05-01-2023

05-JANUARY-2023

The Hindu News Analysis – 05th January 2023 – Shankar IAS Academy
S. Page Number*
News Articles
No. C B D H T

1 Silent Valley bird species’ number goes up to 175 9 5 5 - -

2 Centre clears ₹19,744 cr. Green Hydrogen Mission 1,12 1,8 1,10 1,8 1,8

3
Acid attack victims failed by lack of a cohesive law, 14 10 12 10 10
legal process

4 The values of local self-governance 10 6 6 6 6

5
Services PMI shows surge in Dec., private sector 1,12 1,8 1,10 1,8 1,8
output growth rises to 11-year high
*C – Chennai; B – Bengaluru; D – Delhi; H – Hyderabad; T – Thiruvananthapuram
 05-01-2023

The Hindu News Analysis – 05th January 2023 – Shankar IAS Academy
S. Page Number*
News Articles
No. C B D H T

6
CERC orders payment to coal power units for forced 16 12 14 12 12
output
7
Cards, mobile, net banking top complaint areas at 16 12 14 12 12
banking ombudsman: RBI
8
Protect reserve forests in Tamil Nadu, parties and 8 - - - -
NGOs urge Chief Minister
9 Prelims Practice Questions
@ end of the video

10 Mains Practice Questions

*C – Chennai; B – Bengaluru; D – Delhi; H – Hyderabad; T – Thiruvananthapuram

Pg: 9 – C ;
Pg: 5 – B, D
 05-01-2023

Silent Valley National Park Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve

Location & Topography

• Enclosed by ridges & escarpments.

• Feeding river - Kunthi.

• Also called as Sairandhrivanam.

 05-01-2023

Forest Types
Climate
• West-coast tropical evergreen forest.
• Tropical climate.
• Southern subtropical broad leaved hill forest.
• Precipitation - summer rains.
• Southern montane wet temperate forest.
• Avg rainfall - 2717 to 4543 mm.
• Grassland.

Types Species numbers

1000 flowering plants, 107 orchids, 100 ferns

Flora & fern allies, 200 liverworts, 75 lichens, 200
algae

34 mammals, 292 birds, 31 reptiles, 22

Fauna
amphibians, 13 fishes, 500 butterflies & moths
 05-01-2023

Blue winged White bellied tree

Nilgiri Wood Pigeon Grey headed Bulbul
Parakeet Pie

Wayanad Laughing Nilgiri Laughing

Rufous Babbler
Thrush Thrush

Broad tailed Grass Black and Orange White bellied Blue

Nilgiri Flycatcher
Warbler Flycatcher Flycatcher

Rufousbellied
Nilgiri Pipit Small Sunbird
Shortwing.
 05-01-2023

Types Species

Flora Teak, Amla, Semal, Rosewood, Bamboo & Other Species

Lion-tailed Macaque, Nilgiri Langur, Bonnet Macaque, Tiger, Leopard (Panther), Leopard Cat, Jungle
Cat, Fishing Cat, Common Palm Civet, Small Indian Civet, Brown Palm Civet, Ruddy Mongoose, Stripe
Fauna necked Mongoose, Wild Dog, Sloth Bear, Otter, Flying Squirrel, Malabar Giant Squirrel, Indian Pangolin
(Scaly anteater), Porcupine, Wild Boar, Sambar, Spotted Deer, Barking Deer, Mouse Deer, Gaur and
Elephant.

King Cobra, Cobra, Viper, Krait, Rat Snake, Tree frog, Bronze frog, Rufescent Burrowing Frog, Indian
Reptiles
Chameleon

Previous Year Question – Prelims 2019

Q. Which of the following are in
Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney
Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad
Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and
Wayanand Wildlife Sanctuaries; and
Silent Valley National Park
c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram
and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries;
and Mukurthi National Park
d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife
Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar -
Srisailam Tiger Reserve
 05-01-2023

Pg: 1 – C, T, B, D, H

Hydrogen

• It is clean fuel.

