WBJEE MQB Physical Inorg Chemistry-20210701173850152602

C HE M IS T RY
WB-JEE
PHYSICAL / INORGANIC MASTER
CHEMISTRY ST INFORM AT IO
QUESTION BANK
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
1. The maximum number of electrons in an atom is which the last electron filled has the quantum
number n = 3, l = 2 and m = –1 is
(A) 17 (B) 27 (C) 28 (D) 30
2. The radius of the first Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is 0.53 × 10–8 cm. The velocity of the
electron in the first Bohr orbit is
(A) 2.188 × 108 cm s–1 (B) 4.376 × 108 cm s–1
(C) 1.094 × 108 cm s–1 (D) 2.188 × 109 cm s–1
3. The number of unpaired electrons in the uranium (92U) atom is

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) 1
4. The difference between orbital angular momentum of an electron in a 4f-orbital and another
electron in a 4s-orbital is
(A) 2 3 (B) 3 2 (C) 3 (D) 2
5. Which one of the following electronic arrangements is absurd?

(A) n = 3, I = 1, m = –1 (B) n = 3, I = 0, m = 0
(C) n = 2, I = 0, m = –1 (D) n = 2, I = 1, m = 0
6. The quantity hv/KB corresponds to

(A) wavelength (B) velocity (C) temperature (D) angular momentum
7. Which of the following electronic configuration is not possible?

(A) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0 (B) n = 3, l = 1, m = –1
(C) n = 2, l = 0, m = –1 (D) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0
8. The number of unpaired electrons in Ni (atomic number = 28) are

(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8
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9. A metal M (Specific heat 0.16) forms a metal chloride with 65% chlorine present in it. The
formula of the metal chloride will be
(A) MCl (B) MCl2 (C) MCl3 (D) MCl4
10. If the given four electronic configurations.

(i) n = 4, l = 1 (ii) n = 4, l = 0 (iii) n = 3, l = 2 (iv) n = 3, l = 1
Are arranged in order of increasing energy, then the order will be
(A) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) (B) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii)
(C) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) (D) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii)
11. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the 19th electron of Cr (Z = 24)?
 1  1
(A)  4, 1, − 1, +  (B)  4, 0, 0, + 
 2  2
 1  1
(C)  3, 2, 0, −  (D)  3, 2, − 2, + 
 2  2
12. Which one of the following corresponds to a photon of highest energy?

(A) λ = 300mm (B) ν = 3 × 108 s–1
(C) ν = 30 cm (D) ε = 6.626 × 10–27 J
13. The energy required to break one mole of hydrogen-hydrogen bonds in H2 is 436 kJ. What is
the longest wavelength of light required to break a single hydrogen-hydrogen bond?
(A) 68.5 nm (B) 137 nm (C) 274 nm (D) 548 nm
14. The time taken for an electron to complete one revolution in Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is
4m2 πr 2 n2h2 4π2mr 2 nh
(A) (B) (C) (D)
n2h2 4mr 2 nh 4π2mr 2
15. The atomic number of cerium (Ce) is 58. The correct electronic configuration of Ce3+ ion is
(A) [Xe] 4f1 (B) [Kr] 4f1 (C) [Xe] 4f13 (D) [Kr] 4d1
16. The emission spectrum of hydrogen discovered first and the region of the electromagnetic
spectrum in which it belongs, respectively are
(A) Lyman, ultraviolet (B) Lyman, visible
(C) Balmer, ultraviolet (D) Balmer, visible
17. The electronic configuration of Cu is

(A) [Ne] 3s2, 3p6, 3d9, 4s2 (B) [Ne] 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s1
(C) [Ne] 3s2, 3p6, 3d3, 4s2, 4p6 (D) [Ne] 3s2, 3p6, 3d5, 4s2, 4p4
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18. As per de-Broglie’s formula a macroscopic particle of mass 100 g and moving at a velocity of
100 cm s–1 will have a wavelength of
(A) 6.6 × 10–29 cm (B) 6.6 × 10–30 cm
(C) 6.6 × 10–31 cm (D) 6.6 × 10–32 cm
19. (32Ge76, 34Se76) and (14Si30, 16S32) are examples of

(A) isotopes and isobars (B) isobars and isotones
(C) isotones and isotopes (D) isobars and isotopes
20. Identify the correct statement.

(A) Quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) are arbitrarily
(B) All the quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) for any pair of electron in an atom can be identical
under special circumstance
(C) All the quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) may not be required to describe an electron of an
atom completely
(D) All the quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) are required to describe an electron of an atom
completely
21. Which of the following does not represent the mathematical expression for the Heisenberg
uncertainty principle?
(A) ∆x ∙ ∆P > h/(4π) (B) ∆x ∙ ∆ν > h/(4πm) (C) ∆E ∙ ∆t > h/(4π) (D) ∆E ∙ ∆x > h/(4π)
22. If the first ionization energy of H atom is 13.6 eV, then the second ionization energy of He
atom is
(A) 27.2 eV (B) 40.8 eV (C) 54.4 eV (D) 108.8 eV
SOLID STATE
23. In the face centred cubic lattice structure of gold the closest distance between gold atoms is
('a' being the edge length of the cubic unit cell)
a a
(A) a 2 (B) (C) (D) 2 2a
2 2 2
24. A compound formed by elements X and Y crystallises in the cubic structure, where X atoms
are at the corners of a cube and Y atoms are at the centre of the body. The formula of the
compounds is
(A) XY (B) XY2 (C) X2Y3 (D) XY3
25. In a close-packed body-centred cubic lattice of potassium, the correct relation between the
atomic radius (r) of potassium and the edge-length (a) of the cube is
a a 3 3
(A) r = (B) r = (C) r = a (D) r = a
2 3 2 4
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26. Ionic solids with Schottky defect may contain in their structure
(A) cation vacancies only
(B) cation vacancies and interstitial cations
(C) equal number of cation and anion vacancies
(D) anion vacancies and interstitial anions
27. Suppose the mass of single Ag-atom is m. Ag metal crystallises in fcc lattice with unit cell of
length a. The density of Ag metal in terms of a and m is
4m 2m m m
(A) (B) (C) (D)
a3 a3 a3 4a3
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM
28. The equilibrium constant for the following reactions are given at 25°C
2A B + C, K1 = 10
2B C + D, K2 = 16
2C + D 2P, K3 = 25
The equilibrium constant for the reaction
1
P A+ B at 25° C is
2
1 1
(A) (B) 20 (C) (D) 21
20 42
29. In the equilibrium, H2 + I2 2HI, if at a given temperature the concentration of the
reactants are increased, the value of the equilibrium constant, KC, will
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remain the same (D) cannot be predicted with certainty
30. The following equilibrium constants are given


N2 + 3H2  
 2NH3 ; K1


N2 + O2 
 2NO ; K2
1 
H2 + O2   H3O ; K3
2
The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of 2 mole of NH3 to give NO is
K K3 K2 K
(A) K1 . 2 (B) K 2 . 3 (C) K 2 . 3 (D) K 22 . 3
K3 K1 K1 K1
31. Equilibrium constants for the following reactions at 1200 K are given

2H2O(g)  
 2H2(g) + O2(g) , K1 = 6.8 × 10–8


2CO2(g) 
 2CO(g) + O2(g) , K2 = 1.6 × 10–6
The equilibrium constant for the reaction?

H2(g) + CO2(g)  
 CO(g) + H2O(g) at 1200 K will be
(A) 0.05 (B) 20 (C) 0.2 (D) 5.0
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32. Which of the following plots represent an exothermic reaction?
(A) In Kp (B) In Kp
1/T 1/T
(C) In Kp (D) In Kp
1/T 1/T
33. 

 2SO3(g) at 300 K, The value of ∆G° is –690.9 R. The
For the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 
equilibrium constant value for the reaction at that temperature is (R is gas constant)
(A) 10 atm–1 (B) 10 atm (C) 10 (D) 1
34. In a reversible chemical reaction at equilibrium if the concentration of any one of the reactants
is doubled, then the equilibrium constant will
(A) also be doubled (B) be halved
(C) remain the same (D) becomes one-fourth
SURFACE CHEMISTRY
35. Among the following, the ion which will be more effective for flocculation of Fe(OH)3 solution is
(A) PO43– (B) SO42– (C) SO32– (D) NO3–
36. Point out the false statements.

(A) Colloidal sols are homogeneous
(B) Colloids carry +ve or –ve charges
(C) Colloids show Tyndall effect
(D) the size range of colloidal particles is 10-1000 Å
37. The dispersed phase and dispersion medium of fog respectively are
(A) solid, liquid (B) liquid, liquid (C) liquid, gas (D) gas, liquid
38. The amount of electrolytes required to coagulate a given amount of AGI colloidal solution
(–ve charge) will be in the order
(A) NaNO3 > Al2(NO3)3 > Ba(NO3)2 (B) Al2(NO3)3 > Ba(NO3)2 > NaNO3
(C) Al2(NO3)3 > NaNO3 > Ba(NO3)2 (D) NaNO3 > Ba(NO3)2 > Al2(NO3)3
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LIQUID SOLUTIONS
39. The mole fraction of ethanol in water is 0.08. Its molality is

(A) 6.32 mol kg–1 (B) 4.83 mol kg–1 (C) 3.82 mol kg–1 (D) 2.84 mol kg–1
40. Kf(water) = 1.86 K kg mol–1. The temperature at which ice begins to separate from a mixture of
10 mass % ethylene glycol is
(A) –1.86°C (B) –3.72°C (C) –3.3°C (D) –3°C
41. Which of the following has the dimension if [ML0T–2] ?

