A320 TEST 1

1
How does the APU bleed valve close automatically?


Aircraft descending below 15.000 ft.

A

30 seconds after second engine start.

B

APU bleed leak detected by BMC 1 or BMC 2.

C

When the aircraft is climbing, at an altitude

D greater than 15.000 ft. Answer: C
FCOM. DSC-36-10-50

2
Refer to this ECAM CAB PRESS page. On ground, the avionics
ventilation system is in closed configuration, because:


The current skin temperature is below the on-

A ground threshold with the engine thrust levers
not at take-off.

The current skin temperature is above the on-

B ground threshold with the engine thrust levers
at take-off.

The engine are not running and the EXTRACT

C pb-sw has been set to OVRD.

The engines are running and the EXTRACT pb-

D sw has been set to OVRD. Answer: A.
FCOM. DSC-21-30-20

3
During a MANUAL START, which of the following is a correct
statement?


The pilot must close the start valve using the

A switch on the overhead panel.

The start valve closes automatically.

B

Setting the MODE SEL to START activates all 5

C igniters.

The MASTER SWITCH controls fuel valves

D only. Answer: B
FCOM. DSC-70-80-40

4
In automatic pressurization, which of the following correctly
describes the operation of the DITCHING pb-sw?


Close the Pack Flow Control, Bleed, Ram Air

A and all the avionics ventilation valves.

Close the Pack Flow Control, Outflow, RAM

B Air and Avionics Vent INLET and EXTRACT
valves.

Close the Pack Flow Control, Outflow, RAM

C Air valves and opens the Safety valve.

Close all valves below the flotation line and

D opens all valves above the flotation line. Answer: B
FCOM. DSC-21.20-40

5
With the BLUE pump switch set to AUTO, when will the pump
operate?


After the first engine is started.

A

After both engines are started.

B

For 5 minutes after electrical power-up.

C

After ENG 1 is started.

D Answer: A
FCOM. DSC-29-20

6
Refer to the illustration. You can conclude that the two temperature of each
aircraft zone are monitored by the ACS controllers, and:


The value above is the real temperature of this

A zone. The value at the bottom is the outlet
temperature of the PACK.

The value above is the outlet temperature of the

B PACK. The value at the bottom is the outlet
temperature of the HOT AIR valve.

The value above is the real temperature of this zone. The

value at the bottom is the temperature of the air entering
C this zone.

The value above is the selected temperature of this zone.

Te value at the bottom is the real temperature of this zone.
D Answer: C
FCOM. DSC-21-10-50

7
Which of the following correctly completes this statement? “The
MAN V/S CTL switch on the CABIN PRESS panel is…


… operative at all times, and it controls the

A outflow valve”.

… operative in the MAN pressurization mode:

B hold up to OPEN the outflow valve”.

….operative in the MAN pressurization mode:

C hold up to OPEN the safety valve”.

…inoperative if the DITCHING switch is ON”.

D Answer: B
FCOM. DSC-21-20-40

8
On the third line of the fifth column of the FMA, the status of the A/THR
mode is always displayed. When it is white, it means that the A/THR mode
is:


Armed.
A

Disconnected.
B

Available and can only be used manually.

C

Active.
D Answer: D
FCOM. DSC-22-30-90

9
Refer to the indication displayed on this FCU and on the ND. If the PF only
pushes this HDG-TRK selector knob, you can conclude that:


Nothing will happen as the PERUS is the

A FROM waypoint and this current heading does
not intercept the active leg.

A solid green line with an intercept computed point

B will appear when close to the F-PLN trajectory, as the

current heading intercepts the active leg.

The aircraft will follow the selected HDG

C regardless of the action on this selector knob.

The selected target will change from a heading

D to a track. Answer: B
FCOM. DSC-22-30-60

10
The autothrust (A/THR) is a function of the FMGS. Refer to this
FMA. You can conclude that the A/THR is controlled by:


The FMGC 1 is the master FMGC.

A

The FMGC 2 that is the master FMGC.

B

The randomly selected FMGC.

C

Both FMCG 1 and FMGC 2 at the same time.

D Answer: A
FCOM. DSC-

11
In accordance with the indication displayed on this FMA, the Aps
and the A/THR are not engaged and:


For an ILS approach, the LOC mode is armed

A and the G/S mode is active.

For an ILS approach, the LOC mode is active

B and the G/S mode is armed.

For a Non-Precision Approach, the LOC, G/S

C and ALT mode are active.

For a Non-Precision Approach, the LOC and

D the ALT mode are armed Answer: B
FCOM. DSC-22-30-100

12
Based on the settings on this FCU, if the PF pushes the V/S-FPA selector
knob, an immediate level off should be ordered, and the pitch will maintain:


A V/S at 0, at FL65.
A

The altitude reached at the engagement of the

B level off.

The altitude reached when the vertical speed

C dropped to zero, and the V/S mode will
engage.

The altitude reached when the vertical speed

D dropped to zero, and the ALT mode will
engage.
Answer: C
FCOM. DSC-22-30-70-80

13
At take-off power application, on the first line of the third column of this
FMA, the RWY mode is shown active, and should mean that:


A departure runway ILS is tuned and the lateral

A guidance (Yaw bar) order are linked to this
localizer signal.

