.2 M CH3COONa solution is mixed
with 25 mL of 0.02 M CH3COOH solution, the pH of
the resultant solution is found to be equal to 5. The
value of x is _______.
Answer (10)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning

 25  0.2 
Sol. pH = pKa + log   (C)
 25  0.02 
5 = pKa + log10
pKa = 4  Ka = 10–4 = 10 × 10–5
x = 10
Ea
53. Uracil is a base present in RNA with the following (D) ln k  ln A 
RT
structure. % of N in uracil is ________.
1  E 
Slope of ln k vs is  a 
T  R 
55. At 298 K, a 1 litre solution containing 10 mmol of
Cr2O72– and 100 mmol of Cr3+ shows a pH of 3.0.
Given : Cr2O72–  Cr3+; E° = 1.330V
Given :
Molar mass N = 14 g mol–1 2.303 RT
and = 0.059 V
F
O = 16 g mol–1
C = 12 g mol–1 The potential for the half cell reaction is x × 10–3 V.
The value of x is _______.
H = 1 g mol–1
Answer (25) Answer (917)
Sol. Uracil is C4H4N2O2 Sol. 6e  14H  Cr2O72  2Cr 3  7H2O
10–3 m 10 –2 m 10–1m
14  2
% by mass of N =  100
112 0.059 102
Ecell  1.330 – log
= 25% 6 (102 )(10–42 )
54. The number of correct statement/s from the
0.059
following is __________.  1.330 –  42 
6
A. Larger the activation energy, smaller is the
value of the rate constant. = 1.330 – 0.413
B. The higher is the activation energy, higher is = 0.917 = 917 ×10–3
the value of the temperature coefficient.
x = 917
C. At lower temperatures, increase in temperature
56. 5 g of NaOH was dissolved in deionized water to
causes more change in the value of k than at
higher temperature. prepare a 450 mL stock solution. What volume (in
mL) of this solution would be required to prepare
1
D. A plot of In k vs is a straight line with slope 500 mL of 0.1 M solution?________
T
Ea Given : Molar Mass of Na, O and H is 23, 16 and
equal to – .
R 1 g mol–1 respectively
Answer (3) Answer (180)
E
 a 5 (1000)
Sol. (A) k  Ae RT
 Ea  k  Sol. Molarity of solution =
(40) (450)
Ea  M  V  500  .1
(B) ln k  ln A 
RT
5 1000
1 dk E a    V  500  .1
·  450 450
k dT RT 2

E a  temp. coefficient  V  180 mL

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning

57. For independent processes at 300 K B : Fe0.93O Fe93O100

Process H/kJ mol–1 S/J K–1 Fex2 Fe(93

3
 x)O100

A –25 –80
2x + 3(93 – x) = 200
B –22 40
x = 79
C 25 –50
79
% of Fe2+ =  100  85%
D 22 20 93

The number of non-spontaneous processes from 14

% of Fe3+ =  100  15%
the following is______ 93

Answer (2) = Fe0.93O is metal deficient compound

A, B, C, D are correct.
Sol. C is non  spon taneous as ( H  0, S  0)
59. If wavelength of the first line of the Paschen series
D is Non - spontaneous of hydrogen atom is 720 nm, then the wavelength
For D, of the second line of this series is______ nm.
(Nearest integer)
G  H – TS
Answer (492)
= 22,000 – (300) (20)
1 1 1 
= (22,000 – 6000) > 0 Sol.  R – 
720  9 16 
Non-spontaneous as (G > 0)
9  16
58. When Fe0.93O is heated in presence of oxygen, it R
720  7
converts to Fe2O3. The number of correct
statement/s from the following is______ 1 9  16  1 1 
  –
A. The equivalent weight of Fe0.93O is  ' 720  7  9 25 

Molecular weight ' = 492.18 nm

0.79
 '  492 nm (nearest integer)
B. The number of moles of Fe2+ and Fe3+ in 1 mole
of Fe0.93O is 0.79 and 0.14 respectively. 60. Number of moles of AgCl formed in the following
C. Fe0.93O is metal deficient with lattice comprising reaction is_____
of cubic closed packed arrangement of O2–
ions.
D. The % composition of Fe2+ and Fe3+ in Fe0.93O
is 85% and 15% respectively.
Answer (4)