(A) Coefficient of viscosity (B) Surface tension
(C) Vapour pressure (D) Kinetic energy
42. You are supplied with 500 mL each of 2N HCl and 5N HCl. What is the maximum volume of
3M HCl that you can prepare using only these two solutions?
(A) 250 mL (B) 500 mL (C) 750 mL (D) 1000 mL
43. Assuming he compounds to be completely dissociated in aqueous solution, identify the pair of
the solutions that can be expected to be isotonic at the same temperature.
(A) 0.01 M urea and 0.01 M NaCl (B) 0.02 M NaCl and 0.01 M Na2SO4
(C) 0.03 M NaCl and 0.02 M MgCl2 (D) 0.01 M sucrose and 0.02 M glucose
44. If p° and p are the vapour pressure of the pure solvent and solution and n1 and n2 are the
moles of solute and solvent respectively in the solution then the correct relation between p
and p° is
 n1   n2 
(A) p° =p   (B) p° =p  
 n1 + n2   n1 + n2 
 n2   n1 
(C) p = p°   (D) p = p°  
 n1 + n2   n1 + n2 
45. At a certain temperature, the value of the slope of the plot of osmotic pressure (π) against
concentration (C in molL–1) of a certain polymer solution is 291R. The temperature at a which
osmotic pressure is measured, is (R us gas constant)
(A) 271°C (B) 18°C (C) 564 K (D) 18 K
46. Commercial sample of H2O2 is labelled as 10 V. Its % strength is nearly

(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 12
47. To observe an elevation of boiling point of 0.05°C, the amount of a solute (mol. wt. = 100) to
be added to 100 g of water (Kb = 0.5) is
(A) 2g (B) 0.5g (C) 1g (D) 0.75g
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48. The volume of ethyl alcohol (density 1.15 g/cc) that has to be added to prepare 100 cc of 0.5
M ethyl alcohol solution in water is
(A) 1.15 cc (B) 2 cc (C) 2.15 cc (D) 2.30 cc
49. The measured freezing point depression for a 0.1 m aqueous CH3COOH solution is 0.19°C.
The acid dissociation constant Kα at this concentration will be (Given, Kf the molar cryoscopic
constant = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
(A) 4.76 × 10–5 (B) 4 × 10–5 (C) 8 × 10–5 (D) 2 × 10–5
50. Numbers of hydrogen ions present in 10 millionth part of 1.33 cm3 of pure water at 25°C is
(A) 6.023 million (B) 60 million (C) 8.01 million (D) 80.23 million
51. 58.4 g of NaCl and 180 g of glucose were separately dissolved in 1000 mL of water. Identify
the correct statement regarding the elevation of boiling point (b.p.) of the resulting solutions.
(A) NaCl Solution will show higher elevation of boiling point
(B) Glucose Solution will show higher elevation of boiling point
(C) Both the Solution will show equal elevation of boiling point
(D) The boiling point elevation will be shown by neither of the solutions
52. Which of the following will show a negative deviation from Raoult’s law?
(A) Acetone-benzene (B) Acetone-ethanol
(C) Benzene-methanol (D) Acetone-chloroform
53. The weight of oxalic acid that will be required to prepare a 1000 mL (N/20) solution is
(A) 126/100 g (B) 63/40 g (C) 63/20 g (D) 126/20 g
MOLE CONCEPT
54. 5 mL of 0.1 M Pb(NO3)2 is mixed with 10 mL of 0.02 M KI. The amount of PbI2 precipitated will
be about
(A) 10–2 mol (B) 10–4 mol (C) 2 × 10–4 mol (D) 10–3 mol
55. Which of the following has the largest number of atoms ?

(A) 1 g of Ag (B) 1 g of Fe (C) 1 g of Cl2 (D) 1 g of Mg
56. What will be the mass of one atom of 12C ?

(A) 1 amu (B) 1.9923 × 10–23g
(C) 1.6603 × 10–22 g (D) 6 amu
57. In the crystalline solid MSO4.nH2O of molar mass 250 g mol–1, the percentage of anhydrous
salt is 64 by weight. The value of n is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7
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58. At S.T.P. the volume of 7.5 g of a gas is 5.6 L. The gas is
(A) NO (B) N2O (C) CO (D) CO2
59. How many moles of electrons will weigh one kilogram?

1 6.023 1
(A) 6.023 × 1023 (B) × 1031 (C) × 1054 (D) × 108
9.108 9.108 9.108 × 6.023
60. 0.126 g of an acid is needed to completely neutralise 20 mL 0.1 (N) NaOH solution. The
equivalent weight of the acid is
(A) 53 (B) 40 (C) 45 (D) 63
61. In a flask, the weight ratio of CH4(g) and SO2(g) at 298 K and 1 bar is 1 : 2. The ratio of the
number of molecules of SO2(g) and CH4(g) is
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1
62. The yield of acetanilide in the reaction (100% conversion) of 2 moles of aniline with 1 mole of
acetic anhydride is
(A) 270 g (B) 135 g (C) 67.5 g (D) 177 g
63. The system that contains the maximum number of atoms is

(A) 4.25g of NH3 (B) 8g of O2 (C) 2g of H2 (D) 4g of He
64. The equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7 in acidic medium is expressed in terms of its molecular
weight (M) as
(A) M/3 (B) M/4 (C) M/6 (D) M/7
GASEOUS STATE
65. At 273 K temperature and 76 cm Hg pressure, the density of a gas is 1.964 g L–1 . The gas is
(A) CH4 (B) CO (C) He (D) CO2
66. Equal masses of ethane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 298 K. The fraction
of total pressure exerted by hydrogen is
(A) 15 : 16 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 1 : 6
 ab 
67. For a vander Waal's gas, the term  2  represents some
V 
(A) Pressure (B) Energy (C) Critical density (D) Molar mass
68. Equal weights of ethane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25° C. The fraction
of total pressure exerted by hydrogen is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 1 (C) 1 : 16 (D) 15 : 16
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69.
T = const.
log V
M2
M1
log P
For same mass of two different ideal gases of molecular weights M1 and M2, Plots of log V vs
log p at a given constant temperature are shown. Identify the correct option.
(A) M1 > M2 (B) M1 = M2
(C) M1 < M2 (D) Can be predicted only if temperature is known
70. The RMS velocity of CO gas molecules at 27°C is approximately 1000 m/s. For N2 molecules
at 600 K, the RMS velocity is approximately
(A) 2000 m/s (B) 1414 m/s (C) 1000 m/s (D) 1500 m/s
71. A gas can be liquefied at temperature T and pressure p provided

(A) T = Tc and p < pc (B) T < Tc and p > pc
(C) T > Tc and p > pc (D) T > Tc and p < pc
72. The units of surface tension and viscosity of liquids respectively are
(A) kg m–1 s–1, Nm–1 (B) kg s–2, kg m–1 s–1
(C) Nm–1, kg m–1 s–2 (D) kg s–1, kg m–2 s–1
73. For one mole of an ideal gas, the slope of V vs. T curve at constant pressure of 2 atm is X L
mol–1 K–1. The value of the ideal universal gas constant ‘R’ in terms of X is
X
(A) X L atm mol–1 K–1 (B) L atm mol–1 K–1
2
(C) 2X L atm mol–1 K–1 (D) 2X atm L–1 mol–1 K–1
74. At a certain temperature the time required for the complete diffusion of 200 mL of H2 gas is 30
min. the time required for the complete diffusion of 50 mL of O2 gas at the same temperature
will be
(A) 60 min (B) 30 min (C) 45 min (D) 15 min
75. Four gases P, Q, R and S have almost same values of ‘b’ but their ‘a’ values (a, b are vander
Waal's constants) are in the order Q < R < S < P. At a particular temperature, among the four
gases, the most easily liquefiable one is
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S
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76. Two gases X (molecular weight MX) and Y (molecular weight MY ; MY > MX) are at the same
temperature T in two different containers. Their root mean square velocities are CX and CY
respectively. If the average kinetic energies per respectively then which of the following
relation(s) is(are) true?
(A) EX > EY (B) CX > CY
(C) EX = EY = (3/2) RT (D) EX = EY = (3/2) kBT
77. A van der Waal's gas may behave ideally when

(A) the volume is very low
(B) the temperature is very high
(C) the pressure is very low
(D) the temperature, pressure and volume all are very high
78. Equal weights of CH4 and H2 are mixed in an empty container at 25°C. The fraction of the total
pressure exerted by H2 is
(A) 1/9 (B) 1/2 (C) 8/9 (D) 16/17
THERMODYNAMICS
79. An ideal gas expands adiabatically against vacuum. Which of the following is correct for the
given process
(A) ∆S = 0 (B) ∆T = –ve (C) ∆U = 0 (D) ∆P = 0
80. For spontaneous polymerisation, which of the following is (are) correct ?