The lateral guidance (yaw bar) is managed to

B automatically maintain the runway center line
provided by the FMGS database.

The runway used for takeoff has been

C confirmed by ATC.

The takeoff will be performed fully

D automatically. Answer: A
FCOM. DSC- 22-30-80-20

14
On this PFD speed scale, the magenta triangle represents V2 speed. On this FMA vertical
guidance column, the active mode is SRS (Speed Reference System) that should provide,
after liftoff with all engines running, pitch order to maintain:


V2 speed.
A

V2 +10 speed.
B

F speed.
C

Green dot speed.

D Answer: B
FCOM. DSC-22-80-20

15
To disengage this autopilot, the recommended technique for flight
crew should be to:


Briefly press the red takeover pb on any

A sidestick.

Hold pressed for more than 40 seconds the red

B takeover pb on any sidestick.

Press the corresponding AP pb with a green

C light on the FCU.

Push any sidestick forcefully.

D Answer: A
FCOM. DSC-22-30-30

16
On this PFD, a value is displayed on top of the speed scale. This
magenta value correspond to:


The V2 speed, that has been manually inserted

A in the FCU.

The VR speed, that is the rotation speed,

B entered in the MCDU PERF takeoff page.

The V2 speed, that has been entered in the

C MCDU PERF takeoff page.

The V2+10 speed, that has been automatically

D set on the FCU. Answer: C
FCOM. DSC-22-10-50-50

17
On this ECAM E/WD unit, a caution message shows that one channel of the
FCU is not available. You can conclude that in terms of FCU use:


There is no consequence as the remanining

A FCU channel has automatically taken over all
functions.

All functions, controlled by the faulty FCU

B channel, are lost.

Only the lateral guidance selections are lost, as

C they are controlled by the lost FCU channel.

Only the approach functions are available as

D they are controlled by the remaining FCU
channel.
Answer: A
FCOM. DSC-22-10-40-20

18
On this FCU, the managed lateral mode is armed. If the PF pulls the HDG/
TRK selector knob, the lateral guidance mode should:


Revert to the original F-PLN.

A

Revert to TRK mode.

B

Remain on this selected heading target until the

C F-PLN interception that should activate the
managed lateral mode.

Revert from managed armed to selected. The F-

D PLN legs will be dashed and not intercepted. Answer: D
FCOM. DSC- 22-30-60

19
The active mode for A/THR is THR IDLE and for vertical guidance
OP DES. You can conclude that the A/THR mode:


Maintain the engine thrust at IDLE, while the

A vertical mode pitch orders will be used to
maintain the related target speed.

Adjusts the engines thrust to maintain the target speed,

B while the vertical mode pitch orders will be used to

maintain the descent flight path.

Maintains the engine thrust at IDLE, while the

C vertical mode pitch orders will be used to
maintain the vertical speed.

Adjusts the engine thrust to maintain the target speed,

D while the vertical mode pitch orders will be used to

maintain the rate of descent.
Answer: A
FCOM. DSC-22-30-70-60

20
The SEL lights indicate that:


There is a SELCAL.
A

The VHF selected on the RMP 1 is not the RMP

B 1 dedicated VHF.

RMP 2 is selected on a VHF which is not its

C dedicated VHF.

The VHF selected on the RMP 1 is the RMP 3

D dedicated VHF. Answer: C
FCOM. DSC-23-10-20

21
On these RMPs, the SEL lights are on. These SEL light will
simultaneously go off by only:


Pressing the SEL light on the RMP 1.

A

Selecting the VHF2 on the RMP 1, because it is

B the RMP 1 dedicated VHF.

Pressing the SEL light on the RMP 2.

C

Selecting the VHF 2 on the RMP 2, because it is

D the RMP 2 dedicated VHF. Answer: D
FCOM. DSC-23-10-20

22
Based on the indication displayed on this ELEC panel and on this ECAM ELEC page. You
can conclude that GEN 1 is no longer connected to the AC bus network. In this case, the
GALLEY SHED message indicates that:


It is a reminder to switch off, in the cabin, the

A galley equipment in order to decrease the load
on the remaining generator.

The system has automatically shed the entire

B galley electrical network, but not the cabin
equipment.

The system has only shed part of the galley electrical

C network, and the remaining must be shed by setting

the GALY & CAB pb-sw to OFF.

The system has automatically shed the main

D part of the galley electrical network in order to
avoid to overload the remaining generator.
Answer: D
FCOM. DSC-24-20

23
Around 20 minutes after a battery charge cycle has been launched, another
battery check must be performed. In this case:


As the displayed battery voltage is still below

A the minimum required voltage, the charge cycle
must be maintained.

Only after setting the BAT 1 and BAT 2 pb-sw

B to OFF, the battery voltage increase to above
25,5 V, checked only on the ELEC panel.

Only after setting the external power to OFF,

C the battery voltage increase to above 25,5 V,
checked only on the ECAM ELEC page.

No action required, as the displayed battery

D voltage is above 25,5 V, on the ELEC page and
also on the ECAM ELEC page.
Answer: B
FCOM. PRO-NOR-SOP-04

24
Based on these indications and as the first try to reset both GENs did not
work, the BUS TIE pb-sw has been set to OFF. Then, another GENs reset
must be attempted, because:


If there was a short circuit on one side, the

A other side might be recovered, as the BUS TIE
pb-sw has separated both sides.

