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Developmental psychology practice exam

Teaching as Reflective Practice (Royal Melbourne Institute of Technology)

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Developmental psychology practice exam

Hello folks! As in the previous semester’s practice exams, to get the most out of this, take this in
the conditions you’d do the real exam in. Also, this is based on personal notes on the contents of the unit,
and is in no way indicative of the actual exam.
For any questions on weeks 1-4 and 11-13, chuck a message to me, Rebecca Hocking, and for
any questions on weeks 5-10, chuck a message to Kate McGrath. Good luck!

Week 1

1. What best describes bronfenbrenner’s ecological theory?

a) A theory of cognitive development focusing on how the culture of a social group is
transmitted to the next generation
b) An environmental theory recognising the impact of microsystem, mesosystem,
exosystem and macrosystem on child development.
c) A social cognitive theory based on skinnerian theory with organismic variables
intervening stimulus and response
d) Stage theory stressing the child as an active participant in the developmental process

2. The goal of developmental psychology is to:

a) Describe individual differences
b) Explain individual differences
c) Optimise development
d) Describe normal development
e) All of the above

3. An example of qualitative change is:

a) The development from sitting to standing
b) The acquiring of more vocabulary
c) The brain fully developing
d) Growing taller
e) All of the above

4. Experience and environment influencing gene expression is an example of:

a) Epigenetics
b) Normative change
c) Intervention
d) Learning
e) Maturation

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5. The idea that society’s problems are intergenerational is addressed in which goal of
developmental psychology?
a) Describing normal development
b) Optimising life trajectories
c) Explaining individual differences
d) Describing individual differences
e) Maturational theory

6. “Is this useful in the wider world?” is a question that relates to the ______ of a theory?
a) Clinical applications
b) Predictions
c) Explanation
d) Meaningful knowledge
e) Focus

7. Which of the following is not an assumption of Baltes’ theory?

a) Multidirectionality
b) Static movement
c) Historically imbedded
d) Multiple disciplines
e) Cultural effects

8. A non-normative life event would be:

a) Graduating from primary school
b) Getting a job
c) Puberty
d) Being in a car accident
e) Having sex

9. The neonatal behavioural assessment scale does not assess:

a) Attention
b) Reflexes
c) Breathing
d) Sucking
e) Inhibiting responses

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Week 2

10. Which response(s) can be measured to give insight into habituation?

a) Visual fixation
b) Heart rate
c) Sucking
d) Movement in foetuses
e) All of the above

11. How many chromosomes are there?

a) 22
b) 1
c) 23
d) 46
e) None of the above

12. An observable genetic characteristic is (a):

a) Genotype
b) Phenotype
c) Heterozygous
d) Homozygous
e) Co-dominance

13. Which of the following prenatal diagnosis methods is the most controversial?
a) Pre-implantation testing
b) Nuchal translucency
c) Chorionic villus sampling
d) Ultrasound
e) Maternal serum blood test

14. To examine gene-environmental contribution in humans, we use:

a) Experimental breeding
b) Selective breeding
c) Genetic manipulation
d) Adoption studies
e) Genetic editing

15. Third degree relatives will on average share ____ of genes.

a) 100%
b) 25%
c) 0%
d) 12.5%
e) 50%

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16. If we were to study two unrelated children adopted into the same family, it would fall under:
a) Shared environment
b) Twin study
c) Shared heredity
d) Epigenetics
e) IVF study

17. Inadequate nutrition is an example of:

a) A teratogen
b) A diatogen
c) The germinal period
d) Pre-pregnancy
e) Maternal disease factors

18. At which period does the foetus start kicking?

a) 18-20 weeks
b) 20-24 weeks
c) 24-28 weeks
d) 14-18 weeks
e) 8-14 weeks

Week 3

19. In the additive main effects model, parental mental illness would ____ the developmental
outcomes.
a) Accelerate
b) Negate
c) Have no effect on
d) Add to
e) Subtract from

20. Which of the following is not a stage of labor?

a) Contractions
b) Crowning
c) Expelling placenta
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

