DHAIRYA

DHAIRYA BY
MOCK MOCK
TEST
MOCK TEST- 01 01
TEST- 03
TEAM RANKERS

Time : 3.00Hrs 180 MCQs PATTERN Max.Marks.720

INSTRUCTIONS

1. This test will be a 3 hours Test, Maximum Marks 720M.

2.This test consists of Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology questions with
equal weightage of 180 marks.
3. Each question is of 4 marks.
4.There are four parts in the question paper, consisting Part-I Physics (Q.no.1 to
45), Part-II Chemistry (Q.no.46 to 90 ), Part-III Botany (Q. no. 91.- 180)
5.There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices for each question.
For each question 4 marks will be awarded for correct choice, 1 mark will be
deducted for incorrect choice and zero mark will be awarded for unattempted
question.
6.Any textual, printed or written material, mobile phones, calculator etc. is not
allowed for the students appearing for the test.
7. All calculations / written work should be done in the rough sheet provided.
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Syllabus
Syllabus

BIOLOGY
- Excretory Products and its Elimination
- Locomotion and Movement
- Plant growth and Development
- Biological Classification

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@DR. SHUBHAM MULEY

79. Which one is correct relation for 1 mole of real 85. In a certain chemical reaction H = 150 kJ and S
gases?


DHAIRYA MOCK TEST- 03
(A)  P + (V
a
V2 
 − b) =RT
= 10 JK–1 at 300 K. The value of G would be:
(A) –2850J
(C) +2850 J
(B) Zero
(D) 147 kJ
RT a
(B) P = − 2 86. For the given reaction: CO2(g) + H2(g) ⎯⎯→
(V − b) V

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a   R +T 
@BIOKATTAA
CO(g) + H O(g); H = 40 kJ. The H is2
(C)  P + 2  =   specifically called
 V   V −b  (A) Heat of formation of CO
(D) Both (A) and(B) (B) Heat of combustion

80.
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For a real gas, Z shows
(C) Heat of reaction
(D) Heat of hydrogenation of C = O bond
(A) Z < 1, gas is less compressible
(B) Z > 1, gas is more compressible 87. Which of the following equation represents the
(C) Z = , for an ideal gas standard heat of formation?
(D) PV  nRT, for real gas (A) C(diamond) + 2H2(g) ⎯⎯→CH4(g)
(B) C(graphite) + 2H2(g) ⎯⎯→CH4(g)
81. In an adiabatic process which of the following is
true: (C) C(diamond) + 4H(g) ⎯⎯→CH4(g)
(B) –U = –w
@SHUBHAMMULEY88
(A) q = +w (D) C(graphite) + 4H(g) ⎯⎯→CH4(g)
(C) PV = 0 (D) q = U
88. 1 mole of methanol, when burnt in oxygen, gives out
82. In an isochoric process, the increase in internal –723 kJ mol–1 heat. If 1 mole of oxygen is used
energy is: what will be the amount of heat evolved?
(A) Equal to the heat absorbed (A) 723 kJ (B) 964 kJ
(B) Equal to the heat evolved @DR. SHUBHAM MULEY
(C) 482 kJ (D) 241 kJ
(C) Equal to the work done
(D) Equal to zero 89.Combustion of methane:
(A) is an exothermic reaction
83. For the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⎯⎯→2NH3(g) (B) is an endothermic reaction
which of the following is valid: (C) requires a catalyst
(A) H = U (B) H < U @DR.
(D)SHUBHAM
gives H2 MULEY
(C) H > U (D) None of these
90. Enthalpy of neutralisation of acetic acid with KOH
84. In any natural process, occurring in the universe: will be numerically:
(A) Entropy is conserved (A) = 57.2 kJ (B) > 57.2kJ
(B) Entropy increases (C) < 57.2 kJ (D) unpredictable
(C) Entropy decreases
(D) Entropy remains unchanged