(A) ∆G is negative (B) ∆H is negative (C) ∆S is positive (D) ∆S is negative
81. For the equilibrium, H2O(l) H2O(v), which of the following is correct ?
(A) ∆G = 0, ∆H < 0, ∆S < 0 (B) ∆G = 0, ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0
(C) ∆G > 0, ∆H = 0, ∆S > 0 (D) ∆G = 0, ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0
82. At constant pressure, the heat of formation of a compound is not dependent on temperature,
when
(A) ∆Cp = 0 (B) ∆Cv = 0 (C) ∆Cp > 0 (D) ∆Cp < 0
83. The heat of neutralisation of a strong base and a strong acid is 13.7 kcal. The heat released
when 0.6 mole HCl solution is added to 0.25 mole of NaOH is
(A) 3.425 kcal (B) 8.22 kcal (C) 11.645 kcal (D) 13.7 kcal
84. During a reversible adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the
CP
cube of its absolute temperature. The ratio for the gas is
CV
3 7 5 9
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 3 7
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85. Among the following, the extensive variables are
(A) H (Enthalpy) (B) p (Pressure)
(C) E (Internal energy) (D) V (Volume)
86. The condition for a reaction to occur spontaneously is

(A) ∆H must be negative (B) ∆S must be negative
(C) (∆H – T∆S) must be negative (D) (∆H + T∆S) must be negative
87. Amongst the following, which should have the highest rms speed at the same temperature?
(A) SO2 (B) CO2 (C) O2 (D) H2
88. For the reaction, X2Y2(l) 

→ 2XY2(g) at 300 K, the values of ∆U and ∆S are 2 kcal and 20
cal K–1 respectively. The value of ∆G for the reaction is
(A) –3400 cal (B) 3400 cal (C) –2800 cal (D) 2000 cal
89. The enthalpy of vaporisation of a certain liquid at tits boiling point of 35°C is 24.64 kJ mol–1.
The value change in entropy for the process is
(A) 704 JK–1mol–1 (B) 80 JK–1mol–1
(C) 24.64 JK–1mol–1 (D) 7.04 JK–1mol–1
90. Given that

C + O2 
→ CO2 ; ∆H° = –x kJ
2CO + O2 
→ 2CO2 ; ∆H° = –y kJ
The heat of formation of carbon monoxide will be
y − 2x 2x − y
(A) (B) y + 2x (C) 2x + y (D)
2 2
91. The value of ∆H for cooling 2 mole of an ideal monatomic gas from 225°C to 125°C at
5
constant pressure will be [given CP = R]
2
(A) 250 R (B) –500 R (C) 500 R (D) –250 R
92. For a spontaneous process, the correct statement(s) is (are)

(A) (∆Gsystem)T, P > 0 (B) (∆Ssystem) + (∆Ssurrondings) > 0
(C) (∆Gsystem)T, P < 0 (D) (∆Usystem)T, V > 0
93. The change of entropy (dS) is defined as

δq dH δqrev dH − dG
(A) dS = (B) dS = (C) dS = (D) dS =
T T T T
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94. Mixing of two different ideal gases under isothermal reversible condition will lead to
(A) increase of Gibbs free energy of the system
(B) no change of entropy of the system
(C) increase of entropy of the system
(D) increase of enthalpy of the system
95. Pressure-volume (pV) work done by an ideal gaseous system at constant volume is (where E
is internal energy of the system)
(A) –∆p / p (B) zero (C) –V∆p (D) –∆E
96. For isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, the correct combination of the thermodynamic
parameters will be
(A) ∆U = 0, Q = 0, W ≠ 0 and ∆H ≠ 0 (B) ∆U ≠ 0, Q ≠ 0, W ≠ 0 and ∆H = 0
(C) ∆U = 0, Q ≠ 0, W = 0 and ∆H ≠ 0 (D) ∆U = 0, Q ≠ 0, W ≠ 0 and ∆H = 0
97. The condition of spontaneity of a process is

(A) lowering of enthropy at constant temperature and pressure
(B) lowering of Gibbs free energy of system at constant temperature and pressure
(C) increase of entropy of system at constant temperature and pressure
(D) increase of Gibbs free energy of the universe at constant temperature and pressure
98. The standard Gibbs free energy change (∆G°) at 25°C for the dissociation of N2O4(g) to
NO2(g) is (given, equilibrium constant = 0.15, R = 8.314 JK/mol)
(A) 1.1 KJ (B) 4.7 KJ (C) 8.1 KJ (D) 38.2 KJ
99. Identify the correct statement from the following in a chemical reaction.
(A) The entropy always increases
(B) The change in entropy along with suitable change in enthalpy decides the rate of reaction
(C) The enthalpy always decreases
(D) Both the enthalpy and the entropy remain constant
100. Which of the following is correct?

(A) Evaporation of water causes an increase in disorder of the system
(B) Melting of ice causes a decrease in randomness of the system
(C) Condensation of steam causes an increase in disorder of the system
(D) There is practically no change in the randomness of the system when water is evaporated
PERIODIC TABLE
101. Which of the following statements is not true for the reaction, 2F2 + 2H2O → 4HF + O2 ?
(A) F2 is more strongly oxidising than O2 (B) F–F bond is weaker than O=O bond
(C) F–F bond is stronger than H–O bond (D) F is less electronegative than O
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102. The second ionisation energy of the following elements follows the order
(A) Zn > Cd > Hg (B) Zn > Cd > Hg (C) Cd > Hg < Zn (D) Zn < Cd < Hg
103. The first electron affinity of C, N and O will be of the order

(A) C < N < O (B) N < C < O (C) C < O < N (D) O < N < C
104. Among Me3N, C5H5N and MeCN (Me = methyl group) the electro negativity of N is the order
(A) MeCH > C5H5N > Me3N (B) C5H5N > Me3N > MeCH
(C) Me3N > MeCH > C5H5N (D) Electronegativity same in all
105. Which of the following atoms should have the highest Ist electron affinity?
(A) F (B) O (C) N (D) C
106. An elements X belongs to fourth period and fifteenth group of the periodic table. Which of the
following statements is true?
(A) It has completely filled s-orbital and a partially filled d-orbital
(B) It has completely filled s- and p-orbital and a half partially filled d-orbital
(C) It has completely filled s- and p-orbital and a half filled d-orbital
(D) It has a half filled p-orbital and completely filled s- and d-orbital
107. Among Be, B, Mg and Al, the second ionisation potential is maximum for
(A) B (B) Be (C) Mg (D) Al
108. Ionisation potential values of noble gases decrease down the group with increase in atomic
size. Xenon forms binary fluorides by the direct reaction of elements. Identify the correct
statements(s) from below.
(A) Only the heavier noble gases form such compounds
(B) It happens because the noble gases have higher ionisation energies
(C) It happens because the compounds are formed with electronegative ligands
(D) Octet of electrons provide the stable arrangements
109. Which of the following is correct?

(A) Radius of Ca2+ < Cl– < S2– (B) Radius of Cl– < S2– < Ca2+
(C) Radius of S2– = Cl– = Ca2+ (D) Radius of S2– < Cl– < Ca2+
ELECTROCHEMISTRY
110. How and why does the density of liquid water change on prolonged electrolysis ?
(A) Decreases, as the proportion of H2O increases
(B) Remain unchanged
(C) Increases, as the proportion of D2O increases
(D) Increases, as the volume decreases
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111. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
(A) A sink of SO2 pollutant is O3 in the atmosphere
(B) FGD is a process of removing NO2 from atmosphere
(C) NOx in fuel gases can be removed by alkaline scrubbing
(D) The catalyst used to convert CCl4 to CF4 by HF is SbF5
112. The charge carried by 1 millimole of Mn+ ions is 193 coulombs. The value of n is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
113. If electrolysis of aqueous CuSO4 solution is carried out using Cu-electrodes, the reaction
taking place at the anode is
(A) H+ + e– → H (B) Cu2+(aq) + 2e– → Cu(s)
(C) SO42–(aq) – 2e– → SO4 (D) Cu(s) – 2e– → Cu2+(aq)
114. What amount of electricity can deposit 1 mole of Al metal at cathode when passed through
molten AlCl3?
(A) 0.3 F (B) 1 F (C) 3 F (D) 1/3 F
115. Given the standard half-cell potentials (E°) of the following as