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21. The APGAR test stands for:

a) Appearance, pulse, grimace response, activity, respiration
b) Appearance, pulse, grin, activity, respiration
c) Appearance, pulse, grin, attachment style, respiration
d) Appearance, pulse, grimace response, attachment style, respiration
e) Appearance, pulse, grimace response, attachment style, recollection

22. Voluntary and controlled grasping and releasing develops at:

a) 4 months
b) 6 months
c) 1 year
d) 18 months
e) 2 years

23. An issue with the maturational view is that:

a) It is universal
b) It neglects to account for environmental and social influences
c) It takes into account cultural influences
d) It is necessary
e) It gives an accurate idea of timing

24. The integration of which sensory modes underpins postural reflexes?

a) Kinaesthetic, visual, and vestibular
b) Auditory, kinaesthetic, and visual
c) Visual, vestibular, and olfactory
d) Kinaesthetic, gustatory, and visual
e) Vestibular, kinaesthetic, and pain

25. The proximodistal progression of development in the 4th trimester refers to:
a) Head and trunk control
b) Fine motor capacity supported by core stability
c) Gross motor control
d) Rolling over
e) Reflexes

Week 4

26. To move to the next stage of development (according to Piaget’s method) requires:
a) Maturation
b) Experience
c) Social interaction
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

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27. According to Piaget, in the formal operations stage:

a) People perform mental actions on symbols
b) People use relativistic thinking
c) People perform mental actions on objects only
d) People struggle with egocentrism
e) People struggle with conservation

28. An example of artificialism is:

a) The sun chases the clouds away
b) The tooth fairy will give me money
c) My friend was mean to me in a dream so I’m mad at them in real life
d) Nighttime is when the sun goes to sleep
e) Clouds come from cloud factories in the mountains

29. If a child focuses on what is most perceptually striking, they are likely to engage in:
a) Egocentrism
b) Conservation
c) Conservation errors
d) Seriation
e) Animism

30. At which of Piaget’s stages can children mentally reverse actions?

a) Concrete operations
b) Pre-operational
c) Formal operations
d) Post-operational
e) Informal operations

31. One key indicator of the formal operations stage is:

a) Metacognition
b) Relativistic thinking
c) Invincibility
d) Realism
e) Mental representation

32. The “I’m not like other girls” cliche is an example of:
a) Formal operations
b) Adolescent egocentrism
c) Post-formal operations
d) Metacognition
e) Centration

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Week 5

33. At what age does incidental learning decrease rapidly?

a) 4
b) 13
c) 20
d) 11
e) 6

34. What are the three aspects of memory? (textbook)

a) Retrieval, encoding, recall
b) Encoding, storage, retrieval
c) Storage, recall, recognition
d) Attention, encoding recognition
e) Attention, recall, storage

35. John can understand that his memory has limitations and that it is easier for him to recall a
short list of words rather than a long list. What is this an example of?
a) Metamemory
b) Recall
c) Encoding
d) Attention
e) Retrieval

36. What did Doise and Mugny’s (1975) socio-cognitive conflict experiment show?
a) That infants habituated to objects they had seen before
b) That young children fail the conservation task
c) That children are able to pass the conservation task when they first complete a sharing
task
d) That children fail the three mountains task
e) That young children do not have theory of the mind

37. What is Vygotsky’s concept of social scaffolding?

a) Mentors guide the child's learning by providing help
b) Mentors tell the child how to do things
c) Mentors demonstrate how to do things to the child
d) The child's interactions with peers guides their learning
e) Mentors leave the child to figure things out on their own

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38. Which researcher believes that the best reflection of a child's ability is what they can do with
help from others?
a) Piaget
b) Bronfenbrenner
c) Kohlberg
d) Erikson
e) Vygotsky

39. What does Wimmer and Perner’s (1983) unexpected transfer task tell us about a child's
theory of mind?
a) Children under 4 cannot understand a false belief
b) Children under 4 can understand a false belief
c) Children over 4 can understand a false belief
d) Children over 4 cannot understand a false belief
e) Children with autism have theory of mind

40. How does having older siblings impact children's theory of mind?
a) It does not impact children's theory of mind
b) Provides information about the mind and confronts child with conflicting views
c) Delays theory of mind development
d) Speeds up theory of mind development
e) Increases empathy