BIOLOGY

91. As compared to slime moulds, Euglenoids show 94. In penicillium, sexual reproduction results in the
(1) Chloroplasts formation of
(2) Photosynthetic nutrition (A) Zygospore (B) Oospore
(3) Proteinaceous pellicle (C) Basidiospore (D) Ascospore
(4)Contractile vacuole
(A) 1 & 2 (B) 2 & 3
95. In Streptococcus, the respiratory enzymes are
(C) 1, 2 & 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 & 4
situated in the
92 . First zygotic organisms of R. H Whittaker (A) Cytoplasm (B) Mesosome
classification belong to (C) Ribosomes (D) Mitochondria
(A) Fungi (B) Algae
(C) Monera (D) Protista 96. The photosynthetic protists are
93. Choose the incorrect match (A) Diatoms, euglenoids, and slime molds
(A) Basidiomycetes - Puffball (B) Amoeba, dinoflagellates, and diatoms
(B) Puccinia - Rust Fungi (C) Euglenoids, diatoms, and dinoflagellates
(C) Claviceps - Conidia present (D) Ciliates, zooflagellates, and dinoflagellates
(D) Alternaria - Endogenously produced Asexual
spore
@DR. SHUBHAM MULEY
97. If hyphae are continuous tube filled with 110. Ribosomes of Mycoplasma are of ------type
multinucleated cytoplasm it is known as (A) 50 S (B) 60 S
(A) Septate hyphae (B) Coenocytichyphae (C) 70 S (D) 80 S
(C) Mycelium (D) None of these
111. Among - Diatom, Dinoflagellates, Albugo,
98. Dikaryon and dikaryophase is in the case of Mycoplasma , Agaricus , TMV and Morels. How
(A) Ascomycetes (B) Basidiomycetes many are Unicellular:
(C) Phycomycetes (D) Both (A) and (B) (A) Three (B) Four
(C) Five (D) Six
99. Ascomycetes are mostly 112. Vast majority of prokaryotes are
(A) Acellular (B) Unicellular (A) Symbiotic (B) Autotrophic
(C) Multicellular (D) All of these (C) Heterotrophic (D) Saprophytic
100. The commonly known form of basidiomycetes are 113 Which character indicates that Cyanobacteria are
(A) Mushrooms (B) Bracket fungi similar to higher green plants:-
(C) Puffballs (D) All of these (A) Type of cell wall
(B) Nitrogen fixation ability
101. Karyogamy and meiosis occurs in basidium (C) Presence of chlorophyll 'a'
produces basidiospores. (D) Presence of gelatinous sheath
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4 114 Select correct matched pair / pairs:-
(A) Claviceps – Ascomycetes
102. Which of the following fungi only reproduce by (B) Morels – Ascomycetes
Endogenously produce asexual spores? (C) Agaricus – Basidiomycetes
(A) Alternaria (B) Colletotrichum (D) All the above
(C) Trichoderma (D) Rhizopus
115. Pick out the correct statement from the following:
103. Which of the following releases toxins that may (A) The Meristimatic cells undergo differentiation
even kill other marine animals like fishes? during plant tissue culture
(A) Gonyaulax (B) Paramecium (B) The tissues arising out of same meristem have
(C) Euglenoids (D) Sporozoans always same structures at maturity
(C) The products of meristematic cells retain the
104. When glycocalyx in bacteria is thick and tough it is power of cell division by redifferentiation
called . (D) Epidermis is a product of dedifferentiation
(A) Slimelayer (B) Capsule
(C) Cell wall (D) Mesosome 116. Wound healing in the matured part of the secondary
stem occurs due to
(A) Differentiation
105. Which enzyme specifically occurs in Heterocyst of
(B) De-differentiation
blue green Algae :–
(C) Re – differentiation
(A) Cytochrome oxidase
(D) None of the above
(B) Nitrogenase
(C) Zymase 117. Plasticity refers to
(D) Peptidyl transferase (A) Ability of the plants to undergo different
pathways of metabolism suitable to the
106. Bacterial flagella are made of- environments
(A) Carbohydrate (B) Lipid (B) Ability to exhibit different phases of life to
(C) Protein (D) Amide produce different types of structures
(C) Ability of plants to grow throughout their life
107. Which of the following are not considered in five (D) (A) & (B)
kingdom system of classification ?
(A) Lichen (B) Virus 118. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
(C) Viroid (D) All the above matched?
(A) Adenine derivative – Kinetin
108 Viroid was discovered ………… in …………..year
(B) Carotenoid derivative – ABA
(A) Haeckel (B) Pasteur ,1975
(C) Terpenes – IAA
(C) T.O. Diener,1971 (D) T.O. Diener,1981
(D) Indole compounds – IBA
109 Bacteriophages are generally:- 119. Triple Response Assay is meant for:
(A) ss DNA virus (B) ds DNA virus (A) Auxins (B) Cytokinins
(C) ss RNA virus (D) ds RNA virus (C) Gibberellins (D) C2H4