Sol. A : Fe0.93O  Fe2 O3 Answer (2)

 200  Sol.
nF   3 –  .93
 93 

= .79

mw
eq. wt 
.79 Circled Cl will get precipitated

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning

MATHEMATICS

SECTION - A v v w  =  v 2 + u  v
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 Substituting values we have
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices 1
6 + 3 = 0   = −
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 2
 Equation (i) becomes
Choose the correct answer :
61. Let N denote the number that turns up when a fair v
v w = u − ...(ii)
die is rolled. If the probability that the system of 2
equations Taking dot with w of (ii) we get
x+y+z=1 v w
0 = u w −
2x + Ny + 2z = 2 2
3x + 3y + Nz = 3 2
 u w = =1 (as v  w = 2 given)
k 2
has unique solution is , then the sum of value of
6 63. The distance of the point (–1, 9, –16) from the plane
k and all possible values of N is 2x + 3y – z = 5 measured parallel to the line
(1) 18 (2) 20 x +4 2−y z −3
= = is
(3) 21 (4) 19 3 4 12

Answer (2) (1) 20 2 (2) 13 2

Sol. For unique solution   0 (3) 26 (4) 31
1 1 1 Answer (3)
i.e. 2 N 2  0
x +4 y −2 z−3
3 3 N Sol. = =
3 −4 12
 (N2 – 6) – (2N – 6) + (6 – 3N)  0
 N2 – 5N + 6  0
 N  2 and N  3
2
 Probability of not getting 2 or 3 in a throw of dice =
3
2 k
As given = k =4
3 6 Equation of line AP
 Required value = 1 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 4 = 20
x + 1 y − 9 z + 16
= =
62. Let u = iˆ − ˆj − 2kˆ, v = 2iˆ + ˆj − kˆ, v  w = 2 and 3 −4 12
v  w = u + v . Then u  w is equal to
Point A(3 – 1, –4 + 9, 12 – 16) lies on 2x + 3y –
(1) 2 (2) 1 z = 5,  6 – 2 – 12 + 27 – 12 + 16 = 5   = 2
3 2
(3) (4) −  Point A(5, 1, 8)
2 3
Answer (2)  AP2 = 62 + 82 + 242 = 4(9 + 16 + 144) = 4 × 169

Sol. Given v  w = v + u ...(i) AP = 26

Taking dot with v we get Option (3) is correct.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning
64. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential  A2(B – I) – I(B – I) = I
 1  (A2 – I)(B – I) = I
equation x3 dy + (xy – 1)dx = 0, x > 0, y   = 3 − e.
2
 A2 – I is the inverse matrix of B – I and vice
Then y(1) is equal to versa.
(1) e (2) 2 – e So, (B – I)(A2 – I) = I
(3) 3 (4) 1
 BA2 – B – A2 + I = I
Answer (4)
 A2 + B = BA2 ...(ii)
Sol. x3dy + xy dx – dx = 0
So, by (i) and (ii)
dy 1 − xy
 = A2B = BA2
dx x3
 Option (1) is correct.
dy y 1
 + = 66. Let PQR be a triangle. The points A, B and C are
dx x 2 x 3 on the sides QR, RP and PQ respectively such that
dx 1 QA RB PC 1 Area ( PQR )
 − = = = . Then is equal
x2
I.F. = e =e x
AR BP CQ 2 Area ( ABC )
1 to
1 −
− e x
 ye x =  x3
dx
(1)
5
(2) 4
2
1 dx (3) 3 (4) 2
For RHS put − =t  = dt
x x2 Answer (3)
1
−
 ye x = −  tet dt Sol.
1
−
 ye x = − tet − et  + c
 