The generators has enough time to cool down

B and now a reset might be successful.

The generator must always be reset twice.

C

The computers driving the generators had

D enough time to cool down and now a reset
might be successful.
Answer: A
FCOM. DSC-24-20

25
During the battery voltage check, if the aircraft has not been electrically
supplied for 6 hours or more, you should conclude that a charging cycle is
only required when the voltage is below:


24 V.
A

25,5 V
B

28 V.
C

27,5 V
D Answer: B
FCOM. PRO-NOR-SOP-04

26
An AC ESS FEED pb-sw enable, if it is set to ALTN, the AC ESS bus
supply to be manually forced:


From the AC bus 2 to the AC bus 1.

A

From the AC bus 1 to the AC bus 2.

B

From the AC bus 2 directly to the GEN 1.

C

From the AC bus 2 directly to the APU GEN.

D Answer: B
FCOM. DSC-24-20

27
Based on the indications displayed on this ELEC panel, on the EXT
PWR pb, a green AVAIL light should indicate that:


The electric ground cart is plugged in and its

A delivered electrical parameters are within
limits.

The external power is currently supplying the

B electrical network.

The external power is currently charging the

C batteries.

As long as the electric ground cart is plugged

D in, this green light is always on. Answer: A
FCOM. DSC-24-20

28
In normal configuration, the AC BUS 1 supplies directly the AC ESS BUS and
supplies the DC ESS BUS through the DC BUS 1. In case of an AC BUS 1 loss, the
supply of these AC ESS and DC ESS BUSES should be: 


Definitively lost.
A

Partially recovered after manually setting the AC ESS

B FEED pb-sw to ALTN. This will only transfer the AC

ESS bus to the AC BUS 2, the DC ESS BUS being lost.

Automatically supplied by the AC BUS 2, that

C also supplies the DC ESS BUS, through the ESS
TR.

Completely recovered after an automatic

D reconfiguration switching the AC ESS FEED to
ALTN.
Answer: C
FCOM. DSC-24-10-30-30

29
In accordance with these indications, you can conclude that a battery
charge cycle has been launched. In this case a full charge cycle should
last:


Around 10 minutes.
A

Around one hour.

B

Around 20 minutes
C

Several hours, depending on the charge rate

D Answer: C
FCOM. PRO-NOR-SOP-04

30
Based on these indications, what will the APU FIRE TEST pb trigger
on the APU FIRE panel??


The full red APU FIRE light, on the AGENT pb the

white SQUIB and the amber DISCH lights will be
A triggered with the related ECAM warnings.

The full red APU FIRE light, and on the

B AGENT pb, the white SQUIB and the amber
DISCH lights will only be triggered.

The full red APU FIRE light, on the AGENT pb the

C white SQUIB and the amber DISCH lights, and on the

ELEC panel, the APU GEN FAULT light will be
triggered.

Nothing will be triggered, because the APU

D FIRE test is only possible after starting the
APU.
Answer: A
FCOM. PRO-NOR-SOP-04

31
Which situation would cause the wingtip brakes (WTBs) to
activate?


SPLRs 2, 3 and 4, acting as the WTB will extend

A following piloto action on the speed brake lever when

in flight an not in CONF FULL.

WTBs will engage automatically in a Dual

B hydraulic failure situation to pretect the
integrity of the remaining HYD system.

WTBs will activate in the case of asymmetry,

C symmetrical runaway, overspeed or movement
of the surgaces not commanded.

WTBs will activate in case of asymmetry or not

D commanded movement of the surfaces above
the maximum extension speed.
Answer: C
FCOM. DSC- 27-30-10

32
The stabilizer is driven by:


One of three electric motors powering two

A dedicated hydraulic servojacks.

One of three electrically-controlled hydraulic

B servojacks.

A screwjack, driven by two hydraulic motors.

C

A screwjack, driven by one of the three electric

D motors. Answer: C
FCOM. DSC-27-10-20

33
In normal law, if the active sidestick is rapidly pulled fully back, can the
aircraft maximum allowable “G” load be exceeded?


Yes. Rapid sidestick deflection must never be

A made.

Yes, until the maximum pitch attitude is

B reached.

No. Because when at maximum “G” load, the

C sidestick is deactivated for few seconds to
prevent structural overstress.

No. The normal law load factor limitation prevents

structural overstress by limiting the surface deflections
D through the flight control computers.
Answer: D
FCOM. DSC- 27-20-10-20

34
Based on these speed indications, what has happened?


The high angle of attack (AOA) protection has

A been triggered.

The Alpha Floor protection has been triggered.

B

The load factor limit (G MAX) protection has

C been tirggered.

No protection has been triggered, because with

D the A/THR not engaged, the speed may be
below VLS.
Answer: D
FCOM. DSC- 27-20-10-20

35
Based on these PFD indications, which of the following laws is
activated?


Normal law.
A

Alternate law.
B

Direct law.
C

Mechanical backup.
D Answer: C
FCOM. DSC- 22-30-100

36
What happens in the event of Slat/Flap control computer (SFCC) 1
total failure?


SLATS will be inoperative.