Zn  → Zn2+ + 2e– ; E° = +0.76 V
Fe2+ 
→ Fe2+ + 2e– ; E° = 0.41 V
Then the standard e.m.f. of the cell with the reaction Fe2+ + Zn 
→ Zn2+ + Fe is
(A) –0.35 V (B) +0.35 V (C) +1.17 V (D) –1.17 V
116. How many faradays are required to reduce 1 mol of Cr2O72− to Cr3+ in acid medium?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6
117. During electrolysis of molten NaCl, some waer was added. What will happen?
(A) Electrolysis will stop
(B) Hydrogen will be evolved
(C) Some amount of caustic soda will be formed
(D) A fire is likely
118. The order of equivalent conductance’s at infinite dilution for LiCl, NaCl and KCl is
(A) LiCl > NaCl > KCl (B) KCl > NaCl > LiCl
(C) NaCl > KCl > LiCl (D) LiCl > KCl > NaCl
119. At a particular temperature, the ratio of equivalent conductance to specific conductance if a

0.01 N NaCl solution is
(A) 105 cm3 (B) 103 cm3 (C) 10 cm3 (D) 105 cm2
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120. At temperature of 298K, the emf of the following electrochemical cell,
Ag (s) | Ag+ (0.1 M) || Zn2+ (0.1 M) | Zn (s)
Will be (Given, Eocell = –1.562 V)
(A) –1.532 V (B) –1.503 V (C) 1.532 V (D) –3.06 V
121. The quantity of electricity needed to separately electrolyze 1 M solution of ZnSO4, AlCl3 and
AgNO3 Completely is in the ratio of
(A) 2 : 3 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 : 3 (D) 2 : 2 : 1
122. The two half-cell reactions of an electrochemical cell is given as

Ag+ + e– 
→ Ag ; EoAg+ / Ag = –0.3995 V
Fe2+ 
→ Fe3+ + e– ; EFe
o
3+
/Fe2 +
= –0.7120 V
The value of cell EMF will be
(A) –0.3125 V (B) 0.3125 V (C) 1.114 V (D) –1.114 V
123. At 25°C, the molar conductance of 0.007 M hydrofluoric acid is 150 mho cm2mol–1 and its
∧mo = 500 mho cm2mol–1. The value of the dissociation constant of the acid at the given
concentration at 25°C is
(A) 7 × 10–4 M (B) 7 × 10–5 M (C) 9 × 10–3 M (D) 9 × 10–4 M
124. The formal potential of Fe3+ / Fe2+ in a sulphuric acid and phosphoric acid mixture
(E° = +0.61V) is much lower than the standard potential (E° = +0.77 V). (This is due to
(A) formation of the species [FeHPO4]+ (B) lowering of potential upon complexation
+
(C) formation of the species [FeSO4] (D) high acidity of the medium
125. The correct order of equivalent conductances at infinite dilution in water at room temperature
for H+, K+, CH3COO– and HO– ions is
(A) HO– > H+ > K+ > CH3COO– (B) H+ > OH– > K+ > CH3COO–
(C) H+ > K+ > OH– > CH3COO– (D) H+ > K+ > CH3COO– > OH–
126. A conductivity cell has been calibrated with a 0.01 M 1 : 1 electrolyte solution (specific
conductance, k = 1.25 × 10–3 S cm–1) in the cell and the measured resistance was 800 Ω at
25°C. The cell constant will be
(A) 1.02 cm–1 (B) 0.102 cm–1 (C) 1.00 cm–1 (D) 0.5 cm–1
127. Equivalent conductivity at infinite dilution for sodium-potassium oxalate [(COO–)2Na+K+] will be
[given molar conductivities of oxalate, K+ and Na+ ions at infinite dilution are 148.2, 50.1, 73.5
S cm2 mol–1 respectively]
(A) 271.8 S cm2 eq–1 (B) 67.95 S cm2 eq–1
(C) 543.6 S cm2 eq–1 (D) 135.9 S cm2 eq–1
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128. Li occupies higher position in the electrochemical series of metals as compared to Cu since
(A) the standard reduction potential of Li+/Li is lower than that of Cu2+/Cu
(B) the standard reduction potential of Cu2+/Cu is lower than that of Li+/Li
(C) the standard oxidation potential of Li+/Li is lower than that of Cu2+/Cu
(D) Li is smaller in size as compared to Cu
129. On passing C ampere of current for time ‘t’ sec through 1 L of 2 (M) CuSO4 solution (atomic
weight of Cu = 63.5), the amount ‘m’ of Cu (in gram) deposited on cathode will be
(A) m = Ct / (63.5 × 96500) (B) m = Ct / (31.25 × 96500)
(C) m = (C × 96500) / (31.25 × t) (D) m = (31.15 × C × t) / 96500
COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
130. Indicate the correct IUPAC name of the coordination compound shown in the figure.
NH3
NH3
Cl—Cr—NH3 Cl
Cl NH3
(A) Cis-dichlorotetraminochromium (III) chloride

(B) Trans-dichlorotetraminochromium (III) chloride
(C) Trans-tetraminedichlorochromium (III) chloride
(D) Cis-tetraamminedichlorochromium (III) chloride
131. The conductivity measurement of a coordination compound of cobalt (III) shows that it
dissociates into 3 ions in solution. The compound is
(A) hexaamminecobalt(III) chloride (B) pentaamminesulphatocobalt(II) chloride
(C) pentaamminechloridocobalt(III) sulphate (D) pentaaminechloridocobalt(III) chloride
132. Compounds with spin-only magnetic moment equivalent to five unpaired electrons are
(A) K4[Mn(CN)6] (B) [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 (C) K3[FeF6] (D) K4[MnF6]
133. Silver chloride dissolves in excess of ammonium hydroxide solution. The cation present in the
resulting solution is
(A) [Ag(NH3)6]+ (B) [Ag(NH3)4]+ (C) Ag+ (D) [Ag(NH3)2]+
134. The number of unpaired electrons in [NICl4]2–, Ni(CO)4 and [Cu(NH3)4]2+, respectively are
(A) 2, 2, 1 (B) 2, 0, 1 (C) 0, 2, 1 (D) 2, 2, 0
135. Metal ion responsible for the Minimata disease is

(A) Co2+ (B) Hg2+ (C) Cu2+ (D) Zn2+
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136. Amongst [Ni(H2O)6]2+, [Ni(PPh3)2Cl2] , [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN4)]2– the system)
(A) [NiCl4]2–, [Ni(H2O)6]2+, [Ni(PPh3)2Cl2] (B) [Ni(CO)4] , [Ni(PPh3)2Cl2] , [NiCl4]2–
(C) [Ni(CN)4]2–, [Ni(H2O)6]2+, [NiCl4]2– (D) [Ni(PPh3)2Cl2] , [Ni(CO)4] , [Ni(CN)4]2–
137. Addition of excess potassium iodide solution to a solution of mercuric chloride gives the halide
complex
(A) tetrahedral K2[Hgl4] (B) trigonal K[Hgl3]
(C) linear Hg2l2 (D) square planar K2[Hg2Cl2l2]
138. CO is practically non-polar since

(A) the σ-electron drift from C to O is almost nullified by the π-electron drift from O to C
(B) the σ-electron drift from O to C is almost nullified by the π-electron drift from C to O
(C) the bond moment is low
(D) there is a triple bond between C and O
CHEMICAL BONDING
139. Bond order of He2, He2+ and He22+ are respectively
1 1 1 1
(A) 1, ,0 (B) 0, ,1 (C) ,1,0 (D) 1,0,
2 2 2 2
140. A homonuclear diatomic gas molecule shows 2-electron magnetic moment. The one-electron
and two-electron reduced species obtained from above gas molecule can act as both
oxidising and reducing agents. When the gas molecule is one-electron oxidised the bond
length decreases compared to the neutral molecule. The gas molecule is
(A) N2 (B) Cl2 (C) O2 (D) B2
141. The melting point of (i) BeCl2 (ii) CaCl2 and (iii) HgCl2 follows the order
(A) i < ii < iii (B) iii < i < ii (C) i < iii < ii (D) ii < i < iii
142. Which of these species will have non-zero magnetic moment ?

(A) Na+ (B) Mg (C) F– (D) Ar+
143. The H—H—H angle in ammonia is 107.6°, while the H—P—H angle in phosphine, the p-
character of the lone-pair on ammonia is expected to be
(A) Less (B) More (C) Same (D) Cannot be predicted
144. Which of the following has the strongest H-bond?

(A) O–H … S (B) S–H … O (C) F–H … F (D) F–H … O
145. Which statements are correct for the peroxide ion?