1
1 − 1
− e x −
 ye x = +e x +c ...(i)
x
 1
 y  = 3−e
2
 (3 – e)e–2 = 2e–2 + e–2 + c By PSY formula

 c=−
1
...(ii) ABC ( PC  QA  RB ) + (CQ  AR  BP )
e =
PQR PQ  QR  RP
For y(1) put x = 1, c = –e–1 in equation (i) we get
8 +1 1
ye–1 = e–1 + e–1 – e–1 = =
333 3
 y=1
2 2
65. If A and B are two non-zero n × n matrics such that 67. For three positive integers p, q, r , x pq = y qr = z p r
A2 + B = A2B, then and r = pq + 1 such that 3, 3 logy x, 3logz y, 7 logx
(1) A2B = BA2 (2) A2B =I 1
z are in A.P with common difference . Then r–p–
(3) A2 = I or B = I (4) AB = I 2
Answer (1) q is equal to
Sol. Given : A2 + B = A2B ...(i) (1) 12 (2) 2

 A2 + B – I = A2B – I (3) –6 (4) 6

 A2B – A2 – B + I = I Answer (2)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning
2 2 Sol.
Sol. x pq = y qr = z p r

7 9
3logy x = ,3logz y = 4,7logx z =
2 2
7 4 9
 x = y 6 , y = z 3 , z = x 14

7 3 2
pq 2 p r
y6 = y qr = y 4

7 2 3
 pq = qr = p2r
6 4
 7pq = 6r, 4q = 3p2
r = pq + 1
6r
r = +1  r = 7
7
pq = 6 2  4 − y2 y −2
 3 p2 
Required area = −4  4
−  dy
2 

p =6
 4 
  2 8 − 2y − y 2
= dy
−4 4
p = 2, q = 3
2
r–p–q=7–5=2 1  y 3 
= 8 y − y 2 − 
68. The relation 4  3 
−4
R = ( a, b ) : gcd ( a, b ) = 1,2a  b, a, b   is = 9 square units
sin2 t
(1) Reflexive but not symmetric  1 1 1 
70.  2 2 2
lim 1sin t + 2 sin t + ... + n sin t  is equal to
t →0  
(2) Neither symmetric nor transitive

(3) Symmetric but not transitive  

(4) Transitive but not reflexive (1) n2 (2) n2 + n

Answer (3) n ( n + 1)
(3) (4) n
2
Sol. gcd (a, a) = a so (a, a) so  R  not reflexive
Answer (4)
If gcd (a, b) = 1  gcd (b, a) = 1
sin2 t
 cosec 2 t 
 (b, a)  R  Symmetric   1 2
2
Sol. l = lim n   cosec t +   + ... + 1
If gcd (a, b) = 1 and gcd (b, c) = 1 t →0   n  n 
 
 gcd (a, c) = 1 l=n
 R is not transitive cosec 2t
r 
69. The area enclosed by the curves y2 + 4x = 4 and y  lim   = 0,  1  r  n
t →0  n 
– 2x = 2 is
22

(1)
23
3
(2)
22
3
71. The value of

r =0
22
Cr 23Cr is

25 (1) 44C
22 (2) 45C
24
(3) (4) 9
3 (3) 44C
23 (4) 45C
23

Answer (4) Answer (4)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning

Sol. (1 + x )22 = 22
C0 + 22C1x + 22C2 x 2 + ...... 73. The equation x2 – 4x + [x] + 3 = x[x], where [x]
denotes the greatest integer function, has
+ 22C21x 21 + 22C22 x 22 ...(i) (1) Exactly two solutions in (–, )
(2) No solution
( x + 1)23 = 23C0 x 23 + 23C1x 22 + 23C2 x 21 + ......
(3) A unique solution in (–, 1)
23 2 23 23
+ C21x + C22 x + C23 …(ii) (4) A unique solution in (–, )
Multiplying (i) & (ii) and comparing coefficients of x23 Answer (4)
on both sides Sol. x2 – 4x + [x] + 3 = x[x]
45 (x – 1)(x – 3) = (x – 1)[x]
C23 = 22C0 · 23C0 + 22C1· 23C1 + 22C2 · 23C2 + ......
(x – 1)(x – 3 – [x]) = 0
22 23
+ C22 · C22 x = 1 or x – 3 – [x] = 0

22 {x} = 3


r =0
22
Cr · 23Cr = 45C23 x=
 a unique solution in (–, )