A

FLAPS will be inoperative.

B

SLATS and FLAPS will be locked by the Wing

C Tip Brake (WTB).

SLATS and FLAPS will operate at half speed.

D Answer: D
FCOM. DSC- 27-30-10

37
Based on this PFD, what does this white cross indicate to the
pilots?


Only displayed on ground with at least one

A engine running, it indicates the toal of both
sidestick orders.

Always displayed, it indicates the control

B surface deflections, and it is used for rotation.

Only displayed on ground with both engines

C running, it indicates the total of both sidesticks
orders.

Only displayed on ground, it indicates the rudder

D pedal deflections, and it is useful during the flight

control check before starting the engines.
Answer: A
FCOM. DSC- 31-40

38
During the rejected takeoff phase, when will the automatic ground
spoiler extension occur?


If ground spoilers are armed, speed exceeds 72

A kts and at least one lever is set to IDLE.

If ground spoilers are armed, speed exceeds 72

B kts, and FADEC detects engine failure.

If ground spoilers are not armed, speed exceeds

C 72 kts, FADEC detects failure and both thrust
levers are set to IDLE.

Ground spoilers are not armed, speed exceeds

D 72 kts and reverse is selected on one engine.
The other is IDLE.
Answer: D
FCOM. DSC-27-10-20

39
The Captain has kept pressed the takeover pb on his sidestick, so this has
deactivated the sidestick of the F/O. So, which of the following can the F/O
do now?


The F/O is not able to reactivate his sidestick.

A

The sidestick of the F/O is still active, but it

B will be deactivated after 40 seconds.

The F/O can reactivate his sidestick only if his

C takeover pb is pressed for more than 40
seconds.

The F/O can immediately reactivate his sidestick by

also keepong pressed his takeover pb. Because the
D takeover pb that has been pressed last has priority.
Answer: D
FCOM. DSC-27-20-30

40
Based on this E/WD, a green message “OUTER TK FUEL XFRD” appears
on the memo. What does it indicate to the pilots?


Fuel has been completely transferred from the

A inner tank to the outer tank.

Fuel transfer is initated with at least one

B transfer valve opened on one side.

Fuel has been completely transferred from the

C outer tank to the inner tank.

Fuel transfer from the heaviest outer tank to the

D lighest inner tank is initiated. Answer: B
FCOM. DSC-28-20

41
What is the purpose of the center tank transfer valve?


They permit fuel transfer between center and

A inner tanks during refueling operations.

They permit fuel transfer from center to outer

B tanks.

They permit fuel transfer from center to inner

C tanks.

They permit correct fuel management on

D ETOPS flights. Answer: C
FCOM. DSC-28-20

42
Due to this ECAM caution, the two fuel pumps of the left inner tank have
been switched OFF. Even if no pumps are available on that side, can this
remaining fuel be still used?


Yes, this remaining fuel, when required, can be

A only used by gravity.

No, this remaining fuel is lost.

B

Yes, this remaining fuel, when required, must

C be manually transferred to the related outer
tank.

Yes, this remaining fuel, when required, must

D be manually transferred to the center tank. Answer: A
FCOM. DSC-28-20

43
For the hydraulic system, the normal operating pressure should be
modulated to which setting?


At 5.000 PSI.
A

At 1.450 PSI.
B

At 2.500 PSI.
C

At 3.000 PSI.
D Answer: D
FCOM. DSC-29-10-10

44
After completation of an ECAM procedure, what does the amber PTU
indication, as shown on this ECAM HYD page, indicate to the pilots?


This indicates that the PTU is not hydraulically

A driven.

This indicates that the PTU has failed to start.

B

This indicates that the PTU pb-sw has been set

C to OFF.

This indicates that the PTU has failed.

D Answer: C
FCOM. DSC-29-20

45
With the BLUE pump switch set to AUTO, when will the pump
operate?


After the first engine is started.

A

After both engines are started.

B

For 5 minutes after electrical power-up.

C

After ENG 1 is started.

D Answer: A
FCOM. DSC- 29-20

46
How are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized?


Normally, HP bleed air from the crossbleed

A duct is used to pressurize the reservoirs.

The power transfer unit (PTU) is used to

B maintain the required pressure.

HP bleed air from ENG 1 normally pressurize

C the reservoirs.

The yellow ELEC HYD pump is used to

D pressurize the reservoirs. Answer: C
FCOM. DSC-29-10-20

47
For which condition will the amber FAULT light for ENG driven HYD
pump come on?


If the pump overheat.

A

If the associated reservoir level is low.

B

If the pump is de-energized.

C

At any time (on ground and in flight), if the

D pump pressure is low. Answer: B
FCOM. DSC-29-20

48
Based on the indication displayed on this ECAM HYD page, what
has happened?


The green hydraulic system is directly

A pressurized by the yellow hydraulic fluid
transfer unit.

The green hydraulic system is now pressurized

B by the RAT driven pump.

The green hydraulic system is now pressurized

C by the electric pump.

The green hydraulic system is kept pressurized

D by the automatic operation of the PTU,
powered by the yellow hydraulic system.
Answer: D
FCOM. DSC-29-20

49
Which system supplies hydraulic pressure to the normal brake?


Yellow hydraulic system backed up by the

A hydraulic accumulator.