@DR. SHUBHAM MULEY

120. Sprouting of potato is promoted by: 131. Which is incorrect about photoperiodism-
(A) Auxins (B) Cytokinins (A) The critical duration is different for different
(C) Ethylene (D) ABA plants.
(B) There are many plants, however, where there is
121 Which of the following discovered in mid-1960s no such correlation between exposure to light
(A) GA (B) ABA duration and induction of flowering response
(C) Zeatin (D) IAA (C) Some plants require a periodic exposure to light
to induce flowering.
122. Winter cereals are usually plantedin: (D) Some non -hormonal substances migrates from
(A) Spring (B) Winter leaves to shoot apices for inducing flowering
(C) Autumn (D) Summer only when the plants are exposed to the necessary
inductive photoperiod
123. Which PGR removes the inhibition effect of para 132. One of the synthetic auxin is
ascorbic acid on seed dormancy? (A) NAA (B) IAA
(A) Ethylene (B) GA (C) GA3 (D) IBA
(C) 2, 4- D (D) Cytokinins
133. If a plant breeder or grower is interested in obtaining
124. Gibberellins can promote barley seed germination a good crop of tea leaves from a single plant, he or
because of their influence on she should
(A) rate of cell division (A) Cut off the tip of the plant and then apply auxins
(B) production of hydrolysing enzymes to the cut end
(C) synthesis of abscisic acid (B) Feed auxin to the plant through soil
(D) absorption of water through hard seed coat. (C) Supply auxin from the tip of the plant as well as
through roots
125. Environment heterophylly is seen in (D) Remove the apical bud of the main shoot and the
(A) cotton (B) coriander branches
(C) larkspur (D) buttercup
134 Which of the following is a hypothetical hormone?
(A) Gibberellin (B) Auxin
126. Development in plants is influenced by both intrinsic
(C) Cytokinin (D) Florigen
and extrinsic factors. Which of the following is
included under intrinsic factors?
135. Long day plants flower specially when
(A) Growth regulators (B) Oxygen
(A) Light period is lesser than the critical length
(C) Water (D) All of these
(B) Light period is greater than the critical period
(C) Dark period is less than the critical light length
127. Development includes (plants)
(D) Dark period is more than the critical length
I. Differentiation
II. Redifferentiation 136. A fall in GFR can activate the JG cells to release
III. Dedifferentiation , which can stimulate the glomerular blood
Select the right combination from the given option flow and thereby the GFR back to normal
(A) I and II (B) II and III (A) Renin (B) Angiotensin-II
(C) III and I (D) I, II and III (C) Rennin (D) Erythropoietin

128. The ability of plants to follow different pathway or 137. Presence of glucose (glycosuria) and ketone bodies
phases of life to form different structures in response (ketonuria) in urine are indicative of
to environment is called (A) Renal failure (B) Diabetes mellitus
(A) plasticity (B) elasticity (C) Uremia (D) Renal stone
(C) growth (D) development
138. Which of the following is a powerful
129. Geometric Growth plotted against time gives a vasoconstrictor that increases the glomerular blood
(A) parabolic curve (B) sigmoid curve pressure and thereby the GFR?
(A) Renin (B) Angiotensin-II
(C) upright line (D) horizontal line
(C) Aldosterone (D) ANF
130. Fruits can be left on the tree longer, so as to increase 139. Protonephridia or flame cells are the excretory
the market period. This is due to the function of structures present in
(A) delay senescence by auxin (A) Prawns, cockroaches
(B)delay senescence by CH2 – CH2 (B) Earthworm, Ascaris
(C) delay senescence by cytokinin (C) Rotifers, earthworm
(D) delay senescence by GA (D) Planaria, Amphioxus