(A) It has five completely filled anti-bonding molecular orbitals
(B) It is diamagnetic (C) It has bond order one
(D) It is iso-electronic with neon
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146. The shape of XeF5− will be
(A) Square pyramid (B) Trigonal bipyramidal
(C) Planar (D) Pentagonal bipyramid
147. The ground state magnetic property of B2 and C2 molecules will be

(A) B2 paramagneic and C2 diamagneic (B) B2 diamagneic and C2 paramagneic
(C) Both are diamagneic (D) Both are paramagneic
148. The boiling points of HF, HCl , HBr and HI follow the order
(A) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (B) HF > HI > HBr > HCl
(C) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (D) HCl > HF > HBr > HI
149. In the solid state, PCl5 exists as

(A) [PCl4]– and [PCl6]+ ions (B) Covalent PCl5 molecules only
(C) [PCl4]+ and [PCl6]– ions (D) Covalent P2Cl10 molecules only
150. The correct order of O–O bond length in O2, H2O2 and O3 is
(A) O2 > O3 > H2O2 (B) H2O2 > O3 > O2
(C) O3 > O2 > H2O2 (D) O3 > H2O2 > O2
151. The number of lone pairs of electrons on the central atoms of H2O, SnCl2, PCl5 an XeF2
respectively, are
(A) 2, 1, 1, 3 (B) 2, 2, 1, 3 (C) 3, 1, 1, 2 (D) 2, 1, 2, 3
152. In case of heteronuclear diatomic of the type AB, where A is more electronegatice than B,
bonding molecular orbital resembles the character of A more than that of B. The statements
(A) is false
(B) is true
(C) cannot be evaluated since data is not sufficient
(D) is true only for certain systems
153. The bond angle in NF3 (102.3°) is smaller than NH3 (107.2°). This is because of
(A) large size of F compared to H
(B) large size of N compared to F
(C) opposite polarity of N in the two molecules
(D) small size of H compared to N
154. The structure of XeF2 is experimentally determined to be distorted octahedron. Its structure
according to VSEPR theory is
(A) octahedron (B) trigonal bipyramid
(C) pentagonal bipyramid (D) tetragonal bipyramid
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155. In SOCl2, the Cl–S–Cl and Cl–S–O bond angles are
(A) 130° and 115° (B) 106° and 96°
(C) 107° and 108° (D) 96° and 106°
156. In O2 and H2O2, the O–O bond lengths are 1.21 and 1.48 Å respectively. In ozone, the
average O–O bond length is
(A) 1.28 Å (B) 1.18 Å (C) 1.44 Å (D) 1.52 Å
157. The ground state electronic configuration of CO molecule is

(A) 1σ2 2σ2 1π2 3σ2 (B) 1σ2 2σ2 3σ2 1π2 2π2
(C) 1σ2 2σ2 1π2 3σ2 2π2 (D) 1σ2 1π2 2σ2 2σ2
158. The increasing order of O––N––O bond angle in the species NO2, NO2+ and NO2– is
(A) NO2+ < NO2 < NO2– (B) NO2 < NO2– < NO2+
(C) NO2+ < NO2– < NO2 (D) NO2 < NO2+ < NO2–
159. The paramagnetic behaviour of B2 is due to the presence of

(A) two unpaired electrons in πb MO (B) two unpaired electrons in π* MO
(C) two unpaired electrons in σ* MO (D) two unpaired electrons in σb MO
160. The state of hybridization of the central atom and the number of lone pairs over the central
atom in POCl3 are
(A) sp, 0 (B) sp2, 0 (C) sp3, 0 (D) dsp2, 1
P-BLOCK ELEMENT
161. To a solution if a colourless efflorescent sodium salt, when dilute acid is added, a colourless
gas is evolved along with formation of a white precipitate. Acidified dichromate solution turns
green, when the colourless gas is passed through it. The sodium salt is
(A) Na2SO3 (B) Na2S (C) Na2S2O3 (D) Na2S4O6
162. SiO2 is attacked by which one/ones of the following ?

(A) HF (B) Conc. HCl (C) Hot NaOH (D) Fluorine
163. The reactive species in chlorine bleach is

(A) Cl2O (B) OCl– (C) CIO2 (D) HCl
164. Which of the following chemicals may be used to identify three unlabelled beakers containing
conc. NaOH, conc. H2SO4 and water ?
(A) NH4NO3 (B) NaCl (C) (NH4)2CO3 (D) HCOONa
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165. Cl2O7 is the anhydride of
(A) HOCl (B) HClO2 (C) HClO3 (D) HClO4
166. The main reason that SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed as compared to CCl4 is that
(A) Si–Cl bond is weaker than C–Cl bond
(B) SiCl4 can form hydrogen bonds
(C) SiCl4 is covalent
(D) Si can extend its coordination number beyond four
167. Which of the set of oxides are arranged in the proper order of basic, amphoteric, acidic?
(A) SO2, P2O5, CO (B) BaO, Al2O3, SO2
(C) CaO, SiO2, Al2O3 (D) CO2, Al2O3, CO
168. At room temperature, the reaction between water and fluorine produces
(A) HF and H2O2 (B) HF, O2 and F2O2
– +
(C) F , O2 and H (D) HOF and HF
169. White phosphorous P4 has the following characteristics

(A) 6P–P single bonds (B) 4P–P single bonds
(C) 4 lone pair of electrons (D) P–P–P angle of 60°
170. PbCl2 is insoluble in cold water. Addition of HCl increases its solubility due to
(A) formation of soluble complex anions like [PbCl3]–
(B) oxidation of Pb(II) to Pb(IV)
(C) formation of [Pb(H2O)6]2+
(D) formation of polymeric lead complexes
171. of the following compounds, which one is the strongest Bronsted acid in a aqueous solution?
(A) HClO3 (B) HClO2 (C) HOCl (D) HOBr
172. Nitrogen dioxide is not produced on heating

(A) KNO3 (B) Pb(NO3)2 (C) Cu(NO3)2 (D) AgNO3
173. The acid in which O–O bonding is present is

(A) H2S2O3 (B) H2S2O6 (C) H2S2O8 (D) H2S4O6
174. Sulphuryl chloride (SO2Cl2) reacts with white phosphorus (P4) to give
(A) PCl5, SO2 (B) OPCl3, SOCl2
(C) PCl5, SO2, S2Cl2 (D) OPCl3, SO2, S2Cl2
175. If Cl2 is passed through hot aqueous NaOH, the products formed have Cl in different oxidation
states. These are indicated as
(A) –1 and +1 (B) –1 and +5 (C) +1 and +5 (D) –1 and +3
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176. The hydrides of the first elements in groups 15-17, namely NH3, H2O and HF respectively
show abnormally high values for melting and boiling points. This is due to
(A) small size N, O and F
(B) the ability to form extensive intermolecular H-bonding
(C) the ability to form extensive intramolecular H-bonding
(D) effective van der Waal's interaction
177. Nitric and can be obtained from ammonia via the formations of the intermediate compounds
(A) nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide (B) nitrogen and nitric oxide
(C) nitric oxide and dinitrogen pentoxide (D) nitrogen and nitrous oxide
178. In diborane, the number of electrons that accounts for bonding in the bridges is
(A) six (B) two (C) eight (D) four
179. ‘Sulphan’ is
(A) a mixture of SO3 and H2SO5
(B) 100% conc. H2SO4
(C) a mixture of gypsum and conc. H2SO4
(D) 100% oleum (a mixture of 100% SO3 in 100% H2SO4)
180. For BCl3, AlCl3 and GaCl3 the increasing order of ionic character is
(A) BCl3 < AlCl3 < GaCl3 (B) GaCl3 < AlCl3 < BCl3
(C) BCl3 < GaCl3 < AlCl3 (D) AlCl3 < BCl3 < GaCl3
181. In borax the number of B––O––B links and B––OH bonds present are, respectively
(A) five and four (B) four and five
(C) three and four (D) five and five
182. On heating, chloric acid decomposes to

(A) HClO4, Cl2, O2 and H2O (B) HClO2, Cl2, O2 and H2O
(C) HClO, Cl2O and H2O2 (D) HCl, HClO, Cl2O and H2O
183. Silicon oil is obtained from the hydrolysis and polymerisation if

(A) trimetylchlorosilane and dimethyldichlorosilane
(B) trimetylchlorosilane and methyldichlorosilane
(C) metylchlorosilane and dimethyldichlorosilane
(D) trietylchlorosilane and dimethyldichlorosilane
184. The stable bivalency of Pb and trivalency of Bi is

(A) due to d contraction in Pb and Bi
(B) due to relativistic contraction of the 6s orbital’s of Pb and Bi, leading to inert pair effect
(C) due to screening effect
(D) due to attainment of noble liquid configuration
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METALLURGY
185. The reaction for obtaining the metal (M) from its oxide (M2O3) ore is given by
M2O3(s) + 2Al(l) 
Heat
→ Al2O3(l) + 2M(s), (s = solid, l = liquid) in that case, M is
(A) copper (B) calcium (C) iron (D) zinc
186. In the extraction of Ca by electro reduction of molten CaCl2 some CaF2 is added to the
electrolyte for the following reason:
(A) To keep the electrolyte in liquid state at temperature lower than the m.p. of CaCl2
(B) To effect precipitation of Ca
(C) To effect the electrolysis at lower voltage
(D) To increase the current efficiency
187. In the Bayer's process, the leaching of alumina is done by using