Yellow hydraulic system backed up by the

B electrical pump.

Green hydraulic system backed up by the

C hydraulic accumulator.

Blue hydrauclic system.

D Answer: C
FCOM. DSC-32-30-10

50
Based on the indications in this ECAM HYD page, the BLUE
hydraulic system is currently pressurized using:


An electric pump.
A

A RAT driven pump.

B

An engine 1 driven pump.

C

An engine 2 driven pump.

D Answer: A
FCOM. DSC-29-10-20

51
Which is the default situation if electrical control to the Wing Anti-
ice and Engine Anti-ice is lost?


Wing Anti-ice OFF, Engine Anti-ice ON.

A

Wing Anti-ice ON, Engine Anti-ice OFF.

B

Both ON.
C

Both OFF.
D Answer: A
FCOM. DSC-30-30-10

52
About the color coding used on ECAM screems: what color
indicates that immediate action is required from the crew?


Red.
A

Amber.
B

Green.
C

White.
D Answer: A
FCOM. DSC-31-10

53
Refer to this E/WD unit. If now, the PM request to clear this last
failure with asterisk, the SD unit shoul show:


The CRUISE page, after pressing the CLR pb of

A the ECP.

The status page, after pressing the CLR pb of

B the ECP.

The previous affected system page, after

C pressing the EMER CANCEL pb of the ECP.

The previous affected system page, after

D pressing the CLR pb of the ECP. Answer: B
FCOM. DSC-31-25-20

54
About the color coding used on ECAM screens: what color
indicates that crew awareness is required?


Red.
A

Amber.
B

Green.
C

White.
D Answer: B
FCOM. DSC-31-10

55
On the ECAM SD unit, the ENGINE page has been automatically presented,
with a pulsing green parameter. Which of the following ECAM modes has
been triggered?


ECAM ALERT mode, as a level 3.

A

ECAM WARNING mode, as a level 2.

B

ECAM caution mode, as a level 1.

C

ECAM ADVISORY mode.

D Answer: D
FCOM. DSC- 31-10

56
About the color coding used on ECAM screens: what color
indicates the normal operation of a system?


Red.
A

Amber.
B

Green.
C

White.
D Answer: C
FCOM. DSC-31-10

57
Identify the location of the Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) a
fireproof and shockproof device:


In the cockpit.
A

In the tail section of the aircraft.

B

In the cabin.
C

In the avionic bay.

D Answer: B
FCOM. DSC-23-10-40

58
When does the TO memo appear automaticlly?


2 minutes after the first engine start.

A

3 minutes before takeoff.

B

2 minutes after the second engine start.

C

At TO power application.
D Answer: C
FCOM. DSC- 31-15

59
Refer to this illustration. The white caution message displayed on
this ECAM STATUS page has been cancelled by:


The EMER CANC pb located on the ECP.

A

The CLR pb on the ECP.

B

The loss of one FWC.

C

The loss of one SDAC.

D Answer: A
FCOM. DSC- 31-30

60
To display on the F/O NA a 360º image with full VOR bearing and distance
information, the F/O should set on his EFIS CTL panel the ND mode
selector to:


Plan, and VOR/ADF pointer selectors to VOR.

A

ROSE NAV, and VOR/ADF pointer selectors to

B VOR.

ARC, and one VOR/ADF pointer selector to the

C desired NAV aid.

ROSE VOR only.

D Answer: B
FCOM. DSC- 31-50

61
For landing, an ILS has been tuned. To display the raw data of this
ILS on the ND unit, the piloto should:


Press the LS pb on his EFIS control panel.

A

Set the mode selector to ROSE LS on his EFIS

B control panel.

Only force to manually tune this ILS on the

C MCDU RADIO NAV page.

Only force to manually tune this ILS on the

D dedicated RMP. Answer: B
FCOM. DSC- 31-45

62
Refer to this PFD speed scale. You can conclude that the current
speed is at:


150 kt.
A

160 kt.
B

169 kt.
C

185 kt.
D Answer: B
FCOM. DSC- 31-40

63
What would message CHECK ALT on the First Officer´s PFD
indicate?


The altitude information supplied by the

A ADIRU is faulty. The system has detected a
difference.

There is a difference of at least 500 feet between

B the actual and the indicated altitudes.

There is a difference between the altitude values

C greater than 250 feet (QNH selected) between both

PFDs. The captain´s PFD displays the same message.

There is a difference of at least 5 milibars in the

D selected QNH. The captain´s PFD displays the
same message.
Answer: C
FCOM. DSC-31-40

64
What is indicated by the sideslip index (the trapezoidal index
beneath the roll index)?


On ground, it shows sideslip as computed by

A the ADIRUs.

In flight, it indicates the lateral acceleration of

B the aircraft.

In flight, when displayed in blue, it indicates

C which engine has failed.

On ground, it indicates the lateral acceleration

D of the aircraft. Answer: D
FCOM. DSC-

65
On this EFIS control panel, if the mode selector is set to PLAN, the
indications displayed on the corresponding ND screen are oriented to true
north and always centered on the: 


Current position.
A

Waypoint that is displayed on the second line

B of the F-PLN page, by scrolling it on the
MCDU.

Last waypoint that has been overflown.