• Rarely occurs in elemental form

in nature.

 Very low density.

 Very reactive.

• Green Hydrogen.

 Production - Zero CO2 emission.

 Consumption - Zero CO2 emission.

 05-01-2023

National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM)

• Coordination and implementation - Ministry of

New & Renewable Energy.

• Potential of the mission

 Rs. 8 lakh crore investments by 2030.

 6 lakh jobs by 2030.

Objectives

1. Green Hydrogen Production.

 5 MMT of Green Hydrogen Per Annum by 2030

 125 GWs of additional renewable energy

production - to support Green Hydrogen
production.

Objectives

2. Domestic Production of electrolysers.

 Demand - supply mismatch in electrolysers in India.

 Domestic demand - met through imports.

3. Utilization of Green Hydrogen.

 Industries - Oil refineries, ammonia production,

metallic ore reduction and fertilizer.

 Mandated to use Green Hydrogen.

 Adoption of Hydrogen Fuel cells by the

transportation sector.
 05-01-2023

Objectives
• SHIP Initiative
4. Export of Green Hydrogen.
 Allocation - Rs 400 Crore.
 Net Energy importer Net Energy Exporter.
 Strategic Hydrogen Innovation
Steps announced by the government Partnership.

• SIGHT program  R&D in Green Hydrogen Technology.

 Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen  Public Private Partnership.

Transition.
• Pilot Projects
 Allocation - Rs 17,490 crore.
 Allocation - Rs 1466 Crore.
 Focus
 Focus
 Domestic manufacture of electrolysers.
 Green hydrogen production.
 Domestic production of hydrogen.
 Green hydrogen consumption by
 Green Hydrogen Hubs - Large Scale Production. end users.

Practice Question - Prelims

Q. With reference to the Green Hydrogen,
consider the following statements:
1. Green hydrogen is produced with the help
of electrolysis through electricity generated
• Standards and Regulations framework from renewable sources of energy such as
solar and wind.
 For faster adoption of Green hydrogen.
2. In this method, electric current is used to
• Skill development programs split the water into hydrogen and oxygen.
3. In this process, Hydrogen gas is liberated at
 To create qualified workforce.
the anode and Oxygen gas is liberated at
the cathode.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only.
b) 2 and 3 only.
c) 1 and 3 only.
d) 1, 2 and 3.
 05-01-2023

Pg: 14 – C ;
Pg: 12 – D ;
Pg: 10 – B, H, T

Part A—Preliminary Examination

Paper I - (200 marks)
 Indian Polity and Governance-Constitution, Political System, Panchayati Raj, Public Policy, Rights Issues, etc
Part B—Main Examination
PAPER-II
General Studies‐I: Indian Heritage and Culture, History and Geography of the World and Society.
 Role of women and women’s organization, population and associated issues, poverty and developmental issues, urbanization,
their problems and their remedies.
PAPER-III
General Studies ‐ II: Governance, Constitution, Polity, Social Justice and International relations.
 Welfare schemes for vulnerable sections of the population by the Centre and States and the performance of these schemes;
mechanisms, laws, institutions and Bodies constituted for the protection and betterment of these vulnerable sections.
 05-01-2023

Acid attacks
• Common reasons for the crime
• Crime against women and men.
 Rejection of the marriage
• Gender-specific crime in India - against women.
proposal or sexual advances.
• Acid and other corrosive substances are thrown
 Conflicts related to dowry.
on the body or administered
 Revenge.
 Causing immeasurable consequences.
 Domestic violence.

 Conflicts due to family or property

disputes.

 Social or political or religious

beliefs.

Consequences

• Death of the victims.

• Physical damage.

• Physical challenges requiring life-

long treatment.

• Costly treatments.

• Permanent psychological damage.

• Difficulty in rehabilitation of
victims.

• Societal prejudice.