(A) Na2CO3 (B) NaOh (C) SiO2 (D) CaO
188. The role of fluorspar, which is added in small quantities in the electrolytic reduction of alumina
dissolved in fused cryolite is
(A) as a catalyst
(B) to make fused mixture conducting
(C) to lower the melting temperature of the mixture
(D) to decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon a anode
189. The metal which can be used to obtain metallic Cu form aqueous CuSO4 solution is
(A) Na (B) Ag (C) Hg (D) Fe
190. Extraction of gold (Au) involves the formation of complex ions X and Y.
Gold ore 
Rostigns
CN− ,H O, O
→ HO– + X →
Zn
Y + Au
2 2
X and Y respectively are

(A) Au(CN)2− and Zn(CN)24− (B) Au(CN)34− and Zn(CN)24−
(C) Au(CN)3− and Zn(CN)64 − (D) Au(CN)−4 and Zn(CN)3−
191. Roasted copper pyrite on smelting with sand produces

(A) FeSiO3 as fusible slag and Cu2S as matte
(B) CaSiO3 as fusible slag and Cu2O as matte
(C) Ca2(PO4)2 as fusible slag and Cu2S as matte
(D) Fe3(PO4)2 as fusible slag and Cu2S as matte
192. The ore chromite is

(A) FeCr2O4 (B) CoCr2O3 (C) CrFe2O4 (D) FeCr2O3
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193. The important advantage(s) of Lintz and Donawitz (L.D.) process for the manufacture of steel
is (are)
(A) the process is very quick (B) operating costs are low
(C) better quality steel is obtained (D) scrap iron can be used
CHEMICAL KINETICS
194. For a reaction 2A + B → P, when concentration of B alone is doubled, t1/2 does not change
and when concentrations of both A and B is doubled, rate increase by a factor of 4. The unit of
rate constant is,
(A) s–1 (B) L mol–1s–1 (C) mol L–1s–1 (D) L2mol–2s–1
195. Consider the following two first order reactions occurring at 298 K with same initial
concentration of A:
(1) A → B; rate constant, k = 0.693 min–1
(2) A → C; half-life, t1/2 = 0.693 min
Choose the correct option.
(A) Reaction (1) is faster than reaction (2).
(B) Reaction (1) is slower than reaction (2)
(C) Both reactions proceed at the same rate
(D) Since two different products are formed, rates cannot be compared.
196. The kinetic study of a reaction like vA → P at 300 K provides the following curve, where
concentration is taken in mol dm–3 and time in min.
r0:Initial rate
[A0] : Initial
concentration of A
r0
Slope=4.0
[A]0
Identify the correct order (n) and rate constant (k)
(A) n = 0, k = 4.0 mol dm–3min–1 (B) n = ½, k = 2.0 mol1/2 dm–3/2min–1
(C) n = 1, k = 8.0 min–1 (D) n = 2, k = 16.0 dm3 mol–1min–1
197. For the reaction A + 2B 

→ C, the reaction rate is doubled, if the concentration of A is
doubled. The rate is increased by four times when concentrations of both A and B are
increased by four times. The order of the reaction is
(A) 3 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 2
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198. The increase in rate constant of a chemical reaction with increasing temperature is (are) due
to the fact(s) that
(A) the number of collisions among the reactant molecules increases with increasing
temperature
(B) the activation energy of the reaction decreases with increasing temperature
(C) the concentration of the reactant molecules increases with increasing temperature
(D) the number of reactant molecules acquiring the activation energy increases with
increasing temperature
199. The rate of a certain reaction is given by, rate = k [H+]n

The rate increases 100 times when the pH changes from 3 to 1. The order (n) of the reaction
is
(A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 1.5
200. The correct statement regarding the following energy diagrams is
E E
Reactant Reactant
Product Product
Reaction M Reaction N
(A) Reaction M is faster and less exothermic than reaction N
(B) Reaction M is slower and less exothermic than reaction N
(C) Reaction M is faster and more exothermic than reaction N
(D) Reaction M is slower and more exothermic than reaction N
201. Acid catalysed hydrolysis of ethyl acetate follows a pseudo-first order kinetics with respect to
tester. If the reaction is carried out with large excess of ester, the order with respect to ester
will be
(A) 1.5 (B) 0 (C) 0.5 (D) 1
202. For a chemical reaction at 27°C, the activation energy is 600 R. The ratio of the rate constants
at 327°C to that of at 27°C will be
(A) 2 (B) 40 (C) e (D) e2
203. Consider the following reaction for 2NO2(g) + F2(g) 

→ 2NO2F(g). The expression for the
rate of reaction in terms of the rate of change of partial pressure of reactant and product is/are
1  dq(NO2 )  1  dq(NO2 ) 
(A) rate = −   (B) rate =
2  dt  2  dt 

1  dq(NO2F)  1  dq(NO2F) 
(C) rate = −   (D) rate =
2 dt  2  dt 

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204. Which one of the following is wrong about molecularity of a reaction?
(A) It may be whole number of fractional
(B) It is calculated from reaction mechanism
(C) It is the number of molecules of the reactants taking part in a single step chemical reaction
(D) It is always equal to the order of elementary reaction
IONIC EQUILIRBIUM
205. A solution is saturated with SrCO3 and SrF2. The [CO32–] is found to be 1.2 × 10–3 M. The
concentration of F– in the solution would be
(A) 3.7 × 10–6 M (B) 3.2 × 10–3 M (C) 5.1 × 10–7 M (D) 3.7 × 10–2 M
Given : Ksp(SrCO3) = 7.0 × 10–10, Ksp(SrF2) = 7.9 × 10–10
206. Which of the following mixtures will have the lowest pH at 298 K ?
(A) 10 mL 0.05 N CH3COOH + 5 mL 0.1 N NH4OH
(B) 5 mL 0.2 N NH4Cl + 5 mL 0.2 N NH4OH
(C) 5 mL 0.1 N CH3COOH + 10 mL 0.05 N CH3COONa
(D) 5 mL 0.1 N CH3COOH + 5mL 0.1 N NaOH
207. Dissolving NaCN in de-ionised water will result in a solution having

(A) pE < 7 (B) pE = 7 (C) pOH = 7 (D) pH > 7
208. The molar solubility (in mol L–1) of a sparingly soluble salt MX4 is ‘S’. The corresponding
solubility product is Ksp. Sin terms of ‘Ksp’ is given by the relation
1/ 4 1/5
K  K 
(A) S =  sp  (B) S =  sp 
 128   256 
(C) S = (256 Ksp)1/5 (D) S = (128 Ksp)1/4
209. In which of the following mixed aqueous solutions, pH = pKa at equilibrium?

(1) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COONa
(2) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
(3) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH
(4) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL of 0.1 M NH3
(A) (1) is correct (B) (2) is correct
(C) (3) is correct (D) Both (1) and (2) are correct
210. The ratio of volumes of CH3COOH 0.1 (N) to CH3COOHNa 0.1 (N) required to prepare a
buffer solution of pH 5.74 is (Given, pKa of CH3COOH is 4.74)
(A) 10 : 1 (B) 5 : 1 (C) 1 : 5 (D) 1 : 10
211. The pH of 10–4 M KOH solution will be

(A) 4 (B) 11 (C) 10.5 (D) 10
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212. At 25°C, the solubility product of salt of MX2 type is 3.2 × 10–8 in water. The solubility (in
mol/L) of MX2 in water at the same temperature will be
(A) 1.2 × 10–3 (B) 2 × 10–3 (C) 3.2 × 10–3 (D) 1.75 × 10–3
213. At 25°C, pH of a 10–8 M aqueous KOH solution will be

(A) 6.0 (B) 7.02 (C) 8.02 (D) 9.02
214. 1 × 10–3 mole of HCl is added to a buffer solution made up of 0.01 M acetic acid and 0.01 M
sodium acetate. The final pH of the buffer will be (given, pKa of acetic acid is 4.75 at 25°C)
(A) 4.60 (B) 4.66 (C) 4.75 (D) 4.8
215. A 100 mL 0.1 = (M) solution of ammonium acetate is diluted by adding 100 mL of water. The
pH of the resulting solution will be (pKa of acetic acid is nearly equal to pKb of NH4OH)
(A) 4.9 (B) 5.0 (C) 7.0 (D) 10.0
216. The number of acidic protons in H3PO3 are

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
217. 20 mL 0.1(N) acetic acid is mixed with 10 mL 0.1(N) solution of NaOH. The pH of the resulting
solution is (pKa of acetic acid is 4.74)
(A) 3.74 (B) 4.74 (C) 5.74 (D) 6.74
RADIOACTIVITY
218. The half-life period of 53I125 is 60 days. The radioactivity after 180 days will be
(A) 25% (B) 12.5% (C) 33.3% (D) 3.0%
219. Consider, the radioactive disintegration 82A

210
→B→C→ 82D
206
. The sequence of emission
can be
(A) β, β, β (B) α, α, β (C) β, β, γ (D) β, β, α
220. Which atomic species cannot be used as a nuclear fuel ?