C

Next waypoint that will be overflown.

D Answer: B
FCOM. DSC- 31-45

66
When the QNH is selectd, below 800 ft AGL and above 80 knots, the
landing elevation at destination appears on the PFD altitude scale and is
represented by:


The top of the red ribbon.

A

The top of the brown ribbon.

B

The green digits numbers in the middle of the

C altitude scale.

The blue digits numbers appearing on the top

D of the altitude scale. Answer: B
FCOM. DSC-31-40

67
Based to this PFD altitude. You can conclude that the aircraft is
maneuvering with a pitch angle of 10º nose up and in a:


Right turn with 30º of bank.

A

Left turn with 30º of bank.

B

Left turn with 20º of bank.

C

Right turn with 20º bank.

D Answer: C
FCOM. DSC- 31-40

68
Antiskid is available for which brake system?


The normal system only.

A

The normal and all alternate system including

B park brake.

The normal and all alternate system options

C (provided A/SKID and N/W STRG switch is
ON and there is no BSCU failure).

The normal and alternate brake system.

D Answer: C
FCOM. DSC- 32-30-10

69
What is the meaning of the 2 triangles, appearing below each
landing gear, on the ECAM WHEEL page?


Each triangle corresponds one tire.

A

There are two computers providing information on the

B gear position. Each triangle represents the position

detected by its associates computer.

Each triangle represents one braking system

C (normal/alternate) available for the associated
gear.

The left triangle indicates that AUTO/BRK is

D available and the right triangle means that
ANTI/SKID is available for that gear.
Answer: B
FCOM. DSC- 32-10-40

70
How do you interpret the green arc displayed over the wheel
indication (here wheel #2)?


It marks the hottest brake when one brake

A temperature exceeds 100ºC.

In indicates an abnormal high temperature.

B

The ANTI/SKID system is automatically

C releasing the pressure of that breke.

The L/G control system has detected a low tire

D profile. Answer: A
FCOM. DSC-32-30-20

71
What is the location of the SIGNS panel?


A
A

B
B

C
C

D
D Answer: B
FCOM. DSC-33-40-10

72
Based on the indication displayed on this ND and this MCDU page,
can you conclude that the NAV ACCUR check is OK?


Yes, raw data and FMGC position are the same

A or the difference is within acceptable limits.

No, there is a considerable difference between

B raw data and FMGC position.

No, the accuracy is not correct on the MCDU

C page.

It is impossible to respond without MCDU

D POSITION MONITOR page in sight. Answer: A
FCOM. PRO-SRP-01

73
According to this ND, you can conclude that the CAPT display
mode selector is set to:


All WX.
A

PATH WX.
B

ELEVN.
C

MAP.
D Answer: D
FCOM. DSC-34-SURV-30-30

74
After setting the CREW SUPPLY pb-sw to OFF, which ECAM DOOR/
OXY SD page would you expect to see?


A
A

B
B

D Answer: A
FCOM. DSC- 35-20-20

75
The function of the N/100% selector, installled on the crew oxygen
mask is:


When in 100% position, to provide the maximum

A oxygen pressure. When in N position, to provide the

normal oxygen pressure.

When in 100% position, to provide only pure

B oxygen. When in N position to provide an air/
oxygen mixture.

When in 100% position, to provide normal

C oxygen supply. When in N position to stop the
oxygen supply.

When in 100% position, tho check the

D maximum oxygen pressure. When in N
position to check the normal oxygen pressure.
Answer:B
FCOM. DSC- 35-20-20

76
Which computer must be available and powered to ensure APU
bleed supply availability?


The APU Electronic Control Box (ECB)

A

The bleed monitoring computer (BMC) 1.

B

The APU bleed valve.

C

The bleed monitoring computer (BMC) 2.

D Answer: A
FCOM. DSC- 49-10-20

77
what occurs when the APU MASTER switch is selected ON?


The APU intake flap opens and the starter

A motor engages immediately.

The APU intake flap opens and the starter

B motor engages when the flap is fully open.

The APU fuel pump operates.

C

The APU intake flap opens.

D Answer: D
FCOM. DSC- 49-20

78
You have just set the APU MASTER SW to OFF. You notice you still
have APU AVAIL indications. What is the reason for that?


The APU has shut down but the AIR INLET

A FLAPT is not fully closed yet.

The APU is still running. As APU bleed air was used,

B APU is kept running for a cool down period after the

APU BLEED valve is closed.

The APU is still running because it always

C needs a cool down period after the APU
MASTER SW has been switched off.

The APU is still running. You have to push the

D STAR SW to initiate the shut down sequence. Answer: B
FCOM. DSC- 49-20

79
What would the correct procedure be if, when opening a cabin door from
the outside of the aircraft, a red light in the door window is seen?


Ensure the door is DISARMED, as injury may

A result should the slide inflate.

The cabin has positive pressure and must be

B depressurized.

Continue with door opening. The door will

C open without the slide inflation and will
depressurize the cabin.

Engineering action is required to reset the door

D arming mechanism if the door is opened from
outside.
Answer: B
FCOM. DSC- 52-10-20

80
Indicate the area where the cockpit evacuation devices are stowed?


D Answer: A
FCOM. DSC- 52-10-30

81
As displayed here the thrust levers have been set to reverse idle position.
So, on this E/WD, what do the green REV indications mean?