41. Which of the following is a factor which impacts theory of mind development?
a) Temperament
b) Gender
c) Ethnicity
d) Education of mother
e) All of the above

42. What is dyadic coding in the still face procedure?

a) Frequency coding
b) Measuring the frequency and quality of the behaviours of the mother
c) Measuring the frequency and quality of the behaviours of the infant
d) Measuring the frequency and quality of the behaviours of both mother and infant
e) Measuring the mothers reciprocation of the child's behaviour only

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Week 6

43. What is temperament?

a) Child's personality traits
b) Biologically based differences in reactivity and self-regulation related to affect, activity
and attention.
c) Child's mood states
d) Biologically based differences is mood and emotions
e) Biologically based differences in reactivity and self-regulation related to external factors

44. What are the three categories of child temperament?

a) Easy child, slow-to-warm up child and difficult child
b) Easy child, slow-to-warm up child and avoidant child
c) Easy child, avoidant child and difficult child
d) Easy child, anxious child and difficult child
e) Slow-to-warm up child, anxious child, and avoidant child

45. What characteristics are associated with difficult temperament?

a) Regular, positive approach, adaptable, mild moods
b) Irregular, positive approach, adaptable, mild moods
c) Irregular, withdrawn approach, slow to adapt, mild moods
d) Irregular, withdrawn, slow adaptability, intense moods
e) Regular, withdrawn, slow adaptability, mild moods

46. Parents feel they can't go out as their child does not settle with others, they often get angry
at their child's mood swings, their child needs more encouragement to adapt to a change of
preschool. What temperament does their child likely have?
a) Easy
b) Difficult
c) Slow-to-warm up
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

47. What does NOT attribute to a child's development of complex emotions?

a) Social-recognition
b) Self-other awareness
c) Internalising rules
d) Parents reactions and values
e) Gender

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48. At what age children become very good at understanding culturally defined rules for
emotional displays?
a) 5-12
b) 2-5
c) 13
d) 0-2
e) 11

49. Mental health, alienation, substance dependence, personal finances and criminal offending
later in life can be predicted by what trait in childhood?
a) Sociability
b) Neuroticism
c) Openness
d) Positive approach
e) self-control/impulsivity

50. In the dunedin study, what did high behavioural inhibition predict?
a) Low harm avoidance, low social potency, high positive emotionality, high risk of
depression
b) High harm avoidance, high social potency, low positive emotionality, low risk of
depression
c) high harm avoidance, low social potency, low positive emotionality, high\ risk of
depression
d) Low harm avoidance, low social potency, low positive emotionality, low risk of
depression
e) High harm avoidance, high social potency, high positive emotionality, high risk of
depression

51. The overlap between the child's temperament and the parents image of an ideal child is
called?
a) The dual-process model
b) The goodness-of-fit hypothesis
c) The social-referencing model
d) The temperament-environment hypothesis
e) The goodness-of-fit model

Week 7

52. What is the role of an attachment figure?

a) Provides comfort and is a secure base
b) Is a secure base and provides discipline
c) Provides comfort and nurturing
d) Provides comfort and structure

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e) Provides discipline and is a secure base

53. By creating a safe haven and being a secure base a parent is encouraging the
development of?
a) Anxiety
b) Sociability
c) Openness
d) Emotion regulation
e) Emotion control
f) Secure attachment

54. What best describes the interplay between safe haven and secure base?
a) Child is distressed and not able to go to parent for comfort
b) Child is distressed and the comfort of the parent does not soothe them
c) Child is able to explore the world and return to the parent when they need comfort
d) Child is able to explore the world but does not turn to parent when they need comfort
e) Child turns to parent when they need comfort but does not explore the world

55. Communicate distress to caregiver, readily comforted and autonomous exploration are all
characteristics of?
a) Insecure attachment
b) Secure attachment
c) Anxious attachment
d) Avoidant attachment
e) Disorganised attachment

56. Which attachment style favours close relationships and maximises negative affect?
a) Secure
b) Anxious
c) Avoidant
d) Insecure
e) Disorganised