233 235 239 238
(A) 92 U (B) 92 U (C) 94 U (D) 92 U
221. The half-life of C14 is 5760 years. For a 200 mg sample of C14, the time taken to change to 25
mg is
(A) 11520 year (B) 23040 year (C) 5760 year (D) 17280 year
64
222. The nucleus 29 Cu accepts an orbital electron to yield,
65 64 64 65
(A) 28 Ni (B) 30 Zn (C) 28 Ni (D) 30 Zn
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223. C6H5F18 is a F18 radio-isotope labelled organic compound. F18 decays by positron emission.
The product resulting on decay is
(A) C6H5O18 (B) C6H5Ar19 (C) B12C5H5F (D) C6H5O16
224. If radium and chlorine combine to form radium chloride, the compound would be
(A) half as radioactive as radium (B) twice as radioactive
(C) as radioactive as radium (D) not radioactive
225. An elements E loses one α and two β particles in three successive stages. The resulting
element will be
(A) an isobar of E (B) an isotone of E
(C) an isotope of E (D) E itself
226. During the emission of a position from a nucleus, the mass number of the daughter element
remains the same but the atomic number
(A) is decreased by 1 unit (B) is decreased by 2 units
(C) is increased by 1 unit (D) remains unchanged
227. β-emission is always accompanied by

(A) formation of antineutrino and α-particle (B) emission of α-particle and γ-ray
(C) formation of antineutrino and γ-ray (D) formation of antineutrino and positron
228. An atomic nucleus having low n/p ratio tries to find stability by
(A) the emission of an α-particle (B) the emission of a positron
(C) capturing an orbital electron (K-electron capture)
(D) emission of a β-particle
246
229. 98Cf was formed along with a neutron when as unknown radioactive substance was
bombarded with 6C12. The unknown substance was
(A) 91Pa234 (B) 90Th234 (C) 92U235 (D) 92U238
230. The values of ∆H and ∆S of certain reaction are –400 kJ mol–1 and –20 kJ mol–1 K–1
respectively. The temperature below which the reaction is spontaneous, is
(A) 100 K (B) 20°C (C) 20 K (D) 120°C
231. A piece of wood from an archaeological sample has 5.0 counts min–1 per gram of C-14, while
a fresh sample of wood has a count of 15.0 min–1 g–1. If half-life of C-14 is 5770 yr the age of
the archaeological sample is
(A) 8,500 yr (B) 9,200 yr (C) 10,000 yr (D) 11,000 yr
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232. The half-life for decay of 14
C by β-emission is 5730 yr. The fraction of 14
C decays, in a sample
that is 22920 yr old, would be
1 1 7 15
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 16 8 16
24
233. 11Na is radioactive and it decays to
(A) 9F20 and α-particles (B) 13Al24 and positron
(C) 11Na23 and neutron (D) 12Mg24 and β-particles
QUALITATIVE ANALYSIS
234. A copper coin was electroplated with Zn and then heated at high temperature until there is a
change in colour. What will be the resulting colour ?
(A) white (B) black (C) silver (D) golden
235. [X] + dil. H2SO4 

→ [Y] : Colourless, suffocating gas
[Y] + K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 

→ Green colouration of solution
Then, [X] and [Y] are

(A) SO32− , SO2 (B) Cl– , HCl (C) S2– , H2S (D) CO32− , CO2
236. When BaCl2 is added to an aqueous salt solution, a white precipitate is obtained. The anion
among CO32− , SO32− and SO24− that was present in the solution can be
(A) CO32− but not any of the other two (B) SO32− but not any of the other two
(C) SO24− but not any of the other two (D) Any of them
237. Which of the following solutions will um violet when a drop of lime juice is added to it?
(A) A solution of NaI (B) A solution mixture of KI and NaIO3
(C) A solution mixture of NaI and KI (D) A solution mixture of KIO3 and NaIO3
238. Compound X is tested and the results are shown in the table.
Test Result
Aqueous sodium hydroxide is Gas given off which turns damp
added then heated gently. red litmus paper blue.
Dilute hydrochloric acid is added Effervescence, gas given off
which turns lime water milky and
acidified K2Cr2O2 paper green.
Which ions are present in Compound X?

(A) Ammonium ions and sulphite ions (B) Ammonium ions and carbonate ions
(C) Sodium ions and carbonate ions (D) Ammonium ions and sulphate ions
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239. Consider the following salts :
NaCl, HgCl2, Hg2Cl2, CuCl2, CuCl and AgCl. Identify the correct set of insoluble salts in water.
(A) Hg2Cl2, CuCl, AgCl (B) HgCl2, CuCl, AgCl
(C) Hg2Cl2, CuCl2, AgCl (D) Hg2Cl2, CuCl, NaCl
240. Addition of sodium, thiosulphate solution to a solution of silver nitrate gives X as white
precipitate, insoluble in water but soluble in excess thiosulphate solution to give Y. On boiling
in water, Y gives Z. X, Y and Z respectively are
(A) Ag2S2O3, Na3[Ag(S2O3)2], Ag2S (B) Ag2SO4, Na[Ag(S2O3)2], Ag2S2
(C) Ag2S2O3, Na5[Ag(S2O3)3], AgS (D) Ag2SO3, Na3[Ag(S2O3)2], Ag2O
241. Cold ferrous sulphate solution on absorptions of NO develops brown colour due to the
formation of
(A) Paramagnetic [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]SO4 (B) diamagnetic [Fe(H2O)5(N3)]SO4
(C) Paramagnetic [Fe(H2O)5(NO3)][SO4]2 (D) diamagnetic [Fe(H2O)4(SO4)]NO3
242. Among the following observations, the correct one that differentiates between SO32− and SO24−
is
(A) both from precipitate with BaCl2, SO32− dissolves in HCl but SO24− does not
(B) SO32− from precipitate with BaCl2, SO24− does not
(C) SO24− from precipitate with BaCl2, SO32− does not
(D) both from precipitate with BaCl2, SO24− dissolves in HCl but SO32− does not
243. The different colours of litmus in acidic, neutral and basic solutions are, respectively.
(A) red, orange and blue (B) blue, violet and red
(C) red, colourless and blue (D) red, violet and blue
244. The reaction of nitroprusside anion with sulphide ion gives purple colouration due to the
formation of
(A) the tetranionic complex of iron (II) coordinating to one NOS– ion
(B) the dianoinic complex of iron (II) coordinating to one NOS– ion
(C) the trianoionic complex of iron (III) coordinating to one NOS– ion
(D) the tetranionic complex of iron (III) coordinating to one NOS– ion
245. The orange solid on heating gives a colourless gas and a green solid which can be reduced to
metal by aluminium powder. The orange and the green solids are, respectively
(A) NH4Cr2O7 and Cr2O3 (B) Na2Cr2O7 and Cr2O3
(C) K2Cr2O7 and CrO3 (D) (NH4)2CrO4 and CrO3
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246. In basic medium the amount of Ni2+ in a solution can be estimated with the dimethylglyoxime
reagent. The correct statement(s) about the reaction and the product is (are)
(A) in a ammoniacal solution Ni2+ salts give cherry-red precipitate of nickel(II)
dimethylglyoximate
(B) two dimethylglyoximate units are bound to one Ni2+
(C) in the complex two dimethylglyoximate units are hydrogen bonded to each other
(D) each dimethylglyoximate unit forms a six membered chelate ring with Ni2+
247. In the brown ring complex [Fe(H2O)5(NO)] SO4, nitric oxide behaves as
(A) NO+ (B) neutral NO molecule
(C) NO– (D) NO2–
MISCELLANEOUS
248. Identify the correct statement(s) :

(A) The oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 is +6.
(B) ∆H > ∆U for the reaction N2O4(g) → 2NO2(g), provided both gases behave ideally.
(C) pH of 0.1 N H2SO4 is less than that of 0.1 N HCl at 25°C.
 RT 
(D)   = 0.059 1 volt at 25°C
 F 
ENVIRNOMENTAL CHEMISTRY
249. Which of the following is present in maximum amount in ‘acid rain’?

(A) HNO3 (B) H2SO4 (C) HCl (D) H2CO3
250. Among the following, the one which is not a “green house gas”. is
(A) N2O (B) CO2 (C) CH4 (D) O2
D-BLOCK ELEMENT
251. Out of the following outer electronic configurations of atoms, the highest oxidation state is
achieved by which one?
(A) (n – 1)d8ns2 (B) (n – 1)d5ns2
(C) (n – 1)d3ns2 (D) (n – 1)d5ns1
252. Which of the following statements(s) is (are) correct when a mixture of NaCl ans K2Cr2O7 is
gently warmed with conc. H2SO4?
(A) A deep red vapour is evolved
(B) The vapour when passed through NaOH solution, gives a yellow solution
(C) Chlorine gas is also evolved
(D) Chromyl chloride is formed
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253. Cupric compounds are more stable than their cuprous counterparts in solid state. This is
because
(A) the endothermic character of the 2nd IP of Cu is not so high
(B) size of Cu2+ is less than Cu+
(C) Cu2+ has stabler electronic configuration as compared to Cu+
(D) the lattice energy released for cupric compounds is much higher than Cu+
254. When H2O2 is shaken with and acidified solution of K2Cr2O7 in the presence of ether, the
ethereal layer turns blue due to the formation of
(A) Cr2O3 (B) CrO24− (C) Cr2(SO4)3 (D) CrO5
F-BLOCK ELEMENT
255. The correct basicity order of the following lanthanide ions is

(A) La3+ > Lu3+ > Ce3+ > Eu3+ (B) Ce3+ > Lu3+ > La3+ > Eu3+
(C) Lu3+ > Ce3+ > Eu3+ > La3+ (D) La3+ > Ce3+ > Eu3+ > Lu3+
256. Which of the following statements regarding Lanthanides is false?