@DR. SHUBHAM MULEY

140. Antennal glands help in removal of nitrogenous
wastes in 148. Liver secretes bile containing substances like
(A) Spider (B) Prawn bilirubin, biliverdin, cholesterol, degraded steroid
(C) Silverfish (D) Scropion hormones, vitamins and drugs. Most of these
substances ultimately pass out along with
141. The renal cortex extends between the medullary (A) Urine
pyramids as (B) Sweating
(A) Renal pelvis (C) Digestive wastes
(B) Renal corpuscle (D) Secretion of sebum
(C) Columns of Bertini
(D) Calyx 149. Renal calculi refers to the condition in which
(A) tumour is present in renal pelvis
142. Nearly all of the essential nutrients and 70-80 (B) stone is formed in kidney
percent of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed in (C) infection occurs in the pelvis region
which segment of nephron? (D) urea accumulates in the blood
(A) PCT
(B) Ascending loop of Henle 150. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(C) Descending loop of Henle
(A) The medullary zone of kidney is divided into a
(D) DCT few conical masses called medullary pyramids
projecting into the calyces.
143. Which hormone does not lead to reabsorption ofNa+
(B) Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in
and water from the distal parts of the renal tubule?
(A) ANF (B) ADH between the medullary pyramids as renal
pelvis.
(C) Aldosterone (D) Renin
(C) Glomerulus along with Bowman's capsule is
144. Select the correction option: called the renal corpuscle.
a. Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed by (D) Renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tubule
the afferent arteriole which is a fine branch of (PCT) and distal convoluted tubule (DCT) of
renal vein. the nephron are situated in the cortical region
b. Glomerulus along with Bowman's capsule of the kidney.
forms renal corpuscles.
c. Vasa recta is a fine branch of efferent arteriole 151. The outline of principal events of urination is given
which runs parallel to the Henle's loop. below in random manner.
d. In human kidney, cortical nephrons and (i) Stretch receptors on the wall of urinary bladder
juxtamedullary nephrons are in equal send signals to the CNS.
proportion. (ii) The bladder fills with urine and becomes
(A) a and b are correct distended.
(B) b and c are correct (iii) Micturition
(C) a, b and d are correct (iv) CNS passes on motor messages to initiate the
(D) a and d are correct contraction of smooth muscles of bladder and
simultaneous relaxation of urethral sphincter.
145. Read the following statements: The correct sequence of the events is:
Statement A: Ultrafiltration of blood occurs in (A) (i) → (ii) → (iii) → (iv)
renal corpuscles. (B) (iv) → (iii) → (ii) → (i)
Statement B: During ultrafiltration, almost all the (C) (ii) → (i) → (iv) → (iii)
constituents of blood plasma except the proteins (D) (iii) → (ii) → (i) → (iv)
pass into the lumen of Bowman's capsule.
(A) Statement A is incorrect and B is correct
152. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(B) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect
(A) Mammals have the ability to produce
(C) Both statements A and B are correct
concentrated urine.
(D) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(B) Counter current is due to the flow of filtrate in
146. Which of the following plays a major role in two limbs of Henle's loop in opposite direction.
maintaining osmolarity gradient in medulla of (C) Henle's loop and vasa recta play a significant
kidney? role in concentrating the urine.
(A) NaCl and KCl (B) Urea and HCl (D) Flow of filtrate through vasa recta also follow
(C) HCl and KCl (D) NaCl and Urea the counter current pattern.

147. Which of the following is the most toxic excretory 153. Collecting ducts converge and open into
product? through medullary pyramids in the calyces
(A) CO2 (B) Ammonia (A) renalpelvis (B) renalcortex
(C) Urea (D) Amino acids (C) vasa recta (D) convoluted tubules

@DR. SHUBHAM MULEY

154. Read the following statements: 162. Which of the following disorders is characterised by
(1) In tubular reabsorption, substances like glucose, rapid spasm in muscles due to lack of Ca2+ in body
amino acid, Na+, nitrogenous wastes etc. are fluids?
reabsorbed by active transport, while (A) Tetany
reabsorption of water occur by passive (B) Muscle atrophy
transport (C) Muscular dystrophy
(2) 50 – 60% of electrolytes and water are (D) Myasthenia gravis
absorbed by PCT
(3) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and selective 163. Among the following proteins:
secretion of H+ and K+ occurs in DCT Tropomyosin, Troponin, F-actin, Meromyosin
(4) Filtrate gets concentrated as it moves upwards present in I-band and H-zone
How many are
in ascending limb of loop of Henle
Find the true or false statement: respectively?
1 2 3 4 (A) 3, 1 (B) 3, 2
(C) 4, 1 (d) 1, 3
(A) T T F F
(B) F T F F 164. The type of joint between the human skull bones is
(C) F F T F called
(D) T F T F (A) Cartilaginous joint
(B) Hinge joint
155. Epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsules are (C) Fibrous joint
(A) JG cells (B) Macula densa (D) Synovial joint
(C) Podocytes (D) Renal corpusele
165. Microfilaments are involved in
156. In ammonotelic organisms, NH3 is generally (A) Amoeboid movement
excreted by (B) Ciliary movement
(A) body surface (B) gillsurface (C) Muscular movement
(C) kidney (D) both (A) and (B) (D) Both (A) and (B)