• Employability affected.
 05-01-2023

Issues needing attention

• Availability of acid over-the-counter.

• Limited number of specialised burn hospitals.

• Hospitals refusing to admit acid attack

victims.

• Many unreported incidents.

• Lack of speedy investigation and trial.

• 2021 - Crime in India, NCRB

 161 cases - pending investigation.

 97 cases - charge-sheeted.

 585 cases - pending in courts (97.5%).

Measures taken so far

1. Recognising and penalising the crime

• Amendment to Indian Penal Code (IPC) - based on recommendation of the Justice Verma
Committee.

• Insertion of Sections 326A and 326B into the IPC by the Criminal law (Amendment Act), 2013.

INDIAN PENAL CODE, 1860

326A. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid, etc.—Whoever causes permanent or partial damage or deformity to, or burns or
maims or disfigures or disables, any part or parts of the body of a person or causes grievous hurt by throwing acid on or by
administering acid to that person, or by using any other means with the intention of causing or with the knowledge that he is likely to
cause such injury or hurt, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which shall not be less than ten years
but which may extend to imprisonment for life, and with fine: Provided that such fine shall be just and reasonable to meet the
medical expenses of the treatment of the victim: Provided further that any fine imposed under this section shall be paid to the
victim.
326B. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid.—Whoever throws or attempts to throw acid on any person or attempts to
administer acid to any person, or attempts to use any other means, with the intention of causing permanent or partial damage or
deformity or burns or maiming or disfigurement or disability or grievous hurt to that person, shall be punished with imprisonment of
either description for a term which shall not be less than five years but which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to
fine.
 05-01-2023

3. Laxmi v. Union of India, 2013

• SC prohibited the over-the-counter sale

2. Ensuring treatment of acid.

• 2015 order by the Central Govt. • If sold - maintain a log/register.

 For treatment, after care and • Not to sell acid to any person below 18
rehabilitation of the victims. years of age.

• State Governments/UTs to ensure private • Compensation - at least Rs.3 lakhs.

hospitals do not refuse treatment and
• Advance of Rs.1 lakh within 15 days.
provide medical facilities.
• MHA issued an advisory under the Model
Poisons Possession and Sale Rules, 2013
for the above.

5. Compensations

4. Parivartan Kendra and Anr. a) NALSA (Legal Services to Victims of Acid Attacks)
V. Union of India, 2015. Scheme, 2016

• State and UT can give • Objectives

even more compensation
 Strengthen legal aid and representation.
than Rs.3 lakhs.
 Access to medical facilities and rehabilitative
• Consider including the
services.
name of victims under
the disability list.  To create and spread awareness about the
entitlements of the victims of acid attacks.

 To enhance capacities at all levels.

 To undertake research and documentation.

 05-01-2023

b) Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund Need of the hour

- additional compensation of Rs. 1 lakh. • Proper implementation of regulations and

c) Central Victim Compensation Fund orders

Guidelines, 2016 additional special • Legislation for dealing with Acid Attack
financial assistance up to Rs. 5 lacs. crime like Bangladesh.

Practice Question – Mains

GS – I/II
Q. In India, the first acid attack incident was
recorded in 1982 and since then the
number of acid attack cases have
increased gradually. Critically analyse why
the measures taken by the Government
did not reduce the incidents of the crime.
Suggest measures for improvement.
(250 words, 15 marks)
 05-01-2023

Pg: 10 – C
Pg: 6 – B, D, H, T

Part A—Preliminary Examination

3 tiers of Government
Paper I - (200 marks)

 Current events of national and international importance.