57. If a parent is frightened and helpless, what attachment style would their child likely have?
a) Secure
b) Avoidant
c) Anxious
d) Insecure
e) disorganised

58. Which of the following is secure attachment NOT a predictor of?

a) Emotion self-regulation
b) Social competence
c) Income
d) Positive self regard

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e) Social problem solving skills

59. The relationship between caregiver and child which forms the child's attachment is called?
a) The dyadic approach
b) The dichotomous approach
c) Ainsworths approach
d) The relationship approach
e) The internal working models approach

Week 8

60. Authoritative and permissive are categories of what?

a) Parenting types
b) Responsiveness types
c) Baumrind’s typology
d) Bronfenbrenner’s typology
e) Vygotsky’s typology

61. Which parenting style has high control, low warmth, low clear communication and high
maturity demands?
a) Authoritarian
b) Authoritative
c) Permissive
d) Neglectful
e) A and b

62. Providing appropriate scaffolded opportunities for self-regulation is an example of?

a) Clarity of communication
b) Low maturity demands
c) High warmth
d) High maturity demands
e) High clarity of communication

63. Chinese parenting is considered a blend of which two parenting styles?

a) Authoritarian and permissive
b) Authoritarian and authoritative
c) Authoritative and permissive
d) Authoritarian and neglectful
e) Permissive and neglectful

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64. Which of the following is NOT a barrier for fathers child involvement?
a) Mothers are the gatekeepers of the child
b) Jobs do not allow enough time for fathering
c) Social attitudes around truly shared parenting
d) Social expectations of parental leave
e) Child temperament

65. What age of child has the worst outcome for divorce?
a) 11-16
b) 16-20
c) 6-11
d) 2-6
e) 0-2

66. What percentage of children in out of home care are indigenous?

a) 15%
b) 4%
c) 50%
d) 30%
e) 20%

Week 9

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67. Which hypothesis does the above graph support?

a) The difference hypothesis
b) Socio-cognitive hypothesis
c) The gender hypothesis
d) The similarity hypothesis
e) The social-role hypothesis

68. Why do gender stereotypes persist?

a) Because boys and girls are biologically different
b) Because boys tend to like certain activities and girls like certain activities
c) Because boys and girls are cognitively different
d) Because boys are more aggressive and girls are more passive
e) Because parents, peers and the media treat boys and girls differently

69. Guiding activities in gender-stereotypical directions, praising gender conformity, modeling

gender stereotypical patterns and sanctioning gender-nonconforming behaviour is the role of?
a) Parents
b) The media
c) Peers
d) Schools
e) Teachers

70. At what age does gender stereotypical toy selection occur?

a) 2 years
b) From birth
c) 3 years
d) 5 years
e) 10 years

71. What are the three components of gender constancy in Kohlberg's cognitive developmental
theory?
a) Gender identity, gender stability, gender conformity
b) Gender identity, gender conformity, gender consistency
c) Gender identity, gender stability, gender consistency
d) Gender consistency, gender stability, gender conformity
e) Gender stability, gender consistency, gender stereotyping

72. What theorist came up with gender schema theory?

a) Kohlberg (1966)
b) Bem (1981)
c) Bandura (1999)
d) Bussey (1999)

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e) Mischel (1966)
73. Which of the following is NOT one of Eagan and Perry’s (2001) main components of gender
identity?
a) Gender typicality
b) Sex assigned at birth
c) Felt pressure to conform to stereotypic behaviour
d) Intergroup bias
e) Self-categorization

Week 10

74. The model where behaviour is an interplay between personal factors and situational factors
is called what?
a) Bandura’s social cognitive approach
b) Kohlberg’s social cognitive approach
c) Kohlberg’s cognitive developmental theory
d) Freud’s psychoanalytic approach
e) Piaget’s cognitive developmental approach

75. What is the role of self-sanctions?

a) Prevent lying
b) Allow for lying
c) Keep conduct inline with personal standards
d) Keep conduct in line with social standards
e) Allow for moral-disengagement