The reversers are faulty.

A

The reversers are fully deployed.

B

The reversers are jammed.

C

The reversers are unlocked.

D Answer: B
FCOM. DSC- 70-90-40

82
Would the loss of the yellow hydraulic system have any affect on
the engine thrust reverse operation?


No, as reverse thrust is controlled by FADEC.

A

No, as reverse thrust is controlled by a

B mechanical signal from the reverse control
levers mounted on the thrust levers.

As reverse thrust is controlled by the associated

C FADEC and pneumatic motor, its availability is
ensured.

As reverse thrust is controlled by FADEC and

D actuated hydraulically, the associated thrust
reverse system is not available.
Answer: D
FCOM. DSC- 70-70

83
What automatically activates the igniters for takeoff?


Extending the slats while taxiing.

A

Selecting ENG anti-ice ON.

B

Wheight on wheels.
C

Extending the flaps while taxiing.

D Answer: B
FCOM. DSC- 70-80

84
While performing a Takeoff with the thrust levers in the TOGA
detent, when does A/THR become active?


As soon as the thrust levers are moved back

A into the FLEX detent.

Automatically as soon as the thrust reduction

B altitude is passed.

As soon as the autopilot is engaged.

C

As soon as the thrust levers are moved back

D into the CL detent. Answer: D
FCOM. DSC-22-30-90

85
During a Manual Start, which of the following is a correct
statement?


The pilot must close the start valve using the

A switch on the overhead panel.

The start valve closes automatically.

B

Setting the MODE SEL to START activates all 5

C igniters.

The MASTER SWITCH controls fuel valves

D only. Answer: B
FCOM. PRO-NOR-SUP-ENG

86
A manual start is recommended after an aborted start due to:


Engine stall.
A

Engine EGT over limit.

B

Low start air pressure.

C

All the above.

D Answer: D
FCOM. PRO-NOR-SUP-ENG

87
When is the FUEL USED indication on the SD reset to zero?


When the associated ENG MASTER switch is

A set to OFF (on ground only=

When the associated ENG MASTER swithc is

B set to OFF (at any time)

During associated engine start.

C

Five minutes after engine shutdown on the

D ground. Answer: C
FCOM. DSC- 28-20

88
During the automatic start sequence of ENG 2, you notice that only
igniter B is powered. Is this normal?


No, normally igniter A is used for the engine

A start.

No, normally both igniter are used for engine

B start.

Yes, igniter B is always used for the engine

C start.

Yes, the use of igniters alternates for engine

D start, in this case igniter B is powered Answer: D
FCOM. DSC- 70-80-30

89
Based on these indications, which lights are currently on?


STROBE, BEACON, NAV 1 and LOGO, TO and

A TAXI, L and R and RWY TURN OFF lights.

BEACON, NAV 1 and LOGO, TO, L and R

B LAND lights.

STROBO, BEACON, NAV 1 and LOGO, TO

C and TAXI, L and R LAND lights.

STROBE, BEACON, NAV 1 and LOGO, L and R

D LAND lights. Answer: D
FCOM. DSC-33-20-20

90
What does the Alpha protection speed indicate?


The speed corresponding to the maximum

A angle of attack that the aircraft can reach in
pitch normal law.

The lowest selectable speed providing an

B appropriate margin to the stall.

The speed corresponding to the angle of attack

C at which alpha protection becomes active.

The speed corresponding to the stall warning

D and activation of alpha floor. Answer: C
FCOM. DSC- 31-40

91
Due to an emergency electrical configuration, and if the RAT has stalled
due to a low speed, the static inverter becomes active, as displayed here.
In this case, the electrical network should be with:


Only the DC ESS BUS.

A

Only the entire DC network.

B

Partially the DC ESS Bus, partially the AC ESS

C bus until 50 knts when on ground.

Totally the DC ESS bus and the AC ESS bus.

D Answer: C
FCOM. DSC-24-10-30-30

92
Based on these indications, a fuel pump failure has triggered an ECAM
caution. What is the reason, for this fault, to not trigger the MASTER
CAUTION lights and the single chime.


A single fault in the fuel system is not

A connected to the Flight Warning Computers
(FWCs).

Due to the pump redundancy in the related fuel tank, a

B single pump failure is classified by the Flight Warning

Computers (FWCs) as a level 1

Due to the pump redundancy in the related fuel tank, a

C single pump failure is classified by the System Data

Acquisition Concentrators (SDACs) as a level 0.

Due to the pump redundancy in the related fuel tank, a

single pump failure is classified by the System Data
D Acquisition Concentrators (SDACs) as a level 1.
Answer: B
FCOM. DSC-31-10

93
In which ND screen mode can the weather radar system display the
weather image?


In ARC and Rose NAV only.

A

In any mode except plan.

B

In any ND display mode.

C

In any mode except plan, provided the Terrain

D is not displayed (GPWS or TERR on ND) Answer: D
FCOM. DSC- 34-SURV-30-30

94
Which flight controls are hydraulically actuated?


All flight controls are hydraulically actuated.

A

All flight controls are hydraulically actuated

B except the rudder which has an addtional
mechanical actuator.