Part B—Main Examination
PAPER-II
General Studies‐ II: Governance, Constitution, Polity,
Social Justice and International relations.
• Functions and responsibilities of the Union and the States,
issues and challenges pertaining to the federal structure,
devolution of powers and finances up to local levels and
challenges therein.
• Separation of powers between various organs dispute
redressal mechanisms and institutions.
 05-01-2023

• Evolution

 1957 - Balwant Rai Mehta Committee  1992 - P.V. Narasimha Rao’s government
passed
 January 1958 - recommendations accepted
by National Development Council.  73rd Constitutional Amendment Act

 1959 - Panchayati Raj inaugurated in  Added Part-IX

Nagaur district.
 Gave practical shape to Article 40.
• Issue - provisions differed from one state
“The State shall take steps to organise village
to another. panchayats and endow them with such powers
and authority as may be necessary to enable them
to function as units of self-government.”

 74th Constitutional Amendment Act

 Added Part IX-A

3 tiers of Panchayati Raj 3 types of Municipalities

 05-01-2023

3 tiers of Government

8 types of Urban Local Bodies

1. Municipal corporation
2. Municipality
3. Notified Area Committee
4. Town Area Committee
5. Cantonment Board
6. Township
7. Port Trust
8. Special Purpose Agency

• Patna High Court - declared provisions of

Normative basis of local self-governance Bihar Municipal (Amendment) Act, 2021 as

• Efficient provision of public goods. unconstitutional.

• Promote deeper democracy. • Transferred powers of appointment of Grade C

& D employees of municipalities.
Issue

• Inherent limitations of 74th amendment.

• Devolution of powers & levying of local taxes.

 05-01-2023

Conclusion Practice Question – Mains

• Local governments - normatively & structurally
an integral part of the Constitution's federal
framework.
• Power should be divided and shared among the
local governments.
GS - II
Q. “Local governments still remain
hamstrung and ineffective after decades
of 73rd and 74th constitutional
amendments.” Discuss.
(150 words, 10 marks)

Pg: 1 – C, T, B, D, H
 05-01-2023

Purchasing Manager’s Index

• Publication - S&P Globals Score Indication

• Indicator of business activity Above 50 Expansion

 Manufacturing Below 50 Contraction

 Services 50 No change

• PMI scores - shows expansion &

contraction in economy.

India Services Business Activity PMI

• 56.4 in Nov to 58.5 in Dec

• Strongest rate of expansion since mid-2022

• Reasons

 Intakes of new work

 Favorable market conditions.

 05-01-2023

India Manufacturing PMI Output Index

S&P Global India Composite PMI Output Index

• Weighted averages of comparable manufacturing & services PMI indices.

• Increase from 56.7 in Nov to 59.4 in Dec.

 05-01-2023

Practice Question – Prelims

Q. Consider the following statements
regarding Purchasing Manager’s Index
(PMI):
1. PMI is calculated separately for the
manufacturing and services sectors and
then a composite index is also
constructed.
2. If the PMI of the previous month is
higher than the current month then it
means the economy is expanding.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Pg: 16 - C
Pg: 14 - D
Pg: 12 - B, H, T
 05-01-2023

Central Electricity Regulation Commission

Electricity Regulatory Commission Act, 1998
(CERC)
• Central Electricity Regulation Commission
• A statutory body.
 Control - Central Government.
• Guided by - Section 76 of the Electricity
 Other companies engaged in power
Act 2003.
generation.

 Interstate energy transmission.

• State Electricity Regulatory Commission.

 Set tariffs for states without requiring

any separate laws.

Functions of Central Electricity Regulation Commission (CERC)

• To regulate the tariff of generating companies owned or controlled by the Central Government;
• To regulate the tariff of generating companies other than those owned or controlled by the Central
Government specified in clause (a), if such generating companies enter into or otherwise have a
composite scheme for generation and sale of electricity in more than one State;
• To regulate the inter-State transmission of electricity;
• To determine tariff for inter-State transmission of electricity;
• To issue licenses to persons to function as transmission licensee and electricity trader with respect to
their inter-State operations;
• To adjudicate upon disputes involving generating companies or transmission licensee in regard to
matters connected with clauses (a) to (d) above and to refer any dispute for arbitration;
• To levy fees for the purposes of this Act;
• To specify Grid Code having regard to Grid Standards;
• To specify and enforce the standards with respect to quality, continuity and reliability of service by
licensees;
• To fix the trading margin in the inter-State trading of electricity, if considered, necessary;
• To discharge such other functions as may be assigned under this Act.
 05-01-2023