76. What researcher examined the role of moral emotions?

a) Kohlberg
b) Hoffman
c) Bandura
d) Meins
e) Piaget

77. What were the results of Youniss and Yates’ (1997) study on the interrelationship between
the 3 components of moral development?
a) There was no relationship between the components
b) There was a relationship between behaviour and cognition
c) There was a relationship between emotion and behaviour
d) There was a relationship between all 3 components
e) There was a relationship between cognition and emotion

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78. When a person is able to do an immoral behaviour but not feel guilty it is called:
a) Moral violation
b) Immoral habituation
c) Moral disengagement
d) Moral justification
e) Moral distancing

79. Which one is NOT an influence on the use of moral disengagement?

a) Parents encouraging children to acknowledge wrongdoing and preserve child’s positive
self view
b) Desire to self-exonerate behaviour
c) Protect positive self views
d) Avoidance of self-sanctions
e) Punishment

Tutorial:

80. What are kohlberg's stages of moral development?

a) Premoral stage 1 & 2, conventional stage 3 & 4, principled stage 5
b) Premoral stage 1 & 2, moral stage 3 & 4, principled stage 5
c) Conventional stage 1 & 2, premoral stage 3 & 4, moral stage 5
d) Conventional stage 1 & 2, premoral stage 3 & 4, principled stage 5
e) Principled stage 1 & 2, premoral stage 3 & 4, moral stage 5

Week 11

81. The brain generally develops…

a) Bottom to top, out to inside
b) Top to bottom, out to inside
c) Top to bottom, inside to out
d) Bottom to top, inside to out
e) All at once

82. In adolescence, which cognitive capacity allows the individual to hold alternatives constant
in order to test a theory?
a) Metacognition
b) Complexity
c) Hypothetico-deductive reasoning
d) Perspective taking
e) Stunted brain development

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83. If you realise that you don’t quite feel comfortable in the roles that are placed on you in
regards to how you dress, so you form your own comfortable way of presenting yourself, this is
resolving a developmental crisis through:
a) Gender identity consolidation
b) Internalised morality
c) Fidelity
d) Career choice
e) Relationships

84. According to Erikson’s stage theory, in which stage is purpose developed?

a) Autonomy/shame
b) Initiative/guilt
c) Industry/inferiority
d) Identity/role confusion
e) Generativity

85. “I am what I create” is a statement that concerns which stage in Erikson’s theory?
a) Intimacy/isolation
b) Autonomy/shame
c) Industry/inferiority
d) Generativity
e) Integrity/despair

86. Which is the ninth proposed stage of Erikson’s theory?

a) Gerotranscendence
b) Brooding
c) Forgiveness
d) Expectancy/acceptance
e) Heterosexuality

87. George Vaillant proposed a theory of critical stages of adult development, which include(s):
a) Intimacy
b) Career consolidation
c) Generativity
d) Being a “keeper of the meaning”
e) All of the above

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Week 12

88. While widely anticipated, the idea of a “midlife crisis” is:

a) A hurdle everyone must go through
b) A strict period in a person’s life
c) Only apparent in a small percentage of people
d) Only apparent in 50% of people
e) A myth

89. Satisfaction with life tends to:

a) Peak in adolescence
b) Increase with age
c) Peak in adulthood
d) Decline with age
e) None of the above

90. Caregiver stress refers to:

a) The strain of child-rearing
b) The strain of working in geriatric care
c) The cumulative strain of caring for anyone in a person’s life
d) The decreasing likelihood to care for the news as one ages
e) The tendency to judge someone who is a single parent

91. Personality tends to:

a) Stabilise as one ages
b) Vary frequently as one ages
c) Disappear as one ages
d) Become less important as one ages
e) Become more normative as one ages

92. As one passes midlife, one gains:

a) Job opportunities
b) Stress handling capabilities
c) Physical abilities
d) Fertility
e) Newstart

93. One negative impact on elderly people can be:

a) Social groups shrinking due to selection
b) Retirement
c) Death of loved ones
d) Children “leaving the nest”
e) Children caring for their parents

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Week 13

94. The ideal coping mechanism for the loss in energy with age is:
a) Elective selection
b) Loss-based selection
c) Optimisation
d) Compensation
e) None of the above