All except the rudder and the THS which have

C additional mechanical actuators.

Hydraulic control is provided forthe ailerons,

D the rudder and the elevator has mechanical
backup.
Answer: A
FCOM. DSC- 27-10-10

95
In the flight control normal law, as displayed on this PFD, the sidestick has
just been released. What will happen now, without any more sidestick
inputs?


The normal law will maintain the current pitch

A and roll constant.

The normal law will maintain the current pitch

B constant but the bank angle will slowly
decrease.

The normal law will maintain the current bank

C angle constant but the pitch will slowly dcrease.

The normal law will slowly roll toward “wings

D level” and the pitch toward “0” Answer: A
FCOM. DSC- 27-20-10

96
Based on the ECAM caution message shown on the E/WD. The first
blue action indicates to switch off the PTU. Why?


Because the PTU is faulty.

A

Because this will avoid the automatic start of

B the yellow electric pump after switching the
engine 2 driven pump off.

Because this will avoid the related reservoir to

C be air pressurrized.

Because this will avoid the automatic start of the PTU

after switching off the engine 2 driven pump, as the
D faulty hydraulic system must be depressurized.
Answer: C
FCOM. DSC-29-20

97
The indication of the TO WPT are always on the top right corner of the ND
screen. On this F-PLN leg, the TO WPT is also displayed but in blue instead
of in white, because this waypoint:


Is a pseudo waypoint.
A

Is also a navaid that is currently automatically

B or manually tuned on the MCDU RAD NAV
page.

Must be overflown.
C

Has a constraint that can be displayed if the

D CSTR pb is used on the EFIS control panel. Answer: B
FCOM. DSC- 31-45

98
When in direct law, the speed protection symbol is not displayed.
What protections, if any, are available to the crew?


When in direct law, no protection or warnings

A are available.

An overspeed warning is available at the

B reduced VMO/MMO.

Overspeed warning will occur if the speed

C exceeds VMO + 4kts or MMO + 0.006.

Full overspeed protection is always available.

D Answer: C
FCOM. DSC-27-20-20

99
How can the associated air conditioning pack be used in the case
of ENGINE FIRE?


By supplying the affected pack with bleed air

A from the APU.

By opening the X-BLEED valve.

B

By closing the ENG BLEED VALVE of the

C affected engine.

The associated pack cannot be used as long as

D the ENG FIRE pushbutton is releases. Answer: D
FCOM. DSC- 26-20-20

100
On this FCU, the target altitude is FL150. On this PFD, an altitude
constraint (FL060) is displayed. Based on these conditions, if the PF only
pulls the HDG/TRK selector knob, the aircraft will:


Continue on the current heading or track and

A stop the climb at the altitude constraint (here
FL060).

Maintain the current heading or track. As all

B constraints are disregarded, the climb continues

towards the selected target altitude (here FL150).

Follow the F-PLN, stop the climb (here at FL060) and

C after overflying the constraint waypoint, continue the

climb towards the target altitude.

Follow the F-PLN. As all constraints are

D disregarded the climb continues towards the
target altitude (here FL150).
Answer: B
FCOM. DSC- 22-30-70-20

101
You are in flight and at destination, Keflavik , the OAT is very low. You have to check the low
temperature correction for the plataform altitude before to perform ILS approach RWY 01. at
which corrected altitude should you level off to intercept ILS 01?


2850 ft.
A

330 ft.
B

2830 ft.
C

2695 ft.
D Answer: C
Use Flysmart for calculation if
needed

102
You are in flight and at destination, Keflavik , the OAT is very low. You have to check the low
temperature correction for the plataform altitude before to perform ILS approach RWY 01. at
which corrected altitude should you level off to intercept ILS 01? 


2910 ft
A

2890 ft
B

390 ft
C

2755 ft
D Answer: B
Use Flysmart for calculation if
needed

103
You are one hour before the takeoff at the operation office at Barcelona LEBL, with these
conditions compute the maximum performance takeoff weight. Which statament is correct
if the temperature increase (5º C for example)? 


Takeoff weight decreases.

A

Maximum performances takeoff weight

B remains unchanged.

Maximum performances takeoff weight

C decreases

Stop margin increase.

D Answer: C
Use Flysmart for calculation if
needed.

104
During the cockpit preparation, compute speeds and configuration to be
inserted in your MCDU PERF page with these conditions. Which statement
is correct if you remove the MEL item?


V1 decreases.
A

Flex temp increases.

B

Stop margin increases.

C

Maximum performances takeoff weight

D decreases. Answer: C
Use Flysmart for calculation if
needed

105
You are in the operation office at Barcelona and you want to check the dispatch landing
distance at destination Keflavik. Compute the RLD with these data. Which statement is
correct if you add MEL: ALL REVERSES INOPERATIVE?


GA GRADIENT increase.
A

No effect.
B

RLD decreases.
C

RLD increases.
D Answer: B
Use Flysmart for calculation if
needed

106
You are in flight, with these conditions, compute the landing distance.
Which statement is correct if you add the ECAM ALERT: FLAPS LOCKED
(1≤ FLAPS <2)?


No effect.
A

FACTORED LD increases.
B

LD decreases.
C

STOP MARGIN increases.

D Answer: B
Use Flysmart for calculation if
needed

107