72. Let a tangent to the curve y2 = 24x meet the curve 74. The distance of a point (7, –3, –4) from the plane
xy = 2 at the points A and B. Then the mid points of passing through the points (2, –3, 1), (–1, 1, –2) and
(3, –4, 2) is
such line segments AB lie on a parabola with the
(1) 4 2
(1) Directrix 4x = 3
(2) 4
3
(2) Length of latus rectum (3) 5 2
2
(3) Length of latus rectum 2 (4) 5
Answer (3)
(4) Directrix 4x = –3
Sol. A(2, –3, 1), B(–1, 1, –2), C(3, –4, 2)
Answer (1)
AB = −3iˆ + 4 ˆj − 3kˆ AC = iˆ − jˆ + kˆ
Sol. y2 = 24x, xy = 2
Let the equation of tangent to y2 = 24x is ty = x + 6t2 iˆ jˆ kˆ
ty = x + 6t2 meet the curve xy = 2 at points A and B. n = −3 4 −3 = iˆ − kˆ
Let mid-point of AB is P(h, k). 1 −1 1

2 2 Let equation of plane is x – z +  = 0 passes through

ty = + 6t 2 t· = x + 6t 2
y x point A(2, –3, 1)   = –1
ty 2 − 6t 2 y − 2 = 0 x 2 + 6t 2 x − 2t = 0 Equation of plane is x – z – 1 = 0

y1 + y 2 = 6t x1 + x2 = −6t 2 Distance of point (7, –3, –4) from the plane x – z –

1 = 0 is 5 2
 Mid-point P is (–3t2, 3t)
75. The compound statement
 h= –3t2, k = 3t (~ (P  Q ))  ((~ P )  Q )  ((~ P )  (~ Q )) is
2 equivalent to
 h  k
  =  (1) ((~ P )  Q )  (~ Q )
 –3   3 
(2) (~ Q )  P
 y2 = –3x
(3) (~ P )  Q
 Length of L.R. = 3
(4) ((~ P )  Q )  ((Q )  P )
3
Equation of directrix is x = Answer (4)
4
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning
Sol. (~ (P  Q ))  ((~ P )  Q )  ((~ P )  (~ Q )) (1) f is continuous but not differentiable

(~ P  ~ Q )  (~ P  Q )  (~ P  ~ Q ) (2) f and f' both are continuous

 (~ P  ~ Q  ~ P )  (~ P  ~ Q  Q )  (~ P  ~ Q ) (3) f' is continuous but not differentiable

(4) f is continuous but f' is not continuous
 (~ P  ~ Q )  (T )  (~ P  ~ Q )
Answer (4)
 (~ P  ~ Q )  (~ P  ~ Q )
 2 1
 x sin , x  0
 ~ (~ P  ~ Q )  (~ P  ~ Q ) Sol. f ( x ) =  x
 0 , x =0
 (P  Q )  (~ P  ~ Q )  (~ P  Q )  (• Q  P )

76. Let  be the sample space and A   be an event. lim f ( x ) = lim f ( x ) = f (0) = 0
x →0+ x →0 –
Given below are two statements:
 f is continuous at x = 0
(S1) : If P(A) = 0, then A =  1
f (h ) − f (0) h2 sin
(S2) : If P(A) = 1, then A =  Now, R.H.D = lim = h =0
h→0 h h
Then
(1) Both (S1) and (S2) are false at x = 0

(2) Only (S1) is true and LHD

(3) Only (S2) is true  1

−h 2 sin  
f ( −h ) − f ( 0 ) h =0
(4) Both (S1) and (S2) are true = lim =
h →0 −h −h
Answer (4)
 RHD = LHD  f is differentiable at x = 0
Sol. Both statements are correct
  1  1
77. Let  be a root of the equation (a – c)x2 + (b – a) x 2 x sin   − cos   , x  0
 f (x) = 
'
x x
+ (c – b) = 0 where a, b, c are distinct real numbers
 x =0
2  0,
 1
 
such that the matrix  1 1 1 is singular. Then, lim f ' ( x ) is oscillatory
a x →0+
 b c 

 f is continuous but f’ is not at x = 0
the value of
 1+ 3   8+4 3 
( a − c )2 ( b − a )2 ( c − b )2 79. tan−1   + sec −1   is equal to:
+ + 3+ 3   6+3 3 
is    
( b − a )( c − b ) ( a − c )( c − b ) ( a − c )( b − a )
(1) 12 (2) 6  
(1) (2)
(3) 9 (4) 3 3 6