95. The model of developmental ageing across the lifespan refers to these three processes:
a) Goal withdrawal, goal disengagement, and metaregulation
b) Goal engagement, goal achieval, and metaregulation
c) Goal engagement, goal disengagement, and metaregulation
d) Goal withdrawal, metaregulation, and compensation
e) Compensation, idealism, and optimisation

96. Bereavement refers to:

a) Death
b) Going to a funeral
c) Cultural beliefs around the grieving process
d) The act of loss and emotions associated with it
e) Terminal illness

97. A child that cannot speak will cope with the loss of a loved one by:
a) Holding a funeral
b) Metaregulation
c) Searching for the loved one
d) Beginning to speak
e) Disengaging

98. The model of grief with five stages is often criticised as:
a) It is not criticised
b) One may not experience the stages in the order presented
c) It fails to account for potential downturns in mood states
d) It only refers to grief over ones lost before their time
e) It fails to account for the contentedness that people experience

99. The integrative risk model proposes that:

a) Intrapersonal risks affect both the appraisal and the outcome of loss
b) Interpersonal risks affect both the appraisal and the outcome of loss
c) Bereavement intensity affects the appraisal of the loss
d) Appraisal affects the outcome of loss
e) All of the above

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100. Which of the following is not a criticism of the dual process model?
a) It may not be universal
b) It may not apply to sudden loss situations
c) It only applies to slow loss
d) It accounts for both loss and restoration oriented states
e) It fails to account for cultural mourning practices

Answer key
Week 1: 1b 2e 3a 4a 5b 6a 7b 8d 9c
Week 2: 10e 11d 12b 13a 14d 15b 16a 17a 18a
Week 3: 19e 20d 21a 22e 23b 24a 25b
Week 4: 26d 27a 28e 29c 30a 31a 32b
Week 5: 33d 34b 35a 36c 37a 38e 39a 40b 41d
Tutorial: 42d
Week 6: 43b 44a 45d 46b 47e 48a 49e 50c
Week 7: 51b 52a 53d 54c 55b 56b 57e 58c 59a
Week 8: 60c 61a 62d 63b 64e 65a 66d
Week 9: 67d 68e 69c 70a 71c 72b 73b
Week 10: 74a 75c 76b 77d 78c 79e 80a
Week 11: 81d 82c 83a 84b 85d 86a 87a
Week 12: 88c 89b 90c 91a 92b 93c 94c
Week 13: 95c 96d 97c 98b 99e 100d

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Extra stuff:

1. What is an advantage and limitation of adoption studies?

a) Can look at the effects of both shared heritability and shared environment, there may be
a bias in placement of adopted children and in what parents are approved to adopt.
b) Can compare fraternal and identical twins, it is naturalistic
c) Can measure the heritability of traits, environmental influence is not accounted for.
d) Can compare sibling similarities, however, genetic influences aren’t accounted for.

2. What are the three stages of fetal development?

a) Germinal period, embryonic period, fetal period
b) Fetal period, embryonic period, germinal period
c) Embryonic period, germinal period, fetal period
d) Germinal period, teratogen period, fetal period

Tutorial 1
3. What 2 factors are looked at during the NBAS?
a) Depth perception, social reference
b) Preferential looking, stimulus habituation
c) Self-soothing, sucking reflex
d) Moro reflex, trust

Week 3
4. What are the three measures for assessing infant visual perception?
a. Self-report, observation, written exam
b. Physical exam, neonatal exam, apgar scale
c. Questionnaire, preferential looking paradigms, visual cliff
d. Visual cliff, preferential looking paradigms, habituation-dishabituation

Tutorial 2
5. What are the criticisms of piaget three mountains task? (select multiple)
a. Too simple
b. Too complex
c. Requires advanced cognitive skills
d. Requires receptive language skills

Week 4
6. What are some ways Piaget’s theory of concrete operations can be applied to education?
a) Avoid lectures of sharing
b) Encourage manipulation of physical objects
c) Use familiar examples to explain complex ideas
d) Constructive approach - let children discover themselves
e) Teach concepts sequentially - master underlying concepts first

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Answer key

1. A
2. A
3. C
4. D
5. A and d
6. C, d, and e

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