(A) All lanthanides are solid at room temperature
(B) Their usual oxidation state is +3
(C) They can be separated from one another by ion-exchange method
(D) Ionic radii of trivalent lanthanides steadily increases with increase in atomic number
S-BLOCK ELEMENT
257. Which of the following is least thermally stable?

(A) MgCO3 (B) CaCO3 (C) SrCO3 (D) BaCO3
258. Which of the following arrangements is correct in respect of solubility in water?

(A) CaSO4 > BaSO4 > BeSO4 > MgSO4 > SrSO4
(B) BeSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4
(C) BaSO4 > SrSO4 > CaSO4 > MgSO4 > BeSO4
(D) BeSO4 > CaSO4 > MgSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4
259. Match the flame colours of the alkaline earth metal salts in the Bunsen burner.
A. Calcium p. Brick red
B. Strontium q. Apple green
C. Barium r. Crimson
(A) A–p, B–r, C–q (B) A–r, B–p, C–q
(C) A–q, B–r, C–p (D) A–p, B–q, C–r
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260. The decreasing order of basic character of K2O, BaO, CaO and MgO is
(A) K2O > BaO > CaO > MgO (B) K2O > CaO > NaO > MgO
(C) MgO > BaO > CaO > K2O (D) MgO > CaO > BaO > K2O
261. Chlorine gas reacts with red hot calcium oxide to give
(A) bleaching powder and dichlorine monoxide
(B) bleaching powder and water
(C) calcium chloride and chlorine dioxide
(D) calcium chloride and oxygen
HYDROGEN
262. Which statement is not correct for ortho and para hydrogen?
(A) They have different boiling points
(B) ortho-form is more sable than para-form
(C) They differ in their nuclear spin
(D) The ratio of ortho to para hydrogen changes with change in emperature
ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (C)
6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (A)
11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (A)
16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (D)
26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (C) 30. (B)
31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (A)
36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (B) 40. (C)
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (B)
46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (C)
51. (A) 52. (D) 53. (C) 54. (B) 55. (D)
56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (A) 59. (D) 60. (D)
61. (C) 62. (B) 63. (C) 64. (C) 65. (D)
66. (A) 67. (B) 68. (D) 69. (A) 70. (B)
71. (B) 72. (B) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (A)
76. (BD) 77. (C) 78. (C) 79. (C) 80. (ABD)
81. (D) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (A) 85. (ACD)
86. (C) 87. (D) 88. (C) 89. (B) 90. (A)
91. (B) 92. (BC) 93. (C) 94. (C) 95. (B)
96. (D) 97. (B) 98. (B) 99. (B) 100. (A)
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101. (D) 102. (A) 103. (B) 104. (A) 105. (A)
106. (D) 107. (A) 108. (AC) 109. (A) 110. (C)
111. (ABD) 112. (-) 113. (D) 114. (C) 115. (B)
116. (D) 117. (BCD) 118. (B) 119. (A) 120. (A)
121. (A) 122. (B) 123. (D) 124. (ABD) 125. (B)
126. (C) 127. (D) 128. (A) 129. (D) 130. (D)
131. (D) 132. (BCD) 133. (D) 134. (B) 135. (B)
136. (A) 137. (A) 138. (A) 139. (B) 140. (C)
141. (B) 142. (D) 143. (A) 144. (C) 145. (BC)
146. (C) 147. (A) 148. (B) 149. (C) 150. (B)
151. (A) 152. (B) 153. (C) 154. (C) 155. (D)
156. (A) 157. (A) 158. (-) 159. (A) 160. (C)
161. (C) 162. (ACD) 163. (B) 164. (AC) 165. (D)
166. (D) 167. (B) 168. (C) 169. (ACD) 170. (A)
171. (A) 172. (A) 173. (C) 174. (A) 175. (B)
176. (B) 177. (A) 178. (D) 179. (D) 180. (C)
181. (A) 182. (A) 183. (A) 184. (B) 185. (C)
186. (A) 187. (B) 188. (BC) 189. (D) 190. (A)
191. (A) 192. (A) 193. (ACD) 194. (B) 195. (B)
196. (D) 197. (C) 198. (AD) 199. (C) 200. (C)
201. (B) 202. (C) 203. (AD) 204. (A) 205. (D)
206. (C) 207. (D) 208. (B) 209. (ABD) 210. (D)
211. (D) 212. (B) 213. (B) 214. (B) 215. (C)
216. (C) 217. (B) 218. (B) 219. (D) 220. (D)
221. (D) 222. (C) 223. (A) 224. (C) 225. (C)
226. (A) 227. (C) 228. (B) 229. (C) 230. (C)
231. (B) 232. (D) 233. (D) 234. (D) 235. (A)
236. (D) 237. (B) 238. (D) 239. (A) 240. (A)
241. (A) 242. (A) 243. (D) 244. (A) 245. (B)
246. (ABCD) 247. (A) 248. (AB) 249. (B) 250. (D)
251. (B) 252. (ABD) 253. (ABD) 254. (D) 255. (D)
256. (D) 257. (D) 258. (B) 259. (A) 260. (A)
261. (D) 262. (B)
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WBJEE MQB Physical Inorg Chemistry-20210701173850152602

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C HE M IS T RY

3. The number of unpaired electrons in the uranium (92U) atom is

5. Which one of the following electronic arrangements is absurd?

6. The quantity hv/KB corresponds to

7. Which of the following electronic configuration is not possible?

8. The number of unpaired electrons in Ni (atomic number = 28) are

10. If the given four electronic configurations.

12. Which one of the following corresponds to a photon of highest energy?

17. The electronic configuration of Cu is

19. (32Ge76, 34Se76) and (14Si30, 16S32) are examples of

20. Identify the correct statement.

30. The following equilibrium constants are given

36. Point out the false statements.

39. The mole fraction of ethanol in water is 0.08. Its molality is

41. Which of the following has the dimension if [ML0T–2] ?

46. Commercial sample of H2O2 is labelled as 10 V. Its % strength is nearly

55. Which of the following has the largest number of atoms ?

56. What will be the mass of one atom of 12C ?

59. How many moles of electrons will weigh one kilogram?

63. The system that contains the maximum number of atoms is

71. A gas can be liquefied at temperature T and pressure p provided

77. A van der Waal's gas may behave ideally when

80. For spontaneous polymerisation, which of the following is (are) correct ?

86. The condition for a reaction to occur spontaneously is

88. For the reaction, X2Y2(l) 

90. Given that

92. For a spontaneous process, the correct statement(s) is (are)

93. The change of entropy (dS) is defined as

97. The condition of spontaneity of a process is

100. Which of the following is correct?

103. The first electron affinity of C, N and O will be of the order

109. Which of the following is correct?

115. Given the standard half-cell potentials (E°) of the following as

(A) –0.35 V (B) +0.35 V (C) +1.17 V (D) –1.17 V

119. At a particular temperature, the ratio of equivalent conductance to specific conductance if a

122. The two half-cell reactions of an electrochemical cell is given as

(A) Cis-dichlorotetraminochromium (III) chloride

135. Metal ion responsible for the Minimata disease is

138. CO is practically non-polar since

142. Which of these species will have non-zero magnetic moment ?

144. Which of the following has the strongest H-bond?

145. Which statements are correct for the peroxide ion?

147. The ground state magnetic property of B2 and C2 molecules will be

149. In the solid state, PCl5 exists as

157. The ground state electronic configuration of CO molecule is

159. The paramagnetic behaviour of B2 is due to the presence of

162. SiO2 is attacked by which one/ones of the following ?

163. The reactive species in chlorine bleach is

169. White phosphorous P4 has the following characteristics

172. Nitrogen dioxide is not produced on heating

173. The acid in which O–O bonding is present is

182. On heating, chloric acid decomposes to

183. Silicon oil is obtained from the hydrolysis and polymerisation if

184. The stable bivalency of Pb and trivalency of Bi is

187. In the Bayer's process, the leaching of alumina is done by using

X and Y respectively are

191. Roasted copper pyrite on smelting with sand produces

192. The ore chromite is

197. For the reaction A + 2B 

199. The rate of a certain reaction is given by, rate = k [H+]n

200. The correct statement regarding the following energy diagrams is

203. Consider the following reaction for 2NO2(g) + F2(g) 

207. Dissolving NaCN in de-ionised water will result in a solution having