Answer (4)  
(3) (4)
2 4
( a − c )3 + ( b − a )3 + ( c − a )3
Sol.
( a − c )( c − b )( b − a ) Answer (1)

 1+ 3   1  
3 ( a − c )( b − a )( c − b ) Sol. tan−1  = tan−1  =
=  3 + 3   3 6
( a − c )( b − a )( c − b )  

=3
−1  (
 4 2+ 3 
 )
−1  2  
and sec  = sec  3  = 6
 2  1
 x sin   , x  0

(
 3 2+ 3 
 
)
 
78. Let f ( x ) =  x
 x =0
 0,
 1+ 3   8+4 3    
 tan−1  + sec −1  = + =
Then at x = 0  3 + 3   6+3 3  6 6 3
   

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning
80. Let p, q  and 2023
 ( 2023 )(1 + x )2022 =  2023
Cr rx r −1
(1 − )
200
3i = 2199 ( p + iq ) , i = −1 , then p + q + q2 r =0
2023
and p – q + q2 are roots of the equation.  ( 2023 ) x (1 + x )2022 =  r 2023Cr x r
(1) x2 – 4x + 1 = 0 (2) x2 – 4x – 1 = 0 r =0

(3) x2 + 4x – 1 = 0 (4) x2 + 4x + 1 = 0  ( 2023 )  x 2022 (1 + x )2021 + (1 + x )2022 

Answer (1)
2023

(
Sol. Given 1 − 3i )
200
=2 199
( p + iq ) …(1) =  r 22023Cr x r −1
r =0
200 Put x = 1
  5  5 
L.H.S = 2200 cos   + i sin  2023
  3  3  2023 2022  22021 + 22022  =
   r 2 2023Cr
r =0
 1000 1000 
= 2200 cos + i sin
 3 3  2023
  r 2 2023Cr = 2023  22022 (1012 )
 1 r =0
3 
= 2200  − − i
 2 2    = 1012
82. Let C be the largest circle centred at (2, 0) and
So, by (1)
x2 y 2
inscribed in the ellipse + = 1.
P = – 1, q = − 3 36 16

 p + q + q 2 = −1 − 3 + 3 = 2 − 3 =  If (1, ) lies on C, then 102 is equal to _________

Answer (118.00)
and p − q + q 2 = −1 + 3 + 3 = 2 + 3 = 
x2 y 2
Sol. + =1
 quadratic equation whose roots are  and  36 16

x2 – 4x + 1 = 0 r2 = (x – 2)2 + y2
Solving simultaneously
Option (1) is correct.
–5x2 + 36x + (9r2 – 180) = 0
SECTION - B D=0
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section 128
r2 =
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five 10
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a Distance between (1, ) and (2, 0) should be r
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the 128
1 + 2 =
10
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
118
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g. 2 =
10
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the
= 118.00
mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
83. The number of 9 digit numbers, that can be formed
place designated to enter the answer. using all the digits of the number 123412341 so that
the even digits occupy only even places, is
2023 ___________
81. Suppose  r 2 2023Cr = 2023    22022. Then
Answer (60)
r =0
Sol. Given number 123412341
the value of  is ___________
Answer (1012)    
2023 4! 5!
Sol.  (1 + x )2023 =  2023
Cr x r Total number = 
2!2! 3!2!
= 6  10 = 60
r =0
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning
84. Let a tangent to the curve 9x2 + 16y2 = 144 intersect 1 2 3
the coordinate axes at the points A and B. Then, the =  ( x – 1)( x – 2)dx –  ( x – 1)( x – 2)dx +  ( x – 1)( x – 2)dx
0 1 2
minimum length of the line segment AB is
____________ 1 2
 x3 3x2   x3 3x2 
Answer (07) = – + 2x  –  – + 2x 
 3 2  0  3 2 1
Sol. Given curve : 9x2 + 16y2 = 144
3
x2 y 2  x3 3x 2 
 + =1 + – + 2x 
16 9  3 2  2
Let P(4cos, 3sin) be any point on it.
1 3   8  1 3 
Now tangent at P =  – + 2 –  – 6 + 4  –  – + 2  
 3 2   3   3 2 
x cos  y sin 
+ =1  27  8 
4 3 +  9 – + 6 –  – 6 + 4
 2   3 
 A  (4sec, 0) B  (0, 3cosec)
11
=
AB = 16 sec 2  + 9cosec 2  6
11
= 16 + 9 + 16 tan2  + 9 cot 2  12 I =  12
6
ABmin = 25 + 2  12 = 22
=7 87. The 4th term of GP is 500 and its common ratio is
85. A boy needs to select five courses from 12 available 1
, m  . Let Sn denote the sum of the first n terms
courses, out of which 5 courses are language m
courses. If he can choose at most two language 1
of this GP. If S6 > S5 + 1 and S7  S6 + , then the
courses, then the number of ways he can choose 2
five courses is _____________ number of possible values of m is
Answer (546) Answer (12)
Sol. Case 1 If no language course is selected. Sol. T4 = 500