Qualification

• Chairperson - a Supreme Court judge or the

Composition
Chief Justice of any High Court.
• A chairperson.
• Members -
• Three other members.
 1 person - field of finance
Tenure
 1 person - field of engineering
• Both members & chairperson - 5 years or
 2 persons - field of law, economics,
till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
commerce, or management

• A commission staff.

Practice Question – Prelims

Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory
Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body
set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure
competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go
before the Appellate Tribunals for
Electricity.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
 05-01-2023

Pg: 16 - C
Pg: 14 - D
Pg: 12 - B, H, T

Ombudsman Integrated Ombudsman Scheme, 2021

 Person appointed to investigate the • Integration of
complaints against the organisation.
 Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006.
 To address the grievances.
 Ombudsman Scheme for Non-Banking
Financial Companies, 2018.

 Ombudsman Scheme for Digital Transactions,

2019.

• Includes Non-Scheduled Primary Co-operative

Banks

 Condition - deposit size ₹50 crore & above.

• Adoption of One Nation One Ombudsman with

neutral jurisdiction.
 05-01-2023

Practice Question – Prelims

Features
Q. Consider the following statements regarding
• No need for identification of schemes Integrated Ombudsman Scheme of RBI, 2021:
for lodging complaints. 1. The scheme provides cost-free redress of
customer complaints against entities regulated by
• Ground for complaint - deficiency in RBI, only if the complaints are not resolved to the
service. satisfaction of the customers or not replied
within a period of 30 days by the regulated entity.
• Establishment of a Centralised
2. There shall be no right of appeal to the Regulated
Receipt and Processing Centre. Entity in respect of the Award issued on account
of non-response or non-furnishing of information
• Appellate authority
sought within the stipulated time.
 Executive Director - in charge of Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Consumer Education and Protection a) 1 only
Department of RBI.
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Pg: 8 – Chennai Edition


Reserve forest
• Forest declared to be reserved by
the State Government
 Under Section 20, Indian Forest
Act, 1927.
 Any other State Act.
• State govt. to specify the limits.
• Includes forest-land or waste-land
 Property of Government.
 Over which the Government
proprietary rights.
 Entitled to forest-produce.
• Decision to declare - appoint the
Forest Settlement-officer.
05-01-2023
THE INDIAN FOREST ACT, 1927
20. Notification declaring forest reserved.–
(1) When the following events have occurred, namely:–
………the State Government shall publish a
notification in the Official Gazette, specifying
definitely, according to boundary-marks erected or
otherwise, the limits of the forest which is to be
reserved, and declaring the same to be reserved
from a date fixed by the notification.
(2) From the date so fixed such forest shall be deemed
to be a reserved forest.
THE INDIAN FOREST ACT, 1927
3. Power to reserve forests.–The State Government
may constitute any forest-land or waste-land which is
the property of Government, or over which the
Government has proprietary rights, or to the whole or
any part of the forest-produce of which the
Government is entitled, a reserved forest in the
manner hereinafter provided.
has
4. Notification by State Government.-
(1) Whenever it has been decided to constitute any
land a reserved forest, the State Government shall
issue a notification in the Official Gazette–
(c) appointing an officer (hereinafter called “the
Forest Settlement-officer”) to inquire into and
determine the existence, nature and extent of
any rights alleged to exist in favour of any person
in or over any land comprised within such limits or
in or over any forest-produce, and to deal with
the same as provided in this Chapter…
 05-01-2023

Protected Forest THE INDIAN FOREST ACT, 1927

• Includes forest-land or waste-land - not
included in a reserved forest
 Property of Government.
 Over which the
proprietary rights.
 Entitled to forest-produce.
29. Protected forests.–
(1) The State Government may, by notification in the
Official Gazette, declare the provisions of this
Chapter applicable to any forest-land or waste-land
which,, is not included in a reserved forest but
Government has which is the property of Government, or over which
the Government has proprietary rights, or to the
whole or any part of the forest produce of which
the Government is entitled.
(2) The forest-land and waste-lands comprised in any
such notification shall be called a “protected
forest”.