157. Excretion is a continuous process but urine is not
passed out continuously because of
(A) Urinarybladder (B) Cloaca
(C) Rectum (D) Ureter
158. Which statement is incorrect?
(A) Adult human excretes 1 – 1.5L urine per day
(B) Urine is slightly acidic pH 6.0
(C) Urine does not have characteristic odour
(D) 25 – 30 gm of urea is excreted out per day
166. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Smooth muscles are found in urinary bladder,
alimentary canal and genital tract
(B) A striated muscle is a syncytium, i.e., a
multinucleate structure
(C) The cytoplasm of striated muscle is called
endoplasm
(D) The plasma membrane and ER of striated
muscles are called sarcolemma and
sarcoplasmic reticulum respectively

159. The thick filaments in the ‘A’ band are also held 167. 11th and 12th pair of ribs do not reach the sternum are
together in the middle of this band by a thin fibrous called
membrane called: (A) pseudo ribs (B) falseribs
(A) Z-line (B) M-line (C) floating ribs (D) visceral ribs
(C) H-line (D) Myosin
168. The joint of humerus with pectoral girdle is
(A) hingejoint (B) non-movablejoint
160. Which of the following events leads to the
(C) pivot joint (D) ball and socket joint
breakdown cross-bridges during muscle
contraction?
(A) ATP hydrolysis 169. The flat bone of axial skeleton lying on the ventral
(B) Binding of ATP to troponin midline of thorax is
(A) Ribs (B) Sternum
(C) Binding of myosin head to new ATP
(C) Clavicle (D) Hyoid
(D) Binding of ATP to actin
170. Which one of the following is the correct description
161. Red muscle fibres can be distinguished from white of the given part of human skeleton?
muscle fibres as the former have (A) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called
(A) Less amount of mitochondria vertebrosternal ribs
(B) Less myoglobin (B) First vertebra is atlas which articulates with the
(C) Less sarcoplasmic reticulum occipital condyles
(D) Anaerobic respiration as main mode to ATP (C) Each pelvic girdle consists of one clavicle and
generation one scapula

@DR. SHUBHAM MULEY

 (D) The number of sacral vertebrae is five in adults 176. Scapula is situated between
171. Among the following, limited movement is (A) 2nd and 7th ribs (B) 3rd and 7th ribs
permitted by joint present at/between st th
(C) 1 and 6 ribs (D) 4th and 9th ribs
(A) Adjacent vertebrae
(B) Junction of carpal and metacarpal of thumb 177. A cup shaped bone called cover the knee
(C) Atlanto-occipital joint ventrally:
(D) Femur and acetabulum (A) Clavicle (B) Ulna
(C) Patella (D) Tibia
172. Decreased level of estrogen in the females after
menopause is implicated as a common causative 178. According to sliding filament theory, there is
factor of
(A) Sliding of thick filaments over the thin
(A) Osteoarthritis filaments
(B) Osteoporosis
(B) Sliding of thin filaments over the thick
(C) Rheumatoid arthritis filaments
(D) Muscular dystrophy (C) Sliding of both filaments
(D) None of these
173. A single, U-shaped bone present at the base of the
buccal cavity is 179. Myasthenia gravis characterised by
(A) Hyoid (B) Mandible (A) Autoimmune disorder affectingneuromuscular
(C) Sphenoid (D) Occipital junction
(B) Fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal
174. Ions essential for muscle contraction are stored in muscle
(A) Sarcoplasm (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Sarcoplasmic reticulum (D) Genetic disorder
(C) Myofibril
(D) Sarcolemma 180. The coxal bone of the pelvic girdle is formed by the
fusion of
175. How much percentage of body weight of a human (A) ilium, ischium and pubis
adult is contributed by muscles? (B) scapula and clavicle
(A) 40 – 50% (B) 30 – 40% (C) ilium and scapula
(C) 50 – 60% (D) 20 – 30% (D) ilium, scapula and ischium

@DR. SHUBHAM MULEY