= 7 C5  500
ar3 = 500  a =
Case 2 If one language course is selected. r3
7 Now,
C4  5 C1 
S6 > S5 + 1
Case 3 If two language course is selected.
a(1– r 6 ) a(1– r 5 )
7
C3  5C2  – 1
1– r 1– r
Total = 7C5 + 7C4  5C1 + 7C3  5C2 ar5 > 1
= 21 + 175 + 350 1 500
Now, r = and a =
= 546 m r3
3  m 2  500
x
2
– 3 x + 2 dx is _______.
( )
86. The value of 12
0
 m  0  m  0, 10 5 ...(i)

Answer (22) 1
S7  S6 +
3 2
Sol. 12 x 2 – 3 x + 2 dx
a(1– r 6 ) a(1– r 6 ) 1
0  +
1– r 1– r 2
3
Let I =  ( x – 2)( x – 1)dx ar 6 
1
0 2

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (24-01-2023)-Morning
1 500 89. Let  and let the equation E be
 r = and a = 2
m r5 x – 2 x +  – 3 = 0 . Then the largest element in
1 1 the set S = {x + : x is an integer solution of E} is
 ________.
3 1000
m
Answer (05)
 m  (10,  ) ...(ii)
Sol. D  0  4 – 4  – 3  0
Possible values of m is {11, 12, .........22}
–3 1
 mN
–1   – 3  1
Total 12 values
24
88. The shortest distance between the lines
x – 2 y +1 z – 6 x – 6 1– y z + 8 2 4– 4 –3
= = and = = is x =
3 2 2 3 2 0 2
equal to
= 1  1–  – 3
Answer (14)
xlargest = 1 + 1 = 2, when  = 3
Sol. a1 = 2iˆ – jˆ + 6kˆ
Largest element of S = 2 + 3 = 5
a2 = 6iˆ + ˆj – 8kˆ 
8 2
(cos x )2023
a = 3iˆ + 2 jˆ + 2kˆ 90. The value of 
 (sin x )2023 + (cos x )2023
dx is
0
b = 3iˆ – 2 jˆ + 0kˆ
________.
a2 – a1 a b  Answer (02)

S.D = 
ab
8 2
(cos x )2023
  (sin x )2023 + (cos x )2023
Sol. I = dx ...(i)
4 2 –14 0
a2 – a1 a b  = 3 2 2
  
3 –2 0
8 2
(sin x )2023
  (sin x )2023 + (cos x )2023
I= dx ...(ii)
= 4× (4) – 2 (–6) – 14 (–12) 0
= 16 + 12 + 168 = 196
 b b 
iˆ jˆ kˆ 

 f ( x )dx =  f ( a + b – x )dx 

ab = 3 2 2 = 4iˆ + 6 jˆ – 12kˆ a a

3 –2 0 
2
8 8 
a  b = 16 + 36 + 144 = 196 = 14 (i) + (ii)  2I =
  1dx =  = 4
 2
0
196
S.D = = 14 I=2
14

❑ ❑ ❑

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