Acts Reserve Forest Protected Forest

Clearing and Importance of reserve forests

breaking up of Generally Permitted and
land for cultivation prohibited* regulated 1. Support a range of biodiversity.
or other purposes
2. Reliance of local communities.

Generally 3. Declared as sanctuaries, national parks,

prohibited* -
Permitted and community reserves and conservation
Pasturing of cattle including
regulated
permitting cattle to reserves.
trespass

*allowed after approval by a forest settlement officer

 05-01-2023

Practice Question – Prelims

Q. Consider the following statements.
1. Reserve Forest is declared by the State
Governments whereas Protected Forests
are declared by the Central Government.
2. Pasturing of cattle is allowed in a
Protected Forest whereas the same is
completely prohibited in a Reserve
Forest.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
 05-01-2023

Previous Year Question – Prelims 2019

Q. Which of the following are in
Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney
Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad
Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (Correct
Answer)
b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and
Wayanand Wildlife Sanctuaries; and
Silent Valley National Park
c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram
and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries;
and Mukurthi National Park
d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife
Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar -
Srisailam Tiger Reserve

Practice Question - Prelims

Q. With reference to the Green Hydrogen,
consider the following statements:
1. Green hydrogen is produced with the help
of electrolysis through electricity generated
from renewable sources of energy such as
solar and wind.
2. In this method, electric current is used to
split the water into hydrogen and oxygen.
3. In this process, Hydrogen gas is liberated at
the anode and Oxygen gas is liberated at
the cathode.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only. (Correct Answer)
b) 2 and 3 only.
c) 1 and 3 only.
d) 1, 2 and 3.

Practice Question – Prelims
Q. Consider the following statements
regarding Purchasing Manager’s Index
(PMI):
1. PMI is calculated separately for the
manufacturing and services sectors and
then a composite index is also
constructed.
2. If the PMI of the previous month is
higher than the current month then it
means the economy is expanding.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a) 1 only (Correct Answer)
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Practice Question – Prelims
Q. Consider the following statements regarding
Integrated Ombudsman Scheme of RBI, 2021:
1. The scheme provides cost-free redress of
customer complaints against entities regulated
by RBI, only if the complaints are not resolved
to the satisfaction of the customers or not
replied within a period of 30 days by the
regulated entity.
2. There shall be no right of appeal to the
Regulated Entity in respect of the Award
issued on account of non-response or non-
furnishing of information sought within the
stipulated time.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 (Correct Answer)
d) Neither 1 nor 2
05-01-2023
Practice Question – Prelims
Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory
Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory
body set up by the Government of
India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure
competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of
PNGRB go before the Appellate
Tribunals for Electricity.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only (Correct Answer)
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Quiz Question – Prelims (05-01-2023)
Q. Consider the following statements.
1. Reserve Forest is declared by the State
Governments whereas Protected Forests
are declared by the Central Government.
2. Pasturing of cattle is allowed in a
Protected Forest whereas the same is
completely prohibited in a Reserve
Forest.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
 05-01-2023

Practice Question – Mains

GS – I/II Practice Question – Mains
Q. In India, the first acid attack incident was GS - II
recorded in 1982 and since then the
Q. “Local governments still remain
number of acid attack cases have
hamstrung and ineffective after decades
increased gradually. Critically analyse why
of 73rd and 74th constitutional
the measures taken by the Government
amendments.” Discuss.
did not reduce the incidents of the crime.
Suggest measures for improvement. (150 words, 10 marks)
(250 words, 15 marks)